IBPS CLERKS PRELIMS MODEL PAPER

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IBPS Clerks
Prelims Model Paper
No. of Questions: 100 Max. Marks: 100 Time: 1 Hour
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Qs. 1 - 5): In the following questions a sentence is provided which is divided in different parts.
One of these parts may or may not be grammatically or contextually correct. Choose the option
corresponding to the error as part of your answer.
1. Delhi schools which have been closed for the past 10 months (A)/ due to the corona virus pandemic,
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reopened on Monday and (B)/ there is great enthusiasm between the students who (C)/ say they prefer
2.
. e
normal classes in school to online classes (D)/ No error (E).
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The Iranian Supreme Leader Ayatollah Ali Khamenei said in a (A)/ television speech that the West has
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a duty to immediately (B)/ stop the sanctions against Iran, and Iran will resume its (C)/ commitments if
its counterparts fulfil theirs. (D)/ No error (E).
3.
a
Amid the clamour for an in-depth investigation into (A)/ the origins of the Covid-19 pandemic, Indian
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scientists (B)/ from the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi were (C)/ reportedly the first to have
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flagged the lab leak theory. (D)/ No error (E).
a
4. Keeping in view the prevailing situation of the Covid-19 (A)/ pandemic and maintain necessary
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protocols and guidelines (B)/ issued by the Centre and State governments (C), Assam observed World
b
Environment Day on Saturday. (D)/ No error (E).
5.
ti
The experts called for a "impartial" investigation into the (A)/ deaths of at least six Rohingya men in
a
gunfights with police (B)/ after they were named as suspects in (C)/ the killing of Omar Faruk, a youth
/pr
wing official of the ruling Awami League. (D)/ No error (E).
/
Directions (Qs. 6 - 10): In the sentences given below, four words have been highlighted which may or may
:
not be in their proper place. Identify the correct interchange of the words in the sentence and mark that option
s
as your answer.
6.
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"We have been proclaimed (A) for the best quality CCTV cameras for collection (B) of crimes,
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prevention (C) of evidence and surveillance of history sheeters, notorious gangsters, street criminals,
bail jumpers and looking (D) offenders.
A) A-C B) B-D C) Both A-D and B-C
D) Both C-D and A-B E) The sentence is correct
7. The holistic (A) nature of Gandhian emphasis on non-violence was expressed exploiting (B) by his
emphasis on the need for human beings not eloquently (C) other human beings and the essential need
for them, not in any way considering (D) themselves superior to other forms of life.
A) C-B B) Both C-D and B-A C) A-D
D) Both B-C and A-D E) All are correct
8. As the government seeks to makeshift (A) the families from the national park, over 2,000 of their
members have been staging (B) a protest from a evict (C) camp near the office of Tinsukia District
Magistrate since (D) December 21 last year.
A) A-B B) A-C C) Both A-B and C-D
D) Both B-D and A-C E) The sentence is correct
R-30,31-8-2022
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9. The Hon'ble Chief Minister who participated (A) in the World Economic Forum at Davos, Switzerland
had successful (B) with more than 40 prestigious MNCs and was discussions (C) in persuading (D)
them to invest in Karnataka.
A) A-C B) B-C C) A-B
D) Both C-D and A-B E) The sentence is correct
10. As striving (A) by the Hon'ble Prime Minister Narendra Modi, the Karnataka Government is
envisioned (B) to strike a balance between lives and livelihoods in the quest (C) of progress (D).
A) A-B B) Both C-D and B-C C) A-D
D) Both B-C and A-D E) All are correct
Directions (Qs. 11 - 14): In each sentence below, four words which are represented as (A), (B), (C), (D) have
been printed in bold type, one of which may be either inappropriate in the context to the sentence or
wrongly spelt. The corresponding alphabet of that word is the answer. If all the four words are appropriate
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and also correctly-spelt, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as the answer.
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11. With the unravalling (A) of the human genome (B), researchers are already learning more about the
.
structures of the key transferase enzymes (C) involved in glycoprotein synthesis (D). No error (E)
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d
A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
12.
a
He called it a Japanese cafeteria (A), which places the eatery (B) in a different categeory (C) from the
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other Japanese (D) restos in town. No error (E)
A) A
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B) B C) C D) D E) E
13.
a
A stream and pond, a unique (A) hand-made stone path, a wooden seating (B) structure and two
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intricatly (C) designed moon gates add to the exotic ambiance (D). No error (E)
A) A
tib B) B C) C D) D E) E
14.
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To all this problem, vexing (A) so many generations, the clear and witing (B) touch of Lincoln’s
sacrificial (C) penitence (D) is the master key. No error (E)
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A) A
:// B) B C) C D) D E) E
Directions (Qs. 15 - 18): A sentence given below is separated into five parts as P, Q, R, S, T. You have to
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arrange them contextually to make a sentence meaningful.
15.
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P. accepting more risk on the LAC in
Q. influence in the Indian Ocean Region
R. exchange for long term leverage and
S. the third lesson of Ladakh and possibly the
T. hardest to address is that India should consider
A) STPRQ B) QSPTR C) PQRST D) TSPRQ E) RQSPT
16. P. the project which has been facing such attempts
Q. seeking a stay on the construction of Central Vista in New Delhi amid
R. the Centre has told the Delhi High Court that the PIL petition
S. from the beginning on one pretext or another
T. the raging COVID19 pandemic was just another attempt to stall
A) STPRQ B) RQTPS C) SQPRT D) TSPRQ E) RQSPT
17. P. amid the pandemic’s escalating second wave
Q. Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman launched a staunch Defence
R. West Bengal Chief Minister wrote to Prime Minister Narendra Modi
S. of the GST levies on COVID19 relief supplies after
T. mooting an exemption from these taxes
A) STPRQ B) RQTPS C) QSRTP D) TSPRQ E) RQSPT
18. P. State governments on ill effects of loan waivers.
Q. reeling under the impact of the second wave of the pandemic
R. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for support, including an emergency
S. the microfinance sector has reached out to the
A) SRTQP B) TSPRQ
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T. credit line and creating awareness among
C) RSQPT D) QSRTP E) PQRST
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Directions (Qs. 19 - 23): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
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numbers are given below the passage and against each, five options are given. Find out the appropriate word
d
which fits the blank appropriately to make grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
a
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The environment, including the atmosphere ...(A)... water conditions, is reflected in the chemical and
physical make ...(B)... of the remains of plants and animals. In this way, past climate is locked in nature. By
a.e
comparing today's climate ...(C)... with past climatic conditions scientists can ...(D)... an idea of the rate at
...(E)... conditions have changed.
19.
A) nor h
Which of the following will replace (A) in the context of the passage?
ib B) for C) and D) or E) so
20.
at
Which of the following will replace (B) in the context of the passage?
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21.
A) with
//p B) in C) off D) into

Which of the following will replace (C) in the context of the passage?
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E) up
22.
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A) conditions B) conditioning C) conditioned D) situate
Which of the following will replace (D) in the context of the passage?
E) positions
23. ht
A) getting B) get C) gets D) got
Which of the following will replace (E) in the context of the passage?
E) gotten
A) which B) what C) how D) who E) when

Directions (Qs. 24 - 30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The Prime Minister’s apology to the nation for not being able to convince a section of the farming
community about the real intent of the Government in enacting the farm legislation is unprecedented. But it
is not clear why it was an apology to the nation when only a section of the farmers could not be convinced.
And then the apology is not for enacting the three farm laws or causing enormous suffering to the farmers.
In any case, it appears that the farmers have clearly understood the intent; and that is the reason why they did
not go back to their farms until the laws are repealed. Now that the Prime Minister has informed the nation
that the Government is going to repeal these laws, the farmers are understandably ...(I)... over their victory.
This victory indeed takes India’s politics to a new phase - a phase of robust non-political movements with a
certain staying power. We do not know ultimately what transformation it will bring to India’s jaded politics.
But one thing becomes clear. The prolonged non-violent agitation by the determined farmers and the final
capitulation by a very powerful Government augur well for India’s democracy. The trajectory of the three
farm laws clearly shows the real intent of the Government. These were brought in first as ordinances which
were quite perplexing. First, these laws have a far-reaching impact on the farmers and it was very improper
and quite unwise to push them through without taking the farmers into confidence. Second, under Article 123
of the Constitution, the President can legislate on a matter when there is great urgency in the nature of an
emergency and the sitting of Parliament is quite some time away. Farm laws that make radical changes in the
farm sector and affect the life of farmers in very significant ways do not have the kind of urgency which
necessitates immediate legislation through the ordinances. Obviously, someone not very familiar with the
working of Parliament must have advised the Government to take the ordinance route in order to avoid the
standing committees scrutiny. It is a wrong impression that Bills that are brought to replace the ordinances
are not or cannot be referred to the standing committees of Parliament. There is no such restriction. The
Speaker/ Chairman has the authority to refer any Bill except a money Bill to the standing committees.
24. Why does the author call the Prime Minister’s apology to the nation an unprecedented act?
A) Because the government could only persuade a portion of the farmers.
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B) Because he was unable to persuade a segment of the agricultural community.
C) Because he was unable to express the government’s true intentions in enacting the laws.
D) Both B and C
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25.
E) only A and C
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Why did the farmers not go back to their farms until the laws were repealed?
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A) Because the Prime Minister had announced that the laws would be repealed by the government.
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B) Because farmers had lost faith in the government as they had clearly identified the purpose.
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C) Because farmers were justifiably delighted about their triumph in overturning farm laws.
D) only A and C
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26.
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E) None of these
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Which of the following statements with reference to Article 123 of the Constitution is/are correct based
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on the information provided in the given passage?
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A) In the event of an emergency, the President has supreme power under this Article.
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B) Under this Article, the President has the authority to legislate on an issue of high urgency.
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C) In the event of a delay in the next Parliament session, the President can exercise executive
authority under this article.
D) Only A and C
E) All of these
27. What would the consequences have been if the agriculture legislation had been referred to the
Parliament’s standing committee?
A) To overcome the legal disputes, a comprehensive discourse between the farmers and the standing
committee would have been convened.
B) Farmers would have had an opportunity to speak to the standing committee about their complaints.
C) Farmers would have conveyed their main concern of anonymity of farm laws to the Standing
Committee
D) All of these
E) None of these
28. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘ENORMOUS’, as highlighted in the given
passage.
A) whacking B) colossal C) diminutive
D) Only (A) and (B) E) All of these
29. Choose the most appropriate filler from the following options to fill in the blank (I), as highlighted in
the given passage.
A) despondent B) wretched C) perplexed
D) jubilant E) None of these
30. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the word ‘SCRUTINY’, as highlighted in the given passage.
A) probe B) dissection C) perusal
D) inspection E) None of these
et NUMERICAL ABILITY
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Directions (Qs 31 - 35): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
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The following table shows the percentage distribution of total students participated in different sports
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(Cricket, Volleyball and Tennis) from different colleges in the year 2021.
a
Colleges Students
en Cricket Volleyball Tennis

A
B
a.
2500
2000e 32%
30%
38%
45%
30%
25%
C
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1500 42% 38% 20%
31.
D
rat 1600 40% 25% 35%
What is the total number of students participating in all the colleges together?
A) 7600
://p B) 7500 C) 7400 D) 6800 E) 6500

32.
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What is the respective ratio between the total number of students participating in the college A
Volleyball to that of tennis same college?
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33.
ht
A) 15 : 13 B) 18 : 19 C) 19 : 15 D) 13 : 17 E) 11 : 9
What is the difference between the total number of students who play volleyball from college B and
cricket from college C?
A) 270 B) 250 C) 240 D) 280 E) 230
34. What is the total number of students who play tennis from all the colleges together?
A) 2170 B) 2150 C) 2140 D) 2180 E) 2110
35. The total number of students who play tennis from all the colleges together is approximately what
percent of the total number of students both college C and D together?
A) 57 B) 60 C) 64 D) 68 E) 61
Directions (Qs. 36 - 40): In the given question two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve
both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
36. I. x2 − 10x + 21 = 0
II. y2 − 16y + 63 = 0
A) x > y B) x < y C) x ≥ y D) x ≤ y E) x = y or no relation
37. I. x2 − 26x + 153 = 0
II. y2 + 17y + 72 = 0
38. I. x2 + 26x + 169 = 0
II. y2 − 22y + 121 = 0
39. I. x2 + 28x + 171 = 0
II. y2 + 25y + 156 = 0
40. I. x2 + 27x + 176 = 0
II. y2 + 33y + 272 = 0
A) x > y B) x < y
et C) x ≥ y D) x ≤ y E) x = y or no relation
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Directions (Qs. 41 - 45): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
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d
41. 124, 131, ?, 146, 157, 170
A) 138 B) 135
na C) 140 D) 136 E) 142

42.
A) 1240 e
992, 1056, 1122, 1190, ?, 1332
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B) 1260 C) 1220 D) 1280 E) 1250
43.
a
23, 552, 993, 1354, 1643, ?
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44.
A) 1768
tibB) 1798
29, 390, 646, 815, ?, 964
C) 1848 D) 1868 E) 1928
A) 845
pra B) 920 C) 860 D) 915 E) 870

45.
A) 320 /
52, 130, ?, 1365, 5460, 24570
:/ B) 360 C) 390 D) 420 E) 48
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Directions (Qs. 46 - 50): What value should come in the place of (?) in the following questions?
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46.
A) 498ht ( ) 1
3
B) 585


262 − (343)  + 819 ÷ √1521 = ?

C) 658 D) 675 E) 690
47. 17 × 14 − 38 = (?)2 − √9409 + √ 64
A) 21 B) 22 C) 17 D) 15 E) 19
48. 15 × 12 + 35% of 80 + 70% of 130 = ?
A) 248 B) 267 C) 273 D) 285 E) 299
49. 840 ÷ 6 + 12 × 15 − 48% of 150 = ?
A) 248 B) 250 C) 252 D) 254 E) 244
50. 15% of 480 + 80% of 320 + 20% of 60 = ?
A) 320 B) 340 C) 360 D) 380 E) 400
51. Vinod invested Rs.7800 in a business for 8 months and left, Anand invested Rs.X for the rest of the months
and profit share of Anand at end of year is Rs.3000 and total profit is Rs.6900. Find the value of X?
A) Rs.9000 B) Rs.7800 C) Rs.14400 D) Rs.10000 E) Rs.12000
52. A train having speed of 63 km/hr crosses a platform in 50 seconds. The length of train is 50% more than
the length of platform. Find the length of the train.
A) 525 B) 350 C) 875 D) 385 E) 625
53. What is the difference between simple and compound interests for 3 years at rate of interest is 5% per
annum and principal is Rs.2000?
A) 16.25 B) 15.25 C) 13.75 D) 20.25 E) 17.50
54. In a vessel containing apple juice and water, apple juice is 65%. If 28 litres of apple juice is added to
the mixture then ratio of apple juice and water becomes 20 : 7. Find the initial quantity of water in the
mixture.
A) 16 B) 21 C) 28 D) 35 E) 40
55. If two pipes A and B alone can fill the tank in 20 min and 30 min respectively. If they worked
alternative hours then find the time taken to fill the tank.
A) 12 min
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B) 15 min C) 50 min D) 24 min E) 16 min
56.
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The ratio of marked price to selling price of item is 5 : 4 and the ratio of discount and profit in 3 : 2. If
the cost price of item is Rs.200. Then find the profit in rupees.
57.
A) 40
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B) 60 C) 12 D) 28 E) 30
A boat can row downstream at a speed of 63 kmph. If the ratio between speed of boat and speed of
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stream is 5 : 4 then find the time taken by the boat to travel a distance of 350 m upstream. (in mins)
58.
A) 6
a.e B) 4 C) 2 D) 3 E) 5
14 men and 28 women can complete the piece of work in 8 days and 6 days respectively. Find the
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number of days required to complete the work, if 4 men and 6 women start work together.
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A) 10 B) 14 C) 24 D) 12 E) 18
59.
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The population of village is 4,000. The total males are 5/8 of total population. 40% of males are
married. Then find what percent of females are married in that village out of total female.
p
1
A) 33  %
3
:// 2
B) 66  %
3
1
C) 37 %
2
D) 25% E) 40%
60.
ps
The average of nine numbers is 40. If the average of first 5 numbers is 36 and average of last 5
t
ht
numbers is 42 then find the sixth number which is 8 more than the fifth number.
A) 44 B) 30 C) 38 D) 35
Directions (Qs. 61 - 65): Refer the table and answer the given questions.
E) 48
Given data is related to cumulative number of bikes manufactured by 4 companies in 5 different years.
Companies
Years
Hero Honda Duke KTM
2017 1250 2300 800 900
2018 2500 4000 2000 2100
2019 4000 5200 3100 2900
2020 5760 6560 4300 4300
2021 8200 7500 5900 5750
61. How many bikes are manufactured by Hero company in 2017 and Duke company in 2018?
A) 4350 B) 3250 C) 2450 D) 3350 E) 2550
62. In which year companies Duke and KTM are manufactured equal number of bikes?
A) 2021 B) 2020 C) 2019 D) 2018 E) 2017
63. In the year 2019 bikes manufactured by Honda is what percent more/less than bikes manufactured by
Duke in the year 2021?
A) 20% B) 33.33% C) 30% D) 16.67% E) 25%
64. What is the average number of bikes manufactured by all companies in the year 2019?
A) 1075 B) 1100 C) 1250 D) 1000 E) 1150
65. What is the difference between the highest number of bikes manufactured by Hero company in one year
and lowest number of bikes manufactured by Honda company in one year?
A) 1500 B) 1600 C) 1430 D) 1400 E) 2000
REASONING
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Directions (Qs. 66 - 70): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
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Eight bank employees K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R hold different positions - Clerk, PO (Probationary
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Officer), AM (Assistant Manager), MG (Manager), CGM (Chief General Manager), MD (Managing
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Director), ED (Executive Director) and CEO (Chief Executive Officer) but not necessarily in the same order.
All the positions are increasing order where Clerk is junior to all and CEO is senior to all.
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M is senior to MG (Manager). P is just two positions junior to M. L is senior to only one person. R is
e
e
just one position senior to K. P is junior to MD (Managing Director). N is senior to CGM (Chief General
Director).
a.
Manager). Q is senior to AM (Assistant Manager) and junior to M. R, who is junior to ED (Executive
66.
bh
Who among the following person is MD (Managing Director) of the bank?
i
67.
A) K
rat B) Q C) R
Which of the following combination is correct?
D) L E) P
68.
A) P - ED
://p B) R - CGM C) K - AM D) N - MG E) Q - CEO

How many persons have positions between O and the one who is CGM (Chief General Manager)?
tp
A) None
s B) One C) Three D) Two E) More than three
69.
70.
t
How many persons are senior to K?
h
A) Four B) Six C) Three D) Five E) Two
Four of the following five are belongs to a certain way and hence form a group, then which of the
following one doesn’t belong to that group?
A) P - ED B) M - CGM C) K - Clerk D) Q - MG E) R - PO
Directions (Qs. 71 - 75): Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W have exam on different dates viz. 10th, 17th and 25th of three
different months viz. July, August and November in the same year. No two persons were born on the same
date of the same month. M has the exam on 10th of a month which is having 31 days. Only one person has
the exam before N. Number of persons between M and N is one less than the number of persons between N
and W. Vacant is an odd number date before Q. O and P have the exam in same month having 31 days, but
not in July. R has the exam after S. Only three persons have exam between N and Q. O has exam before P.
71. Which among the following pairs was born in November?
A) PQ B) MN C) WS D) QR E) RP
72. W was born in which of the following month and date?
A) August - 10 B) August - 17 C) November - 10
D) July - 17 E) November - 25
73. Which of the following combination is TRUE?
A) Q - 17th November B) S - 17th August C) W - 10th August
D) P - 25th August E) M - 25th July
74. How many persons have exams before W’s exam?
A) Four B) Three C) None D) Two E) One
75. Who among the following person born in 10th July?
A) N B) Q C) O D) S E) M
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Directions (Qs. 76 - 78): Study the following information and answer the following questions.
There are six persons of different heights. N is taller than M and K but shorter than L. L is not the tallest.
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J is taller than N but shorter than L. M is not the shortest. Height of the second tallest is 167 cm and the height
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of the second shortest is 112 cm.
76.
d
Who amongst the following is the second shortest?
a
77.
A) O
en
B) L C) M D) K E) N
With respect to the height of the given persons, if L + J = 295 cm and M + N = 232 cm, then
N + J = ... cm.
A) 286 cm
a.eB) 248 cm C) 279 cm D) 270 cm E) 310 cm
78.
bh
How many persons are taller than N?
i
A) Three
rat
D) No one, as N is the tallest person
B) Two
E) One
C) Four
79.
/p
How many letters in the word “HOSPITALITY” are there in the given arrangement which has as many
:/
as letters in between them in both forward and backward direction as according to alphabetical series?
A) Three
tps B) Four C) One D) Two E) None
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Directions (Qs. 80 - 84): Study the following statements and then decide which of the given conclusions
h
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
80. Statements: At least some home is house
Every house is building
Each building is apartment
Conclusions: I. All apartment is house
II. All house being building is a possibility
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusion II follows
C) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
E) Both conclusions I and II follow
81. Statements: A few three is seven
No seven is four
Only four is one
Conclusions: I. Each three being four is a possibility
II. Each four being three is a possibility
82. Statements: Only a few Puma is Adidas
et
Some Adidas is not Nike
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All Reebok is Puma
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Conclusions: I. Some Adidas are Reebok is a possibility
ad
II. All Puma can be Nike
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e
a.e
ibh
83.
at
Statements: 99% circle is square
r
://pMostly square is rectangle
All rectangle is triangle
tps
Conclusions: I. Some circle is rectangle
II. No rectangle is circle
ht
84. Statements: Some ear is eye
No eye is leg
All leg is nose
Conclusions: I. Some ear is not nose
II. All nose can be eye
A) Only conclusion I follows B) Only conclusion II follows
C) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Directions (Qs. 85 - 88): In each of the following questions, the relationship between different elements is
shown in the statements followed by some conclusions. Find the conclusion which logically follows.
85. Statements: R > H > E ≥ B; M < S < T = P > V > E
Conclusions: I. P > H II. B < T III. S ≥ E
A) If only conclusion I is true B) If only conclusion II is true
C) Either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true E) Both conclusions I and II are true
86. Statements: Y > G > H ≥ R > A; S < T = X < W < M ≤ R
Conclusions: I. S ≤ G II. Y > X III. M ≤ H
et
87.
Conclusions: I. V < N
u.n
Statements: P < K ≤ V < G; H > N = M > D ≥ G
II. K > D
ad
n
e
88.
a.e
D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
Statements: S < D < F ≤ P; V > I > H ≥ Z; R > G > I < D
E) Both conclusions I and II are true
ibh
Conclusions: I. S < H II. P > G
t
p a
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89.
://
Which of the following conclusion is true?
tps
Statement: U > V > G > T < J < L ≥ S > Y = K
t
Conclusion:
h
A) V > S B) T > K C) U < G D) L > K E) None is true
Directions (Qs. 90 - 94): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal
distance between adjacent persons, in row I - P, Q, R, S, T and U are seated and all of them are facing South.
In row II - E, F, G, H, K and L are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating
arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. H sits second to the left of
L. Two persons sit between L and G, who is facing R. S and R are immediate neighbours. U sits second to the
right of S. The person who sits second to the right of R is facing E. More than one person sits between S and
P, who is not an immediate neighbour of U. K sits left of F and does not face P. T is facing one of the
immediate neighbours of F.
90. Who among the following person sits third to the right of the one who face Q?
A) G B) F C) H D) K E) L
91. How many persons sit between F and H?
A) One B) None C) Two D) Three E) More than three
92. If only row-I persons arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, then who among the following
faces R?
A) K B) H C) L D) F E) E
93. ... sits to the immediate right of T and K sits to the immediate left of ...
A) S, H B) U, H C) Q, E D) S, L E) U, L
94. Four of the following five are a like certain way and hence form a group, then which one doesn’t belong
to that group?
A) E B) G C) P D) H E) R
95. If ‘2’ is subtracted from each odd digit in the number ‘95748263’ and ‘1’ is added to each even digit in
number then which of the following number(s) is not repeated more than one time in the new number
so obtained?
A) 3 B) 1 C) 9 D) 7 E) Both 1 and 9
et
Directions (Qs. 96 - 100): Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
.n
Eight persons - E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are sitting around a rectangular table in such a way that two
u
persons sit on each of the four sides of the table facing the centre. Persons sitting on opposite sides are
ad
exactly opposite to each other. Three persons are sitting between H and G, who is second to the right of
J. K does not sit immediate to J. I is an immediate neighbour of F. L sits opposite to G. The number of
of F.
en
persons sit between J and H from right of H is same as the number of persons sit between F and K from left
96.
.e
What is the position of I with respect to L?
a
ibh
A) Third to the left
D) Fifth to the right
B) Third to the right
E) Both A and D
C) Second to the left
97.
A) H at
If G is related to I in a way, H is related to J in the same way then F is related to whom in the same way?
r B) K C) L D) J E) G
98.
//p
How many persons are sitting between G and L, from right of G?
:
99.
A) One
tps B) Four
Which of the following statement is TRUE?
C) Five D) Two E) More than four
ht
A) Three persons sit between L and K
C) K is immediate left of G
B) H and F sit on the same side
D) Both A and B
E) All are true
100. Who sits second to the left of K?
A) F B) E C) G D) L E) I
KEY
1-C; 2-B; 3-E; 4-B; 5-A; 6-C; 7-A; 8-B; 9-B; 10-A; 11-E; 12-C; 13-C; 14-B; 15-A; 16-B; 17-C; 18-D; 19-C;
20-E; 21-A; 22-B; 23-C; 24-D; 25-B; 26-E; 27-D; 28-D; 29-D; 30-E; 31-A; 32-C; 33-A; 34-E; 35-D; 36-D;
37-A; 38-B; 39-E; 40-C; 41-D; 42-B; 43-D; 44-D; 45-C; 46-E; 47-C; 48-E; 49-A; 50-B; 51-E; 52-A; 53-B;
54-C; 55-D; 56-A; 57-D; 58-B; 59-B; 60-C; 61-C; 62-D; 63-E; 64-E; 65-A; 66-B; 67-C; 68-C; 69-D; 70-A;
71-D; 72-B; 73-D; 74-B; 75-E; 76-C; 77-B; 78-A; 79-A; 80-D; 81-D; 82-E; 83-C; 84-D; 85-D; 86-E; 87-A;
88-D; 89-D; 90-B; 91-D; 92-E; 93-E; 94-A; 95-E; 96-E; 97-C; 98-B; 99-A; 100-B.
This model paper was prepared by subject experts of RACE Institute, Hyderabad

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