Date : NEET GRAND TEST-1 TEST ID: 53

Time: 03 hrs
NEET FULL Marks : 720
PAPER

1. Dimensions of charge are 6 ms −1collides with a 30 kg ball initially at rest

a) 𝑀0 𝐿0 𝑇 −1 𝐴−1 b) 𝑀𝐿𝑇𝐴−1 .if both of them coalesce ,then final velocity of
c) 𝑇 −1 𝐴 d) 𝑇𝐴 the combined mass is
2. The unit of self-inductance is a) 6 𝑚𝑠 −1 b) 5 𝑚𝑠 −1
a) Weber ampere b) Weber −1 ampere c) 3.6 𝑚𝑠 −1 d) 2.4𝑚𝑠 −1
c) Ohm second d) Farad 9. A cylinder rolls down an inclined plane of
3. A body moves with initial velocity 10 𝑚𝑠 −1 . If inclination 30°, the acceleration of cylinder is
it covers a distance of 20𝑚 in 2𝑠, then a) g/3 b) g c) g/2 d) 2g/3
acceleration of the body is 10. Two discs of moment of inertia 𝐼1 and 𝐼2 and
a) Zero b) 10𝑚𝑠 −2 c) 5𝑚𝑠 −2 d) 2𝑚𝑠 −2 angular speeds 𝜔1 and 𝜔2 are rotating along
4. A stone thrown at an angle θ to the horizontal collinear axes passing through their centre of
a projectile makes an angle 𝜋/4 with the mass and perpendicular to their plane. If the
horizontal, then its initial velocity and angle of two are made to rotate combindly along the
projection are, respectively same axis the rotational 𝐾𝐸 of system will be
√2ℎ sin 𝜃 2√2ℎ sin θ 𝐼1 𝜔1 + 𝐼2 𝜔2 (𝐼 + 𝐼2 )(𝜔1 + 𝜔2 )2
a) b) a) b) 1
g g 2(𝐼1 + 𝐼2 ) 2
(𝐼1 𝜔1 + 𝐼2 𝜔2 )2 d) None of these
2ℎ 2ℎ c)
c) 2√ d) √ 2(𝐼1 + 𝐼2 )
g g
11. For a body lying on the equator to appear
5. ⃗ and B
If the resultant of A ⃗ makes angle 𝛼 with weightless, what should be the angular speed
⃗ and 𝛽 with B
A ⃗ then of the earth?(Take g = 10ms −2 ; radius of earth
a) 𝛼 < 𝛽 always = 6400 km)
b) 𝛼 < 𝛽, if 𝐴 < 𝐵 a) 0.125 rads−1 b) 1.25 rads−1
c) 𝛼 < 𝛽, if 𝐴 > 𝐵 c) 1.25 × 10 rads
−3 −1 d) 1.25 × 10−2 rads−1
d) 𝛼 < 𝛽, if 𝐴 = 𝐵 12. When a rubber cord is stretched, the change in
6. Mass of 3 kg descending vertically downward volume with respect to change in its linear
supports a mass of 2 kg by means the end of 5 dimensions is negligible. The Poisson’s ratio
s, the string breaks. How much higher the 2 kg for rubber is
mass will go further? a) 1 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 0.75

13. Water is moving with a speed of 5.18 ms −1

through a pipe with a cross-sectional area of
4.20 cm2 . The water gradually descend 9.66 m
as the pipe increase in area to 7.60 cm2 . The
a) 4.9 m b) 9.8 m c) 19.6 m d) 2.45 m speed of flow at the lower level is
7. A shell of rest at the origin explodes into three a) 3.0 ms−1 b) 5.7 ms−1
fragments of masses 1 kg, 2 kg and 𝑚 kg. The 1 c) 3.82 ms−1 d) 2.86 ms−1
kg and 2 kg pieces fly off with speed of 5 ms−1 14. A body of density 𝑑1 is counterpoised by 𝑀𝑔 of
along 𝑥-axis and 6 ms −1 along 𝑦-axis weights of density 𝑑2 in air of density 𝑑. Then
respectively. If the 𝑚 kg piece flies off with the true mass of the body is
speed of 6.5 ms−1 , the total mass of the shell 𝑑
a) 𝑀 b) 𝑀 (1 − )
must be 𝑑2
a) 4 kg b) 5 kg c) 3.5 kg d) 4.5 kg 𝑑 𝑀(1 − 𝑑/𝑑2 )
c) 𝑀 (1 − ) d)
8. A 20 kg ball moving with a velocity 𝑑1 (1 − 𝑑/𝑑1 )

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15. An experiment takes 10 min to raise c) 1000 Hz, 1m d) 1500 Hz, 1.5m
temperature of water from 0℃ and 100℃ 22. Two spheres of radii 𝑎 and 𝑏 respectively are
and another 55 min to convert it totally charged and joined by a wire. The ratio of
into steam by a stabilized heater. The electric field of the spheres is
a) 𝑎/𝑏 b) 𝑏/𝑎 c) 𝑎2 /𝑏 2 d) 𝑏 2 /𝑎2
latent heat of vaporization comes out to be
23. Which of the following plots represents the
a) 530 calg −1 b) 540 calg −1
variation of the electric field with distance
c) 550 calg −1 d) 560 calg −1
from the centre of a uniformly charged non-
16. In an adiabatic change, the pressure and conducting sphere of radius 𝑅?
temperature of monoatomic gas are related
with relation 𝑝 ∝ 𝑇 𝑐 ,where 𝐶 is equal to
a) 5 b) 5 c) 5 d) 3
4 3 2 5 a) b)
17. Which of the following is true in the case of an
adiabatic process, where 𝛾 = 𝐶𝑝 /𝐶𝑣 ?
a) 𝑝1−𝛾 𝑇 𝛾 = constant b) 𝑝𝛾 𝑇 1−𝛾 = constant
c) 𝑝𝑇 𝛾 = constant d) 𝑝𝛾 𝑇 = constant
18. Air inside a closed container is saturated
c) d)
with water vapour. The air pressure is 𝑝
and the saturated vapour pressure of
water is 𝑝̅ . If the mixture is compressed to
24. Two conducting sphere of radii r1and r2 are at
one half of its volume by maintaining
the same potential. The ratio of their charges is
temperature constant, the pressure
a) 𝑟12 / 𝑟22 b) 𝑟22 / 𝑟12 c) 𝑟1 / 𝑟2 d) 𝑟2 / 𝑟1
becomes
25. If in a voltaic cell, 5 g of zinc is consumed, we
a) 2(𝑝 + 𝑝̅ ) b) (2𝑝 + 𝑝̅ )
will get how many ampere hour (given that
c) (𝑝 + 𝑝̅ ⁄2 d) 𝑝 + 2𝑝̅ ECE of zinc is 3.38 × 10−7 kgC −1)
19. A particle of mass 𝑚 is hanging vertically by an a) 2.05 b) 8.2
ideal spring of force constant 𝐾. If the mas is c) 4.1 d) 5 × 3.338 × 10−7
made to oscillate vertically, its total energy is 26. A wire of resistance 𝑅 is elongated 𝑛 − fold to
a) Maximum at extreme position make a new uniform wire. The resistance of
b) Maximum at mean position new wire
c) Minimum at mean position a) 𝑛𝑅 b) 𝑛2 𝑅 c) 2𝑛𝑅 d) 2𝑛2 𝑅
d) Same at all position 27. What is the ratio of heat generated in 𝑅 and 2𝑅
20. A simple pendulum of length L and mass of bob
I
M is oscillating in a plane about a vertical line
between angular limits−ϕ and + ϕ. For an E
R
2R
angular displacement|θ| < 𝜙. the tension in
the string and the velocity of the bob are T and
𝑣 respectively. Which of the following relation
a) 2 :1 b) 1 :2 c) 4 :1 d) 1 :4
holds good under the above conditions?
28. A proton and an α-particle are projected
a) 𝑇 cos θ = 𝑀𝑔
normally into a magnetic field. What will be
b) 𝑇 − Mg cos θ = 𝑀𝑣 2 /𝐿
the ratio of radii of the trajectories of the
c) 𝑇 + Mg cos θ = 𝑀𝑣 2 /𝐿 proton and α-particle?
d) 𝑇 = 𝑀𝑔 cos θ a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 4 : 1 d) 1 : 4
21. A 1000 Hz sound wave in air strikes the 29. Tangent galvanometer measures
surface of a lake and penetrates into water. If a) Capacitance b) Current
speed of sound in water is 1500ms−1,the c) Resistance d) Potential difference
frequency and wavelength of waves in water 30. Water is
are a) Diamagnetic b) Paramagnetic
a) 1500 Hz, 1m b) 1000 Hz, 1.5m c) Ferromagnetic d) None of these
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31. A square loop of wire, side length 10 cm is a) 3.09 eV b) 1.42 eV c) 151 eV d) 1.68 eV
placed at angle of 45° with a magnetic field 40. In an atom, the two electrons move round the
that changes uniformly from 0.1 T to zero in nucleus in circular orbits of radii 𝑅 and 4𝑅.
0.7 s. The induced current in the loop (its The ratio of the times taken by them to
resistance is 1 Ω)is complete one revolution is
a) 1.0 mA b) 2.5 mA c) 3.5 mA d) 4.0 mA a) 1/4 b) 4/1 c) 8/1 d) 1/8
32. adsf 41. The decay constant of radium is 4.28 ×
a) 122 10−4 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟. Its half life will be
b) 3 a) 2000 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 b) 1240 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
c) 4 c) 63 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 d) 1620 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
d) 5 42. When a sample of solid lithium is placed in a
33. A coil of wire of certain radius has 100 turns flask of hydrogen gas then following reaction
and a self inductance of 15 mH. The self happened
inductance of a second similar coil of 500 turns 1 7 4 4
1𝐻 + 3 𝐿𝑖 → 2 𝐻𝑒 + 2 𝐻𝑒
will be This statement is
a) 75 mH
b) 375 mH
c) 15 mH H2
d) None of these Li

34. Velocity of Electromagnetic Waves in a

medium depends upon a) True
a) Thermal properties of medium b) False
b) Mechanical and electrical properties of c) May be true at a particular pressure
medium d) None of these
c) electrical and magnetic properties of the 43. In the presence of space charge in the diode
medium valve the plate current is 10mA at the plate
d) Mechanical and magnetic properties of the voltage 50V. Then the plate current at plate
medium voltage 200 V will be
35. At what distance from a convex lens of focal a) 20 mA b) 40 mA
length 30 cm, an object should be placed, so c) 80 mA d) None of these
1
that the size of the image be th of the object? 44. In an amplitude modulated wave for audio
2
a) 30 cm b) 60 cm c) 15 cm d) 90 cm frequency of 500 𝑐𝑦𝑐𝑙𝑒/𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑, the
36. An object is placed at a distance of 10𝑐𝑚 from appropriate carrier frequency will be
a convex lens of power 5𝐷. Find the position of a) 50 𝑐𝑦𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠/𝑠 b) 100 𝑐𝑦𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠/𝑠
the image c) 500 𝑐𝑦𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠/𝑠 d) 50,000 𝑐𝑦𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑠/𝑠
a) −20 𝑐𝑚 b) 30 𝑐𝑚 c) 20 𝑐𝑚 d) −30 𝑐𝑚 45. Which of the following is correct?
37. The idea of the quantum nature of light has a) A single geostationary satellite can cover the
emerged in an attempt to explain whole part of the earth for microwave
a) Interference communication
b) Diffraction b) Atleast three geostationary satellites in the
c) Radiation spectrum of a black body same orbit around earths can cover the
d) Polarization whole part of the earth for microwave
38. Positive rays were discovered by communication
a) Thomson b) Goldstein c) The first Indian communication satellite is
c) W. Crookes d) Rutherford Apple
39. The surface of a metal is illuminated with the d) The satellite communication is not like the
light of 400 nm. The kinetic energy of the line of sight microwave communication.
ejected photoelectrons was found to be 1.68 46. Number of atoms in 560 g of Fe
eV. The work function of the metal is (ℎ𝑐 = (atomic mass 56 g mol−1 ) is
1240 𝑒𝑉 − nm) a) Twice that of 70 g N b) Half that of 20 g H

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 c) Both are correct d) None of these c) Directly proportional to square of
47. 100 tons of 𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3 containing 20% impurities temperature
will give iron by reduction with 𝐻2 equal to d) Directly proportional to square root of
a) 112 tons b) 80 tons c) 160 tons d) 56 tons temperature
48. The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 54. A schematic plot of In 𝐾𝑒𝑞 𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑢𝑠 inverse of
13.6 eV. What will be the ionisation energy of temperature for a reaction is shown below
He+ ?
a) 13.6 eV b) 54.4 eV c) 122.4 eV d) Zero
49. An electronic transition in hydrogen atom
results in the formation of Hα line of hydrogen
in Lyman series, the energies associated with
the electron in each of the orbits involved in
the transition (in kcal mol−1 ) are
a) −313.6, −34.84 b) −313.6, −78.4
c) −78.4, −34.84 d) −78.4, −19.6 The reaction must be
50. In which of the following arrangements, the a) Exothermic
sequence is not strictly according to the b) Endothermic
property written against it? c) One with negligible enthalpy change
CO < 𝑆𝑖O2 < 𝑆𝑛O2 < 𝑃𝑏O2 : increasing d) Highly spontaneous at ordinary temperature
a) 2 55. Internal energy is
oxidising power
HF < 𝐻𝐶𝑙 < 𝐻𝐵𝑟 < 𝐻𝐼 : increasing acid a) Partly potential and partly kinetic
b) b) Totally kinetic
strength
NH3 > 𝑃H3 < 𝐴𝑠H3 < 𝑆𝑏H3 : increasing c) Totally potential
c) d) None of the above
basic strength
B < 𝐶 < 𝑂 < 𝑁 : increasing first ionisation 56. For the reaction,
d)
enthalpy 2HI(g) ⇌ H2 (g) + I2 (g) − Q kJ , the
51. In the anion HCOO− the two carbon-oxygen equilibrium constant depends upon
bonds are found to be of equal length. What is a) Temperature b) Pressure
the reason for it? c) Catalyst d) Volume
a) b) c) d) The 57. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?
anion is a) 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl
The
Electron obtained b) C + O2 → CO2
The C=O anion
ic orbits by c) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
bond is HCOO−
of removal d) Zn + H2 SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2
weaker has two
carbon of a 58. Which quantities are conserved in all
than the resonati
atom are proton oxidation-reduction reactions?
C−O ng
hybridis from the a) Charge only
bond structur
ed acid b) Mass only
es
molecul c) Both charge and mass
e d) Neither charge nor mass
52. The molecule having zero dipole moment is 59. Moist hydrogen peroxide cannot be dried over
a) CH2 Cl2 conc. H2 SO4 because
b) BF3 a) It can catch fire
c) NF3 b) It is reduced by H2 SO4
d) ClF3 c) It is oxidised by H2 SO4
53. The molecular velocity of any gas is d) It is decomposed by H2 SO4
a) Inversely proportional to the square root of 60. Complex forming tendency is more for
temperature a) Na+ b) K + c) Li+ d) Rb+
b) Inversely proportional to absolute 61. When sand is heated with hydrofluoric acid
temperature and a wet rod is brought in contact with

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 vapours evolving a white deposit is due to 0.216℃than that of the pure solvent, the
a) SiF4 b) SiF2 molecular weight of the substance is (molal
c) H4 SiO4 d) None of these elevation constant for the solvent is 2.16℃)
62. Suppose you have to determine the percentage a) 100 b) 102 c) 104 d) 1.02
of carbon dioxide in a sample of a gas available 70. Choose the correct statement.
in a container. Which is the best absorbing When concentration of a salt solution is
material for the carbon dioxide? increased
a) Heated copper oxide a) Boiling point increases while vapour
b) Cold, solid calcium chloride pressure decreases.
c) Cold, solid calcium hydroxide b) Boiling point decreases while vapour
d) Heated charcoal pressure increases.
63. Stability of which intermediate is not governed c) Freezing point decreases while vapour
by hyperconjugation? pressure increases.
a) Carbon cation b) Carbon anion d) Freezing point increases while vapour
c) Carbon free radical d) None of these pressure decreases.
64. The Markownikoff’s rule is the best 71. MnO− + −
4 + 8H + 5𝑒 → Mn
2+
+ 4H2 O; 𝐸°
applicable to the reaction between = 1.51 V
a) C2 H4 + HCl b) C3 H6 + Br2 MnO4 + 4H + + 2𝑒 − → Mn2++ 2H2 O; 𝐸°
c) C3 H6 + HBr d) C3 H8 + Cl2 = 1.23 V
°
65. The major product P in the following 𝐸MnO−4 |MnO2 is
reaction is a) 1.70 V b) 0.91 V
HI c) 1.37 V d) 0.548 V
CH3 − CH = CH2 → 𝑃 72. Rate of a reaction can be expressed by
peroxide
a) CH3 CH2 CH2 I Arrhenius equation as
CH3 − CH − CH3 𝑘 = 𝐴𝑒 −𝐸/𝑅𝑇
b) | In this equation, 𝐸 represents
a) The energy above which all the colliding
I
molecules will react
CH2 − CH = CH2
b) The energy below which colliding molecules
c) |
will not react
I The total energy of the reacting molecules at
CH2 − CH2 c)
a temperature, 𝑇
d) | | d) The fraction of molecules with energy
II greater than the activation energy of the
66. The total amount of oxygen (in ppm), reaction
consumed by a pollutant in a water sample is 73. For a gaseous reaction, the units of rate of rate
termed as of reaction are
a) Dissolved oxygen (DO) a) L atm s −1 b) atm s −1
b) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) c) atm mol s−1 −1 d) mol s−1
c) Chemical oxygen demand (COD) 74. Sulphur colloid is prepared by
d) None of the above a) Mechanical dispersion
67. In CsCl type structure the coordination b) Oxidation
number ofCs +and Cl− are c) Electrical dispersion
a) 6, 6 b) 6, 8 c) 8, 8 d) 8, 6 d) Reduction
68. The elements commonly used for making 75. Flux is used to remove
transistors are a) Acidic impurities
a) C and Si b) Ga and In b) Basic impurities
c) P and As d) Si and Ge c) All impurities from ores
69. If 0.15 g of a solute dissolved in 15 g of solvent d) From ores
is boiled at a temperature higher by 76. Calamine is

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 a) CaCO3 reaction is known as
b) MgCO3 a) Curtius b) Cope elimination
c) ZnCO3 c) Mannich reaction d) Hofmann
d) CaCO3 + CaO elimination
77. Which one is the strongest reducing agent? 86. Aliphatic nitriles are prepared by the
a) NH3 b) AsH3 c) SbH3 d) PH3 treatment of alkyl halides with
78. Identify the incorrect statement among the a) Sodium cyanide b) Sodium isocyanide
following c) Sodium isocyanate d) Cyanamide
𝑑-block elements show irregular and erratic 87. Fats, on alkaline hydrolysis, gives
a)
chemical properties among themselves. a) Oils b) Soaps
La and Lu have partially filled 𝑑-orbitals and c) Detergents d) Glycol+ acid
b)
no other partially filled orbital. 88. PVC is prepared by the polymerization of
c) The chemistry of various lanthanoids is very a) Ethylene b) 1-chloropropene
similar. c) Propene d) 1-chloroethene
d) 4𝑓 and 5𝑓-orbitals are equally shielded. 89. With increase in which of the following factors,
79. K Cr O → ∆
K CrO + O + 𝑋. In the above tensile strength of a polymer increases?
2 2 7 2 4 2
reaction 𝑋 is a) Crystallinity b) Melting point
a) CrO3 b) Cr2 O7 c) Cr2 O3 d) CrO5 c) Molecular weight d) All of these
80. Which of the following statements is correct? 90. Which of the following is not antiseptic drug?
InK 3 [Fe(CN)6 , the ligand has satisfied both a) Iodoform b) Dettol
a) primary and secondary valencies of ferric c) Lindane d) Gention violet
ion 91. Which one of the following is the feature of
In (Cu(NH3 )4 SO4 , the ligand has satisfied phylum-Chordata is also exhibited by adult
b) tunicate?
only the secondary valency of copper
In K 3 [Fe(CN)6 , the ligand has satisfied only a) Possession of visceral slits
c) b) Possession of a ventral chord
the secondary valency of ferric ion
d) Both (b) and (c) c) Possession of closed vascular system
81. 𝑅𝑋 + 𝐴 → 𝑅𝑁𝐶 d) Possession of ventral tubular nervous system
A is 92. Distinction of prokaryota and eukaryote is based
a) AgCN b) KCN c) NaCN d) HCN on
82. When phenolic ether is heated with HI, it yields a) Cell organelles only
a) Alkyl halide + aryl halide + water b) Chromosome only
c) Nucleus only
b) d) All of these
93. Family placed between
a) Genus and species b) Order and class
c) Alcohol +aryl halide
c) Class and genus d) Order and genus
d) None of the above
94. Multinucleated filament of 𝑅ℎ𝑖𝑧𝑜𝑝𝑢𝑠 is
83.
a) Coenocytic b) Conidia
c) Heterothallus d) Homothallus
95. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1-3 in
This reaction is called number and
a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction a) Can be either circular or linear, but never
b) Liebermann’s nitroso reaction both within the same cell
c) Dakin reaction b) Can be circular as well linear within the
d) Lederer -Manasse reaction same cell
84. The most acidic of the following is c) Are always circular
a) ClCH2 COOH b) C6 H5 COOH d) Are always linear
c) CD3 COOH d) CH3 CH2 COOH 96. Which of the following plants produces seeds
85. Amine oxide, when heated froms alkene. The but not flowers?

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 a) Maize b) Mint c) Peepal d) 𝑃𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑠
97. The unique feature of bryophytes compared to
other green plant group is that
a) They produce spores b) They lack vascular
tissue
c) They lack roots d) There sporophytes
is attached to the
gametophyte
98. The main nitrogenous waste of Hydra, is
a) Ammonia only b) Urea only
c) Uric acid only d) Both (a) and (c)
99. In earthworm, the characteristic internal
median fold of dorsal wall of the intestine
called typhlosole is present in
a) 5 to 9 segments b) 9 to 14 segments
c) 26 to 35 segments d) 15 to last segment
100. Which one is absent in frog?
a) Phrenic nerve b) Renal portal vein
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
101. Identify the order of plants showing alternate,
opposite and whorled phyllotaxy.
a) China rose, 𝐶𝑎𝑙𝑜𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑖𝑠 and 𝑁𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑢𝑚
b) China rose, 𝑁𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑢𝑚 and 𝐶𝑎𝑙𝑜𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑖𝑠
c) 𝑁𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑢𝑚, China rose and 𝐶𝑎𝑙𝑜𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑖𝑠
d) 𝑁𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑢𝑚, 𝐶𝑎𝑙𝑜𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑖𝑠 and China rose
102. Observe the given floral diagram and choose
the suitable floral formula from the followings
a)
b)
c)
d)
103. The most advanced family is
a) Cruciferae b) Cucurbitaceae
c) Compositae d) Euphorbiaceae
104. The triploid number of chromosomes of the
first taxon in 10 times more than the haploid
number of chromosomes of the second taxon,
while the diploid number of the third taxon is
six time more than the haploid number of the
fourth taxon. Which one of the following shows
the ascending order of the number of
chromosomes in their respective endosperm?
a) Oryza-Allium-Saccharum-Nicotiana
b) Allium-Oryza-Nicotiana-Saccharum
c) Nicotiana-Saccharum-Oryza-Allium
d) Saccharum-Oryza-Nicotiana-Allium
105. Complex tissues are
a) Made up of more than one kind of cells
b) Xylem and phloem
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
106. Examples for lateral meristems are
a) Phellogen and procambium
b) Fascicular cambium and procambium
c) Procambium and dermatogen
d) Fascicular cambium and cork cambium
107. You are required to draw blood from patient
and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of
blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also
provided with the following four types of test
tubes, which of them will you not use for the
purpose?
a) Test tube containing calcium bicarbonate
b) Chilled test tube
c) Test tube containing heparin
d) Test tube containing sodium oxalate
108. In female cockroach, the 7th sternum together
with the 8th and 9th sterna forms a
a) Collater b) Gonopor c) Genital d) Anal
al gland e pouch cercus
109. Ribosomes that occur exclusively in mitochondria
is
a) 70 S b) 55 S c) 30 S d) 50 S
110. Which of the following is a part of
endomembrane system of eukaryotic cell?
a) Peroxisomes b) Chloroplasts
c) Mitochondria d) Golgi complex
111. Pick the odd statement out
Removal of CO2 from b) All the biomolecules
amino acids converts have a turnover
a)
an amino acid into
an amine
c) Metabolic pathway d) Metabolic pathways
are termed as always follows a
transformation linear route
reactions
112. Which kinds of structures of proteins are
shown in the figures given below
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A = 1° structure, B = 2° structure, C = 3°
a)
structure, D = 4° structure
A = 4° structure, B = 2° structure, C = 3°
b)
structure, D = 1° structure
A = 1° structure, B = 4° sstructure, C = 3°
c)
structure, D = 2° structure
A = 4° structure, B = 3° structure, C = 2°
d)
structure, D = 1° structure
113. After the separation of centromeres during
mitosis, the chromatids move towards
opposite poles of the spindle. Name the term
used for these chromatids
a) Daughter b) Kinetochores
chromosomes
c) Half spindles d) Centrosomes
114. Recombination is involved in the process
of
a) Cytokinesis
b) Spindle formation
c) Crossing over
d) Chromosome duplication
115. Which of the following statements is/are
not true?
I.In CAM plants, stomata open during dark
and remain closed during the day.
II.Role of Na+ in stomatal opening is now
universally accepted.
III.The water potential of root cells is
higher than the water potential of soil.
IV.Capillarity theory is the most accepted
theory of water movement through plants.
V.The walls of xylem vessels made up of
lingo-cellulose have strong affinity for
water molecules.
a) II, III and V
b) II, III and IV
c) I, II and III
d) II and III
116. The water available to plants for
absorption is
a) Gravitational water
b) Hygroscopic water
c) Capillary water
d) Chemically bound water
117. Water potential of a solution is denoted by
a) ΨX b) ΨP
c) ∆Ψ d) Ψ𝑤
118. Which of the given options are correct for
hydroponics? Select the correct pair
I. Hydroponics technique is useful in areas
having infertile and dry soils
II. Hydroponics can regulate pH optimum for a
particular crop
III. It increases the labour cost
IV. It increases the problem of weeding
a) I and IV b) I and II c) I and III d) Only I
119. Fe can be taken by plants in the form of
a) Ferrous ion b) Ferrous sulphate
c) Ferric ions d) Either (a) or (c)
120. Which of the following elements are essential
for the photolysis of water?
a) Ca and CI
b) Mn and CI
c) Zn and I
d) Cu and Fe
121. Cyclic-photophosphorylation results in the
formation of
a) NADPH
b) ATP and NADPH
c) ATP, NADPH and oxygen
d) ATP
122. In which of the following reactions of
glycolysis, oxidation takes place?
a) Glucose 6-PO4 to fructose 6-PO4
b) Glyceraldehydes 3-phosphate to 1, 3-
diphosphoglycerate
c) 1,3-diphosphoglycerate to 3-
phosphoglycerate
d) 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoglycerate
123. RQ is always less than one in
a) Wheat b) Millets
c) Bean d) Castor
124. Member of auxin, which is widely used to kill
the dicotyledonous weed is
a) IAA b) IBA c) NAA d) 2-4-D
125. Which of the following movement in plants is
not related to change in auxin level?
a) Nyctinastic leaf movement
b) Movement of root towards soil
c) Movement of sunflower, tracking the
direction of sun
d) Movement of shoot towards light
126. Name the process when dedifferentiated cells
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 again loss the ability to divide and get mature? 133. Select the right option
a) Cell-enlargement b) Redifferentiation a) Nitrogenous excretory products are
c) Dedifferentiation d) Differentiation synthesised in kidney and eliminated in liver
127. Which one of the following elements is b) Nitrogenous excretory products are
essential for the life of animal and not for synthesised in kidney, and eliminated also
plants? c) Nitrogenous excretory products are
a) Calcium b) Iodine synthesised in liver, and eliminated via bile
c) Phosphorus d) Potassium juice
128. Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter, d) Nitrogenous excretory products are
red meat and eggs for a long period may lead synthesised in liver eliminated by kidney
to 134. A portion of uric acid is converted to urea and
a) Vitamin-A toxicity ammonia by intestinal
b) Kidney stones a) Urogenolysis b) Ureolysis
c) Hypercholesterolemia c) Uricolysis d) Ureotolysis
d) Urine laden with ketone bodies 135. Physiologically urea is produced by the action
129. Oxygen (O2 ) is utilised by an organism to of an enzyme
a) Directly breakdown the nutrient molecules a) Arginase b) Urease
b) Indirectly breakdown the nutrient molecules c) Uricase d) None of these
c) Obtain nourishment from the food 136. Study the following sentense .
d) Burn the organic compounds indirectly 1. The accumulation of pyruvic acid in the
130. Dissociation curve of haemoglobin is muscle causes fatigue
a) Sigmoid b) Parabolic 2. ATP is resynthesized in the muscle by
c) Straight line d) Hyperbolic the phosphorylation of ADP by a
131. Identify 𝐴 to 𝐹 in the given diagram of human phosphogen.
heart and choose the correct option 3. Cori and cori’s cycle occurs in the
muscles.
4. The phosphogen in the vertebrate
muscle is arginine phosphate.
The correct set of answers for
muscle contraction is
a) I and II b) II and IV
c) III and IV d) II and III
a) A-Vena cava, B-Right atrium, C-Left atrium, 137. Pick out the correct match.
D-Right ventricle, E-Left ventricle, F- a) Sternum-14 b) Pelvis-3
Interventricular septum c) Ribs-20 d) Face-5
b) A-Vena cava, B-Right atrium, C-Right 138. Where the saddle joints are presents in
ventricle, D-Left ventricle, E-Left auricle, F- humans?
Interventricular septum a) Between carpals and matacarpals
c) A-Vena cava, B-Right atrium, C-Right b) Atlas and axis
ventricle, D-Left atrium, E-Left ventricle, F- c) Radius and ulna
Interventricular septum d) Carpals and phallanges
d) A-Vena cava, B-Left atrium, C-Right 139. Sensation of stomach pain is due to
ventricle, D-Left ventricle, E-Right atrium, F- a) Interoceptors b) Exteroceptors
Interventricular septum c) Proprioceptors d) Teloceptors
132. The low pressure below the arterial 𝑝O2 results 140. Choose the odd pair out in the following.
in a) Areolar connective tissue-Collagen
a) Release of CO2 from the cell b) Epithelium-Keratin
b) Formation of haemoglobin c) Neuron-Melanin
c) Production of bicarbonate d) Muscle fibre-Actin
d) Formation of carbonic acid 141. A ten year old child, in whom anterior pituitary

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 function is deficient, is likely to 150. Process of delivery of the foetus is called
a) Develop acromegaly a) Parturition b) Implantation
b) Be short stature but have relatively normal c) Fertilization d) Lactation
body proportions 151. Fleshy folds of tissue which extends down the
c) Be in constant danger of becoming mons pubis and surrounds the vaginal opening
dehydrated is called
d) Have a high basal metabolic rate a) Labia minora
142. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly b) Labia majora
matched? c) Hymen
a) Glucagon - Beta cells (source) d) Clitoris
b) Somatostatin - Delta cells (source) 152. Indicators of the improved reproductive health
c) Corpus luteum - Relaxin (secretion) of the society are
d) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus a) Better detection and b) Improved medical
(disease) cure of STD facilities
143. A scion is grafted to stock. The quality of fruits c) Decreased maternal d) All of the above
produced will be determined by the genotype and infant morality
of: rates
a) Stock 153. In male sterilization …A… is cut and tied. This
b) Scion process is called ….B… .
c) Both stock and scion Fill correct option for A and B
d) Neither stock nor scion a) A-vas deferens; B- b) A-vas deferens; B-
144. Which of the following is wrongly matched tubectomy vasectomy
pair? c) A-vas efferentia; B- d) A-vas efferentia; B-
a) Tuber-Potato b) Rhizome-Ginger tubectomy vasectomy
c) Bulbil-Agave d) Leaf buds-Banana 154. XO type of sex determination is seen in
145. A scion is grafted to a stock. The quality of a) Man b) Grasshopper
fruits produced will be determined by the c) 𝐷𝑟𝑜𝑠𝑜𝑝ℎ𝑖𝑙𝑎 d) Birds
genotype of 155. Law based on fact that the characters don’t
a) Stock b) Scion show any blending and both the characters are
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) recovered as such in F2 -generation although
146. What would be the number of chromosomes of one character was absent in F1 -progeny, is
the aleurone cell of a plant with 42 a) Law of purity of b) Law of independent
chromosomes in its root tip cells? gametes assortment
a) 63 b) 84 c) 21 d) 42 c) Law of incomplete d) Law of dominance
147. Parthenogenesis is a type of dominance
a) Sexual reproduction 156. Which of the following is true regarding human
b) Asexual reproduction genetics?
c) Budding a) Most characters are b) Same characters are
d) Regeneration controlled by one controlled by more
148. Name the parts and organelles of the sperms gene then two genes
which are important in zygotes first cleavage, c) Same characters are d) All of the above
after syngamy not inherited
a) Neck b) c) d) according to
Neck Neck
and Neck Mendel’s law
and and
mitocho and tail 157. One strand of DNA (non-template) has base
centriole head
ndria sequence CAG, TCG, GAT. What will be the
149. Region outside the seminiferous tubules is sequence of bases in mRNA?
called a) AGC CTA CTA b) GTC AGC CTC
a) Inter b) c) d) c) CAG UCG GAU d) GAC TAG CTA
Inter Interstiti Blind
digital 158. RNA polymerase contains multiple polypeptide
space al space space
space units. For initiating RNA synthesis, it requires
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 a) σ − subunit b) α − subunit d) Penicillium notatum
c) ρ − factor d) spliceosome 167. The plant of Triticum aestivum is
159. Primitive man was originated during a) b) c) Tetraplo d) Hexaploi
Haploid Diploid
a) Miocene b) Holocene id d
c) Pleistocene d) Pliocene 168. Ability to absorb foreign DNA is:
160. Select the incorrect statements a) Sexduction b) Competence
I. Natural selection is essential for evolution c) Hfr d) Transduction
II. Natural selection do not include variations 169. Study the given diagram and identify the
III. Concept of natural selection was given by enzymes A and B involves in steps I and II
Hugo de Vries
IV. Mutation is the sudden inheritable change
V. Synthetic theory is also called Neo-
Darwinism theory of evolution
The correct combination is a
a) I, II and III b) II, III and IV
c) III, IV and V d) II and III
161. Which of the following vaccines are injected to
1 1 1
babies at age of 1 2 , 2 2 and 3 2 months?
a) DPT-Hib and polio
b) Polio and BCG Step I Step II
c) BCG and DPT-Hib a) Eco RI DNA ligase
d) BCG and hepatitis-B b) Alu I DNA ligase
162. The complexes formed during immune c) Hind II DNA polymerase
complex mediated hypersensitivity are d) Restriction endonuclease DNA polymerase
removed by 170. Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering
a) Eosinophils andTc cells became possible due to the discovery of
b) Monocytes and B-lymopocytes a) Restriction endonuclease
c) Eosinophils and monocytes b) DNA ligase
d) Eosinophils and basophils c) Transcriptase
163. Secondary lymphoid organs include d) Primase
a) Spleen b) Tonsils 171. Somaclonal variation is seen in
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these a) Tissue culture grown plants
164. Sugars extracted from sugarcane and sugar b) Apomicts
beet differ in: c) Polyploids
a) Taste d) Vegetatively propagated plants
b) Colour 172. Treatment of a genetic disorder by
c) C13 /C12 ratio manipulating genes is called
d) The one extracted from sugarcane is sucrose a) Gene therapy b) Gene replacement
is while from sugarbeet is fructose therapy
165. Breeding of crops with higher levels of c) Bone marrow d) Enzyme
vitamins and minerals or higher protein and transplantation replacement
healthier fats is called therapy
a) Plant breeding b) Biofortification 173. Ecologist say that niche is like a species …A…,
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Crop protection while habitat is like a …B… there A and B
166. Which of the following organisms is used in the indicate
production of beverages like wine, beer, a) A-education; B-occupation
whisky brandy or rum? b) A-appearance; B-physiology
a) Clostridium butylicum c) A-occupation; B-address
b) Aspergillus niger d) A-physiology; B-anatomy
c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae 174. The basic unit of study in ecology is

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 a) Population b) Organism 178. The least porous soil among the following is a
c) Community d) species a) Loamy soil b) Silty soil
175. The term ‘homeostasis’ in an ecosystem refers c) Clayey soil d) Peaty soil
to 179. The term ‘biomagnification’ refers to the
a) Feedback mechanism a) Growth of organisms due to food
b) Self regulatory mechanism consumption
c) Influence of production b) Increase in population size
d) State of equilibrium c) Blowing up of environmental issues by man
176. Green plants and green sulphur bacteria, d) Increasing in the concentration of non-
prepare their organic food themselves with the degradable pollutants as they pass through
help of sunlight, are known as food chain
a) Chemoautotrophs b) Photoautotrophs 180. Undesirable changes in soil profile, affecting its
c) Heterotrophs d) Chemotrophs productivity is called
177. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the a) Soil erosion b) Soil conservation
Parliament in the year c) Soil pollution d) Soil degradation
a) 1996 b) 1992 c) 2002 d) 2000

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