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KINEMATICS
1. A stone is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower with a velocity u and it reaches the ground with
a velocity 3u. The height of the tower is-

3u 2 4u 2 6u 2 9u 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
g g g g

2. A particle is projected upwards with a velocity of 100 m/s at an angle of 60°, with the vertical. Then time
taken by the particle when it will move perpendicular to its initial direction-

(A) 10 sec. (B) 20 sec (C) 5 sec (D) 10 3 sec

3. A boat P is moving at 40 km/hr and another boat Q is moving at 20 km/hr. Which one of the following is not
a possible value for their relative velocity-
(A) 10 km/hr (B) 20 km/hr (C) 30 km/hr (D) 40 km/hr

4. A particle is projected horizontally with a speed u from the top of a plane inclined at an angle 45° with the
horizontal. Then distance of point from the point of projection where the particle strike the plane will be-

2u 2 2u2 u2 2 2 u2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
g g 2g g

NEWTON'S LAWS OF MOTION

5. A mass m1 hanging at the end of the string, draws a mass m2 along the surface of a smooth table if the
m1
mass on the table be doubled the tension of string becomes. 1.5 times then is-
m2

m2

m1

(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 3

6. A man weighs 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform
acceleration of 5 m/s2. What would be the reading on the scale ? (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 800 N (B) 1200 N (C) Zero (D) 400 N
7. A block can slide on a smooth inclined plane of inclination , kept on the floor of a lift. When the lift is
descending with a retardation a, the acceleration of the block relative to the inciline is-
(A) (g + a) sin  (B) (g – a) (C) g sin  (D) (g – a) sin 
8. A lift is moving downwards with an acceleration equal to the acceleration due to gravity. A body of mass M
kept on the floor of the lift is pulled horizontally, if the coefficient of friction is µ, then the frictional resistance
offered by the body is
(A) Mg (B) µMg (C) 2µMg (D) zero
9. A 60 kg body is pushed horizontally with just enough force to start it moving across a floor and the same
force continues to act afterwards. The coefficient of static friction and sliding friction are 0.5 and 0.4 respec-
tively. The acceleration of the body is :
(A) 6 m/s2 (B) 4.9 m/s2 (C) 3.92 m/s2 (D) 1 m/s2

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WORK, POWER & ENERGY
10. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 ms–1. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining
a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (g = 10 ms–2)
(A) 20 J (B) 30 J (C) 40 J (D) 10 J

11. A force F =(7 – 2x + 3x2) N is applied on 2 kg mass which displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5m. Magnitude of
work done in joule is -
(A) 70 (B) 270 (C) 35 (D) 115
12. A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown here. The force is in N and x is in m. The work
done by the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6m is

(A) 18.0 J (B) 13.5 J (C) 4.5 J (D) 9.0 J

13. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line under the action of a force of 5N. If the work done is
25 J the angle, which the force makes with the direction of motion of the body is
(A) 0° (B) 30° (C) 60° (D) 90°
14. Two bodies of mass 1kg and 4kg are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their linear momentum
is -
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
15. The momentum of a body is increased by 50%. The K.E of the body will be increased by -
(A) 50% (B) 125% (C) 330% (D) 400%
16. An object of mass 5kg falls from rest through a vertical distance of 20 m and reaches a velocity of 10 m/s.
How much work is done by the push of the air on the object? (g = 10 m/s2) -
(A) 350 J (B) 750 J (C) 200 J (D) 300 J
17. A body of mass m kg is lifted by a man to a height of one meter in 30 sec. Another man lifts the same mass
to the same height in 60 sec. The work done by them are in the ratio -
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
18. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance d with constant downward acceleration
g
. Work done by the cord on the block is -
4
d d d
(A) Mg (B) 3Mg (C) 3Mg (D) Mgd
4 4 4

CIRCULAR MOTION
19. A body is tied up by a string of length  and rotated in vertical circle at minimum speed. When it reaches
at heighest point string breaks and body moves on a parabolic path in presence of gravity according to
fig. In the plane of point A, value of horizontal range AC will be -

B
VB

VA
A C

(A) x =  (B) x = 2 (C) x = 2 (D) x = 2 2 

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20. The angular velocity of the second’s needle in watch is.
 60
(A) (B) 2 (C)  (D)
30 

21. A stone of mass 0.5 kg tied with a string of length 1 metre is moving in a horizontal circular path with
a speed of 4 m/sec. The tension acting on the string in newton is -
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.8
22. A heavy & big sphere is hang with a string of length , this sphere moves in a horizontal circular path
making an angle  with vertical then its time period is -
 sin  c os  
(A) T  2 (B) T  2 (C) T  2 (D) T  2
g g g gcos 

23. A grind-stone starts revolving from rest, if its angular acceleration is 4.0 rad/sec2 (uniform) then after
4 sec.What is its angular displacement & angular velocity respectively -
(A) 32 rad, 16 rad/sec (B) 16 rad, 32 rad/sec (C) 64 rad, 32 rad/sec (D) 32 rad, 64 rad/sec
24. The constant quantity in uniform circular motion is.
(A) linear speed (B) centripetal force (C) acceleration (D) momentum
25. A particle m mass under the action of a force F moves in a circular path of radius ‘r’ with a constant
speed. Its speed will be.
(A) rF / m (B) mrF (C) F/r (D) F/mr

26. The formula for centripetal acceleration in a circular motion is.

       
(A)   r (B)   v (C)   v (D)   r
27. The relation between an angular velocity, the position vector and linear velocity of a particle moving in
a circular path is.
           
(A)   r  v (B) .r  v (C) r    v (D)  r  v

28. Linear & Angular acceleration of a particle is 10m/sec2 and 5 rad/sec2 respectively. What is its distance
from rotational axis -
(A) 50 m (B) 1/2 m (C) 1 m (D) 2 m
29. A particle of mass m is executing a uniform motion along a circular path of radius r. If the magnitude
of its linear momentum is p, the radial force acting on the particle will be.
(A) pmr (B) rm/p (C) mp2/r (D) p2/mr
30. In the uniform circular motion.
(A) acceleration and velocity both remain constant
(B) acceleration and speed both remain constant
(C) acceleration and velocity both keep on changing
(D) acceleration and speed both change
31. A wheel is of diameter 1m. If it makes 30 revolutions/sec., then the linear speed of a point on its cir-
cumference will be.
(A) 30 m/s (B)  m/s (C) 60 m/s (D) /2 m/s
32. A body is moving with a constant speed v in a circle of radius r. Its angular acceleration is -
v v2 v2
(A) zero (B) (C) (D)
r r2 r
CENTRE OF MASS
33. In the figure given the position-time graph of a particle of mass 0.1 kg is shown. The impulse at t = 2 s is:

x(m)
2

2 4 6
t (s)
(A) 0.2 kg m s–1 (B) – 0.2 kg m s–1 (C) 0.1 kg m s–1 (D) – 0.4 kg m s–1
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34. A particle of mass m moving with velocity u1 collides elastically with another particle of same mass moving
with velocity u2 in the same direction. After collision their speeds are v1 and v2 respectively then -
(A) u1 + v1 = v2 + u2 (B) u1 – v1 = v2 + u2
(A) u1 + v1 = v2 + u2 (B) u1 – v1 = v2 + u2
(A) Both the equations A and B are correct (B) Both the equations A and B are incorrect
(C) Equation A is correct but not B (D) Equation B is correct but not A
35. Which of the following does not hold when two particles of masses m1 and m2 undergo elastic collision
(A) when m1 = m 2 and m2 is stationary, there is maximum transfer to kinetic energy in head an collision
(B) when m1 = m 2 and m2 is stationary, there is maximum transfer to momentum in head an collision
(C) when m1 >> m2 and m2 is stationary, after head on collision m2 moves with twice the velocity of m1
(D) when the collision is oblique and m 1 = m 2 with m 2 stationary, after the collision the particle move in
opposite direction.
36. A body of mass m moving with velocity V makes a head-on collision with another body of mass 2m which
is initially at rest. The ratio of kinetic energies of colliding body before and after collision will be -
(A) 9 : 1 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 2 : 1
RIGID BODY DYNAMICS
37. A uniform rod of mass m and length L is hinged at one of its end A and a force F is applied at a distance x from
A. The acceleration of centre of mass 'a' at the instant shown varies with x as :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

38. Uniform rod AB is hinged at the end A in a horizontal position as shown in

the figure. The other end is connected to a block through a massless
string as shown. The pulley is smooth and massless. Masses of the block
and the rod are same and are equal to ' m '. Then acceleration of the block
just after release from this position is:
(A) 6 g/13 (B) g/4
(C) 3 g/8 (D) None of these
39. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity . Two
objects each of mass m, are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The ring now
rotates with an angular velocity
M (M – 2m) M (M  2m)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Mm M  2m M  2m M
40. In the figure shown a thin light inextensible string is wrapped around a uniform disc. One end of the string is
fixed to the ceiling of the lift and the other end is fixed to the circumference of the disc. Acceleration ‘a’ of the
a
lift in such that the centre of disc does not move with respect to ground. Find the value of g . String does not
slip on pulley.
a

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 10 (D) 5

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
41. The angular momentum of particle of mass 0.01 Kg and position vector r  (10 î  6 ĵ ) meter and moving with

a velocity 5 î metre/sec about the origin will be

(A)  0.3 k̂ Joule sec (B) 3 k̂ Joule sec (C) 1/3 Joule sec (D) 0.0 3 k̂ Joule sec

42. A solid iron sphere A rolls down an inclind plane, while another hollow sphere B with the same mass and
same radius also rolls down the inclined plane. If VA and VB are their velocities at the bottom of the inclined
plane, then
(A) VA > VB (B) VA = VB (C) VA < VB (D) VA > = < VB

SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION

43. A particle performs SHM with a time period T and amplitude a. The magnitude of average velocity of the
a
particle over the time interval during which it travels a distance from the extreme position is :
2
a 2a 3a a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
T T T 2T

44. A spring of spring constant k is cut into n equal parts, out of which r parts are placed in parallel & connected
with mass M as shown in figure. The time period of SHM of mass M is :

M nrM rM nM
(A) T = 2 (B) T = 2 (C) T = 2 (D) T = 2
nrK K nK rK

45. A man of mass 60 kg standing on a platform executing S.H.M. in the vertical plane. The displacement from
the mean position varies as y = 0.5 sin (2 ft). The value of f, for which the man will feel weightlessness at the
highest point is: (y is in metres)

g 2g
(A) (B) 4 g (C) (D) 2 2g
4 2

46. A force of 6.4N stretches a vertical spring by 0.1m. The mass that must be suspended from the spring
so that it oscillates with a time period of /4 second.
 4
(A) kg (B) kg (C) 1 kg (D) 10 kg
4 

d2 x
47. The equation of motion of a particle of mass 1 gm is + 2x = 0 where x is displacement (in m) from mean
dt 2
position. The frequency of oscillation is (in Hz):

1 1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 5 10 (D) 5 10
2
48. A horizontal spring–block system of mass 2kg executes S.H.M. When the block is passing through its
equilibrium position, an object of mass 1kg is put gently on it and the two move together. The new amplitude
of vibration is (A being its initial amplitude):

2 3 A
(A) A (B) A (C) 2A (D)
3 2 2

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49. Equation of two S.H.M. x1 = 5 sin (2t + /4), x2 = 5. 2 (sin2t + cos2t) ratio of amplitude & phase difference will
be
(A) 2 : 1, 0 (B) 1 : 2, 0 (C) 1 : 2,  / 2 (D) 2 : 1, /2
50. One mass m is suspended from a spring. Time period of oscillation is T. Now if spring is divided into
n pieces & these are joined in parallel order then time period of oscillation if same mass is suspended.

n 2m n2k m k
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 2 (D) 2 2
k m n k n m

51. The graph in the figure shows how the displacement of a particle describing S.H.M. varies with time. Which
one of the following statements is not true ?

3T
(A) the force is zero at time (B) the velocity is maximum at time T/2
4
(C) the acceleration is maximum at time T (D) the P.E. = total energy at time T/2
52. The amplitude of a damped harmonic oscillator become halved in 1 minute. After three minutes the amplitude
will become 1/x of initial amplitude where x is -
(A) 8 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
53. If Length of simple pendulum is increased by 6% then percentage change in time-period will be
(A) 3 % (B) 9 % (C) 6 % (D) 1/9 %

STRING WAVE AND SOUND WAVE

  8t  x 
54. The equation of a wave travelling on a string is y = 4 sin   . If x and y are in cm. then velocity of
2  8
wave is -
(A) 64 cm/sec in –x direction (B) 32 cm/sec in –x direction
(C) 32 cm/sec in +x direction (D) 64 cm/sec in +x direction
55. Two waves of same frequency but of amplitude a and 2a respectively superimpose over each other. The
3
intensity at a point where the phase difference is , will be proportional to :
2
(A) 9a2 (B) 3a2 (C) a2 (D) 5a2
56. A resonance tube is resonated with tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz. If the lengths of resonating air columns
are 32 cm and 100 cm, then end correction will be -
(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 1 cm
57. An unknown frequency source X produces 8 beats with another source of frequency 250 Hz and 12 beats
with source of frequency 270 Hz. The frequency of source X will be -
(A) 282 Hz (B) 262 Hz (C) 242 Hz (D) 258 Hz

 x 
58. The equation of a stationary wave is y = 0.8 cos   sin 200 t, where x is in cm and t is in sec. The
 20 
separation between consecutive nodes will be-
(A) 20 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 40 cm (D) 30 cm

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59. 75 cm long sonometer wire is in unision with a fork. If the length of the wire is reduced by 0.5 cm then
it produces 3 beats/sec with the fork. The frequency of the fork is nearly -
(A) 50 Hz (B) 450 Hz (C) 5 Hz (D) 0.5 Hz

KTG AND THERMODYNAMICS

60. One of the two vessels of same capacity is filled with oxygen and other is filled with helium of same mass.
Both gases are at same temperature. The ratio of pressures of these gases is
PO 1 PO 1 PO 4 PO 8
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
PHe 8 PHe 4 PHe 1 PHe 1
61. A monoatomic gas at a temperature T has pressure P and heat energy per unit volume E. Then-
2 2
(A) E = P (B) P = E (C) E = 2P (D) E = P
3 3
62. Ratio of average kinetic energy of H2 and O2 at a given temperature is :
(A) 1 : 16 (B) 1 : 8 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 1
63. A mass of diatomic gas ( = 1.4) at a pressure of 2 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its
temperature rise from 27ºC to 927ºC. The pressure of the gas in final state is :
(A) 28 atm (B) 68.7 atm (C) 256 atm (D) 8 atm
64. If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant presure to that at constnat volume is , the change in
internal energy of a mass of gas, when the volume changes from V to 2V at constant pressure P, is
R PV PV
(A) (B) PV (C) (D)
(   1) (   1) (   1)
65. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6R joules of work adiabatically. If the ratio of
specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 5/3, the final temperature of gas will
be :
(A) (T + 2.4) K (B) (T – 2.4) K (C) (T + 4) K (D) (T – 4) K
66. During adiabatic compression of a gas, its temperature
(A) Falls (B) Rises (C) Remains constant (D) Becomes zero
HEAT TRANSFER
67. The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform cross-sectional area A kept at two temperatures T1 and
dQ
T2 (T1 >T2 ). The rate of heat transfer, , through the rod in a steady state is given by
dt

dQ KL(T1  T2 ) dQ K( T1  T2 )
(A) = (B) 
dt A dt LA

dQ dQ KA (T1  T2 )
(C)  KLA ( T1  T2 ) (D) 
dt dt L
68. Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal thicknesses and thermal
conductivities k and 2k respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is–
4 2
(A) 2 (B) 3k (C) k (D) k
3 3
69. Let there be four articles having colours blue, red, black and white. When they are heated together and
allowed to cool, which article will cool at the earliest ?
(A) Blue (B) Red (C) Black (D) White
70. For a black body at temperature 727°C, its radiating power is 60 watt and temperature of surrounding is
227°C. If temperature of black body is changed to 1227°C then its radiating power will be-
(A) 304 W (B) 320 W (C) 240 W (D) 120 W

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FLUID MECHANICS
71. If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to 2/3 pressure at the bottom of the lake then what is the depth
of the lake
(A) 10m (B) 20m (C) 60m (D) 30m
72. A uniformly tapering vessel is filled with a liquid of density 900 kg/m3. The force that acts on the base of the
vessel due to the liquid is (g = 10 ms -2 )

(A) 3.6 N (B) 7.2 N (C) 9.0 N (D) 14.4 N

73. A rectangular block is 5 cm  5 cm  10 cm in size. The block is floating in water with 5 cm side vertical.
If it floats with 10 cm side vertical, what change will occur in the level of water ?
(A) No change (B) It will rise
(C) It will fall (D) It may rise or fall depending on the density of block
74. Air is steaming past a horizontal air plane wing such that its speed in 120 m/s over the upper surface and 90
m/s at the lower surface. If the density of air is 1.3 kg per metre3 and the wing is 10 m long and has an
average width of 2 m, then the difference of the pressure on the two sides of the wing of
(A) 4095.0 Pascal (B) 409.50 Pascal (C) 40.950 Pascal (D) 4.0950 Pascal
75. Water is flowing through a tube of non-uniform cross-section ratio of the radius at entry and exit end of the
pipe is 3 : 2. Then the ratio of velocities at entry and exit of liquid is
(A) 4 : 9 (B) 9 : 4 (C) 8 : 27 (D) 1 : 1
76. There is a hole in the bottom of tank having water. If total pressure at bottom is 3 atm (1 atm = 105N/m2) then
the velocity of water flowing from hole is
(A) 400 m/s (B) 600 m/s (C) 60 m/s (D) None of these

ELASTICITY, VISCOSITY AND SURFACE TENSION

77. The diameter of a brass rod is 4 mm and Young’s modulus of brass is 9 × 1010 N/m 2. The force required
to stretch by 0.1% of its length is :
(A) 360 N (B) 36 N (C) 144 × 103 N (D) 36 × 105 N
78. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to the lower
end. The weight stretches the wire by 1mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire is ?
(A) 0.2 J (B) 10J (C) 20J (D) 0.1 J
79. A tensile force F is applied on all six surfaces of a cube of side unity then increase in length of each
side will be (Y = young measurement]  = Pieson ratio½

F F F(1  2) F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Y(1  ) Y(1  ) Y Y(1  2)

80. Radius of a capillary is 2 × 10–3 m. A liquid of weight 6.28 × 10–4 N may remain in the capillary, then the
surface tension of liquid will be :
(A) 5 × 10–3 N/m (B) 5 × 10–2 N/m
(C) 5 N/m (D) 50 N/m

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CALORIMETRY AND THERMAL EXPANSION
81. The volume of a solid decreases by 0.6% when it is cooled through 50ºC. Its coefficient of linear expansion
is -
(A) 4 × 10–6K (B) 5 × 10–5K (C) 6 × 104K (D) 4 × 10–5K
ELECTROSTATICS
82. Two point charges +q and –4q are placed at (–a, 0) and (+a, 0). Take electric field intensity to be
positive if it is along positive x-direction. The variation of the electric field intensity as one moves along
the x-axis is
E
E

+q –4q +q –4q (+a,0)

(A) x (B) x
(-a,0) (+a,0) (0,0)
(-a,0)

E
E

+q –4q (+a,0) –4q (+a,0)

(C) x (D) x
(-a,0) (0,0) +q (-a,0)

83. A positive point charge +Q is fixed in space. A negative point

charge –q of mass m revolves around fixed charge in elliptical
orbit. The fixed charge +Q is at one focus of the ellipse. The
only force acting on negative charge is the electrostatic force
due to positive charge. Then which of the following statement
is true.
(A) Linear momentum of negative point charge is conserved
(B) Angular momentum of negative point charge about fixed positive charge is conserved
(C) Total kinetic energy of negative point charge is conserved
(D) Electrostatic potential energy of system of both point charges is conserved
84. A large sheet carries uniform surface charge density . A rod of length 2 has a linear charge density
 on one half and - on the second half. The rod is hinged at mid-point O and makes angle  with the
normal to the sheet. The electric force experienced by the rod is

 2  2
(A) 0 (B) sin  (C) sin  (D) None of these
2 0 0

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85. Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation of electric field as a function of x along the axis of
a uniformly and positively charged ring of radius R and charge Q.

E(x)
Q
6 3  0r2
–r/2
(A) (B)
r/2 x

(C) (D)

86. Two free point charges +q and +4q are placed a distance x apart. A third charge is so placed that all the three
charges are in equilibrium. Then
(A) unknown charge is -4q/9 (B) unknown charge is -9q/4
(C) It should be at (x/3) from smaller charge between them
(D) It should be placed at (2x/3) from smaller charge between them.
87. A ring carries a uniform linear charge density on one half and the linear charge density of same magnitude
but opposite sign on the other half.
(A) the component of electric field along the axis at all points on the axis is zero
(B) the electric field along the axis and on the axis is zero only at the centre
(C) the resultant field at the centre is zero
(D) the resultant field at all points on the axis is zero.
88. Three point charges Q1 , Q2 and Q3 in that order are placed equally spaced along a straight line. Q2 and Q3 are
equal in magnitude but opposite in sign. If the net force on Q3 is zero, the value of Q1 is -
(A) Q1 = |Q3| (B) Q1 = 2 |Q3| (C) Q1 = 2 |Q3| (D) Q1 = 4 |Q3|

89. Two infinite linear charges are placed parallel at 0.1 m apart. If each has charge density of 5 C/m, then
the force per unit length of one of linear charges in N/m is :
(A) 2.5 (B) 3.25 (C) 4.5 (D) 7.5
90. The charge density of an insulating infinite surface is (e/) C/m2 then the field intensity at a nearby point
in volt/meter will be -
(A) 2.88 x 10–12 (B) 2.88 x 10–10 (C) 2.88 x 10–9 (D) 2.88 x 10–19
91. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and then released. The kinetic
energy attained by the particle after moving a distance y is -
(A) qEy2 (B) qE2y (C) qEy (D) q2Ey
92. A semicircular ring of radius R is given a uniform charge Q. Then the electric field and electric potential at its
centre will be -

Q
+ + + + ++
+ +
+
+ R +
O

Q Q Q Q
(A) , (B) ,
4 0 R 2 4 0 R 2 0  R 2 2 4 0 R

Q Q
(C) 4   R , 2   R (D) zero, zero
0 0

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93. Three charges are placed as shown in figure if the electric potential energy of system is zero, then Q : q-
-q Q -q

r r
Q 2 Q 2 Q 1 Q 1
(A) = (B) = (C) = (D) =
q 1 q 1 q 2 q 4
94. An electric dipole is made up of two equal and opposite charges of 2 x 10–6 coulomb at a distance of
3 cm. This is kept in an electric field of 2 x 105 N/C, then the maximum torque acting on the dipole -
(A) 12 x 10–1 Nm (B) 12 x 10–3 Nm (C) 24 x 10–3 Nm (D) 24 x 10–1 Nm
95. The electric field in a region surrounding the origin is uniform and along the
B
x-axis. A small circle is drawn with the centre at the origin cutting the axes
at points A, B, C, D having coordinates (a, 0); (0, a); (–a, 0); (0, –a) respec-
tively as shown in fig. Then the potential is minimum at - E
C A

D
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
96. Charge on an originally uncharged conductor is separated by holding
a positively charged rod very closely nearby, as in Fig. Assume
that the induced negative charge on the conductor is equal to the
positive charge q0 on the rod then, flux through surface S1 is -
(A) zero (B) q0 /  0
(C) q0 /  0 (D) none of the above

97. W is a straight wire in which a uniform current is flowing in the direction shown and S is a closed cylindrical
surface with wire passing through it along the axis. Then the electric flux through the closed surface will be-

(A) Zero (B) Positive

(C) Negative (D) Not zero but cannot be determined
98. A hollow conducting sphere is placed in an electric field produced by a point charge placed at P as shown
in figure. Let VA, VB, VC be the potentials at points A, B and C respectively. Then

(A)VC > VB (B) VB > VC (C) VA > VB (D) VA = VC

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99. A and B are concentric conducting spherical shells. A is given a positive
charge while B is earthed. Then- B
(A) A and B both will have the same charge densities + + +A
(B) the potential inside A and outside B will zero + +
++
(C) the electric field between A and B is non zero
(D) the electric field inside A and outside B is non zero.
100. An electric charge q is placed at the centre of the open end of a hollow cylindrical vessel of length  and
radius r. Then the electric flux coming out of the surface of the cylinder is-

q q q
(A) (B) ( r 2  2r ) (C) (D) Zero
0 0 2 0
101. Mark the wrong statement -
(A) Equipotential surface never cross and other
(B) For a uniformly charged nonconducting sphere, the electric potential at the centre of the sphere is 1.5
times that at the surface
(C) If potential in a certain region in non zero constant, then the electric field in that region will also be non zero
constant
(D) Inside a spherical unifromly charged shell, the electric field is zero but the electric potential is the same
as that at the surface.
102. Charges of + (10/3) x 10-9 C are placed at each of the four corners of a square of side 8 cm. The potential at
the intersection of the diagonals is -
(A) 150 2 volt (B) 1500 2 volt (C) 900 2 volt (D) 900 volt

103. If ' n ' identical water drops assumed spherical each charged to a potential energy U coalesce to a
single drop, the potential energy of the single drop is(Assume that drops are uniformly charged):
(A) n1/3 U (B) n2/3 U (C) n4/3 U (D) n5/3 U
104. Two equal charges q of opposite sign separated by a distance 2a constitute an electric dipole of dipole
moment p. If P is a point at a distance r from the centre of the dipole and the line joining centre to this point
makes an angle  with the axis of the dipole, then the potential at the point P is given by- (r >> 2a)
p cos  p cos  p sin  p sin 
(A) V  (B) V  (C) V  (D) V 
4 0 r 2 4 0 r 4 0 r 4 0 r 3

GEOMETRICAL OPTICS
105. A person is standing in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror recedes with velocity v, the relative separation
of person and his image per second is
v
(A) 0 (B) v (C) 2 v (D)
2
106. Two plane mirrors are inclined to one another at an angle of 40°. A point object is symmetrically placed
in between them, The number of images formed due to reflection at both mirrors is-
(A) Infinite (B) 9 (C) 8 (D) 6

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107. Two plane mirrors parallel to each other and an object O placed between them. Then the distance of the
first three images from the mirror M2 will be (in cm)-

O
5cm

M1 M2
15 cm

(A) 5, 10, 15 (B) 5, 15, 30 (C) 5, 25, 35 (D) 5, 15, 25

108. A concave mirror of focal length f produces an image n times the size of the object. If the image is real
then the distance of the object from the mirror is
  n  1    n  1 
(A)  n  1 f (B)  n  f (C)  n  f (D)  n  1 f
   

109. In a concave mirror an object is placed at a distance x1 from the focus, and the image is formed at a
distance x2 from the focus. Then the focal length of the mirror is-

x1  x 2 x1
(A) x1x2 (B) x1x 2 (C) (D) x2
2

110. The largest distance of the image from a convex mirror of focal length 10 cm can be-
(A) 20 cm (B) infinite
(C) 10 cm (D) depends on the position of object
111. The maximum value of index of refraction of a material of a prism which allows the passage of light through
it when the refracting angle of the prism is A is

A A 2A  2A 

(A) 1  sin   (B) 1  cos   (C) 1  tan   (D) 1  cot  
2 2 2 2

112. There is a prism with refractive index equal to2 and the refracting angle equal to 30 . One of the refracting
0

surfaces of the prism is polished. A beam of monochromatic light will retrace its path if its angle of incidence
over the refracting surface of the prism is
(A) 00 (B) 300 (C) 450 (D) 600
113. A vessel of depth 2d cm is half filled with a liquid of refractive index 1 and the upper half with a liquid of
refracive index 2 . The apparent depth of the vessel seen perpendicularly is

 1 2   1 1  1 1  1 
(A) d      (B) d      (C) 2d    (D) 2d  
 1 2   1 2  
 1  2   1 2 
114. If the refractive indices of crown glass for red, yellow and violet colours are 1.5140, 1.5170 and 1.5318
respectively and for flint glass these are 1.6434, 1.6499 and 1.6852 respectively, then the dispersive power
for crown and flint glass are respectively
(A) 0.034 and 0.064 (B) 0.064 and 0.034 (C) 1.3 and 0.064 (D) 0.034 and 1.0
115. The twinkling of stars is due to
(A) the fact that star do not emit light continuously
(B) Frequent absoroption of star light by their own atmosphere
(C) The fact that refractive index of the earth’s atmosphere fluctuates
(D) Intermittent absorption of star lgiht by earth atmosphere

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116. A convex lens of focal length A and a concave lens of focal length B are placed in contact. The focal length
of the combiantion is
AB AB
(A) (A + B) (B) (A – B) (C)  A  B  (D) B  A 

117. Two thin lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 25 cm are placed in contact. The effective power of the combination
is
1
(A) diopter (B) 9 diopter (C) 6 diopter (D) 45 diopter
9

118. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The separation
between the objective and the eye-piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity. The focal
length f0 of the objective and fe of the eye-piece are
(A) f0 = 45 cm and fe = – 9 cm (B) f0 = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm
(C) f0 = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm (D) f0 = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm
119. To remove the chromatic aberration, the combination of lenses should be such that
(A) FR  FV  0 (B) FR  FV (C) FR  FV (D) FR  FV  0

120. A point charge q moves parallel to Y axis with angular speed  with respect to the origin and the position
vector of the particle is r at that instant. The magnetic field produced by the charge q at the origin is :
q  0 q 2 0 q  0 q
(A) (B) (C) (D)
r 2 r  r 4 r

121. When a diamagnetic substance is inserted in a current carrying coil, the magnetic field inside the substance
is
(A) decreased (B) increased (C) unchanged
(D) increased or decreased depending upon the relative volume of the substance.
122. Half-life of a substance is 20 min. then the time between 33% decay and 67% decay will be (approx) :
(A) 20 min (B) 40 min (C) 50 min (D) 32 min
123. A circular coil of radius R and a current , which can rotate about a fixed axis passing through its diameter is
initially placed such that its plane lies along magnetic field B. Kinetic energy of loop when it rotates through
an angle 90° is : (Assume that  remains constant)

R 2B 3
(A) R2B (B) (C) 2R2B (D) R 2 
2 2

124. A point charge is moving in clockwise direction in a circle with constant speed. Consider the magnetic field
produced by the charge at a point P (not centre of the circle) on the axis of the circle.
(A) it is constant in magnitude only
(B) it is constant in direction only
(C) it is constant in direction and magnitude both
(D) it is not constant in magnitude and direction both.
125. A bar magnet of length ‘I’ and magnetic dipole moment ‘M’ is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure.
The new magnetic dipole moment will be :

3 2 M
(A) M (B) M (C) (D) M
  2

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126. If a current is passed through a spring then the spring will :
(A) expand (B) compress (C) remain same (D) none of these
127. Two satellites of same mass of a planet in circular orbits have periods of revolution 32 days and 256 days.
If the radius of the orbit of the first is R, then which option is correct
(A) radius of the orbit of the second is 8R
(B) radius of the orbit of the second is 4R
(C) total mechanical energy of the second is greater than that of the first.
(D) kinetic energy of the second is less than that of the first.
128. An uncharged parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery. The electric field between the plates is
10V/m. Now a dielectric of dielectric constant 2 is inserted between the plates filling the entire space.
The electric field between the plates now is
(A) 5 V/m (B) 20 V/m (C) 10 V/m (D) none of these
129. Initially the capacitor was uncharged. Current in the capacitor just after switching on will be ?

   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R 2R 5R 4R
130. A straight wire current element is carrying current 100 A, as shown in figure. The magnitude of magnetic field
at point P which is at perpendicular distance ( 3  1) m from the current element if end A and end B of the
element subtend angle 30º and 60º at point P, as shown, is :

60º
30º
P
( 3 – 1)m

(A) 5 × 10–6 T (B) 2.5 × 10–6 T (C) 2.5 × 10–5 T (D) 8 × 10–5 T
131. Consider a non conducting ring of radius ' r ' and mass ' m ', which has a total charge ' q ' distributed
uniformly on it. The ring is rotated about an axis passing through its centre and parallel to the plane of
ring with an angular speed . Then the magnetic moment of the ring is given by:

qr 2
(A) (B) q  r2 (C) 2 q  r 2 (D) none of these
2
132. Consider a particle of electric charge e and mass m moving under the influence of a constant horizontal
electric field E and constant vertical gravitational field described by acceleration due to gravity g. If the
particle starts from rest, then the trajectory of particle will be :
(A) parabolic (B) elliptic (C) straight line (D) circular

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133. A long hollow tube is carrying an electric current along its length distributed uniformly on its
circumference. The magnetic field:
(A) increases linearly from the axis of the surface
(B) is constant inside the tube
(C) is zero only on the axis
(D) is zero just out-side the tube.
134. A point charge of mass m and charge q is rigidly attached to a non conducting block of mass M which
is placed on rough surface with friction coefficient  as shown in figure. Minimum magnitude of electric
field required so that the block starts moving :
q,m
M

.(m  M)g (m  M) g  .Mg .Mg

(A) (B) q (C) (D) q
q 1 2 q 1 2

135. Two point charges q1 and q2 whose magnitudes are different are positioned at certain distance from each
other with q1 at origin, graph is drawn between electric field strength and distance x from q1. E is taken
positive if it is along the line joining from q1 to q2.

(A) q1 is negative, q2 is positive (B) magnitude of q1 is smaller than q2

(C) magnitude of q2 is smaller than q1. (D) None of these
136. Potential difference between centre and the surface of sphere of radius R and having uniform volume
charge density  within it will be :

R2 R2  R2
(A) (B) (C) 0 (D)
6 0 4 0 2 0

137. Four charges (two + q and two – q) are placed at the corners of square of edge length ‘a’ as shown in figure.
Find the electric potential energy of the system.

kq2 kq 2kq2 3kq2

(A) ( 2 – 4) (B) ( 2 – 4) (C) ( 2 – 4) (D) ( 2 – 4)
a a a a

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 1
138. Electric potential due to a dipole at a position r from its centre is: where K =
4  0

       
K. p . r K. p . r K. p x r K. p x r
(A) (B) (C) (D)
r3 r2 r3 r2
139. Two equal negative charges –q each are fixed at the points (0, a) and (0, -a) on the y-axis .A
positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x-axis. The charge Q will :
(A) Execute simple harmonic motion about the origin
(B) At origin velocity of particle is minimum.
(C) Move to infinity
(D) Execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion.
GRAVITATION
140. The diagram showing the variation of gravitational potential of earth with distance from the centre of earth is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

141. If the diameter of the earth becomes half its present value but its mass remains unchanged, then the weight
of an object on the surface of earth will be
(A) two times (B) four times (C) one-fourth (D) eight times
142. Which of the following statement is wrong for acceleration due to gravity
(A) g deaeases on going above the surface of earth
(B) g increases on going below the surface of earth
(C) g is maximum at poles
(D) g increases on going from equator to poles
143. If the change in the value of ‘g’ at a height h above the surface of the earth is the same as at a depth
x below it, then (both x and h being much smaller than the radius of the earth) -
h
(A) x = h (B) x = 2h (C) x  (D) x = h2
2
144. The moon’s radius is 1/4 that of the earth and its mass is 1/80 time that of the earth. If g represents
the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, that on the surface of the moon is
(A) g/4 (B) g/5 (C) g/6 (D) g/8
145. How much energy will be needed for a body of mass 100kg to escape from the earth
(g = 10m/s2 and radius of earth = 6.4 x 106m)
(A) 6.4 x 109 joule (B) 8 x 106 joule (C) 4 x 1016 joule (D) zero
146. The potential energy of a body of mass 3kg on the surface of a planet is 54 joule. The escape velocity will be
(A) 18m/s (B) 162 m/s (C) 36 m/s (D) 6 m/s
147. The velocity of a satellite orbiting near the earth's surface is

GM
(A) GR (B) gR (C) (D) 2gR
R2

148. The velocity of a satellite at a height h above the earth's surface is

GM GM GM GM
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D)
R R h Rh

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149. A body is dropped by a satellite in its geo-stationary orbit
(A) it will burn on entering into the atmosphere
(B) it will remain in the same place with respect to the earth
(C) it will reach the earth in 24 hours
(D) it will perform uncertain motion
150. A satellite of earth can move only in those orbits whose plane coincides with
(A) the plane of great circle of earth (B) the plane passing through the poles of earth
(C) the plane of a circle at any latitude of earth (D) none of these
151. Two artificial satellites A and B are at a distances rA and rB above the earth's surface. If the radius of earth is
R, then the ratio of their speeds will be
1/ 2 2 2 1/ 2
 rB  R   rB  R   rB   rB 
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
 rA  R   rA  R   rA   rA 

152. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius R around the earth. A second satellite is launched
into an orbit of radius (1.01) R. The period of the second satellite is large than that of the first one by
apporximately
(A) 0.5 % (B) 1.0 % (C) 1.5 % (D) 3.0 %
153. On a planet (whose size is the same as that of earth and mass 4 times to the earth) the energy needed
to lift a 2kg mass vertically upwards through 2m distance on the planet is (g = 10m/sec2 on surface of
earth)
(A) 16 J (B) 32 J (C) 160 J (D) 320 J
154. A particle falls on earth: (i) from infinity (ii) from a height 10 times the radius of earth. The ratio of the velocities
gained on reaching at the earth's surface is
(A) 11 : 10 (B) 10 : 11 (C) 10 : 11 (D) 11 : 10

155. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a period
of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between planet and star is proportional to R–5/2 then
T2 is proportional to
(A) R3 (B) R7/2 (C) R5/2 (D) R3/2
156. The mass and radius of earth and moon are M1, R1 and M2, R2 respectively. Their centres are d distance
apart. With what velocity should a particle of mass m be projected from the mid point of their centres
so that it may escape out to infinity.

G(M1  M2 ) 2G(M1  M2 ) 4G(M1  M2 ) GM1M2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
d d d d

157. A satellite moves in a path of radius r with a velocity v, the mass of earth will be
vr v 2r Gr G
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D)
G G v vr 2

158. If orbital velocity of planet is given by v = GaMbRc, then

(A) a = 1/3, b = 1/3, c = –1/3 (B) a = 1/2, b = 1/2, c = –1/2
(C) a = 1/2, b = –1/2, c = 1/2 (D) a = 1/2, b = –1/2, c = –1/2

159. The Jupiter’s period of revolution round the sun is 12 times that of the earth. Assuming the planetary orbits to
circular, how many times the distance between the Jupiter and sun exceeds that between the earth and the
sun.
(A) 5.242 (B) 4.242 (C) 3.242 (D) 2.242

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160. The figure shows the motion of a planet around the sun in an elliptical orbit with sun at the focus. The
shaded areas A and B are also shown in the figure which can be assumed to be equal. If t1 and t2 represent
the time for the planet to move from a to b and d to c respectively, then -

b
a
A
S
B

d
c

(A) t1 < t2 (B) t1 > t2 (C) t1 = t2 (D) t1  t2

CURRENT ELECTRICITY
161. The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit shown here is :-

(A) 4W (B) 16W (C) 40W (D) 54W

162. One filament takes 10 min to heat a kettle and another takes 15 min. If connected in parallel they combindly
take.............. min to heat the same kettle :
(A) 6 (B) 12.5 (C) 25 (D) 7.5

163. The potential difference between points A and B is :

20 40 10
(A) V (B) V (C) V (D) zero
7 7 7
R
164. For the network of resistance shown in the figure the equivalent resistance
of the network between the points A and B is 18 ohm. The value of un 10 10
known resistance R is:-
(A) 8 10
(B) 10
B A
(C) 16 10 10 10
(D) 24

165. n equal cell having e.m.f. E and internal resistance r, are connected in circuit of a resistance R. Same current
flows in circuit either they connected in series or parallel, if :
r
(A) R = nr (B) R = (C) R = n2r (D) R = r
n
166. For the same potential difference, a potentiometer wire is replaced by another one of a high specific resis-
tance. The potential gradient then ( r = Rh = 0)
(A) decreases (B) remains same (C) increases (D) data is incomplete

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167. The potentiometer wire 10 m long and 20 ohm resistance is connected to a 3 volt emf battery and a 10 ohm
resistance. The value of potential gradient in volt/m of the wire will be
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.02
168. The length of a potentiometer wire is 10 m and a potential difference of 2 volt is applied to its ends. If the
length of its wire is increased by 1 m, the value of potential gradient in volt/m will be (potential difference
across potentiometer wire remain same)
(A) 0.18 (B) 0.22 (C) 1.3 (D) 0.9
169. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 A. After an additional
shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750 A by this
meter. The value of shunt resistance is
(A) 20  (B) 2  (C) 0.2  ` (D) 2k
170. Three resistance P, Q, R each of 2and an unknown resistane S form the four arms of a Wheatstone’s
bridge circuit. When a resistane of 6 is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the
value of S ?
(A) 2  (B) 3  (C) 6  ` (D) 1 

171. In the circuit of figure A1 and A2 are ideal ammeters. Then the reading in ammeter A2 is

(A) 0.4 A (B) 0.6 A (C) 2.0 A (D) 3.0 A

CAPACITANCE
172. Metallic sphere of radius R is charged to potential V. Then charge q is proportional to-
(A) V (B) R (C) Both (D) None

173. Two capacitors, 3F and 4F , are individually charged across a 6V battery. After being disconnected
from the battery, they are connected together with the negative plate of one attached to the positive plate
of the other. What is the common potential?

6 3
(A) 6V (B)  V (C) 2V (D)  V
7 2

174. A capacitor of capacitance 10F is charged to a potential of 100 V. Now connecting it in parallel with
an uncharged capacitor, the resultant potential difference becomes 40 volt. The capacitance of this capacitor
is
(A) 2.5F (B) 5F (C) 10F (D) 15F

175. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b b  a  are placed concentrically in air. A is given
a charge +Q while B is earthed. Then the equivalent capacitance of the system is

ab 4 0 b 2
(A) 4 0 (B) 4 0 b  a  (C) 4 0 b (D)
ba ba

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176. A capacitor of 6F is charged to such an extent that the potential difference between the plates becomes
50 V. The work done in this process will be
(A) 7.5 10 2 J (B) 7.5 10 3 J (C) 3  10 6 J (D) 3  10 3 J

177. A 10 V battery is connected to two capacitors C1 and C 2 and a resistor R. When the capacitors are
fully charged, then the potential difference across the resistor will be

(A) 10 V (B) 5 V (C) 3.33 V (D) zero

178. In the figure given, the potential difference between A and B in steady state will be

(A) 20 V (B) 25 V (C) 75 V (D) 100 V

179. For the circuit shown in figure, the equivalent capacitance of the combination is

 30   54 
(A) 13F (B)  F (C)  F (D) 1F
 13   10 

180. Three capacitors are connected as shown in figure. Then the charge on capacitor plate C1 is -

(A) 6 C (B) 12 C (C) 18 C (D) 24 C

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181. In the combination shown in the figure, the ideal voltmeter reading will be

 18 
(A) 4.5 V (B)  V (C) 3 V (D) 2 V
 11 

182. In the figure shown, the effective capacitance between the points P and Q, if each has capacitance C, is-
Q
C2

C5
C1 C3

P
C4

C C
(A) 2C (B) (C) 5C (D)
5 2

183. A capacitor is connected to a cell of emf E having some internal resistance r. The potential difference across
the :
(A) cell is < E (B) cell is E (C) capacitor is > E (D) capacitor is < E
184. For the circuit shown in the diagram find the value of Va – Vb after long time closing the switch S1 :

(A) 4 V (B) 8 V (C) 12 V (D) 16 V

185. The time constant of charging of the circuit shown in fig. is

2 3
(A) RC (B) 2 RC (C) 3 RC (D) RC
3 2

2
186. Time cosntant of a C-R circuit is second. Capacitor is discharged at time t = 0. The ratio of charge on
ln( 2)
the capacitor at time t = 2s and t = 6s is
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 8 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 2 : 1

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187. In the circuit shown in fig. switch S is closed at time t = 0. Let i1 and i2 be the currents at any finite time t
i1
then the ratio i
2

(A) is constant (B) increases with time

(C) decreases with time (D) first increases and then decreases
188. As shown in the figure an insulating material of dielectric constant K is inserted into half of the space
between the plates. If initial capacitance of the capacitor was C, then its new capacitance will be

1 1 C 1 1  K 
(A) CK  1 (B) (C) (D) C1  K 
2 2 1  K  2 C

189. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and separation d is filled with two materials each of thickness
d
and dielectric constants 1 and 2 respectively. The equivalent capacitance will be
2

0 A 0 A 1  2  2 0 A 12 2 0 A 1  2 

(A) 1  2  (B) d 12 (C) d 1  2  (D) d 12
d

190. Two indentical capacitors 1 and 2 connected in series to a battery as shown in fig. Capacitor 2 contains a
dielectric slab of dielectric constant k as shown. Q1 and Q2 are the charges stored in the capacitors. Now
the dielectric slab is removed and the corresponding charges are Q’1 and Q’2. Then

1 2

Q'1 k  1 Q' 2 k  1 Q' 2 k  1 Q'1 k

(A) Q  k (B) Q  2 (C) Q  2 k (D) Q  2
1 2 2 1

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191. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser without any dielectric is C. If the distance between the plates is
doubled and the space between the plates is filled with a substance of dielectric constant 3, the capacity of
the condenser becomes :
3 9 2 3
(A) C (B) C (C) c (D) C
4 2 3 2

NUCLEAR PHYSICS
192. Two protons are kept at a separation of 50Å. Fn is the nuclear force and Fe is the electrostatic force between
them, then
(A) Fn >> Fe (B) Fn = Fe (C) Fn << F e
(D) Fn  Fe
193. Masses of nucleus, neutron an protons are M, nm and mp respectively. If nucleus has been divided in to
neutrons and protons, then
(A) M = (A – Z) mn + Zmp (B) M = Zmn + (A – Z) mp
(C) M < (A – Z) mn + Zmp (D) M > (A – Z) + Zmp
194. The probability of a radioactive atoms to survive 5 times longer than its half-value period is -
(A) 2/5 (B) 2 × 5 (C) 2–5 (D) 25
195. The specific activity of radium is nearly -
(A) 1 Bq (B) 1 Ci (C) 3.7 × 1010 Ci (D) 1 mCi
196. After a time equal to four half lives, the amount of radioacitve material remaining undecayed is -
(A) 6.25 % (B) 12.50 % (C) 25.0 % (D) 50.0 %
197. The binding energies per nucleon of deutron and -particle are x1 and x2 respectively. Then energy released
in the following reaction will be - 1H2 + 1H2 = 2He4 + Q
(A) (x1 + x2) (B) (x2 – x1) (C) 4(x1 + x2) (D) 4(x2 – x1)
198. If the energy required to eject an electron from an atom is Ee and the energy required to eject a nucleon from
a nucleus is En, then
(A) En < Ee (B) Ee < En (C) Ee = En (D) nothing can be stated

X- RAYS
199. The intensity of an X-ray beam reduces to 36.8% of its initial intensity after traversing a gold film of thickness
5 x 10–3 m. Its absorption coefficient is
(A) 50 m–1 (B) 100 m–1 (C) 150 m–1 (D) 200 m–1
200. The minimum wavelength min in the continuous spectrum of X-rays is
(A) Proportional to the potential difference V between the cathode and anode.
(B) Inversely proportional to potential difference V between the cathode and anode.
(C) Proportional to the square root of the potential difference V between the cathode and the anode.
(D) Inversely proportional to the square root of the potential difference V between the cathode and the
anode.
201. In X-ray production an electron accelerated with voltage V strikes a metal target. For which of the following
voltages X-rays of minimum wavelength will be produced
(A) 10 kV (B) 20 kV (C) 30 kV (D) 40 kV
PHOTO ELECTRIC EFFECT
202. A monochromatic beam of electromagnetic radiation has an intensity of 1 W/m2. Then the average number
of photons per m3 for a 10 MeV  rays is
(A) 4166 (B) 3000 (C) 5000 (D) 2083
203. When light of intensity 1 W/m2 and wavelength 5 x 10–7 m is incident on a surface, it is completely absorbed
by the surface. If 100 photons emit one electron and area of the surface is 1 cm2, then the photoelectric
current will be
(A) 2 mA (B) 0.4 A (C) 4.0 mA (D) 4 A
204. On increasing the wavelength of incident light
(A) The number of photoelectrons increases. (B) The kinetic energy of photoelectrons decreases.
(C) The number of photoelectrons decreases. (D) The kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases.

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205. Light of wavelength 5000Å falls on a sensitive plate with photoelectric work function of 1.9 e V .
The kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron will be-
(A) 0.58 eV (B) 2.58 eV (C) 1.24 eV (D)1.16eV
MATTER WAVES
206. The wavelength of a photon and the deBroglie wavelength of an electron and uranium atom are identical.
Which one of them will have highest kinetic energy
(A) Photon (B) electron (C) U-atom (D) nothing can be predicted
207. The ratio of deBroglie wavelength of a proton and an -particle accelerated through the same potential
difference is
(A) 2 (B) 2 2 (C) 1/ 2 2 (D) 2
208. Electron microscope works on the principle of
(A) wave nature of light (B) particle nature of light
(C) wave nature of electron (D) particle nature of electron
209. Linear momenta of a proton and an electron are equal. Relative to an electron
(A) Kinetic energy of proton is more. (B) De-Broglie wavelength of proton is more.
(C) De-Broglie wavelength of proton is less. (D) De-Broglie wavelength of proton and electron are equal.
210. Momentum of -ray photon of energy 3 keV in kg-m/s will be
(A) 1.6 x 10–19 (B) 1.6 x 10–21 (C) 1.6 x 10–24 (D) 1.6 x 10–27
211. In Davisson-Germer experiment the relation between the angle of diffraction  and the grazing angle  is
 
(A)   90º  (B)   90º  (C)  = 90º –  (D)  = (90º – )/2
2 2

212. In Davisson-Germer experiment an electron beam accelerated with 54 volt is diffracted at an angle of
50° by a nickel crystal and produces first diffraction maxima. The interatomic distance in Nickel crystal
is
(A) 1 Å (B) 2 Å (C) 2.15 Å (D) 3.12 Å

ALTENATING CURRENT
 
213. In an A.C. circuit, V and I are given by V = 100 sin (100 t) volts, I = 100sin 100 t   mA . The power
 3
dissipated in circuit is
(A) 104 watt (B) 10 watt (C) 2.5 watt (D) 5 watt
214. In the circuit shown below, the ac source has voltage V = 20 cos(t) volts with  = 2000 rad/sec. the
amplitude of the current will be nearest to

V 6
~

5mH, 4 50F

(A) 2A (B) 3.3A (C) 2 / 5 A (D) 5A

215. In series LCR circuit, the voltages across R, L and C are shown in fig. The voltage of applied source
is

(A) 110 V (B) 10 volt (C) 50 volt (D) 70 volt

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216. When 100 volt d.c. is applied across solenoid a current of 1.0amp flows in it. When 100 volts a.c. is
applied across the same coil, the current drops to 0.5 amp. If the frequency of the a.c. source is 50
Hz the impedance and induct once of the solenoid are
(A) 200 ohm and 0.55 Henry (B) 100 ohm and 0.86 Henry
(C) 200 ohm and 1.0 Henry (D) 100 ohm and 0.93 Henry
217. The average power dissipated is pure inductance is -
1 2
(A) LI (B) I2XL (C) LI2/4 (D) zero
2
218. In an ac circuit the current is given by i = 0.5 sin (314 t + 60º) milliampere. Then peak to peak value
of current is-
(A) 0.5 A (B) 1.0 A (C) 0.5 mA (D) 1.0 mA
219. The variation of the instantaneous current (I) and the instantaneous emf (E) in a circuit is as shown in
fig. Which of the following statements is correct -

(A) The voltage lags behind the current by /2 (B) The voltage leads the current by /2
(C) The voltage and the current are in phase (D) The voltage leads the current by 
220. The power factor of a good choke coil is nearly -
(A) zero (B) one (C) 0.5 (D) none of the above
221. In an ac circuit the current is given by i = 0.5 sin (314 t + 60º) milliampere. Then peak to peak value
of current is-
(A) 0.5 A (B) 1.0 A (C) 0.5 mA (D) 1.0 mA
222. P and Q are two circular thin coils of same radius and subjected to the same rate of change of flux. If
coil P is made up of copper and Q is made up of iron, then the wrong statement is -

× × × × B×
× × × × ×
P Q
× × × × ×

× × × × ×

(A) emf induced in the two coils is the same

(B) the induced current in P is more than that in Q
(C) the induced current in P and Q are in the same direction
(D) the induced currents are the same in both the coils
223. In a step-down transformer input voltage is 200 volt and output voltage 5 volt. The ratio of number of turns
in it will be -
(A) 1: 40 (B) 40 : 1 (C) 20 : 1 (D) 1 : 20
224. A small square loop of wire of side  is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side L
(L >> ). The loop are coplanar and their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the system
is proportional to -

 2 L L2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
L L  

225. When the primary current in the spark-coil of a car changes from 4A to zero in 10s, an emf of 40,000
V is induced in the secondary. The mutual inductance between the primary and the secondary windings
of the spark-coil will be -
(A) 1 H (B) 0.1 H (C) 10 H (D) zero

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226. Which of the following quantities is increased in a step-down transformer -
(A) current (B) voltage (C) power (D) frequency
227. A metallic conductor of 1 m length is rotated vertically its one end at an angular velocity of 5 rad/
–4
sec. If the horizontal component of earth's field is 0.2 × 10 T, the voltage generated at both ends
of the conductor will be-
–4
(A) 5 mV (B) 5 × 10 V (C) 50 mV (D) 50 µ V
228. When current flowing in a coil changes from 3A to 2A in one millisecond, 5 volt emf is induced in it.
The self-inductance of the coil will be -
(A) zero (B) 5kH (C) 5H (D) 5 mH
229. The self-inductances of two identical coils are 0.1 H. They are wound over each other. Mutual inductance
will be -
(A) 0.1 H (B) 0.2 H (C) 0.01 H (D) 0.05 H
230. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount in a time t. Then the total
quantity of electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during the time t is represented by :
   1 
(A) Q = (B) Q = (C) Q = R. (D) Q = .
R t t R t
231. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4J T–1 is place in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet
is stable equilibrium when the potential energy is:
(A) –0.064 J (B) zero (C) – 0.082 J (D) 0.064
232. Two bar magnets having same geometry with magnetic moments M and 2M, are firstly placed in such a way
what their similar poles are same side then its time period of osculation is T1. Now the polarity of one of the
magnet is reversed then time period of oscillation is T1. Now the polarity of one of the magnets is reversed,
then time period of oscillations will be :-
(A) T1 < T2 (B) T1 > T2 (C) T1 = T2 (D) T2 = 
233. A charge of 10–6 C is describing a circular path of radius 1 cm making 5 revolution per second. The magnetic
induction field at the centre of the circle is
 
(A)   10 10 T (B)   10 9 T (C)  10 10 T (D)  10 9 T
2 2
234. A current carrying wire is bent in the L shapes as shown in fig. The length of both arms extend to
infinity. Then, the magnetic field at O is -

 0I  1   0I  1 
(A) zero (B)  0 I / 2r (C) 2r 1   (D) 4r 1  
 2  2
i
235. The magnetic induction at centre O in the following figure will be -
 0i 1 1  0i 1 1
(A)     (B)    
4  r1 r2  4  r1 r2  r2
r1
1 1 1 1 
 0i  0i
(C)    (D)    O
2  r1 r2  2  r1 r2 

L
236. A current i is flowing in a straight conductor of length L. The magnetic induction at a point distant
4
from its centre will be -
4 0i  0i  0i
(A) (B) (C) (D) zero
5 L 2L 2L

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237. When the number of turns in a toroidal coil is doubled, then the value of magnetic flux density will becomes-
(A) four times (B) eight times (C) half (D) double
238. A long solenoid carrying a curent prouces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the
number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is :
(A) 2B (B) 4B (C) B/2 (D) B

239. If the angular momentum of electron is j then its magnetic moment will be -

eJ eJ 2m
(A) (B) (C) eJ2m (D)
m 2m eJ

240. A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic
moment  is given by :
qvR qvR 2
(A) (B) qvR2 (C) (D) qvR
2 2
241. A proton and an  particle enter a uniform magnetic field with same velocity in a direction normal to the
field. If proton takes 25 micro second in 5 revolutions, then the time period of  particle will be
(A) 50  sec (B) 25  sec (C) 10  sec (D) 5  sec
242. A beam of protons enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.3T with velocity of 4 × 105m/s in a direction making
an angle of 60º with the direction of magnetic field. The path of motion of the particle will be
(A) circular (B) Straight line (C) Spiral (D) helical
243. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity vector at an angle of 45º with the magnetic
field. The pitch of the helical path followed by the particle is p. The radius of the helix will be
p p 2p
(A) (B) 2p (C) (D)
2 2 

244. An electron and proton enter a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly. Both have same kinetic energy.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) Trajectory of electron is less curved (B) Trajectory of proton is less curved
(C) Both trajectories are equally curved (D) Both move on straight line path

245. A particle mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of induction B .
After 3 s the kinetic energy of the particle will be
(A) 3T (B) 2T (C) T (D) 4T
246. A particle having a charge of 10.0C and mass 1g moves in circle of radius 10cm under the influence
of a magnetic field of induction 1 T. When the particle is at a point P, a uniform electric field is switched
on so that the particle starts moving along the tangent with a uniform velocity. The electric field is.

(A) 0.1V/m (B) 1.0V/m (C) 10.0V/m (D) 100V/m

247. A beam of electrons passed undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. If the
electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move :(AIPMT 2007)
(A) in an elliptical orbit (B) in a circular orbit
(C) along a parabolic path (D) along a straight line

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
248. A very long straight wire carries a current I. At the instant when a charge +Q at point P has velocity V , as
shown, the force on the charge is :-

(A) Opposite to ox (B) along ox (C) opposite to oy (D) along oy

249. In a cyclotron, the angular frequency of the charged particle is independent of
(A) mass (B) speed (C) charge (D) magnetic field
250. The hysteresis loop for the material of a permanent magnet is :
(A) short and wide (B) tall and narrow (C) tall and wide (D) short and narrow

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A)
15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (B)
22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (A) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D)
29. (D) 30. (C) 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (D)
36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A) 41. (A) 42. (A)
43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B)
50. (C) 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (D) 55. (D) 56. (A)
57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (A) 61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (C)
64. (C) 65. (D) 66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (B)
71. (B) 72. (B) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (A) 76. (A) 77. (A)
78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (B) 81. (D) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (A)
85. (B) 86. (A,C) 87. (A) 88. (D) 89. (C) 90. (C) 91. (C)
92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (B) 95. (A) 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (D)
99. (C) 100. (C) 101. (C) 102. (B) 103. (D) 104. (A) 105. (C)
106. (C) 107. (C) 108. (C) 109. (B) 110. (C) 111. (D) 112. (C)
113. (B) 114. (A) 115. (C) 116. (D) 117. (B) 118. (D) 119. (D)
120. (D) 121. (A) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (A) 125. (A) 126. (B)
127. (A) 128. (C) 129. (C) 130. (A) 131. (A) 132. (C) 133. (B)
134. (B) 135. (B) 136. (A) 137. (A) 138. (A) 139. (D) 140. (C)
141. (B) 142. (B) 143. (B) 144. (B) 145. (A) 146. (D) 147. (B)
148. (D) 149. (B) 150. (A) 151. (A) 152. (C) 153. (C) 154. (A)
155. (B) 156. (C) 157. (B) 158. (B) 159. (A) 160. (C) 161. (D)
162. (A) 163. (D) 164. (C) 165. (D) 166. (B) 167. (B) 168. (A)
169. (B) 170. (B) 171. (D) 172. (C) 173. (B) 174. (D) 175. (A)
176. (B) 177. (D) 178. (B) 179. (C) 180. (A) 181. (D) 182. (A)
183. (B) 184. (B) 185. (B) 186. (C) 187. (B) 188. (A) 189. (C)
190. (C) 191. (D) 192. (C) 193. (C) 194. (C) 195. (B) 196. (A)
197. (D) 198. (B) 199. (D) 200. (B) 201. (D) 202. (D) 203. (B)
204. (B) 205. (A) 206. (A) 207. (B) 208. (C) 209. (D) 210. (C)
211. (B) 212. (C) 213. (C) 214. (A) 215. (C) 216. (A) 217. (D)
218. (D) 219. (B) 220. (A) 221. (D) 222. (D) 223. (B) 224. (B)
225. (B) 226. (A) 227. (D) 228. (D) 229. (A) 230. (A) 231. (A)
232. (A) 233. (A) 234. (C) 235. (A) 236. (A) 237. (D) 238. (D)
239. (B) 240. (A) 241. (C) 242. (D) 243. (C) 244. (B) 245. (C)
246. (B) 247. (B) 248. (D) 249. (B) 249. (B) 250. (A)

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1. In which of the following reaction epoxide is not formed

H 3C Br Ph
OH 
mCPBA C C
(A) (B)
H 3C Ph
OH

H H
OH OH  OH OH 
(C) H (D) H
Br Br

OH
i CO 2 , OH   A(Less volatile) + B [More volatile]

2. ii H 
SOCl 2 NaN 3 Hydrolysis
  C   D  E


What is true about given products?

(A) A is p-hydroxy benzaldehyde (B) B is O- hydroxybenzoic acid
(C) D is p - aminophenol (D) E is O - hydroxyaniline
Paragraph (Q 3 to 4): In the following reactions

Pd  BaSO 4 i B2 H 6
C 8 H 6   C8 H 8  x
H2 ii H 2O 2 NaOH, H 2O
H 2 O, Hg 2 , H 

i EtMgBr
C8 H 8O  y
ii H3O  , 

3. Compund x is

O OH
=

(A) CH 3 (B) CH 3

OH
=

OH
(C) CH 3 (D)

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4. The major product is
(A) Ph  CH 2  CH  CH  CH 3 (B) Ph  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 3

CH 2
(C) || (D)
Ph  C  CH 2  CH 3
Paragraph : (Q : 5 to 7)
Column I Column II Column III

Br
Br OH
P. Carbinol I . Most acid i.
Br

Br
HO 3S OH
Q. Cabolic acid II. Least acidic ii.
Br

NO 2 OH
R. III. With Br2 water iii.
OH

COOH
S. IV. NaOH + CaO iv. CH3 – I
OH

HO3S COOH
T. V. With HI

5. Which one is only correct combination

(A) P, V, iv (B) T, III, ii
(C) R, III, iii (C) Q, IV, iii
6. Which is/are not correctly matched?
(A) Q, III, i (B) T, I, ii
(C) P, II, iii (C) S, IV, iii
7. Which is/are correctly matched?
(A) Q, V, iv (B) T, IV, iii
(C) Q, III, i (C) All

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MULTIPLE CORRECT CHOICE

8. Which of the following is not true about given sequence of reactions

CH 3

Na metal
H OH A + H 2gas

B+ NaBr
Ph
(S) HBr
C+D

(A) Product A is also having s.configuration

(B) Product B is obtained through inversion

CH 3  CH  Ph  CH3 Br
(C) Products C and D are |
OH
(D) Reaction involved in formation of C and D is SN2
9. Which of the following tests can be given by following molcule?

OH

O OH
=

(A) Victor mayer test (B) CAN test

(C) Neutral FeCl3 test (D) Lucas test
10. Which reaction is causing the formation of phenol

Zn
OH  
1mole 

KOH, 
Cl 
(A)  (B)
HO
(1 mole)

CH 3
(C) (D) Br

HO

i Br2 h i ALC.KOH
   
ex cess 
(ii) Mg, ether
(ii) aq .KOH (Excess)
(iii) NaOH, CaO iii  O 2 , H 2O 

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(i)NaBH 4 CO 2 NaOH
11. A  B   C  P  cresol(D) (iii) Mg, ether
 ii  SOCl2 H3O 
CaO

What is true about the given sequence of reaction

(A) A is p-hydroxybenzoic acid
(B) A is 4-hydroxybenzaldehyde
(C) B is substance which on hydrolysis can give D
(D) C is salicyclic acid
12. How many of the following reaction are giving right product?

Ph O Ph
H CH CH CH 2 OH
CH CH CH 2
I. H 3C CH 3OH H 3C
OCH 3

HBr OH
II. O 
Br

PhNH
CH 3  CH  CH 2  2  CH  CH  CH  CH NHPh
3 3 2
III.
O OH

CH MgBr
3
 
IV. O H O
3

V. Ph  O  CH 3 
HBr
 Ph  Br  CH3OH

Ph – O HI OH
PhOH +
V.
SN 2

Neutral FeCl3
A   Violet complex
13. HNO 2 Carbolic acid
B Red colour compound (c)

What is minimum molar mass possible for c?

Br2 .H 2O
 P
OH Br2 .CS2
 Q
i Zn
 R
ii Br2 .h
14. ii  NaOH
 S  T
iii CH 3  I
(iv) HBr
4

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Find the bromine groups attached to benze ring in products P, Q, R, S & T

OH
CHCl3  KOH Tollen 's Re action Zn
15.   A  B  KOH  C  D  E

What is molar mass of E?

CH 2  OH
| yHIO 4
CH–OH  
|
CH 2 xHIO 4
  O
16. | HO
=

OH zHIO 4
C=O  
|
=

CH 2 .OH O

Me
i PBr3 , Et 2O
x   N3
17. ii NaI, CH 3 2 CO
iii NaN 3 ,HCONMe 2

What is molar mass of x?

18. A compound (x) gives white turbidity with lucas reagent instantly. The dilute of (x) are five isomers [structral
+ stereo] and one of the product is then how many structures are possible for (x)
19. How many of the following species are soluble in NaNO2 + H2SO4?

CH 3  CH  CH 3
(I) CH 3CH 2 NO 2 (II)
–

NO2

CH 3
– –

CH 3  C  NO 2
(III) (IV) CH 3  CH 2 NH 2
CH 3

(V) PhNH2 (VI)

I–H
NH 2
(VII) (VIII)

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20. How many reactions follow SN2 mechanism among given reaction?

i PhMgr

(a)
O
ii H 2O

(b) HBr
Ph  O  CH 2  CH 3 

(c) O HI

(d) HCl
Ph  O  Ph 

PH 3
(e) HBr
H 3C  C  O  CH 2CH 3 

i H  

(f) ii CH3OH
O

Ph

Ph O
(g) H 3O 
 

21. Total number of groups which can show –I effect when attached to benzene ring :
O
(a) –OH (b) –NH2 (c) –C–H (d) –Cl

+ CH3
(e) –NMe3 (f) –O– (g) –CH3 (h) –CH
CH3
H O
:

(i) – N (j)  C  N (k) – N

CH3 O
22. Total number of compounds which on mononitration gives ortho or para substituted major product :

O H3C CH3
CH3 +
C–OPh CH3 NH3
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

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CCl3 NO2
CH=CH2 O–C–CH3
(v) (vi) O (vii) (viii)

23. How many compounds are aromatic ?

(i) (ii) (iii)

(iv) (v) (vi) (vii)

(viii)

24. Total number of structures which are most stable resonating structures among all their respective resonating
structures :

– + – O
(i) CH2=CH–CH=CH2 (ii) CH2–N N (iii) CH2–C (iv)
H

– + +
(v) CH2–CH=CH–CH=O–CH3 (vi) (vii) CH2=F

– + –
(viii) N=N=N

25. How many of the following are ring deactivating and o/p directing
 NH 2 ,  F, OAC ,  NO,  I,  Et
 NR 3 ,  NO 2 , Cl,  COCl, SO3 H, CN
26. How many pairs of (P1, P2) are possible for correct IUPAC name "P1-methyl pent-P2-yne" where P1 & P2
represents position of methyl & multiple bond respectively.
27. Degree of unsaturation of following compound is :

CN
CH2OCH3

Ph
28. The number of moles of methane produced when given compound reacts with excess of CH3MgBr

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OH O

C  OCH 3

HS

C  CH

(A) 5 (B) 4 (C)3 (D) 2

29. Correct order of stability of carbocation is:

 
 
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) I > II > IV > III (C) II > I > III > IV (D) II > I > IV > III
30. Rank the hydrogen atoms (Ha, Hb, Hc) in the following molecule according to their acidic strength.

(A) a > b > c (B) b > a > c (C) b > c > a (D) c > b > a
31. Correct order of basicity is:

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) II > I > III > IV (C) II > III > I > IV (D) II > III > IV > I
32. The correct order of acidic strength of the numbered H is

OH SO 3H
3 1
4

COOH
2

(A) III > I > II > IV (B) I > II > IV > III
(C) II > I > III > IV (D) I > II > III > IV

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33. Number of groups which can show +I effect.
 
(i) —O– (ii) —CHO (iii) —CN (iv) (v)

(vi) (vii) —NO2 (viii) —COOH (ix) —CH2CH3
34. Which of the following is/are correct statement
(A) Inductive effect is permanent effect
(B) Resonance always increases the stability of the specie
(C) Hyperconjugation is a hypothetical effect
(D) Ortho substituted benzoic acid is always more acidic than its meta and para isomer.
35. The relative acidity of the indicated H in each of the following is

O O O
(i)  C (ii)  C CH3 (iii) C 
H3C H H 3C O H3C OH

(A) i > ii > iii (B) ii > iii > i (C) i > iii > ii (D) iii > i > ii

Br
NO2
36. (A)

Number of compounds which can show faster rate of nucleophilic substitution for halogens than compound
(A) from the given below compounds.

NO2 F Cl I
Cl NO2
, , ,
NO2
NO2 NO2

O O
NH2 CN

37. HO
N N O
NC H

Total number of functional groups present in above compound

(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 6
38. Correct order of acidic strength

OH COOH CH2OH OH
NO2

NO2 CN NO2
I II III IV

(A) III > I (B) I > IV (C) IV > III (D) II > I

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39. The correct order of basic strength.

NH
N
H2 N NH2
N N N
H H
I II III IV

(1) IV > I > II > III (B) IV > I > III > II (C) III > IV > I > II (D) IV > III > I > II

40. Number of compound which will release CO2 gas on reaction with NaHCO3 :

OH OH OH COOH
O2N NO2
Me–SO3H+

NO2 NO2

OH
NO2 HO O
H2SO4 , NH3 , CH4
HO O
NO2

41. The following synthesis can be carried out be:

CH = CH2 CH = CH2

Cl I

(A) 
1      4 
Cl2 IC1/ CH 2 COOH ICI / CH 3 / COOH Zn.dust
 2  3

HOCl / H  ICI / ZnCl  excess 

NaOH, 
(B) 
1    2    4  
Cl2 / Fe 2
 3

HOBr / H  ICI / ZnCl  excess 

(C) 
1    2     
Cl2 / Fe 2 3 Zn dust ,CH COOH
 3  4

ICI / CH COOH excess 

(D)    2     
 4 
2 Br / CH COOH
3 Cl2 / Fe 3 NaNH 2
1  3

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 i PhCHO
42. Bu  C  CH 
Li / NH 2
A 
 ii H 2O  B 
MnO3
 C . Compound C of the above reaction can not be:

CHO CHO

C  CBu
(A) (B)
C  CBu

CHO
O

(C) (D)

C  CBu

2HCl
A
43. , Reactant (A) can be
Cl Cl

(A) (B)
OH

(C) (D) All

OH

OH H2SO4, 0°C
(A) (B)
44. H2O 4 –H C l
Cl
Product (B) of above reaction

(A) O (B) O

(C) O (D) O

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45. List the following dienes in decreasing order of their reactivity in Diels-Alder reaction

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(A) i > ii > iv > iii (B) iv > i > iii > ii
(C) iv > i > ii > iii (D) iv > iii > i > ii

I. C H 2 – CHCOCH 3
46. Product
II. O 3/Z n, H2O

Predominant product is:-

CHO COCH 3
CHO CHO

(A) (B)

CHO CHO

CHO COCH3
COCH 3 CHO

(C) (D)

CHO COCH3

47. What is the product of the following sequence of reaction?

NaNH 2/NH 3 H2/Pd/BaSO 4 BH 2/H2O/NaOH

HO OH HO OH
HO OH HO
(A) (B)

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HO HO OH HO HO OH OH
(C) (D)

48. Which of the following reactions results in the formation of a pair of diastereomers?
H3 C H H3 C H
(A) H Br (B) HB r

H3 C H H3C H
H Br 1. B H 3, THF
(C) (D)
ROOR, UV 2. H2O 2, OH, H2O
49. An organic compound 'X' on treatment with hydrogen and platinum catalyst, absorbs 5 equivalents of hydro-
gen to give n-butyl cyclohexane. When 'X' is treated with silver nitrate in ethanol, a white precipitate forms.
The precipitate is found to be soluble in dilute acid. Treatment 'X' with an excess of ozone, followed by
dimethyl sulphide and water, gives following products.

O O O O O

HCCH 2 – C H 2 – C – CH HC – CH
O O

HC – C – OH HC – OH

Hence, compound 'X' is

CH = CH – C  CH CH = CH – C  CH
(A) (B)

CH = CH – C  CH CH  CH – C  CH 2
(C) (D)

50. The most appropriate major product of the following sequence of reactions would be

CH2 O
CH 3CH2
C C C H3 – C – O – O – H
H 3C H LiAlD4 H3 O+

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Me Me

Et D Et DH
()
(A) H OH (B) D H

Me CH3

Me CH 3

Et OH CH 3CH2 DH

(C) H D
()
(D) H OD

Me CH 3

Paragraph - Q. No.51 to 53
An unknown compound 'X' (C10H16) absorbs two moles of H2 to give 'Y' (C10H20). Permanganate oxidation

of X lead to the formation of

Addition of 1 mole of H2O to 'X' lead to the formation of 'Y'. Addition of 1 mole of H2O to 'Y' gives 'Z'.
Answer the following questions on the basis of the above.
51. Which of the following cannot be a possible structure for 'X'.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

52. If it is given that a particular 'Y' contains six-membered ring, then which of the following cannot be 'Y'.

(A) (B)
OH
HO

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OH

(C) (D) None of these

53. Which of the following is true about 'Z' which is obtained from the particular 'Y' in the previous question?
(A) Z contains at least one double bond in its structure.
(B) 'Z' on treatment with CrO3/H+ leads to an aldehyde.
(C) 'Z' on treatment with LiAlH4 remains unaffected.
(D) 'Z' gives positive iodoform test.
Paragraph Q. No. 54 to 56

+ C H2 – CO Zn  Hg  HCl / 
O 
1  C10 H10 O3  
3 AlCl
 2
C H 2 – CO

 C10 H12 O2  

 3   C10 H11OCl  
SOCl 2
 4    C10 H12 O 2  
AlCl 2
 5 
H / Pt 2

Y  Z W

 C10 H12 O   6    C10 H10  

H SO / 
2 4 Pt / heat
7  C10 H8  H 2
R   S T 

54. What product will be obtained if 'W' is treated with C6H5MgBr followed by D3O  and then by
heating?

(A) (B) Ph

OD OD

(C) (D)

Ph Ph

55. What product is obtained when (X) is heated with conc. H2SO4?

(A) (B)

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(C) (D)

56. What product is obtained when W is heated with KMnO4/OH?

COOH
COOH
(A) (B)
COOH
COOH

(C) O (D) O

57. Match the column (I) and (II)

Column I Column II

(a) (p) Di-carboxylic acid will be formed when reacts

with hot alk. KMnO4

(b) (q) Decolourises Br2/H2O '

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(c) (r) Dicarboxylic acid will be formed when reacts

with O3/H2O2

(d) (s) Number of allylic hydrogens is odd

58. NO2
(1) Sn/HCl
(2) (CH 3CO)2O HNO 3 Dil.
A B C
H 2SO 4 H2SO4
Br2
(1) CuBr
H3PO 2 (2) Sn/HCl NaNO 2
G F E D
(3) NaNO2, H2 SO4 H2SO4

Write the correct combinations

Column I Column II

Br
Br Br
(a) A (p)

Br
Br Br

(b) B (q)

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NHCOCH 3

(c) G (r)

NO2

NHCOCH 3

(d) H (s)

59. CH 3  C H  C  C  C H  CH 3
| | x
OH OH

(A) Total no. of stereoisomers of the product when above compound (X) is reduced by lindlar
catalyst.
(B) Total no. of stereoisomers of the product when (X) is reduced by Na/liq NH3 (Birch reduction)
(C) No. of products that we will get when optically inactive form formed in part (B) reacts with
PhCOOH followed by hydrolysis.

 A  B
What is value of  45
C
60. CH 2  CH  CH  CH 3 reacts with Cl 2 at 500°C. Find out total no. of possible isomeric halogen
derivatives.

CHClBr2
61. +
m no. of products.
(CH2)3CO–K

CH 3 CH 3
C=C Uv m
62. + CH 2N 2 . Total no. of products
H H

CH 3 NH 2OH
Cold Dil HIO4
63. KMnO4 (excess)
KMnO4
Total no. of isomers (including stereo) are formed in the products.

SINGLE CORRECT CHOICE

64. The least and most stable resonating structure respectively are

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   
i. CH 2  CH  C H  C H  C  CH 3 ii. CH 2  CH  C H  C H  C  CH 3
O O

 
iii. C H 2  C H  CH  CH  C  CH 3 iv. CH 2  CH  CH  CH  C  CH 3
O O
(A) i, iv (B) ii, iii
(C) iv, i (D) iii, ii
65. The order of heat of hydrogenation in following compound is:

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) I < II < IV < III (B) III < IV < II < I
(C) II < III < I < IV (D) II < IV < I < III

CH 3 H
H 3C + CH 3 H H
N N+

66. Between and

(I) (II)

(A) N(I) has more's' character in N—CH3 bonds

(B) N(II) has more's' character in N—H bonds

(C)  N   CH 3  show - m effect with benzene ring
3

(D) None of these

67. The correct reactivity order of following C = C / C E C bonds towards Br  is

O 4
1

(A) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 (B) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4

(C) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 (D) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4
68. The correct order of acidic strength is :

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COOH COOH COOH COOH

OH OH OH CH 3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

OH

(A) III > IV > I > II (B) II > I > III > IV
(C) II > III > I > IV (D) II > I > IV > III

MULTI CORRECT CHOICE

69. Which of the following statements would be INCORRECT about this compound ?

NO 2
3

1 5
NO 2
NO 2
Br
(A) All three C–N bond are of same length
(B) C3–N and C3–N bond are of same length but shorter than C5–N bond
(C) C1–N and C5–N bond are of same length but shorter than C3–N bond
(D) C1–N and C5–N bond are of same length but both are longer than C3–N bond
70. In which of the following pairs the first one is the stronger base than second
(A) CH3 COO , HCOO (B) HO , NH 2
 
(C) CH  CH, H  C  C (D) CH 3 NH 2 ,CH 3 OH
2

71. Which statement among the following are CORRECT ?

(A) Hydration effect stabilises dimethyl ammonium ion more than trimethyl ammonium
(B) In chlorobenzene as there is no hydration effect so, trimethyl ammonium .on gets less stacked dimethyl
ammonium ion
(C) RCONH2 is less acidic with respect to RCOOH
  
(D) C H  N H  O H is the basicity order
3 2

72. Which is true regarding the relative basic character of the following pairs?
(A) NH 3  NH 2 OH (B) CH o C  NH 2

(C) CCl3   CF3 (D) Neither is true
73. Which of the following compound can not react with hydroxylamine?
OH OH
OH
(A) (B)
OH OH

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OH
OH

(C) (D)
HO OH
OH

COMPREHENSION TYPE
Paragraph for Questions 74 and 75
The concept of resonance explains various properties of compounds. The molecules with conjugated system
of n bonds, are stabilized by resonance and have low heat of hydrogenation. Hyperconjugative stabilization
also decreases heat of hydrogenation. In aromatic rings a functional group with a lone pair of electron exerts
+ m effect. Some functional groups like – NO, – NC, – CH = CH2 can function both as electron releasing
(+m, +R) or electron withdrawing (– m, – R) groups. More extended conjugation provides more stabilization
74. The most stable carbocation is

(A) (B)
 

(C)  (D) 

75. The most stable resonating structure of following compound is

  
O N NO


      
(A) O  N  NO (B) O  N N O



 
 
O N NO
(C) (D) O  N NO


76. Carbohydrates contain ?

(A) –OH group (B) –CHO group (C) >C=O group (D) All
77. Which of the following monosaccharide is pentose ?
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose (C) Arabinose (D) Galactose
78. On heating glucose with Fehling solution. We get a precipitate whose colour is ?
(A) Yellow (B) Red (C) Black (D) White
79. Which of the following compounds is found abundantly in nature ?
(A) Fructose (B) Starch (C) Glucose (D) Cellulose
80. Glucose on reduction with Na/Hg and water gives ?

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(A) Sorbitol (B) Fructose (C) Saccharic acid (D) Gluconic acid
81. Glucose or fructose is converted into C2H5OH in the presence of ?
(A) Diastage (B) Maltase (C) Invertase (D) Zymase
82. Glucose cannot be calassified as ?
(A) Hexose (B) Carbohydrate (C) Aldose (D) Oligo saccharide
83. Milk sugar is commonly known as
(A) Maltose (B) Lactose (C) Fructose (D) Glucose
84. The commonest disaccharide has the molecular formula ?
(A) C10H18O9 (B) C10H20O11 (C) C18H22O11 (D) C12H22O11
85. Strach is changed into disaccharide in presence of ?
(A) Diastase (B) Maltase (C) Lactase (D) Zymase
86. In a square close packing pattern, one atom is in contact with how many atoms in the 2-D plane base?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
87. In a cubic structure of compound which is made from X and Y, where X atoms are at the corners of the cube
and Y at the face centers of the cube. The molecular formula of compound is
88. In a face centerd lattice of X and Y, X atoms are present at the corners while Y atoms are at face centers.
Then the formula of the compound would be if one of the X atoms is missing from a corner in each unit cell
(A) X7Y24 (B) X24Y7 (C) XY24 (D) X24Y
89. A solid has a structure in which W atoms are located at the corners of a cubic lattice. O atom at the center
of the edges and Na atom at center of the cube. The formula for the compound is
(A) NaWO2 (B) NaWO3 (C) Na2WO3 (D) NaWO4
90. A certain metal fluoride crystallises in such a way that F atoms occupy simple cubic lattice corner sites, while
metal atoms occupy the body centre of the cubes. The formula of metal fluoride is :
(A) M2F (B) MF (C) MF2 (D) MF8
91. CsBr has b.c.c. structure with edge length 4.3 A. The shortest inter ionic distance in between Cs+ and
Br – is:
(A) 3.72 (B) 1.86 (C) 7.44 (D) 4.3
92. Which of the following are bidentate monoanion ligands ?
(1) Acetylacetonato
(2) Oxalato ion
(3) Dimethylglyoximato
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only
93. Diethylenetriamine is:
(A) chelating agent (B) tridentate neutral molecule
(C) tridentatemonoanion (D) (A) and (B) both
94. Na2S + Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]   Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] ; oxidation number of Fe in reactant (complex) and
product (complex) are :
(A) 2, 1 (B) 2, 2 (C) 2, 3 (D) 3, 3
95. A complex anion is formed by Osmium (in some oxidation state) with ligands (in proper number so that
coordination number of osmium becomes six). Which of the following can be its correct IUPAC name?
(A) pentachloridonitridoosmium(VI) (B) pentachloridonitridoosmate(VI)
(C) azidopentachloridoosmate(VI) (D) None of these
96. The concentration of pollutant in ppm (w/w), that has been measured at 450 mg per 150 kg of sample is :
(A) 3 ppm (B) 6 ppm (C) 3000 ppm (D) 330 ppm

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97. Available are 1L of 0.1 M NaCl and 2L of 0.2 M CaCl2 solutions. Using only these two solutions what
maximum volume of a solution can be prepared having [Cl–] = 0.34 M exactly. Both electrolytes are strong
(A) 2.5 L (B) 2.4 L (C) 2.3 L (D) None of these
98. Mole fraction of C3H5(OH)3 in a solution of 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerine is :
(A) 0.46 (B) 0.36 (C) 0.20 (D) 0.40
99. The solubility of gases in liquids :
(A) increases with increase in pressure and temperature
(B) decreases with increase in pressure and temperature
(C) Increases with increase in pressure and decrease in temperature
(D) decreases with increase in pressure and increase in temperature
100. Colligative properties have many practical uses, some of them may be :
I : Melting of snow by salt
II : Desalination of sea water
III : Determination of molar mass
IV : Determination of melting point and boiling point of solvent
Actual practical uses are :
(A) I, II (B) III, IV (C) I, II, III (D) II, III, IV
101. What is the approximate quantity of electricity(in coulombs) required to deposit all the silver from 250ml of
1M AgNO3 aqueous solution?
1) 96500 (B) 24125 (C) 48250 (D) 12062.5
2 2
102. The cell reaction of a cell is Mg(s)+Cu (aq )  Cu(s) +Mg (aq ) . If the standard reduction potentials of Mg and
Cu are –2.37 and +0.34 V respectively, the e.m.f. of the cell is
(A) +2.03V (B)–2.03V (C) +2.71V (D) –2.71V
103. On passing a current through molten KCl 19.5g of K is deposited. The amount of Al deposited by the same
quantity of electricity if passed through molten AlCl3 is
(A) 4.5g (B) 9.0g (C) 13.5g (D)27 g
104. 9.65 amp of current was passed for one hour through Daniel cell. The loss of mass of zinc anode is
(A) 11.76g (B) 1.176g (C) 5.88g (D) 2.94g
105. A current of strength 2.5 amperes was passed through CuSO4 solution for 6min 26sec. The amount of
copper deposited is (At.wt. of Cu=63.5, faraday=96,500C).
(A) 0.3175g (B) 3.175g (C) 0.635g (D) 6.35g

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ANSWER KEY
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B C D A A,D A,B B,C,D A,B,C,D A,B,C,D
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B,C 3 197 5 122 5 100 3 3 3
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 8 4 5 4 4 6 9 C C D
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. C D 4 B D 4 A BCD D 7
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. ABDABD D B B C C B A C
Q.No 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
a - pqrs, a-s,
b-pqrs, b-r,
Ans. C B D C C D 3 8
c-pqr, c-p,
d-q d-q
Q.No 61 62 63
Ans. 3 3 4
Q.No 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73
Ans. A B A D B ABD ACD ACD AC ABD
Q.No 74 75
Ans. A D
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
Ans. D C B D A D D B D A
Q.No 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95
Ans. B D A B B A B D B B
Q.No 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
Ans. A A C C C B B A A A

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DIWALI ASSIGNMENT (ENTHUSIAST COURSE)

: FUNCTIONS :

ax e x log e a x2
If g  x   a
3x
1. e3x log e a x4
a 5x e5x log e a 1

(A) Graphs of g(x) is symmetrical about origin

(B) Graphs of g(x) is symmetrical about y-axis

d 4g  x 
(C) 0
dx 4 x 0

ax
(D) f  x   g  x   log   is an odd function
ax

f x  5
2. Let f : R  R be a function defined by f  x  1  f x  3 x  R . Then, which of the following state-
 
ment (s) is/are true?
(A) f  2008  f  2004  (B) f  2006   f  2010 

(C) f  2006   f  2002  (D) f  2006   f  2018 

3. For all real values of u and v, 2f  u  cos v  f  u  v   f  u  v  then which of the following is true for all
xR
(A) f  x   f   x   2a cos x , a is constant (B) f    x   f   x   0

(C) f    x   f  x   2b sin x , b is constant (D) f  x   a cos x  bsin x,a, b are constants

4. If f  2  x   f  2  x  and f  4  x   f  4  x  for all x and f(x) is a function for which  f  x  dx  5,

0

50

then  f  x  dx
0
is equal to

46

(A) 125 (B)

4
 f  x  dx
51 52

(C)  f  x  dx (D)  f  x  dx
1 2

If x  3 x  2  mx  2 has exactly four solutions then the value of m may be

2
5.
(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 7 (D) 0

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6. Let f : R    0,2  such that f(x) is a differentiable function and f '  x   0 and f  x  .f 1  x   x 2  16  0 ,
then
(A) Equation has atleast one real roots (B) Equation has no real root
(C) Equation has atleast two real roots (D) f  x  f 1  x  is decreasing function

7. If the fundamental period of function f  x   sin x  cos  

4  a 2 x is 4 , then the value of a is/are

15 15 7 7
(A) (B)  (C) (D) 
2 2 2 2

1
8. Let f  x  be a real valued function such that f  0   and
2

f  x  y   f  x  f  a  y   f  y  f  a  x  , x, y  R , then for some real a

(A) f  x  is a periodic function (B) f  x  is a constant function

1 cos x
(C) f  x   (D) f x 
2 2

1 1
9. If f  x  ,g  x  be thrice differentiable function on  0,3 satisfying f '''  x   g '''  x  ,f ''    g ''    0 ,
2 2

f ' 1  4, g ' 1  2 and f  3  12, g  3  3 , then

(A) f  2   g  2   7 (B) f  x   g  x   5  x ]  4,1[

(C) f  x   g  x   5  x ]  , 4 1, [ (D) f  x   g  x   2x  3

10. Let n be a positive integer with f  n   1! 2! 3! ....  n! and P(x) and Q(x) be polynomials in x such that

f  n  2   P  n  f  n  1  Q  n  f  n  for all n  1, then

(A) P  x   x  3 (B) Q  x    x  2 (C) P  x    x  2 (D) Q  x   x  3

Let f  x   sec 1  cos x  , where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, then
1 2
11.
(A) The domain of f is R (B) The domain of f is [1, 2]
(C) The range of f is [1, 2] (D) The range of f is {sec–11, sec–12}

x 3  6x 2  11x  6 a
12. The value(s) of a, for which   0 , does not have real solution is/are
x 3  x 2  10x  8 30
(A) –10 (B) 12 (C) 5 (D) –30
13. Which of the following functions are defined for all x  R ?
(Where [.] = denotes greatest integer function)

(A) f  x   sin  x   cos  x  (B) f  x   sec 1  sin x 

1 2

9
(C) f  x    cos x  cos 2x (D) f  x   tan  ln 1 | x | 
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
1 x 3  3x 2 
14. The function f  x   cos 1
x  cos 
2
  , then:

 2 

  10    5 
(A) Range of f  x  is  ,  (B) Range of f  x  is  , 
3 3  3 3 

 1 1 
(C) f  x  is one-one for x   1,  (D) f  x  is one-one for x   ,1
 2 2 

 x  e
15. If h  x   ln   ln  , where [.] denotes greatest integer function, then which of the following are true?
 e  x
(A) Range of h(x) is {–1, 0}
(B) If h(x) = 0, then x must be irrational
(C) If h(x) = –1, then x can be rational as well as irrational
(D) h(x) is periodic function

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: ITF & LIMITS :

1  6  1  4 
16. If   3sin   and   3cos   , where the inverse trigonometric functions take only the principal
 11  9
values, then the correct options (s) is (are)
(A) cos   0 (B) sin   0

(C) cos       0 (D) cos   0

1  2x 
17. Let f :  , 1  A be a function defined by f  x   tan  2  . If f(x) is a bijective function, then set
1 x 
A is not

   
(A) 0,  (B)  0, 
 2  2

    
(C)  ,  (D)   , 
4 2  2 4

1  5cos x  12sin x 
18. If f  x   cos   , then
 13 

(A) f    / 3  1 (B) f    / 6   0

12  
(C) f  0   tan (D) Range of f  x  is 0, 
1

5  2
2 
19. If 2 sin 1 x  2  a  2  2sin sin 1 x  8a  0 for atleast one real x, then

1
(A) a2 (B) a  2
8

 1
(C) a   5,   (D) a   ,    2,  
 8


 n2  a a
20. If  cot 1
    , where is rational number in its lowest form, then correct options is / are
n 1  8  b b
(A) a  b  3 (B) a  b  11
(C) a  b  10 (D) a  b  4
21. If  is a real number for which f  x   l n cos 1 x is defined, then a possible value of    is

(where    denotes greatest integr function)

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) - 1 (D) - 2

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22. Which of the following is rational number :

 1 1 1   1 3 
(A) sin  tan 3  tan  (B) cos   sin 
 3 2 4

  1 1 63   1 1 5
(C) log 2  sin  4 sin 8
  (D) tan  2 cos 3 
    

 3sin 2   tan    
23. tan 1    tan 1     , then the value of  is not equal to, where    
 5  3cos 2   4  2 2
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) - 1 (D) - 2

x2
a  a2  x2 
24. Let L  lim 4 ,a  0 . If L is finite, then
x 0 x4
(A) a = 2 (B) a = 1
1 1
(C) L  (D) L 
64 32

lim
1a  2a  .........  n a  
1
25. For a  R , a  1 , n  . Then a =
 n  1  na  1   na  2   .........   na  n  60
a 1

(A) 5 (B) 7
15 17
(C)  (D) 
2 2

1/ x
 f 1  x  
26. Let f : R  R be such that f 1  3 and f  1  6 . Then lim 
x 0 
 is not equal to
 f 1 

(A) 1 (B) e1/ 2

(C) e 2 (D) e3

27. If lim
  a  n  nx  tan x  sin nx  0 , where n is nonzero real number, then a is not equal to
x 0 x2

n 1
(A) 0 (B)
n

1
(C) n (D) n 
n

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: CONTINUITY, DIFFERENTIABILITY, MOD :

d4 y
28. If y = e–xcosx and y4 + ky = 0, where y 4  , then k =
dx 4
(A) 4 (B) –4
(C) 2 (D) –2

y ''
K
29. 2 2 2
If x + y = R (R > O) then
1   y' 2 3 where k in terms of R alone is equal to

1 1
(A) (B)
R2 R

2 2
(C) (D)
R R2

2 2
  x    x 
30. If f''(x) = –f(x) and g(x) = f'(x) and F  x    f      g    and given that F(5), then F(10) is equal to
  2    2 
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 0 (D) 15

1  2x  dy
31. If y  tan  2x 1  , then at x = 0 is
 1  2  dx
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) ln 2 (D) None of these
32. A function g defined for all real x > 0 satisfies g(1) = 1 g'(x2) = x3 for all x > 0 then g(4) equals
13
(A) (B) 3
3

67
(C) (D) None of these
5

33. S1 : If f  x   x  2 then f'(f(x)) = 1 for x > 20

x 1
S2 : If f  x   1  x , then f '  1 
4

c
S3 : If f(0) = a, f'(0) = b, g(0) = 0 and (fog)'(0), then g '  0  
b

1 2x 1
S4 : Differential coefficient of 2tan–1 w.r.t sin 2 at
x  is 1
1 x 2
(A) FTTT (B) TFTT
(C) TTFF (D) TTTT

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d6 y 
34. S1 : If y = sin2x, then 6 at
x  is equal to 1
dx 2

dy
S2 : If x  e y  ey.... , then at x = 1 is 0
dx

d2 y 1 1
S3 : If y = 2t2, x = 4t, then 2 at
x  is
dx 2 2

dy 16
S4 : If x = t2 + 3t –8, y = 2t2 – 2t – 5, then at (2, –1) is 3
dx 7
(A) FFFT (B) FTFT
(C) FTTF (D) TTTF

35. Number of points where the function f  x   max  tan x ,cos x  is non differentiable in the interval in the

interval  ,   is
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 2
36. A function f : R  R satisfies sinx.cosy.(f(2x + 2y) – f(2x – 2y)) = cosx siny (f(2x + 2y) + f(2x–2y)). If

1
f '  0  , then
2
(A) f''(x) = f(x) = 0 (B) 4f''(x) + f(x) = 0
(C) f''(x) + f(x) = 0 (D) 4f''(x) – f(x) = 0
37. If f(x) = [x](sinKx)P is continuous for real x, then
(A) k  n, n  I ,   0 (B) k  2n, n  I ,   0

(C) k  n,n  I ,  R  0 (D) k  n, n  I, n  0 ,  R  0

 xe e

 e  e x
x0
f x   1 1
38.  e x
 e x

 k x0

(A) f is continuous at x = 0, when k = 0 (B) f is not continuous at x = 0 for any real k

(C) lim f  x  is exist infinitely (D) None of these

x 0

39. If f(x) = sgn(x) and g(x) = x(1–x2), then the number of points of discontinuity of function f(g(x)) is
(A) Exact two (B) Exact three
(C) Finite and more than 3 (D) Infinitely many

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: APPLICATION OF DERIVATIVE :

40. Let f(x) be a non-constant twice differentiable function defined on   ,   such that f (x)  f (1  x) and

1
f     0. Then, [JEE 2008, 4M]
4

1
(A) f (x) vanishes at least twice on [0, 1] (B) f     0
 2
1/ 2 1/ 2 1
 1
(C)  f  x   sin xdx  0  f (t)esin t dt   f 1  t  e
sin t
(D) dt
1/ 2 
2 1/ 2 1/2

41. If the line ax + by + c = 0 is a normal to the curve xy = 1, then (1986, 2M)

(A) a > 0, b > 0 (B) a > 0, b < 0
(C) a < 0, b > 0 (D) a < 0, b < 0
x  1
 t   dt
42. If f :  0,    R be given by f (x)  e  t
. Then (2014 Adv.)
1/ x
t
(A) f(x) is monotonically increasing in [1,  ) (B) f(x) is monotonically decreasing on [0, 1)

1
(C) f (x)  f    0, x   0,   (D) f  2  is an odd function of x on R
x

x

If h(x)  f (x)   f (x)    f (x)  for every real number x. Then

2 3
43. (1998, 2M)
(A) h is increasing, whenever f is increasing (B) h is increasing, whenever f is decreasing
(C) h is decreasing, whenever f is decreasing (D) Nothing can be said in general
cos(2x) cos(2x) sin(2x)
44. If f (x)   cos x cos x  sin x , then (2017 Adv.)
sin x sin x cos x
(A) f(x) attains its minimum at x = 0
(B) f(x) attains its maximum at x = 0
(C) f (x)  0 at more than three points in   ,  
(D) f (x)  0 at exactly three points in   ,  
45. Let f : R   0,   and g : R  R be twice differentiable functions such that f  and g are continuous

f (x)g(x)
functions on R. Suppose f (2)  g(2)  0, f (2)  0 and g(2)  0. If lim  1, then
x 2 f (x)g(x)
(2016 Adv.)
(A) f has a local minimum at x = 2 (B) h has a local maximum at x = 2
(C) f (2)  f (2) (D) f (x)  f (x)  0, for atleast one x  R
46. A rectangular sheet of fixed perimeter with sides having their lengths in the ratio 8 : 15 is converted into an
open rectangular box by folding after removing squares of equal area from all four corners. If the total area
of removed squares is 100, the resulting box has maximum volume. The lengths of the sides of the rectangu-
lar sheet are (2013 Adv.)
(A) 24 (B) 32
(C) 45 (D) 60

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47. If f(x) is a cubic polynomial which has local maximum at x = – 1. If f(2) = 18, f(1) = – 1 and f (x) has local
minimum at x = 0, then (2006, 3M)
(A) The distance between  1, 2  and  a, f (a)  , where x = a is the point of local minima, is 2 5

(B) f(x) is increasing for x  1, 2 5 

(C) f(x) has local minima at x = 1
(D) The value of f(0) = 5
x

The function f (x)   t  e  1  t  1 t  2   t  3  dt has a local minimum at x equals

t 3 5
48. (1999, 3M)
1

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
3x 2  12x  1, 1  x  2
49. If f (x)   , then (1993, 3M)
 37  x, 2 x 3

(A) f(x) is increasing on  1, 2 (B) f(x) is continuous on  1, 3

(C) f (2) does not exist (D) f(x) has the maximum value at x = 2
50. Let f, g and h be real-valued functions defined on the interval  0, 1 by
2 2 2 2 2 2
f (x)  e x  e  x , g(x)  xe x  e  x and h(x)  x 2 e x  e  x .

If a, b and c denote, respectively, the absolute maximum of f, g and h on  0, 1 , then :

[JEE 10, 3M, – 1M]
(A) a = b and c  b (B) a = c and a  b
(C) a  b and c  b (D) a = b = c
51. Let f, g : [– 1, 2]  R continuous functions which are twice differentiable on the interval  1, 2  . Let the
values of f and g the points – 1, 0 and 2 be as given in the following table : [JEE 2015]

x  1 x  0 x  2
f (x) 3 6 0
g(x) 0 1 1

In each of the interval (– 1, 0) and (0, 2) the function  f  3g  never vanishes. Then the correct statement(s)
is (are)
(A) f (x)  3g(x)  0 has exactly three solutions in  1, 0    0, 2 
(B) f (x)  3g(x)  0 has exactly one solution in  1, 0 
(C) f (x)  3g(x)  0 has exactly one solution in  0, 2 
(D) f (x)  3g(x)  0 has exactly two solutions in  1, 0  and exactly two solutions in  0, 2 

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: Definite Integration :

e   dx  23 , then possible value of  can be :




x
52. If  cos x ln x  1  x 2


(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
n
2r
53. If f     nlim  then:

r 0 n  3n  2r  n  2r 

  dx
(A) f 1  (B) f    
6 2 0 
2
2
 x  
 2

(C) f    is a constant function (D) y  f    is invertible

f x
54. If f  x  y   f  x  f  y  for all x, y and f  0   0 and F  x   then :
1   f  x 
2

2011 2011 2011 2010 2011

(A)  F  x  dx   F  x  dx (B)  F  x  dx   F  x  dx   F  x  dx
2010 0 2010 0 0

2011 2010 2010

(C)  F  x  dx  0 (D)   2F   x   F  x   dx  2  F  x  dx
2010 2010 0

2 7
 1 1  sin x
55. Let J    cot  cot 1 x  dx,K   dx Then which of the following alternative(s) is/ are correct?
1 
x  2 
sin x

(A) 2J  3K  8 (B) 4J 2  K 2  262

J 2
(C) 2J  K  3 (D) 
K 5
1
x  cos 2 x hdx
56. Let 1  lim and  2  lim  2 . Then :
x  x  sin x h 0
1 h  x
2

(A) Both 1 and  2 are less than 22/7

(B) One of the two limits is rational and other irrational
(C)  2  1
(D)  2 is greater than 3 times of 1

n dx
n   1  n 2 x 2
57. Let L  lim where a  R then L can be:
a

10

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
(A)  (B)
2


(C) 0 (D)
3
1 1
1 x 1 x
58. Let I   dx and J   dx then correct statement (s) is/are :
0 1 x 0 1 x

(A) I  J  2 (B) I  J  

2 4
(C) I (D) I 
2 2

sin nx
59. Let l n   sin x
dx, n  N then


20
(A) ln  2  l n (B)  l2m1  20
m 1

(C) I 2m  0, where m  1, 2,3 (D) l n 1  l n

1
60. Let f  x    t  x dt then
0

(A) f(x) is a constant function (B) f(x) is continuous for all x  R

(C) f(x) is differentiable for all x  R (D) f(x) is not differentiable at x  0,1
61. Which of the following options is/are correct?
10

(A)  sgn x dx  9 , where {x}is fractional part of x.

1

e2
ln x 5
(B)  x
dx 
2
e1

n 1 n

(C)   f  r  1  x  dx   f  x  dx
r 1 0 0

1
 1 x  
 sin  2 tan
1
(D)  dx 
0  1 x  2


2
dx
62.  1  tan x is
0

(A) A multiple of  / 4 (B) A multiple of  / 2

(C) Equal to  / 4 (D) A multiple of 

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
dx A
63. If  1  cos  cos x  sin   B  A  0 . Then possible values of A and B are
0

(A) A   2 , B  0 (B) A   4 , B   4 sin 

(C) A ,B (D) A  , B   sin 

6 sin 
10
64. If f '  x   f  x    f  x  dx , then
10

(A) f '  x   f  x  if xlim


f x  0 (B) f '  x   f  x   c  any const.

(C) f "  x   f  x   c  any const. (D) f "  x   f '  x   c1 where c1 is fixed constant

1
1 dt dt
65. If I1  x 2
and I 2   x
1 1 t2
for x  0 then
1 t
(A) I1  I2 (B) I1  I2

(C) I 2  I1 (D) I 2  cot 1 x   4

cot x
tdt cot x 1
1  1 dt is
66. Value of Integral
1 t 2
e 
t 1  t2 
e

1
(A) (B) 1
2  tan 2 x

 2 1 dt
 1 1  t 2
(C) (D)
4

67. Value of Integral 0 xf  cos x  dx where f is even function is
 
 2
f  cos x  dx
4 0
(A)  
0
2f  sin x  dx (B)

  
f  cos x  dx
2 0
(C) (D) 2 4 f  sin x  dx
0

68. Which of the following options hold true.

1 x3 1 5 2 x2 2 5
(A) 0 3 dx   3x dx
0
(B) 1 3 dx   3x dx
1

2 2 5 5
1 ln xdx  1  ln x  4 ln xdx  4  ln x 
2 2
(C) dx (D) dx

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: Indefinite Integration :

dx  x
69. If  a  cos x  f  tan 2   C , then
S1 : f is a log function for a = 0

S2 : f is inverse trigonometric function for a  1

S3 : f is a polynomial function for a = 1

S4 : f is rational function but not polynomial for a = 1
The which of the statements are true
(A) S1 (B) S2
(C) S3 (D) S4

 1   1 
70. S1 :  e x  ln x  2  dx  e x  ln x  2   C
 x   x 

x
1  cos
dx 2  2 tan 1 cos x  C
S2 :    ln
x x x 2
sin cos 1  cos
2 2 2

dx 1
S3 :   tan 2 x  ln  tan x   C
sin x cos3 x 2

sin x  cos x 1  sin x  cos x 

S4 :  dx  tan 1  C
sin 2x  3 2  2 
The which of the statements are true
(A) S1 (B) S2
(C) S3 (D) S4

x 3  6x 2  11x  6 dx
71. If  dx   Ax 2  Bx  C  x 2  4x  3    , then value of 'A' is not equal to
x  4x  3
2
x  4x  3
2

(A) 1/3 (B) 1

(C) 3 (D) - 1/3

x 3  6x 2  11x  6 dx
72. If  dx   Ax 2  Bx  C  x 2  4x  3    value of 'C' is not equal to
x  4x  3
2
x  4x  3
2

14
(A) - 37 (B) 
3

14
(C) (D) 37
3

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x 3  6x 2  11x  6 dx
73. If  dx   Ax 2  Bx  C  x 2  4x  3    value of '  ' is not equal to
x  4x  3
2
x  4x  3
2

(A) 66 (B) - 66
37 37
(C) (D) 
3 3

sin x  cos x  3
74. If I   dx , where  x  , then I is not equal to
sin x  cos x 4 8

(A) sin x (B) x + C

(C) ln x (D)  x  C

x2 1  x3  1 
If  x 3  1 x 3  2 dx  f C
75.
   3  x 3  2  , then f(x) is not equal to
(A) sin x (B) x + c
(C) ln x (D) sin 1 x

 2  
If  sin x. cos xdx  f  x   x  xf  x   2 1  x  
1 1 1 1
76. 1  x 2  2x  C , then f(x) is not equal to
 2  2

(A) x + c (B) ln x
(C) sin 1 x (D) x  c

dx
77. If  xf  x   f  f  x    C , then f(x) is not equal to
(A) sin x (B) ln x
(C) sin 1 x (D) x  c

x  sin x
78. If F  x    dx and F  0   0 , then F   / 2  is not equal to
1  cos x

 
(A)  (B)
2 3


(C) (D) 
4

 x  k 3e  / 6
Let F  x    e
1

1   dx and F(0) = 1, If F 1 / 2  
sin x
79. , then k is not equal to
 1  x2  

 
(A)  (B)
2 4


(C)  (D)
2
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80. Let F  x  

dx and F  0   0 , if F  3   365 k , then k is not equal to
 x  1 x  9 
2 2

 
(A) (B)
3 4


(C)  (D)
2

tan x 2k
81. Let F  x    dx and F(0) = 0 if F   / 4   then k is not equal to
sin x cos x 

 
(A)  (B)
2 3


(C) (D) 
4

sec 2 x
82. The integral   sec x  tan x  9/2
dx is not equal to

1 1 1 2
(A)  11    sec x  tan x    K
 sec x  tan x  2 11 7 

1 1 1 2

(B) 11    sec x  tan x    K

 sec x  tan x  2 11 7 

1 1 1 2

(C)
 11    sec x  tan x    K
11 7 
 sec x  tan x  2

1 1 1 2

(D) 11    sec x  tan x    K

 sec x  tan x  2 11 7 

83. Let f : R  R and g : R  R be two non-constant differentiable functions. If f   x   e


 f  x  g  x 
 g  x  for
all x  R , and f 1  g  2   1 , then which of the following statement(s) (are) TRUE ?

(A) f  2   1  log e 2 (B) f  2   1  log e 2

(C) g 1  1  log e 2 (D) g 1  1  log e 2

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dx
84. The value of  1  e cos x must be same as

1  1 e x
(A) tan 1  tan   c , (e lies between 0 and 1)
1  e2  1 e 2

2  1 e x
(B) tan 1  tan   c , (e lies between 0 and 1)
1 e  1 e 2
2

1 e  cos x  e 2  1sin x
(C) log  c , (e is greater than 1)
e2  1 1  e cos x

2 e  cos x  e 2  1sin x
(D) log  c , (e is greater than 1)
e2  1 1  e cos x

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: Area Under Curve :

85. The area inside the parabola 5x 2  y  0 but outside the parabola 2x 2  y  9  0 is

(A) 12 3 sq units (B) 6 3 sq units

(C) 8 3 sq units (D) 4 3 sq units

86. The area of the closed figure bounded by x = - 1, y = 0, y  x 2  x  1 and the tangent to the curve

y  x 2  x  1 at A(1,3) is
(A) 4/3 sq units (B) 7/3 sq units
(C) 7/6 sq units (D) None of these
87. The area bounded by the curve y  f  x  , the x-axis and the ordinates x = 1 and x = b is  b  1 sin  3b  4  .
Then f(x) is
(A)  x  1 cos  3x  4  (B) sin  3x  4 

(C) sin  3x  4   3  x  1 cos  3x  4  (D) None of these

88. The area bounded by the curves y  x  1 and y   x  1 is

(A) 1 sq units (B) 2 sq units
(C) 2 2 sq units (D) 4 sq units

89. The area enclosed between the curves y  ax 2 and x  ay 2 (where a > 0) is 1 sq unit, then the value of a is

(A) 1 / 3 (B) 1/2

(C) 1 (D) 1/3
90. For which of the following values of m is the area of the regions bounded by the curve y  x  x 2 and the line
y = mx equal 9/2 ?
(A) - 4 (B) - 2
(C) 2 (D) 4
91. The parabola y2  4x and x 2  4y divide the square region bounded by the lines x = 4, y = 4 and the
co-ordinate axes. If S1 ,S2 ,S3 are the areas of these parts numbered from top to bottom, respectively, then
(A) S1 : S2  1:1 (B) S2 : S3  1: 2

(C) S1 : S3  1:1 (D) S1 :  S1  S2   1: 2

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: Matrices & Determinant :

 
2016
92. Let A and B are square matrices of same order satisfying AB = A and BA = B, then A 2015  B2015 is
equal to

(A) 22015 A 3  B3   
(B) 22016 A 2  B2 
(C) 22016 A 3
B  3
(D) 2 2015  A  B
93. If 'A' is a square matrix of odd order such that A2 + A + 2I = 0, then which of the following is/are true?
(A) A is non-singular (B) A is singular
1
(C) A cannot be skew symmetric
1
(D) A    A  I
2

: Miscellaneous :
sin 2 x cos 2 x

 
1
94. The value of sin tdt  cos 1 tdt is
0 0


(A) (B) 2
2


(C) (D) None of these
4

  cos px  sin qx 
2
95. dx is equal to (where p and q are integers)


(A)  (B) 0
(C)  (D) 2
x4
96. If f  x    2 sin t dt , then f   x  equals
x

(A) sin x 2  sin x (B) 4x 3 sin x 2  2x sin x

(C) x 4 sin x 2  x sin x (D) None of these
b ab
97. If a
sin x dx  8 and 
0
cos x dx  9 , then

9
(A) a  b  (B) a  b  4
2

a b
(C)
b
 15 (D)  a
sec 2 xdx  0

x t
98. If  f  t  dt  x  
0 x
t f  t  dt , then the value of f(1) is

(A) 1/2 (B) 0

(C) 1 (D) - 1/2

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MATCHING LIST TYPE

99. Column - I Column - II
1
3
(A)   x   x   x   dx
1
(P) 
2

  x   x  dx
5
(C) (Q) 5
2

sin  x   x  dx
3
(C)  1
(R) 0

 tan x   x    ran 4  x   x  dx
/ 4
(D) 250 6
(S) - 3

INTEGER TYPE
/2
100.  sin 2 x cos 2 x  sin x  cos x  dx  15p . Then p is
 / 2

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ANSWER KEY

Que 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans AC ABCD ABCD ABD AB AD ABCD ABC ABC AB
Que 11 12 13 14 15
Ans AD BCD ABC BC AC
Que 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Ans BCD ACD AC CD AB AC ABC BCD AC BD
Que 26 27
Ans ABD ABC
Que 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
Ans A B A D C D B A B A
Que 38 39
Ans B B
Que 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
Ans ABCD BC ACD AC BC A AC BC BD ABCD
Que 50 51
Ans D BC
Que 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61
Ans ABCD ABD BD AB ABCD ABC BC AC BC BC
Que 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
Ans AC AB ABCD AD BD AC AC
Que 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78
Ans AC BC BCD ABC ACD ACD ABD ABCD ACD ABCD
Que 79 80 81 82 83 84
Ans ABC ACD ABC ABD BC BC
Que 85 86 87 88 89 90 91
Ans A D C B A BD ACD
Que 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans AD ACD D D B A A A-S,B-P,Q-R,D-Q 4

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