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Holistic Mock Test - 02

Full Length Test 02 (Technical)
સ ૂચનાઑ
આ પ્રશ્નપત્રમ ાં કુલ 200 પ્રશ્નો છે . પ્રત્યેક પ્રશ્નનો ઉત્તર A, B, C અને D પૈકી કોઈ એક છે અને
ઉમેદવ ર જો જવ બ ન આપવ મ ગ
ાં ત હોય તો તેન મ ટે E વવકલ્પ આપેલ છે . તમ રે
બધ જ પ્રશ્નનોન ઉત્તર આપવ ફરજજય ત છે .
પ્રત્યેક સ ચ જવ બદીઠ 1 (એક) ગુણ મળવ પ ત્ર થશે. માંડળ દ્વ ર ગુણ ક
ાં ન
પદ્ધવતમ ાં મ ઇનસ પદ્ધવત દ ખલ કરવ મ ાં આવી છે . જે મુજબ - (i) પ્રત્યેક ખોટ જવ બદીઠ ,
ખ લી છોડેલ જવ બદીઠ 0.30 મ ઇનસ ગુણ ક પવ મ ાં આવશે। પરાં ત ુ જો
ઉમેદવ ર જવ બ આપવ મ ગ
ાં ત ન હોય અને વવકલ્પ (E) પસાંદ કરશે તો 0.30 ગુણ ક પવ મ ાં
આવશે નહહ
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1. Linear waterway for a river at bridge site is equal to
a) Length of a bridge
b) Sum of all clear spans
c) Sum of all clear spans + sum of width of piers
d) Sum of all clear spans + width of two abutments

2. The congestion factor for span beyond 70 m is

a) 1.9 b) 1.6 c) 1.7 d) 1.4

3. Which of the following is the type of crash barrier

a) flexible barrier c) rigid barrier
b) semi rigid barrier d) all of the above

4. For class 70R tracked vehicle, the nose to tail spacing between two successive vehicles shall not be
less than
a) 30 m b) 18.5 m c) 50 m d) 90 m

5. When the foundation of a bridge is supported on erodable soil, the depth of foundation is kept
more than the maximum scour depth. This depth of foundation below maximum scour depth is
called
a) formation depth b) grip length c) regime depth d) Afflux

6. The height of the plinth should not be less than_____________

a) 45 cm b) 20 cm c) 1 m d) 500 cm

7. Which of the following cannot be classified as a masonry construction?

a) Cement concrete block construction c) Random rubble construction
b) Adobe construction d) Hollow concrete block construction

8. The ratio of cement-mortar for stone masonry is generally ___________

a) 1:3 b) 1:4 c) 1:6 d) 1:8

9. Which technique of stabilization for sub-base is preferred for a heavy plastic soil?
a) Cement stabilization c) Lime stabilization
b) Mechanical stabilization d) Bitumen stabilization

10. The most undesirable properties of water used for making concrete or mortar are:
a) high concentration of carbonates c) high concentration of sulfate and chloride
b) high concentration of bicarbonates d) high concentration of silicates

11. Surkhi is added to lime mortar to

a) Prevent shrinkage c) Increase bulk
b) Decrease setting time d) Impart hydraulicity
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12. Consider the following strength of concrete:
(i) Cube strength (ii) Cylinder strength (iii) Split-tensile strength (iv) Modulus of rupture
The correct sequence in increasing order of the strength is
a) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) c) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) d) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

13. Why is super plasticizer added to concrete?

(i) To reduce the quantity of mixing water
(ii) To increase workability
(iii) To reduce the quantity of cement
(iv) To increase early age strength
a) (i) and (iv) b) (ii) and (iv) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

14. Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than
a) 3.5 N/mm2 b) 7.0 N/mm2 c) 10.5 N/mm2 d) 14.0 N/mm2

15. The main constituent of cement which is responsible for the initial setting of the cement is
a) Tricalcium aluminate c) Tricalcium silicate
b) Dicalcium silicate d) Tetra calcium alumina ferrite

16. Which of the following features regarding Double Flemish bond is not true?
a) Every course consists of headers and stretchers placed alternately
b) The facing and backing of the wall, in each course, have the same appearance
c) Quion closers are not required
d) Headers of any course are supported centrally by the stretchers of their underlying course

17. Cost slope of the direct cost curve is given by

𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡−𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡−𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡
a) 𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒−𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 c) 𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡−𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡−𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡
b) 𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
d) 𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒−𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒

18. Assertion (A): Interference float is the event slack at the head node of an activity.
Reason (R): Interference float cannot be shared by any other activity.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

19. Which of the following is not a rule for network diagram?

a) An event cannot occur until all the activities leading to it are completed
b) An event can occur twice
c) Two or more arrows should not be used for one activity
d) There must be only single initial node.
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20. Which of the following statements regarding the tendering process is are correct:
1. Earnest money deposit is around 1.1 to 2% of the estimated cost of the project
2. Performance security amount is around 10% of the contract amount
3. Both EMD and performance security are required to be submitted only by the lowest bidder.
4. Performance security amount is refunded immediately after completion of the project.

a) 1 and 2
b) 1 3 and 4
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 2 and 4

21. A machine costs Rs. 16,000. By constant rate of declining balance method of depreciation, its
salvage value after an expected life of 3 years is Rs. 2,000. The rate of depreciation is
a) 0.25 b) 0.40 c) 0.30 d) 0.50

22. The process/phase of project management in which difference between the plan and actual
performance are reviewed after the project is started is called
a) Planning b) Scheduling c) Controlling d) All of the above

23. In PERT analysis of a project having large number of activities in the critical path, which of the
following assumption is correct?
a) Both activity durations and project completion time follow 𝛽 −distribution
b) Both activity durations and project completion time follow normal distribution
c) Activity durations follow normal distribution, but project completion time follows 𝛽 − distribution
d) Activity durations follow 𝛽 −distribution, but project completion time follows normal distribution

24. Sludge bulking can be controlled by

a) Chlorination b) Coagulation c) Aeration d) Denitrification

25. Which of the following causes a decrease demand of water in per capita consumption?
a) Use of metering system c) Better standard of living of the people
b) Good quality of water d) Hotter climate

26. The standard BOD5 at 20℃, when compared to BODu is

a) 50% b) 68% c) 75% d) 100%

27. The best system for distribution of water in a randomly planned city is
a) Dead end systems b) Grid iron system c) Ring system d) Radial system

28. If mild steel bars are used in place of HYSD bars in a beam, then the bond strength will
a) Increase b) Decrease c) remains same d) None of these

29. As compared to WSM, LSM used for design of beam section will have
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a) larger depth, less amount of reinforcement
b) shorter depth, more amount of reinforcement
c) Same depth, less reinforcement
d) Same depth, more reinforcement

30. What is the ratio of flexural strength (fcr) to the characteristic compressive strength of concrete
(fck) of M25 grade concrete?

a) 0.08 b) 0.12 c) 0.17 d) 0.14

31. If three bars are stressed simultaneously and anchored than in post tensioned member elastic
shortening loss

a) will occur in 1st bar c) will occur in 2nd and 3rd bar
b) will occur in 1st and 2nd bar d) will be zero

32. A pre-stressed concrete beam of cross-sectional area A, Moment of inertia I, distance of NA from
extreme top fiber is yt, and from bottom is 𝑦𝑏 is subjected to a pre-stressing force such that the
stress at top fiber is zero. What is the value of eccentricity? (r = radius of gyration)

a) A/yb b) r2/ yb c) r2/ yt d) A/ yt

33. In limit state design of reinforced concrete, deflection is computed by using

a) Initial tangent modulus

b) Secant modulus
c) Tangent modulus
d) Short and long-term values of Young’s modulus

34. Diagonal tension failure occurs due to

a) large shear force and lesser bending moment

b) Large bending moment and lesser shear force
c) Only bending moment
d) Only shear force

35. The formwork including the props can be remove from beams spanning up to 4.5m only after
_________.
a) 1 day b) 3 days c) 4 days d) 14 days

36. The deflection including the effects of temperature, creep and shrinkage occurring after erection
of partitions and the application of finishes should not exceed
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a) span/250 c) span/350 or 25 mm, whichever is less
b) span/350 or 20 mm, whichever is less d) span/200

37. The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab is

a) 1/4th the width of the panel c) radius of the column
b) half the width of the panel d) diameter of the column

38. The type of jump that forms when initial Froude number lies between 2.5 and 4.5 is
a) weak jump b) steady jump c) undular jump d) oscillating jump

39. The laminar sublayer is

a) a boundary layer that occurs before the formation of a regular laminar boundary layer
b) is the first 1/8 of a laminar boundary layer, next to a boundary
c) is a region where the wall roughness predominates
d) is a region near to the wall where the laminar motion persists while the rest of the flow is
turbulent

40. Hydraulic jump is expected when slope of a channel changes from

a) mild to steep b) steep to steeper c) steep to mild d) mild to milder

41. Match the List – I with List –II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List – I
A. Positive surge travelling upstream C. Negative surge travelling upstream
B. Positive surge travelling downstream D. Negative surge travelling downstream
List – II
1. Occurs on upstream of gate that is partly closed suddenly
2. Occurs on downstream of gate that is partly closed suddenly
3. Occurs on upstream of gate that is opened suddenly
4. Occurs on the downstream that is opened suddenly
A B C D
a) 1 4 3 2
b) 1 2 3 4
c) 3 4 1 2
d) 3 4 2 1
a) a b) b c) c d) d

42. A tracer is injected continuously from a point in an unsteady flow field. The locus of locations of
all the tracer particles at an instance of time represents
a) Stream line b) Path line c) Stream line d) Streak line

43. Consider the following statements:

I. The velocity of flow in a channel at a depth of 0.6y below the free surface is found to be very close
to the mean velocity.
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II. The velocity of flow in an open channel is uniform across the section. The maximum velocity
occurs at the free surface.
III. A constant velocity section is one which the velocity is constant for all depths of flow.
IV. The discharge in a small open channel can be measured by using a venturi flume or by
constructing a weir across it.
Of these statements
a) Only I is correct
b) Only I and II are correct
c) Only I, III and IV are correct
d) All I, II, III and IV are correct

44. Euler’s equation of motion can be integrated when it is assumed that

a) the continuity equation is satisfied
b) the fluid is incompressible
c) a velocity potential exists and the density is constant
d) the flow is rotational and incompressible

45. Match the List I (Flow regimes for gradually varied flow) with List II (Type of gradually varied flow
profile) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List – I List – II
A. 𝑦𝑐 > 𝑦𝑛 > 𝑦 1. 𝐶1
B. 𝑦 > 𝑦𝑛 > 𝑦𝑐 2. 𝑀1
C. 𝑦𝑛 > 𝑦 > 𝑦𝑐 3. 𝑆3
D. 𝑦 > 𝑦𝑐 > 𝑦𝑛 4. 𝑀2
5. 𝑆1

Codes :
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 3 4 5 2
c) 3 2 4 5
d) 5 4 3 1
a) a b) b c) c d) d

46. Two pipe systems in series are said to be equivalent when

a) the average diameter in both systems is the same
b) the average friction factor in both systems is the same
c) total length of the pipe is the same in both the systems
d) the discharge under the same head is the same in both systems

47. Which of the following is not a limitation of creep theory?

a) No distinction between the vertical and horizontal creep
b) No distinction between effectiveness of outer and inner faces of sheet pile
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c) Significance of exit gradient is not considered
d) Only a nominal floor thickness is required on the upstream side so as to resist water

48. If the value of Bligh’s coefficient for a particular soil is equal to 12 then, what is the safe hydraulic
gradient for that soil?
a) 1/12 b) 1/9 c) 1/15 d) 1/5

49. As per Bligh’s theory, thickness to be provided by taking a factor of safety equal to _______
a) 2/3 b) 4/3 c) 1/3 d) 1/2

50. Calculate the value of creep length for the following?

a) 50 m b) 26 m c) 58 m d) 36 m

51. Which of the following CD works carry drainage over the canal?
a) Aqueduct and Syphon Aqueduct c) Level-crossing and inlets outlets
b) Super passage and Syphon d) Canal Syphon and Aqueduct

52. The canal water flows freely under gravity in which of the following CD works?
a) Aqueduct and Super passage c) Canal Syphon and Aqueduct
b) Super passage and Syphon d) Level-crossing and inlets outlets

53. A Super passage is the reverse of ______________

a) syphon b) aqueduct c) inlets and outlets d) syphon Aqueduct

54. Which of the following statement is not correct about canal syphon?
a) FSL of the canal is much above than the bed level of the drainage trough
b) To minimize the trouble of silting, a ramp is provided at the exit
c) The canal water flows under symphonic action
d) For siphoning small discharges, barrels are adopted

55. Which CD work is generally adopted when the drainage discharge is small and the drain crosses
the canal with its bed level equal to or slightly higher than the canal FSL?
a) Syphon Aqueduct c) Inlets and outlets
b) Level crossing d) Aqueduct

56. If the operating head on an ogee spillway is more than the design head then ________________
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a) the pressure on the crest will be zero
b) the pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation
c) the pressure on the crest will be positive
d) the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced

57. In the functioning of an ogee spillway, the operating head ______________________

a) frequently exceeds the design head c) never exceeds the design head
b) rarely exceeds the design head d) has no connection with the design head

58. The W.E.S downstream profile of an ogee spillway can be represented by an equation:
(𝑛−1)
𝑋 = 𝐾𝐻𝑑 𝑦 Where x and y are the coordinates of the points on the crest profile and K and n for a
vertical upstream spillway would respectively be___________________
a) 2.0 and 1.85 b) 0.5 and 1.85 c) 2.0 and 0.85 d) 0.5 and 0.85

59. In the design of steel structure, for the purpose of designing any member, the load generated
due to secondary effects include
1. Due to contraction or expansion from the temperature
2. Due to differential settlement of structure
3. Due to accidental loads
4. Due to eccentric connections
a) Only 1 and 3 b) Only 1, 2 and 3 c) Only 1,2 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

60. The flange splice in plate girders is preferably placed near about
a) Mid span section b) Quarter span section c) End section d) Any section

61. Prying forces are

a) Forces due to the friction between connected parts
b) Bending forces on the both bolts because of the joints
c) Shearing forces on the bolts because of joints
d) Tensile forces due to the flexibility of connected parts

62. In a steel plate with bolted connection the rupture of the net section is a mode of failure under
a) Tension b) Compression c) Flexure d) Shear

63. In steel structures, the thickness of the base plate in a column base is determined from the
a) Flexural strength of plate c) Bearing strength of concrete pedestal
b) Shear strength of plate d) Punching criteria

64. A steel section is subjected to a combination of shear and bending actions. The applied shear
force is ‘V’ and shear capacity of the section is ‘Vs’ for such sections, high shear force(as per IS :
8000-2007) is defined as
a) V > 0.6 Vs b) V > 0.7 Vs c) V > 0.8 Vs d) V > 0.9 Vs
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65. A steel member ‘M’ has reversal of stress due to live loads, whereas another member ‘N’ has
reversal of stress due to wind load. As per IS 800 : 2007, the maximum slenderness ratio is permitted
is:
a) Less for member ‘M’ than that of member ‘N’
b) More for member ‘M’ than for member ‘N’
c) Same for both the members
d) Not specified in the code

66. As per IS 800 : 2007, the section in which the extreme fibre in compression can reach yield stress
but cannot develop the plastic moment of resistance due to local buckling are called
a) Compact section c) Slender section
b) Semi-compact section d) Plastic section

67. If the section shown in the figure turns from fully-elastic to fully-plastic, the depth of neutral axis
(N.A), 𝑦̅, decreases by

a) 12.25 mm b) 10.75 mm c) 15.25 mm d) 13.75 mm

68. Which of the following is the most convenient and portable instrument for direct measurement
of directions?
a) Prismatic compass c) Theodolite
b) Surveyor’s compass d) Sextant

69. Which of the following is not a part of the prismatic compass?

a) Agate cap b) Prism cap c) Brake pin d) Jewel bearing

70. In which of the following compass graduated card ring is attached with the needle?
a) Prismatic compass b) Surveyor’s compass c) Theodolite d) Sextant

71. Which of the following instruments can be used without a tripod?

a) Prismatic compass b) Surveyor’s compass c) Theodolite d) Sextant
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72. Which line passes through a point, such that plane passing that point and the north and south
poles, intersects with the surface of the earth?
a) True Meridian b) Magnetic Meridian c) Arbitrary Meridian d) Survey line

73. Horizontal angle with the true Meridian through one of the extremities of the line is called?
a) True bearing b) Magnetic Bearing c) Arbitrary bearing d) Bearing

74. Direction shown by a freely floating and balanced magnetic needle free from all other attractive
forces is __________
a) True Meridian b) Magnetic Meridian c) Arbitrary Meridian d) Survey line

75. Horizontal angle with the Magnetic Meridian through one of the extremities of the line is called
______
a) True bearing b) Magnetic bearing c) Arbitrary bearing d) Magnetic Declination

76. Which branch of surveying is used to find the elevations of given points with respect to given or
assumed datum?
a) Levelling b) Contouring c) Traversing d) Plane table surveying

77. _______ is defined as a curved surface which at each point is perpendicular to the direction of
gravity at the point?
a) Level surface b) Level line c) Horizontal plane d) Datum

78. If wL = Liquid limit, wP = Plastic limit, IP = Plasticity index, w = natural moisture content, then
consistency index for a clayey soil (Ic ) will be
𝑤𝑙 −𝑤 𝑤−𝑤𝑙 𝑤−𝑤𝑝
a) b) c) wl – wp d)
𝐼𝑝 𝐼𝑝 𝐼𝑝

79. Contact pressure beneath a rigid footing resting on a cohesive soil is

a) uniform throughout c) less at edge compared to middle
b) more at edges compared to middle d) none of the above
80. The mass of a saturated soil sample is 150g and its mass when oven dried is 100g. The water
content of the soil is ___________%
a) 50 b) 33.33 c) 66.67 d) 25

81. Negative skin friction in the soil will be considered when the pile is constructed through one of
the following
a) fill material c) dense fine sand
b) dense coarse sand d) over consolidated stiff clay
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82. From a particle size distribution curve of a sandy soil, the following data is obtained
Size of particle (in mm) Percentage finer (in %)
0.5 60
0.2 30
0.05 10
The coefficient of curvature will be _____________.
a) 0.1 b) 1.6 c) 8 d) 2.5

83. The difference between maximum and minimum void ratios of sand sample is 0.30. If the relative
density of this sample is 60% at a void ratio of 0.40, then the void ratio of this sample at its loosest
state will be
a) 0.54 b) 0.60 c) 0.58 d) 0.22

84. The net ultimate bearing capacity of a purely cohesive soil

a) depends on the width of the footing and is independent of the depth of the footing.
b) depends on the depth of the footing and is independent of the width of the footing.
c) depends on the width of the footing as well as on the depth of the footing.
d) is independent of the width as well on the depth of the footing.

85. According to Boussinesq’s theory, the vertical stress at a point in a semi-infinite soil mass
depends upon:
a) Point load, location of the point and modulus of elasticity of soil.
b) Point load, location of the point, modulus of elasticity of soil and its Poisson’s ratio
c) Point load and location of the point
d) Point load, location of the point, modulus of elasticity of soil and its density

86. In consolidation testing, curve fitting method is used to determine:

a) Compression Index c) Coefficient of consolidation
b) Swelling Index d) Time factor

87. A completely saturated normally consolidated clay is tested in a triaxial test under consolidated
undrained condition. The value of pore pressure coefficient at failure, 𝐴𝑓 is given by (∆𝜎3 = change
in cell pressure;∆𝜎1 = change in axial stress, ∆𝑢 = corresponding change in pore pressure)
∆𝑢−∆𝜎 ∆𝑢−∆𝜎
a) 𝐴𝑓 = (∆𝑢−∆𝜎1) c) 𝐴𝑓 = (∆𝑢−∆𝜎3 )
3 1
∆𝑢−∆𝜎 ∆𝑢−∆𝜎
b) 𝐴𝑓 = (∆𝜎 −∆𝜎1 ) d) 𝐴𝑓 = (∆𝜎 −∆𝜎3 )
1 3 1 3

88. Laboratory vane shear test can also be used to determine

a) shear parameters of silty sand c) liquid limit of silty clay
b) shear parameters of sandy clay d) plastic limit of clayey silt
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89. In a compaction test on a soil sample, if the compaction energy is decreased (γd = maximum dry
density, OMC = optimum moisture content)
a) γd will increase with increase in OMC c) γd will decrease with decrease in OMC
b) γd will decrease with increase in OMC d) γd will increase with decrease in OMC

90. Temporary strength is imparted to clayey as well as to sandy soils in wet condition due to
a) increase in intergranular pressure exerted by capillary tension
b) decrease in intergranular pressure exerted by capillary tension
c) increase in pore pressure
d) decrease in pore pressure

91. A prismatic bar, as shown in the figure is supported between rigid supports. The support reaction
will be

10 20
a) 𝑅𝐴 = 𝑘𝑁 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅𝐵 = 𝑘𝑁 c) 𝑅𝐴 = 10 𝑘𝑁 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅𝐵 = 10 𝑘𝑁
3 3
20 10
b) 𝑅𝐴 = 𝑘𝑁 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅𝐵 = 𝑘𝑁 d) 𝑅𝐴 = 5 𝑘𝑁 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅𝐵 = 5 𝑘𝑁
3 3

92. If the principal stresses and maximum shearing stresses are of equal numerical value at a point in
a stress body, the state of stress can be termed as
a) Biaxial c) Pure stress
b) Uniaxial d) Generalized plane state of stress

93. Assertion(A) : A cantilever beam deflects more with a concentrated load applied at the free end
than a U.D.L of same magnitude over the entire length.
Reason (R) : U.D.L over the entire length can be considered as concentrated load acting at the centre
of the length
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
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94. A beam with given loading is shown in figure. What is the ratio of bending moment at B to C?

a) 2.0 b) 5.0 c) 2.5 d) 3.0

95. A cantilever beam carries loadings as shown in figure below. Which of the following is the correct
SFD of the beam?

96. A simply supported beam of span ‘l’ and flexural rigidity ‘EI’ carries a load ‘P’ at the mid – span.
The strain energy due to loading is
𝑃2 𝑙3 𝑃2 𝑙3 𝑃2 𝑙3 𝑃2 𝑙3
a) b) c) 192𝐸𝐼 d) 16𝐸𝐼
48𝐸𝐼 96𝐸𝐼

97. A beam of rectangular section is subject to transverse load. If the shear stress at a section at
1/4th of the beam depth from top is 60 MPa, the average shear stress (in MPa) in that section will be
a) 80 MPa b) 72.4 MPa c) 53.3 MPa d) 60 MPa
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98. A beam of uniform strength is to be produced for a special purpose of application. But the
section of the beam needs to be varied and this could be achieved by
a) keeping the width constant and varying the depth
b) keeping the depth constant and varying the width
c) by varying both width and depth suitably
d) Any of the above

99. Assertion (A): A rectangular beam subjected to a uniformly distributed load is subjected to zero
shear stresses at the extreme fibers on all planes.
Reason (R): A state of uniaxial compression or tension exists at the extreme fibers.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

100. Moment at a hinge will be:-

a) Infinity c) Depends upon acting forces
b) Zero d) Can’t say

101. The number of equilibrium equations for the following space frame is ________

a) 1 b) 3 c) 6 d) 4

102. Which of the following is statically determinate structure?

a) Fixed beam b) Continuous beam c) Two hinged arch d) Double overhanging

103. External Static Indeterminacy of the following beam is _______

a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 0

104. The ABC analysis is based on

a) Stock that can be readily available c) Levelling of the supply and demand of stock
b) probabilistic supply of stick d) Speed of movement of stock
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105. Assertion (A): The time-grid diagram facilities to read out the float for any activity by activity by
inspecting the diagram.
Reason (R): In time-grid diagram, floats are represented by broken horizontal, lines as appropriate.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

106. Consider the following statements:

1) Drag line
2) Power Shovel
3) Hoe
4) Crawler dozer
which of the above may be used for excavation of materials and loading them into trus?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 2, 3 and 4

107. The line of a PERT network is shown in the diagram. What is the standard deviation of the given
network?
a) 5/6 b) 3 c) 2 d) 5/3

108. The technique of finding the fair price of an existing building or property is known as
__________.
a) Estimation b) Valuation c) Pricing d) Costing

109. The fixed cost incurred in the production of wooden tables is Rs 20000 and the variable cost per
unit of table is Rs 900, What number of units should be sold to get a total profit of Rs 7000 if the
selling price of one unit of a table is Rs 1200?
a) 50 units b) 70 units c) 90 units d) 100 units

110. Magnitude of effective length depends upon

a) material of member
b) rotational restraint supplied at end of compression member
c) load applied on member
d) location where member is used

111. Maximum radius of gyration (minimum slenderness ratio) can be obtained by

a) by increasing load
b) by spreading material of section towards its axis
c) by spreading material of section away from its axis
d) by spreading material of section at its axis
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112. Which of the following is not true?
a) function of lacing and battens is to hold main component members
b) tie plates are provided at top and bottom of column
c) lacing bars and batten plates are not designed as load carrying elements
d) lacing bars and battens plates are designed as load carrying elements

113. According to IS code, strength of spliced portion _________ of the effective strength of material
spliced.
a) should not be less than 50% c) should not be less than 80%
b) should be less than 50% d) should be less than 80%

114. When are longitudinal stiffeners introduced to beam splices?

a) when change in size between two sections of beam occurs
b) when change in size between two sections of beam does not occur
c) when change in moment between two sections of beam occurs
d) when change in moment between two sections of beam does not occur

115. For gantry girders carrying electrically operated overhead travelling cranes, the lateral forces
are increased by ___________ for impact allowance.
a) 10% of weight of crab and weight lifted on the crane
b) 20% of weight of crab and weight lifted on the crane
c) 25% of maximum static wheel load
d) 50% of maximum static wheel load

116. The maximum wheel load is obtained when

a) crane crab is farthest to gantry girder c) crane crab is not attached
b) crane crab is closest to gantry girder d) crane crab is at mid span

117. Which types of foundation should be adopted when the ground is sloping and it is economical
to provide Foundation at the same level?
a) Simple foundation b) Pad foundation c) Stepped foundation d) Pier foundation

118. Which gas leads to suffocation and dizziness to the occupants when an increase in its quantity
in the air?
a) Carbon monoxide b) Hydrogen c) Nitrogen d) Carbon dioxide

119. A concrete column carries an axial load of 450 kN and a bending moment of 60 kNm at its base.
An isolated footing of size 2 m x 3 m with the 3 m side along the plane of the bending moment is
provided under the column. Centre of gravity of the column and of footing coincide. The net
maximum and minimum pressures, in kPa, on the soil under the footing are respectively.
a) 95 and 75 b) 75 and 55 c) 95 and 55 d) 75 and 75
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120. Compute the design moment of beam, which is subjected to moment due to different loading
as follows:
DL = 250 kNm
LL = 150 kNm
WL = 100 kNm
EL = 200 kNm
a) 450 kNm b) 675 kNm c) 720 kNm d) 600 kNm

121. The design horizontal seismic coefficient is 0.05 and seismic weight is 800 kN. The design base
shear is
a) 800 kN b) 450 kN c) 40 kN d) 68 kN

122. As per IS 456:2000, the nominal concrete cover (in mm) for “severe durability of concrete” is
a) 45 b) 50 c) 30 d) 20

123. A RC beam is subjected to a bending moment of 200 kNm, shear force of 20 kN and a torque of
9 kNm. The size of the beam is 300 mm width x 425 mm overall depth. The effective cover is 25 mm.
The equivalent shear force is :
a) 68 kN b) 50 kN c) 78 kN d) 55 kN

124. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A) IS 1343
B) IS 1893
C) IS 3370
D) IS 8041
List-II
1) Prestressed concrete
2) Liquid storage structure
3) Earthquake resistant design
4) Rapid hardening Portland cement
a) A -1 B – 2 C – 3 D – 4 c) A – 1 B – 3 C – 2 D – 4
b) A – 4 B – 3 C – 2 D – 1 d) A – 4 B – 2 C – 3 D – 1

125. For maximum sagging bending moment at support in a continuous RC beam, live load should be
placed on
a) spans adjacent to the support plus alternate spans
b) all the spans except the spans adjacent to the supports
c) spans next to the adjacent spans of the support plus alternate spans
d) spans adjacent to supports only
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126. A simply supported T – beam of 6 m clear span is loaded with characteristic load of 50 kN/m.
The section of beam is 250 mm wide and 480 mm effective depth. Then the critical section for shear
from the midpoint of span will be
a) 1.48 m b) 2.52 m c) 2.75 m d) 3.48 m

127. The load of the structure distributed by the foundation is ________

a) Concentrated b) Varying c) Uniform d) Eccentric

128. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II
(Treatment Unit) (Detention Time)
A. Grit chamber 1. Six hours
B. Primary 2. Two minutes sedimentation
C. Activated sludge 3. Two hours
D. Sludge digestion 4. Twenty days

Codes :
A B C D
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 2 3 1 4
c) 2 1 3 4
d) 1 2 3 4

129. One liter of sewage when allowed to settle for 30 minutes gives a sludge volume of 30 cm³. If
the dry weight of this sludge is 3.0 gms, then the sludge volume index will be
a) 20 b) 30 c) 10 d) 40

130. High COD to BOD ratio of an organic pollutant represents

a) High biodegradability of the pollutant
b) Low biodegradability of the pollutant
c) Presence of free oxygen for aerobic decomposition
d) Presence of toxic material in the pollutant

131. Which of the following treatment process are necessary for the removing suspended solid from
water?
1.Coagulation 2.Sedimentation 3.Flocculation 4.Disinfection
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 b) 1,2 and 3 c) 2 and 4 d) 1 and 4

132. River intakes is usually situated on ____________________

a) the convex side of the curve c) straight reach
b) the concave side of the curve d) the downstream side of a sewer outfall
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133. Open sluice and drowned pipe outlet come under which class of modules?
a) Modular Outlets b) Semi Modules c) Rigid Modules d) Non – modular Outlets

134. What is the common example of rigid modules?

a) Pipe Outlet b) Open Sluice c) Gibb’s Module d) Venturi Flume

135. When the flexibility of an outlet equals unity, then the outlet is said to be in?
a) Sub – Proportional b) Setting c) Sensitivity d) Proportionally

136. What is the ratio of head output to the head input called?
a) Modular Limit c) Efficiency of an Outlet
b) Minimum Modular Head d) Drowning Ratio

137. What type of design does the figure represent?

a) Single vertical drop fall c) Baffle wall

b) Sarda Type Fall d) Rapids

138. What are used to store water during peak periods?

a) Storage drums b) Canals c) Sews d) Storage Reservoirs

139. The evaporation of water from the surfaces and its precipitation is known as ___________
a) Science b) Infiltration c) Hydrological cycle d) Vegetation

140. When is the Hydrograph called as a unit hydrograph?

a) When 1 cm of runoff is resulted from a rainfall
b) When 3 cm of runoff is resulted from rainfall
c) When 1 mm of runoff is resulted from rainfall
d) When 3 mm of runoff is resulted from rainfall

141. Above which range should be the unit hydrographs be used?

a) Around 5000 sq km c) Around 4000 sq km
b) Over 2500 sq km d) Below 5000 sq km
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142. The magnitude of runoff as ordinates against the corresponding percentage of time as abscissa
gives ________
a) Mass duration curve c) Power duration curve
b) Load duration curve d) Flow duration curve

143. A type of soil deposit suffers a total settlement of x units due to consolidation under two way
drainage. The total settlement of the same soil with one way drainage be y units then
a) y < x b) y > x c) y = x d) Data insufficient

144. Consider the following statements regarding earth pressure theories:

1. According to Boussinesq’s theory, the vertical stress at a point is independent of the modulus of
elasticity.
2. Westergaard’s theory always gives the value of vertical stresses which are smaller than that by
Boussineq’s theory.
3. Newmark’s chart cannot be used for the determination of vertical stress under any shape of a
loaded area.
4. If the dimensions of the loaded area are very large, the vertical stress at a point at a large depth
will be the same as the applied load intensity
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 and 4 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 4 d) 2 and 3

145. In case of well foundation, grip length is defined as the

a) length below the top of the well cap to the cutting edge
b) length between the bottom of the well cap to the cutting edge
c) depth of the bottom of the well below the minimum scour level
d) depth of the bottom of the well below the maximum scour level

146. Influence factor for immediate settlement of footing depends on its

a) size and shape c) Location and size
b) rigidity alone d) size, shape, rigidity and location

147. The ratio of unconfined compressive strength of an undisturbed sample of soil to that of a
remoulded sample of soil, at the same water content is known as
a) activity b) damping c) plasticity d) sensitivity

148. Excavation was being carried out for a foundation in plastic clay with a unit weight of 20
𝑘𝑁⁄𝑚3 . Failure occurred when a depth of 7.6 m was reached. The value of cohesion at φ = 0° is
_________ kN/m2.
a) 152 b) 76 c) 50 d) 38

149. The toughness index of clayey soil is given by

𝑃𝑙𝑎𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥 𝐿𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑 𝐿𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑡 𝐿𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝐼𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥 𝑃𝑙𝑎𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝐿𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑡
a) 𝐹𝑙𝑜𝑤 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥
b) 𝑃𝑙𝑎𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝐿𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑡 c) 𝑃𝑙𝑎𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝐿𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑡
d) 𝐿𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝐼𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥
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150. Which mode of failure is characterized by large deformations beneath the footing and
practically no movement adjacent to it?
a) General shear failure c) Punching shear failure
b) Local shear failure d) Both (a) and (c)

151. Sand laying below a masonry dam has a porosity of 40 percent and a specific gravity of 2.67.The
maximum permissible upward gradient is _____________.(Take factor of safety = 4)
a) 1 b) 4 c) 0.5 d) 0.25

152. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

a) Shear parameters ‘c’ and φ vary with drainage conditions of shear test.
b) Shear parameters ‘c’ and φ are independent of water content of soil.
c) Laboratory vane shear test can also be used to determine liquid limit of silt clay.
d) Consistency as applied to cohesive soils is an indicator of its shear strength.

153. Considerable loss of shear strength due to shock or disturbance is exhibited by

a) under-consolidated clays c) over-consolidated clays
b) normally consolidated clays d) organic soil

154. The earth pressure behind a bridge abutment is :

a) Active c) At rest
b) Passive d) Constant always and everywhere

155. Refractory cement is rich in

a) Calcium b) Magnesium c) Iron d) Aluminum

156. The size of aggregate, particle shape, colour, surface texture, all of which have influence on the
durability of concrete should conform to
a) IS 383 – 1970 b) IS 1489 – 1976 c) IS 12269 – 1987 d) IS 456 – 2000

157. Efflorescence test is carried out by

a) Keeping brick in 25mm depth of water c) Painting and observation of layering of paint
b) Spraying salt water d) All of the above

158. What is the equivalent strength of concrete for the Mix ratio of 1:2:4?
a) M10 b) M15 c) M20 d) M25

159. In which of the following, the concrete is dropped from a height to measure its workability
a) Slump Test c) Compaction factor test
b) Vee Bee test d) Flow test
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160. In stone masonry, the stones are placed in position such that the natural bedding plane is
a) normal to the direction of pressure they carry
b) parallel to the direction of pressure they carry
c) at 45° to the direction of pressure they carry
d) at 60° to the direction of pressure they carry

161. Which of the following defects is caused by vaporization of entrapped moisture of solvents in a
painted surface?
a) Saponification b) blistering c) blooming d) cissing

162. Sulphate attack over a building material is caused by salts of

a) Calcium b) Magnesium c) Sodium d) Potassium

163. Which of the following is not true about hydraulic lime?

a) Hydraulic lime consists of clay and some amount of ferrous oxide
b) Hydraulic lime can set under water
c) It has a perfectly white colour
d) It is also known as water lime

164. Slaked lime is __________

a) Calcium oxide c) Calcium carbonate
b) Hydrated oxide of calcium d) Calcium silicate

165. External Static Indeterminacy for the following space frame is ________

a) 18 b) 9 c) 6 d) 10

166. Identify the correct statements of the followings?

a) Two degrees of freedom are available at each joint of pin jointed plane frame
b) Six degrees of freedom are available at each joint of pin jointed space frame
c) Four degrees of freedom are available at each joint of rigid jointed plane frame
d) Three degrees of freedom are available at each joint of pin jointed space frame
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167. Calculate the kinematic indeterminacy of the following pin jointed plane frame?

a) 2 b) 6 c) 12 d) 18

168. Calculate the kinematic indeterminacy of the following pin jointed plane frame?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8

169. The distorted models, used in the hydraulic studies, are those which
a) have exaggeration of the vertical scale and horizontal scale
b) are not geometrically similar to the prototypes
c) have same vertical and horizontal scale as that of the prototypes
d) have same Froude number as that for the prototypes

170. A forebay in a hydel system is provided at the junction of

a) the power channel and the tail race channel
b) the tail race channel and the penstock
c) the penstock and the turbine
d) the power channel and the penstock

171. If the coliform bacteria is present in a sample of water, then the coliform test to be conducted
is
i. Presumptive coliform test
ii. Confirmed coliform test
iii. Completed coliform test
The correct answer is
a) Only (i) b) Both (i) and (ii) c) Both (i) and (iii) d) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

172. Let there be a cylinder which is filled with a gas and having thickness of 68 mm and the inner
diameter of 8 m. Find the maximum shear stress in the wall of a cylindrical tank and the pressure
inside the cylinder is 14 MPa?
a) 648 MPa b) 411 MPa c) 546 MPa d) 673 MPa
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173. Consider the following statements regarding quality control:
1) It refers to absolute conformity to specifications
2) It may not vouch against overspending
3) It may unknowingly resort to overdesign in the hope of risk minimization
4) It is intended to reduce maintenance costs
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3 c) 2 and 4 d) 1 and 4

174. _______ is a line lying in a level surface?

a) Level line b) Horizontal line c) Datum line d) Plumb line

175. Which process of levelling in which the elevations of points are computed from the vertical
angles and horizontal distances measured in the field?
a) Barometric levelling c) Spirit levelling
b) Trigonometric levelling d) Traverse levelling

176. In the long sights, the horizontal line of sight doesn’t remain straight but it slightly bends
downwards having concavity towards earth due to ____________
a) Refraction b) Radius of earth c) Curvature of earth d) Parallelism

177. Find the correction for curvature for a distance 1200 m?

a) 0.113 m b) 0.131 m c) 0.133 m d) 0.313 m

178. Find correction for refraction for a distance of 1200 m?

a) 0.0106 m b) 0.0160 m c) 0.0016 m d) 0.0116 m

179. Find the correction for curvature for a distance 2.48 km?
a) 0.483 m b) 0.434 m c) 0.443 m d) 0.403 m

180. Contour lines cross a watershed or ridge line at _____

a) 90° b) 100° c) 45° d) 30°

181. What is the shape of contour lines in case of a valley?

a) U shape b) V shape c) W shape d) O shape

182. which of the following causes greatest deflection for beams?

a) Internal axial force c) Both causes equal deflections
b) Internal bending d) External loads

183. Dimensional specific speed for a hydraulic turbine is

𝑃√𝑁 𝑁√𝐻 𝑃√𝐻 𝑁√𝑃
a) 𝐻0.75 b) 𝑃1.25 c) 𝑁0.75 d) 𝐻1.25
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184. In a pipe flow of water, the estimated piezometric head is 25 meter of water. The velocity of
flow is 15 m/s. If the energy correction factor is 1.4, then total energy head of water is
_______m.[Take g = 10 𝑚⁄𝑠 2 ]
a) 36.25 b) 40.75 c) 50.75 d) 46.25

185. Cavitation parameter 𝜎 is defined in terms of NPSH(net positive suction head) and net head H
as, 𝜎 =
𝑁𝑃𝑆𝐻 𝐻 𝐻 𝑁𝑃𝑆𝐻
a) b) 𝑁𝑃𝑆𝐻 c) d)
√𝐻 √𝑁𝑃𝑆𝐻 𝐻

186. If three pipes are connected in series, then

a) the head loss in each pipe is same
b) the total discharge is the sum of the discharge in the individual pipes
c) the Reynolds number for each pipe is same
d) the discharge through each pipe is same

187. The flow of a liquid at constant rate in a conically tapered pipe is classified as
a) steady, uniform flow c) unsteady, uniform flow
b) steady, non-uniform flow d) unsteady, non-uniform flow

188. In a pipeline, the hydraulic grade line is above the pipe centre line in the longitudinal section at
point A and below the pipe centre line at another point B. From this, it can be inferred that
a) vaccum pressure prevails at B c) the flow is from A to B
b) vaccum pressure prevails at A d) the flow is from B to A

189. In the subcritical flow in an open channel, an increase in the channel width at a transition
causes the water surface elevation to
a) remain unchanged c) decrease
b) form ripples d) increase

190. While delivering an expression for loss of head due to a sudden expansion in a pipe, in addition
to the continuity and impulse momentum equations, which one of the following assumption is
made?
a) Head loss due to friction is equal to the head loss in eddying motion
b) The mean pressure in eddying fluid is equal to the downstream pressure
c) The mean pressure in eddying fluid is equal to the upstream pressure
d) Head lost in eddies is neglected

191. Multi U – tube manometers with different fluids are used to measure
a) low pressures c) high pressures
b) medium pressures d) very low pressures

192. Two bars made up of some material are connected in series as shown in the figure below
subjected to a twisting moment T at the end. The ratio of angle of twist of bar AB and BC is
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_________. (The length of both the bars is L).

𝑑 4 𝑑 2 𝑑 4 𝑑 2
a) ( 1 ) b) ( 2 ) c) ( 2 ) d) ( 1 )
𝑑2 𝑑1 𝑑1 𝑑2

193. A structural element is subjected to pure shear of 80 N/𝑚𝑚2 as shown in the figure. The yield
stresses both in tension and in compression are 240 N/𝑚𝑚2 . According to the maximum normal
stress theory, the factors of safety in tension and compression are, respectively

a) 2 and 2 b) 3 and 3 c) 2.5 and 2.5 d) 4 and 4

3 0.5
194. Strain tensor is given as: [ ] × 10-6. The shear strain in x-y plane is A x 10−6. The value of
0.5 4
A is
a) 3 b) 1 c) 4 d) 0.5

195. For the given diagram, slope at A is

𝑤𝐿3 𝑤𝐿3 5𝑤𝐿3 5𝑤𝐿3

a) 24𝐸𝐼 b) 48𝐸𝐼 c) 48𝐸𝐼 d) 24𝐸𝐼
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196. For a symmetrical I section, which of the following statements are true regards to the location
of the shear center?
a) The shear Center lies at the top junction of web and flange
b) The shear Center lies at the bottom junction of web and flange
c) The shear Center lies at the mid-point of the web
d) The shear Center lies outside of the section

197. Determine the equivalent bending moment for a cylindrical section in which a bending moment
of 60 kN-m and a torque of 32 kN-m is applied
a) 32 kN-m b) 64 kN-m c) 96 kN-m d) 128 kN-m

198. What is the ratio of Euler’s cropping load for columns of same length fixed at both end to that
of column having hinge at both ends?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

199. The layers above the neutral axis are subjected to compressive stresses whereas the layers
below are subjected to tensile stresses. This will result in
a) Twisting c) Zero shear force
b) Moment of resistance d) None of the above

200. The layers above the neutral axis are subjected to compressive stresses whereas the layers
below are subjected to tensile stresses. This will result in
a) Twisting c) Zero shear force
b) Moment of resistance d) None of the above