PHYSICS

YSIC

SECTION-A

1. From a balloon rising vertically upwards as 5 ms −1 a stone is thrown up at 10 ms−1 relative to

the balloon. Its velocity with respect to ground after 2 s is
(assume g = 10 ms−2 )
a) Zero b) 5ms −1
c) 10 ms −1 d) 20 ms−1

2. From a balloon rising vertically upwards as 5 ms −1 a stone is thrown up at 10 ms−1 relative to

the balloon. Its velocity with respect to ground after 2 s is
(assume g = 10 ms−2 )
a) Zero b) 5ms −1
c) 10 ms−1 d) 20 ms−1

3. A person travels along a straight road for the first half time with a velocity 𝑣1 and the next half
time with a velocity 𝑣2
The mean velocity 𝑉 of the man is
2 1 1 𝑣1 + 𝑣2
a) = + b) 𝑉 =
𝑉 𝑣1 𝑣2 2
𝑣1
c) 𝑉 = √𝑣1 𝑣2 d) 𝑉 = √
𝑣2

4. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius 𝑅 in 40 𝑠𝑒𝑐. What will be his
displacement at the end of 2 min. 20 𝑠𝑒𝑐
a) Zero b) 2𝑅
c) 2𝜋𝑅 d) 7𝜋𝑅

5. When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity 𝑉0 , it reaches a maximum height of ′ℎ′. If one
wishes to triple the maximum height then the ball should be thrown with velocity
a) √3𝑉0 b) 3𝑉0
c) 9𝑉0 d) 3/2𝑉0
6. Given ⃗A = 4î + 6ĵ and ⃗B = 2î + 3ĵ. Which of the following is correct?
a) ⃗A × ⃗B = ⃗0 b) ⃗A ∙ ⃗B = 24
⃗| 1
|A
c) = d) ⃗A and ⃗B are anti-parallel
⃗| 2
|B

7. Radius of the curved road on national highway is 𝑅. Width of the road is 𝑏. The outer edge of the
road is raised by ℎ with respect to inner edge so that a car with velocity 𝑣 can pass safe over it. The
value of ℎ is
𝑣2 𝑏 𝑣
a) b)
𝑅𝑔 𝑅𝑔𝑏
2
𝑣 𝑅 𝑣2 𝑏
c) d)
𝑔 𝑅

8. A car is moving along a straight horizontal road with a speed𝑣0 . If the coefficient of friction between
tyres and the road is 𝜇, the shortest distance in which the car can be stopped is
𝑣2 𝑣0
a) 0 b)
2𝜇𝑔 𝜇𝑔
𝑣0 2 𝑣0
c) ( ) d)
𝜇𝑔 𝜇

9. A body is moving in a circular path with acceleration 𝑎. If its velocity gets doubled, find the ratio
of acceleration after and before the change
1
a) 1 ∶ 4 b) : 2
4
c) 2 ∶ 1 d) 4 ∶ 1

10. A particle of mass 𝑚 moves with constant speed along a circular path of radius 𝑟 under the
action of force 𝐹. Its speed is
√𝐹𝑟/𝑚 b) √𝐹/𝑟
√𝐹 𝑚 𝑟 d) √𝐹/𝑚𝑟

11. A bob of mass 10 𝑘𝑔 is attached to wire 0.3 𝑚 long. Its breaking stress is 4.8 × 107 𝑁/𝑚2 . The
area of cross section of the wire is 10−6 𝑚 2 . The maximum angular velocity with which it can be
rotated in a horizontal circle
a) 8 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠𝑒𝑐 b) 4 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠𝑒𝑐
c) 2 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠𝑒𝑐 d) 1 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠𝑒𝑐

12. Assertion: Even though net external force on a body is zero, momentum need not to conserved.

Reason: The internal interaction between particles of a body cancels out momentum of each other.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

13. Three blocks of masses 𝑚1 , 𝑚2 and 𝑚3 are placed on a horizontal frictionless surface. A force of
40 N pulls the system then calculate the value of 𝑇, if 𝑚1 = 10 kg, 𝑚2 = 6 kg, 𝑚3 = 4 kg

a) 40 N b) 20 N
c) 10 N d) 5 N

14. If rope of lift breaks suddenly, the tension exerted by the surface of lift
(𝑎 = acceleration of lift)
a) 𝑚𝑔 b) 𝑚(𝑔 + 𝑎)
c) 𝑚(𝑔 − 𝑎) d) 0

15. A lift of mass 1000 𝑘𝑔 is moving with an acceleration of 1 𝑚/𝑠 2 in upward direction. Tension
developed in the string, which is connected to the lift is (𝑔 = 9.8 𝑚/𝑠 2 )
a) 9,800 𝑁 b) 10,000 𝑁
c) 10, 800 𝑁 d) 11, 000 𝑁

16. A satellite in force-free space sweeps stationary interplanetary dust at a rate 𝑑𝑀/𝑑𝑡 = 𝛼𝑣
where 𝑀 is the mass, 𝑣 is the velocity of the satellite and 𝛼 is a constant. What is the deacceleration
of the satellite
a) −2𝛼𝑣 2 /𝑀 b) −𝛼𝑣 2 /𝑀
2
c) +𝛼𝑣 /𝑀 d) −𝛼𝑣 2

17. A packet of weight 𝑤 is dropped with the help of a parachute and on striking the ground comes
to rest with retardation equal to twice the acceleration due to gravity. What is the force exerted on
the ground?
a) 𝑤 b) 2 𝑤
c) 3 𝑤 d) 4 𝑤

18. A body is projected at an angle θ with respect to horizontal direction with velocity 𝑢. The
maximum range of the body is
𝑢2 sin 2θ 𝑢2 sin2 θ
a) 𝑅 = b) 𝑅 =
𝑔 2𝑔
 𝑢2
c) 𝑅 = d) 𝑅 = 𝑢2 sin θ
𝑔

19. If ⃗A + ⃗B = ⃗C and 𝐴 = √3, 𝐵 = √3 and 𝐶 = 3, then the angle between ⃗A 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ⃗B is

a) 0° b) 30°
c) 60° d) 90°

20. A wheel rotates with a constant angular velocity of 300 rpm. The angle through which the wheel
rotates in one second is
a) 𝜋 rad b) 5 𝜋 rad
c) 10 𝜋 rad d) 20 𝜋 rad

21. For a projectile, the ratio of maximum height reached to the square of flight time is (𝑔 =
10 𝑚𝑠 −2 )
a) 5 ∶ 4 b) 5 ∶ 2
c) 5 ∶ 1 d) 10 ∶ 1

22. A projectile is given an initial velocity of 𝐢̂ + 2𝐣̂. The cartesian equation of its path is (g =
10 ms−2 )
a) 𝑦 = 𝑥 − 5𝑥 2 b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 5𝑥 2
c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 15𝑥 2 d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 25 𝑥 2

⃗ = 4î − 2ĵ + 6k̂ and Q

23. If P ⃗⃗ = î − 2ĵ − 3k̂, then the angle which P
⃗ +Q
⃗⃗ makes with 𝑥-axis is
3 4
a) cos −1 ( ) b) cos −1 ( )
√50 √50
5 12
c) cos −1 ( ) d) cos −1 ( )
√50 √50

24. Time taken by an object falling from rest to cover the height of ℎ1 and ℎ2 is respectively 𝑡1 and
𝑡2 then the ratio of 𝑡1 to 𝑡2 is
a) ℎ1 : ℎ2 b) √ℎ1 : √ℎ2
c) ℎ1 : 2ℎ2 d) 2ℎ1 : ℎ2

25. A bullet is fired horizontally with a velocity of 80 ms−1 . During the first second,
80
a) It falls 9.8 m b) It falls m
9.8
c) It does not fall at all d) It falls 4.9 m

26. A point mass 𝑚 is suspended from a light thread of length 𝑙, fixed at𝑂, is whirled in a horizontal
circle at constant speed as shown. From your point of view, stationary with respect to the mass, the
forces on the mass are
 O

a) T b) T

W
W
T T

c) d)
F F
F

W
W

27. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius 𝑟 with uniform velocity 𝑣. The change in velocity
when the particle moves from 𝑃 to 𝑄 is (∠𝑃𝑂𝑄 = 40°)
p
r

O  = 40° v

v
a) 2𝑣 cos 40° b) 2𝑣 sin 40°
c) 2𝑣 sin 20° d) 2𝑣 cos 20°

28. The 𝑥 − 𝑡 graph shown in the figure represents

Displacement

t1

Time
a) Constant velocity b) Velocity of the body is continuously changing
c) Instantaneous velocity The body travels with constant speed upto time
d)
𝑡1 and then stops
29. A body starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration. The ratio of distance covered in
the 𝑛th second to the distance covered in 𝑛 second is
2 1 1 1
a) − 2 b) 2 −
𝑛 𝑛 𝑛 𝑛
2 1 2 1
c) 2 − d) + 2
𝑛 𝑛 𝑛 𝑛

30. Assertion: A body is moving along a circle with a constant speed. Its angular momentum about

the centre of the circle remains constant.

Reason: In this situation, a constant non-zero torque acts on the body.

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

31. The graph between the angular momentum 𝐿 and angular velocity 𝜔 will be
a) L b) L

 
c) L
d) L

 

32. If the angular momentum of a rotating body about a fixed axis is increased by 10%. Its kinetic
energy will be increased by
a) 10% b) 20%
c) 21% d) 5%

33. Velocity-time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg moving in a straight line is as shown in figure.
Work done by all forces on the particle is
a) 400 J b) −400 J
c) −200 J d) 200 J

34. A particle is released from a height 𝑆. At certain height its kinetic energy is three times its
potential energy. The height and speed of the particle at that instant are respectively
𝑆 3𝑔𝑆
a) , b) 𝑆 , √3𝑔𝑆
4 2 4 2
𝑆
c) , √3𝑔𝑆 d) 𝑆 . √3𝑔𝑆
2 2 4 2

35. A force 𝐹 = 𝐴𝑦 2 + 𝐵𝑦 + 𝐶 acts on a body in the 𝑦-direction. The work done by this force during
a displacement from 𝑦 = −𝑎 to 𝑦 = 𝑎 is
2𝐴𝑎 3 2𝐴𝑎3
a) b) + 2𝐶𝑎
3 3
2𝐴𝑎 3 𝐵𝑎2 d) None of these
c) + + 𝐶𝑎
3 2

PHYSIC

SECTION-B

36. A body at rest breaks into two pieces with unequal mass
a) Both of them have equal speeds b) Both of them move along a same line with
unequal speeds
c) Sum of their momentum is non zero d) They move along different lines with different
speeds

37. A mass of 100 𝑔 strikes the wall with speed 5 𝑚/𝑠 at an angle as shown in figure and it
rebounds with the same speed. If the contact time is 2 × 10−3 sec, what is the force applied on the
mass by the wall
 60°

60°

100 g
a) 250√3 𝑁 to right b) 250 𝑁 to right
c) 250√3 𝑁 to left d) 250 𝑁 to left

38. In the given curved road, if particle is released from 𝐴 then

a) Kinetic energy at 𝐵 must be 𝑚gℎ b) Kinetic energy at 𝐵 may be zero

c) Kinetic energy at 𝐵 must be less than 𝑚gℎ d) Kinetic energy at 𝐵 must not be equal to zero

39. Force 𝐹 on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance 𝑑 as shown in the figure. The
work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 𝑚

a) 13 𝐽 b) 18 𝐽
26 𝐽
c) 21 𝐽 d)
40. A uniform rod 𝐴𝐵 of length 𝑙 and mass 𝑚 is free to rotate about point 𝐴. The rod is released from rest
𝑚𝑙 2
in horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the rod about 𝐴 is 3
the initial angular
acceleration of the rod will be

2𝑔 𝑙
a) b) 𝑚𝑔
3𝑙 2
3 3𝑔
c) 𝑔𝑙 d)
2 2𝑙

41. The moment of inertia of a circular disc about an axis passing through the circumference
perpendicular to the plane of the disc is
 3
a) 𝑀𝑅2 b) 𝑀𝑅2
2
𝑀𝑅2 4
c) d) 𝑀𝑅2
2 3

42. In the given figure the pulley is assumed massless and frictionless. If the friction force on the
object of mass 𝑚 is 𝑓, then its acceleration in terms of the force 𝐹 will be equal to

𝐹
a) (𝐹 − 𝑓)/𝑚 b) ( − 𝑓) /𝑚
2
c) 𝐹/𝑚 d) None of these

43. Two blocks of equal masses 𝑚 are released from the top of a smooth fixed wedge as shown in

the figure. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the two blocks is
𝑔
a) 𝑔 b)
2
3𝑔 𝑔
c) d)
4 √2

44. A body moving with a uniform acceleration crosses a distance of 65 m in the 5th second and 105
m in 9th second. How far will it go in 20 s?
a) 2040 m b) 240 m
c) 2400 m d) 2004 m

45. Which of the following graphs cannot possibly represent one dimensional motion of a particle
a) I and II b) II and III
c) II and IV d) All four
 BIOLOGY SECTION (90 QUESTIONS
1. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus.

(A) Mangifera indica Linn. (B) Mangifera indica (C) Mangifera Indica (D) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.

2. Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN?

(A) Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters

(B) Hand written scientific name should be underlined

(C) Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet

(D) Scientific names are in Latin and should be italized

3. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the
rules of nomenclature?

(A) The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet.
(B) The names are written in Latin and are italicised.

(C) When written by hand, the names are to be underlined.

(D) Biological names can be written in any language

4. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to
the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described?

(A) Musca domestica—The common house lizard, a reptile

(B) Plasmodium falciparum—A protozoan pathogen, causing the most serious type of malaria

(C) Felis tigris—The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests

(D) E.coli—Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine

5. ICBN stands for:

(A) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature

(B) International Congress of Biological Names

(C) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature

(D) Indian Congress of Biological Names

6. Biosystematics aims at:

(A) the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters

(B) delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships

(C) the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny
on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies

(D) identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics

7. What is true for individuals of same species?

(A) Live in same niche (B) Live in same habitat (C) Interbreeding (D) Live in different habitat

8. The book ' Genera Plantarum' was written by:

(A) Engler and Prantl (B) Bentham and Hooker (C) Bessey (D) Hutchinson.

9. Linnaeus is credited with:

(A) binomial nomenclature (B) theory of biogenesis (C) discovery of microscope (D) discovery of blood
circulation.

10. Which among the following is not a prokaryote?

(A) Nostoc (B) Mycobacterium (C) Saccharomyces (D) Oscillatoria

11. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall,
pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?

(A) Bacillus (B) Pseudomonas (C) Mycoplasma (D) Nostoc

12. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?

(A) Archaebacteria (B) Eubacteria (C) Cyanobacteria (D) Mycobacteria

13. Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?

(A) Cell wall (B) Nuclear membrane (C) Plasma membrane (D) Glycocalyx

14. Methanogens belong to:

(A) eubacteria (B) archaebacteria (C) dinoflagellates (D) slime moulds.

15. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in:

(A) cell membrane structure (B) mode of nutrition (C) cell shape (D)

16. Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are:

(A) heterocysts (B) basal bodies (C) pneumatophores (D) chromatophores.

17. Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?

(A) Archaebacteria (B) Eubacteria (C) Blue-green algae (D) Saprophytic fungi
 18. Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc are:

(A) heterocysts (B) hormogonia (C) nodules (D) akinetes.

19. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cells is:

(A) nucleus (B) ribosomes (C) cell wall (D) plasma membrane.

20. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in:

(A) Saccharomyces (B) Streptococcus (C) Chlamydomonas (D) Plasmodium.

21. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH = 2) habitats belong to the two
groups called:

(A) eubacteria and archaea (B) cyanobacteria and diatoms (C) protists and mosses (D) liverworts and
yeasts.

22. Select the correct combination of the statements (I-IV) regarding the characteristics of certain
organisms.

(I) Methanogens are Archaebacteria, which produce methane in marshy areas.

(II) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green algae, which fixes atmospheric nitrogen.

(III)Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose from glucose.

(IV)Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen.

Options: (A) (II), (III)

(B) (I), (II), (III)

(C) (II), (III), (IV)

(D) (I), (II), (IV)

23. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in:

(A) using pseudopodia for capturing prey (B) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water

(C) using flagella for locomotion (D) having two types of nuclei.

24. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?

(A) Cyanobacteria (B) Diatoms (C) Dinoflagellates (D) Euglenoids

25. Chrysophytes, euglenoids, dinoflagellates and slime moulds are included in the Kingdom:

(A) Protista (B) Fungi (C) Animalia (D) Monera.

26. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in:

(A) Agaricus (B) Alternaria (C) Neurospora (D) Saccharomyces

27. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is:

(A) peptidoglycan (B) cellulose (C) hemicellulose (D) chitin.

28. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?

(A) They are eukaryotic. (B) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall.

(C) They are heterotrophic. (D) They are both unicellular and multicellular.

29. Which one of the following statement is wrong?

(A) Golden algae are also called desmids.

(B) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.

(C) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.

(D) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae.

30. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to:

(A) deuteromycetes (B) basidiomycetes (C) phycomycetes (D) ascomycetes.

31. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) Viruses are obligate parasites. (B) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat. (C) Prions
consist of abnormally folded proteins. (D) Viroids lack a protein coat.

32. Viroids differ from viruses in having:

(A) DNA molecules with protein coat

(B) DNA molecules without protein coat

(C) RNA molecules with protein coat (D) RNA molecules without protein coat.

33. The causative agent of mad cow disease:

(A) virus (B) bacterium (C) prion (D) worm.

34. Viruses that infect bacteria multiply and cause their lysis, are called:

(A) lysozymes (B) lipolytic (C) lytic (D) lysogenic.

35. Viruses are no more "alive" than isolated chromosomes because:

(A) they require both RNA and DNA

(B) they both need food molecules

(C) they both require oxygen for respiration

(D) both require the environment of a cell to replicate.

36. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct?

(A) Viruses possess their own metabolic system.

(B) All viruses contain both RNA and DNA.

(C) Viruses are obligate parasites.

(D) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid.

37. Organisms which are indicator of SO2 pollution of air:

(A) mossess (B) lichens (C) mushrooms (D) puffballs.

38. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they:

(A) show association between algae and fungi (B) grow faster than others

(C) are sensitive to SO2

(D) flourish in SO2 rich environment.

39. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.

Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

40. A protoplast is a cell:

(A) without plasma membrane (B) without nucleus (C) undergoing division (D) without cell wall

41. Identify the correct order of organization of genetic material from largest to smallest:

(A) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene

(B) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide

(C) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene

(D) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide

42. A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of electron microscope.
This is because:

(A) the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons
which has wavelength much longer than that of photons

(B) the resolution power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope
(C) the resolving power of the electron microscope 200-350 nm as compared to 0.1 - 0.2 nm for the light
microscope

(D) electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin sections.

43. Which of the following is incorrect about cyanobacteria?

(A) They are photoautotrophs. (B) They lack heterocysts.

(C) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies.

(D) They have chlorophyll-a similar to green plants.

44. Cell wall is absent in:

(A) Aspergillus (B) Funaria (C) Mycoplasma (D) Nostoc

45. The term ‘glycocalyx’ is used for:

(A) a layer surrounding the cell wall of bacteria (

B) a layer present between cell wall and membrane of bacteria

(C) cell wall of bacteria

(D) bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess N-glycosylated proteins

46. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas?

(A) Ribosomes (B) Chromosomal organization (C) Cell wall (D) Cell membrane

47. Middle lamella is mainly composed of:

(A) hemicellulose (B) muramic acid (C) calcium pectate (D) phosphoglycerides.

48. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(A) Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.

(B) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.

(C) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of
the cytoplasm.

(D) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus
and cytoplasm.
49. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosmes, the chromosome
is reffered as:

(A) Metacentric (B) Telocentric (C) Sub-metacentric (D) Acrocentric

50. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are:

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes

(B) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles

(C) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes

(D) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes.

51. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?

(A) These are involved in ingestion of food particles.

(B) They lie free in the cytoplasm.

(C) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.

(D) They are not bound by any membrane

52. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?

(A) Enzymes of electron transport chain are embedded in outer membrane.

(B) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.

(C) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.

(D) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

53. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH.

(B) Lysosomes are membrane bound structures.

(C) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.

(D) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes.

54. Which of the following cell organelles is present in the highest number in secretory cells?

(A) Mitochondria

(B) Golgi complex

(C) Endoplasmic reticulum

(D) Lysosomes
55. Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus are the site for active synthesis of:

(A) protein (B) mRNA (C) rRNA (D) tRNA.

56. Which one of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

(A) Cleavage of signal peptide (B) Protein glycosylation (C) Protein folding (D) Phospholipid synthesis

57. Which among the following is not a prokaryote?

(A) Nostoc (B) Mycobacterium (C) Saccharomyces (D) Oscillatoria

58. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to
form ATP?

(A) Lysosome (B) Ribosome (C) Chloroplast (D) Mitochondrion

59. Microtubules are the constituents of:

(A) spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia

(B) centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin

(C) centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles

(D) cilia, flagella and peroxisomes.

60. Mitochondria and chloroplast are:

(I) semi-autonomous organelles. (II) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA
but lack protein synthesizing machinery. Which one of the following option is correct?

(A) II is true but I is false. (B) I is true but II is false.

(C) Both I and II are false. (D) Both I and II are correct.

61. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:

(A) chlorophylls (B) carotenoids (C) anthocyanins (D) xanthophylls

462A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzyme is:

(A) lysosome (B) microsome (C) ribosome (D) mesosome

63. The structures that are formed by stacking of organised flattened membranous sacs in the
chloroplasts are:

(A) cristae (B) grana (C) stroma lamellae (D) stroma

64. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane:

(A) upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic. (B) polar layer is hydrophobic.

(C) phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in the middle part. (D) proteins form a middle layer
65. Ribosomes are produced in:

(A) nucleolus (B) cytoplasm (C) mitochondria (D) Golgi body

66. Microtubules are absent in:

(A) mitochondria (B) centriole (C) flagella (D) spindle fibres

67. The mechanism of ATP formation both in chloroplast and mitochondria is explained by:

(A) Relay Pump Theory of Godlewis (B) Clolodny-Went's Model

(C) Chemiosmotic Theory (D) Munch's Mass Flow Hypothesis

68. Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling proved the role of:

(A) cytoplasm in controlling differentiation (B) nucleus in heredity

(C) chromosomes in heredity (D) nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio

69. Polyribosomes are aggregates of:

(A) ribosomes and rRNA (B) only rRNA

(C) peroxisomes (D) several ribosomes held together by string of mRNA

70. Nucleoproteins are synthesised in:

(A) nucleoplasm (B) nuclear envelope (C) nucleolus (D) cytoplasm

71. A bivalent consists of:

(A) two chromatids and one centromere (B) two chromatids and two centromeres

(C) four chromatids and two centromeres (D) four chromatids and four centromeres

72. Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in:

(A) G1 phase (B) G2 phase (C) M phase (D) S phase

73. Match List I with List II: List I List II

(a) M Phase (i) Proteins are synthesized

(b) G2 Phase (ii) Inactive phase

(c) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication

(d) G1 Phase (iv) Equational division Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

74. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: During G0 phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.

Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase. In the light of the
above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

75. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?

(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 4 (D) 32

7 6. The centriole undergoes duplication during:

(A) S-phase (B) Prophase (C) Metaphase (D) G2 phase

77. Match the following (Columns) events that occur in their respective phases of cell cycle and select
the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

(a) G1-phase (i) Cell grows and organelle duplication

(b) S phase (ii) DNA replication and chromosome duplication

(c) G2 -phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth

(d) Metaphase in M-phase (iv) Alignment of chromosomes Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) [NEET Oct. 2020]

78. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent
stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of:

(A) G1-phase (B) S-phase (C) G2-phase (D) M-phase

79. Cells in G0 phase:

(A) enter the cell cycle (B) suspend the cell cycle (C) terminate the cell cycle (D) exit the cell cycle.

80. DNA replication in bacteria occurs:

(A) during S-phase (B) within nucleolus (C) prior to fission (D) just before transcription.

81. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in:

(A) S-phase (B) G1-phase (C) G2-phase (D) M-phase.

82. A somatic cell that has just completed the S-phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the
same species has:

(A) twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.

(B) same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA.

(C) twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA.

(D) four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.

83. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the inital amount
is denoted as 2C?

(A) G0 and G1 (B) G1 and S (C) Only G2 (D) G2 and M

84. In S-phase of the cell cycle:

(A) amount of DNA doubles in each cell. (B) amount of DNA remains same in each cell.

(C) chromosome number is increased. (D) amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell.

85. Attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochores of chromosomes becomes evident in:

(A) anaphase (B) telophase (C) prophase (D) metaphase.

86. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis
of animals cells. If APC is defective in human cells, which of the following is expected to occur? (A)
Chromosomes will not condense. (B) Chromosomes will be fragmented. (C) Chromosomes will not
segregate. (D) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur.

87. Which of the following options gives the correct sequences of events during mitosis?

(A) Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → crossing over → segregation → telophase

(B) Condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly → arrangement at equator → centromere division

→ segregation → telophase

(C) Condensation → crossing over → nuclear membrane disassembly → segregation → telophase

(D) Condensation → arrangement at equator → centromere division → segregation → telophase

88. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of mitosis in somatic cells?

(A) Disappearance of nucleolus (B) Chromosome movement (C) Synapsis (D) Spindle fibres

89. A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his
teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and
thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This
would result in:

(A) polyploidy (B) somaclonal variation (C) polyteny (D) aneuploidy.

90. Select the correct statements.

(I) Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.

(II) During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.

(III) Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.

(IV)Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.

(V) Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (I), (III) and (V) only

(B) (II) and (V) only

(C) (I) and (III) only

(D) (II) and (IV) only