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AITS 2020 Part Tests
AITS 2020 Part Tests
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 1
SECTION – A
1. A
2. B
mg
N2 (cos 3 sin ) …(iii) N2
3
mg
N1 (cos 3 sin ) …(iv)
3
Also, N1 cos 60 = mg sin
N1 = 2mg sin …(v)
From (iv) and (v),
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
mg
2mgsin (cos 3 sin )
3
2 3 sin cos 3 sin
3 3 sin cos
1
tan1
3 3
3. A
10
Sol. a1(max) g( cos sin ) m/s2 (where = 0.5 and 0 = 0.33)
13
F (m1 + m2) g(sin + 0 cos ) = (m1 + m2) a1(max)
F = 2000 N
4. B
5. A
Sol. = 30
6. A, C
7. A, C, D
Sol. The velocity parallel to the plane is unaltered by the impacts, so that the distance described
parallel to the plane will be zero at the end of a time t given by :
gsin t2
0 vt cos
2
2v cos
t
gsin
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
Also, since the elasticity is perfect, the velocity perpendicular to the plane is just reversed at each
impact. The time of flight for each trajectory is thus twice the time in which the velocity vsin ( )
2v sin
is destroyed by g cos , and thus t =
gcos
Clearly the particle will return to the point of projection if the first of these is some multiple, n, of
the second, i.e. if
2v cos 2v sin
n
gsin cos
i.e. if cot . cot ( ) is an integer.
8. C, D
m sin 2
Sol.
M sin
9. C, D
Solving we get, F=
= 2N
L k 2 a2
2a 2k a 2 2
L k a 2 2
10. A, B, D
Sol. Using conservation of momentum along horizontal direction
mu sin 53 = mv1 sin 53 + Mv2
4 4
u v1 4v 2
5 5
5v2 v1 = u …(i) v1 B 53
v 2 cos37 v1 A
e 1 m u v2
u 37
0.8 v2 + v1 = u …(ii) M 53
Solving (i) and (ii), we get
5.8 v2 = 2u
2u
v2 2 m/s
5.8
v1 = 5v2 u = 5 2 5.8 = 4.2 m/s
Ndt m(v u) 10 N s
1
3 3
Tdt Ncos53dt 5 Ndt 5 10 6 N-s
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
11. A, C, D
12. A, B, C, D
SECTION – C
13. 00005.00
14. 00005.00
15. 00009.00
Sol. Let f 1 be the acceleration upwards of the 4 kg and therefore of the 1 kg. pulley downwards. Let f 2
and f 3 be the accelerations of the 2 and 3 kg (both measured downwards). Let T, T1 be the
tensions of the upper and lower strings. Then
T – 4g = 4f1
2T1 –T + g=1.f1
2g - T1 = 2f 2
3g - T1 = 3f 3
f 2 + f 3 = 2f 1
9g
From the above equations => f1
49
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
16. 00002.00
10v 22 40 O
v2 = 2 m/s
v1 2 3 m/s
v sin v 2 cos
1 2 rad/s
a
17. 00002.50
Sol. v0 = h sin
v0 2v0
= = 2.50 rad/s
hsin h
18. 00004.50
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A
1 1 1 3
Sol. = RH 2 - 2 = RH
λ 1 2 4
20. A
21. B
Sol.
3H2
N2 2NH3
t0 1 3 0
tt 1 0.5 3 1.5 2 0.5
1
PNH3 21 7 atm
3
22. D
Sol. Be OH 2 NaOH
NaBeO2
23. B, D
Sol. (A) m = 2, 2 , n = 3
(C) 3d = 3p
1
(D) E
n2
n=3
Third shell in hydrogen atom 3s = 3p = 3d
Ans. 9 orbitals.
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
24. A, B, C
25. A, B, D
26. A, C, D
27. A, B, C, D
28. A, B, C, D
29. A, B
30. A, C
SECTION – C
31. 00006.00
32. 00003.19
Sol.
NH2COONH4 s
2NH3 g CO 2 g
2P P
3
K p 4P
NH2COONH4 s
2NH3 g CO2 g
2P 0.5P P 1 0.25 P
1.5P 0.75P 1
2 3
KP 1.5P 0.75P 1 4P
2.25 0.75P 1 4P
93
P 1 4P
44
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
27P 36
4P
16
27P 36 64P
36
36 37P, P
37
PT 1.5P 0.75P 1
2.25P 1
36
2.25 1 3.19
37
33. 00000.50
1
Sol. M
x
3C2H2 C6H6
1 0
1
3
M1 n2
M2 n1
26 2
1
39 3
2 1 1
3 3 2
34. 00002.60
Sol.
A s
B s 2C g
2
K P 9 PC
PC 3
A s
B s 2C g
1 a mol
a 1 2
PV = nRT
3 10 a 2 0.0821 600
3 10 1
a 2
0.0821 600 0.0821 20
a = 2.60
35. 00006.50
58
Sol. pH 6.5
2
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
36. 00003.00
1 1 1 1
Sol. 13.6Z 2 2 2 13.6 3 2 2 2
1 2 n1 n2
3 1 1
Z2 9 2 2
4 n1 n2
Z2 1 1
2 2
12 n1 n2
Z = 1, n1 = 3, n2 = 6
2n1 3n2 6Z
Hence =3
10
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
SECTION – A
37. A
1
sin ln x t
Sol. Let I t dx
0
ln x
1 1
ln x
I t cos t ln x dx = Re eit ln x dx
0
ln x 0
1 it 1
I t Re 2
1 t 1 t2
1
I t dt 4
0
38. A
f x 2xf x x dx 0
2 2 2
Sol.
0
1 2
f x x dx 0
2
0
2
So, f(x ) = x
i.e., f x x
39. D
3 2 2
Sol. (f + g )f + f gg = 0
1 1
f 4 f 2 g2 0
4 2
4 2 2
f + 2f g = c
40. A
Sol. y4 + xy – x4 – x3y3 0
(y3 + x)(y – x3) 0
Thus the two curves partition the circle x 2 + y2 2 into 4 regions of equal area and the inequality
is satisfied by the two regions the cover the y-axis. So, the area of the set is half the area of the
circle.
41. A, B
Sol. By scaling and translating, we may assume that the two inflection points are located at x = –1 and
x=1
So, f(x) = (x 4 – 6x2 + 5) + bx + c where 2b = f(1) – f(–1); 2c = f(1) + f(–1) the line passing through
inflection points is g(x) = bx + c
So, other intersection points = 5
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
1 5 1
16 32
x 4 6x 2 5 dx x 6x 5 dx and x 6x 5 dx
4 2 4 2
So,
5 1
5 1
5
42. A, B, C, D
Sol. Let M = 3x2 + 2ey, N = 2xey + 3y2 solution of the differential equation is
3x 2e x dx 3y 2 dy c
2
3 y 3
x + 2xe + y = c
43. A, B, C, D
2
t t
3
Sol. Let F t f x dx f x dx t [0, 1]
0 0
t
F t f t 2 f x dx f 2 t
0
t
Let G t 2 f x dx f 2 t
0
G t 2f t 1 f t
So, F(t) 0 t [0, 1]
So, if 1 t 0
F(1) F(t) F(0)
2
1 1
3
f x dx f x dx 0
0 0
If f(x) = x, x [0, 1], then equality holds and in many more such example
44. A, C
45. A, B, D
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
46. A, D
Sol. Clearly f(x) is continuous on [r, 5r] and not differentiable at x = –r, 5r
Because there is vertical tangent at x = –r, 5r
47. A, B
x4 1 x4 x2 1 x2
Sol. x6 1 dx x6 1 dx x 6 1 dx
x 4 x2 1 x2
= dx 3 2 dx
x2 1 x 4 x 2 1 x 1
1
= tan1 x tan1 x 3
3
1 3x 3x 5
= tan1 c
3 1 3x 2 3x 4 x 6
48. A, B, C
x
Sol. (f(x)e ) 0
x
So, f(x) e is convex
x
So, f(x) e max [f(0), f(1)] = 0 O 1
f(x) 0 x [0, 1]
SECTION – C
49. 00002.00
50. 00000.20
3
1
x 1
Sol. f x x
3 1
x 3 1
x
1
Let x t
x
6t 3t 2
gt 1 3
t 3t 1
After g(t), we get CP: t 1, 1, 1 3
3
So, g 1 3
2 3
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13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
51. 00008.00
2 2
a b 1
Sol. f x x 2 x 1 x 8 a2 b2 x2 0 x R
2 2 4
2 2
f(x) is strictly positive unless a + b 8
52. 00007.00
n7
1 1 1 dx 1 1 1
Sol. 1 ..... 7 ..... 7
2 3 n 1
x 2 3 n
1 1 1
ln7 1 1 ..... 3 lnn7
2 3 n
1 1 1
1 ..... 7
So, lim 2 3 n 7
n lnn
53. 00001.00
dx 1
Sol.
dy dy
dx
2
d x d 1 d 1 dx 1 d2 y dx 1 d2 y
2
= 2
2 = 3
2
dy dy dy dx dy dy dy dx dy dy dx
dx dx
dx dx
2
d y 1
From the given is 2
1 0
dx dy 3
dx
d2 y dy
0 or 1 y = ax + b : a 0
dx 2 dx
54. 00000.00
f x dx f 0 dx ; x < 0
x x
f(x) < (x + 1)f(0)
Clearly for x –1, f(x) 0
Contradicting the hypothesis that f(x) > 0 x
No such function exist
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
1. Section–A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40) contains 12 multiple choice questions which out of 4
options have only one correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1
mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (05 – 12, 23 – 30, 41 – 48) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the four option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
2. Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
(A) = 30
(B) = 45
(C) = 60
(D) = 75
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
(A) 4R
(B) 2 2R
(C) 2R
(D) 2R
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
(A) = 30
(B) = 0
(C) = 25
(D) = 15
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
8. If a particle of mass m collides elastically with one of mass M at rest, and if the former is scattered
at an angle and the latter moves at an angle with respect to the line of motion of the incident
particle, then which of the following combinations are possible:
(A) = 30, = 0, m = 1kg, M = 1kg
(B) = 60, = 0, m = 3kg, M = 3kg
(C) = 45, = 45, m = 2kg, M = 2kg
(D) = 60, = 45, m = 1kg, M =√3kg
9. A locomotive engine, of mass M=1kg, has two pairs of wheels, of radius a = 0.25m, the moment
2 33
of inertia of each pair about its axis being Mk ; and the engine exerts a torque L = Nm on the
17
forward axle. If both pairs of wheels commence to roll without sliding when the engine starts and
F is the friction between each of the front wheels and the line capable of being called into action.
If k = 1, the values of F (in newton) can be:
(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2.5
(D) 3
12. Consider a right solid cone, whose height is h and the radius of whose base is a.
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
3Ma2
(C) The moment of inertia of cone about its axis is .
10
(D) The moment of inertia of cone about any axis passing through the centre of circular base
and lying in the plane of the circle is same.
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
TOP VIEW
15. Over a smooth light pulley is passed a string supporting at one end a
weight of mass 4 kg. At the other end of the string is a pulley of mass 1 kg.
Two masses of 2 kg and 3 kg are suspended on either side of the 1kg
pulley as shown in figure. The acceleration of the 4 kg mass is ng/49. Find
1kg
n. 4kg
2kg 3kg
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
θ
O
C
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
19. In hydrogen atom during de-excitation of electron from an excited state to ground state 15
spectral lines are emitted. Find the longest wavelength of U.V. region during de-excitation.
4
(A)
3RH
36
(B)
35RH
25
(C)
24RH
16
(D)
15RH
20. 0.167 gram of KBrO3 is reacted with excess of KI. And liberated I2 requires 75 ml of Na2S2O3.
What is normality of Na2S2O3 (where KBrO3 is converted in KBr) (at. wt. of Br is = 80)
(A) 0.08
(B) 0.16
(C) 1.8
(D) 0.2
21. N2 and H2 are 1 : 3 molar ratio, allowed to react to form NH3, at equilibrium 50% of N2 and H2 are
reacted. If the total pressure of the system was 21 atm. Find partial pressure of NH3 at
equilibrium.
(A) 5 atm
(B) 7 atm
(C) 9 atm
(D) 11 atm
22. An alkaline earth metal whose sulphate is soluble and whose oxide is inert on heating. It forms
insoluble hydroxide which is soluble in excess of NaOH. Find the metal
(A) Mg
(B) Ba
(C) Ca
(D) Be
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
(D) The number of degenerated orbitals will be 9 in a orbit of hydrogen atom where energy is
RH
proportional to .
9
24. Hydrogen like species in ground state absorb n photons having same energy and during de-
excitation emits exactly n photons. Then the energy of absorb photon would be
(A) 40.8 eV
(B) 91.8 eV
(C) 163.2 eV
(D) 57.2 eV
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
30. Which of the following statements regarding alkali metal are correct?
(A) When alkali metal dissolve in liquid NH3, as conc. of NH3 increases paramagnetic
character decreases.
(B) Alkali metal in liquid NH3 shows very strong oxidizing character.
(C) Stability of superoxide of alkali metals increases with increase in size of metal cation.
(D) All alkali metal carbonates decomposes on heating and gives CO2 gas.
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
31. A unit cell has one atom on each corner of cube and two atoms at one of it’s body diagonals if
-24 3 3
volume of unit cell is 5 × 10 cm and density of element is 15 gram/cm . The number of atom
24 23
present in 150 gram of element is x × 10 find x. (Avogadro number = 6 × 10 )
32.
NH2COONH4 s
2NH3 g CO2 g
If at equilibrium some CO2 at 1 atm is added at constant volume, 25% of original NH3 and CO2,
solidified before equilibrium was re-established. Find total pressure at new equilibrium.
Red hot
33. Cu tube C6H6
3C2H2
Find the degree of association of ethyne if observed molecular mass of mixture is 39.
34.
A s
B s 2C g
KP of above reaction is 9 atm 2, at 327oC
A 10 litre vessel contains 1 mole of B. How many moles of C would be added to drive backward
reaction to completion.
35. 50 ml of 0.1 M Na3PO4 was titrated with 50 ml of 0.2 M HCl. Find the pH of resulting mixture
where pK a1 ,pK a2 and pK a3 of H3PO4 are 5, 8, 13.
36. A single electron species having atomic number Z make a transition from 2 to 1. The emitted
+2
photon is absorbed by excited electron of Li in n1 orbit and further excited to n2. Find the value
2n1 3n2 6Z
of
10
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1
sin ln x
37. If dx is equal to
0
ln x
(A)
4
11
(B)
14
11
(C)
4 14
22
(D)
7
1 1
1
38. Number of continuous function(s) f: [0, 1] R satisfying f x dx f 2 x2 dx is/are
0
3 0
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
39. Let f, g : R [1, ) are two differentiable function on the real line satisfying the differential
equation (f 2 + g2)f + (fg)g = 0, then
(A) f is bounded, but g not
(B) f is unbounded, but g is bounded
(C) both are unbounded
(D) both f and f·g are bounded
40. The area of the set of points (x, y) in the plane that satisfy that two inequalities x 2 + y2 2 and
x4 + x3y3 xy + y4 is
(A)
2
(B)
3
19
(C)
21
(D) none of these
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
41. Let f(x) be a real polynomial of degree 4 whose graph has two real inflection points. There are
three regions bounded by the graph and the line passing through these inflection points, then
(A) Two of these regions have equal area
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
(B) Area of one of the region is equal to the sum of other two
(C) Area of one of the region is double the sum of areas of other two
(D) Area of one of the region is square of the sum of areas of other two
42. Let a curve passing through (1, 0) satisfies the differential equation
2xe y 3y2 dy 3x 2 2ey 0 , then
dx
3 y 3
(A) x + 2xe + y = 3
3 2y 3
(B) x – 2xe + y = –1
5
(C) The slope of tangent to the curve at (1, 0) is
2
(D) The curve intersects x-axis at only one point
43. Let f be a function having a continuous derivative on [0, 1] and with the property that 0 < f(x) 1.
2
1
f x dx
0
Also, suppose that f(0) = 0, then 1 is always greater than or equal to
3
f x dx
0
2
(A)
3
1
(B)
2
1
(C)
3
(D) 1
44. Let S be the set of points in the Cartesian plane that satisfy |||x| – 2| – 1| + |||y| – 2| – 1| = 1, if a
model of S were built from wire of negligible thickness, then
(A) total length of wire required would be 64 2
(B) total length of wire required would be 32 2
(C) area enclosed by the wire is 50 sq. units
(D) area enclosed by the wire is 25 sq. units
45. Which of the following are CORRECT? (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function and {.}
fractional part of x)
(A) Right hand derivative of f(x) = |sin x| cos–1 cos x at non-differentiable point is
(B) Left hand derivative of f(x) = [x] |sin x| at non-differentiable point is (1 – k), k I
(C) Left hand derivative of f(x) = [x] sin2 x at non- differentiable point is (–1)k
1 3
(D) Right hand derivative of f(x) = |x – 1|{x} : x , at non- differentiable point is 0
2 2
46. The function f is defined by y = f(x) where x = r(3 cos t + 2|cos t|)
and y = r(2 sin t + |sin t|) : t [0, ], then
(A) f(x) is continuous on [–r, 5r]
(B) f(x) is discontinuous at one point on [–r, 5r]
(C) f(x) is differentiable x [–r, 5r]
(D) f(x) is not differentiation at 2 points on [–r, 5r]
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
x4 1
47. x 6 1 dx is
1
(A) tan1 x tan1 x 3 c
3
1 3x 3x 5
(B) tan1 2 4 6
c
3 1 3x 3x x
1 2x x 4
(C) tan1 c
3 1 2x 5 3x 2
1 x x3 1
(D) tan1 c
2 1 x 2 3x 5
48. Let f: [0, 1] R be a double differentiable function with f(0) = f(1) = 0, and f(x) + 2f(x) + f(x) 0
x (0, 1), then
(A) f(x) 0 x [0, 1]
1
(B) if ex f(x) assumes its minimum value in [0, 1] at x , then f(x) + f(x) < 0
2
1
x 0,
2
x
(C) if g(x) = e f(x), then number of real solution of the equation g(g(g(x))) = 0 is 2
(D) f(x) > 0 x [0, 1]
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
x2 x 13 2 3
50. Let A be the minimum value of the function f: R R, f x 6 3
, then A is
x x 1 5 3
51. If the equation x4 + ax3 + 2x2 + bx + 1 = 0; (a, b R) has a real solution, then minimum value of
a2 + b2 is
1 1 1
1 ..... 7
52. lim 2 3 n is equal to
n lnn
d2 y d2 x
53. Let y = f(x) be a one-one function satisfying the differential equation 0 and f(0) = 1,
dx 2 dy 2
f(1) = 2, then f(0) is
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 2
SECTION – A
1. A, B, C, D
Sol. By definition
2. A, C
Sol. To find F draw the F.B.D. of the mass. Then apply work energy theorem to get maximum speed.
3. B, C, D
Sol. The number of collisions will be dependent on the masses of the three objects. If m1 = 4m,
m2 = m and m3 = 3m then m1 finally moves to left with 1 m/s, m2 with speed 1.5 m/s and m3 to
right side with speed 2.5 m/s.
4. A, D
Sol. Write the co-ordinates of the collar and differentiate w.r.t. time to get velocity of collar.
5. A, B, C
Sol. Let the line joining the centres of sphere and grindstone be inclined at to the vertical, and let R,
F be the normal reaction and friction. The sphere remains at rest if:
R = Mg cos and F=Mg sin
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
6. A, D
v0
Sol. If a g , then the distance covered by the object relative to train
t
1 (a g)2 t 2
(a g)t 2
2 2g
v0t 1 (v gt)2
= gt 2 0
2 2 2g
v 20 v t
0
2g 2
v 20 v t
If the wagon long enough, distance moved by the small body relative to train is = 0
2g 2
7. A, B, C
Sol. Let be the inclination of the direction of projection to the horizontal, and x the distance from the
wall to the point of projection, so that the time to the wall = x/vcos. After the impact the horizontal
velocity is evcos, so that the particle will be vertically over the starting point again in time
x/evcos from the impact .(e is the coefficient of restitution)
The vertical velocity is unaltered by the impact, so that the particle will be on the same vertical
level as the point of projection in time 2Vsin/g .
The particle will therefore return to the point of projection if
2v sin x x
g v cos ev cos
e v 2 sin2
x
1 e g
v2e
Now the greatest value of sin 2 is unity, so that the greatest value of x is , where e is
g e 1
the coefficient of restitution. Since 0 e 1 x 5
8. C, D
Sol. Since the rod is raised slowly (quasi-statically), the entire F cos
F
system remains in equilibrium at any moment of time. Thus,
the torque about the point of rotation of the rod is zero about F sin
any axis, and the net external forces are 0.
mg cos mgcos
F 0F N
2 2
N = mg – F cos , fs = F sin mg
fs
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
The F sin force causes the rod’s bottom end to slip in one direction. The friction force counters
this force to stop the slipping, fs sN
sN F sin . Hence,
F sin sin cos
s
mg Fcos 2 cos 2
Maximum of µs can be found by setting its derivative with respect to theta equal to zero:
d 2 cos 2cos 1 2cos 1 cos
2 2 2 2
1 2
2
0 This gives sin and min
d 2 cos
2
3 4
9. A
Sol. T2 T2 cos 2 N
T1 cos 1
A
For 1 kg block For m
T1 sin 1 = T2 sin 2 3T1 = 4T2 T2 = 10 m = 6
T2 cos 2 + T1 cos 1 = 10 6
m kg = 0.6 kg
T2 = 6 N, T1 = 8 N 10
10. D
11. A
12. C
Sol. (for Q.11-12) F
ICM h a
If h > h0 where h0
mR
fS
F + f S = ma …(i)
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
Fh fSR = ICM
Fh I a
fs cm2 …(ii)
R R
From (i) and (ii)
h I
F 1 ma 1 CM2
R mR
h
F 1
R
a
ICM
m 1 2
mR
f S = ma F
If h < h0 F
F f S = ma …(i) h a
Fh + f SR = ICM
Fh I a fS
fs cm2 …(ii)
R R
From (i) and (ii)
h I
F 1 ma 1 CM2
R mR
h
F 1
a R
I
m 1 CM2
mR
f S = F ma
For a ring,
F = 2mg, h = R/2
3g mg
a0 , f0 fS F ma
2 2
3g mg
a0 , f0
2 2
For a disc,
F = mg, h = 3R/4
3
mg 1
4 7g 2 7g
a
3 4 3 6
m
2
7mg mg
f S = ma F = mg
6 6
7a0 f0
a , fS
9 3
For a hollow sphere,
5mg R
F= ,h
8 3
5mg 4
a 8 3 g a = a /3
0
5 2
m
3
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
5mg mg mg f0
f S = F ma =
8 2 8 4
f S = f 0/4
For a solid sphere
F = mg/2, h = 3R/5
mg 8
4g 8
a 2 5 a0
7 7 21
m
5
f S = ma F
4mg mg mg
fS
7 2 14
8a0 f0
a , fS
21 7
SECTION – C
13. 00002.25
dv
Sol. m v P = constant
dt
When acceleration reduces to half value its speed becomes doubled i.e. v = 2v 0
1
Pt m v 2 v 20
2
1
Pt m 4v 02 v 02
2
3mv 20 3 1 100 15
t = 2.25 sec.
2P 2 1000
14. 00001.20
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
1 1 1 1
Now K
2
2 2
m v12 v 22 k2 m 2 2 m 2 2
2
= 2 + 1.6 = 3.6 Joule
16. 00005.00
Sol. When the wedge has moved through a distance y, let the point of contact of cylinder have moved
down the plane through x (with respect to wedge). Let F be the friction between the cylinder and
the plane.
Since there is no horizontal force on (wedge + cylinder system)
d2 y d2 y d2 x
M 2 m 2 cos 2 0 …(1)
dt dt dt
d2 y d2 x ma d2 x ma2 d2
Also, m 2 cos 2 F mgsin and Fa , so that
dt dt 2 dt 2 2 dt 2
d2 y d2 x
2 cos 3 2 2gsin …(2)
dt 2 dt
Equation (1) and (2) implies acceleration of the centre of the cylinder down the face, and relative
2gsin M m 2
to the wedge, is = 5 m/s .
3M m 2m sin2
17. 00005.00
Sol. Assume that the drum rolls away from the force P, so that P
the friction F is away from P. Then : 600
d2 d2 d2 x a
Mk 2 2 Pa Fb and Mb 2 M 2 F P cos 60
dt dt dt b
2
M k 2 b2 ddt P a b2
2
fS Side view
d2
0.25 8 10(1.5 1)
dt 2
d2 2
2.5 rad/s
dt 2
d2
And the required acceleration = b 2
= 2 2.5 = 5 m/s2
dt
18. 00012.00
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A, B, D
20. A, B, C
21. A, B, D
22. A, B, C
Sol. Mg Ne 3s 2
3+0+0=3
23. A, B, C
N2O4
2NO2
Sol.
4 8
88
KP 16 atm
4
On doubling the volume
N2O 4
2NO2
4 8
x 2x
2 2
2
16
4 2x
2 x
x = 0.4725
24. A, B, C
25. B, C, D
(C) R 2 SiCl2
(D) In pyrosilicate one oxygen atom is shared.
26. B, D
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
1
200 1 100 1 2
3
1 1 1
pH 7 1.2 log = 7. 45
2 2 2
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. B
SECTION – C
31. 00001.50
32. 00006.50
33. 00000.20
Sol. pH = 5
[H+] = 10-5
RH2 Ca 2 RCa 2H
1
105 10 5
2
1
Wt. of Ca+2 in one litre 105 40 2 10 4 gram = 0.2 mg
2
Hence, hardness will be 0.2 ppm.
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
34. 00019.00
35. 00000.20
Sol.
A B C
Dd
d
50 41.67
0.2
41.67
A B C
1 0 0
1 1 1
Hence number of mole of
1 0.2 0.2
36. 00010.45
1 4
49 1000 49 1000
5 5 1
Sol. V
40 49 10
V 10450 ml 10.45 litre
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
SECTION – A
37. A, B, C, D
1 1 1 1
2
Sol. 0 f x x dx f 2 x dx 2 xf x dx x 2 dx
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
So, f
2 x dx 2 xf x dx x 2 dx 2 xf x dx 1
0 0 0 0
3
1
1 1
1 x2
f t dt dx dx
0x 0
2
1
1
tf t dt 3
0
1
So, f
2 x dt 1
0
3
38. A
1 1
n k 1
Sol. Putting x k t gives f t tk 1 dt
n
k {1, 2, 3, ....., n – 1}
0
1 1 n 1
n 1 k n 1k k
So, f t t dt n1Ck 1 f t t dt
0 0 k 0
1 n
k 1 n k k 1
=
n 1
Ck 1 1 f t t dt
0k 1
n 1
k 1 n k
= 1 n 1Ck 1 f t t k 1dt
k 1 0
n
k 1 1 1 n 1
= 1 n1 Ck 1 n n 1 1 0
k 1
39. A, B, C, D
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
40. A, B, C
2
y y y 2x 1 y 2 y
Sol. 2
2
; d 2x 1 dx
y y y
4x
y e 2x 1
41. A, B, C, D
1 1
1 f 1 f 0
Sol. x 2 f x dx 2
f x dx
0 0
1 1
1 1 1
Since, x 2 f x dx max
0 x 1
f x x dx max f x
2 4 0 x 1
0 0
42. A, B, D
x2
e x e x
x 2n
x 2n 2 1
Sol. n e 2 ecx x R c
2 n0 2n n0 2 n 2
1
For c , inequality does not hold for x = 1
e
43. A, B
44. A, C
a
Sol. f x dx 0
0
1
Put x = at, we get f at dt 0
0
Let M max f x
0 x 1
Using LMVT on [a, ax], |f(x) – f(ax)| (1 – a)xM
1 1 1
1
Now, f x dx f x f ax dx 1 a M xdx 1 a M
2
0 0 0
a
Equality holds if f x M x
2
45. D
46. B
Sol. (45.-46.)
f 1(x) is discontinuous at x = –1 only
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
f 2(x) is continuous x R
f 3(x) is continuous at x = 0, 3 only
f 4(x) is continuous at each irrational number
47. A
48. A
Sol. (47.-48.)
(I) (x3 – x + 1)3 – x3 + x = 0
3
f(f(x)) = 0, where f(x) = x – x + 1
which has only one negative solution
6 4 3 2
(II) f(x) = x – x + 2x – x + 1
2 2 2 3
= (x – 1) (x + 1) + 2x > 0 x > 0
3
1 1 1
(III) x 5 has three positive
x 1 x 2 x 3
solutions
(IV) 2x = x4, has two positive solutions x=1 x=2 x=3
SECTION – C
49. 00011.00
50. 00001.00
f 0 2 f 3
Sol. f x f 0 f 0 x x x where 0 x and
2! 3!
f 2 2 f
f x f 2 f 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 3 where x 2
2! 3!
f 3 f x 2 3 2
x
6 6
Put x = 1 ; f f 12
So, at least one of f and f is 6
51. 00000.00
x2
f x e 2 f x 2xf x x 2 1 f x
Sol. lim f x lim
x x 2
x x 2 1
e2
So, lim f x 0
x
52. 00000.00
1
Sol. Put g x x 2
4
1 1 1
x , , then x g x
2 2 2
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13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
1 1
Let x 0 , and xn 1 g xn n 0. The sequence xn is increasing and bounded above
2 2
1
so its limit exists and this limit is (by solving g(l) = l)
2
1 1 1
By continuity, the constant sequence f xn tends to f f is constant over 2 , 2
2
53. 00002.00
54. 00000.50
k k
1 n 1
k n2 k n2
2 n2 n
k
k n2
1 n
k 1
Sol. lim n 1 k N lim k 1 n 1 lim 2 lim n2
n k n k n
k 1 n
n
k 1 2
n2 n2
k 1
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 2
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
1. Section-A (01 – 08, 19 – 26, 37 – 44) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the four option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section-A (09 – 12, 27 – 30, 45 – 48) contains 6 List-Match sets with 12 questions (each set has 2
questions). Each question has 4 statements in LIST-I & 5 or 6 statements in LIST-II. The codes for
Lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which only one is correct.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1 A force F(x, y, z) = Fx ˆi Fy ˆj Fz kˆ is conservative if, and only if, the following relations are
satisfied:
Fx Fy
(A)
y x
Fy Fz
(B)
z y
Fz Fx
(C)
x z
(D) Work done by the force on any closed path is zero.
2. The two endpoints of an 8 m long weightless thread are fixed at the same height at a distance of
4 m. An object of mass 10 kg is hung onto the thread and can move without friction. A horizontal
force of magnitude F is exerted on the object to keep it at rest on the thread exactly below one of
the endpoints of the thread? If F is removed, the object has an initial acceleration ‘a’ and
eventually acquires a maximum speed v max.
(A) F = 50N
(B) a = 4m/s2
(C) v max 20 2 3 3 m/s
(D) The radius of curvature of path traced by the particle after removal of F will first decrease
and then increase.
3. Three balls of mass m1, m2 and m3 can slide without friction along a horizontal rod. (There are
holes in the balls.) At a certain moment the middle ball is given an initial speed of v0 = 5 m/s
towards the right. If all collisions are totally elastic pick the correct statement/s .
v0
m1 m2 m3
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
6. A train is travelling at a speed of v 0. Then it decelerates uniformly during a time of t to finally stop.
In one of the wagons there is a small object on the floor. The wagon long enough, so that the
object does not collide with any of the walls of the wagon. is the distance covered by the object
on the floor (with respect to train) , is the coefficient of friction between the floor of the wagon
and the object.
v
(A) If 0 g, 0
t
v0 v2 gt 2
(B) If g, 0
t 4 g 4
v0
(C) If g, 0
t
v0 v2 v t
(D) If g, 0 0
t 2g 2
7. A particle is projected from a given point with a given velocity v = 10 m/s and after hitting a
smooth vertical wall returns to the point from which it started. The distance of the initial point from
2
the wall can be: (Take g = 10m/s ) :
(A) 3m
(B) 4m
(C) 4.5 m
(D) 6m
8. A long thin uniform rod lies flat on the table as shown. One end of the
rod is slowly pulled up by a force that remains perpendicular to the rod
at all times. The rod is to be brought to the vertical position without any
slipping of the bottom end? The coefficient of static friction between rod
and ground can be:
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.5
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
List-I List-II
(I) Tension in the sting connected to block A in (P) 6
Newton .
(II) Tension in the 5m cord in Newton. (Q) 8
(III) The value of is /k radians , what can be (R) 2
the possible value/s of k.
(IV) Acceleration of block A(in m/s2). (S) 0
(T) 4
(U) 12
9. If mass m is such that the ring just begins to slip. The correct match will be,
Options
(A) I P, II Q, III R, IV S
(B) I Q, II P, III T, IV S
(C) I T, II Q, III R, IV S
(D) I U, II Q, III R, IV S
10. The value of m was initially chosen so that the ring just began to slide. Now , the ring is welded to
the rod and mass of block A is increased to 5m , holding the 1kg mass . Immediately after the
system is realeased then the correct match will be,
Options
(A) I P, II Q, III R, IV T
(B) I Q, II P, III T, IV U
(C) I T, II U, III R, IV Q
(D) I U, II Q, III R, IV P
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
List-I List-II
R
(I) For a ring, F = 2mg, h (P) 1
2
3R 1
(II) For a disc, F = mg, h (Q)
4 3
5mg R 7
(III) For a hollow sphere, F , h (R)
8 3 9
mg 3R 8
(IV) For a solid sphere, F , h (S)
2 5 21
1
(T)
4
1
(U)
7
11. If acceleration of the ring is ‘a0’ then the acceleration of the different shapes of the body in a0 units
will be
Options
(A) I P, II R, III Q, IV S
(B) I Q, II P, III S, IV U
(C) I P, II T, III R, IV S
(D) I T, II Q, III R, IV U
12. If frictional force acting on the ring is ‘f 0’ then the frictional force acting on the different shapes of
the body in ‘f 0’ units will be
Options
(A) I P, II Q, III R, IV S
(B) I Q, II P, III S, IV U
(C) I P, II Q, III T, IV U
(D) I T, II Q, III R, IV U
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
13. A mass of m = 1kg moves initially with a velocity of v0 10 15 m/s. A constant power P = 1000
Watt is applied so as to increase its velocity. Find the time (in sec) that elapses before the
acceleration is reduced to half of its original value.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
17. Rope is coiled round a drum of radius a = 1.5 m. Two wheels each of radius b = 2 m are fitted to
the ends of the drum, and the wheels and drum form a rigid body having a common axis. The
system stands on the rough horizontal surface and a free end of the rope, after passing under the
drum, is inclined at an angle of 60o to the horizontal. If a force P = 10 N be applied to the rope,
find the magnitude of acceleration (in m/s2) of centre of drum. Where mass of the system is 0.25
kg and its radius of gyration about the axis is k = 2 m.
P
0
60
a
Front view b
Side view
18. At what speed (in m/s) must a pebble be thrown from a height of h = 3.6m, and at an angle of 30o,
measured from the horizontal, if it is to hit the ground at an angle of 45o. (Air drag can be
neglected.) (Take g = 10 m/s2)
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
23.
N2 O4
2NO2
In above equilibrium mixture of N2O4 and NO2 at 425 K, contains N2O4 at 4 atm and NO2 at 8 atm.
Now volume of vessel becomes double at the same temperature.
(A) New pressure of N2O4 is 1.53 atm
(B) New pressure NO2 is 4.945 atm
(C) Mole percentage of N2O4 is 23.63%
(D) New pressure of NO2 is 7.26 atm
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
(B) The CCP and HCP structure of a given element would have same co-ordination number
and same packing fraction.
(C) On decreasing the pressure, coordination number of CsCl decreases to that of NaCl.
+2
(D) In fluorite structure of CaF2, Ca ion occupy tetrahedral void and F ion at CCP point.
This section contains TWO (02) List-Match Sets. Each List-Match set has TWO(02) Multiple Choice
Questions. Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and
(IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U). FOUR options are given in each Multiple
Choice Question based On List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition
asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
27. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
Options
(A) (IV), (S)
(B) (III), (Q)
(C) (II), (R)
(D) (I), (T)
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
28. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
Options
(A) (II), (S)
(B) (I), (S)
(C) (IV), (Q)
(D) (III), (P)
29. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
Options
(A) (I), (Q)
(B) (II), (P)
(C) (I), (U)
(D) (IV), (S)
30. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
Options
(A) (IV), (Q)
(B) (I), (T)
(C) (III), (S)
(D) (III), (P)
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
33. RH2 (ion exchange resin) can replace Ca+2 in water. If 1 litre of water is passed in ion exchange
resin and pH of solution found to be 5.
+2
Find hardness of water in ppm scale in term of Ca .
34. One millimole of CO2 is absorbed in 200 ml of 0.1 M NaOH. If the resulting solution is titrated with
HCl using phenolphthalein as indicator, find millimole of HCl required when indicator changes it’s
colour.
M
36. 49 gram of a sample of oleum containing 20% free SO3 was neutralized by NaOH . The
10
volume of NaOH in litre require for neutralization is
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1 1
1 x2 2
37. Let f be a continuous function on [0, 1] such that f t dt 2
x [0, 1], then f t dt is
x 0
always greater than or equal to
1
(A)
3
1
(B)
4
4
(C)
19
3
(D)
10
1 nk k
f x dx n
1/k
38. The number of function(s) f: [0, 1] R such that k {1, 2, 3, ....., n – 1},
0
where n is an odd integer greater than 1, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 7
39. Let f: R R be a thrice differentiable function such that f(x), f(x), f(x) and f(x) are positive
x R. Moreover, f(x) < f(x) x R, then
(A) f(x) < 2f(x) x R
1
3 3
(B) f x f x x R
2
5
(C) f x f x x R
2
(D) f(x) < 3f(x) x R
40. If y(x) be the solution of the differential equation y·y = 2x(y)2 given y(0) = –4, y(0) = 1, then
(A) y(1) = e4
(B) y(2) = e8/3
(C) y(x) (0, ) – {e2}
(D) y(x) (0, ) – {e3}
1
(A)
4
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
1
(B)
2
3
(C)
10
(D) 1
ex ex 2
42. If ecx x R, then c can be
2
1
(A)
2
1
(B)
2
1
(C)
e
(D) 1
a
44. Let f: [0, 1] R be a continuous function, differentiable on (0, 1) such that f x dx 0 for some
0
a (0, 1), then
a
1 a
(A) f x dx max f x
2 0 x 1
0
1
1 a
(B) f x dx max f x
2 0 x 1
0
1
1 a
(C) f x dx max f x for some function f(x)
2 0 x 1
0
(D) none of the other options is correct
This section contains TWO (02) List-Match Sets. Each List-Match set has TWO(02) Multiple Choice
Questions. Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and
(IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U). FOUR options are given in each Multiple
Choice Question based On List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition
asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
x 4n 1
MM-I. Let f1 x lim x 1 4n ;
n x 1
2x 1
f2 x x cos2 ; (where {.} denotes fractional part function x);
2
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13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
x 2 x 3 ; x is irrational
f3 x ;
0 ; x is rational
0 ; x is irrational
f4 x 1 m
n ; x is rational number of the form x n in lowest terms with m, n 0
LIST–I LIST–II
(I) f 1(x) is discontinuous at (P) –1
(II) f 2(x) is discontinuous at (Q) 0
(III) f 3(x) is discontinuous at (R) 1
(IV) f 4(x) is discontinuous at (S) 2
(T) 2
(U) 3
MM-II. List-I represents equations and List-II represents number of positive real roots of the
corresponding equations
LIST–I LIST–II
3 3
3
(I) (x – x + 1) – x + x = 0 (P) 0
6 4 3 2
(II) x – x + 2x – x + 1 = 0 (Q) 1
3
1 1 1
(III) x5 0 (R) 2
x 1 x 2 x 3
(IV) x4 – 2x = 0 (S) 3
(T) 4
(U) 5
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 14
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
49. Let f(x) be a differentiable function with a continuous derivative x R. If f(1) = 2 and f(2) = 5
and f(x) takes only rational values, then f(3) + f(0) is equal to
50. If f(x) is a function with a continuous third derivative on [0, 2] such that
f(0) = f(0) = f(0) = f(2) = f(2) = 0 and f(2) = 2, then minimum number of value(s) of c [0, 2]
such that f(c) 6 is
2
51. Let f: (0, ) R be a twice differentiable function such that |f(x) + 2xf(x) + (x + 1)f(x)| 2
x R and lim xf x f x 5 , then lim f x is equal to
x x
1
52. Let f: R R be a continuous function x R such that f x f x 2 and f(0) = 0, then
4
1
f is equal to
4
53. Let f(x) be a three times differentiable function (defined on R) such that f(x) has at least five
distinct real zeroes, then number of distinct real zeroes of f(x) + 6f(x) + 12f(x) + 8f(x) is/are
k
n 1
k n2
54. lim 2 is equal to
k 1 n
n
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Main)-2019-20
TEST DATE: 9-11-2019
SECTION – A
1. B
Sol. Force when applied parallel to plane will have minimum magnitude. Fmin
Torque about P;
F(2r) = mg sin r
mgsin fmax
Fmin .…(i) P
2 mg
Also, F + f max = mg sin ….(ii)
tan 3
2 8
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 2
3. C
4. D
a = 5 m/s2
x
5. B
Sol. Till first sand particle touches lower compartment of hourglass, weight will decrease, then it
becomes constant, when last sand particle leave upper compartment it increases.
6. C
Sol. aQ aP
3gsin r 4
gsin
3
4
r
9
7. A
Mw 2
Sol. MI of door about hinge :
3 Masin
Using : I Ma
w Mw 2
Ma cos Ma cos hinge
2 3
3 a
cos
2w
d 3 a
cos
d 2 w
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3 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
3a
2 sin
w
For circular motion of CM of door;
w
RH Ma sin M2
2
3 5 125
RH Ma sin Ma sin Ma sin sin
2 2 2
8. C
9. A
u
Sol. v in sec t (u gt)jˆ , v 0 at t
g
u/ g u/g
u2
y max 2
0
vdt
0
(u gt)dt
2g
10. B
v sin rh A
Sol. A/B C/B 20 2
CB (x h ) C
v cos
B
v
v sin
11. B
12. D
1 1 v1 v1
Sol. 2mg (2m)v 2 2 mv12 …(i)
2 2 2 30
v1 cos 30 = v cos 60 …(ii) 60
3g
Solving v
4
v
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 4
13. B
Sol. v = R …(i) y
2
v
mv
mg sin = …(ii)
R
for motion after separation
2V mg
T …(iii)
gcos O
2
1 2V
2R gsin …(iv)
2 gcos x
2
cos
gR Rgsin 45
sin
g g
2R or =
2 2R
14. B
Sol. v(t) 2iˆ (4t)jˆ
tan = 2t
d 2 2
rad / sec (at t 2 sec)
dt sec 2 17
15. B
Sol. Centre of mass of wedge and ball will not shift in x-y plane
Let wedge displacement be xiˆ yjˆ
S ( R cos )iˆ Rjˆ
r
16. C
mv 2 v
Sol. T cos
R
T
TRcos
v 10 m/s
m 0.6m 1m
m
17. A
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5 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
F0
Sol. a= cos t F
m
F
v 0 sin t
m (/4)
P
peak power at t = .
4
Ratio of power is 1
/2
(/8) (3/8) t
Also
0
(F mg)dt mv
F g
v 0
m 2
18. D
19. B
r
f 2
Sol.
Wext Fext dr 3 2
r
r r dr
i
r0
2
r r 2r
0
3
Wext
4r02 2r0
2
Also, at equilibrium; F = 0 r0 =
2 32 2
Wext 2
4 4 4a 16
20. A
Sol. Fcos f = maC …(ii)
f(2R) FR 2mR2 …(ii) F sin
aC = 2R …(iii)
F F
f = 1 cos always leftward.
3
F cos
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 6
SECTION – B
21. 5
22. 1
SECTION – C
23. 00004.33
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7 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
24. 00006.80
25. 00001.35
2 N N
Sol. Given : (1 cos ) 0.2
2
r 2
cos = 0.8 m r
From FBD of dust particle: R
mg
N = mg cos m2r sin …(i)
N = mg sin + m2r cos …(ii)
gsin 2r cos
= 1.35
gcos 2r sin
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
26. A
Sol. O OH
O O
O
I I
O O
O
OH O
27. C
28. D
If s – p is not operational.
1s2 * 1s22s2 * 2s2 2p 2z 2p1x 2p1y
paramagnetic
29. D
Sol.
A g 2B g
AB2 g
Kc
1
AB2
2 A B 2
1 AB2
AB2 4 moles
2 2 2 2
Now, B = 4 moles
Let y moles of AB2 is added.
1 4 y
2 2 4 2
y 12
30. D
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9 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
31. C
1
Sol. H e
H2
2
Takes B.E. for dissociation to H and then oxidizes slow.
Fact by NCERT.
32. A
33. D
Sol.
Na Liq. NH3 Na NH3 x e NH3 x
x y
Blue coloured and paramagnetic in nature.
34. C
Sol. O=C=C=C=O
→ Linear
→ Optically inactive
→ 4,4 and 4 lone pair.
35. C
36. B
37. A
Sol. If T2 > T1
At high E → Intensity increases and decreases.
(Reference – NCERT)
38. C
Sol.
S8 s 12 OH aq 4S 2 aq 2S2O32 aq 6H2O
2 2
39. B
Sol. Both d-orbitals have axial overlapping in same phase forming bonds.
40. C
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 10
41. D
42. C
43. D
r Cs
Sol. (A) 0.732 .
r Cl
44. D
45. C
SECTION – B
46. 1
Sol. Double dumb shell confirms the graph touches x-axis only once.
1 node.
47. 7
SECTION – C
48. 00006.67
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11 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
0.01
K
x2
x 6.6 10 5 M Ag
49. 00000.71
3a 3
Sol. Nearest in BCC ; Next to next nearest a in FCC
2 2
3a 2 1
Ratio 0.71
2 3a 2
50. 00001.30
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 12
SECTION – A
51. B
1 1
3
Sol. log log 1 x 3 dx log2 3 3
dx = log 2 – 3 + 3
0 0 1 x
52. A
53. D
1
x 1 ; 0 x 1
2
Sol. f x ; 1 x 2 f(x) is discontinuous and bijective function
x
3 5
; 2x
x 1 2
1
lim f x ; lim f x 2 and f(1) = 2
x 1 2 x 1
54. D
2 2
Sol. f(2a + a + 1) < f(3a – 4a + 1)
2a2 + a + 1 > 3a2 – 4a + 1
a (0, 5)
1
Also, 2a2 + a + 1 > 0 and 3a2 – 4a + 1 > 0, we get a or a > 1
3
1
So, a 0, 1, 5
3
55. C
56. C
y cos
Sol. Let the point of contact be (, cos ), then sin
x
–cot = , then, we get a = 1
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13 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
57. D
Sol. 1+a+b=0
c–1=0c=1
dy
Also, c 2x = –1
dx x 1
dy
2x a 1
dx x 1
a = –3; b = 2
Area bounded by y = x2 + ax + b with x-axis
2 2
x 3 3x 2 1
x 3x 2 dx
2
2x
1
3 2 1 6
58. D
x
dt
Sol. Let f x x
4 t2 t 3
0
1
fx 1 0 x (0, 1)
4 x 2 x3
f(x) is decreasing in (0, 1)
Also, f(0) = 0
f(x) < 0 x (0, 1)
No solution
59. B
Sol. Let first x1 elements of set A maps with b1 and next x2 elements maps with b2 and so on last x50
elements maps with b50
x1 + x2 + ..... + x50 = 100
99
Number of positive integral solutions = C49
60. C
Sol. lim x x 1
x 0
61. B
62. D
xloga n
Sol. f x ex log a a x
n 0 n!
f x a x always continuous and differentiable
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AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 14
63. A
64. B
65. D
66. D
dx
Sol. I 1 x3 1 x2 ..... (1)
0
1
Put x =
t
x3
I 1 x3 1 x2 dx ..... (2)
0
Adding equation (1) and (2), we get
dx
2I 2
0 1 x
2
I
4
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15 AITS-PT-I-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
67. A
1 1
Sol. f x 4
2
2 x 1
x f x
x x
dx
f x 1 x2
1 1
f x tan1 x f 1
4
f x tan1 x 1
4
68. A
2
2 t 2 1 1 1 3t 2 3
Sol. I t x x 2 dx 2 3
1
4 t 4t 2t 8 4t
69. D
lim f x x 6 2 lim f x 3
x 0 x 0
=8
70. B
SECTION – B
71. 3
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72. 6
8
Sol. Area bounded by y2 = 4x and y = mx is
3m3
8 2
3
9 m
3m 3
SECTION – C
73. 00012.00
2
Sol. f(x) = 12x + 6ax + 27 0
a [–6, 6]
74. 00004.25
Sol. f(x) = a – 2 sin 2x + cos x – sin x = a + 2(cos x – sin x)2 + (cos x – sin x) – 2
17
Minimum values of 2(cos x – sin x)2 + (cos x – sin x) – 2 is
8
17
So, a 0 for increasing function
8
17
a
8
75. 00009.00
1 2
x4 x2 1
Sol. 9 3 f x
dx
45
0
1
x2 1
f x f x dx 9
3 0
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Main)-2019-20
TEST DATE: 9-11-2019
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1. For a particle projected with initial velocity u 6iˆ 8ˆj 20kˆ , find angular velocity of the particle
about the point of projection, at t = 2 sec. (Given g 10kˆ )
1ˆ 3 ˆ
(A) i j
5 20
1 3 ˆ
(B) ˆi j
5 20
2ˆ 3 2ˆ
(C) i j
5 20
2ˆ 3 2ˆ
(D) i j
5 20
37
3
(A)
4
3
(B)
8
3
(C)
16
(D) none of these
R 2
(A) gR cot
cos2
(B) gR
sin
(C) gR cos
(D) Not possible
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3 AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/20
(A) W
t
(B) W
t
(C) W
t
(D) W
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6. A rod of length ‘’ and cylinder of radius ‘r’ is kept on an incline plane P
as shown in the figure. The rod is pivoted, while the cylinder can roll r
without slipping. A light string PQ attaches top of cylinder to some Q
point on the rod such that it is parallel to the incline. The minimum
value of radius of cylinder to ensure that the string is taut when the
system is released from rest is
2
(A)
5
21
(B)
50
4
(C)
9
(D) none of these
7. A truck has its side door initially open as shown. The Initial position
dimension of the door is 2m 3m (W ) and its mass is of side door
M = 5 kg. At t = 0, the truck starts moving with uniform
acceleration a = 5 m/sec2 as shown in figure (top view). W = 2m
At any time t, if the door makes angle with its initial
position, then the component of force exerted by hinge
on the door along its width is
Truck
Top view
125
(A) sin
2
(B) 250 sin
(C) 75 sin
(D) none of these
8. For a particle moving in space with velocity v , which of the following is incorrect.
dv d | v |
(A)
dt dt
t t
(B)
0
| v |dt v dt
0
t2
(C)
v | a | dt
t1
d | v | dv v
(D)
dt dt v
9. A stick of length L is dropped from rest. At same instant, an insect starts moving
up the stick with a constant speed u relative to the stick. The maximum height
attained by the insect from its initial position with respect to the ground is
L
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5 AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/20
u2
(A)
2g
u2
(B)
g
2u2
(C)
g
(D) none
0rx
(A)
x 2 h2
0rh
(B)
(x 2 h2 )
0rh
(C)
x 2 h2
0rx
(D)
(x 2 h2 )
12. Two small rings of mass ‘m’ each are contained to move on m m
smooth wire. The rings are connected to a block of mass ‘2m’ via
massless strings of length ‘’ each. Initially, the system is held at
2m
rest as shown. The velocity of block when string makes 60 with
the vertical is
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(A) 2g
3g
(B)
5
g
(C)
5
3g
(D)
4
13. A spinning drum of radius ‘R’ with its axis parallel to the ground, carries
dust particles deposited on its inner surface. Find minimum angular
speed with which drum be rotated so that a dust particle separating
from the drum may fall at its diametrical opposite position in space.
Assume, sufficient friction present to prevent any relative slipping of
dust particle on the drum. O
g
(A)
2R
g
(B)
2R
g
(C)
4R
(D) None of these
14. A particle moves in xy plane. The position vector of particle at any time t is r (2t)iˆ (2t 2 )jˆ m.
The rate of change of at t = 2 sec, where is the angle made by the velocity vector from the
positive x-axis, is
1
(A) rad/sec
14
2
(B) rad/sec
17
4
(C) rad/sec
7
6
(D) rad/sec
5
y M O
(A) 5m
1
(B) m
5
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17
(C) m
5
(D) none of these
16. A man is rotating a stone of mass 10 kg tied at the end of a light rope in a circle of radius 1m. To
do this, he continuously moves his hand in a circle of radius 0.6 m. Assume, both circular motions
to be occurring in the same horizontal plane. What is the maximum speed with which he can
throw the stone, if he can exert a pull not exceeding 1250 N on the string.
(A) 10 2 m/s
(B) 5 5 m/s
(C) 10 m/s
(D) 20 m/s
17. A man of mass m while jumping up in the air applies a force F = F0 cos t on the ground.
Assume, that he remains in contact with the ground from t = 0 to t = sec.
2
F
(A) Velocity of man during take off t is less than 0
2 m
(B) Man is producing peak power at the instant of take off.
(C) The average power produced by man is zero.
3
(D) The ratio of power produced at t = and t is more than 1.
8 8
18. Two beads A and B of equal mass ‘m’ are connected by a light string. A
The beads are positioned to move on a smooth ring in a vertical plane
as shown in the figure. The tension in the string just after release is
(A) 2 mg
mg
(B)
2
mg
(C)
4
mg
(D)
2
19. A particle A is fixed at the origin of a fixed coordinate system. B is another particle that
2
experiences a force F 3 2 rˆ due to particle A, where r is the position vector of B with
r r
respect to A. Find the work done in moving particle B slowly from P1 2r0 , 2r0 to point
r r
P2 0 , 0 by an external agent, where r0 is the equilibrium position of the particle.
2 2
92
(A)
64
2
(B)
16
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AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 8
2
(C)
16
92
(D)
64
20. A spool of mass ‘m’ has inner and outer radius R and 2R
respectively. A thread is wound on the inner disc and its free
end is pulled with a force F at an angle with the horizontal in
the direction as shown in the figure. Assume no slipping F
2
condition for thread and the spool and Icm = 2mR , then R
2R
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
21. Two men A and B of mass M and 2M are standing 120 apart on a circular platform of mass 4M
and radius R. The platform is free to rotate about its centre, while men are standing at periphery.
Now men interchange their position with respect to disc by walking along periphery only. If
represents magnitude of angle rotated by platform with respect to the ground, find the ratio
max
.
min
22. A(3 m, 4 m) and B(7 m, 1 m) are two coins on a carrom board. The y A (3, 4)
striker is placed at origin O. If the striker can be shot with a speed of
5 m/sec, then find the minimum time (in sec) taken by striker to v B (7, 1)
become collinear with coin A and B.
O
(0, 0) x
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
23. The resultant of two vectors A 5iˆ and B is R . The direction of R is such that it makes an
angle with the positive x-axis in anticlockwise sense. Find the magnitude of R when B has
6
minimum magnitude. (Take 3 1.732 )
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AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 10
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
4
26. The geometry around each iodine in dinuclear anion I2 OH2 O8 is:
(A) Octahedral
(B) Monocapped octahedral
(C) Square pyramidal
(D) Pentagonal bipyramidal
27. Amongst Zn, Ga, Ge and As the element with the lowest first I.E. is:
(A) As
(B) Zn
(C) Ga
(D) Ge
28. The magnetic property of which molecule changes if we assume s – p mixing is not operational
for all given molecules:
(A) N2
(B) F2
(C) O2
(D) C2
1
29.
Consider the following reversible reaction; A g 2B g
AB2 g Kc .
2
The above equilibrium is established in a 1 L flask and at equilibrium 2 moles of each A and B are
present. If 2.0 moles of B are added further how many moles of AB2 should be added so that
moles of A does not change?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
30. During titration of acetic acid with aq. NaOH solution, the neutralization graph has a vertical line.
This line indicates:
pH
V
(A) Neutral nature at equivalence point
(B) Acidic nature at equivalence point
(C) Depends on experimental proceedings
(D) Alkaline nature at equivalence point
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32. For which of the following reactions, the degree of dissociation cannot be calculated from the V.D.
data:
I.
2HI g
H2 g I2 g
II.
2NH3 g
N2 g 3H2 g
III.
2NO g
N2 g O2 g
IV.
PCl5 g
PCl3 g Cl2 g
(A) I and III
(B) II and IV
(C) I and II
(D) III and IV
33. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid NH3 at low temperature, which of the
following does not occur?
(A) Blue coloured solution is obtained.
+
(B) Na ions reformed in the solution.
(C) Liquid ammonia solution becomes good conductor of electricity.
(D) Liquid ammonia solution becomes diamagnetic.
III. The total number of bonds, bonds and lone pair in the compound are 12.
The correct statement is/are:
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) All of the above
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37. The correct observed curve for a backbody at different temperature representing intensity
wavelength relation is: (T2 > T1)
(A) T2
I
T1
(B)
T2
T1
(C) T1
I T2
(D)
T1
I
T2
38. The oxidation state of sulphur in the product/(s) of the reaction of S8 in basic medium is/are:
(A) +2 and +6
(B) - 2 and +6
(C) - 2 and +2
(D) - 2 only.
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(A) d – d antibonding
(B) d – d bonding
(C) d – d antibonding
(D) d – d bonding
1
40. The preparation of SO3(g) by reaction SO2 g
O 2 g
SO3 g is an exothermic
2
reaction following temperature – pressure relationship for its % yield, for temperatures (T1, T2 and
T3) the correct option is:
T3
T2
T1
% yield
Pressure
41. The existence of a solid compound in more than one modification is known as:
(A) Isomorphism
(B) Allotropy
(C) Amorphism
(D) Polymorphism
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AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 14
45. The correct graph representing the electron gain enthalpy of chalcogens is: ( egH is released
energy)
(A)
e gH
O S Se
(B)
egH
O S Se
(C)
Heg
O S Se
(D)
Heg
O S Se
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
46. The radial distribution curve of the orbital with double dumbshell shape in the fourth principal shell
consists of ‘n’ nodes, n is:
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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
48. Equal volumes of 0.02 M AgNO3 and 0.02 M HCN were mixed. If [Ag+] at equilibrium is x × 10-5,
-10 -16
calculate x. Take Ka(HCN) = 9 × 10 and Ksp(AgCN) = 4 × 10 .
49. The ratio of distances of nearest neighbours in BCC lattice by next to next nearest in FCC lattice
is:
50. The concentration of oxalic acid is ‘X’ mol L– 1. 40 ml of this solution react with 16 mL of 0.05 M
acidified KMnO4. What is the pH of ‘X’ M solution? Assume oxalic acid dissociates completely:
(log2 = 0.3010).
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AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 16
SECTION – A
1
n 3 3 n
1 n r
dx
51. Let 3
, lim r 1 3n , then log is equal to
0 1 x
n n
(A) log 2 – 1 +
(B) log 2 – 3 + 3
(C) 2 log 2 –
(D) log 4 – 3 + 3
x cos 1
52. 3
dx is equal to
x 2 2x cos 1 2
x
(A) c
2
x 2x cos 1
x cos
(B) c
x 2 2x cos 1
2x
(C) c
x 2 2x cos 1
2x cos
(D) c
x 2 2x cos 1
x 1 5 1
53. f x for f : 0, , 3 (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function and {.}
x 1 2 2
represents fractional part of x), then which of the following is true?
(A) f(x) is many-one discontinuous function
(B)
min lim f x , lim f x f 1
x 1 x 1
(C) f(x) is surjective differentiable function every where
(D) f(x) is injective function
54. Let f(x) be a decreasing function defined on (0, ). If f(2a2 + a + 1) < f(3a2 – 4a + 1), then the
range of a is
1
(A) a > 1 or a
3
(B) a (0, 5)
1
(C) a
3
1
(D) a 0, 1, 5
3
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55. Let f: R R be a function such that f(0) = 1 and for x, y R, f(xy + 1) = f(x)·f(y) – f(y) – x + 2
holds (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function). Then which is the correct option?
(A) lim f x 1
x 1
(B) lim f x 2
x 2
(C) lim f x 0
x 0
(D) lim f x 1
x 0
56. Tangent are drawn to the curve y = cos x from the origin. Then the point of contact lies on the
2 2 2 2
curve x – y = ax y . This value of ‘a’ is equal to
(A) –1
1
(B)
2
(C) 1
(D) 2
57. If the curve y = x 2 + ax + b and y = cx – x2 touch each other at (1, 0). Then the area bounded by
the curve y = x2 + ax + b with x-axis is
2
(A)
3
5
(B)
6
1
(C)
3
1
(D)
6
x
dt
58. Number of solutions of x in (0, 1) is/are
0 4 t 2 t3
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) none of these
59. It is given that there are two sets of real numbers A = {a1, a2, ....., a100} and B = {b1, b2, ....., b50}.
Total number of onto functions ‘f’ from A to B such that f(a1) f(a2) f(a3) ..... f(a100) is/are
100
(A) C50
99
(B) C50
100
(C) C49
99
(D) C51
60. lim x x x x
x
is equal to
x 0
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) –1
(D) does not exist
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AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 18
61. If for all x, y the function f is defined by f(x) + f(y) + f(x)·f(y) = 1 and f(x) > 0, f(x) is differential
everywhere, then
(A) f(0) > f(1)
(B) f(x) = 0 for all x
(C) f(0) < f(1)
(D) none of these
xn
62. If f x 1 loga n , then at x = 0, f(x)
n 1 n!
(A) has no limit
(B) is discontinuous
(C) is continuous but not differentiable
(D) is differentiable
dx
66. The value of 1 x3 1 x 2 is equal to
0
(A)
3
(B)
2
(C)
6
(D)
4
1
67. Let f(x) be a real valued differentiable function defined for all x 1 such that f x 4
2
x f x
and f(1) = 1, then
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19 AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/20
(A) lim f x 1
x 4
(B) lim f x 1
4
(C) lim f x 1
x 0 4
(D) we can’t say
2
1 1 1
68. If and the roots of the equation x2 + t2x – 2t = 0, I t x 2 x 2 dx , then
1
2
3t 3
(A) I t 2 3
8 4t
3t 2 3
(B) I t 2 3
8 4t
2
3t 3
(C) I t 2 3
8 4t
3t 2 3
(D) I t 2 3
8 4t
69. Let lim f x 24 and lim f x 3 . If lim f 2x2 x 3 lim f x 6 x 2 , then is equal to
x 0 x 0 x 0 x 0
(A) 27
(B) 21
(C) 12
(D) none of these
70. Let f: (0, ) (0, ) be a differentiable surjective function and F(x) is the anti-derivative of f(x)
2 +
such that 2(F(x) – f(x)) = f (x) for x R , then
f x
(A) lim 2
x x
f x
(B) lim 1
x x
(C) f(x) is strictly decreasing function
(D) can’t say
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
71. Let Mn = {0.a1a2 ..... an, such that ai = 0, 1, for 1 i n – 1, an = 1}, be a set of decimal fractions,
54Sn
Tn and Sn be the number and sum of the elements of Mn respectively, then lim is equal to
n Tn
72. Let area bounded by the parabola y2 + 4y = 4x and y = mx + m – 2 is 9 sq. units, then value of
|9m| is equal to
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AITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 20
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
27x 2
73. The number of non-zero integral values of ‘a’ for which the function f x x 4 ax 3 1 is
2
concave upward for x R
74. Let f(x) = ax + cos 2x + sin x + cos x is defined for x R and a R, f(x) is strictly increasing
function the range of a is , , then is
2
1 1
1 1
2x 3f x f x dx
2
75. Let
15
and f x dx k , then k is equal to
0 0
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 1
SECTION – A
1. B, C
I 0I 2
Sol. Magnetic flux through the smaller loop due to current in the bigger loop = 0
2d 2 2d
I 2
0
4 d
0 2
So mutual inductance =
4d
d 0
2
So emf induced in the bigger loop = kt
dt 4d
0 2k
4d
2. B, D
Sol. R2 sin2 B
1
So current di dR2 sin d
dr 2
4 3 d
dR sin d 2
So d 0 dR 4 .
2 3
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
3. A, B, D
Sol. Loop equation gives
di Na2
L iR 0 i
di 2
2
di 1 0Na
So Ri
dt L 2
0Na2
So to grow current always, R 0
2
2R
0Na2
4. C
mr
Sol. eE = mr E
e
2
2rE 2mr
So I
R eR
and B 0nI
20nmr 2
eR
5. B, C
Sol. During melting of ice, its volume decreases.
6. A, D
Sol. Dipole is in uniform field, so net electric force is zero.
Electric potential energy of a dipole U = – P.E . For stable equilibrium potential energy should be
minimum.
7. A, C, D
Sol. OB = 1 m y
and time period L
C 30
2m
T= 2 sec 30
qB 1m60 P
30
Time spent by the particle in the magnetic field is
m 60
t sec O x
3 3qB 3 v0
B
8. C
9. D
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3 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
10. B
Sol. (for Q.8-10)
Cyclic process Work Done U
(I) W AB > 0 UAB > 0
W BC = 0 UBC < 0
W CA < 0 UCA < 0
(II) W AB = 0 UAB > 0
W BC > 0 UBC = 0
W CA < 0 UCA < 0
(III) W AB > 0 UAB > 0
W BC > 0 UBC < 0
W CA < 0 UCA = 0
(IV) W AB = 0 UAB > 0
W BC > 0 UBC = 0
W CA < 0 UCA < 0
11. C
12. A
13. D
Sol. (for Q. 11-13)
Final charge distributions are as follows
Electric field at P1 =
9 10 10 900 KV
9 6
2 m
10
1
Q +Q +Q 0
Q Q
+Q +Q
Q 0 Q +Q
+Q +Q Q
2 101
2
2.25 102 J
1
2 2 10
SECTION – B
14. 9
dT dT dT
Sol. KA
dx
KA
dx
ms
dt
10 6 8 103 500 0.05
Y X
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
dT dT 10 6 8 10 3 500 0.05
9
dx Y dx X 500 104
15. 5
1
2 1
q q 2
Sol.
24 0 0 4 4
q q q q q
240 80 8 20 8 20 120
Nm2
5 .
c
16. 4
S S
Sol. RS 7 10 3 (XS is the physical quantity in space)
rS2
1 300 1 300
So 7 103 2
r2 1 300
Where ( X is the physical quantity in ISRO lab)
Putting all the values
1
m
4
17. 5
Sol. For the cell network equivalent emf is and equivalent resistance is r, then the equivalent circuit
is
1 r1 1 r1 I1–I2
I1
I2 I2
2 2 2
R R
r r2 r2 r2
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5 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. B, D
Sol. Pyrrole is -excessive heterocyclic compound, so can take part in Reimer-Tiemann reaction.
20. B, C, D
Sol. Cellulose nitrate is a semi-synthetic polymer.
21. A, C, D
Sol. Conceptual
22. A, B, C
o
Sol. Allyl and benzyl 1 alcohol give turbidity with Lucas reagent instantly.
23. A, B, C, D
Sol. Cl Cl
P NaOEt
S
S
Mustard gas
Rate of hydrolysis is more than corresponding ether analogue
Cl Cl due to NGP.
O
24. A, B, C
Sol. Bridgehead -keto carboxylic acids do not decarboxylate as it would require formation of a double
bond at bridgehead carbon which would be highly strained.
25. A, B, C, D
Sol. Epimers, Anomers and geometrical isomers – all are examples of diastereomers.
26. B
27. A
28. D
Sol. (for the Q. No. 26 to 28)
Factual.
29. B
30. A
31. B
Sol. (for the Q. No. 29 to 31)
Conceptual.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
SECTION – B
32. 3
6
Sol. For A 2
For B 22
33. 9
O O
|| ||
Sol. A CH3 C C OH
34. 6
Sol. Structure of Nylon-2-nylon-6 is given below:
O
NH CH2 C NH CH2 C
5
O n
35. 6
Sol. Nitrobenzene is highly deactivating towards EAS reactions, cannot take part in Friedel-Crafts
alkylation.
Aryl 1o amine cannot be prepared by Gabriel’s phthalimide synthesis.
Aniline give very poor yield in Friedel-Crafts alkylation.
Phenol on treatment with bromine water gives tri-substituted product.
36. 4
Sol. Conceptual.
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7 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
SECTION – A
37. B, D
–1 –1 1 –1
Sol. tan x – tan y = tan
8
xy 1 8y 1
Case-I: x, y > 0 x (5, 3) and (57, 7)
1 xy 8 8y
xp 1 1 8p
Case-II: (p = –y) x
x > 0, y < 0 0 p > 0 no solution
1 xp 8 8p
–1 –1 1
Case-III: x < 0, y < 0 tan p – tan q = tan1 (p = –y, q = –x) (–3, –5), (–7, –57)
8
38. A, B, C
Sol. Ec : x2 = cy
F : (y2 – x)(y2 + x) = 0
39. A, C, D
3x 4y x y 4
Sol. Bisectors are given by . Bisector containing (2, 1) is given by ‘–‘ sign
5 2
which is also obtuse angle bisector
40. A, B, D
Sol. Tangent for ellipse : y mx m2 2
Tangent for hyperbola : y mx 2m2 2
2
m = 4 or m = 2
2 2 4 2
Point of tangency for ellipse , and for ,
6 6 6 6
41. A, C, D
Sol. The two ellipses will be reflection of each other in common tangent
So, locus of centre of E2 can be obtained by finding locus of centre of E1 in variable tangent to E1.
h0 k 0 4m2 3
If (h, k) be the reflection of centre, then 2
m 1 m2 1
Eliminating ‘m’, we get (x2 + y2)2 = 4(4x2 + 3y2) which is fourth degree polynomial closed curve
Similar procedure can be adopted for focus
42. A, B
Sol. 1 = 2R2 sin A cos B cos C
2 = 2R2 cos A sin B cos C
3 = 2R2 cos A cos B sin C
1 + 2 + 3 = 2R2(sin(A + B + C) + sin A sin B sin C) = 2R2 sin A sin B sin C =
R1 = R2 = R3 = R
43. B, C
Sol. 2019 = 3 673
2 2 2
2a1 cos a1
3a 2 cos a2
5a3 cos a3
..... 3 673
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
44. C
45. A
46. B
Sol. (for Q. 44.-46.) P1
If P1 P2 P3 is equilateral then P5 P6 P7 is also equilateral
P4
P6
P7
P2 P5 P3
47. C
48. A
49. A
Sol. (for Q. 47.-49.)
The identities are sin1 x cos1 x x [–1, 1]
2
5
cot 1 x tan1 x x
2
sec 1 x cosec 1x x R – (–1, 1)
2
sin1 x sin1 x 2 x [–1, 1]
tan1 x tan1x 2 x R
cot 1 x cot 1x 3 x R
1
cosec 1 sin1x x [–1, 1] – {0}
x
SECTION – B
50. 2
Sol. Length of path OABC is 2
4
O /4
4
A
B C 2 1, 1
51. 8
Sol. f(a, b) represent distance between the curves 16x 2 + 9y2 = 144 and x2 + y2 = 25.
So, c = 9 and d = 1
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9 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
52. 4
x2 y 2 19
Sol. Director circle of 2
2 1 is x2 + y2 = a2 + b2. It intersects (x – 1)2 – y2 + 0 at only two
a b 2
2 21 2 2
points. Solving the two equations simultaneously 2x – 2x + – (a + b ) = 0
2
21
4 8 a2 b2 0 a + b = 10 a + b = 4
2 2
2
53. 8
Sol. cosec2 x – cot2 x – (1 + tan2 x) – tan2 x – 1 + 3 = 0
2
tan x = 1 tan x = 1
54. 3
Sol. Domain of expression f x tan1 x 2 sin1 x 3 sec 1 x is 1, 1
7
f 1 2 3
4 2 4
5
f 1 2 3.0
4 2 4
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
1. Section-A (01– 7, 19 – 25, 37 – 43) contains 21 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks
for wrong answer
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect option is selected.
Section-A (08 – 13, 26 – 31, 44 – 49) contains 18 questions. Each of 2 Tables with 3 Columns and
4 Rows has three questions. Column 1 will be with 4 rows designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV).
Column 2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column 3 will be with 4 rows
designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Each multiple choice question with 4 options has only one
correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
2. Section–B (14 – 18, 32 – 36, 50 – 54) contains 15 Numerical based questions with answers as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 07 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
d
(A) If the current in the loop ABCD is in clockwise sense then the induced current in the loop
EFGH due to this current is in anticlockwise sense.
(B) If the current in the loop ABCD is in clockwise sense then the induced current in the loop
EFGH due to this current is in clockwise sense.
2k
(C) emf induced in the loop EFGH due to current in the loop ABCD is 0 .
4d
30 2k
(D) emf induced in the loop EFGH due to current in the loop ABCD is .
4d
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3 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
P
metallic disc a
of radius ‘a’
long uniform
solenoid of N
turns and
length
Brush
0Nia2
(A) The induced emf between terminals P and Q is , when current in the coil is i.
2
(B) Current in the coil can increase or decrease with time depending upon the value of .
R
(C) min for increasing the current in the coil always is
20Na2
2R
(D) min for increasing the current in the coil always is
0Na2
4. A solenoid of radius r is made of thin metallic wire rings with resistance of each ring R. The rings
have been put in a uniform way on a very long glass cylinder which has vacuum inside it. The
solenoid and glass cylinder are glued to each other. The number of rings per unit length is n and
the planes containing the rings are perpendicular to the symmetry axis of the cylinder. At a
moment the cylinder starts rotating around its symmetry axis with an angular acceleration . The
e
magnetic field B at the centre of the cylinder (after a long time) is ( is specific charge of
m
electron).
0 nmr 2
(A)
eR
0nmr 2
(B)
eR
20nmr 2
(C)
eR
40nmr 2
(D)
eR
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
P
A
V B
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5 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
A
B
U
A B
V
V
CA – Rectangular Hyperbola
P
B
2P0
(IV) P0 C (iv) WCA 0 (S) UCA 0
A
V
V0 2V0
8. In a cyclic process W AB and UAB are both non zero values and have same sign.
(A) (I) (ii) (R)
(B) (II) (i) (P)
(C) (III) (i) (P)
(D) (IV) (ii) (R)
10. In a cyclic process, W any path + Uany path < 0 (any path means any of AB or BC or CA)
(A) (I) (ii) (R)
(B) (II) (iv) (S)
(C) (III) (iv) (S)
(D) (IV) (i) (R)
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
Answer questions 11, 12 and 13 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.
Column –1 is having charged systems, Column –2 is having variation of electric field for any
charged system of column –1 and Column –3 is having variation of electric potential (taking
potential at infinity to be zero) for any charged system of column –1
Column – 1 Column – 2 Column – 3
R2 V
R1 2Q E
+Q
P1
(I) (i) (P)
R2
R1 Q E V
P1
(II) (ii) (Q)
Two thin conducting R1 R2 r R1 R2 r
shell, out of which
inner shell is having
charge Q and outer
shell is uncharged
R2 E
R1 V
+Q
P1
(III) (iii) (R)
R1 R2 r R1 R2
Two thin uncharged r
conducting shell and
Point charge at centre
=Q
R2 E V
R1 +Q
Q
(IV) P1 (iv) (S)
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7 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
KV
11. Electric field at point P1 is 900 for a charged system. Choose the correct option for that
m
charged system.
(A) (III) (i) (Q)
(B) (III) (iv) (S)
(C) (II) (iv) (Q)
(D) (II) (i) (P)
12. Electric potential of a conducting shell (thin or thick) is 45 KV for a charged system. Choose the
correct option for that charged system.
(A) (I) (ii) (R)
(B) (I) (ii) (P)
(C) (III) (i) (R)
(D) (III) (i) (P)
13. Electrical potential energy stored in outside space (from r = R2 to (r ) is 2.25 × 10-2J
(A) (I) (ii) (Q)
(B) (II) (iv) (S)
(C) (III) (i) (P)
(D) (III) (i) (S)
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
14. A conducting rod is initially at 0°C temperature. Now Melting ice Insulation Steam
one end A is kept at melting ice chamber (0°C) and chamber chamber
(0°C) (100°C)
the other end B is kept at steam chamber (100°C). A XY B
The surface of the rod is well insulated from the
outer environment so that heat is only flowing along
the length of the rod as shown is the figure.
The cross-sectional area of the rod is 1 cm 2 and length of the rod is 1 m. Thermal conductivity of
the rod is 500 W/m-K. Density of the rod is 8000 kg/m3. Specific heat capacity of the rod is 500
J/kg-K. A small cylindrical element xy (of length 1 cm and cross-sectional area same as that of
rod) is examined. It is observed that temperature gradient of the end X is 5°C/m and average
temperature of xy part of the rod is rising at 0.05°C/sec. What is the temperature gradient
(in °C/m) of end Y of the element?
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
16. Chandrayan-1, the lunar mission launched by India in 2008, had all gold wiring. A particular
instrument on board the mission, was operating at the same temperature as the space
surrounding the Chandrayan at 3 K. Instrument specifications demanded that no wire in the
instrument should offer a resistance more than 7 m. All the instruments on Chandrayan were
fabricated in ISRO lab at room temperature of 30°C. If the radius of all wires in the instrument
was 0.1 mm (as measured in ISRO lab). If the maximum allowable length (as measured in ISRO
1 22
lab) of any wire is approximately meter then find . Take . (Assume that resistivity
7
and length of gold wire change linearly with temperature)
You can use these properties of gold.
–8
Resistivity at room temperature = 2.2 × 10 m
–1
Temperature coefficient of resistivity = 0.0032 K
–5 –1
Linear thermal expansion coefficient = 1.5 × 10 K .
17. The network shown consists of an infinite number of cells of emf 1 and 2 with corresponding
internal resistances r1 and r2 respectively A resistor R = 1 is connected to the end of the
network. If the values of the emfs and internal resistances are 1 = 1.0 V, 2 = 2.0 V, r1 = 4 and
r2 = 6. If the current flowing through the resistor R is I ampere, then find 10 I.
1 r1 1 r1
2 2
R
r2 r2
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9 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
19.
CHCl3 NaOH
N
H
Product (s) formed is/are
(A) CHO
N
H
(B) Cl
N
(C) CHO
N
(D)
CHO
N
H
21. Which of the following transformation(s) is/are possible by aq. NaOH in presence or absence of
heating
(A) CH2OH
CH2OH
CH2OH
HOH2C
(B)
Ph
O
Ph OH
Me
Me
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
(C)
O
O
O
(D) Br OH
NO 2 NO 2
NO 2 NO 2
22. OH
Which of the following is/are correct about the above drawn compound?
(A) It gives positive Br2 – water test.
(B) It gives positive Na-metal test.
(C) It gives negative iodoform test.
(D) It does not give turbidity with Lucas reagent at room temperature.
SCl2
23. H2C CH2 P
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding ‘P’?
(A) P on treatment with sodium ethoxide produces divinyl sulphide.
(B) It is a chemical warfare agent.
(C) Rate of hydrolysis of P is much more than its corresponding ether analogue.
(D) On complete hydrolysis it produces HCl and diol.
(B) CO 2H
CO 2H
(C) O
HO 2C
(D)
O
C
O OH
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11 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
Answer Q. 26, Q. 27 and Q. 28 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
Answer Q. 29, Q. 30 and Q. 31 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
R1
(III) Br (iii) Proceeds via five (R) Four
14 NaNH2
membered cyclic products
liq. NH
TS
3
2 2
i H O
ii 160o C,
Product s
not containing N
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SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
32. Cl CH CH Br
HO 2C CHOH3 CO 2H
Cl CH CH F B
A
If number of stereoisomers for (A) is 2x, and if number of stereoisomers are possible for (B) is 2y.
Then value of x/y would be?
33. O
i SOCl
ii KCN ' A '
OH 2
H3C C
iii H3O
How many of the following statements is/are correct about ‘A’?
(1) It forms oxime with hydroxylamine
(2) It can be prepared by the oxidation of propylene glycol by KMnO4.
(3) It is stronger acid than propanoic acid
(4) It forms phenyl hydrazone with phenyl hydrazine
(5) It can be prepared by hydrolysis of , -dibrompropanoic acid
(6) When it is heated with dil. H2SO4 in a sealed tube, decarboxylation takes place
(7) When it is heated with conc. H2SO4, decarbonylation takes place
(8) It gives positive result in the iodoform reaction
(9) It decolourises bromine water and KMnO4 solution.
35. How many of the following reaction is not possible or produce very poor yield?
(i) NO 2 NO 2
CH3Cl
Anhydrous AlCl3
CH3
(ii) NO 2 O
+ X NH2 CO 2H
NK
i
ii OH ,H O
3
O CO 2H
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 14
CH3 Cl
Anhydrous AlCl
3
CH3
(iv) OH OH
Br Br
Br2
CS 2
Br
(v) O O
MnO
R C O H
R C R
(vi) O
Li C
i CO2
OH
ii H2 O,H
(vii) X
Anhydrous AlCl
3
(viii)
CH3 ONa
300 K
Br
(ix) NH2 NO 2
CF3 CO3H
NH2 NO 2
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15 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
36. Protonation of carbonyl group forms a cation with significant charge on the carbon atom
C O H
C OH C OH
How many of the following carbonyl compounds form an aromatic cation on protonation?
1. 2.
O O
3. 4.
O O O
5. O 6.
7. 8.
C H
H B O
O O
9.
O
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 16
SECTION – A
One OR More Than One Choice Type
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
37. Let the ordered pair of integers (xi, yi) where i = 1, 2, ....., n satisfy the equation
–1 –1 –1
tan x + tan 8 = tan y + . For the polygon so formed in xy plane which of the following is/are
2
true?
(A) It is a rectangle
(B) It is not cyclic
(C) It is symmetric about line y = x
(D) It is symmetric about line x + y = 0
38. Let A = {xy = c| c R – {0}}. Let EC = 0 represent locus of point Pc such that sum of slopes of
normals drawn from it to xy = c is equal to sum of ordinates of feet of normals. Let F be the set of
points of intersection of Ec = 0 with xy = c (for parameter ‘c’), then
(A) (1, 1) is an element of F
(B) (2, 1) is not an element of F
(C) (0, 0) is an element of Ec F c R – {0}
(D) F is a set of hyperbolas
39. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to angle bisectors of pair of lines
3x2 – 4y2 – xy – 12x + 16y = 0
(A) Angle bisector containing point (2, 1) is the obtuse angle bisector
(B) Equation of acute angle bisector is 3 2 5 x 4 2 5 y 20 0
(C) Equation of obtuse angle bisector is 3 2 5 x 4 2 5 y 20 0
(D) Angle bisectors are perpendicular with respect to each other
40. For the curves 2x2 + y2 = 2 and y2 – x2 = –2 which of the following is/are true?
2 2
(A) Equation of a pair of common tangents is 4x + y – 4xy – 6 = 0
2 2
(B) Equation of a pair of common tangents is 4x + y + 4xy – 6 = 0
5
(C) Length of common tangent is
3
10
(D) Length of common tangent is
3
x 2 y2 x 4 2 y 2
41. Let E1 : 1 and E 2 : 1 . If E2 rolls on E1, without slipping, then which of the
4 3 4 3
following is/are true?
(A) Locus of centre of E2 is a polynomial of fourth degree
(B) Locus of one of the focus of E2 is polynomial of third degree
(C) Locus of centre of E2 is a closed curve
(D) Locus of one of the focus of E2 is a closed curve
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42. Let O be circumcenter of ABC and AO, BO, CO meet circumcircle of ABC in D, E, F
respectively. If areas of ABC, DBC, EAC, FAB are , 1, 2, 3 and radius of their
circumcircle are R, R1, R2, R3 respectively, then (where A, B, C and a, b, c have usual meaning)
(A) 1 + 2 + 3 =
(B) 1 + 2 + 3 = 2R2 sin A sin B sin C
a b c 4
(C) 2
R1 R2 R3 R
a b c abc
(D) 2
R1 R2 R3 R
n 2
th
43. Pia cos
i ai
2019 where Pi represents the i prime number
i 1
(i.e., for example P1 = 2, P2 = 3, P3 = 5 .....) such that Pn < 2019 and ai R. If elements of set A
be solution of the equation represented by ordered n-tuple (a1, a2, a3 ....., an), then
(A) number of elements in set A is finite
(B) if ai 9 i = 1, 2, ....., n, then number of element in set A is 25
(C) if ai 0 i = 1, 2, ....., n, then A is null set
(D) if ai 9 i = 1, 2, ....., n, then A is singleton set
Answer Q.44, Q.45 and Q.46 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns
of the following table.
Let P1 P2 P3 form an equilateral triangle. Let Pn + 3 be mid-point of Pn and Pn + 1 n N. Match the ratios
of areas of triangle given in Column-1 and ratio of angles of triangle given in Column-2 to their respective
values in Column-3
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 18
Answer Q.47, Q.48 and Q.49 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns
of the following table.
3
Let inverse trigonometric functions be defined as follows: sin1 x : 1, 1 , ;
2 2
3
cos 1 x : 1, 1 0, ; tan1 x : R , 1
; cosec x : , 1 1, , 0 ;
2 2 2 2
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SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
50. If length of smallest path that can be traced from (0, 0) to 2 1, 1 without traversing inside
2 2 a
the curve x + y – 2 2x + 1 = 0 is of the form b ; a, b I, then value of a + b is equal to.
16
2 2
1
51. Let f a, b 25 a2 b a 144 16b 2 . If maximum and minimum value of f(a, b) is
3
c and d respectively a, b R, then c – d equals.
2 2
52. If there are only two points on the curve 2x – 2y – 4x + 21 = 0 such that tangents drawn to
x2 y 2
1 (a, b N) are perpendicular, then a + b equals.
a2 b2
53. Number of solutions of the equation cosec2 x – sec2 x – tan2 x – cot2 x – sin2 x – cos2 x + 3 = 0
x [–2, 2] is.
p
54. If maximum value of tan1 x 2sin1 x 3sec 1 x is where p, q are coprime integers, then
q
p – q equals.
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PAPER – 2
SECTION – A
1. A
0i 3 0 i 1
Sol. Bnet
4R 2 4R 3 2
0i
4 3R
2. D
Sol. Total charge (finally) = 0
N
So charge flown to the earth = Q
i1
i
3. B
q q0 q A d d
Sol. iR (where C = 0 )
C C d
(q0+q)
q0 2q dq q0 2q
i
RC dt RC +q q
(q0+q)
q t
dq dt a b c
0
q0 2q
0
RC
2dt R i
qd R0 A
i 0 e
R 0 A
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4. C
4 3
Sol. P
r 4r 2 T 4
3
So T cr1/ 4 (where c is a constant)
5. B
Sol. All the spheres are at same potential so, V1 = V2 = V3 and Q1 : Q2 : Q3 = R1 : R2 : R3 and E1 : E2 :
1 1 1
E3 = : : .
R1 R2 R3
6. B
dQ dT
Sol. kA
dt dx
7. B
Sol. Welect Ui Uf
q12 q22 q23 q1q3 q1q2 q2 q3
1
Ui
40
2a 2b 2c c b c
2
1 q12 q22 q3 q1q3 q1q2 q2 q3
Uf
40 2a 2b 2c c b c
8. B, C
Sol. From the Phasor diagram
2 1
C C
4
R
9. A, D
Sol. Capacitors are connected in series, so charges on the capacitors remain same. During removal
of the slab anticlockwise current flows through the circuit, so battery is being charged.
10. B
Sol. 0 = dU + PdV = d(a + bPV) + PdV
After solving
b 1
b
PV constant
11. A, B, C, D
Sol. When only S2 is open
2 4
20 cm
3 120
When only S1 is open
4
2 60 cm
120
When all three are closed
4
2 60 cm
120
When only S1 is closed
4
2 60 cm
120
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12. B, D
Sol. Every body radiates and absorbs radiation simultaneously at any non zero temperature T.
13. B, D
Sol. When switch S is open 250V
250
V1 6000 150 V
10000
V1 V2
250
V2 4000 100 V
10000
When switch S is closed circuit reduces to
R1 R2
shown in the figure.
250
So both the voltmeters show readings V1 = V2 125 V
2
14. A, B
2m
Sol. Distance of the target x = (n) v cos , where n is an integer
qB
nv v 0
B B0
15. A
16. B
Sol. (for Q.15-16)
Emf induced between the plates = Bwv
Bwv Lh
So I BLhv
w
2
So FB = BIw = B Lhwv
2
So net external force = Phw – B Lhwv = kv
(at steady state)
In the absence of magnetic field, Phw = kv0
Phw
So Phw – B2 Lhwv = v
v0
Pv 0
So v
P B 2Lv 0
17. D
18. B
Sol. (for Q. 17-18)
qV
Acceleration of ball, a =
md
2d 2md2
So time of motion, t =
a qV
Q n qA C qV
So I 0 n0 q
t 2md 2 0 2m
qV
V V 2m 0 2mV
So R 0 =
I Cn0 q qV Cn0 q q
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
19. B
Sol. Down the group nucleophilicity generally increases in polar protic solvent, and if attacking atom is
same stronger the base, stronger the nucleophile.
20. D
Sol.
O
O
OCH3
i OH
NH
ii H O
3
HO NH2 O
O NH2
OH
HO
OH
O H2N C
Aspartic acid
O
Non essential Phenylalanine
Essential
21. B
Sol. CH3 CH3
CH3
H H TsCl
H H BuO K
H H
H OH H OTs Anti e limination
22. A
Sol. The – COOH group is electron-withdrawing, acid strengthening compared to – H or – CH3.
23. D
Sol.
H OH O
OH
H2 O H
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24. A
Sol. OH O OH
i HBr HI
excess
ii OH
OH I
25. B
Sol. db is conjugated by two carbonyl groups.
26. D
Sol. Conceptual.
27. A, B, C, D
Sol. Conceptual.
28. A, C, D
Sol.
Benzyne Biphenylene
All C – C bonds are not equal in biphenylene. Central ring is antiaromatic.
29. B, D
Sol. Conceptual.
30. A, C
Sol. OH
i m ClPBA
ii LiAlH4
CH3
31. A, B, D
Sol. Conceptual.
32. A, D
Sol. O
X Cl C NH OMe
Y Cl C OH
Z H2N OMe
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33. D
Sol.
O O
OMe OMe
(A)
(B)
OH Cl
O O
O
(D) N CH3
(C) N CH3
34. B
Sol.
CH3
(E) CH3 (F)
N
(H)
35. B
36. B
Sol. (for Q. No. 35 and 36)
O O
O O
NaOEt i NaOEt
ii CH I
3
OC2H 5 O O
NaOEt /
O
O
O O
O
HO O O O
O O
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SECTION – A
37. C
Sol. 2020 f x 2 2019
38. A
Sol. C always lies on circle
39. C
1 1 1 r
Sol. r2020
rn r1 rn 1 2019 2
40. C
C A
Sol. IF = r cosec B
2
B E
IE = r cosec C F
2 F r
r I
C B
IE = IF sin B sin C
2 2 B C
B C 3B 3C
2sin cos 0
4 4 4 4
3
B C 2n 1 , n I
4 2
41. B
Sol. Let Bn be set of natural numbers less than or equal to 105 which are multiples of ‘n’, then
A = B1 – B2 B5 B7 ( 105 = 3 5 7)
2r 105 2r 2r
cos cos cos
rA 105 r 1 105 rB3 B5 B7 105
2r
Using sum of ‘n’ nth roots of unity is 0, we get cos 105 1
rA
42. A
6
Sol. r 3 441 if equation has a solution then sin(rx) should be equal to 1 for r = 1, 2, ....., 6, which
r 1
is not possible
43. A
Sol. Use cos 2 = 2 cos2 – 1
44. A, B
2
5 1
Sol. g x ax 2 sinb
4 2
45. A, B, C
Sol. Let equation of asymptotes be A : 2x 2 + 12xy – 7y2 – 16x + 2y + d = 0 where ‘d’ is given by = 0
Angle bisectors of asymptotes give principal axis
46. B, D
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47. A, B, C, D
Sol. For , particle can pass through all point on coordinate axes
2
For , if particle always changes its direction anticlockwise, then if will lie on x 3y 8 0
6
after 2019 seconds
48. A, D
Sol. 2sin x cos x tan x 2sin x cos x tan x x n ,nW
4
49. A, C
m2 1
Sol. Let tangent of slope m be y mx m2 1 , then side length will be 2
m2 1
Also, length of diagonal of square should be greater than or equal to distance between points of
tangency
m2 1 m2 1 2
2 2 2
2 2
m2 2 1
m 1 m 1
2 3
m 1 22 2
Side length = 2 (for smallest square) = 2 24
m2 1 42 2
Side length of largest possible square is 2 (as m )
50. A, B, C
Sol. For distinct real lines h2 > ab and g2 > ac
For coincident lines h2 = ab and g2 = ac
For distinct parallel lines h2 > ab, g2 > ac
51. B
Sol. A1 = , A2 = 4, A3 = 9, A4 = 36
52. A
Sol. Radical centre is incenter of the triangle formed by three lines
53. C
Sol. Minimum perimeter is for orthic triangle whose sides are B
a cos A, b cos B, c cos C
2 3 1 75
a , b = 1, c (Using sine rule) 1
3 6
1 1 1
So, sides of DEF are , and
2 3 2 3 45 60
A C
54. B
1 1 1
Sol. Radius of circumcircle of DEF = half of circumradius of ABC =
2 2sin60 2 3
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PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
1. Section–A (01 – 07, 19 – 25, 37 – 43) contains 21 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-A (08– 14, 26 – 32, 44 – 50) contains 21 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks
for wrong answer
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect option is selected.
Section–A (15 – 18, 33 – 36, 51 – 54) contains 6 paragraphs. Each paragraph is having 2 multiple
choice questions having 4 options with only one correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks
for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
(A) Charges on the outermost surfaces of the plate system are equal and opposite.
(B) If the plate 1 is earthed, then charge flown to the earth is Q1.
N
Q i1
i
(C) If the plate 3 is earthed, then charge flown to the earth is
N
N
(D) If the plate 4 is earthed, the charge flown to the earth is Q
i1
i .
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4. A spherical black body has a radius R and steady surface temperature T, heat sources ensure
the heat evolution at a constant rate and distributed uniformly over its volume. What should be
the new steady state surface temperature of the object if the radius is decreased by half?
Assume surrounding to be at absolute zero and heat evolution rate through unit volume remain
same.
1
(A) 2 4 T
(B) 2T
T
(C) 1
2 4
T
(D)
2
5. Three charged conducting metal spheres of radius R1, R2 and R3 are connected together by very
thin wires and they are separated by large distances from each other. If R1 < R2 < R3, at
equilibrium, which of the following sets of relations involving the electric field strength E generated
by a sphere at a point just outside the surface, its potential V and its charge Q must hold between
the spheres.
(A) V 1 = V 2 = V 3, E 1 < E 2 < E 3, Q 1 < Q 2 < Q 3
(B) V 1 = V 2 = V 3, E 1 > E 2 > E 3, Q 1 < Q 2 < Q 3
(C) V 1 < V 2 < V 3, E 1 < E 2 < E 3, Q 1 = Q 2 = Q 3
(D) V 1 > V 2 > V 3, E 1 < E 2 < E 3, Q 1 > Q 2 > Q 3
(A)
x
T
(B)
x
T
(C)
x
T
(D)
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7. Three concentric thin shells are shown carrying charges q1, q2 and
q3 and of radii a, b and c respectively. If the middle shell expands
from radius b to b (b < c). The work done by the electric field in
the process is
b a
q1
q2
c
q3
8. A box has a large electric circuit inside it. When it was connected to C
an AC generator, it was found that it was putting a lot of load on the BOX
1
generator and the power factor of the box was . Now a capacitor
2
of capacitance C was connected in series with the box and the power ~
factor of the circuit becomes equal to 1. Then
AC generator of angular
frequency
(A) The impedance of the box must be resistive and capacitive.
(B) The impedance of the box must be resistive and inductive.
2
(C) The impedance of the box is
C
1
(D) The impedance of the box is
2 C
9. Consider two identical dielectric slabs that are inserted into two
identical capacitors A and B connected to the battery as shown
in the figure. Now the dielectric slab of capacitor B is pulled out A B
slowly from it with the battery still remaining connected. Then
during the process of removing the dielectric slab, we observe
the following statement(s) to be correct.
+ –
a b
(A) Positive charge flows from a to b.
(B) Final charge on capacitor B will be less than that on capacitor A.
(C) Work is done by the external force F appears completely as heat in the circuit.
(D) Internal energy of the battery increases.
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10. The relation between internal energy U, pressure P and Volume V of a gas in an adiabatic
process U = a + b PV, where a and b are positive constants. Then
b 2
(A) Equation for the process is PV b = constant
b 1
(B) Equation for the process is PV b = constant
(C) The gas must be monoatomic
(D) The gas must be diatomic
2V
12. Two identical objects A and B are at temperatures TA and TB respectively. Both objects are
placed in a room with perfectly absorbing walls maintained at a temperature. T(TA > T > TB). The
objects A and B attain the temperature T eventually. Select the correct statements from the
following
(A) A only emits radiation, while B only absorbs it until both attain the final temperature T.
(B) A loses more heat by radiation than it absorbs, while B absorbs more radiation than it
emits, until they attain the temperature T.
(C) Both A and B only absorbs radiation, but do not emit it, until they attain the
temperature T.
(D) Each object continues to emit and absorb radiation even after attaining the
temperature T.
13. In the circuit shown in figure, V1 and V2 are two voltmeters 250V
having resistances 6 K and 4 K respectively. The emf of the
battery is 250 V, having negligible internal resistance. The
resistances R1 = 4 K and R2 = 6 K are also connected in the
circuit as shown. Choose the correct option(s). V1 V2
S
R1 = 4k R2 = 6k
(A) When switch S is open, then readings of voltmeters are V1 = 100 V and V2 = 150 V.
(B) When switch S is open, then readings of voltmeters are V1 = 150 V and V2 = 100 V.
(C) When switch S is closed, then readings of voltmeter are V1 = 100 V and V2 = 150 V.
(D) When switch S is closed, then readings of voltmeters are V1 = 125 V and V2 = 125 V.
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14. A charged particle ‘P’ leaves the origin with speed v = v0 at some inclination with the x-axis. There
is a uniform magnetic field B along the x-axis. The particle ‘P’ strikes a fixed target ‘T’ on the
x-axis for a minimum value of B = B0. The particle ‘P’ will also strike the target T, if
(A) B = 2B0, v = 2v0
(B) B = 2B0, v = v0
(C) B = B0, v = 2v0
B
(D) B 0 ,v 2v 0
2
This section contains 02 paragraph each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate
to the paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has Only One correct answer among the four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D).
The production of electrical power through the use of a conducting fluid moving through a magnetic field
is referred to as a MAGNETO HYDRODYNAMIC (MHD) GENERATOR. A simplistic way of functioning of
MHD is shown in the figure. In the figure shown, a horizontal rectangular plastic pipe of width w and
height h is filled with mercury of electrical conductivity . A pressure difference P is produced by a
turbine which drives this fluid with a constant speed V0. The two opposite vertical walls of a section of the
pipe with length L are made of copper.
To simplify the situation we assume the following.
Although the fluid is viscous, its speed is uniform over the entire cross-section.
The speed of the fluid is always proportional to the net external force acting upon it.
The fluid is incompressible.
These conducting walls are electrically shorted with an external wire as shown in the figure. The
steady state velocity of the fluid after application of magnetic field is v.
Shorting wire
h
v
B z y
x
L
15. The current flowing in the shorting wire in the steady state is
(A) BLhv
(B) BLwv
BL2hv
(C)
w
(D) Bvhw
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16. Taking the assumption taken in the MHD working that speed of the fluid is always proportional to
the net external force acting upon it, the expression of steady state velocity v after application of
magnetic field is
P
(A)
B 2 L
Pv 0
(B)
P B 2Lv 0
Phv 0
(C)
Ph B 2Lwv 0
Pv 0
(D)
P B2 wv 0
A nonlinear circuit element can be made out of a parallel plate capacitor and small balls, each of mass m,
that can move between the plates. The balls collide inelastically with the plates, dissipate all kinetic
energy as thermal energy and immediately release all the charge they are carrying to the plate. Almost
instantaneously, the balls then pick up a small charge of magnitude q from the plate, the balls are then
repelled directly towards the other plate under electrostatic forces only. Another collision happens, kinetic
energy is dissipated, the balls give up the charge, collect a new charge and the cycle repeats. There are
n0 balls per unit surface area of the plates. The capacitor has a capacitance C, the separation ‘d’ between
the plates is much larger than the radius r of the balls. A battery is connected to the plates in order to
maintain a constant potential difference V. Neglect edge effects and assume magnetic and gravitational
forces to be negligible. (0 is permittivity of free space)
17. The current between the plates in terms of any or all of the given parameters 0, m, n0, c, q and V
is
2Cn0 q qV
(A)
0 m
Cn0 q 2qV
(B)
0 m
Cn0 q qV
(C)
0 m
Cn0 q qV
(D)
0 2m
18. The effective resistance of the device in terms of any or all of the given parameters 0, m, n0, c, q
and V is
0 mV
(A)
Cn0 q q
0 2mV
(B)
Cn0 q q
0 mV
(C)
Cn0 q 2q
20 mV
(D)
Cn0 q q
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
19. The order of increasing nucleophilicity of the anions (in polar protic solvent)
O O
H3C C O , CN
H3C S O , C2H5O ,
CH3 CH2 S
I II
O IV V
III
(A) V < I < III < II < IV
(B) III < I < IV < II < V
(C) III < II < I < IV < V
(D) II < III < I < V < IV
20. Aspartame is an artificial non-saccharide sweetner 200 times sweeter than sucrose and is
commonly used as a sugar substitute in foods and beverages. Structure of Aspartame is given
below:
O
O OCH3
NH
OH NH2 O
Which of the following is correct about aspartame?
(A) It contains 4 functional groups and on hydrolysis produce 2 essential amino acids
(B) It contains 5 functional groups and on hydrolysis produce one essential and one non
essential amino acids
(C) It contains 4 functional group and on hydrolysis produce 2 non essential amino acids.
(D) It contains a 4 functional groups and on hydrolysis produce 1 essential and 1 non
essential amino acids.
21. When trans-2 methyl cyclopentanol is treated with tosyl chloride and the product with potassium
tert-butoxide; then the final product would be
(A) Methyl-cyclopentene
(B) 3-methyl cyclopentene
(C) Mixture of A and B
(D) t-butoxy cyclopentane
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9 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
23. Upon treatment with sulphuric acid, a mixture of tert-butyl alcohol and ethyl alcohol at room
temperature gives mainly
(A) diethyl ether
(B) iso butane
(C) Di-t-butyl ether
(D) Tert-butyl ethyl ether
24. OH
i HBr HI
P
excess
Q
ii OH
OH
(A) I
OH
(B) I
I
(C) Br
OH
(D) I
25. Terreic acids (C7H6O4) is a naturally occurring antibiotic substance. Which of the following
structure is most stable form of terreic acid
(A) O
O
CH3
H
O
(B) O
OH
CH3
O
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
(C) O
OH
(D) O
HO O
CH3
HO
H
O
26. Which of the following compound/s is/are a D-sugar that gives an optically active pentitol on
reduction?
(A) CHO
OH
HO
OH
CH2OH
(B) CHO
OH
OH
OH
CH2 OH
(C) CHO
OH
OH
HO
CH2OH
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11 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
(D) CHO
HO
OH
OH
CH2OH
27.
H G3
i Li Al
R H
O
G1 G2
C Al
R R OH
ii H3O R
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the above reaction
(A) Rate of reaction decreases as the size of R increases
28. H1
H2
Biphenylene
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Biphenylene?
(A) It is a dimer of reactive intermediate benzyne
(B) All C – C bonds have equal length
(C) H1 is more acidic than H2
(D) Due to the influence of central ring it has lesser degree of aromaticity.
H3C
, ,
CH3 CH3
(increasing stability)
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
(B) CO 2H CO 2H CO 2H
OH
, ,
OH
(increasing acid strength)
OH
(C) I I I
, O
,
,
, Me Me
NO 2 NO 2
30. i m ClPBA
ii LiAlH4 Product
Which of the following is/are correct about product?
(A) It is racemic mixture
(B) Product is a hydrocarbon which can not decolourise Br2 – water
(C) Product can give positive iodoform test
(D) Product is also obtained from the alkene by HBO (hydroboration – oxidation) process
31. O
i MeMgCl,CuCl
Major product
ii Cl
Ph
Which of the following options can not be the major product?
(A)
O
Ph
(B)
O
Me
Ph
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13 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
(C) O
Me
Ph
(D) O Me
Ph
32. OH
N
PCl5 i OH
X
ii H O
Y Z
3
Can give effervescence with NaHCO3 Soluble in aq. HCl
MeO Cl
Identity the correct statements:
(A) (Y) is more acidic than benzoic acid
(B) (Z) is weaker base than aniline
(C) In (X) both the benzene rings are activated towards EAS
(D) Z reacts at much faster rate towards electrophile than Y.
This section contains 02 paragraph each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate
to the paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has Only One correct answer among the four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question Nos. 33 and 34
33. What would be correct choice for ‘D’ from the following statements:
(A) On heating with CHCl3 along with aq. KOH produce foul smelling compound.
(B) Produce blue colour in Victor Meyor test.
(C) On treatment with HNO2 produces yellow oily compound.
(D) It can produce substituted ammonium nitrite salt on treatment with HNO2.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 14
3 i CH I 3 i CH I
34. D
excess
E
excess
F G C3H9N
ii AgOH, ii AgOH,
CH2
CH
2,
F H
Structure of H would be:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
O O
i 2equiv. NaOEt
ii CH I P
3
O
1. OH
Cannizzaro reaction O 3 ,H2O
R Q
2. H3O Zn
may not be the major product
35. The correct structure of P, would be
(A)
O
O
(B) O
O
(C)
O O
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15 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
(D) O
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 16
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2 2
37. Let f x 2019sin x 2019cos x (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function), then number
of integers in range of f(x) is
(A) 1930
(B) 1931
(C) 1932
(D) none of these
2 2 2
38. Circle x + y – 2x – 3 = 0 intersects parabola y = 4x at points A and B. Let tangents to the
parabola at A and B intersect at point C. If radius of circle increases at a rate of 1 m/s, the speed
of point C after 2019 seconds is (in m/s)
(A) 1
2019
(B)
2
(C) 2019
(D) none of these
39. Let S1 and S2 be two externally tangent circles having the same radius ‘r’. Let L be a direct
common tangent to S1 and S2. If Sn be circle such that it touches Sn – 1 and S1 externally and line
L, n 3, n N, then radius of S2020 is
(A) r
r
(B)
2019
r
(C)
2019 2
r
(D)
2019 3
40. In a scalene ABC, E and F are points on the sides AC and AB respectively such that BE and CF
are internal angle bisectors of the triangle. If BE and CF intersect at I and IE = IF, then CAB can
be equal to
(A)
3
(B)
2
2
(C)
3
3
(D)
4
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17 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
2r
41. Let A = {x | x N, x 105, x is coprime with 105} value of cos 105 is equal to
rA
(A) –3
(B) –1
(C) 0
(D) none of these
6
42. The trigonometric equation r 3 sin rx 441 (x R) has
r 1
(A) no solution
(B) unique solution
(C) infinite solutions
(D) finite number of solutions
46. Let P be a point on the parabola y2 = 4x such that normal chord drawn at P to parabola has
shortest length. If tangent and normal at P intersects axis of parabola at A and B respectively,
then
(A) Slope of normal at P is 2
1
(B) Slope of tangent at P is
2
(C) Area of PAB is 12 2 sq. units
(D) Circumcenter of PAB is (1, 0)
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 18
47. A particle starts from origin and moves at a constant speed of 4 unit/s towards positive x-axis.
The particle changes its direction by angle ‘’ (clockwise or anticlockwise at random) with respect
to its previous direction after every 2 seconds, then
(A) For , particle can pass through the point (2019, 0)
2
(B) For = , particle will trace a line segment
(C) For , particle may lie on the line y 3x 0
3
(D) For , after 2019 seconds, particle may lie on the line x 3y 8 0
6
This section contains 02 paragraph each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions relate
to the paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has Only One correct answer among the four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D).
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Consider the lines x = 0, y = 0 and 3x + 4y = 12. Let S1, S2, S3, S4 be four distinct circles with each of
them touching the three lines. Let S1 be the smallest of the four circles. Let Ai and Ci represent the area
and the centre respectively of circle Si for i = 1, 2, 3, 4.
51. Which of the following is true for A1, A2, A3, A4?
(A) Their Arithmetic mean is 25
(B) Their Geometric mean is 6
(C) Their Harmonic mean is 2
(D) None of these
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19 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
52. Let circles S5, S6, S7 be drawn with C2C3, C3C4 and C4C2 as diameters, then radical centre of the
circles S5, S6, S7 is
(A) (1, 1)
(B) (0, 0)
3
(C) 2,
2
4
(D) , 1
3
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Let ABC be a triangle such that ABC = 75, BCA = 60, CAB = 45 and AB = 1 unit. Let D, E, F be
points on sides AB, BC, AC respectively such that perimeter of DEF is minimum
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Main)-2020
TEST DATE: 16-11-2019
SECTION – A
1. C
Sol. It is given that at 20C, sphere is floating in liquid but at 35C it begins to sink as on increasing
temperature, liquid expands and its density decreases. At 35C its density becomes equal to that
of the sphere and then the buoyancy force on sphere is just equal to the weight of sphere and its
is fully submerged in the liquid.
Given that density of sphere is
m 250 3
S 1.393 gm/cm
4 3 4 3
r 3.14 (3.5)
3 3
It is given that density of liquid at 0C is 0 = 1.527 gm/cm3 if is the coefficient of cubical
expansion of liquid, then its density at 35C is given as
0
35
1 (35)
At 35C, as sphere begins to sink, we have density of sphere = density of liquid
1.527
1.393
1 (35)
(As sphere does not expand, its density remains constant)
1.527 1
1 2.75 10 3 C1
1.393 35
2. A
Sol. We know that the gas pressure is given as
1 2
P vrms
3
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 2
Now we can write the density of gas as = m0N, where m0 is the mass of the gas molecule and N
3
is the number of molecules in 1 m of the gas.
6
In the present case, N = 100 10
1
Or P (100 106 )m0 vrms
2
3
As we know rms velocity of gas molecules is given as
3RT 3kT R
vrms As M m0Nav and k
M m0 NAv
So we have
1
P (100 106 ) 3kT (as T = 3k)
3
P = 4.14 1015 Pa
3. A
Sol. The induced emf across the inductor is e = iR. Hence the plot of e versus i is a straight line
with negative slope.
4. D
Sol. Figure shows a beam of molecules in cylindrical form striking the wall. wall
According to elastic collision, each molecule is reflected from the wall at
the same angle of incidence as shown with same speed. If m0 is the
mass of each nitrogen molecule, momentum of each molecule is
P0 = m0v
During collision, change in momentum of each molecule is
P0 = 2m0vcos
If S is the cross section area of beam and v be the velocity of molecules
in the beam then number of molecules incident on wall per second are
N = n0vS (n0 = molecule density)
Thus total momentum imparted to the wall per second by the beam and the force exerted on the
wall is
P0
F= 2m0 v cos n0 vS
t
This equation gives total momentum imparted to the wall per second. This is the net fore exerted
by beam on the wall.
Thus the pressure on the wall by beam is
F cos
P= 2m0 v 2 cos2 n0
S
28 10 3
=2 9 1024 (400)2 cos2 (30) 105 Pa
6.023 1023
5. A
Sol. Let n be the average number of electrons per unit volume, present in the beam of electrons, then
impulse momentum theorem gives
(nAv) (mv) = F
P = F/A
P
n
(mv 2 )
P PAe
current I = nAev = 2
Aev
mv mv
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3 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
6. A
Sol. The potential at centre of sphere in which q charge is uniformly distributed through the volume is
1 3q
VC
40 2R
By symmetry, the potential at centre due to half sphere will be half of the complete sphere.
V 1 3q / 2 1 3Q
V0 C (since, q/2 = Q)
2 4 0 2R 40 2R
7. D
Sol.
VB VA E x dx (area under Ex x curve)
1
VB 10 2 ( 20) 20
2
VB = 30 V
8. C
Sol. After the sphere is grounded, potential at centre becomes zero. Let the net charge on the sphere
finally be q.
kq k3Q
0
r x
3Qr
q
x
3Qr
The charge following out of sphere is
x
9. A
dx 0
bxdx
b2
Sol. R A
A
2A
V 2VA
I
R b 2
I 2V
j 2
A b
j = E
bx2V 2V
E = j = 2 x
b2 L
10. A
E
Sol. With both switches open, IA
R1 R2 R3
With both switches closed, there will be no current through R3,
the current through E and R2 is
E
I
RR1
R2
R R1
Current through the ammeter is
RI RE
IA
R R1 (R R1 )R2 RR1
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 4
E
R2R1
R1 R2
R
As IA = IA
R1R2 100 300
R 600
R3 50
11. A
Sol. If we consider the cylindrical surface to be a ring of radius R, there will be an induced electric field
due to time varying magnetic field.
d AdB
E d
dt dt
dB dB
E(2R) A R 2 R
dt dt
R dB
E
2 dt
So, force on the electron
eR dB F P E
F Ee
2 dt
1 eR dB
Acceleration =
2 m dt
Force will be towards left on electron.
12. B
Sol. Charge supplied by battery, Q = 10 C
+15 C 10 C 5 C +5 C +10 C 15 C
1 F 2 F 1 F 1 F 2 F 1 F
15 C +10 C +5 C 5 C 10 C +15 C
20 V 20 V
Work done by battery
W B = (10 C) (20v) = 200 J
Change in potential energy
Stored by capacitors
U = Uf Ui = 0
Heat loss = W B U
= 200 J
13. D
3 0i
Sol. Magnetic field due to circular segment =
4 2a
0i 0 i
Due to one straight wire segment (sin 45 sin0)
4b 4 2 b
30i 0 i
Net field 2
8a 4 2 b
0 i 3 2
=
4 2a b
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5 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
14. B
Sol. qE q(v B)
E (v B)
E v and E B
15. B
M Q
Sol.
L 2m
Q 2
M mR2
2m 3
QR2
M
3
16. D
Sol. We take the ampeiran loop of radius r > R.
Since the loop is outside the cylinder, the current through the loop is
R R
2kR3
I kr (2rdr) 2k r 2 dr
3
0 0
2kR3 0
B 2r 0I
3
0 kR3
B=
3r
17. C
Sol. Due to a wire
i
B 0 (sin60 sin60)
4 ( / 2 3 )
0 i 3 60i i
2 2 3
4 2 4
Magnetic field due to three sides
18i 60 60
Bnet 3B 0 r
4
r
2 3
18. C
Sol. = BS = BR2
= B(R0 + t)2
d
eind 2(R0 t)B
dt
Since flux is increasing eind is anticlockwise
19. A
Sol. at(T t) aTt at 2
d
eind
dt
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 6
T
2 2
(4a t a2 T 2 4a2 Tt)dt
1 4a2 T 3 4a2 T 3
0
a 2 T3
R R 3 2
a 2 T3
H=
3R
20. A
2 2 2
Sol. = Br = (16 4t )r
d
eind 8r 2 t P
dt 1m
eind E d
2
8 r t E2r
R = 2m
8rt
E 4rt
2
at t = 2 sec
E = 8 Volt/m
SECTION – B
21. 2
Sol. q
R
= qR = area of i-t graph R
1
= (4)(0.1) 10 0.2 10 2 Weber
2
22. 5
1 p cos
Sol. V
40 r 2
Here V = 1.8 105 V, = 60
r = 50 102 = 0.5 m
pcos 60
1.8 105 = 9 109
(0.5)2
1.8 105 0.25 2
Dipole moment, p 9
105 C-m
9 10
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7 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
SECTION – C
23. 00241.50
3
Sol. We know work done by a gas is given by the V(m )
area under PV curve or the area between PV-
1
curve and the volume axis. Generally we take in 2.5 104
this process volume of gas decreases thus work
is done on the gas and it is given as 1 104 2
1
W 1.5 10 4 (2 5) 105 52.5 Joule
2
5 5 2
210 510 P(N/m )
It is given that heat rejected in the process is 70 cal. Thus
Q = 70 cal = 70 4.2 J = 294 J
Now from first law of thermodynamics, we have
Q = W + U
U = Q W
= (294) (52.5) = 241.5 J
Thus in the process, internal energy of gas decreases by 241.5 J
24. 00002.80
Sol. Balanced Wheat stone Bridge
6 3
P
7
6 3
7 A B
10 4
A B 8
8 4
Q
14
Ceq F = 2.80 F
5
25. 10021.34
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
26. C
Sol. 6HCHO 4NH3 CH2 6 N4
Degree of unsaturation of CH2 6 N4 3 .
27. D
o
Sol. Gabriel’s phthalimide synthesis involves SN2 reaction, thus 3 butyl amine cannot be prepared
through this method.
28. D
Sol. Conjugate base is stabilized through four equivalent resonating structures.
O OH
O OH
O O O O O O O O
O O O O O O O O
29. C
Sol. As it has no plane of symmetry and point of symmetry.
30. D
Sol. O OH
N N
H
Enol form is aromatic.
31. C
Sol. SNi reaction involves retention in configuration.
32. C
Sol. O
||
OH
Cl3 C C H CHCl3 HCOO
33. B
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9 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
Sol. Cl
+
NH2 N2 Cl CN
NaNH2
Liq. NH3
i NaNO2
CuCN
dil. HCl
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
34. D
Sol. As after removal the carbocation becomes aromatic.
35. C
Sol. Glucose can be oxidized by Br2/H2O but fructose does not respond in the reaction, as it is a
ketose.
36. C
Sol. Due to presence of two amino groups.
37. D
Sol. Extracted of H is the rate determining step in haloform reaction.
38. C
Sol. O
i CH MgBr
H2C CH2
3
ii H
CH3 CH2 CH2 OH
39. D
Sol. CH3
H3C CH3
H2 H D
C C
Ni
H D
D D
CH3
If the substrate has ‘cis’ configuration, on syn addition, a ‘meso’ compound is generated.
40. B
Sol. O
O
C
Cl C
NH3 NH2 NH2
Br2 /NaOH
Cl
Cl
Cl
CH3
CH3
CH3
41. C
Sol. COOH
O OH
CO2
42. D
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AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 10
43. D
Sol. Aldol condensation takes place through the formation of enolate anion.
44. C
Sol. A hemiacetal can respond in Fehling’s test.
45. D
Sol. A large base always extracts less substituted H.
SECTION – B
46. 3
Sol. All are antiaromatic.
47. 3
Sol. O
O3
O
Zn
CH2 O
O
2 eq
O
SECTION – C
48. 00083.00
49. 00099.40
50. 00014.40
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11 AITS-PT-II-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
SECTION – A
51. B
Sol. sin–1(sin 12) + cos–1(cos 12) = 0
52. C
cos(rB – (n – r)A) is real part of eirB n r A
Sol.
53. C
4h2
Sol. Centre lies on the line y = x. Let it be (h, h) and radius be r, r 2
4 92
54. B
Sol. Find foot of perpendicular from (2, 1) on the directrix say (, )
Now, image of (, ) abt tangent is focus
1 3 11 3
On solving , , ; focus ,
2 2 2 2
55. A
2 2
Sol. x – y = –cos 2 is the director circle which does not exist
56. A
Sol. Let the orthocentre be (h, k), image w.r.t AB will lie on the circle, so (x – 1)2 + (y + 1)2 = 5
57. D
c c
Sol. OT2 = OA·OB = =
a a
58. A
Sol. e1 < 1 < e2 ; f(1) < 0 ; a > 3
59. B
Sol. Locus is xy = 4
60. A
Sol. Domain [–1, 1] ; f(x) > 0
Range is [f(–1), f(1)]
61. D
x 2 82 152
Sol. cos , –1 < cos < 0
16x
on solving 7 < x < 13, x {8, 9, 10, 11, 12}
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62. B
1 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 1
Sol. ;a +b =c , 2 2 2
a b c b c a
c2 a2 c
Solving, we get 1 2 2 2 a
a c
a 2 1
Let t ; t 2 3 0
c t b
5 1 a
t sin
2 c
63. C
2
Sol. Lines are y – 1 = tan (x – 1) and (y – 1) = cot (x – 1) multiply and compare sin2
a2
64. B
4
Sol. y = mx + and hx – ky = h2 – k2 represents same line
m
65. D
n
Sol. C2 n C3 n = 5
66. C
Sol. Equation of asymptotes are x – 1 = 0 and y – 1 = 0 hyperbola passes through (3, 2)
Equation of hyperbola is xy = x + y + 1
67. B
r1 r2
Sol. Curve is hyperbola and e 2
r1 r2
68. A
Sol. Shown in the figure
AD = BD = PD C
P(1, 2)
A B
D
69. C
n
Sol. lim
n
tan1 r 2 r tan1 r 2 r tan1 tan1 0 2
r 1
70. B
Sol. f f 1
2
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SECTION – B
71. 3
1
Sol. cot 120 = cot (76 + 44) =
3
1
cot 76 cot 44 = 1 (cot 76 + cot 44)
3
72. 1
Sol. r1 + r 3 = r 2 – r
sa sc sb s
On solving B and A + C = 90
2
sec2(90 – C) + cos2 90 – cot2 C = cosec2 C – cot2 C = 1
SECTION – C
73. 00011.00
1
Sol. (s – a)(s – b) = 11 gives ab = 22 22 11
2
74. 00025.00
Sol. Take the image of (4 + 4 cos , 3 + 3 sin ) and then eliminate
75. 00014.75
236 236
Sol. Use parametric form and satisfy in the ellipse, product of roots =
16 9 sin2 16
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Main)-2020
TEST DATE: 16-11-2019
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1. A sphere of radius 3.5 cm and mass 250 gm floats in a liquid at 20C. As the temperature is
raised, the sphere just begins to sink at a temperature of 35C. If the density of liquid at 0C is
3
1.527 gm/cm , find the coefficient of cubical expansion of the liquid. Neglect expansion of the
sphere.
(A) 1.30 103 C1
(B) 5.61 103 C1
(C) 2.75 103 C1
(D) 8.68 105 C1
3
2. In a certain region of outer space there are only 100 molecules per cm on an average. The
temperature there is about 3K. What is the average pressure of this very dilute gas?
(A) 4.14 1015 Pa
(B) 1.14 1015 Pa
(C) 8.28 1014 Pa
(D) 9.50 1014 Pa
S
e
(A)
i
e
(B)
i
e
(C)
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(D)
4. A parallel beam of nitrogen molecules moving with velocity v = 400 m/s impinges on a wall at an
angle = 30 to its normal. The concentration of molecule in the beam n0 = 0.9 1019 cm3. Find
the pressure exerted by the beam on the wall assuming the collisions of molecules with the wall
are perfectly elastic.
6
(A) 10 Pa
7
(B) 10 Pa
4
(C) 10 Pa
(D) 105 Pa
5. A beam of fast moving electrons having cross section area A falls normally on flat surface. The
electrons are absorbed by the surface and the average pressure exerted by the electrons on this
surface is found to be P. If the electrons are moving with a speed v, then the effective current
through any cross section of the electrons beam is
APe
(A)
(mv)
APe
(B)
(mv 2 )
2APe
(C)
(mv)
APm
(D)
(ev)
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 4
(A) 10 V
(B) 40 V
(C) 10 V
(D) 30 V
Qr
(A)
x
Qr
(B)
x
3Qr
(C)
x
3Qr
(D)
x
R2 = 300
(A) 600
(B) 800
(C) 400
(D) 300
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5 AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/20
2 1
20 V
(A) 180 J
(B) 200 J
(C) 220 J
(D) 210 J
b
i
/2
O
a
i
0 i 3 2
(A)
4 a b
0 i 3 2
(B)
2 2a b
0 i 3
(C)
2 3a 2b
0 i 3 2
(D)
4 2a b
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 6
14. If a charged particle goes un accelerated in a region containing electric and magnetic fields, then
which of the following is true?
(A) E must be parallel to B
(B) V must be perpendicular to E .
(C) E must be equal to B
(D) V must be perpendicular to B .
15. A nonconducting spherical shell of radius ‘R’ and uniformly charged on its surface with charge ‘Q’
is rotating about its diametrical axis with a constant angular velocity ‘’. Find the magnetic
moment of the sphere.
QR2
(A)
2
QR2
(B)
3
QR2
(C)
4
(D) none of these
16. The current density (current per unit area) in a solid cylinder of radius R
varies with distance r from its axis as J = kr, where k is a constant. Find
J = kr
the magnetic field at a point P where r > R.
R
0 kR2
(A)
r
0 kR3
(B)
r
0 kR3
(C)
2r
0 kR3
(D)
3r
17. An equilateral triangular loop of wire of side carries a current i. The magnetic field produced at
the circum centre of the loop is
0 3 3i
(A)
4
0 9i
(B)
4
0 18i
(C)
4
0 6i
(D)
4
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19. The magnetic flux through a conducting loop with resistance R varies during interval of time T as
= at(T t). The heat generated during this time, neglecting the inductance of loop will be
a 2 T3
(A)
3R
a2 T 2
(B)
3R
a2 T
(C)
3R
a 2 T3
(D)
R
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
21. When magnetic flux through a coil is changed, the variation of induced i(amp)
current in the coil with time is as shown in graph. If resistance of coil is
10, then the total change in flux (in Weber) of coil will be 4
0.1 t(s)
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 8
5
22. The potential at a point P due to a point electric
dipole is 1.8 0 V. If P is at a distance of 50 cm
from the centre O of the dipole and if vector OP makes an angle 60 with the positive side of the
axial line of the dipole, the dipole moment of the dipole is 10n C-m. Find the value of n.
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
3
23. A gas is taken from State-1 to State-2 along the path V(m )
shown in the figure. If 70 cal of heat is rejected by
1
the gas in the process. Find the magnitude of 2.5 104
change in internal energy (in Joule) of the system.
1 104 2
5 5 2
210 510 P(N/m )
24. In the circuit diagram shown, all the capacitors are in F. The 6 3 7
equivalent capacitance between points A and B is (in F) A B
8 10 4
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9 AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
26. What is the degree of unsaturation of the compound formed by the reaction of formaldehyde with
excess of ammonia?
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 5
27. Which of the amines can not be prepared by Gabriel’s phthalimide synthesis?
(A) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
(B) CH3 – CH2 – NH2
(C) CH3 – NH2
CH3
(D) H3C C NH2
CH3
28. Which of the following acid is the strongest acid?
(A)
NO 2 OH
(B)
OH
O OH
H O CH3
H3C H
O
O
(B) HO OH
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 10
(C) O
H3C O CH3
H H
O
O
(D) H CH3
C C C
H H
HO OH
(B) O
O
(C) O
O
(D) O
N
H
31. OH
SOCl2
H P SO2 HCl
(B)
(C) Cl
H
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32. Which of the following compounds does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction?
(A) O
D C H
(B) O
C D
(C) O
CCl 3 C H
(D)
CHO
O
33. Cl
NaNH2 i NaNO
Liq. NH3
D
dil. HCl
2
E
ii CuCN/KCN
CH3
Find out the product E.
(A) CN
CH3
(B) CN
CH3
(C) NC
CH3
(D) COOH
CH3
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 12
34.
Cl d
CH2 Cl c
AgNO3
Cl a Cl b
Which of the Cl is removed in fastest rate?
(A) Cl (a)
(B) Cl (b)
(C) Cl (c)
(D) Cl (d)
NH2
(B) COOH
HOOC
NH2
(C) COOH
H2N NH2
(D) COOH
H2N Cl
CH3 i NaOH/I OH
2
CHI3
ii H
D D
(B) O
COOH
CH3 i NaOH/Br2
CHBr3
ii H
H3C H3C
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(C) O
COOH
CH3
i NaOH/Cl2
CHCl3
ii H
CH3 i NaOH/I OH
2
CHI3
ii H
38. Which of the following compound produces primary alcohol on reaction with CH3MgBr?
(A) CH3 – CH = O
(B) O
(C) O
H2C CH2
(D) CH3 – C N
39. Which of the following reactions results meso compound as the product?
(A) H3C H
Cold
C C
dil. KMnO
4
H CH3
(B) O
C C
H3C H dil. NaOH
H3C CH3
(C) H3C H
Br2
C C
CCl
4
H CH3
(D) H3C CH3
H2
C C
Ni
D D
H3C
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(B) O
C
Cl
Cl
CH3
(C) CHO
Cl
CH2Cl
(D)
Cl
O CH3
(B) O 2N COOH
CH3
(C) COOH
O
(D) O
COOH
42.
NH CO
4 2
3
X
O O
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
(A) The product X has a five membered ring.
(B) The product X is aromatic.
(C) The degree of unsaturation of the product X is 3.
(D) The product X has a six membered ring.
43. Which of the following reactions does not proceed through the formation of a carbocation?
(A) Ph
Conc. HBr
H OH
CH3
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15 AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/20
(B)
AgNO
Cl
H O
3
2
(C) CH3
NaNO
H3C C NH2 2
dil. HCl
H
(D) O
NaOH/
O
2 eq.
44. Which of the compounds can respond in Fehling’s test?
(A) H3C O
(B) Ph
OH
C
H3C
OCH 3
(C)
O OH
(D)
O O
OH
(C) Alc. KOH
CH3 CH2 CH CH3
Cl
(D) NaOBu
CH3 CH2 CH CH3
t
But OH/
Cl
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 16
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
46. Find out the number of species which are destabilized through conjugation?
BH
47. Find out the number of different products obtained on the ozonolysis of the following compounds:
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
48. Optically pure (S) (+) 2-bromo octane ( = 36o) reacts with aqueous NaOH in acetone to give
o
optically pure (R) (–) 2 octanol, ( = - 10.3 ). With partially racemised bromo compound whose
o o
( = 30 ). Specific rotation of alcohol is – 6.0 . What is the optical purity of partially racemised
product?
49. The relative reactivity of 1oH, 2oH, & 3oH in bromination reaction if found to be 1 : 82 : 1600
respectively
Br
h
2
Br
Br
A B
What is the % yield of A?
50. CH2OH
conc. H2SO4
HOH2C CH2OH
X
M
If the molecular wt. of X is M, then ?
5
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SECTION – A
2 –1 –1
51. The least value of n for which (n – 2)x + 8x + (n + 4) > sin (sin 12) + cos (cos 12) x R (n
N) is
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
n
52. In a triangle ABC, n Cr ar bnr cos rB n r A is equal to (where a, b, c represents the sides
r 0
53. The radius of the circle touching the pair of lines 7x 2 – 18xy + 7y2 = 0 and the circle
2 2
x + y – 8x – 8y = 0 and is contained in the given circle is
(A) 10
(B) 3
(C) 2 2
(D) 7
54. A parabola having directrix x + y + 2 = 0 touches a line 2x + y – 5 = 0 at (2, 1). Then the semi
latus rectum of the parabola is
8
(A)
2
9
(B)
2
10
(C)
2
11
(D)
2
55. Number of points from which pair of perpendicular tangents can be drawn to hyperbola
x2 cosec2 – y2 sec2 = 1, is 0,
4
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) infinite
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56. Let AB be the chord of contact of the point (5, –5) w.r.t the circle x 2 + y2 = 5, then the locus of the
orthocentre of PAB where P is any point moving on the circle is
(A) (x – 1)2 + (y + 1)2 = 5
2 2 5
(B) (x – 1) + (y + 1) =
2
2 2
(C) (x + 1) + (y – 1) = 5
5
(D) (x + 1)2 + (y – 1)2 =
2
57. A parabola y = ax2 + bx + c crosses the x-axis at (, 0), (, 0) both to the right of the origin. A
circle also passes through these 2 points. The length of tangent from the origin to the circle is
bc
(A)
a
(B) ac2
b
(C)
a
c
(D)
a
58. If e1 and e2 are the roots of the equation x 2 – ax + 2 = 0 where e1 and e2 are the eccentricities of
an ellipse and hyperbola respectively, then a belongs to
(A) (3, )
(B) (2, )
(C) (1, )
(D) (–, 1) (1, 2)
59. If the locus of a point, whose chord of contact with respect to the circle x 2 + y2 = 4 is a tangent to
2 2
the curve xy = 1 is xy = c , then the value of c is
(A) 2
(B) 4
1
(C)
2
1
(D)
4
60. Let f(x) = sin x + cos x + tan x + sin–1 x + tan–1 x + cos–1 x. If M and m are maximum and minimum
values of f(x), then its sum is
(A) + 2 cos 1
(B) + 2 sin 1
(C) 2 tan 1
2
(D) + tan 1 + sin 1
61. Consider an obtuse angled triangle with sides 8 cm, 15 cm and x cm (largest side being 15 cm). If
x is an integer, then number of possible triangles are
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 5
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62. In a right angled triangle, the smallest angle is . A triangle which is taking the reciprocal of sides
is also a right angled triangle, then sin is equal to
5 1
(A)
4
5 1
(B)
2
5 1
(C)
4
2 1
(D)
2
63. If the equation of pair of straight lines passing through (1, 1), one making an angle with the
2
positive direction of x-axis and other making the same angle with positive direction of y-axis is x
2
– (a + 2)xy + y + a(x + y – 1) = 0, a –2, then sin 2 is
(A) (a – 2)
(B) a+2
2
(C)
a2
2
(D)
a
2 2 2
64. If the chords of the hyperbola x – y = 16 touches the parabola y = 16x, then the locus of the
middle points of these chords is a curve
(A) y2(x + 4) = x3
(B) y2(x – 4) = x3
(C) y2(x + 8) = 3x 3
2 3
(D) y (x – 8) = 2x
65. If the number of radical axis of a system of circles is same as number of radical centres, then
number of circles in that particular system is
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 10
(D) 5
66. The vertices of a ABC lie on a rectangular hyperbola such that the orthocentre of the triangle is
(3, 2) and the asymptotes of the rectangular hyperbola are parallel to coordinate axes. If the two
perpendicular tangents of the hyperbola intersect at (1, 1), then equation of the rectangular
hyperbola is
(A) xy = 2x + y – 2
(B) 2xy = x + 2y + 5
(C) xy = x + y + 1
(D) none of these
67. The locus of the centre of a variable circle touching two circles of radius r1 and r2 externally which
r
also touch each other externally is a conic. The eccentricity of the conic, if 1 3 2 2 is
r2
(A) 1
(B) 2
1
(C)
2
(D) 2 2
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AITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 20
2 2
68. AB is any chord of the circle x + y – 6x – 8y – 11 = 0 which subtends an angle of at (1, 2). If
2
locus of mid-point of AB is x2 + y2 – 2ax – 2by – c = 0, then a + b + c is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 12
3 1
n r r r
1
69. lim
n
cot 2 is equal to
r 1
(A) 0
(B)
(C)
2
(D)
4
89
1
70. Let f x
, then the value of 2 f is
1 cot 1
(A) 44
(B) 89
(C) 65
(D) 178
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
71. The value of cot 76 cot 44 + cot 16 cot 44 – cot 76 cot 16 is
72. In a triangle ABC if r1 + r3 + r = r2, then the value of (sec2 A + cos2 B – cot2 C) is
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
73. Let ABC be a right angled triangle at C. If the inscribed circle touches the side AB at D and
(AD)·(BD) = 11, then area of triangle is
x 4 2 y 3 2
74. If the reflection of the ellipse 1 in the line mirror x – y – 2 = 0 is
16 9
k1x2 + k2y2 – 160x – 36y + 292 = 0, then k1 + k2 is equal to
x 2 y2
75. A chord is drawn passing through P(2, 2) on the ellipse 1 such that it intersects the
25 16
ellipse at A and B, then the maximum value of PA·PB is
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 1
SECTION – A
1. A
C C
Sol. Amplitude of two waves at point ‘P’ is & respectively, where ‘C’ is a constant
r1 r2
C
Let, y1 sin kr1 t
r1
C
y2 sin kr2 t
r2
y = y1 + y2
C
= sin kr1 t sin kr2 t
r
2C k
cos r1 r2 .sin kr t
r 2
2. C
Sol. 1 = 0 sin (1t + /2)
2 = 0 sin (2t + 3/2)
For 1 = 2
cos 1t = cos 2t
cos (1t) = cos( 2t)
(1 + 2)t =
1 1
2 t 1
T1 T2
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
L0 25L0
Where T1 2 , T2 2
g g
5 L0
t
6 g
3. C
1
Sol. Tan =
4
R g/2
2 7 3
v1 x 2 .2R x12 .R R
3 48 v1 R
19 3 V2 2 R
v 2 x 32 .3R x 22 .2R R
3 48
V3 3 R
37 3
v 3 R2 .4R x 23 .3R R
3 48
So, m v1 v 2 2 v3 3 R
R2 3g R3 3g
0 4R 156
3 2 48 2
39
Density of cone, 0 =
16
4. D
Sol. v 1r 1 = v 2r 2 …(1) v2
GMm0 m0 v12
M
r12 R1 A B
r1 r2
GMm0 m0 v 22
m0
r22 R2 v1
R1 v12 r12
So, =1
R 2 v 22 r22
5. B, D
1 1 1
Sol.
v u f
dv v 2 du
2 =8 m/s
dt u dt
v f
mT
u f u
f
hi h0
f u
dhi fh0 du 20 0.2 2 2
cm/s
dt (f u)2 dt 100 25
6. B, D
Sol. Use the concepts of refraction and TIR.
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
7. C, D
Sol. t1
90
t2
P
8. A, D
z3
Sol. a
n4
n3
T
z2
9. A, D
hc
Sol. E
hc
E (in eV)
(in nm)
10. B, C
2
ma2 a 2 8 2
Sol. I m m( 2a) ma
6 2 3
a a 3a
d
2 2 2 2 2
I 8 2a
T 2 2
2mgd 9 g
11. A, B, C, D
Sol. Q = K
and use basic concept
12. A, B, C
Sol. In equilibrium
4 mg sin = kx0
k = 120,000 N/m
1 k 60
f Hz
2 2m 2
New amplitude = 20/2 = 10 cm
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
SECTION – C
13. 00016.00
Sol. For refraction only
2 1 2 1
…(i)
v u R
v = 10 cm
Differentiate equation (i) w.r.t. time
dv 1 du
22 0
v dt u2 dt
dv 1 v 2 du 4
2
1 6 8 m/s (towards left)
dt 2 u dt 1 3
The velocity of image formed after refraction is 8 m/s (towards left)
The velocity of image formed after reflection and then refraction = 8 m/s (towards right).
The relative velocity between two images formed = 16 m/s
14. 00001.62
Sol. Path difference at ‘O’ = (1 2)t = 4.5 106 m
2
Hence phase difference = r 20
I I
Now, I1 0 and I2 0
16 25
2
So, I I1 I2
= 1.62 W/m2
15. 00001.88
Sol. Let ‘x’ is the displacement of block from its equilibrium position.
d2 x kx
m 2 kx
dt 21
d2 x 22k
2
x
dt 21m
21m
T 2 1.88 sec
22k
16. 00008.00
F
Sol. v1 25 m/s
1
F
v2 20 m/s
2
v v1 2
Ar 2 A mm
v v i 9
2 1
2v 2 16
At Ai mm
2v v 1 9
A
t 8
Ar
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
17. 00012.80
I
Sol. T 2
mgd
TP IP dq
So .
Tq dP Iq
6 16 dq
10 25 dp
dq 9
…(1)
dp 16
dq + dp = 20 …(2)
64
dp = 12.80
5
18. 00002.50
dv
Sol. A kx mg
dy
4 10 2
5 2 102 80x
2 10 3
2
x m 2.50 cm
80
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A
Sol. Meq of I2 = meq of Na2S2O3 = 60 × 0.2 = 12
12 E
Wt. of I2 liberated
1000
EIt
Also, W
96500
EIt 12 E
96500 1000
I 193 12
96500 1000
I = 6 amp.
20. B
Sol. 2N2O5 4NO 2 O2
t0 10 0 0
t 6 8 2
[N2O5] left = 6 M.
-5 –5 -1
Rate of reaction = 2 × 10 × 6 = 12 × 10 M sec
-5 –4 -1
Rate of formation of NO2 = 4 × 12 × 10 = 4.8 × 10 M sec
21. A
1
T2 V1
Sol.
T1 V2
5
1
T2 40 3
300 5
2/3
T2 300 8
2/3
T2 300 23
T2 = 1200 K.
22. B
P o PS nB
Sol. o
P nB n A
100 80 nB
100 nB nA
WB
20 60
100 WB 90
60 18
WB 75 g
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
23. B, C
2 2
Sol. NiCl4 and MnCl4 are tetrahedral complexes.
24. A, C, D
Sol. N2O is a neutral oxide.
25. B, C, D
Sol. ClO2 does not dimerise.
Cl2O 6 H2O HClO3 HClO 4
I2O 5 5CO 5CO 2 I2
Liquid IF5 self ionizes and therefore conducts electricity.
2IF5 IF4 IF6
26. A, C, D
Sol. Hg22 and Ag+ give white ppt. with dil. HCl.
27. B, D
Sol. 2Pb NO 3 2
2PbO 4NO2 O2
2PH3 3HgCl2 Hg3P2 6HCl
28. A, B, C, D
Sol. All the reactions are correct. XeF4 fluorinate Pt.
29. A, C, D
Sol. SnS is soluble in yellow ammonium sulphide.
30. A, C
Sol. In aluminothermic process Cr2O3 is reduced by Al.
In Van-Arkel process impure Ti is purified by reacting with I2.
SECTION – C
31. 00032.84
W 38
Sol. V RT 0.5 atm
M 76
W RT
M
V
0.2 0.0821 300 1000
300 0.5
= 32.84
32. 00001.28
Sol. Initial meq. of Cu2+ = 50 × 1 × 2 = 100
Electricity passed = 0.965 × 3600 = 3474 C
3474 1000
No of meq of Cu2+ discharged = 36
96500
Meq of Cu2+ remained = 100 – 36 = 64
64
N 1.28
50
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
33. 00083.75
7
Sol. C2H6 g 2CO2 g 3H2O
O2 g
2
Hor Hof Products Hof Reactants
1564.25 2 395 3 286 HofC2H6
Hof C2H6 83.75 kJ mol1
34. 00046.06
0.693
Sol. k
13.86
2.303 10
t log
k 1
2.303 13.86
0.693
= 46.06
35. 00013.25
1
Sol. Meq of Na2CO3 in 25 ml = meq of H2SO4 20 2
10
Meq of Na2CO3 in 250 ml = 20
20 53
wt of Na2CO3 1.06 g
1000
1.06
% of Na2CO3 100 13.25
8
36. 00024.63
PV
Sol. Z
nRT
V ZRT 0.8 0.0821 300
n P 8
= 2.463 litre/mole
Volume of 10 mol of the gas = 24.63 litre.
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
SECTION – A
37. A
Sol. 1, r, r2, ….. , r2m are in G.P.
2m m
1 + r > 2.r
2m1
r+r > 2.rm
2 2m2
r +r > 2.rm
3 2m3 m
r +r > 2.r
.
.
.
2 2m m m m
Hence 1 + r + r + …… + r > 2(r + r + …. m times) + r
1 r 2m 1 m m m
> 2m.r + r = (2m + 1).r
1 r
(2m + 1)rm.(1 r) < 1 r2m+1.
38. A
Sol. + = a, = –(a + b) (1 + )(1 + ) = ( + ) + + 1 = –(a + b) + a + 1 = (1 – b)
2 2 1 2 2 1 1 2 12
2 2
2 b 2 b 12 b 1 1 2 b 1
12 12 1 1
= = 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
39. C
n 1 2
r 1 r n r n 1
r 1 r n 1
r 1 r n 1 1
Sol. y = n r n nC = n = n n
r 1 n r n Cr r 1 r r 1
n
Cr 1 Cr n
Cn C1 n
Cr
r 1
40. B
4x 2 y 4x y
Sol. y and 1 + 4x2 4x 1 y x
1 4x 2 x 1 4x 2 x
Similarly, x z and z y. Hence, x = y = z
41. A, C
a b 1 ab a b 2Re ab 1 a b 2Re ab = 1 a 1 b 2 0
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Sol.
ab
Hence, |a – b| < 1 ab 1
1 ab
42. B, D
Sol. x, a1, a2, ….. , a2n, y are in A.P.
yx
d=
2n 1
2n 2n
(2n + 1) = ar x rd
r 1 r 1
= 2nx + n(2n + 1)d = n(2x + y x)
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
1
(2n + 1) = (x + y)n n =
x y 2
1 1 2n
x+y2= ; x+y=
n n
43. A, D
6
Sol. n(s) = (675n 2)
Let k be the middle number
numbers are k 2, k 1, k, k + 1, k + 2
2 2
3k = or k = 3
3
also 5k = q
2 3 3
15 = q = 15
2 6 3 6 6
15.15 . = q k = 3.225 k = 675
6 6 6
k {675, 675.1 , 675.2 , …. , 675.n }
n1
n(E) = (n + 1) P(E) = 6
675n 2
44. A, B, D
x y z 6
Sol. r1 r2 r1 r2 cos cos = 1. Hence, r1 and r2 are collinear vectors
a b c 5
45. A, D
3
Sol. When cos x < 0, x2 + cos x – 1 = x2 – 1 – cos x cos x = 0 x
2
3 5 2 2 3 5
When x , , cos x > 0, x + cos x –1 = x – 1 + cos x x ,
2 2 2 2
3 5
x ,
2 2
46. B, D
Sol. (x4 + x2 – 2) – (a + 1)x (x2 – 1) = 0,
(x2 + 2)(x2 – 1) – (a + 1)x (x2 – 1) = 0
(x2 – 1)(x2 – (a + 1)x + 2) = 0
x2 – (a + 1)x + 2 = 0 have atleast one positive real root
2
D 0 (a + 1) – 8 0
a , 1 2 2 2 2 1, and since = 2
48. A, B, C, D
Sol. 7, g1, g2, g3, g4, –7 are in G.P. –7 = 7r5 r = –1 g2 = g4 = 7 and g1 = g3 = –7
Hence, equation are x2 – 14x + 49 = 0 (x – 7)2 = 0 and x2 + 14x + 49 = 0 (x + 7)2 = 0
x = 7 are roots.
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
SECTION – C
49. 00163.00
Sol. wr = zr = 3 + 504i, let zr = 3i + kr(a + ib)
5
zr 15i k a ib when k = kr.
r 1
b/a = 163 is the slope of the line L
50. 00000.75
Sol. Will reach at A(2, 2) either in four steps of different combination EENN
4! 432
= = 6 ways
2!2! 22
(or) in 6 steps:
EEENNW (or) EENNNS
st
Where (EENN in any order cannot come in 1 four steps since that it is at point A)
6! 4! 654
Number of ways = 2 2 = 2 6 2 = 96
3!2! 2!2! 2
6 96 3
Probability = 4 6
4 4 64
51. 00184.00
x x1
Sol. If 9 has leftmost digit as 9 and number of digit is m then 9 i.e. (9x 9) will have leftmost digit 1
and number of digits remain same m.
x
Where as if 9 has leftmost digit other than 9, then and number of digits is m then on division by 9
x1
i.e. in 9 number of digit changes to (m 1).
every time number of digits increases by 1 by multiplying by 9 then the number was not having
left most digit as 9.
Now 9 = 9 (1 digit number)
94000 has leftmost digit is 9 and number of digits is 3817
number of digit increases from 1 to 3817
Hence 3816 numbers are not starting with 9 (i.e. leftmost digit is not 9)
and rest 4000 3816 = 184 number are which have left most digit as 9
52. 00364.00
14
Sol. f(52, 14) = f(14, 52) = 1 .f(14, 38)
24
26 14 26 19 14
= 1 f 14,24 1 f 14,10 364
19 24 19 12 10
53. 00571.60
Sol. Let z = a + ib b
z z 40
0 < Re 1 , 0 < Im 1,
40 40
40 40 (0, 20)
0 < Re 1 , 0 < Im 1
z z
0 < a, b < 40 and 0 < 40a < a2 + b2 and 0 < 40b < a2 + b2
(a 20)2 + b2 > 202 and a2 + (b 20)2 > 20 (20, 0) 40 a
1 2 1
Required area = 40 40 (20)2 – 2 20 20 20
4 2
= 1600 400 + 200 400
= 1200 200 = 200(6 ) = 571.6
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
54. 00580.00
Sol. From origin all distance parallel to x-axis are
12 32 52 72 372 392 C B
x ....
2 2 2 2 2 2
1
= ((2) (4) + (2) (12) + (2) (20) + ….. + (2) (76))
2
O A
= 4(1 + 3 + 5 + …..+19) = 4(100) = 400
1 2
y= (2 42 + 62 82 + 102 122 + ….. + 382 402)
2 D E
1
= ((2) (6) + (2) (14) + (2) (22) + ….. + (2) (78))
2
= 2(3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + ….. + 39)
10
= 2 3 39 = 420
2
Point will be (400, 420) its distinct from origin
d= 400 2 420 2 10 1600 1764
= 10 3364 = 580 units
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
1. Section–A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40) contains 12 multiple choice questions which out of 4
options have only one correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1
mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (05 – 12, 23 – 30, 41 – 48) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the four option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
2. Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2. Two simple pendulum of length L1 and L2 are released from their extreme
position in vertical plane. The angular amplitude of both the pendulums
are equal. It is given that L1 = L0 and L2 = 25 L0. The time after which the L1
L2 0 0
two strings become parallel to each other for the first time is
Q
P
5 L0
(A)
4 g
5 L0
(B)
12 g
5 L0
(C)
6 g
5 L0
(D)
2 g
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
R
73
(A)
24
146
(B)
25
39
(C)
16
146
(D)
37
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
S
(A) Laws of refraction are valid for plane surface and spherical surface only.
(B) Surface area of cylinder from which the rays emerging out is RL
2
(C) Surface area of cylinder from which the rays emerging out is RL
6
(D) Let A1 is the area of portion PS from which rays are emerging out and A2 is from QS.
A 1
Then 1
A2 5
t2
P
(A) emergent ray passes from Q if t1 = 2t2, = 30.
(B) emergent ray passes from Q if t1 = 2t2, = 45.
(C) emergent ray passes above the ‘Q’ if t2 > t1, = 45.
(D) emergent ray passes below the ‘Q’ if t2 < t1, = 45.
8. A He ion and Li2 ion both are in second excited state. Let aHe and aLi are the acceleration of
electron in their orbits and THe and TLi are the time periods of electron in their respective orbits.
Then choose the correct option(s).
(A) aLi aHe
(B) aLi aHe
(C) TLi THe
(D) TLi THe
3 eV n=2
6 eV n=1
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
(A) An atom in the ground state gets excited by a photon and during de-excitation it emits
photons, one of them has wavelength 1240 nm, then the incident photon may have
wavelength of 310 nm.
(B) An atom in the ground state gets excited by a photon and during de-excitation it emits
photons, one of them has wavelength 1240 nm, then the incident photon may have
wavelength of 1240 nm.
(C) An atom in the ground state gets excited by a collision with an electron and during
de-excitation it emits photons, one of them has wavelength 1240 nm, then incident
electron must have an energy of 4eV.
(D) An atom in the ground state gets excited by a photon of 8eV then as a result an ionized
atom and an electron of 2eV is obtained.
10. A square plate ABCD of mass m and side ‘a’ is suspended from A
point A in vertical plane. Another disc of same mass and
2a diameter is attached at point C as shown in the figure. Disc a a
can freely rotate about point C. Now square plate is slightly
displaced from its equilibrium position such that axis of rotation is B D
perpendicular to the plane of paper. Friction is absent everywhere.
Choose the correct option(s). a
a
(A) The moment of inertia of system about an axis passing through A and perpendicular to
19
the plane of paper is ma2
6
(B) The moment of inertia of system about an axis passing through A and perpendicular to
8
the plane of paper is ma2
3
8 2a
(C) The time period of small oscillation is 2 .
9 g
19 2 a
(D) The time period of small oscillation is 2 .
18 g
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
37
(A) The acceleration of cars ‘A’ and ‘B’ is 6 m/s2
60
(B) The frequency of cars ‘C’ and ‘D’ is Hz.
2
(C) The amplitude of oscillations of cars C and D is 10 cm.
(D) The amplitude of oscillations of cars C and D is 20 cm.
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
15. Four identical massless springs, two massless pulleys and a block of mass
k
m are connected as shown and system is kept in vertical plane. Initially the
system is in equilibrium. Now the block is slightly displaced from equilibrium
position along a vertical line and then released. Find the time period (in sec)
k
of small oscillation of the block if m = 6.6 kg and k = 70 N/m. (take = 3.14)
17. A rod PQ is suspended in a vertical plane. When the rod is suspended from end ‘P’ and slightly
rotated from its equilibrium position and then released, its time period is 6 sec and now if it is
suspended from end ‘Q’ and slightly rotated from its equilibrium position and then released, its
time period is 10 sec. The moment of inertia of the rod about the axes passing through ends ‘P’
and ‘Q’ and perpendicular to the plane of oscillation are 16 kg-m2 and 25 kg-m2 respectively. The
length of the rod PQ is 20 cm. Find the distance (in cm) between the end ‘P’ and the centre of
mass of rod.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
19. A constant current was passed for 193 sec. through KI solution oxidizing I ions to I2. At the end
of the experiment the liberated I2, required 60 ml of 0.2 M solution of Na2S2O3 for complete
titration. The current passed through the solution of KI in ampere is
(A) 6 amp
(B) 8 amp
(C) 3 amp
(D) 12 amp
5
21. The final temperature of a monoatomic ideal gas that is compressed reversibly and
3
adiabatically from 40 L to 5 L at 300 K is
(A) 1200 K
(B) 800 K
(C) 600 K
(D) 400 K
22. The mass of nonvolatile solute urea need to be dissolved in 90 g water in order to decrease the
vapour pressure of water by 20% is
(A) 100 g
(B) 75 g
(C) 60 g
(D) 80 g
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
23. The complex ion(s) in which the central atom is sp3 hybridised is/are
2
(A) Ni CN4
2
(B) NiCl4
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
2
(C) MnCl4
2
(D) Cu NH3 4
26. Which of the following pairs of ions can be separated by using dil. HCl?
(A) Fe3 , Ag
(B) Hg22 , Ag
(C) Hg22 ,Cd2
(D) Ag ,Cu2
29. Which of the following precipitate(s) is/are insoluble in yellow ammonium sulphide?
(A) HgS
(B) SnS
(C) Bi2S3
(D) CuS
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
31. 0.2 g of a non-volatile and non-electrolytic substance is present in 300 ml of a solution and the
o
solution shows an osmotic pressure of 38 cm of Hg at 27 C. The molecular weight of the
-1 -1
substance is (R = 0.0821 litre atm k mol )
32. 50 ml of 1 M solution of CuBr2 was electrolysed with a current of 0.965 ampere for one hour. If
the volume of the solution remains constant during the electrolysis, then the normality (in N) of
the remaining CuBr2 solution is
33. The standard enthalpy of combustion of C2H6 (g) is – 1564.25 kJ mol-1. Standard heat of
formation of CO2(g) and H2 O are – 395 kJ mol-1 and – 286 kJ mol-1 respectively. The heat
liberated in kJ mole –1 for the formation of 1 mole of C2H6(g) from its constituent elements in
standard state is
34.
The half-life of first order decomposition of NH4NO 2 aq N2 g 2H2O is 13.86
minute at 293 K.
If 10 g of NH4NO2 is allowed to decompose then the time in minute required to decompose
90% of NH4NO2 is
35. 8g of a mixture of Na2CO3 and Na2SO4 is dissolved in water and the volume of the solution made
N
up to 250 ml. 25 ml of this solution required 20 ml of H2SO4 solution for neutralization. The
10
percentage of Na2CO3 in the mixture is
36. At 300 K temperature and 8 atm pressure the compressibility factor for a real gas is 0.8. The
volume (in litre) of 10 mole of the gas at same temperature and pressure is
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2 2 1 2 2 1
38. If and are the roots of equation x2 – a(x + 1) – b = 0, then is/are
2 2 b 2 2 b
(A) 1
a 1 b 1
(B)
b a
1 1
(C) a b
a b
(D) none of these
n 1
2r 2 r n 2 1
39. Let y ; n N , then
r 1 n r n Cr
1
(A) y n
n
(B) y2
1
(C) y n
n
(D) y = 2n
2 2 2
4x 2 4y 2 4z 2
40. If x, y, z > 0 are such that 2
y 2
z 2
x 0 , then
1 4x 1 4y 1 4z
(A) x+y=z
(B) x=y
(C) x<y<z
(D) x>y>z
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
a b
(C) 1
1 ab
a b
(D) 1
1 ab
42. If between two real numbers x and y an even number of arithmetic mean are inserted, such that
sum of these means exceed their number by unity, then
24
(A) x + y can be
11
25
(B) x + y can be
12
37
(C) x + y can be
2
13
(D) x + y can be
6
6
43. From the first (675n + 2) natural number, if five consecutive numbers are chosen, E be event
that sum of the numbers is cube of natural number and sum of middle three is a square of a
natural number, then
2
(A) P E , if n = 1
673
3
(B) P E , if n = 1
673
2n 1
(C) P E , for n N
675n2 2
n1
(D) P E , for n N
675n2 2
44. If a, b, c x, y, z R and r1 aiˆ bjˆ ckˆ , r 2 xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ are two vectors such that r1 5 ,
r2 6 and r1 r2 30 , then
x y
(A)
a b
x z
(B)
a c
(C) x=y=z=a=b=c
abc 5
(D)
xyz 6
5
45. If max{x2 + cos x – 1, 1 – x2 – cos x} = max{cos x + x 2 – 1, x2 – 1 – cos x}, x , , then the
2 2
value of x that satisfy the equation is/are
(A) number of integer values of x is 3
k
(B) let x , k I then k = 1, 2, 3
2
k
(C) let x , k I then n(k) = 7
2
5
(D) x 2,
2
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13 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
4 3 2
46. If x – (a + 1)x + x + (a + 1)x – 2 = 0, a R have atleast two positive real roots, then ‘a’ can be
in the interval
(A)
a , 1 2 2
(B) a 2 2 1,
(C) a 15, 1 2 2
(D) a 2 2 1, 15
3
47. Let the roots of the equation x + ax + a = 0, a R – {0} be , and such that
2 2 2
8 0 and < < , then
(A) 1 5
(B) 1 5
(C) 1 5
(D) a = –8
2
48. If 7, g1, g2, g3, g4, –7 are in G.P. and the roots of equation x + (g1 + g3)x + g2g4 = 0 are 1, 1 and
x2 + (g2 + g4)x + g1g3 = 0 are 2, 2, then which of the following are correct?
(A) g1 + 2g2 + 2g3 + g4 = 0
(B) g1g2 = g3g4
(C) 1 = 7
(D) 2 = –7
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
49. A line L in the Argand plane is a mean line for the points w1, w2, w3, …… , wn if there are points
n
z1, z2, z3, …… zn on L such that w r zr 0 . The slope of a mean line for the points
r 1
32 + 170i, 7 + 64i, 9 + 200i, 1 + 27i, 14 + 43i which passes through the point 3i is/are
50. A particle moves in a sequence of unit steps. Each step along North, South, East or West with
equal probability. It starts at the origin, let p be the probability that it will reach (2, 2) in less than 7
steps, then 16p is equal to
51. Let ‘n’ be the number of the numbers of the form 9x where 0 x 4000, have left most digit 9,
given that 94000 has 3817 digits and that its leftmost digit is 9 then n is equal to
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 14
z 40
53. A is the region of the complex plane defined by p(z) such that complex numbers and
40 z
have real and imaginary parts in (0, 1), then the area of region A is (Take = 3.142)
n2
54. Starting at the origin a particle makes 40 moves, the nth move is of a distance of unit along a
2
straight line. Its moves are in order of due east, then north, then west and then south and
continues the order till 40 moves. The particle will be at a distance of ______ from origin?
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. A, C, D
13 2 1
Sol. Amplitude = m, s
2 T 4
13 12 13 5
r 1 cos t ˆi 5 1 cos t ˆj
2 13 2 13
t t
r 12sin2 ˆi 5 cos2 ˆj
8 8
3 t 5 t
v sin ˆi sin ˆj m/s
2 4 8 4
2. A, B, C
Sol. By using basic concept of fluid mechanics.
3. A, B, C
Sol. Let acceleration of ball relative to the cube is ab,c ax ˆi ay ˆj azkˆ
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
3 5 2
Now, ax a x 2ax 2 5 2 m/s
2
3
3 15 2
ay (g ay ) 2(g ay ) 2 10 5 m/s
2
3
3 5 2
az a z 2az 2 5 m/s
2
3
Acceleration of ball relative to the cube is ab,c (5 2 ˆi 5 ˆj 5k)
ˆ m/s2
4. A, C, D
m
Sol. T = 0.2 = 2
k
m = 0.2 kg
At t = 0, particle is at extreme position and moving towards +ve x-axis
1 2
Kmax m vmax 4.0 J
2
5. A, B, C
m0 v 2 1 ze2
Sol. (Where m0 = 50m) …(i)
rn 40 rn2
nh
m0 vrn …(ii)
2
n2 h2 0
rn
200me2
13.6z2
En 50 eV
n2
E4 = 680 eV
E1 = 10880 eV
E = E4 E1 = 10,200 eV
1240
1.21 Å
E
6. A, B, D
IA cos sin
Sol. Fx (1 r) 1.152 10 6 N
C
IA cos2
Fy (1 r) 2.016 10 6 N
C
Icos2
pr (1 r) 1.008 10 6 N / m2
C
7. A, B, C, D
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
8. A, B, C, D
Sol. For the first interference maximum
2dsin
2
103
sin
4d 4
y 103
D 4
1
y mm
4
D
Fringe width, 0.5 mm
2d
2dsin
4
sin
8d
D 1
y= mm
8d 8
9. B
10. D
Sol. (for Q. 9-10): Path difference = integral multiple of in all cases i.e. interference is constructive.
A B C D
x=0 O x = 20
36 9 49 4 81 2
I0 kA 2 , IA kA 2 , IB kA 2 , IC kA 2 and ID kA
100 16 144 9 64
For second case
81 2 4 49 9
IA kA , IB kA 2 , IC kA 2 and ID kA 2
64 9 144 16
11. A
12. D
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
SECTION – C
13. 00005.55
I
Sol. = 10 log
I0
I
3 log
1012
I = 10-9 W/m2
2 2
Now, I
P0 v BAK v B2 A 2 BA 2 42 f 2
2B 2B 2v 2v
Iv I
A 5.55 Å
B22 f 2 v22 f 2
14. 00000.20
Sol. Let mass of P, Q and S are m 1, m2 and m3 respectively
Gm1 G m1 m2 m3
R2 9R 2
8m1 = m2 + m3
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
4 4
81 R3 R3 (72 193 )
3 3
On solving
3
0.2
1
15. 00012.00
v 4v
Sol. A 0 v s T vT T
3 3 f
4v
16 v
B 3 f
1 3 f
4
16. 00489.51
a a
Sol. Wex a2 xgdx a3 g(h a) a3 g h = 00489.51
2
0
17. 00001.12
dP P
Sol. F
dt dt
dm
F 2 u = 2 5 2 0.112 1.12 newton
dt
18. 00097.50
4
Sol. sini sinr
3
r = 37
Now, 2t sec r = /2
t 97.50 nm
4 sec r
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A, B, C, D
3 2
Sol. Co NH3 6 - Octahedral and diamagnetic Fe NH3 6 - Octahedral and paramagnetic.
2 2
Pt CN4 - Square planar, CuCl4 - Tetrahedral
2
Ni NH3 6 - Primary valency = 2
3
Cr NH3 6 - Primary valency = 3
20. A, B, C
Sol. MnO4 is coloured due to charge transfer phenomena.
21. A, B, D
Sol. OCl ClO2 ClO3 ClO 4 (Cl – O bond distance)
HClO 4 HBrO 4 HIO 4 (Acidity)
H – F > H – Cl > H – Br > H – I (Bond energy)
22. A, B, C
Sol. 2Cu2 K 4 Fe CN6 Cu2 Fe CN6
Chocolate brown ppt.
2
3Cu 2K 3 Fe CN6 Cu3 Fe CN6
2
Green ppt.
23. A, B, C, D
Sol. (i) White phosphorous is more reactive than red phosphorous.
(ii) P2H4 is less stable than N2H4
(iii) Bond angle in PH4 is higher than that in PH3
(iv) In the solid state PBr5 exists as PBr4 Br
24. A, B, C
Sol. Sulphide ores are concentrated by froth floatation process.
25. A, B, C
Sol. N3P3Cl6 , C3N12 and N4S4 have cyclic structure.
26. A, B, C
Sol. Azeotropes do not obey Raoult’s law.
27. B
3
Sol. Co NH3 6 is an inner orbital complex ion. Hybridisation of central atom is d2sp3.
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
28. A
3
Sol. COF6 is an outer orbital complex ion. Hybridization of the central atom is sp d .
3 2
29. A
Sol. NO2 is a brown coloured gas, acidic oxide and paramagnetic.
30. C
Sol. NO is a colourless gas, neutral oxide and paramagnetic.
SECTION – C
31. 00045.15
Sol.
N2O 4 g
2NO 2 g
a 0
ax 2x
2x a
2, x
ax 2
2.303 a
t 2
log
92.12 10 ax
2.303
t log2
92.12 102
2.303 0.3010
t
92.12 102
t 0.7525 min 45.15 sec .
32. 00023.84
Sol. 3CuO s 2NH3 g 3Cu s N2 g 3H2O
rHo Hof Products Hof Reactants
= [3 × ( - 285)] – [3 × (- 155) + 2 × (- 46)]
= - 298 kJ
298 2.72
Heat liberated 23.84 kJ
2 17
33. 00031.25
Sol. T iK b m
1000 W
5 1.8 0.52
100 58.5
5 58.5
W
1.8 0.52
W 31.25 g
34. 00033.25
3 5
Sol.
M 8 M 35.5
M 33.25 (M = EW of metal)
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
35. 00044.80
Sol. PO2 Poxide
PM
1 1 PM
2 2
RT1 RT2
4.2 32 3.2 M2
300 320
M2 = 44.80
36. 00002.60
Sol. oAgCl oAg oCl
= 62.3 + 67.7 = 130
1000
oAgCl K
M
1000
130 3.38 10 6
M
6
3.38 10 1000
M
130
M 2.6 105 M
y 2.60
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
SECTION – A
37. A, B, C
Sol. Let , , , be the roots + + + = –p, p < 0
q , q > 0, r , r < 0, = 5, AM G.M.
1 1 1
4 5 4 , p 4 5 4
4
3 3 3
Also, 4 5 4 r 4 5 4 pr 16.5 = 80
4
38. C
2 2 3 3 3 3 3
Sol. (a + b ) + 32(a + b ) (a + b) 32(a + b ) ab
hold true if ab < 0
Let a.b 0 a, b 0
Using A.M G.M
(a2 + b2)3 + 32(a3 + b3) (a + b) 2((a2 + b2)3 32(a3 + b3) (a + b))1/2
3
= 8 2 a2 ab b2 ab
3
a 3
b3 a b 8 2 2 a 2
ab b2 ab a 3
b3 a b
2 2
= 32 a 3
b3 a 2
ab b2 a3b3 32 a
3
b3 aba3b3 = 32(a + b )ab
3 3
39. C
n
r 1 1 1 n n n
Sol. L.H.S. = 1 r 2
Cr , 1 x n C0 nC1x n C2 x 2 nC3 x 3 ..... 1 nCn xn
r 1 r 1
1 n 1
1 1 x
n n 1 n
x dx C1 n C2 x nC3 x 2 ..... 1 Cn x n1 dx
0 0
n
1 1 1 n r 1 C
1 ..... 1 r
2 3 n r 1 r
1 n 1 1 n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1
1 1 x C0 C1 C2 2 n 1 Cn n1
Similarly, x n 1 dx x x ..... 1 x dx
0 0
1 2 3 n 1
n
1 1 1 1 C1 n C2 n
n
Cn n
r 1
n
Cr
1 ..... 1 ..... 1 = 1
n 1 2 3 n 1 22 32 n 12 r 1 r 12
n 1 1 1 n 1 1 1 1 1 n 1
y 1 ..... , .....
n 1 2 3 n n 1 2 3 n 1
40. A, B
Sol. Intersection of branch of hyperbola with the circle.
41. B, D
x y zc
Sol. Equation of plane containing the line with direction cosines (l, m, n) and the line
1 tan 0
x y zc
is 1 tan 0 0
l m n
(n tan )x – ny + (m – l tan )(z – c) = 0 ..... (1)
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
Equation of plane containing the line with direction cosines (l, m, n) and the line
x y zc
x y zc
is 1 tan 0 0
1 tan 0
l m n
(–n tan )x – ny + (m + l tan )(z + c) = 0 ..... (2)
Plane through (1) and (2) is
(n tan x – ny + (m – l tan )(z – c)) + (n tan x + ny – (m + l tan )(t + c)) = 0 is parallel to z-
axis
m l tan
Hence, (m – l tan ) – (m + l tan ) = 0
m l tan
c m2 cot l2 tan
Shortest distance is = .
n m2 l2
42. B, D
x 1 y 1 z 1 L1
Sol. Any point on line L1 : is
2 1 1
(2r + 1, r + 1, r + 1) A(1, 1, 1)
1
Put in equation of plane x + y + z = 1 r
2
1 1
Q 0, , . For point P equation of AP Q P
2 2
x 1 y 1 z 1
t Any point on line (t + 1, t + 1, t + 1) lie to plane P
1 1 1
2 1 1 1
t Point P = , ,
3 3 3 3
1 1 1
x y z
Equation of QP 3 3 3
1 1 1
3 6 6
1 1 1
x y z
3 3 3
2 1 1
43. C, D
Sol. 2n1(2n + 1)
Let an the number of arrangements at n places such that ‘a’ occurs even number of times
and bn the number of arrangements at n places such that ‘a’ occurs odd number of times
an = bn – 1 + 3an – 1 = 4n – 1 + 2an – 1
an – 2an – 1 = 4n – 1
Let an = 2n tn 2n(tn – tn – 1) = 22n – 2 tn – tn – 1 = 2n – 2
t 2 t1 20
t 3 t 2 21
t 4 t 3 22 3
where t1 =
2
tn tn 1 2n2
tn t1 2n1 1
n–1 n
an = 2 (2 + 1)
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44. B, D
a b a b
Sol. A b c b c 0 , R3 R3 – R1 – R2
a b b c 0
a b 0
2 2
A b c 0 0 (a + 2b + c)(ac – b ) = 0
a b b c a 2 2b c
2 2
Either b = ac (or) a + 2b + c = 0
45. B
46. C
Sol. (for Q. 45.-46.)
1 7 11 13 17 19 23 29
0 < xi < 1 x i , , , , , , , xi = 4
30 30 30 30 30 30 30 30
1 7 11 29
for 1 < xi < 2 xi : 1, 1, 1, ......., 1 xi = 12
30 30 30 30
1 7 11 29
Similarly for 4 < xi < 5 4, 4, 4, ......., 4
30 30 30 30
Hence xi 4 12 20 ..... upto n term
i 1
n n
= (8 + (n 1) 8) = . 8n = 4n2
2 2
47. C
48. D
Sol. r b r c 4 represent, an ellipsoid in 3D space with a = 2 and b c 2ae
1
b , r a 5 is plane passing through b , c
2
2
Hence, area B area of ellipse = ab = 2 square unit
2
SECTION – C
49. 00589.00
Sol. Let n2 = 262.338
Let F is a factor or n2 2 3, 0 < 62 ; 0 38
n(F) = 63 39 = 2457
Let a, b are two factor, of n2 such that a.b = n2 when a, b n
if a < n then b > n will exist in pairs
number of factors less than n = 1228
Similarly if x and y are factors of n such that
x.y = n and x and y are also factors of n2
number of such factors = (32 20 1) = 639
req. number of factors = 1228 639 = 589
50. 00000.72
Sol. n(E) = 4 9 103 = 36000
n(S) = 50,000
P(E) = 0.72
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
51. 00002.50
1.3 2 1.3.5 3
Sol. Let y = x + x + x +...............
2! 3!
dy 1.3 1 1.3.5 2
1+ x + x +...............
dx 1! 2!
dy 1.3 2 1.3.5 3
x x+ x + x +...............
dx 1! 2!
dy 3 1.3
and y– 1 + 1 x 1 5 x2 ............
dx 1! 2!
dy dy
y 1 2(x )
dx dx
dy dx
1 y 2x 1 0
52. 00001.00
Sol. R.H.S. 1 L.H.S. 1
2 2 2 2
y > |x| 0 y + x – 2|x|y x + y + 2 x 2 y 2 1
x y x 2 y 2 1 , L.H.S. 0 and R.H.S. 0.
Hence, L.H.S. = R.H.S. = 0
2 2
|x|y = 0 and x + y – 1 = 0, y > 0
2
x = 0 and y = 1 y = 1. Since y > 0 y = 1
Hence, any one order pair of (x, y) = (0, 1)
53. 00000.25
n n 2 2 n+2 n+2 2 n 2 n
Sol. a(n) = (x + y )(x + y ) = x +y +x y +yx
a n a n 2
x 2 y 2 x 2 1 x 2
2 2 n–2 n–2
a(n) = a(n + 2) = x y (x + y ),
a n2
2
1 1 1 a n a n 2 1
= x2 – x4 = x2
4 2 4 a n 2 4
54. 00001.25
Sol. Line of intersection of two planes and x-axis must be coplanar i.e., (x, 0, 0) must satisfy both the
planes
d 5
5x = d1 and 4x = d2, 1 1.25
d2 4
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
1. Section-A (01 – 08, 19 – 26, 37 – 44) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the four option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section-A (09 – 12, 27 – 30, 45 – 48) contains 6 List-Match sets with 12 questions (each set has 2
questions). Each question has 4 statements in LIST-I & 5 or 6 statements in LIST-II. The codes for
Lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which only one is correct.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
t t
(A) The position vector of the particle at time t is given by r 12sin2 ˆi 5cos2 ˆj m .
8 8
t t
(B) The position vector of the particle at time t is given by r 12cos2 ˆi 5 sin2 ˆj m .
8 8
(C) The velocity vector of the particle at time t is given by
3 t 5 t
v sin ˆi sin ˆj m/s.
2 4 8 4
13
(D) The amplitude of simple harmonic motion executed by the particle is m.
2
2. Choose the incorrect option(s)
(A) The buoyant force on a submerged rigid body can be considered to be acting at the
centre of mass of the rigid body.
(B) Steady fluid flow in a tube of flow of variable cross-section is non-accelerated.
(C) Viscosity of a liquid increases with rise in temperature.
(D) The angle of contact of liquid in a capillary tube and surface tension of liquid decrease
with increase in temperature.
3. A rubber ball is kept at rest at the centre of a cube filled with y
liquid. The density of liquid is and rubber ball is /3. At t = 0,
the cube is accelerated with an acceleration
5 ˆ 15 ˆ 5 ˆ 2
a i j k m/s and the ball is released from origin
2 2 2
as shown in the figure. The acceleration due to gravity is along x
negative y-axis. At t = 0, choose the correct option(s). (Take g =
10 m/s2)
z
(A) Angle made by acceleration of ball with x-axis is as seen from the cube.
4
(B) Angle made by acceleration of ball with y-axis is as seen from the cube.
3
(C) Angle made by acceleration of ball with z-axis is as seen from the cube.
3
(D) If density of rubber ball is considered as /2 then angle made by acceleration vector of
ball with x, y and z-axis is changed as seen from the cube.
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
5. An imaginary particle has a charge equal to the charge of electron but mass of imaginary particle
is 50 times the mass of electron. Now, consider that imaginary particle moves in circular orbit
around a nucleus. The charge of nucleus is +4e, and nucleus is assumed to be at rest. Assume
mass of nucleus is very large as compared to the mass of imaginary particle moving around it.
Choose the correct option(s).
n2 h2 0
(A) The radius of nth orbit is , where m is mass of electron, h is Planck constant, e
200 me2
is charge of electron.
(B) If all atoms are at 16th excited state then during de-excitation till 10th excited state the
total maximum number of possible wavelengths emitted is 21.
(C) The wavelength of photon emitted when transition takes place from third excited state to
ground state is 1.21 Å.
(D) Since mass of imaginary particle is different from the mass of electron so the velocity of
th
imaginary particle and the electron in n orbit will be different.
P Q
6
(A) Due to incident beam force along the x-axis on the surface is 1.152 10 N.
(B) Due to incident beam force along the y-axis on the surface is 2.016 106 N.
(C) Due to incident energy radiation pressure on the surface is 0.576 106 N/m2.
(D) Due to incident energy radiation pressure on the surface is 1.008 106 N/m2.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
3 a 2G
(A) The gravitational field at 0, ,0 is .
2 3
a
(B) The gravitational field at 0, ,0 is G.
2
a 3a
(C) The ratio of gravitational field at 0, ,0 and 0, ,0 is 2.
2 3
2
a a 4
(D) The ratio of gravitational field at 0, ,0 and 0, ,0 is .
2 3 2 3
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
Two point sound sources of same frequency ‘f’ amplitude 2A and 4A are situated at x = 0 and x =
20 respectively ( = wavelength of wave) on the x-axis. These sources are vibrating in same
phase. Four observers A, B, C and D are situated at x A = 4, xB = 8, xC = 12 and xD = 16
respectively. The value of intensity observed by another observer O situated exactly at midpoint
of location of two sources is I0. Observers A, B, C and D are tabulated in first List and in second
36A 2k
List some quantities are given. (Given I0 )
100
List –I gives the above four observers while List –II lists the magnitude of some quantity.
List-I List-II
9
(I) Observer A (P)
16
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
49
(II) Observer B (Q)
144
4
(III) Observer C (R)
9
5
(IV) Observer D (S)
16
81
(T)
64
10
(U)
36
9. List –I contains observers and List-II contains the values of intensity observed by respective
2
observers in unit of kA . Pick the correct option.
Options
(A) I Q, II R, III S, IV P
(B) I P, II Q, III R, IV T
(C) I P, II Q, III T, IV S
(D) I Q, II P, III R, IV T
10. In separate experiment location of sources are interchanged. The values of intensity observed by
2
the observers now in units of kA are given in List-II. Match respective intensities observed by the
observers.
Options
(A) I T, II R, III S, IV Q
(B) I Q, II S, III R, IV P
(C) I P, II Q, III T, IV S
(D) I T, II R, III Q, IV P
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
A uniform candle of length 10 cm is glued with an aluminium cylinder of same radius and length 1
cm. Composite system is submerged in the water and it floats stably in vertical orientation.
3 3 3
Density of wax is 0.8 g/cm , density of aluminium is 2.7 g/cm and density of water is 1.0 g/cm .
At t = 0 candle is lit and assume that it consumes wax at a constant rate of 0.1 cm/min. List –I
gives four different instant of time while List-II lists magnitude of some quantity.
List-I List-II
103
(I) t = 5 minutes (P)
107
(II) t = 10 minutes (Q) 9.3
(III) t = 15 minutes (R) 8.9
99
(IV) t = 20 minutes (S)
107
(T) 8.5
95
(U)
107
11. The correct match for time and length of the candle inside the water (in cm) will be:
Options
(A) I Q, II R, III T, IV T
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
(B) I Q, II S, III P, IV R
(C) I P, II S, III Q, IV T
(D) I P, II P, III S, IV T
12. If candle is extinguished at different times i.e. at t = 5 minute, t = 10 minute, t = 15 minute and at
t = 20 minutes and slightly displaced from mean position in each case. The correct match for time
period of small oscillation in each case will be (in units of T0 where T0 is time period at t = 0)
Options
(A) I P, II P, III U, IV U
(B) I Q, II U, III T, IV T
(C) I Q, II P, III S, IV S
(D) I P, II S, III U, IV U
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
13. The sound from a trumpet is emitted uniformly in all directions at 20C. At point ‘P’ in space the
3
sound intensity level is 30 dB. The density of air in the medium is 1.5 kg/m , the velocity of sound
at 20C is 300 m/sec. Find the displacement amplitude (in Å) at point ‘P’. The frequency of sound
wave in the medium is 600 Hz. (Take 2 = 10)
14. A solid sphere P and two hollow sphere Q and S are concentrically
placed as shown in the figure. The radius of P. Q and S are R, 2R
and 3R respectively. The density of P, Q and S are 1, 2 and 3 3R
respectively. It is given that the density of middle sphere is the
arithmetic mean of the densities of other two spheres. If the
2R R Q
gravitational fields at points A and B are equal then find the ratio of P S
3 A
.
1
v
15. A point source ‘S’ is moving in air towards left with a constant velocity , where v is the speed of
3
v
sound in air. There are two detectors A and B. A is moving in air with a velocity towards left
20
v
and B is moving in a medium with a velocity towards right as shown in the figure. The velocity
9
of sound in the medium is 4V and frequency of sound emitted by the point source is f. Let A is
the wavelength detected by the detector A and B the wavelength detected by the detector B.
v
If B A = k , then find the value of k.
3f
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
16. A small cube of negligible mass is floating on the surface of lake. The side of the cube is 30 cm
and depth of lake is 2m. The cube is pushed very slowly under the water, down to the bottom of
3 3 2
the lake. The density of water is 10 kg/m and acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s . Find the
work done (in Joule) by external pushing force in the process.
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
21. Which of the following order given below is/are incorrect for the property indicated against it?
(A) OCl ClO2 ClO3 ClO 4 (Cl – O bond distance)
(B) HClO 4 HBrO 4 HIO 4 (Acidity)
(C) Cl > F > Br > I (Electron gain enthalpy)
(D) H – F < H – Cl < H – Br < H – I (Bond energy)
24. Which of the following ore(s) is/are concentrated by froth floatation process
(A) Galena
(B) Copper pyrite
(C) Zinc blende
(D) Bauxite
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26. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about azeotropic mixture?
(A) Azeotropic mixture are non ideal solution
(B) Solution with large negative deviation from Raoult’s law forms maximum boiling
azeotropes
(C) The components of azeotropic mixture cannot be separated completely by fractional
distillation
(D) Azeotropes obey Raoult’s law
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
List-I includes the complex ions and List-II includes the hybridization of central atom in the
complex ions and magnetic property of the complex ions:
LIST–I LIST–II
3
(I) 3 (P) sp
CoF 6
2
(II) 4 (Q) dsp
Fe CN6
3 2
(III) 3 (R) sp d (outer orbital complex)
Co NH3 6
(IV) 2 (S) d2sp3 (inner orbital complex)
CuCl4
(T) Paramagnetic
(U) Diamagnetic
27. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II:
(A) (I), (U), (S)
(B) (III), (S), (U)
(C) (II), (T), (S)
(D) (IV), (Q), (T)
List-I includes the complex ions and List-II includes the hybridization of central atom in the
complex ions and magnetic property of the complex ions:
LIST–I LIST–II
3
(I) 3 (P) sp
CoF 6
(II) 4 (Q) dsp2
Fe CN6
(III) 3 (R) sp3d2 (outer orbital complex)
Co NH3 6
(IV) 2 (S) d2sp3 (inner orbital complex)
CuCl4
(T) Paramagnetic
(U) Diamagnetic
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
28. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II:
(A) (I), (R), (T)
(B) (III), (Q), (T)
(C) (II), (R), (T)
(D) (IV), (P), (U)
Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in
the paragraph.
List-I includes the oxides of nitrogen and List-II includes the properties of the oxides of nitrogen.
LIST–I LIST–II
(I) N2O5 (P) Colourless gas
(II) N2O (Q) Brown coloured gas
(III) NO (R) Acidic oxide
(IV) NO2 (S) Neutral oxide
(T) Blue coloured solid
(U) Paramagnetic
29. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II
(A) (IV), (R), (U), (Q)
(B) (III), (T), (S), (U)
(C) (II), (Q), (U), (S)
(D) (I), (P), (R), (U)
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
List-I includes the oxides of nitrogen and List-II includes the properties of the oxides of nitrogen.
List–I List–II
(I) N2O5 (P) Colourless gas
(II) N2O (Q) Brown coloured gas
(III) NO (R) Acidic oxide
(IV) NO2 (S) Neutral oxide
(T) Blue coloured solid
(U) Paramagnetic
30 Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II
(A) (II), (T), (U), (S)
(B) (I), (Q), (U), (S)
(C) (III), (P), (S), (U)
(D) (IV), (P), (U), (R)
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
32. NH3 g reacts with CuO (s) according to the following reaction
3CuO s 2NH3 g 3Cu s N2 g 3H2O
Standard enthalpies of formation of NH3 g ,CuO s and H2 O are -46, - 155 and – 285
kJ/mole respectively. The heat liberated (in kJ) when 2.72 g of NH3(g) is reacted completely with
CuO(s) according to the reaction given above when all the reactants and products are in their
standard state is
33. At higher altitude, boiling point of water is 95oC. The mass in gram of NaCl 0.8 added to
100 g of water (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol-1) in order to raise the boiling point to 100oC is
(MW of NaCl = 58.5)
34. 3 g of an oxide of a metal is converted completely to 5 g chloride of the same metal. Equivalent
weight of metal is
35. The density of a certain gaseous oxide at 3.2 bar pressure and 47oC is same as that of O2 at
27oC and 4.2 bar pressure. The molar mass of the gaseous oxide is
36. The specific conductivity of a saturated solution of AgCl is 3.38 106 ohm1 cm1 at 25oC. If
oAg 62.3 ohm 1 cm2 mol1 and oCl 67.7 ohm 1 cm 2 mol1, then the solubility of AgCl at
25oC is y 105 M. The value of y is
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
4 3 2
37. If the equation x + px + qx + rx + 5 = 0 has four positive real roots, then
(A) p can be –10
(B) r can be –20
(C) pr 80
(D) none of these
38. If a, b R and a + b 0, let P = (a2 + b2)3 and Q = 32(a3 + b3)(ab – a – b), then
(A) P < Q a, b
(B) P Q a, b
(C) P Q a, b
(D) none of the above
n
r 1 r 2 3r 1 n
39. If y 1 3 Cr , then which of the following is correct?
r 1 r 2r 2 r
n 1
(A) y
n
n1
(B) y
n
n
n 1 1
(C) y
r 1 n r
n
n 1
(D) y
r 1 n 1 r
za
40. If z 2 z 2 2 and ik , where k is a real parameter, a R has exactly two solutions,
za
then
(A) a < –1
(B) a>1
(C) a = 1 only
(D) a = –1 only
41. A line L with direction cosines l, m, n meets each of the lines y = x tan , z = c ;
y = –x tan , z + c = 0, then the shortest distance between the line L and the z-axis is
c tan m2 l2
(A)
n m2 l2
c m2 cot l2 tan
(B)
n m2 l2
c m2 tan2 l2 cot 2
(C)
n m2 l2
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13 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
c m2 l2
(D) for =
n m l2 2 4
42. Let the line L on the plane x + y + z = 1, such that a plane perpendicular to x + y + z = 1 contains
x 1 y 1 z 1
the line L and , then
2 1 1
(A) line L passes through the point (1, –1, 1)
1 1 1
(B) line L passes through the point , ,
3 3 3
(C) one of the direction ratio of line L is (1, –1, –1)
(D) one of the direction ratio of line L is (2, –1, –1)
43. Let a, b, c, d can be arranged at ‘n’ places such that a occurs exactly even number of times, then
the number of such arrangements are
(A) 28 for n = 3
(B) 2n – 1(2n – 1) for n N
(C) 36 for n = 3
n–1 n
(D) 2 (2 + 1) for n N
a b a b
44. If the determinant A b c b c 0 , then
a b b c 0
(A) a, b, c are in Arithmetic Progression
(B) a, b, c are in Geometric Progression
(C) is root of equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0
2
(D) is root of equation ax + 2bx + c = 0
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
n
a
MM-I. Let xi i i = 1, 2, 3, ..., n is a rational number in its lowest form and Sk, r x i , k < xi < r
30 i 1
LIST–I LIST–II
(I) S 0, 1 is equal to (P) 2
(T) 4n2
(U) 14n2
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 14
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
MM-II. Let position vectors of the point A, B, C are a ˆi ˆj kˆ , b 2iˆ 2ˆj kˆ , c 5iˆ ˆj kˆ respectively,
and let position vector of a variable point R be r
LIST–I LIST–II
(I) locus of point R r such that r a 5 (P) pair of lines
(II) locus of point R r such that r b r c 4 (Q) circle
(III) locus of point R r such that r a 5 and r b r c 4 (R) ellipse
area of the region formed by point R r such that r a 5 and
(IV) (S)
r b r c 4
(T) 2
(U) 2
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
49. Let n = 231.319, then number of factors of n2 less than n and does not divide n are
50. A person A was issued a 10 digit mobile phone number having his 6 digit birth date (DDMMYY
format) in it. Let E be the event that his birth was in first 9 days of a month, then the probability of
the occurrence of the event E is
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15 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
r 2
1.3.5.....(2r 1) 2 y 1
51. Let y = r!
, then
5 2
is
r 1
52. Number of ordered pair(s) (x, y) that satisfies the inequation y – |x| 1 x 2 y 2 1 is/are
n n 2 2 a n a n 2
53. If a(n) = x + y , where x, y [–1, 1] and x + y = 1, then maximum value of is
a n 2
54. If a plane passes through the intersection of 5x + b1y + c1z = d1 and 4x + b2y + c2z = d2 and
contains the x-axis, then d1 : d2 is
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Main)-2020
TEST DATE: 08-12-2019
SECTION – A
1. D
Sol. Using Snell’s law:
R i
sini i = 30 R
2R
sin i = sin r
1 r
sinr
2 2
2. C
10 0.7
Sol. 4.65 k
2 10 3
3. D
2Ids sin2
Sol. F c
sin (90)
(90)
2Isin2 2Isin2 L
=
c
sin ds
c
RL sin
IR2
(1 cos 2)
c
R
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 2
4. A
Sol. y(x, t = t0) = A cos kx
y(x, t) = A cos k[x + v(t t0)]
y(x, t) = A cos [kx + t t0)]
at t = 2t0
y(x, t = 2t0) = A cos [kx + t 0)]
y(x, t = 2t0) = A cos [kx + 2ft0]
5. A
1 2
Sol. A B C
dNB
1NA 2NB 0
dt
N N
A 2 1 A 1
NB 1 2NB
6. A
Sol. impulse momentum theorem
v1At = pAt
p = v1
Also p(2r) = .(2t)
pr = t
v1r = t
t
v1
vr
7. B
Sol. |Q| = 0.00394 931.5 = 3.67 MeV
threshold Kinetic energy
m m2 mP
= 1 | Q | 1 | Q | 3.91 MeV
m2 mN
8. B
Sol. If mirror rotates by angle image of object M2
rotates by angle 2.
S2
O
2 M1
S1
9. B
Sol. Optical path = geometrical path
3
1 1 3 2 1 = 9/2
1
2 2 21 2
2
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3 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
10. A
h
Sol.
2mK
150
= 1.414 Å
75
For the first maxima
2dsin
1.414
sin = 0.023
2d 2 30
11. B
Sol. The direction of ( E B ) gives the direction of propagation of wave
ˆi ˆj kˆ
12. A
2 xT
Sol. 2 T
x
13. C
Sol. TIR will take place
60
14. C
3 1 (0.5)
Sol.
2v1 20
2 3 0.5
f 2v1 30
2 1 1 1
f 2 20 30
4 20 30
f 48 cm
50
15. B
Sol. Total angular dispersion = ( v r )A (v r )A = 0
16. C
Sol. In equilibrium
a3g = a2x0g
a
x0
The work done by the applied force,
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 4
a x0
W Fdx a2 xgdx
0
2
a 2 g 2 a2 g a
a x0 a
2 2
2
= a4g
2 2
17. A
GMm
Sol. Using conservation of energy, K 0
r
GMm 1
K K (GMm)
r r
3 18
GMm 10
2
3
m= 1018 Kg
2MG
18. B
T T
Sol. t (2 2) ( )
2
vT 1 4
tan1 tan 2 2
2 x
= /4
3
t 4 3 sec
4
19. C
2T
Sol. P
r
2T
P P0 gH
r
20. D
Sol. Bernoulli’s theorem
SECTION – B
21. 1
m
Sol. ma x gsin
gsin
a x
d2 x gsin
x
dt2
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5 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
125
T 2 2 2 5 10 sec
gsin 1
10
2
T 10
Time spent on the inclined track is t 0 5 sec
2 2
22. 4
2 3
Sol. L = [M1L T2] [LT1] [M]
+ = 0
2 = 0
3 + = 2
= 2, = 4, = 2
SECTION – C
23. 00062.50
Sol. sin = sin
cos = /2= 5/8 (since /2 = )
F1
5
100cos 100 62.50 =1
8
24. 00015.00
mg mg
Sol. p
A 4A
3mg
a
4A
3mg 3 1 10 2
a 15 m/s
4A 4 2.5 104 2 103 1
25. 00000.02
V P 99 105
Sol. 0.02
V B 4.95 108
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
26. B
Sol. Balanced reaction is
7
2CrO5 3H2 SO4 Cr2 SO4 3 3H2 O O2
2
7
So, 1 mole CrO5 liberates moles of O2.
4
It is a redox reaction because oxidation number of Cr decreases and oxidation number of O
increases.
1 O 2 1
O O
Cr
6
O O
1 1
27. A
Sol. Initial weight of H2 O 18 g
PV
nH2O g
RT
24.63
7.6
760
0.01 mole
0.0821 300
0.01 18
% wt. of H2O vapourised 100
18
= 1%
28. C
1000
Sol. m
M
1 1
or m 1000 [ = specific conductance, = specific resistance]
M
1000
or m
xy
29. A
Sol. NaCl is non-volatile but CH3OH is volatile. So, these solutions would have different boiling points.
Raoult’s law can not be applied to CH3OH solution since it does not form an ideal solution with
H2O.
30. D
Sol. Electrophoresis means movement of colloidal particles (particles of dispersed phase) under the
influence of electric field.
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7 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
31. D
Sol. (A) Stronger the inter-atomic interaction, higher the enthalpy of atomization.
(B) Cr+ has half-filled valence shell electronic configuration (3d5), so it has higher second
+
ionization energy. Similarly, Cu has completely filled valence shell electronic
10
configuration 3d , so it has higher second ionization energy.
(C) Sum of first two ionization energies (IE1 + IE2) of Ni(II) is less than that of Pt(II), while sum
of first four ionization energies (IE1 + IE2 + IE3 + IE4) of Pt (IV) is less than that of Ni(IV).
32. D
Sol. White precipitates of Hg2Cl2 and AgCl are water insoluble (even in hot water). Copper salts do not
give white precipitate with dilute HCl as CuCl2 is water soluble (at room temperature)
Pb2 2Cl
PbCl2
white precipitate
soluble in hot water
Pb2 S2 PbS
Black
33. D
Sol. NH4NO3 N2O 2H2O
34. B
1 n
Sol. t1/2 A 0
1 n
100 0.1
1n
50 0.025
On dividing
2 41n
1n
2 22
21 22 2n
2 2n 1
or 2n = 1
1
or n
2
1/ 2
100 0.1
1/2
t1/2 1
Divide
1
t1/2 1 2
100 0.1
t1/2 100 10 minutes.
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 8
35. B
Sol. Siderite is an ore of iron (FeCO3).
36. C
Sol. Colour is attributed to the presence of unpaired f-electrons.
Ce 3 4f 1, Sm 3 4f 5
La3 4f 0 , Lu3 4f 14
37. A
PV PV PM
Sol. Z
nRT w dRT
RT
M
8.314 10 4 18 10 3 18 10
Z
0.8 8.314 300 300 0.8
3
Z 0.75
4
38. C
3RT
Sol. U
M
Let new rms speed be U2.
3R 2T 3RT
U2 2
M M
2
U2 2U
39. B
3
Sol. CP,m = aT
CP ,m 0.84
a 0.84 10 3
T3 10
3
10K
CP,m
Sm .dT
0K T
10K 10K
aT3 2
Sm .dT aT .dT
0K T 0K
a a
Sm 103 0 103
3 3
0.84 10 103
3
Sm 0.28
3
40. B
Sol. Cl OH HO Cl
Cl Cl
Bithionol
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9 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
26 13
There are 26 bonds and 6 bonds. So, ratio is
6 3
41. C
Sol. In order to get H3O 1M, H2SO 4 concentration should be = 0.5 M.
W in g
M
H2SO4 Molar mass V in L
W in g
0.5
98 0.2
Wt. of H2SO4 = 9.8 g
42. A
Sol. Cu+2 is member of II group cations while Ni+2, Co+2 and Mn+2 are members of IV group cations.
+2
When H2S is passed in presence of dilute HCl, only II group cation (Cu ) is precipitated.
43. A
Sol. Following reactions are responsible for the depletion of ozone layer
NO O3
NO 2 O 2
h
CFCl3 CF2Cl Cl
Cl O3
ClO O2
ClO O Cl O2
CH4 is not responsible for ozone layer depletion.
44. A
Sol. H 10 2
m moles of H 10 2 100 1
During electrolysis, following reactions take place.
At cathode
Cu2 aq. 2e
Cu s
At anode
1
H2O O 2 g 2H aq. 2e
2
From above reactions, it is clear that for 1 m mole of H+ produced at anode, 0.5 m mole of Cu+2 is
reduced at cathode.
Initial m mole of Cu+2 = 100 mL × 0.05
= 5 m mole
After electrolysis
Cu+2 remaining in solution = 5 – 0.5 = 4.5 m moles
2Cu 2 4I
Cu2I2 I2
So, according to above reaction
4.5
4.5 m mole Cu+2 will liberate m moles of I2.
2
I2 2Na2S 2O3 Na2S 4O 6 2NaI
4.5
According to above reaction m moles of I2 requires 4.5 m moles of Na2S2O3.
2
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 10
m moles
M
V in mL
4.5 450
V in mL
0.04 4
V = 112.5 mL
45. C
Sol. Excess of KI is added, I ions are adsorbed on AgI forming a fixed layer and give – ve charge on
colloid particles. It then attracts K+ ions from the medium forming second diffused (mobile) layer.
SECTION – B
46. 8
Sol. Total 8 f-Block elements in 4f-series have odd electrons in f-orbitals in their ground state
configuration.
58 Ce, 59 Pr, 61Pm, 63 Eu, 64 Gd, 65 Tb, 67 Ho, 69 Tm
47. 6
Sol. Sucrolose is 600 times sweet in comparison to cane sugar and Aspartame is 100 times sweet in
comparison to cane sugar.
x 600
So,
y 100
=6
SECTION – C
48. 00036.85
Ea
Sol. log10 K log10 A
2.303RT
Ea
Slope
2.303R
Ea
8000
2.303 2
Ea 8000 2 2.303 36 848 calorie
Ea 36.85 Kcal
49. 00018.60
Sol. 2Na2S 2O3 I2 Na2S 4O 6 2NaI
n-factor of I2 = 2
M 15
Therefore, number of m moles of I2 = 15
40 40
15 15
Number of m moles of Na2S 2O3 2 in 10 mL solution.
40 20
15
Weight of Na2S 2O 3 .5H2O in g in 10 mL solution 10 3 248 0.186 g
20
Therefore, concentration of Na2S2O3.5H2O = 18.6 (in g/L)
50. 00001.09
Sol. Go nFEocell
2746 1000
Eocell 1.09 V
26 96500
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11 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
SECTION – A
51. A
ab 1
Sol. Vector v = 5iˆ 3ˆj kˆ
ab 35
52. D
Sol. a b b c c a = a b c b c a 0
53. C
2
Sol. Required projection is 1 1 3 4 2 6 2 3 8
7 7 7 7
54. C
Sol. D.R. of normal (2, 1, 1). Let, Q be the image of point P in the plane and PQ meet in R
R (2r + 3, r + 5, r + 7), 2(2r + 3) + r + 5 + r + 7 = 0, r = –3
Using section formula Q (–9, –1, 1)
55. D
Sol. The number of terms is same as (1 + x + x 2)n which is 2n + 1
56. B
2n 2
1 1 Cr 1 2n 1 1
Sol. 2n 1
2n 1
2n 1 2n 1
2n
Cr Cr 1 Cr Cr 1 2n 1 Cr
57. C
Sol. = (1 – ) = – ( – c)
Also, (1 + 3) = – 2 + 3, (1 + 3) = – 2 + 3
(1 + 3) = (1 + 3) = (1 + 3), 3 = –1, = –1, –, –2
58. B
Sol. Roots are 3 – i and –2 + i, product is –6
59. D
3 1
Sol. p , q ,n=5
4 4
3 2 4 5
3 1 3 1 3 459
Probability = 5 C3 5 C4 5 C5
4 4 4 4 4 512
60. A
1 1 1
Sol. P(E F) = P(E)P(F) = , P E F , 1 P E 1 P F
12 2 2
61. D
Sol. C1 C1 – C2, C2 C2 – C3, open by R1, ab + abc + ac + bc = 0
1 1 1
1
a b c
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AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20 12
62. B
Sol. Adj In n n1
63. B
Sol. Order of B 4 3, order of BA (4 3) (3 4) 4 4
64. C
Sol. (x + ) = 1 and x + 1999 = –1 = 1993
x + = –1 and x + 1991 = 1, = 1989
Sum = 1993 + 1989
65. D
Sol. Let term be a – 2d, a – d, a, a + d, a + 2d
3a = –12 a = –4, (a – 2a)(a – d)(a) = 8
d = –3
a2 + a4 + a6 = –21
66. C
4
Sol. Required value is 2 4 192
3
67. D
6
Sol. Number of ways is 8 C2 3
68. A
10 6 10
Sol. Let numbers be a1, a2, ....., a10. ai 125 , ai 90 , ai 50
i 1 i 1 i6
a6 + 125 = 90 + 50 a6 = 15
69. C
2n
1 2 3 ..... 2n 1 1 2 n n 1
Sol. x n 1 , 2 1 r 1 n
2n 1 2n 1 r 0 3
n n 1
2
3
70. C
n
Sol. Cr : n Cr 1 : nCr 2 1 : 7 : 35
r 1 1 r 2 1
8r = n – 7 and
nr 7
n 1 r 5
n = 23
SECTION – B
71. 7
22 32 22 210 310 210 1 10
Sol. A2 , A 10 a+b+c+d=2 3
2 10
0 3 0 3
Number of factors = 2 11 = 22
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13 AITS-PT-III-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Main)/20
72. 5
1
Sol. Let r1 and r2 be the roots r 2 r2 – 2r – 1 = 0 b2 + c2 = 5
r
SECTION – C
73. 16216.20
12
C4 15C4 4
Sol. 16216.20
103
74. 00002.50
Sol. |(x – 4) + i(y – 3)| = 2 ; centre (4, 3), radius = 2
= 7 and = 3
75. 00000.50
1 4 1 6 37
Sol. p
2 7 2 8 56
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Main)-2020
TEST DATE: 08-12-2019
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
R
(A) 2 2 7 3
4 2
R
(B) 2 2 7 3
2 2
R
(C) 2 2 7 3
4 2
R
(D) 21 1
10
2. A silicon diode requires minimum current of 2mA to be above its knee point of its (V-I)
characteristics. Assuming voltage across diode is constant above its knee point. The value of
maximum resistance that should be connected in series with diode and battery of 10 V such that
diode operates above its knee point. (Assume resistance of diode to be zero)
(A) 5 k
(B) 5.35 k
(C) 4.65 k
(D) 9.30 k
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3 AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/20
4. Consider a plane progressive wave propagating along negative x-direction whose frequency is f.
At t = t0 the displacement associated with the wave is given by the following equation:
y (x, t = t0) = A cos kx
Displacement associated with the wave as a function of x at t = 2t0 can be represented by
equation.
(A) A cos (kx + 2ft0)
(B) A sin (kx + 2ft0)
(C) A cos (kx 2ft0)
(D) A cos (kx + 4ft0)
5. A sample contains two radioactive materials A and B with half life 5 hours and 2 hours
respectively. The nucleus A decays into B and B decays into stable nucleus C. At t = 0 activities
of both samples were equal. The ratio of activity of A to the activity of B when activity of B is
maximum, is
(A) 1
5
(B)
2
2
(C)
5
4
(D)
25
6. Water is flowing in a circular pipe of radius r and thickness t with constant speed. A valve installed
in the pipe is closed almost instantaneously resulting in an abrupt rise in water pressure. What
should be the value of maximum speed of the flow of water such that pipe does not crack due to
abrupt rise in pressure. Given density of water , speed of sound in water v and tensile strength
of steel is .
t
(A)
vr
t
(B)
2vr
2 t
(C)
vr 2
2t
(D)
vr
15
7. In a nuclear reaction p + N 15 O n
If proton were to collide with 15 N at rest and initiate above reaction. The minimum value of
Kinetic energy of proton for which above reaction can take place is
Given: m(p) = 1.007825 amu, m(n) = 1.008665 amu
m(15O) = 15.0031 amu, m(15N)= 15.000 amu (Take 1 amu = 931.5 MeV/c2)
(A) 3.67 MeV
(B) 3.91 MeV
(C) 3.30 MeV
(D) 3.00 MeV
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 4
(A) b sin 2
(B) 2b sin
(C) 2b sin 2
(D) b sin
9. Two optical medium of refractive index and 3/2 contains 3 and 2 waves of same
monochromatic radiation in thickness t and 2t. The value of is
(A) 3
(B) 4.5
(C) 2.5
(D) 2
10. The electrons of kinetic energy 75 eV each are diffracted from a metal foil having lattice spacing
d = 30Å. If the first maxima occurs when incident at an angle from the atomic layer, then the
value of sin is
(A) 0.023
(B) 0.253
(C) 0.707
(D) 0.047
11. A plane progressive electromagnetic wave travelling in vacuum along +z direction has a
wavelength of 6 mm. The variation in the electric field occurs in x-direction with amplitude
50 Vm1. The equation of electric field and magnetic field as a function of position and time are
given by:
x 5 x
(50 Vm1) cos (2 10 s1) t ˆi , ( 106 T) cos (2 10 s1) t ˆj
11 11
(A)
c 3 c
z 5 z
(50 Vm1) sin ( 10 s1) t ˆi , ( 107 T) sin ( 10 s1) t ˆj
11 11
(B)
c 3 c
x y
(C) (50 Vm1) sin ( 1011 s1) t ˆi , (6 106 T) sin ( 1011 s1) t ˆj
c c
z z ˆ
(D) (50 Vm1) cos ( 1011 s1) t ˆi , (6 106 T) sin ( 108 s1) t c j
c
12. If x, v and a denote the displacement, velocity and acceleration of a particle executing S.H.M. of
time period T and frequency . Then which of the following quantities does not change with time?
aT
(A)
x
(B) a2 T 4 2
aT
(C)
(D) none of these
13. An equilateral prism produces an angle of deviation 60 when the angle of incidence is 60. The
angle of deviation produced when the ray is incident normal to the surface is
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 60
(D) can’t be determined
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= 1.5
15. Two thin prisms are combined as shown in the figure. Find the
total angular dispersion suffered by a white light after it is passed 4 B
through the combination of two prisms. The refractive indices of
prisms A and B for different lights are listed in the table below. A
2
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2
(C) 1018 Kg
MG
600
(D) 1018 Kg
MG
18. Time period of a particle executing linear S.H.M. is T = 4 sec. There is a point P at a distance
x = 2 cm from the mean position O. When the particle passes through the point P towards O it
has speed v = 1 cm/sec. The minimum time after which it will again return to point P is
(A) (/4) sec
(B) 3 sec
(C) (3/4) sec
(D) 2 sec
19. A small air bubble of radius r is found to be formed at a depth of H from open surface of liquid
contained in a beaker. If T is surface tension, is density of the liquid and p0 is atmospheric
pressure then pressure inside the bubble is (r = radius of bubble)
4T
(A) P0 gH
r
2T
(B) P0 gH
r
2T
(C) P0 gH
r
4T
(D) P0 gH
r
20. An ideal fluid is flowing through a horizontal pipe as shown in the figure. Three tubes A, B and C
are connected to the pipe. Radii of the tubes A, B and C at junction are 2r, r and 2r respectively. It
can be said that (a = cross section area of tube)
A B C
a a
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
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22. We would like to find a relation between mass of black hole and the area of its event horizon A.
This area depends on the mass of black hole, speed of light and universal gravitational constant.
We write it as A = Gcm. Then the value of | + | is
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
2
24. There is a U-tube of different cross sectional area A = 2.5 cm and 4A of limbs fitted with the
frictionless pistons each of mass m = 1 kg. An ideal liquid of density = 2000 kg/m 3 is filled in the
tube and the tube is accelerated in horizontal direction with a constant acceleration ‘a’. Find the
value of acceleration ‘a’ (in m/s2) for which both pistons stay in the same horizontal level. The
length of horizontal section of U-tube is = 1m. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
25. A solid sphere is initially kept in open air, pressure exerted by air on it is 105 N/m2. The sphere is
lowered into ocean to a depth where pressure is 100 times atmospheric pressure. The fractional
change in the volume of the sphere is (Bulk modulus of sphere, B = 4.95 108 N/m2)
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
26. Which of the following statement is correct for the following reaction?
CrO5 H2SO 4 Cr2 SO 4 3 H2O O2
(A) It is not a redox reaction.
(B) One mole of CrO5 will liberate7/4 moles of O2.
(C) Oxidation number of Cr decreases from +10 to +3 during the reaction.
(D) None of these.
27. A sample of liquid H2O of mass 18.0 g is injected into an evacuated 7.6 L flask maintained at
o o
27 C. If vapour pressure of water at 27 C is 24.63 mm Hg, what weight percentage of the water
will be vapourised when the system comes to equilibrium? Assume water vapour behaves as an
ideal gas and the volume occupied by water is negligible compared to the volume of the
container:
(A) 1%
(B) 10%
(C) 18%
(D) 20%
28. If x is the specific resistance (in S-1 cm) of the electrolyte solution and y is the molarity of the
solution, then m (in S cm2 mol-1) is given by
1000x
(A)
y
1000y
(B)
x
1000
(C)
xy
xy
(D)
1000
29. Boiling point of which set of aqueous solutions given below will not be identical?
(A) 1 mole NaCl in 1 L water, 2 mole CH3OH in 1 L water.
g
(B) 18.4 M H2SO4 d 1.84 and 98% H2SO 4 by mass ,
mL
g
500 m H2SO 4 d 1.84 and 98% H2SO 4 by mass
mL
(C) 0.1 M urea, 0.1 M glucose
(D) 0.11 % by moles (R) – 2-butanol in water, 0.11 % by moles (S) – 2 – butanol in water.
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32. An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate on treatment with dilute hydrochloric
acid, which dissolves on heating. When hydrogen sulphide is passed through the hot acidic
solution, a black precipitate is obtained. The substance is a:
(A) Hg22 salt
+2
(B) Cu salt
+
(C) Ag salt
(D) Pb+2 salt
33. Which of the following compounds does not liberate NH3 on heating?
(A) (NH4)2SO4
(B) (NH4)2CO3
(C) NH4Cl
(D) NH4NO3
36. Which of the following pairs of ions is expected to show colour in aqueous solutions?
(A) La3 ,Ce 3
(B) La 3 ,Lu3
(C) Ce 3 ,Sm3
(D) Lu3 ,Sm3
37. The density of steam at 27oC and 8.314 × 104 pascal is 0.8 kg m -3. The compressibility factor
would be:
(A) 0.75
(B) 1
(C) 0.88
(D) 1.1
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38. The RMS speed of the molecule of diatomic gas is U. When the temperature is doubled, the
molecule dissociates into two atoms. The new RMS speed of the atom is:
(A) 2U
(B) U
(C) 2U
(D) 4U
39. For a perfectly crystalline solid, CP,m = aT3, where a is constant. If CP,m is 0.84 J K-1 mol-1 at 10 K,
molar entropy at 10 K is:
-1 -1
(A) 0.42 J K mol
-1 -1
(B) 0.28 J K mol
-1 -1
(C) 4.2 J K mol
(D) 2.8 J K-1 mol-1
40. The ratio of number of bond and bond in Bithionol, which is added to soaps to impart
antiseptic properties:
26
(A)
3
13
(B)
3
19
(C)
3
22
(D)
3
41. How many grams of sulphuric acid is to be dissolved to prepare 200 mL aqueous solution having
concentration of H3O+ ions = 1 M at 25oC.
(A) 4.9 g
(B) 19.6 g
(C) 9.8 g
(D) 0.98 g
+2 +2 +2 +2
42. Out of Cu , Ni , Co and Mn , which ion is precipitated when H2S is passed through it in the
presence of dilute HCl?
+2
(A) Cu
+2
(B) Ni
(C) Co+2
(D) Mn+2
43. Amongst the following compounds, which one is not responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?
(A) CH4
(B) CFCl3
(C) NO
(D) Both (A) and (B)
44. 100 mL of 0.05 M CuSO4 (aq.) solution was electrolysed using inert electrodes by passing current
till the pH of the resulting solution was 2. The solution after electrolysis was neutralized and then
treated with excess KI and formed I2 was titrated with 0.04 M Na2S2O3. Calculate the required
volume (in mL) of Na2S2O3.
(A) 112.5 mL
(B) 100 mL
(C) 125 mL
(D) 150 mL
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45. When an excess of a very dilute aqueous solution of KI is added to a very dilute aqueous solution
of AgNO3, the colloidal particles of AgI are associated with which of the following Helmholtz
double layer
(A) AgI Ag+ I
(B) AgI K+ NO3
(C) AgI I K
AgI NO3 Ag
+
(D)
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
46. Among the elements of lanthanoid series 58 Ce 71 Lu , the total number of elements which
have odd number of electrons in f-orbitals in their ground state configuration.
47. Sucrolose is x times sweet in comparison to cane sugar while Aspartame is y time sweet in
x
comparison to cane sugar. The ratio is:
y
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
1
48. For first order gaseous reaction, log10K when plotted against gives a straight line with a slope
T
of – 8000. Calculate the activation energy of the reaction (in Kcal) (Take R = 2 cal k-1 mol-1)
49. Calculate the concentration of Na2S2O3.5H2O solution in grams per litre, 10 mL of which just
N
decolourised 15 mL of iodine solution.
20
50. A fuel cell develops an electrical potential from the combustion of butane at 1 bar at 298 K.
C4H10 g 6.5O 2 g 4CO 2 g 5H2O , r G0 2746 kJ/mol
What is Eo of the cell (in volt)?
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SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
52. For any three vectors a, b, c (non-zero), a b b c c a is
(A) 2c
(B) 3 bc
(C) 3 bca
(D) zero
53. The projection of the line segment P(1, 2, 3) and Q(–1, 4, 2) on the line having direction ratios 2,
3, –6 is
7
(A)
8
6
(B)
7
8
(C)
7
9
(D)
2
n
1
55. The number of distinct terms in the expansion of 2x 3 , n N is
5x
(A) 3n
(B) 3n + 1
(C) 2n
(D) 2n + 1
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1 1 2n 2 1
56. 2n 1
2n 1 2n
, then is
C5 C6 2n 1 C
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) none of these
57. Let , , be distinct complex numbers such that , then is
1 1 1
(A)
(B) 2
2
(C) –
(D) none of these
2
58. The product of the real part of the roots of z – z = 5 – 5i is
(A) –25
(B) –6
(C) –5
(D) 25
3
59. The probability that a man can hit a target is , he tries 5 times. The probability that he will hit
4
the target at least three times is
291
(A)
364
371
(B)
464
471
(C)
502
459
(D)
512
60. Let E and F be two independent events such that P(E) > P(F). The probability that both E and F
1 1
happened is and the probability that neither E nor F happens is , then
12 2
1 1
(A) P E , P F
3 4
1 1
(B) P E , P F
2 6
1 1
(C) P E , P F
2 8
(D) none of these
1 a 1 1
1 1 1
61. If a, b, c are all different from zero and 1 1 b 1 0 , then is
a b c
1 1 1 c
(A) abc
1
(B)
abc
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(C) –a – b – c
(D) –1
+
62. If, k R , then Det(Adj(I4)) is
(A) 3
(B) 12
4
(C)
(D)
63. A and B are two given matrices such that the order of A is 3 4, if AB and BA are both defined,
then
(A) order of B is 3 4
(B) order of BA is 4 4
(C) order of BA is 3 3
(D) BA is not defined
64. The sum of integral values of for which the equation (x + )(x + 1991) + 1 = 0 has integral roots
is/are
(A) 1989
(B) 1997
(C) 3982
(D) none of these
65. If for an A.P. a1, a2, a3, ....., an ; a1 + a3 + a5 = –12 and a1a2a3 = 8, then a2 + a4 + a6 is
(A) –12
(B) –16
(C) –18
(D) –2
66. The number of arrangements of the word ‘PARABOLA’ under the condition that consonants and
vowels alternate is
(A) 48
(B) 24
(C) 192
(D) 216
67. The number of ways in which can three people divide among themselves six identical apples, one
orange, one lemon, one banana, one pear, one plum and one apricot is
8
(A) C3
(B) (3)6
8 6
(C) C4 3
(D) none
68. The mean of 10 numbers is 12.5, the mean of first six numbers is 15 and mean of last five is 10,
then sixth number is
(A) 15
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 12.5
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70. The coefficients of 3 consecutive terms in the expansion of (1 + x)n are in the ratio 1 : 7 : 35, then
value of ‘n’ is
(A) 35
(B) 46
(C) 23
(D) none of these
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
2 1 10 a b
71. Let A be a matrix such that A c d , then the number of factors of
0 3
a + b + c + d is ‘n’ where (n – 15) is
72. The equation x2 + bx + c = 0 has distinct roots. If 2 is subtracted from each root, then the result is
the reciprocal of original root, then b2 + c2 is
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
73. At a dance function there are 12 boys and 15 girls. The number of ways in which they can form
N
four couples consisting of different genders is N, then is
103
74. If z is any complex number satisfying |z – 4 – 3i| = 2 in argand plane. The maximum and
minimum values of |z| are and respectively, then is
4
75. A purse contains 4 copper and 3 silver coins & another purse contains 6 copper & 2 silver coins.
One coin is drawn from any one of these purses. The probability that it is a copper coin is (,
N & are coprime), then is
18
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