BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022

PHYSICS
SECTION – A 9. A projectile is projected at 10 ms-1 by
making at an angle 60º to the horizontal.
1. The mass and volume of a body are 4.237
After some time, its velocity makes an
g and 2.5 cm3, respectively. The density angle of 30º to the horizontal. Its speed at
of the material of the body in correct this instant is
significant figures is A) 10/√3 B) 10√3
A) 1.6048 g cm-3 B) 1.69 g cm-3 C) 5/√3 D) 5√3
C) 1.7 g cm -3 D) 1.695 g cm-3 10. Find the value of friction forces between
2. Velocity v is given by v = at2 + bt + c, the blocks A and B; and between B and
where t is time. What are the dimensions ground. (Take, g = 10 ms-2)
of a, b and c respectively?
A) [LT-3], [LT-2] and [LT-1]
B) [LT-1], [LT-2] and [LT-3]
C) [LT-2], [LT-3] and [LT-1]
D) [LT-1], [LT-3] and [LT-2] A) 90 N, 5 N B) 5 N, 90 N
3. What is the angle between P and the C) 5 N, 75 N D) 0 N, 80 N
cross produce of (P + Q) and (P – Q)? 11. Two blocks of mass 5 kg and 3 kg are
A) 90º B) tan-1 (P/Q) attached to the ends of a string passing
C) tan (Q/P)
-1 D) 0º over a smooth pulley fixed to the ceiling
4. The value of λ for which two vectors a = 5𝑖̂ of an elevator. The elevator is accelerated
upwards. If the acceleration of the blocks
+ λ𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ and b = 𝑖̂ – 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ are
is 9/32 g, the acceleration of the elevator
perpendicular to each other is is
A) 2 B) -2 A) g/3 B) g/4
C) 3 D) -3 C) g/8 D) g/6
5. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 12. Two masses 10 kg and 20 kg respectively
6 km with constant speed of 2.5 kmh-1 are connected by a massless spring as
and walks back with a constant speed of shown in figure. A force of 200 N acts on
4 kmh-1. His average speed for round trip the 20 kg mass. At the instant shown in
expressed (in kmh-1), is figure, the 10 kg mass has acceleration of
A) 24/13 B) 40/13 12 m/s2. The value of acceleration of 20
C) 3 D) 1/2 kg mass is
6. Two cars A and B are travelling in the
same direction with velocities v1 and v2 (v1
> v2). When the car A is at a distance d A) 4 m/s2 B) 10 m/s2
ahead of the car B, the driver of the car A C) 20 m/s 2 D) 30 m/s2
applied the brake producing a uniform ̂
13. A force of (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 4𝑘) N acting on a body
retardation a. There will be no collision for 4 s, produces a displacement of (3𝑖̂ +
when 4𝑗̂ + 5𝑘̂) m. The power used is
(v1 −v2 )2 v21 −v22
A) d < 2a
B) d < 2a
A) 9.5 W B) 7.5 W
(v1 −v2 )2 v21 −v22 C) 6.5 W D) 4.5 W
C) d > D) d >
2a 2a 14. The system shown in the figure is
7. A ball thrown vertically upwards after released from rest. At the instant when
reaching a maximum height h returns to mass M has fallen through a distance h,
the starting point after a time of 10 s. Its the velocity of m will be
displacement after 5 s is
A) h B) 2h
C) 10 h D) 20h
8. Three balls of same masses are projected
with equal speeds at angle 15º, 45º, 75º
and their ranges are respectively R1, R2 A) √2𝑔ℎ B) √
2𝑔ℎ𝑀
and R3 then 𝑚
A) R1 > R2 > R3 B) R1 < R2 < R3 2𝑔ℎ(𝑀−𝑚) 2𝑔ℎ(𝑀+𝑚)
C) √ D) √
C) R1 = R2 = R3 D) R1 = R3 < R2 𝑚+𝑀 𝑚−𝑀

1
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05
15. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
I. If momentum of a body increases by
50%, its kinetic energy will increase
by 125%.
II. Kinetic energy is proportional to
square of velocity.
A) Only I B) Only II
C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
16. A force F = (10 + 0.5x) acts on a particle
in the x-direction. What would be the
work done by this force during a
NEET – 2022
22. Two identical blocks A and B, each of
mass m resting on smooth floor are
connected by a light spring of natural
length L and spring constant k with the
spring at its natural length. A third
identical block C (mass m) moving with a
speed v along the line joining A and B
collides with A, the maximum
compression in the spring is
𝑣
A) 𝑣√𝑚/2𝑘 B) 𝑚√
2𝑘

displacement from x = 0 to x = 2m (F is in C) √
𝑚𝑣
D)
𝑚𝑣
𝑘 2𝑘
newton and x in metre)
23. A constant torque of 1000 N-m turns a
A) 31.5 J B) 63 J
C) 21 J D) 42 J wheel of moment of inertia 200 kg-m2
17. A car when passes through a convex about an axis through its centre. Its
bridge with velocity v exerts a force on it angular velocity after 3 s is
at the topmost point is equal to A) 1 rad s-1 B) 5 rad s-1
A) Mg + Mv2/r B) Mv2/r C) 10 rad s-1 D) 15 rad s-1
C) Mg – Mv /r2 D) None 24. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a
18. Find the maximum radius of circle, so
circular disc and a circular ring of the
that the block can complete the circular
motion. same radii about a tangential axis
perpendicular to plane of disc or ring is
A) 1 : 2 B) √5 : √6
C) 2 : 3 D) √3 : 2
25. A sphere pure rolls on a rough inclined
A) 5 cm B) 3 cm
C) 2 cm D) 4 cm plane with initial velocity 2.8 ms-1. Find
19. A body of mass m moving with velocity v the maximum distance on the inclined
collides head on with another body of plane.
mass 2m which is initially at rest. The
ratio of KE of colliding body before and
after collision will be
A) 1 : 1 B) 2 : 1
C) 4 : 1 D) 9 : 1
20. From a circular disc of radius R, a square A) 2.74 m B) 5.48 m
C) 1.38 m D) 3.2 m
is cut out with a radius as its diagonal.
26. A particle is projected vertically upwards
The centre of mass of remaining portion
from the surface of earth (radius R) with a
is at a distance (from the centre)
kinetic energy equal to half of the
A) R/(4π – 2) B) R/2π
minimum value needed for it to escape.
C) R/(π – 2) D) R/(2π – 2)
21. A block C of mass m is moving with The height to which it rises above the
velocity v0 and collides elastically with surface of earth is
block A of mass m and connected to A) R B) 2 R
another block B of mass 2m through C) 3 R D) 4 R
spring of spring constant k. What is the 27. Four equal masses (each of mass M) are
value of k, if x0 is compression of spring, placed at the corners of a square of side
when velocity of A and B is same? a. The escape velocity of a body from the
centre O of the square is
𝑚𝑣02 𝑚𝑣02 2𝐺𝑀 8√2𝐺𝑀
A) B) A) 4√ B) √
𝑥02 2 𝑥02 𝑎 𝑎
3 𝑚𝑣02 2 𝑚𝑣02
C) 2 𝑥02
D) 3 𝑥02 C)
4𝐺𝑀 4√2𝐺𝑀
D) √ 𝑎
𝑎

2
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
28. Gravitational potential energy of body of 34. A brass rod of length 2 m and cross-
mass m at a height of h above the surface sectional area 2 cm2 is attached end-to-
of earth (M = mass of earth, R = radius of end to a steel rod of length L and cross-
earth) is sectional area 1 cm2. The compounded
A)
𝐺𝑀𝑚
B)
𝐺𝑀𝑚 rod is subjected to equal and opposite
ℎ (𝑅+ℎ)
pulls of magnitude 5 × 104 N at its ends.
−𝐺𝑀 𝐺𝑀𝑚
C) (𝑅+ℎ)
D) − (𝑅+ℎ) If the elongations of the two rods are
equal, the length of the steel rod (L) is
29. A uniform spring whose unstretched
(Ybrass = 1 × 1011 Nm-2 and Ysteel = 2 × 1011
length is l has a force constant k. The
Nm-2)
spring is cut into two pieces of
A) 1.5 m B) 1.8 m
unstretched lengths l1 and l2, where l1 =
C) 1 m D) 2 m
nl2 and n is being an integer. Now, a
35. Two block of masses of 1 kg and 2 kg are
mass m is made to oscillate with first
connected by a metal wire going over a
spring. The time period of its oscillation
smooth pulley. The breaking stress of
would be
metal is 40/3π × 106 Nm-2. What should
𝑚𝑛 𝑚
A) 𝑇 = 2𝜋√ B) 𝑇 = 2𝜋√ be the minimum radius of wire used, if it
𝑘(𝑛+1) 𝑘(𝑛+1)
should not break? (Take, g = 10 ms-2).
𝑚 𝑚(𝑛+1)
C) 𝑇 = 2𝜋√𝑛𝑘 D) 𝑇 = 2𝜋√ A) 0.5 mm B) 1 mm
𝑛𝑘
C) 1.5 mm D) 2 mm
30. Given equation of SHM is Y = 5 cos π/2
(100 t – 2x), what is time period? SECTION – B
A) 0.04 s B) 1 s 36. Two identical cylindrical vessels, each of
base area A, have their bases at the same
C) 0.06 s D) 0.02 s
horizontal level. They contain a liquid of
31. The amplitude of a particle executing density p. In one vessel, the height of the
SHM is 4 cm. At the mean position, the liquid is h1 and in the other h2 (> h1).
speed of the particle is 16 cms-1. The When the two vessels are connected, the
distance of the particle from the mean work done by gravity in equalising the
position at which the speed of the particle levels is
becomes 8√3 cm-1 will be A) 2p Ag (h2 – h1)2 B) pAg (h2 – h1)2
A) 2√3 cm B) √3 cm C) 1/2pAg (h2 – h1)2
C) 1 cm D) 2 cm D) 1/4pAg (h2 – h1)2
37. If 100 drops are combined to form a
32. If a simple pendulum is taken to a place,
larger drop, then the ratio of surface
where g decreases by 2%, then time
enrgy of smaller drop to the larger drop
period
will be
A) increase by 5%
A) 1 : 100 B) 1 : 1000
B) increase by 1% C) 1 : 10 D) 0.1 : 1
C) increase by 2% 38. A cylindrical steel plug is inserted into a
circular hole of diameter 2.6 cm in a
D) decrease by 5%
brass plate. When the plug and the plates
33. When a force is applied at one end of an are at a temperature of 20ºC, the
elastic wire, it produces a strain E in the diameter of the plug is 0.01 cm smaller
wire. If Y is the Young's modulus of the than that of the hole. The temperature at
material of the wire, the amount of energy which the plug will just fit in it is
stored per unit volume of the wire is given (Given, αsteel = 11 × 10-6/ºC and αbrass = 19
by × 10-6/ºC)
A) Y × E B) 1/2 (Y × E) A) -48º C B) -20º C
C) Y × E2 D) 1/2 (Y × E2) C) -10º C D) -458º C

3
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
39. The ratio of rms speed of an ideal gas 44. Thermodynamic processes are indicated
molecules at pressure p to that at in the following diagram
pressure 2p is
A) 1 : 2 B) 2 : 1
C) 1 : √2 D) √2 : 1
40. A horizontal uniform tube, open at both
ends, is containing a liquid of certain
length at some temperature. When the
temperature is changed, the length of the Match the Column I with Column II and
liquid in the tube is not changed. If α is mark the correct option from the codes
the coefficient of linear expansion of the given below.
material of the tube and γ is the Column-I Column-II
coefficient of volume expansion of the A Process I P Adiabatic
liquid, then B Process II Q Isobaric
A) γ = 2 α B) γ = 3 α C Process III R Isochoric
D Process IV S Isothermal
C) γ = 4 α D) γ = α
A) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
41. A metal rod is fixed rigidly at two ends so B) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
as to prevent its thermal expansion. If L, C) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
α and γ respectively denote the length of D) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R
the rod, coefficient linear thermal 45. 100 g of water at 0º C is mixed with 100 g
expansion and Young's modulus of its of water at 100º C. What will be the final
material, then for an increase in temperature of the mixture?
temperature of the rod by ∆T, the A) 50º C B) 20º C
longitudinal stress developed in the rod is C) 30º C D) 0º C
A) inversely proportional to α 46. A body cools from 50º C to 40º C in 5
B) inversely proportional to γ min. The surrounding temperature is 20º
C) directly proportional to ∆T/Y C. In what further time (in minute) will it
D) independent of L cool to 30º C?
42. A carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% A) 5 B) 15/2
at sink temperature 50º C. Calculate the C) 25/3 D) 10
temperature of source. 47. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a
A) 133º C B) 143º C black body, what would be the
C) 100º C D) 373º C temperature of the star, in which the rate
of energy production is Q?
43. Heat energy absorbed by a system is
A) Q/4πR2σ B) (Q/4πR2σ)-1/2
going through a cyclic process as shown
C) (4πR Q/σ)
2 1/4 D) (Q/4πR2σ)1/4
in figure, is
48. The fundamental frequency of a closed
pipe is 220 Hz. If (1/4)th of the pipe is
filled with water, then the frequency of
the first overtone of the pipe now is
A) 220 Hz B) 440 Hz
C) 880 Hz D) 1760 Hz
49. The path difference between two waves
2𝜋𝑥
𝑦1 = 𝑎1 sin (𝜔𝑡 − ) and
𝜆
2𝜋𝑥
𝑦2 = 𝑎2 cos (𝜔𝑡 − + 𝜙)
𝜆
A) 107 π J B) 104 π J A)
𝜆 𝜋
(𝜙 + 2 ) B)
𝜆
(𝜙)
2𝜋 2𝜋
C) 102 π J D) 103 π J C)
2𝜋 𝜋
(𝜙 − ) D)
2𝜋
(𝜙)
𝜆 2 𝜆

4
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
50. Two sources are at a finite distance apart.
They emit sound of wavelength λ. An
observer situated between them on line
joining the sources, approaches towards
one source with speed u, then number of
beats heard per second by observer will
be
A) 2u/λ B) u/λ
C) u/2λ D) λ/u

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A 55. A gaseous compound is composed of
85.7% by mass carbon and 14.3% by
51. In a compound C, H and N atoms are
mass hydrogen. It density is 2.28 g/litre
present in 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight. Molecular at 300 K and 1.0 atm pressure,
weight of compound is 108. Molecular Determine the molecular formula of the
formula of compound is compound.
A) C2H6N2 B) C3H4N A) C2H2 B) C2H4
C) C6H8N2 D) C9H12N3 C) C4H8 D) C4H10
̇
56. The wavelength (in 𝐴) of an emission line
52. In the reaction
obtained for Li2+ during a electronic
4 NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(I)
transition from n2 = 2 to n1 = 1 is:
When I mole of ammonia and I mole of O2 (R = Rydberg constant)
are made to react to completion, A) 3R/4 B) 27R/4
A) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced C) 4/3R D) 4/27R
B) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced 57. The ratio of highest possible wavelength
C) All the oxygen will be consumed to lowest possible wavelength of Lyman
D) All the ammonia will be consumed series is
53. Match Column-I with Column-II A) 4/3 B) 9/8
Column-I Column-II C) 27/5 D) 16/5
A 88 g of CO2 P 0.25 mol 58. If uncertainty in position and momentum
B 6.022 × 10 23 Q 2 mol are equal, then uncertainly in velocity is:
molecules of H2O 1 ℎ ℎ
A) √ B) √2𝜋
C 5.6 litres of O2 at R 1 mol 2𝑚 𝜋

STP C)
1 ℎ
√ D) √𝜋
ℎ
𝑚 𝜋
D 96 g of O2 S 6.022 ×
59. Arrange the electrons represented by the
1023
following set of quantum numbers in the
molecules
decreasing order of energy
E 1 mol of any gas T 3 mol
(i) n = 4, 1 = 0, m = 0, s = + ½
A B C D E (ii) n = 3, 1 = 1, m = 1, s = -1/2
A) Q R P T S (iii) n = 3, 1 = 2, m = 0, s = +1/2
B) R Q P T S (iv) n = 3, 1 = 0, m = 0, s = -1/2
C) Q P R T S A) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
D) Q R P S T B) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
54. For a reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g); C) (iii) > (i) > (ii) > (iv)
identify dihydrogen (H2) as a limiting D) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
reagent in the following reaction 60. The first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg,
mixtures. Al and Si are in the order:
A) 56 g of N2 + 10 g of H2 A) Na < Mg > AI < Si
B) 35 g of N2 + 8 g of H2 B) Na > Mg > AI > Si
C) 28 g of N2 + 6 g of H2 C) Na < Mg < AI < Si
D) 14 g of N2 + 4 g of H2 D) Na > Mg > AI < Si

5
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
61. Electronic configuration of four elements 68. Most ionic compound among the
A, B, C, and D are given below: following is
1. 1s2 2s2 2p6 A) Sodium fluoride
2. 1s2 2s2 2p4 B) Sodium Chloride
3. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 C) Sodium bromide
4. 1s2 2s2 2p5 D) Sodium Iodide
Arrange them in increasing order of 69. In change from state A to state B:
electron gain enthalpies. A) “q” depends only on the initial and
A) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 B) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 final state
C) 4 > 2 < 3 < 1 D) 1 > 2 < 3 > 4 B) “W” depends only on the initial and
62. The correct order of bond angles (smallest final state
first) in, H2S, NH3, BF3 and SiH4 is: C) ∆𝐸 depends only on the initial and
A) H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3 final state
B) NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3 D) ∆𝐸 depends upon the path adopted by
C) H2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3 “A” to change into “B”
D) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < SiH4 70. An ideal gas expands in volume form 1 ×
63. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of 10-3, m3 to 1 × 10-2 m3 at 300 K against a
nitrogen in 𝑁𝑂2+ , 𝑁𝑂3− and 𝑁𝐻4+ are constant pressure 1 × 105 Nm-2. The work
A) sp2, sp3, and sp2 respectively done is:
B) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively A) -900 J B) -900 kJ
C) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively C) 270 kJ D) 900 kJ
D) sp2, sp3 and sp respectivley 71. Given:
64. Which the following species is NH3(g) + 3CI2(g) ⇌ NCI3(g) + 3HCI(g), -∆H1
paramagnetic? N2(g) + 3H29g) ⇌ 2NH3(g);-∆H2
A) CO B) NO H2(g) + CI2(g) ⇌ 2HCI(g); ∆H3
2−
C) 𝑂2 D) 𝐶𝑁 − The heat of formation of NCI3(g) in terms
65. Which of the following is correct wrt the of ∆H1, ∆H2 and ∆H3 is:
property mentioned? ∆𝐻2 3
A) ∆𝐻 𝑓 = −∆𝐻1 + − ∆𝐻3
A) C2H2 > BF3 > CH4 > NH3 > H2O (Bond 2 2
∆𝐻 3
angle) B) ∆𝐻 𝑓 =) ∆𝐻 1 + 2 2 − 2 ∆𝐻3
B) 𝑁𝐻4 + NH3 > 𝑁 − 𝐻2 (Bond angle) C) ∆𝐻 𝑓 =)
∆𝐻 3
∆𝐻 1 + 2 2 + 2 ∆𝐻3
C) NH3 > NF3 (Dipole moment)
D) None of the above
D) All are correct
72. The enthalpy of formation of Ch4(g), H2O(cl)
66. What is correct sequence of bond order
and CO2(g) are respectively -74.8 kJ mol-1,
A) 𝑂2+ > 𝑂2− > O2 B) 𝑂2+ > O2 > 𝑂2−
-285.5 kJ mol-1 and -393.5 kJ mol-1.
C) O2 > 𝑂2− > 𝑂2+ D) 𝑂2− > 𝑂2+ > O2 Then, the standard enthalpy of
67. Which among the following is an incorrect combustion of Ch4(g) is:
combination? A) + 890.3 kJ mol-1
Compound Hybridization Shape B) - 604.5 kJ mol-1
C) + 604.5 kJ mol-1
A) XeOF4 Sp3d2 Square
D) - 890.3 kJ mol-1
Pyramidal
73. A reaction can occur spontaneously if:
B) XeO4 Sp3d Tetrahedral
A) T ∆ S < ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are
C) XeO2F2 Sp3d (Xe in Distorted
positive
3rd excited tetrahedral
B) T ∆ S > ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are
state)
positive
D) XeF4 Sp3d2 (Xe Square
in 2nd Planar C) T ∆ S = ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are
excited positive
state) D) T ∆ S < ∆H and ∆H is positive

6
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
74. In which of the following compounds 80. The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn and
oxygen has highest oxidation state and in Pb increases steadily in the sequence
which it has lowest oxidation state? A) PbX2 << SnX2 << GeX2 << SiX2
OF2, H2O2, KO2, O2F2 B) GeX2 << SiX2 << SnX2 << PbX2
A) Highest = KO2, lowest = H2O2 C) SiX2 << GeX2 << PbX2 << SnX2
B) Highest = OF2, lowest = K2O2 D) SiX2 << GeX2 << SnX2 << PbX2
C) Highest = OF2, lowest = KO2 81. A compound X, of boron reacts with NH3
D) Highest = KO2, lowest = H2O2 on heating to give another compound Y
75. In the reaction which is called inorganic benzene. The
3Br2 + 𝟔𝑪𝑶𝟐−𝟑 + 3H2O → 5Br + 𝑩𝒓𝑶𝟑 +
- − compound X can be prepared by treating
𝟔𝑯𝑪𝑶− 𝟑 BF3 with lithium aluminium hydride. The
A) Bromine is oxidized and carbonate is compounds X and Y are represented by
reduced the formulas.
B) Bromine is reduced and water is A) B2H6, B3N3H6 B) B2O3, B3N3H6
oxidized C) BF3, B3N3H6 D) B3N3H6, B2H6
C) Bromine is neither reduced nor
82. C60, an allotrope of carbon cantains:
oxidized
D) Bromine is both reduced and oxidized A) 12 hexagons and 20 pentagons
76. Which of the following reaction is the B) 18 hexagons and 14 pentagons
metal displacement reaction? Choose the C) 16 hexagons and 16 pentagons
right option. D) 20 hexagons and 12 pentagons
A) 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2↑ 83. Match Column-I with Column-II
∆
B) 2KCIO3 → 2KCI + 3O2 A Borax-bead P Alum
∆ B Inorganic Q Diborane
C) Cr2O3 + 2AI → AI2O3 + 2Cr
benzene
D) Fe + 2HCI → FeCI2 + H2↑
77. If radiation corresponding to second line C Antiseptic R Metaborate
of “Balmer series” of Li2+ ion, knocked out D Bridged S Borazole
electron from first excited state of H- hydrogens
atom, then kinetic energy of ejected A B C D
electron would be: A) P R Q S
A) 2.55 eV B) 4.25 eV B) R S P Q
C) 11.25 eV D) 19.55 eV C) S R P Q
78. Consider the van der Waals constants, a D) Q R S P
and b, for the following gases, 84. Match Column-I with Column-II
Gas Ar Ne Kr Xe Column-I Column-II
a/ (atm 1.3 0.2 5.1 4.1 A Heavy water P Bicarbonates
dm6 of Mg and Ca
mol-2)
in water
b/ (10-2 3.2 1.7 1.0 5.0
dm 3 B Temporary Q No foreign
mol-1) hard water ions in water
Which gas is expected to have the highest C Soft water R D 2O
critical temperature? D Permanent S Sulphates &
A) Kr B) Ne hard water chlorides of
C) Xe D) Ar Mg & Ca in
79. 0.5 moles of gas A and x moles of gas B water
exert a pressure of 200 Pa in a container A B C D
of volume 10 m3 at 1000 K. given R is the
A) R S Q P
gas constant in JK-1 mol-1, x is:
𝟐𝑹 𝟐𝑹 B) Q R S S
A) B)
𝟒+𝑹 𝟒−𝑹 C) Q S R P
𝟒+𝑹 𝟒−𝑹
C) D) D) R P Q S
𝟐𝑹 𝟐𝑹

7
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
85. The isotopes of hydrogen are: 90. Match the column-I with column-II in
A) Tritium and protium only which formula for estimation of an
B) Protium and deuterium only element is given and mark the
appropriate choice.
C) Protium, deuterium and tritium
Column-I Column-II
D) Deuterium and tritium only A Estimation of i 80 𝑤1
× × 100
SECTION – B carbon 188 𝑤
B Estimation of ii 62 𝑤1
86. The correct order of conductivity of ions nitrogen
×
222 𝑤
× 100
in water is C Estimation of iii 32 𝑤1
× × 100
bromine 233 𝑤
A) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
D Estimation of iv 28 𝑉
× × 100
B) Rb+ > Na+ > K+ > Li+ sulphur 22400 𝑤
E Estimation of v 12 𝑤1
× × 100
C) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+ phosphorus 44 𝑤
A B C D E
D) K+ > Na+ > Cs+ > Rb+
A) v ii iv i iii
87. The main oxides formed on combustion of B) v iv i iii ii
Li, Na and K in excess of air are, C) v iv ii i iii
respectively: D) iv iii i ii v
A) Li2O2, Na2O2 and KO2 91. Which of the following sequence of T and
B) Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2 F is correct for given statement. Here T
C) Li2O, Na2O and KO2 stands for correct and F stands for false
D) LiO2, Na2O2 and K2O statement
88. Metal carbonates decompose on heating (i) The more the number of contributing
to give metal oxide and carbon dioxide. structures, the more is the resonance
Which of the metal carbonates is most energy.
stable thermally? (ii) The resonance structures have
A) MgCO3 B) CaCO3 different positions of nuclei but same
number of unpaired electrons
C) SrCO3 D) BaCO3
(iii) The energy of actual structure of the
89. Which of the following molecules is least molecule (the resonance hybrid) is
resonance stabilized? lower than that of any of the
A) canonical structures.
(iv) Resonance structure is always more
stable than the contributing
structures.
A) TTTT B) TFTT
B) C) FFFT D) TFFT
92. Which of the following statements
regarding the resonance energy of
benzene is correct?
A) Resonance energy is the energy
C) required to break the C-H bond in
benzene
B) Resonance energy is the energy
required to break the C-C bond in
benzene
C) Resonance energy is a measure of
D) stability of benzene
D) Resonance energy is the energy
required to convert

8
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
93. Select the most carbocation among the 96. CH3CH2C≡CH→
𝑵𝒂𝑵𝑯𝟐 /𝑵𝑯𝟑 (𝑰) 𝑪𝑯𝟑 𝑪𝑯𝟐 𝑩𝒓 𝑳𝒊,𝑵𝑯𝟑 (𝑰)
→ →
following
A) CH3CH2CH=CH-CH3
B) CH3CH2CH=CH2
C)

A) I and II B) I, II and IV
D)
C) I and III D) I and IV
94. Which of the following compounds will
react with Na to form 4,5 -diethyloctane?
A) 97. In the reaction,
𝒍𝒊𝒏𝒅𝒍𝒂𝒓 𝒄𝒂𝒕𝒂𝒍𝒚𝒔𝒕+ 𝑯𝟐 𝑵𝒂/𝑵𝑯𝟑
B← RC ≡ CR → A.A and
B) B are geometrical isomers:
A) A is cis and B is trans
B) A is trans and B is cis
C) A and B are cis
C) D) A and B are trans
98. At 500 K, equilibrium constant, Kc, for
the following reaction is 5.
1 1
𝐻2 (𝑔) + 𝐼2 (𝑔) ⇌ 𝐻𝐼(𝑔)
2 2
D)
What would be the equilibrium constant
KC for the reaction?
2HI(g) ⇌ H2(g) + I2(g)
A) 0.04 B) 0.4
95. Which of the following reactions does not
show the correct products of the C) 25 D) 2.5
99. Equilibrium constant for the reaction,
reaction?
𝐻𝐵𝑟 CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2 (g), follows the
8400
A) CH3 – CH = CH2 → CH3 – CH2 – equation in 𝐾𝑝 = = 7 − , where T =
𝑇
𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒
absolute temperature. Find the
CH2 – Br
𝐻𝐶𝐼 equilibrium temperature if decomposition
B) CH3 – CH = CH2 → CH3 – CH2 – of CaCO3 produces CO2 gas having partial
𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒 pressure equal to atmospheric pressure.
CH2 – CI A) 12000𝐶 B) 927 K
C) C) 927 0𝐶
D) None
100. A buffer solution is prepared by mixing
0.1 M ammonia and 1.0 M ammonium
chloride. At 298 K, the 𝑝𝐾𝑏 of NH4OH is
D) 5.0. The pH of the buffer is
A) 10.0 B) 9.0
C) 6.0 D) 8.0

9
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05
BOTANY
SECTION – A
101. Recognize the following flow diagram and
find the correct options according to
taxonomic hierarchy.
A) a is comparable to muscidae while b is
at the same level as that of primata.
B) c includes all the angiosperms having
two cotyledons in their seeds
C) For wheat a is poaceae, b is poales
and c is monocotyledonae
D) All of the statements are correct
102. Find out the correct relationship.
A) ΨS = ΨW + ΨP B) ΨP = ΨW + ΨS
C) ΨW = ΨP − ΨS D) ΨW = ΨS − ΨP
103. Plastocyanin contains
A) Mo B) Fe
C) Cu D) Zn
104. Read the following statements and find
out the incorrect statements.
(1) Mustard has hypogenous,
actinomorphic flower, parietal
placentation, syncarpous gynoecium
and belongs to family Brassicaceae.
(2) China rose has superior ovary, twisted
aestivation, monoadephous stamens
an axile placentation.
(3) Pea has bilateral symmetry, vexillary
aestivation, diadelphous stamens,
marginal placentation and belongs to
family fabaceae
(4) Chili has radial symmetry, epipetalous
stamen, swollen placenta,
monocarpellary gynoecium and
belongs to family Solanaceae
(5) Lily has actinomorphic flower, axile
placentation, imbricate aestivation,
tricarpellary and trilocular gynoecium
belonging to family Liliaceae
A) 3 B) 1
C) 4 D) 2
NEET – 2022
105. Cyclic photophosphorylation produces
A) NADPH
B) ATP and NADPH
C) ATP, NADPH and O2
D) ATP only
106. Electrons from NADH produced in the
mitochondrial matrix during TCA cycle
are oxidized by complex I, and electrons
are then transferred to
A) Cytochrome bc1 complex
B) Cytochrome a and a3
C) Cytochrome c
D) Ubiquinone
107. Denitrification is carried out by
A) Pseudomonas and Nitrococcus
B) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
C) Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus
D) Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus
108. In phaeophyceae, the spores (zoospores)
are
A) Pyriform and bear 2 flagella (one
longitudinal and other transverse)
B) Pear-shaped and bear 2 flagella that
are laterally attached
C) Pyriform and bear 2-8, equal and
apical flagella
D) Pear-shaped and bear 2-8, equal and
apical flagella
109. Calvin cycle has three stages
a) Reduction during which carbohydrate
is formed at the expense of
photochemically made ATP and
NADPH
b) Regeneration during which carbon
dioxide acceptor 1, 5-RuBP is formed
c) Carboxylation during which CO2
combines with 1, 5-RuBP
Identify the correct sequence
A) c, a, b B) c, b, a
C) a, b, c D) b, a, c
10
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
110. Recognize the figure and find out the 114. Which one is a component of ferredoxin?
correct statement. A) Iron B) Sulphur
C) Calcium D) Both A & B
115. Viroids have
A) single stranded RNA not enclosed by
protein coat
B) single stranded DNA not enclosed by
protein coat
C) double stranded DNA enclosed by
protein coat
a) Solution of which chamber has a D) double stranded RNA enclosed by
lower water potential? protein coat
b) Solution of which chamber has a 116. C4 plants are photosynthetically more
lower solute potential? efficient than C3 plants because
c) In which direction osmosis occurs? A) CO2 efflux is not prevented
d) At equilibrium, which chamber will B) They have more chloroplasts
C) CO2 compensation point is more
have lower water potential?
D) CO2 generated during
A) a-A, b-B, c-A to B, d-A photorespiration is recycled through
B) a-B, b-A, c-B to A, d-B PEP carboxylase
C) a-B, b-B, c-A to B, d-same 117. Which of the following is correct about
D) a-A, b-A, c-B to A, d-same growth?
111. In roots, lateral branches grow from A) Growth is regarded as one of most
A) Epiblema B) Pericycle fundamental and conspicuous
C) Cortex D) Endodermis
characteristics of living being.
112. In 'S phase', the amount of DNA
B) Growth can be defined as an
A) As well as number of chromosomes
irreversible permanent increase in size
doubles in each cell
of an organ or its parts or even of an
B) Doubles but number of chromosomes
individual cell.
remains same in each cell
C) Generally growth is accompanied by
C) And number of chromosomes remain
metabolic processes (both anabolic
unchanged in each cell, but amount of
and catabolic), that occur at the
protein doubles
expense of energy.
D) Remains same in each cell but
D) All of the above
number of chromosomes doubles
118. Which of the following is the correct floral
113. Match the column and select the correct
formula for the floral diagram given
option.
below?
Column-I Column-II
i Cisternae I Proteinaceous
structure in
Cytoplasm
ii Thylakoid II Infolding of inner
mitochondrial
membrane
A)
iii Cristae III Flattened
membranous sac B)
iv Microtubule IV Membranous
structure in Golgi
complex C)
A) i-IV, ii-III, iii-II, iv-I
B) i-II, ii-IV, iii-II, iv-I D)
C) i-I, ii-II, iii-IV, iv-III
D) i-IV, ii-III, iii-I, iv-II

11
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
119. Refer the given equation and answer the 125. Which ones are long day plants?
question A) Wheat, Poppy, Soyabean
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2 → 102CO2 + 98H2O + Energy B) Wheat, Poppy, Beet
The R.Q of above reaction is C) Wheat, Oat, Soyabean
A) 1 B) 0.7 D) What, Xanthium, Paddy
C) 1.45 D) 1.62 126. Which of the following sets contain
120. Match the columns. natural hormone?
Column-I Column-II A) 2, 4-D, IBA, Gibberellin
1 Human urine a Cytokinin B) Cytokinin, 2, 4-D, NAA
2 Gibberella fujikuroi b Auxin C) IAA, Zeatin, ABA
3 Herring fish DNA c Ethylene D) Ethylene, PAA, ABA
4 Ripening fruits d Abscisic acid 127. Zygotic meiosis is a characteristic of
5 Aged leaves of plants e Gibberellins A) Fucus B) Funaria
C) Chlamydomonas D) Marchantia
A) 1-b, 2-e, 3-a, 4-c, 5-d
B) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-a 128. Match the Column I and II
C) 1-a, 2-e, 3-b, 4-d, 5-c Column-I Column-II
D) 1-e, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a a Water potential 1 Positive
121. How many plants among Cicer, Vigna, of pure water
Soyabean, Gloriosa, Aloe, Groundnut, b Solute potential 2 Negative
c Osmotic 3 Zero
Sweet pea, Sunnhemp, Lupin, Trifolium,
pressure
Belladonna, Tamarind, Cassia, Dalbergia, d Osmotic 4 May be positive
Acacia and Withania belong to Fabaceae? potential or negative
A) Eight B) Ten A) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
C) Twelve D) Fourteen B) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
122. Which of the following is an example of C) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
the dedifferentiation? D) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-2
A) The formation of tracheary elements 129. The site of Calvin cycle in C4 plants is
(xylem tracheids and xylem vessels) A) parenchymatous B) Mesophyll cell
B) Formation of meristem like C) Bundle sheath cell D) grana
interfascicular cambium from fully 130. Read the following statements.
differentiated parenchyma cells A) No virus contains both DNA and RNA
C) Formation of meristem like cork B) A virus is a nucleoprotein and the
cambium from fully differentiated genetic material is infectious
parenchyma cells C) Viruses that infect animals can have
D) Both B and C single stranded RNA
123. Match the column I and II, and choose D) In general, viruses that infect plants
the correct combination from the options have either single or double stranded
given. RNA or double stranded DNA
Column-I Column-II 131. Select the correct option.
a Selaginella i Psilopsida Column-I Column-II
b Equisetum ii Lycopsida a Synapsis i Anaphase II
c Adiantum & Pteris iii Sphenopsida b Synthesis of RNA ii Zygotene
d Dryopteris iv Pteropsida and protein
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d c Action of enzyme iii G2 phase
B) iii-d, iv-c, i-b, ii-a recombinase
C) ii-a, iii-b, ii-d, iv-c d Centromeres do not iv Anaphase I
D) iv-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d separate but
chromatids move
124. Phosphoglyceraldehyde is changed to
towards opposite
biphosphoglyceric acid through poles
A) Carboxylation and hydration
v Pachytene
B) Phosphorylation and oxidation A) a-i, b-ii, c-v, d-iv
C) Decarboxylation and hydrogenation B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-iv
D) Dephosphorylation and C) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
dehydrogenation D) a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-iv

12
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05
132. Oxysomes or F0 – F1 particles occur on
A) thylakoids
B) mitochondrial surface
C) inner mitochondrial membrane
D) chloroplast surface
133. The term prothallus is used for the
A) Reduced gametophyte of bryophytes
B) Reduced gametophyte of
pteridophytes
C) Reduced sporophyte of pteridophytes
D) Reduced sporophyte of bryophytes
134. Which staement is wring for Kreb's cycle?
A) There is one point in the cycle where
FAD+ is reduced to FadH2.
B) During conversion of succinyl CoA to
succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is
synthesised.
C) The cycle starts with condensation of
acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic
acid to yield citric acid
D) There are three points in the cycle
where NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+.
135. The following graph shows the
A) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a
B) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b
C) Action spectrum of photosynthesis
D) Both A and B
SECTION – B
136. The balloon-shaped structures called
tyloses
A) Are extensions of xylem parenchyma
cells into vessels
B) Are linked to the ascent of sap
through xylem vessels
C) Originate in the limen of vessels
D) Characterize the sapwod
137. Lecithin carrier theory of mineral
absorption was proposed by
A) Pfeffer in 1900
B) Lundegarth and Burstrome in 1993
C) Bennet Clark in 1956
D) Lundegarth and Pfeffer in 1964
NEET – 2022
138. Fill in the blanks:
Quantitative comparisons between the
growth of the living system can be made
in two ways:
(i) Measurement and the comparison of
total growth per unit time is called
the __a__ growth rate.
(ii) The growth of the given system per
unit time expressed on a common
basis, et.; per unit initial parameter
is called __b__ growth rate.
A) a-absolute, b-relative
B) a-relative, b-absolute
C) a-arithmetic, b-geometric
D) a-geometric, b-arithmetic
139. Which of the following is incorrect for
mesosomes?
A) Mesosomes are formed by the
extensions of plasma membrane into
the cell in the form of vesicles.
B) They help in respiration, secretion
process, to increase the surface area
of the plasma membrane and
enzymatic content.
C) They help in the wall formation, DNA
replication and distribution to
daughter cells.
D) None of the above
140. In case of C4 pathway
A) CO2 combines with PGA
B) CO2 combines with PEP
C) CO2 first combines with RuBP
D) CO2 combines with RMP
141. Which of the following are incorrect
options?
a. Cork cambium is also called phellogen
b. Cork is also called phellem
c. Secondary cortex is also called
periderm
d. Cork cambium, cork and secondary
cortex are collectively called
phelloderm
A) c and d only B) a and b only
C) b and c only D) b and d only
13
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
142. Which of the following statements about 147. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot
taxonomical aids is are true? stem are produced by
a) Keys are used to identify plants and A) Apical meristems
animals based on similarities and B) Vascular cambium
dissimilarities.
C) Phellogen
b) Flora contains the count of habit and
distribution of plants in a given area. D) Axillary meristems
c) Flora provides an index to the plant 148. Read the following statements and find
species found in a particular area. out the incorrect statements.
d) Monographs provide information for a) Water is essential for all Physiological
identification of species found in an activities of the plant and plays a very
area. important role in all living organisms.
A) a & b only B) a, b & c only b) A mature corn plant absorbs almost 5
C) a & d only D) a only liters of water in a day.
c) A mustard plant absorbs water equal
143. Given below are some steps involved in
to its own weight in about 3 hours.
the citric acid cycle.
d) Water is often the limiting factor for
Arrange them in proper sequence and
plant growth and productivity in both
select the correct option.
agricultural and natural
i. Formation of α-ketoglutaric acid and
environments.
succinyl CoA.
e) A watermelon has over 92% water,
ii. Condensation of acetyl group with
most herbaceous plants have only
oxaloacetic acid.
about 10 to 20 percent of its fresh
iii. Isomerisation of citrate to isocitrate.
water as diameter.
iv. Synthesis of GTP.
A) b, c, e B) a, b, d
A) i, iv, iii, ii B) iii, iv, ii, i
C) iv, i, ii, iii D) ii, iii, i, iv C) a, c, e D) b, c, d
144. Arrange the following events of meiosis in 149. Read the following statements:
correct sequence. a. The male or female cones or strobili
(i) Crossing over may be borne on same tree in Pinus.
(ii) Synapsis b. In Cycas, male cones and
(iii) Terminalisation of chiasmata megasporophylls are borne on
(iv) Disappearance of nucleolus different trees.
A) ii, i, iii, iv B) i, ii, iii, iv c. Stem of Cycas is branched and of
C) ii, iii, iv, i D) ii, i, iv, iii Pinus and Cedrus is unbranched.
145. Deficiency of which of the following d. In gymnosperms, generally tap roots
elements causes inhibition of cell division are found.
A) Mo, S and N Select the correct statements:
B) Mo, S, N and K A) a, b B) a, b, d
C) Ca, Mg, Cu and K
C) a, b, c D) c, d
D) Mg, Zn, Mn and K
146. The increased growth per unit time is 150. For fixing one molecule of CO2 in Calvin
termed as cycle are required
A) Efficiency index A) 3 ATP + 1 NADPH2
B) Relative growth rate B) 3 ATP + 2 NADPH2
C) Growth rate C) 2 ATP + 3 NADPH2
D) Intrinsic rate of natural increase D) 3 ATP + 3 NADPH2

14
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A 156. Match the following:
151. Match the following Germlayer Derivative
Disease Cause 1 Ectoderm A Pineal gland,
A. Diabetes 1 Deficiency of Pituitary gland,
vitamin B12 Sweat gland,
B. Uraemia 2 Rise in RBC Parotid gland
count 2 Mesoderm B Microglia, Kidney,
C. Anaemia 3 Fall in RBC Gonad
count 3 Endoerm C Trachea, Stomach,
D. Polycythemia 4 Increase in Intestine
blood sugar level A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
E. Pernicious 5 Urea is excess in B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
anaemia blood C) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B
The correct matching sequence is: D) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 - A
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 157. During synaptic transmission of nerve
C) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2 D) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 impulse, neurotransmitter (P) is released
152. Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is: from synaptic vesicles by the action of
A) Sigmoid shaped B) Parabola ions (Q). Choose the correct P and Q
C) Hyperbola D) Straight line A) P = acetylcholine, Q = Ca++
153. Trypsinogen is secreted by: B) P = acetylcholine, Q = Na+
A) Small intestine C) P = GABA, Q = Na+
B) Large intestine D) P = cholinesterase, Q = Ca++
C) Liver 158. The dark bands of a skeletal muscle are
D) Pancreas known as
154. During contraction of muscle A) Anisotropic or A – band
A) I-band decrease B) Isotropic or I – band
B) A-band decrease C) Z – band
C) Actin rod length decrease D) Both in A and I - band
D) H-zone will same 159. Match column – A with column – B and
155. In which one of the following the genus choose the correct option
name, its two characters and its Column-A Column-B
class/phylum are correctly matched? (Organism) (Excretory structure)
Genus Two characters Class/Phylum
Name 1 Cockroach P Nephridia
A) Aurelia i Cnidoblasts Coelentrata 2 Clarias Q Malpighian
ii Organ tubules
level of
org. 3 Earth worm R Kidneys
B) Ascaris i Body Annelida 4 Balanoglossus S Flame cells
segmented
ii Males and 5 Flatworm T Proboscis gland
females 1 2 3 4 5
distinct
Salamandra
A) Q R P T S
C) i A Amphibia
tympanum B) Q P T R S
represents C) R P Q T S
ear
ii Fertilization D) P R Q S T
is external 160. Lymph vessels are united to form
D) Pteropus i Skin Mammalia
A) Jugular vein B) Lymph heart
possesses
hair C) Thoracic duct D) Cisterna chyli
ii Oviparous

15
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
161. Which hormone is responsible for 165. The given diagram represents a single
decrease level of calcium in bone? nephron form a mammalian kidney.
A) Calcitonine B) PTH Identify the labelled region

C) TCT D) MSH
162. Growth of bone is related to divisions in
cells of epiphysial plate. Which homone
stimulates divisions for growth of
A) MSH B) FSH
C) STH D) ACTH
163. Which part of alimentary canal is lined by I. The site of ultrafiltration
cuticle in cockroach: II. Particularly sensitive to ADH
A) Fore gut & Midgut III. The main site for the reabsorption of
B) Hind gut & Midgut glucose and amino acid
C) Midgut IV. Largely responsible for the adjustment
of blood pH.
D) Fore gut
A) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – E
164. Column I contains names of the B) I – A, II – E, III – C, IV – D
sphincter muscles of the alimentary canal C) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – E
and column II contains their locations. D) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV - D
Match them properly and choose the 166. Somatostatin is secreted from
correct answer A) Liver and adrenal gland
Column I Column II B) Hypothalamus and liver
C) Hypothalamus and 𝛾 – cell of islets of
1 Sphincter P Opening of Langerhans
of anus hepatopancreatic D) 𝛼 – cell of islets of Langerhans and
hypothalamus
duct into duodenum 167. Red muscle fiber is not characterized by
A) More mitochondria B) Aerobic fiber
2 Cardiac Q Between duodenum
C) Less sarcoplasmic reticulum
sphincter and posterior D) Fast fibres
stomach 168. High regeneration power is found in
A) Cockroach B) Round worm
3 Sphincter R Guarding the C) Planaria D) Earthworm
of oddi terminal part of 169. Match the following nutrition/vitamin
deficiencies in column I with
alimentary canal causes/deficiencies in column II and
4 Ileocaecal S Between oesophagus choose the correct option from the given
options:
sphincter and anterior
Column I Column II
stomach 1 Kwashiorkor P Iron
2 General Q Menadione
5 Pyloric T Between small
Anaemia
sphincter intestine and large 3 Dermatitis R Protein
intestine 4 Marasmus S PEM
1 2 3 4 5 5 Bleeding T Biotin
1 2 3 4 5
A) R Q S P T
A) P T Q R S
B) T R P Q T B) T Q R S P
C) Q T P S R C) Q R S P T
D) R S P T Q D) R P T S Q

16
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
170. In which one of the following organisms 178. Sexual dimorphism is found in
its excretory organs are correctly stated? A) Tapeworm B) Ascaris
A) Human Kidney, sebaceous C) Earthworm D) Leech
glands and tear glands
B) Earth Pharyngeal, 179. During distant vision which of the
worm integumentary and following happens.
septal nephridia A) Muscle fiber of ciliary body relax
C) Cockroach Malpighian tubules B) Lens is stretched by suspensory
and enteric caeca ligament
D) Frog Kidney, skin and
C) Lens become flat
buccal epithelium
D) All of the above
171. Which hormone promotes cell division,
180. Water vascular system is characteristic
protein synthesis and bone growth.
of:
A) GH B) PTH
C) ADH D) ACTH A) Pila B) Anopheles
172. During polarization, membrane is more C) Petromyzon D) Ophiura
permeable for
181. Which two of the following changes (A-D)
A) Negatively charged protein
usually tend to occur in the plain
B) K+
dwellers when they move to high altitudes
C) Na+
(3500 m or more)
D) Both A and B
1. Increase in red blood cell size
173. The number of vertebrae present in
2. Increase in red blood cell production
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral and
3. Increased breathing rate
coccyx regions respectively are
4. Increase in thrombocyte count
A) 12, 7, 5, 1, 1 B) 1, 7, 5, 12, 1
Changes occurring are
C) 7, 5, 1, 12, 1 D) 7, 12, 5, 1, 1
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3
174. Choroid plexus in brain is responsible for
production of C) 3 and 4 D) 1 and 4
A) ANF 182. Given below is a diagram of the left
B) Aquous humor human hindlimb as seen from front. It
C) CSF has certain mistakes in labeling. Two of
D) Synovial fluid the wrongly labelled bones are
175. Match the following and mark the wrong
match
Animal Respiratory organ
A) Earth worm I Nephridia
B) Insecta II Trachea
C) Fishes III Gills
D) Birds IV Lungs
176. Which of the following animals is
ureotelic?
A) Human B) Birds
C) Molluscs D) Round worm
177. In a pregnant woman having prolonged
labour pains. If child birth has to be A) Femur and tarsals
hastened i.e. to aid parturition, it is B) Femur and metatarsals
advisable to administer a hormone that C) Fibula and Tibia
can D) Tarsals and metatarsals
A) Activate the smooth muscle 183. Fresh water fish is:
B) Increase the metabolic rate of kidney A) Pristis B) Catla
C) Release glucose into the blood
C) Carcharodon D) Scoliodon
D) Stimulate the ovary

17
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05 NEET – 2022
184. Identify A to D. 187. The substance which is used for RBC
production is:
A) Vitamin K B) Vitamin D
C) Iodine D) Vitamin B12
188. HCI converts:
A) Pepsinogen in pepsin
B) Pepsin in pepsinogen
C) Paracasein in casein
D) Trypsinogen in trypsin
189. Which one of the following is true about
urine formation?
A) A-Schwann cell, B-Myelin sheath, C- A) The selective reabsorption is not takes
Axon terminal, D-Nissl’s granules place in PCT
B) A-Myelin sheath, B-Schwann cell, C- B) Aldosterone reduces the amount of
Axon terminal, D-Nissl’s granules reabsorption of Na+
C) A-Myelin sheath, B-Myelin sheath, C- C) The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is
Axon terminal, D-Neurofibrils about 125 ml/sec
D) A-Myelin sheath, B-Schwann cell, C- D) The countercurrent mechanism helps
Dendrites, D-Neurofibrils in concentration of the urine
185. Eight ciliated comb plates help in 190. Cell body with one axon and no dendron
locomotion present in- found usually in the
A) A) Hydra B) Amacrine cell
C) Embryonic stage
D) Photoreceptor cell
191. Good vision depends on adequate intake
of carotene rich food:
1. Vitamin A derivatives are formed from
B)
carotene
2. The photopigments are embedded in
the membrane discs of the inner
segment
3. Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A
4. Retinal is a light absorbing part of all
C)
the visual photopigments
Options:
A) 1, 3 and 4 B) 1 and 3
C) 2, 3 and 4 D) 1 and 2
192. Parathormone causes:
A) Decrease in blood Ca++ level
D) B) Stimulate demineralization of bone
C) Increased blood Ca++ level
D) B and C both
193. Which of the following is a file like
rasping organ for feeding in mollusca?
A) Radula B) Mantle
C) Statocyst D) Nephridia
SECTION – B 194. Which one of the following is an examples
186. Which one of the following is a product of of specialized connected tissue?
exocrine gland? A) Adipose connective tissue
A) Thyroxine B) Testosterone B) Tendon
C) Ligament
C) Sebum D) Progesteron D) Bone

18
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES – 05
195. The center which is located in the pons:
A) Can moderate the functions of
respiratory rhythm center
B) Stimulate the respiratory centre when
blood oxygen level increases
C) It is called as VRG
D) It contains centres which control
cardiovascular reflex
196. Which of the following cells are known as
“Podocytes”.
A) Simple squamous epithelium of
Bowman’s capsule
B) Simple cuboidal epithelium of PCT
C) Brush border cuboidal epithelium of
PCT
D) Brush border cuboidal epithelium of
PCT
197. Sensation of hearing is produced as a
result of the:
A) Impulse generated by organ of corti
present on the reissner’s membrane
B) Impulse generated by organ of corti
present on the basilar membrane
C) Vibrations that adjoin at helicotrema
D) Vibration of tympanum
TEST – 05
BAHUBALI TEST SERIES
NEET – 2022
198. Cardiac muscles are:
A) Unstriated, involuntary
B) Unstriated, voluntary
C) Striated, voluntary
D) Striated, involuntary
199. In mammalian ear, a membranous
structure which separate the scala media
and scala tympani is?
A) Basilar membrane
B) Reissner’s membrane
C) Tectorial membrane
D) tympanic membrane
200. A health disorder that results from the
deficiency of thyroxine in adults and
characterized by
(i) A low metabolic rate
(ii) Increase in body weight and
(iii) Tendency to retain water in tissues is
A) Cretinism B) Myxoedema
C) Simple goitre D) Dwarfism
19