GOOD LUCK

Quản trị sản xuất 2

1. Master production scheduling (MPS) involves long term capacity planning that
typically covers a time horizon of one to three years
False
2. The goal of aggregate operations planning is to achieve a production plan that
will satisfy total forecast demand at minimum cost.
True
3. Aggregate operations planning is used to establish general levels of employment,
production levels and changes in inventory levels over an intermediate range of
time
True
4. For aggregate planning, groups of similar products are lumped together and
treated as equivalent products for planning purposes
True
5. Aggregate operations planning is not an effective technique for organizations that
experience seasonal fluctuations in demand
False
6. Among the basic demand options in aggregate operations planning are
promotion and the use of overtime.
False
7. Among the basic capacity options in aggregate operations planning are hiring
workers and the use of overtime
True
8. The use of tables and charts in aggregate operations planning enables planners
to develop and compare alternative production plans
True
9. Aggregate operations planners sometimes use optimization techniques such as
linear programming for planning
True
10. An example of a capacity option in aggregate operations planning for services is
inventory
False
11. Disaggregating an aggregate production plan leads to a master production
schedule
True
12. Yield management involves varying the prices of services based on capacity
availability to maximize revenue
True
13. The master production schedule indicates the quantity and timing for planned
production of an item.
True
14. After the first period of the planning horizon, available-to-promise (ATP) inventory
is computed only for those periods in which there is a planned production
quantity
True
15. Master production scheduling has three inputs for each product: the beginning
inventory, quantities already committed to customers, and back orders
False
16. Available-to-promise (ATP) inventory for the first week is equal to the beginning
inventory plus planned production quantity, if any, less the committed customer
orders before the next planned production quantity
True
17. Master production schedules are often divided into three zones: the emergency,
trading, and planning zones
True
18. Aggregate operations planning is capacity planning for:.
B.an intermediate-term horizon, typically 12 months.
19. Essentially, the output of aggregate operations planning is:.
B.the production plan.

19. Which of the following best describes aggregate operations planning?

D.Using predicted demand to plan the general levels of employment, output, and
inventories required
20. Which of the following are examples of intermediate operations planning
decisions?I) Deciding on the amount of inventory to holdII) Deciding on which
production equipment to purchaseIII) Deciding on the location of a production
facility
A.I
21. One area that aggregate operations planning decisions relate to is:.
C.inventory levels.
22. In doing "aggregate operations planning" for a firm producing paint, the
aggregate operations planners would most likely base their planning on:
A.gallons of paint as an equivalent unit of production, without concern for the
different colours to be produced.
23. Aggregate operations planners balance actions that influence:.
E.capacity and demand.
24. Aggregate operations planning requires which of the following information?I) A
forecast of expected demandII) Current levels of inventoryIII) Policies regarding
employment
E.I, II, and III
25. Which of the following is notan input to the aggregate operations planning
process?
D.Master production schedules
26. Which one of the following would notbe considered a decision option for the
purpose of aggregate operations planning?
D.Production costs
27. Which one of the following is nota basic option for altering demand?
D.Subcontracting
28. One option in aggregate planning that shifts the pattern of demand from one
period to another is:
A.backorders.
29. Which of the following would notbe a strategy associated with adjusting
aggregate capacity to meet expected demand?
E.Use backorders
30. One option for altering the period when manufacturing capacity is available is:.
D.stockpiling inventories.
31. One option for altering the capacity available in aggregate planning is:
A.use of overtime or slack time.
32. Which of the following is a consideration in the decision to use hiring and laying
off permanent full-time workers as a capacity option?
E.All of the choices are considered
33. Which of the following is nota basic option for altering the availability of capacity
in service?
D.Inventory
34. Which of the following is nottrue about using overtime for changing capacity?.
C.It typically results in higher productivity.
35. In order to use the "level output/workforce strategy", variations in demand are
met by:
D.using some combination of inventories, subcontracting and back orders..
36. In using the "chase demand strategy" variations in demand could be met by:.
E.All of the choices.
37. The two primary factors in choosing an aggregate operations planning strategy
are:
C.company policy and overall costs.
38. Aggregate operations planners seek to match supply and demand:I) at minimum
overall cost.II) by staying within company policy.III) keeping inventories at a
minimum.
D.I and II only
39. In practice, the more commonly used techniques for aggregate operations
planning are:
B.trial-and-error techniques.
40. The main disadvantage(s) of trial-and-error techniques used for aggregate
operations planning is (are):
B.that they may not result in the best plan.
41. Inventory information for firm ABC: What is the expected inventory at the end
of April, 2014?
B.250
42. Inventory information for firm ABC: What was the inventory at the end of
March, 2014?
C.
150
43. Linear programming models used to produce an aggregate operations plan:I)
are based on a total cost formula as a linear objective function.II) is the most
widely used technique for aggregate operations planning.III) establishes an
 optimal (least cost) solution (if it exists).
D.I and III only
44. Which of the following is nottrue about the transportation model as an
approach to aggregate operations planning?
B.It is more complex to solve than a linear programming model.
45. Which term is most closely associated with the term disaggregation?
B.Master schedule
46. The result of disaggregating the aggregate operations plan is the:
D.master production schedule.
47. Which of the following is an input of the master production schedule?I)
Beginning inventoryII) Demand forecasts for each period of the scheduleIII)
Orders already committed to customers
E.I, II, and III
48. For each product in the schedule, which of the following are outputs from the master
production schedule?I. Planned productionII. Available-to-promise (ATP) inventoryIII.
Beginning inventory levelsIV. Demand forecasts
E.I and II only
49. That portion of projected inventory which enables marketing to make realistic
commitments about delivery dates for new orders is:
C.available-to-promise inventory.
50. Master production schedules are often divided into which of the following zones?I)
EmergencyII) ProductionIII) TradingIV) Planning
C.I, III, and IV
51. What is the projected on hand inventory at the end of period 2?
B.1
52. What quantity is available for commitment to new customers prior to the receipt of
the production quantity in week 3?
D.4
53. What is the projected on hand inventory at the end of period 2?
C.12
54. What quantity is available for commitment to new customers prior to the receipt of
the production quantity in week 3?
A.14

Chương 2
1. Dependent demand is derived demand.
True
2. Independent demand tends to be more sporadic or "lumpy" than dependent
demand
False
3. Lumpy demand for components required for finished goods results primarily from
the periodic scheduling of batch production of the goods
True
4. Dependent demand tends to be intermittent, whereas independent demand tends
to be more stable.
True
 5. The three basic inputs of MRP are: 1) the bill of material; 2) inventory on hand,
open orders and lead times; and 3) planned order releases.
False
6. The master production schedule (MPS) states which end items are to be
produced
True
7. The master production schedule (MPS) states which product components are to
be produced
False
8. The planning horizon for the master production schedule (MPS) should cover or
be longer than the cumulative lead time necessary to produce the end items
True
9. A phantom bill is a special type of bill of material that is a combination of the bill
of materials for a number of subassemblies.
False
10. The MRP requires a list of the individual parts that will be converted to finished
goods.
True
11. A master production schedule (MPS) is the principal output developed from MRP
systems
False
12. A bill of material contains a listing of all the raw materials, parts, and
subassemblies needed to produce one unit of an end item.
True
13. The bill of material contains information on lead times
False
14. MRP requires information on
True
15. An assembly-time chart indicates gross and net requirements
False
16. For a given component in an MRP plan, under lot-for-lot ordering, planned order
sizes are equal to net requirements
True
17. The planned-order releases at one level of an MRP plan determine the gross
requirements at the next level down in the bill of material
True
18. MRP usually involves inventory items that have independent demand.
False
19. Gross requirements for components are equal to the gross requirements of their
immediate parent multiplied by the quantity per parent
False
20. The term pegging refers to identifying the parent items that have generated a
given set of requirements for a part or subassembly
True
21. A net-change MRP is one that involves periodically updating all aspects of an
MRP system.
False
22. For relatively stable situations, a net-change MRP is better suited than using
regenerative MRP
True
23. A regenerative MRP is one that is updated continuously
False
24. One of the primary reports of MRP concerns changes to open orders
True
25. Safety time is sometimes used in MRP rather than safety stock.
True
26. Lot-for-lot ordering in MRP provides coverage for some predetermined number of
periods
False
27. The part-period method for lot sizing attempts to balance setup and holding costs
True
28. The part-period method for lot sizing breaks the time periods into smaller units of
time to create daily or hourly production schedules
False
29. Fixed-interval ordering in MRP places orders that cover a predetermined number
of periods.
True
30. Load reports show capacity requirements for departments or work centres
True
31. MRP II involves an expanded approach to production planning and scheduling
than MRP
True
32. MRP II is simply a label for current, more advanced versions of software
applications for MRP
False
33. Load reports of capacity may be misleading as they do not consider queuing
delays
True
34. Load reports compare planned capacity requirements with projected capacity
and availability
True
35. The emergence of ERP systems was primarily because they are less complex to
use than MRP systems
False
36. ERP involves software that is used to manage and coordinate all the resources,
information, and functions of an organization from a shared database
True
37. Typically the total cost of ownership (TCO) of ERP systems is clearly detailed
and certain at the time a company makes the investment to acquire a system
False
38. ERP packages are intended to fit established ways of doing business, but some
modifications to business processes or the ERP software are typically required
True
39. Configuring the ERP software involves reengineering established business
processes to align with the ERP's procedural settings
True
40. ERP systems are based on software modules for various functional areas of a
business such as purchasing, production planning, and supply chain
management
True
41. ERP automates the tasks involved in performing a business process, such as
order fulfilment and financial reporting
True
42. Independent demand tends to be ___________, while dependent demand tends
to be __________.
C.stable; lumpy
43. Which of the following most closely describes dependent demand?
C.Derived demand.
44. A process designed to handle purchasing and scheduling the production of
dependent-demand components is:
D.material requirements planning (MRP).
45. Which of these products and services would be most likely to have dependent
demand?
A.Automobiles
46. The development and application of MRP is primarily associated with two
developments: (1) managers recognizing the need to differentiate between
independent and dependent demand, and (2) ___________.
A.increased reliance on computers for record keeping
47. Which one of the following is notan input in an MRP system?
A.Planned-order releases
48. The MRP input stating which end items are to be produced, when they are
needed, and what quantities are needed, is the:
A.master production schedule.
49. In an MRP master production schedule, the planning horizon is often separated
into a series of times periods called:
D.time buckets.
50. The input used in MRP that lists the assemblies, subassemblies, parts, and raw
materials needed to produce one unit of finished product is the:
B.bill of material.
51. The hierarchical diagram that depicts the subassemblies and components that
are needed to produce and/or assemble a product is called a(n):
B.product structure tree.
52. Ignoring the possibility of safety stock requirements, which one of the following
most closely describes the calculation of net requirements for an item in MRP?
A.Gross requirements - projected on-hand - scheduled receipts
53. In MRP, "scheduled receipts" are:
C.open orders already scheduled to be delivered.
54. In MRP, under lot-for-lot ordering, the size of "planned-order receipts" are equal
to:
B."planned-order releases."
55. The gross requirements of a given part or component are determined from:
E.planned order release of the immediate parent(s).
56. In MRP processing the difference between a planned-order release and the
planned-order receipt is:
B.scheduled receipts of open orders.
57. Pegging is used primarily for which one of the following purposes?
A.Identifying parent items that have generated a certain set of requirements for
an item.
58. Periodic updating of an MRP system to account for all changes which have
occurred within a given time interval is called:
D.regenerative MRP.
59. The MRP approach that immediately updates only those records directly affected
by a change is referred to as a(n):
D.net-change MRP.
60. Which is true of a net-change MRP?
C.The basic production plan is modified to reflect changes as they occur.
61. Which of the following are primary reports provided by MRP systems?I) Planned
order releasesII) Immediate order releasesIII) Demand history reportsIV)
Changes to open orders
C.I, II, IV only
62. Under fixed-interval lot sizing, order sizes for component parts are determined
based on which one of the following?
B.Net requirements for some predetermined number of periods.
63. Which one of the following most closely describes the MRP approach that is
used for components or subassemblies to compensate for variations in lead
time?
D.Safety time
64. Which of the following are accurate statements concerning MPS, MRP and
capacity requirements planning (CRP)?I) CRP is equivalent to a master
production schedule (MPS).II) CRP is needed to determine if an MPS is
feasible.III) CRP is an input to MRP.IV) Planned-order releases from MRP are
the inputs for CRP.
C.II and IV
65. Which action can managers take if capacity requirements planning (CRP)
indicate one or more work stations are projected to be under loaded or over
loaded?
E.All of the choices are options.
66. A report that compares known and expected future capacity requirements with
projected available capacity is a:
E.load report.
67. What is the correct sequence to go from the broadest to the most detailed form of
operations planning?
C.ERP » MPS » MRP
68. Budget overruns when implementing ERP systems are typically caused by:I) high
equipment costs.II) high training costs.III) high capital interest charges. IV) costs
of integrating and testing
D.II and IV only
69. If 17 Ps are needed, and no on-hand inventory exists, how many Cs will be
needed?
E.272
70. If 17 Ps are needed, and on-hand inventory consists of 10 As, 15 Bs, 20 Cs, 12
Ms and 5 Ns, how many Cs are needed?
C.192
71. If 40 Ps are needed, and on-hand inventory consists of 15 Ps and 10 each of all
other components and subassemblies, how many Cs are needed?
B.350
72. What is the net requirement for Whatzats to fill this order?
C.150
73. How many Wherezats should be ordered?
D.550
74. When should an order for Wherezats be released?
A.At the start of week 2.
75. What is the economic part-period (EPP) for ordering this item?
E.200
76. What is the part-period method lot size for the order for the first period?
C.280
77. For which period will the second order be submitted using the part period lot
sizing method?
C.Period 4
78. What is the lot size for the second order using the part-period method?
C.170
79. If the firm is using lot size for a fixed period of two, what is the order size for the
first order
B.200