BLDG TECH PREBOARD

1. Which of the following floors would require the highest quality of levelness and flatness?
a. Gymnasium floors c. Movie/TV studios e. Carpet floors for office/comm’l bldgs
b. Ice or skating rink d. Warehouse w/ air pallets
2. Which of the following does not constitute the types of basement wall structures?
a. Drained b. Externally tanked c. Internally tanked d. Retaining e. Waterproof
3. A shingle-type roofing tile approximately semi-cylindrical in shape laid in courses with units having their convex side alternately
up and down.
a. Pantile b. Mission tile c. Roman tile d. Spanish tile e. Tegula
4. A twisting force is called
a. Torsion b. Shear c. Moment d. Axial e. Centrifugal
5. Lumber specification for S4S means
a. Smooth for surfacing b. Square on four sides c. First-class lumber d. Smooth on four sides e. None
6. A device for tightening bolts and nuts by means of rapidly repeated torque impulses produced by electrical or mechanical energy.
a. Auger b. Pneumatic hammer c. Impact wrench d. Router e. Swager
7. In Figure 1.0, identify “I”
a. Ceiling b. Eave c. Rake d. Shed e. Soffit
8. A column feature projecting from a corner of a building.
a. Canton b. Engaged column c. Pier d. Pilaster e. Quoin

PROBLEM FOR ITEMS 9 THRU 13: A building has 26 square columns 7.0m high with cross sectional dimensions of 0.50m X 0.50m
with 8 pieces 20mm main reinforcement. Provision states that lateral tie spacing shall not exceed any of the ff: 1) 16X the
longitudinal bar diameter; 2) 48X the lateral tie bar diameter; and 3) the least dimension of the column. Provide 4.0cm.
protective covering of concrete to the reinforcement.
9. What is the spacing distance between ties?
a. 24cm. b. 30cm. c. 32cm. d. 48cm. e. 50cm.
10. How many lateral ties are used in one column?
a. 15pcs. b. 17pcs. c. 23pcs. d. 27pcs. e. 31pcs.
11. Using L = 2(A+B) + 20d, where length of tie is “L”, sides of tie are “A” and “B”, and diameter of tie is “d”, how many 10mm
bars will be needed using 6.0m commercial length?
a. 120pcs. b. 150pcs. c. 180pcs. d. 200pcs. e. 300pcs.
12. Using 40.0cm tie wire, how many kilograms of tie wire is needed if 1kg of tie wire = 53 meters?
a. 27kg. b. 35kg. c. 37kg. d. 43kg. e. 49kg.
13. Given a choice, what would be the most appropriate length of 10mm bar for use as lateral tie?
a. 6.0m b. 7.5m c. 9.0m d. 12.0m e. Any length
14. The failure of retaining walls where the top portion of the wall slides first.
a. Drifting b. Sliding c. Shearing d. Overturning e. Undermining
15. What is the simplest unit of a space frame, having only 6 structural members?
a. Dodecahedron b. Hexahedron c. Loosahedron d. Octahedron e. Tetrahedron
16. A cantilever steel beam requires what kind of connection?
a. AISC Type 1 b. AISC Type 2 c. AISC Type 3 d. AISC Type 4 e. AISC Type 5
17. This kind of admixture is added to a concrete mix to act as “microreinforcing”. Its most common use is to reduce plastic
shrinkage cracking that sometimes occurs during curing of slabs. GFRC, which is used for cladding panels, also makes use of
this admixture.
a. Air-entraining admixtures c. Fibrous admixtures e. Superplasticizers
b. Fly ash d. Extended set-control admixtures
18. Metal decking that serves as permanent formwork for a reinforced concrete deck.
a. Cellular deck b. Composite deck c. Form deck d. Roof deck e. Steel deck
19. A low or partial story between two main stories of a building, especially one that projects as a balcony and forms a composition
with the story beneath it.
a. Blindstory b. Piano nobile c. Half story d. Loft e. Mezzanine
PROBLEM FOR ITEMS 20 THRU 23: A house has a rectangular footprint, with 6.5m frontage and 11.0m depth. Exterior walls
2.75m high enclose the house, ready for plastering. There are five doors – one 90cm main door, two 80cm secondary doors, and
two 2.50 wide sliding door – all standard 2.10m in height. Windows consist of six 1.80X1.0 room windows and two 0.50X0.50
toilet windows. Assume all dimensions of openings as effective measurements. Using Table 1.0, determine estimated quantities.
20. What is the effective area of the wall to be plastered?
a. 44.45sqm b. 69.20sqm c. 71.50sqm d. 96.25sqm e. 169.58sqm
21. Using 12mm thick Class C plaster, how many bags of cement is needed?
a. 5 bags b. 7 bags c. 8 bags d. 11 bags e. 19 bags
22. How much sand in cubic meters?
a. 0.5334 b. 0.8304 c. .858 d. 1.155 e. 2.035
23. If all openings (doors and windows) are placed offset at 10cm from exterior wall, how much plaster area is added?
a. 2.85sqm b. 3.36sqm c. 4.85sqm d. 6.21sqm e. 6.61 sqm
24. The visible rings in a cross section of a tree.
a. Heartwood b. Sapwood c. Springwood d. Summerwood e. Cambium
25. A plate structure composed of thin, deep elements joined rigidly along their boundaries and forming sharp angles to brace each
other against lateral buckling.
a. Continuous plate b. Folded plate c. Isostatic plate d. Lamella roof e. Space frame
26. Which among the masonry wall types connects to a structural frame such as wood or metal stud walls?
a. Masonry veneer b. Grouted masonry c. Cavity wall masonry d. Hollow unit masonry e. Solid masonry
27. A brick laid on its long edge, with its end exposed in the face of the wall.
a. Header b. Stretcher c. Soldier d. Rowlock e. Sailor
28. If poured concrete passes a cylinder test at 1,400 psi, what is its expected compressive strength?
a. 1,400 psi b. 2,100 psi c. 2,800 psi c. 3,000 psi e. 3,500 psi
29. The vernacular term for vertical stud is
a. Tabike b. Pabalagbag c. Kostilyahe d. Sinturon e. Pilarete
30. A joint formed when a concrete surface hardens before the next batch of concrete is placed against it.
a. Block out b. Cold joint c. Control joint d. Isolation joint e. Contraction joint
PROBLEM FOR ITEMS 31 THRU 34: A wall partition measures 5.80m wide and 2.80m high with 2” X 3” vertical studs at 60cm
vertical spacing and 40cm horizontal spacing center-to-center distance.
31. How many pieces is needed using only 10ft. length of lumber?
a. 17pcs b. 19pcs c. 24pcs d. 27pcs e. 29pcs
32. What is the total board-foot quantity?
a. 85 bd.ft. b. 95 bd.ft. c. 120 bd.ft. d. 130 bd.ft. e. 135 bd.ft.
33. How many 1.20m X 2.40m plywood would be needed for covering both sides?
a. 8pcs b. 9pcs c. 10pcs d. 11pcs e. 12pcs
34. Using Table 2.0, the estimated board-foot quantity would be
a. 85 bd.ft. b. 95 bd.ft. c. 120 bd.ft. d. 130 bd.ft. e. 135 bd.ft.
35. The abbreviation "HSS" refers to
a. Heavy steel structure c. Hollow structural steel e. Hot-worked structural steel
b. High-strength steel d. Horizontal shear section
36. In Figure 1.0, identify “D”
a. Cripple b. Hip c. Jack d. Ridge e. Valley
37. Prior to designing a foundation for a building larger than a typical residential house, it is necessary to determine the soil and water
conditions beneath the site. What is the initial investigation that can be undertaken?
a. Core test b. Cylinder test c. SPT d. Test boring e. Test pit
38. At present, the steel construction industry uses 5 major welding processes. Which is a popular process called "stick" welding?
a. Electroslag welding (ESW) c. Gas metal arc welding (GMAW) e. Shielded metal arc welding (SMAW)
b. Flux cored arc welding (FCAW) d. Submerged arc welding (SAW)
39. The lateral deflection of structure is called
a. Buckling b. Camber c. Drift d. Fatigue e. Flexure
40. Building multistory site-cast concrete walls with forms that rise up the wall as construction progresses.
a. Lift slab b. Slip form c. Up-down d. Tilt-up e. Top-out
41. Diaphragm Action is defined as a bracing action that derives from the stiffness of a thin plane of material when it is loaded in a
direction parallel to the plane. Which of the following does not characterize diaphragm action?
a. Wall panels b. Sheathing c. Metal decking d. Basement wall e. Truss
42. The major ingredient of glass is
a. Dolomite b. Glass cullet c. Limestone d. Silica sand e. Soda ash
43. Double-strength glass is
a. 2.5 mm thick b. 3 mm thick c. Monolithic d. Double-glazed e. Laminated
44. Single-strength glass is
a. 2.5 mm thick b. 3 mm thick c. Monolithic d. Double-glazed e. Laminated
45. Which of the following is not a high-range sealant?
a. Acrylic foam b. Butyl c. Polysulfide d. Polyurethane e. Silicone
46. Concrete (or sometimes mortar) conveyed through a hose and pneumatically projected at high velocity onto a surface, as a
construction technique.
a. Air lift b. Blowpipe c. Gunite d. Pumpcrete e. Shotcrete
47. Resistant to high temperatures.
a. Adiabatic b. Autogenous c. Isotropic d. Refractory e. Thixotropic
48. Among the paint ingredients, which is volatile?
a. Pigment b. Binder c. Solvent d. Additive e. All of the choices.
49. Portland cement concrete (PCC) that contains less portland cement paste than a typical PCC.
a. Dry concrete b. Lean concrete c. Pervious concrete d. Wet concrete e. Zero-slump concrete
50. Term for steel metal shapes such as angles, channels, flats, rounds, squares, etc. that are used for shaping into different products.
a. Billet b. Formed steel c. Merchant bars d. Reinforcing bars e. Steel bars
51. Aside from corrosion resistance as its most telling benefit, what is the second most important benefit that stainless steel impart?
a. Aesthetics b. Ease of fabrication c. Fire/heat resistance d. Hygiene e. Long term value
52. What is the best type of hinge to install for a door between a kitchen and a dining area?
a. Double acting gravity hinge b. Drop-leaf hinge c. Continuous hinge d. Pivot hinge e. Concealed hinge
53. A classroom with two doors shall specify the use of 3”x 6” door jamb. The clear opening for each door is 3’x 7’ and the ordering
of door jambs is at 18 ft. lengths. If 10 classrooms shall be constructed, what would be the total board-foot requirement for the
fabrication of the door jambs?
a. 510 bd. ft. b. 525 bd. ft. c. 540 bd. ft. d. 555 bd. ft. e. 570 bd. ft.
54. Distortion from shrinkage of sawn lumber depends on the position of the piece of lumber occupied in the tree. Which sawing
method produces the least distortion?
a. Plainsawn b. Quartersawn c. Quarter sliced d. Rotary sliced e. Rotary sawn
55. Metal with maximum width of 0.005 inches.
a. Foil b. Plate c. Sheet d. Strip e. Wire
56. Which of the following is not a bituminous material?
a. Asphalt b. Asphaltene c. Bentonite d. Pitch e. Tar
57. The cost of construction.
a. First cost b. Life-cycle cost c. Estimated cost d. Project cost e. Total cost
58. Placing the last member in a building frame.
a. First cost b. Shell-out c. Superstructure d. Topping-out e. RFO
59. Which of the following locksets cannot be installed on the door edge?
a. Cylinder lock b. Reversible lock c. Mortise lock d. Unit lock e. Rim lock
60. Which of the following paving systems fall under flexible paving?
a. Asphalt paving b. Grasscret c. Interlocking precast concrete d. Stamped concrete paving e. Stone paving
61. Overlay of portland cement concrete (PCC) over an existing flexible pavement such as hot mix asphalt (HMA).
a. Full-depth asphalt b. Macadam c. Reblocking d. Superpave e. Whitetopping
62. A critical path shows logic diagrams of activities and their relationships. What kind of activity flow requires one activity to be
complete before the next activity starts?
a. Dummy activities b. Parallel activities c. Pre-bid activities d. Restraining activities e. Sequential activities
63. A critical path shows logic diagrams of activities and their relationships. What kind of activity flow allows one activity to be
carried out independently of others at the same time?
a. Dummy activities b. Parallel activities c. Pre-bid activities d. Restraining activities e. Sequential activities
64. A critical path shows logic diagrams of activities and their relationships. Where all activities do not have to wait for the preceding
activities to be finished before they can be started, what is this kind of activity flow?
a. Dummy activities b. Parallel activities c. Pre-bid activities d. Restraining activities e. Sequential activities
65. Which of the following equipment can perform both excavation and finishing?
a. Backhoe-loader b. Dozer c. Gradall d. Grader e. Scraper
66. This type of forming system, used to form walls and slabs that are concreted in one operation, are suitable for repetitive use, such
as those found in high-rise residential projects, and particularly for cellular-type construction such as hotels, office buildings and
hospitals.
a. Drawer forms b. Ganged forms c. Modular forms d. Table forms e. Tunnel forms
67. A heavy-duty lifting machine that raises itself as the building rises.
a. Climbing crane b. Luffing boom crane c. Hammerhead boom crane d. Mobile crane
68. Wood expands…
a. When humidity decreases c. When temperature decreases e. When there is rain
b. When humidity increases d. When temperature increases
69. What is the difference between nominal and actual dimensions for dimension lumber 8" and above?
a. 1/4" b. 3/8” c. 1/2" d. 3/4" e. 1”
70. The Filipino term for rabbet
a. Asintada b. Palitada c. Vaciada d. Zocalo e. Tabika
71. In Fig. 2.0, which welding symbol indicates the use of backup bar to support the first pass of weld?
a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
72. Instrument or tool capable of vertical and horizontal line check is called
a. Plumb bob b. Spirit level c. Try square d. Caliper e. Ruler
73. What is the appropriate paint material for G.I. sheet roofing?
a. Alkyd type b. Enamel type c. Latex type d. Lacquer type e. Urethane type
74. What kind of shrinkage in logs is most pronounced?
a. Longitudinal shrinkage c. Radial shrinkage e. Perpendicular-to-grain shrinkage
b. Parallel-to-grain shrinkage c. Tangential shrinkage
75. A high-speed rotary shaping hand power tool used to make smooth cutting and curving on solid wood is called
a. Surface planer b. Dado plane c. Router d. Lathe machine
76. Dressed lumber is described as
a. Lumber covered with plastic for shipment c. Lumber of exact measurement
b. Smoothed or planed lumber d. Lumber used for fine carpentry works
77. The term for removing concrete forms from the cured concrete.
a. Stripping b. Clearing c. Reshoring d. Deforming e. Finishing
78. A type of “hands of door” where the doorknob is at the left and the door leaf swings outside of the room.
a. Right hand reverse b. Right hand c. Left hand reverse d. Left hand
79. What type of joint is used to install a glass into a lite of a French window?
a. Dado b. Rabbet c. Tenon d. Mortise e. Butt
80. Which of the following does not pertain to lumber as having achieved a seasoned quality?
a. Air-dried b. Kiln-dried c. Oven dry d. Surfaced dry e. None. All qualify.
81. For direct illumination (general lighting), what is the appropriate distance of light fixtures from the wall using downlights (e.g.
pinlights)?
a. 40 cm from the wall c. 1/2 the height of the room e. 1/4 the height of the room
b. Equal to the height of the room d. 1/3 the height of the room
82. What is the act of excavating or filling of earth or any sound material or combination thereof, in preparation for a finishing surface
such as paving?
a. Cut and fill b. Grading c. Benching d. Site preparation e. Backfill
83. The vernacular term for earthfill is
a. Eskombro b. Macadam c. Tambak d. Larga Masa e. Lastilyas
84. Calcium sulfate dihydrate.
a. Cement b. Fly ash c. Gypsum d. Lime e. Sand
85. In Figure 1.0, identify “C”
a. Eave b. Lookout c. Gable d. Soffit e. Rake

PROBLEM FOR ITEMS 86 THRU 89: A shed roof 14.0m wide and 6.0m deep shall make use of 32” corrugated G.I. sheets that are
commercially available at sizes 5ft to 12ft (Refer to Table 3.0). Lapping shall be 1-1/2 corrugations at sides and 30cm at ends.
86. How many sheets are needed in one row?
a. 16 b. 20 c. 22 d. 24 e. 40
87. What length/s of sheet will be used?
a. 6ft and 8ft b. 7ft c. 8ft and 12ft d. 9ft and 12ft e. 10ft
88. The quantity of rivets needed (in pieces).
a. 640pcs b. 800pcs c. 880pcs d. 960pcs e. 1,080pcs
89. How many rows of purlins are required?
a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11 e. 12
90. A beam that, if loaded to failure without lateral bracing of the compression flange, would fail by buckling rather than in flexure.
a. Drop-in beam b. Edge beam c. Simple beam d. Slender beam e. Spandrel beam
91. Continuous wire bar support used to support bars in the bottom of slabs.
a. Bat b. Bolster c. Chair d. Dowel e. Tripod
92. Which is the most appropriate curtain wall panel for a high-rise residential building?
a. Gypsum sheathing b. Glass curtain wall c. Metal and glass d. Precast concrete e. Masonry
93. Brickwork laid with each course consisting of alternating headers and stretchers.
a. Flemish bond b. English bond c. Running bond d. Common bond e. Stack bond
94. Brickwork laid with alternating courses each consisting entirely of headers and stretchers.
a. Flemish bond b. English bond c. Running bond d. Common bond e. Stack bond
95. Wall claddings are designed to allow the structural frame of a building and the exterior skin (cladding) of the building to move
independently of one another. Soft sealant joints in the skin panels make these attachments possible. Under which type of
movement joint do you classify this kind of attachment?
a. Building separation joints b. Surface divider joints c. Working construction joints d. Structure/enclosure joints
96. A beam that runs along the outside edge of a floor or roof.
a. Girt b. Tie beam c. Grade beam d. Spandrel beam e. Cantilever
97. A column whose load capacity is limited by buckling rather than strength.
a. Composite column b. Long column c. Short column d. Slender column e. Tied column
98. What is the general term for a slab other than slab-on-grade?
a. Cast-in-place b. Reinforced slab c. Slabjacking d. Superslab e. Suspended slab
99. With regards to concrete proportioning, which of the following characteristics considers water-cement ratio as its measuring
device?
a. Consistency b. Durability c. Heat generation d. Placeability e. Strength
100. The performance of a concrete slab-on-grade depends on the integrity of both the soil-support system and the slab. What is the
recommended method for evaluating the ability of the soil-support system to withstand loading?
a. Grade course b. Proof-rolling c. Soil boring test d. SPT e. Tamping
101. What is a joint between two concrete placement where shrinking is a consideration?
a. Control joint b. Contraction joint c. Construction joint d. Expansion joint e. Isolation joint
102. The compressive strength of steel reinforcement is how many times greater than that of normal-strength concrete?
a. About twice b. About 5 times c. About 10 times d. About 20 times e. Concrete is stronger.
103. The most common material used as interlayer in laminated glass.
a. Polyvinyl butyral b. Polyvinyl chloride c. Polyurethane d. Ethyl vinyl acetate e. Celluloid
104. A short rafter, running perpendicular to the other rafters in the roof, which supports a rake overhang.
a. Cripple b. Fly rafter c. Jack rafter d. Lookout e. Girt
105. A ceiling with sufficient structural strength to support workers safely as they install and maintain mechanical and electrical
installations above the ceiling.
a. Access flooring b. Suspended ceiling c. Substructure d. Interstitial ceiling e. Plenum
106. What is the main component in the production of glass mirrors?
a. Chromium b. Mercury c. Silver d. Tin e. Zinc
107. A vertical bar between adjacent window or door units.
a. Astragal b. Mullion c. Muntin d. Stile e. Sash
108. What is the purpose of placing a drip groove and/or capillary break at the bottom of a window sash, along with a corresponding
weatherstrip placed at bottom interior side of the same sash?
a. To provide a pressure equalization chamber d. To prevent insect penetration
b. To prevent abrasion between sash and sill e. To compensate for expansion
c. To repel water caused by gravitational entry
109. The opening through a parapet through which water can drain over the edge of a flat roof.
a. Gutter b. Scupper c. Plinth d. Roof drain e. Stack vent
110. The vernacular term for joist is
a. Biga b. Bolada c. Kostilyahe d. Suleras e. Guililan

PROBLEM FOR ITEMS 111 THRU 114: A bedroom area 4.20m X 3.40m shall be fitted out with 40cm X 40cm ceramic floor tiles,
wall paint, gypsum board plain ceiling, and 1” X 4” baseboard and 1” X 3” cornice. The room is provided with 0.70m door and
1.50m X 1.00m window. Ceiling height is 2.60m. Determine the following:
111. Quantity of floor tiles.
a. 80pcs b. 86pcs c. 90pcs d. 94pcs e. 100pcs
112. Quantity of gypsum boards.
a. 4pcs b. 5pcs c. 6pcs d. 7pcs e. 8pcs
113. Board-foot quantity for baseboard and cornice.
a. 15 bd.ft. b. 17 bd.ft. c. 28 bd.ft. d. 30 bd.ft. e. 33 bd.ft.
114. If paint is done 3X (three coats), how many gallons is needed for painting the ceiling and wall? Assume 25sqm per gallon
coverage.
a. 2 gals b. 3 gals c. 4 gals d. 5 gals e. 6 gals
115. A piece of steel welded to the top of a steel beam or girder so as to become embedded in the concrete fill over the beam and
cause the beam and the concrete to act as a single structural unit.
a. Anchor belt b. Shear stud c. Moment stirrup d. Spandrel e. Spline
116. A tall, narrow window alongside a door.
a. Ribbon window b. Bay window c. Mullion d. Narrow light e. Sidelight
117. Which of the following is not a fire-rated glass?
a. Polished wired glass b. Ceramic glass c. Specially tempered glass d. Transparent wall units e. Fritted glass
118. Individual pieces of glass are known as
a. Lites b. Panels c. Panes d. Plates e. Sheets
119. A flat steel plate used to connect the members of a truss.
a. Baseplate b. Stiffener plate c. Gusset plate d. Anchor plate e. Washer
120. Which of the following reflects the visual characteristic of wood?
a. Anisotropic b. Autogenous c. Hygroscopic d. Isotropic e. Thixotropic
121. A process for preserving wood by impregnating the cell with creosote under pressure
a. Bethell process b. Boliden salt process c. Boucherie process d. Kyanizing e. Rueping process
122. Glue-laminated (Glulam) timber column is
a. Box column b. Built-up column c. Solid column d. Spaced column e. Tapered column
123. This type of drill, powered by compressed air or hydraulic fluid, breaks rock into small particles by impact from repeated blows.
a. Abrasion drill b. Churn drill c. Core drill d. Percussion drill e. Shot drill
124. This is a type of drill designed for obtaining samples of rock from a hole, usually for exploratory purposes.
a. Abrasion drill b. Blasthole drill c. Core drill d. Downhole drill e. Percussion drill
125. A rotary drill consisting of a steel-pipe drill stem on the bottom of which is a roller-bit. As the bit rotates, it grinds the rock.
a. Blasthole drill b. Churn drill c. Core drill d. Diamond drill e. Downhole drill
126. Using a jackhammer falls under which type of drilling?
a. Abrasion drilling b. Core drilling c. Directional drilling d. Percussion drilling e. Rotary drilling
127. This term refers to the fire-resistant material inserted into a space between a curtain wall and a spandrel beam or column, to
retard the passage of fire through the space.
a. Sleeve b. Firestopping c. Safing d. Penetrant e. Fireproofing
128. Any of a number of devices for hoisting building materials on the end of a rope or cable.
a. Crane b. Derrick c. Lewis d. Boom e. Lift
129. The temporary formwork for an arch, dome, or vault.
a. Centering b. Scaffolding c. Staging d. Underframing e. Anchoring
130. The vernacular term for purlin is
a. Kilo b. Barakilan c. Reostra d. Tahilan e. Gililan
131. These materials have substances that swell as a result of heat exposure thus increasing in volume and decreasing in density. In
passive fire protection systems, these materials are used in a form of coating or mastic that expands to form a stable, insulating
char when exposed to fire. These materials are said to be
a. Ablative b. Endothermic c. Inflammable d. Intumescent e. Thixotropic
132. Refers to properties that are the same regardless of the direction that is measured, or properties that are the same everywhere.
a. Adiabatic b. Autogenous c. Isotropic d. Refractory e. Thixotropic
133. A reinforced-concrete system in which a slab is supported by and is often monolithic with reinforced concrete beams.
a. Beam-and-slab floor b. Concrete flatwork c. Continuous slab d. Drop panel e. Flat plate
134. Concrete culverts, pipes and poles are examples of which category of concrete?
a. Architectural concrete c. Centrifugally-cast concrete e. Roller-compacted concrete
b. Central-mixed concrete d. Cyclopean concrete
135. Concrete in which large stones, each of 50kg or more, are placed and embedded in the concrete as it is deposited.
a. Cyclopean concrete b. Dense concrete c. Heavyweight concrete d. Mass concrete e. Rubble cocnrete
136. Concrete of high cement content.
a. Lean concrete b. Monolithic concrete c. Negative-slump concrete d. Rich concrete e. Zero-slump concrete
137. White rust is usually seen in
a. Concrete curing b. Chrome faucets c. G.I. sheets d. Paint chalking e. Welded metal
138. Which of the following is not a semi-finished steel product?
a. Billet b. Bloom c. Clinker d. Ingot e. Slab
139. Which is not a noble metal?
a. Gold b. Palladium c. Platinum d. Silver e. Titanium
140. When a provision of specification requires action on the Contractor's part, what is the operative word to use?
a. ‘may’ b. ‘must’ c. ‘shall’ d. ‘shal either… or’ e. ‘will’
141. In specification, if the Contractor is allowed to exercise an option, what is the operative word to use?
a. ‘may’ b. ‘must’ c. ‘shall’ d. ‘shal either… or’ e. ‘will’
142. In specification, when limited alternatives are available to the Contractor, what is the operative word to use?
a. ‘may’ b. ‘must’ c. ‘shall’ d. ‘shal either… or’ e. ‘will’
143. When the specification cites informational statements that involve the Owner, the operative word to use is
a. ‘may’ b. ‘must’ c. ‘shall’ d. ‘shal either… or’ e. ‘will’
144. “Structural Conceptualization” means the act of conceiving, choosing and developing the type, disposition, arrangement and
proportioning of the structural elements of an architectural work. Which of the following is not included in the considerations
afforded for the above statement?
a. Aesthetics b. Cost-effectiveness c. Functionality d. Safety e. Technical expertise
145. In BP 344, which among the building’s facilities and features is not required as “accessible/barrier-free”?
a. Elevators b. Floor finishes c. Seating accommodations d. Doors e. Windows
146. Of or pertaining to project scheduling in which the design and construction phases of a building project overlap to compress the
total time required for completion.
a. CPM b. Cross-over c. Fast-track d. Top out e. Turn-key
147. An axonometric projection of a three-dimensional object inclined to the picture plane in such a way that two of its principal axes
are equally foreshortened and the third appears longer or shorter than the other two.
a. Dimetric projection b. Isometric projection c. Oblique projection d. Orthogonal projection e. Trimetric projection
148. The complete records of test conduction (slump, compression test, etc.) shall be preserved and made available for inspection
during the progress of construction and after completion of the project for a period of not less than
a. 5 years b. 4 years c. 3 years d. 2 years e. 1 year
149. When a product, system, or process is specific, especially when one with a registered trademark, it is described as
a. Branded b. Copyrighted c. Name-specific d. Non-variant e. Proprietary
150. In specification, this word shall mean to place in position, incorporate in the work, adjust, clean, and make fit for use.
a. Deliver b. Furnish c. Install d. Provide e. Render
151. Plaster devoid of sand.
 a. Grout b. Lean plaster c. Neat plaster d. Rich plaster e. Stucco
152. Ceramic tile can be classified according to water absorption. What is the water absorption classification for vitreous tile?
a. 0% water absorption b. 0.1% to 0.5% c. 0.5% to 3.0% d. 3.0% to 7.0% e. More than 7%
153. Any of the wedge-shaped units in a masonry arch or vault, having side cuts converging at one of the arch centers.
a. Extrados b. Intrados c. Keystone d. Springer e. Voussoir
154. The process of forming brick and structural tile by extruding plastic clay through a die and cutting the extrusion to length with
wires before firing.
a. Baked-mud process b. Cold-form process c. Dry-press process d. Soft-mud process e. Stiff-mud process
155. A rammed earth wall, it is a stiff mixture of clay, sand or other aggregate, and water, compressed and dried within the wall
forms.
a. Adobe b. Bisque c. Mudbrick d. Pise e. Terra cotta
156. A steel or cast iron plate having a wafflelike pattern, usually used as metal floor for vehicles and workshops.
a. Blackplate b. Checkered plate c. Hardware cloth d. Terneplate e. Web plate
157. The portion of the joint where the members closest to each other shall be welded.
a. Bead b. Pass c. Root d. Toe e. Throat
158. Screw with no head.
a. Cap screw b. Set screw c. Self-tapping screw d. Thumbscrew e. None
159. If steel is the material for framing a tall building, the building’s lateral rigidity will depend much on which structural system?
a. Raft foundation b. Moment connection framing c. Firewalls d. Spandrels e. Floor diaphragm
160. In structural steel construction, who is the entity that produces the shop and erection drawings?
a. Erector b. Fabricator c. Specifier d. Steel detailer e. Structural engineer
161. Which type of adhesive for engineered wood is least resistant to water?
a. Melamine formaldehyde resin (MF) d. Polyurethane resin (PU)
b. Methylene diphenyl diisocyanate (MDI) e. Urea formaldehyde resin (UF)
c. Phenol formaldehyde resin (PF)
162. Which of the following is not used as dimension lumber?
a. LSL b. LVL c. OSB d. OSL e. PSL
163. Which of the following is structural lumber?
a. Appearance lumber b. Boards c. Dimension lumber d. Factory lumber e. Yard lumber
164. Which of the following is a fire-retardant wood?
a. Engineered wood b. Glass wood c. Glulam d. Pressure-treated wood e. Wolmanized
165. Which of the following wood preservatives is commonly used as preservative for furniture?
a. Creosote b. Linseed oil c. Tung oil d. White spirit e. Wolmanized
166. It is popularly called "synthetic stucco".
a. DAFS b. EIFS c. EPS d. ETICS e. GFRS
167. To provide a hard, non-corrosive, electrolytic, oxide film on the surface of a metal, particularly aluminum, by electrolytic action.
a. Anneal b. Anodize c. Galvanize d. Glaze e. Weld
168. Which of the following is an insulating glass unit (IGU)?
a. Double-glazed window b. Laminated glass c. Low-e coated glass d. Reflective coated glass e. All of the above
169. Which of the following is a tinted glass?
a. Laminated glass b. Low-e coated glass c. Reflective coated glass d. Spandrel glass e. All of the above
170. Which of the following is not a coated glass?
a. Fritted glass b. Low-e coated glass c. Reflective coated glass d. Self-cleaning glass e. None. All are coated
171. ASTM classifies dimension stone into six groups, two of which are "quartz based stone" and "other stones". Which of the
following is not part of the first four groups?
a. Granite b. Limestone c. Marble d. Sandstone e. Slate
172. ASTM classifies dimension stone into six groups, sixth of which is "other stones". Travertine falls under which group?
a. Granite b. Limestone c. Marble d. Sandstone e. Slate
173. Which of the following is an igneous rock?
a. Granite b. Limestone c. Marble d. Quartz based stone e. Slate
174. Which of the following is a sedimentary rock?
a. Granite b. Limestone c. Marble d. Sandstone e. Slate
175. Which of the following is a metamorphic rock?
a. Granite b. Limestone c. Marble d. Sandstone e. Slate
176. What is the standard size overlap for corrugated G.I. roofing?
a. 1 corrugation b. 1-1/2 corrugations c. 2 corrugations d. 2-1/2 corrugations e. 3 corrugations
177. Of or pertaining to a flat or bowstring truss having inclined web members forming a series of equilateral triangles.
a. Belgian truss b. Fink truss c. Howe truss d. Pratt truss e. Warren truss
178. Of or pertaining to a flat or pitched truss having vertical web members in tension and diagonal members in compression.
a. Belgian truss b. Fink truss c. Howe truss d. Pratt truss e. Warren truss
179. Of or pertaining to a flat or pitched truss having vertical web members in compression and diagonal members in tension.
a. Belgian truss b. Fink truss c. Howe truss d. Pratt truss e. Warren truss
180. When a building has a roof of complex geometry such as a hyperbolic paraboloid shell, what roofing membrane approach would
be best chosen?
a. Built-up roof (BUR) b. Elastomeric roofing c. Fluid-applied roofing d. Protected membrane roof e. Single-ply roofing
181. What is the primary purpose of roof sheathing?
a. To provide diaphragm support for the overall roof system. d. To provide thermal and moisture protection.
b. To provide a roof membrane. e. All of the choices.
c. To provide a base for the installation of roofing material.
182. What is the purpose of roof underlayment?
a. To provide diaphragm support for the overall roof system. d. To provide thermal and moisture protection.
b. To provide a roof membrane. e. All of the choices.
c. To provide a base for the installation of roofing material.
183. Large prefabricated units of formwork incorporating supports, and designed to be moved from place to place.
 a. Climbing form b. Flying forms c. Ganged forms d. Moving forms e. Slipform
184. A composite structural material comprising thin sections consisting of cement mortar reinforced by a number of very closely
spaced layers of steel wire mesh.
a. Ferrocement b. Lath and plaster c. Furring d. Sandwich panel e. Veneer
185. A prefabricated panel that is layered composite, formed by attaching two thin facings to a thicker core. For example, a precast
concrete panel consisting of two layers of concrete separated by a nonstructural insulating core.
a. Ferrocement b. Lath and plaster c. Furring d. Sandwich panel e. Veneer
186. Voids left in concrete due to failure of the mortar to effectively fill the spaces among coarse-aggregate particles.
a. Bug holes b. Entrained air c. Efflorescence d. Honeycomb e. Laitance
187. A layer of weak material derived from cementitious material and aggregate fines either carried by bleeding to the surface or
separated from the mixture and deposited on the surface or internal cavities.
a. Bug holes b. Entrained air c. Efflorescence d. Honeycomb e. Laitance
188. A system of reinforcement in flat-slab construction comprising bands of bars parallel to two adjacent edges and also to both
diagonals of a rectangular slab.
a. Curtain reinforcement c. Two-way reinforcement e. Web reinforcement
b. Distribution-bar reinforcement d. Four-way reinforcement
189. Transverse reinforcement, usually applied to ties, hoops and spirals in columns and column-like members.
a. Auxiliary reinforcement c. Dowel-bar reinforcement e. Shear reinforcement
b. Distribution-bar reinforcement d. Lateral reinforcement
190. To avoid cracks on concrete slab-on-grade, where should temperature and shrinkage reinforcement be positioned for maximum
effectiveness?
a. At the upper third of slab thickness d. Anywhere within the slab thickness
`b. At the middle of slab thickness e. Does not matter if control joints are sawn on the hardened slab.
c. At the bottom third of slab thickness
191. Which building technique is the simplest?
a. Concrete construction c. Masonry construction e. Wood light frame construction
b. Light-gauge steel frame construction d. Steel frame construction
192. Which of the following glass types offers the least noise reduction?
a. Double-strength glass b. Laminated glass c. Insulating glass d. Transparent wall units e. Double-glazed glass
193. In cases where substantial noise reduction is required for sealed windows, which type of glazing is the most sensible choice?
a. Solid single glazing d. Double glazing
b. Laminated single glazing e. Triple glazing
c. Transparent plastic glazing (e.g. high-impact polycarbonate)
194. The vertical framing member in a panel door.
a. Header b. Jamb c. Mullion d. Muntin e. Stile
195. A curtain wall system that is largely assembled in place.
a. Composite system b. Mullion system c. Stick system d. Unit system e. Unit-and-mullion system
196. Which of the following processes revolutionized the production of glass?
a. Autoclave process b. Crown process c. Cylinder process d. Float process e. Lehr process
197. A large door consisting of horizontal, interlocking metal slats guided by a track on either side, opening by coiling about an
overhead drum at the head of the door opening.
a. Accordion door b. Double-acting door c. Overhead door d. Revolving door e. Rolling door
198. SPT stands for
a. Soil penetration test b. Soil pit test c. Soil pressure test d. Standard penetration test e. Standard Proctor test
199. Soil tests are undertaken by
a. Geodetic engineer b. Geotechnical engineer c. Sanitary engineer d. Structural engineer e. Surveyor
200. In large-scale projects, site management considers possible transport of excavated earth or materials within, into, and out of, the
site. What is the proper term for this activity?
a. Cut-and-fill b. Earthworks c. Earthmoving d. Hauling e. Tipping
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