Ucu - BSN

TOPRANK DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION: NURSING PRACTICE 1
1. Nurse Aiyah is interested in the epidemiology of HIV. 8. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis arrived at the
This means that Nurse Aiyah is interested in which of community clinic for the start of his treatment. The
the following areas? community health nurse will include which of the
A. Causation of disease following instructions in her client teaching, considering
B. Transmission of disease that the client is classified under the DOTS Category I? *
C. Distribution of disease A. 1, 2 and 3
D. Most effective treatment regimen B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 3, and 4
2. A 18-year-old client arrived at the emergency D. You will all of these instruction
department with complaints of fatigue, night sweats and
weight loss in 6 weeks. After conducting an assessment
to the client, the physician suspects that the client has
been infected with HIV. Nurse Aiyah would anticipate the
physician to order for which of the following test to
confirm the diagnosis? 9. A client diagnosed with Grade IV DHF would most
A. CD4 count likely to manifest which of the following signs and
B. Western blot symptoms?
C. ELISA test A. Bleeding
D. Polymerase Chain reaction B. Herman’s sign
C. Shock
3. The 18-year-old client was shocked after hearing from D. washer woman’s hand
the physician that the test confirmed that he is infected
with HIV. While the client is in shock, Nurse Aiyah told 10. All of the following are not considered as the early
him that the part of the adaptive immunity is provided sign of Hansen's disease except:
by which type of cell? A. Loss of sensation
A. Monocytes B. Madarosis
B. Basophils C. Lagopthalmos
C. Neutrophils D. sinking of the nose bridge
D. Lymphocytes
11. What is the loading dose of Rifampicin for children
4. A nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with 10-14 yrs old classified as paucibacillary leprosy?
HIV. In order to adhere to standard precaution, she A. 50 mg daily
would most likely do which of the following? B. 100 mg daily
A. Maintain strict isolation C. 450 mg daily
B. Wear gloves when doing oral care D. 450 mg once a month
C. Keep the client in a private room, if possible
D. Wear gown when delivering food tray 12. What is the loading dose of Clofazimine for children
10-14 yrs old classified as multibacillary leprosy?
5. A nurse who had a needle-stick injury while caring for A. 300 mg once a month/50 mg daily
a client infected with HIV is required to receive an B. 450 mg once a month
Hepatitis B immune globulin to have an: C. 150 mg once a month/50 mg every other day
A. Artificial passive immunity D. 100 mg daily
B. Natural active immunity
C. Natural passive immunity 13. A nurse caring for an adult client classified as multi-
D. Artificial active immunity bacillary should orient the client that the duration of
treatment would likely be:
6. A nurse caring for a client diagnosed with Ague is A. 6 blister packs for a maximum period of 9
aware that the communicability period of the disease is: months.
A. 4 weeks to 6 weeks B. 6 blister packs for a maximum period of 18
B. Infective as long as gametocytes remain in months
the blood C. 12 blister packs for a maximum period of 9
C. 6 weeks to 12 weeks months
D. Infective as long as cercaria remains in the blood D. 12 blister packs for a maximum period of 18
months
7. What is the intermediate host of bilhariasis?
A. S. japonicum 14. Due to an increasing number of malaria cases in the
B. oncomelania quadrasi community, a community health nurse in coordination
C. S. manzoni with the barangay officials launch a malaria control
D. Wuchereria bancrofti program which focuses on mosquito control measures.
All of the following are included in the program except:
A. destruction of breeding places of the
Anopheles
This study source was downloaded by 100000879075626 from CourseHero.com on 01-13-2024 14:59:18 GMT -06:00
UCU – BSN
https://www.coursehero.com/file/170544196/NURSING-PRACTICE-1-1docx/
B. Stream seeding with larva eating fish C. rub an oil- based lotion on infant’s skin to
C. Stream clearing of breeding places prevent drying and cracking
D. Screening of houses/use of animal screen D. cover the infant’s eyes with protective patches
15. Which among the following signs and symptoms is a 22. Cognitive development is best presented in which of
manifestation of the pre-eruptive phase of morbilli? the following play activities?
A. Cough A. Puppetry
B. Coryza B. Pat-a-cake
C. Conjunctivitis C. Finger painting
D. All of the above D. Coloring
16. A nurse caring for a rabid client understands that 23. According to Jean Piaget's Cognitive Development
the client develops photosensitivity during which stage of Theory, children under the sensorimotor stage is
the disease? characterized the following except:
A. Invasive stage A. Reflexive behavior
B. Excitement stage B. Intentional reaching or grasping for an object
C. Paralytic stage C. Habitual, repetitive behavior
D. Incubation period D. Regarding inanimate objects as alive.
17. The nurse is conducting an APGAR scoring to a 24. At what ages does a child's gender identity is
newborn. Which among the following APGAR scores established? *
indicates that the newborn is adapting effectively in the A. 1 and 2
extrauterine life? B. 2 and 4
A. 1-minute, 2; 5- minute, 5 C. 4 ½ and 8
B. 1-minute, 4; 5- minute, 6 D. 8 and 10
C. 1-minute, 5; 5- minute, 7
D. 1-minute, 8; 5- minute, 9 25. Nurse Remy is caring for a 2-year-old child admitted
due to pneumonia. When planning for the child's play,
18. During an assessment to a newborn, the nurse she will choose which of the following toys to be able to
elicited the following findings; sole creases over the incorporate structural play into the child's daily routine?
anterior two thirds of the foot, 4 mm of breast tissue, A. Blocks
fine fuzzy hair, and some ear cartilage. According to the B. Beads to string
assessment findings, the nurse estimates that the infant C. Puzzles
is in which of the following gestational ages? D. Stuffed animals
A. 30 to 36 weeks
B. 36 to 38 weeks 26. In order to promote cognitive development during
C. 28 to 32 weeks play in a school-age child, the nurse should consider to
D. 41 to 42 weeks include which of the following activities?
A. Playing kickball
19. To meet the newborn's sensory need, the nurse B. Playing scrabble
should encourage the mother to do which of the C. Painting by numbers
following activities? D. Building a tree fort
A. stroking the infant’s body E. Other:
B. rocking the infant
C. singing to the infant 27. Which among the following measures should the
D. stroking the infant’s face nurse utilized in order to decrease the anxiety of a young
child who is admitted overnight for observation?
20. Non- shivering thermogenesis is a means of A. move quickly around the child.
increasing body temperature through? B. keep the child away from the center of activity.
A. increased muscle activity C. avoid using a night light.
B. metabolism of subcutaneous fat D. avoid making loud noises.
C. increased metabolic activity
D. metabolism of brown fats 28. Which developmental concept is most applicable to
an 18-month-old?
21. Phototherapy has been initiated for the baby to treat A. Separation anxiety
hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following nursing B. Stranger anxiety
intervention would be INAPPROPRIATE and could cause C. Egocentricity
injury to the infant? D. Distractibility
A. place the nurse infant in the solette 18 inches
from the photo-therapy light.
B. turn the infant every 2 hours
UCU – BSN
29. Based on Erik Erickson's developmental theory, an 36. All of the following are included in a pediatric
individual who failed to achieve his/her developmental nutritional assessment except:
task during adolescence may lead to: A. Dietary history
A. Inferiority B. Physical measurements
B. Isolation C. 24 hour-dietary recall
C. Role confusion D. Caloric test
D. Despair
37. While conducting Leopold's Maneuver to an
30. The school nurse is conducting a teaching program intrapartum client, the nurse determined that the fetus
among the Grade 6 students about the bodily changes is in a breech position. Based on this finding, the nurse
that occur during puberty. The nurse orients the group would auscultate for the fetal heart tone in which area?
that the average age of onset of puberty is: A. Above the umbilicus
A. 7 years B. Left lower abdomen
B. 12 years C. Below the umbilicus
C. 14 years D. Right lateral abdomen
D. 16 years
38. A new expectant mother arrived at the health clinic
31. The school nurse informs the group that during for an initial visit. The clinic nurse explained to the
puberty, the boys usually experience pubic hair growth pregnant mother that throughout her pregnancy, she will
that starts at the base of the: receive which of the following?
A. Scrotum A. Vitamin A
B. Penis B. Iron
C. Scrotum and penis C. Tetanus toxoid
D. Inguinal lymph glands D. all of the above
32. During the teaching program, the school nurse

defined primary amenorrhea as menarche delayed after 39. Before the pregnant mother leaves the health clinic,
the age of: the nurse teaches her the correct way of taking iron
A. 10 supplement every morning. The nurse can be assured
B. 12 that the teaching has been effective if the client told the
C. 15 nurse that she will:
D. 17 A. Drink iron plus calamansi juice.
B. Take it with banana plus dry crackers
33. Which among the following behaviors is usually C. Drink it early in the morning
observed among children in the early stage of D. take it with full stomach
adolescence?
A. Focuses much attention on body changes. 40. A nurse is providing client teaching to a 9 weeks
B. Forms close attachments to peers of the opposite primigravida client about different measures to cope with
sex. the common discomforts experienced during pregnancy.
C. Begins to develop formal, abstract thinking. The nurse is aware that the client successfully
D. Develops a sense of community awareness. understood the teaching when she made which of the
following statements?
34. All of the following are fears or fantasies of a A. “If I start to leak colostrums, I should cleanse
hospitalized child in the early stage of adolescence my nipples with soap and water.”
except: B. “If I have a vaginal discharge, I should wear
A. Loss of body control nylon underwear.”
B. Unattractiveness C. “Leg cramps can be alleviated if I put an ice pack
C. Death on the area.”
D. Sleepwalking D. “Nausea and vomiting can be decreased if I
eat a few crackers before arising.”
35. Two boys in the early teens come to the crisis center.
One says, “Can you help? Our friend is sick in the car.
We don’t know what’s wrong but he uses lots of stuff to 41. Which among the following exercises should the
feel better.” After bringing the client into the center, the nurse recommend to a 26 weeks primigravida client who
nurse judges that the client has most probably been told the nurse that she is experiencing lower backaches
using marijuana because his eyes when arriving at home from work?
A. are bloodshot. A. leg lifting
B. have dilated pupils. B. tailor sitting
C. have pinpoint pupils. C. shoulder circling
D. show rapid movement. D. squatting
UCU – BSN
42. There are factors that are considered in allowing a B. “I should expect not to be able to feel my
client to have a home delivery. Which among the contractions during the early latent phase of
following disqualifies a pregnant mother for a home labor.”
delivery? C. “My contractions will be mild, lasting for
A. Primipara approximately 30 seconds, and occurring
B. more than 5 pregnancies about every 10 minutes.”
C. Imminent delivery D. “I expect to be in the latent phase of labor for
D. full term only a short time.”
43. A primigravida client asked the nurse if she is 49. A nurse is assisting a multigravida client who is in
qualified for a home delivery. The most appropriate the active stage of labor. The client has an electronic fetal
response of the nurse would be: heart rate monitor in place which shows a deceleration
A. Yes pattern that mirrors the contractions while the client
B. No begins to push. Based on this observation, the nurse
C. Ask the doctor should:
D. maybe A. continue to monitor the client and fetus.
44. Clients who have Pregnancy Induced Hypertension B. turn the client to her left side.
commonly experiences the most classic sign of HPN C. ask the client to push in the squatting position.
which is: D. administer oxygen by mask at 8 liters
A. edema of the feet and ankles
B. edema of the hands and face 50. A nurse is assisting a client with class II cardiac
C. weight gain of 1 lb/week disease who is the the active stage of labor. The client
D. early morning headaches told the nurse that she wished to have an epidural
anesthesia for labor and delivery. The nurse immediately
45. All of the following are not manifestations of abruptio notified the anesthesiologist which then provided the
placentae except: client an explanation about the procedure and its
A. Bright, red, painless vagina bleeding potential complications. Which among the following
B. Concealed or external dark red bleeding statements when made by the client indicates a need for
C. Palpable fetal outline additional teaching?
D. Soft and non-tender abdomen A. “I may need to lie flat for 6 hours and drink
plenty of fluids after I deliver.”
46. A 28 weeks primigravida client arrives at the B. “Sometimes, the labor process is slower after the
emergency department having a premature labor. Upon epidural anesthesia is administered.”
assessment, the nurse noted a contractions occurring C. “If my bladder gets full, I may need to be
every 15 to 20 minutes, lasting 25 seconds and the catheterized.”
membranes are still intact. According to the assessment D. “The second stage of labor may be prolonged as
findings, the nurse most appropriate intervention would a result of the anesthesia.”
be:
A. place the client on bed rest on her left side. 51. The physician ordered for an intramuscular
B. obtain equipment for an amniotomy. administration of Promethazine (Phenergan) to a client in
C. prepare terbutaline in an intravenous solution. active labor. Prior to administering the medication the
D. request assistance from the neonatal nurse explained to the client that one of the effects of
resuscitation team this medication is:
A. increased fetal heart rate.
47. A nurse assisting an expectant mother during the B. decreased nausea and vomiting.
active stage of labor suspects that the client's C. invreased neonatal sucking reflex.
membranes are ruptured. The nurse can verify her D. increased blood pressure in the client.
suspicion by performing which assessment?
A. Observe for a pink, mucous vaginal discharge. 52. A client arrived at the emergency department in an
B. Test the leaking fluid with nitrazine paper. active stage labor. Immediately after a spontaneous
C. Assess the patient’s temperature, pulse, and rupture of membrane, the nurse noted a loop of
blood pressure. umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. The most
D. Send a urine specimen from the patient to be appropriate action of the nurse would be:
cultured. A. Administer oxygen
B. Notify the doctor
48. The nurse reviews the contractile patterns seen C. Document the deceleration
during the latent phase of labor. Which of the following D. Elevate the hips on two pillows.
statements made by the patient indicates that she
understood the teaching? 53. A nurse is conducting a health teaching program to
A. “My contractions should be very 2 to 3 minutes, the expectant mothers in the community. Included in the
lasting for 60 to 90 seconds, and will be strong.” teaching is the process that occurs during the
UCU – BSN
postpartum period wherein the uterus shrinks to its pre- C. a full bladder will cause diaphoresis and
pregnancy state which is called: therefore discomfort and pain
A. Involution D. a full bladder will rupture during palpation of
B. Puerperium the urine fundus after delivery
C. Uterine atony
D. Lochia rubra 59. A nurse who is conducting an assessment to a client
who is on the fifth day postpartum will expect to find
54. A nurse is to assess the client fundus 24 hours after which type of vaginal discharge?
delivery. Based on her knowledge about the normal A. Should have lochia alba
involution process, the nurse is aware that the client's B. Should have lochia serosa
fundus can be located: C. Should have lochia rubra
A. Midline, 1 cm. above the umbilicus. D. Should have lochia sanguineous
B. Midline, 1 cm below the umbilicus.
C. Deviated to the right, 2 cm above the umbilicus. 60. The nurse understands that a postpartum mother is
D. Midline, 3 cm below the umbilicus. experiencing postpartum blues when the client manifest
which of the following?
55. The nurse in the OB ward understands that A. crying, loss of appetite, constipation, abdominal
postpartum mothers often feel pain and cramping after pain and anxiety
giving birth due to the periodic relaxation and B. crying, despondency, loss of appetite,
contraction of the uterine muscle. The nurse is aware difficulty sleeping and anxiety
that the client who has the highest risk of experiencing C. crying, increased appetite, urinary retention,
severe postpartum pain would be: anxiety and fear of the unknown
A. A gravida 1 para 1001 patient who’s bottle D. crying, anorexia, polyuria, abdominal pain, and
feeding. anxiety
B. A gravida 2 para 2002 patient who’s breast-
feeding. 61. A nurse caring for a postpartum mother who
C. A gravida 3 para 1102 patient who’s bottle- frequently reviewing her labor and delivery experience is
feeding. aware that the client is in which period?
D. A gravida 2 para 1001 patient who’s breast- A. postpartum depression period
feeding. B. letting – go period
C. taking hold period
56. Which among the following instructions should the D. taking in period
nurse provide to a primipara client who delivered a
viable neonate vaginally 12 hours ago and who is 62. After the initial post-partum visit of a new mother in
diagnosed with class II heart disease? the health clinic, the clinic nurse remind the client to
A. remain on bed rest continuously return for her second post-partum visit which is
B. allow the nursing staff to assist her in baby scheduled when?
care. A. 4 weeks post-partum
C. avoid breast-feeding because this may cause B. 2 weeks post-partum
exertion on the heart C. 6 weeks post-partum
D. keep fluid intake to a minimum to avoid fluid D. First week post-partum
overload
63. When assessing for the client's episiotomy, the nurse
57. A nurse caring for a primipara client who is on the should especially assess for:
immediate postpartum period assessed the client's A. Discomfort and redness.
fundus using her both hands to: B. Discharge and odor.
A. promote uterine involution. C. Edema and approximation.
B. hasten the puerperium period. D. Swelling and color
C. prevent uterine inversion.
D. determine the size of the fundus. 64. A mother and her infant are being seen by the clinic
nurse. Which of the following will negatively influence
58. A student nurse who is having her first duty at the the mother’s transition to a parenting role with this
OB ward of a hospital noticed that the urine output of child?
postpartum mothers are often measured several days A. the child is characterized by the mother as being
after delivery. Based on what she learned from her “easier” than her first child.
maternal and child lecture, she is aware that the B. the child is a healthy baby.
rationale of this intervention is: C. the father was supportive of the mother during
A. a full bladder will displace the uterus and pregnancy.
may cause postpartum hemorrhage D. the mother complains that her husband
B. a full bladder will prolapse, causing a great deal allows his mother to make all the child care
of discomfort for the new mother decisions.
UCU – BSN
A. to gather information as to the general situation
of adopted barangay
65. A nurse is caring for a 30 year old multigravida client B. To inform the leaders of the importance of
who had a prolonged rupture of membranes that leads to training for basic health skills
the development of endometritis 36 hours after giving C. To gather necessary information about the
birth to a viable neonate. The client has an order to different areas best conforming criteria set
receive an antibiotic via intravenous route. After the D. To identify specific health problem of the
initiation of the antibiotic therapy, the nurse checked the community
client's vital sign and elicited a temperature of 100°F,
pulse rate of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 24 71. Social preparation phase in COPAR is said to be
breaths/ minute. Based on the elicited vital sign, the successful only when
nurse should: A. People learn to identify their own health
A. administer an analgesic as ordered. problem
B. provide the client with clear liquids. B. People starts to plan for solution of their health
C. monitor the vital signs every 4 hours. problems
D. contact the physician immediately. C. People are all set and ready to conduct formal
research
D. People are able to evaluate health projects
66. RA 7160 mandates devolution of basic services from
the national government to local government units. 72. It pertains to the description of the community's
Which of the following is the major goal of devolution? state of health as determined by its physical, economic,
A. To strengthen local government units political and social factors.
B. To allow greater autonomy to local government A. Community profile
units. B. Community organizing
C. To empower the people and promote their C. Community Research
self-reliance D. Community Diagnosis
D. To make basic services more accessible to the
people 73. All of the following are reasons that traverse the
community diagnosis as a process except:
67. Health promotion aims at which of the following A. Enables the nurse to adjust or alter the program
terminal output that defines promotion of effective for optimum effectiveness
participation mechanisms. B. Summarize the necessary information in the
A. Societal and Political Venture community
B. Community Involvement C. Allows the community to gradually become
C. Concrete Public Participation aware of its solution
D. all of the above D. An organized attempt to involve people in
recognizing and resolving problems.
68. Republic act no. 8749 also known as the “Philippine
Clean Air Act of 1999" aims to improve the 74. As a profile, community diagnosis should:
environmental conditions. Which among the following A. Present results and figures clearly
is/are included in the provision of this law. B. Attempt to involve people in recognizing
A. requiring use of unleaded gasoline in gasoline – problems
fed vehicles C. Enable the community to understand the
B. prohibiting the use of incinerators process of change.
C. making vehicular emission test a requirement for D. All of the above
vehicle registration
D. all of these are provision in R.A 8749 75. Which among the following does not represent the
purpose of a community diagnosis as a profile?
A. Summarize information
69. Which of the following activities are done at the Pre- B. An attempt to organized the community
entry phase of COPAR at the NGO level? C. Present results and figures clearly
D. Useful for planning and monitoring
76. The types of a community diagnosis may vary

according to the following except:
A. 1 and 2 A. Objectives or degree of detail or depth of
B. 1, 2 and 3 assessment
C. 3 and 4 B. Resources
D. All of them C. Time
D. Preferences of the nurse
70. In COPAR, preliminary social investigation is done to:
UCU – BSN
B. “Can you stop quarreling? We will be taking
77. It aims to obtain general information about the about more important things.”
community or a certain population group. C. “Stop it, you are doing harm to the baby.”
A. Community diagnosis D. “Is it alright if I’ll just come back some other
B. Comprehensive community diagnosis time?”
C. Problem-oriented community diagnosis
D. Generalized Comprehensive Community 83. A client diagnosed with syphilis went to the clinic for
diagnosis treatment. After the client has left, the nurse heard the
midwife sharing the matter to the mothers present at the
78. In order to improve the quality of health service clinic for prenatal checkup. The best thing the nurse can
delivery in the country, the Department of Health launch do is to:
the Sentrong Sigla Movement. Through its Certification A. Confirm the story to the mother
and Recognition Program or CRP, Sentrong Sigla B. Ignore the incident
recognizes local government units (LGUs) and certifies C. Explain to mothers that syphilis can be
health facilities that meet requirements and standards to treated
deliver quality services. Which among the following D. Make a denial
statements is/are true about this SSM?
A. All of these are true 84. The freezer of the refrigerator used in storing vaccine
B. This is a joint project of the Department of must have a temperature of: *
Health and Local Government Units A. +2 to + 8C
C. It encourages health centers to focus on health B. -2 to -8C
promotion C. +15 to + 25C
D. The DOH provides grants and technical D. -15 to -25C
assistance to a Sentrong Sigla
85. The vaccines that are considered as the most
79. One of the policies of thePhilippine Family Planning sensitive to heat are:
Program is freedom of choice. This is best presented by A. BCG, MEASLES, DP
which of the following statements? B. BCG, HEPA B, MEASLES
A. Providing adequate information regarding the C. BCG, HEPA B, DPT
different methods D. MEASLES, OPV
B. Making supplies for method of choice available
C. Providing quality family planning services 86. The body of the refrigerator used in storing vaccine
D. All of these indicate freedom of choice must have a temperature of: *
A. +2 to + 8C
80. Which of the following women should be considered B. -2 to -8C
as special targets for planning? C. +15 to + 25C
A. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 D. -15 to -25C
years
B. Those who have four children or more 87. The community health nurse is aware that the
C. Those who just had delivery within the past 19 vaccines that are considered as the least sensitive to
months heat are:
D. All of these are special targets A. BCG, MEASLES, DPT
B. BCG, HEPA B, MEASLES
81. Natural family planning is based on which of the C. BCG, HEPA B, DPT
following principles? D. MEASLES, OPV
A. Available methods of predicting ovulation are
inaccurate by about 2 days 88. Which of the following vaccines contains a diluent in
B. After ovulation, the lifespan of the ovum is about its package
72 hours A. BCG, MEASLES, DPT
C. The lifespan of sperms in the vagina is about 24 B. BCG, MEASLES
hours C. HEPA B, DPT
D. All of these are taken into account D. MEASLES, OPV
89. At which specific time should the BCG vaccine be

82. Nurse Alexia plans to conduct a home visit to a given?
couple to provide pre-natal teaching. Upon entering the A. 6 weeks
couple's house, Nurse Alexia learned that the couple is B. 9 months
having an argument. Which among the following C. Anytime after birth
statements should Nurse Alexia say? D. 1 month after birth
A. “Why are you quarreling? Tell me, so I can judge
who is at fault.”
UCU – BSN
90. The nurse understands the BCG is which type of D. Send an invitation for a training of community
preparation? health workers
A. Plasma derivative
B. Freeze dried 99. During an election time, one of the political
C. Weakened Toxin candidate ask the community health nurse to participate
D. Live attenuated in a free clinic which is a part of his campaign. The most
appropriate action of the community health nurse is to:
91. What is the dose set in giving BCG vaccine * A. Ask an apology for not participating and tell
A. 0.05 mg him that people can come to the health
B. 0.05 ml center anytime they need your services
C. 0.5 ml B. Verify first if candidate can give you a
D. 0.5 mg substantial professional fee
C. You like him, no questions asked and go!
92. At which specific time does DPT is administered? D. Wait until the rival candidate comes in and join
A. 6 weeks the one which you feel must win
B. 9 months
C. Anytime after birth 100. While conducting a health workers training, you
D. 1 month after birth found out that the participants brought with them their
young children because they have no one who will take
93. What is the preparation of TETANUS in DPT vaccine? care of their children while they are in the training. In
A. Plasma derivative order to prevent confusion during the training, your best
B. freeze dried action would be to:
C. Weakened Toxin A. Put all children in another room and have
D. live attenuated someone take care of them
B. Tell the participants to go home and have
94. A nurse is to administer DPT vaccine to a child. How someone take care of their children
many doses does the nurse need to administer? C. Let the children be, anyway, the participants
A. 0.05 mg have to take care of their young
B. 0.05 ml D. Postpone the training for a day when
C. 0.5 ml participants can come by themselves alone
D. 0.5 mg
95. At which specific time does measles vaccine is given?

A. 6 weeks
B. 9 months
C. Anytime after birth
D. 1 month after birth
96. What is the preparation of measles vaccine?

A. Plasma derivative
B. freeze dried
C. Weakened Toxin
D. live attenuated
E. Other:
97. Measles vaccine is given through which route?

A. I.D
B. I.M
C. SQ
D. P.O
98. Nurse Alexia, a newly arrived community health

nurse observed that the local herbolaria keeps on
snubbing her whenever they see each other. The
appropriate action the community health nurse should
do is:
A. Snub her as well and pretend she does not exist
B. Ask the midwife to fetch her and have a meeting
with her at the health center to clarify matters
C. Make a courtesy call by visiting her where
she lives
UCU – BSN
Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)

Ucu - BSN

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Ucu - BSN

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

TOPRANK DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION: NURSING PRACTICE 1

32. During the teaching program, the school nurse

76. The types of a community diagnosis may vary

89. At which specific time should the BCG vaccine be

95. At which specific time does measles vaccine is given?

96. What is the preparation of measles vaccine?

97. Measles vaccine is given through which route?

98. Nurse Alexia, a newly arrived community health

You might also like