Mega Physical Test 2022 ATS-3004

11 Sep 2022, 1:07 p.m.

Your score: 26%

   52 / 200

Duration: 2:22:31

English

1. Identify the underlined word or phrase that contains a mistake and needs to be changed to make 0 /
1 point

the sentence correct.

If you had worked hard, you will have had no trouble passing the exam.

Your Answer:
Incorrect
worked

will

had

passing
Explanation:

Correct Answer B: (would)

2. You are one of the few lucky ones who is going to die a really natural death 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
the few

is going

to die

natural death
Explanation:

Correct Answer B: (are going)

3. The influx of a huge number of returning emigrants and migrant workers _________ the last thing 0 /
1 point

that was needed.

 Your Answer:
Incorrect
was been

were

was

were being
Explanation:

Correct Answer C: (was)

4. My initial feelings of anger have now transmuted __________ a sense of sorrow and frustration. 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
into

to

for

by
Explanation:

Correct Answer A: (into)

5. Choose correct sentence. 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Time had not been kind on him.

Time had not been kind with him.

Time had not been kind to him.

Time had not been kind about him.

Explanation:

Correct Answer C: Time had not been kind to him.

6. Choose correct sentence. 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
The package was lying to the front door.

The package was lying in the front door.

The package was lying by the front door.

The package was lying on the front door.

Explanation:

Correct Answer C: The package was lying by the front door.

7. Synonym CRITERIA 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Trials

Peaks
 Gauges

Aberrations
Explanation:

Correct Answer C: (Gauges)

8. Synonym DOMAIN 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Fielding

Marketing

Main

Area
Explanation:

Correct Answer: D Area

9. Choose the correct spelling: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Anxieties

Anexieties

Anxeties

Anxyeties
Explanation:

Correct Answer A: (Anxieties)

10. She went to the mall to ______a new dress for her interview. 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
By

Buy

Bye

Bay
Explanation:

Correct Answer B: (Buy)

11. Antonym REVEALED 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Naked

Concealed

Open

Bare
Explanation:
 Correct answer B Concealed

12. Antonym HOMELY 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Rough

Beautiful

Smooth

Outgoing
Explanation:

Correct answer D Outgoing

13. They were encouraged to express their fears and_______. 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Disregards

Pensively

Nemeses

Anxieties
Explanation:

Correct Answer D: (Anxieties)

14. Naseer _______ to Lahore is 1997. 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
is transferred

was transferred

has been transferred

should be transferred
Explanation:

Correct Answer B: (was transferred)

15. Pick the correct option: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
We have always sang anthems that celebrate our nation.

We have always sing anthems that celebrate our nation.

We have always sung anthems that celebrate our nation.

We have sing always anthems that celebrate our nation.

Explanation:

The use of "have," a past-tense helping

(auxiliary) verb, makes the verb in the sentence

 While "always sung" and "sung always" may each look like a potentially correct answer, "sung always" introduces an
awkward word order that "always sung" avoids, so "always sung" is the correct answer, making the corrected
sentence, "We have always sung anthems that celebrate our nation."

16. Don't worry, Usman is used to _______ for long hours because he has been working as a 0 /
1 point
professional driver for 20 years.

Your Answer:
Incorrect
drive

drove

driving

have driven
Explanation:

Correct Answer C: (driving)

17. Choose the correct spelling: 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Comittee

Commitee

Committee

Committey

18. Choose the correct spelling: (A great writer) 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Shakespear

Shakespeare

Shakspiear

Shakespear

Biology

19. The diameter of thick filament is: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
16  µm

7-8 nm

1-2  µm

16 nm

20. Calcium ions bind with the troponin molecule and cause them to: 0 /
1 point
 Your Answer:
Incorrect
Extend

Move slightly

Contract

Remain in the same position

Explanation:

When the muscle is required to contract, calcium ions bind with the troponin molecule and cause them to move
 slightly. This has the effect of displacing the tropomycin and exposing the binding sites for the myosin head

21. It is false for viruses: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Viruses contain both DNA and RNA

Viruses are non-cellular

No independent metabolic activities

Tiny and infectious agent

Explanation:

Viruses are composed of central core of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA but not the both, which is also known as the
genome and is surrounded by a protein coat, the capsid.

22. Hepatitis A virus is: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
RNA

Viroid

DNA

ss DNA
Explanation:

Viruses can be classifying on the basis of genome, .HAV contains single standard RNA, HBV contains DNA and HCV
contains RNA.

23. Retroviruses contain: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Single stranded RNA

Double stranded RNA

Single stranded DNA

Double stranded DNA

Explanation:

All retroviruses are RNA viruses, containing copies of single stranded RNA as genome.

24. Among followings, ___________ enzyme is naturally found in human immunodeficiency virus. 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
 DNA polymerase

Reverse transcriptase

RNA polymerase

Ligase
Explanation:

HIV particles are equipped with reverse. transcriptase; integrase and proteases while DNA polymerase, RNA
polymerase and ligase are absent in HIV.

25. Which of the following is correct sequence for the movement of electrons during non-cycling 0 /
1 point

photophosphorylation?

Your Answer:
Incorrect
P680 →  P700 → water → NADP+

Water →  P700 → P680 → NADP+

Water →  P680 →  P700 →  NADP+

P680 →  P700 →  NADP+ →  water

26. Bundles of myofibrils are enclosed by the: 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Muscle cell membrane

Nuclear membrane

Sarcolemma

Muscle cell membrane or sarcolemma

Explanation:

The plasma membrane of muscle cell is called sarcolemma.

27. A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
A-lines

H-lines

Z-lines

M-lines
Explanation:

An area between two Z-lines or Z disc is called sarcomere.

28. Z-scheme is another name used for: 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Cyclic photophosphorylation

Calvin cycle

Non-cyclic- photophosphorylation
 Oxidative phosphorylation

29. Which is most necessarily associated with the Calvin cycle?· 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
ATP production

Oxygen production

Carbon dioxide fixation

Carbon dioxide production

30. If 12 NADPH are used in Calvin cycle, then how many glucose molecules will be formed: 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
One

Six

Two

Twelve
Explanation:

Since 6 molecules of NADPH are used for the synthesis of 1 G3P in Calvin cycle, so for the synthesis of one glucose
molecule 12 molecules of NADPH are required.

31. In plants, energy is released during the process of 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Photosynthesis

Respiration

Transpiration

Water absorption
Explanation:

Energy is released during cellular respiration by catabolism of organic molecules in all organisms.

32. Bone-to-muscle connections are made by 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
tendons.

ligaments.

bone.

cartilage.
Explanation:

Tendons connect bone to muscle, while ligaments provide bone-to-bone connections at the joint.

33. Which one of the following does NOT match? 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
 ribosomes - RNA production

mitochondria - ATP formation

Golgi apparatus - packaging of secretory products

lysosomes - storage of digestive enzyme

Explanation:

For this question you must know the functions of the organelles. The ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. They
contain RNA, but RNA production occurs in the nucleus under the direction of DNA. RNA is then stored in the
nucleolus of the nucleus.

34. Evidence for evolution includes all of the following EXCEPT 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
fossil record.

similarities of proteins in different organisms.

homologous limb structures.

differences in physical appearance of individuals within a species.

35. The smallest type of cell in humans is a(n) 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
nerve cell.

ovum.

white blood cell.

red blood cell.

Explanation:

Red blood cells are the smallest body cells, seven to eight micrometers in diameter. White blood cells are slightly
larger. Nerve and skeletal muscle cells are larger; the human ovum is large enough to be visible without using a
microscope, approximately 1 .5 mm in diameter.

36. After storage in the epididymis, migrating sperm cells next encounter the 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
prostate.

testis.

urethra.

vas deferens.
Explanation:

Sperm travel through the following structures in the following order: testis, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct,
prostatic urethra, and penile urethra

37. This organelle is present in prokaryotes. 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
 Golgi body

Mitochondrion

Ribosome

Endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:

Ribosomes, which are not bound by membranes, are present in prokaryotes. Ribosomes carry out the translation of
mRNA transcripts to produce polypeptides.

38. A man with blood type A has a child with a woman who has blood type B. Both are homozygous for 0 /
1 point
their blood type alleles. Which of these are possible blood types for the offspring?

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Type A

Type B

Type O

Type AB

39. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages involved in the processing of food? 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
ingestion

digestion

acid processing

absorption
Explanation:

Food is ingested (eaten), then enzymes in saliva and stomach secretions digest the food particles (break them down)
so they can be absorbed. Non digested food particles are eliminated as waste.

40. The human skin contains all of the following receptors EXCEPT 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
pain receptors.

pressure receptors.

thermoreceptors.

chemoreceptors.
Explanation:

Humans have chemoreceptors in their noses and mouths.

41. Which of the following is NOT indicated by Mendel’s experiments? 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
incomplete dominance

segregation
 recessive

dominant
Explanation:

The only choice that represents non-Mendelian genetics would be choice (A). The interaction of traits that blend
would have been much harder to delineate without first knowing the laws that Mendel proposed. Being the
mathematician that he was, Mendel reduced the number of variables to easily interpretable parameters

42. In a heterozygous monohybrid cross, the dominant trait can be expressed in the phenotype of the 1 /
1 point

F1 ________ of the time

Your Answer:
Correct
0 percent

25 percent

75 percent

100 percent
Explanation:

In a heterozygous cross—height, for example, when T represents the dominant, tall, trait and t represents the
recessive, short, trait—the following genotype would represent both parents: Tt. Following Mendelian procedures and
using a Punnett square to ensure accuracy, the following genotypes would result: TT, Tt, Tt, and tt. This would
produce an occurrence of the dominant trait 75 percent of the time.

43. The number of bones forming skull in man is? 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
8

14

20

22
Explanation:

Skull (Cephalic region) = 22 Bones

44. Which of the following blood types are possible if the parents are A and O blood types? 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
A and O

B and O

AB only

A, B, and O
Explanation:

This is a case of multiple alleles controlling a trait (not to be confused with polygenesis). The alleles for blood types A
and B (represented by I A and I B, respectively) are separately dominant, when one is present but the other is not.
Taken together, they are incompletely dominant as in AB (represented only by I A I B ) blood type. Blood type O
 (represented by i) is recessive. If the two alleles are I A I A or I A i, then the blood type will be A. If the two alleles are I
B I B or I B i, then the blood type will be B. Type O blood can only be ii.

45. Limbic system consists of: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Hypothalamus, amygdala & hippocampus

Thalamus, Hypothalamus & Amygdala

Hypothalamus, Pons & Hippocampus

Amygdala, Hippocampus & thalamus

Explanation:

46. The correct sequence of meninges from inner to outer side is 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Dura mater -->  pia mater --> arachnoid membrane

Dura mater --> arachnoid membrane --> pia mater

Arachnoid membrane --> dura mater --> pia mater

Pia mater --> arachnoid membrane - dura mater

Explanation:

The meninges is the membranous coverings of the brain and spinal cord. It has three layers of protective tissues
namely, dura mater, arachnoid mater and pia mater. Dura mater is the outermost covering present underneath the
bones. Arachnoid is the middle layer present underneath the dura mater. There is space called sub-arachnoid space
directly underneath the arachnoid.

47. Pinna of ear has cartilage. 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Hyaline

fibro

Elastic

Bony

48. Select the odd one out: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Scbaceous Gland

Salivary GIand

Sweat Gland

Adrenal Gland
Explanation:
 Adrenal gland is endocrine in nature lacks ducts and thus must secrete into surrounding blood capillaries unlike
exocrine glands which secrete their products into a duct Sweat, sebaceous and salivary glands are all exocrine
glands.

49. The gap between two myelin sheath Is known as: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Nodes of Ranvier

Synaptic cleft

Schwann cell

Synaptic knob
Explanation:

Myelin sheath surrounds the axon of the nerve cell. it's a fatty white substance. It forms an insulating layer on the
axon. It's formed by a process !mown as myelination. The gap between two myelin sheaths is known as the node of
Ranvier.

50. In an adult human being when the lung are fully inflated, the total inside capacity or lungs is about: 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
0.5 litre

1.5 litre

3.5 litre

5.0 litre
Explanation:

Tidal volume at rest is 500 ml.

• Maximum lung capacity is 5 L.

• Residual volun1e is 1.5 L

•Maximum air that can be breathed in and out Is 3.5 L

51. Which type of muscles have nerve supply from autonomic nervous system 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Cardiac Muscles 

Smooth Muscles

Skeletal Muscles

Both A and B
Explanation:

Both cardiac muscles and sn1ooth muscles are involuntary in nature, thus they are controlled by autonomic nervous
system, while Skeletal Muscle are Voluntary

52. Which of the following tissues contains the highest number of mitochondria? 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
skin
 bone

connective

muscle
Explanation:

One would expect that the cells with the highest potential for activity would have the highest number of mitochondria,
the powerhouse of the cell, which would be muscles

53. Which of the following enzymes acts on protein? 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
pepsin

ptyalin

amylase

maltase
Explanation:

Pepsin is a protease that arises from a precursor, pepsinogen, that is activated by hydrochloric acid, which is the acid
found in gastric juices.

54. Neurotransmitters have as their effectors cells such as 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
nerves.

muscles.

glands.

all of the above.

Explanation:

Effectors are the cells that neurons act upon.

55. Viruses are an exception to the cell theory because they 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
normally reproduce by binary fission.

lack either DNA or RNA.

have no cell organelles

normally reproduce only in host cells.

Explanation:

Not only are viruses not cellular, but they can not reproduce without being in a host cell.

56. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the__________ with the action of the enzyme __________. 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
mouth, amylase

stomach, pepsin
 stomach, chymotrypsin

small intestine, amylase

Explanation:

Salivary amylase breaks starches into sugars, which is why holding a cracker in your mouth for a short time makes it
seem sweeter.

57. The undershoot during an action potential is the result of 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
the sodium gates being closed and the potassium gate open

the sodium gates being closed and the potassium gate closed.

the sodium gates being open and the potassium gate closed

one of the sodium gates being open, one closed, and the potassium gate open.
Explanation:

The undershoot is a lower negative potential than the resting state. This occurs because the sodium gates are closed,
keeping sodium from passing in, and the potassium channels, which are slower, are still open from the repolarizing
phase, allowing potassium to move out of the cell

58. Which of the following organelle consist of two subunits. 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Golgi body

Ribosome

Mitochondria

Plastid

59. Hormones involve in ossification of bones 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Calcitonin

Oxytocin

Thyroxin

Parathormone
Explanation:

Calc1tonm acts to reduce blood Ca+ opposing the effects of parathyroid hormone deposition of Ca2+ in the bones.

60. The skeleton of sponges consists of: 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Carbonate of lime 

Silicon

Calcium carbonate

Carbonate of lime & silicon

 Explanation:

A sponge endoskeleton consists of short, sharp rods called spicules. Spicules are made of silica, calcium carbonate
or spongin, a tough protein.

61. It is not true for Phylum Platyhelminthes: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Bilaterally symmetrical

Triploblastic metazoan

Dorsoventrally compressed body

Radially symmetrical body

Explanation:

Phylum Platyhelminthes have bilateral symmetry. This means there is only one lane of symmetry

62. Lock and key model for enzyme action proposed by Emil Fischer suggests that: 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Enzymes are unbiased for substrate

Enzymes can modify their active sites

Enzymes are restricted to one reaction type

Enzyme can catalyze variety of reactions

Explanation:

According to lock and key model every enzyme is specific due to its active site for its substrate. So every enzyme can
convert only its specific substrate into product.

63. Phage DNA incorporated into host DNA is referred as: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
T4 phage

Provirus

Prophage

Bacteriophage
Explanation:

Phage nucleic acid incorporated into the host genome is called 'prophage'. 

64. Glycogen is present in all body except: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Brain

Tissues

Heart

Blood
Explanation:
 Brain, however, does not serve as a glucose store for the rest of the body, nor is it is encumbered by contractions that
limit blood supply. Moreover, the vast majority of brain glycogen is localized to astrocytes, rather than neurons

65. Hydrophilic substances are ______ and hydrophobic substances are _____. 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Water loving, Water fearing

Polar, Non-polar

Soluble in water, Soluble in lipid

All are correct

66. Which of the following statement is not true for compounds like glycoprotein and glycolipids? 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Both are conjugated molecules

Both are components of extracellular matrix of animal cell membrane

Component of biological membrane

Both synthesized in endoplasmic reticulum

67. Thyroid stimulating hormone is produced by: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Anterior lobe of thyroid

Exterior lobe of pituitary gland

Posterior lobe of pituitary gland

Anterior lobe of pituitary gland

Explanation:

TSH is a peptide hormone produced by the anterior pituitary.

68. Deficiency of cortical hormones causes: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Cushing syndrome

Addison’s disease

Dwarfism

Cretinism

69. Which one illustrates a reflex arc? 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
brain-> spinal cord->muscles

muscle-> receptor->brain

muscle-> spinal cord ->brain

 receptor->spinal cord->muscles
Explanation:

In reflex actions, a reflex arc is formed by impulses from the receptor reaching the spinal cord and the appropriate
reflex impulse then being sent to the muscles by the spinal cord. The impulse is not sent to the brain, to reduce
response time.

70. Progesterone inhibits: 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Release of LH

Anymore follicle from ripening

Conception

Continuity of gestation
Explanation:

It maintains the ongoing pregnancy and discourages further pregnancy to occur

71. The oldest known fossils are of: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Virus

Bacteria

Plants

Animals
Explanation:

The oldest known fossils are of bacteria.

72. In P1 of test cross, one parent will always be: 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Homozygous dominant

Homozygous recessive

Heterozygous dominant

Heterozygous recessive
Explanation:

Case - I
 Case - II

73. Number of pairs of autosomes in humans is: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
23

24

21

22
Explanation:
 Humans have 46 chromosomes in the form of 23 pairs. 22 pairs are of autosomes and one pair is of sex-
chromosomes.

74. Which of the following function is not performed by plasma membrane? 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Ingestion

Secretion

Locomotion

Osmotic resistance
Explanation:

Osmotic resistance is the function of cell wall, however cell membrane is involved in locomotion through pseudopodia
formation, ingestion (endocytosis) and secretion (exocytosis).

75. There is no gametogenesis in: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Protists

Fungi

Prokaryotes

Eukaryotes
Explanation:

As prokaryotes lack traditional sexual reproduction, so there is no gametogenesis. However, they get the benefit of
sexual reproduction (recombination) through conjugation, transduction and transformation

76. The inner membrane of mitochondrion forms infoldings into the inner chamber called: 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Mitochondrial cristae

Mitochondrial matrix

Mitochondrial stroma

Mitochondrial sap
Explanation:

The inner space of mitochondria within the inner membrane in which cristae lie is called matrix. The word matrix
indicates that this space is viscous as compared to relatively aqueous cytoplasm.

77. Haem group of hemoglobin differs from porphyrin of chlorophyll in having: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Iron as central atom

Magnesium as central atom

Four pyrrole rings

Central atom coordinated with nitrogen of each pyrrole ring

Explanation:
 p
Haem have iron as central atom whereas porphyrin of chlorophyll have magnesium as central atom.

78. Glottis is the opening of: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Larynx

Pharynx

Trachea

Windpipe
Explanation:

The opening of larynx is called glottis and epiglottis is its lid.

79. Lungs are covered with double layered thin membranous sac called: 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Air sacs

Alveoli

Pleura

Rib cage
Explanation:

The pulmonary pleurae are the two pleurae of the invaginated sac surrounding lungs and attaching to the thoracic
cavity.

80. _________ of the heart is made up of special type of muscles, the cardiac muscles. 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Pericardium

Epicardium

Myocardium

Endocardium
Explanation:

Myocardium of the heart is made up of special type of muscles called cardiac muscles. These muscles contains
myofibrils and myofilaments of myosin and actin.

81. It has many nuclei per cell: 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Smooth muscles

Cardiac muscles

Skeletal muscles

Involuntary muscles
Explanation:

Skeletal muscle cells are multinucleate.

82. The example of chemoreceptors is: 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Eyes

Nose

Stray ending

Rods and cones

Explanation:

As smell is a chemical stimulus, nose as a chemoreceptor is associated with it.

83. The general formula of monosaccharides is: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
(CH2O)n

Cn(H2O)n

Cn(H2O)y

Cy(H2O)n
Explanation:

“(CH2O)n”

84. In case of HIV, only _______ can infect host cells. 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Single stranded RNA

Double stranded DNA

Double stranded RNA

Single stranded DNA

Explanation:

The host of HIV is a lymphocytes T4 containing DNA as a genetic material that is why the viral genome should also
converted into DNA reverse transcription 

85. Which body function ·is controlled through positive feedback mechanism? 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Labor contractions

Body temperature

Insulin production

Thyroxin release
Explanation:

Stretch-receptive neurons in the cervix respond to this extension by signaling the hypothalamus, which response by
triggering the release of oxytocin that stimulates more and stronger uttering ·contractions.

86. The competitive inhibitors have structural similarity with: 0 /

1 point
 Your Answer:
Incorrect
Active site

Substrate 

Binding site

Co-enzyme
Explanation:

Non-competitive reversible inhibitors block allosteric site of enzyme while competitive reversible inhibitors have
structural similarity with substrate and they bind active site of enzyme

Physics

87. A rope of length 5 m is stretched to a tension of 80 N. If its mass is 1 kg, at what speed would a 10 1 /
1 point

Hz transverse wave-travel down the string? ·

Your Answer:
Correct
2 m/s

5 m/s

20 m/s

50 m/s
Explanation:

88. In full wave rectification, the output D.C. voltage across the load is obtained for________________ 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
The positive half cycle of input A.C.

The negative half cycle of input A.C

The complete cycle of input A.C.

All of the above

Explanation:

In full wave rectification, complete cycle of A.C is rectified.

89. An empty vessel is partially filled with water. Then the frequency of vibration of air column in the 0 /
1 point

vessel

Your Answer:
Incorrect
remain same

decrease

increase
 first increase then decrease
Explanation:

90. If we drop an object, its initial velocity is zero. How far will it fall in time 't'? 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
9.8t2

4.9t2

0.49t2

98t2
Explanation:

91. If momentum is increased by 20% then K.E. increases by: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
44%

55%

66%

77%
Explanation:

92. A person moving in a car at a constant velocity throws an apple vertically upwards. If we ignore air 0 /
1 point

friction and suppose car to move with same velocity then according to an observer standing
outside.

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Apple will follow a parabolic path and will fall again in car

Apple will follow a parabolic path but will fall behind car

Apple will follow a linear path and will fall again in car

Apple will follow a parabolic path but will fall before car
Explanation:
 Car will provide it horizontal component and person a vertical so combination makes a parabolic path

93. A force of 100 N acts on a body of mass 10 kg such that it’s velocity changes from vi to vf in 20 s 0 /
1 point

then the rate of change of momentum will be equal to:

Your Answer:
Incorrect
100 N

Greater than 100 N

Less than 100 N

Zero
Explanation:

Rate of change of momentum = Applied force = 100 N

94. A mass is lifted to a height in 10 sec. Now if the same mass is lifted to the same height in 20 sec 0 /
1 point
then work done in two cases are in the ratio:

Your Answer:
Incorrect
1:2

2:1

1:1

4:1
Explanation:

Work done does not depend upon time

95. A body is falling from a height h. After it has fallen a height h/2, it will possess 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Only potential energy

Half potential and half kinetic energy

Only kinetic energy

More kinetic and less potential energy

Explanation:

96. Which of the following force is non-conservative force? 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Fractional force
 Gravitation force

Electric force

elastic spring force

Explanation:

Frictional force is path dependent so, it is nqn-conservative  force

97. Under what condition an object will have zero displacement but non zero distance? 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
linear motion

circular motion

random motion

oscillation
Explanation:

During circular motion for complete rotation displacement = zero and distance = 2 πr.

98. The angular velocity of a particle rotating in a circular orbit 100 times per minute is 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
1.66 rad/s

10.47 rad/s

10.47 deg/s

60 deg/s
Explanation:

99. Which of the following waves can be transmitted through solid, liquid and gases? 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Transverse waves

Mechanical waves

Electromagnetic waves

Longitudinal waves
Explanation:

Longitudinal waves can be transmitted through all the three types of media

100. Newton assumed that sound propagation in a gas takes place under: 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Isothermal condition

Isobaric condition
 Adiabatic condition

Isochoric condition
Explanation:

The assumption of Newton about sound propagation through the air is that it obeys an isothermal process but we all
know that in actual it is an adiabatic process

101. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of stationary wave? 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Half wavelength is half the distance between the adjacent nodes

Amplitude is not the same

Phase is identical between two adjacent nodes

Energy of the stationary waves travels outwards

Explanation:

Energy of stationary wave travels outwards is not characteristics of stationary waves

102. Astronomers calculate speed of distant stars and galaxies using which of the following 0 /
1 point

phenomena?

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Beats

Interference

Superposition principle

Doppler effect
Explanation:

Doppler's effect is applicable for light waves also. Speed of distant stars is measured by Doppler's effect

103. A particle oscillating in simple harmonic motion is: 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Never in equilibrium because there is always a force

In equilibrium at the center of its path because the acceleration is zero there

Never in equilibrium because it is: in motion

In equilibrium at the ends of its p:ath because its velocity is zero there
Explanation:

At center of its path, no net force acts on it

104. Thermodynamic is the study of relationship between 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Heat & Surronding

Heat & other form of energy

Heat & Liquid

 Heat & chemical energy
Explanation:

In thermodynamics we deal with conversion of heat energy into other form of energy.

105. A positive charge is moved against an electric field. Its P.E 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Increases

Remains same

Decreases

May increase or decrease depending upon magnitude of charge

Explanation:

When positive charge is moved against electric field it P.E increases. When negative charge is moved along electric
field its P.E increases

106. If the potential at a point which is 1m from it charge is 1 volt then the potential at a point which is 0 /
1 point

2m from the same charge will be.

Your Answer:
Incorrect
2v

1v

0.5v

3v
Explanation:

107. For an ohmic conductor, doubling the voltage without changing the resistance will cause the 0 /
1 point

current to

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Decrease by a factor of 4

Decrease by a factor of 2

Remain unchanged

Increase by a factor of 2
Explanation:

108. Two electric bulbs, one of 200 volt 40 watt and the other 200 volt 100 watt are connected in a house 0 /
1 point

wiring circuit
 Your Answer:
Incorrect
They have equal currents through them

The resistance of the filaments in both the bulbs is same

The resistance of the filament in 40-watt bulb "is more than the. resistance in 100-watt bulb

The resistance of the filament in 1 00-watt.bulb is more than the resistance in 40-watt bulb
Explanation:

109. One of the following is an ohmic device 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Filmnent bulb

Semiconductor diode

Transistor

Copper wire
Explanation:

For copper wire there is straight line graph of l-V

110. The change in a resistance of metallic conductor below 0°C'? 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Nonlinear

Curve

Linear

Curvilinear
Explanation:

The is linear behavior between change in resistance w.r.t temperature below 0°C

111. The direction of the magnetic lines of force depends upon: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Nature of the material of the conducting wire

Amount of the current

Area of the conducting wire

Direction of the Current

Explanation:

Direction of magnetic field depends upon direction of current according to right hand rule

112. A charge is projected with velocity of 10m/s in a magnetic field of 10T at angle of 60°. If force of 0 /
1 point

2.78 x 10-17 N is exerted  on the charge then value of charge will be:
 Your Answer:
Incorrect
1.60 X 10-19 C

2.70 x 10-19C

4.80 x 10-19 C

3.20 x 10-19 C
Explanation:

113. The direction of induced current in a coil or circuit is such that it opposes every cause of its 0 /
1 point

production. This law is given by

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Faraday

Lenz

Kirchhoff

Ampere
Explanation:

Its statement of lenz's law

114. The output of an a.c generator has a 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Sinusoidal shape

Triangular shape

Square shape

Straight line shape

Explanation:

Output of A.C generator is a sine wave

115. In a transformer heat is produced due to eddy current in 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Primary coil

Secondary coil

Iron core

All of these
Explanation:

The magnetic flux changes through solid conductor (core material), induce current (i.e eddy current) are setup in
closed path in the body of conductor. It results in power dissipation and heating of core material
116. In full wave rectification, the diodes are used 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
1

4
Explanation:

Four diode are used in FWR

117. The basic reason why a full wave rectifier has a twice the efficiency of a half wave rectifier is that 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
It make use of transformer

It utilizes both half cycle of the input

Its ripple factor is much less

Its output frequency is double the frequency

Explanation:

It allows both half cycle so its efficiency twice.

118. Compared to the parent nucleus, the daughter of a β– decay has 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
the same mass number but a greater atomic number

the same mass number but a smaller atomic number

a smaller mass number but the same atomic number

a greater mass number but the same atomic number

Explanation:

In β– decay, a neutron is transformed into a proton and an electron. Therefore, the total nucleon number (mass
number) doesn’t change, but the number of protons (the atomic number) increases by one

119. Redshift of distant galaxies is evidence for which of the following? 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Expansion of the universe

Black holes

Dark matter

Superconductivity
Explanation:

Redshift occurs when light sources move away from the observer. If all the galaxies in the universe are moving away
from us, that’s evidence that the universe is expanding.

120. Which photon carries the most energy? 1 /

1 point
 Your Answer:
Correct
Blue

Violet

Red

Green
Explanation:

fv>fb >fr

E=hf

Evoilet is greater

121. Which of the following is NOT a correct pairing of physicist and field in which he made significant 0 /
1 point

contributions?

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Newton — gravitation

Einstein — relativity

Faraday — electricity and magnetism

Coulomb — quantum mechanics

Explanation:

Coulomb’s Law and the unit of electric charge are both named after Coulomb, which suggests that he significantly
predated quantum mechanics and worked on the fundamentals of classical electrostatics;

122. Which of the following series lies in ultraviolet region? 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Balmer series

Pascher series

Lyman series

Bracket series
Explanation:

Lyman series lies in ultraviolet region of electromagnetic wave spectrum.

123. Which quailitity remains same in isotones? 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Number of neutrons

Number of protons

Mass number

All of the above

Explanation:

Isotones are elements having same number of neutrons

124. 4.5x109 year is the half-life of: 0 /

1 point
 Your Answer:
Incorrect
U238

U235

U236

U14
Explanation:

Information of book

125. A person standing on a horizontal floor feels two forces: the downward pull of gravity and the 0 /
1 point

upward supporting force from the floor. These two forces

Your Answer:
Incorrect
have equal magnitudes and form an action/reaction pair

have equal magnitudes but do not form an action/reaction pair

have unequal magnitudes and form an action/reaction pair

have unequal magnitudes and do not form an action/reaction pair

Explanation:

these two forces have equal magnitudes, they do not form an action/reaction pair because they both act on the same
object (namely, the person). The forces in an action/reaction pair always act on different objects.

126. Which of the following best describes a perfectly inelastic collision free of external forces? 1 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Total linear momentum is never conserved

Total linear momentum is sometimes (but not always) conserved

Kinetic energy is never conserved

Kinetic energy is sometimes (but not always)conserved

Explanation:

In a perfectly inelastic collision, kinetic energy is never conserved; some of the initial kinetic energy is always lost to
heat and some is converted to potential energy in the deformed shapes of the objects as they lock together.

127. Slope of work time graph is equal to 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Acceleration

Energy

Power

Momentum
Explanation:
128. A stone is thrown horizontally with an initial speed of 30 m/s from a bridge. Find the stone's total 0 /
1 point

speed when it enters the water 4 seconds later. (Ignore air resistance.)

Your Answer:
Incorrect
30 m/s

40 m/s

50 m/s

60 m/s
Explanation:

129. If area of plates of capacitor is doubled & distance between them is also doubled then capacitance: 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Is doubled

Is halved

Is increased by four times

Remains unchanged
Explanation:

130. During projectile motion the quantities that remain constant are: 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Acceleration, vx

Acceleration, K.E

Force, velocity

Acceleration, Momentum
Explanation:

As friction is ignored so vx = constant also ax =0= constant And ay = g = constant

131. If the radius of a circle is doubled keeping same angular velocity, then centripetal force becomes: 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Double

Remains same

Half

Reduces by four times

Explanation:
132. The frequency of ultrasonic waves is: 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
In audible range

Greater than 20 kHz

Lower than 20 Hz

Equal to 2 kHz
Explanation:

“Ultra” means more, as frequency range for audible or sonic is  from 20 Hz - 20,000 Hz so it means ultra-sonic must
be greater than 20,000 Hz.

133. Which of the following is a wrong statement? 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Sound waves transport energy

Sound waves travel in are progressive waves

Sound waves travel adiabatically

Sound waves travel faster in vacuum than in air

Explanation:

Sound waves cannot travel at all in vacuum as there is no medium.

134. A uniform circular motion is: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
A periodic motion only

A simple harmonic motion only

Both periodic and harmonic motion

Neither periodic not harmonic motion

Explanation:

It’s only periodic not S.H.M

135. If two waves are superimposed to form a stationary wave, what will be speed of wave having 0 /
1 point

frequency 300 Hz while the distance between the two nodes is 1.5 m:

Your Answer:
Incorrect
100 ms-1

450 ms-1

200 ms-1

900 ms-1
Explanation:

Use relation; v =fλ first find “λ” from distance between two nodes which is equal to λ/2
136. For which of the following process work done comes out to be maximum? 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Isothermal

Isochoric

Adiabatic

Isobaric

137. Which of the following is the property of a system? 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Pressure and temperature

Internal energy and entropy

Volume and density

All of these
Explanation:

Note: Work and heat

are neither intensive properties nor extensive properties of system.

138. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the frequency and amplitude of a 0 /
1 point

sound wave?

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Frequency is proportional to amplitude.

Frequency is proportional to the square of the amplitude

Frequency is inversely proportional to amplitude.

Frequency and amplitude are independent.

Explanation:

The frequency determines the pitch of a sound, and the amplitude determines the intensity (or loudness). Pitch and
loudness are independent. (A sound can be soft and low pitched, soft and high pitched, loud and low pitched, or loud
and high pitched; there’s no connection.)

139. As the air around the base of a candle flame is heated, it rises and is replaced by cooler air. This 0 /
1 point

illustrates what type of heat transfer?

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Conduction

Convection
 Radiation

Diffraction
Explanation:

The transfer of heat due to a moving fluid (such as air) is known as convection

140. The electric field strength at a point some distance away from a source charge does NOT depend 0 /
1 point

on

Your Answer:
Incorrect
the magnitude of the source charge

the sign of the source charge

the distance from the source charge

the nature of the medium surrounding the source charge

Explanation:

The sign of the source charge will affect the direction of the electric field vector at a point but not the strength of the
field.

Chemistry

141. When Calcium Carbide Is treated with water we get 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Ethyne

Ethime

Ethene

Ethanol

142. KOH/N2H, are used usually in converting 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Aldehydes to alkanes

Ketones to alkanes

Alkyl halides to alkane

Alcohols to alkane
Explanation:

Wolf Kushner's reduction can be used to reduce aldehydes/ketones to alkanes usually for aldehydes

143. Addition or an electronegative element to a carbocation makes it 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Less stable

More stable
 No effect

Delocalized
Explanation:

Addition of electronegative element lo carbocation withdraws electrons & makes it less stable, whereas electrons
donating group make it more stable

144. Tollen's reagent turns white on reaction with 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Ethene

2-butane 

Acetylene

2-pentyne
Explanation:

Acidic alkynes give white ppt on reaction with Tollen's reagent, i.e., NH4OH + AgNO3

145. Ferromagnetic elements 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Cr, Mn, Fe

Mn, Fe, CO

CO, Ni, Zn

Fe, CO, Ni
Explanation:

The transition metals Fe, Co and Ni are ferromagnetic. When the magnetic field is applied, all the unpaired electrons
in these n1etals (and their compounds) align in the direction of the applied magnetic field.

146. Markovnikov's rule is followed when HX adds to 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Ethene

2-butene

2-pentene

1-butene
Explanation:

1-butene is terminal unsymmetrical alkene

147. Atoms having same mass number but different atomic numbers are called 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Isotopes

Isobars

lsotones
 Isomers
Explanation:

Isobars are the atom of different elements which have the same mass number but different atomic number

148. Which of the following contains 1 mole of the stated particles 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Chlorine molecules in 35.5 g of chlorine gas

Electrons in 1g of hydrogen gas

Hydrogen ions in 1 dm3 of l mol dm-3 aqueous sulphuric acid

Oxygen atoms in 22.4 dm3 of oxygen gas at STP

Explanation:

1 g hydrogen is equal to one mole hydrogen item and each item of hydrogen contains one electron so there will be
one mole electron also:

149. The sole products of combustion analysis are 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
CO2 and NH3

CO2 and KOH

H2O and Mg(CIO4)2

CO2 and H2O

Explanation:

In combustion analysis, only those compounds can be analyzed which contain C. H, O and O). Organic compound +
O2 --> CO2 +H2O (C, H and O containing). So sole product of combustion analysis are CO2 and H2O

150. Positive rays are produced 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
By burning of gas

By cooling of the gas

By the bombardment of cathode rays on gas molecules

From anode like cathode rays, produced from cathode

Explanation:

Positive rays are actually fast moving cations

151. Atom with higher atomic number produces X-rays of 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Shorter wavelength

X-ray not produced

Larger wavelength

All are possible

 Explanation:

The X-rays of shorter wavelengths are emitted when target metal is of higher atomic number.

152. Pfund series are produced in the spectrum of hydrogen atom 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
When electrons jump down to 2nd-orbit

When electrons ·um down to 4th-orbit

When electrons jump down to 3rd-orbit

When electrons ·um down to 5th-orbit

153. If both temperature and volume of a gas are doubled, the pressure 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Cannot be predicated

Is reduced to ½

Remain unchanged

Is doubled
Explanation:

If both temperature and volume of a gas are doubled, the pressure remain unchanged

154. When 200cm3 of a gas at constant pressure is heated, its volume 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Increases

Decreases

Remains unchanged

First increases then decreases

Explanation:

Volume increases with the increase in temperature at constant pressure

155. An ideal gas can't be liquefied because 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Its critical temperature is always above 0°C

It solidifies before becoming a liquid

Its molecules are smaller in size

Forces between its molecules are negligible.

Explanation:

An ideal gas can't be liquefied because forces between its molecules are negligible

156. The boiling point of higher alkanes are greater than those of lower alkanes due to reason that 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
 Higher alkanes have greater number of atoms

The polarizabilities of higher alkanes are greater

Higher alkanes have greater hydrogen bonding

Higher alkanes have greater hydrogen bonding

Explanation:

For higher alkanes,

Molar mass ↑ polarizability ↑ LDF ↑ Boiling point ↑

157. The conversion of vapours back into their liquid state is called 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Crystallization

Vapourization

Evaporization

Condensation
Explanation:

The conversion of vapours back into their liquid state is called condensation

158. In order to mention the boiling point of water at 110°C, the external pressure should be 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Between 760 torr and 1200 torr

765 torr

Between 200 torr and 760 torr

any value of pressure

Explanation:

Boiling point of liquid ↑ External pressure ↑

159. The vapour pressure of pure water at 100°C is 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
760 cm Hg

14 .7 Psi

0.1 atm

101.325 Pa
Explanation:

The vapour pressure of pure water at I 00°C is 1 atm which is equal to 14.7 PSI

160. Gas is enclosed in a container of 20cm 3with the moving piston. According to kinetic theory of 0 /
1 point

gases, what is the effect on freely moving molecules of the gas if temperature is increased from
20°C to 100 °C?

Your Answer:
Incorrect
 Colliding capability of molecule will become lower

Pressure will become one half

Temperature· has no effect on freely moving molecules

Volume will be increased

161. Independent molecules of NaCl may exist in 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Solid phase

Liquid phase

Gaseous phase

Vapour phase
Explanation:

Independent molecule of NaCl may exist in only vapour phase

162. Statement, which describe a reversible reaction 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Both forward and reverse reaction does not occur simultaneously

Both forward and reverse reaction occur simultaneously but under different conditions

Both forward and reverse reaction occur simultaneously at the same time under same condition

Forward and reverse reaction takes place at different time and different conditions
Explanation:

In dynamic equilibrium, both forward ·and reverse reaction takes place simultaneously and Rf = Rb

163. For the given reaction PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Kp > Kc

Kp < Kc

Kp = Kc

Kp = Kc = 0
Explanation:

164. In Haber process, equilibrium mixture contains ___ NH3 by volume 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
20%

55%

70%
 35%
Explanation:

·The equilibrium mixture has 35%.by volume of NH3.

• Nearly 13% of all nitrogen fixation on earth is accomplished through Haber's process.

• About 80% ofNH3 is used for the production of fertilizers

165. The unit of rate constant of second order reaction is 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
-3 -1
mol dm sec

mol-2 dm+6

sec-1

mole-1 dm+3 sec-1

Explanation:

For second order reaction, the units of rate constants k are given by:

Units of - k = (concentration)1 ·0 (time)" 1

For second order n = 2

Units of k = (mole/dm3)1-2 (s)-1

Units of k = (mole/dm3)-1 s-1

Units of k =· moles-1 dm3 s-1

Units of k= dm3 moles-1 s-1

166. Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate into acetic acid and ethanol in the presence of mineral acid is 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Fractional order reaction

1st order reaction

Pseudo 1st order reaction

2nd order reaction

Explanation:

In hydrolysis of ester water is in large excess ·therefore it is pseudo 1st order reaction

167. Activation energy of a reaction 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Includes the average kinetic energy of the reactants

Is in addition to the average K.E. of the reactants

Is in addition to the average K.E. of the products

Required for effective collisions

168. Which of the following is not a state function 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
 Thermal energy at constant pressure

Enthalpy

Internal energy·

Work done
Explanation:

As work done is not property of system so not a state function

169. If an endothermic reaction is allowed to take place very rapidly in air, the temperature of the 1 /
1 point

surrounding air will

Your Answer:
Correct
Remains constant

Decrease

Increase

Either increase or decrease

Explanation:

Endothermic reaction absorb heat. Heat is taken from surrounding. So. temperature of surrounding air decreases

170. Enthalpy of formation of one mole of ionic compound ·form gaseous ion under standard condition 0 /
1 point

is called

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Dissociation energy

Lattice energy

Bond energy

All of these
Explanation:

The amount of heat which is released when one mole of ionic compound is formed from gaseous ions under standard
conditions is called lattice energy.

171. One of the best applications of Hess's law to calculate the lattice energy of ionic compound is 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Measurement of enthalpy change in a calorimeter

Studying of first law of thermodynamics

Born-Haber cycle

Measurement of a heat of formation .of a compound

Explanation:

Born-Haber cycle is best application of Hess's law to calculate the !attic energy of ionic Compound

ΔH = ΔHf - ΔHx

172. The oxidation number of oxygen atom in OF2 and H2O2 0 /

1 point
 Your Answer:
Incorrect
-2,  -1

-1, +2

+2, -1

+2, +1
Explanation:

OF2

0 +2(- 1) =0

0-2 =0

0= +2

H202

2 (+ l) +20 =0

20 =-2

0 = -I

173. If a salt bridge is removed from two half cell 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Reaction will stop

EMF drop to zero

EMF is decreased

Electrodes will be reversed

Explanation:

Salt bridge maintain the electrical neutrality between two half cells preventing net charge accumulation which will
occur if salt bridge is removed and hence emf will drop to zero

174. In a period, electronegativity from left to right 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Increases

Remain constant

Decreases

Variable trend
Explanation:

Electronegativity increases from left to right along the period due to increase in effective nuclear charge.

175. Pi bonds are produced by overlapping of 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Un-hybrid orbitals

Hybrid and un-hybrid orbitals

Hybrid orbitals

Atomic orbital and hybrid orbital

 Explanation:

π bonds are produced by overlapping of un-hybrid orbitals

176. Melting points of group IIA elements are considerably higher than those of group IA elements 0 /
1 point

because

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Size of IIA is greater than IA

I.E of IIA is less than IA

I.E of IIA is higher than IA

IIA provide more binding electron

Explanation:

Melting / boiling point of metals (1 A & IIA) depends on

(i) No. of binding electrons

(ii) Metallic structure

Binding energy  () no. of binding electrons .

Binding energy () melting. and boiling point

Group (IIA) provide two electrons per atom for binding so have highest melting and

boiling point than IA.

177. Catalyst used ·for ammonia synthesis is 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Cu

Zn

Co

Fe
Explanation:

Finely divided "Fe" is used as a catalyst in Haber process. Cr2O3 + MgO + SiO2 is used as promoter

178. The compound or complex ion which has a ring in its structure 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Polydentate ligand

Monodentate ligand

Chelate

Hydrate

179. Ether shows the phenomenon of: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Position isomerism
 Metamerism

Functional group isomerism

Cis trans isomerism

Explanation:

180. The correct name of 3,5,5-Trimethylhexane is 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
3-Ethyl 2-methyl pentane

2,2,4-Trimethylhexane

2,3-Dimethylpentane

2,3,4-Trimethylhexane
Explanation:

181. Halogenation of alkane is believed to proceed through 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Free radical substitution mechanism

Electrophilic substitution mechanism

Nucleophilic addition mechanism

Nucleophilic substitution mechanism

Explanation:

The initiation propagation and termination of halogenation of alkane involves free radicals.

Initiation step Cl2 -->2Clo

Propagation step Clo + CH4 --> HCI + CH.3

Termination step CH3 + Cl2 --> CH3Cl

182. The test for unsaturation of organic compounds is carried out by treating alkenes with 1% dilute 0 /
1 point

Alkaline KMnO4 solution. The colour of KMnO4 is discharged with the formation of

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Ethylene glycol

Glyoxal

Vicinal glycol

Oxalic acid
Explanation:
 Explanation:

183. In Friedal Craft's Chlorination of Benzene, Iron III chloride. acts as a catalyst, which is the initial 0 /
1 point

reaction in the generation of an electrophilc?

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Cl2 + FeCl3 ➔ Cl+ + FeCl-3

Cl2 + FeCl3 ➔ 2Cl+ + FeCl-2

Cl2 + FeCl3 ➔ Cl- + FeCl-4

Cl2 + FeCl3 ➔ Cl+ + FeCl-4

184. Whether an alkyl halide follows SN1 or SN2 mechanism depends o n 1 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Correct
Steric hindrance

Inductive effect

Stability of carbocation

All of these
Explanation:

Greater steric hinderance, greater stability of R+ and greater inductive effect favours SN1 .

185. Which halide ion has the capacity to act as both very good nucleophile and good leaving group in 0 /
1 point

nucleophilic substitution reactions?

Your Answer:
Incorrect
I-

F-

Br+

Cl-

186. Dehydration of alcohols with cone. H2SO4 at 180°C gives: 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Ethers

Alkenes

Esters

Alkyl halides
Explanation:
187. How will you distinguish between methanol and ethanol? 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
By lucas test

By silver mirror test

By oxidation

By iodoform test

188. Air oxidation of methanol vapour is achieved on passing over ____ at 300°C to get formalin 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Platinized asbestos

Nickel

Copper

Both A) and B)
Explanation:

189. Formalin is _____ % solution of formaldehyde in water 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
10%

40%

20%

60%
Explanation:

Formalin contains 40% formaldehyde, 8% methanol and 52% water

190. Brick red precipitate are formed when aldehyde reacts with 0 /
1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Sodium borohydride

Sodium bisulphate

Fehling solution

Formaldehyde

191. Which statement is incorrect about formation of ester 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
When carboxylic acids are heaved with alcohols, esters are formed

Esters have fruity smell

Esters are used as artificial flavors

Ester are formed in the presence of NaOH

 Explanation:

Esters formation are catalyzed by acids

192. Identify reversible reaction among the following 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Esterification

Acid Amide formation

Acid Halide formation

Acid anhydride formation

Explanation:

193. Which of the following is not a fatty acid? 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Phenyl acetic acid

Palmitic acid

Stearic acid

Oleic acid

194. Which of the following elements is not present in all proteins 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Carbon

Sulphur

Hydrogen

Nitrogen
Explanation:

AII proteins contain the elements carbon. hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen.

Logical Reasoning 

195. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ? 0 /

1 point

Your Answer:
Incorrect
29

31

35

37
Explanation:
 Clearly, the given sequence follows the pattern: +3,+5 ,+7,+9,+11, ...

Thus, 2 + 3 = 5, 5 + 5 = 10, ...

So, missing term = 26+ 11 = 37.

Hence, the answer is D.

196. The House of Ilyas is smaller than Mehdi. The House of Mehdi is greater than Hassan. Usama's 0 /
1 point

house is big.

I.  House of Ilyas is smaller than Hassan.

II. Mehdi house is the biggest.

III. Mehdi house is bigger than Usama.

Which of the following statements is most appropriate in the case above'?

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Only II

Both II and III

Only III

All are Inappropriate

Explanation:

The Houses of Ilyas and Hassan are smaller than Mehdi. But both cannot be compared.

We cannot compare Mehdi's and Osama's house, so we cannot say that Mehdi's house Is the biggest.

We cannot compare Mehdi's and Osama's house, so we cannot say that Mehdi's house is bigger than Usama .

197. Statement: Severe COVID-19 wave hits several parts of the country in the Pakistan.
0 /
1 point

Courses of Action:

I. Government should instantly make plans for providing financial assistance to those affected.

II. People in the affected parts should be vaccinated

Your Answer:
Incorrect
If only I is most appropriate

If only II is most appropriate

If neither I nor II is most appropriate

If both I and II are most appropriate

Explanation:

COVID-19 causes financial crises, so planning must be done to give financial to affected people also vaccinating
people is a good action towards the solution.

198. Statements:
0 /
1 point

I. Temperature of the earth is increasing.

II. Concentration of emission gases and particulate matter has increased in the atmosphere

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Statement II is the cause and statement I Is its effect 

 Both statements I and II are independent causes

Both statements I and II are effects of Independent causes.

Explanation:

When the concentration of emission gases and particulate matter Increases In the atmosphere (cause). the
temperature of the atmosphere Is Increased (effect).

199. Babar Azam is a match-winning player. Most match winning players are batsmen who have a good 1 /
1 point

scoring average above 50.

I. Babar Azam scores above 50 in every match inning.

II. Babar Azam is the only match-winning player.

Ill. No bowler is a match-winning player.

Which of the following statements is most appropriate in the case above?

Your Answer:
Correct
Only I

Both I & II

Both II & III

All are inappropriate Both I & II

Explanation:

Average score of Babar Azam is above 50 and he may have less than 50 in any inning. From the statement; we
cannot argue that Babar Azam is the only match-winning player.

Most match winning players are batsmen but not all. A bowler can also be a match winning player.

200. Statements:
0 /
1 point

I. The President dissolved the Assembly and called for a new election.

II. Corruption starts at the ministerial level and it has political involvement.

Your Answer:
Incorrect
Statement I is the cause and statement II Is its effect.

Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

Both statements I and II are independent causes.

Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Explanation:

When It was revealed that corruption starts at the ministerial level and it has political Involvement (cause).

The President dissolved the Assembly and called for a new election (effect).