C H M B737.Level B1

QUESTION BANK B737-400 LEVEL
CÂU HỎI MỨC B1
ATA CHAPTER 5 - TIME LIMITS
1. In which chapter would you find the Fuselage Bird Strike Inspection
A .Chapter 5 (AMM 05-51-37)
B.Chapter 3
C.MEL Maintenance procedures
2. Overweight Landing Inspection
A.ATA 32
B.ATA 5 (AMM 05-51-74)
C.Flight Operating Manual
ATA 07: LIFTING & SHORING
3. In which document you will find the detail instruction for shoring the
aircraft?
A. Airplane Recovery Document.
B. Structure Repair Manual.
C. Aircraft Maintenance Manual.
4. When Lifting the aircraft

A. No requirement.
B. All the doors must be closed
C. The passenger/crew doors, the emergency exits and the cargo doors are closed and
locked or fully open and locked.
ATA 21: AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM
5. To use the APU for air conditioning, on the ground/engines shut down,
-3/4/500 series aircraft, you should select?
A. Isolation Valve Switch AUTO APU Bleed Air Switch ON Left or Right Air
Conditioning Pack Switch AUTO or HIGH
B. Isolation Valve Switch OPEN APU Bleed Air Switch ON Left and Right Air
C. Isolation Valve Switch CLOSED APU Bleed Air Switch ON Left or Right Air
6. If the Right PACK TRIP OFF light illuminates:

A. Select a warmer temperature on the control cabin Temperature Selector and press
the TRIP RESET switch.
B. Select a warmer temperature on the passenger cabin Temperature Selector and
press the TRIP RESET switch.
C. Press and hold the TRIP RESET switch for 30 seconds only.
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7. The Re-circulating Fan operates with the switch in the AUTO position except.
A. When both packs are on and one or both pack switches are selected to HIGH
B. When one pack is off.
C. When both pack switches are selected to AUTO.
8. The Re-circulation Fan is

A. D.C. powered.
B. A.C. powered.
C. Pneumatically powered from APU or engine bleed air.
9. When using the Pneumatic Air Cart, the Battery switch

A. Must be ON to operate the Mix Manifold control valves.
B. May be ON or OFF when using aircraft air conditioning.
C. Must be ON when using aircraft air conditioning since the protective circuits are
DC.
10. The outflow valve switch controls the main outflow valve.
A. Only during STBY mode of operation.
B. Irrespective of the FLT/GRD switch position.
C. Only if the FLT/GRD switch is selected to FLT.
11. With a single pack operating and selected to AUTO

A. The pack will regulate to High Flow with flaps extended.
B. That pack will regulate to High Flow when inflight with the flaps retracted.
C. The pack will be in High Flow at all times.
12. The RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights are normally extinguished
A. During the cruise.
B. During the takeoff and climb.
C. Just before landing.
13. With one air conditioning pack switch selected to HIGH

A. That pack will regulate to LOW FLOW with flaps extended.
B. Flap selection has no effect on the flow rate of that pack.
C. The operating pack will regulate to HIGH FLOW only with flaps up.
14. The position of the forward outflow valve

A. Is open when the main outflow valve is closed.
B. Is closed when the re-circulating fan is not operating.
C. Is closed when the re-circulating fan is operating.
15. The forward cargo compartment is warmed

A. Only when the main outflow valve is in the fully open position.
B. At any time when more than .125 P.S.I. differential exists.
C. In-flight when more than 2.5 P.S.I. differential exists.
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16. If the amber AUTO FAIL light illuminates on CPCS aircraft.

A. Positioning the Pressurisation Mode Selector to STBY will extinguish the AUTO
FAIL light.
B. It will automatically extinguish when the pressurisation controller reverts to the STBY
mode.
C. Positioning the Pressurisation Mode Selector to STBY will have no effect on the
AUTO FAIL light.
17. On CPCS aircraft on the ground, with the Pressurisation Mode Selector in
the AUTO position, the FLT/GRD switch is used
A. To keep the cabin unpressurised by driving the main outflow valve full open when the
switch is in the FLT position.
B. To keep the cabin pressurised by driving the main outflow valve towards losed
with the switch in the GRD position.
C. To keep the cabin depressurised by driving the main outflow valve full open when the
switch is in the GRD position.
18. The cabin Altitude Warning horn will

A. Sounds (steady horn) when the cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet altitude.
B. Sound (intermittent horn) when cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet altitude.
C. Sound (intermittent horn) when cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet altitude.
19. On CPCS aircraft, the Cabin Rate selector DECR and INCR positions give a
cabin altitude rate of change of:
A. DECR 50 ft/min. INCR 2000 ft/min.
B. DECR 300 ft/min. INCR 1500 ft/min.
C. DECR 100 ft/min. INCR 1000 ft/min.
20. The maximum cabin differential pressure for take-off and landing is
A. 0.10psi
B. 0.25psi
C. 0.125psi
21. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates if

A. The aircraft has temporarily levelled off before reaching the selected flight altitude (as
set in the FLT ALT window)
B. The aircraft has descended before reaching the selected flight altitude (as set in the
FLT ALT window).
C. The aircraft has climbed above the selected flight altitude (as set in the FLT ALT
indicator ).
22. On CPCS aircraft in STBY mode, the FLT/GRD switch when set to GRD
causes
A. No effect on the main outflow valve.
B. The main outflow valve to drive full closed.
C. The main outflow valve to drive full open.
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23. The AUTO FAIL light will illuminate when there is

A. A loss of AUTO AC power, or an excessive rate of cabin pressure change
(+/- 1800 sea level feet/minute), or a high cabin altitude (13,875 feet).
B. A loss of AUTO DC power, or an excessive rate of cabin pressure change
C. A loss of AUTO AC power, or an excessive rate of cabin pressure change
24. On CPCS aircraft, before takeoff the CAB ALT window should be set to
A. 200 feet below destination field elevation when operating in AUTO Mode.
B. 200 feet below destination field elevation when operating in STBY Mode.
C. 200 feet below the take-off field elevation when operating in AUTO Mode.
25. When in AUTO mode and during isobaric cruise, minor aircraft excursions
from flight altitude may cause the differential pressure to go as high as
A. 7.65psid
B. 7.45psid
C. 7.90psid
26. On CPCS aircraft, the rate of operation of the main outflow valve in MAN
DC mode is?
A. Slower than in MAN AC mode.
B. Faster than in MAN AC mode.
C. The same as in MAN AC mode.
27. When operating the pressurisation system in Manual mode, it is

recommended that
A. Momentary actuation (toggling) of the manual switch should be employed.
B. The manual switch should be held in the Open or Closed position continuously until
the desired cabin altitude is reached.
C. The manual switch should be held in the Up or Down position continuously until the
disired cabin altitude is reached.
28. On CPCS aircraft, if the pressure controller is selected to Standby Mode after
takeoff and the Cabin Altitude is set at 8000 feet. The aircraft is directed to stop the
climb at FL140. The cabin altitude will?
A. Climb to and maintain a cabin altitude corresponding to 8.65 PSID.
B. Climb to and maintain 8000 feet.
C. Remain at a constant value while the aircraft is in level flight.
29. On CPCS aircraft, when operating in Manual Pressurisation mode with both
generator busses powered
A. The DC outflow valve actuator is available only.
B. The AC outflow valve actuator is available only.
C. Both the AC and DC outflow valve actuators are available.
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30. During a climb to 35,000 ft, the aircraft is required to level at 25,000 ft. for
ten minutes.When operating in the AUTO mode, the cabin altitude will.
A. Level off.
B. Continue to climb.
C. Level off for five minutes, then climb at 200 fpm to max diff.
31. If you noticed an insulation blanket stuck in the outflow valve, what
precautions would you take before removing it. (AMM 21-31-11 outflow valve)
A.Pull the CB's for AC & DC motors on the outflow valve.
B.Reduce the cabin altitude.
C.Increase the cabin altitude.
32. In what chapter is the pressure leak rate chart for fuselage leakage rates.
(AMM 05-51-81)
A.ATA 21
B.MEL, limitations
C.Chapter 5
33. On a -400 aircraft how many trim air pressure regulating valves are there.
AMM 21-61-91
A.One in the RH airconditioning bay.
B.One in the LH airconditioning bay.
C.Two in the RH airconditioning bay
34. Air entering the ram air inlet for the pack passes through which heat
exchanger first. AMM 21-00-00 p10
A.Secondary.
B.Primary
C.Both Primary and Secondary
35. On 300 series aircraft what does the mix valve do. (21-00-00 temperature
control)
A.Allows air to be delivered to the cockpit
B.Mixes hot air with ram air.
C.Allows air to bypass the bootstrap system.
36. Does the pitot static system need to be intact for pressurisation runs. (yes
05-51-91)
A.No
B.Yes.
C.Yes, in flight only
37. What must you do to the Equipment Cooling Flow Control Valve before
pressurising aircraft. (AMM 05-51-91)
A.Lock it OPEN
B.Make sure that the valve is operative
C.Lock it CLOSED.
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38. What would be a prerequisite to checking the coalascer bag indicators (-300
aircraft). 21-41-51-206-001 ,
A The pack must be running.
B The pack must be stopped.
C The pack must be removed
39. With the aid of the MEL book describe how to lock out a pack valve.
A.As per MEL procedures.
B.As per the IPC procedures
C.As per the Chapter 5 procedures
40. During a pressurisation test what is max. pressure during a normal test.
A.6.0 p.s.i.
B.32 p.s.i.
A.4.0 p.s.i. (AMM 05-51-91)
41. A pack trip off light illuminates in flight, list some possible switches that
could cause this
A.Duct overheat switch, turbine inlet overheat on compressor discharge switch have been
activated.
B.Pack discharge switch
C.Cabin overheat Switch
42. What would the cockpit indication be of a seized ACM. (AMM 21-51-00
p101)
A Cockpit temperature increased
B Pack trip OFF.
C Cockpit overheat warning
43. With the pack trip OFF light illuminated you find the ram air doors are
found closed, you would – (on ground, ram air door open)
A.Check the ram air doors system.
B.Close it manually
C.Open it and change the heat exchanger
44. Operation of Isolation Valve

A.Normally OPENED in Flight
B.Normally CLOSED in Flight, Will OPEN if any one of the BLEED or PACK switches
are selected OFF
C.Normally CLOSED, will open only for emergency depressurisation.
45. 199. What is the location of and reason for the Pressure Equalisation Valves
(AMM 21-00-00 p10)/
A.Aft of each Cargo Bay, Allow normal cabin pressurisation changes

B.Fwd and Aft Cargo Bay, allow equalisation of cargo pressure
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C.Aft cargo , allow temperature to be regulated
46. What could cause a RAM AIR DOOR Light to come on in cruise/
A.Compressor Discharge overheat
B.Blocked Heat Exchanger
Faulty Actuator
Air Switch on P11
C.Missing Ram Air Door
47. What sensor controls the Ram Air Inlet Doors (AMM 21-51-00 p18)
A.Compressor Discharge - 110°C
B.Compressor Inlet temperature
C.Pack discharge temperature
48. What commands the Ram Air Door Actuator (AMM 21-51-00 p18 )
A.Ram Air Controller
B.Ram Air Switch
C.Pack/Zone Temperature Controller
49. Why is a Trim Air PRSOV fitted/

A.Otherwise the system would have unregulated bleed air
B.To regulate temperature at the heatexchanger
C.To regulate the pressure at the pack outlet
ATA 23: COMMUNICATION SYSTEM
50. The Service Interphone switch on the Aft overhead panel when selected ON
A. Deactivates external jacks sockets from the Service Interphone system.
B. Allows communications between the flight deck and the flight attendants when
using the Flight Interphone system.
C. Adds external jack sockets to the Service Interphone system.
51. Communications between the cockpit and the ground crew is possible by
using the
A. Flight interphone system, or the Flight interphone system, or the Service
Interphone system provided the Service Interphone switch is ON.
B. Flight interphone system only.
C. The Service interphone system irrespective of the position of the Service
Interphone switch.
52. The GRD CALL switch on the Fwd Overhead panel when pressed
A. Sounds a horn in the nose wheel and main wheel wells until the ground crew
select the GRD CALL CANCEL switch on the External Power receptacle panel.
B. Sounds a horn in the nose wheel and main wheel wells until released.
C. Sounds a horn in the nose wheel well until released
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53. The Cockpit CALL (blue) light will illuminate along with an associated chime
whenever the cockpit is being called
A. By the flight attendants or the ground crew
B. By the ground crew only.
C. By the flight attendants only.
54. The ATTEND (attendants call) is pressed and released in the cockpit and
A. A three tone chime sound will be heard in the passenger cabin.
B. A single tone chime sound will be heard in the passenger cabin.
C. A two tone chime sound will be heard in the passenger cabin.
55. The selcal system monitors selected frequencies in use on the

A. HF-1 and VHF-1 communications radios.
B. HF-1 communications radio.
C. VHF-1 and VHF-2 communications radios.
56. When using the Passenger address system, the priority of announcements are
A. Cockpit, Forward attendants, Aft attendants.
B. There is no priority system.
C. Cockpit, Aft attendants, Forward attendants.
57. Is it possible for the cabin attendants to communicate with the ground
personnel from their respective stations
A. Yes using the flight interphone system with the Service Interphone switch selected
OFF.
B. No
C. Yes using the service interphone system.
58. To test the Cockpit Voice Recorder

A. Press the test CVR test switch and after a slight delay observe the Monitor
Indicator rise into the red band.
B. Plug a headset into the jack socket in the CVR panel and press the Erase switch.
C. Press the test CVR test switch and after a slight delay observe the Monitor
Indicator rise into the green band.
59. To erase the tape of the Cockpit Voice Recorder

A. Press the Erase button for 1 second only when the aircraft is on the ground and the
Parking Brake is set.
B. Press the Erase button for 9 seconds at any time.
C. Press the Erase button for 14 seconds only when the aircraft is on the ground and
the Parking Brake is set.
60. Audio warnings for Altitude Alert, The GPWS and Windshear Warnings are
heard through
A. The speakers only at preset volumes.
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B. The speakers and headsets at preset volumes.

C. The speakers at preset volumes and the headsets at variable volumes.
61. With the Alternate-Normal switch on the Captain's Audio Selector Panel
selected to ALT
A. Only the VHF-1 radio is available for transmission and reception from the Captain's
station.
B. Only the VHF-2 radio is available for transmission and reception from the Captain's
station.
C. The VHF-1 and VHF-2 radios only are available for transmission and reception
from the Captain's station.
62. With the Alternate-Normal switch on the F/O's Audio Selector Panel selected
to
A. Only the VHF-1 radio is available for transmission and reception from the F/O's
station.
B. Only the VHF-1 radio is available for transmission and reception from the Captain's
station.
C. Only the VHF-2 radio is available for transmission and reception from the F/O's
station.
63. With an audio selector panel selected to ALT ( degraded mode ), the only
usable radio at that station is heard
A. At a preset volume through the headset and speaker.
B. At a variable volume through the headset and speaker.
C. At a preset volume through the headset only.
64. The pilot control wheel push to talk switch selected to INT allows
A. Direct transmission from the associated oxygen or boom microphone over the flight
interphone, bypassing the Audio Selector Panel transmitter selector.
B. Direct transmission from the associated boom microphone only over the flight
interphone, bypassing the Audio Selector Panel transmitter Selector.
C. Direct transmission from the associated oxygen or boom microphone over the
flight interphone, provided the Audio Selector Panel Transmitter Selector is selected to
FT INT.
65. Where are the service interphone jacks located.

A.External power only
B.At all flight attendance stations
C.APU, R&L W W, refuel station, external power, aft cabin rear ceiling, E&E, lower
fuselage section 48. ( AMM 23-41-00 , p3 )
ATA 24: ELECTRIC SYSTEM
66. The STANDBY PWR OFF light (amber) illuminated means

A. The Battery Bus is inactive.
B. The AC standby bus is inactive.
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C. The DC standby bus is inactive.
67. After operating the Generator Drive Disconnect switch the Generator Drive
HIGH OIL TEMP (if illuminated) will
A. Flash repeatedly indicating successful Generator Drive uncoupling.
B. Remain on, until the Generator Drive oil has cooled.
C. Immediately extinguish as the power to the light comes from the Generator Drive
Disconnect Switch.
68. The Generator Drive LOW OIL PRESSURE lights are

A. Red lights on the forward overhead panel which will illuminate when Generator
Drive oil pressure is below minimum operating limits.
B. Amber lights on the forward overhead panel which will flash repeatedly when
Generator Drive oil pressure is below minimum operating limits.
C. Amber lights on the forward overhead panel which will illuminate when Generator
Drive oil pressure is below minimum operating limits.
69. The AC STANDBY BUS power can be supplied from

A. The APU or engine generators, external power or directly from the Hot Battery
Bus.
B. The APU or engine generators, external power or the battery through the Static
Inverter.
C. The APU or engine generators only.
70. Should a Generator Drive develop a fault and be disconnected from the
engine, before corrective action is taken by the pilots
A. All electrical systems ( loads ) supplied by that generator will be lost.
B. A few non-essential electrical systems ( loads ) will be lost
C. No electrical systems ( loads ) supplied by that generator will be lost as the Bus
Transfer systems supplies all the aircraft's electrical systems ( loads ).
71. Under normal flight, if the Battery switch is selected to OFF then
A. The Battery Bus is automatically connected to the Hot Battery Bus.
B. The Battery Bus is automatically connected directly to the Battery.
C. The Battery Bus loses power.
72. The auxiliary 28V DC power receptacle is situated

A. At the AC power receptacle.
B. Externally, forward of the E & E bay door.
C. Near the Battery in the electronic compartment.
73. A fully charged battery has sufficient capacity to provide power for a
minimum of
A. 30 minutes.
B. 20 minutes.
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C. 45 minutes.
74. The T.R. voltage range is

A. 24 - 30 volts.
B. 26 - 35 volts.
C. 28 - 30 volts.
75. The maximum Generator Drive oil temperature / temperature rise is

A. 157C / 30C
B. 215C / 11C
C. 157C / 20C
76. With the aircraft on the ground (both engine generators on-line) and external
power connected up to the aircraft, momentarily positioning the Ground Power
switch to ON
A. Will trip both engine generators and connect external power to both generator
busses
B. Will trip the right engine generator only and connect external power to the right
generator bus.
C. Will trip the left engine generator only and connect external power to the left
generator bus.
77. If, in flight, both engine generators fail, the APU generator should be
connected to
A. The No. 2 Generator Bus.
B. Both No. 1 and No. 2 Generator Busses.
C. The No. 1 Generator Bus.
78. Pulling up an engine fire handle will

A. Trip the associated Generator Control Relay and Breaker.
B. Trip the associated Generator Control Relay only.
C. Trip the associated Generator Control Relay and disconnects the Generator Drive.
79. The Battery Switch must be

A. ON for the GRD PWR Switch to be operable.
B. ON or OFF for the GRD PWR Switch to be operable.
C. OFF for the GRD PWR Switch to be operable.
80. Generator Drive Disconnect switch when operated

A. Disconnects the Generator Drive from the engine in the event of a Generator Drive
malfunction.
B. Disconnects the Generator Drive from the generator in the event of a Generator Drive
malfunction.
C. Disconnects the Generator Drive from the engine in the event of a Generator Drive
malfunction, only if the engine has been shut down first.
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81. Recoupling of the Generator Drive drive shaft to the engine may be
accomplished
A. At any time in flight provided the Generator Breaker and the Generator Control Relay
have previously been tripped.
B. Only on the ground.
C. At any time on the ground or in flight.
82. A Generator Breaker can be closed

A. When power quality from the generator is correct.
B. Irrespective of power quality from the generator.
C. At any time the engine is running at or above idle power.
83. When both engines are running with external power connected then
A. External power will automatically disconnect when either engine generator is brought
on-line.
B. External power must be selected OFF before the engine generators are brought
on-line.
C. External power will automatically disconnect when both engine generators are brought
on line.
84. When the Generator Drive Temperature switch is selected to RISE, a higher
than normal generator drive oil temperature indicates
A. An excessive generator load or poor condition of the Generator Drive.
B. Inadequate cooling of the Generator Drive oil.
C. An excessive generator load or inadequate cooling of the engine oil.
85. If the No. 2 TRU fails in the cruise

A. There would be no immediate indication.
B. The Master Caution and ELEC annunciator lights would illuminate.
C. The Battery Ammeter would show a discharge.
86. The Switched Hot Battery Bus is powered from

A. The Hot Battery Bus whenever the Battery Switch is ON.
B. The Battery Bus whenever the Battery Switch is OFF.
C. The Battery whenever the Battery switch is OFF.
87. After operating the Generator Drive Disconnect switch

A. The Generator switch should be momentarily held to OFF to trip the Generator
Control Relay.
B. The APU should be started and the APU generator selected on-line.
C. The Standby Power switch should be selected to BAT.
88. The first action to be taken in the event of electrical failure of a generator
(BUS OFF light illuminated) is
A. Start the APU (if available) and select it on line.
B. Select the associated Generator switch to OFF.
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C. Select the associated Generator switch to ON.
89. The normal power source for the Battery Charger is the AC Ground Service
Bus, with provisions for automatic switching to
A. The No. 2 Main Bus.
B. The No. 1 Main Bus.
C. Either Transfer Bus.
90. To have all three Generators (APU and engines) on-line simultaneously
A. Is possible on the ground only.
B. Is not possible.
C. Is possible in flight only.
91. With an engine Generator switch selected OFF and the associated engine is
running, the voltage of that generator will read
A. Residual volts when the residual volts switch is pressed.
B. 115 volts.
C. Approximately 3 volts.
92. Standby D.C. power is normally supplied from

A. The Battery Bus.
B. The Hot Battery Bus.
C. DC Bus No. 1.
93. Placing the BUS TRANS switch to 'OFF' inflight with both generators
operating and connected
A. Isolates the transfer busses by preventing operation of the bus transfer relay, opens the
TR 3 disconnect relay and prevents connection of the battery charger to its alternate
power source ( Main Bus 2 ).
B. Isolates the transfer busses by preventing operation of the bus transfer relay and opens
the TR 3 disconnect relay only.
C. Isolates the transfer busses by preventing operation of the bus transfer relay, opens the
TR 1 and 2 disconnect relays and prevents connection of the battery to the Static Invertor.
94. Standby A.C. power is available on touch down after a total electrical failure
providing
A. The Standby Power switch is selected to BAT.
B. The Battery switch is selected to ON and the Standby Power switch is selected to
AUTO.
C. The Standby Power switch is selected to AUTO.
95. The APU generator has

A. A Generator drive unit which will disconnect when the APU Generator drive
disconnect switch is activated from the flight deck.
B. A Generator drive unit which will automatically disconnect when its oil temperature is
high.
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C. No Generator drive unit since the APU itself is governed and will maintain a constant
generator speed.
96. If ground power is available and the Ground Service switch on the forward
attendant's panel is switched on, then power is supplied to
A. All the aircraft electrical busses.
B. The Ground Service bus for utility outlets, cabin lighting and battery charger.
C. The Ground Service bus for utility outlets and cabin lighting only.
97. The T/R No. 3 disconnect relay automatically opens at glideslope capture to
A. Off-load the battery charger from the 115V AC GND SERVICE Bus.
B. Provide backup power to the Standby DC bus.
C. Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both the navigation receivers and
flight control computers.
98. After disconnecting a Generator Drive, its associated oil temperature

indicator
A. May show an increase on the IN scale and/or the RISE scale.
B. Will maintain the same temperature reading.
C. Will immediately show a decrease in temperature.
99. The Battery Switch is ON and the GRD PWR is connected to the aircraft's
Busses. If the Battery Switch is selected OFF then
A. The GRD PWR switch will automatically disconnect.
B. The GRD PWR switch will not automatically disconnect.
C. The GRD POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish.
100. Indications of the aircraft being in Air Mode while on the ground
A.Packs operate and Ram air Doors opened
B.Packs off and APU will Bleed Load
Hot Pitot Tubes
Ram Air Doors closed and P5 Light extinguished
C.None of the above
ATA25: EQUIPMENTS & FURNISHINGS SYSTEM
101. Between the linings and fuselage skin have:

A. Fiberglass insulation blankets
B. Nylon insulation blankets
C. Nothing
102. Location of pressure equalisation valves in cargo.

A.Aft end.
B.Fwd end
C.A and B are correct
103. From what sources can the water tank be pressurised.

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A.Via the pump, or pneumatic sources.

B.Via the air conditioning source
C.Via the Pressurisation system
ATA 26: FIRE PROTECTION
104. An overheat or fire alert will be given with the OVHT DET switch in
NORMAL and both loops serviceable when
A. One of the detector elements of loop A and one of the detector elements of loop B
sense a fire or overheat.
B. Either element of a detector signals an overheat or fire condition.
C. Either or both elements of a detector signal an overheat or fire condition.
105. The FAULT light illuminates

A. The other two answers are correct.
B. If both loops sense a fault with the OVHT DET switch in the NORMAL position.
C. If the OVHT DET switch is to 'A' or 'B' and the selected loop senses a fault.
106. With the OVHT DET switch in the B position

A. Only the B detector loop can initiate an overheat or fire warning.
B. Only the A detector loop can initiate an overheat or fire warning
C. Either A or B detector loops can initiate an overheat or fire warning.
107. Holding the TEST switch to the FAULT/ INOP position

A. Tests the fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU.
B. Tests the fault detection circuits for the APU only
C. Tests the fault detection circuits for both engines only.
108. Holding the TEST switch to the FAULT/ INOP position

A. Will illuminate the Master Caution, OVHT/DET annunciator, FAULT, WHEEL
WELL and APU DET INOP lights.
B. Will illuminate the Master Caution, FAULT annunciator and APU DET INOP
light.
C. Will illuminate the Master Caution, OVHT/DET annunciator, FAULT and APU
DET INOP lights.
109. An engine fire condition is indicated by the

A. Illumination of the master FIRE WARNING lights, associated engine fire switch
light and the sound of the alarm bell.
B. Illumination of the master FIRE WARNING lights, the associated engine fire
switch light, both bottle discharge lights flash indicating they are primed and the sound of
the alarm bell.
C. Illumination of the master FIRE WARNING lights, associated engine fire switch
light and the sound of the fire horn.
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110. Indication that an Engine Fire Bottle has been discharged is

A. An red BOTTLE DISCHARGE light (on the fire panel) illuminating a few
seconds after fire warning switch rotation.
B. An amber BOTTLE DISCHARGE light (on the fire panel) illuminating
immediately on fire warning switch rotation.
C. An amber BOTTLE DISCHARGE light (on the fire panel) illuminating a few
seconds after fire warning switch rotation.
111. The power source for the APU Fire Detection is the
A. NO.1 Transfer Bus (115V AC).
B. Hot Battery Bus (28V DC).
C. Battery Bus (28V DC).
112. Holding the TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE position with AC on the busses
will illuminate the
A. Master FIRE WARNING lights. Master Caution lights and OVHT/DET annunciator.
ENG 1, ENG 2 and APU Fire Warning lights. ENG 1 and ENG 2 OVERHEAT lights.
B. Master FIRE WARNING lights. Master Caution lights and OVHT/DET annunciator.
ENG 1, ENG 2 and APU Fire Warning lights. ENG 1 and ENG 2 OVERHEAT lights.
WHEEL WELL light. APU DET INOP light
C. Master FIRE WARNING lights. Master Caution lights and OVHT/DET
annunciator. ENG 1, ENG 2 and APU Fire Warning lights. ENG 1 and ENG 2
OVERHEAT lights. WHEEL WELL light.
113. In the event of an engine fire warning, the bell may be silenced and the
master FIRE WARNING lights extinguished by
A. Pressing either master FIRE WARNING light or either bell cutout switch on the main
instrument panel.
B. Pressing either Master Caution light or the bell cutout switch on the fire panel.
C. Pressing either master FIRE WARNING light or the bell cutout switch on the fire
panel.
114. During the Engine Fire drill, the pneumatic ISOLATION VALVE switch
should be selected to
A. AUTO.
B. OPEN.
C. CLOSE.
115. If following an overheat condition, the OVERHEAT light extinguishes after

thrust lever closure
A. Perform a light test on the Overheat light before shutting that engine down.
B. Operate that engine at reduced thrust to keep the light extinguished.
C. Carry out the Engine Fire, Severe Damage or Separation drill.
116. The APU horn in the main wheel well can be silenced by
A. Either the Horn Cutout switch in the wheel well or the APU Horn Cutout switch on the
fire panel (Aft Electronics Panel) in the flight deck.
16
B. Either the Horn Cutout switch in the wheel well or the Bell Cutout switch on the fire
panel (Aft Electronics Panel) in the flight deck.
C. The Horn Cutout switch in the wheel well only.
117. All switches on the Fire Panel are in their normal positions. The TEST switch
is then held in the OVHT/FIRE position and all normal test indications are
observed. The FAULT light is also observed to be illuminated which would mean
that
A. The test circuit is operating and the fault light will extinguish after 5 seconds.
B. There is a open circuit on one of the loops.
C. There is a short circuit on one of the loops.
118. During an OVHT/FIRE test the No 1. Fire Handle light and associated
overheat light do not illuminate indicating
A. The test circuit is operating and the overheat light will illuminate after 2 seconds,
followed by the Fire Handle light.
B. There is a short circuit on one of the loops for No. 1 engine.
C. There is an open circuit on one of the loops for No. 1 engine.
119. The power source for the Wheel Well Fire Detection is the
A. Battery Bus (28V DC).
B. The No. 1 Transfer Bus (115V AC).
C. The No. 2 Transfer Bus (115V AC).
120. The power source for the Lavatory Smoke Detector is the
B. DC Bus No. 1 (28V DC).
C. NO.1 Transfer Bus (115V AC).
121. The power source for the APU Fire Extinguishing system is the
B. NO.1 Transfer Bus (115V AC).
C. Hot Battery Bus (28V DC).
122. The power source for the Engine Fire Extinguishing system is the
A. NO.2 Transfer Bus (115V AC).
B. Hot Battery Bus (28V DC).
C. Battery Bus (28V DC).
123. When the Extinguisher Test switch is held in the 1 or 2 position, 3 lights
illuminate indicating
A. The associated bottle discharge circuits for all engine extinguisher bottles are being
tested only.
B. The quantities of all extinguisher bottles are being tested.
C. The associated bottle discharge circuits for all 3 extinguisher bottles are being tested.
124. Where are the wing overheat sensing elements.
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A.Leading edge between fuselage and pylon.

B.Trailing edge between fuselage and pylon
C.Leading edge between the fuselage and the wing tip
191. When performing a fire test ENG 1 DET fails. Is the detection system able to
detect a fire.
A.No
B.Yes in flight only
C.Yes
192. How would you perform a wing/body overheat test. (AMM 26-18-00 pb500)/
A.Press the OVHT switch on the P5 panel and check the cockpit indications.
B.Heating the sensing element with hot air
C.Press a test switch in the E&E compartment
193. How do you carry out fire test. (AMM 26-11-00 pb300)
A.Press a test switch on the P6 panel and check cockpit indications
B.Press the test switch and check the ok green light illuminates.
C.Move the switch on P8 panel and check the cockpit indications.
10 / 11 Lights & Bell......Location of lights
194. Where are fire bottle discharge lights. (AMM 26-11-00)

A.On P4 panel
B.On P6 panel
C.On P8 panel.
195. What happens when a Fire Handle is pulled ( FCOM , 8.20.2 )

A.Thrust Reverser will not operate
Generator Field Relay tripped
EDP Low Pressure Light OFF
B.Fuel SOV closed
Bleed Valve closes
Hydraulic Supply Valve closes
196. What could cause a L/H Wing-Body Overheat

A.Duct blown in Section 48
B.Engine failure
C.An overpressure is detected in the duct
ATA 27: FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM
197. A condition for the speed trim system to operate is

A. The flaps can be in any position.
B. The flaps are not up.
C. The flaps are up.
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198. The Yaw Damper operation results in

A. No rudder pedal movement provided the autopilot is engaged.
B. Rudder pedal movement.
C. No rudder pedal movement
199. Rudder Trim control requires

A. Hydraulic power only to trim the rudder.
B. Electrical power only to trim the rudder.
C. Both hydraulic and electrical power to trim the rudder.
200. Positioning the Yaw Damper switch to ON

A. Engages the Yaw Damper to the rudder Feel Mechanism.
B. Engages the Yaw Damper to the rudder Power Control Unit.
C. Engages the Yaw Damper to the autopilot Power Control Unit.
201. Loss of hydraulic system B pressure

A. Does not cause yaw damper disengagement but will illuminate the amber YAW
DAMPER light.
B. Does not cause yaw damper disengagement or illumination of the amber YAW
DAMPER light.
C. Causes yaw damper disengagement and illumination of the YAW DAMPER light.
202. The Yaw Damper uses

A. Both hydraulic systems A and B pressure.
B. Hydraulic system B pressure only.
C. Hydraulic system A pressure only.
203. Aileron trim is accomplished by

A. Simultaneous operation of the trim switches located on the control stand.
B. Operation of the aileron trim knob located on the control stand.
C. Operation of either trim switch located on the control stand.
204. The Rudder Trim Control is

A. Spring-loaded to neutral and may be rotated left or right.
B. Spring-loaded to neutral and must be pushed down before rotating left or right.
C. Spring-loaded to neutral and may be rotated left or right provided the autopilot is
disengaged.
205. If the speed brake lever is not ARMED prior to landing. All the spoiler panels
will
A. Automatically extend after landing when thrust levers are positioned for reverse
thrust.
B. Remain retracted after landing even when thrust levers are positioned for reverse
thrust.
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C. Automatically extend after landing when thrust levers are positioned for reverse
thrust, provided the Autobrake system is in use.
206. If the speed brake lever is used in-flight (ie ARMED) and then returned to
DOWN prior to landing (SPEED BRAKE ARMED light extinguished). All the
spoiler panels will
A. Automatically extend after landing when thrust levers are positioned for reverse
thrust, provided the Autobrake system is in use.
B. Automatically extend after landing when thrust levers are positioned for reverse
thrust.
C. Remain retracted after landing when thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust.
207. Auto Slat operation can be monitored

A. By reference to the LE FLAPS TRANSIT amber light.
B. By reference to the Flap Position indicator.
C. By reference to the LEADING EDGE DEVICES ANNUNCIATOR panel.
208. The Ground Spoilers are powered by

A. Both A and B hydraulic systems.
B. The A hydraulic system.
C. The B hydraulic system.
209. The Auto Slat system is normally powered by

A. System A hydraulics.
B. System B hydraulics.
C. The Standby Hydraulic system.
210. With the Stabilizer Trim Override Switch in the OVERRIDE position
A. The control column actuated stabiliser trim cutout switches are bypassed to restore
power to the electric trim switch.
B. Cuts power to all electric trim motors and engages the trim clutch allowing manual
trimming of the stabiliser.
C. The control column actuated stabiliser trim cutout switches are bypassed to restore
power to the autopilot trim motor.
211. A condition for speed trim operation is

A. N1 above 45% RPM
B. N2 above 60% RPM
C. N1 above 60% RPM
212. The maximum altitude for flap extension is

A. 15,000 Feet.
B. 10,000 Feet.
C. 20,000 Feet.
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213. Power for the Flight Spoilers is supplied by

A. Hydraulic System B for the inboard spoilers. Hydraulic System A for the outboard
spoilers.
B. Hydraulic System A for the inboard spoilers. Hydraulic System B for the outboard
spoilers
C. Hydraulic System A for the inboard spoilers. Hydraulic System B or the Standby
hydraulic pump for the outboard spoilers.
214. The Alternate Flaps Position switch when selected to the UP position will
A. Electrically retract the trailing edge flaps.
B. Electrically retract the leading and trailing edge flaps.
C. Hydraulically retract the trailing edge flaps.
215. The stabiliser Trim switches are located on

A. Each pilot's control wheel.
B. Each pilot's control wheel with alternate trim levers on the centre pedestal.
C. Each pilot's control wheel with alternate trim switches on the centre pedestal.
216. In the event of jammed aileron system, rotation of the co-pilot's control wheel
operates the
A. Aileron tabs for roll control.
B. Ailerons for roll control.
C. Flight Spoilers for roll control.
217. If an asymmetric condition develops between the right and left wing trailing
edge flaps
A. The electrical power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit provided
the alternate flap drive system is in use.
B. The hydraulic power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit provided
the normal flap drive system is in use.
C. The electric power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit provided the
normal flap drive system is in use.
218. The rudder power control units (PCUs) are powered by

A. System A and system B for the main rudder PCU and standby pump for the
standby rudder PCU.
B. System A and standby pump for the main rudder PCU and system B for the
standby rudder PCU.
C. System B and standby pump for the main rudder PCU and system A for the
standby rudder PCU.
219. Illumination of the Speed Trim Fail light (Master Caution Annunciator recall
is not activated)
A Indicates failure of a single FCC channel.
B. Indicates failure of the elevator feel computer.
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C. Indicates failure of both FCC channels.
220. Illumination of the Speed Trim Fail light when Master Caution recall is
activated
A. Indicates failure of the elevator feel computer.
B. Indicates failure of both FCC channels and the elevator feel computer.
C. Indicates failure of a single FCC channel.
221. Illumination of the Auto Slat Fail light when Master Caution recall is
activated
A. Indicates failure of a single autoslat computer.
B. Indicates failure of a FCC channel or both autoslat computers.
C. Indicates failure of the elevator feel computer.
222. Illumination of the Auto Slat Fail light (Master Caution Annunciator recall is
not activated)
A. Indicates failure of a single autoslat computer.
B. Indicates failure of a single FCC channel.
C. Indicates failure of both autoslat computers.
223. A single autoslat channel failure is indicated

A. By pressing to test the Auto Slat Fail light.
B. By the immediate illumination of the Auto Slat Fail light.
C. By the illumination of the Auto Slat Fail light on a Master Caution annunciator recall.
224. A single mach trim FCC channel failure is indicated

A. By the immediate illumination of the Mach trim Fail light.
B. By the illumination of the Mach Trim Fail light on a Master Caution annunciator
recall.
C. By pressing to test the Mach Trim Fail light.
225. Positioning the FLT CONTROL A switch to STBY RUD

A. Arms the Alternate Flaps Master switch.
B. Arms the STANDBY HYD Low Qantity light.
C. Arms the STANDBY HYD Low Pressure light.
226. The amount of aileron trim set by a pilot

A. Is not indicated.
B. Is indicated by the amount of control column deflection.
C. Is indicated on the graduated scale of the rudder/aileron trim indicator.
227. Operation of the Rudder Trim Control switch

A. Electrically repositions the rudder trim tab and centring mechanism which results in a
shift in both the rudder and tab positions.
B. Electrically repositions the rudder feel and centring mechanism which results in a shift
in the rudder neutral position.
22
C. Hydraulically repositions the rudder feel mechanism which results in a shift in the
rudder position.
228. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT amber light on the centre instrument panel
A. Is inhibited during flap load relief operation.
B. Is inhibited during autoslat operation in flight.
C. Is not inhibited during autoslat operation in flight.
229. The autoslat system is armed

A. During take-off or approach to landing with the trailing edge flaps selected 1 through
5.
B. During take-off or approach to landing with the trailing edge flaps selected 10 through
25.
C. At all times in flight irrespective of the flap position.
230. The Auto Slat system will move

A. Leading edge slats from the RETRACT to the EXTEND position and back to the
RETRACT position again.
B Leading edge slats from the EXTEND to the FULL EXTEND position and back to the
EXTEND position again.
C. Leading edge slats from the RETRACT to the FULL EXTEND position and back to
the RETRACT position again.
231. Using Main electric trim, the stabiliser trim authority is

A. 2.5 - 12.5 units ( flaps retracted ).
B. 2.5 - 12.5 units ( flaps extended ).
C. 0.25 - 12.5 units ( flaps retracted ).
232. Using Autopilot trim, the stabiliser trim authority is

A. 0.25 - 12.5 units ( flaps extended ).
B. 2.5 - 14.0 units ( flaps retracted or extended ).
C. 0.25 - 14.0 units ( flaps retracted or extended).
233. With the Stabilizer Trim Override Switch in the OVERRIDE position
A. The control column actuated stabiliser trim cutout switches are bypassed to restore
power to the electric trim switch.
B. Cuts power to all electric trim motors and engages the trim clutch allowing manual
trimming of the stabiliser.
C. The control column actuated stabiliser trim cutout switches are bypassed to restore
power to the autopilot trim motor.
234. If the MACH TRIM FAIL light is illuminated, limit mach number to
A. Classics: 0.74 - NG's: 0.82
B. Classics: 0.70 - NG's: 0.80
C. Classics: 0.65 - NG's: 0.78
235. Selecting either FLT CONTROL switch to OFF will
23
A. Cause the corresponding hydraulic system pressure to be isolated from the ailerons,
elevator and rudder.
B. Cause both hydraulic systems pressure to be isolated from the ailerons, elevator and
rudder.
C. Activate the standby pump which will supply hydraulic pressure to the ailerons,
elevator and rudder.
236. The Alternate Flaps Position switch when selected to the UP position will
A. Electrically retract the trailing edge flaps.
B. Hydraulically retract the trailing edge flaps.
C. Electrically retract the leading and trailing edge flaps.
237. The elevator Feel Differential Pressure light illuminated indicates that there is
A. Normal pressure in the elevator feel computer.
B. Excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel computer.
C. A failure of an FCC channel.
238. In the event of a runaway stabilizer first

A. Select the Column Activated Stabilizer trim switch to NORMAL.
B. Grasp and hold the stabilizer trim wheel.
C. Hold the control column firmly and disengage the autopilot (if engaged).
239. The range of stabilizer movement using the main electric trim switches is
A. Greater than the auto-pilot range.
B. Greater than the manual trim range.
C. Smaller than the auto-pilot range.
240. The range of stabilizer movement using the main electric trim switches is
A. Less with flaps extended.
B. Greater with flaps extended.
C. Unaffected by flap position.
241. The STAB OUT OF TRIM amber light when illuminated

A. Indicates the autopilot is not trimming the stabilizer properly.
B. Indicates the Speed Trim system is operating.
C. Indicates the autopilot or pilot is not trimming the stabilizer properly.
242. In event of a jammed stabilizer

A. Plan for a flaps 30 landing.
B. Plan for a flaps 5 landing.
C. Plan for a flaps 15 landing.
243. The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light

A. Is amber and is de-activated when the Speed Brake Lever is in the DOWN position.
B. Is green and is de-activated when the Speed Brake Lever is in the DOWN position.
Selecting the gear lever to down will extinguish the light.
24
C. When illuminated indicates that the landing gear is not down with the Speed Brake in
the ARMED position.
244. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT light will illuminate when

A. Any leading edge device is in transit or not in the programmed position with respect to
trailing edge flaps.
B. The Leading Edge Annunciator Panel TEST switch has been pressed.
C. Any leading edge device is in transit only.
245. Caution should be exercised when using flight spoilers during a turn as
A. They greatly increase roll rate.
B. They cause such a demand on the hydraulic system that the Autopilot may trip off.
C. They greatly reduce roll rate.
246. the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light illuminates when the speed brake
lever is selected to the ARMED position
A. Then ensure the landing gear lever is selected DOWN before arming the speed brake
again.
B. Then the speed brake lever must be restricted to the DOWN position and not used on
touchdown.
C. Then manually deploy the speed brakes immediately on touchdown.
247. The Flap Load Limiter

A. Is installed in the trailing edge flap drive system and retracts the flaps to flaps 25 (flap
lever in the 40 position) when the airspeed is in excess of 158 knots.
B. Is installed in the leading edge flap drive system and retracts the flaps to flaps 30 (flap
lever in the 40 position) when the airspeed is in excess of 153 knots.
C. Is installed in the trailing edge flap drive system and retracts the flaps to flaps 30 (flap
lever in the 40 position) when the airspeed is in excess of 158 knots
248. The Alternate Flaps switch is selected momentarily to the DOWN position
(Alternate Flaps Master Switch in ARM) and the
A. Leading edge devices are driven to the FULL EXTEND position.
B. Leading edge devices are driven to the EXTEND position.
C. Leading edge devices are driven out to EXTEND or FULL EXTEND depending on
T.E.Flaps position.
249. Elevator balance tabs

A. Operate continuously during normal or manual reversion operations.
B. Operate during manual reversion operations only.
C. Are not fitted to the B737.
250. When the Trailing Edge Flaps are selected from UP to the Flap 1 position
A. The Leading Edge Flaps drive to an intermediate position and the Leading Edge Slats
drive to the EXTEND position.
B. The Leading Edge Flaps drive to their fully extended position and the Leading Edge
Slats drive to the FULL EXTEND position.
25
C. The Leading Edge Flaps drive to their fully extended position and the Leading Edge
Slats drive to the EXTEND position.
251. At what setting(s) should the leading edge FLAPS be partially extended
A. The leading edge FLAPS should never be partially extended.
B. 1 degree of flap.
C. 10 degrees of flap.
252. What should you be aware of before supplying hydraulic power to aileron
system. (AMM 27-11-00 pb5)
A.Be aware that the rudder will operate for turn coordination
B.Operating the aileron system on ground is not permitted
C.Be aware that aileron inputs will operate flight spoilers.
253. When carrying out adjustment/tests (rigging), what should you do before
powering the system. (AMM 27-11-00 p505)
A.Remove all rig pins.
B.Install all rig pins.
C.The electrical power must be On.
254. What causes the flaps to stop when they reach their selected positions when
run hydraulically. (AMM 27-51-00 page1)
A.A proximity sensor will null the command signal from the flap .control lever
B.The follow-up system ie the initial input to the flap control valve is nulled by the
follow-up mechanism.
C.A mechanical stop at each selected position
255. Where is the aileron control system transfer mechanism. (AMM 27-11-00
page1)
A.At the fwd wall of the wheel well
B.At the base of the Capt control column
C.At the base of the F/Os control column.
256. How are the flap screw jacks identified. (AMM 27-51-00)/
A.1 to 6 across the aircraft
B.1 to 8 across the aircraft.
C.1 to 8 across the wing
257. Between what two flap positions do slats move to intermediate position.
(AMM 27-81-00/ page 1 C should be between 1 and 5) Cat
A.Up & 2
B.Down & 1
C.1 & 5
258. Does the Horizontal trim actuator have a duty cycle and if so where
would you locate the time limits.?
A.Yes - Chapter 27 MIM.
26
B.Yes - Charter 5
C.No, there is no time limits
259. How is the inboard aft flap driven. (AMM27-51-04 pb5)

A.By a push-pull cable
B.By a boom cable.
C.By a push rod.
260. How is the aileron system powered. (AMM 27-11-00 fig10)/

A.From "A" or "B" hydraulic systems.
B.From "A" hydraulic system only.
C.From "A" and "B" hydraulic systems.
261. De-activating L/E slats - what kit do you use.

A.De-activation kit from tool crib.
B.Rotate the deactivation kit to Maint. position
C.Remove the hydraulic actuator and install a locking kit
262. Should you manually move rudder at the control surface./B1

A.Yes, by using a specific tool
B.Yes, by using an electric driven actuator
C.No, it is made of carbon fiber and may crack
263. How many rigging pins do you need to rig the trailing edge flaps.
(AMM 27-51-00-825-011)
A.Two - one for the inboard and one for outboard.
B.One - for the Inboard
C.Three - Two for the inboard and one for the outboard
264. What in the aileron trim system needs to be checked before rigging the
aileron control system. (AMM 27-11-00 pb5 Make sure that the aileron trim system
is at the center.)
A.Ensure the aileron surfaces are in neutral.
B.Ensure that the aileron trim is in neutral.
C.Ensure that the control column is in neutral
265. Should L/E slats move when flaps move from 2 to 5? (AMM 27-81-00/
page 1 C “When the trailing edge flaps are between 1 and 5 units, the control valve
ports pressure to fully extend the leading edge flaps and extend all leading edge slats
to the intermediate position” 🡪 from 2-5 LE flaps not move, LE slats move.)
A.Yes
B.Yes, in intermediate position
C.No.
266. Do elevators move full travel electrically. (use A, B and manual only, no
electrical)
A.No.
27
B.Yes.
C.Yes, at aft speed.
267. What would be the effect of a seized roller in the centering and trim
mechanism.
A.Decease force to operate ailerons
B.Increase force required to operate ailerons.
C.Unable to move the ailerons
268. What could cause a Trailing Edge Flap “Jam” @ 15 Units

A.Asymmetry, Structural Problems, Over-speed
B.Over-speed only
C.Structural problems only
ATA 28: FUEL SYSTEM
269. A shut-off system is used during re-fuelling to

A. Prevent refuelling pressures in excess of 50 psi.
B. Automatically close the fuelling valve in each fuel tank when the tank is full.
C. Automatically close the Manual De-fuelling Valve when the wing tanks are full.
270. To defuel No. 1 tank

A. Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the crossfeed valve CLOSED and the
Manual Defuelling valve OPEN.
B. Select the No. 1 and No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN
and the Manual Defuelling valve OPEN.
C. Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and the
Manual Defuelling valve OPEN.
271. When the APU is inoperative and no external power is available, refuelling
can be accomplished as follows
A. Battery switch ON Standby Power switch BAT The entire fuel system will operate
normally, except for the fuel shut-off system.
B. Battery switch ON Standby Power switch BAT The entire fuel system will operate
normally.
C. Battery switch OFF Standby Power switch BAT The entire fuel system will
operate normally.
272. To defuel No. 2 tank only,

A. Select the No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON and the Manual Defuelling valve
OPEN.
B. Select the No. 1 and No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN
and the Manual De-fueling valve OPEN.
C. Select the No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the crossfeed valve OPEN and the
Manual De-fueling valve OPEN.
28
273. With failure of all generators, the centre tank fuel

A. Can be used by switching off all wing tank pumps and opening the crossfeed
valve.
B. Cannot be used.
C. Will be fed to the main tanks by the centre tank scavenge jet pump.
274. The Crossfeed Selector in the OPEN position

A. Connects the engine No 1 and No. 2 fuel feed lines by opening the fuel crossfeed
valve.
B. Connects the engine No 1 and No. 2 fuel feed lines by opening the fuel crossfeed
and fuel shut-off valves.
C. Extinguishes the blue VALVE OPEN light.
125. Which valve connects the fuel (engine) manifold to the fuelling manifold
A. The Fuelling valve.
B. The Crossfeed valve.
C. The Manual Defuelling valve.
126. The fuel quantity indicators require

A. Switched Hot battery Bus power.
B. Standby DC power.
C. Standby AC power.
127. The Engine Fuel Shut Off valves

A. Are cable operated to CLOSE or OPEN.
B. Are Hot Battery Bus powered and may be closed by the engine start lever or the
respective engine fire switch.
C. Are AC operated to OPEN, and mechanically closed by the engine start lever or
fire switch.
128. The Fuelling Valve Position Lights on the External Fueling Panel illuminate
(blue) when
A. The respective fuelling valve is OPEN and fuel is being transferred into the tank.
B. The respective fuelling valve is in transit.
C. The respective fuelling valve is OPEN.
129. The Fuel Specification for the CFM56 and APU is

A. DERD 2488 only.
B. DERD 2494.
C. DTD 585 and 588.
130. Should the indicated fuel quantity in any main tank be 454 Kgs or less
A. Switch on all main tank fuel pumps and open the crossfeed valve.
B. Switch off the associated fuel pump if both pump LOW
C. Switch on all main tank fuel pumps and close the crossfeed valve.
29
131. The Centre Tank Fuelling Valve Position light on the External Fuelling Panel
is
A. Blue and is illuminated when the centre tank fuelling valve is closed.
B. Blue and is extinguished when the centre tank fuelling valve is closed.
C. Red and is extinguished when the centre tank fuelling valve is closed.
132. For a FUEL annunciator and the MASTER CAUTION lights to illuminate,
two fuel LOW PRESSURE lights must be illuminated for the
A. AFT pump in each wing tank.
B. FWD pump in each wing tank.
C. Same tank.
133. A digital fuel quantity indicator has an accuracy of

A. +/- 2% of full scale reading.
B. +/- 2.5% of full scale reading.
C. +/- 3% of full scale reading.
134. If the centre tank is scheduled to contain more than 453 Kgs then
A. Main tanks 1 & 2 must be filled first.
B. Load the centre tank first.
C All tanks may be filled together.
135. For the centre tank Scavenge Jet Pump to operate

A. Classics: The centre tank pumps must remain OFF and the No1 tank FWD pump must
be ON.
B. Classics: The centre tank pumps must be cycled OFF then ON and the No1 tank FWD
pump must be ON.
C. Classics: The centre tank pumps must be turned OFF and the No1 tank FWD pump
must be ON.
136. After testing the fuel quantity system using the P1 test switch, what indication
should you see. (AMM 28-41-02 pb5)
A.All gauges remain at the blue dot
B.The gauges should return to their original reading and Err code show 888
C.The gauges should return to their original reading and no ERR code.
137. When functionally checking the cross-feed valve you would -(AMM
28-22-00-715-018)
A.Physically check movement of the indicating arm on the valve.
B.perform an audible check
C.Check the green light illuminates
138. To transfer fuel out of a wing tank to another wing.

A.Not possible on ground
B.Defuel valve open, cross-feed valve open, pump ON and tank selected.
C.Defuel valve open, pumps On
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139. What is the minimum fuel level for operating fuel boost pumps at center
Tank?
A.454 kgs (1000 Lb).
B.1250 kgs.
C.No limitation, the pump will stop with fuel low level
140. How can you close engine fuel S.O.V.

A.Start lever /fire handle.
B.Start Lever only
C.Fire Handle only
141. On the refuel manifold, what are the red buttons for.
A.They can be used to refuel aircraft manually.
B.They can be used to stop the refuel in emergency
C.To isolate the refuel manifold to the engine feed manifold
142. To carry out a fuel drip of an aircraft, what must you know in order to select
the correct drip chart and thereby out the drip correctly.
A.The fuel Temperature in each tank
B.The fuel specific gravity
C.Attitude of aircraft to use correct drip chart.
ATA 29: HYDRAULIC SYSTEM
143. Complete loss of system 'B' pressure will deactivate

A. The outboard flight spoilers.
B. The inboard flight spoilers.
C. The ground spoilers.
144. If an electric hydraulic pump OVERHEAT light comes on

A. The pump will be automatically switched off and the OVERHEAT LIGHT
extinguished.
B. Turn the associated system electric and engine hydraulic pumps OFF.
C. Turn the associated system electric hydraulic pump OFF.
145. The standby system LOW PRESSURE light is armed

A. Only when the standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby
function is activated.
B. At all times.
C. Only when the standby pump operation has been selected or either Spoiler switch
has been selected to OFF.
146. The standby hydraulic pump only supplies pressure to the

A. Standby rudder and leading edge slats.
B. Standby rudder actuator, leading edge devices and thrust reversers.
C. Standby rudder, leading edge devices and brakes.
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147. Low fluid quantity in the A system reservoir can be indicated by one of the
following
A. Mechanical indication on the reservoir.
B. LOW QUANTITY light on the centre instrument panel.
C. LOW QUANTITY light on the centre instrument panel along with a Master
Caution ENG annunciator light.
148. If a total failure of both pumps supplying system B pressure occurs, which of
the primary flight controls will be totally inoperative
A. None.
B. Aileron and elevator.
C. Rudder only.
149. Selecting an engine driven hydraulic pump switch to OFF will

A. Electrically close the fluid supply valve at the reservoir.
B. De-activate the solenoid-held blocking valve and isolate fluid from the using unit.
C. Activate the solenoid-held blocking valve and isolate fluid from the using unit.
150. Illumination of a Hydraulic Electric Pump OVERHEAT light indicates

A. An overheat condition in the hydraulic reservoir.
B. An overheat condition of the pump hydraulic supply line.
C. An overheat condition in the case drain line or the pump housing.
151. Illumination of a electric hydraulic pump OVERHEAT light will

A. Automatically shut down the associated pump.
B. Not shut down the associated pump.
C. Automatically arm the LOW PRESSURE light for the associated pump.
152. Loss of the A hydraulic system will result in the complete loss of the following
A. Ground spoilers. Inboard flight spoilers. Alternate brakes. Autopilot A.
B. Ground spoilers. Inboard flight spoilers. Normal brakes. Nose wheel steering.
C. Ground spoilers. Outboard flight spoilers. Elevator feel system. Alternate brakes.
Autoslat system.
153. Loss of the B hydraulic system will result in the complete loss of the following
A. Outboard flight spoilers. Autopilot B. No. 2 thrust reverser. Yaw damper.
B. Outboard flight spoilers. Autopilot B. Normal brakes. Yaw damper.
C. Outboard flight spoilers. Autoslats. Autopilot B.
154. The standby hydraulic pump is automatically activated on the loss of system
A or B hydraulic pressure
A. During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 60 Kts and the
wing flaps extended.
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B. During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 90 Kts and wing
flaps extended.
C. During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 60 Kts irrespective
of the wing flaps position.
155. The Standby hydraulic fluid

A. Is cooled by a heat exchanger located in NO. 2 tank.
B. Is cooled by a heat exchanger located in NO. 1 tank.
C. Is not cooled.
156. Pulling NO.1 Engine Fire switch will

A. Stop the fluid to the No.1 Engine Driven and electric hydraulic pump by closing
the Hydraulic Shutoff valve and de-activate the associated low pressure light.
B. Stop the fluid to the No. 1 Engine Driven hydraulic pump by closing the Hydraulic
Shutoff valve and de-activate the associated low pressure light.
C. Only stop the fluid to the No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic pump by closing the
Hydraulic Shutoff valve.
157. The engine driven hydraulic pump switch

A. In the OFF position will de-activate the hydraulic LOW PRESS light.
B. Is left in the ON position on shutdown to prolong the life of the blocking valve
solenoid.
C. Should be switched OFF in the event of the electric hydraulic pump OVERHEAT
light illuminating.
158. If either Flight Control switch is moved to the STBY RUD position
A. The standby pump will be activated and the standby hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light
will be armed.
B. The standby pump will be de-activated allowing system A pressure to power the
rudder and the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light will be armed.
C. The standby pump will be activated and the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light
will be armed.
159. The Standby hydraulic reservoir is kept topped up from

A. Oil containers used by engineers before each flight.
B. The system A reservoir.
C. The system B reservoir.
160. Illumination of a electric hydraulic pump OVERHEAT light will

A. Automatically shut down the associated pump.
B. Not shut down the associated pump.
C. Automatically arm the LOW PRESSURE light for the associated pump
161. A leak in the hydraulic system A engine driven pump or its associated lines
would be indicated by
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A. System A contents falling to three quarters full (conventional engine instruments) or

64% (EIS).
B. System A contents falling to one quarter full (conventional engine instruments) or 40%
(EIS).
C. System A contents falling to one quarter full (conventional engine instruments) or 22%
(EIS).
162. Placing the A Flt Control switch to STBY RUD position will
A. Start the standby pump, arm the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light, close the
A system Flight Control Shutoff valve and the A system Flt Control LOW PRESSURE
light is de-activated when the standby rudder shutoff valve opens.
B. Start the standby pump, arm the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light, close the
A and B system Flight Control Shutoff valves and the A system Flt Control LOW
PRESSURE light is de-activated when the standby rudder shutoff valve opens.
C. Start the standby pump, close the A system Flight Control Shutoff valve and the A
system Flt Control LOW PRESSURE light is de-activated when the standby rudder
shutoff valve opens.
163. Using the Standby Hydraulic power for thrust reverser deployment will cause
A. Deployment time not to be affected.
B. Deployment time to increase.
C. Deployment time to decrease.
164. The standby system low quantity light is

A. Armed at all times and will illuminate whenever the reservoir is approximately half
empty.
B. Armed at all times and will illuminate whenever the reservoir is approximately three
quarters empty.
C. Armed only when either Flt Control switch is placed to the STBY RUD position.
165. What is the normal position for engine driven hydraulic pump selector
switches.( SSM 29-11-11 , p101 )
A.Both are normally left on.
B.Both are Off on ground
166. How do you fill the stand by reservoir?

A.Through "A" system
B.Through "B" system.
C.Through a specific valve on the stand by reservoir
167. If a hydraulic system fluid temperature overheat light came on what could be
caused. (AMM29-00-00 p209)
A.Insufficient fuel quantity for fluid cooling (760 kgs.).
B.Hydraulic pump failure
C.High work load from the users
34
168. What could be the likely cause of hydraulic system pressure at 3900 p.s.i.
A.Too high load applied to the flight control surfaces
B.Engine overspeed.
C.Hydraulic pump regulation U/S.
169. Hydraulic reservoir pressure & measurement

A. Normal 47 PSI / Max 60 PSI at Reservoir pressurisation module
B.Normal 25 PSI plus/minus 5 PSI
C.3000 PSI
170. What valves are on the Stand-By Pressure Module

A.Stand-by Rudder
B.Stand-By Rudder,Stand-By Leading Edge
C.Stand-by Elevator
171. What could hydraulic fluid leaking from the Tail Cone indicate
A.Leak from Elevator PCU’s or Feel And Centering Unit
B.Leak from Rudder PCU's
C.Leak from Feel and Limiting Unit
ATA 30: ICE & RAIN PROTECTION
172. The right No.2 window heating input is controlled by

A. The right SIDE window heat control system.
B. The left No.1 window heat control system.
C. The right No.1 window heat control system.
173. If a window overheat light illuminates this indicates that

A. The power has been automatically removed from the associated window system
and will be re-introduced automatically when the window has cooled.
B. The power has been automatically removed from the associated window system.
C. The associated window has reached an overheat condition and it must be selected
OFF manually to remove power before any damage takes place.
174. With all window heaters selected ON and OVHT selected on the window heat
test switch
A. The ON lights will not be affected but observe a rise in on the AC ammeters.
B. All OVERHEAT lights illuminate and the ON lights may extinguish immediately,
or remain illuminated for as long as 70 seconds.
C. All OVERHEAT lights illuminate and the ON lights will extinguish immediately.
175. The window heat switches must be

A. ON to make a PWR or OVHT test.
B. OFF to make a PWR and OVHT test only.
C. OFF when making an OVHT test only.
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176. With all windscreen heating switches ON and the aircraft on the ground
A. If a green ON light extinguishes and an OVERHEAT light comes ON, the Master
Caution light will also come ON.
B. All lights remain extinguished until the aircraft is airborne because of touchdown
relays.
C. If a green ON light extinguishes and an OVERHEAT light comes ON, the Master
Caution light will not come ON.
177. During a flight in icing conditions with wing anti-icing selected to ON

A. The system will automatically select the wing anti-ice valves to closed if the
temperature in the leading edge is too high.
B. There is no direct control over the amount of heat supplied other than variation of
engine power.
C. The associated wing anti-ice valve will automatically close if the pressure in the
wing leading edge is too high.
178. Thermal air for wing anti-icing is obtained from

A. 9th stage engine bleed air only.
B. Bleed air ducted from the main pneumatic manifold.
C. 5th stage engine bleed air only.
179. The total air temperature probe

A. Is not heated while on the ground.
B. Is electrically heated.
C. Does not require heating.
180. The wing anti-ice valves will

A. Close when the pressure in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the
ground only.
B. Close when the temperature in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the
ground or in flight.
C. Close when the temperature in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the
ground only.
181. The wing anti-ice control valves

A. Are DC motor operated.
B. Are AC motor operated.
C. Are pneumatically operated.
182. The COWL ANTI-ICE light is

A. Amber in colour, indicating over-temperature only.
B. Amber in colour, indicating over-temperature or over-pressure.
C. Blue in colour and when illuminated indicates the engine cowl anti-ice valve is in
disagreement with the engine anti-ice switch.
36
183. In the event of an Engine anti-ice valve failing in the OPEN position, bleed air
to the cowl can
A. Can be switched off by closing the Isolation valve.
B. Can be switched off by selecting the associated engine BLEED switch to OFF.
C. Not be switched off while the associated engine is running.
184. If the Master Caution light, the ANTI-ICE annunciator and the amber
COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminate, you should
A. Retard the associated thrust lever until the COWL ANTI-ICE light extinguishes.
B. Switch off the associated engine Bleed switch.
C. Immediately switch the associated Engine Anti-ice OFF.
185. If the No 1 window inner pane cracks and arcing begins

A. Initiate drill for emergency descent.
B. No pressurisation adjustments are necessary.
C. The maximum cabin differential pressure must be reduced to 5 PSID.
186. With any control cabin window heating inoperative, speed should be
restricted to
A. 250 Kts at altitudes below 10,000ft.
B. 280 Kts at altitudes below 15,000ft.
C. 250 Kts at altitudes below 15,000ft.
187. If a No.1 window outer pane cracks

A. Cabin differential pressure must be reduced to a maximum of 2 PSI
B. Cabin differential pressure must be reduced to a maximum of 5 PSI
C. Turn window heat off, limit IAS to 250kts below 10,000 ft.
188. With the Wing Anti-ice switch selected to ON and either VALVE OPEN light
is illuminated bright blue
A. Avoid icing conditions.
B. The valve is partially open and flight may be continued normally in icing conditions.
C. Select both engine start switches to FLT.
189. The right No.2 window heat is supplied from

A. Generator BUS No. 2.
B. Standby AC BUS
C. Generator BUS No. 1.
190. If the engine anti-ice switch is selected ON, and a cowl valve failed in the
closed position then the COWL VALVE OPEN light
A. Will illuminate dim blue after 5 - 7 seconds.
B. Will be extinguished.
C. Will be illuminated bright blue.
191. With the aircraft on the ground and the wing anti-ice switch selected to ON
A. The wing anti-ice switch will remain ON irrespective of control valve position.
37
B. The wing anti-ice switch will trip to OFF when either wing ducting exceeds the preset
temperature limit.
C. The wing anti-ice switch will trip to OFF when either or both wing anti-ice valves
close.
192. The COWL ANTI-ICE light when illuminated

A. Indicates an overtemperature or overpressure condition in the duct downstream of the
engine cowl anti-ice valve.
B. Indicates an overtemperature or overpressure condition in the duct upstream of the
engine cowl anti-ice valve.
C. Indicates an excessive pressure in the supply duct only.
193. The Window Heat ON light (green) illuminates to indicate

A. The associated window heat switch has been selected to OVHT TEST.
B. The associated window heat switch is positioned to ON.
C. The window heat controller is applying heat to the associated window.
194. The nose cowl anti-ice air is sourced from 5th, 9th or both air sources.
A.9th
B.5th
C.Both
195. The nose cowl anti-ice valve is locked in a fixed position by -

A.A pip pin.
B.A locking screw
C.A rotating locking lever
196. What could cause the nose cowl anti-ice SOV to close after being selected
open.
A.Too low pressure
B..Xcess pressure or temperature
C .Too low temperature
197. Can you operate engine anti-ice on the ground

A.Yes, With engines, Max 2 minutes, Watch EGT rise
B.Not permitted as there is no cooling
C.Yes, without limitations.
198. Can you operate wing anti-ice on the ground

A.No, only in flight
B.Yes, But time limits apply (Switches protect L/E)
C.Yes, without limitations
199. Where is the cabin altitude switch.

A.E/E compartment
B.Forward Accessories compartment.
C .Aft Accessories compartment.
38
200. Why do you need to set the audio selector panel when doing a test of the
stowed oxy mask.
A.In order to audibly hear oxy flow and test system.
B.In order to test the audio system at the same time.
C.To check the correct installation of the oxy mask.
201. After stowing a crew oxy mask, to test the box you -
A.Open the Oxy valve and breath
B.Press test lever, watch blinker go yellow and then black
C.Press the test lever and check the audio system sounds
202. What is the location of Pax oxygen altitude Switch/

A.Behind E3
B.In front of E3
C .Aft cargo LH side
ATA 31: INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
203. The Flight Recorder will operate on the ground

A. When either engine is operating only.
B. When the Test switch is selected to TEST or either engine is operating.
C. At all times.
204. How many Air Data Computers are fitted to the B737
A. 2 (1 AC powered and 1 DC powered).
B. 3 (2 AC powered and 1 DC powered).
C. 2 (both AC powered).
205. On the ground the TAT indication is approximately the outside air
temperature
A. Provided the pitot heat is OFF.
B. Provided the pitot heat is ON.
C. Irrespective of the pitot heat being ON or OFF.
275. How do you access fuel used indication. ( 737-345 GFM , p2-4 )
A.Switch on P2 panel.
B.Switch on P4 panel.
C.Switch on P6 panel.
276. How do you reset the fuel used indication. ( FCOM )

A.Switch on P2 panel.
B.Switch on P4 panel.
C.Switch on P6 panel
277. What could cause continuous operation of the Ground Crew Horn/
39
A. IRS Cooling on Battery,IRS on Battery Power

B. IRS no power
C. IRS is faulty
ATA 32: LANDING GEAR
206. The alternate anti-skid system has

A. One alternate brake metering valve connected to all alternate antiskid valves.
B. Two anti-skid valves.
C. Four anti-skid valves
207. The landing gear is normally operated

A. By system B hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility and system A
hydraulic power as back-ups.
B. By system A hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility as a back-up.
C. By system B hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility as a back-up.
208. While the landing gear is being extended manually, the landing gear lever
must be selected to
A. DOWN and remain DOWN after extension.
B. OFF and remain OFF after extension.
C. OFF and then selected to DOWN after extension.
209. If the nose gear lockout pin is not installed

A. Pushback must be with System A Elec. pump OFF.
B. Pushback must be with both System A hydraulic pumps ON.
C. Pushback must be with both System A hydraulic pumps OFF.
210. Rudder pedal steering is

A. Deactivated whenever the gear is up and locked.
B. Active at all times irrespective of the gear position, as it can only demand +/- 7
degrees of nose wheel movement.
C. Deactivated as the nose gear strut extends after takeoff.
211. Rudder pedal steering

A. Can be overridden by the nose wheel steering wheel.
B. Is available up to +/- 7 degrees on the captain's rudder pedals only.
C. Is activated anytime the nose gear strut is extended.
212. Indications that the landing gear is down and locked, when looking through
the gear viewers are
A. Main gear - red painted stripes lining up on oleo and side struts.
Nose gear - two yellow arrow heads on the down lock strut are in contact.
B. Main gear - red painted stripes lining up on down lock and side struts.
Nose gear - two red arrow heads on the down lock strut are in contact.
40
C. Main gear - yellow painted stripes lining up on down lock and side struts.
213. Hydraulic power for the normal brakes is supplied by

A. System B.
B. System A to outboard and system B to the inboard brakes.
C. System A.
214. The alternate brake system is powered by

A. Accumulator pressure.
B. System B hydraulics.
C. System A hydraulics.
215. If system A hydraulic power has failed

A. Autobrake is not available.
B. The alternative anti-skid system is inoperative.
C. Autobrake is available but anti-skid is unserviceable.
216. On loss of system B hydraulic power

A. Locked wheel and touchdown protection is not available
B. Locked wheel and touchdown protection is available.
C. Autobrake is operative.
217. The HYD Brake Pressure indicator reads zero, but both hydraulic system
pressures are normal
A. The nitrogen precharge in the brake accumulator has leaked out, accumulator
braking is not available but normal braking is unaffected.
B. The nitrogen precharge in the brake accumulator has leaked out and alternate
brakes will not be available in the event of system B failure.
C. The nitrogen precharge in the brake accumulator has leaked out, normal braking is
not available but alternate braking is unaffected
218. The alternate brake source selector valve

A. Prevents hydraulic system B from powering the alternate brake system when hydraulic
system A is operating normally.
B. Isolates accumulator pressure.
C. Prevents hydraulic system A from powering the alternate brake system when hydraulic
system B is operating normally.
219. Classics only - With any landing gear not locked down and the flaps greater
than 15 degrees
A. A steady horn will sound which cannot be silenced (reset) with the Horn Cut-out
switch, but can be silenced if either thrust lever is in a high forward thrust position.
B. A steady horn will sound which cannot be silenced (reset) with the Horn Cut-out
switch.
C. A steady horn will sound which can be silenced (reset) with the Horn Cut-out switch.
41
220. Classics only - With either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, the landing
gear not down and locked and the flaps are up
A. Red warning lights will illuminate and a steady horn will sound.
B. Red warning lights will illuminate and intermittent horn will sound.
C. Red warning lights will illuminate.
221. Classics only - The main gear viewer is (normally) located

A. Opposite the 2nd window behind the aft overwing exit and in the centre of the aisle.
B. Opposite the 3rd window behind the aft overwing exit and one foot right (starboard) of
centre.
C. Opposite the 3rd window behind the aft overwing exit and one foot left (port) of
centre.
222. Classics only - Indications that the landing gear is down and locked, when
looking through the gear viewers are
A. Main gear - red painted stripes lining up on down lock and side struts.
Nose gear - two red arrow heads on the down lock strut are in contact.
B. Main gear - yellow painted stripes lining up on down lock and side struts.
C. Main gear - red painted stripes lining up on oleo and side struts.
223. Should the ANTISKID INOP light illuminate

A. Select the Autobrake Select switch to OFF and brake with caution.
B. No action is required.
C. Select the Antiskid control switch to OFF.
224. The autobrake system is armed

A. When the main wheels spin up on landing.
B. When the aircraft is in flight, the anti-skid control switch is ON and the autobrake
select switch is in the 1,2, 3 or MAX positions.
C. When the aircraft is on the ground, the anti-skid control switch is ON and the
autobrake select switch is in the 1,-2, 3 or MAX positions.
225. The autobrake RTO mode was selected prior to takeoff and
A. The autobrake select switch will remain in the RTO position after take-off until placed
in the OFF position.
B. The autobrake DISARM light will illuminate after take-off until the autobrake select
switch is placed to the OFF position.
C. The autobrake select switch will automatically return to the OFF position after
take-off.
226. When the autobrake RTO mode is selected on the ground

A. The speedbrake lever must be armed to initiate the automatic self test.
B. The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will illuminate for approximately 2 seconds to
indicate self test initiation. After 2 seconds the light will extinguish.
42
C. The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light should not illuminate. After 2 seconds the light
will extinguish.
227. On an aborted take-off with autobrake RTO mode selected

A. Braking, equivalent to full manual braking, will be appliedif the groundspeed is less
than 90 knots but greater than 60 knots.
B. Braking, equivalent to full manual braking, will be applied if the groundspeed is more
than 90 knots.
C. Braking, equivalent to the MAX autobrake setting, will be applied if the groundspeed
is more than 90 knots.
228. If a landing is made with RTO left selected

A. No automatic braking action occurs and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will
illuminate 2 seconds after landing.
B. No automatic braking action occurs and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will
illuminate two minutes after landing.
C. Full automatic RTO braking occurs and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light would not
illuminate.
229. Selecting the Nose Wheel Steering switch on the Captain's Instrument panel
to ALT provides the
A. Standby hydraulic system pressure for steering.
B. B hydraulic system pressure for steering.
C. A hydraulic system pressure for steering.
230. Classics only - With Flap 5 selected and the gear not down and locked, both
Forward Thrust Levers are retarded to below approximately 10 degrees thrust lever
angle. The gear warning horn sounds and
A. Can not be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch.
B. Can be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch.
C. Can be cancelled by moving one of the Thrust levers forward to approximately the 30
degrees thrust lever angle.
231. With Flap 15 selected and the gear not down and locked, both Forward
Thrust Levers are retarded to the idle position. The gear warning horn sounds and
A. Can be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch. (Thrust levers remaining
at idle).
B. Can not be cancelled even by moving one of the Thrust levers forward to
approximately the 30 degrees thrust lever angle.
C. Can not be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch. (Thrust levers
remaining at idle).
232. With Flap 25 selected and the gear not down and locked, both Forward
Thrust Levers are retarded to below approximately 10 degrees thrust lever angle.
The gear warning horn sounds and
A. Can be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch.
43
B. Can not be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch or by any position of
the Thrust levers.
C. Can be cancelled by moving one of the Thrust levers forward to approximately the 30
degrees thrust lever angle.
233. What cockpit indications are there, if on landing gear extension, one
gear is unsafe.(AMM 32-61-00 p01)
A.Only 2 green lights on fwd panel cockpit
B.Only 1 green light on fwd panel cockpit
C.A red light will illuminate on fwd panel cockpit
234. What systems are the landing gear pressure supplied from and through
what component. (AMM 32-31-00 p07)
A."B" system via the landing gear transfer valve.
B."A" and "B" systems via the landing gear transfer valve.
C."A" system via the landing gear transfer valve.
235. In what chapter would you find the inspection needed after a high
energy stop.
A.Chapter 5
B.Chapter 32
C.Chapter 31
236. How do you check the brake pressure accumulator pre load.
A.Drop off System "B" pressure and read gauge in wheel well.
B.Pressurize system "B" and read gauge in wheel well
C.Pressurize system "A" and read gauge in wheel well.
237. If the crew complain of brakes juddering, grabbing, what is a possible

cause.
A.Anti-skid system fault
B.Air in hydraulic system / bleed / brake pack worn
C.Hydraulic pressure too high
238. What indications are there in the cockpit if the Park Brake is set while
the aircraft is in Air Mode (AMM 32-42-00 p11)
A.Park Brake Inop light on
B.Brake Inop light on
C.Anti-Skid Inop Light on
239. What is required for the Park Brake to operate (AMM 32-44-00 p08_so
do mach lay tu Batt Bus)
A.Battery Switch ON
B.Battery Switch OFF
C.Hydraulic power must be switched ON.
240. What is the function of the LGTV (AMM 32-31-00 p07) &B2
44
A.Isolate system B to operate landing gear in the event of system A failure

B.To allow System B to operate the Landing Gear in the event of System A failure.
C.Allows both A and B systems to operate permanently the landing gear
ATA 33: LIGHT SYSTEM
241. The emergency exit lights and signs are powered

A. From separate emergency power supplies installed in the passenger cabin.
B. From the hot battery bus.
C. From the battery bus
242. When ARMED, the emergency exit lights will automatically come on
A. When the aircraft reaches a preset G-load limit.
B. If electrical power to DC bus 1 fails or AC power is turned off.
C. Upon contact with water.
243. The NO SMOKING signs when selected to AUTO

A. Illuminate when the landing gear is extended.
B. Illuminate when the flaps are extended and the landing gear is retracted.
C. Illuminate when the landing gear is extended and the flaps are greater than 10
degrees.
244. The FASTEN BELTS signs when selected to AUTO will

A. Extinguish when the flaps are extended and the landing gear is up.
B. Illuminate when the auto-pilot is not engaged.
C. Illuminate when landing gear or flaps are extended.
245. If there is a complete electrical power failure

A. The left dome light supplies emergency general lighting
B. The right dome light supplies emergency general lighting
C. The map light supplies emergency general lighting
278. If you turn the battery OFF and emergency lights come ON, how do
you turn them off.
A.Turn the emergency lights Off
B.Disconnect the batteries
C.Turn battery back on, turn off emergency lights, then turn battery back off
ATA 34: NAVIGATION SYSTEM
246. The airplane pitot system consists of:

A. Captain's, first officer's, auxiliary No. 1
B. Captain's, first officer's
C. Captain's, first officer's, auxiliary No. 1 and auxiliary No. 2
45
247. The airplane static system consists of

A. Captain's, first officer's, auxiliary No. 1, auxiliary No. 2 and alternate
B. Captain's, first officer's, auxiliary No. 1, auxiliary No. 2
C. Captain's, first officer's
248. How many navigation unit (VOR/ILS receivers) are installed on aircraft:
A. 02 unit
B. 01 unit
C. 03 unit
ATA 35: OXYGEN SYSTEM
249. To use the passenger portable oxygen

A. Turn the yellow knob in an anticlockwise direction and plug the bottle into the
overhead connection.
B. Turn the yellow knob in a counterclockwise direction and plug the mask into the
desired bottle outlet.
C. Plug the mask into the desired outlet only.
250. The passenger oxygen system

A. Is supplied from the passenger oxygen bottle located in the forward cargo
compartment.
B. Is supplied by individual chemical oxygen generators, one for each passenger.
C. Is supplied by individual chemical oxygen generators located at each Passenger
Service Unit.
251. Passenger oxygen flowing to a mask is visually confirmed by

A. An amber in-line flow indicator.
B. A green in-line flow indicator.
C. A white in-line flow indicator
252. Crew oxygen system pressure is correctly indicated when

A. The battery switch is on.
B. Does not require electrical power.
C. The battery switch is off ( Hot battery Bus ).
ATA 36: PNEUMATIC SYSTEM
253. With the Isolation Valve switch in AUTO, both engine bleed switches ON and
both Air Conditioning Pack switches selected to AUTO or HIGH
A. The isolation valve will be open.
B. The isolation valve will be closed.
C. The isolation valve will be closed when the flaps are extended.
254. The DUAL BLEED light will be on

46
A. With the air conditioning panel set for a bleeds-off takeoff.

B. With No. 2 engine bleed valve open, the isolation valve open and APU bleed valve
open.
C. With No. 1 and No. 2 bleed valves closed and APU bleed valve open.
255. The 9th stage modulating and shut-off valve

A. Is open at all times irrespective of 5th stage air pressure output.
B. Will open if the 5th stage air is insufficient in maintaining proper pressure.
C. Will open if the APU is insufficient in maintaining proper pressure.
256. The engine bleed valves are

A. Pneumatically activated and operated.
B. AC activated and pneumatically operated.
C. DC activated and pneumatically operated.
257. The isolation valve is

A. DC operated.
B. AC operated.
C. AC controlled and pneumatically operated
258. APU bleed air used to start NO.1 engine is

A. Routed via the No. 1 engine bleed air valve to the No.1 engine starter valve.
B. Routed direct to the No.1 engine starter valve.
C. Controlled by the modulating and shut-off valve.
259. The amount of fan air that is ducted through the pre-cooler is controlled by
the
A. Thermostatic pre-cooler valve.
B. Modulating and shut-off valve.
C. Ram air controller
260. An engine BLEED TRIP OFF light will illuminate

A. Only if engine bleed air pressure exceeds a predetermined limit.
B. When engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined
limit.
C. Only if engine bleed air temperature exceeds a predetermined limit.
261. With a ground pneumatic source connected and the isolation valve switch
selected to CLOSE
A. The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by the left hand pointer on the pneumatic
duct pressure indicator.
B. The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by both the left and right pointers on the
pneumatic duct pressure indicator.
C. The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by the right hand pointer on the pneumatic
duct pressure indicator.
47
262. Both hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by

A. Air from the pneumatic manifold.
B. 5th and 9th stage air from engine No. 2 only.
C. Separate engine bleeds directly to the reservoirs.
263. What initial action is required in the event of a WING BODY OVERHEAT
light illuminating.
A. Close the isolation valve and switch off the associated air-conditioning pack.
B. Close the isolation valve and switch off the associated engine bleed.
C. Switch off the associated engine bleed.
264. The DUAL BLEED light is illuminated. Engine thrust

A. Should be limited to idle.
B. Should be limited to 40% N1.
C. Is unlimited. Dual bleed light is advisory only.
265. Where are the fan air temp sensor and 450° F sensor located.
A.In the engine
B.In the air conditioning bay
C.In the pylon.
266. With APU supplying air what precautions must you take before
changing left start valve.
A.Turn the air On
B.Turn the air off
C.Shut down the packs
267. Where are the pneumatic pressure transmitters.

A. O/B side LH and RH air conditioning bays.
B. I/B side LH and RH air conditioning bays.
C. In the pylons
268. Where is the isolation valve.

A. In the air conditioning bay
B. In the pylon
C. In the keel beam.
269. Where is the bleed air regulator (PRSOV regulator).

A. Lower fan frame.
B. In the pylon
C. Upper fan frame.
270. Where is the pre-cooler sensor access gained.

A. A panel on bottom of the engine strut
B. A panel on top of the engine strut.
C. An access on the pylon
48
271. If both bleeds on, isolation valve switch AUTO, should the FAV valve
be open or closed.
A. Closed.
B. Opened
C. Modulating, depending on the air temperature
272. With the engine operating at take-off power is 5th or 9th stage
supplying pneumatics.
A. 9th stage air
B. 5th stage air.
C. There is no air supply from the engines during take-off
273. On the ground with APU off the FAV should be -

. A. Open
B. Closed
C. Modulating
274. What task must you do prior to locking out the PRSOV.
A. Deactivate the L/E per MM.
B. Activate the L/E per MM.
C. Make sure the Fan air valve is close
275. When locking closed the 9th stage bleed SOV how is its position
indicated.
A. An indicator in the cockpit
B. A red pop out indicator on the top of the valve.
C. Lock indicator on valve is shown by screw head aligning with mark.
276. If you had low duct pressure with engine source, where would you start
trouble-shooting.
A. A pneumatic leak
B. Check the position of the PRSOV
C. Suspect duct press transmitter - open isolation valve and see other side pressure.
277. When does the 9th stage bleed air operate to supplement 5th stage.
A. At low power setting up to around 80% N2.
B. At low power setting up to around 40% N2.
C. At flex take-off power.
278. With the APU operating, bleed valve open, isolation valve open, the L
duct press is 38 and RH 42 the fault is -
A. Isolation valve fault
B. Duct Pressure indication
C. Too high demand from RH users
279. What cockpit indications are there when the Engine PRSOV adjusts
for high temperature
49
A. drop Duct pressure

B. Pressure increase
C. Pressure and temperature increase
280. What is the location of High Stage Regulator

A. In the Pylon
B. Bottom Fan Frame R.H.S
C. Upper Fan Frame R.H.S
281. To what position is the PRSOV “Fail-Safe”

A. Closed
B. Open
C. Modulating
ATA CHAPTER 38 - WATER/WASTE
282. Why is it important to pull the water compressor CB's when emptying the
water system.
A. To avoid overpressure
B. To stop the compressor running continually
C. To prevent injuries to the personnel
283. What should you do after changing a water filter.Cat B

A. Pressurise the potable water system and carry out leak check.
B. Drain the water tank.
C. Avoid using water for at least 30 minutes.
284. Cabin crew report low flow from aft galley, what is the probable cause. Cat
B
A. Water filter requires change.
B. Too low air pressure
C. Too high air pressure
285. No hot water from toilet tap - trouble shoot. Cat B

A. Check water tank air pressure
B. Reset water heater C/B
C. Check light on water heater is on, if not, remove cover and press reset button.
ATA49 : Auxiliary Power Unit

-------------
286. The APU may be operated with APU bleed only up to a maximum altitude of
A. 17,000ft
B. 10,000ft
C. 35,000ft
50
287. The overspeed light will illuminate when a start is aborted prior to the APU
reaching normal operating speed and
A. The APU overspeed reset switch in the E & E compartment must be reset.
B. No further attempts should be made to start the APU.
C. Will extinguish when the APU switch is placed to START again.
288. If the APU runs down due to fuel starvation, the Master Caution
annunciation system will show
A. APU and services being operated by the APU.
B. Services being operated by the APU only.
C. APU only.
289. The Garrett and Sundstrand APU generators are rated at:
A. The same rating as an engine driven generator.
B. 45 KVA's in-flight and 55KVA's on the ground.
C. 55 KVA's either in-flight or on the ground.
290. The maximum aircraft altitude for both APU bleed and electrical load is?
A. 17,000ft
B. 35,000ft
C. 10,000ft
291. When does the APU fuel solenoid valve open?

A. When oil pressure has reached 4psi.
B. When oil temperature has reached a minimum value.
C. When oil pressure has reached 13psi.
292. The APU Electrical Generator and APU Oil Cooler are cooled by
A. A gear driven fan.
B. Ram air pressure.
C. An Oil/Fuel heat exchanger.
293. If the APU generator is providing electrical power to the aircraft while on the
ground,
A. The galley electrical loads will automatically be shed if the total electrical power
requirements exceed design limits on the B737-400 only.
B. The galley electrical loads will automatically be shed if the total electrical power
requirements exceed design limits.
C. The galley electrical loads will not be automatically shed.
294. Illumination of the APU DET INOP light

A. Activates master caution "APU".
B. Activates master caution "OVHT/DET".
C. Does not activate the master caution system.
295. Maximum continuous EGT for Garrett APU operation is?

A. 760 degrees C
51
B. 710 degrees C
C. 725 degrees C
296. The APU LOW OIL PRESSURE light is

A. Inhibited during APU start.
B. Always illuminated when the APU switch is in the OFF position.
C. Disarmed when the APU switch is in the OFF position.
297. The APU will automatically shut-down

A. When the battery switch is placed OFF at any time.
B. When the battery switch is placed OFF on the ground only.
C. When the battery switch is placed OFF in flight only.
298. During a normal APU start

A. The starter motor is engaged as soon as the master switch is released from START
to ON.
B. The blue APU GEN OFF BUS bus light goes out at 95% RPM.
C. The amber LOW OIL PRESSURE light is lluminated until the APU oil pressure is
normal (approx. 35% RPM).
299. The APU fuel heater

A. Is automatically operated and uses the APU compressor bleed air.
B. Uses heat supplied directly from the APU oil cooler.
C. Is automatically operated and uses 5th stage bleed air from Engine No. 2.
300. If an APU fire warning is sensed

A. The APU will shut-down and the extinguisher is discharged automatically.
B. The APU must be shut-down by pulling up the fire switch.
C. The APU will shut-down automatically.
301. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The APU can be used to power a generator bus above 37,000 feet altitude.
B. The APU can power Generator Bus 1 with ground power connected to Generator
Bus 2.
C. The APU can electrically power both Generator Buses in the air and on the
ground.
302. Maximum start EGT for Garrett APU operation is?

A. 760 degrees C
B. 725 degrees C
C. 710 degrees C
303. With an APU aborted start on the ground, another start may be attempted
immediately
52
A. But 5 minutes cooling is required between the second and third attempt and a wait
of one hour is required after the third start attempt.
B. But 3 minutes cooling is required between subsequent attempts.
C. But 3 minutes cooling is required between the second and third attempt and a wait
of 30 minutes is required after the third start attempt.
304. The APU oil LOW QUANTITY light

A. Is only armed when the APU start switch is at START.
B. Is armed at all times.
C. Is only armed when the APU start switch is out of OFF.
305. Where is the remote shut down panel located(AMM 26-00-2 page 2).
Cat B
A. Left hand wheel well (P27 panel)
B. Right hand wheel well (P28 panel).
C. Nose landing gear
306. When shutting down an APU, what is the no-load cooling time. Cat B
A. 60 sec
B. 120 sec
C. There is no cooling time
307. APU at idle - no load - what would be an acceptable EGT and duct
pressure./ B
A. <725°C 25 +/- 5 p.s.i.
B. <350°C 45 +/- 5 p.s.i.
C. <250°C 36 +/- 2 P.s.i.
308. What is the minimum battery voltage for APU starting. Cat B
A. 22 volts.
B. 24 volts.
C. 24.5 volts.
309. When doing an APU monitoring check, you compare - Cat B

A. EGT no load
B. Starting sequence duration.
C. OAT to full load EGT.
310. When dispatching an aircraft with MEL 49-7, APU bleed air valve
U/S, how do you deactivate the valve. Cat B
A. Disconnect canon plug.
B. Install a locking pin
C. Rotate the valve butterfly to the closed position
311. If APU shuts down with high oil temp, what is a probable cause.Cat B
A. Blocked cooling fan inlet screen.
B. Oil press too high
53
C. Oil system contamination
312. To do a condition monitoring check how should you load the APU. Cat
B
A. Electrically
B. Electrically and pneumatically.
C. Pneumatically
ATA CHAPTER 51 - STRUCTURES
313. What pressure should fuselage drains close at.

A.2 p.s.i.
B.8 p.s.i
C.36 p.s.i
ATA CHAPTER 52 - DOORS
314. What is necessary to gain access to entry door lube points.

A.Remove door liner.
B.Remove escape slide
C.Remove access panels
315. What is different about the Section 48 Door

A.It is an emergency exit door
B.It is a Pressure Relief Door
316. The cockpit door:

A. Can only be unlocked electrically.
B. Can only be locked with A.C. power.
C. Can only be locked with a key.
317. The cockpit door blow-out panels

A. Open into the cockpit.
B. Open into the cabin.
C. Open either way for pressure equalisation
318. To exit the cockpit with the cockpit door jammed closed
A. Grasp the cockpit door emergency exit handle on the lower part of the door and
rotate clockwise.
B. Grasp the cockpit door emergency exit handle on the lower part of the door and
push.
C. Grasp the cockpit door emergency exit handle on the upper part of the door and
pull forward.
54
319. The door warning proximity switch is actuated to energize the appropriate
door warning light
A. In cockpit
B. In FWD attendant cabin
C. In AFT attendant cabin.
ATA CHAPTER 54 - NACELLES
320. The thrust links are attached to the engine by how many bolts.
A.4 bolts
B.4 fusible bolts
C.2 bolts.
321. When removing the engine will the aft cone bolt stay with the engine or
the pylon.
A.Stays on the pylon.
B.Stays on the engine.
C.Must be removed separately.
ATA CHAPTER 56 - WINDOWS
322. If a scratch is found on the outer pane of No.1 window you would -
A.Remove it by use the applicable MEL procedure.
B.Remove it as per the AMM procedure.
C.Measure it with an optical micrometer and compare to MM.
323. When installing the front windscreen it is critical that -

A.Correct length screws are used and appropriate torque values set
B.Appropriate torque sequences is applied
324. If the flight crew reported ARC of the bus bar fwd windshield you
would -
A.Change the window.
B.Repair the bus bar as per the AMM procedures
C.Check if the damage is within the limits.
325. Delamination of fwd windscreens is generally -

A.Not allowed
B.Allowable provided flight crew vision is not impaired
C.Allowed only for ferry flight
ATA 70: POWERPLANT
326. The N1 Manual Set knob

A. When pulled out disables the FMC input signal to the N1 indicator.
B. When pushed in allows manual setting of the N1 indicator cursor.
55
C. When pulled out enables the FMC input signal to the N1 indicator
327. The N1 RPM indicator indicates

A. The engine compressor speed in percent of RPM and is used as the primary thrust
setting reference.
B. The engine turbine speed in percent of RPM and is used as the primary thrust
setting reference.
C. The fan speed in percent of RPM and is used as the primary thrust setting
reference.
328. Rotating the N1 Manual Set knob (when pulled) will

A. Set the desired N1 RPM in the N1 Manual Set Indicator (EIS).
B. Set the desired N1 in the upper digital display of the N1 RPM indicator ( EIS ).
C. Set the desired N1 in the upper digital display of the N1 RPM indicator ( EIS )
with the N1 Manual Set Indicator blank.
329. Illuminating of the Red warning light above an EGT gauge indicates
A. The EGT for either engine has been reached or exceeded.
B. The EGT for the associated engine displayed has been reached or exceeded.
C. A warning that an abnormal engine start is occurring.
330. The N2 RPM indicator displays

A. High pressure compressor speed in actual RPM
B. Low pressure compressor speed in percent of RPM
C. High pressure compressor speed in percent of RPM
331. With the Fuel Flow switch selected to the USED position, the digital display
on both fuel flow indicators
A. Shows the total fuel consumed per engine since last reset.
B. Shows the total fuel consumed per engine per hour.
C. Shows the total fuel consumed per engine since engine start.
332. The START VALVE OPEN light (amber) indicates

A. The engine starter valve is open and air is being supplied to the air driven starter.
B. The Engine Start switch is in GRD.
C. The engine starter valve is open irrespective of air being supplied to the air driven
starter.
333. The minimum engine oil pressure is

A. 25psi
B. 20psi
C. 13psi
334. Illumination of the OIL FILTER BYPASS light

A. Indicates an impending bypass of the oil Scavenge Filter.
56
B. Indicates the Oil Filter is being bypassed.

C. Illuminates the Master Caution ENG annunciator light.
335. The engine oil pressure is

A. Unregulated and is primarily a function of engine N1 speed.
B. Regulated and is primarily a function of engine N2 speed.
C. Unregulated and is primarily a function of engine N2 speed.
336. Placing the Engine Start Switch in the GRD position

A. Opens the starter valve, closes the engine bleed air valve and the Right ( Standby
AC Bus ) igniter is energised immediately when the Engine Start Lever is placed to
IDLE.
B. Opens the starter valve, closes the engine bleed air valve and the selected igniter(s)
are energised when the Engine Start Lever is placed to IDLE.
C. Opens the starter valve, closes the engine bleed air valve and the selected igniter(s)
are energised immediately.
337. Placing the Engine Start Switch to the CONT position

A. Provides high energy ignition to the selected igniter(s) when the Engine Start
Lever is in the IDLE or CUTOFF positions.
B. Provides high energy ignition to the Left igniter when the Engine Start Lever is in
the IDLE position.
C. Provides high energy ignition to the selected igniter(s) when the Engine Start
Lever is in the IDLE position.
338. With the Ignition Select switch in the IGN R position

A. Both igniters are selected for use on the right engine.
B. The right igniter is selected for use on the right engine.
C. The right igniter is selected for use on both engines
339. The PMC INOP light

A. Indicates the PMC is inoperative when engine speed is above 46% N2 or the PMC
is selected OFF.
B. Indicates the PMC is selected OFF only.
C. Indicates the PMC is inoperative when engine speed is above 46% N2 only.
340. The PMC is

A. An electronic system with limited authority over the MEC.
B. A mechanical system with limited authority over the MEC.
C. An electronic system with total authority over the MEC.
341. The PMC provides

A. A variable thrust climb feature once the thrust lever is set at the beginning of the
climb.
57
B. A constant thrust climb feature once the thrust lever is set at the beginning of the
climb.
C. A constant EGT and Fuel Flow feature once the thrust lever is set at the beginning
of the climb.
342. The High Idle RPM in flight is approximately

A. 22% N1
B. 45% N1
C. 32% N1
343. The engine fuel system (not including fuel tank pumps) has
A. Two electrical fuel pumps.
B. Two single stage engine driven fuel pumps.
C. One engine driven fuel pump with two stages.
344. The engine fuel system contains

A. One fuel/oil heat exchanger only.
B. One fuel heater only.
C. One fuel heater and one fuel/oil heat exchanger.
345. During an engine shutdown, the start switch holding solenoid is held in the
cutout position until
A. The engine speed falls below 20% N2 RPM.
B. The engine speed falls below 30% N2 RPM.
C. The engine start lever is advanced to IDLE again.
346. The engine Ignition System contains

A. Two high energy AC systems.
B. One DC and one AC high energy system.
C. Two high energy DC systems.
347. Placing the Engine Start switch to the FLT position

A. Opens the starter valve and provides high energy ignition to both igniters when the
Engine Start Lever is positioned to IDLE.
B. Provides high energy ignition to the selected igniter(s) when the Engine Start Lever is
positioned to IDLE.
C. Provides high energy ignition to both igniters when the Engine Start Lever is
positioned to IDLE.
348. The PMC INOP indication is suppressed

A. Above starter cutout engine speed.
B. Below starter cutout engine speed.
C. 30 seconds after the engine start lever is positioned to CUTOFF.
349. For detectable failure conditions, the PMC

A. Schedules a slow N1 drift over approximately 30 seconds and illuminates the PMC
INOP, Master Caution and ENG annunciator lights.
58
B. Illuminates the PMC INOP, Master Caution and ENG annunciator lights only.
C. Schedules a slow N1 drift over approximately 30 seconds and illuminates the PMC
INOP light only.
350. Illumination of the LOW IDLE light indicates

A. The PMC has failed.
B. Either engine is near idle and its MEC is not commanded to maintain high idle RPM in
flight, or either engine is below 25% N1 in flight.
C. One or both Engine Start Levers is in the CUTOFF position.
351. With the thrust levers set at idle, the engines will be in Low Idle
A. When on the ground, except for the first 30 seconds after touchdown.
B. At all stages of flight or on the ground.
C. When on the ground, except for the first 4 seconds after touchdown.
352. The Fuel Flow Transmitter is located

A. Between the First and Second Stage of the engine driven fuel pump.
B. Downstream of the MEC Fuel Shutoff Valve.
C. Inside the MEC.
353. Fuel anti-icing is provided for the MEC

A. By the fuel heater using AC electrical power from the Generator Busses.
B. By the fuel heater using bleed air.
C. By the fuel heater using engine oil.
ATA CHAPTERS 71/72 - ENGINE GENERAL
354. Where is the Thrust Reverser Control Valve. (MM 78-34-01 fig 401)
A. Airconditioning bays
B. LH Thrust Reverser cowl
C. In the pylon
355. Where is the N2 hand cranking pad. (MM 72-62-01 fig 405)
A. A.G.B. - top - 9 o'clock position fwd face.
B. Accessory Gear box, bottom fwd face
C. HP compressor casing, 9 o'clock position.
356. Why is it important not to move the "Alt Flap" switch to "arm" prior to
de-activating the standby pump when preparing to open cowls. Cat B
A. The L/E flaps may extend.
B. The Standby pump could be damaged
C. The Thrust Reverser could deployed
357. To locate leaks from the drain mast when running at power -
A. Bag drains and examine after ground run.
B. To run the engine with open cowls and visually locate leaks.
C. Remove drain mast and use a leak detection device.
59
358. Where in the maintenance manual would you find limits for leakage from the
hydraulic pump pad.
A. Chapter 5
B. Section 29-71-00 page 605
C. Section 71-71-00 Pb 600.
ATA CHAPTER 73 - ENGINE FUEL
359. Should you adjust the NLR screw on the PMC. (MM 73-21-00 pb500 can
damage PMC with NLR adjustment. NLR: corrected fan speed)
A. No.
B. Yes
C. Yes every 400 flight hours
360. If you wanted to do leak check with the engine at idle, how would you
approach.
A. Not allowed
B. Via the approved entry corridor.
C. There is no restriction
361. Where is the CIT sensor. (71-00-58 fig 104)

A. 5.30 o'clock in the core
B. 9.00 o'clock in the core
C. 1.00 o'clock in the fan inlet
362. How do you get an engine to go to flight idle when on the ground.
A. Set the throttle lever to 15°
B. Pull the idle control CB on P6.
C. Change the flight/ground logic from the landing gear system.
363. Do you need to open the cowls to insert the part power rig pin.
A. No, the cowl should have a hole in it for this purpose.
B. Yes, the LH cowl
C. Yes, the RH cowl
364. Where would you find the idle speed adjustments.

A. On the MEC.
B. On the F/F transmitter
C. There is no adjustment on wing
365. If you had fuel leaking from the overboard drains where would you look for
the allowable limits.
A. Chapter 5
B. Chapter 73
C. Chapter 71.
60
366. How do you obtain OAT for an engine run.

A. From the Aircraft OAT indicator
B. From a stand-alone thermometer
C. From the Control Tour
367. You access the high idle adjustment screw and fuel comes out, is this normal.
A. Yes
B. No
C. No, except when the fire handle is pulled.
368. Where is the engine P.P rig pin hole.

A. On the MEC fuel control box.
B . On the throttle lever
C . On the HP pump outlet
369. Which C/B's should be tripped prior to a test on the ignition system.
A. Flight idle C/B's
B. Start valve C/B's.
C. Ignition C/B's.
370. Can you dispatch an aircraft with an inoperative ignition system.

A. No, both systems must be operative
B. Yes, but the left ignition must be operative.
C. Yes, but the right ignition must be operative.
371. With the engine start switch in FLT position, how many igniters will fire (all
other parameters set).
A. Only the Right system will fire
B. Both L & R igniters fire if the igniter switch is in neutral position.
C. Both L & R igniters fire irrespective of igniter switch selection
372. MEL for Ignition System

A. B system must be powered by the Standby Bus
B. A system must be powered by the Battery Bus
C. A System must be powered by the Standby Bus
ATA CHAPTER 75 - ENGINE AIR
373. What precautions should you take when using the VSV/VBV actuation pump.
A. Max press in the system 300 p.s.i.
B. Max press in the system 3000 p.s.i.
C. The flow must be limited.
374. Where is the turbine clearance control valve.

A. Left side of the engine
B. Right side of the engine.
C. Bottom of the exhaust section
61
375. Where are the VSV actuators located.

A. 3 and 9 o'clock.
B. 4 and 10 o'clock.
C. On the LP compressor section
376. With the engine not running, what position will the VSV/VBV's be in.
A. VSV's closed, VBV's open.
B. VSV's open, VBV's closed.
C. VSV's at the last position selected, VBV's open.
377. Is there a limit on the internal force needed to move the VSV feedback cable.
How is it done /B1
A. Yes, Disconnect cable and measure force
B. Yes, measure the force when moving the system with a pump.
C. No, provide it is not jammed.
378. When de-activating the HPTCC, where do you install the tool that depresses
the FLT/GND.
A. On the HPTCC actuator
B. In the landing gear wheel well
C. The fwd equipment bay (E11 shelf).
379. With the start lever in cut-off, should there be a gap between the lever and
the stop at the MEC.
A. Yes.
B. No.
C. No, on a cold engine.
380. You can operate the VSV's with a pump - is there any other way of doing this.
A. Yes - running the engine at idle with the feed-back cable disconnected.
B. No a pump is needed.
C. Yes - motoring the engine with the feed-back cable disconnected.
381. When rigging the cables on the ENG from the strut to the MEC, what
position is the T/L.
A. Part power.
B. Idle stop
C. Take-off stop
ATA CHAPTER 76 - ENGINE CONTROLS
382. How many thrust reverser feedback cables are there on an engine.
A. 2 - one for each reverser half.
B. 4 - Two for each reverser half.
C. 1 - one for each engine.
62
383. Where do you install the rig pin for rigging the airframe cables in the thrust
lever system.
A. In the pylon
B. In the thrust reverser cowls
C. In the engine LPC casing
384. When rigging the throttle cables from cockpit to strut drum, they are rigged
in the.
A. Part power position
B. Full power position
C. Idle position.
385. Pilot reports throttle stagger. How would you check that it is/is not a rigging
problem.
A. Install Idle pin
B. Install part power pin
C. Set throttle at MAX power stop.
386. When rigging the throttle cables from strut drum to the MEC, they are
rigged in the
A. Max power position
B. Minimum power position
C. Part Power position.
ATA CHAPTER 77 - ENGINE INSTRUMENTS
387. What indication would you have on your gauges if you had an EGT over
limits. (Other than during engine start). Cat B
A. Red light on EGT indicator illuminated
B. Red needle latched at red mark in the indicator
C. Red light flashed in the cockpit.
ATA CHAPTER 78 - THRUST REVERSER
388. If you need to open the thrust reverser cowl, what should you do prior to this.
A. Deactivate the leading edge devices.
B. Deactivate the Reverser system
C. Remove hydraulic and electrical power.
389. If you had to change a cascade vane, how would you safety the thrust
reverser.
A. Bypass pin in thrust reverser control valve.
B. Remove the thrust reverser cowl.
C. Install a safety locking device on the reverser actuators.
390. When opening the thrust reverser cowl, how do you safety it open.
A. With a safety bar
63
B. With 2 locking pins

C. With the cowl actuator lock.
391. Where are the thrust reverser control valves.

A. Fwd end of respective airconditioning bay.
B . Aft end of respective airconditioning bay
C. Fwd end of landing gear wheel well.
392. Where would you find the thrust reverser manual unlock handles.
A. On the upper actuator on each thrust reverser half
B. On the lower actuator on each thrust reverser half
C. In the pylon
393. What is the normal hydraulic supply for #2 thrust reverser.

A. System "A".
B. System "B".
C. Systems A and B.
394. What is the alternate hydraulic supply for #1 thrust reverser.

A. Standby hydraulic system.
B. System B.
C. System A.
395. If you operate a thrust reverser twice within 10 sec., it can lock out. What
causes this.
A. Hydraulic overpressure
B. Hydraulic fuses set.
C. Actuator Jammed
396. While testing the thrust reverser system, you find the hydraulic fuses have
set, how can you re-set them.
A. Remove hydraulic pressure from that system.
B. Set the hydraulic On and select the system operation in the opposite direction.
C. Wait until the temperature drops below the limit.
397. How can you measure the thrust reverser proximity sensor/target gaps.
A. Micro-meter.
B. Modeling clay.
C. Deep-gauge.
398. What powers the T/R Sync Locks

A 115VAC Normal bus
B 28VDC Standby bus
C 28VDC Battery Bus
ATA CHAPTER 79 - ENGINE OIL
64
399. What precautions are involved with the seals on the engine MCD'S.
A. Change "O"-ring - Don't change "D"-ring unless required.
B. Change "D"-ring - Don't change "O"-ring unless required.
C . Change both "O" and "D" -rings.
400. Where would you find the bypass indicators for the oil pressure filter.
A. Between the pump outlet and the filter.
B. Between the MCD and the filter.
C. On the filter housing
401. Where is the breather outlet for the engine oil system.
A. Through the tailpipe.
B. Through the oil tank.
C. Through the engine drain system
402. How would you remove the screen from the MCD./B1
A. Push the pin in.
B . Remove safety wire.
C. Remove safety cap.
ATA CHAPTER 80 - STARTING
403. Precautions for starter air discharge.

A. High velocity.
B . High temperature and noise.
C. A and B are correct
404. How do you tell if a starter requires servicing with oil.Cat B

A. Gauge on the top of the starter
B. Sight glass of overfill.
C. Overheat.
405. Starter extended duty cycle.

A. 5 minutes ON / 5 minutes OFF.
B. 15 minutes ON / 5 minutes OFF.
C. 15 minutes ON / 15 minutes OFF.
65

C H M B737.Level B1

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QUESTION BANK B737-400 LEVEL

CÂU HỎI MỨC B1

ATA CHAPTER 5 - TIME LIMITS

ATA 07: LIFTING & SHORING

4. When Lifting the aircraft

ATA 21: AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM

6. If the Right PACK TRIP OFF light illuminates:

8. The Re-circulation Fan is

9. When using the Pneumatic Air Cart, the Battery switch

11. With a single pack operating and selected to AUTO

13. With one air conditioning pack switch selected to HIGH

14. The position of the forward outflow valve

15. The forward cargo compartment is warmed

16. If the amber AUTO FAIL light illuminates on CPCS aircraft.

18. The cabin Altitude Warning horn will

21. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates if

23. The AUTO FAIL light will illuminate when there is

27. When operating the pressurisation system in Manual mode, it is

44. Operation of Isolation Valve

A.Aft of each Cargo Bay, Allow normal cabin pressurisation changes

C.Aft cargo , allow temperature to be regulated

49. Why is a Trim Air PRSOV fitted/

ATA 23: COMMUNICATION SYSTEM

55. The selcal system monitors selected frequencies in use on the

58. To test the Cockpit Voice Recorder

59. To erase the tape of the Cockpit Voice Recorder

B. The speakers and headsets at preset volumes.

65. Where are the service interphone jacks located.

ATA 24: ELECTRIC SYSTEM

66. The STANDBY PWR OFF light (amber) illuminated means

C. The DC standby bus is inactive.

68. The Generator Drive LOW OIL PRESSURE lights are

69. The AC STANDBY BUS power can be supplied from

72. The auxiliary 28V DC power receptacle is situated

74. The T.R. voltage range is

75. The maximum Generator Drive oil temperature / temperature rise is

78. Pulling up an engine fire handle will

79. The Battery Switch must be

80. Generator Drive Disconnect switch when operated

82. A Generator Breaker can be closed

85. If the No. 2 TRU fails in the cruise

86. The Switched Hot Battery Bus is powered from

87. After operating the Generator Drive Disconnect switch

C. Select the associated Generator switch to ON.

92. Standby D.C. power is normally supplied from

95. The APU generator has

98. After disconnecting a Generator Drive, its associated oil temperature

ATA25: EQUIPMENTS & FURNISHINGS SYSTEM

101. Between the linings and fuselage skin have:

102. Location of pressure equalisation valves in cargo.

103. From what sources can the water tank be pressurised.

A.Via the pump, or pneumatic sources.

ATA 26: FIRE PROTECTION

105. The FAULT light illuminates

106. With the OVHT DET switch in the B position

107. Holding the TEST switch to the FAULT/ INOP position

108. Holding the TEST switch to the FAULT/ INOP position

109. An engine fire condition is indicated by the

110. Indication that an Engine Fire Bottle has been discharged is

115. If following an overheat condition, the OVERHEAT light extinguishes after

124. Where are the wing overheat sensing elements.

A.Leading edge between fuselage and pylon.

194. Where are fire bottle discharge lights. (AMM 26-11-00)