P4

4. Column -I gives certain physical terms

Section A (Physics) with flow of current through a metallic associated
Column II gives Some mathe conductor
matical relations
-

involving electrical quantities. Match

the Column -
I and Column -Il with
1. Find the value of the angle of emergence from relations.
appropriate
prism. Refractive index of the glass is v. Column-I Column-II
m
a A) Drift Velocity (P)
ne" p

(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q neua

(C) Relaxation Period R

60
S E
(D) Current Density (S)
(1) 90 OO
(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(). (C-(S). D)-P)
(2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-P), (D)-(Q)
60
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
30
(A)-(R). (B)-(P),. (C)-(S), D)-Q)
(3)
An inductor of inductance L,
a capacitor of
6.
(4) 45° resistance 'R' are
capacitance C and a resistor of
6 connected in series to an ac source of potential
difference 'V volts as shown in figure.
A lens of large focal length and large aperture is Potential difference across L, C and R
is 40 V,
best suited as an objective of an astronomical 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of
telescope since: current flowing through LCR series circuit is
is:
(1) a large aperture contributes to the quality 10/2 A., The impedance of the circuit
and visibility of the images.

a large area of the objective ensures better -40 V -

40 V -10 V
light gathering power.

(3) a large aperture provides a better resolution.

(4) all of the above. (1) 5Q

50 b ano +1600
Joo
+1600

pJ2
(2) n SoO
3. The equivalent capacitance of the conbination
5/20
shownin the figure is (4) 4 v60)
6. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric
C field E in the space between the plates. If the
distance between the plates is'd' and the area of
C each plate is 'A', the energy stored in the capacitor
is : (=permittivity of free space)

(1)
EAd
(1) 3C/2
(2)
(2) 3C
(3) EyEAd
3 2C

C/2
o Ad
4)
 3 P4
Polar molecules are the molecules: 11. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
having a permanent electric dipole moment. consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of
(2) having zero dipole moment cross-section and same material is 0.,25 0. What
will be the effective resistance if they are connected
(3) acquire a dipole moment only in the presence
of in serids?
electric field due to displacement of 40
charges.
(2) 0.25 N
(4) acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic
field is absent. (3) 0.59
(4) 10
Consider the following statements (A) and (B)
and 12. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the
identify the correct answer. 15 kg/s to operate a
rate of
turbine. The losses due
A zener diode is connected in to
(A) frictional force are 10% of the
when used as a voltage
reversebias, much power is generated by the turbine 2
input energy. How
regulator
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lie8
between 0.1 V to 0.3V.
g=10 m/2
(1) 7.0 kW mgh 5lo60

(1) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct. (2) 10.2 kW

(2) (A) and (B) both are correct. 8.11kW
(4) 12.3 kW
(3) (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
9 o

(A) is correct and (B) is incorrect. 18. A spring is stretched by 5 cm

by a force 10 N. The
time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg
A particle is released from height S from the is su_pended by it is:
surface of the Earth. Ata certain height its kinetic ( 0.628s
energy is three times its potential energy. The
0.0628 s 0 o 51o"
height from the surface of earth and the speed of
the particle at that instant are respectively (3) 6.28 8
d O O KK
(4) 3.14 s
(1) S 3gS
4' 2
E 3 U
=30m M
A body is executing simple harmonic
14 motion with
frequency'n', the frequency ofits potential
wm

CMm is energy
(2) 2 2
(1 4n 6 go0o
n / O d

3)
(3) 2n
4) 3n
(4)
6.28
2 15. An infinitely long
straight conductor carries a
current of 5 A as shown. An electron is
10. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '*' is with a speed of 10° m/s moving
incident on a photosensitive surface of parallel
The perpendicular distance
to the
conductor.
work function. If 'm mass is of negligible between the electron
photoelectron and the conductor is 20 cm at
an instant.
emitted from the surface has de-Broglie Calculate the magnitude of
a then: wavelength force
the experienced
by the electron at that instant.

(1)
2P
mc)
Electron v= 105 m/s
1.6p/oJo5bio

20 cm
2) (2m
hedp A P
1.6 P o
5A Q
3) A 2mc2 8x 10-20PN
(2) 4x 10-20 N
2me (3) 8TX 10-20 N
dd VomK
= 2
4TX 10-20 N

dmK 5 b l o C
 HCTbL
n L T - Z

P4
4
16.
Two charged spherical conductors of radius R, and 20. If E and G respectively denote
energy and
are connected by a wire. Then the ratio ot gravitational constant, then has the
surface charge densities of the spheres (,ld) 18 G dimensions
of

(1)
R (1) (M1[L-2IT-1)
M](L-'jITO]

(2) R R (3) (M][L-'IIT-')

R2
R2 O 4) [MJL°j IT°]

A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two

N

R1 21.
fragments each of mass number 120, the bindine
Vd-_RE
T
of unfragmented nuclei is
R energy per nucleon
7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The
4 )
VR2 total gain in the Binding Energy in the process
is

Va Y The electron concentration in ann-type 216 MeV

P a V a)
semicoductor is the same as hole concentration
0.9 MeV
in a p-type semiconductor. An external field
(electric) is applied across each of them. Compare
(3) 9.4 MeV
' t h e currents in them.
No current will flow in p-type, current will (4) 804MeV \ LO
only flow in n-type. M
field shown. In
dipole is placed in a n electric
as
(2) current in n-type = current in p-type. 22. A
which direction will it move?
(3) current in p-type > current in n-type.
o r b -

current in n-type > current in p-type.

L

18. The number of photons per second on an average

Semitted by the source of monochromatic light of
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
3.3x 103 watt will be : (h= 6.6 x 10-34 Js) b q
- MB
(1)
(2)
1015

1018
XploS»fo6hIS towards the right
increase. X
2 o

as
(15.2-3.5)

its potential energy will

(3) 1017
towards the left its potential energy will
(2) as

1016 increase.X
towards the right as its potential energy will
hours. decrease.
19. The half-life of a radioactive nuglide is 100
will remain
The fraction of original activity that towards the left as its potential energy will
after 150 hours would be:
(4)
decrease.
- 2

If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T]

are
T (1) 3/2 vchosen as the fundamental physical quantities.
(2) 1/2 (/o Find the dimensions of energy.

CT-21 22
o-2

- 10
(1)
(2)
[F][A-][IT]
JFI[A] [T]
3 [FI [A][T2] 8. 5
6o/o (o6 6
[F][A][T-1]
6 .
(4)
2 o9L

6D12

16
 P4
A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R carries A radioactive nucleus 7X
current 1 uniformly distributed across its
26. undergoes spontaneous
cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) decay in the sequence
due tothe cable with the distance'r from the axis
of the cable is represented by: x-1B7-3C2-2D, where 7 is the
atomic number of element X. The possible decay
parlcles in thesequence are:
B, a, p*
(2) a,B,B
(1) B (3) a, Bt.B
(4) B,a, B
27. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C int minutes,
when the room temperature is 20°C. The time
taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C
to 60°C ata room temperature same at 20°C is
(2) B . . 20
(1)
13
2
(2) 13
10

5
(3) B
10,
4) 13
28. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined
plane, starting from rest at timet= 0. Let S, be
the distance travelled by the block in the interval

B t=n-1 to t=n. Then, Sn

the ratio is
n+1
2n
(1)
25. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose
2n-1
95-2
the correct match from the given choices. 2n-1
(2)
Column-I Column- II
2n (o-10
2n-1
3
(A) Root mean square
speed of gas molecules
(P) nm2
3 2n+1 L13
2n+1
B) Pressure exerted ( 3 RT 4) 2n-1

by ideal gas
M
29. A capacitor of c acitance 'C, is connected across
an ac source of voltage V, A
(C) Average kinetic energy R) given by
ofa molecule V=V%sinaot
The displacement current between the plates
of
D) Total internal energy (S) kgT the capacitor, would then be given by :
of 1 mole of a (1) I=V, oCsinot
diatomic gas K (2) =Vg »Ccosut t 26

(1) (A)- (R), (B) - (Q), (C)- (P), (D) -(K (3) lacosut
(2) (A)- (R), (B) - (P), (C)- S), (D) - (QKK

(3) (A)- (Q), (B) - (R), (C)- (S), (D) - (P)

, (A)-(Q), (B)-(P). (C)- (S), (D)-(R)

4) asinwt
wC
 P4 6

30. 36. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and

na potentiometer circuit cell of EMF Vgives
a 1.5 densis
of wire. If another d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerin
balance point at 36 cm length
cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at becomes constant after some time. If the dengi
what length of the wire, the balance point peçyrs ? of glycerine is, then the viscous force
6 262 cm
acting o-
the ball will be
60 cm
(3) 21.6 cm 2 1 5 (1) 2Mg nVr
(4) 64 cm
5 -6o Mg
2 2
31. A SCrew gauge gives the following readhngawhen Mg
(3)
Ised to measure the diameter of a wire

Main scale reading :0 mm (4) Mg

Circular scale reading:62 divisions Section B (Physics)
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to
100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter| 36. A uniform rod oflength 200 cm and mass 500 gis
the above data is: balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A
ofthe wire from L
mm =
loo
l0oVS mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm
(1) 0.052 cm
and another unknown mass'm is suspended from
(2) 0.52 cm the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure
(3) 0.026 cm IVSD : 0 / 0 /m Find the value of 'm' such that the rod is in
(4) 0.26 cm equilibrium. (g=10m/s)
0 20 cm 40 cm 160 cm
32. For a plane, electromagnetic wave propagating in
combination
-direction, which one of the following
directions for electric
gives the correct possible
field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
2 kg m
(1)
A
j+k, - j+k O+52 p t
+3
(1)
+k, j+k, j+k 12

3) i+k, -i- (2) kg

2

+k -j-k
33. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v.
The escape velocity from the surface of another (4) kg
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth
and same mass density is: 87. From circular ring of m a s s M and radius 'R' an
a
4U arc corresponding to a 90° sector is
removed. The
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
(2) U

(3) 2u about an axis passing through the centre of the

3u 6 ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is

(4) K times MR2. Then the vaue of K is:

34. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a concave

lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the (1)
same axis with a distance 'd' between them. Ifa
parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves B' as a (2)
parallel beam, then the distance 'd'in cm will be :
(1) 30
25
(3)
(3) 15
(4) o
4) 50 VL
 P4
38. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and 41. T'wo conducting circular l0ops of radii R, and R.,
resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying are placed in the same plane with their centres
coinciding. If R,>>R2, the mutual inductance M
coil in the shape of,
between them will be directly proportional to:

(i) anequilateral triangle of side'a'.

i) a square of side 'a'. (1)

Ri
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each
case respectively are: (2) a
2
(1) 4 Ia and 3 la2
R2
3 la and 3 la2
3
R1 uot
c 3)220
(3) 3laand la2 (4)

(4) 3 Ia2and 4 la2 42. A is

particle of mass 'm' projected
with a
U=kV,(k <1) from the surface of the earth.
velocity
39 A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height Vescape velocity)
10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same
The maximum height above the surface reached
height. The magnitude of impulse imparted t o
the ball is (g= 10 m/s ) nearly by the particle is:
C
1.4 kg m/s
Rk2
(1) T (1)
1-k2
(2) 0 kg m/s
aP3 2
V U

4.2 4.2
kg m/s (2)

(4) 2.1 kg m/s

(3) Rk

40. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from

a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a
plane Rk
mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis (4) 1+k
of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the
final image would be formed at a distance of:
43. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at
220 V each. They combine to form a
bigger drop.
Caleulate the potential of the bigger drop.
1980 1980 V
O|OX|O
(2) 660 V = 2
2000
0
2

6 0 cm 4 0 cm- (3) 1320 V

*0 220
4)
1) 20 cm from the
plane mirror, it would be a
virtual image. 44. A step down transformer connected to an c mains
supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W
(2) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real
lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer,
image. what is the current in the primary circuit ?
e

(3) 30 from the lens, it would be 4A

cm a
real
image. 0.2A
(3) 0.4A
(4) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be á
virtual image. (4) 2A
6 0

3 0
z T )
P4 8
45. A series LCR circuit containing 6.0 H inductor,| 47. Three resistors having resistances r1 r2 and.
are connected as shown in the given circuit
80 P capacitor and 40 N resistor is connected to
230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular ratio of currents in terms of resistancCes
Th
frequencies of the source at which power Use
transferred to the circuit is half the power at the in the circuit is:
resonant angular frequency are likely to be:

(1) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s

B
(2) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s A ww
13
(3
(3) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s

(4) 46 rad/s and 64 rad/s (1) tr3

2502032
r2+T3
46. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What wouldz. 2
be the output at the terminaly? r2+T3

tA 5 (4) +2
A and accelerates at 5 m/s2
48. A car starts from rest
out of a window by a
At t 4 s, a ball is dropped
in the car. What is the velocity and
5 person sitting
B acceleration ofthe ball
at t =6s?
0 (Takgg= 10 m/s)
20V2 m/s, 10 m/s2 V z5 p

20
20 m/s, 5 m/s2
A rVUtaT
20/2m/s,0
49. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
revolution.
B If thisgprtícle w e r e projected with the same speed
the maximum
hATnAhgle ®' to the horizontal,
attained by it equals 4R. The angle of
eght
Fdjection, 6, is then given by:
R
n 7 sin2gT2 )
TR
ta 5 / TT

(1)
-oV R o - c o s T

TR
-5V
(2) OV Fcos R%

(3) 5 V
2
5V
(4) 0sin-TR
(4)
OV gT
 9 P4
50. In the product The structures of beryllium chloride in solid stater-
55.
and vapour phase, are:
F-qB)
(1) Chain in bot
=qxBi+BjB%k) Chain and dimer, respectively

For q= 1 and v =2i+1j+6k and

(1)

(2)
Gi+6j-8k

-8-8-6
F=4i -20j +12k
B-26B2ABo
What will be the complete expression for B ? 0812Bo (3)

O Choose
Linear in botHP

Dimer and Linear, respectively

the correct option for

of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different

mperatures:
graphical
representation of Boyle's law, which shows a graph

B 3 Bo

(3 -6i-6-8k

8i +8j-6k
P
4)
(1) 600 K
Section A (Chemistry)
400
200 K
51. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
formed in the following chemical reaction? Volume (V)
(dm)
Acetone )CHMgBr, dry Ether Product
(ii) H,0, H*
2-methyl butan-2-ol
2-methyl propan-2-o1
3) pentan-2-ol
(4) pentan-3-ol
200 K
52.Which of the following reactions is the
400 K-
metal dY 600 K-
displacement reaction? Choose the right option. -CM
1) 2Pb(NO,)2>2PbO+4NO,+0,T Volume(V)
(dm)
(2) 2KCI0 2KC1+30
J CrO+2Al Al0,+2Cr
(4) Fe+2HCI> FeCl2+ H,
53. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation (200 K, 400 K, 600 K
reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene.
This
product formation is based on?
(1)Huckel'e Rule
Saytzeffs Rule -ch-
Volume (V)
3) Hund's Rule (dm)
(4) Hofmann Rule
54. The pK of dimethylamine and pK, of acetic acid 24
0000K
are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
600
K
option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
solution is: 2502032 y . t 1 - 3 , 2h)
(1) 6.25
(2) .50
(3) 5.500 Volume (V)
7.75 (dm)
44 6 6 / 3. 2 7

5 0
 10
P4 62. Given below are two statements
methods can be used to
67. Which one ofthe followingwhich is liquid at room Statement I:
highly pure metal
obtain
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to tho .
emperature? narcotic analgesicX clak
Zone refining
(2) Electrolysis Statement II: X
Morphine and Heroin aré non-narcotic anale.
Chromatography
In the light of the above statements, chone.
lges
(4) Distillation
be achieved correct answer from the options given bel
58. temperature that
can
elow,
The maximum
in blast furnace is: (1)
Statement I is incorrect
Statement II is true.
(1) upto 6000 K
(2) Both StatementI and StatementI
upto 1200 K
(2) true.
upto 2200 K
upto 1900 K Both Statement I and Statement II,
(4)
their inertnes8
L

false.
Noble gases named because of
69. are
incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statemens.
reactivity. Identify
an
towards
is false.
statement about them.
values of
(1) Noble gases have large positive Which one among the following is the correct ons.
electron gain enthalpPy. 63.
for right relationship between Cp and Cy for
soluble in water.
(2) Noble gases a r e sparingly mole of ideal gas ?
and
Noble gases have very high melting
boiling points. (1) Cy=RCp
Noble gases have weak dispersion forces. (2)Cp+Cy=R
(4)
by dissolving Cp-Cy=R
60. The following solutions were prepared
in 250 ml of water (P^), 4) Cp=RCy
10g of glucose (CçH1206) and
in 250 ml of water (P2)
10g of urea (CH,N,0)
10 g of s u c r o s e (C12H22011)
in 250 ml of 64. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer ofetha
for the decreasing
water (P3). The right option
is
order of osmotic presSure of thesesalutions

()PgP >P2 120°

2 P2 >P1 > P3
3) 180
(3) P> P>Pa 4) 60
4) P2PaP1
61. The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dko4-ene Right option for the
number of tetrahedral a
65. unit c
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive
is
are

(1) 12, 6
3
(1) (2) 8,4
(3) 6, 12

(4) 2, 1

The incorrect statement among the followi

is
Actinoids are highly reactive metalk
(1)
especially when finely divided.
(3) M 2
(2) Actinoid contraction is greater for elemer
to element than Lanthanoid contractiop
Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions ar
colorless in the solid state.
(4) (4) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
electricity.
6O
M
 11 P4
Ror a reaction A-B, enthalpy of reaction is | 70. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon
67.
4.2 kJ mol and enthalpy of activation is and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right
9.6 kJ mol, The correct potential energy profile option for the empirical formula of this compound
i8 shown in option. is: [Atomic wt. of C is 12, Hi_
for the reaction
(1) CH
(2) CH
B (3) CH2 22
PE (4)
(1 A CH
Reaction Progress 71. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is:
(1) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor
atoms
Hexadentate ligand with four "" and two
"N" donor atoms
PE
(2) (3) Unidentate ligand

Reaction Progress 4) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms

72. Themolar conductance of NaCl. IC) and

QHCOONDat infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16
and 9T.0S cm2 mol- respectively. The molar
conductance of CH,COOH at infinite dilution is.
PE A Choose the right option for your answer.
B
1) 540.48 S cm mol-1
Reaction Progress
2) 201.28 S cm2 mol-l
16.1
390.71 Scm2 mol-1
4) 698.28 S cm2 mol-1
1
4) PEA B
73. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of Cxbernd
is

Reaction Progress (1) CH-Cl> CH-F> CH,- Br> CH3-I

(2 CH3-F<CH-Cl< CH3-Br<<CH-I
68. Which one of the following polymers is prepared CHg-F> CH-Cl> CH-Br> CH-I
by addition polymerisation? (4)
(4 CH-F< CH,-Cl> CH3-Br> CH-I
(1) Dacron
74 The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect
Teflon isexhibited by'", is:
(1) Urea solution
(3) Nylon-66
(2) NaCl solution
4) Novolac
(3) Glucose solution
(4) Starch solution
69 The compound which shows metamerism is
75. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of:
)CHi0o
(1) Vitamin B2
(2) CH12
2) Vitamin B12
(3) CH,o (3) Vitamin Bg
(4) CgH,O (4) Vitamin B
 P4 12
76. Match List - I with List - II. 80. Statement I:
List I List-II Acid strength increases in the order

(a) PCI, eV ) Square pyramidal

HF <<HCl << HBr << HI.
give
(b) (i) Trigonal planar Statement II:
SF6 As the size of the elements F, CI, Br, I
(c) BrF i (ii) Octahedral down the group, the bond strength of
in
H
d) BF A (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal HBr and HI decreases and so the acid
st.
Choose the correct answer from the options given increases.
below. In the light of the above statements,
correct answer from the options given
cho
(1) (a)-iv). (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-) bel elow
(1) Statement I is
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (C)-(), (d)-(i)
Statement II is true.
incorrect
(3) (a)-(i). (b-(Gi). ()-iv), (d)-6i)
Both Statement I and Statement .
(a)-ii), (b)-).(-iv).d)-) true.

The correct option for the number of body centred (3) Both Statement I and Statement I|.
77.
unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit false.
cells is Statement I is correct but
(4)
is false.
Statement
(1) 3

(2) 81. Zr (Z=40) and Hf(Z=72) have similar atomica

(3) 5 ionic radii because of
4) 2 (1) having similar chemical properties

(2) belonging to same group

78. BE is planar and electron deficient compound.
Hybridization and number of electrons around the (3) diagonal relationship
central atom, respectively are lanthanoid contraction

(1) sp and 8
sp and 4
82. Among the following alkaline earth metal halide
(2) one which is covalent and soluble in organ,
(3)sp3 and 6 solvents is
Asp? and 6 Beryllium chloride
(2) Calcium chloride
79. The major product of the following chemical
reaction is (3) Strontium chloride

(4) Magnesium chloride

CH3CH-Ch
CH3 CH-CH=CHa +HBr (CgH,CO),0,2 83. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg
reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.

(1) CH3.CBr-CH2-CH3 CH2 CH

CH3 (1) CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
(2) CH CH- CH2-Br
CH CH
CH3 cH (2) CH3 NO2
(3) CH-CH2-CH2-0-COCgH5
CH3
(3) CH
CH CH3
CH3
(4) CH-CH-CH3
CH3 Br CH3
 13
P4
84.
Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits
88. The reagent'R in the given
sequence of
which ofthe following particles? reaction is: chemical
Neutron (n)
(1)
NH NC
Beta (B") Br. Br
Br
NaNO,
H R
(3) Alpha (a) 0-6C

Br
Gamma (y)
(4)
() CuCN/KCN

85. Aparticular station of Al India Radio, New Delhi, (2)H,Op

hroadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation CH,CH,OH
4) HI
emitted by the transmitter is: [speed of light,.
C3.0x 108ms]
21.92 cmn
(1) 89. The
alope of Arrhenius Plot| Ink vls of first
(2)
219.3 m 3oo order reaction is -5x 10* K. The value
of E, of
219.2m 3 68lp Othe reaction is. Choose the correct option for
your
0 answer.
4) 2192 m
Given R=8.314 JK-1mol-lj n a i n A E a

Section B (Chemistry) T S6 (1) 8-83

3kJ mol-
The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid
T3 is 6 8
41.5 41.5kJ mol- 3
(3) 83.0 kJ mol-1 R b0/o

86.
20 S cm2 mol-, What is the dissociation (4) 166 kJ mol-1
constant of acetic acid? Choose the correct option.
90. Choose the correct option for the total
(in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g pressure
3 5 0 S cm mol- in a total volume H¡ confined
of one litre at 0°C is:
A coo60 S cm mol [GivenR0.082 Latm mol-'K-1,T=273 K]
(1) 26.02
(1) 2.50x 10-5 mol L-1 (2) 2.518 8 . 3 S

(2) 1.75x 10-4 mol L-1 3) 2.602

(4) 25.18
5 4 0

3) 2.50x 10d mol L-1

(4) 1.75x 10-5 mol L- 1 91. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in
nature?

87. In which of the (1) NO2

one following arrangements the
given sequence is not strictly according to the (2) POC
properties indicated against it?
(3) CHO
(1) CO, < Si0
Increasing 4) SbCls
<SnO<PbO, Oxidizing power
(2) HF < HCI 92. For irreversible expansion of an ideal
Increasing açidic gas under
<HBr < HI isothermal condition, the correct option is:
strength
(1) AU0, ASotal=0
(3 H0<HS Increasing pKa
<H,Se <H,Te values (2) AU=0, AStotal=0
4) NH, < PH (3) AU0, AStotal*0
Increasing
<AsH<SbH3 acidic character (4) AU=0, AStotal*0
 P4 14
93. The product formed, in the followine.
Match List - I with List - I1. 97.
reaction is:
lowing che
(a)
Lit-I List I I

(b)
FCN ) 5.92 BM

FH,O)3 ii) BM
(c) (ii) 4.90 BM
(d)
CH2-C-OCH
FéHO2+ (iv) 1.73 BM
NaBH ?
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. CH3 CaH,OH
(a)-(iv). (b)-i). (c)-(i), (d)-(i) 4 3db
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii). (c)-(), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i). (b)-(iv). (c)-6ii), (d)-) OH
(4) (a)-). b)-(ii), (O-(iv). (d)-(i)
CH--OCH,
94. From the following pairs of ions which one is not (1)
anjsó-electronic pair? CH3
Fe2+, Mn2+
(2) 02-, F-u
(3) Nat, Mg2+
(4) Mn2+, Fe3+ OH H
95. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure CH-C-OCH,
of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in () OH
molar ratio 3:2 is CH3
[At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is
280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg.
Assume Ideal gas]
(1) 350 mm of Hg
CH-CH2-OH
(2) 160 mm of Hg
(3) 168 mm of Hg (3)
(4) 336 mm of Hg CH3
Match List - I with List - II.
96.
List - I List-II OH
H
(a) coHCI CH2-C-CH
(i) Hell-Volhard-
Anhyd.AlCl/ ( (4) OH
Zelinsky reaction
CuCl
CH3

(i) Gattermann-Koch
(b) R-C-CH,+ reaction
NaOX
98. CH,CH,Coo-Nat
NaOH, +?CH,CH,+
Heat
(c) R-CH,-OH (iii) Haloform
+R'COOOH reaction Na, CO
identify the
Conc. HSO Consider the above reaction and
missing reagent/chemical.
(iv) Esterification
(d) RCH,COOHO
i) X/RedP (1) DIBAL-H
(i) H20
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) B,H
belw
(a)-i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) Red Phosphorus
(2) (a)-iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), b)-(íi), (c)-6), (d)-iv)
CaO
(4) (a)-6i), (b)-iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
 15 P4
Section - A (Blology : Botany)
Match List - I with List - II.
99.

List -II 101. Amensalism can be represented as:

List -I
(1) Species A(+);Species B (0)
2S0,(g)+O2(g)> (i) Acid rain Species A (-); Species B (0)
(a)
2S0,() (3) Species A (+); Species B (+)
Species A (-); Species B (-)
(ii) Smog (4)
(b HOCR)hu

OH+Cl w 102. When the centromere is situated in the middle of

two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome
(c) CaCO+HSO (ii) Qaome is referred as:
CaSO+H,0+CO2 dépBétion (1) Acrocentric

Metacentric
(d) NO,(g)hv_ (iv) Tropospheric
polution (3) Telocentric
NOg)+OR)
(4) Sub-metacentric
Choose the correct
answer from the options given
below. 108. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from
anthers of one plant tostigma of a different plant
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-i). (©)-Gv), (a)-() K which, during pollination, brings genetically
different types of pollen grains to.stigma, is
2)
d)-ti). ()-i),(d)-Gv
(1) Cleistogamny
(a)-(i), b)-Gi), ()-iv), (d)-(i) Xenogamy
(4) (a)-iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-0. (d)-(i) 3) Geitonogamy
(4) Chasmogamy
100. The intermediate compound X in the following 104. Match List -I with List - II.
chemical reaction is
List-I List II
)rimary constriction in
CH
(a)Cristae |chromosome
CS H
bThylakoids
(b) Thylakoidsii )isc-shaped sacs in
t )Golgi apparatus
|Infoldings in
(c)Centromere (i) mitochondria
CI
CH Flattened membranous
(1) H (d) Cisterna. (iv) 8acs in stroma of
3 plastids
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
CH(OCrOHCI)2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) ii) v)
(2) (iv) (qii) (i)
(3) iv) (i) ()
(3) CH(OCOCHJ2 (i) v)
105. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
Cl (1) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
CH Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(4) (3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
 P4 16
106. Which of the 110. Mutations in plant cells can be ind
statement?
following is an
incorreC (1) Zeatin nduced by
(1) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins Kinetin
(2)
and RNA molecules in both directions (3) Infrared rays
between nucleus and cytoplasm.
Gamma rays
Mature sieve tube elements possess a
conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic 111. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia prod.
organelles.
(3) Microbodies are present both in plant and kinds of spores. Such plants are known as
animal cells. M Heterosporous
(4) (2) Homosorus
The perinuclear space forms a barrier
between the materials present inside the (3) Heterosorus
nucleus and that of the cytoplasm. (4) Homosporous
107. Match List -
I with List -

II 112. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at

maturite:
ity ia
List -I T List - II
(1) 8-nucleate and 8-celled
More attraction in
(Cohesion ji
(liquid phase
8-nucleate and 7-celled
(3) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
Mutual attraction
bAdhesion e (i) among water (4) 7-nucleate and 7-celled
molecules 113. Match List - I with List - II.
loss in liquid
(c) Surface tension?liWater List - I List - II
phase
(cGuttation .Attraction towards Cells with active ce G)ascular
dGuttation v)polar surfaces (a)
division capacity tissues
Choose the correct answer from the options giveen Tissue having all cells Meristematic
(b)similar in structurg
below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) and function (1)tissue
(1) (i) iv) (ii) Tissue having (ii) Selereids
Ci) iv) (ii) different types of cells
Dead cells with highly
(3) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) Civ) (d) thickened walls and iv)Simple tissue
narrow lumen
108. Match List - I with List II. Select the correct answer from the options given
List - I below.
List -I
(a)Lenticels ) Phellogen (a) (b) (c) (d)
bCork cambium ) JSuberin deposition (1) i) i) v)
(c)Secondary cortex (ii) |Exchange of gases i) iv) (ii)
(d) Cork iv) Phelloderm (3) Civ) (ii) (i)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) (ii) (iv)
below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 114. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
(1) (iv) i) (ii) (1) Blue-green algae
(2) iv) (i)
(ii) ) (iv) (i) Greenalgae_
(3) Brown algae
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) )
4) Red algae
109. Plants follow different pathways in response to
environment or phases of life to form different 115. Which of the following plants is monoecious?
kinds of structures. This ability is called Cycas circinalis
(1)
(1) Maturity (2) Carica papaya
(2) Elasticity Chara
(3) Flexibility Marchantia polymorpha
(4)
Plasticity
502032
y 17 P4
116. Which of t h e following are not secondary| 124. Which of the following statements is not correct?
metabolites in plants? () Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
(1) Rubber. gums ecosystem is upright.
(2) Morphine, codeine (2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
Amino ncids. glucoae inverted.
Ace tw (4) Vinblastin, curcumnin Pyramid of biomas8 in sea is generally
. upright.
117. In the equation GPP - R = NPP
(4) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
R represents:
Respiration losses 126. Inepite of interapecific competition in nature,

(2 Radiant energy which mechanism the competing species might

Retardation factor have evolved for theirsurvival?
(3)
(4) Environment factor (1) Predation
ity i8 (2) Resource partitioning
118. Which of the following algae contains mannitol a s (3) Competitive release
reserve food material?
(4) Mutualism
(1) Ulothrix
Ectocarpus 126. Match List -I with List II. -

(3) Gracilaria List I List I I

Volvox
(4) (a) Protoplast fusion ()Totipotency
119. The site of perception of light in plants during b) Plant tissue cultureti) |Pomato
photoperiodism is: cMeristem culture (i) Somaclones
Leaf
(d |Micropropagation (iv) Virus free planta
(2) Shoot apex Choose the correct answer from the options given
3) Stem below.
(4) Axillary bud (a) (b) (c) (d)
found in: (1) (iv) (ii) (i) )
120. Diadelphous stamens are
China rose and citrus (2) (iii) iv) (i)
(1)
China rose () (iv) (ii)
(2)
Citrus (4) ii) iv) )
(3)
Pea 127. The production of gametes by the parents,
formation ofzygotes, the F and F2 plants, can be
en 121. Which of the following is not an application of PCR understood from a diagram called:
(Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
Detection of gene mutation (1) Net square
(1)
(2) Molecular diagmosis (2) Bullet square
Gene amplification 3) Punch square
(3)
Punnett square
Purification ofisolated protein
122. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, 128. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any division ofcentromere?
(1) Telophase II
given time, is referred as:
(1) Standing crop (2) MetaphaseI
(2) Climax 3)Metaphase
(3) Climax community Anaphase II
Standingstate 129. During the purification process for recombinant
DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol
123. The first stable product of CO, fixation in sorghum
precipitates out:
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid (1) Polysaccharides
(2) RNA
(2) Pyruvic acid
Oxaloacetic acid DNA
4) Succinic acid (4) Histones
P4 18
Section - B (Biology : Botany)
ina
180. The factor that lends to F'ounder effect
population is identifying differe.
13DNA fingerprinting involves
in DNA ca
(1) Ctenetic drift in aome specific regions sequence,
a8
(2) Natural selection
(1) Polymorphic DNA
(3) Genetic recombination Satellite DNA
(2)
(4) Mutation (3) RepetitiveDNA
J Single nucleotides
used to destroy weeds in a field
131. The plant hormone
is statement.
187. Identify the correct
(1) IBA Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
(1)
(2) IAA prokaryotes.
(3) NAA (2) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate
2,4-D is added to the 3' end of hnRNA.
Rho factor ,
3RNA polymerase with binds

132. Gemmae are present

in: V terminate the process of transcription in

Some Liverworts
bacteria.
, ( The coding strand in a transcription unit i
Mossea
(4)
(2) copied to an mRNA.A
(3) Pteridophytes
Some Gymnosperms 138. In some members of which of the following pairs
(4) their viability for
offamilies, pollen grains retain
stained with ethidium monahs after release?
133. DNA strands on a gel
bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear Rosaceae; Leguminosae
as . Poaceae; Rosaceae
(2)
Bright blue bands Poaceae; Leguminosae
(1) (3)
Yellow bands (4) Poaceae; Solanaceae
(3) Bright orange bands III in the
139. What is the role of RNA polymerase
Dark red bands
(4) process transcription in eukaryotes?
of
Transcribes only snRNAs
When gene targetting involving gene amplification
(1)
134 treat Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
is attempted in an individual's tissue to (2)
snRNA
disease, it is known as: L Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and
mRNA
Safety testing Transcribes precursor of
(1) 4)
(2) Biopiracy 140. Match List - I with List -II.
Gene therapy List - I
List - II

Molecular diagnosis
(4)
(a) Protein V C-Cdouble bonds
135. Complete the flow chart on central dogma. Unsaturated
acidH
bfatt acid Phosphodiester bonds
fatty
(a) DNA mRNA (d) (c)Nucleic acidd(i)Glycosidic bonds
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds_
(1) (a)-Transduction: (b)-Translation. Choose the correct answer from the options given
(c)-Replication: (d)-Protein
below.
(2) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
(1) iv) (i) )
(3) (a)-Translation;(b)-Replication; Giv) i) (ii)
(c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; 3) ) iv) (i) (i)
(c)-Translation; (d)-Protein 4) (iv) (ii)
 19
141. Match Column P4
-
I with Column II. 144. Match List - I with List II
-

Column-1
(a)|Nitrococcus
Column - II List -I List II
|Denitrification)
(6|RhizobiunRü)Conversionof |(a)S phase iv )Proteins are
ammonia to nitrite 8ynthesized
(b)G2 phase i) Inactive phase
(c) Thiobacillus G Conversion of nitrite
tonitrate
Conversion of
Interval between
(d) Nitrobacter
(c) Quieacent stage |(iii) mitosis and initiation
(iv) atmospheric nitrogen of DNA replication
to ammonia
Choose the correct answer from
(d)Gi phase iv)DNA replication
options given
below. Choose the correct answer from the
options given
below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iv) (ii) i)
(1) i) iv)
ii) )
(i) (iv) (ii) (2) (i) ( i ) ) (iv)
(3) ü) (i) iv) (3) Giv) Ci) ii) )
4) (iii) (iv) (i) iv) ) i) (ii)

142 Which of the following statements is incorrect? 16. In the exponential growth equation
(1) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce N=N,ert, e represents
proton gradient in respiration. (1) The base of geometric
logarithms
(2) During aerobic respiration, role gf oxygen is (2) The base of number
limited to the terminal stage. logarithma
3) The base of exponential
In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), logarithms
, one
(4) The base of natural
molecule of NADH +H+ gives rise to logarithms
2ATP molecules, and one
to 3 ATP molecules.
FADH, gives rise 146. Match Column I with Column -II.
-

(4) ATP is synthesized through Column-I

complex V. Column- II
48. Select the correct pair.
(a) % KsC1+2+a 1G () Brassicaceae
(1) Loose parenchyma cells b) KoAGaa y
- Spongy (ii) Liliaceae
rupturing the epidermis parendma
and forming a
lens
shaped opening in bark (ii) Fabaceae
Large colorless empty
cells in the
epidermis
of grass leaves
Subsidiary cells
(d)K2C,A2- (iv) Solanaceae
Select the correct answer from the
options given
(3) In dicot leaves, vascular below.
bundles are surrounded
Conjunctive
tissue (a) (b) (c) (d)
by large thick-walled
cells (1) (iv) (i) ii)

(4) Cells of medullary ii) iv) ()

rays -

Interfascicular
that form part of cambium (3) )üi) (iv)
cambial ring
(4) (i) (i) (iv)
 P4
20
147. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? Section -
A (Biology : Zoology
Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both
PS I and PS II. 151. Match List - I with List - II.

(2) Both ATP and NADPH+ H+ are List - I List - I

aynthesized during non-cyclic
photophosphorylation. Metamerism
(a) ) JCoelenterata
(3)
Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack (b) Canal systemV i) |Ctenophora
NADP reductase. (c)Comb plates ii) Annelida
(4) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS I. (d) Cnidoblasts , iv) Porifera
Choose the correct answer from the options givo
148. Which of the following statements is correct ? below. given
(1) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric (a) (b) (c) (d)
nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath (1) iv) i) (ii)
cells. (2) (iv) (ii) ) i)
(2) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy 8) ii) (iv) ) i)
(3) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile Gii) (iv) (i) )
on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
152. The fruit fy has 8 chromosomes in each cell (2n)
(4) Organisms that depend on living plants are During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
called saprophytes. chromosomes at G phase is 8, what would be the
number of chromosomes after S phase ?
19. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated (1) 32
gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe 8
to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of
cells, followed by its detection using (3) 16

autoradiography because: 4) 4

(1) mutated gene does not appear on 153. Read the following statements.
photographic film as the probe has Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
complimentarity with it.
(a)
b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
(2) mutated gene partially appears on a animals.
photographic film. Round worms have organ-system level of
(c)
(3) mutated gene completely and clearly body organization.u
appears on a photographic fillm. (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
(4) mutated gene does not appear on a digestion.F
photographic film as the probe has no (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
complimentarity with it. Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
150. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site below.
within gene ampR that confers ampicillin b ) , (c) and (e) are correct
resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a
(2) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
gene for B-galactoside production the and
recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain 3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
4) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(1) it will be able to produce a novel protein with
dual abilityyo 164. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O)
it will not be able to confer ampicillin and carbon dioxide (CO) at alveoli (the site of
resistance to the host cell. diffusion) are:
(3) the transformed cells will have the ability (1) pO= 159 and pC0 =0.3
to resist ampicillin as well as produce pO=104 and pCO =40
B-galactoside. (3) pO=40 and pCO2=45
(4) it will lead to lysis of host cell. (4) pO=95 and pCO= 40
 21 P4
156. During the process of gene amplification using 160. The organelles that are included in the
PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained endomembranesystem are
in the beginning, then which ofthe
following steps (1 Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,
of PCR will be affected first? Mitochondria and Lys0somes
(1) Ligation (2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria,
(2) Annealing Ribosomes and Lys08omes
(3) Extension
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
Denaturation Lysosomes and Vacuoles

166. Select the favourable conditions required for the (4) Golgi complex,Mitochondria, Ribosomes and
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli. Eyeosomes
(1) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H*, higher
161. For effective treatment of the disease, early
temperature
diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology
2High pOg. low pcO2, less Ht, lower
is very important. Which of the following
temperature molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for
(3) Low pO2 high pCO2, more H+, higher early detection?
temperature 0
(1) Hybridization Technique
(4) High pOg high pCO2. less H*, higher
(2) Western Blotting Technique
temperaturejo
167. Match the following: (3) Southern Blotting Technique

List-I List I ELISA Technique

(a Physalia Pearl oyster 162. Identify the incorrect pair.
bLimulus uu| (i) Portuguese Man of War
Drugs Ricin
()AncylostomGi) Living fosail (2) Alkaloids Codeine
(Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) Toxin Abrin
below. (4) Lectins Concanavalin A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
163. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro
(1) iv) i) muscular junction leading to fatigue,
(2) (i) ) iv) and paralysis of
weakening
3) (iv)
skeletal muscle is called as
ii) (i) (1) Gout
i) i) (iv)
(2) Arthritis
158. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect
with respect to cockroach?
8) Muscular dystrophy
(1) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears 9 Myasthenia gravis
a pair of anal cerci.
164. The centriole
2 A ring of gastric caeca is present at the undergoes duplication during:
junction of midgut and hind gut. (1)Gphase
(3) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed S-phase
by the mouth parts.
(3) Prophase
(4) In females, 7th.9th sterna together form a (4) Metaphase
genital pouch.
165. Receptors for sperm
159. Which one of the following is an example of
binding in mammals are
present on:
Hormone releasing IUD?
1) Multiload 375 (1) Zona pellucida
(2) CuT (2) Corona radiata
LNG 20 (3) Vitelline membrane
(4) Cu 7 4) Perivitelline space
 P4 22
both | 171. Match List - I with List -II
166.
cro88 between a male and female, what
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, List - II
percentage of the progeny will be diseased? List -I_
A A (a) Aspergillus niger i ) Acetic Acid
(1) 100% (b Acetobacter aceti2 i ) Lactic Acid
(2) 50% (c) Clostridium butylicuni ii) Citric Acid
(3) 75%
AAn (d) Lactobacillus Giv)|Butyric Acid
25% Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
167. Which of the following belongs to the family
one
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Muscidae? A A (ii)
(1) (iv) i)
House fly
AARAA (ii) ii) ) iv) i)
(2) Fire fly
(3) (ii) ii) (iv)
(3 Grasshopper A AA AA (4) (i) (ii) iv)
() Cockroach
172. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows
which stimulates R.B.C. terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive
168. Erythropoietin hormone
formation is produced by: feature?
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney (1) Pachytene
(2) Alpha cells of pancreas (2) Leptotene
(3) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
(3)Zygotene
(4) The cells of bone marrow J Diakinesis

are called
Persons with 'AB' blood group
as
169. Match List - I with List -II. 173.
recipients".
"Universal is due to:
This
List-1 List - II and anti-B. in
Absence of antibodies, anti-A
Entry of sperm through plasma
(a) Vaults Cervix is blocked Absence of antigens A and B on the surface
(2)
b)IUDs i) Removal of Vas deferens ofRBCs
Phagocytosis of sperms Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
(3)
(c)Vasectomy 1)within the Uterus (4) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B.
on RBCs
(d) Tubectomy |iv) Removal of fallopian tube|
Choose the correct answer from the options given 174. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
below. inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Thrombokinase

(1) (ii) (iv) i) Thrombin
(2 iv) (i) G) (ii) (3) Renin
(ii) i) (iv) (4) Epinephrine
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) )
175. A specific recognition sequence identified by
endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions
170. Sphincter of oddi is present at:
within the DNA is
(1) Junction ofjejunum and duodenum
(1) Poly(A) tail sequences
(2) Ileo-caecal junction
Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and (2) Degenerate primer sequence
duodenum (3)Okazakisequences
4) Gastro-oesophageal junction , Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
 Which of the 28 P4
176. following
the
synthesis of protein?RNAs is not requiredfor 182. With regard to insulin choose correct options.
siRNA C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(a)
(2) mRNA,
(3)
tRNA b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology
(4) has C-peptide.
rRNA
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
177. Which of the
following statements wrongly
represents the nature of smooth
muscle ? (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are
(1) These muscles are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
blood vessels present in the wall of
(2) Choose the correct answer from the options given
These muscle have no
(3)
striations
They are involuntary musclea
below.

Communication among the cells is (1) (a) and (d) only

performed by intercalated discs (2) b) and (d) only
178. Which of the
and
one
following organisme bears hollow (3) b) and (c) only
pneumatic long bones?
(1) Ornithorhynchus 4) (a). (c) and (d) only
Neophron
(3) Hemidactylus
(4) Macropuss
183. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what
will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
179. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has Cytosine in it?
to catalyse Initiation,
"Capability"
in the process of
Elongation and Termination (1) T: 20; G: 25; C: 25
transcription in prokaryotes ?
(1) DNase (2) T: 20 G:30;C: 20
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
DNA dependent RNA (3) T: 20;G: 20; C:30
polymerase
4) DNA Ligase
T : 30;G:20;C: 20
180. Succus entericus is referred to as
1) Chyme 184.
(2) Pancreatic juice
Which of the following is not an
objectiveof
Biofortification in crops?
Intestinaljuice
(4) Gastric juice (1) Improve micronutrient and mineral content

181, Veneral diseases can spread through (2) Improve protein content
Using sterile needlesK Improve resistance to diseases
b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
Infected mother to foetusv 4) Improve vitamin content
(d) Kissing
Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the options
185. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of
given
below. (1 Troposphere
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) CFCs
2 (a), (b) and (c) only
(b), (c) and (d) only (3) Stratosphere
(4) b) and (c) only
Ozone
 P4
24
189. Match List -I with List - II
Section -

B (Biology Zoolog)
List - I List - II
centify the types of cell junctions that help to
stop (a) ScapulaV ) Cartilaginous join
the leakage of the substances acro8s a tiasue and (bCranium i (ii) Plat bone
atiomof comunication withneighbouring
e l l s via (c) Sternum (i) Pibrous joints
rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
(1) (d Vertebral colunn (iv) Triangular fat
lat bone
Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
Choose the correct answer from the V
respectively. below. options ven
(2) ap junctions and Adhering junctions,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
respectively. (iv) (iii) (i) ()
Tight junctions and Gap junction8,
(2) ) (ii) (i) (iv)
respectively. 3) (i) (i) (iv)
(4) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, (4) iv) (i) ii)
respectively.
190. Match List -I with List - II.
187. Assertion (A): List II List I
A person goes to high altitude and experiences Selection of resistant
altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing (a)Adaptive varieties due to excessive
difficulty and heart palpitations. radiation use of herbicides and
Reason (RR): pesticides
(ii) Bones
(b)onvergent of forelim bs in
Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, Man
the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
evolution and Whale
(cvergent Wings of Butterfly and
In the light of the above statements, choose the evolution
(iii)
Bird
correct answer from the options given below. Evolution by
(1) (A)is false but (R) is true dlanthropo- iv) Darwin Finches
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
genic action|
correct explanation of (A) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (a) (b) (c) (d)
correct explanation of (A)
(1) (iv) (ii) i)
4) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) (iv) (iii) i)
(3) (ii) i) ) (iv)
188. During muscular contraction which of the (4) (iv) (ii)
followingevents occur?
191. Match List - I with List - II.
(a) H' zone disappears

(b) A band widens List-1 List -II

(c) Tband reduces in width (a)Filariasi Haemophilus

infuenzae
d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP (b) Amoebiasis (i) |Trichophyton
and Pi
(c) Pneumonial (ii) |Wuchereria bancrofti
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards (d) Ringworm iv)Entamoeba histolytica
Choose the correct answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. below.
(1) (b), (d), (e), (a) only (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) ) (iv)
( a ) , (e), (d), (e) only )
(2 iv) i)
3) (a), b), (c), (d) only L (i) iv) )
(4) b), (c), (d), (e) only (4) (i) iv) ii)
 25
192 Match List -I with List - II, P4
196. Statement I:
List-1 List-11 The codon 'AUG codes for methionine and
(a) Allen's Rule ) |Kangaroo rat phenylalaniné.oX
PhysiologiCali)Desert lizard
adaptation Statement II
AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for the
Behavioural
adaptation i) |Marine fieh at depth acid lysine.
amino

In the light of the above statements, choose the

aBiochemica)
(d)
adaptation v)Polar seal correct answer from the options given below.

Choose the correct answer from (1) Statement I is incorrect but

the options given Statement II is true
below.
(a) (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(b) (c) (d) true
(1) (iv) (ii) i)
(2) (iv) (i) (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(ii) ) false
(3) (iv) ) (ii) i)
(4) (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(iv) ) (i) Gii) is false
193. Which of the following secretes the
relaxin, during the later hormone 197. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into :
phase of pregnancy?
(1) Uterus (1) Addison'sdisease
(2) Graafian follicle (2) Dysfunction of Immune system
3) Corpus luteum Parkinson's disease
4) Foetus (4) Digestive disorder
194. Following are the statements about
of earthworm. prostomium 198. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
(a) It serves as a
covering for mouth. (MOET)?
(b) It helps to open cracks in the
soil into which (1) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate
it can crawl.
mothers at 8-32 cell stage
(c) It is one of the
sensory structures. Cow is administered hormone having
Itis the first body segment. LHA
like activity for super ovulation
Choose the correct answer from the options
below. given (3) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
(1) (b) and (c) are correct (4) Cow is fertilized by artificial
insemination
(2) (a), b) and (c) are correct 199. Which of these is not an
important
initiation of parturition in humans?component
3) (a), b) and (d) are correct of
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct Release of Prolactin
195. Following are the statements with (2) Increase in estrogen and
reference to progesterone ratio
lipids' 3) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(a) Lipids having only single þonds are called (4) Release of Oxytocin
unsaturated fatty acidsK
(6) Lecithin is a phospholipid. 200. Which of the
one
following statements about
(c) Trihydroxy Histones is wrong?
d)
propane is glycerol.
Palmitic acid has 20,carbon atoms
including (1) Histones carry positive charge in the side
carboxyl carbon. chain.
Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoma (2) Histones are organized to form a unit of
Choose the correct answer from the options 8 molecules.
below.
given
The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
(1) (b) and (e) only (4) Histones are rich in amino acids
(a) and (b) only
-

Lysine
(2) and Arginine.
3) (c) and (d) only
(b) and (c) only
-o 0o