FINAL REVISION 28

A. LISTENING
I. (Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer. (5 points)
1. What was damaged in the storm?
A. the car B. the glass of the window C. the roof of the house
2. Which train will the woman take?
A. 11.30 B. 12.45 C. 2.15
3. Which animals did the children see?
A. birds/monkeys/tigers B. horses/lions/tigers C. horses/birds/monkeys
4. How many books does the boy want to borrow now?
A. 3 B. 6 C. 2
5. What does the man want to buy?
A. a shirt B. a jacket C. a sweater
II. You will hear a girl asking for information about a summer job. Listen and complete
questions. (5 points)
Summer holiday job
Type of job: Farm worker
Time working day ends: 6. ……………………………………….
You need to be: 7. ………………………….. and careful.
You will earn: 8. £…………………… a week.
What you must pay for: 9. ……………………………….
Date work begins: 10. …………………………… May
III. You will hear a radio programme about some historic places to visit. For each question,
fill in the missing information in the numbered space. (5 points)
HISTORIC PLACES TO VISIT
Black Rock Caves
;Over 2 million years old
 For half a million years, people and animals, especially (0) ___tigers___ lived here.
 Special evening tours during the month of (11) _______________.
Salter House; Built in the year (12) ________Made famous by the television series called
Aunt Dorothy. All visitors want to see Dorothy’s (13) ________________
The Old Port: Have a ride on an old tram to the (14) _______________ village.
 In the factory, find out how people used to make (15) ________________.
IV. Tony talking to Lisa about a science club competition. Listen and circle the correct
answer. (5 points)
16. Which building will the competition be in?
A. the school B. the town hall C. the university D. the hotel
17. How has the team decided to get there? A. They will catch a bus B. They
will walk C. They will go on the underground D. They will go by coach.
18. The total number of questions in the quiz will be ________.
A. five B. fifteen C. twenty-five D. thirty-five
19. Tony’s favourite area of science is _______.
A. biology B. chemistry C. maths D. physics
20. Winners of the competition get ________.
A. T-shirts. B. cinema tickets. C. a box of chocolates D. boots
B. GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY- LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the answer which best fits the space in the following sentences. (10 points)
21. Analysts suggested the country __________its infrastructure to get foreign investment.
A. improve B. to improve C. improves D. improving
22. _______ hard it is, we’ll finish solving it before you come back.
A. No matter what B. How far C. No matter how D. Whichever
23. Last year, Matt earned..........................his brother
A. twice as much as B. twice as many as C. twice more than D. twice as more as
24. I do not mind your using my bike.................you take care of it
A. although B. for the fear that C. provided that D. unless
25. -“Do you mind if I take a seat?” - “_____________.”
A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please
26. "That's the 16th job interview I've failed. What should I do?" - "________."
A. Don't give over B. Don't give out C. Don't give up D. Don't give on
27. Making rice paper ______ jobs and income for many locals, help many families out of poverty
and become well-off. A. applies for B. creates C. keeps D. gets
28. He got an excellent grade in his examination ______ the fact that he had not worked particularly
hard. A. on account of B. because C. in spite of D. although
29. In the past, local ______ were chosen to make sophisticated embroidered costumes for the
Vietnamese King, Queen and other Royal family members.
A. skillful artists B. skilled artisans C. skill workers D. skillfully works
30. “Is it all right if I use your bike?” “________.”
A. I don’t want to use your bike B. Sure, go ahead
C. Sorry, no, I won’t do it D. Please accept it with my best wishes
31. “_________.” “Never mind, better luck next time.”
A. I’ve broken your precious vase B. I have a lot on my mind
C. I couldn’t keep my mind on work D. I didn’t get the vacant position.
32. “My father’s much better now.” -“___________.”
A. Oh, I’m pleased B. Oh, really? The doctor must be very good.
C. Good news for you D. Wonderful. Congratulations.
33. “Ok. I must be going now. I’ll be in touch.” “__________.”
A. Right. See you B. Ok. I’ll ring you C. I must be going to D. No, you can’t go now
34. Villagers are more kind, friendly and warm-hearted than city ________.
A. dwellers B. foreigners C. beginners D. movers
35. It _________ that 70 tons of dead fish washed ashore along more than 200 kilometers of Viet
Nam’s central coastline in early April.
A. was reported B. had reported C. had been reported D. were reported
36. I think that _________ lemonade juice on fish makes it taste better.
A. few B. a few C. little D. a little
37. He was completely _________ by the thief’s disguise.
A. taken away B. taken down C. taken in D. taken through
38. Tom told us that sometimes he had difficulty ________ his feelings.
A. expressing B. communicating C. sending D. talking
39. The policeman asked us _________. A. had any of us seen the accident happen. B. if had any of
us seen the accident happen. C. whether any of us had seen the accident happen. D. that if any of us
seen the accident happen
40. I wish you ________ stop interrupting me whenever I speak.
A. will B. would C. could D. might
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5 points).
41. I strongly ____________ with the director’s decision. I think it is unfair. (AGREE)
42. Such a war would be ____________ for the country. (DISASTER)
43. Floods and earthquakes are ____________ disasters. (NATURE)
44. Leonardo made many scientific ____________. (DISCOVER)
45. The ____________ of the employees have university degrees. (MAJOR)
III. Choose the underlined words or phrases in each sentence below that needs correcting.
46. If you are working with young children in a primary school, you will find part teaching
A B C
lively songs and rhymes are very popular.
D
47. Genetic engineering is helping researchers unravel the mysterious of previously incurable
A B
diseases so that they can get to its root causes and find cures.
C D
48. The students helped by the clear explanation that the teacher gave.
A B C D
49. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment
A B C
block in Kuala Lumpur last week.
D
50. Film can only be developed in a room that is totally darkness.
A B C D
C. READING I. What does each text say? Choose the correct explanation A, B, C or D.
51. Parking Form A. Register your car here by filling in this form.
Complete and place in lower B. Put this form in your car windscreen after filling it
left-hand corner of windscreen in.
Car registration ……………… C. Place the completed form at the top of your car
Date ……………… windscreen.
D. Fill in the registration and put it beside the
windscreen.
52. A. Each tour of the castle lasts less than two hours.
Allow at least two hours for B. You can spend nearly two hours visiting the castle.
your visit to the castle C. Visitors are only allowed to spend two hours inside
the castle.
D. Two hours is the minimum time recommended for a
visit to the castle
53. WATCH REPAIRS A. This shop will sell customers’ watches within twelve
Warning to Customers months.
All uncollected items will be B. This shop will keep customers’ watches for up to
sold after twelve months. twelve months.
C. This shop will look after customers’ watches for
more than twelve months.
D. Customers’ items can’t be sold in this shop.
54. A. Remove this food from the container before placing
The food in this container is in a microwave oven.
not suitable for cooking in a B. It is advisable to use a suitable container for cooking
microwave oven this food.
C. You should avoid putting this food in a microwave
oven.
D. This food can’t be cooked without a microwave
oven.
55. Hunter Museum closed From 15 September museum visitors
Re-opens 15 September A. will have to join a group.
Entry free B. will be free to go round alone.
Guided tours only C. will have to pay for a tour guide.
Book early D. will have to book early for the tours
II. Read the following passage and choose the best option for each blank .
Over the last century, there have been many significant changes in the way we live.
Obviously, it is difficult to (56) ______ the life of ancient people and the life of the people living in
the twenty-first century because so many changes have occurred. Even the changes that have (57)
______ over the last ten years are amazing. People in the past were not (58) ______ to travel such
long distances within such a short period of time. Nowadays, we have become very mobile. We
have fast and (59) ______ cars. In addition, more and more people travel by plane. Moreover, in the
past people had to work harder as they did not have (60) ______ and machines to make their work
easier. Today, most of the difficult and dangerous work is (61) ______ by computers and other
power machines. In the past (62) ______ of living were not as comfortable as they are now. Besides
many people could not afford (63) ______ appliances like a fridge or a vacuum cleaner because
those used to be luxurious goods. Another difference (64) ______ living now and in the past is the
fact that nowadays education is accessible to everyone. In the past men were mainly the only ones
educated and women were not (65) ______ into public or private schools.
56. A. predict B. discuss C. compare D. suppose
57. A. occurred B. considered C. expressed D. arranged
58. A. used B. able C. might D. capable
59. A. skillful B. difficult C. historical D. comfortable
60. A. rules B. tools C. teams D. ideas
61. A. thought B. played C. done D. seen
62. A. conditions B. performances C. stories D. conflicts
63. A. mobile B. physical C. bare-footed D. household
64. A. within B. among C. between D. behind
65. A. allowed b. attended C. agreed D. appeared
III. Read the following passages and choose the best answer to the questions. (10 points)
Commuting is the practice of travelling a long distance to a town or city to work each day,
and then travelling home again in the evening. The word commuting comes from commutation
ticket, a US rail ticket for repeated journeys, called a season ticket in Britain. Regular travellers are
called commuters. The US has many commuters. A few, mostly on the East Coast, commute by
train or subway, but most depend on the car. Some leave home very early to avoid the traffic jams,
and sleep in their cars until their office opens. Many people accept a long trip to work so that they
can live in quiet bedroom communities away from the city, but another reason is ‘white flight’. In
the 1960s most cities began to desegregate their schools, so that there were no longer separate
schools for white and black children. Many white families did not want to send their children to
desegregated schools, so they moved to the suburbs, which have their own schools, and where, for
various reasons, few black people live. Millions of people in Britain commute by car or train. Some
spend two or three hours a day travelling, so that they and their families can live in suburbia or in
the countryside. Cities are surrounded by commuter belts. Part of the commuter belt around London
is called the stockbroker belt because it contains houses where rich business people live. Some
places are becoming dormitory towns, because people sleep there but take little part in local
activities. Most commuters travel to and from work at the same time, causing the morning and
evening rush hours, when buses and trains are crowded and there are traffic jams on the roads.
Commuters on trains rarely talk to each other and spend their journey reading, sleeping or using
their mobile phones, though this is not popular with other passengers. Increasing numbers of people
now work at home some days of the week, linked to their offices by computer, a practice called
telecommuting. Cities in both Britain and the US are trying to reduce the number of cars coming
into town each day. Some companies encourage car pooling (called car sharing in Britain), an
arrangement for people who live and work near each other to travel together. Some US cities have a
public service that helps such people to contact each other, and traffic lanes are reserved for car-
pool vehicles. But cars and petrol/gas are cheap in the US, and many people prefer to drive alone
because it gives them more freedom. In Britain many cities have park-and-ride schemes, car parks
on the edge of the city from which buses take drivers into the centre.(Extracted from Oxford Guide
to British and American Culture, Oxford University Press, 2000)
66: Which of the following definitions of commuting would the author of this passage most
probably agree with?
A. Travelling for hours from a town or city to work in the countryside every day.
B. Travelling to work and then home again in a day within a rural district.
C. Using a commutation ticket for special journeys in all seasons of the year.
D. Regularly travelling a long distance between one’s place of work and one’s home.
67: The word “repeated” in paragraph 1 most probably means______.
A. buying a season ticket again. B. doing something once again.
C. saying something again. D. happening again and again.
68: The passage mentions that many Americans are willing to travel a long distance to work in
order to be able to live in ______.A. comfortable bedrooms B. quiet neighborhoods
C. city centres D. noisy communities
69: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Britain has considerably more commuters than the US.
B. The US has considerably more commuters than Britain.
C. Both the US and Britain have a great number of commuters.
D. Commuting helps people in the US and Britain save a lot of time.
70: Which of the following is NOT true about the London commuter belt?
A. It is home to some wealthy business people. B. It is like “bedroom communities” in the US. C. It
is in central London. D. It surrounds London.
71:It can be inferred from the passage that dormitory towns in Britain are places where
people______. A. contribute to the local community B. are employed locally
C. take part in local activities D. stay for the night
72: As mentioned in the passage, commuters usually______.
A. talk to each other during train journeys B. cause traffic congestion on the roads
C. go home from work at different hours D. go to work at different hours
73: The phrase “linked to” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. satisfied with B. connected to C. shared with D. related to
74: All of the following are measures to reduce the number of cars coming into town each day in the
US and/or Britain EXCEPT__A. car pooling/sharing B. traffic lanes for car pooling C.
park-and-ride schemes D. free car parks in the city centre
75: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to______.
A. travelling together B. car pool C. driving alone D. petrol/gas
IV. Read the following passage and write T (True) or F (False) for each statement.
London is the biggest city in Britain. More than 7 million people live and work there. It is one of
the most important cities in the world. It is a centre for business and for tourism. London consists of
three parts: The City of London, the East End and the West End. In the City of London there are
many banks, offices and Stocks Exchange. In the West End we can see many historical places,
parks, shops and theatres. It is the world of rich people and money. The East End is the district
where working people live and work. The Port of London is also there. You can have a very good
time in this city. You can visit different cinemas, theatres and museums. The “Odeon” is one of the
most famous cinemas of the country. The most famous museums are: The British Museum and the
Tate Gallery. There are many shops in London. Oxford Street is London’s main shopping centre.
People from all over the world buy clothes, shoes, toys and souvenirs there. The street is more than
a mile long. The best known departments are Selfridges and John Lewis. The largest park in London
is Hyde Park with Speaker’s Corner. Sit on the green grass and try England’s favorite food – fish
and chips.
True False
76. There are lots of theatres, parks and historical places in the City of
London.
77. The Port of London is in the East End of London.
78. Working people live and work in the West End of London.
79. People go to Oxford Street to buy clothes and souvenirs.
80. People from all over the world don’t buy clothes, shoes, toys and
souvenirs in London.
D. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it (5 points).
81. Foolishly, I paid all the money before collecting the goods
I paid all the money before ………………………………………………………………
82. It was difficult for me to stop laughing at Wendy’s letter.
I couldn’t help ……………………………………………………………………………
83. Follow these safety instructions or you may get burnt.
If you ……………………………………………………………………………………
84. No sooner had he been appointed to the post than the new director fell ill.
Immediately ……………………………………………………………………………..
85. It’s thought that the accident was caused by human error.
The accident is ……………………………………………………………………………
II. Your pen friend, David, wrote this email to you. Read the email and write a reply to him.
(10 points)
Dear Minh,
I hope you’re well, and having a great time, since all your exams are now over. I’m planning to
spend my next summer holidays in Vietnam. Could you recommend a place of interest in your
country? Tell me what I can do there and when it is best to come.
I’m looking forward to hearing from you.
Regards
David

III. Many children say that they like watching TV in their free time. Do you think that
watching TV is now good or bad for them? Write a paragraph about 150 words using the
ideas below and your own ideas to support your writing. (15 points)
Good Bad
 A great source of entertainment.  Cause health problem such as short-
sighted
 Learn more new things about the  Take time away from other activities
world. such as reading and outdoor activities.
 A enjoyable way to relax.  Make children violent by some TV
programmes.
 ……….  ………
A. LISTENING I. People are checking into a hotel. What do they have to do? Listen
and circle the correct answer among A, B or C. You will hear the recording TWICE.
(5points)
1. She has to _____________.
A. show a credit card B. fill out a registration C. show a driver’s license
form
2. He has to _____________.
A. show a passport B. show a company ID C. show a credit card
3. He has to _____________.
A. give a confirmation B. leave a deposit C. spell his last name
number
4. She has to _____________.
A. show a passport B. show a driver’s license C. show an airline ticket
5. He has to _____________.
A. show a credit card B. give a confirmation C. show a passport
number
II. You will hear a boy, Peter, telling his friend, Jessica, about a film he has made. Listen
and complete questions 6 to 10. You will hear the conversation TWICE. (5points).
Peter’s Film!

Website address: www.trick.films.co

Day can first see film: (6) _________________________

Name of film: (7) The _____________________
Subject of film: (8) a _______________________
Number of drawings to make film: (9) ________________________
How long film is: (10) ___________________ seconds.

III. You will hear someone on the radio talking about a music competition. Listen and
complete each questions from 11 to 15. You will hear the information TWICE. (5points).

RADIO 33 COMPETITIONS
 For students younger than: ____16 years old________
Date of competition: (11) ________________________ December
Place: (12) Town ____________________________
Starts at: (13) ___________________________ p.m
First price: (14) _______________________ ride.
For information phone: (15) Maggie ________________________

IV. You will hear a student called Sandra talking to her teacher about the draft of
proposal. She has written for the competition. Listen and choose the best word (A, B, C or
D) for the question from 16 to 20. You will hear the recording TWICE. (5points).
16. The tutor thinks that Sandra’s proposal
A. should be re – ordered in some parts. B. needs a contest page.
C. ought to include more information. D. needs to color the pictures.
17. The proposal would be easier to follow if Sandra A. inserted subheadings. B. used more
paragraphs. C. minded punctuation. D. shortened her sentences.
18. What was the problem with the formatting on Sandra’s proposal?
A. Separate points were not clearly identified. B. The headings were not always clear.
C. Page numbering was not used in an appropriate. D. The titles are too small.
19. Sandra became interested in visiting the Navajo National Park through
A. articles she read. B. travel brochures.
C. movies she saw as a child. D. photographs she found on the internet.
20. Which topics does Sandra agree to include in the proposal?
A. Climate change B. Field trip activities C. impact of tourism D. social history.

B. GRAMMAR-VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS (20 points)

I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. (10points)
21. We usually write to each other _______.
A. every two weeks B. every week twice C. two every week D.
None is correct
22. _______ many times I tell him, he always forgets to pass on phone messages.
A. Wherever B. Whatever C. Whenever D. However
23. It’s no use _______ a language if you don’t try to use it.
A. to learn B. learned C. learning D. learn
24. You have been reading for four hours. This book _______ be very interesting.
A. can B. might C. must D. should
25. There were 50 _______ in the talent contest.
A. competitors B. examinees C. customers D. interviewees
26. Hardly ________believes that.
A. anybody B. somebody C. everybody D. all
27. According to World Bank figures, 41 percent of Brazilians live in absolute _______.
A. poor B. poorer C. poorly D. poverty
28. All payments to the ICRC are _______ and are received as donations.
A. volunteer B. voluntary C. voluntarily D. voluntariness
29. Vitamin C _______ by the human body. It gets into the blood stream quickly.
A. absorbs easily B. is easily absorbing C. is easily absorbed D. adsorbed easily
30. We suggested that you _______ to the organization.
A. be admitted B. is admitted C. admitting D. are admitted
31. Before leaving camp, the Boy Scouts _______ the fire.
A. put out B. had been put out C. had putted out D. were put out
32. Last month I read a book about wild animals. This month _______ a recently published
historical novel.
A. I’ve read B. I’d been reading C. I’m reading D. I was reading
33. This job ________ working very long hours.
A. involves B. consists C. includes D. contains
34. I have so many routines that sometimes I feel ________ I am an automatic robot.
A. as if B. even if C. even though D. like
35. The children ________ to the zoo.
A. enjoyed take B. were enjoyed taking C. enjoyed being taken D.
enjoyed taking
36. Lucy: “Do you find it very interesting to travel alone?” - Sue: “________.”
A. Yes, you are welcome B. Never mind
C. No, not at all D. It’s exciting
37. Minh: “Do you mind if I borrow a chair?" - Hung: “_______. Do you need only one?"
A. I’m sorry B. Not at all C. Yes, I do D. Yes, I would
38. Lucy: “What a beautiful shirt you’re wearing!” - Sue: “________”
A. Thank you. It was made by my mother.B. Not at all
C. Of course. It is very expensive. D. Don’t mention it.
39. Man: "May I speak to the manager, please?" - Cleck: "__________."
A. Certainy B. Thanks C. Yes, I'd love to D. Well done
40. Hoa: “I think we should go to the park for change." - Nga: “_______."
A. I disagree B. I hope so C. Yes, we should D. I’m afraid not
II. Each of the following sentences has one mistake. Identify and correct it. (5points)
41. The warming of the Earth, which is primarily caused by the accumulation of gases, are
A B C
known as the greenhouse effect.
D
42. Dinosaurs are traditionally classified as cold-blooded reptiles, but recent evidence based
on
A B
eating habits, posture, and skeletal structural suggests some may have been warm-blooded.
C D
43. Foreign students who are doing a decision about which school to attend many not know
A B C
exactly where the choices are located.
D
44. Why don’t you get someone sending this letter for me?
A B C D
45. California has more land under irrigation than any another states.
A B C D
III. Provide the correct form of the words in brackets. (5points)
46. She was given _______ for a three-month visit to Asia. PERMIT
47. Although some societies are _______ undeveloped, their languages TECHNOLOGY
are very complex.
48. Her _______is so famous that many foreigners want to buy. EMBROIDER
49. Flowers are often _______ by bees as they gather nectar. FERTILE
50. I was so angry, I was absolutely _________. SPEECH

C. READING
I. What does each text say? Choose the correct explanation A, B, C or D. (5points)
51. A. There is no charge for students on
public transport.
B. No young people have to pay on public
transport.
C. Students can travel free only to and
from school.
D. Public trasport is cheaper for students.
52. A. You can get a ticket on the train.
B. You have to get a ticket in the station.
C. You must get a ticket before you go to
the station.
D. Ticket machines are at the station.
53.

Nicole tells Liam that they will

A. definitely go by plane and then train.
B. go by train instead of taking the plane.
C. take the train if they arrive by plane.
D. go by plane if they arrive by train.

54.
A. Cyclists should ride carefully here.
B. You must not ride bicycles here.
C. Only adults may ride bicycles here.
D. Only children may ride bicycles here.

55.
What does Louis want Jake to do?
A. phone him about his homework.
B. do all his homework for him.
C. do homework before going home.
D. do his homework with him.

II. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
You may think that everybody knows how to make friends, but for some people it isn't
so easy. (56)……… they want to be friends with others, they always seem to be alone.
Sadly, some of them get depressed (57)……… this. We wanted to find out how these
people can make friends, (58)……… we asked a group of 14-year-old what sort of people
they prefer. The most important thing, they said, is that they can get (59)……… with them.
They like to be friends with kind and generous people, who rarely get angry (60)………
others. They also like people who laugh at their jokes, and can tell (61) ……… stories, too.
They (62) ……… be interested in what the group does, and perhaps even think of (63)
……… new things to do. We also asked the group how not to make friends with them. Here
are some of the things they mention: always telling others what they (64)……… to do,
telling lies about people, and talking about themselves (65)……… the time!
56. A. Although B. Even C. Despite D. However
57. A. for B. about C. of D. under
58. A. since B. because C. so D. as
59. A. on B. down C. back D. in
60. A. to B. against C. with D. by
61. A. amused B. cheerful C. smiling D. funny
62. A. can B. ought C. need D. should
63. A. annoying B. exciting C. embarrassing D. disappointing
64. A. have B. could C. may D. must
65. A. most B. all C. every D. only
III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer. (10points)
Centuries ago, man discovered that removing moisture from food helped to preserve
it, and that the easiest way to do this was to expose the food to sun and wind. In this way the
North American Indians produced pemmican (dried meat ground into power and made into
cakes), the Scandinavians made stock fish and the Arabs dried dates and apricots.
All foods contains water – cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 90%
water, potatoes and other root vegetales 80%, lean meat 75% and fishing anything from 80%
to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria
which cause food to bad is checked.
Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and other Mediterrannean countries,
and also in California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the
fruit is spread out on trays in drying yards in hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears,
peaches and apricots are exposed to the funes of burning sulphur before drying. Plum for
making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in
a alkaline solution in order to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax
coating, so increasing the rate of drying.
Nowadays most of foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such
dehydration is to put food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of
about 1100oC at entry to about 450oC at exit. This is usual method for drying such things as
vegetables, minced meat, and fish.
Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a
heated horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current
of hot air passes. In the first case, the dried material is scaped off the roller as a thin film
which is then broken up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In the second
process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable pieces of
meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then
mixed.
Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans of
frozen, and they do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons, they are
invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space. They
are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to cook them.
(From Practical Faster Reading by Gerald Mosback and Viven Mosback, CUP)
66. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Mechanization of drying foods. B. Water: the main component of food.
C. Advantages of dried foods. D. Different methods of drying foods.
67. The phrase “do this” in the first paragraph mostly means ___A. moisten foods. B.
expose foods to sun and wind C. remove moisture from foods. D. produce pemmican.
68. The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. put a tick B. reduced considerably C. motivated to develop D. examined carefully
69. In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help ______
A. crack their skin B. kill of bacteria C. remove their wax coating D. maintain their
color
70. Nowadays the common methods fro drying vegetables and minced meat is ______.
A. spreading them out on trays in drying yards. B. dipping them in alkaline solution
C. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through D. pouring them over a heated
horizontal stell cyclider
71. What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to?
A. Foods B. Chambers C. Things D. Vegetables
72. The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be
_____.
A. dried soup B. recognizable pieces C. fine powder D. small flakes
73. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passages?
A. Liquids are not dried in the same way as fruit and vegetables.
B. People in Indian began to use drying methods centuries ago.
C. Dried foods have several advantages over canned or frozen foods.
D. Fruit is usually dried by being laid out on trays in the sun.
74. According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for ______.
A. people who are on the move B. explorers who are underweight C. housewives who have
little storage space D. soldiers who are not in battle.
75. This passage is mainly __A. informative B. fictional C. argumentative D. analytical
IV. Read the text and decide if each sentence is True or False(5points)
Godophin and Latymer school for girls is a private school in Hamersmith, West
London. It was originally a boys’ school, but became a girls’ school in the early 1900s. The
girls didn’t wear a uniform. At that time, the school had twelve classrooms, and assembly
hall, a library, a cookery room, a gymnasium, and three science laboratories for chemistry,
physics and botany. The school had its own playing field, described as “lungs of
Hammersmith”, where the girls could play hockey, tennis, basketball and cricket. Now there
is a studies room, a language laboratory, a pottery room, a new gymnasium and an ecology
garden, a workshop and darkroom, and art studios. There are also improved facilities for
music and dramma. The playing field was recently converted into an all-weather surface for
hockey and tennis.
True False
76. Godolphin and Latymer school for girls is a public school in London.
77. The school had over three hundred students in 1906.
78. Nowadays all students of the school have to wear a uniform.
79. The school doesn’t have new facilities for science and technology.
80. Students can play tennis or hockey in the playing field in all kinds of
weather.
 D. WRITING (30 points) I. Finish each of the following sentences .
81. David is proud of the fact that he is never late.
⇨ David prides..................................................................................................
82. Do you have any scarves? I’m looking for one that’s woolen, green and long.
⇨ I’m looking for a...........................................................................................
83. Do you ever regret not going to university?
⇨ Do you ever wish..........................................................................................?
84. Everyone thought that Helen had missed the plane.
⇨ Helen.............................................................................................................
75. He could not beat Raphael because she was not patient enough.
⇨ Had he...........................................................................................................
II. Write a letter (10points)
Your Singaporean pen pal, Marry, is going to visit Viet Nam for a week this summer.
She has written to you. Read her letter and write a letter (about 80 – 100 words) to answer
her.

Dear Thanh Mai,

How is everything? My parents have agreed to let me come to Viet Nam this
summer. I am going to stay in your country for a week. So, please tell me about the
best time I should go? Where can I stay? What should I bring along? Where should I
go when I am in Viet Nam? And what can I do?
Write to me soon.
Your friend,
Marry
III. (15points) In 150 - 180 words, write a paragraph on the following topic:
What are some life skills that school students need nowadays?

A. LISTENING
Part 1. Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer (5 points)
1. What are the speakers talking about?
A. The topics of their English papers
B. How to do research at the library
C. A report for their history class
D. Why they have so much homework
2. What is the girl going to do tomorrow morning?
A. Have a meeting with her teacher
B. Give her homework to Mr. Patterson
C. Complete her homework assignment
D. Introduce her mother to Mr. Patterson
3. What are the speakers mainly discussing?
A. Where the girl lives
B. How the girl will get home
C. What time school finishes
D. What the boy’s parents do
4. What does the teacher suggest about the girl?
A. She needs to act better in class.
B. Her attitude is getting better.
C. She does not pay attention to him.
D. Her test scores have not improved.
5. What is the purpose of the announcement?
A. To provide some information about the science fair
 B. To encourage the students to turn in their topics
C. To tell the students about last year’s science fair winner
D. To warn the students about forgetting to submit a topic
Part 2. You will hear a man making a telephone call. Listen and complete the questions (5 points).

Message
To: Diana

From: Ian

Name of hotel: (6).........................................

Address: (7).......................................Street

Meeting starts at: (8).................................................

Bring: (9)..............................................................................

Visit factory on: (10).............................................................

Part 3. You will hear a teacher talking about a camping trip. For each question, fill in the missing
information in the numbered space (5 points).
CAMPING
Coach leaves school at (11)................................on Monday morning
Bring:
* one bag or case
* a (12) ............................... ;
* warm clothes
* (13) ............................... things
* pocket money to spend on souvenirs and (14) ...............................
Catch a bus outside (15) ............................... to Southport.
Part 4. Listen to a teacher talking in a science class and choose the correct answer (5 points).
16. What is the main topic of this class?
A. Evaporation
B. The water cycle
C. The condensation of water
D. The stages of precipitation
17. How many parts are there to the water cycle?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
18. In which stage are clouds formed?
A. Collection
B. Evaporation
C. Precipitation
D. Condensation
19. What are the different types of precipitation?
A. Water
B. Rain and air
C. Snow, rain and ice
D. Snow, hail, and rain
20. Why does the teacher mention that the day's lesson is on the water cycle?
A. To help them take a test on it
B. To see if they know it already
C. To introduce the lecture's topic
 D. To explain why the water is important
B. GRAMMAR-VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.
Part 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence (10 points).
21. Those students waste time ________ games online.
A. playing B. to play C. play D. are playing
22. Nam is good at English, ________ his brother has difficulty in learning it.
A. however B. yet C. whereas D. Despite
23. - "I’ll take you to the airport if you want"
- "________"
A. Please don’t do that B. I’d rather you not
C. Really? That would be great. D. I’ll take your ideas into consideration
24. This car is twice as expensive ________ our car.
A. than B. like C. as D. alike

25. -“You don’t work at weekend, do you?”

- "________ "
A. Yes, I don’t B. No problem C. Of course not D. Never mind
26. - “I don’t think I’ll ever understand algebra!”. - "________ "
A. It’s stupid of you. B. Don’t worry. Your parents have known nothing about it.
C. Just take their advice. D. Just keep on trying.
27. - “Are you leaving?”. - "________ "
A. Yes, but I wish I didn’t have to go B. Don’t disturb me.
C. Let’s leave the things behind. D. Yes, don’t worry. I’ll find the way out.
28. - " I haven't heard a word from Linda yet" - " Well, she will call you ________"
A. when she will need you B. when she should need you
C. when she needed you D. when she needs you
29. I _____ breakfast when the phone rang.
A. had B. have C. is having D. was having
30. I think John _____ translate this document.
A. have to B. will have C. has D. will have to
Part 2. Each of the following sentences has one mistake. Identify and correct it (5 points).
31. Doctors believe there is better in this modern world of ours to try to prevent illnesses than to rely on
A B C
medicines to cure them.
D
32. Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name is called.
A B C D
33. The amount of women earning Master's Degrees has risen sharply in recent years
A B C D
34. Lack of sanitation in restaurants are a major cause of disease in some areas of the country.
A B C D
35. When he was a college student, he learned to play tennis, to ski, and swimming.
A B C D
Part 3. Provide the correct form of the words in brackets (5 points).
36. Nobody wants to wear that kind of dress as it is (fashion) ___________.
37. Fishing is his (relax) ________.
38. He is very generous and everyone admires his (SELF) ________ .
39 - What she did was so (SHOCK)_______ that I can hardly describe it..
40. Work is going to (strong) ________ the bridge which carries a great deal of traffic.
C. READING
Part 1. Read the text in each question. What does it say? Choose the best explanation for each text (5
points).
41.

A. Accident patients are not admitted here.

B. The emergency department is closed.
C. This hospital only accepts accident patients.
D. Contact this hospital in an emergency
42.

A. You will have to pay if the doctor visits your home.

B. The doctor will visit you in hospital if necessary.
C. You can call the doctor out if you are seriously ill.
D. The doctor can only visit you during the day.

43.

A. Musicians must not play here.

B. Musicians will not be paid.
C. Musicians can leave instruments here.
D. Musicians must keep their instruments with them.

44.

A. This shop has just opened and jobs are available.

B. The shop will need extra staff when it opens.
C. The shop will open late because of job interviews.
D. The shop is opening for longer and needs extra staff.

45.
A. No parking here for the hospital.
B. Drive slowly to avoid patients.
C. Only patients may park here.
D. Try not to wake patients.

Part 2. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space
(10 points).
Helping Mount Everest
Mount Everest – the highest peak in the Himalayas-is in serious (46)______. An international effort is needed to
(47)_____ its natural features and the life it supports.
Recently, an environmental team decided to explore the mountain to (48)_____ exactly what was happening.
They found that places which used to be (49)_____ in ice are now under water, that there are fewer trees and
animals, and that a lot of garbage has been left on the mountain.
There are several (50)_____ for these changes. Industries around the world keep producing gases that
(51)_______ the climate warmer, which melts the ice on Mount Everest. (52)_____ , the number of tourists on the
mountain is now very high. People seem to think that nothing they do makes a difference on such a huge mountain,
(53)_______ they cut down trees for campfires and leave a lot of garbage around.
Efforts are being (54)_____ to replace lost trees, especially those which take a long time to grow. For example, a
general message to the tourists (55)_____ using faster-growing trees and plants to make campfires. As for the
garbage, tour groups have also promised to clean up their camps.
46. A. trouble B. problem C. argument D. interest
47. A. hold B. keep C. restore D. preserve
48. A. find out B. find C. look for D. make out
49. A. shaded B. covered C. sunk D. left
50. A. reasons B. causes C. problems D. reasoning
51. A. do B. cause C. make D. lead
52. A. In addition to B. Also C. Therefore D. Consequently
53. A. so B. because C. although D. despite
54. A. made B. done C. taken D. brought
 55. A. suggests B. begins C. advises D. says
Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (10 points).
American Idol premiered in the winter of 2002. It appeared on TV for the first time in January 2002. At that
time, there were no reality TV shows. All TV channels showed movies or TV series. The people from the channel
ABC wanted to do something different. They thought the audience was bored with the regular TV shows. People
did not want to watch shows with doctors, lawyers or policemen anymore. So ABC came up with a new type of
show.
American Idol is a reality TV show. There are no real actors or actresses in it. The stars are ordinary people
like you and me. The audience really identified with these stars. They felt very close to them. The show was an
instant hit. It was very successful and popular from the beginning. ABC was very happy about it. Usually, a new
show would cost a lot of money. The producers had to pay both the actors and the writers. But with American Idol
it was not the case. These ordinary people did not have to be paid at all. They were happy just to be seen on TV.
Besides, the show didn’t need any writers. The people on the show just sang and gave interviews
The idea behind American Idol is very simple. Three judges tour the country in search of the next music star.
They travel all around America and listen to young people sing. Then they choose the best singers and bring
them to Hollywood. Here the contestants have to pass a few more singing tests. The best 12 people in the competition
go on to the final round. They perform live on TV every Tuesday night. The judges give their opinion after each
performance. But the audience gets to vote on who to keep in the competition. People can vote by phone or through text
messaging. The singer with the lowest number of votes is eliminated each week. He has to leave the
competition for good. The rest go on singing until only two people remain. After the final night, the most popular
singer becomes the American Idol.
So far, there have been 4 American Idols. They all sold a lot of records. But the most popular of all former
Idols is first-time winner Kelly Clarkson. She is a rock and pop star and has won a Grammy Award for her latest
album. Two of the other Idols sing more jazz and soul music. Last year’s Idol was a country singer.
56. It can be inferred that before 2002
A. Reality TV shows were popular B. There were no reality TV shows
C. Movies were only shown in the cinema D. People couldn't see TV series
57. Why did the people from the channel ABC want to produce reality TV shows?
A. They thought the audience was bored with the regular TV shows
B. People were keen on shows about famous people.
C. It was expensive to make regular TV shows.
D. There were not enough movies or TV shows.
58. All the following sentences are true about reality TV shows EXCEPT
A. No real actors or actresses appear in the shows.
B. Ordinary people take part in reality TV shows.
C. Reality TV shows were not expensive to make.
D. Ordinary people were not happy when took part in the shows.
59. Look at paragraph 2. What is the difference between American Idol and the TV shows mentioned at the end
of paragraph 1?
A. Nobody ever watched regular TV shows. B. Regular TV shows were more expensive to make.
C. Regular TV shows did not appear on ABC. D. Regular TV shows were not ordinary.
60. Why was American Idol so successful?
A. It was expensive to make. B. It did not use regular television stars.
C. It had a lot of singing in it. D. It had very famous writers.
61. In what order do the following happen?
A. Hollywood round, live TV, judges’ opinion, audience voting
B. Judges’ opinion, Hollywood round, live TV, audience voting
C. Hollywood round, judges’ opinion, live TV, audience voting
D. Hollywood round, live TV, audience voting, judges’ opinion
62. What can be inferred about the competition?
A. The competition can give momentum to career development.
B. The winner gets an award and prize money.
C. The live audience decides who gets on to the final round.
D. Each contestant has more than 20 percent chance of winning the competition
63. What kind of record does the first idol winner make?
A. Rock B. Jazz C. Soul D. Country
64. What kind of music did last year's Idol sing?
A. rock B. jazz C. pop D. country
65. What is the topic of this reading passage?
A. An American Idol B. A reality TV show
C. A live dancing competition D. A popular entertainment festival
Part 4. Read the text and decide if each sentence is True or False (5 points).
 Norwich, the capital of the part of Britain, known as East Anglia, has existed as a place to live for more than
two thousand years. It began as a small village beside the River Wensum. At the time of the Norman invasion in
1066 it had grown to become one of the largest towns in England.
With two cathedrals and a mosque, Norwich has long been a popular centre for various religions. The first
cathedral was built in 1095 and has recently celebrated its 900th anniversary, while Norwich itself had a year of
celebration in 1994 to mark the 800th anniversary of the city receiving a Royal Charter. This allowed it to be
called a city and to govern itself independently.
Today, in comparison with places like London or Manchester, Norwich is quite small, with a population of
around 150,000, but in the 16th century Norwich was the second city of England. It continued to grow for the
next 300 years and got richer and richer, becoming famous for having as many churches as there are weeks in
the year and as many pubs as there are days in the year.
Nowadays, there are far fewer churches and pubs, but in 1964 the University of East Anglia was built in
Norwich. With its fast- growing student population and its success as a commerciaI centre (Norwich is the
biggest centre for insurance services outside London), the city now has a wide choice of entertainment: theatres,
cinemas, nightclubs, busy cafes, excellent restaurants, and a number of arts and leisure centres.
66. People have lived by the River Wensum for at least 2000 years.
67. In the 11th century, Norwich was a small village.
68. Norwich has been a city since its first cathedral was built.
69. Norwich has always been one of the smallest English cities.
70. The number of students in Norwich is increasing.
D. WRITING
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it (5 points).
71. Is it necessary for me to confirm my reservation?
- Do I …………………… …………………………..?
72. It was such a stale cake that nobody wanted to eat it.
- The cake was ………………………….
73. My uncle has never been abroad before.
- It is ………………………………
74. They continued to play despite the heavy rain.
- They continued to play ……………….
75. It is often said that Shakespeare never revised anything he wrote.
- Shakespeare ………………………
Part 2. (10 points).This is part of a letter you received from an English friend:
"Do you like playing games on the computer? What else do you use the computer for?"
Write a letter to him and answer his questions. You should write about 80-100 words.

Begin and end your letter as follows:

Dear Harry,

..........................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
Phong
Part 3 (15 points). Write a paragraph of about 100-120 words on the following topic:
“”What are the benefits of playing sports?”

A. LISTENING
I. (Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer. (5 points)
1. What was damaged in the storm?
A. the car B. the glass of the window C. the roof of the house
2. Which train will the woman take?
A. 11.30 B. 12.45 C. 2.15
3. Which animals did the children see?
A. birds/monkeys/tigers B. horses/lions/tigers C. horses/birds/monkeys
4. How many books does the boy want to borrow now?
 A. 3 B. 6 C. 2
5. What does the man want to buy?
A. a shirt B. a jacket C. a sweater
II. You will hear a girl asking for information about a summer job. Listen and complete
questions. (5 points)
Summer holiday job
Type of job: Farm worker
Time working day ends: 6. ……………………………………….
You need to be: 7. ………………………….. and careful.
You will earn: 8. £…………………… a week.
What you must pay for: 9. ……………………………….
Date work begins: 10. …………………………… May
III. You will hear a radio programme about some historic places to visit. For each question,
fill in the missing information in the numbered space. (5 points)
HISTORIC PLACES TO VISIT
Black Rock Caves
;Over 2 million years old
 For half a million years, people and animals, especially (0) ___tigers___ lived here.
 Special evening tours during the month of (11) _______________.
Salter House; Built in the year (12) ________Made famous by the television series called
Aunt Dorothy. All visitors want to see Dorothy’s (13) ________________
The Old Port: Have a ride on an old tram to the (14) _______________ village.
 In the factory, find out how people used to make (15) ________________.
IV. Tony talking to Lisa about a science club competition. Listen and circle the correct
answer. (5 points)
16. Which building will the competition be in?
A. the school B. the town hall C. the university D. the hotel
17. How has the team decided to get there? A. They will catch a bus B. They
will walk C. They will go on the underground D. They will go by coach.
18. The total number of questions in the quiz will be ________.
A. five B. fifteen C. twenty-five D. thirty-five
19. Tony’s favourite area of science is _______.
A. biology B. chemistry C. maths D. physics
20. Winners of the competition get ________.
A. T-shirts. B. cinema tickets. C. a box of chocolates D. boots
B. GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY- LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the answer which best fits the space in the following sentences. (10 points)
21. Analysts suggested the country __________its infrastructure to get foreign investment.
A. improve B. to improve C. improves D. improving
22. _______ hard it is, we’ll finish solving it before you come back.
A. No matter what B. How far C. No matter how D. Whichever
23. Last year, Matt earned..........................his brother
A. twice as much as B. twice as many as C. twice more than D. twice as more as
24. I do not mind your using my bike.................you take care of it
A. although B. for the fear that C. provided that D. unless
25. -“Do you mind if I take a seat?” - “_____________.”
A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please
26. "That's the 16th job interview I've failed. What should I do?" - "________."
A. Don't give over B. Don't give out C. Don't give up D. Don't give on
27. Making rice paper ______ jobs and income for many locals, help many families out of poverty
and become well-off. A. applies for B. creates C. keeps D. gets
28. He got an excellent grade in his examination ______ the fact that he had not worked particularly
hard. A. on account of B. because C. in spite of D. although
29. In the past, local ______ were chosen to make sophisticated embroidered costumes for the
Vietnamese King, Queen and other Royal family members.
A. skillful artists B. skilled artisans C. skill workers D. skillfully works
30. “Is it all right if I use your bike?” “________.”
A. I don’t want to use your bike B. Sure, go ahead
C. Sorry, no, I won’t do it D. Please accept it with my best wishes
31. “_________.” “Never mind, better luck next time.”
A. I’ve broken your precious vase B. I have a lot on my mind
C. I couldn’t keep my mind on work D. I didn’t get the vacant position.
32. “My father’s much better now.” -“___________.”
A. Oh, I’m pleased B. Oh, really? The doctor must be very good.
C. Good news for you D. Wonderful. Congratulations.
33. “Ok. I must be going now. I’ll be in touch.” “__________.”
A. Right. See you B. Ok. I’ll ring you C. I must be going to D. No, you can’t go now
34. Villagers are more kind, friendly and warm-hearted than city ________.
A. dwellers B. foreigners C. beginners D. movers
35. It _________ that 70 tons of dead fish washed ashore along more than 200 kilometers of Viet
Nam’s central coastline in early April.
A. was reported B. had reported C. had been reported D. were reported
36. I think that _________ lemonade juice on fish makes it taste better.
A. few B. a few C. little D. a little
37. He was completely _________ by the thief’s disguise.
A. taken away B. taken down C. taken in D. taken through
38. Tom told us that sometimes he had difficulty ________ his feelings.
A. expressing B. communicating C. sending D. talking
39. The policeman asked us _________. A. had any of us seen the accident happen. B. if had any of
us seen the accident happen. C. whether any of us had seen the accident happen. D. that if any of us
seen the accident happen
40. I wish you ________ stop interrupting me whenever I speak.
A. will B. would C. could D. might
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5 points).
41. I strongly ____________ with the director’s decision. I think it is unfair. (AGREE)
42. Such a war would be ____________ for the country. (DISASTER)
43. Floods and earthquakes are ____________ disasters. (NATURE)
44. Leonardo made many scientific ____________. (DISCOVER)
45. The ____________ of the employees have university degrees. (MAJOR)
III. Choose the underlined words or phrases in each sentence below that needs correcting.
46. If you are working with young children in a primary school, you will find part teaching
A B C
lively songs and rhymes are very popular.
D
47. Genetic engineering is helping researchers unravel the mysterious of previously incurable
A B
diseases so that they can get to its root causes and find cures.
C D
48. The students helped by the clear explanation that the teacher gave.
A B C D
49. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment
A B C
block in Kuala Lumpur last week.
D
50. Film can only be developed in a room that is totally darkness.
A B C D
C. READING I. What does each text say? Choose the correct explanation A, B, C or D.
51. Parking Form C. Register your car here by filling in this form.
Complete and place in lower D. Put this form in your car windscreen after filling it
left-hand corner of windscreen in.
Car registration ……………… C. Place the completed form at the top of your car
Date ……………… windscreen.
D. Fill in the registration and put it beside the
windscreen.
52. E. Each tour of the castle lasts less than two hours.
Allow at least two hours for F. You can spend nearly two hours visiting the castle.
your visit to the castle G. Visitors are only allowed to spend two hours inside
the castle.
H. Two hours is the minimum time recommended for a
visit to the castle
53. WATCH REPAIRS E. This shop will sell customers’ watches within twelve
Warning to Customers months.
All uncollected items will be F. This shop will keep customers’ watches for up to
sold after twelve months. twelve months.
G. This shop will look after customers’ watches for
more than twelve months.
H. Customers’ items can’t be sold in this shop.
54. E. Remove this food from the container before placing
The food in this container is in a microwave oven.
not suitable for cooking in a F. It is advisable to use a suitable container for cooking
microwave oven this food.
G. You should avoid putting this food in a microwave
oven.
H. This food can’t be cooked without a microwave
oven.
55. Hunter Museum closed From 15 September museum visitors
Re-opens 15 September E. will have to join a group.
Entry free F. will be free to go round alone.
Guided tours only G. will have to pay for a tour guide.
Book early H. will have to book early for the tours
II. Read the following passage and choose the best option for each blank .
Over the last century, there have been many significant changes in the way we live.
Obviously, it is difficult to (56) ______ the life of ancient people and the life of the people living in
the twenty-first century because so many changes have occurred. Even the changes that have (57)
______ over the last ten years are amazing. People in the past were not (58) ______ to travel such
long distances within such a short period of time. Nowadays, we have become very mobile. We
have fast and (59) ______ cars. In addition, more and more people travel by plane. Moreover, in the
past people had to work harder as they did not have (60) ______ and machines to make their work
easier. Today, most of the difficult and dangerous work is (61) ______ by computers and other
power machines. In the past (62) ______ of living were not as comfortable as they are now. Besides
many people could not afford (63) ______ appliances like a fridge or a vacuum cleaner because
those used to be luxurious goods. Another difference (64) ______ living now and in the past is the
fact that nowadays education is accessible to everyone. In the past men were mainly the only ones
educated and women were not (65) ______ into public or private schools.
56. A. predict B. discuss C. compare D. suppose
57. A. occurred B. considered C. expressed D. arranged
58. A. used B. able C. might D. capable
59. A. skillful B. difficult C. historical D. comfortable
60. A. rules B. tools C. teams D. ideas
61. A. thought B. played C. done D. seen
62. A. conditions B. performances C. stories D. conflicts
63. A. mobile B. physical C. bare-footed D. household
64. A. within B. among C. between D. behind
65. A. allowed b. attended C. agreed D. appeared
III. Read the following passages and choose the best answer to the questions. (10 points)
Commuting is the practice of travelling a long distance to a town or city to work each day,
and then travelling home again in the evening. The word commuting comes from commutation
ticket, a US rail ticket for repeated journeys, called a season ticket in Britain. Regular travellers are
called commuters. The US has many commuters. A few, mostly on the East Coast, commute by
train or subway, but most depend on the car. Some leave home very early to avoid the traffic jams,
and sleep in their cars until their office opens. Many people accept a long trip to work so that they
can live in quiet bedroom communities away from the city, but another reason is ‘white flight’. In
the 1960s most cities began to desegregate their schools, so that there were no longer separate
schools for white and black children. Many white families did not want to send their children to
desegregated schools, so they moved to the suburbs, which have their own schools, and where, for
various reasons, few black people live. Millions of people in Britain commute by car or train. Some
spend two or three hours a day travelling, so that they and their families can live in suburbia or in
the countryside. Cities are surrounded by commuter belts. Part of the commuter belt around London
is called the stockbroker belt because it contains houses where rich business people live. Some
places are becoming dormitory towns, because people sleep there but take little part in local
activities. Most commuters travel to and from work at the same time, causing the morning and
evening rush hours, when buses and trains are crowded and there are traffic jams on the roads.
Commuters on trains rarely talk to each other and spend their journey reading, sleeping or using
their mobile phones, though this is not popular with other passengers. Increasing numbers of people
now work at home some days of the week, linked to their offices by computer, a practice called
telecommuting. Cities in both Britain and the US are trying to reduce the number of cars coming
into town each day. Some companies encourage car pooling (called car sharing in Britain), an
arrangement for people who live and work near each other to travel together. Some US cities have a
public service that helps such people to contact each other, and traffic lanes are reserved for car-
pool vehicles. But cars and petrol/gas are cheap in the US, and many people prefer to drive alone
because it gives them more freedom. In Britain many cities have park-and-ride schemes, car parks
on the edge of the city from which buses take drivers into the centre.(Extracted from Oxford Guide
to British and American Culture, Oxford University Press, 2000)
66: Which of the following definitions of commuting would the author of this passage most
probably agree with?
A. Travelling for hours from a town or city to work in the countryside every day.
B. Travelling to work and then home again in a day within a rural district.
C. Using a commutation ticket for special journeys in all seasons of the year.
D. Regularly travelling a long distance between one’s place of work and one’s home.
67: The word “repeated” in paragraph 1 most probably means______.
A. buying a season ticket again. B. doing something once again.
C. saying something again. D. happening again and again.
68: The passage mentions that many Americans are willing to travel a long distance to work in
order to be able to live in ______.A. comfortable bedrooms B. quiet neighborhoods
C. city centres D. noisy communities
69: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Britain has considerably more commuters than the US.
B. The US has considerably more commuters than Britain.
C. Both the US and Britain have a great number of commuters.
D. Commuting helps people in the US and Britain save a lot of time.
70: Which of the following is NOT true about the London commuter belt?
A. It is home to some wealthy business people. B. It is like “bedroom communities” in the US. C. It
is in central London. D. It surrounds London.
71:It can be inferred from the passage that dormitory towns in Britain are places where
people______. A. contribute to the local community B. are employed locally
C. take part in local activities D. stay for the night
72: As mentioned in the passage, commuters usually______.
A. talk to each other during train journeys B. cause traffic congestion on the roads
C. go home from work at different hours D. go to work at different hours
73: The phrase “linked to” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. satisfied with B. connected to C. shared with D. related to
74: All of the following are measures to reduce the number of cars coming into town each day in the
US and/or Britain EXCEPT__A. car pooling/sharing B. traffic lanes for car pooling C.
park-and-ride schemes D. free car parks in the city centre
75: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to______.
A. travelling together B. car pool C. driving alone D. petrol/gas
IV. Read the following passage and write T (True) or F (False) for each statement.
London is the biggest city in Britain. More than 7 million people live and work there. It is one of
the most important cities in the world. It is a centre for business and for tourism. London consists of
three parts: The City of London, the East End and the West End. In the City of London there are
many banks, offices and Stocks Exchange. In the West End we can see many historical places,
parks, shops and theatres. It is the world of rich people and money. The East End is the district
where working people live and work. The Port of London is also there. You can have a very good
time in this city. You can visit different cinemas, theatres and museums. The “Odeon” is one of the
most famous cinemas of the country. The most famous museums are: The British Museum and the
Tate Gallery. There are many shops in London. Oxford Street is London’s main shopping centre.
People from all over the world buy clothes, shoes, toys and souvenirs there. The street is more than
a mile long. The best known departments are Selfridges and John Lewis. The largest park in London
is Hyde Park with Speaker’s Corner. Sit on the green grass and try England’s favorite food – fish
and chips.
True False
76. There are lots of theatres, parks and historical places in the City of
London.
77. The Port of London is in the East End of London.
78. Working people live and work in the West End of London.
79. People go to Oxford Street to buy clothes and souvenirs.
80. People from all over the world don’t buy clothes, shoes, toys and
souvenirs in London.
D. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it (5 points).
81. Foolishly, I paid all the money before collecting the goods
I paid all the money before ………………………………………………………………
82. It was difficult for me to stop laughing at Wendy’s letter.
I couldn’t help ……………………………………………………………………………
83. Follow these safety instructions or you may get burnt.
If you ……………………………………………………………………………………
84. No sooner had he been appointed to the post than the new director fell ill.
Immediately ……………………………………………………………………………..
85. It’s thought that the accident was caused by human error.
The accident is ……………………………………………………………………………
II. Your pen friend, David, wrote this email to you. Read the email and write a reply to him.
(10 points)
Dear Minh,
I hope you’re well, and having a great time, since all your exams are now over. I’m planning to
spend my next summer holidays in Vietnam. Could you recommend a place of interest in your
country? Tell me what I can do there and when it is best to come.
I’m looking forward to hearing from you.
Regards
David

III. Many children say that they like watching TV in their free time. Do you think that
watching TV is now good or bad for them? Write a paragraph about 150 words using the
ideas below and your own ideas to support your writing. (15 points)
Good Bad
 A great source of entertainment.  Cause health problem such as short-
sighted
 Learn more new things about the  Take time away from other activities
world. such as reading and outdoor activities.
 A enjoyable way to relax.  Make children violent by some TV
programmes.
 ……….  ………
A. LISTENING I. People are checking into a hotel. What do they have to do? Listen
and circle the correct answer among A, B or C. You will hear the recording TWICE.
(5points)
1. She has to _____________.
A. show a credit card B. fill out a registration C. show a driver’s license
form
2. He has to _____________.
A. show a passport B. show a company ID C. show a credit card
3. He has to _____________.
A. give a confirmation B. leave a deposit C. spell his last name
number
4. She has to _____________.
A. show a passport B. show a driver’s license C. show an airline ticket
5. He has to _____________.
A. show a credit card B. give a confirmation C. show a passport
number
II. You will hear a boy, Peter, telling his friend, Jessica, about a film he has made. Listen
and complete questions 6 to 10. You will hear the conversation TWICE. (5points).
Peter’s Film!

Website address: www.trick.films.co

Day can first see film: (6) _________________________

Name of film: (7) The _____________________
Subject of film: (8) a _______________________
Number of drawings to make film: (9) ________________________
How long film is: (10) ___________________ seconds.

III. You will hear someone on the radio talking about a music competition. Listen and
complete each questions from 11 to 15. You will hear the information TWICE. (5points).

RADIO 33 COMPETITIONS
For students younger than: ____16 years old________
Date of competition: (11) ________________________ December
Place: (12) Town ____________________________
Starts at: (13) ___________________________ p.m
First price: (14) _______________________ ride.
For information phone: (15) Maggie ________________________
IV. You will hear a student called Sandra talking to her teacher about the draft of
proposal. She has written for the competition. Listen and choose the best word (A, B, C or
D) for the question from 16 to 20. You will hear the recording TWICE. (5points).
16. The tutor thinks that Sandra’s proposal
A. should be re – ordered in some parts. B. needs a contest page.
C. ought to include more information. D. needs to color the pictures.
17. The proposal would be easier to follow if Sandra A. inserted subheadings. B. used more
paragraphs. C. minded punctuation. D. shortened her sentences.
18. What was the problem with the formatting on Sandra’s proposal?
A. Separate points were not clearly identified. B. The headings were not always clear.
C. Page numbering was not used in an appropriate. D. The titles are too small.
19. Sandra became interested in visiting the Navajo National Park through
A. articles she read. B. travel brochures.
C. movies she saw as a child. D. photographs she found on the internet.
20. Which topics does Sandra agree to include in the proposal?
A. Climate change B. Field trip activities C. impact of tourism D. social history.

B. GRAMMAR-VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS (20 points)

I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. (10points)
21. We usually write to each other _______.
A. every two weeks B. every week twice C. two every week D.
None is correct
22. _______ many times I tell him, he always forgets to pass on phone messages.
A. Wherever B. Whatever C. Whenever D. However
23. It’s no use _______ a language if you don’t try to use it.
A. to learn B. learned C. learning D. learn
24. You have been reading for four hours. This book _______ be very interesting.
A. can B. might C. must D. should
25. There were 50 _______ in the talent contest.
A. competitors B. examinees C. customers D. interviewees
26. Hardly ________believes that.
A. anybody B. somebody C. everybody D. all
27. According to World Bank figures, 41 percent of Brazilians live in absolute _______.
A. poor B. poorer C. poorly D. poverty
28. All payments to the ICRC are _______ and are received as donations.
A. volunteer B. voluntary C. voluntarily D. voluntariness
29. Vitamin C _______ by the human body. It gets into the blood stream quickly.
A. absorbs easily B. is easily absorbing C. is easily absorbed D. adsorbed easily
30. We suggested that you _______ to the organization.
A. be admitted B. is admitted C. admitting D. are admitted
31. Before leaving camp, the Boy Scouts _______ the fire.
A. put out B. had been put out C. had putted out D. were put out
32. Last month I read a book about wild animals. This month _______ a recently published
historical novel.
A. I’ve read B. I’d been reading C. I’m reading D. I was reading
33. This job ________ working very long hours.
A. involves B. consists C. includes D. contains
34. I have so many routines that sometimes I feel ________ I am an automatic robot.
A. as if B. even if C. even though D. like
35. The children ________ to the zoo.
A. enjoyed take B. were enjoyed taking C. enjoyed being taken D.
enjoyed taking
36. Lucy: “Do you find it very interesting to travel alone?” - Sue: “________.”
A. Yes, you are welcome B. Never mind
C. No, not at all D. It’s exciting
37. Minh: “Do you mind if I borrow a chair?" - Hung: “_______. Do you need only one?"
A. I’m sorry B. Not at all C. Yes, I do D. Yes, I would
38. Lucy: “What a beautiful shirt you’re wearing!” - Sue: “________”
A. Thank you. It was made by my mother.B. Not at all
C. Of course. It is very expensive. D. Don’t mention it.
39. Man: "May I speak to the manager, please?" - Cleck: "__________."
A. Certainy B. Thanks C. Yes, I'd love to D. Well done
40. Hoa: “I think we should go to the park for change." - Nga: “_______."
A. I disagree B. I hope so C. Yes, we should D. I’m afraid not
II. Each of the following sentences has one mistake. Identify and correct it. (5points)
41. The warming of the Earth, which is primarily caused by the accumulation of gases, are
A B C
known as the greenhouse effect.
D
42. Dinosaurs are traditionally classified as cold-blooded reptiles, but recent evidence based
on
A B
eating habits, posture, and skeletal structural suggests some may have been warm-blooded.
C D
43. Foreign students who are doing a decision about which school to attend many not know
A B C
exactly where the choices are located.
D
44. Why don’t you get someone sending this letter for me?
A B C D
45. California has more land under irrigation than any another states.
A B C D
III. Provide the correct form of the words in brackets. (5points)
46. She was given _______ for a three-month visit to Asia. PERMIT
47. Although some societies are _______ undeveloped, their languages TECHNOLOGY
are very complex.
48. Her _______is so famous that many foreigners want to buy. EMBROIDER
49. Flowers are often _______ by bees as they gather nectar. FERTILE
50. I was so angry, I was absolutely _________. SPEECH

C. READING
I. What does each text say? Choose the correct explanation A, B, C or D. (5points)
51. A. There is no charge for students on
public transport.
B. No young people have to pay on public
transport.
C. Students can travel free only to and
from school.
D. Public trasport is cheaper for students.
52. A. You can get a ticket on the train.
B. You have to get a ticket in the station.
C. You must get a ticket before you go to
the station.
D. Ticket machines are at the station.
53.

Nicole tells Liam that they will

A. definitely go by plane and then train.
B. go by train instead of taking the plane.
C. take the train if they arrive by plane.
D. go by plane if they arrive by train.

54.
A. Cyclists should ride carefully here.
B. You must not ride bicycles here.
C. Only adults may ride bicycles here.
D. Only children may ride bicycles here.

55.
What does Louis want Jake to do?
A. phone him about his homework.
B. do all his homework for him.
C. do homework before going home.
D. do his homework with him.

II. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
You may think that everybody knows how to make friends, but for some people it isn't
so easy. (56)……… they want to be friends with others, they always seem to be alone.
Sadly, some of them get depressed (57)……… this. We wanted to find out how these
people can make friends, (58)……… we asked a group of 14-year-old what sort of people
they prefer. The most important thing, they said, is that they can get (59)……… with them.
They like to be friends with kind and generous people, who rarely get angry (60)………
others. They also like people who laugh at their jokes, and can tell (61) ……… stories, too.
They (62) ……… be interested in what the group does, and perhaps even think of (63)
……… new things to do. We also asked the group how not to make friends with them. Here
are some of the things they mention: always telling others what they (64)……… to do,
telling lies about people, and talking about themselves (65)……… the time!
56. A. Although B. Even C. Despite D. However
57. A. for B. about C. of D. under
58. A. since B. because C. so D. as
59. A. on B. down C. back D. in
60. A. to B. against C. with D. by
61. A. amused B. cheerful C. smiling D. funny
62. A. can B. ought C. need D. should
63. A. annoying B. exciting C. embarrassing D. disappointing
64. A. have B. could C. may D. must
65. A. most B. all C. every D. only
III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer. (10points)
Centuries ago, man discovered that removing moisture from food helped to preserve
it, and that the easiest way to do this was to expose the food to sun and wind. In this way the
North American Indians produced pemmican (dried meat ground into power and made into
cakes), the Scandinavians made stock fish and the Arabs dried dates and apricots.
All foods contains water – cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 90%
water, potatoes and other root vegetales 80%, lean meat 75% and fishing anything from 80%
to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria
which cause food to bad is checked.
Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and other Mediterrannean countries,
and also in California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the
fruit is spread out on trays in drying yards in hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears,
peaches and apricots are exposed to the funes of burning sulphur before drying. Plum for
making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in
a alkaline solution in order to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax
coating, so increasing the rate of drying.
Nowadays most of foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such
dehydration is to put food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of
about 1100oC at entry to about 450oC at exit. This is usual method for drying such things as
vegetables, minced meat, and fish.
Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a
heated horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current
of hot air passes. In the first case, the dried material is scaped off the roller as a thin film
which is then broken up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In the second
process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable pieces of
meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then
mixed.
Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans of
frozen, and they do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons, they are
invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space. They
are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to cook them.
(From Practical Faster Reading by Gerald Mosback and Viven Mosback, CUP)
66. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Mechanization of drying foods. B. Water: the main component of food.
C. Advantages of dried foods. D. Different methods of drying foods.
67. The phrase “do this” in the first paragraph mostly means ___A. moisten foods. B.
expose foods to sun and wind C. remove moisture from foods. D. produce pemmican.
68. The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. put a tick B. reduced considerably C. motivated to develop D. examined carefully
69. In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help ______
A. crack their skin B. kill of bacteria C. remove their wax coating D. maintain their
color
70. Nowadays the common methods fro drying vegetables and minced meat is ______.
A. spreading them out on trays in drying yards. B. dipping them in alkaline solution
C. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through D. pouring them over a heated
horizontal stell cyclider
71. What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to?
A. Foods B. Chambers C. Things D. Vegetables
72. The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be
_____.
A. dried soup B. recognizable pieces C. fine powder D. small flakes
73. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passages?
A. Liquids are not dried in the same way as fruit and vegetables.
B. People in Indian began to use drying methods centuries ago.
C. Dried foods have several advantages over canned or frozen foods.
D. Fruit is usually dried by being laid out on trays in the sun.
74. According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for ______.
A. people who are on the move B. explorers who are underweight C. housewives who have
little storage space D. soldiers who are not in battle.
75. This passage is mainly __A. informative B. fictional C. argumentative D. analytical
IV. Read the text and decide if each sentence is True or False(5points)
Godophin and Latymer school for girls is a private school in Hamersmith, West
London. It was originally a boys’ school, but became a girls’ school in the early 1900s. The
girls didn’t wear a uniform. At that time, the school had twelve classrooms, and assembly
hall, a library, a cookery room, a gymnasium, and three science laboratories for chemistry,
physics and botany. The school had its own playing field, described as “lungs of
Hammersmith”, where the girls could play hockey, tennis, basketball and cricket. Now there
is a studies room, a language laboratory, a pottery room, a new gymnasium and an ecology
garden, a workshop and darkroom, and art studios. There are also improved facilities for
music and dramma. The playing field was recently converted into an all-weather surface for
hockey and tennis.
True False
76. Godolphin and Latymer school for girls is a public school in London.
77. The school had over three hundred students in 1906.
78. Nowadays all students of the school have to wear a uniform.
79. The school doesn’t have new facilities for science and technology.
80. Students can play tennis or hockey in the playing field in all kinds of
weather.
D. WRITING (30 points) I. Finish each of the following sentences .
81. David is proud of the fact that he is never late.
⇨ David prides..................................................................................................
82. Do you have any scarves? I’m looking for one that’s woolen, green and long.
⇨ I’m looking for a...........................................................................................
83. Do you ever regret not going to university?
⇨ Do you ever wish..........................................................................................?
84. Everyone thought that Helen had missed the plane.
⇨ Helen.............................................................................................................
75. He could not beat Raphael because she was not patient enough.
⇨ Had he...........................................................................................................
II. Write a letter (10points)
Your Singaporean pen pal, Marry, is going to visit Viet Nam for a week this summer.
She has written to you. Read her letter and write a letter (about 80 – 100 words) to answer
her.

Dear Thanh Mai,

How is everything? My parents have agreed to let me come to Viet Nam this
summer. I am going to stay in your country for a week. So, please tell me about the
best time I should go? Where can I stay? What should I bring along? Where should I
go when I am in Viet Nam? And what can I do?
Write to me soon.
Your friend,
Marry
III. (15points) In 150 - 180 words, write a paragraph on the following topic:
What are some life skills that school students need nowadays?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………….

A. LISTENING
Part 1. Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer (5 points)
1. What are the speakers talking about?
A. The topics of their English papers
B. How to do research at the library
C. A report for their history class
D. Why they have so much homework
2. What is the girl going to do tomorrow morning?
A. Have a meeting with her teacher
B. Give her homework to Mr. Patterson
C. Complete her homework assignment
D. Introduce her mother to Mr. Patterson
3. What are the speakers mainly discussing?
A. Where the girl lives
B. How the girl will get home
C. What time school finishes
D. What the boy’s parents do
4. What does the teacher suggest about the girl?
A. She needs to act better in class.
B. Her attitude is getting better.
C. She does not pay attention to him.
D. Her test scores have not improved.
5. What is the purpose of the announcement?
A. To provide some information about the science fair
B. To encourage the students to turn in their topics
C. To tell the students about last year’s science fair winner
D. To warn the students about forgetting to submit a topic
Part 2. You will hear a man making a telephone call. Listen and complete the questions (5 points).

Message
To: Diana

From: Ian

Name of hotel: (6).........................................

Address: (7).......................................Street

Meeting starts at: (8).................................................

Bring: (9)..............................................................................

Visit factory on: (10).............................................................

Part 3. You will hear a teacher talking about a camping trip. For each question, fill in the missing
information in the numbered space (5 points).
CAMPING
Coach leaves school at (11)................................on Monday morning
Bring:
* one bag or case
* a (12) ............................... ;
* warm clothes
* (13) ............................... things
* pocket money to spend on souvenirs and (14) ...............................
Catch a bus outside (15) ............................... to Southport.
Part 4. Listen to a teacher talking in a science class and choose the correct answer (5 points).
16. What is the main topic of this class?
A. Evaporation
B. The water cycle
C. The condensation of water
D. The stages of precipitation
17. How many parts are there to the water cycle?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
18. In which stage are clouds formed?
A. Collection
B. Evaporation
C. Precipitation
D. Condensation
19. What are the different types of precipitation?
A. Water
B. Rain and air
C. Snow, rain and ice
D. Snow, hail, and rain
20. Why does the teacher mention that the day's lesson is on the water cycle?
A. To help them take a test on it
 B. To see if they know it already
C. To introduce the lecture's topic
D. To explain why the water is important
B. GRAMMAR-VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.
Part 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence (10 points).
21. Those students waste time ________ games online.
A. playing B. to play C. play D. are playing
22. Nam is good at English, ________ his brother has difficulty in learning it.
A. however B. yet C. whereas D. Despite
23. - "I’ll take you to the airport if you want"
- "________"
A. Please don’t do that B. I’d rather you not
C. Really? That would be great. D. I’ll take your ideas into consideration
24. This car is twice as expensive ________ our car.
A. than B. like C. as D. alike

25. -“You don’t work at weekend, do you?”

- "________ "
A. Yes, I don’t B. No problem C. Of course not D. Never mind
26. - “I don’t think I’ll ever understand algebra!”. - "________ "
A. It’s stupid of you. B. Don’t worry. Your parents have known nothing about it.
C. Just take their advice. D. Just keep on trying.
27. - “Are you leaving?”. - "________ "
A. Yes, but I wish I didn’t have to go B. Don’t disturb me.
C. Let’s leave the things behind. D. Yes, don’t worry. I’ll find the way out.
28. - " I haven't heard a word from Linda yet" - " Well, she will call you ________"
A. when she will need you B. when she should need you
C. when she needed you D. when she needs you
29. I _____ breakfast when the phone rang.
A. had B. have C. is having D. was having
30. I think John _____ translate this document.
A. have to B. will have C. has D. will have to
Part 2. Each of the following sentences has one mistake. Identify and correct it (5 points).
31. Doctors believe there is better in this modern world of ours to try to prevent illnesses than to rely on
A B C
medicines to cure them.
D
32. Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name is called.
A B C D
33. The amount of women earning Master's Degrees has risen sharply in recent years
A B C D
34. Lack of sanitation in restaurants are a major cause of disease in some areas of the country.
A B C D
35. When he was a college student, he learned to play tennis, to ski, and swimming.
A B C D
Part 3. Provide the correct form of the words in brackets (5 points).
36. Nobody wants to wear that kind of dress as it is (fashion) ___________.
37. Fishing is his (relax) ________.
38. He is very generous and everyone admires his (SELF) ________ .
39 - What she did was so (SHOCK)_______ that I can hardly describe it..
40. Work is going to (strong) ________ the bridge which carries a great deal of traffic.
C. READING
Part 1. Read the text in each question. What does it say? Choose the best explanation for each text (5
points).
41.

A. Accident patients are not admitted here.

B. The emergency department is closed.
 C. This hospital only accepts accident patients.
D. Contact this hospital in an emergency

42.

A. You will have to pay if the doctor visits your home.

B. The doctor will visit you in hospital if necessary.
C. You can call the doctor out if you are seriously ill.
D. The doctor can only visit you during the day.

43.

A. Musicians must not play here.

B. Musicians will not be paid.
C. Musicians can leave instruments here.
D. Musicians must keep their instruments with them.

44.

A. This shop has just opened and jobs are available.

B. The shop will need extra staff when it opens.
C. The shop will open late because of job interviews.
D. The shop is opening for longer and needs extra staff.

45.
A. No parking here for the hospital.
B. Drive slowly to avoid patients.
C. Only patients may park here.
D. Try not to wake patients.

Part 2. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space
(10 points).
Helping Mount Everest
Mount Everest – the highest peak in the Himalayas-is in serious (46)______. An international effort is needed to
(47)_____ its natural features and the life it supports.
Recently, an environmental team decided to explore the mountain to (48)_____ exactly what was happening.
They found that places which used to be (49)_____ in ice are now under water, that there are fewer trees and
animals, and that a lot of garbage has been left on the mountain.
There are several (50)_____ for these changes. Industries around the world keep producing gases that
(51)_______ the climate warmer, which melts the ice on Mount Everest. (52)_____ , the number of tourists on the
mountain is now very high. People seem to think that nothing they do makes a difference on such a huge mountain,
(53)_______ they cut down trees for campfires and leave a lot of garbage around.
Efforts are being (54)_____ to replace lost trees, especially those which take a long time to grow. For example, a
general message to the tourists (55)_____ using faster-growing trees and plants to make campfires. As for the
garbage, tour groups have also promised to clean up their camps.
46. A. trouble B. problem C. argument D. interest
47. A. hold B. keep C. restore D. preserve
48. A. find out B. find C. look for D. make out
49. A. shaded B. covered C. sunk D. left
 50. A. reasons B. causes C. problems D. reasoning
51. A. do B. cause C. make D. lead
52. A. In addition to B. Also C. Therefore D. Consequently
53. A. so B. because C. although D. despite
54. A. made B. done C. taken D. brought
55. A. suggests B. begins C. advises D. says
Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (10 points).
The American Idol TV Show
American Idol premiered in the winter of 2002. It appeared on TV for the first time in January 2002. At that
time, there were no reality TV shows. All TV channels showed movies or TV series. The people from the channel
ABC wanted to do something different. They thought the audience was bored with the regular TV shows. People
did not want to watch shows with doctors, lawyers or policemen anymore. So ABC came up with a new type of
show.
American Idol is a reality TV show. There are no real actors or actresses in it. The stars are ordinary people
like you and me. The audience really identified with these stars. They felt very close to them. The show was an
instant hit. It was very successful and popular from the beginning. ABC was very happy about it. Usually, a new
show would cost a lot of money. The producers had to pay both the actors and the writers. But with American Idol
it was not the case. These ordinary people did not have to be paid at all. They were happy just to be seen on TV.
Besides, the show didn’t need any writers. The people on the show just sang and gave interviews
The idea behind American Idol is very simple. Three judges tour the country in search of the next music star.
They travel all around America and listen to young people sing. Then they choose the best singers and bring
them to Hollywood. Here the contestants have to pass a few more singing tests. The best 12 people in the competition
go on to the final round. They perform live on TV every Tuesday night. The judges give their opinion after each
performance. But the audience gets to vote on who to keep in the competition. People can vote by phone or through text
messaging. The singer with the lowest number of votes is eliminated each week. He has to leave the
competition for good. The rest go on singing until only two people remain. After the final night, the most popular
singer becomes the American Idol.
So far, there have been 4 American Idols. They all sold a lot of records. But the most popular of all former
Idols is first-time winner Kelly Clarkson. She is a rock and pop star and has won a Grammy Award for her latest
album. Two of the other Idols sing more jazz and soul music. Last year’s Idol was a country singer.
56. It can be inferred that before 2002
A. Reality TV shows were popular B. There were no reality TV shows
C. Movies were only shown in the cinema D. People couldn't see TV series
57. Why did the people from the channel ABC want to produce reality TV shows?
A. They thought the audience was bored with the regular TV shows
B. People were keen on shows about famous people.
C. It was expensive to make regular TV shows.
D. There were not enough movies or TV shows.
58. All the following sentences are true about reality TV shows EXCEPT
A. No real actors or actresses appear in the shows.
B. Ordinary people take part in reality TV shows.
C. Reality TV shows were not expensive to make.
D. Ordinary people were not happy when took part in the shows.
59. Look at paragraph 2. What is the difference between American Idol and the TV shows mentioned at the end
of paragraph 1?
A. Nobody ever watched regular TV shows. B. Regular TV shows were more expensive to make.
C. Regular TV shows did not appear on ABC. D. Regular TV shows were not ordinary.
60. Why was American Idol so successful?
A. It was expensive to make. B. It did not use regular television stars.
C. It had a lot of singing in it. D. It had very famous writers.
61. In what order do the following happen?
A. Hollywood round, live TV, judges’ opinion, audience voting
B. Judges’ opinion, Hollywood round, live TV, audience voting
C. Hollywood round, judges’ opinion, live TV, audience voting
D. Hollywood round, live TV, audience voting, judges’ opinion
62. What can be inferred about the competition?
A. The competition can give momentum to career development.
B. The winner gets an award and prize money.
C. The live audience decides who gets on to the final round.
D. Each contestant has more than 20 percent chance of winning the competition
63. What kind of record does the first idol winner make?
A. Rock B. Jazz C. Soul D. Country
64. What kind of music did last year's Idol sing?
A. rock B. jazz C. pop D. country
65. What is the topic of this reading passage?
A. An American Idol B. A reality TV show
C. A live dancing competition D. A popular entertainment festival
Part 4. Read the text and decide if each sentence is True or False (5 points).
Norwich, the capital of the part of Britain, known as East Anglia, has existed as a place to live for more than
two thousand years. It began as a small village beside the River Wensum. At the time of the Norman invasion in
1066 it had grown to become one of the largest towns in England.
With two cathedrals and a mosque, Norwich has long been a popular centre for various religions. The first
cathedral was built in 1095 and has recently celebrated its 900th anniversary, while Norwich itself had a year of
celebration in 1994 to mark the 800th anniversary of the city receiving a Royal Charter. This allowed it to be
called a city and to govern itself independently.
Today, in comparison with places like London or Manchester, Norwich is quite small, with a population of
around 150,000, but in the 16th century Norwich was the second city of England. It continued to grow for the
next 300 years and got richer and richer, becoming famous for having as many churches as there are weeks in
the year and as many pubs as there are days in the year.
Nowadays, there are far fewer churches and pubs, but in 1964 the University of East Anglia was built in
Norwich. With its fast- growing student population and its success as a commerciaI centre (Norwich is the
biggest centre for insurance services outside London), the city now has a wide choice of entertainment: theatres,
cinemas, nightclubs, busy cafes, excellent restaurants, and a number of arts and leisure centres.
66. People have lived by the River Wensum for at least 2000 years.
67. In the 11th century, Norwich was a small village.
68. Norwich has been a city since its first cathedral was built.
69. Norwich has always been one of the smallest English cities.
70. The number of students in Norwich is increasing.
D. WRITING
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it (5 points).
71. Is it necessary for me to confirm my reservation?
- Do I …………………… …………………………..?
72. It was such a stale cake that nobody wanted to eat it.
- The cake was ………………………….
73. My uncle has never been abroad before.
- It is ………………………………
74. They continued to play despite the heavy rain.
- They continued to play ……………….
75. It is often said that Shakespeare never revised anything he wrote.
- Shakespeare ………………………
Part 2. (10 points).This is part of a letter you received from an English friend:
"Do you like playing games on the computer? What else do you use the computer for?"
Write a letter to him and answer his questions. You should write about 80-100 words.

Begin and end your letter as follows:

Dear Harry,

..........................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
Phong
Part 3 (15 points). Write a paragraph of about 100-120 words on the following topic:
“”What are the benefits of playing sports?”

The end

PART A: LISTENING
I. Listen to Thomas Lambert talking about his life as a ballet dancer. Choose the correct
answer. (5 points)
1. How did Thomas feel about doing performing arts?
A. It was important to maintain a family tradition. B. It was something he was born to do.
C. He wasn’t talented enough to become a pianist. D. he found it interesting and important.

2. Thomas went to different ballet schools because

A. he liked performing in different places. B. he enjoyed travelling to different countries.
C. he needed to find out what suited him best. D. he wanted to get the widest range of experience.

3. What does Thomas like best about ballet?

A. It’s difficult to get it right. B. It involves more than movement.
C. Each ballet tells a story and it attracts him. D. It’s fun performing in front of an audience.

4. What does Thomas like best about awards?

A. Some of them are worth more than others. B. It is very important to him.
C. Dancers have to win them while they are young.
D. It’s difficult to win them because dancers have a short career.

5. Thomas says that by the time he stops dancing he wants to have

A. studied more about ballet. B. started to teach ballet to new students.
C. increased audiences for ballet. D. made the most of his time on stage.
II. Listen and fill the information you hear in the numbered spaces. NO MORE THAN 3
WORDS OR A NUMBER for each space. (5 points)
Transport from Airport to Milton
Example Answer
Distance: …….147…….. miles
Options
* Car hire
- don’t want to drive
* (1)……………………………………….
- expensive
* Greyhound bus
- $ 15 single, (2).………………. return
- direct to the City centre
- long (3)……………..................….…….
* Airport (4)………………………………..
- door to door service
- need to (5)………………………….…….

III. You will hear a conversation between a girl and her father about what she’s going to study
next year. Decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. Put a () in the box under A for YES
and under B for No. (10 points)

Yes NO
Statements
(A) (B)
 0. Charlotte wants to study Spanish because she thinks Spanish is easy. 
1. Charlotte’s grandmother was born in England.
2. Charlotte’s father is sorry he can’t speak Chinese.
3. Charlotte’s father is keen on her studying in China.
4. Charlotte plans to go to China alone.
5. Charlotte and her father agree that her mother wants to visit China.

PART B: VOCABULARY - GRAMMAR - LANGUAGE FUNCTION

I. Choose the option from A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in each sentence. (10
points)
1. Could you lend me some money? I’m very __________of cash at the moment.
A. short B. scare C. low D. down
2. It is no use __________what has been done.
A. to regret B. regretting C. regretted D. regret
3. His house is nothing out of the __________; it’s just an average five-room house.
A. ordinary B. usual C. normal D. typical
4. The rise in house prices __________him to sell his house for a large profit.
A. managed B. achieved C. succeeded D. enabled
5. Her English was so __________as she used to be in an English speaking country.
A. definite B. fluent C. wide D. international
6. No sooner __________ the rain __________.
A. we started when/ came B. we had started that/ would come
C. did we start that/ came D. had we started than/ came
7. I was amazed at his response to the shocking news! He remained as calm as ever, and he didn’t
even turn a __________ __________.
A. hair B. fist C. head D. foot
8. Mr. Brown is the landlord __________we rent the house.
A. who B. whom C. from whom D. from who
9. “What do you think of your new bookkeeper?” – “He works __________that his figures never need
__________.”
A. such efficiently/ to check B. so efficient/ checking
C. so efficiently/ to be checked D. such an efficiently/ to be checked
10. They _________the advantages and disadvantages of moving and finally decided to against it.
A. considered B. thought C. wondered D. asked themselves
11. That hotel is so expensive. They __________you sixty pounds for bed and breakfast.
A. fine B. charge C. cost D. take
12. I had no difficulty __________to her English.
A. listen B. to listening C. listening D. to listen
13. Dr John, __________, has now left Bangkok.
A. we saw six months ago B. whom we saw him six months ago
C. that we saw six months ago D. whom we saw six months ago
14. I don’t believe __________he says.
 A. however B. whenever C. wherever D. whatever
15. The population of the world is growing at a dangerous __________.
A. step B. rate C. measure D. cost
16. Lan: “I wish I could visit your village again someday, Ba.” -Ba: “__________.”
A. Me, too! B. Yes, let’s. C. What a day! D. You’re always welcome.
17. “I suggest we should go on a picnic on the river bank.” - “__________.”
A. It’s a nice day! B. Great idea!
C. Have a good trip! D. Congratulations!
18. Peter: “Let me pay for the meal.” - Margaret: “__________.”
A. It’s on me B. It’s my round C. I’ll make it. D. Never remind me.
19. “What a fantastic cook you are, Margaret!” - “__________.”
A. Sorry, I don’t think so. B. No, no, it’s not true.
C. It’s nice of you to say so. D. I’d prefer it.
20. “If you ask me, action movies are great.” - “__________.”
A. You can say that again. B. Never mind!
C. That’s that. D. Sure. It’s my pleasure.

II. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word in brackets. (5 points)
1. His mistake was due to youth and __________. (EXPERIENCE)
2. You can relax in the comfortable __________ of the seven-star hotel. (SURROUND)
3. There should be more __________ activities to attract more new students. (CURRICULAR)
4. If __________conditions are right, it is possible to see this group of stars tonight.
(ATMOSPHERE)
5. They are meeting to find ways to protect the forests from __________. (FOREST)

III. Choose the words or phrases that are not correct in standard English. (5 points)
1. She’s not very sociable. She doesn’t get up well with anyone in her class.
A B C D
2. That restaurant offers a wide selection of foods. Especially, the desserts are tasted delicious!
A B C D
3. It is believed that in the future, people will have intelligent robots and machines to perform
A B C
most of their daily boring and repetitive routines.
D
4. In Asian culture, parents seldom ask for their children's opinions after making family choices.
A B C D
5. If I had accepted his job offer, I wouldn’t have been unemployed now.
A B C D

PART C: READING
I. Read the details of the six language courses below and decide which course (letters A-F)
would be the most suitable for each person (numbers 1-5). (5 points)
A. BESTON HALL. B. LONDON LANGUAGES
Summer holiday courses Business Department
Three-week, one-month or six-week courses Courses in most European languages are
 for students of all standards, which combine
daily language classes with full program of
sports (tennis, swimming, volleyball, etc,),
social activities (discos, quizzes, film club,
etc.) and outings (London, Bath, etc.)
offered for adults wishing to study outside
office hours, including weekends. Our
qualified teachers are always native speakers,
whether of Danish, English or Greek. You
will study hard in very small groups with lots
of attention to individual needs. Courses last
between three and six months.

C. LONDON LANGUAGES D. LONDON LANGUAGES

Part-time courses
Morning classes 15 hours per week,
afternoon classes 15 hours per week.
Examination preparation 4 or 6 hours per
week, afternoons and evenings. All teachers
are highly experienced and well-qualified.
Minimum course one month. Central
location, easy access by bus or underground.
Home from home
We place students with experienced and
qualified teachers throughout Britain for
individual study programs in the teacher’s
own home. An excellent choice for those
who wish to improve their English fast, but
who are not keen on returning to the
classroom. High standards of comfort, in a
friendly but peaceful atmosphere.

E. ELGIN HOUSE SCHOOL F. BESTON HALL

This excellent school in an attractive suburb
of Brighton offers courses in general English
from three to twelve months.
Accommodation is carefully chosen and the
school is famous for its program of activities
beyond the classroom. Teenagers and young
adults come to us from over thirty different
countries to study hard and enjoy themselves.
Summer special
A six-week program of classes covering all
aspects of English, both spoken and written,
for serious students whether beginners,
intermediate or advanced. At least six hours’
teaching every day except Sundays, plus
individual work plans on topics of special
interest.

1. Mr. Ba is a journalist. He knows quite a lot of English, but he wants to improve his writing
skill. He works long hours on weekdays at an office in London.
2. Nhung is going to university next year and wants to spend this year improving her English.
She wants to meet people from other parts of the world and have a good social life.
3. Mrs. Quyen is 45. She would like to follow an individual course of study somewhere quiet
and comfortable with a private teacher.
4. Trung is visiting England for the first time this summer. He’ll stay for a month and hopes
to make new friends, but is rather shy, so he’d like a school with lots of out-of-class activities.
5. Mai lives with a family in London and looks after their little girls during the day. She
studies on her own but she also needs a language course that will help her prepare for her exams.

II. Read the passage and choose A, B, C or D to complete the passage. (10 points)
Many of the things we do depend on receiving information from other people. Catching a
train, ___(1)___ a phone call and going to the cinema all involve information ___(2)___ stored,
processed and communicated. In the past this information had to be kept on paper ___(3)___, for
example, books, newspapers and timetables. Now more and more information is put on computers. 
 Computers ___(4)___ a role in our everyday lives, sometimes without us even realizing
it. ___(5)___ the use of computers in both shops and offices. Big shops have to deal with very large
___(6)___ of information. They have to make sure that there are enough goods on the shelves for
customers to buy, they need to be able to reorder before cargoes ___(7)___. A lot of office work in
the past involved information on paper. Once it had been dealt with by people, the paper was
___(8)___ for future reference. This way of working was never ___(9)___ easy or fast. A computer
system is much more ___(10)___.
1. A. giving B. making C. taking D. leaving
2. A. that has B. has C. that is D. is
3. A. in the form of B. in search of C. in the case of D. in preparation for
4. A. play B. have C. take D. bring
5. A. To consider B. Be considered C. To be considered D. Consider
6. A. number B. amounts C. amount D. numbers
7. A. run out B. run through C. run over D. run off
8. A. torn off B. put aside C. thrown away D. recycled
9. A. particularized B. particularity C. particular D. particularly
10 A. skillful B. formal C. effective D. capable
.

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to the questions. (10 points)
A pioneering study by Donald Appleyard made the astounding discovery that a sudden
increase in the volume of traffic through an area affects people in the way that a sudden increase in
crime does. Appleyard observed this by finding three blocks of houses in San Francisco that looked
much alike and had the same kind of middle-class and working-class residents, with approximately
the same ethnic mix. The difference was that only 2,000 cars a day ran down Octavia Street (LIGHT
Street, in Appleyard’s terminology) while Gough Street (MEDIUM Street) was used by 8,000 cars
daily, and Franklin Street (HEAVY Street) had around 16,000 cars a day. Franklin Street often had
a many cars in an hour as Octavia had in a day.
Heavy traffic brought with it danger, noise, fumes and soot, directly, and trash secondarily.
That is, the cars didn't bring in much trash, but when trash accumulated, residents seldom picked it
up. The cars, Appleyard determined reduced the amount of territory residents felt responsible for.
Noise was a constant intrusion into their homes. Many Franklin Street residents covered their doors
and windows and spent most of their time in the rear of their houses. Most families with children
had ready left.
Conditional on Octavia Street were much different. Residents picked up trash. They sat on
their front steps and chatted with neighbors. They had three times as many friends and twice as
many acquaintances as the people on Franklin.
On Gough Street, residents said that the old feeling of community was disappearing as traffic
increased. People were becoming more and more preoccupied with their own lives. A number of
families had recently moved and more considering. Those who were staying expressed deep regret
at the destruction of their community.
1. The word "astounding" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. startling B. disappointing C. dubious D. alternative
2. The three streets mentioned in this passage are different in that _________.
A. they are in different cities.
B. the residents are of different ethnic backgrounds.
C. they have varying amounts of traffic
D. the income levels of the residents vary considerably.
3. Approximately how many cars used Franklin Street daily?
A. 2,000 B. 8,000 C. 16,000 D. 20,000
4. All of the following are direct results of heavy traffic EXCEPT ________.
A. increased amount of trash. B. Greater danger to residents
C. more pollution D. more vibrations
5. The author's main purpose in the second paragraph is to ________.
A. discuss the problem of trash disposal
B. point out the disadvantage of heavy traffic
C. propose an alternative system of transportation
D. suggest ways to cope with traffic problems.
6. On which street was there the most social interaction?
A. Octavia Street. B. Gough Street. C. Franklin Street.
D. There was no significance social interaction on any of the three streets.
7. The word "chatted" in the third paragraph is closest meaning to ________.
A. joked B. talked C. argued D. walked
8. Which of the following is NOT a statement you would expect from a resident of Gough Street.
A. People on the street are unhappy because the neighborhood is deteriorating.
B. People in this street think mostly of themselves.
C. People on this street have more and more space for which they feel responsible.
D. The number of people are preparing to leave this street.
9. In what order does the author present detailed discussions of the three streets?
A. light, medium, heavy B. heavy, medium, light
C. heavy, light, medium D. light, heavy, medium
10. What's the writer's attitude heavy traffic when he mentions the Appleyard's study?
A. neutral B. favorable C. critical D. doubtful

IV. Read the passage carefully. Then decide if each statement below is TRUE (T) or FALSE
(F). (5 points)
Although people’s reactions to your dress will vary, they will draw conclusions about you based on
the way you dress. You need to determine what you are trying to say and then dress appropriately.
There are times when it is in your best interest to meet the expectations of others. Business
managers are likely to have a clear idea of the images they want their businesses to portray. If you
want to prosper with those businesses you will want to dress in a way that is in line with those
images. Likewise, audience expect public speakers to dress appropriately for the audience and
occasion. People have the right to show their individual differences, and we believe that society is
moving in the right direction in allowing persons to express themselves as individuals. Nevertheless,
your clothes are still perceived by others as clues to your attitudes and behaviours.
Statements T F
1. People will have an opinion of you because of the way you dress.
2. It’s necessary for business manages to dress as their images.
3. Public speakers are expected to dress fashionably.
4. People now don’t have the right to express their individual differences.
5. People still perceive your clothes are clues to your attitudes and
behaviours.

PART D: WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. (5 points)
1. I regretted not telling him what happened last night.
⇨ I wish...............................................................................................................................
2. I'm sorry if I am disturbing you.
⇨ I'm....................................................................................................................................
3. I won’t sell the painting, no matter how much you offer me.
⇨ Whatever .........................................................................................................................
4. It was wrong of you to let your little sister go out alone at night.
⇨ You should.......................................................................................................................
5. The Descendants of the Sun has very high average viewer ratings. Many local TV platforms have
paid a lot of money to hold the exclusive rights to stream it.
⇨ The Descendants of the Sun has such..............................................................................

II. (10 points) You receive an email from Simon.

Write a message to respond

Simon’s email. You should
cover all the information
Simon wants to know and
your interests about
weather, what kind of
clothes, your favorite food as
well. Begin and end your
letter as follows:
Hi Simon,
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
Love,
Andy

III. Use the prompts given, write a paragraph about the benefits of taking online courses. You
should write between 150 and 180 words. (15 points)

Suggested ideas for development:

- Taking online courses facilitates lifelong learning
- Learning online improves soft skills (independent learning, time-management, virtual
communication skills, etc.)
- Online learning offers great convenience and flexibility
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
---------The End---------

A. LISTENING
Part 1: You will hear an English woman called Britta talking to an interviewer about her
life in Berlin, the capital of Germany. For each question, circle the correct answer. (5
points)
1. How long has Britta lived in Berlin?
A. four years B. six years C. twenty years
2. What does Britta say about living in Berlin?
A. She can’t sleep at night because of the traffic noise.
B. She misses the museums and theatres in Bonn.
C. She likes living in a big, busy city.
3. The area of Berlin where Britta lives is __________
A. a rather expensive place to live
B. a good place to eat out
C. a long way from the city centre
4. Britta says that her nephew, Philippe, likes going __________
A. to the park with her B. to the shop with his parentsC. to a gallery with her
5. Britta has a lot of friends who __________
A. live near her B. work with her C. are still in England
Part 2: Listen to a talk and decide if these statements are True (T) or False (F). Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (5 points)
6. Loans that are used to buy a home are known as mortgages.
7. A deposit can be worth about a tenth of the price of a home.
8. One of the mistakes banks made was they gave out loans to candidates with good credit
report.
9. One result of the crisis is that a lot of mortgages went unpaid.
10. The speaker feels that banks alone are responsible for the crisis.
Part 3: You will hear a woman talking to a man about joining a drama club. Complete
the note below with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each
answer. (10 pts)

MIDBURY DRAMA CLUB

Background
Example: Answer
 Club started in __1957__
 prize recently won by (11) ____________ section
 usually performs (12) ____________ plays
Meetings
 next auditions will be on Tuesday, (13) ____________
 help is needed with publicity and (14) ____________
 rehearsals take place in the (15) ____________hall
 nearest car park for rehearsals in Ashburton Road opposite the
(16)____________
Costs
 annual membership fee is £ (17)____________
 extra payment for (18)____________
Contact
 secretary’s name is Sarah (19) ____________
 secretary’s phone number is (20) ____________

B. VOCABULARY- GRAMMAR AND LANGUAGE FUNCTION

I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence. (10
points)
21. Tom and Mary never came to class late_______.
A. So did we B. Neither did we C. We did either D. Neither we did
22. I remember_______ to Hanoi when I was a very small child.
A. taking B. to take C. to be taken D. being taken
23. Helen asked me_______ the film called "Star Wars".
A. if I had seen B. have I seen C. have you seen D. if had I seen
24. At first I found_______ to get used to_______ on the other side of the road.
A. it difficult - drive B. difficult - drive
C. it difficult - driving D. difficult- driving
25. Had we known your new address, we_______ to see you.
A. would have come B. will come C. would come D. came
26. I don't believe a word she said; I think he just made_______ that story.
A. out B. up C. off D. down
27. She warned me_______.
A. to not do it B. I should do it C. about to do it D. not to do it
28. _______ had they recovered from the first earthquake when they felt the second tremor.
A. Scarcely B. Never C. No sooner D. Just
29. Jason's professor had him_______ his thesis many times before allowing him to present
it to the committee.
A. rewrites B. rewriting C. rewrite D. to rewrite
30. The problems_______ last year caused to the committee members to table the proposal
temporarily.
A. were discovered B. which was discovered C. that discovered D. discovered
31. He may be shy now, but he’ll soon come out of his ______ when he meets the right girl.
A. shoe B. shell C. shed D. hole
32. Don't worry about trying to catch last train home, as we can easily _______ you up for
the night.
A. keep B. put C. take D. set
33. Nathalie seems very tough at work. She's a different person at home, _______.
A. though B. although C. as though D. even though
34. _________ study very hard before the examination.
A. Most of the students B. Most of students C. Most the students
D. Almost the students
35. Life's very easy for you. You were born with a _______ spoon in your mouth.
A. silver B. golden C. bronze D. diamond
36."I'm taking my exam next week.' " _______ "
A. Cheers B. Congratulations C. Good luck D. Come on
37. "Where shall we go for our holiday?" "_______ "
A. Never mind B. Oh. That would be great
C. I'm glad to hear that D. What about Spain?
38. "Do you mind if I use your phone?" "_______ "
A. No, please do B. I'd love to
C. Yes, please D. My pleasure
39. "Merry Christmas!" "_______ "
A. You're so kind. B. You're happy, too.
 C. The same to you. D. I'm glad to hear that.
40. “Excuse me, is this seat free?” - “_____________”
A. No, you can’t sit here. C. Sorry, it is taken.
B. Yes, it is seated by a boy. D. Yes, but I don’t know so.
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (5 points)
41. It is forbidden to hunt for that kind of bird. It has been listed as one of the_________
(DANGER) species.
42. The_________ (EDIT)staff consists of ten experienced journalists.
43. _________ (LEAD) skill is the one skill that can grant you the opportunity to get a good
job.
44. His busy schedule made him completely _________ (ACCESS) to his students.
45. The teacher warned the children that if they_________(BEHAVE)again, they would be
punished.
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting. (5
points)
46. Hardly had he entered the room than all the lightswent out.
A B C D
47. Studentssupposetoreadallthe questionscarefullyandfindouttheanswersto them.
A B CD
48. My father used to give me a good advicewhenever I had a problem.
A B C D
49. I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end.
A B C D
50. What I told her a few days ago were not the solutions tomost of her problems.
A B C D

C. READING. I. Read the text and choose the correct answer for the question: What
does it say? (0.5 points)
51.

52.
53.

54.

55.

II.Read the passages below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
PROBLEMS OF WATCHING TELEVISION IN BRITAIN
British parents are always complaining that their children spend too much time gluing
to the television and not enough (56)_________other activities like sports and reading. A
survey recently carried out on people's viewing habits (57) _________not disapprove it. It
shows that young people in Britain spend on (58) _________twenty three hours a week in
front of the television, (59) _________works out at over three hours every day.
What is surprising, however, is the fact that the average adult watches even more: an
incredible 28 hours a week. We seem to have become a nation of television addicts. Just
about (60) _________household in the country has a television and over half have two or
more. According (61) _________the survey, people nowadays don't just watch television
sitting in their living room, they watch it in the kitchen and in bed as well.
The Education Minister said a (62) _________weeks ago that Britain's pupils should
spend more time reading. Unfortunately, parents are not setting a good example: adults do
(63) _________.reading than young people. In fact, reading is (64) _________the bottom of
their list of favorite pastimes. They would (65) _________listen to the radio, go to the
cinema or hire a video to watch on their television at home.
56. A. at B. on C. for D. in
57. A. does B. do C. is D. has
58. A. time B. Sunday C. weekend D. average
59. A. which B. what C. who D. where
60. A. none B. neither C. every D. all
61. A. for B. to C. with D. on
62. A. lot B. little C. number D. few
63. A. more B. better C. less D. most
64. A. on B. to C. at D. in
65. A. had better B. prefer C. like D. rather
III. Read the following passages and choose the correct answer. (10 points)
In 1826, a Frenchman named Niépce needed pictures for his business. He was not a
good artist, so he invented a very simple camera. He put it in a window of his house and took
a picture of his yard. That was the first photograph. The next important date in the history of
photography was 1837. That year, Daguerre, another Frenchman, took a picture of his studio.
He used a new kind of camera and a different process. In his pictures, you could see
everything clearly, even the smallest details. This kind of photograph was called a
daguerreotype.
Soon, other people began to use Daguerre's process. Travelers brought back
daguerreotypes from all around the world. People photographed famous buildings, cities, and
mountains.
In about 1840, the process was improved. Then photographers could take pictures of
people and moving things. The process was not simple and photographers had to carry lots
of film and processing equipment. However, this did not stop photographers, especially in
the United States. After 1840, daguerreotype artists were popular in most cities.
Matthew Brady was one well-known American photographer. He took many portraits
of famous people. The portraits were unusual because they were lifelike and full of
personality. Brady was also the first person to take pictures of a war. His 1862 Civil War
pictures showed dead soldiers and ruined cities. They made the war seem more real and
more terrible.
In the 1880s, new inventions began to change photography. Photographers could buy
film ready-made in rolls, instead of having to make the film themselves. Also, they did not
have to process the film immediately. They could bring it back to their studios and develop it
later. They did not have to carry lots of equipment. And finally, the invention of the small
handheld camera made photography less expensive.
With a small camera, anyone could be a photographer. People began to use cameras
just for fun. They took pictures of their families, friends, and favorite places. They called
these pictures "snapshots".
Documentary photographs became popular in newspapers in the 1890s. Soon
magazines and books also used them. These pictures showed true events and people. They
were much more real than drawings.
 Some people began to think of photography as a form of art. They thought that
photography could do more than show the real world. It could also show ideas and feelings,
like other art forms.
66. The first photograph was taken with ______.
A. a small handheld camera B. a very simple camera
C. a daguerreotype D. new types of film
67. Daguerre took a picture of his studio with ______.
A. a new kind of camera B. a very simple camera
C. special equipment D. an electronic camera
68. The word “this” in the passage refers to the ______.
A. carrying of lots of film and processing equipment
B. stopping of photographers from taking photos
C. fact that daguerreotype artists were popular in most cities
D. taking of pictures of people and moving things
69. The word “ruined” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. poorly-painted B. heavily-polluted C. terribly spoiled D. badly damaged
70. The word “lifelike” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. moving B. realistic C. touching D. manlike
71. The latest invention mentioned in the passage is the invention of ______.
A. handheld cameras B. processing equipment
C. daguerreotypes D. rolls of film
72. The word “handheld” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. handling manually B. held by hand C. controlling hands D.
operated by hand
73. Matthew Brady was well-known for ______.
A. inventing daguerreotypes B. the small handheld camera
C. taking pictures of French cities D. portraits and war photographs
74. As mentioned in the passage, photography can ______.
A. print old pictures B. convey ideas and feelings
C. show the underworld D. replace drawings
75. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Different Steps in Film Processing B. Story of Photography
C. Photography and Painting D. Story of Famous Photographers
IV Read the passages and decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). (5 points)
Mobile technology can help students open the door to new horizons, making their
learning flexible, motivating and speedy. It is not difficult to understand why more and more
schools are encouraging mobile learning in the classroom. Smartphones, tablet computers, e-
readers, netbooks and laptops, etc. are gradually becoming great learning tools for students.
Mobile devices make learning flexible. School computer labs with desktops are
wonderful but they are not handy. Students cannot use them in the school yard during the
break time or in the school canteen while they wait for lunch. Mobile learning devices are
different. They are light, portable and convenient. Students can carry these devices with
them wherever they want and whenever they like.
Mobile learning is motivating. Students are more excited and inspired to study when
they work with different types of apps. These apps not only help them understand the
materials better but also motivate them to study harder both in and out of the classroom.
Motivation and inspiration can lead to good results, and good results can lead to more
motivation and inspiration.
 Mobile learning makes education speedy. Without having to leave the school building,
students can instantly get information or materials necessary for their study. This can be
done easily thanks to mobile devices with Wi-Fi. The Internet brings the whole world into
the classroom and it takes students just a few seconds to access this wonderful world of
knowledge and information.
Mobile technology is already here. It is up to each school to choose the time when they
allow the use of mobile devices and the extent to which their  ‛digital natives’  can take full
advantage of these devices. Hopefully, they can make the right decision quickly to help
broaden students’ learning opportunities both inside and outside of class.
76. Mobile technology can help workers open the door to new horizons, making their
learning flexible, motivating and speedy.
77. Students cannot use school computer labs in the school yard during the break time or in
the school canteen while they wait for lunch.
78. Students are less excited and inspired to study when they work with different types of
apps.
79. With mobile technology, students can instantly get information or materials necessary for
their study without going to school.
80. Mobile technology is already here. It is up to each school to choose the times when they
allow the use of mobile devices.
D. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the
sentence printed before it. (5 points)
81. Melissa’s father was very busy, but he still played with her.
- No matter………………………………………………………………………………………………..
82. “I hear you won the championship. Congratulations!” Jane said to John.
- Jane congratulated
………………………………………………………………………………………
83. They have said that the police caught the man stealing my car.
- The man …………………………………………………………..……………………
84. The train left before he got to the station.
- By the time.………..…………………………………………..…….........................
85. He never suspected that the money had been stolen.
- At no time …………………..
………………………………………………………………….
II. (10 points)
An English-speaking friend wants to spend a two-week holiday in your region and has
written asking for information and advice. Write a letter to your friend. In your letter:
- offer to find somewhere to stay
- give advice about what to do
- give information about what clothes to bring
Begin and end the letter with:
Dear Tim,
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..……………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
Love,
Hoa

III. (15 points)

What teenagers should do to reduce stress and pressure? In about 200 words, write an
essay to express your point of view.
--- THE END---