27-12-2020 B

MEDICAL
Entrance Exams - 2022

TEST No. 3
(XI Studying Students – TYM)

Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate

should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filled and
marked correctly.
marked is allowed.

Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

 Test No. 3

Laws of motion, Work, energy and power, System of particles and

rotational motion : Centre of mass & Motion of centre of mass

States of matter : Gases and liquids, Thermodynamics

Morphology of flowering plants, Anatomy of flowering plants, Body fluid

and circulation, Excretory product and their elimination
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 1

1) A monkey is sitting on a tree limb. The limb 6) A rocket has a mass of 2 × 104 kg, of which
exerts a normal force of 20 N and frictional force half is fuel. Assume that fuel is burnt at constant
of 15 N. The magnitude of total force exerted by rate and there is a constant thrust of 5 × 106 N.
the limb on the monkey is - Neglecting air resistance and any variation in
acceleration due to gravity. The acceleration at
A) 35 N the instant when the whole fuel is consumed
B) 30 N will be -
C) 25 N
A) 500 m/s2
D) 20 N
B) 240 m/s2
2) A force of 5 N changes the velocity of a body C) 490 m/s2
from 10 m/s to 20 m/s in 6 s. The force required D) 250 m/s2
to bring the same change in 1.5 s is -
7) A body starts sliding down an inclined plane
A) 10 N 𝟏𝐭𝐡
of inclination 30°, the top ( )of inclined plane
B) 15 N 𝟒
𝟑𝐭𝐡
C) 18 N is smooth and lower ( )is rough. The ratio of
𝟒
D) 20 N
force of friction and weight of body, if the body
is brought to rest, just when it reaches the
3) A mass of 100 kg is placed on a rough inclined bottom is -
plane of inclination angle 30°. If coefficient of
𝟏
friction is , the minimum force required A) 1
√𝟑
parallel to plane to keep the mass in equilibrium 1
B)
is (g = 9.8 m/s2) - 3
2
C)
A) 0N 3
B) 50 N D) 4
C) 100 N
8) A train has to negotiate a curve of radius 400
D) 75 N
m. By how much should the outer rail be raised
w.r.t. inner rail for a speed of 72 km/h, if
4) A body of mass 1 kg is moving with velocity distance between the rails is 1.5 m (g = 10 m/s2)-
̂ )m/s, by
(4𝒊̂ + 3𝒋̂) m/s which changes to (-6𝒊̂ + 2𝒌
a force. The work done by the force in changing A) 5 cm B) 7.5 cm
the velocity is – C) 10 cm D) 15 cm

A) 6 J B) 7.5 J 9) A railway engine weighing 40 metric ton is

C) 10 J D) 12.5 J travelling along a level track at a speed of 54
km/h. The additional power required to
5) A force acts for 8 s on a body of mass 5 kg at maintain the same speed up an incline rising 1 in
rest, on a smooth horizontal surface. The force 49 is nearly (given μ = 0.1, g = 9.8 m/s2) –
then stops acting and the body describes 80 m in
next 5 s. The force acting on body is – A) 40 kW B) 60 kW
C) 90 kW D) 120 kW
A) 10 N B) 15 N
C) 20 N D) 25 N
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 2

10) A light rope fixed at one end to a wooden 14) The angle between the vectors and
clamp on the ground passes over a frictionless ̂ and 𝑩
⃗ = 𝒊̂ + 2𝒋̂ - 𝒌 ̂ is -
⃗⃗ = -𝒊̂ + 𝒋̂ - 2𝒌
where 𝑨
pulley and hangs on other side. The rope makes
an angle of 30° with the ground and wooden
clamp come out of the ground if an upward A) 0°
force greater than 360 N acts on it. The B) 45°
maximum acceleration of 60 kg man in upward C) 30°
direction so he can climb safely is- (g = 10 m/s2) D) 60°

A) 1 m/s2 15) The component of vector, 𝑨 ⃗ = 3𝒊̂ + 2𝒋̂ along

B) 2 m/s2 the direction of ( 𝒊̂ - 𝒋̂ ) is -
C) 4 m/s2
D) 4.5 m/s2 1
A) - ( 𝑖̂ - 𝑗̂ )
2
11) A parabolic bowl with its bottom at origin 1
B) ( 𝑖̂ - 𝑗̂ )
𝒙𝟐 2
has the shape, y = , where x and y are in 5
𝟐𝟎 C) ( 𝑖̂ - 𝑗̂ )
metre. The maximum height at which a small 2
mass m can be placed on the bowl without 5
D) - ( 𝑖̂ - 𝑗̂ )
slipping is (coefficient of static friction μ = 0.5 2
and g = 10 m/s2) -
16) A block of mass m moving on a frictionless
A) 1.25 m surface at a speed v, compresses a spring
B) 2.5 m through a distance x before its speed is halved.
The spring constant of spring is -
C) 1.0 m
D) 2.0 m
3𝑚𝑣 2
A)
4𝑥 2
12) The force exerted by the floor of an elevator
3𝑚𝑣 2
on the foot of a person, standing there is more B)
than the weight of the person, if the elevator is - 2𝑥 2
𝑚𝑣 2
C)
A) Going up and slowing down 4𝑥 2
𝑚𝑣 2
B) Going down and slowing down D)
2𝑥 2
C) Going up and speeding up
D) Both (2) and (3) 17) A body of mass 4 kg moving along a straight
line under the action of a force. If kinetic energy
13) A force is acting on a body moving along x- varies with time as k = 8t. The force acting on
axis in the direction of motion of body. If the the body is -
force produces the potential energy U = Ax4,
where A = 1.25 Jm–4. The force acting on body A) Increasing with time
when it is at x = –0.8 m is – B) Decreasing with time
A) 2.0 N B) 2.3 N C) Constant
C) 2.56 N D) 3.0 N D) Zero
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 3

18) An object of mass 4 kg is moving along x-axis 21) Work done by a force, 𝑭 ̂ N
⃗ = 𝒊̂ + 2𝒋̂ + 3𝒌
such that its position x varies with time t as x2 = acting on a particle in displacing it from position
16t3. The work done as a function of time can be ⃗⃗⃗⃗ ̂ ) m to ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝒓𝟏 = (𝒊̂ + 𝒋̂ + 𝒌 ̂ ) m is –
𝒓𝟐 = (𝒊̂ - 𝒋̂ + 2𝒌
shown as -
A) - 3 J B) - 1 J
C) Zero D) 2 J

A) 22) Two bodies of mass m and 4m are attached

with the help of massless string as shown in
figure. The body of mass m hanging from string
of length l is executing oscillations of angular
amplitude θ, while the other body of mass 4m,
B) is at rest. The minimum coefficient of friction
between mass 4m and the horizontal surface
should be -

C)

D)
2 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
A) ( )
4
𝜃
19) A stone of mass m is thrown from earth’s B) 2𝑐𝑜𝑠 2
surface at an angle θ to the horizontal with 2
1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
speed v0. Ignoring the air drag, the power C) ( )
developed by force of gravity, t second after 4
beginning of motion is - 3 − 2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
D) ( )
4
A) mg(gt – v0 sinθ)
B) mg v0 sinθt 23) A small block of mass 15 kg is at rest on a
C) mg v0 cosθt rough inclined plane as shown in figure. The
block is tied by a horizontal string which has a
D) mg(v0 cosθ – gt)
tension of 50 N. The coefficient of friction
between surface of contacts is (g = 10 m/s2)
20) A man weighing 60 kg lifts a body of mass 15
kg to the top of 10 m high building in 2 minute.
The efficiency of man is -

A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
1 2
D) 25% A) B)
2 3

3 1
C) D)
4 4
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 4

24) The system of three masses 3m, m and 2m 26) A block of mass m is pushed with a velocity
are pushed by a force F as shown in figure. All u, towards a movable wedge of mass nm and
the surfaces are smooth except between B and height h as shown in figure. All the surfaces are
1 smooth. The minimum value of u, for which the
C. Coefficient of friction between B and C is .
2 block will reach the top of wedge is -
Minimum value of F to prevent block B from
downward slipping is -

A) 3mg
A) √2𝑔ℎ
B) 4mg
B) n √2𝑔ℎ
C) 5mg
D) 6mg 1
C) √2𝑔ℎ (1 + )
𝑛
25) A U-shaped smooth wire lying in horizontal
plane, has a semicircular bending between A √2𝑔ℎ
D) 1
and B as shown in figure. A bead of mass m (1 + 𝑛)
moving with uniform speed v through the wire
enters the semi circular bend at A and leave at
B. The average force exerted by bead on the 27) A ball is thrown vertically upwards from
part AB of wire is - ground with a velocity of 10 m/s. It returns to
the ground with a velocity of 9 m/s. Then the
maximum height attained by ball is nearly (g =
10 m/s2 and air resistance is assumed constant)

A) 4.5 m
B) 5.5 m
C) 6.0 m
D) 5.0 m

A) Zero 28) The position of a body of mass 2 kg as a

4𝑚𝑣 2 function of time varies as x = 2t4 + 5. The
B) increase in kinetic energy of body after 1 s after
𝜋𝑑
the start of motion is -
2𝑚𝑣 2
C)
𝜋𝑑
A) 8J
2𝑚𝑣 2
D) B) 16 J
𝑑
C) 32 J
D) 64 J
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 5

29) Which of the following statements is wrong? 32) A mass m moving with a velocity v collides
inelastically with another identical mass at rest.
𝒗
Kinetic energy of a body is independent of After collision, first mass moves with velocity
A) √𝟑
direction of motion.
in a direction perpendicular to the initial
In an elastic collision momentum and kinetic direction. The speed of second mass after
B)
energy of each body is constant. collision is -
If two masses come close to each other, the
C)
potential energy of system decreases. 2𝑣
A)
A body can have energy without √3
D) 𝑣
momentum. B)
√3
𝑣
30) If a ball is thrown upwards from the surface C)
√2
of earth -
D) 𝑣√3
The earth remains stationary, while the ball
A) 33) A person draw water from a 5 m deep well
moves upwards.
slowly in a bucket of mass 2 kg of capacity 8 litre
The ball remains stationary, while earth by a rope of mass 1 kg. The total work done by
B)
moves downwards. person is (g = 10 m/s2) -
The ball and earth moves towards each
C)
other. A) 550 J
The ball and earth moves away from each B) 525 J
D)
other.
C) 125 J
D) 500 J
31) A constant power P is supplied to a particle
of mass m. The distance travelled by the particle
when its velocity increases from v1 to v2 is 34) A car starts from rest on a 400 m long bridge.
(Neglect friction) – The coefficient of friction between road and tyre
is 0.8. The minimum time taken to cross the
3𝑃 bridge is –
A) ( 𝑣22 - 𝑣12 )
𝑚
A) 20 s B) 15 s
𝑚 C) 10 s D) 8 s
B) (𝑣2 - 𝑣1 )
3𝑃
𝑴
𝑚 35) Find the maximum value of , in the
𝒎
C) ( 𝑣23 - 𝑣13 ) situation shown in figure so that system remain
3𝑃
in equilibrium (friction coefficient at both
𝑚 √𝟑
D) ( 𝑣23 - 𝑣12 ) contacts is )
3𝑃 𝟒

√3
A) √3 B)
2
2
C) D) 2√3
√3
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 6

36) A block A kept on an inclined surface just
begins to slide if the inclination is 45°. The block
is replaced by another block B and it is found
that it just begins to slide if the inclination is 30°,
then it may be possible that -
39) After perfect inelastic collision between two
identical masses moving with same speed in
different directions. The speed of particles
becomes half of the initial speed. The angle
between velocities of masses before collision is–

A) MA > MB A) 60° B) 45°

B) MA < MB C) 120° D) 30°
C) MA = MB 40) Two bodies of mass 10 kg and 2 kg are
D) All the three are possible ̂ ) m/s and
moving with velocities (2𝒊̂ - 7𝒋̂ + 3𝒌
̂ ) m/s respectively. The velocity
(-10𝒊̂ + 35𝒋̂ - 3𝒌
37) Consider the situation shown in figure. The of their centre of mass is -
system is released from rest. The coefficient of
friction between block and table is 0.2. The A) 2𝑖̂ m/s
speed of the block of mass 4.0 kg when 2.0 kg
mass descend through a distance of 1 m is
B) 2𝑘̂ m/s
approximately (g = 10 m/s2) - C) (2𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂) m/s
D) 2 (𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂) m/s

41) A 500 kg boat is 9 m long and is floating

without motion on still water. A man of mass
100 kg is at one end and move to other end of
boat and stops. The displacement of boat is -

1.5 m in the direction of displacement of

A)
4 man
A) m/s
3 0.75 m in the direction of displacement of
2 B)
B) m/s man
3
1 1.5 m in the direction opposite to
C) m/s C)
3
displacement of man
D) 2.0 m/s 0.75 m in the direction opposite to
D)
displacement of man
38) Figure shows a smooth horizontal track, a
part of which is a vertical circle of radius 1.0 m. 42) Two particles of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2)
A block of mass 0.1 kg is pushed against a spring attracts each other with a force inversely
of spring constant 300 N/m fixed at one end. proportional to square of distance between
The initial compression of the spring so that the them. The particles are initially at rest and then
block presses the track with the force of 1.0 N released. Which one is correct?
when reach the point P is (g = 10 m/s2)
A) The centre of mass moves towards m1
B) The centre of mass moves towards m2
C) The centre of mass remains at rest
The centre of mass will move in any
D)
A) 0.4 m B) 0.3 m direction
C) 0.2 m D) 0.1 m
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 7

43) Mass is distributed uniformly over a thin 46) A cylinder contains SO2 gas at a pressure of
triangular plate and co-ordinates of two vertices 4.1 atmosphere and at 47°C temperature. The
are (1 m, 3 m) and (2 m, –4 m). The co-ordinates density of the gas in the cylinder is -
of third vertex, if centre of mass of plate lies at
origin are – A) 0.2 g/ml
B) 0.4 g/ml
A) ( 1 m, -2 m ) B) ( -2 m, 4 m )
C) 0.01 g/ml
C) ( 3 m, 1 m ) D) ( -3 m, 1 m )
D) 10 g/ml
44) Two blocks A and B of mass 2m and 3m
respectively are connected by a massless string. 47) Same volume of two gases X and Y diffuses
The whole system is suspended by a massless through same pin holes in 15 and 25 seconds
spring as shown in figure. The magnitude of respectively under identical conditions. If the
acceleration of A and B immediately after the molar mass of X is 30 g/mole then the molar
string is cut are respectively - mass of Y will be -

A) 25.5 g/mol
B) 83.3 g/mol
C) 55 g/mol
D) 64 g/mol

48) At 27°C and 640 mm pressure, 320 mL of dry

N2 gas was collected. If the temperature is
2 constant, what volume will the N2 gas will
A) g, g occupy at 800 mm pressure?
3
B) g, g
3 A) 332 mL
C) g, g
2 B) 256 mL
3 2
D) 𝑔, 𝑔 C) 435 mL
2 3
D) 160 mL
45) Block A and B in the figure are connected by
a bar of negligible weight. If mA = mB = 170 kg 49) Under the identical condition of
and μA = 0.2 and μB = 0.4 are the coefficient of temperature and pressure the rate of effusion
limiting friction between blocks and plane. The will be maximum for -
force by the bar on A is (g = 10 m/s2)
A) He
B) H2
C) CO2
D) CH4

50) What will be the mass ratio of SO2 to NO so

that their partial pressure in a container
A) 150 N pulling force becomes equal?
B) 75 N pushing force
C) 150 N pushing force A) 1 : 4 B) 3 : 4
D) 75 N pulling force C) 1 : 1 D) 32 : 15
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 8

51) Van der Waals constant a and b are related 56) For the reaction,
with critical pressure (PC) as -
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
8𝑎 ΔH is given by -
A) 𝑃𝑐 =
27𝑅𝑏
𝑎 A) ΔU + 2RT
B) 𝑃𝑐 =
27𝑏2 B) ΔU – 2RT
𝑎
C) 𝑃𝑐 = C) ΔU + RT
27𝑅𝑏
𝑎 D) ΔU + 3RT
D) 𝑃𝑐 =
8𝑏2
57) In which of the following processes entropy
52) A gas is allowed to expand in an insulated decreases?
container against a constant external pressure
of 3 atm from an initial volume of 5.0 L to final A) Evaporation of water
volume of 9.0 L. The change in internal energy B) Melting of ice
ΔU of the gas is –
C) Sublimation of Naphthalene
A) - 1.2 kJ B) - 3.4 kJ D) Condensation of steam
C) - 4.5 kJ D) - 6.2 kJ
58) Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, Br2 and
53) 1 mole of an ideal gas at 37°C temperature HBr are 435, 192, 368 kJ mol–1 respectively.
undergoes expansion isothermally and Enthalpy of formation of HBr is -
reversibly from 5 litre to 20 litre. The entropy
change in the process is - A) –109 kJ/mol
B) –54.5 kJ/mol
A) 11.5 J/mol-K C) –86.4 kJ/mol
B) 7.5 J/mol-K D) –75 kJ/mol
C) 3.5 J/mol-K
D) 6.5 J/mol-K 59) For a reaction to be spontaneous at all
temperature which of the following set of
54) Which among the following is an intensive conditions is true?
property?
A) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0
A) Pressure B) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0
B) Enthalpy C) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0
C) Density D) ∆H = 0 and ∆S < 0
D) Both (1) and (3)
60) At 47°C, latent heat of fusion of a compound
55) 100 ml of 0.3 M HCl solution is reacted with is 11.2 kJ/mol. The entropy change for fusion
50 ml of 0.6 M NaOH solution. The heat released process of the compound is -
in the neutralization process is -
A) 20 J/mol-K
A) 57.1 kJ B) 5.7 kJ B) 45 J/mol-K
C) 1.7 kJ D) 2.7 kJ
C) 35 J/mol-K
D) 10 J/mol-K
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 9

61) Which among the following gases is most 66) 2 moles of an ideal gas undergoes expansion
easily liquefied? in volume at 37°C from 2 L to 20 L isothermally
and reversibly. The enthalpy change in the
A) CH4 process is -
B) CO2
A) –11.87 kJ
C) O2
B) +11.87 kJ
D) N2
C) Zero
62) Consider the following statements. D) –6.25 kJ

(a) The molecules on the surface of liquid have 67) Which of the following neutralization
more energy than the molecules in the bulk. reaction will evolve maximum amount of heat in
(b) Surface tension of water is more than that of aqueous medium?
diethyl ether.
(c) SI unit of surface tension is Nm–1. A) CH3COOH(0.1 mol) + NaOH (0.1 mol)
B) HCOOH (0.1 mol) + NH4OH (0.1 mol)
The correct statements are :
C) HF (0.1 mol) + NaOH (0.1 mol)
A) (a) and (b) only D) HCl (0.1 mol) + NaOH (0.1 mol)
B) (b) and (c) only
68) The energy required to raise the
C) (a) and (c) only temperature of 25 g of copper from 35°C to 80°C
D) (a), (b) and (c) is -
(specific heat of copper = 0.39 J g–1 °C–1)
63) Which of the following mixture of gases do
not obey Dalton’s law of partial pressure? A) 625.25 J
B) 438.75 J
A) He and H2
C) 375.31 J
B) HCl and NH3
D) 875.25 J
C) He and Ne
D) O2 and CO2 69) Which of the following is an endothermic
process?
64) By what factor does the rms velocity of
gaseous molecules increases when the A) Combustion of ethane
temperature in kelvin is tripled? B) Dissociation of N2 gas to nitrogen atoms
A) 9 B) 3 C) Hydration of Li+ ion
C) 1.73 D) 6 D) Formation of ammonia from N2(g) and H2(g)

65) State function(s) among the following is/are 70) Dipole-dipole interaction energy between
stationary polar molecules is proportional to (r is
A) H the distance between polar molecules) :
B) H–TS
1 1
C) PΔV A) B)
𝑟 𝑟2
D) Both (1) and (2)
1 1
C) D)
𝑟3 𝑟6
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 10

71) Consider the following statements 76) An open vessel is kept at 127°C. If this vessel
is heated to 227°C then the fraction of air which
(a) Critical temperature of ammonia is higher escaped from the vessel is -
than carbon dioxide
(b) Above Boyle point, real gases show positive 3
A)
deviation from ideality 4
(c) At 1 atm pressure boiling point is called 1
standard boiling point. B)
5
2
The correct statements are : C)
3
1
A) (a) and (c) only D)
4
B) (a) and (b) only
C) (a), (b) and (c) 77) For given mass of a gas the following
pressure and temperature curve is drawn -
D) (b) and (c) only

72) Average kinetic energy of one molecule of H2

at 77°C is -

A) 1.25 × 10–22 J
B) 3.25 × 10–19 J
C) 7.25 × 10–21 J The correct relation between V1, V2 and V3 is –
D) 4.1 × 10–22 J
A) V3 > V2 > V1 B) V1 > V2 > V3
73) The temperature at which average speed of C) V2 > V1 > V3 D) V3 > V1 > V2
helium is same as that of CH4 at 27°C is –
78) In van der Waals gas equation, the volume
A) 28°C B) 8°C occupied by the gas molecules is given by the
C) -150°C D) -198°C term -

74) Intermolecular forces present between N2 an2

A)
molecules is - v2
an2
A) Hydrogen bond B) (P + 2 )
v
B) Dipole-dipole forces C) (V – nb)
C) London force D) nb
D) Dipole-induced dipole forces
79) Real gases behaves as an ideal gas at -
75) The compressibility factor for one mole of a
van der Waals gas at low pressure is – A) High pressure and high temperature
a a B) Low pressure and low temperature
A) 1 - B) 1 + C) Low pressure and high temperature
VRT VRT
D) High pressure and low temperature
Pb Pb
C) 1 + D) 1 -
RT RT
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 11

80) The kinetic energy of 0.5 mole of N2 gas is x J 𝐂𝐩

85) for CO2 gas is -
at 1.5 atm pressure then the kinetic energy of 𝐂𝐯
the gas at 4.5 atm pressure and at same
temperature will be - A) 1.66
B) 1.4
𝑥
A) J C) 1.33
3
B) 3x J D) 1.0
C) xJ
𝑥 86) SI Unit of viscosity coefficient is -
D) J
9
A) Ns–1
81) On increasing temperature, which of the B) Nsm–1
following decreases? C) Nm–2
D) Nsm–2
A) Vapour pressure of liquid
B) Viscosity of liquid 87) Standard molar enthalpy of formation of
C) Kinetic energy of gas which of the following substances is zero at 298
D) Rate of evaporation of liquid K?

82) If volume of fixed mass of gas at constant A) C(Diamond)

temperature is increased by 25%, the pressure B) C(g)
of gas will be - C) Br2(g)
D) Cl2(g)
A) Decreased by 25%
B) Decreased by 20% 88) Which is/are correct about adiabatic
C) Increased by 20% process?
D) Decreased by 22%
A) q = ΔU
83) If heat of combustion of methane is –890 B) ΔU= w
kJ/mol, then amount of heat released when 13.2 C) q=0
g of CO2 is produced on combustion of methane
D) Both (2) and (3)
is –

A) 267 kJ B) 315 kJ 89) If equilibrium constant of a reaction at 27°C

C) 420 kJ D) 175 kJ is 10 then the standard Gibbs free energy
change for a reaction at equilibrium will be -
84) For the given reaction
A(l) → 2B(g) A) –3.54 kcal mol–1
∆U = - 4.5 kcal, ∆S = 12 cal 𝐤 −𝟏 B) –2.12 kcal mol–1
at 27°C C) –1.38 kcal mol–1
D) Zero
Hence ∆G for the reaction is :

A) - 5.4 Kcal B) -8.5 Kcal

C) - 6.9 Kcal D) - 12.5 Kcal
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 12

90) One mole of n-pentane on complete 94) The edible part of ginger
combustion under standard conditions liberates
3500 kJ of heat. Heat of formation of n-pentane a. Is modified to store food.
is - b. Helps it to perennate during unfavourable
condition of growth.
[∆𝐇𝐟° of C𝐎𝟐 = - 390 kJ/mol and c. Bears nodes, internodes and buds.
∆𝐇𝐟° of 𝐇𝟐 O = - 285 kJ/mol]
Choose the correct ones.
A) +145 kJ mol–1
B) +120 kJ mol–1 A) a and c only
C) –90 kJ mol–1 B) b and c only
D) –160 kJ mol–1 C) a and b only
D) All a, b and c
91) Choose the odd one w.r.t. the modifications
of root to store food - 95) Modified stem is the edible part in all of the
following plants, except
A) Carrot
B) Turnip A) Potato
C) Radish B) Zaminkand
D) Sweet potato C) Onion
D) Turmeric
92) Mark the option stating correct differences
between stilt roots and prop roots. 96) In grapevines, the structure which provides
support to weak and tender stem is -
Stilt root Prop root
– Mechanical Storage of A) Modified leaf
(1) Modified for B) Known as thorn
support food
Heavy C) Formed by axillary bud
(2) Arise from – Lower nodes
branches D) Long, thin, pointed needle like structure
(3) Geotropism – Positive Negative
Modification 97) Underground stem of strawberry -
(4) – Fibrous roots Tap roots
of
A) (1) A) Helps it to spread to new niches
B) (2) B) Is modified for storage of food
C) (3) C) Grows vertical to the soil surface
D) (4) D) Lacks nodes and internodes

93) Pneumatophores - 98) In which of the given plants stem modifies to

perform function of leaves?
A) Are modified to store moisture from air
A) Opuntia
B) Are found in xerophytes
B) Australian acacia
C) Have lenticels for gaseous exchange
C) Oxalis
D) Are adventitious roots
D) Mint
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 13

99) Thorns of Bougainvillea and spines of Aloe 103) Select the odd one w.r.t. symmetry of
are similar as both - flower.

A) Are modified leaves A) Gulmohur

B) Help to reduce transpiration B) Cassia
C) Protect plants from browsing animals C) Chilli
D) Are present in axil of leaves D) Bean

100) Mark the plant in which leaflets are 104) Ovary is said to be inferior in -
attached to a common point i.e., petiole -
A) Bitter gourd
A) Alstonia B) Petunia
B) Silk cotton C) Lily
C) Calotropis D) Brinjal
D) Shoe flower
105) Identify the incorrect match for flowers of
101) In Nepenthes, _______ get modified to trap china rose.
insects.
A) Symmetry – Actinomorphic
Fill in the above blank by choosing correct B) Cohesion of stamens – Diadelphous
option.
C) Placentation – Axile
A) Leaf lamina D) Aestivation of petals – Twisted
B) Petiole
106) Select the wrong statement.
C) Leaf apex
D) Stipule In Salvia, length of filaments within a flower
A)
may vary
102) Mark the following statements as true (T) B) Lily flower has epipetalous stamens
or false (F) and select the correct option
The smallest anterior petals of pea flower
C)
are known as keel
A. In lupin, the shoot axis continues to grow
indefinitely. D) Lemon has polyadelphous stamens
B. Flowers are borne in an acropetal succession
in Begonia and radish. 107) Which of the given features of gynoecium
C. Leaf base expands into a sheath like structure is/are true for rose but false for tomato?
in leguminous plants.
D. Peduncle terminates into a flower in cymose A) Multicarpellary
inflorescence. B) Fused stigma and style
C) Apocarpous
ABCD
D) Ovary superior
A) TTFF
B) FTTT
C) TFTT
D) TFFT
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 14

108) Match the columns and select the correct 112) Choose the odd one w.r.t. ploidy level in
option. maize seeds.

Column I Column II A) Aleurone layer

Stamens united in more B) Scutellum
a. (i) Polyadelphous
than two bundles C) Coleorhiza
b. Parietal placentation (ii) Dianthus D) Plumule
c. Free central placentation (iii) Polyandrous
d. Stamens are free (iv) Argemone 113) In floral formula of a plant family symbol
a b c d A2+4 represents all, except
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
A) Adhesion of stamens
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
B) Tetradynamous condition of stamens
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
C) Number of stamens
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
D) Stamens are of variable length
A) (1)
B) (2) 114) How many of the given features are related
C) (3) to plant family to which Indigofera belongs?
D) (4)
(a) Diadelphous stamens
109) In which of the given plants, fruits are (b) Bicarpellary ovary
formed from other floral parts along with ovary? (c) Vexillary aestivation
(d) Polypetalous corolla
(e) Non endospermic seeds
A) Pear
B) Banana A) 5 B) 4
C) Coconut C) 2 D) 3
D) Grapes
115) The medicinal plant of Solanaceae family is-
110) Fruit of mango and coconut are similar in
all of the following aspects, except A) Muliathi
B) Aloe
A) Being drupe fruit C) Asparagus
B) Being one seeded D) Belladonna
C) Being formed by monocarpellary ovary
D) Their edible parts 116) Which of the given symbol is not true for
floral formula of tulip plant?
111) In maize seed, radicle is enclosed by a
sheath known as - A) ⊕
B) P(3+3)
A) Scutellum C) ̅(3)
G
B) Coleorhiza D) A3+3
C) Coleoptile
D) Testa
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 15

117) Axile placentation is not seen in – 122) Choose the incorrect feature of companion
cells.
A) Tomato B) Gloriosa
C) Sesbania D) Lemon A) Specialised parenchymatous cells
B) Thin walled
118) Mark the odd one w.r.t. primary meristem -
C) Anucleate
A) Shoot apical meristem D) Contain pit fields
B) Intercalary meristem
123) Select the wrongly matched pair.
C) Fascicular vascular cambium
D) Interfascicular cambium A) Metaxylem – Wider lumen
B) Root endodermis – Called starch sheath
119) Collenchyma tissue is similar to
sclerenchyma tissue as both - Phloem parenchyma – Mostly absent in
C)
monocots
A) Are dead D) Protophloem – Lack bast fibre
B) Are mechanical tissue
124) Which one is not a function of trichomes?
C) Have pectin rich cell wall
D) Cannot have chloroplast Provides protection from scorching solar
A)
radiation
120) The gritty texture in guava fruit is due to B) Prevent water loss
the abundance of –
C) Secretion of sticky substances
A) Sclereids B) Suberin deposition in D) Absorption of water
fruit wall
C) Sclerenchyma fibres D) Parenchyma tissues 125) A monocot root and a dicot stem are
similar as both -
121) Complete the below given comparison
chart between xylem tracheids and vessels by A) Have well developed pith
selecting the correct option for A, B or C. B) Lack hypodermis
C) Are eustelic
Tracheid Vessel
D) Have parenchymatous medullary rays
A single long
a. A
cell
126) All of the following components of ground
b. B Perforated end walls tissue system are absent in monocot stem,
Mainly found in flowering except
c. C
plants
A – Made up of many cells, A) Pith rays
A)
C – Found in gymnosperm only B) Pericycle
B – Imperforated C) Endodermis
B)
C – Found in all vascular plants
D) Cortex
A – Multicelled
C)
B – Pitted end plates
B – Imperforate
D)
C – Found in all gymnosperms and few
angiosperms
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 16

127) To minimise water loss, grass leaves curl 132) Choose the incorrect match -
inward because -
A) Sapwood – Conduct water
A) Of bulliform cells, present on abaxial surface B) Duramen – Peripheral secondary xylem
B) Of trichomes present on abaxial surface C) Heart wood – Have tyloses
They have less number of stomata on upper D) Alburnum – Lighter in colour
C)
surface
Of large, empty colourless cells on adaxial 133) Cambium ring in dicot root is -
D)
surface
A) Formed by endodermis
128) Which of the following tissue is a B) Partially secondary in origin
component of stele as well as bark?
C) Formed by cortex only
A) Phloem D) Completely secondary in origin
B) Cortex
134) Breathing pores found in bark are –
C) Xylem
D) Phellogen A) Stomata B) Hydathodes
C) Lenticels D) Trichomes
129) Spring wood differs from autumn wood as
the former - 135) Bundle sheath is found in all, except

A) Is darker in colour A) Monocot leaf

B) Has higher density B) Monocot stem
C) Has vessel with wider lumen C) Dicot leaf
D) Is formed when cambium is less active D) Dicot root

130) Annual rings are distinct in - 136) Select the transport medium in
coelenterates that facilitates removal of harmful
A) Plants of coastal regions substances and exchange of gases.
B) Roots of dicot plants of temperate area
A) Blood B) Lymph
C) Plants of tropical area C) Tissue fluid D) Water
D) Plants of temperate regions
137) Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t.
131) In a dicot plant after secondary growth, plasma -
primary xylem is found -
It is a viscous fluid constituting nearly 55%
A)
A) Close to pith of the blood
B) Next to secondary phloem 90% to 92% of plasma is water and protein
B)
C) Close to vascular cambium contributes 6% to 8% of it
D) Next to phellogen All the factors for clotting of blood are
C)
present in plasma in an active form
It contains minerals, glucose, amino acids,
D)
lipids etc.
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 17

138) Match column I and column II and choose 142) Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by-
the correct option.
Injecting Rh antigen into mother’s blood
A)
Column I Column II immediately after delivery of the first child
a. Neutrophils (i) 2-3% Administering anti-Rh-antibodies to the
B)
b. Basophils (ii) 6-8% newborn
c. Monocytes (iii)20-25% Administering anti-Rh antibodies to
C) mother’s blood immediately after delivery
d. Eosinophils (iv) 60-65%
of Rh positive child
(v) 0.5-1%
Injecting Rh positive blood group into
A) a(iii), b(v), c(ii), d(i) D)
mother’s blood just after conception.
B) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(v)
C) a(iv), b(ii), c(v), d(iii) 143) How many factors given in the below box
D) a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(i) facilitates coagulation of blood?

139) Granulocytes which resist helminthic Ca2+, tPA, Heparin, Streptokinase,

infestation and also associated with allergic Thrombokinase
reactions are - A) Three
B) Two
A) Basophils C) Five
B) Monocytes D) Four
C) Eosinophils
D) Lymphocytes 144) Tissue fluid has same -

140) Special cells in the bone marrow that A) Mineral distribution as that in plasma
produce cell fragments involved in clotting of B) Number of formed elements as in blood
blood are called -
C) Clotting factors as that in serum
D) Amount of larger proteins as in blood
A) Platelets
B) Thrombocytes
145) Choose the odd one w.r.t. open circulatory
C) Megakaryocytes system -
D) Thromboplastins
A) Frog
141) A person with blood group ‘O–’ under ABO B) Prawn
system met with an accident and suffered much
C) Cockroach
blood loss. Blood group of the donor person to
save the life of patient should be - D) Snails

A) AB+ 146) Incomplete double circulation is found in -

B) AB–
A) Crocodile
C) O–
B) Parrot
D) O+
C) Horse
D) Lizard
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 18

147) A muscular two chambered heart that 152) If the cardiac output is 4900 mL and blood
always pumps out deoxygenated blood belongs volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is
to - 140 mL while at the end of ventricular systole is
70 mL. What would be the heart rate of this
A) Crocodile person?
B) Fishes
A) 75 beats per minute
C) Annelids
B) 70 beats per minute
D) Amphibians
C) 35 beats per minute
148) Select the incorrect match. D) 140 beats per minute

Mitral valve – Between left atrium and left 153) Choose the correct match w.r.t events in
A) cardiac cycle of normal adult person.
ventricle
Bicuspid valve – Between left ventricle and
B) A) Ventricular diastole : 0.4 seconds
aorta
Tricuspid valve – Between right atrium and B) Atrial diastole : 0.7 seconds
C)
right ventricle C) Atrial systole : 0.3 seconds
Semilunar valve – Between right ventricle D) Joint diastole : 0.5 seconds
D)
and pulmonary artery
154) Select the incorrect statement.
149) The second heart sound is associated with-
The cyclically repeated sequential events in
A) Closure of tricuspid valve A) heart will be same for an athelete as well as
B) Opening of atrio-ventricular valves ordinary man
C) Opening of bicuspid valve The volume of blood pumped out by each
B)
ventricle per minute is called cardiac output
D) Closure of semilunar valve
The body has the ability to alter stroke
C)
150) The maximum number of action potentials volume as well as heart rate
are generated by nodal cardiac musculature The body lack the ability to alter cardiac
D)
called – output and duration of cardiac cycle

A) Bundle of His B) AV Bundle 155) The figure given below represents ECG of a
C) Pacesetter D) Pacemaker normal adult human. Flattening of the T-wave
would indicate -
151) Semilunar valves remain open when -

Blood from pulmonary veins flow into left

A)
ventricle
Blood from vena cava flow into right
B)
ventricle
C) Bicuspid and tricuspid valve are open A) Depolarisation of ventricles
Blood flows from ventricles into the
D) B) Excitation of atria
circulatory pathways
C) Marks the beginning of ventricular systole
D) Insufficient oxygen supply to heart muscles
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 19

156) Read the following statements carefully 159) The condition caused due to deposits of
and choose the option that fills the blanks calcium, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues,
correctly which make the lumen of arteries narrower is
called -
Statement A : is a unique vascular
connection that exists between the digestive A) Angina pectoris
tract and liver. B) Atherosclerosis
Statement B : A special is present in our C) Hypertension
body exclusively for circulation of blood to and D) Cardiac arrest
from the cardiac musculature.
160) Select the incorrect distinguishing point
P Q between artery and vein.
Systemic circulatory
(1) Coronary system
system Artery Veins
Renal portal (1) Walls are thicker Walls are thinner
(2) Pulmonary circulation
system (2) No valves Have valves
Hepatic portal (3) Wider lumen Narrower lumen
(3) Coronary system
system Carry blood away Carry blood towards
Hypophyseal portal (4)
(4) Splanchnic system from heart heart
system A) (1)
A) (1) B) (2)
B) (2) C) (3)
C) (3) D) (4)
D) (4)
161) Special fibrous cords that prevent atrio-
157) Neural signals through parasympathetic ventricular valves from collapsing back into atria
nerves can - during ventricular contractions are called -

A) Increase the rate of heart beat A) Papillary muscles

Increase the strength of ventricular B) Chordae tendinae
B)
contraction C) Ductus arteriosus
Enhance the speed of conduction of action D) Columnae carneae
C)
potential
Reduce the cardiac output by decreasing 162) Blood pressure is measured by an
D)
the rate of heart beat instrument called -

158) The state of heart when it is not pumping A) Spirometer

blood effectively enough to meet the needs of
B) Spectrophotometer
the body is called
C) Sphygmomanometer
A) Heart attack D) Stethoscope
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Cardiac arrest
D) Heart failure
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 20

163) The cardiac phase between the closure of 168) Hagfish is a vertebrate osmoconformer.
AV valves and opening of semilunar valves is - This animal is adapted according to osmolarity
of the surrounding medium by -
A) Joint diastole
B) Isovolumetric diastole A) Passing out very dilute urine
C) Isovolumetric systole B) Changing the osmolarity of its body fluid
D) Atrial systole Actively absorbing salts from external
C)
medium via ionocytes
164) Choose the incorrect statement. Minimizing water uptake and eliminating
D)
osmolytes like urea and TMAO.
A) RBCs have an average life span of 120 days
A healthy man has 12-16 gms of 169) Choose the incorrect match.
B)
haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood
A) Tadpole of frog : Ammonotelic
Leucocytes are colourless due to lack of
C) B) Horse : Ureotelic
haemoglobin
D) Plasma with clotting factor is called serum C) Crow : Uricotelic
D) Land snails : Ureotelic
165) Graveyard of RBCs is –
170) In human kidneys, the cortex extends in
A) Liver B) Spleen between the medullary pyramids as renal
C) Bone marrow D) Thymus columns called -

166) Select the incorrect match. A) Ducts of Bellini

B) Columns of Bertini
A) Globulins : Defence mechanisms of body
C) Renal pelvis
B) Albumins : Help in osmotic balance
D) Hilum
Serotonin : Involved in anti-inflammatory
C)
reactions 171) Renal corpuscle is -
D) Fibrinogens : For coagulation of blood
A) Glomerulus along with Malpighian tubules
167) Match column I and column II and choose Malpighian body along with convoluted
the correct option. B)
tubules
C) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule
Column I Column II
Bowman’s capsule along with convoluted
a. Protonephridia (i) Cockroach D)
tubules
b. Nephridia (ii) Earthworms
c. Green glands (iii) Prawns 172) Selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions occurs
Malpighian in -
d. (iv) Amphioxus
tubules
A) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) A) PCT and Henle’s loop
B) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) B) DCT and Henle’s loop
C) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) C) Collecting duct and DCT
D) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) D) Collecting duct and Henle’s loop
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 21

173) Incorrect match is - 175) Osmolarity gradient in the renal medullary

interstitium is mainly caused by -
Glomerulonephritis : Inflammation of
A)
glomeruli of kidney A) H+ and K+ ions
Renal calculi : Stones of oxalates within B) NaCl and H2O
B)
kidney C) NaCl and H2CO3–
C) Ketonuria : Ketone bodies in urine D) NaCl and urea
D) Glycosuria : High urea in blood
176) The amount of the filtrate formed by the
174) kidneys per minute is -

A) 180 litres
B) 125 ml
C) 1.5 litres
D) 1100-1200 ml

177) Cortical nephrons differ from

juxtaglomerular nephrons in all of the following,
except

A) Their number
B) Size of loop of Henle
C) Absence of vasa recta
Presence of peritubular
D)
The given flow chart represents feedback capillaries
mechanism that regulates kidney function.
Select the option that represents A, B, C and D 178) Even in the presence of ADH, maximum
correctly. reabsorption of water occurs in -

A B C D A) Distal convoluted tubule

(1) Fall Rennin ANF Rise B) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Rise Aldosterone ADH Fall C) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(3) Fall Renin Aldosterone Rise D) Collecting duct
(4) Rise ANF Renin Fall
179) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
A) (1) micturition.
B) (2)
A) It is under voluntary control
C) (3)
B) Signal is initiated by stretching of ureters
D) (4)
CNS passes on motor messages to initiate
C)
smooth muscle contraction of bladder
Relaxation of urethral sphincter causes
D)
micturition
 AIATS (ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES) - 03 22

180) Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to

accumulation of urea in blood, a condition
called-

A) Uremia
B) Polyurea
C) Haematuria
D) Pyuria






























Edition: 2020-21