CHAPTER 15

1. It is the technologist's responsibility to ensure that all personnel are shielded for
exposures taken in a trauma room.
 True
2. If the technologist can include only one joint of a long bone in a trauma series, he
or she should always include the joint farthest from the site of injury.
 False
3. A fracture wherein the fragments overlap and the shafts make contact but not at
the fracture ends defines _____.
 bayonet apposition
4. A faint fracture line in the bone cortex that is seen on one side of bone with a
slight bulging or wrinkle-like defect on the opposite side is a _____.
 greenstick fracture
5. An intra-articular fracture of the posterior lip of the distal radius is termed _____.
 Barton fracture
6. Which of the following fractures will be best demonstrated with a forearm series?
 Monteggia's
7. Which of the following fractures will be best demonstrated with a lower leg
series?
 Pott's
8. How is the CR aligned for a mobile AP chest projection taken on a patient lying
partially erect in bed?
 Align CR perpendicular to long axis of sternum
9. Which of the following projections will best diagnose a hemothorax in the right
lung for the patient unable to stand?
 Right lateral decubitus
10. Which of the following positioning routines is required for a postreduction study of
the ankle with a cast?
 AP and lateral
11. How much rotation of the body is required for a lateral scapular Y, AP oblique
projection taken on a trauma patient?
 25° to 30°
12. What type of CR angle is required for the "reverse Caldwell" projection of the
cranium?
 15° cephalad to OML
13. The absence of infectious organisms is the definition for _____.
 asepsis
14. The large, sterile clear plastic sheet used during hip pinning procedures to
maintain a sterile field over the surgical site is termed a _____.
 shower curtain
15. The "boost" feature found on many C-arm systems slightly increases exposure to
the patient and the technologist.
 True
CHAPTER 13
1. The typical adult's small intestine (intact) measures _____.
 23 feet, or 7 meters
2. What is the longest segment of the small intestine?
 Ileum
3. The terms large intestine and colon are synonymous.
 False
4. Pouches or sacculations found along the mucosal wall of the large intestine are
termed _____.
 haustra
5. In which abdominal quadrant would the sigmoid colon be located primarily?
 LLQ
6. The transverse colon is a(n) _______ structure.
 Intraperitoneal
7. Which region(s) of the large intestine would be barium filled during a double-
contrast BE with the patient lying prone?
 Transverse and sigmoid colon
8. Regional enteritis is also known as _____.
 Crohn's disease
9. Methylcellulose is introduced into the small intestine during enteroclysis to
_____.
 dilate the loops of small intestine
10. Intussusception is most common in _____.
 children younger than 2 years of age
11. The most common type of colon cancer is _____.
 adenocarcinoma
12. Patients with an allergy to latex should be exposed only to natural latex gloves
and enema tips.
 False
13. What is the recommended kV range when a water-soluble contrast agent is
used?
 80-90 kV
14. The IV pole/enema bag is no farther than _____ above the table for the
beginning of a barium enema procedure.
 24 inches (61 cm)
15. One of the most common pathologic indications for evacuative proctography is
_____.
 rectocele
16. Which aspect of the large intestine is best demonstrated with the RAO
projection?
 Right colic flexure
17. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the rectum during an air-
contrast barium enema?
 Ventral decubitus
18. What type of CR angle is required for the AP axial "butterfly" projection?
 30° to 40° cephalad
CHAPTER 11
1. The glabella is located on the _______ cranial bone.
 frontal
2. The widest portion of the entire skull is located between the:
 Parietal tubercles
3. Which cranial bone houses the organs for hearing and equilibrium?
 Temporal
4. Which aspect of the skull is most vulnerable to fracture?
 Squamous portion of temporal bone
5. The jugular foramen is located on the _____ bone.
 temporal
6. Which cranial bone makes up an aspect of the bony nasal septum?
 Ethmoid
7. Sutural or wormian bones are most often found:
 Within the lambdoidal suture
8. Which division of the ear contains the malleus?
 Internal
9. The opening between the epitympanic recess and the mastoid portion of the
temporal bone is called the:
 Aditus
10. Which of the following facial bones is unpaired?
 Vomer
11. The anterior nasal spine is an aspect of the ____ bone.
 maxillary
12. The palatine process is an aspect of the ____ bone.
 maxillary
13. Lacrimal is derived from a word meaning:
 Tear
14. Which facial bone forms an aspect of the bony nasal septum?
 Ethmoid
15. What is the name of the process of the mandible in which the lower teeth are
embedded?
 Alveolar process
16. The older term "antrum of Highmore" describes the:
 Maxillary sinuses
17. Which paranasal sinus is the last one to develop?
 Ethmoid
18. The posterior aspect of the bony orbit is termed the:
 Apex
19. Which of the following bones makes up most of the lateral wall of the orbit?
 Zygomatic
20. What passes through the optic foramen?
 Second cranial nerve (optic nerve)
21. The width of the dolichocephalic skull is less than ___ of the length.
 75%
The angle between the midsagittal plane and the long axis of the petrous portion of the
temporal bone in the brachycephalic skull is:
47° or greater
The midline point at the junction of the upper lip and the nasal septum is called:
Acanthion
The tragus is located on the:
External ear
There is a ___ difference between the orbitomeatal and infraorbitomeatal lines.
7° to 8°
Metastatic osteoblastic lesions of the cranium are proliferative bony lesions of increased
density.
True
Which projection of the skull will best demonstrate signs of a pituitary adenoma?
Lateral
How much CR angle is required for the AP axial projection of the skull if the IOML is
perpendicular to the IR?
37°
Which positioning error is present if the orbital plates are not superimposed on a lateral
skull radiograph?
Rotation
Which variation of the PA (axial) projection of the skull has been performed if the
petrous ridges are at the level of the supraorbital margin?
PA 0°
Which positioning error is present if the mandibular condyles are seen within the
petrous portion of the temporal bone on an SMV projection?
Insufficient extension
What type of CR angle is required for a PA axial (Haas method) projection of the skull?
25° cephalad
Which of the following factors is different between a lateral projection of the sella turcica
and the cranium?
CR centering
A fracture of the floor of the orbit due to a direct strike to the base is termed a:
Blowout fracture
MRI is the recommended imaging modality to locate foreign bodies in the eye.
False
What is the positioning error for a parietoacanthial projection if the petrous ridges are
within the maxillary sinuses?
Excessive flexion
What is the angle between the OML and the plane of the IR for a well-positioned
parietoacanthial projection?
37°
Which of the following projections would best detect a fracture of the orbital floor?
Parietoacanthial projection
Which skull positioning line is perpendicular to the IR for a superoinferior tangential
(axial) projection of the nasal bones?
GAL
What is the angle between the MSP and the plane of the IR (from a lateral position) for
the parietoorbital oblique projection for the optic foramen?
53°
How much must the skull be rotated from a lateral position to best demonstrate the body
of the mandible for the axiolateral oblique projection?
30°
How much is the CR angled for an AP axial projection of the mandible if the IOML is
perpendicular to the IR?
42°
The axiolateral oblique (modified Law) projection for TMJ requires a CR angle of 15°
caudad and a 15° downward rotation of the skull from a lateral skull position.
True
What type of CR angle is required for the axiolateral (Schuller method) for the TMJs?
25° to 30° caudad

CHAPTER 14
1. The presence of the psoas muscles projects the longitudinal plane of the kidneys
______ posterior from the mid-coronal plane.
 20°
2. To place the kidneys into a true anatomic position and parallel to the IR, the body
must be rotated into a ___ oblique.
 30°
3. The kidneys in the adult are located _____.
 midway between the xiphoid process and the iliac crest
4. An abnormal drop in the position of the kidney when the patient is erect is termed
_____.
 nephroptosis
5. The renal veins are anterior to the renal arteries.
 True
6. The term that describes the total functional portion of the kidney is _____.
 renal parenchyma
7. Which of the following is not one of the three constricted points found along the
course of each ureter?
 Trigone
8. Which of the following structures is most anterior in the female pelvis?
 Ovaries
9. The urinary bladder is located in the _______ compartment of the peritoneum.
 infraperitoneal
10. Which of the following veins is not accessed for venipuncture?
 Brachial
11. The most common needle size used for bolus, contrast media injections for
adults is _____.
 18-22 gauge
12. How high above the injection site is the tourniquet placed for venipuncture?
  3-4 inches (8-10 cm)
When a vessel is punctured, the bevel of the needle must be facing upward.
True
A "metallic taste in the mouth" following a contrast media injection is classified as a
_____.
side effect
The normal creatinine range for an adult is _____.
0.6-1.5 mg/dL
How long must metformin be withheld from diabetic patients following a contrast media
procedure?
48 hours
If angioedema occurs following a contrast media injection, the patient is experiencing a
_____.
moderate reaction
If extravasation occurs following a bolus injection of contrast media, the technologist
should first _____.
elevate the affected extremity
Micturition is defined as _____.
the act of voiding or urination
What is a diuretic?
A drug that increases urine excretion
At what stage of an IVU are nephrotomograms typically taken?
Following injection of the contrast media
During ureteric compression, the pneumatic two paddles must be placed _____.
at the level of the iliac crest
If the symphysis pubis is superimposing a portion of the urinary bladder on an AP
projection taken during a cystogram, the technologist should _____.
increase CR caudal angle
Which position is most commonly performed during a voiding cystourethrogram on a
male patient?
30° RPO
CHAPTER 12
1. The distal end of the gallbladder is termed:
 Fundus
2. The mucosal folds found within the cystic duct are termed:
 Spiral valves
3. The hepatopancreatic sphincter is located at the _____.
 junction of the common bile and pancreatic ducts
4. Cholelithiasis is defined as _____.
 the condition of having gallstones
5. Which of the following is not one of the salivary glands?
 Supramandibular
6. A wavelike series of involuntary muscular contractions that propel solid and
semisolid materials through the alimentary tract is termed:
 Peristalsis
7. The angular notch is located _____.
 on the lesser curvature
8. If a patient lies supine during an upper GI series, where would most of the barium
settle within the stomach?
 In the fundus
9. What structure helps to create the C-loop of the duodenum?
 Head of pancreas
10. This pathologic condition is also known as cardiospasm.
 Achalasia
11. This pathologic condition is often secondary to acute liver disease such as
cirrhosis.
 Esophageal varices
12. A trichobezoar is a _____.
 mass of hair trapped in the stomach
13. Which one of the following projections will best demonstrate the proximal
esophagus?
 Swimmer's lateral
14. Which of the following upper GI projections will demonstrate the duodenal bulb in
profile?
 RAO
15. Which of the following upper GI projections will best demonstrate the retrogastric
space?
 Right lateral
16. How much rotation of the body is required for the LPO position during an upper
GI?
 30° to 60°