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GENESIS
(Post Graduation Medical orientation Centre)
Exam : Resi_MD-1(Cardiology, Nephrology, Acute medicine
,Critical illness)_Clinical_2021
Total Mark : 40 Time : 2100 Min
Class/Chapter : Date : 2021-06-03

1. The abnormalities of the jugular venous pulse are 2. Followimg Statement are True regarding 12 lead ECG
associated with the following disorders a). a) PR interval Normal = 0.05–0.10 sec
a). a) Cannon waves-pulmonary hypertension b). b) QRS duration > 0.12 sec
b). b) Large a waves-tricuspid stenosis c). c) Large QRS complexes occur in slim young patients
c). c) Giant V waves- tricuspid regurgitations d). d) ST elevation may signify myocardial infarction, pericarditis
d). d) Inspiratory rise of JVP-pericardial tamponades e). e) QT interval Normal > 0.42 sec
e). e) Absent a wave-atrioventricular dissociation FTTTF
FTTTF
3. Causes of Soft 1st heart sound
a). a) MS
b). b) MR
c). c) Pregnancy
d). d) Heart failure
e). e) Anaemia
FTFTF

4. ECG change(s) in hyperkalemia is(are) 5. Drugs used for management of hypertension in pregnancy:
a). a) tall peaked narrow based T wave a). a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b). b) prolonged QT interval b). b) Atenolol
c). c) tall P wave c). c) Labetalol
d). d) ST depression d). d) Captopril
e). e) U wave e). e) a- Methyldopa
TFFFF FFTFT

6. The features of cardiac temponade includes 7. The following are recognized complications of heart failure
a). a) Decreasing arterial pressure a). a) Hyponatraemia
b). b) Increased venous Pressure b). b) Renal failure
c). c) Distant heart sound c). c) Impaired liver function tests
d). d) Water hammer Pulse d). d) Anaemia
e). e) Collapse of the right atrium and right ventricle during diastole e). e) Thromboembolism

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TTFFT TTTFT

8. Characteristics of innocent murmur are 9. Pansystolic murmur is present in

a). a) It is always mid diastolic a). a) aortic stenosis
b). b) Seldom of more than grade 2 intensity b). b) tricuspid regurgitation
c). c) Usually best heard in the pulmonary area c). c) Mitral regurgitation
d). d) Radiates to left axilla d). d) pulmonary stenosis
e). e) Is not associated with cardiac enlargement e). e) Ventriculae septal defect
FTTFT FFTFT

10. Second heart sound 11. Feature(s) of rheumatic carditis is(are)

a). a) Is a low frequency sound a). a) pericarditis
b). b) Signals the onset of ventricular systole b). b) diastolic murmur
c). c) Wide fixed splitting of it is the pathognomonic feature of atrial c). c) sinus arrhythmia
septal defect d). d) bradycardia
d). d) Reverse splitting of it occurs in left bundle branch block e). e) cardiomegaly
e). e) The P2 component is loud in pulmonary stenosis (Davidson TTTFT
23rd /p-526)
FFTTF 12. Tetralogy of fallot consists of
a). a) ASD
b). b) VSD
c). c) Dextroposition of the aorta
d). d) Pulmonary stenosis
e). e) Right ventricular hypertrophy
FTFTT

13. Cyanotic congenital heart diseases include 14. Following statements are true regarding atrial septal
a). a) atrial septal defect defect-
b). b) isolated ventricular septal defect a). a) F:M = 2:1
c). c) double outlet right ventricle b). b) Most are ostium primum defect
d). d) tricuspid atresia c). c) Ostium secundum is associated with cleft mitral value
e). e) patent ductus arteriosus d). d) Wide fixed splitting 2nd heart sound is a feature
FFTTF e). e) ECG shows in completely RBBB
TFFTT

15. Clinical features compatible with hypertrophic 16. Chronic constrictive pericarditis includes
cardiomyopathy include a). a) Raised jugular venous pressure during inspiration
a). a) Family history of sudden death b). b) Pulsus bisferiens

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b). b) Angina pectoris c). c) High systolic blood pressure during inspiration
c). c) Jerky pulse and heaving apex beat d). d) Ascites
d). d) Pansystolic murmur e). e) High pulse pressure
e). e) Soft or absent second heart sound TFFTF
TTTTF
17. In atrial fibrillation
a). a) The ECG shows no evidence of atrial activity
b). b) Ventricular rate is lower than atrial rate
c). c) Produces cannon wave in JVP
d). d) The ventricular rate is irregular
e). e) Intensity of first heart sound is variable
FTFTT

18. Adverse prognostic factor for acute coronary syndrome 19. In coaractation of aorta
a). a) Recurrent ischemia a). a) The post-ductal type presents in infancy
b). b) Arrhythmias b). b) A lateral chest x-ray may show dilated descending thoracic
c). c) Haemodynamic complications aorta
d). d) Release of biochemical markers c). c) The isthmus of the aorta is the usual site
e). e) Extensive ECG change d). d) Bicuspid aortic valve is a recognized association
TTTTT e). e) Berry aneurysms are a recognized complication
FTTTF

20. Regarding aortic aneurism 21. Characteristic feature(s) of hypertensive retinopathy

a). a) Tend to run in family is(are)
b). b) Marfan’s syndrome is a cause a). a) dot and blot hemorrhage
c). c) Male affected 3 times more in case of abdominal aortic b). b) macular star
aneurism c). c) papilloedema
d). d) All abdominal aortic aneurism should be repaired d). d) neovascularisation
e). e) Most patients with ruptured AAA do not survive to reach e). e) soft exudate
hospital FFTFT
TTTFT
22. Endocrine causes of hypertension are
a). a) idiopathic hypoaldosteronism
b). b) pheochromocytoma
c). c) hyperthyroidism
d). d) hypothyroidism
e). e) insulinoma
FTTTF

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23. ACE inhibitors 24. Features of infective endocarditis are
a). a) Have positive inotropic effect a). a) proteinuria
b). b) Reduce after load b). b) erythema nodosum
c). c) Have effect on preload c). c) sensory neuropathy
d). d) Are also known as rennin inhibitors d). d) hematuria
e). e) Have side effects like dry cough e). e) peripheral arterial embolism
FTTTT FFFTT

25. Hemoglobinuria is found in 26. First Choice Antibiotic regimens for urinary tract infection
a). a) rhabdomyolysis in Pregnency
b). b) snake bite a). a) Cefalexin
c). c) intravascular hemolysis b). b) Ciprofloxacin
d). d) renal tuberculosis c). c) Pivmecillinam
e). e) falciparum malaria d). d) Nitrofurantoin
FTTFT e). e) Cefalexin
FFFTT

27. Pyuria with negative urine culture are found in 28. When should a patient be referred to Nephrologist?
a). a) Renal tuberculosis a). a) eGFR 60 or below
b). b) Salmonellosis b). b) Presence of proteinuria
c). c) Leptospirosis c). c) Rapid deterioration of GFR
d). d) Patient under antibiotic treatment d). d) Strong family history
e). e) Diabetes mellitus e). e) eGFR < 30 ml/min
TFFTF FTTFT

29. Contra-Indication For renal biopsy – 30. Followings are needed to measure CCR
a). a)Acute kidney injury of uncertain aetiology a). a) Morning specimen of urine
b). b) Nephrotic syndrome in children that has atypical features or is b). b) Timed 24 hour urine
not responding to treatment c). c) Serum creatinine level
c). c) Renal transplant dysfunction d). d) Serum urea level
d). d) Kidneys < 60% predicted size e). e) Urine creatinine level
e). e)i solated haematuria FTTFT
FFFTF
31. Causes of glomerulonephritis with hypocomplementaemia
a). a) Cryoglobulinaemia
b). b) SLE
c). c) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
d). d) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

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e). e) Acute bacterial infection 32. Minimal change nephropathy
TTTFF a). a) Is associated with Hodgkin’s disease
b). b) Doesn’t relapse
c). c) Produces non-selective proteinuria in adults
d). d) Rerely progresses to end stage renal disease
e). e) May be caused by captopril
TFFTF

33. Causes of Haemoglobinuria 34. Typical features of acute post infectious

a). a) Infection glomerulonephritis include (July-08)
b). b) Tumour a). a) Subendothelial immune deposits on the glomerular basement
c). c) Intravascular haemolysis membrane
d). d) Glomerular bleeding b). b) Bacterial rather than viral infections
e). e) Rhabdomyolysis c). c) Diffuse glomerular involvement
FFTFF d). d) Recurrent haemoptysis
e). e) A poor prognosis when the disease occurs in childhood
TTFFF

35. Features of adult polycystic kidney disease 36. Indication for renal replacement therapy includes;
a). a) Autosomal recessive inheritance a). (a) Hypokalaemia
b). b) Heavy proteinuria is a characteristic feature b). (b) Uraemic pericarditis
c). c) PKD1 mutations account for about 85% cases c). (c) Metabolic alkalosis
d). d) Berry aneurysms are a common association d). (d) Pulmonary oedema
e). e) USG may not detect small developing cysts in young patients e). (e) Increase plasma urea
FFTTT FTFTF

37. Haemolytic uremic syndrome is characterized by 38. Regarding laboratory finding of SIADH:
a). a) Leukocytoclastic vasculitis a). a) Plasma sodium concentration <130 mmol/L
b). b) Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia b). b) Plasma osmolality >300 mosm/kg
c). c) Arthritis c). c) Urine osmolality >150 mmol/kg
d). d) Azotaemia d). d) Urine sodium canc. >30 mmol/L
e). e) Thrombocytopenic purpura e). e) Increased plasma urea & Creatinine level
FTFTT TFTTF

39. Risk factors For Delirium 40. What are the non- cardio respiratory causes of elevated
a). a)Sensory impairment serum troponin?
b). b)Polypharmacy a). a) Prolonged hypotension
c). c)Renal impairment b). b) Severe sepsis

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d). d) Diarrhoea c). c) End stage liver failure
e). e)Urinary catheterization d). d) Severe burns
TTTFT e). e) Subarachnoid haemorrhage
TTFTT

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