UNIVERSITY OF

IBADAN

POST–UTME SCREENING
Past Questions & Solutions
2012 – 2005
‘’My idea in this sense does not focus on duplicating the efforts made
byseveral other Nigerians, Lecturers, teachers and tutors in this direction. I
only aimed at correcting some of their shortfalls, and most
importantly;making these study, revision and preparatory materials readily
available to anyone in any part of the country.’’
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What you NEED to KNOW

• U.I do not partake in pre-degree but CDL(centre for distance learning)

• Last year U.I set 100 question i.e 25 each and gave 1hour 30mins time limit.

• Age limit is 16years as at the time of admission

• U.I accepts two sittings in O-level

• University of Ibadan puts only post-utme score into consideration when offering admission.

• The O-level results and UTME results are utilized in inviting candidates for post-utme test through their phone
numbers. Once invited and you score very high in post-utme.

• Post-utme exercise consists of 100 questions in total(25 each from the 4 subjects selected)

• Admission formula for invitation to post-utme is 60:40(60marks- Waec:40-UTME) which is obtained after adding
your O-level and UTME score using the method above.

YOU MUST REMEMBER THIS.

Two years ago, 25,513 submitted their results online but only 5,045 were invited for post-utme of which 3,131 scored
50 and above.they were recommend for admission but only 2,849 showed up for clearance and eventually
matriculated. The remaining 282 rejected their admission because they were given other option since they failed to
meet their individual cut-off but scored above 50 as required.

CALCULATING YOUR SCORE PRE-UME

For O’level:

A1 – 6points

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B2 – 5points

B3 – 4points

C4 – 3points

C5 – 2points

C6 – 1point(5 relevant subject)

For JAMB: Score/10

SUM = (Finally total O-level pts x 2) + ( UTME/10)

LAST YEAR UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN CUT-OFF

THE SOCIAL SCIENCES TECHNOLOGY

Economics 57 Agricultural & Environmental Engineering 50

Geography 50 Civil Engineering 50

Political Science 54 Electrical & Electronics Engineering 59

Psychology 50 Food Technology 50

Sociology 50 Industrial & Production Engineering 50

Mechanical Engineering 55

Petroleum Engineering 58

Wood Products Engineering 50

SCIENCE LAW

Anthropology 50 Law 64

Archaeology 50

Botany 50

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Chemistry 50

Computer Science 50

Geography 50

Geology 50

Mathematics 50

Microbiology 52

Physics 50

Statistics 50

Zoology 50

ARTS EDUCATION

Arabic & Islamic Studies 50 Adult Education 50

Anthropology 50 Educational Management 50

Archaeology 50 LARIS 50

Classics 50 Guidance & Counselling 50

CLA 59 Health Education 50

English 58 Human Kinetics 50

E. Studies- French 50 T. Education- Arts 54

E. Studies- German 50 T. Educ.- Pre-Primary 50

E. Studies- Russian 50 T. Educ- Science 50

History 50 T. Educ.- Social Science 50

Linguistics 56 Special Educ. 50

Linguistics – Yoruba 50

Linguistics – Igbo 50

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Music 50

Philosophy 50

Religious Studies 50

Theatre Arts 50

PHARMACY COLLEGE OF MEDICINE

Pharmacy 60 Biochemistry 50

Dentistry 59

Human Nutrition 50

MBBS 70

Medical Laboratory Science

Nursing 53

Physiology 50

Physiotherapy 57

AGRIC. & FORESTRY VETERINARY MEDICINE

Agriculture 50 Veterinary Medicine 50

Aquaculture & Fisheries Mgt 50

Forest Resources Management 50

Wildlife & Ecotourism Mgt 50

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 UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2006/2007 POST UME SCREENING EXERCISE
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
PLEASE ENSURE THAT YOU HAVE SUBMITTED ONE DOWNLOADED ON-LINE REGISTRATIONFORM BEFORE
AND AFTER THE EXAMINATION.
Calculators, Cell Phones and other electronic devices are not allowed. Any form of examination
malpractice automatically disqualifies the candidate. Candidates may use logarithm tables.
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME ALLOWED:
Shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
PHYSICS A. I only B. II only C. Ill only D. I and II only E. II and III
1. A simple pendulum makes 50 oscillations in one only
minute. What is the period of oscillation? 7. A concave mirror of radius of curvature 20cm has a pin
A. 0.02s B.0.20s C. 0.83s placed at 15cm from its pole. What will be the
D. 1.20s E. 50.00s magnification of the image formed?
2. A girl whose mass is 55kg stands on a spring- 8. The image in a pin-hole camera is always
weighing machine inside a lift. When the lift starts to A. diminished B. enlarged C. upright D. inverted E. blurred
ascend, its acceleration is 2ms-2. What will be the 9. An object weighs 10.ON in air and 7.ON in water. What
reading on the machine? (Take g = 10ms' ) is its weight when immersed in a liquid of relative density
A. 66kg B. 55kg C. 44kg D. 22kg E. 11kg 1.5? A. 4.50N B. 4.67N C. 5.50N D. 6.67N E. 8.50N
3. A boy pulls a nail from a wall with a string tied to 10. A converging lens of focal length 5cm forms a virtual
the nail. The string is inclined at an angle of 600 to image which is 10cm from the lens. How far from the lens
the wall. If the tension in the string is 4N.what is the is the object? A. 2.0cm B. 3.3cm C. 5.0cm D. 10.0cm E.
effective force used in pulling the nail? 15.0cm
A. 2N C. 4N 11. The count rate of an alpha-particle source is 400 per
E. 8N minute. If the half-life of the source is 5 days, what would
4. Which of the following is not a vector quantity? be the count rate per minute after I5 days? A. 20 B. 25 C.
A. momentum B. force C. velocity D. temperature E. 50 D. 200 E. 400
displacement 12. The nucleon number and the proton numbers of a
5. A real image of an object formed by a converging neutral atom of an element are 238 and 92 respectively.
lens of focal length 15cm is three time the size of the What is the number of neutron in the atom? A. 330 B. 238
object..What is the distance of the object from the C. 146 D. 119 E.73
lens? 13. In 24 days a radioactive isotope decreases in mass
A. 30cm B. 25cm C. 20cm from 64g to 2g. what is the half life of the radioactive
D. 15cm E. 10cm material? A. 0.75 days
6. Which of the following remain(s) unchanged as
light travels from one medium to another?
I. speed II. Wavelength III Frequency

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 B. 2.58 days C. 4.00 days D. 4.80 days E. 6.00 days
14. When an atom gains or loses a charge, it
becomes
A. an ion B. an electron C. a neutron D. a proton E. a
deuteron
15. Beta particles are A. electrons B. protons C.
neutrons D. helium nuclei E. tritium, nuclei
16. Which of the following has the shortest
wavelength?
A. infrared ray B. gamma rays C. ultra violet ray D.
radio wave E. visible light
17. The inability of the eye to focus near objects is
known as
A. long sight B. astigmatism
C. presbyopia D. glaucoma
E. short sight
18. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a
hill with a velocity of 20ms-1. If it reaches the
ground 4 seconds later, what is the height of the
hill? (g = 10ms ).
A. 20m B. 40m C. 80m
D. 160m E. 200m
19. Calculate the resistance of the filament of a lamp
rated 240V40W.
D. 14400 E. 28800
20. A cube made of a metal of linear expansivity
initial 'volume of the cube is V, what is the increase
in volume of the cube?
D. 2aVt
CHEMISTRY
21. When sucrose is warned with Fehling solution.
A. a silver mirror is produced
B. the turns milky
C. a brick-red precipitate is formed
D. There is no precipitate
E. a blue black coloration
22. Which of the following gases will have the highest
rate of diffusion under the same conditions (H = 1, C =
12, O = 16, S = 32, Cl = 35.5) A. O2 B. C12 C. HC1 D. H2S
E. CO2
23. Which of the following involves the decomposition
of a sugar by enzymic action?
A. Esterification B.Fermentation
C. Dehydration D. Polymerization
E. Saponification
24. When iron rusts, it undergoes
A. Deliquescence B. Chemical Decomposition C.
hydrolysis D. Redox reaction
E. Combustion
25. Hydrogen is used for the following except
A. manufacturing of ammonia
B. synthesis of hydrochloric acid
C. extinguishing fire
D. conversion of coal to petrol
E. manufacture of magarine
26. Petrol can be obtained from diesel by
A. distillation B. cracking
C. polymerization D. dehydrogenation E. catalysis
27. The following metals are attracted by electrolytic
method except
A. potassium B. calcium C. sodium D. tin E. magnesium
28. The complex salt formed when aluminum dissolves
in sodium hydroxide solution is
A. Na3Al(OH)4 B. Na2Al(OH)3
C. NaAl(OH)3 D. Na4Al(OH)4
E. NaAl(OH)4

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 29. Which of the following is a waste product in the
solvay process for the manufacture of sodium
trioxocarbonate(IV)?
A. Ammonium chloride B. brine C. limestone D.
calcium oxide E. calcium oxide
30. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring
Iron ore?
A. FeCl2 B. Fe2O3 C. Fe2O3 D. FeCO3 E. FeS2
31. Which of the following materials cannot be
extracted from its ore by using carbon or carbon (II)
oxide as the reducing agent? A. Cu B. Zn C. Al D. Pb E.
Fe
32. Chlorine is used in water treatment as
A. a germicide B. a decolorizing agent C. an anti-
oxidant D. a coagulating agent E. an aerating agent
33. The properties of electrovalent compounds
include the following except
A. a high melting and boiling point
B. conduction of electricity in the molten state
C. high volatility at room temperature
D. ionization of aqueous solution
E. decomposition of their solutions by electric current
34. Alkanes are used mainly
A. in the production of plastics
B. as domestic and industrial fuels
C. in the textile industry
D. in the hydrogenation of oils E. as line chemicals
35. Which of the following solids has a network
structure?
A. diamond B. iodine C. sulphur D. graphite E. iron
36. Which of the following separation is routine
applied in the petroleum industry? A. filtration
B.chromatography C. fractional crystallization D.
evaporation E. fractional distillation
37. Which of the following observation is not correct
about the reaction of sodium metal with cold water?
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A. The reaction is spontaneous
B. the reaction is endothermic
C. hydrogen is produced
D. the sodium melts and dissolves
E. the resultant solution is alkaline
38. The formula (CH3)3COH is that of
A. polyhydric alcohol B. secondary alkanol C. tertiary
alkanol D. primary alkanol E. trihydricalkanol
39. What is the number of oxygen atoms in 32g of the
gas? (O = 16, L = 6.0 x 1024mor').
A. 3.2x 1023 B. 6.0 X 1023 C. 1.2 0 X 1024 D. 1.60 X
1024 E. 2.0 X 1024
40. The ionic radii of metals are usually
A. greater than their atomic radii
B. unaffected by the charge of the ion
C. less than their atomic radii
D. greater than those of non-metals
E. the same as their atomic radii
ENGLISH
From the words lettered A to E below each of the
following sentences, choose the group of words
that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
expression as it is used in the sentence.
41. She tried to settle the quarrel but the man
remained obstinate to listen to her.
A. offensive B. angry C. stubborn D. unstable E.
impolite
42. Okon attempted to entice Eno with the promise of
a handsome sum of money
A. deceive B. enchant C. force D. trick E. tempt
43. I am very proud to speak before this august
assembly.
 A. Ignominious C. monthly D. untrue E. popular 54. Nobody was surprised that the thief was
44. It is University of Ibadanrd to suggest that Tunde convicted ZZ. All the charges
should marry that saucy lady. A. on B. with C. of D. over E. for
A. pitiable B. hopeless C. humorous D. untrue E. 55. It has been rough so far ZZ? A. hasn‘t it B. B.
ridiculous hadn‘t it C. isn‘t it D. wasn‘t it E. haven‘t it
45. The principal's orders are imperative. A. lenient B. 56. The master says he‘s accountable Z the
authoritative C. genuine D. E. necessary president, and nobody else A. from B to C. with D. by
46. The suspect was made to walk in front of the E. for
anxious crowds. 57. You were punished because you .... ..last week
A. surprised B. astonished C. engrossed D. curious E. without permission.
questionable A. ought not to have traveled
47. The lawyer's argument of the case was exhaustive B. must not have travelled
A. Interesting B. exaggerating C. exhilarating D. C. Ought not to travel
thorough E. fascinating D. will not have travelled
48. The superintendent was appalled by the attitude of E. ought to have travelled
some of the employees towards their work. 58. The president‘s speech ZZ At 7pm yesterday.
A. annoyed B. disappointed C. shocked D. provoked E. A. is broadcast B. has been broadcast C. were
depressed broadcast D. was broadcast
49. Death is inevitable for a man. A. unavoidable B. 59. She Z... . .before I entered the office.
essential C. necessary D. immoral E. imminent A. has to be questioned
50. The decision taken by the panel is irrevocable. B. has been questioned
A. irreversible B. unexpected C. acceptable D. C. have been questioned
irresponsible E. unacceptable D. had been questioned
From the words or group of words lettered A to E, E. is being questioned
choose the one that best completes each of the 60. The suspect .... . ..when I entered the office.
following sentences A. has been questioned
51. ......is the owner of this pair of shoes? A. who B. B. have been questioned
whom C. which D. whose E. when C. was being questioned
52. My uncle is an expert ....... Mechanical engineer A. at D. is being questioned
B. in C. with D. for E. on E. will be questioned
53. The PTA meeting did not adjourn until it had
discussed all the matters placed ZZ it
A. by B. with C. before D. over E. on

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 MATHEMATICS
61. The angle of the sector of a circle of diameter
8cm is 135°. Find the area of the sector. (TC= 22/7)
A. 3/20 B.Ifi C. 1/4 D. 3/10 E. 3/4
62. Calculate, correct to three significant figures, the
length of an arc that subtends an angle of 70° 22/7)
A. 2.44cm B. 4.89cm
C. 9.78cm D. 25.1cm E. 50.3cm
63. A number is chosen at random from the set
{1,2,3,...9,10}. What is the random probability that
the number is greater than or equal to 7? A. 1/10 B.
3/10 C. 2/5 D. 3/5 E. 7/10
64. A fair die is rolled once. What is the probability of
obtaining 4 or 6?
A. 1/12 B. 1/6 C. 1/3 D. ½ E. 2/3
65. S = {1,2...5,6}, T= {2,4,5,7} and R = {1,4,5}, find {S
A. {1,4,5} B.{2,4,5} C. {1,2,4.5} D. {2,3,4,5} E.
{1,2,3,4,5}
66. Simplify ¾ x (1½ - 2/3) A. 7/30 B. 7/24 C. 9/25
D.1/2 E.18/25
67. Solve the inequality 3m + 3>9
A. m > 2 B.m>3 C. m >6 D. m > 6 E. m > 12
68. Convert 89 in base ten to a number in base two
A. 1101001 B. 1011001
C. 1001111 D. 101101 E. 1101
69. The nth term of a sequence is given by (-l)n-1,
find the sum of the second and third terms
A. -2 B. 1 C. 2 D. 6 E. 12
70. In an arithmetic progression, the first term is 2
and the sum of the 1st and 6th terms is 614. What is
the 4th term?
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A. 12 B.91/2 C. 8 D. 7 E. 51/2
71. While doing his Physics practical Chioma
recorded a reading of 1.12cm instead of 1.21cm
calculate his percentage error.
A. 1.17% B. 6.38% C. 7.44%
D. 8.05% E. 9.00%
72. From the top of a building 10m high, the angle of
depression of a stone lying on the horizontal, ground
is 69°. Calculate, correct to one decimal place, the
distance of the stone from the foot of the building.
A. 3.6m B. 3.8m C. 6.0m D. 9.3m E. 26.1m
73. Factorize 3a2 – 11a + 6
A. (3a-2)(a-3) B. (2a-2)(a-3) C. (3a-2)(a + 3) D. (3a +
2)(a – 3) E. 2a - 3)(a + 2)
74. Solve the equation 3a + 10 = a2 A. 5, 2 B. -5, 2 C.
10, 0 D. 5, -2 E. -5, -2
75. The common ratio of a geometrical progression
is 2. if the 5th term is greater than the 1st term by
45, find the 5th term. A. 3 B.6 C. 45 D. 48 E. 90
76. Which of the following about a rhombus may not
be true?
A. The diagonals are equal
B. the diagonals bisect the angles through they pass
C. the diagonals bisect each other
D. the adjacent sides are equal E. opposite angles are
equal
77. Evaluate log,025 + log,032 - Iog108 A. 0.2 B. 2 C.
100 D. 409 E. 490
 78. Construct a quadratic equation whose roots are 14. A 16. B
-1/2 and 2. 15. A 17. A
A. 3x2 – 3x + 2 = 0 B. 3x2 + 3x - 2 = 0 C. 2x2 + 3x - 2 18. S = ut + ½ gt2 = 20.4 + ½ . 10.16
= 0 D. 2x2 – 3x + 2 = 0 E.2x2 – 3x - 2 = 0 S = 80 + 80 = 160m
79. What must be added to the expression x2 – 18x 19. P = IV = V2/R = I2R where V = 240, P = 4W
to make it a perfect square? R =V2= 2402 = 1440= D P 40
A. 3 B. -9 C. 36 D. -72 E. 81 - Vt V1t
80. Solve the equation m/3 + ½ = ¾ + m/4. A. -3 B. =E
-2 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 CHEMISTRY
SOLUTIONS TO POST UME 2006/2007 21. – 28. E 35. D
PHYSICS 22. A 29. B 36. E
1. Period T = t/n = 60/50 = 1.20s =B 23. B 30. A 37. B
2. = B There is no change in mass 24. B 31. C 38. C
3. Effective force Fx = Fcos 60 = 4cos 60 = 4(0.5) = 25. C 32. A 39. C
2N = A 26. B 33. C 40. C
4. Temperature = D 27. D 34. B
is positive for a converging lens. Distance of real ENGLISH
object and real image are positive 41. Obstinate (often disapproving) refusing to
= 1/5 change your opinions, way of behaving etc. when
u = 60/3 = 20cm = C 6. =A other people try to persuade you to; showing this:
- 1/u = 1/10 – 1/15 = 1/30 and v = +30cm; v is ANS stubborn = C
positive so image is real. 42. Entice: to persuade somebody/something to go
Magnification m = v/u = 30/15 = 2.00 = B 8. = E somewhere or to do something, usually by offering
9. Rel. Density = weight – in – air them something ANS tempt = E
Weight – of – equal – volume – of – water 43. august: (Note this is different from August – the
1.5 = 10/ b; 1.5b = 10 and b = 6.67N =D 8th month) Impressive, making you feel respect ANS
- 1/v = 1/5 – 1/10 = 1/10. u = 10cm = D popular = E
11. 15/5 = 3 400/2 = 200 1st half of decay = 5days 44. University of Ibadanrd: completely ridiculous,
200/2 = 100 2nd half of decay = 5days 15 days not logical and sensible ANS ridiculous = E
100/2 = 50 3rd half of decay = 5days = C 45. Imperative: very important and needing
12. Proton and neutron constitute the nucleon. immediate attention or action (2) expressing
Hence neutrons = Nucleon – Proton = 238 – 92 = authority: expressing an order ANS authoritative =
146 = C B
13. 14/2 = ( ½ )24/t 46. Anxious: feel worried or nervous ANS curious =
1/2 => 3.2 = (0.5)24/t 1/2 D
Log 3.2 = log0.524/t
1/2 => 1.51 = 24/t1/2 (-0.3010)
t1/2 =24 x 0.3010 = 4.8 days = D
1.51

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 47. Exhaustive: very thorough, looking at a every detail ANS thorough = D
48. Appalled: feeling or showing horror or disgust at something unpleasant or wrong ANS shocked = C
49. Inevitable: that you cannot avoid or prevent ANS unavoidable = A
50. Irrevocable: that cannot be changed; final ANS irreversible = A
51. Note: ‗whom‘ is used instead of ‗who‘ as the object of a verb or proposition while who is usually used as the
object pronoun, especially in questions. It is much more natural to use who and put the preposition at the end of
the sentence ANS who = A
52. B 56. B 60. C
53. C 57. A
54. C 58. D
55. A 59. D
MATHEMATICS
61. Area of a sector A = 186/7
360 360 7
4.89cm = B
360 360 7
63. x> 7(8,9,10) = P(x) = 3
x = 7(7) = P(x) = 1
x > 7 = 3 + 1 =4 = 2
10 10 10 5 = C
666663=C
65. S = {1,2,3,4,5,6}; T = {2,4,5,7}; R = {1,4,5}
= C 66. = D
67. 3m + 3 > 9; 3m> 9 – 3; 3m > 6; and m > 2 = A 68. = B
69. Second term = (-1)2-2. 22-1 = 1.2 = 2
Third term = (-1)3-2. 23-1 = -4
Hence their sum is 2 + (-4) = -2 = A
70. a = 2, a + U6 = 614 = 2 + U6 and U6 = 612
U6 = a + (n – 1)d
612 = 2 + (6 – 1)d; 612 – 2 = 5d; and d = 610/5 = 122
The fourth term U4 = 2 +(4 – 1)122 = 368 Z Question is mixed up, but you can use this method
71. 1.21 – 1.12 x 100 = 7.44% = C 1.21
72. tan 21 = x ; x = 10tan 21 = 3.8 = B
73. 3a2 – 11a + 6 ; 3a2 – 9a – 2a + 6 = (3a – 2)(a – 3) = A
74. 3a – 10 = a2 ; a2 – 3a – 10
a(a + 2) - 5(a – 2)
a = 5 or a = -2 = D
75. r = 2, U5 – a = 45; ar4 – a = 45
a(24 – 1) = 45; hence 15a = 45 and a = 3
U5 = ar4 = 3(24) = 48 = D 76. A
77. log1025 + log1032 – log108 = log1025 x 32 = log10800
Log10100 = 2log1010 = 2 = B
78. x = -½ , x = 2
(x + ½ )(x – 2) = 0; x2 – 2x + x( ½ ) – 1 = 0
x2 – 3/2x – 1 = 0 Multiply through by
2x2 – 3x – 2 = 0 = E
– – 4.1.c = 0 square both sides
182 – 4c = 0; 324 – 4c = 0 hence 324 = 4c and c = 81 = E
80. m +1 = 3 + m
3 2 4 4 Multiplying through by 12 gives
4m + 6 = 3(3) + 3m

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 4m – 3m = 9 – 6
m=3=D

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 UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2005/2006 POST
UME(ADMISSION SELECTION) TEST
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Insert the word(s) that best fit(s) in with the
meaning of the sentence
1. Legislators must be trained to _____ the truth
A. disguise B. discern C. digest
D. disturb E. distort
2. As it holds true that, unless you trained your body
you cannot be an athlete, so also unless you train
your ____ you cannot be a ____
(A) kicking footballer (B) voice-choirmaster (C)
mind-scholar (D) courage-hero (E) arms swimmer
3. Never in the history of human conflict has so
much been owed by so many to so few.
(A) many people owed much money of the end of
the war
(B) A handful of people saved the lives of a nation
(C) A few people did a lot of things gratis
(D) This conflict caused the largest ransom ever
demanded
(E) Very little was owed by anyone to anybody
Choose the word phrase from A to E which has
the same meaning as the underlined word or
words in each sentence
4. After the wife had covered her misdeeds by
prevaricating on several occasions the poor husband
accused her point-blank of adultery
(A) bluntly (B) pointedly
(C) emphatically (D) unreservedly
(E) unmistakingly
5. When a man is immune to an illness, he is
(A) opposed to it (B) attached it
(C) hasted by it (D) protected against it (E) addicted
to it
6. In a civilized society, it is unseemly to emit a loud
belch at the end of a meal
(A) noisy (B) annoying (C) stupid (D) outrageous (E)
impolite
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Choose the appropriate option to fill the gap in
the following sentences
7. The principal was able to establish a functional
language laboratory for his school because he acted
____ the advice of experts on the subject (A) through
(B) at (C) from (D) on (E) by
8. The prefect came to the class five minutes after
the lesson ____
(A) has started (B) had started
(C) have started (D) is started
(E) has been started
9. Grace must be allergic ___ smoke because any she
sits by someone who is smoking, she sneezes.
(A)to (B) from (C) for (D) with (E) by
Fill in the right word/phrase
10. He ____ the book to the library last week
(A) has returned (B) had retuned (C) was returned
(D) retuned (E) was to be returning
11. The police man was sent to _____ the allegation
made by the man
(A) Investing (B)examine (C) probe (D) enquire
(E)observe
Which of the options express the same ideas as
the one in quotes
12. To beat down the 'price' is to
(A) flog the price (B) reduce the price
(C) beat the salesman (D) attack the seller (E)
control the price
Fill in the blank spaces in the following
sentences making use of the best of the two
options
13. For their part in the successful ___ the mutineers
were court-martialled.
(A) coopes (B) coupes (C) coupe
(D) coup (E) coupes
 14. The way to stop some frivolous publications is to
___ the press
(A) gag (B) shackle (C) fetter
(D) handcuff (E) blind
Choose the option opposite in meaning to the
word underlined
15. To most people last Christmas was an austere
period
(A) prosperous (B) harsh (C) severe (D) four (E)
stern
16. Chidi is naturally taciturn
(A) friendly (B) cheerful (C) dumb
(D) lively (E) garrulous
Choose the option nearest in meaning to the
underlined
17. The salesman tried to pull the wool over my
(A) force me to buy his goods
(B) offer me cotton wool
(C) make me buy his wool
(D) dupe me
(E) cover my eyes with wool.
18. The legislator has decided to play second fiddle
after he had been walked out of the Assembly for
violating basic procedures of the House. This means
that the Legislator has decided to
(A) oppose every motion in the House
(B) Support every motion in the House
(C) condemn every motion
(D) support the lead given by others
(E) Become active in the House
19. Select the wrongly spelt word
(A) disappointed (B) embarassed (C) equipped (D)
rhythm (E) restaurant
20. Select'' the wrongly spelt word (A) quite (B)
believe (C) proceed (D) precede (E) opportunity
CHEMISTRY
21. When air which contains the gases: oxygen,
nitrogen, carbon dioxide, water vapour and the rare
gases, is passed through alkaline pyrogallot and
then over quicklime, the only gases left are:
(A) nitrogen and carbondioxide
(B) the rare gases
15 | P a g e
(C) nitrogen and oxygen
(D) nitrogen and the rare gases
(E) nitrogen, carbondioxide and the rare gases.
22. When large hydrocarbon molecules are heated
at high temperature in the presence of a catalyst to
give smaller molecules, the process is known as
(A) disintegration (B) polymerization (C) cracking
(D) degradation (E) distillation
23. When each of the nitrates of potassium,
magnesium and iron is heated
(A) all the nitrates decompose to their oxides
(B) the nitrate of magnesium gives the nitrite and
oxygen
(C) the nitrates of magnesium and iron give the oxides
(D) the nitrate of iron gives the nitrite and oxygen
(E) the nitrate of the magnesium is not decomposed
24. Helium atoms are chemically unreactive because
(A) there are no electrons around the nucleus
(B) the number of protons equals the number of
electrons
(C) there are equal number bf protons and neutrons
in the nucleus
(D) the outer electron shell is completely filled
(E) the atoms contain only protons
25. How many grams of HBr would exactly be
required to react with 2g of propyne? (C = 12, H = 1,
Br= 80)
(A) 4.1g (B) 6.1g (C)8.1g (D) 10.lg (E) 16.2g
26. Under high pressure, real gases do not obey gas
laws because their molecules
(A) have become more energetic
(B) have become less energetic
(C) have become smaller in size
(D) decompose into atoms
(E) start repelling each other
27. Which of the following statements is an
exception in the assumptions of the kinetic theory of
gases?
(A) Gases are composed of many elastic particles
 (B) the particles are of negligible size
(C) the particles are in constant random motion
(D) the particles are of negligible mass
(E) the particles collide with each other
28. 5.00g of hydrated salt of barium when heated to
a constant weight gave 4.26g of anhydrous salt with
a molecular weight of 208. The number of molecules
of water of crystallization in the hydrated salt is
(A) 10 (B)7 (C)5 (D)2
29. Oxidation is the process of:
(A) gain of electrons
(B) loss of electrons
(C) gain of hydrogen
(D) loss of oxygen
(E) addition of an electropositive element to a
substance
30. Which of the following statement is NOT true of
the electrovalent compounds?
(A) They are solids
(B) They do not vaporize easily
(C) they usually dissolve in water
(D) the elements orbiting the compounds normally
have their valence electrons in a shared state
(E) they conduct electricity
31. If concentrated sulphuric acid is added to sugar
and warmed gently, the sugar changes from white to
brown and "finally to a black mass of carbon. In this
reaction, concentrated sulphuric acid is acting as:
(A) a dying agent (B) an oxidizing agent
(C) a dehydrating agent (D) a reducing agent
(E) a hydrolyzing agent
32. When heat is absorbed during a chemical
reaction, the reaction is said to be
(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermic (C) isothermal
(D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
33. The pH of lour solutions W, X, Y, Z are 4,6,8,10,
respectively therefore
(A) none of these solutions is acidic
(B) the pH of Y is made more acidic by addition of
distilled water
16 | P a g e
(C) Z is the most acidic solution
(D) W is the most acidic solution (E) X is neutral
34. Which of the following contains two amphoteric
oxides?
(A) Sodium oxide, Zinc Oxide, Magnesium oxide
(B) Aluminum oxide, calcium oxide, Zinc oxide
(C) Potassium oxide, lithium oxide, Carbon dioxide
(D) Silver oxide, Lead oxide, Sodium oxide
(E) Sulphur dioxide. Aluminum oxide, Carbon
monoxide
35. 50cm3 of hydrogen are sparked with 20cm3 of
oxygen at 100°C and 1 atmosphere. The total volume
of the residual gases is
(A) 50cm3 (B) 10cm3 (C) 40cm3'
(D) 30cm3 (E) 70cm3
36. When ammonium, potassium and Calcium
carbonates are each separately heated
(A) non of them will decompose
(B) each of them will decompose to give carbondioxide
and the respective oxide
(C) ammonium carbonate and potassium carbonate
will not decompose
(D) only ammonium carbonate and calcium carbonate
will decompose to carbon dioxide and the respective
oxide
(E) ammonium carbonate will decompose to
glycocarbon dioxide, water and ammonia
37. 500cm3 oxygen was collected over water at 30°C
and 752mmHg pressure. What is the volume of dry
oxygen at STP? (Vapour pressure of water at 30°C =
32mmHg)
(A) 475cm3 (B) 415cm3 (C) 586cm3
(D) 500cm3 (E) 427cm3
38. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Metals conduct electricity while non-metals do not
(B) Metals have high density, non metals have low
density
 (C)Metals form acid oxides, non-metals are below
hydrogen
(E) Metals lose electrons while non metals gain
electrons during normal reactions
39. In the reaction of oxygen with hydrogen to
produce water, which of the following statements is
true?
(A) One atom of hydrogen reacts with two atoms of
oxygen to give one molecule of water
(B) Two atoms of hydrogen react with two atoms of
oxygen to give two molecules of water
(C) One molecule of oxygen reacts with one
molecule of hydrogen to give two molecules of
water
(D) One molecule of hydrogen reacts with two
molecules of oxygen to give three molecules of
water
(E) One molecule of oxygen reacts with two
molecules of oxygen to give two molecules of water
40. The number of atoms in one mole of a substance
is equal to:
(A) the atomic number
(B) the Avogadro number
(C) the gas constant
(D) the number of neutrons
(E) the number of electrons
MATHEMATICS
41. Simplify 25/12 – 17/8 x 6/5 (A) 1/6 (B) 13/20
(C) 11/20 (D) 9/4 (E) 3/5
42. Make c the subject of the equation: a(b + c) +
(5/d) – 2
(A) ad – b + 2d (B) ab + 5 – 2d (C) 2d – 5 – ad (D) 2d
– 5 – adb (E) None
43. On each market day Mrs. Bassey walks to the
market from her home at a steady speed. This
journey normally takes her 2 hours to complete. She
finds, however, that by increasing her usual speed
by 1km/hr she can save 20 minutes. Find her usual
speed in km/hr.
17 | P a g e
(A) 12/3 (B)2 (C)5 (D)6 (E)10
44. The ratio of the areas of similar triangles is
necessarily equal to
(A) The ratio of the corresponding sides
(B) The ratio of the squares on corresponding sides
(C) The ratio of the corresponding heights of the
triangles
(D) half the ratio corresponding heights of the
triangles
(E) the ratio of the corresponding bases to the heights
of the triangles.
45. A man and wife went to buy an article costing
N400. the woman had 10% of the cost and the man
40% of the remainder. How much did they have
altogether? (A) N 216 (B) N200
(C) 184 (D) N 144 (E) N100
46. The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as
follows:
6,9,5,7,6,7,5,8,9,5,7,5,8,7,5,6,5,7,6,9,9,7,8,8,7,8,9,8,
the mode is (A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7 (E) 10
47. What factor is common to all the expressions x2
–x, 2x2 + x -1 and x217
(A) x (B) x – 1 (C) x + 1 (D) No Common Factor (E)
(2x – 1)
48. Simplify log 10 0 – log 10 4 (A) Log102 (B)
Log108 (C) 0 (D)Log104 (E)1 log104-log102
49. If f(x – 2) = 3x2 + 4x+ 1. find f(1) (A) 8 (B) 40 (c)
7 (d) 32 (e) 21
50. Given that p:g = 1/3: 1/2 and q:r = 2/5: 4/7, find
p:r (a) 4:105 (B) 7:15 (C) 20:21 (D) 2:36
51. If x is jointly proportional to the cube of y and
the fourth power of z. in what ratio is x increased or
decreased when y is halved and z is double?
(A) 4:1 increase (b) 2:1 increase
(c) 1:4 decrease (d) 1:1 no change
(e) 3:4 decrease
 52. If x + 2 and x – 1 are factors of the expression Lx3
+ 2kx2 +24, find the values of L and k.
(A) L = 6, k = -9 (b) L=- 2, k = 1
(C) L = 2 k = -1 (D) L = 6, k = 1
(E) L = 6, k = 0
53. The value of (0.03)3 – (0.02)3 is
(A) 0.019 (B) 0.0019 (C) 0.00019
(D) 0.000019 (E) 0.000035
54. PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as
diameter of the circle. If <PQS = 150 find <QRS
(A) 750 (b) 371/ 20 (c) 127 1/ 20 (D) 1050 (e) none
of the above
55. Which is the values of the variable x, (a)x = 3,
(C)x = 9, satisfy the inequalities 0 <x + 3< 2? X – 1
A. (a), (b), (c), B. (b) c only C. (c) only D. none of (a),
(b), (c) E. none of the choices above
56. Write down the number 0.0052048 correct to
three significant figures
A. 0.005 B 0.00052 C. 0.00520 D. 5.2048 E. 5204
57. P and Q are fixed points and x is a variable point
which moves so that angle PXQ = 450 what is the
locus of X? (A) A pair of straight lines parallel to PQ
(B) the perpendicular bisector of PQ
(C) an are of a circle passing through P and Q
(D) a circle with diameter PQ
(E) the bisector of angle PXQ
58. A sector of a circle is bounded by two radii 7cm
long and are length 6cm. find the area of the sector.
A. 42cm2 B.3cm2 C.21cm2
D. 24cm2 E 12cm2
59. The currency used in a country is <matimalik<
(M) and is of the base seven. A lady in that country
bought 4 bags of rice at M56 per bag and 3tins of
milk at m4 per tin. What is the total cost of the items
she bought?
A. M246 (7) B. M242 (7)
C. M236 (7) D. M336 (7)
60. If 0.0000152 x 0.00042 = A x 108, where 1< A
<10, find A and B
(A) A=9, B=6.38 (B) A=6.38, B = -9
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(C) A=6.38, B=9 (D) A=6.38, B=-1
(E) A=6.38, B=1
PHYSICS
61. Which of the following is true for the image
formed by a convex mirror?
I. The image is always virtual II. The image is always
erect III. The image is never magnified
IV. The image is never magnified V. the focal length
is negative
A. I only B I and II only C. II and III only D I, II, III and
IV only E All five
62. Which of the following statement is true? The
reading of pressure on mercury diameter is
independent of: (A) the cross sectional area of the
tube
(B) the atmospheric pressure of the tube
(C) the density of mercury
(D) the temperature of mercury
(E) the acceleration due to gravity
63. In electrolysis experiment, a cathode of mass 5g
is found to weight 5.01g after a current of 5 A flows
for 50sec. what is the electrochemical equivalent of
the deposited substance?
(A) 0.00004g/C (B) 0.00002g/C
(C) 0.02500d/C (D) 0.05000g/C
(E) 0.00001g/C
64. A capacitor and a resistor are connected in
series with each other and in negligible internal
resistance. The potential difference across the
terminals of the capacitor is:
(A) twice the e.m.f of the accumulator
(B) less than the E.M.F by the potential drop across
the resistor
(C) zero
(D) the same as the e.m.f
(E) greater than the e.m.f
 65. A weight of 1000 grams hangs from a lever 20cm
to the right of the fulcrum. At the left is 500 gram
weight 20cm from the fulcrum, and a 200gram
weight x cm away from the fulcrum. What is the
value of x that will make the lever balanced? (A)
50cm (B) 20cm (C) 10cm (D) 30cm (E) 70cm
66. A magnetic needle is suspended first at earth‘s
north magnetic pole and at a point on the magnetic
equator, the respective angles between the needle
and the horizontal are:
(A) 00 and 00 (B) 600 and 600 (C) 900 and 900 (D)
900 and 00 (E) 00 and 900
67. Which of the following Is NOT a vector quality?
(A) Force (B) altitude (C) weight
(D) displacement (E) acceleration
68. A man of mass 50kg ascender a flight of stairs 5m
high in 5 seconds. If acceleration due to gravity is
10m/s2: (A) 100w (B) 200w (C) 250w (D) 400w (E)
500w
69. A body rolls down a slope from a height of 100m.
Its velocity at the foot of the slope is 20m/s. what
percentage o it essential potential energy is
converted into kinetic energy:
(A) 40% (B) 35% (C)20% (D)15%
70. As a result of air at the top of a barometer the
height of the mercury column is 73.5cm when it
should be 75.0cm the volume of the space above the
mercury is 8.0cm3. Calculate the correct barometric
height when the barometer reads 74.cm and the
volume of the space above the mercury is 6.0cm3.
(A) 72.0cm (B) 74.5cm (C) 75.1cm
(D) 76.0cm
71. 22,000J of heat is required to raise the
temperature of 1.5kg of paraffin from 200C to 300c.
Calculate the specific heat capacity of paraffin:
(A) 14666jkg-10C- 1 (B) 2933 jkg-10C- 1 (C) 40400
jkg-10C- 1 (D) 5886jkg-10C – 1
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72. An object is placed 30cm from a concave mirror
of focal length 15cm. the linear magnification of the
image produce is:
(A) 0 (B) 2/3 (C)1 (D) 2 (E) 3
73. An electric cell has an internal resistance of
20hm. A current of 0.5A is found to flow when a
resistor of 50hms resistance is connected across it.
What is the electromotive force of the cell
(A) 5volts (B) 3.5volts (C) 2.5volts (D) 1 volt (E) 10
volt
74. A concave lens of focal length 20cm forms an
image ½ the size of the object. The object distance
is;
(A) 150cm (B) 100cm (C) 60cm
(D) 60cm (E) None of the above
75. Which of the following electromagnetic waves
length?
(A) Radio wires (B) x –rays
(C) infra-red (D) blue light
(E) ultra violet
76. Which of the following statements is correct?
Silvered walls of a vacuum flask are used to prevent:
(A) Heat loss due to conduction
(B) vacuum loss
(C) heat entry into the inner flask due to convection
(D) heat loss due to radiation
(E) heat loss due to t convection
77. The point beyond which a stretch spring does
not return to its original length is called the:
(A) Breaking point (B) elastic limit
(C) spring constant (D) elasticity point
(E) release point
78. The range of wavelengths of visible spectrum is
400nm – 700nm the wavelength of gamma rays is:
(A) Longer than 700nm
(B) shorter than 700nm but longer than 400nm
 (C) 550nm
(D) shorter than 400nm
(E) infinite
79. Which of the following arrangements in the
sequence show can be used to obtain a pure
spectrum of white light?
(A) source, slit, converging lens, prism, converging
lens, screen,
(B)source slit, diverging lens, prism, diverging lens,
screen
(C) source, converging lens, prism, diverging lens,
screen
(D) source, slit, diverging lens, converging lens,
screen
(E) source, slit, prism, diverging lens, screen
80. The mechanical advantage (MA) of an inclined
plane depends on:
(A) Its length (B) its height (C) the product of its
length and height (D) the ratio of its length to its
height.
SOLUTION TO POST UME 2005/2006
ENGLISH
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. E
7. D 8. B 9. A 10. D 11 C 12 B
13. D 14 A 15 A 16 E 17 D 18 D
19. B 20 B
21. Nitrogen, carbon dioxide and the rare gases. E
22. Cracking C 23. A
24. They satisfy the octet for stability of their
electric configuration
25. Molar mass of propyne (CH3CCH) = (12 + 3+ 12
+ 12 +1)g = 40g
Mole = mass = 2 = 0.05mole molar – mass 40
CH3CCH + HBrCH3CHCHBr
Required mass of HBr = mole * mass = 0.05 * (1+
80)= 4.1g = A
26. If the gas is heated the molecules acquire more
kinetic energy, thereby increasing the pressure A
20 | P a g e
27. The particles collide with each other E
28. STV 29. B
30 Din electrovalent compounds; valence
electrons are transferred not shared
31. =CConc. H2SO4 acid is able to remove
elements of H2 and oxygen in the form of water
from the compound of sugar: C12h22O11 12C (-
11 H2O in the presence of H2SO4)
32. D 33. D 34. B
35. By Gay-Lussac‘s law of combining volumes
2H2 + O2 2H2O
2:1:2
40 : 20 : 40
Residual gas = 10cm3 of unreacted hydrogen +
40cm3 of steam formed = 50cm3=A
36. Ammonia carbonate decomposes to liberate
ammonia, CO2 and H2O=E
37. PG + PW = PT pressure of gas PG = 752 =
720mmHg from the ideal gas equation we have
that:
P1V1=P2 V2thus 720 x500 = 760 x V2 V2 =
427cm3
T1 T2 303 273
38. = E Metals ionize by electron loss, while non –
metals ionize by electron gain
39. 2H2+ O2 2H2O = E 40 B
41. 25/12 – 17/8x 6/5 = 29 -15 x 6 = 29 – 9 = 1 =
A
12 8 5 12 4 6
42. a (b + c) + (5/b) – 2 multiply both sides by d
then simplify ad(b + c) + 5 – 2d = 0 =>adb + adc +
5 – 2d put the expression with c on the LHS. adc =
2d – 5 – adb thus c =2d -5 – adb ad
= 1/3 hrs Time(T) 2
 The time on second trip = 2 – 1 = 5hrs 3 3 71. MC.p(02 – 01) = 22000 Thus Cp= 22000 1.5(30 -
5 + 5S = 6S and we find that S = 5 = C 20) 1466.67JKg -10C– 1 = A
44. B the ratio of the squares on corresponding sides 72. m = v = 30 =2 = D f 15
45. 10% of N400 = thus remainder is 400 – 40 = 360 E = 1 (R+ r) = 0.5(5+2) E = 3.5volts = B
40% of N360 N144 and the total = N184 = C 74. Using 1 = 1 + 1, 1 = 1 + 1 , 1 = 2 + 1 , 1 =3 fu v 20
46. Mode is most occurring i.e. highest frequency = 7 ½ v v20 v v 20 v hence v =60cm = C
=D 75. B 76. D 77. B 78. D 79. STV 80. STV
47. x2 – x = x(x – 1) 2x2 + x – 1 = (2x – 1)(x + 1) x2 –
1 = (x + 1)(x – 1) No common factor = D
48. Log 100 – log, 4 = log10 (0/4)= 0 = C
Log104 – log102 log10 (4/2)
49. Put f (x – 2) = f (1) then x – 2 – 1 gives x = 3
From 3x2 + 4 x +1= 3 (32) + 4 (3) + 1 = 27 + 12 +1 =
40 B
50. P:g – 1/3: ½ and q:r = 2/5: 4/7
R = q => 3p = 2p and q = 3p
1/3 ½ 2
P = r =>3/2p = 7r
2/5 4/7 2/5 4
15p = 7r = >p = 7 thus p:r = 7:15 = B 4 4 r 15
51. Mathematically X1 = ky3Z4 and X2 = K (y/2)3
(2Z)4
X2 = k x y3x 16 z4 = 2ky3z4
X2 = 2y3 z4 = 2 thus x2: x1= 2: 1 = B
X1 y3 z41
52. Lx3 + 2kx2 +24 when x + 2 is a factor then we
can put x – 2; L(-2)3 + 2k(-2)2 +24 =0thus – 8L + 8k
+24 = divided through by 8 to get k – L = -3. When x
– 1 is a factor then we can put x = 1 L(1)3 + 2k(2)2 +
24 = L + 2k = -24 solving the two gives 3k = -27 and
k=9
Also from k – L = - 3; - 9 – L =3 thus L= -6
Hence k = -9 and L = -6 =A
53. D 54. A 55. C 56 57. C
58. Length of are
59. STV 60. STV 61. E 62 B
63 Mass of deposited substance (M) = M2 – M1 =
(5.01 5)g = 0.01g
From M = Z I T we say Z = M = 0.01= 0.01
0.00004g/C = A
IT 5x50 250
64. STV 65. A 66. D 67. B
68. Since answers are given in W, we assume that
the question requires us to find power whose units
is W force (F) = Ma = 50 x 10 -500N Work down (W)
= Force Distance = 500x 5 =2500J
Power is the rate of doing work = W = 2500 = 500 =
Et5
69. K.E x 100 = 1/2MV2 x 100 = ½ x 20 x 100 P.E
mgh 10x 100 70. STV

21 | P a g e
 UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2008/2009 POST UME
SCREENING
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS: SHADE THE
ANSWER
SHEET AS APPROPRIATE WITH HB PENCIL
ONLY
1. You are driving - fast for my liking
(A) too (B) very (C) pretty (D) fairly
2. You have given me one orange - many
(A) very (B) so (C) too (D) more
3. The upholstery work doesn't go - the colour of the
car
(A) after (B) by (C) with (D) for
4. I became depressed - hearing the news (A) at (B)
with (C) as (D) on
5. He was punished for failing - his duty as a prefect
of the school
(A) on (B) about (C) with (D) in
6. Good discipline was instructed - the success
achieved by the college
(A) for (B) to (C) in (D) with
7. It was quite dark in the room - we couldn't see (A)
so (B) because (C)through (D) yet
8. He needed work so late - he
(A) does (B) needs (C) did (D) need
9. If I had known he would come, I - have gone to
meet him
(A) may (B) will (C) should (D) must
10. He - thirty when I first met him
(A) must have been (B) will have
(C) ought to be (D) must have to be
11. Where is that brother of- now?
(A) you (B) yours (C) our (D) your
12. Someone told me where it was, but I can't
remember –
(A) whom (B) it (C) who (D) didn't
22 | P a g e
From the list of words choose the one that best
completes each sentence from 1 to 15
13. I guessed it was going to rain— ? (A) did I (B)
was it (C) wasn't it (D) didn't I
14. Would you like the door — ?
(A) close (B) closes (C) closed
(D) closing
15. You shouldn't put off- the assignment
(A) to do (B) to have done (C) having done (D) to
have been
Choose the word(s) that is/are nearly
composite in meaning to the underlined word
and which correctlyfill the blank in the
sentence. From 16 to 20
16. The able-bodied should take care of the ---
(A) feeble (B) weak-minded (C) suffering (D) soft-
hearted
17. The chairman ordered him either to withdraw
or to – his allegations
(A) affirm (B) draw (C) express
(D) complete
18. He shows plenty of good-willto his neighbours,
but they bear nothing except - towards him
(A) bad luck (B) malice (C) anger
(D) unhappiness
19. I supported you said but I - the way you said it
(A) argued about (B) objected to
(C) interfered with (D) investigated
20. Though many of us were poor quite a few were
(A) arrogant (B) prodigal (C) affluent
(D) Luxurious
 21. Homologous pairs of chromosomes separate
during
(A) cytolysis (B) cleavage (C) mitosis (D) meiosis
22. An example of caryopsis is
(A) guava (B) maize grain (C) coconut (D) tomato
23. The response of plants to external stimuli in a
non-directional manner is known as
(A) tactic movement (B) phototropism (C)
geotropism (D) nastic movement
24. The most important hormone that includes the
ripening of fruit is
(A) ethylene (B) indole acetic acid (C) gibberallin
(D) cytokinin
25. One example of fossil fuels is
(A) limestone (B) coral (C) coal (D) firewood
26. The most effective method of dealing with non-
degradable pollutants is by
(A) dumping (B) recycling
(C) incineration (D) burying
27. Mycorrhiza is an association between fungi and
(A) protozoan (B) roots of highest plants (C)
bacteria (D) filamentous algae
28. A limiting factor in a plant population near a
chemical factory is likely to be
(A) light (B) humidity (C)wind (D)pH
29. Soil fertility can best be conserved and renewed
by the activities of
(A) earthworms (B) man (C) rodents (D) microbes
30. The pioneer organisms in ecological succession
are usually the
(A) mosses (B) ilohens (C) ferns
(D) algae
23 | P a g e
31. The type of reproduction that leads to variant in
animal and plant populations is
(A) budding (B) sexual (C) vegetative (D) asexual
32. An insect with a mandibulate mouth part will
obtain its food by
(A) biting and chewing
(B) chewing and sucking (C) chewing
(D) sucking
33. Spines and shells on animals are adaptations of
(A) camouflage (B) chemical defence (C) physical
defence (D) minicry
34. The rods in the retina of the eye are examples of
(A) cells (B) tissues (C) organs (D) systems
35. A plant-like feature in Euglena is the
(A) pellicle (B) pigment spot (C) large spot (D) gullet
36. The larval stage of mosquito is called (A) wriggler
(B) grub (C) maggot (D) caterpillar
37. A peculiar characteristic of mammals is that they
(A) have teeth (B) are warm-blooded
(C) have lungs (D) have sebaceous glands
38. The gall bladder of a mammal has a duct
connected to the
(A) liver (B) duodenum
(C) small intestine (D) pancrease
39. Rodent gnaw in food with their
(A) molar teeth (B) strong jaws
(C) flat-ridged teeth
(D) chisel-like front teeth
40. An example of a radically symmetrical organism
(A) planarian (B) hydra (C) tapeworm (D)
roundworm
 41. Find the slope of the curve y = 2x2 + 5x - 3 at
(1,4) (A) 4 (B) (C) 7 (D) 9
42. Determine the maximum value of y = 3x - x (A) 0
(B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
43. By how much will the mean of 30, 56, 31, 55, 43
and 44 less than the median
(A) 0.75 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.17
44. The range of 4, 3, 11,9, 6, 15, 19, 23,27, 24, 21
and 61 is (A) 16 (B) 21 (C) 23 (D) 24
45. The mean of the numbers 3, 6, 4, x and 7 is 5,
Find the standard deviation
(A) V2 (B) V3 (C)
46. Find the remainder when 3x3 + 5x2 - 1 Ix + 4 is
divided by x + 3. (A) 4 (B) 1 (C) -1 (D) -4
47. What are the integral values of x which satisfy
the inequality -1<3 - 2x < 5?
(A) 2, 1,0,-1 (B)-1,0, 1,2 (C)- 1,0,1 (D) 0,1,2.
48. Find the derivative of (2 + 3x)(l - x) with respect
to x.
(A) 6x - 1 (B) 1 - 6x (C)6 (D) -3
49. Find the derivative of the function y = 2x2(2x -
1) at the point x = -1
(A) -6 (B) -4 (C) 16 (D) 18
50. Find the mean deviation of 1, 2, 3 and 4
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5
51. Find the value of t if the standard deviation of
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
52. In how many ways can 6 coloured chalks be
arranged if are of the same colour?
(A) 60 (B) 120 (C)240 (D) 360
53. A final examination requires that a student
answers any 4 out of 6 questions. In how many ways
can this be done?
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 45
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54. If the mean of five consecutive integers is 30, find
the largest of the numbers
(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D)34
55. A bag contains 5 black, 4 white and x red marbles.
If the probability of picking a red marble is 2/5 find
the value of x
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 4 (D) 6.
56. For what values of n is n+1 C3 = 4(nC 3)? (A)6 (B)
5 (C) 4 (D) 3
57. Find the roots of x3 - 2x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
(A) 1,2, -3 (B)-l,2, 3 (C)-l,2,-3 (D) 1,-2, 3
58. Find the value of k if the' expression kx3 +x2 - 5x
– 2 leaves a remainder 2 when divided by 2x + 1
(A) 10 (B) 8 (C) -10 (D) -8
59. If y = x2 - x –12 find the range of values of x for
which y > 0.
(A) x< -3 or x > 4 (B) x < -3 or x > 4
(C) -3 < x < 4 (D) -3 < x < 4
60. How many terms of the series 3, -6, +12, -24 + ...
are needed to make a total of 1 -28?
(A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 9 (D) 8
61. The wavelength of the first overtone of a note in a
closed pipe of length 33cm is
(A) 44cm (B) 33cm (C) 22cm (D) 17cm
62. None-luminous objects can be seen because they
(A) are polished (B) are near
(C) reflect light (D) emit light
63. The correct unit of energy density is
(A) kg m-3s-2 (B) kg m-1s-2
(C) kg m3s-2 (D) kg m2s-2
 64. The motion of smoke particles from a chimney is
typical of
(A) oscillatory motion (B) rotational motion (C)
circular motion (D) random motion
65. One of the properties of gamma rays is that they
are
(A) negatively charged (B) massive
(C) neutral (D) positively charged
66. The process whereby the molecules of different
substances moves randomly is called
(A) surface tension (B) diffusion
(C) capillarity (D) osmosis
67. The process whereby a liquid turns
spontaneously into vapour is called
(A) evaporation (B) regelation (C) boiling (D)
sublimation
68. The velocity of sound in air will be doubled if its
absolute temperature is
(A) doubled (B) halved
(C) constant (D) quadrupled
69. A thin converging lens has a power of 4.0
diopters, determine its focal length
(A) 0.25m (B) 0.03m (C) 5.00m (D) 2.50m
70. An electric device is rated 2000W, 250V. The
correct fuse rating of the device is
(A)8A (B)9A (C)7A (D) 6A
71. Satellite communication network makes use of
(A) infra-reds (B) sound wave (C) visible light (D)
radio wave r
72. If two inductors of inductances 3H and 6H are
arranged in series, the total inductance is
(A)18.0H (B)9.0H (C) 2.0H (D) 0.5H
73. The current in a reverse-biased junction is due
to
25 | P a g e
(A) electrons (B) majority carriers
(C) holes (D) minority carriers
74. In an a.c circuit that contains only a capacitor, the
voltage lags behind the current by
(A) 90° (B) 180° (C)600 (D) 300
75. The ray which causes gas molecules to glow is
known as
(A) molecular ray (B) gamma ray
(C) anode ray (D) cathode ray
76. The charge carriers in gases are
(A) ions only (B) electrons and holes
(C) electrons only (D) electrons and ions
77. Which of the following materials is a conductor?
(A) plastic (B) sodium
(C) wax (D) glass
78. The instrument used for securing a large number
of similar charges by induction is called
(A) capacitor (B) electrophorous (C) electroscope
(D) proof-plane.
79. The pitch of a sound note depends on
(A) timbre (B) harmonics (C) quality (D) frequency
80. In which of the following material media would
sound travel fastest?
(A) water (B) oil (C) metal (D) gas
81. The shape of the s-orbital is
(A) spherical (B) elliptical (C) spiral (D) circular
82. A carcinogenic substance is (A) Asbestos dust (B)
saw dust (C) nitrogen (II) oxide(D) carbon (II) oxide
83. In the electrolysis of brine the anode is
(A) platinum (B) copper (C) zinc (D) carbon
 84. Which of the following halides has the highest
entropy value (A) HF (B) HC1 (C) HBr (D) HI
85. The allotrope of carbon used in the
decolourization of sugar is
(A) graphite (B) soot (C) charcoal (D) lampblack
86. Sulphur (IV) oxide bleaches by
(A) reduction (B) oxidation (C) hydration
(D) absorption
87. Aluminum hydroxide is used in the dyeing
industry as a (A) salt (B) dye (C) mordant (D)
dispersant
88. An isomer of C5H12 is
(A) Butane (B) 2-methybutane
(C) 2-methylpropanc (D) 2-ethylbutane
89. Vulcanization involves the removal of (A) A
monomer (B) The single bond (C) The double bond
(D) a polymer
90. Phenolphthalein in acid solution is
(A) red (B) orange (C) colourless (D) yellow
91. When iron is exposed to moisture and it rusts,
the value of G for the reaction is
(A) neutral (B) zero (C) positive (D) negative
92. A substance that is used as a ripening agent for
fruits is
(A) Ethene (B) propene (C) Methane
(D) Butane
93. The shape of the hydrocarbon compound CH4 is
(A) square plannar (B) plannar (C) linear (D)
tetrahedral
94. Sugar is separated from its impurities by
(A) precipitation (B) crystallization
(C) distillation (D) evaporation
95. The component of an atom that contributes least
to its mass is the
(A)proton (B) nucleus (C) neutron (D) electron
26 | P a g e
96. An element will readily form an electrovalent
compound if its electron configuration is (A) 2, 8, 1
(B) 2,8,4 (C) 2, 8, 8 (D) 2, 8, 5
97. The most suitable metal that can be used as a
lightening conductor is
(A) silver (B) copper (C) iron
(D) aluminum
98. The most abundant element on the earth's crust
is (A) Nitrogen (B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen (D) fluorine
99. Metalloids are also referred to as
(A) semi-metals (B) metals (C) colloids (D) non-
metals
100. The ores that can be concentrated by floatation
are
(A) nitride ores (B) sulphide ores
(C) oxide ores (D) chloride ores
SOLUTIONS TO POST UME 2008/2009
1. C 8. C 15. A
2. B 9. A
3. C 10. A
4. D 11. B
5. D 12. C
6. A 13. D
7. B 14. C
16. Able-bodied: physical healthy, fit and strong in
contract to somebody who is weak or disable ANS
feeble = A
17. Withdraw: to move back or away from a place or
situation; to make somebody or something do this
ANS affirm = A
18. good-will: friendly or helpful feelings towards
other people or countries ANS malice = B
 19. Supported: to help or encourage somebody or – x) = (1 – 2.5) + (2 – 2.5) + (3 – 2.5) + (4 – 2.5) =
something by saying/showing that you agree with 10 N 4 =A
them/it ANS objected to = B 51. x = 2t + 3t + 4t + 5t = 20t
20. Poor: you should know the proper definition of 5 5 = 4t
poverty if you are a Nigerian. Affluent: having a lot of (x – x)2 = (2t – 4t)2 + (3t – 4t)2 + (4t – 4t)2+ (5t –
money and a good standard of living = C 4t)2= 10t2 N 5 2
21. C 27. B 33. C 39. D 1 and t = 1 =A
22. B 28. D 34. A 40. B 52. Since 2 are of the same colour, we have: 2x6P2
23. D 29. A 35. B = 2 x 6! = 2 x 6!= 60= A (6-1)! 4!
24. A 30. B 36. B 53. Selection entails combination thus; 6C4 = 15
25. C 31. B 37. B ways = A
26. B 32. A 38. D 54. Let the first integer of the numbers be x:
41. From the equation of a straight line: y = mx + c X= x + (x + 1) + (x – 2) + (x – 3)+ (x - 4) = 5x + 10
where m is the slope 5 5 = 30
m = y2 – – 5x + 10 = 150; 5x = 140 and x = 28
when x = 1: dy = 4(1) + 5 = 9= D dx Hence largest of the numbers is = x + 4 = 28 + 4 =
42. y = 3x2 – x3 and dy = 6x – 3x2 we that at Max. 32 = C
value dy = 0 dx dx 55. n(Black) = 5, n(White) = 4, n(Red) = x; hence
6x – 3x3 = 0; x(6 – 3x) = 0 Hence either: total = x + 9 and P (red) = x
X = 0 or 6 – 3x = 0; x = 2 or 0 = B x+9. From the question we have that; P (red) =
43. The Mean x o31 + 55 + 43 + 44 = N 6 = 43.17 2/5 thus from above
The median, after rearranging the data; 30, 31, 43, x = 2/5. 5x = 2(x + 9) = 2x + 18
44, 55, 56 x+9. 5x – 2x = 18 and x 6 = D
Median (n+1) =6 + 1 = 3 ½th position = 43 + 44 = 56. n+1C3 = 4(nC3) = (n+1)!= 4 n!
43.5 (2) 2 2
Median – Mean = 43.5 – 43.17 = 0.33 = C
44. Range = 61 – 3 = 58
=5
20 + x = 25 and x = 25 – 20 = 5 NB x = 5
-x) = 3 – 5)2+ (6 – 5)2(4 – 5)2 + (x – 5)2 + (7 – 5)2 =
10
N55=2
=A
46. From the remainder theorem; we take from x + 3
and factor out for when
x = -3. f(-3) = 3(-3)3 + 5(-3)2 – 11(-3) + 4 = 1. You
can solve this by LONG division but it is LONG OK?
Remainder
=1=B
47. -1 < 3 – 2x < 5 -1 < 3 - 2x 3 – 2x < 5
-1 – 3 < 2x -2x < 5 – 3
-4 < -2x -2x < 2
X < 2 x > -1
The integral values of x which satisfy the inequality
can be obtained from the range above. They are -1,
0, 1= C
48. y = (2 + 3x)(1 – x) = 2 – 2x + 3x – 3x2
y = 2 + x – 3x2 dy = 1 – 6x = B dx
49. y = 2x2 (2x – 1) = 4x3 – 2x2 and dy = 12x2 – 4 x 6
and when x = -1
Dx dy = 12(-1)2 – 4(-1) = 12 + 4 = 16= C dx

27 | P a g e
 3!(n + 1 -3)!3!(n – 3)! 57. f(1) = 13 – 2(1)2 – 5(1) + 6 = 0, thus (x-1) is a
(n+1)(n)(n-1)(n-2)!= 4 n(n – 1)(n – 2)(n – 3) (n – 4)! factor ad by long division we get x2 – x – 6.
3!(n -2!) 3!(n – 3(n – 4)! (x – 1)(x2 – x – 6) are factors thus we have
n(n + 1)(n - 1) = 4 [n(n - 1)(n – 2)] (x – 1) (x – 3) (x + 2) = 0
n – 4n = -8 – 1 = -9. Hence n = 3 = D X = 1, -2, 3 = D
58. kx3 + x2 – 5x – 2
2x + 1 = 0 thus x = - ½
F(-½) = k(- ½ )3 + (-½)2 – 5(-½) – 2 = 2 =>-k + 1 + 5 – 2
–2
8 4 2 simplifying further we have -k = 16 – 2 – 20 + 16
- k = 32 – 22 = 10
K = -10 = C
59. To find the range of x for which y > 0:i.e. x2 – x – 12 = 0
(x + 3) (x - 1) = 0 thus x = 3 or -4 we can plot the inequality graph for this to obtain x < 3 and x > 4 = B
60. Sum of the series = 1 – 28 = -255
r = -6/3 = -2, a = 3
sum = a(1 = r)n = 3(1 – (-2))n = -255
1=r1+2
-256 = 1 – (-2n) : and 256 = (-2n)
(-28) = (-2)n hence n = 8 = D
3 l = 132 hence l = 44cm = A
62. C 65. C 68. A
63. D 66. B
64. D 67. A
69. The power of the lens is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length and is measured in dioptres when f is in
meters.
P = 1/f => f = 1/P = 0.25m = A
70. P = IV and l = P/V 2000/250 = 8A = A 71. D
72. Since it all acts as resistance; resistance in series R = R1 + R2
Hence inductance = 3H + 6H = 9H = B
73. Reverse-biased junction (.i.e P-semiconductors) have more holes than electrons but the holes are the majority
carriers of current= C
74. Vc lags Ic by 900= A
75. D 78. B
76. D 79. D
77. B 80. D
81. The s-orbital electrons move about to produce the effect of a spherical cloud round the nucleus. Thus s-orbitals
are spherically symmetrical
82. A 88. B 94. B 100. D
83. A 89. C 95. D
84. D 90. C 96. A
85. C 91. D 97. D
86. A 92. A 98. A
87. C 93. D 99. A

28 | P a g e
 UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2010/2011 POST - UTME SCREENING
Answer all questions: shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
1. Shadows and eclipses result from the
(A). refraction of light
(B).rectilinear propagation of light
(C). diffraction of light (D).reflection of light
2. An object which is 3cm high is placed vertically
10cm in front of a concave mirror. If this object
produces an image 40cm from the mirror, the
height of the image is
(A). 0.75cm (B).4.00cm (C).8.00cm (D).12.00cm .
3. A boy looks at the image of an object in a plane
mirror. He observes two images, a main bright one
and the other faint. The observe image result from
(A). reflection only (B). refraction only
(C). diffraction and interference
(D). reflection and refraction
4. What must be the distance between an object and
a converging lens of focal length 20cm to produce
an erect image two times the object height?
(A) 2Ocm (B) 15cm (C) 10cm (D) 5cm
5. For a short sighted person, light rays from a point (A)0.26A (B)0.4lA (C)0.50A (D)0.79A
on a very distant object is focused.
(A) in front of the retina (B) on the retina by a
converging lens
(C) behind the retina by a diverging lens (D) in front obtaining
of the retina at a distance of 2F from the lens
6. When light is incident on an object which is
magenta in colour, which of the following colours
would be absorbed?
(A). red and blue (B).green only (C). red and green
(D). red only
7. In a resonance tube experiment, the effective
length of‘ the air column for the first resonance is
20cm when set into vibration by a tuning fork of
29 | P a g e
frequency 480Hz. Neglecting end effect, the velocity
of sound air is
(A). 96ms‘ (B).255ms‘ (C).340ms‘
(D). 384ms‘
8. A some wire of‘ length I 00cm under a tension of‘
ION, has a frequency of 250Hz. Keeping the length of
‘the wire constant, the tension is adjusted to produce
a new frequency of 35011,. The next tension is
(A) 5.1 N (B). 7. N (C). 14.ON
(D). I 9.6N
9. One of the properties of the earth‘s magnetic field
is that the
(A). north pole lies in the northern hemisphere
(B). geographic and magnetic meridians coincide
(C). earth‘s magnetic flux entirely horizontal
(D). earth‘s magnetic flux is entirely vertical at a
place where the magnetic dip is zero
10. There cells each of e.m.f 1.5V and an internal the
load
11. A government spokesman announced that efforts
________release of the hostages are continuing
(A). to obtain (B). obtaining (C).for obtaining (D). of
12. l know you think I‘m talking nonsense, Shehu, but
_____ you realize that I was right
(A). at one time (B). on time (C). in time (D). at time
13. The Inspector of Education who made several
trips on the bad road returned yesterday completely
_______ by fever brought down (B).putdown (C).worn
down (D).worn off
 14. The vice principal asked the students to always
_______ this answers only from the textbooks
recommended for the course. (A). look out (B).
search out
(C). look up (D). bring up
15 I know that your friend will not accept the
proposal, ________
(A). and you neither (B) and neither you (C).neither
do you (D) neither will you
16. Mark is a very handsome fellow who informs me
that he has I pretty girls
(A). a heart (B). a lip (C). an eye
(D).a check
17. Wale Agun, in creating his characters, draws
freely _______experience in life
(A) by (B) in (C) on (D) of
18. When I have an appointment with someone, I
hate waiting
(A). to be keeping (B). for (C). being kept (D). in
being kept
19. It‘s no good about the result until you have sat
form examination
(A). to worry (B). for worrying (C). worrying (D) to
have worried
20. If you don‘t want to your car to robbers, then
don‘t travel in the night.
(A). loose (B). loss (C). lose (D). lost
21. The number 25 when converted from the tens
and units base the binary base (base two) is one of
the following. (A) 10011 (B)111011 (C).111000
(D)11001 (E).110011
22. Evaluate (6.3 x l0‘)/(8 I x l0) to 3 significant
figures (A) 71J(B). 778.8 (C). 7.870 (D).8.770 (E).
88.70
23. The positive root of t in the following equation,
4t + 7tl:correct to 4 places of decimal, is
(A). 1.0622 (B)1O.6225 (C)0.1328
(D). 0.3218 (E). 2.0132
30 | P a g e
24. The difference between the length and width of a
rectangle6cm and the area is 135cm1. What is the
length‘? (A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24crn (E)
27cm
25. The first term of an Arithmetic Progression is 3
and the fifth term is 9. Find the number of terms in
the progression if the sum is 8. (A) 12 (B) 27 (C) 9
(D) 4 (E) 36
26. The difference between 4‘/ greater than the sum
of and
(A) 2328 (B).24/28 (C).5056 (D).27/28 (E). 48/56
27. Multiplyx2+x+lbyx2-x+l.
A. x1+3+2x+l B. x2x2+x+l C. x2+4x2-6x+1 D. x4-6x2-
4x+1 E. X4-x-x3-x21+I
28. A baking recipe calls for 2.5kg of sugar and 4.5kg
flour. With this recipe some cakes were baked using
24.5kg of a mixture of sugar and flour. How much
sugar was used?
(A) 12.25g (B) 6.5kg (C) 8.75kg
(D) 15.75kg (E) 8.25kg
29. The sum of the root of a quadratic equation is
5/2 and the product of its roots is 4. The quadratic
equation is
(A). 2x2 + 5x +8 = 0 (B).2x2 - 5x + 8 = 0 (C), 2x2 - 8x
+5=0
(D).2x2 + 8x -5 = 0 (F). 2x2 - 5x +8 0=> 2x2 - 5x -8 0
30. Solve the given equation (log1 x)1 - 6log, x + 9 =
0
(A). 27 (B). 9 (C). L (D). 18 (F). 81
31. In which order are the following salts sensitive to
light?
(A). AgI>AgCI>AgBr (B).AgCI>AgI>AgBr
(C).AgBr>AgCI>Agl (D).AgCI>AgBr>Agl
32. The pOH of a solution of0.25 mol dm-3 of
hydrochloric acid is
(A). 12.40 (B). 13.40 (C). 14.40 (D). 14.60
 33. MnO-4 + 8H + Y —* Mn1(q + 4H,O() Y in the
equation represents
(A). 2e- (B). 3e- (C). Se- (D). 7e-
34. Given that M is the mass of substance deposited
in an electrolysis and Q the quantity of electricity
consumed, then Faraday‘s law can be written as
(A). ZIQ (B). Q/Z (C). Z/2Q (D) M = QZ
35. 0.46g of ethanol when burned raised the
temperature of 50g of water by 14.3k. Calculate the
heat of combustion of ethanol. (0= 16, H = 1, Specific
heat capacity of water=‘4.2Jg ‗K)
(A). +33000 KJ mol‘ (B).+300 KJ mof‘ (C).-3000KJmol
(D). -3000KJmoI‘= 12,
36. Powered marble reacts faster with hydrochloric
acid solution than the granular form because the
powered form has
(A). More molecules (B).more atom
(C). larger surface area (D). Relatively large mass
37. For a reaction in equilibrium, the species
involved in the equilibrium constant expression are
(A). gaseous and solid species
(B). liquid and sod species
(C). solid and dissolved species
(D). gaseous and dissolved species
38. A phenomenon where an element exists
indifferent forms in the same physical state is known
as (A).isomerism (B). amorphism (C). allotropy (D).
isotropy
39. The substance often used for vulcanization of
rubber is
(A). chlorine (B). hydrogen peroxide
(C). Sulphur (D). tetraoxosulphate(Vl) acid
40. A gas that is not associated with global warming
is
(A)C0, (B)SO, (C)CH4 (D)H,
41. Which of the following structures is capable of
producing more tissues in the stem of a herbaceous
31 | P a g e
flowering plant? (A). epidermis (B).pericycle (C).
xylem (D). cambiurn
42. The manufacture of carbohydrates by plants
takes place only in
(A). the leaves (B). the green sterns (C).
chlorophyllous parts (D). flower plants
43. A water culture experiment, a plant showed
poor growth and yellowing of the leaves. These
maybe due to deficiency of (A).copper (B). iron (C).
magnesium (D). calcium
44. In million‘s test, when the reagent is added to a
protein fool item. a white precipitate is produced
which turns (A). blue on heating (B). yellow on
heating (C). green on heating (D). red on heat
45. Regulation of blood sugar level takes place in the
(A). pancreases (B). ileum (C). liver (D). kidney
46. Unicellular organism transport essential
nutrients directly to all parts of their bodies by the
process of diffusion because they have
(A). a large volume to surface area ratio
(B). a large surface area to volume ratio
(C).their bodies immersed in the nutrients
(D).their outer membrane made of cellulose
47. The heart of the adult frog consists of
(A). two auricles and two ventricles
(B). one auricle and one ventricle
(C). two ventricles and one auricle
(D). one ventricle and two auricles
48. In adult mammalian blood, the cell which lack
nuclei are the
(A). erythrocytes (B). lymphocytes (C).leucocytes
(D). phagocytes
49. Which of the following movements occur during
exhalations?
 (A). the diaphragm and intercostals muscles relax
(B). the thoracic cavity increases in volume
(C). the diaphragm and intercostals muscles contrast
(D). the diaphragm contrasts and the intercostals muscles relax
50. In which of the following groups of animals is the Malphigian tubule found?
(A). lizards, snakes and frogs
(B).crickets, houseflies and grasshoppers
(C). millipedes, centipedes and scorpions
(D). earthworms, roundworms and flatworms
ANSWERS:
1B 2D 3D 4 5A 68 7D 8C 9C I0D 11A 12C 13C 14C 15D16A 17C 18C 19C 20C 2W 22A 23 24C 25C 26B 27B
28C29B 30A 31A 328 33D 34D 35C 36C 37D 38D 39C 40 4lA42C 43C 44D 45A 46B 47D 48C 49A 50B

32 | P a g e
 UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2009/2010 POST –UME SCREENING
Answer all questions: shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only.
1. Which of the following is not an example of a
force? (A) tension (B) weight (C) friction (D) mass
(E) thrust.
2. A body moves along a circular path with uniform
angular speed of 0.6 rads-1 and at a constant speed
of 3.oms-1. Calculate the acceleration of the body
towards the centre of the circle
(A) 25.0ms-1 (B) 5.4ms-1 (C) 5.0ms-1 (D) 1.8ms-1
(E) 0.2ms-1
3. Which of the following is a derived unit? (A)
Ampere (B) Kilogramme (C) second (D) Ohm (E)
Kelvin
4. A boy timed 20 oscillations of a certain pendulum
three times and obtained 44.3s, 45.5s and 45.7s
respectively. Calculate the mean period of
oscillation of the pendulum
(A) 0.13s (B) 2.22s (C) 2.26s
(D) 44.30s (E) 45.17s.
5. A particular starts from reset and moves with a
constant accelerations of 0.5ms-2. Calculate the
time taken by the particle to cover a distance of
25m
(A) 2.5s (B) 7.1s (C) 10.0s
(D) 50.0s (E) 100.0s
6. A block of material of volume 2x0-5m3 is
suspended from a spring balance with half the
volume of the block immersed in water. What is the
reading of the spring balance? (Density of water =
1.0x103kg3, g=10ms-2)
(A)0.10N (B)0.25N (C) 0.30N
(D) 0.40N (E) 0.50N
7. An object is projected with a velocity of 100ms-
vertical. If the total time of flight of the projectile -1)
(A) 00 (B) 300 (C) 450 (D) 600 (E) 900
8. How far will a body move in 4 seconds if
uniformly accelerated from rest at the rate of 2ms-
27
33 | P a g e
(A) 32m (B) 24m (C) 16m
(D) 12m (E) 8m
9. If the temperature of water is gradually increased
form 00 to 40C, the density of the water within this
range (A) increases for a while and then decreases
(B) decreases for a while and then increases
(C) increases gradually (D) decreases gradually
(E) remains the same
10. The expansion of solid can be considered a
disadvantage in the
(A) fire alarm system
(B) thermostat
(C) riveting of steel plates
(D) balance wheel of a watch
(E) flitting of wheels on rims
11. A solid metal cube of side 10cm is heated from
100C to 600C. if the linear expansivity of the metal is
1.2x10-5K-1, calculate the increase in its volume
(A) 0.6cm3 (B) 1.2cm3 (C)1.8cm3
(D) 3.6cm3 (E) 6.0cm3
12. A gas has a volume of 546cm3 at 00C. What is
the volume of the gas at-1000C if its pressure
remains constant?
(A) 346cm3 (B) 446cm3 (C) 546cm3
(D) 646cm3 (E) 746cm3
13. An image which cannot be formed on a screen is
said to be
(A) inverted (B) real (C) virtual (D)erect (E) blurred
14. Longitudinal waves cannot be
(A) diffracted (B) refracted
(C) polarized (D)reflected
(E) superposed
 15. The images formed by a diverging lens are
always
(A) diminished, virtual and inverted
(B) diminished, inverted and real
(C) diminished, virtual and erect
(D) magnified, virtual and erect
(E) magnified, real and inverted.
16. In the normal use of a simple microscope, a
person sees an
(A) inverted, virtual and magnified image
(B) erect, virtual and magnified image
(C) erect, real and magnified image
(D) inverted, real and magnified image
(E) inverted and real image the same size as the
object
17. A lens of focal length 15.0cm forms an upright
image four times the size of an object, calculate the
distance of the image form the lens
(A) 11.ccm (B) 18.8cm (C) 37.5cm
(D) 45.0cm (E) 75.0cm
18. An object is placed between two mirrors which
are inclined at an angle of 1200 and facing each
other. Determine the number of images observed in
two mirrors
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5
19. In a ripple tank experiment, a vibrating plate is
used to generate ripples in the water, if the distance
between two successive troughs in 3.,5cm and the
wave travels a distance of 31.5cm in 1.5s, calculate
the frequency of the vibrator (A) 3.0Hz (B) 6.0Hz
(C) 12.0Hz (D) 27.0Hz (E) 73.5Hz
20. Which of the following have the longest
wavelengths?
(A) infra-red rays (B) gamma rays
(C) x-rays (D) ultra-violet rays (E) radio waves
34 | P a g e
21. Simplify 125-1/3 x 49-1/2 x 100 (A) 350 (B) 35
(C) 1/35 (D) 1/350 (E) 0
22. If 32x = 27, what is x?
(A) 1 (B) 1.5 (C) 4.5 (D)18 (E) 40.5
23. Express 0.00562 in standard form
(A) 5.62x10-3 (B) 5.62x10-2
(C)5.62x10-2x (D)5.62x102 (E) 5.62x103
24. Given that 1/3 log10P=1, find the value of P,
(A) 1/10 (B) 3 (C) 10 (D) 100
(E) 1000
(A) 1/3 (B) ½
correct to three significant figures?
(A) 1.18 (B) 1.3 (C) 9.03
(D) 9.44 (E) 9.46
27. While doing his Physics practical, Idowu
recorded as 1.12cn instead of 1.21cm calculate his
percentage error
(A) 1.17% (B) 6.38% (C) 7.44%
(D) 8.05% (E) 9.00%
28. Find the 4th term of an A.P whose first term is 2
and the common difference is 0.5
(A) 0.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 3.5 (D) 4 (E) 4.5
29. An arc of length 22cm subtends an angle of 0 at
the centre of the circle. What is the value of (A) 700
(B) 840 (C)960 (D) 1560 (E) 1680
30. Find the sum of the first five terms of the GP
2,6,18,
(A) 484 (B) 243 (C) 242 (D) 13 (E) 121
31. Let J be the set of positive integers. If H =
(A) H{1} (B) H is an infinite set (C) H {0,1,2} (D) H={}
(E) J<H
 32. In a class of 80 students, every student has to
study Economics or Geography, or both Economics
and Geography if 65 students studied Economics
and 50 studied Geography, how many studied both
subjects?
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 35 (D) 45 (E) 50
33. Factorize x2 + 4x – 192
(A) (x-4)(x+48) (B) (x+48)(x+4) (C) (x-12)(x-16)
(D) (x-12)(x-16) (E) (x+12) (x+16)
34. Factorize 2e2 – 3e + 1
(A) (2e-1)(e-1) (B) e+1)(2e+1) (C) (2e+3)((3-2) (D)
(2e-3)(e-1) (E)(e2-3)(2e-1)
35. Solve the equation 7y2 =3y
(A) y=3 or 7 (B) y=0 or 7 (C) y=0 or 3/7 (D) y=0 or 9
(E) y=0 or 10
36. Solve the equation 2a2–3a–27=0 (A) 3/2, 9 (B) -
2/3 ,9 (C) 3, -9/2 (E) -3, 9/2
37. A sector of a circle of radius 7cm has an area of
44cm2, calculate the angle of the sector, correct to
the nearest degree. (A) 60 (B) 260 (C) 520 (D) 1030
(E) 2060
38. If the shadow of a pole 7m high is ½ its length,
what is the angle of elevation of the sun, correct to
the nearest degree? (A) 900 (B) 630 (C) 600 (D) 260
(E) 00
39. From the top of a building 10m high, the angle of
depression of a stone lying on the horizontal ground
is 690.
Calculate, correct to 1 decimal place the distance of
the stone from the foot of the building
(A) 3.6m (B) 3.8m (C) 6.0m
(D) 9.3m (E) 26.1m
40. The bearing of a point x from Y is 0740. What is
the bearing of Y from X?
(A) 1060 (B) 1480 (C) 1640
(D) 2540 (E) 2860
41. The nucleus is considered the central of a cell
because it
35 | P a g e
(A) contains the genetic material
(B) contains the nuclear sap
(C) is bounded by the nuclear membrane
(D) is located at eth centre of the cell
42. The prokaryotic cell type is characterized by
(A) complex cytoplasm in which different regions
are poorly defined
(B) localization of different regions of the cell into
tissue
(C) collection of organelles and macromolecular
complexes
(D) simple cytoplasm with well defined regions
43. The natural tendency of organisms as they
evolve is to
(A) decrease in size (B) increase in number (C)
develop specialized structures
(D) feed indiscriminately
44. In snails, the hard calcareous shells are secreted
by the
(A) radula (B) tenidium (
C) pneumostome (D) mantle
45. The ability of the cockroach to live in cracks and
crevices is enhanced by the possession of
(A) wings and segmented body
(B) compound eyes
(C) claws on the legs
(D) dorso-ventrally flatted body
46. The caste of termite that lacks pigmentation is
the (A) king (B) worker (C) soldier (D) queen
47. The structures that prevent food particles from
escaping through the fish gills are called gill (A)
arches (B) filaments (C) rakers (D) lamellae
48. A distinguishing feature of mammals is the
possession of
(A) skin (B) scale (C) nail (D) hair
 49. Which of the following structures is capable of
producing more tissues in the stem of a herbaceous
flowering plant?
(A) epidermis (B) pericycle (C) xylem (D) cambium
50. The manufacture of carbohydrates by plants
takes place only in
(A) the leaves (B) the green stems (C)chlorophyllous
parts (D) flowering plants
51. In a water culture experiment, a plant showed
poor growth and yellowing of the leaves. These may
be due to deficiency of
(A) copper (B) iron (C) magnesium (D) calcium
52. In millions test, when the reagent is added to a
protein food item, a white precipitate is produced
which turns
(A) blue on heating (B) yellow on heating
(C) green on heating (D) red on heating
53. Regulation of sugar level takes places in the (A)
pancreas (B) Ileum (C) liver (D) kidney
54. Unicellular organisms transport essential
nutrients direct to all parts of their bodies by the
process of diffusion because they have
(A) a large volume to surface area ratio
(B) a large surface area to volume ratio
(C) their bodies immersed in the nutrients
(D) their outer membrane made of cellulose auricles
55. The heart of the adult frog consists of
(A) two auricles and two ventricles
(B) one auricle and one ventricle
(C) two ventricles and one auricle
(D) one ventricle and two auricles
56. In adult mammalian blood, the cells which lack
nuclei are the
(A) erythrocytes (B) lymphocytes
(C) Leucocytes (D) phagocytes
57. Which of the following movements occurs during
exhalation?
(A) the diaphragm and intercostals muscles relax
(B) the thoracic cavity increases in volume
(C) the diaphragm and intercostals muscles contract
36 | P a g e
(D) the diaphragm contrasts and the intercostals
muscles relax.
58. In which of the following groups of animals is the
malphigian tubule found?
(A) lizards, snakes and frogs
(B) crickets, house files and grasshoppers
(C) millipedes, centipedes and scorpions
(D) earthworms, roundworms and flatworms.
59. Which of the following is not a function of the
mammalian skeleton?
(A) protection (B) respiration (C) transportation (D)
support
60. The most reliable estimate of growth is by
measuring changes in
(A) length (B) volume (C) surface area (D) dry
weight
61. Which of the following is a physical change?
(A) the bubbling of chlorine
(B) the bubbling of chlorine into a jar containing
hydrogen
(C) the dissolution of sodium chloride in water
(D) the passing of steam over heated iron
62. In the reaction SnO2 + 2C Sn2CO, the mass of
coke containing 80% carbon required to reduce
0.302kg of pure tin oxide is
(A) 40kg (B) 0.20kg (C) 0.06kg
(D) 0.0kg (Sn = 119, O=16 C=12)
63. The Avogadro number of 24g of magnesium is
the same as that of
(A) 1g of hydrogen molecules
(B) 16g of oxygen molecules
(C) 12g of carbon molecules
(D) 35.5g of chlorine molecules.
64. If gas occupies a container of volume 146cm3 at
180C and 0.971atm, its volume in cm3 at STP is
(A)133 (B) (C) 266 (D) 292
 65. The volume occupied by 1.58g of a gas at STP is
500cm3. what is the relative molecular mass of the
gas?
(A) 28 (B) 32 (C) 44 (D) 71 (GMV at STP =
22.40dm3)
66. Equal volume of CO2, SO2, NO2 and H2S were
released into a room at the same point and time.
Which of the following gives the order of diffusion of
the gases to the opposite comer of the room?
(A) CO, SO2, NO2, H2S
(B) SO2, NO2 SO2, H2S, CO
(C) CO, H2S, SO2 NO2
(D) CO, H2S, NO2 SO2 (S=32, C=12; O=16, N=14,
H=1)
67. A basic postulate of the kinetic theory of gases is
that the molecules of a gas move in straight lines
between collisions. This implies that
(A) collisions are perfectly elastic
(B) forces of repulsion exist
(C) forces of repulsion and attraction are in
equilibrium
(D) collisions are inelastic.
68. Which of the following terms indicates the
number of bonds that can be formed by an atom?
(A) oxidation number (B) valence (C) atomic
number (D) electronegativity
69. X(g)X(g): The type of energy involved in the above
transformation is
(A) ionization energy (B) Sublimation energy (C)
lattice energy (D) electron affinity
70. Chlorine, consisting of two isotopes of mass
number 35 and 37, has an atomic mass of 35.5. The
relative abundance of the isotopes of the isotopes of
mass number 37 is
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
71. 10.0dm3 of air containing H2S as an impurity
was passed through a solution of Pb(NO3) until all
the H2S had reacted. The precipitate of PbS was
found to weigh 5.02g. according to the equation,
Pb(NO3)2 + H2S PbS +
2HNO3 the percentage by volume of hydrogen
sulphide
37 | P a g e
(A) 50.2 (B) 47.0 (C) 4.70 (D) 0.47 (Pb =207, S = 32
GMV at STP = 22.4dm3)
72. A blue solid, T, which weighed 5.0g was placed
on a table. After 8 hours, the resulting pink solid was
found to weigh 5.5g it can be inferred that substrate
T.
(A) is deliquescent (B) is hydroscopic
(C) has some molecule of water of crystallization (D)
is efflorescent.
73. The effluent of an industrial plant used plant
used in the electrolysis of concentrated brine, with a
flowing mercury cathode may contain impurities
like
(A) oxygen (B) hydrogen
(C) mercury(II) chlorine
(D) hydrogen chloride
74. The solubility in moles per dm3 of 20g of CuSO4
dissolved in 100g of water at 1800C is
(A) 0.13 (B) 0.25 (C) 1.25
(D) 2.00 (Cu = 63.5; S = 32, O = 16)
75. Smoke consists of
(A) solid particle dispersed in liquid
(B) solid particles dispersed in gas
(C) gas or liquid particles dispersed in liquid
(D) liquid particles dispersed in liquid
76. Na2C2O4 + CACl2CACO2O4NaCl. Given a
solution of 1.9g of sodium oxalate in 50g of water at
room temperature, calculate the minimum volume
of 0.1 M calcium chloride required to produce
maximum calcium oxalate using the above equation
(A)1.40 x 102dm3 (B) 1.40x10-2dm3
(C) 1.40x10-2dm3 (D) 1.40x10-2dm3
77. 2.0g of a monobasic acid was made up to
250cm3 with distilled water 25.00cm3 of this
solution required 20.00cm3 of 1.0M NaOH solution
for complete neutralization. The molar mass of the
acid is
(A) 200g (B) 150g (C) 100g (D)50g
 78. What is the concentration of H+ ions in moles
per dm3 of a solution of pH 4.398?
(A) 4.0x10-5 (B) 0.4x10-5 (C) 4.0x10-3
(D) 0.40x10-3
79. What volume of 11.0M hydrochloric acid must
be diluted to obtain 1dm3 of 0.05M acid?
(A) 4.5cm3 (B) 5.65cm3 (C) 6.76cm3
(D) 7.78cm3
80. If 10.8g of silver is deposited in a silver
coulometer connected in series with a copper
coulometer, the volume of oxygen liberated is
(A) 0.56cm3 (B) 5.60dm3 (C) 11.20dm3 (D)
22.40dm3 (Ag = 108; Cu = 64; GMV at STP =
22.40dm3)
Instruction: Choose the word opposite in
meaning to the underlined word
81. The young engineer is good at terminating other
people‘s products but has not been capable of ___
any of his own. (A) integrating (B) finishing (C)
completing
(D) initiating (E) organizing
82. The manager who expected to be given respect
was treated with ______
(A) dignity (B) scorn (C) shame
(D) cruelty (E) disloyalty
83. Those who had invitation cards were admitted
to the party while those who had none were _____
(A) barred (B) repelled (C) expelled (D) compelled
(E) restricted
84. Nobody expects him to show _____ for his
children but he certainly bestows too much
affection on them.
(A) love (B) concern (C) intimacy (D) devotion (E)
hatred
85. The challenger was crude and inexperienced in
contrast to the champion who was ____
(A) great (B) exposed (C) celebrated (D) refined (E)
strong1
38 | P a g e
From the words lettered A to E, choose the word
that best complete each of the following
sentences
86. The fishermen threw a stone into the river and
this caused a _________
(A) sprinkle (B) sparkle (C) splash
(D) spring (E) storm
87. The play was so interesting that the ____ clapped
for quite a long time at the end.
(A) spectators (B) watchers (C) congregation (D)
people
(E) audience
88. The building ____ because of weak structural
foundation
(A) tumbled (B) succumbed
(C) somersaulted (D) collapsed
(E) caved
89. The magazine was ____ by the government for an
offensive publication.
(A) prescribed (B) proscribed (C) suspended (D)
condemned (E) persecuted
90. Many people reacted to the brutal murder of the
popular journalist with strong ____
(A) indignation (B) demonstration (C) mobilization
(D) condemnation (E) accusation
From the words of groups of words lettered A to
E below each of the following sentences, choose
the word or group of words that is nearest in
meaning to the underlined word or group of
words as used in the sentence
91. It takes a great deal of stamina to run the
marathon race.
(A) courage (B) determine (C) energy (D)
intelligence (E) cleverness
92. But for the principal actor the play would have
been dull.
 (A) important (B) head (C) master (D) famous (E) main
93. An open car has no protection against the elements
(A) weather (B) emergency
(C) molecule (D) atoms (E) atmosphere
94. He was reluctant to grant my request.
(A) disposed (B) delighted
(C) reticent (D) unwilling (E) agreeable
95. The detective was perplexed when the clues in the
murder case pointed to at least a dozen different
suspects (A) surprised (B)confused (C) excited (D)
discouraged (E) disappointed
96. The military governor called a concerted effort in
solving the problems of the state.
(A) a dramatic (B) an agitated (C) a joint (D) a directed
(E) an unfailing
97. My financial situation is so precarious that very
soon I may be insolvent
(A) borrowing (B) stealing
(C) soluble (D) dependent (E) bankrupt
98. The chairman is of the opinion that accepting the
proposal would be inimical to the objectives of the
association. (A) harmful (B) relevant (C) irrelevant (D)
indispensable (E) helpful
99. The famous politician was noted for his pragmatic
approach to issues of national interest.
(A) idealistic (B) romantic
(C) compromising (D) practical
(E) inconsistent
100. Kunle is very pessimistic about our chance of
success
(A) sad (B) despondent (C) unconvinced (D) worried
(E) concerned
SOLUTIONS TO POST UTME 2009/2010
39 | P a g e
1. A FORCE is an agent that changes or tends to
change the state of rest or of uniform motion in a
straight line of a body but MASS is the quantity of
matter or stuff contained in a body = D
2. V = wr = 0.6 x 3 = 1.8m/s = D 3. = B
4. 44.3 + 45.5 + 45.7 = 45.17 and 45.17 = 2.26s = C 3
20
5. u = 0, a = 0.5ms-2, s = 25, t = ? using v2 = u2 + 2as
= 0 + 2(0.5)(25) = 25 if v2 = 25 then v = 5 now using
v = u + at we get t = v - u = 5 – 0 = 10s = C a 0.5
6. From
-1(Tg) = sin-1 (10x10) = sin-1 (0.5) = 300= B (2U)
(2x100)
7. S = ut + ½ at2 = 0 + ½ (2)(42) = 16m = C
8. = C 10 = C
– l1 = e
--
- -5 x 10 x (60 – 10) = 6.0cm3= E
12. From Charles‘s Law V1 = V2, V2 = V1T2 =
546x173
T1 T2 T1 273 = 346cm3= A
13. = C 14. C 15. C 16. B
– distance of image from lens and u – u distance of
object from lens
v = - v = 4u (any upright image is virtual and thus
negative)
From 1 + 1 = 1 we put 1+ 1 = 1 thus 3 = 1 v u f -4u u
15 4u 15
4u = 45 and u = 11.25. hence v = 4u = 45.0cm = D
18. = D 19. STV 20. C
 21. 125-1/3 x 49-1/2 x 100= 1 1/3 x 1 1/2x 100 = 1 same number of molecules. N = 6.022 x 1023 units
x1x1=1 of a specified item. H2 = 2.02, O2 = 32.00, Cl2 =
125 49 5 7 35= C 70.91 = C
22. 32x = 27 and 27 = 33 64. Using P1V1 =P2V2 thus V2 = 0.971 x 146 x 273
2x = 3 and x = 3/2 = 1.5= B T1 T2 1 x 291 = 133 = A
23. 5.62 x 10-3= A 65. Using PV = nRT but n m/M where m = given
24. 1/3 log10P = 1thus log10 P1/3 = 1 = log101 mass and M = Molar mass
P1/3 = 10 so P = 103 = 1000 = E PV = m RT and M = mRT = 1.58 x 8.314 x 272
25. log8½ = ½ = B log 81 M PV 101325 x 5 10-4= 71= D
26. Log x = 2.3675, log y = 0950 66. CO2 = 12 + 2(16) = 44 NO2 = 14 + 2(16) = 46
X + y = logx x log y = 2.3675 x 0.9750 = 2.3083 = SO2 = 32 + 2(16) = 64 H2S = 2(1) + 32 = 34
2.31 (3s.f) = B The order should be: H2S, CO2, NO2 SO2
27. 1.21 – 1.12 = 0.09 x 100% = 9% = E 67. = A 68. B
28. U4= ?, a = 2, d = 0.5 Using Un = a + (n – 1)d X(g)X- (g) Z. Electron affinity
U4 = 2 + (4 – 1) 0.5 = 2 + (3) 0.5 = 3.5 29. STV 70. K x 37 (100 – K) x 35 = 35.5
30. Sn = a (rn – 1) =2(35 – 1) = 2(242) 100 100
r – 1 5 – 1 4 = 121 = E 31. = A 0.37K + 35 – 0.35 = 35.5
- 80 = 38 = C 0.37K – 0.35K = 35.5 – 35
33. (x – 12) (x + 16) 0.02K = 0.5 Thus K 0.5 = 25 = B 0.02
34. 2e2 – 3e + 1 = e (2e – 3) + 1 = (2e – 3) (e + 1) 71. Pb (NO3)2 + H2SPbS + 2HNO3
35. 7y2 = 3y so 7y2 – 3y = 0 1 mole of H2S 1 mole of PbS
36. 2a2 – 3a – 27 = 0 thus x = 9/2 or x = -3 = E 22.4dm3(207) + 32 = 239
= D 360 360 7 X 5.02
=B X =22.4dm3 x 5.02g = 0.47dm3 239g
39. tan 69 = x/10 thus x = 26.1 = E Percentage by volume is 0.47dm3 x 100 = 4.7 = C
40. 180 + 74 = 2540= D 10.0dm3 1
41. A 46. B 51. B 56. A 72. = B 73. C
42. A 47. C 52. D 57. A 74. CuSO4 = 63.5 + 32 + 32 + 4(16) = 159.5
43. C 48. D 53. A 58. B Moles =20 = 0.125 159.5
44. A 49. 54. B 59. C
45. D 50. C 55. D 60. D
61. C 62. STV
63. Avogadro‘s Number: at the same temperate and
Pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain the

40 | P a g e
 100 0.125 and 1000 x hence1000 x 0.125 = 1.25 = C 100
75. = B 76. STV 77. STV
78. pH: The negative logarithm of the concentration (mol/L) of the H3O+ or (H+) ion; the commonly used scale
ranges from 0 – 14. pH = -log(H+) and –log(H+) = 4.398
Multiplying through by -1 gives log (H+) = -4.398
Taking antilog of both sides gives (H+) = 10-4.398 = 4.0 x 10-5 79. STV
80. If 10.8g of sulphur is deposited in a silver coulometer connected in series with a copper coulometer, the
volume of oxygen liberated is?
81. D 86. C 91. C 96. C
82. B 87. E 92. E 97. E
83. A 88. D 93. A 98. A
84. E 89. B 94. D 99. A
85. D 90. A 95. B 100. B

41 | P a g e
 UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2007/2008 POST UME SCREENING EXERCISE
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
PLEASE ENSURE THAT YOU HAVE SUBMITTED ONLINE REGISTRATION FORM BEFORE AND AFTER THE
EXAMINATION.
ANSWER ALL QUESTION TIME ALLOWED 1 ½ HOURS
Shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil Only
MATHEMATICS 11. The sum to infinity of the series 1 + ½ + ¼ +
1. Simplify 12 B. 2 - 1/8 Z. Is
2. Without using tables, the numerical value of log749 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. ½ E. 1/3
+ log7(1/7) is A. 0 B. -1 C. 1 D. ½ E. 36 12. The value of sin 3000 is A. B. ½ C. –½ E. 1
3. If x2 – 6x + 1 = 0, has coincident roots, the value of n 13. How many sides has a rectangular polygon
is A. 9 B. -9 C. 3 D. 4 E. 36 whose interior angle is 144?
4. The roots of y2 – y – 12 = 0 are A. 4, -3 B. -4, 3 C. -4, - A. 12 B. 9 C. 8 D. 10 E. 11
3 D. 4,3 E. 36 14. Simplify 272/3 x 322/5 A. 36 B. 9 C. 4 D.1/36 E.
- C. - None of the above
6. If 8x/2 = 23/8 x 43/4 the value of x is A.1 B.11/4 C. 15. The equation n2 – 16n + 64 has
15/8 D. ¼ E. ½ A. equal roots B. imaginary roots C. Distinct roots D.
7. In set theory, an empty set is represented with B. { } No roots E. None of the above
C. {.} D. A and B E. All of the above 16. The values of C for which 2c2 – 11c + 12 = 0 are
8. If A = {xeN:x2 – 3X + 2 = 0}, B = xeN: x(x – 3) = 0}, A. 4, ½ B. -4, 3/2 C. 4, -3/2 D. -4, -3/2 E. 4,3
AB us A. {3} B. {12} D. {2} E. {1,2,3} 17. Which of the following is not a surd E. None of
9. What value of x satisfy the inequality 2x + 2 < 5. A. the above
x<1 B. x<1 C. x>1 D. x>1 E. 0<x<1 18. Simplify 4 – 1 1 C. 1 - D. 4 – 1
10. If the 39th term of an arithmetic progression is 19. Solve 7/8 of 2¼ + (25/16 – 17/24) A.12/27 B.
141, what is the first term if the common difference is 15/22 C.63/32 D.48/77 E. 17/24
2 20. For what values of x and y are x + y = 2 and 2x –
A. 65 B. 141 C. 39 D. None of the above E. All of the y = 7?
above

42 | P a g e
 y = 3 E. x = -1, y = 3 C. Methyl propanone and propyl methanone
Use the following data to answer: questions 21 – D. Methyl propanonne and methyl propyl butanone
25 5. The oxide that remains unchanged when heated
6,0,1,2,6,8,2,1,5,1,4,9,6,1,5,6,5,6,8,6,6 with hydrogen is
21. The range of the values is A. 8 B. 9 C. 6 D. 7 E. 5 A. CUO B. Fe2O3 C PoO2 D. ZnO E. Ag2O
22. The sum of the numbers and the number of 6. What is the most metallic element in the set A. Na
items are B. Ar C. P D. A E. Mg
A. 85, 20 B. 85, 19 C. 80, 20 D. 95, 21 E. 80,19 7. What is the mole fraction of water in a solution
23. The mean value is A. 4.47 B. 4.0 C. 4.25 D. 4.05 prepared by mixing 12.5g of H2O with 220g of
E. 4.21 acetone?
24. The medium mark is A. 6 B. 5 C. 7 D. 8 E. 4 A. 0.817 B. 0.845 C. 0.183 D. 0.155 E. 0.205
25. The mode of the marks is A. 7 B. 6 C. 8 D. 5 E. 4 8. A consequence of global warming is:
CHEMISTRY A. Air pollution B. Wafer pollution C. Increased
1. Rhombic sulphur, monoclinic sulphur and humidity D. Flooding E. Little sunshine
amorphous sulphur are: 9. Gunpowder is made from charcoal, Sulphur and
A. Isomels B. Isotopes C. Allotropes D. Monomers E. Potassium trioxonitrate(V). The salt in the mixture
Polymorphs perform^ function of: A. An oxidant B. A reductant
2. Laughing gas is C.A solvent, D. A catalyst E. Exploder
A. nitrogen (II) oxide B. Nitrogen (I) oxide C. 10. Which one of the following group II elements has
Nitrogen (III) oxide D. Nitrogen (V) oxide E. the highest first ionization energy?
Ammonia A. Be B. Mg C. Ca D. Sr E. B
3. The correct name of the compound 11. In which one of the following compounds does
CH3CH2CONH3is sulphur have an oxisation number of +4?
A. N-methyl-propionyl amide A. H2SO4 B. H2S C. SO2 D. Na2SO3 E. H2S2O7
B. Propionyl amide 12. Which one of the following does not show
C. Methyl propanamide allotropy at room temperature and pressure?
D. Methyl propionylamide A. Nitrogen B. Phosphorous C. Oxygen D. Carbon E.
E. Propionylmethamide Sulphur
4. The name pentanone is not specific and proper 13. Cellulose and starch can classified as one of the
because it can refer to following:
A. 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone
B. 1- pentanone and 5-pentanone

43 | P a g e
 A. Sugar B. Sucrose C. hydrocarbon D. Carbohydrates
E. Fibres
14. What mass of anhydrous solution of sodium
trioxocarbonate (IV) is required to prepare 250cm3
of 0.10m solution? (Na = 23, C = 12, O = 16)
15. How many isomers can be formed from organic
compounds with molecular formular C3H8O?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6
16. Which of the following is not a property of
magnesium oxide?
A. High melting point
B. Dissolution in polar solvent
C. Pressure of ionic bonds
D. Possession of crystal lattice
E. low binding energy
17. Catalytic hydrogenation of alkenes produces
compounds with general formula
A. CnH2n+1OH. B. CnH2n+1 C. CnH2n+2 D. CnH2n-1
E. Cn(H20)y
18. Tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid is described as strong
acid because it is highly
A. Corrosive B. Concentrated
C. Reactive D. Soluble in water
E. Ionized in water
19. Which of these metals. Mg, Fe, Pb, and Cu will
dissolve in diluteHCl if air is blown through the
solution?
A. Mg and Fe only B. All the metals
C. Mg, Fe and Cu D. Mg, Fe and Pb
E. Mg, Pb and Cu. —
20. A correct electrochemical series can be obtained
from K, Na, Ca, Al, Mg, Zn, Fe, Pb, H. Ag, Au by
interchanging
A. Zn and Fe B. Zn and Pb C. Al and Mg
D. Au and Ag E. None of the above. '
21. The oxidation of CH3CH2(CH3)OH gives:
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A. 2-butanone E. Methyl butane
B. 2-butanal C. Butane D. Butanoic
22. The solubility of alkanols in water is due to:
A. Their ionic character
B. Their covalent nature
C. Ability to form hydrogen bond
D. Their low boiling points
E. Their low dielectric com
23. The gas that is not associated with global warming
is
A. CO2 B. H2 C. CH4 D. SO
24. In which order are the following salts sensitive to
light:
A. AgBr>AgCl>Agl
B.AgCl>Agl>AgBr
C. Agl>AgCl>AgBr
D. AgCl>AgBr>Agl
E. AgBr>Agl>AgCl
25. A phenomenon where an element exists in
different forms in the same physical state known as:
A. Isomerism B. Amorphism
C. Isotopy D. Allotropy E. Enantiomerism
PHYSICS
1. A piece of rubber 10cm long stretches 6mm when a
load of 100N is hung from it. What is the strain?
A. 6 x 10'2 B. 60 C. 6 D. 0.6 E. 2 x 10-2
2. Which of the following does not cause a reduction of
the surface tension of water?
A. Soap solution B. Alcohol C. Camphor D. Grease E.
Solvent
3. The amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of a body is
A. Thermal capacity B. Thermal energy
C. Specific heat capacity D. Heat lost E. heat gain
 4. Water shows anomalous behaviour
A. below 100C B. At exactly 4°C C. between 4°C and
100°C D. Between 0°C and 4°C E. Above 1000C
5. Which of the following phenomena cannot be
explained by the molecular theory of matter?
A. Radiation B. Conduction
C. Convection D. Evaporation
E. Saturation
6. A gas occupies a volume of 300cm3 at a
temperature of 27°C. What is its volume at 540C,
when the pressure is constant?
A. 150cm3. B 273cm3 C.327cm3
D. 600cm3 E. 125cm3
7. A man clapping his hands at regular intervals
observes that the echo of a clap coincides with the
next clap. If the reflecting cliff is 160m away and the
speed of the sound is 320mS-1, what is the
frequency of the clapping?
A. 2HzK B.4Hz C. 8Hz D. 1Hz E. 12Hz
8. Which of the fallowing properties is/are common
to all waves? I Diffraction II Refraction III Frequency
A. IIonly B. I and II only C.I, II and III only D. I and III
only E. II only
9. Which of the following factors affects the speed of
sound in air? I Temperature II Pressure III
Frequency
A. II only B.I and II only C. I only D. II and III only E.
Ill only :
10. When white light is dispersed by a spectrometer,
the component having the shortest wavelength is
A. Orange B. Green C. Red D. Violet E. Black
11. Shadows and eclipses result from the
A. Refraction of light
B. Diffraction of light
C. Rectilinear propagation of light
D. Reflection of light
E. Above tight
45 | P a g e
12. Which of the following media allow the
transmission of sound waves through them: I Air II
Liquid III Solid.
A. I, II and III B. I and II only
C. I and III only D. II and III only
E. Ill only
13. The power dissipated in an a.c circuit with an
r.m.s of 5A, r.m.s voltage of 10V and a phase angle of
60° is
A. SOW B. 120W C. 125W D. 25W E. 12W
14. A light of energy 5eV falls on a metal and the
electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 2eV are
ejected. The work fraction of the metal is A. 0.4eV B.
7.0eV C. 2.5eV D. 3.0eV E. 1.0eV
15. In semiconductors, the carriers of current at
temperature are
A. Electrons only B. Electrons and holes
C. Holes only D. Electrons and ions E. Ions only
16. The temperature at which water vapour present
in the air saturates the air and begins to condense is
known as
A. Boiling point B. Melting point
C. Dew point D. Triple point E. Violet light
17. Which of the following pairs is not part of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
I Radio wave II Beta waves III Gamma rays IV Alpha
rays
A. I and II B. II and IV C. Ill and IV
D. I and III E. all of the above
18. A wave of frequency 10Hz forms a stationary
wave pattern in a medium where the velocity is
20cmS-1. The distance between the adjacent modes
is
A. 15cm B. 1.0cm C. 2.0cm
 D. 5.0cm E. 6.0cm
19. The length of a displaced pendulum bob which
passes its lowest point twice every second, assuming
g = 10ms-1 is A. 0.25m B. 0.45m C. 0.58m D. 1.00m E.
1.2m
20. The inner diameter of a small test tube can be
measured accurately using a
A. micrometer screw gauge B. Pair of dividers C.
Meter rule D. Pair of vernier calipers E. meter screw
21. An object is projected with a velocity of 80ms-1
at an angle of 300 to the horizontal. The maximum
height reached, assuming g = 10m/s, is A. 20m B.
80m C. 160m D. 320m E. 40m
22. A cone in an unstable equilibrium has its
potential energy,
A. Decreased B. Increased
C. Oscillating D. Unchanged
E. Undulating
23. A car of mass 800kg attains a speed of 25ms-1 in
20 seconds. The power developed in the engine is
A. 12.5KW B. 25.0KW C. 1.25MW
D. 2.50MV E. 1MV
24. When a ship sails from salt water into fresh
water, fraction of its volume above the water surface
will
A. Decrease B. Remain the same
C. Increase D. Increase then decrease
E. All of the above
25.A machine gun with a mass of 5kg fires a 50g
bullet at a speed of 100ms-1. The recoil speed of the
machine gun is A. 0.5m/s B. 3.5m/s C. 1m/s D. 2m/s
E. 4m/s
46 | P a g e
ENGLISH
A. In the flowing questions choose the
expression or word which best completes each
sentence.
1. The student who went home without an exit has
apologized ____ his misconduct.
A. On B. At C. About D. For E. It
2. The man has atoned ___ his sins.
A. Upon B. On C. For D. At E. Against
3. I am ____ seeing your family.
A. Forward to B. Ahead to C. Forward on
D. Ahead to E. At
4. These folk tales have been landed ____ from
generation to generation
A. In B. At C. Over D. Over E. Eat
5. The young lovers first met _____ the University of
Ibadan Night dancer
A. In B. At C. Inside D. In course of E. From
6. I have not seen my house master _____ the
beginning of this session
A. From B. In C. For D. Since E. Concerning
7. Get ______ the untimely death of his son
A. Off B. By C. Through D. Over E. Eat 8.
8. If you keep playing with this door handle, it will
get ___
A. lose B. Loose C. lost D. Loosing
E. Renewed
 (B) In each of the following questions, choose
the option nearest in meaning to the underlined
word.
9. She was dressed in a gorgeous costume
A. Richly coloured B. Loose
C. Badly sewn D. Tight fitting E. Bad Colour
10. Obi's reaction is too subtle to be understood
A. Violet B. Real C. Clever D. Wild E. Cold
11. Many people are often deceived by superficial
knowledge
A. Cheap B. Shallow C. Attractive
D. Penetrating E. All of the above
12. His subjects rejoiced in the end of his tyrannical
rule
A. Cruel B. Long C. Just
D. Peaceful E. Ancient
13. Danqual is a very versatile scholar things
A. Dull B. Clever at his special field C. Interested in
many different things D. Slow E. lazy
14. Nigerian sailors are very virile
A. Strong and manly B. Vindictive C. Virtuous D.
Vicious and cunning
E. Friendly
15. I have to wade through that stream
A. Walk hurriedly B. Swain C. Toddle D. Walk with
difficulty E. Walk up
16. His rise to fame was metoric
A. Well deserved B. Very gradual
C. Very swift D. Too slow E. All of the above
17. Martha came late this morning but she gave
plausive excuse
A. Reasonable B. Very interesting
47 | P a g e
C. Detailed D. Pathetic E. Stupid
(C) In each of the following questions choose the
optio opposite in meaning to the underlined
word
18. A tentative date was given
A. definite B. A provisional
C. An amicable D. Convincing E. None of the
19. Obi was the hero of the story
A. Assassin B. Villain C. Devil
D. Criminate E. Goliath
20. The man drew a sword as people congregated
round him
A. Fled from B. Praised
C. Gathered round D. Mobbed E. Bent
21. The point you have made is quite apt
A. Helpful B. Irrelevant C. Illogical D. Insensitive E.
All of the above
22. That little boy has become quite chubby
A. Intelligent . B. Tall C. Thin D. Huge E. Large
23. The action was premeditated
A. Unplanned B. Unnecessary
C. Catastrophic D. Uncoordinated E. Good
24. The boy made flippant remark A. serious B. well-
meant C. A correct D. An expected E. Yes
25. The weather is getting warmer, so the ice should
thaw soon
A. Frost B. Freeze C. Melt
D. Escape E. Run
 SOLUTIONS TO MATHS 2007/2008 CONTINUED 320 = 2 x f x 160 thus f = 320 = 1Hz = D 2 x 160
=B 8. = C 9. C 10.D 11. C 12 A
1–r1–½ 10 x 5 x cos 60 = 25W = D
12. Sin 3000 = sin (3600 – 600) = sin 3600. cos 600 – 14. EK =hv – W
sin 600 . cos 3600 = (0 x 1/2 ) – = B W = Ek – hv = 5 – 2 = 3eV = D
13. For a regular polygon: internal angle + external 15. B 16. C 17. B
angle = 1800 But distance between adjacent nodes is 2.0/2 =
144 + x = 1800 1.0cm = B
X = 1800 – 1440 = 360
No of sides of regular polygon = 360/36 = 10sides =
D
14. 272/3 x 322/3 = (33)2/3 x (25)2/5 = 32 x 22 =
36 = A
15. n2 – 16n + 64 = n2 – 8n – 8n + 64
n = 8(twice) – Equal roots = A
16. 2c2 – 11c + 12 = 0 Using the quadratic equation
on
-(--11)2 – -96 2(2) 4
=A44
=D
––=B
– 17/24)
= 7/8 x 9/4 x 48/77 = 15/22= B
20. x + y = 2 ZZZZZZ.. (1)
2x – y = 7 ZZZZZZ.. (2) subtracting (1) from (2)
3x = 9 x = 9/3 = 3
Substituting the value of x into (1) we have 3 + y = 2
hence y = -1 = A
21. Range = highest value –lowest value 9 – 0 = 9 = B
22. (94, 21) = D
23. 94/21 = 4.47 = A
24. The Median is obtained by rearranging to order
and then picking the middle term.
0,1,1,1,1,2,2,4,5,5,5,6,6,6,6,6,6,8,8,9
The median is 5 = B
25. The mode is the most occurring value is 6 = B
CHEMISTRY
1. = C 7. D 13. D 19. A 25. D
2. = B 8. D 14. A 20. C
3. = A 9. E 15. A 21. A
4. = A 10. A 16. E 22. C
5. = D 11. C 17. C 23. A
6. = A 12. A 18. E 24. D
PHYSICS
1. Strain = elongation = L = 6mm
Original – length L0 (10 x 10)
28 = 0.06 = 6 x 10-2= A
2. = D 3. = C 4. = D 5. = A
6. Since pressure is constant: V1 =V2 T1 T2
300 = V2thus V2 = 327 x 300 = 327 = C
300 327 300

48 | P a g e
 =A
20. = D
2g 2 x 10 = 80m = B
22. = A decreased 23. B 24. A 25. STV
ENGLISH
1. = D 2. = C 3. = A 4. = B
5. = B 6. = D 7. = D 8. = B
9. Gorgeous: very beautiful and attractive; giving pleasure and enjoyment (2) of colours
clothes etc) with very deep colours: impressive ANS Richly coloured = A
10. Subtle: not very noticeable or obvious (2) (of a person or their behaving in a clever way
and using indirect methods, in order to achieve something ANS Clever = C
11. Superficial: ANS shallow = B
12. Tyrannical: using power or authority over people in an unfair and cruel way ANS cruel =
A
13. Versatile = C
14. Virile: strong and full of energy = A
15. Wade: to walk with an effort through something especially water or mud = D
16. Meteoric: achieving success very quickly = C
17. Plausible: reasonable and likely to be true = A
18. Tentative: not definite of certain because you may want to change it later ANS Definite =
A
19. Hero: ANS viliain = B
20. Congregated round: to come together in a group ANS gathered round = C
21. Apt: suitable or appropriate in the circumstances ANS irrelevant = B
22. Chubby: slightly fat in a way that people usually find attractive ANS thin = C
23. Premeditated: planned in advance ANS unplanned = A
24. Flippant: showing that you do not take something as seriously as other people think you
should ANS serious=A
25. Thaw: to turn back into water after being frozen ANS freeze = B

49 | P a g e
BIOLOGY
Indicate the correct option in each of the following questions
1. The mitochondrion consists of
A. Chemical that break up complex compounds in the cells into simpler compounds
B. Rich store of ribonucleic acid
C. Digestive enzymes and hormones
D. Protein phosphorus and
2. In Amoeba, the ectoplasm is bounded by a thin membrane known as the
A. Plasmasol B. Plasmagel C. Plasalemma D. Protoplasm
3. Centipedes are
A. Equally dangerous as millipedes B. Less dangerous than millipedes
C. More dangerous than all D. Not dangerous at all
4. Odontophore is a skeletal structure found in the phylum
A. Pisces B. Echinodermata C. Mollusca D. Amphibian
5. Cattle is the name of a structure found in
A. Lizard B. Chameleon C. Cock D. Dogfish
6. One of these is not a feature of the caudal vertebrae in a mammal
A. They possess neural canal B. Theft transverse processes axe poorly developed
C. Their neural spines are gradually lost D. There are not many articular Surfaces.
7. The inner ear has two types of coiled structures called cochlea which
A. Receive sound impulses-
B. Has sensory cells which carry impulses to the spinal cord
C. Connects to the Eustachian tube
D. Possess cells sensitive to balance
8. Viruses are the smallest known organisms and are divided into two parts the outer part and an inner part.
The outer
parts protein and the inner part is
A. Nucleus B. Vacuole C. Particle D, DNA and RNA
9. The thallus of a lichen consists of
A. A virus and a fungus B. Alga cells and fungal hyphae
C. Bacteria and fungal cells D. Soredium and basisospor
10. The palisade parenchyma is found in the
A Stem B. Leaf C. Rower D. Root
11. The tomato fruits is a very good example of
A. An aggregate fruit B. A drupe C. A berry D. A multiple fruit
12. Cremation occurs in the Red Blood cell when
A. It is placed in isotonic B. It is placed in hypertonic solution
C. Osmosis is allowed to occur D. Transpiration occurs
13. The capillaries act as Filters between
A. The veins B. The arteries C. The venules D. The arteries and the veins
14. The primary openings for gaseous exchange in a plant stem at night are
A. Opening in the cuticles B. Stomata C. Lenticels D. Branches
15. The outer membrane covering the brain is known as
A. Brain ventricle B. Anchnoid C. Pia meter D. Dura meter

2007/2008
50 | P a g e
 BIOLOGY

A. Do not have a definite shape B. Have definite shapes

C. Have cellulose cell walls D. Are very large in size when compared with plant cells
2. The attachment regions of chromosome is called.
A. Chromatid B. Centromere C. Spindle fibre D. ‗Chromonemata
3. In some Tapeworm the fertilized eggs develop into an embryo enclosed within a membrane called.
A. Onehosphere B. Zygospere C. Zygote D. Plerocerciod
4. In a Caterpillar, the last pair of eggs occurs on the last segment and they are called.
A. Larves B. Cluthes C. Claspers D. Ovopositor
5. Nuchal crest is a characteristic feature of
A. Toad B. Tilapia C. Agama D. Salamander
6. The subcutaneous layer of the mammalian skin contains
A. The outer layer, middle layer and the malphighian layer.
B. Sweat duct, sweat glands, erector and hair muscles. .
C. Sebaceous glands, nerve endings, hair follicles and blood vessels.
D. Nerve fibres, blood vessels, hair follicles and adipose layer.
7. The phenomenon whereby oxygenated blood leaves the heart through the left side and returns to the heart
in
deoxygenated form through the right is called.
A. Circulatory system B Plan of circulation C. Single circulation D Double circulation
8. The urine enters into the bladder through the
A. Urethra B. Pelvis C. Bowman‘s capsule D. Urether
9. Spirogyra cells are enclosed within cell walls that are lined by slimy substance called.
A. Mucus B. Cytoplasmic strand C. Mucilage D. Chloroplast
10. One of these is not a storage root
A. Carrot B. Onion C. Potato D. Cassava
11. A common example of a caryopsis is
A Groundnut B Sun flower C. Maize D. Tridax
12. The term ―scion‖ refers to -
A. The plant that is firmly attached to die soil
B. The mupper plant that should be united with the plant attached the ground.
C. The wounds created when a plant is grafted
D. The stem into which a bud is sintered
13. Water and mineral salts are absorbed from the soil when
A. Osmosis occurs B. Evapo-transpiration occurs
C. Photosynthesis occurs D. Wilting occurs
14. In plants, the water and mineral transported from the root hairs are used for.
A. osmosis B. transpiration C) photosynthesis D) Homostasia
15. Phototaxis is a tactic movement which
A. Takes place in response to -stimulation of Heat.
B. Takes place in response to light
C. Takes place because of chemical exchange
D. A movement carried out by the cell

ECONOMICS
1. A mathematical table that gives a relationship among many economic variable is called
a) Pie chart b) Graph c) Frequency table d) Pictograph
2. Wants in economics refers to
a) Goods meant for consumption b) Service rendered
51 | P a g e
 c) Goods and serviced desired for consumption d) Products made
3 The main importance of drawing a scale of preference is. .
a) to enable One make a rational choice b) to enable one to take a good decision
c) to enable one limit his or her need d) None of the above
4. Creation of utility yielding goods and services means
a) Production b) Consumption c) Manufacturing c) Extraction
5. If the variance for a set of scores is 7, the I standard deviation is
a)6.2 b) 1.6 c)2.6 d)3.6
6. Total changing of raw materials to finished goods ready for consumption is
a) Manufacturing b) Transformation c) Extraction d) Distribution
7. The quest to hold balances of cash is called
a) Precautionary motive b) Liquidity preference
c) Speculative motive d) Transactionary motive
8. The decentralization of resources allocation to meet the needs of a society is called
a) Socialism b) Mixed economy c) Capitalism d) Dualism
9. When elasticity of Demand is above I, the demand is
a) Elastic b) Inelastic c) Perfectly elastic d) Zero elastic
10. The bank that provides credit by lending of money to the public is
a) World bank b) Central Bank c) Mortgage Bank d) Commercial Bank
11. John has N70 to buy goods X and Y; and each cost N70. He buys X and forgoes Y. The economic
concept that
adopts this is
a) Scarcity b) Opportunity cost c) Scale of preference d) Choice
12. The exchange of commodities between Ghana and Nigeria is called
a) Multinational grade b) International trade c) External trade d) Bilateral trade
13. The role of ECOWAS is to attain
a) Multilateral trade b) Bilateral trade c) Economics elf reliance d) Regional free trade
14. The banker‘s bank is
a) Central bank b) Mortgage bank c) Commercial bank d) World bank
15. Prices of commodities are regulated by
a) Demand b) Supply c) Demand and Supply d) Advisement

GOVERNMENT
1. The adjudication of rule is the major responsibly of the
2. Which of these countries possesses an unwritten constitution?
a) France b) Great Britain c) United State of America d) Federal Republic of Germany
3. The power of emergency placed on the Federal Government in the independence constitution was first
practiced in the
a) Eastern region b) Western region c) Mid-western region d) Northern region
4. The anonymity principle of Civil service workers means that they are
a) Entitled to gratuity and pension b) Career officer
c) No credited for anything they do d) Trained for duties they perform
5. The meeting of Commonwealth Heads of State was hosted by Nigeria in
a) 1967 b) 1966 c) 1957 d) 1968
6. Capitalism supports
a) Ownership of the means of production by private individual
b) Anarchy
c) A centrally planning economic system
d) Public ownership of means of production
7. A unitary system of government is characterized by
a) weak parliament b) diffused political power
52 | P a g e
 c) high level of concentration of power d) no legislature
8. A government that has a fusion of executive and ceremonial power is
a) Parliamentary b) Presidential c) Unitary d) Oligarchy
9. The respect of individual rights and industrial revolution necessitated the development of.
a) Fascism b) Capitalism c) Socialism d) Feudalism
10. Parliament can only be dissolved by
A) Referendum B) Bye election C) plebiscite D) General election
11. The day set aside for united Nation celebration is
A) September17 B)August 10 C) May 5 D) October24.
12. A common provision in the 1963 and 1979 constitution was the
a) provision for bicameral legislation at the apex
b) political parties registration
c) indirect funding of local government by the federal
d) none of the above
13. The 1976 local Government Reform in Nigeria resulted in
a) Five-tier system of local government b) one-tier local government system
c) three-tier local government system d) six-tier local government system
14. public or corporation are financed by
a) individual funds b) taxpayer c) federal funds d) political parties
15. the duration for the appointment of the secretary by the united Nation Organization is
a) 3years b) 4years c) 5 year d) 7 year

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE (C.R.K)

1. God‘s creative strength was shown by his
a) approving that a thing be done b) making a command prefaced by ―there be‘
c) ordering the holy spirit to act d) allowing created things to evolve naturally.
2. which of these did not form part of Asa‘sreligious reform in Judah?
a) termination of male cult prostitution in the land,
b) Demolition of all the idols his father made
c) Cutting down of the image made by maacah for Asherah
d) Destruction of high places
3. Paul was grateful to God whenever he remembered Philemon in his prayer because of Philemon‘s.
a) Determination not to forgive Philemon b) Love for, and faith in Jesus
c) Lack of appreciation of Onesimus to him d) Pretended goodness
4. which of the following officials were charged by pharaoh to kill the Hebrew male children
a) Egyptian physician b) Egyptian taskmasters c) Hebrew midwives d) Egyptian soldiers
5. Jesus decided to send the multitude to buy food for themselves when it was already getting late because
a) He wanted to reveal his messiah ship
b) He knew that his words were of greater value than food
d) He know that the little food available would satisfy them.
6. Naaman the Syrian leper was healed by
a) Amos b) Hosea c) Elisha d) Elijah
7. This is my beloved son, listen to him this statement as made on
A) Baptism of Jesus b) Transfiguration
c) Triumphant entry into Jerusalem d)Ascension of Jesus
8. Jonah cried to God from the bowel of shem Sheol here implies to
a) region of darkness and death b) Tempestuous sea c) deep sea d) belly offish
9. The second account of creation was centers on the creation
a) birds b) heavens c) Deep d) plants
10. All the tribes of Israel was gathered by Joshua for his address of farewell at
a) Sinai b) bethel c) Jordan d) shechem
53 | P a g e
 11. Moses experienced the burning bush at
12. Hosea called on Israel to return to the lord by
a) Allying with Assyria b) Steadfastly loving God
c) Ensuring regular sacrifices d) following the ways of their things
13. My father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me. The ―cup‖ here means
a) Baptism b) Temptation c) Death d) Loneliness
14. The reaction of the elder brother when the prodigal son returned illustrated the behaviour of the
a) Herodians b) Pharisees c) Saducees d) Zealots
15. God created man to have dominion things.
Dominion here means
a) Mastership b) control
c) manage

GOVERNMENT
1. Government by the few is
a) Dictatorship b) Oligarchy c) Monarchy d) Autocracy
2. The primary function of the Judiciary is to
a) make laws b) protect the citizens c) interpret laws d) execute laws
3. A characteristic feature of communism is
a) free enterprise b) liberal democracy c) dictatorship d) multi-party system
4. A tax law is a
a) Private bill b) Speaker‘s bill c) Public bill d) Judicial bill
5. Nigeria is a member of
a) OPEC, NATO and ECOWAS b) O.A.U, the U.N.O and ECOWAS
c) ECOWAS, NATO and O.A.U d) The Commonwealth of Nations, OPEC and the O.A.S
6. A country made up of semi-autonomous units is
a) a confederation b) a federation c) a region d) unitary
7. Unicameralisrn refers to a
a) a two-chamber legis1ature
b) the process of secpW5ting in the legislature
c) the lower chamber legislature
d) a one- chamber legislature
8. An important function of the legislature is
a) Judicial review b) review of executive policies and action
c) lobbying d) defending government policies
9. Fascism is a system of government which
a) encourages political dissent and opposition
b) represses individual freedom and opposition
c) promotes equality
d) promotes the individual brotherhood of man
10. The 1963 Constitution of Nigeria was
a) written and flexible b) written and rigid
c) flexible and unwritten d) unitary and rigid
11. The main source of Local government finance since the 197 6 Reform has been
a) local rate b) levies
c) revenue from court fines and licenses d) the Federal government
12. Sovereignty is limited by
a) the criminal code b) decrees c) the legal system d) international laws
13. Marxism is directed against
a) state ownership of the means of production b) materialism c) The proletariat d) Socialism
14. The rule of law implies that
54 | P a g e
 a) judges interprets the law b} lawyers interpret the law
c) everyone is subject to the law d) the legislature makes the law
15. Freedom of speech in a democratic state is limited by
a) law of sedition b) law of trespass c) Press censorship d) Martial law
16. Liberalism is a philosophy underlying
a) Socialism b) Capitalism c) Feudalism. d) Nazism
17. In international relations, countries have right to
a) export Oil b) create more states
c) diplomatic immunity of their envoys d) own a police force
1 8. Political authority is normally vested in the
a) State b) Judiciary c) Government d) Armed force
19. Case-law are made by the
a) legislature b) Council of ministers c) Judiciary d) President
20. Bicameral legislatures are popular in
a) Unitary system b) Federal systems c) Con-federal system d) Rigid system
21. A flexible constitution is one that is
a) amended periodically b) easy to amend c) amendable with difficulty d) easy to interpret
22. Which of the following is NOT associated with local government elections?
a) Constituency b) Ballot box c) Electoral officer d) Ward
23. The fusion of the executive and legislative organs of government is associated with
a) Monarchy b) The presidential system c) Fascism D) The parliamentary system
24. The most important objective of political partiesis to
a) Elect their spokesman b) Lobby the government
c) Form effective national organizations have d) Control the government
25. The primary function of a pressure group is to
a) Win and control governmental power b) Elect their official
c) Influence government policy d) Organize workers to confront government
26. The Yomba traditional government system was
a) Egalitarian b) Republican c) Democratic d) Monarchical
27. The highest court in Nigeria before 1963 was the
a) Supreme Court b) High Court
c) Judicial Committee of the Privy Council d) Court of Appeal
28. Political authority refers to the
a) ability to effect political action
b) capacity to produce desired political results
c) capacity to reshape the political behaviour of citizen
d) recognized right to exercise political power.
29. The Civil service belong to the organ of government called the
a) Legislature b) Executive c) Judiciary d) Parastatals
30. Gerrymandering means
a) the second ballot system b) single transferable vote
c) the manipulation of constituency boundaries d) the tyranny of the majority
31. In Nigeria, the function of the Council of States - is
a) Judiciary b) Investigative c) Legislative d) Advisory
32. To highest policy making body of the O.A.U is the
a) Economic and Social Commission b) Council of Minister
c) General Secretariat d) Assembly of Heads of State and government
33. A society that is politically organized under a government is called a
a) Sovereign state b) Community c) National state d) Polity
34. One of the main functions of Political party is
a) Political evaluation b) Interest aggregation
55 | P a g e
 c) Political accountability d) Interest determination
35. The Political party that replaced NNDP before Independence was
a)NYM b)NCNC c) UNDP d)AG
36. The first minority state to be created in the Nigeria federation was
a) Benue-Plateau b) Cross River c) Kwara d) Mid-West
37. The committee that recommended Abuja as the new Federal Capital was headed by
a) Graham Douglas b) Mamman Nasir c) Rotimi Williams d) Akinola Aguda
B) influencing buyers at the International market to buy at high price
c) allowing member countries to produce at their discretion
d) increasing the supply of the commodities.
39. Power is understood to mean the
a) right to compel obedience b) capacity to compel obedience
c) relationship between the government and the people d) desire to seize the State apparatus
40. The executive arm of government includes the
a) Police b) Court c) National Assembly d) Senate President
41. Laws made by the Attorney-General and Minister of Justice are called
a) temporary laws case laws b) bills of attainder d) expose facto laws
42. Nigeria adopted the nineteen-state structure in
a) 1960 b) 1966 c) 1969 d) 1976
43. The OAU is founded on the principle of
a) settlement of international disputes armed struggles
b) Justifiable interference in the domestic affairs of members state
c) sovereign equality of member states
d) equal contribution by member states
44. One of the achievements of ECO WAS is the
a) eradication of colonialism b) adoption of vehicle insurance scheme
c) settlement of Liberian refugees d) respect for human rights.
45. The most distinguished characteristics of the state is
a) Government b) Population c) Territory d) Sovereign
46. In a democracy, ultimate authority resides in the
a) Electorate b) People c) Head of State d) Armed forces
47. Ceremonial and executive powers are fused in the
a) Parliamentary system of government b) Presidential system of government
c) Federal system of government d) Unitary system of government
48. Nationalism in Nigeria was facilitated by
a) the actions of the veterans of the two World wars and traditional rulers
b) the activities of Christian churches and missionaries
c) education and urbanization
d) rapid economic growth
49. An example of Nigeria‘s external Cultural relations is her
A) establishment of diplomatic relations with other nations
b) economic aid to neighbouring countries
c) exchange of students with friendly nations
d) trade interactions with developing countries
50. A hereditary an oligarchy aristocracy system of government is
a)an oligarch b) a gerontocracy c) an aristocracy d) a monarchy
51. The most important function of the executive organ of government is to
a) formulate policies b) give, assent to bills c) control foreign policy d) enforce law
52. The process of learning the norms and values with a Political system is referred to as Political
a) Socialization b) introduction c) Culture d) Participation
53. One instrument for safeguarding the rights of citizen is
56 | P a g e
 a) Judicial interpretation b) Presidential pardon
c) Legislative intervention d) Writ of habeas corpus
54. Naturalization is a process. of acquiring citizenship by
a) persons of dual nationality b) foreign visitors to a country
c) resident foreigners of good chambers d) persons born abroad
55. One of the major sources of a Constitution is
a) Opinion Poll b) Political debate c) Judicial precedence d) Executive order
56. The rule of law is a cardinal principle associated with
a) communist system b) democratic systems c) Federal system d) Federal system
57. Citizenship refers to the
a) indigenous member of a state b) legal status of a member of a state
c) highest position in a state d) Social status of a person in a state
58. Nigeria‘s relations with African countries are underscored by its policy of
a) Non-alignment b) Political diplomacy c) Afro centralism d) peaceful co-existence
59 . The two leaders that played the most prominent roles in the formation of the ECO WAS were
a) Acheampong and. Jawara b) Kounche and Senghor
c) Kerekou and Tubman d) Gowon and Eyadema
60. In the legislative process, a bill is a
a) motion accepted for debate b) motion rejected after debate
c) proposal before the legislature d) law passed by the legislature
61. The fundaments rights of citizen include rights to
a) free education, employment and freedom of thought
b) life, speech and association
c) life, liberty and property
d) association, property and social security
62. Public opinion is a view that is
c) widely publicized d) no longer a secret
a) Kebbi b) Ilorin c) Bida d) Gwandu
64. The equivalent of a commissioner at the local government level is the
a) executive chairman b) Secretary c) Councilor d)Supervisory councilor
65. Which of the following is the function of the Council of Ministers of the O.A.U.?
a) Co-coordinating the general policy of the organization
b) Directing the finances of the organization
c) Preparing the agenda of the organization‘s Meeting
e) Reviewing the functions and activities other organs of the organization
66. The structure of the Civil service is based on
a) Lateral organization b) Merit system c) Patronage system
67. One major factor that differentiates the presidential from the parliamentary system is
a) Separation of powers b) Judicial independence c) Passage of bills d) Party system
68. Centralization of power is the basic feature of
a) Federalism b) a confederation c) a presidential system d) a unitary government
69. The fees collected by local governments motor parks represent
a) levies b) fines c) income tax d) user charge
70. In Nigeria, the Council of State was first created by
a) General Murtala Mohammed b) General Olusegun Obasanjo
c) Major-general Aguyi lronsi d) General Yakubu Gowon
71. Which of the following is a founding member of the OPEC?
a) Nigeria b) Indonesia c) Venezuela d) Algeria
72. Government of the wealthy is known as
a) Plutocracy b) Oligarchy c) aristocracy d) democracy
73. The best form of government for a heterogeneous society is a
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 a) quasi federal system b) Confederal system c) federal system d) unitary system
74. Election as a political process is significant because it
a) is associated with campaigns for public office b) Facilitates the recall process
c) Facilitates constitutional change of government d) enables citizens to vote
75. The military head of state during the Third Republic was
a) General Olusegun Obasanjo
b) General Ibrahim Babangida
c) General Murtala Mohammed
d) General Sani Abacha.
76. Nigeria‘s relations with Britain were at a low ebb under the
a) Shagari Regime b) Buhari Regime c) Gowon Regime d) Babangida Regime
77. A major problem of the defunct Organization of African Unity was
a) Language barrier b) Cultural diversity c) Inadequate resources d)Ideological differences
78. The Native Authority system was most effective and successful in
a) Eastern Nigeria b) Northern Nigeria c) Mid Western Nigeria d) Western Nigeria
a) westernize Nigerians b) spread religion
c) protect Nigeria from external attack d) satisfy British economic interests.
80. The body responsible for running the personnel affairs senior local government staff in Nigeria is the
a) Local Government Service Commission b) Local Government Council
c) State Civil Service Commission d) Senior Staff Committee
81. The difference between commercialized and privatized companies is that in the former,
a) public ownership is dominant b) government subsidizes costs
c) profit motive is recessive d) private ownership is dominant.
82. A Security Council resolution requires the concurrence of
a) 1 of the 5 permanent members b) All of the 5 permanents
c) 9 of the 15 permanent members d) 3 of the 5 permanent members.
83. The political party formed in 1923 by Herbert Macaulay was
a) Nigerian Youth Movement b) National Council of Nigeria and the Cameroon
c) United National Independent Party d) Nigerian National Democratic Party
84. The pre-colonial Tiv society can best be described as
a) Republican b) aristocratic
85. Serfs are the dominated class under
a) capitalism b) socialism c) fascism d) feudalism
86. In the present day local government structure, traditional rulers play,
a) an advisory role b) an executive role c) a judicial role d) a legislative role
87. Judges of the World Court are appointed to serve for
a) five years b) ten years c) four years d) nine years
88. In Nigeria, military regimes returned power to civilians through
a) transition programmes b) constitutional conferences c) impositions d) negotiations
89. Fascism originated from
a) China b) Greece c) Germany d) Italy
90. The type of government in which an individual wealds absolute power is called
a) autocracy b) theocracy c) oligarchy d) plutocracy
91. One of the greatest advocates of socialism was
a) Baron de Montesquieu b) A. V Dicey c) Karl Max d) Adam Smiths

BIOLOGY
1. The mitochondrion consists of
A. Chemical that break up complex compounds in the cells into simpler compounds
B. Rich store of ribonucleic acid
C, Digestive enzymes and hormones
58 | P a g e
 D. Protein phosphorus and
2. In Amoeba, the ectoplasm is bounded by a thin membrane known as the
A; Plasmasol B. Plasmagel C. Plasalemma D. Protoplasm
3. Centipedes are
A. Equally dangerous as millipedes B. Less dangerous than millipedes
C. More dangerous than all D. Not dangerous at all4. Odontophore is a skeletal structure found in the phylum
A. Pisces B. Echinodermata C. Mollusca D. Amphibia
5. Wattle is the name of a structure found in
A. Lizard B. Chameleon C. Cock D. Dogfish
6. One of these is not a feature of the caudal vertebrae in a mammal
A. They possess neural canal
B. Their transverse processes are poorly developed
C. Their neural spines are gradually lost
D. There are not many articular surfaces.
7. The inner ear has two types of coiled structures called cochlea which
A. Receive sound impulses
B. Has sensory tells which carry impulses to the spinal cord
C. Connects to the Eustachian tube
D. Possess cells sensitive to balance
8. Viruses are the smallest known organisms and are divided into two parts the outer part and an inner part.
The outer
parts protein and the inner part is
A. Nucleus B. Vacuole C. Particle D. DNA and RNA
9. The thallus of a lichen consists of
A. A virus and a fungus B. Alga cells and fungal hyphae
C. Bacteria and fungal cells D. Soredium and basisospor
10. The palisade parenchyma is found in the
11. The tomato fruits is a very good example of
A. An aggregate fruit B. A drupe C. A berry D.A multiple fruit
12. Cremation occurs in the Red Blood cell when
A. It is placed in isotonic B. It is placed in hypertonic solution
C, Osmosis is allowed to occur D. Transpiration occurs
13. The capillaries act as filters between
A. The veins B. The arteries C. The venules D The arteries and the veins
14. The primary openings for gaseous exchange in a plant stem at night are
A. Opening in the cuticles B. Stomata C. Lenticels D. Branches
15. The outer membrane covering the brain known as –
A. Brain ventricle B. Mchnoid C. Pia meter D. Dura meter

BIOLOGY
Please select as your answer the correction option
A. Do not have a definite shape B. Have definite shapes
C. Have cellulose cell walls D. Are very large in size when compared with plant cells
2. The attachment regions of chromosome is called
A. Chromatid B. Centromere C. Spindle fibre D. Chromonemata
3. In some tapeworm, the fertilized eggs develop into an embryo within a membrane called
A. Onehosphere B. Zygospere C. Zygote D. Plerocerciod
4. In a caterpillar, the last pair of eggs occurs on the last segment and they are called
A. Larvae B. Clutches C. Laspers D. Ovopositor
5. Nuchal crest is a characteristic feature of
59 | P a g e
 A. Toad B. Tilapia C. Agama D. Salamander
6. The subcutaneous layer of the mammalian skin contains
A. The outer layer, middle layer and the malphighian layer
B. Sweat duct, sweat glands, erector and hair muscles
C. Sebaceous glands, nerve endings, hair follicles and blood vessels.
D. Nerve fibres, blood vessels, hair follicles and adipose layer
7. The phenomenon whereby oxygenated blood leaves the heart through the left side and returns to the heart
in
deoxygenated form through the right is called
A. Circulatory system B. Plan of circulation C. Single circulation D. Double circulation
8. The urine enters into the bladder through the
A. Urethra B. Pelvis C. Bowman‘s capsule D. Ureter
9. Spirogyra cells are enclosed within cell walls that are lined by slimy substanc e called
A. Mucus B. Cytoplasmic strand C. Mucilage D. Chloroplast
10. One of these is not a storage root
A. Carrot B. Onion C. Potato D. Cassava
11. A common example of a caryopsis is
12. The term ‗scion‘ refers to
A. the plant that is firmly attached to the soil
B. The mupper plant that should be united with the plant attached to the ground
C. The wounds created when a plant is grafted
D. The stem into which a bud is sintered
13. Water and mineral salts are absorbed from the soil when
A. Osmosis occurs B. Evapotranspiration occurs C. Photosynthesis occurs D. Wilting occurs
14. In plants, the water and mineral salts transported from the root hairs are used for
A. Osmosis B. Transpiration C. Photosynthesis D. Homostasia
15. Phototax is a tactic movement which
A. Takes place in response to stimulation of heat
B. Takes place in response to light
C. Takes place because of chemical exchange
D. A movement carried out by the cell cytoplasm

ECONOMICS
1. A mathematical table that gives a relationship among many economic variable is called
A. Pie chart B. Graph C. Frequency table D. pictograph
2. Wants in economics refers to
A. Goods meant for consumption B. Service rendered
C. Goods and serviced desired for consumption D. Products made
3. The main importance of drawing a scale of preference is
A. to enable one make a rational choice B. to enable one to take a good decision
C. to enable one limit his or her need D. None of the above
4. Creation of utility yielding goods and services means
A. production B. Consumption C. Manufacturing D. Extraction
5. if the variance for a set of scores is 7, the standard deviation is
A.6.2 B. 1.6 C. 2.6 D. 3.6
6. Total changing of raw materials to finished goods ready for consumption is
A. Manufacturing B. Transformation C. Extraction D. Distribution
7. The quest to hold balances of cash is called
8. The decentralization of resources allocation to meet the needs of a society is called
A. Socialism B. Mixed economy C. Capitalism D. Dualism
60 | P a g e
 9. When elasticity of Demand is above 1, the demand is
A. Elastic B. Inelastic C. Perfectly elastic D. Zero elastic
10. The bank that provides credit by lending of money to the public is
A. World bank B. Central bank C. Mortgage bank D. Commercial bank
11. John has N70 to buy goods X and Y: and each cost N70. He buys X and forgoes Y, the economic concept
that adopts this is
A. Scarcity B. Opportunity cost C. Scale of preference D. Choice
12. The exchange of commodities between Ghana and Nigeria is called
A. Multinational grade B. International trade C. External trade D. Bilateral trade
13. The role of ECOWAS is to attain
A. Multilateral trade B. Bilateral trade C. Economics elf reliance D. Regional free trade
14 The banker‘s bank is KKKK
A. Central bank B. Mortgage bank C. Commercial bank D. World bank
15. Prices of commodities are regulated by
A. Demand B. Supply C. Demand and Supply D. Advisement

GOVERNMENT
1. The adjudication of rule is the major responsible of the
A. Legislative B. Judiciary C. Executive D. National assembly
2. Which of these countries possesses an unwritten constitution?
A. France B. Great Britain C. United State of America D. Federal Republic of Germany
3. The power of emergency placed on the Federal Government in the independence constitution was first
practical in the
A. Eastern region B. Western region C. Mid-western region D. Northern region
4. The anonymity principle of Civil service workers means that they are
A. Entitled to gratuity and pension B. Career officer
C. No credited for anything they do D. Trained for duties they perform
5. The meeting of commonwealth heads if state was hosted by Nigeria in
A. 1967 B. 1966 C. 1957 D.1968
6. Capitalism supports
A. Ownership of the means of production by private individual
B. Anarchy
C. A centrally planning economic system
D. Public ownership of means of production
7. A unitary system of government is characterized by
A. weak parliament B. diffused political power
C. high level of concentration of power D. No legislature
8. A government that has a fusion of executive and ceremonial power is
A. Parliamentary B. Presidential C. Unitary D. Oligarchy
9. The respect of individual rights and industrial revolution necessitated the development of
A. Fascism B. Capitalism C. Socialism D. Feudalism
10. Parliament can only be dissolved by
A. Referendum B. Bye election C. Plebiscite D. General election
11. The day set aside for United nation Celebration is
A. September 17 B. August 10 C. May 5 D. October 24.
12. A common provision in the 1963 and 1979 constitution was the
A. provision for bicameral legislation at the apex B. Political parties registration
C. indirect funding of local government by the federal D. none of the above

61 | P a g e
 13. The 1976 local government reform in Nigeria resulted in
A. Five-ties system of local government B. one-ties local government system
C. three-ties local government system D. six-tier local government system
14. Public or corporation are financed by
A. individual funds B. tax payer C. federal fund D. political parties
15. The duration of the appointment of the secretary-general united nation organization is
A. 3 year B. 4 years C. 5 years D. 7 years

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE (C.R.K)

1. God‘s creative strength was shown by his
A. approving that a thing be done B. making a command prefaced by ―there be‖
C. ordering the holy spirit to act D. allowing created things to evolve naturally
2. Which of these did not form part of Asa‘s religious reform in Judah?
A. termination of male cult prostitution in the land
B. Demolition of all the idols his father made
C. Cutting down of the image made by maacah for Asherah
D. Destruction of high places
3. Paul was grateful to God whenever be remembered Philemon in his prayer because of Philemon‘s
A. Determination not to forgive Philemon B. Love for and faith in Jesus
C. lack of appreciation of the value of onesimus to him D. pretended goodness
4. Which of the following officials were charged by pharaoh to kill the Hebrew male children
A. Egyptian physician B. Egyptian taskmasters C. Hebrew midwives D. Egyptian soldiers
5. Jesus decided to send the multitude to buy food for themselves when it was already getting late because
A. he wanted to reveal his messiahship
B. he knew that his words were of greater value than food
D. he know that the little food available would satisfy them.
6. Naaman the Syrian leper was healed by
A. Amos B. Hosea C. Elisha D. Elija
7. This is my beloved son, listen to him this statement as made on
A. Baptism of Jesus B. Transfiguration
C. triumphant entry into Jerusalem D. Ascension of Jesus
8. Jonah cried to God from the bowel of Sheol here implies to
A. region of darkness B. tempestuous sea C. deep sea D. belly of fish
9. The second account of creation was centered on the creation
A. Birds B. heavens C. man D. plants
10. All the tribes of Israel was gathered by Joshua for his address of farewell at
A. Sinai B. Bethel C. Jordan D. Shechem
11. Moses experienced the burning bush at
A. Horeb B. Bethel C. Nebo D. Midian
12. Hosea called on Israel to return to the lord by
A. Allying with Assyria B. Steadfastly loving God
C. Ensuring regular sacrifices D. Following the ways of their things
13. My father if it is possible, let this cup pass from me. The ―cup‖ here means
A. Baptism B. Temptation C. Death D. Loneliness
14. The reaction of the elder brother when the prodigal son returned illustrated the behaviour of the
A. Herodians B. Pharisees C. Saducees D. Zealots
15. God created man to have dominion over all things. Dominion here means

62 | P a g e
 A. Mastership B. Control C. Manage D. Leadership

BIOLOGY

21. Encystment in Amoeba is a device to

A. Reproduce B. conserve energy
C. protect itself from enemies D. tide over unfavourable seasons
22. Which of the following is a typical feature of a mould?
A. It ingests its food B. digestion is external C. it is symbiotic
23. Which of the following is not true of bacteria they are all
A. harmful B. Amoeboid C. saprophytic D. parasitic
24. which of these is absent from a wind pollinated plant?
A. feathery stigma B. Inflorescence C. production of nectar D. abundant pollen
25. The whole of a flower are bone directly on the
A. peduncle B. pedicel C. receptacle D. Bracts
26. Which of the following sets of conditions is suitable for germination?
A. water. Light, warmth B. oxygen; mineral salts, light
C. oxygen, right, moisture D. oxygen, warmth, water
27. Which of the following explains epigeal germination?
A. Hypocotyls is formed B. Cotyledon come above soil surface
C. Cotyledons remain in the soil D. plumule pierce through the soil
28. Which of those may not be propagated vegetatively from part of the plant?
A. Onion B. Maize C. Cassava D. sugarcane29. Dead plant and animal tissue do not accumulate on the
earth‘s surface because they
A. are eaten by predators B. are washed away
C. decompose to form other substances D. sink into deeper layers of the soil
A. adrenal body productions of adrenalin B. kidney production of urea
C. Mammary gland production of milk D. pancreas production of insulin

ECONOMIcs

1. A major liability of a commercial bank arise from

(A) customer‘s deposits (B) loans and advances (C)overdrafts (D) staff allowances
2. Retailers in an economy perform the function of
(A) production (B) exchange (C) distribution (D) investment
3. In a sole proprietorships the decision are made by the
(A)government (B) board of directors (C)owner (D)shareholders conference
4. The meaning of wage-price spiral is
(A)demand pull and cost push inflation pulling each other in different
(B) demand pull and cost push intensifying each other
(C) that wages and price are rising at a proportional rate
(D) that demand pull and cost push inflation increase employment
5. Which of the following enterprise does not pursue the sole objective of profit maximization
(A) roads Nig Ltd (B) Union bank of Nigeria Ltd
(C) power holding & company of Nigeria (D) Kingsway Nigeria Ltd.
6. Palm oil industry is located in Edo state because the state
(A)imports raw material for oil industry

63 | P a g e
 (B) is a palm tree growing area
(C) government does not engage land for other crops
(D) land is suitable for oil
7. Disequilibrium in the balance of payments means
(A) imports of the country exceeding its export
(B) deficit in the trade balance
(C) capital flowing out of the country exceeds the capital flowing into the country
(D) overall deficit or surplus in the current account and capital account of the balance of payment.
8. Full employment is a situation in which
(A) every adult is employed
(B) all adult who can work are employed
(C) only the disable are not employed
(D) all those who are able and eligible to work can find employment
9. PHCN as a public corporation is
(A) duopoly (B) a power-generating industry in Nigeria
(C) a monopoly (D) a monopolistically competitive industry
10. Demand for a factor of production is
(A) a composite demand (B) a joint demand (C) a derived demand(D) an elasticity demand
11. Differential product is the characteristic feature of
(A) perfect competition (B) pure competition(C) monopoly (D) monopolistic competition
12. The channel for food distribution in Nigeria consists of
(A) producers wholesalers and retailers (B) producers and consumers
(C)producers and processor (D) farmers processors and consumers
13. One disadvantage of sole proprietorships is its
(A) limited liability (B) high profits (C) high sense of ownership (D) low credit rating .
14. For two substitute goods, the cross elasticity of demand is (A) greater than one but less than two(B) zero
(C) negative (D) positive
15. An imperfectly competitive market is one where
(A) a large number of firms sell homogenous product
(B) input and output prices are unaffected
(C) commodities are differentiated
(D) each firm maximizes profit by selecting an out put level at which marginal cost equal mark price land is
suitable for
oil.
16. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of the size of economically active population
(A) age structure (B) occupation of workers
(C) proportion of men to women (D) efficiency of labour force.
17. The economic goal of public utilities is to
(A) maximize profit (B) expand assets(C) minimize cost(D) provide essential services
18. The most important characteristic of money is
(A) portability (B) intrinsic value(C) acceptability (D) usefulness
19. Which of the following is not a feature of economic under development of a country?
(A) large number of hg income earners relative to the population
(B) high annual income for the few
(C) high incidence of poverty
(D) high infant mortality rate
20. Given the present state of the Nigerian economy which of the following measurers will promote a more
rapid economic
development
(A) complete dependence on oil exports
(B) concentration on agricultural exports

64 | P a g e
 (C) diversification of the economy
(D)introduction of nuclear energy in Nigeria
21. The following except ONE, are the differences between international trade and internal trade.
(A)differences in currency (B) government control
(C) mobility of factors of production (D) exchange of goods and services
22. The central bank instrument of control does NOT include
(A) open market operations (B) moral suction (C) selective credit control (D) printing banknotes
23. The basic principle of co-operative societies are those of
(A) workers ownership and worker control (B) sole proprietorship
(C) partnership (D) denying of credit facilities to members
24. Generally property taxes
(A) are borne entirely by landlords (B) cannot be shifted in the long run
(C) are borne only by renters (D) are born by all (renter, owner-occupiers and landlords)
25. The population level that yields the maximum output when combined with available resources is known as
(A)dependent population (B) maximum population(C) active population(D) optimum population

ECONOMICS

1. Which of the following is likely to be inflationary?

A. Tax increase B. Increase in unemployment
C. Budget surplus D. Wage increase
2. Industries that can be randomly located are characterized by
A. Relatively low transport cost for both raw materials and output and factor mobility.
B. Relatively heavy transport cost for raw materials or output.
C. Constant returns to scale
D. Significant economy of scale.
3. Full employment is a situation in which
A. Every adult is employed
B. All adults who can work are employed
C. All those who are able and eligible to work can find employment
D. Only the disabled are not employed.
4. The axiom, cannon laws of taxation is attributable to
A. Prof. Lionel Robinson B. Adams Smith
C. Prof. Paul Samuelson D. Prof. Irving Fisher
5. Taxes which are levied on a person‘s expenditure are known as
A. Purchase tax B. Sales tax C. Direct tax D. Poll tax
6. In a flee market economy, the rationing of scarce goods is done principally by A, Price mechanism B.
Consumers C. The government D. A and B.
7. Given the table above, what is the firm‘s short-run profit-maximizing output?
8. Developments outside a given firm which reduce20 the firm costs are called
A. Internal economics B. External economics C. External economic
D. Eternal; diseconomies E. Optimum effects
9. A production possibility curve shows
A. How much of the resources of society are used to produce a particular commodity
B. The rate of unemployment in the economy
C. The various combinations of two commodities that can be produced
D. The rate of inflation

65 | P a g e
 10. Given that the cash reserve ratio is 10% what is the maximum amount of money that the banking system
can create
from an initial cash deposit of#l,000,00?
A. #100.00 B. #1,000.00 C. #000.00 D. #10,000.00
11. For normal goods the income elasticity of demand is
A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. Infinite
12. Let Px represent the price of exports and Pm the prince of imports. Then, the tents of trade (TOT) are said
to be
favourable if
A. Px>l
Pm
B. Px=1
Pm
C. O<Px<1
D. Px< I
Pm
13. The basic principles of co-operation societies are those of
A. Active participation of capitalists in the affairs of co-operative societies
B. Worker ownership and worker control
C. Sale proprietorship
D. Partnership
14. Under perfect competition, the long-tern equilibrium requires
A. Mr=MC B, MR=AC=AR C. MR>MC D. MR‘MCARAC
15. The argument of tariff protection in less developed economics is that such measure would.
A. Raise the price of goods affected abroad
B. Help reduce excess capacity in domestic industry
C. Protect infant-industries from ruinous competition from abroad
D. Stifle private investment initiatives
16. Mobility of labour is NOT affected by
A. Marriage B. Regulation of trade union
C. Period of training D. Optimum size of population
17. What is the degree that peas occupy on the pie chart?
A. 144° B. 0.72% C. 72%
18. An imperfect market in which there is only one buyer of a commodity is
A. Duopoly B. Monophony C. Oligopoly D. Monopoly
19. The major reason for the survival of small shops despite competition from large business enterprise is
because of
A. The small capital outlay involved
B. Regularly and constant supply of commodities by them
C. Their local services and longer hours of operation
D. Their level of managerial competence
20. A sustained increase in the per capital income of a country over a period of time is called
A. Economic growth B. Economic development C. Structural change D. Stagflation
21. To facilitate the exportation of crude oil from Nigeria, special
A. Airstrips were constructed for jets to evacuate the oil
B. Roads were built to connect the major oil well to the ports
C. Pipelines were laid to connect the major
D. Railways lines were constructed to connect the major oil wells to the ports
22. The major reason why nations engage in international trade is that
A. It allows free movement of factors of production
B. It makes possible the u se of capital intensive method of production

66 | P a g e
 C. It affords the trading nations the opportunity to earn high profit
D. Nations are substantially different in their endowments of economic resources.
23. If the country‘s GNP in the current year is #65billion and the GNP in the base year is #50billion the GNP
deflator is
A. 130.0 B. 30.0 C. 15.0 D.1.3
24. Some of the key indicates of under development in a country are
A. Poverty, high level of literacy and low income
B. Poverty, low level of literacy and low income
C. Low level of illiteracy, low income and povertyD. Poverty, low income and low unemployment level.
25. In a free market system, trading can only take place when the
A. Market is not working efficiently B. Equilibrium price is attained
C. Price of a commodity tends to attract consumers D. Consumer sovereignty is lacking

ECONOMICS
1. A major liability of a commercial bank arise from
(A) Customer‘s deposits (B) loans and advances (C)overdrafts (D) staff allowances
2. Retailers in an economy perform the function of
(A) Production (B) exchange (C) distribution (D) investment
3. In a sole proprietorships the decision are made by the
(A) government (B) board of directors (C)owner (D)shareholders conference
4. The meaning of wage-price spiral is
(A) demand pull and cost push inflation pulling each other in different
(B) demand pull and cost push intensifying each other
(C) that wages and price are rising at a proportional rate
(D) that demand pull and cost push inflation increase employment
5. Which of the following enterprise does not pursue the sole objective of profit maximization?
(A) roads Nig Ltd (B) Union bank of Nigeria Ltd
(C) power holding & company of Nigeria (D) Kingsway Nigeria Ltd.
6. Palm oil industry is located in Edo state because the state
(A)imports raw material for oil industry
(B) is a palm tree growing area
(C) government does not engage land for other crops
(D) land is suitable for oil
7. Disequilibrium in the balance of payments means
(A) imports of the country exceeding its export
(B) deficit in the trade balance
(C) capital flowing out of the country exceeds the capital flowing into the country
(D) overall deficit or surplus in the current account and capital account of the balance of payment.
8. Full employment is a situation in which
(A) every adult is employed
(B) all adult who can work are employed
(C) only the disable are not employed
(D) all those who are able and eligible to work can find employment
9. PHCN as a public corporation is
(A) duopoly (B) a power-generating industry in Nigeria
(C) a monopoly (D) a monopolistically competitive industry
10. Demand for a factor of production is
(A) a composite demand (B) a joint demand (C) a derived demand(D) an elasticity demand
11. Differential product is the characteristic feature of
(A) perfect competition (B) pure competition(C) monopoly (D) monopolistic competition
12. The channel for food distribution in Nigeria consists of

67 | P a g e
 (A) producers wholesalers and retailers (B) producers and consumers
(C)producers and processor (D) farmers processors and consumers
13. One disadvantage of sole proprietorships is its
(A) limited liability (B) high profits (C) high sense of ownership (D) low credit rating .
14. For two substitute goods, the cross elasticity of demand is
(A) greater than one but less than two(B) zero (C) negative (D) positive
15. An imperfectly competitive market is one where
(A) a large number of firms sell homogenous product
(B) input and output prices are unaffected
(C) commodities are differentiated
(D) each firm maximizes profit by selecting an out put level at which marginal cost equal mark price land is
suitable for
oil.
16. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of the size of economically active population
(A) age structure (B) occupation of workers
(C) proportion of men to women (D) efficiency of labour force.
17. The economic goal of public utilities is to
(A) maximize profit (B) expand assets(C) minimize cost(D) provide essential services
18. The most important characteristic of money is
(A) portability (B) intrinsic value(C) acceptability (D) usefulness
19. Which of the following is not a feature of economic under development of a country?
(A) large number of hg income earners relative to the population
(B) high annual income for the few
(C) high incidence of poverty
(D) high infant mortality rate20. Given the present state of the Nigerian economy which of the following
measurers will promote a more rapid economic
development
(A) complete dependence on oil exports
(B) concentration on agricultural exports
(C) diversification of the economy
(D)introduction of nuclear energy in Nigeria
21. The following except ONE, are the differences between international trade and internal trade.
(A)differences in currency (B) government control
(C) mobility of factors of production (D) exchange of goods and services
22. The central bank instrument of control does NOT include
(A) open market operations (B) moral suction (C) selective credit control (D) printing banknotes
23. The basic principle of co-operative societies are those of
(A) workers ownership and worker control (B) sole proprietorship
(C) partnership (D) denying of credit facilities to members
24. Generally property taxes
(A) are borne entirely by landlords (B) cannot be shifted in the long run
(C) are borne only by renters (D) are born by all (renter, owner-occupiers and landlords)
25. The population level that yields the maximum output when combined with available resources is known as
(A)dependent population (B) maximum population(C) active population(D) optimum population

GOVERNMENT 2005

6. Representative democracy is best characteristic by

(A) free elections and proper registers of voters
(B) a politically educated electorate
68 | P a g e
 (C) rule by the interest group
(D) proper constituencies and a real choice of candidates
7. While political partial parties aim at forming a government pressure groups aim at
(A) causing social unrest (B) influencing governmental decisions
(C) controlling nation‘s economy (D) getting workers to unite
8. When the electorate vote for representatives who is turn vote on their behalf we say it is
(A) an indirect election(B) an unfair election (C) a disputed election (D) a rigged electron
9. An election which is conducted to fill a vacant seat in a legislature is called a
(A) by election (B) general election (C) referendum (D) plebiscite
10. Which of these countries does NOT operate a federal constitution
(A)USA (B) Nigeria (C) Canada (D) France
11. The major advantage of the secret ballot is that
(A) it is faster than other systems
(B) nobody can be prevented from voting
(C) it ensures the anonymity of each voter
(D) losers can ask for another secret voter
12. In a one party state
(A) there are no free citizens
(B) the communist party is the only legal party
(C) the ruling party is the only legal party
(D) elections to be legislature are held at the party‘s conferences
13. A cabinet system of government is practiced in
(A) Britain and Canada (B) the soviet union
(C) all European Countries including Britain (D) the United State of America
14. A proclamation by the head of state ending a session of parliament is called
(A) a dissolution (B) an adjournment (C) a prorogation (D) a devolution
15. The constitution of the federal republic of Nigeria
(A) promotes unity of diversity
(B) allows for the dominance of the minority ethnic groups
(C) concentrates governmental power at on one level of government
(D) ensures the dominance of one political party.
16. The transfer of authority to local government council is known as
(A) delegation (B) fusion (C) fragmentation
(D) devolution
17. The principle of anonymity of civil servants means that they
(A) are not the servant of a particular government(B) are trained for the duties they perform(C) are credited or
blamed
for any thing they do (D) have a career
18. The six registered political parties in Nigeria in 1982 were
(A) UPN, NPN, PPA, PPP, NPP, and NAP
(B) UPN, GNPP, NAP, PRP, NPP, NPN,
(C) NPN, UPN, NPP, PRP, PPP NNDP,
(D) NPC, GNPP, PRP, UPN, NPP and PPA
19. Which of the following is NOT a pressure group in Nigeria
(A) farmers (B) the Nigerian union of teachers (NUT)(C) Nigeria medical associate (NMA) (D) academic
staff union of
university (ASUU)
20. The N.C.N.C sent a delegation to London in 1947 to protest against the
(A) burns constitution
(B) Richards constitution
(C) Littleton constitution

69 | P a g e
 (D) Macpherson constitution
21. A popular principle of colonial administration in British west Africa was
(A) association
(B) indirect rule (C) paternalism
(D) assimilation
22. The first governor-general of colonial Nigeria was
(A) sir, Hugh Clifford(B) sir James Robertson (C) lord Lugard(D) sir Ralph moore.
23. The first military government in Nigeria was headed by
(A) General Yakubu Gowon, (B) General Agunyi Ironsi
(C) General M. Mohammed (D) General O. Obasanjo.
24. The first general election in Nigeria was hold in
(A) 1933 (B) 1952 (C) 1955 (D) 1959
25. The supreme organ of the U.N O is the
(A) general assembly (B) secretary general (C) world court (D) world bank
ANSWERS
1D 2B 3A 4C 5D 6A 7B 8A 9A 10D
11C 12C 13A 14A 15A 16A 17C 18B 19A 20B
21B 22C 23B 24D 25A

GOVERNMENT
1. Which of the following countries does not operate a federal constitution (A).U.S.A (b).Canada (c).Nigeria
(d).France (e).Switzerland.
2. The transfers of authority to local government council is known as (A).Demarcation (b). Delegation (c)
fusion
(d). Fragmentation
(e) Devolution.
3. A popular principle of colonial administration in British West Africa was (A).Association (b).indirect rule
(c)
paternalism (d).westernization (e) assimilation.
4. The first Governor- General of colonial Nigeria was?
(A). Sir Hugh Clifford b). Sir James Roberson (c). Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe (d).Sir. Ralph Moore (e). Lord
Lugard.
5. Lagos became a Crown Colony in (A).1900 (b).1914 (c).1886 (d). 1881. (E). 1862
6. The first general election in Nigeria was held in (A).1933 (b).1952 (c).1955 (d).1959 (e).1964
7. Asocial system in which power derives form control over land is called (A).Oligarchy (b).feudalism
(c) socialism (d). Presidential
8. Per- colonial Igbo society was (A).centralized (b).Cephalous (c) feudal (d). Capitalist
9. When did Nigeria adopt the nineteen- state structure?
(A). powerful (b). Legitimate (c). Authoritative (d). Sovereign.
10. When a state is subject to no other authority, it is said be
(A). Powerful (b.)Legitimate (c).Authoritative (d). Sovereign.
Choose the best answer to each questions from the options below
(1) Under perfect competition, long run equilibrium requires.
(A) R=MC (B)MR=AR (C) MR = MC=AR-AC (D) MR=AC
(2) A Government bond is a form of debt which falls due for repayment after
(A) 6 Months (B) 9 months (C) 2 years (D) 5 years
(3) How many National Development plans did Nigeria have between 1960 and 1984
(A) One (B) Two (C) Four (D) Six
(4) When total revenue is at maximum, marginal revenue is
(A) Constant (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Positive
(5) If person receives a higher wage than would be necessary for him, he is said to be
70 | P a g e
 Receiving.
(A) Profit. (B) Rent (C) Interest (D) excess income

GOVERNMENT 2006

(1) Which of the ‗following countries does not operate a federal constitution
(A)U.S.A (B) Canada (C) Nigeria (D) France
(2) The transfers of authority to local government council is known as
(A) Demarcation (B) Delegation (C) Fusion (D) devolution
(3) A popular principle of colonial administration of British West Africa was
(A) Association (B) Indirect Rule (C) Paternalism (D) Westernization.
(4) The first Government-General of colonial Nigeria was?
(A) Sir Hugh Clifford (B) Sir James Robertson (C) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe
(D) Sir. Ralph Moore (E) Lord Lugard.
(5) Lagos became a crown colony in
(A) 1900 (B) 1914 (C) 1886 (D)l881 (E) 1862

GOVERNMENT 2007

1. Government by Che few is

a) Dictatorship b) Monarchy c) Oligarchy d) Autocracy
2. The primary function of the Judiciary is to
a) make laws b) protect the citizens c) interpret laws d) execute laws
3. A characteristic feature of communism is
a) free enterprise b) liberal democracy c) dictatorship d)multi-party system
4. A tax law is a
a) Private bill b) Speaker‘s bill c) Public bill d) Judicial bill
5. Nigeria is member of
a) OPEC, NATO and ECO WAS b) O.A.U, the U.N.O and ECOWAS
c) ECOWAS, NATO and O.A.U d) The Commonwealth of Nations, OPEC and the OA.S
6. A country made up of semi-autonomous units is
a) a confederation b) a federation c) region d) unitary
7. Unicameralism refers to
a) a two-chamber legislature b)the process of secret voting in the legislature
c)the lower chamber in a legislature d) a one- chamber legislature
8. An important function of the legislature is
a) Judicial review b) review of executive policies and action
c) lobbying d) defending government policies
9. Fascism is a system of government which
a) encourages political dissent and opposition b) represses individual freedom and opposition
c) promotes equality d) promotes the individual brotherhood of man
10. The 1963 Constitution of Nigeria was
a) written and flexible b) written and rigid c) flexible and unwritten d) unitary and rigid
11. The main source of Local government finance since the 1976 Reform has been
a) local rate b) levies c) revenue from court fines and licenses d) the Federal government
12. Sovereignty is limited by
a) the criminal code b) decrees c) the legal system d) International laws
13. Marxism is directed against

71 | P a g e
 a) state ownership of the means of production b) Materialism
c) The proletariat d) Socialism
14. The rule of law implies that
a) judges interprets the law b) lawyers interpret the law
c) everyone is subject to the law d) the legislature makes the law
15. Freedom of speech in a democratic state is limited by
a) law of sedition b) law of trespass c) Press censorship d) Martial law
16. Liberalism is a philosophy underlying
a) Socialism b) Capitalism c) Feudalism d) Nazism
17. In international relations, countries have a right to
a) export Oil b) create more states
c) diplomatic immunity of their envoys d) own a police force
18. Political authority is normally vested in the
a) State b) Judiciary c) Government d) Armed force
19. Case-law are made by the
a) Legislature b) Council of ministers c) Judiciary d) President
20. Bicameral legislatures are popular in
(a) Unitary system (b) Federal system (c) Con-federal system (d) Rigid system
21. A flexible constitution is one that is
a) amended periodically b) easy to amend c) amendable with difficultyd) easy to interpret
22. Which of the following is NOT associated with local government elections?
a) Constituency b) Ballot box c) Electoral officer d) Ward
23. The fusion of the executive and legislative organs of government is associated with
a) Monarchy b) The presidential system c) Fascism d) The parliamentary system
24. The most important objective of political parties is to
a) Elect their spokesman b) Lobby he government
c) Form effective national organizations d) Control the government
25. The primary function of a pressure group is to
a) Win and control governmental power b) Elect their official
c) Influence government policy d) Organize workers to confront government
26. The Yoruba traditional government system was
a) Egalitarian b) Republican c) Democratic d) Monarchical
27. The highest court in Nigeria before 1963 was the
a) Supreme Court b) High Court c) Judicial Committee of the Privy Council d)Court of Appeal
28. Political authority refers to the
a) ability to effect political action
b) capacity to produce desired political results
c) capacity to reshape the political behaviour of citizen
d) recognized right to exercise political power.
29. The Civil service belong to the organ of government called the
a) Legislature b) Executive c) Judiciary d) Parastatals
30. ` Gerrymandering means
a) the second ballot system b) single transferable vote
c) the manipulation of constituency boundaries d) the tyranny of the majority
31. In Nigeria, the function of the Council of States is
a) Judiciary b) Investigative c) Legislative d) Advisory
32. To highest policy making body of the O,A.U is the
a) Economic and Social Commission b) Council of Minister
c) General Secretariat d) Assembly of Heads of State and Government
33. A society that is politically organized under a government is called a
a) Sovereign state b) Community c) National state d) Polity

72 | P a g e
 34. One of the main functions of Political party is
a) Political evaluation b) Interest aggregation
c) Political accountability d) Interest determination
35. The Political party that replaced NNDP before Independence was)
a)NYM b) NCNC c) UNDP d) AG
36. The first minority state to be created in the Nigeria federation was
a) Benue-Plateau b) Cross River c) Kwara d) Mid-West
37. The committee that recommended Abuja as the new Federal Capital was headed by
a) Graham Douglas b) Mamman Nasir c) Rotimi Williams d) Akinola Aguda
38. The major strategy used by OPEC to influence Oil price is by
a) determining the quantity of Oil to be produced at any given period
b) influencing buyers at the International market to buy at high price
c ) allowing member countries to produce at their discretion
d) increasing the supply of the commodities.
39. Power is understood to mean the
a) right to compel obedience
b) capacity to compel obedience
c) relationship between the government and the people
d) desire to seize the State apparatus
40. The executive arm of government includes the
a) Police b) Court c) National Assembly d) Senate President
41. Laws made by the Attorney-General and Minister of Justice are called
a) temporary laws b) bills of attainder c) case laws d) ex post facto laws
42. Nigeria adopted the nineteen-state structure in
a) 1960 b) 1966 c) 1969 d) 1976
43. The OAU is founded on the principle of
a) settlement of international disputes by armed struggles
b) Justifiable interference in the domestic affairs of members state
c) sovereign equality of member states
d) equal contribution by member states
44. One of the achievements of ECOWAS is the
a)eradication of colonialism b)adoption of vehicle insurance scheme
c)settlement of Liberian refugees d)respect for human rights.
45. The most distinguished characteristics of the state is
a) Government b) Population c) Territory d) Sovereign
46. In a democracy, ultimate authority resides in the
a) Electorate c) Head of State b) People d) Armed forces
47. Ceremonial and executive powers are fused in the
a) Parliamentary system of government b) Presidential system of government
c) Federal system of government d) Unitary system of government
57. Citizenship refers to the
a) indigenous member of a state b) legal status of a member of a state
c) highest position in a state d) Social status of a person in a state
58. Nigeria‘s relations with African countries are underscored by its policy of
a) Non-alignment b) Political diplomacy c) Afro centralism d) peaceful co-existence
59. The two leaders that played the most prominent roles in the formation of the ECOWAS were
a) Acheampong and Jawara b) Kounche and Senghor
c) Kerekou and Tubman d) Gowon and Eyadema
60. In the legislative process, a bill is a
a) motion accepted for debate b) motion rejected after debate
c) proposal before the legislature d) law passed by the legislature

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 61. The fundaments rights of citizen include rights to
a) free education, employment and freedom of thought
b) life, speech and association
c) life, liberty and property
d) association, property and social security
62. Public opinion is a view that is
a) held by the majority b) active in the public realm
c) widely publicized d) no longer a secret
63. The Western zone of the Sokoto caliphate was administered from
a) Kebbi b) Ilorin c) Bida d) Gwandu
64. The equivalent of a commissioner at the local government level is the
a) executive chairman b) Secretary c) Councilor d) Supervisory councilor
65. Which of the follow.ing is the function of the Council of Ministers of the O.A.U.?
a) Co-coordinating the general policy of the Organization
b) Directing the finances of the organization
c) Preparing the agenda of the organization‘s meeting
d) Reviewing the functions and activities of other organs of the organization
66. The structure of the Civil service is based on
a) Lateral organization b) Merit system
c) Patronage system d) Hierarchical organization
67. One major factor that differentiates presidential from the parliamentary system is
a) Separation of powers b) Judicial independence
c) Passage of bills d) Party system
68. Centralization of power is the basic feature of
a) Federalism b) a confederation c) a presidential system d) a unitary government
69. The fees collected by local governments at motor parks represent
a) levies b) fines c) income tax d) user charge
70. In Nigeria, the Council of State was first created by
a) General Murtala Mohammed b) General Olusegun Obasanjo
c) Major-general Agunyi Ironsi d) General Yakubu Gowon
71. Which of the following is a founding member of the OPEC?
a) Nigeria b) Indonesia c) Venezuela d) Algeria
72. Government of the wealthy is known as
a) Plutocracy b) Oligarch c) aristocracy d) democracy
73. The best form of government
heterogeneous society is a
a) quasi federal system b) federal system c) Confederal system d) unitary system
74. Election as a political process is significant because it
a) is associated with campaigns for public office b) Facilitates the recall process
c) Facilitates constitutional change of government d) enables citizens to vote
75. The military head of state during the Third Republic was
a) General Olusegun Obasanjo b) General Ibrahim Babangida
c) General Murtala Mohammed d) General Sani Abacha
76. Nigeria‘s relations with Britain were at a low ebb under the
a) Shagari Regime b) Buhari Regime c) Gowon Regime d) Babangida Regime
77. A major problem of the defunct Organization of African Unity was
a) Language barrier b) Inadequate resources
c) Cultural diversity d) Ideological differences
78. The Native Authority system was most effective and successful in
a) Eastern Nigeria b) Northern Nigeria c) Mid Western Nigeria d) Western Nigeria

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 79. The major motivation for British colonization of Nigeria was to
a) westernize Nigerians b)spread religion
c) protect Nigeria from external attack d) satisfy British economic interests.
80. The body responsible for running the personnel affairs senior local government staff in
Nigeria is
(a) Local Government Service Commission (b) Local Government Council
(c) State Civil Service Commission (d) Senior Staff Committee
81. The difference between commercialized and privatized companies is that in the former,
a) public ownership is dominant b) government subsidizes costs
c) profit motive is recessive d) private ownership is dominant
82. A Security Council resolution requires the concurrence of
a) 1 of he 5 permanent members b) All of the5 permanents
c) 9 of the 15 permanent members d) 3 of the 5 permanent members.
83. The political party formed in 1923 by Herbert Macaulay was
a) Nigerian Youth Movement b) National Council of Nigeria and the Cameroon
c) United National Independent Party d) Nigerian National Democratic Party
84. The pre-colonial Tiv society can best be described as
a) Republican b) aristocratic c) Feudalistic d) monarchical
85. Serfs are the dominated class under
a) capitalism b) socialism c) fasci d) feudalism
86. In the present day local government structure, traditional rulers play,
a) an advisory role b) an executive role c) a judicial role d) a legislative role
87. Judges of the World Court are appointed to serve for
a) five years b) ten years c) four year d) nine years
88. In Nigeria, military regimes returned power to civilians through
a) transition programmes b) constitutional conferences c) impositions d) negotiations
89. Fascism originated from
a) China b) Greece c) Germany d) Italy
90. The type of government in which an individual wealds absolute power is called
a) autocracy b) theocracy c) oligarchy d) plutocracy
91. One of the greatest advocates of socialism was
a) Baron de Montesquieu b) A. V Dicey c) Karl Max d) Adam Smiths

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE (C.R.K)

1. God‘s creative strength was shown by his
a) approving that a thing be done b) making a command prefaced by ―there be‘
c) ordering the holy spirit to act d) allowing created things to evolve naturally.
2. which of these did not form part of Asa‘s religious reform in Judah?
a) termination of male cult prostitution in the land,
b) Demolition of all the idols his father made
c) Cutting down of the image made by maacah for Asherah
d) Destruction of high places
3. Paul was grateful to God whenever he remembered Philemon in his prayer because of Philemon‘s.
a) Determination not to forgive Philemon b) Love for, and faith in Jesus
c) Lack of appreciation of Onesimus to him d) Pretended goodness
4. which of the following officials were charged by pharaoh to kill the Hebrew male children
a) Egyptian physician b) Egyptian taskmasters c) Hebrew midwives d) Egyptian soldiers
5. Jesus decided to send the multitude to buy food for themselves when it was already getting late because
a) He wanted to reveal his messiah ship
b) He knew that his words were of greater value than food
c) The multitude was unwilling to go home

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 d) He know that the little food available would satisfy them.
6. Naaman the Syrian leper was healed by
a) Amos b) Hosea c) Elisha d) Elijah
7. This is my beloved son, listen to him this statement as made on
A) Baptism of Jesus b) Transfiguration
c) Triumphant entry into Jerusalem d)Ascension of Jesus
8. Jonah cried to God from the bowel of shem Sheol here implies to
a) region of darkness and death b) Tempestuous sea c) deep sea d) belly offish
9. The second account of creation was centers on the creation
a) birds b) heavens c) Deep d) plants
10. All the tribes of Israel was gathered by Joshua for his address of farewell at
a) Sinai b) bethel c) Jordan d) shechem
11. Moses experienced the burning bush at
a) Horeb b) Bethel c) Nebo d) Midian
12. Hosea called on Israel to return to the lord by
a) Allying with Assyria b) Steadfastly loving God
c) Ensuring regular sacrifices d) following the ways of their things
13. My father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me. The ―cup‖ here means
a) Baptism b) Temptation c) Death d) Loneliness
14. The reaction of the elder brother when the prodigal son returned illustrated the behaviour of the
a) Herodians b) Pharisees c) Saducees d) Zealots
15. God created man to have dominion things. Dominion here means:
a) Mastership b) control c) manage.

LECTURE NOTE ON POST UME SYLLABUS

COMMUNISM
Definition: Communism may be defined as an economic system and a system of government in which the
means of
production and distribution are totally controlled by the state (government). Communism is the highest stage
of
socialism. Individual ownership of property is completely abolished in a communist state. The state owns
everything
and the resources are distributed to the citizens according to their needs and ability. The theory and principles
of
communism enunciated by Karl Marx and Lenin are embodied in the book titled “Communist Manifesto”
published in
1848. No country has attained the level of communism but countries like Soviet Union, China, Poland, Cuba etc
who
are practicing advanced socialism are aspiring to reach a communist stage.

TYPES OF GOVERNMENT AND CHARACTERISTICS OF GOVERIMENT

Unitary Government (Unitarianism)

Definition: A unitary system of government may be defined as one in which all governmental powers are
concentrated
in the hands of a single authority or central government. This single authority does not share governmental
powers with

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any other body but can delegate powers to other subordinate bodies. The central government is the only
source from
which power emanates. A unitary government adopt unitary system of government include, Britain, Italy,
France,
Belgium, New Zealand, Sweden, Ghana, Gambia, Sierra Leone, Ethiopia, Togo, Cameroun etc.
FEATURES OR ATTRIBUTES OR CHARACTERISTICS OF UNITARY GOVERNMENT -
1. All governmental powers are concentrated in the hands of a single authority or central government.
2. It adopts a unitary constitution
3. The various areas or regions into which the nation is divided for administrative purposes are created by the
central
government.
4. The legislature can alter the powers and boundaries of the various units or regions.
5. There is no constitutional division of powers between the central government and the local districts or
regions.
6. The central government can delegate powers to other subordinate bodies.
7. The Central government is the only source from which power emanates.
8. The constitution need not necessarily be supreme for the central government may have the power to modify
it.
9. The constitution also need not necessarily be rigid.
10 No constitutional conflict between the central- government and the subordinate bodies.
11. The central government and the nation as a whole are strong.
12. There need not be any local legislative assemblies.
13. There is no need to have any final authority that resolves conflicts between the central government .and
local districts
or regions.
FACTORS OR CONDITIONS THAT GIVE RISE TO THE ADOPTION OF UNITARY GOVERNMENT
1. Size of the Country: Small size of a country gives rise to the adoption of unitary system of government for
example;
Togo, Ghana etc.
2.. Absence of Fear of Domination: A unitary system of government is adopted in countries with homogenous
people
which removes tribal differences.
3.. Lack of Fear of Domination: Countries where the different sections of the nation do not fear any form of
domination
usually adopt unitary system of government.
4. Common Language and Culture: Common language and culture bind together\ and these give rise to the
adoption of
unitary system of government.
5. Lack of Marked Economic Inequalities: This will remove any form of domination and unitary system of
government will
work very well in such country.
6. Absence of Minority Group: Where there are no minority groups, unitary system of government can work
well there.
7. Strong Loyalty to the Central Government: Unitary system of government is adopted and works very well in
countries
were the citizens show strong loyalty to the central government.
8. Political Expediency: This may be as a result of the need for solidarity and cohesion for the defence and
survival of the
country.
CONFEDERAL SYSTEM OF GOVERNMENT (CONFEDERATION)
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Definition: Confederation may be defined as a loose political arrangement in which autonomous or sovereign
states or
republics come together to form a union in which almost the major functions.
FEATURES OR ATTRIBUTES OR CHARACTERISTICS OF CONFEDERATION
1. It is a union of sovereign or autonomous states
2. Major functions or powers of the government are reserved exclusively for the component states. 3. It has
weak central government
4. The constitution makes the component states very powerful.
5. The component states have legal rights to secede.
6. Citizens have to obey only one government
7. The component states have their own army and police.
8. As a loose union, it is generally less politically stable.
9. Confederation has a flexible constitution
10. The component states have constitutional rights to secede.
11. The component states retain their sovereignty and identity.
PRESIDENTIAL SYSTEM OF GOVERNMENT
Definition: Presidential system of government may be defined as one in which all executive powers are vested
in one
in which all executive president and in which the executive arm of government separated from the legislature
but equal
to it. The president is both the head of government and head of state and is referred to as executive president
because
he has executive powers.
FEATURES OR ATTRIBUTES OR CHARACTERISTICS OF PRESIDENTIAL
SYSTEM OF GOVERNMENT
1. In a presidential system of government the president is both the head of state and head of government.
2. The principle of separation of powers where the executive arth of government separated from the
legislature and
judiciary applies in the presidential system of government.
3. The president and his ministers are not members Of the parliament.
4. The principle of collective responsibility that takes place in the cabinet system does not apply in the
presidential
system.
5. The president exercises real executive powers.
6. The president is elected by the electorate. Either directly or indirectly through an electoral college and not
chosen by
the legislature.
7. The powers to pardon prisoners, appointment of judges to the supreme court, assenting of bills etc invested
in
Nigeria’s president betw3een 1979 to 1983 made the president perform legislative and judicial functions.
8. The principles of checks and balances apply in presidential system.
9. The constitution is the supreme law in a presidential system.
10. The tenure of Office of the president is limited to a fixed term.
11. The president is not above politics, he is a member of a party and may be head of his political party and
above the
party.
12. The application of the rule of law.
13. The application of judicial review and interpretation which empowers the highest court-the supreme court
the right to
declare and bill or executive action unconstitutional.
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14. Cabinet ministers are responsible to the president not the legislature.
15. The executive and the legislature could be controlled by different political parties.
16. The president is responsible to the constitution not the legislature.
17. Ministers are appointed outside the legislature and not members of the legislature. Any members of the
legislature
appointed a minister automatically loses his membership of the legislature.
18. The president has the power to dismiss any member of his cabinet at anytime.
19. The party system is loose and lacks discipline.
20. Absence of opposition party.
REPUBLICAN GOVERNMENT
A republican government is that which has an elected head of state by the people. That means a sovereign state
is
referred to as a republic if the country has no traditional ruler or its representative as its head of state but with
the one
chosen by the people with a fixed term of office. Such head: of state: is known as president in a republic. The
president
may be an executive president or. a ceremonial president may be an executive president or a ceremonial
president.
Nigeria became independent in 1960 and still remained a monarchy with the British Queen represented by the
Governor-Gene3ral as Nigeria’s Head of States.
FEATURES OF A REPUBLIC
1. The head of state known as the president is elected by the people.
2. A republic must be politically independent. . 4T
3. Members of the legislature in a republic are directly elected by the people.
4. The functions of government in a Republic are performed by officials and not traditional r rulers.
5. A republican constitution is entirely home made. .
CENTRALISATION
The term centralisation refers to a system of governmental administration in which power is concentrated in
one single central
authority. In such acentraise & system- of government, there is no constitutional. provision for the sharing f
governmental
powers between the single central authority an4- any other body but .powers can be delegated to subordinate
bodies. The
highest degree of centralisation is achieved in unitary states.
DECENTRALISATION
The: term decentralization refers to a system of governmental of administration in which powers are not
concentrated in a.
single central authority

Powers allocated to different constitution. . There axe areas of authority such as foreign, affairs, defence,
currency, immigration
and emigration etc that are reserved exclusively for the. central authority and are known in the constitution as
the exclusive
.listsDitra1isation I exists in a federal structure. Federal states such as U.S.A Nigeria, Federal Republic Germany
etc, are
examples of decentralisation of government administration.
CONSTITUTION
Definition: A constitution may be defined as the whole body of fundamental laws, customs, conventions,
principles, rules and

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regulations according to which a particular government of a country or an organization operates. The
constitution therefore
specifies the working of a government or organization, the functions of its officials the rights and duties of its
citizens or
members as a result of the complex P-nature of modern dab’ government, the use of constitution in order to
spell out the
functions and relationship, among the branches of government has become a desideratum
RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN CONSTITUTION AND CONSTITUTIONALISM
A constitution is the basic of fundamental laws of the land. It is the sun total of formal and informal rules,
conventions and
practices by which a society is governed. Constitutionalism means adherence to the letter and spirit of the
constitution, that is,
those who govern should govern according to the dictates of the law. Constitutionalism denotes the supremacy
of the law.
FEATURES OF A CONSTITUTION
1. A constitution is the whole body of fundamental laws, customs etc. According to which a particular
government of a
country or an organisation operates.
2. It has a preamble or an introduction which states the ideological stand of the constitution system that will
operate in a
country.
3. The constitution states the type party system that will operate in a country
4. It names the organs of government, their functions and their relations to one another.
5. A constitution of a country specifies the rights and duties of the citizens.
6. It may be found in one document but supplemented by organic Jaws.
7. It specifies the type and characteristics of government either unitary, federal, presidential or cabinet systems
to be
adopted.
8. It provides the procedure for, the amendment of the constitution.
9. Constitution provides for revenue allocation formula.
10. It states the tenure of office holders and their qualifications.
TYPES OF CONSTITUTION
A. Written Constitution ,
A written constitution refers to when the whole body of fundamental laws, customs, conventions, principles,
rules and
regulations according to which a particular government of a country operates are written or documented
down. This implies that
a written constitution can be found in a single document. Some change like revolution, war, coup d’atat, gaining
of
independence, etc. That may take place in a country may warrant the writing down of a country’s constitution.
Countries’ like
U.S.A, Nigeria, India, France, Canada, Ghana, Sierra Leone, Gambia and many other countries of the world have
written
constitutions.
FEATURES OF WRITTEN CONSTITUTION
1. A written constitution has a preamble or introduction which expresses the essence
of the constitution:
2. It stipulates the methods and conditions for its amendment and change.
3. A written constitution looks very simple because, it can be obtained in a single document.
4. It spells out the fundamental human rights and duties of the citizens of a country.
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5. It states and defines the organs of government, their functions and relationship.
6 A written constitution is rigid in nature.
B. Unwritten Constitution
An unwritten constitution refers to when the whole body of fundamental laws, customs, conventions
principles, rules
and regulations according to which a particular government of a country operates are not written down’ or
codified seems to be
the opposite of written constitution ‘Britain and New Zealand are good examples of countries that have
unwritten constitution. An
unwritten constitution is not synonymous with nonexistent laws but what it means is that these laws, customs,
etc cannot be
obtained from one single book or document.
Advantages or Merits of an Unwritten Constitution
1. An unwritten constitution has an advantage of having high degree of flexibility which can easily adapt to a
country’s
changing social, political and economic situations.
2. An unwritten Constitution makes for easy and quick decisions.

3. It does not pos problems of amendment.

4. Unwritten constitution develops from many years of practical experiences of the people and government of a
country.
5. Its non-rigidity makes for high degree of compromise between the organs of government.
6. For the fact that the constitution is not codified in one document, it eliminates many areas of disputes.
7. It meets both the present and future needs of a country.
8. It does not lead to constant litigation as in the case with written constitution.
9. Unwritten constitution does not pose problem or difficulty in interpreting its provisions since it is not rigid.
C. Rigid Constitution
A rigid constitution may be defined as that constitution which, cannot be amended or changed so easily
because of its
special stringent and cumbersome prce4ures qf amendment. The procedures for the amendment of a rigid
constitution are
different from the processes of making ordinary laws. Rigid constitutions are normally written constitutions
but not all written
constitution are difficult to, amend. United States of America, Australia, France, Canada, Switzerland, Ghana,
Nigeria, Sierra
Leona, Gambia etc. have rigid constitutions.
Advantages or merits of a Rigid Constitution
1. A rigid constitution is difficult to amend or change, which prvents hasty actions.
2. It prevents dictatorial leaders from amending the constitution to serve their dictatorial interest.
3. It protects the interest of the minority groups.
4. It ensures political stability in a country because, no one, section can amend the constitution to its favour.
5. It allays fears of ethnic domination by the majority groups in a multi-ethnic nation like Nigeria.
6. A rigid constitution is normally a written constitution.
7. It makes for smooth change of government and ensures continuity of the system of government adopted. V
D. Flexible Constitution
A flexible constitution may be defined as that constitution which can be amended or changed so easily without
stringent
and cumbersome procedures. Flexible constitution can be amended with the same procedure used in making
ordinary laws. It

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requires simple majority for a flexible constitution to be amended. Some flexible constitution are written while
others are
unwritten. Britain, Italy, New Zealand, Ghana ‘(independence constitution of 1957) etc, are examples of
countries that have’
flexible constitutions.
Advantages or Merits of a Flexible Constitution
I. A flexible constitution is easy to amend
2. It is flexible and allows for quick action to be take in time of emergency.
3. It does not encourage revolution or civil war since its flexibility does not make for violent change or
amendment.
4. Its amendment is not expensive, time and energy consuming.
5. A flexible constitution suits the changing social, economic and political situations of a country.
E. Federal Constitution
A federal constitution refers to one in which governmental powers exist in the country are shared between a
central
government that represents the whole country and governments .of component regions or states, so that each
government is
legally and constitutionally independent and autonomous. A country that adopts this type of constitution is
known as a federation
and the system is referred to as the federal ‘system of government. The federal constitution specifies the
legislative powers of
these different government in Nigeria for instance, the central government otherwise known as federal
government legislates on
the exclusive list, while both the federal and the component governments called states make laws on the
concurrent list of
subjects. The example of countries with federal constitutions are U.SA, Nigeria, Federal Republic of Germany,
Brazil,
Switzerland, Australia, Yugoslavia, India etc.
Features of a Federal Constitution
1. Division of governmental powers between the central government and component government of the
regions.
2. It guarantees the supremacy of the constitution.
3. The different governments derive their powers from the constitution.
4. Federal constitution is always written.
5. It is also always rigid.
6. Judicial interpretation and review
7. Allows for bicameral legislatures
8. Supremacy of the central government.
9. Duplication of organs of government in all governments.
F. Unitary Constitution
A unitary constitution refers to one that concentrates governmental powers and authority in a single central
government
or legislature. The central government is the only source from which power emanates. It does not share
governmental powers
with any other body but can delegate powers to other subordinate bodies. A unitary constitution is guided by
the principle of
Unitarianism which means the belief and concentration of governmental powers and authority in a single
authority.

Features of a Unitary Constitution

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1. It concentrates governmental powers and authority in a single central government or legislature.
2. It is a flexible constitution.
3. A unitary constitution is not necessarily written.
4. The constitution is not supreme but the legislature.
5. State and local governments are made subordinate to the central government by the unitary constitution.
6. Other authorities do not derive their powers from the constitution but from the central government.
7. Unlike Federal constitution, the citizens owe allegiance to only one government in a unitary constitution.
G. Confederal Constitution
This is a constitution in which almost major powers and functions of government are reserved exclusively for
the
component states save the common currency, defence and foreign affairs in which the national or central
government may hold
power. The constitution reserves powers to the central government in only certain matters that affect all the
unions or
autonomous states involved. Confederal constitution is not common with .nations of the world in the present
day.
FRANCHISE
Definition: Franchise may be defined as the rights of qualified adult citizens of a given society to vote and to be
voted for in an
election. The electors re constitutionally known as the electorate while those seeking to. be elected are called
candidates. Those
to be given the right to vote and be voted for-franchise, vary from country to country based on certain criteria.
A production possibility Curve for food and cash crops
A production possibility curve
THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN THE PRODUCTION POSSIBILITY CURVE AND THE CONCEPT OF
OPPORTUNITY COST
As discussed in chapter one, opportunity cost means the satisfaction of one want at the expense of another
want. It simplify
refers to forgone or sacrificed alternative.
Production possibility curve on the other hand involves opportunity cost. The PPC involves sacrifice in the
production of one
commodity in order that another commodity can be produced.
Therefore, the opportunity cost producing one Gmmodity is the resources that are sacrificed in order to
produce another
commodity. The slapping down of the PPC indicates the opportunity of production of another commodity From
the figure above
movement of the curve form point A to point B means the sacrifice of 700 tonnes of food crop in order to
produce 600 tonnes of
cash crop and vice versa. This shows that production possibility curve and opportunity cost are closely related
in solving
economic problems and maximising the satisfaction of human wants with The limited available resources.
CONCEPTS OF TOTAL, AVERAGE AND MARGINAL PRODUCTIVITY
a. Total Product (TP): Total product refers to the total quantity of goods produce at a particular time as a result
of the use
all the factors of production. Total product depends mainly on the quantity of all the factors of production that
applied
production. TP = AP x Labour
b. Average Product (AP): Average product refers to total product divided by the number of variable factor of
productionlabour.
It is. therefore per unit of product produced by each labour or worker. AP= TP
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Labour
i.,e AP = Total output
(number of men (or capital employed)
e.g Using 20 labourers to produce 2500 of rice daily implies
AP = 2500/20 = 125kg.
i.e output per labour (A.P) is 125kg.
c. Marginal Product (MP): This is the additional product produced as a result of the application of one
additional unit
variable factor when all other factors are fixed.
There are basically two schools of thought in the analysis of utility and they are as follows
i. Cardinal school of though
ii. Ordinal school of thought
Cardinal School of Thought: This approach emphasizes that utility is measurable. That is, after consuming a
given quantity of
a commodity, the consumer can simply- evaluate his satisfaction through the use of figures which range from
zero to infinity.
Assumpt4on of the Cardinal Approach
i Utility is measureable
ii. The consumer is rational
iii. There is diminishing marginal utility
iv. Total utility (TU) depends of the quantity consumed
v. Money income of the consumer is held constant
TOTAL UTILITY
This is the total amount of satisfaction a consumer derives from the consumption of a particular commodity at
a point in time.

The amount of satisfaction derived from commodities increases with their consumption. The more the quantity
of goods
available to a consumer, the more the total utility derived from them. However, the amount of satisfaction or
utility received from
the cOnsumption of goods does, not increase at equal rate to the quantity of goods consumed. The consumer
has a saturation
point in the consumption of a particular commodity at a given time.
Total Utility Curve
UNEMPLOYMENT AND RURAL URBAN MIGRATION
Unemployment
Definition: Unemployment may be defined as a situation where some people who fall within the ages of the
working population,
capable and willing to work, are unable to obtain befitting work to do. The problem of unemployment is
becoming chronic and
without any solution in sight. It has constituted itself into one of the worst enemies of the people in this part of
the world. The
problem of unemployment has been exacerbated by the prevalent retrenchments, unbridled rural-urban
migration, etc.
Unemployment Rate: This is the proportion or percentage of the labour force or working population which is
not employed at
any given point in time.
Unemployment rate is usually represented using the symbol “U” and is usually calculated as follows:
U = number of people unemployed x 100
Labour force 1
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TYPES OF UNEMPLOYMENT
1. Under-employment: This is a situation whereby the potentialities of a worker are not fully utilised. There
are financial, mental
and physical under-employment. It is financial when the worker is not getting equal pay from the work he is
doing; mental when
there is a mismatch between the work a person is doing and what he studied; and physical when the worker is
underutilised.
2. Frictional Unemployment: It arises when people leave their present job with the hope of getting a new and
better one but
fail to do so. It may or may not be a temporary unemployment depending on the prevailing economic situation.
Therefore, this is
the period between the time the worker left his former work and the time of getting a new work.
3. Deficient Demand (cyclical) Unemployment: If there is a decrease in the quantity of goods demanded or
there overproduction
which results in fall in prices, industries will be affected, which may cause retrenchment or lay-off workers in
the
industries affected. The workers affected will suffer from deficient demand or cyclical occurs whenever there is
a fall in demand.
This is so because the demand for labour is a derived one and depends on the demand for goods and services.
4. Structural Unemployment: This arises as a result of slight changes in the industrial structure of a country.
Workers will be
retrenched as a result of economic recession and it happened in Nigeria in 1984, when many firms folded up as
a result of this.
It may also occur as a result of changes in production technique e.g when production becomes capital
intensive.
5. Voluntary Unemployment: This unemployment which is deliberate, occurs when some people refuse to
take up any paid
employment or decide not do any work. For example, some husbands may order their wives not to do any type
work but to stay
at home as fill time housewives.
6. Seasonal Unemployment: This is caused by seasonal changes that affect some types of work. Workers that
work in road
construction companies return unemployed during rainy season. Also farmers stay idle in-between harvesting
and planting
periods.
7. Search Unemployment: This arises when some people turn down offers of work in search of better paid
employment; Howe
long this search will last will depend on the prevailing economic situation in the country.
8. Residual Unemployment: This is the type of unemployment faced by people who are so low in a standard
of efficiency that
few occupations may be open to them e.g handicaps.
9. Technological Unemployment: This is an unemployment as a result of switching from labour intensive
production technique
to capital intensive production technique. Those who are skilled will be retained while the unskilled labour will
be replaced with
machines.
PRINCIPLES OR ATTRIBUTES OF A GOOD TAX SYSTEM
Adam Smith propounded the following principles of taxation otherwise known as cannons of taxation.
1. Equity or Fairness or Ability to Pay: Tax should be based on a person’s ability to pay and there should be
equality of sacrifice, that is the burden of tax should be according to one’s ability.
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The equity principle says that the tax-payers should be levied in accordance with their ability to pay. Ability to
pay is usually
based either on income disparity or on the differences in expenditure of consumers. In this case, those that
spend more are
meant to pay more tax.
2. Certainty: Tax payers should know the exact amount they are expected to pay as tax, when and how to pay it.
3. Conveniences: The method and time of tax collection should be convenient to the tax payers. P.A.Y.E is
considered
the most convenient method of tax system because workers are meant to pay when they receive their salaries
and at
their various work places.
4. Economy: The amount spent in the course of collecting tax should be smaller than the amount collected.
Therefore it
emphasizes on the cost effectiveness of the tax system.
5. Impartiality: There should be no discrimination in the imposition and collection of taxes i.e people of equal
financial
positions should pay the same amount of tax.
6. Flexibility: A good tax system changes with the changing circumstances in the area it is charged. It should be
responsive to economic realities.
7. Simplicity: A good tax system should be simple enough for everybody’s understanding.
8. Easy to Collect: People collecting the tax should not find it difficult to collect.
9. Difficult to Evade: It should not be one that people can easily evade
10. Productivity: A good tax system should yield enough revenue to the government and also not hinder
production.
INCIDENCE OF TAXATION
By incidence of taxation, we mean the sharing of the final brunt or who bears the burden of taxation. Incidence
of tax may be
formal or effective.
Formal Incidence: This refers to the initial effects of tax on the tax object i.e the tax payer. For direct tax, the tax
payer bears the
brunt while the manufactures or the middlemen bear the brunt of the tax initially.
Effective Incidence: Effective incidence of tax refers to who bears the final brunt of the tax. For direct taxes, the
payer bears the
full brunt of taxation while the brunt. may be borne by the manufactures or consumer if it is indirect tax. The
elasticity of demand
determines the extent to which the consumer or producer bears the brunt of the incidence. This could be
analysed as follows:
1. When Direct Tax is Involved: It is the worker who pays income tax that bears the brunt.
2. When Indirect Tax is Involved: If demand is neither elastic nor inelastic, the producer and the consumer
share the
burden.
3. When Demand is Perfectly Inelastic: The burden of tax is shifted to the buyer in form of high prices of goods.
4. When Demand is Perfectly Elastic: The incidence of tax is borne by the producer in form of low prices of
goods which,
if increased demand will fail.
TYPES OF TAX
There are two major types of tax: direct and indirect tax
a. Direct Tax: As the name indicates, it is collected directly from individuals and profits of companies. The
burden of direct
tax is borne by the payers. The tax payers are usually aware of the payment of such tax
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Types of Direct Tax
1. Personal Income Tax: This is a compulsory contribution imposed on the personal income of individuals
based on their
gross income and depends on the total income, the family size of the payer, etc.
2. Company Income Tax: It is levied on the profit made by companies that operate in a particular country. It is
also known
as corporate tax.
3. Capital or Property Tax: It is levied on the assets or properties of individuals including the assets of the
deceased.
4. Airport Tax: This is a form of direct tax paid by those who travel with aeroplane within and outside the
country.
5. Miscellaneous Direct Taxes: There are other petty direct taxes such as poll, expenditure, educational,
development,
cattle, surtax etc. These taxes come in one form of levy or the other like the one they called survival levy in Imo
State
of Nigeria in 1984 after the demise of the second republic.
INDIRECT TAXES
They are taxes levied on locally made imported and exported goods and services. These taxes imposed on
goods and services
are later on transferred to consumers in form of high prices, and this is why they are called indirect. The payers
of these taxes
do not bear the final brunt. Rather, they are usually imposed on finished goods and services and shifted to
consumers in the
form of increase in prices.
Types of Indirect Tax
1. Excise Duties: These are duties levied on locally made consuixixi goods.
2. Import Duties: Also known as tariffs. They are imposed on foreign goods coming into a country.
3. Export Duties: They are levied on locally made goods taken to other countries.
4. Purchases and Sales Taxes: These are levied on certain durable goods and are paid by those who purchase
and sell

these goods.
METHODS OF IMPOSING INDIRECT TAXES
The imposition of indirect taxes could take any of the following form.
i. Specific Tax: This means imposing taxes according to the volume or units of goods imported, exported or
manufactured within a country.
ii. Ad Valorem: This means imposing tax according to the monetary value of the commodity concerned.
SYSTEMS OF TAXATION
The system of imposing both direct and indirect taxes are as follows:
i. Progressive Tax System: This is a tax system where higher tax rate falls on high income earners and lower tax
rate on
low income earners. In order words, the high income earners pay more tax than the low income earners eg Pay
As You
Earn
ii. Proportional Tax System: Under this system, every taxpayer pays equal proportion of his or income. The
slight
difference between proportional and progressive tax system is that while progressive tax rate varies with
income,
proportional tax rate is usually fixed, but the amount of tax payable varies in both cases.

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iii. Regressive Tax System: This tax system calls for a higher tax rate on the low income earners than the high
income
earners. In order words, the proportion removed as tax from taxpayer’s income• decreases as income
increases.
TYPES OF INFLATION
Inflation is divided into two major types, viz;
1. Ordinary Inflation: This is a gradual and intermittent rise in the price of goods and services caused by under-
production,
hoarding and increase in the volume of money circulation in a country.
2. Persistent Inflation: This is a continuous sharp and not easy to control rise in the prices of goods and
services which
occurs mainly as a result of large volume of money in circulation far more than the available goods and
services.
PERSISTENT INFLATION IS DIVIDED INTO THE FOLLOWING
1. Demand Pull Persistent Inflation: This occurs when the demand for goods and services is greater than their
supply
caused mainly by increase in worker’s salaries and wages, or population explosion.
2. Cost Pull Persistent Inflation: Rise in prices of goods and services caused by increase in the cost of factors of
production, demand for more wages by workers, etc
3. Galloping or Hyper-Inflation: War deficit budget. etc are the causes of this inflation prices rise at a fast rate
and money
ceases to function as a medium of exchange.
4. Imported Inflation: This type of inflation occurs whenever raw materials and finished goods are imported
into a country
at a very high cost. For example, devaluation of imported makes imports to become relatively expensive. This
can
easily give rise to inflation in the economy of the importing country.
GALLOPING PRICES
Galloping prices may be defined as continuous rise in the prices of goods and services. It is same as period of
inflation in a
country.
Causes of Galloping Prices
The above causes of inflation are equally responsible for galloping prices in a country.
HOW TO CONTROL GALLOPING PRICES IN A COUNTRY
The measures itemised and discussed above, can equally be applied in controlling galloping prices in a country.
Causes of Inflation
1. When Demand is Greater than Supply: Inflation may occur if increase in demand does not correspond with
increase in
the quantity of goods and services supplied.
2. Decrease in Production: This decreases the quantity of goods available without equal decrease in the volume
of money
in circulation.
3. War: It diverts people’s attention away from the production of goods to the acquisition of arms and
ammunitions.
4. Increase in the Cost of Production: This will be passed to consumers in form of high prices of goods.
5. Monopoly: Monopolists may deliberately reduce production in order to make fantastic profits thereby
causing inflation.
6. Hoarding: Hoarders reduce the quantity of goods available irrespective of the level of production.
7. Over-Population: This, in addition to large volume of money in circulation causes galloping prices.
8. Poor Weather: It reduces the quantity of agricultural products available.
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9. Poor Storage Facilities: It will lead to the consumption of all goods produced at a particular period without
reserve.

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