Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Important

Questions Human Health and Disease

Question 1.
State the functions of mast cells in allergy response. (All India 2019)
Answer:
The function of mast cell is allergy response is that it releases histamin which cause
inflammatory reactions in the body.
Question 2.
State the function of interferons. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Interferons protect non-infected cells from the other viral infected cells by releasing
cytokine barriers.

Question 3.
How do monocytes act as a cellular barrier in humans to provide innate immunity?
(2018)
Answer:
Monocytes phagocytose and destroy microbes present in the blood to provide innate
immunity.
Question 4.
How do cytokine barriers provide immunity in humans? (2018)
Answer:
Cytokine barriers include interferons, which are secreted by virus infected cells. They
provide protection to non-infected cells from further same viral infection.
Question 5.
Name two diseases whose spread can be controlled by the eradication of Aedes
mosquito. (2018)
Answer:
Dengue fever and chikungunya are two diseases, whose spread can be controlled by the
eradication of Aedes mosquito.
Question 6.
Suggest a method to ensure an anamnestic response in humans. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Anamnestic response is the quick and intense response, which occurs when an
individual encounters a particular antigen for the second time. It is aided by the memory
of primary response stored in B-cells. By the administration of a dead or attenuated
pathogen in the body of person, a secondary immune response can be ensured due to
the presence of memory cells in the body.
Question 7.
Retroviruses have no DNA. However, the DNA of the infected host cell does possess
viral DNA. How is it possible? (All India 2015)
Answer:
Retroviruses have RNA as their genetic material. After getting into the body of a person,
the virus enters the macrophages. Here, RNA is replicated to form viral DNA by using
enzyme reverse transcriptase. The viral DNA now, gets incorporated into the host cell’s
DNA and directs the infected cells to produce viruses.
Question 8.
Indiscriminate diagnostic practices using X-rays, etc., should be avoided. Give one
reason. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Indiscriminate diagnostic practices using X-rays should be avoided, because there are
several potential risks from exposure to ionising radiations, e.g. cancer can be
developed in later stages of life, various tissues can also get affected leading to
cataract, hair loss, etc.
Question 9.
In what way is monocyte a cellular barrier with reference to immunity? (Delhi 2015)
Or
Name any two types of .cells that act as ‘cellular barriers’ to provide innate immunity in
humans. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Cellular barriers include certain types of leucocytes of our body such as
polymorphonuclear leucocytes, monocytes and natural killer in the blood as well as
macrophages in tissues. These can phagocytose and destroy microbes and provide
innate immunity to humans.
Question 10.
How do cytokinin barriers help in evading viral infections? (Delhi 2015)
Or
How do interferons protect us? (All India 2012)
Answer:
Cytokinins are virus infected cells, which secrete proteins called interferons. They
protect non-infected cells from further viral infection by inhibiting their replication and
making cell resistant to further infection.
Question 11.
Why is Gambusia introduced into drains and ponds? (All India 2014)
Answer:
Gambusia is a fish that feed upon mosquito larvae. Thus, it is introduced in drains and
ponds to destroy disease vectors.
Question 12.
Why is secondary immune response more intense than the primary immune response in
humans? (All India 2014)
Or
When does a human body elicit an anamnestic response? (All India 2013; Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
The secondary or anamnestic immune response is based on the memory of primary
response, i.e. first encounter with an antigen. Due to this, the second generated immune
response is more fast and have higher affinity for antigen and therefore, it is more
intense than primary immune response in humans.
Question 13.
How does haemozoin affect the human body when released in blood during malarial
infection? (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The release of toxic haemozoin by the ruptured RBCs during malarial infection results in
recurrence of high fever and chill every 3-4 days.
Question 14.
What is an autoimmune disease? Give an example. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The abnormal response of an immune system, in which it fails to recognise ‘self’ and
‘non-self’ and starts destroying its own cells and molecules is called autoimmune
disease. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of autoimmune disease, which destroys
articular cartilage and fusing bones.
Question 15.
Why sharing of injection needles between two individuals is not recommended? (Delhi
2013)
Answer:
Sharing of injection needles may act as a mode of transmission of certain diseases
including AIDS. Thus, it is not recommended.
Question 16.
State two different roles of spleen in the human body? (All India 2012)
Answer:
The two different roles of spleen in human body are

• Spleen acts as a filter to trap blood-borne microorganisms.

• It is a large reservoir of erythrocytes.
Question 17.
Why do pollen grains of some flower trigger sneezing in some people? (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Pollen grains are allergens that cause allergy in some people due to release of
chemicals like histamine and serotonin from mast cells. These trigger the inflammatory
responses in body, e.g. sneezing, wheezing, etc.

Question 18.
What is it that prevents a child to suffer from a disease he/she is vaccinated against?
Give one reason. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Due to vaccination body produces antibodies in large numbers. It protects the child by
neutralising the pathogenic agents during infection. The vaccine also generates
memory B-cells and T-cells that can recognise pathogens on subsequent exposure and
produce intense immune response.
Question 19.
How does malaria differ from chikungunya with reference to their vectors? (All India
2010C)
Answer:
Malaria is spread by female Anopheles mosquito, whereas chikungunya is spread by
female Aedes mosquito.
Question 20.
Malaria, typhoid, pneumonia and amoebiasis are some of the human infectious
diseases. Which one of these is transmitted through mechanical carriers? (Foreign
2010)
Answer:
Amoebiasis is transmitted through mechanical carrier, i.e. houseflies.
Question 21.
Differentiate between the roles of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in generating
immune responses. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
For B and T-lymphocytes, Refer to page no. 210.
Question 22.
Principle of vaccination is based on the property of ‘memory’ of the immune system.
Taking one suitable example, justify the statement. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
For vaccination, Refer to page no. 211.
Question 23.
Why is the structure of an antibody molecule represented as HgLa ? Name any two
types of antibodies produced in a human body. (2018C)
Answer:
For structure of antibody molecule. Refer to page no. 210-211.
Question 24.
Mention one application for each of the following
(i) Passive immunisation
(ii) Antihistamine
(iii) Colostrum
(iv) Cytokinin-barrier (All India 2017)
Answer:
Applications of given components are as follows
(i) Passive immunisation provides a faster immune response.
(ii) Antihistamine is used to reduce the symptoms of allergy, such as sneezing, watery
eyes, rashes, running nose, etc.
(iii) Colostrum consists of antibodies (e.g. IgA) that provide immunity to an infant
against infections.
(iv) Cytokinin barrier produces interferons and protects non-infected cells from further
viral infection.
Question 25.
Name the cells HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) gains entry into after infecting the
human body. Explain the events that occur in these cells. (All India 2016)
Or
How do macrophages in the human body act as HIV factory? (All India 2010)
Or
Name the cells that act as HIV factory in humans when infected by HIV. Explain the
events that occur in the infected cell.
Answer:
After infecting the human body, the HIV gains entry into macrophages.
Events occurring in these cells are as follows

• RNA genome of the virus replicates to form viral DNA by enzyme reverse
transcriptase.
• Viral DNA gets incorporated into the macrophage DNA and directs the infected
cells to produce new viruses.
• Macrophages continue to produce virus particles and thus called HTV factory.
Question 26.
Name the causative organism of the disease amoebiasis. List three symptoms of the
disease. (All India 2016)
Or
(i) Name the protozoan parasite that causes amoebic dysentery in humans.
(ii) Mention two diagnostic symptoms of the disease.
(iii) How is this disease transmitted to others? (All India 2016, Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The disease amoebic dysentery or amoebiasis is caused by an intestinal parasite,
Entamoeba histolytica, which is found in the large intestine of human. Transmitting
agent is housefly, which acts as mechanical carrier. It transmits the parasite from
faeces of infected person to the food.
Symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, stools with excess
mucous and blood clots.
Question 27.
(i) Name any two causative organisms responsible for ringworm.
(ii) State any two symptoms of the disease. (Delhi 2016C)
Answer:
(i) Causative organisms responsible for ringworm are Microsporum, Epidermophyton
and Trichophyton (all fungi).
(ii) Two symptoms of the disease are

• Intense itching
• Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various body parts.
Question 28.
(i) Name any two helminths which are known pathogenic to human.
(ii) List any two symptoms of the diseases caused by any one of them. (Delhi 2016)
Or
List the symptoms of ascariasis. How does a healthy person acquire this infection? (All
India 2014)
Answer:
(i) Helminths worms, which pathogenic to human are

• Ascaris, the roundworm.

• Wuchereria, the filarial worm.
(ii) Ascaris is an intestinal parasite that causes ascariasis. Symptoms of ascariasis are
internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage in intestinal passage.
A healthy person acquires this infection through consumption of water, vegetables or
fruits contaminated with the eggs of parasite Ascaris.
Question 29.
Name any two secondary lymphoid organs in a human body and state the function of
any of them. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Secondary lymphoid organs provide the site for interaction of lymphocytes with the
antigen, which then proliferate to become effector cells, e.g. spleen, tonsils and lymph
nodes.
Lymph nodes help to trap antigens entering the tissue fluid, whereas spleen trap the
blood-borne microbes.
Question 30.
How are oncogenic viruses different from proto-oncogenes?
Answer:
Oncogenic viruses The cancer causing viruses which have viral genes or oncogenes are
called, oncogenic viruses.
Proto-oncogenes These genes are present in normal cells, which when activated under
certain conditions could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells, thus leading to
cancer.
Question 31.
(i) Which organ of the human body is initially affected when bitten by an infected female
Anopheles! Name the stage of the parasite that infects this organ.
(ii) Explain the events that are responsible for chill and high fever in the patient. (Delhi
2016C)
Answer:
(i) Liver is initially affected by the sporozoites stage dud to the bite of female
Anopheles.
(ii) Rupture of RBC and release of haemozoin is responsible for chill and high fever.
Question 32.
Name an allergen and write the response of human body when exposed to it. (Delhi
2014C)
Answer:
The allergen can be pollen grains, spores or dust particles. When the allergens are
inhaled or enter body system, they stimulate body to produce IgE antibodies and trigger
an antiallergic reaction. The chemicals such as histamine and serotonin are released
from mast cells in response to allergen, thereby causing dilation of blood vessels.
These chemicals also elicit inflammatory response that may result in sneezing, watery
eyes, running nose, etc.
Question 33.
Differentiate between active and passive immunity. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Differences between active and passive immunity are as follows

Active immunity Passive immunity

 Develops when antibodies produced in
Develops when body’s own cells produce
other organisms are injected or
antibodies in response to infection or
administered into a person to counteract
vaccine.
antigen.

Slow in response, but long lasting effects. Provides immediate relief, but short lived,

e.g. Immunity developed by vaccination. e.g, Injection of tatanus.

Question 34.
How does a vaccine for a particular disease immunise the human body against that
disease? (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
During vaccination for a particular disease, an antigen or antigenic protein or weak
pathogen, which is in inactive form is introduced into the body to induce mild immune
response.
The vaccine generates antibodies that neutralises the toxin/pathogen and produces
memory-B or T-cells, which recognise the pathogen in the subsequent encounters and
produce antibodies.

Question 35.
Why is a person with cuts and bruises following an accident administered tetanus
antitoxin? Give reasons. (All India 2013)
Or
Why does a doctor administer tetanus antitoxin and not a tetanus vaccine to a child
injured in a roadside accident with a bleeding wound? All India 2010
Answer:
A person with cuts and bruises following an accident is administered tetanus antitoxin,
because this toxin contains performed antibodies against the pathogen Clostridium
tetani. This inactivates the pathogen and provide passive immunity. Also, tetanus
antitoxin provide instant response unlike tetanus vaccine, which take time to develop
immunity.
Question 36.
A patient showed symptoms of sustained high fever, stomach pain and constipation,
but no blood clot in stools. Name the disease and its pathogen. Write the diagnostic
test for the disease. How does the disease get transmitted? (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
The symptoms, such as constant high fever, stomach pain and constipation, weakness
and headache are shown in typhoid.
Its causative’agent is a bacterium called Salmonella typhi. Widal test is used for its
diagnosis. Typhoid is transmitted through contaminated food and water.
Question 37.
A student on a school picnic to a park on a windy day started sneezing and having
difficulty in breathing on reaching the park. The teacher enquired whether the student
was allergic to something.
(i) What is an allergy?
(ii) Write the two unique characteristics of the system involved in the response
observed in the student. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(i) Allergy is a hypersensitive response to a foreign substance coming in contact with or
entering the body, e.g, sneezing, watery eyes, etc.
(ii) It is due to the release of histamine and serotonin by the mast cells.
Question 38.
A young boy when brought a pet dog home started to complain of watery eyes and
running nose. The symptoms disappeared when the boy was kept away from the pet.
(i) Name the type of antibody and the chemicals responsible for such a response in the
boy.
(ii) Mention the name of any one drug that could be given to the boy for immediate relief
from such a response. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(i) In case of allergy, IgE antibodies are involved. Histamine and serotonin are
responsible for such responses.
(ii) Antihistamine could be given for immediate relief.
Question 39.
(i) Highlight the role of thymus as a lymphoid organs.
(ii) Name the cells that are released from the above mentioned gland. Mention, how
they help in immunity? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
(i) Thymus is a primary lymphoid organs of the immune system. Here, immature
lymphocytes get differentiated into antigen-sensitive T-lymphocytes.
(ii) T-lymphocytes are released from thymus, after their maturation get completed. They
themselves do not produce antibodies, but help B-cells to produce them. They are also
responsible for Cell Mediated Immune (CMI) response.
Question 40.
Name the parasite that causes filariasis in humans. Mention its two diagnostic
symptoms. How is this transmitted to others? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi) is the filarial worm that causes filariasis in
humans.
Diagnostic Symptoms

• The presence of nematodes in lymph vessels causes collection of fluid. It may

lead, to swelling in arms, breasts, legs and genital region.
• Inflammation of lower limbs result in deformities.
It is transmitted to a healthy person through the bite of the female mosquito
vector, Culex.
Question 41.
Name and explain the two types of immune responses in humans. (All India 2012)
Answer:
Immune responses are of two types

• Primary response The reaction of the body’s immune system to the first attack of
microbe (antigen) is called primary immune response. It is slow and less intense.
• Secondary response The reaction of the body’s immune system to any
subsequent infection of the same microbe is termed as secondary immune
response. It is fast and intense.
Question 42.
Name the two special types of lymphocytes in humans. How do they differ in their roles
in immune response? (All India 2012)
Answer:
Two special types of lymphocytes in humans are

• B-lymphocytes or B-cells
• T-lymphocytes or T-cells
Differences between B and T-lymphocytes are as follows

B-lymphocytes T-lymphocytes

They stimulate B-cells to produce

They produce antibodies against antigen.
antibodies.

They do not respond to organ transplant. They react to organ transplant.

Question 43.
(i) Name the group of virus responsible for causing AIDS in humans. Why are these
virus so, named?
(ii) List any two ways of transmission of HIV infection in humans other than sexual
contact? All India 2012
Answer:
(i) Retrovirus is the group of viruses causing AIDS in humans. They contain RNA as
genetic material and with the help of enzyme reverse transcriptase, they make viral DNA
using RNA as a template. Thus, they are called retrovirus.
(ii) (a) By sharing infected needles.
(b) By transfusion of blood contaminated with HIV.
Question 44.
Why is an antibody represented as H2L2? (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Antibody is represented as H2I2 because each antibody molecule has four peptide
chains, i.e. two small light (L) chains and two longer heavy (H) chains.
Question 45.
Name the different types of cell providing cellular barrier responsible for innate
immunity in humans. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
For cellular barrier as innate immunity, Refer to page no. 209.
Question 46.
List any two emergent circumstances, when a medical doctor would recommend
injection of a preformed antibody into the body of a patient and why? (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
In case of snake bite and in tetanus infection. Preformed antibodies help in providing
quick immune response.
Question 47.
List the two types of immunity a human baby inborn with. Explain the differences
between the two types. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Two types of immunity with which human baby is born include.

• Innate immunity It is inherited type of immunity and it protects an organism from

birth throughout the life. It is not specific to particular pathogen and consists of
four types of barriers namely physical, physiological, cellular and cytokine.
• Natural passive immunity It is passively transferred from mother to foetus
through placenta, e.g. IgG antibodies can cross placental barrier to reach the
foetus.
Question 48.
How is an allergic reaction caused by an allergen? Name the drug that can reduce the
symptoms of allergy? (All India 2011C)
Answer:
An allergic reaction is caused by allergens as these can produce IgE type of antibodies.
These antibodies causes the release of histamine and serotonin like chemicals from
mast cells, which cause allergic reactions. The use of drugs like antihistamine,
adrenaline and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.
Question 49.
Name the two types of immunity in a human body. Why are cell-mediated and humoral
immunities so called? (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Types of immunity system in humans are

• Innate immunity and acquired immunity are two main types of immunities in
human body.
• Cells mediated immunity is so called as it is mediated by specialised cells, the T-
lymphocytes that recognise self and non-self cells. Humoral immunity is so
called because it is mediated by antibodies, which are found circulating in body
fluid (humor) e.g. blood.
Question 50.
Write the scientific names of the causal organisms of elephantiasis and ringworm in
humans. Mention the body parts affected by them. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:

• Elephantiasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and W. malayi. These affect

lower limbs and genital organs.
• Ringworm is caused by Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton. They
affect the skin, nails and scalp.
Question 51.
Identify A, D, E and F in the diagram of an antibody molecule given below, (Delhi 2011)

Answer:
A-Antigen binding region,
D-Light chain
E-Heavy chain
F-Disulphide bond/bridge
Question 52.
Name the host and the site, where the following occur in the life cycle of a malarial
parasite.
(i) Formation of gametocytes.
(ii) Fusion of gametocytes. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
(i) Formation of gametocytes occurs in the erythrocytes (RBCs) of human beings.
(ii) Fusion of gametocytes occurs in the intestine of mosquito.
Question 53.
Define the term health. Mention any two ways of maintaining it. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Health can be defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being. It
can be maintained by taking balanced diet, maintaining personal hygiene, regular
exercise/yoga, vaccination against infectious diseases, etc. (1+1)
Question 54.
Identify A, B, C and D in the following table. (Foreign 2010)

Name of the human Name of the causal Specific organ or its part
diseases bacterial virus affected

Typhoid Salmonella typhi A

Common cold B C

Streptococcus
Pneumonia D
pneumoniae
Answer:
A – Small intestine
B – Rhinovirus
C – Nose, respiratory passage
D- Alveoli of lungs.
Question 55.
The barriers in the innate immunity are given in the following table. Identify A, B, C and
D. (Delhi 2010C)

Types of barrier Barriers

Physical Skin, A

Physiological B, in the eye

 C Interferon

Cellular WBC, D
Answer:
A-Epithelium lining
B-Tears
C-Cytokinin
D-Polymorphonuclear leucocytes.
Question 56.
(i) How does a vaccine affect immunity?
(ii) How can we get immunisation against tetanus? (All India 2010)
Answer:
(i) In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogen or inactivated/
weakened pathogen (vaccine) are introduced into the body. The antibodies produced in
the body against these antigens would neutralise the pathogenic agents during actual
infection. The vaccines also generate memory-B and T-cells.
(ii) Preformed antibodies for tetanus are directly injected to acquire quick immune
response. This is called passive immunisation against tetanus.
Question 57.
Why do normal cells not show cancerous growth? (All India 2010)
Answer:
Normal cells do not show cancerous growth as

• Their growth and division are regulated by certain regulatory mechanisms.

• They show the property of contact inhibition, by virtue of which contact with
other cells inhibit their uncontrolled growth.
Question 58.
State the effect of carcinogens on human body. Name the carcinogenic ionising and
non-ionising radiations. Mention their carcinogenic effects. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
Carcinogens can transform normal cell into cancerous cells.
Carcinogenic ionising radiations are X-rays and gamma rays. Carcinogenic non-ionising
radiations are UV-rays.
These radiations cause changes in base sequences, i.e. mutations that lead to
transformation of normal cells into cancerous cell.

Question 59.
(i) Explain the property that prevents normal cells from becoming cancerous.
(ii) All normal cells have inherent characteristic of becoming cancerous. Explain.
Answer:
(i) For concerous cells Refer to Answer No. 57.
(ii) All normal cells have ceUular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto-oncogenes. When
activated under certain conditions, such genes could lead to oncogenic transformation
of cells, i.e. they may become cancerous.
Question 60.
Name a human disease, its causal organism, symptoms (any three) and vector spread
by intake of water and food contaminated by human faecal matter. (All India 2017)
Or
A patient is down with amoebiasis. List the symptoms that confirm this infection. Name
the causative pathogen. (Delhi 2015c)
Answer:
Amoebiasis is a disease spread by intake of water and food contaminated by human
faecal matter. Causal organism Entamoeba histolytica. Symptoms

• Abdominal pain
• Constipation with cramps
• Faeces with excess mucus Vector or carrier of pathogen is housefly.
Question 61.
(i) What precaution(s) would you recommend to a patient requiring repeated blood
transfusion?
(ii) If the advise is not followed by the patient there is an apprehension that the patient
might contract a disease that would destroy the immune system of his/her body.
Explain with the help of schematic diagram only how the immune system would get
affected and destroyed. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(i) Repeated blood transfusion may result in contracting diseases like AIDS. The
recipient must ensure that the donor’s blood is being screened for HIV and other
pathogens. Also, he should make sure that doctors are using fresh needles.
(ii) In the absence of such measures, the patient can get infected by HIV (Human
Immunodeficiency Virus), which causes AIDS. It is a threatening disorder that weakens
the immune system by attacking helper T-cells in the body. A schematic diagram
showing the cycle of proliferation and effects of retrovirus (HIV) in infected person is as
follows

Question 62.
(i) It is generally observed that the children who had suffered from chickenpox in their
childhood may not contract the same disease in their adulthood.
Explain giving reasons the basis of such an immunity in an individual. Name this kind of
immunity.
(ii) What are interferons? Mention their role. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(i) A child who had suffered from chickenpox in childhood may not contract disease in
his/her adulthood. It is because during the first encounter with pathogen (chickenpox)
specific antibodies (by humoral immune response) are produced to counter the attack.
During this attack, memory cells are also produced. Due to this, on subsequent
exposure to the same pathogen, the immune response is more rapid and intense. That
is why, second exposure to the chickenpox does not cause disease. It is known as
acquired immunity of the body.
(ii) Interferons are special kind of proteins secreted by virus infected cells. These
protect the healthy cells from the virus attacks.
Question 63.
Certain attributes of innate immunity are given in the table below. Identify A, B, C, D, E
and F respectively in it. (Delhi 2016C)

Types of barrier Example of the barrier Function

(i) A B Prevent microbial growth

Polymorpho nuclear
(ii) C D
leucocytes

(iii) Cytokine E F
Answer:
(i) A – Physiological barriers
B – Lysozyme in saliva
(ii) C – Cellular barriers
D – Fhagocytose and destroy microbes
(iii) E – Interferons
F – Prevention of viral infections
Question 64.
State the three characteristics of acquired immunity. List the different ways by which it
can be attained by humans. (Delhi 2016C)
Answer:
The characteristics of acquired immunity are

• It is pathogen specific.
• It is characterised by memory.
• Responses can be characterised as a primary response (of low intensity) and
secondary response.
Acquired immunity can be attained by humans in the following ways

• Active immunity The antibodies are produced in the host body as a response to
foreign entitities, i.e. on living microbes or other proteins. The onset of response
is slow.
• Passive immunity The readymade antibodies are directly introduced to protect
the body against foreign agents.
Question 65.
How are primary and secondary immune responses carried out in the human body?
Explain. (Delhi 2016C)
Answer:
The primary response is the first response of immune system to a newly introduced
foreign agent, while a second intensified immune response to same foreign agent is the
secondary or anamnestic response. Immune responses are produced by two types of
lymphocytes

• B-Iymphocytes These produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens, i.e.

antibodies in the blood. The different types of antibodies secreted are IgA, IgM,
IgE and IgG. This response generated via antibodies of the immune system is
also called the humoral immune response.
• T-lymphocytes are the mediators of the cell-mediated immunity (CMI). The cell-
mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
Question 66.
(i) HIV and Hepatitis-B are STDs. Mention the two other ways by which they can be
transmitted to a healthy person.
(ii) Why is early detection of STD essential? What can it lead to otherwise? Explain.
(Delhi 2016C)
Answer:
(i) STDs like AIDS and hepatitis-B can be transmitted to a healthy person in the following
ways

• Unsafe blood transfusion.

• From infected mother to foetus throught lactation.
(ii) Early detection of STD is essential for timely cure. Otherwise this can lead to Pelvic
Inflammatory Diseases (PIDs), abortions or even cancer of the reproductive tract. (IVi)
Question 67.
A youth in his twenties met with an accident and succumbed to the injuries. His parents
agreed to donate his organs. List any two essential clinical steps to be undertaken
before any organ transplant. Why is the transplant rejected sometimes? What views
would you share with your health club members to promote organ donation? (Delhi
2015C)
Answer:
Organ transplantation involves the removal of damaged/injured tissues or organs from
the body of a person and their substitution by similar tissues/organs from a donor.
Tissue matching, blood group matching are essential clinical steps before undertaking
any graft/transplant. Transplantation may result in the rejection of transplanted organs
as the immune system recognises the protein in the transplanted tissue or organs as
foreign and initiates cellular immunity. We should raise and promote awareness about
organ donation, about need of organ and tissue donors. There are lakhs of people
waiting for organ donation and many people die daily while waiting for transplant.
Organs and tissues from one donor can save upto 40-50% lives. So, we should
encourage and get registered for organ donation to save many lives.
Question 68.
(i) State what happens in the human body when malarial parasites infected RBCs burst
to release the parasites in the blood.
(ii) Mention the specific sites in the host body, where production of
(a) sporzoites and
(b) gametocytes takes place in the life cycle of the malarial parasites. (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
(i) When the RBCs infected with malarial parasites burst open, they release a toxic
substance called haemozoin, which is responsible for the chill and high fever recurring
every three to four days.
(ii) (a) Sporozoites They are produced in the gut (inside oocyte on the surface of
stomach) of the female Anopheles mosquitoes.
(b) Gametocytes RBCs of human body.
Question 69.
What is the functional difference between B-and T-cells. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
B-and T-cells are lymphocytes involved in immune responses generated by the host’s
body. Functional differences between B- Cells and T-Cells are as follows

B-lymphocytes T-lymphocytes

They are formed and mature in bone They are formed in bone marrow, but
marrow. maturation occurs in thymus gland.

They produce antibody against antigen. They directly attach the antigen or direct
The immune response produced is called B-cells to produce antibody. They
humoral or antibody mediated immunity. produce cell-mediated immune response.

They do not respond to organ

They respond to organ transplantation.
transplantation.

Question 70.
Mention any two human diseases caused by round worms. Name their causative agents
and their mode of transmission into the human body. (All India 2015C)
Answer:
Roundworms are nematodes, that cause helminthic disease in humans.
Two human diseases caused by roundworms are

• Ascariasis It is caused by intestinal endoparasite of humans, Ascaris

lumbricoides. Infection occurs through contaminated vegetables, fruits and
water.
• Filariasis It is caused by filarial worms, Wuchereria bancrofti and W. malayi. It is
transmitted by the bite of female Culex mosquito.
Question 71.
At what stage is Plasmodium picked up by the female Anopheles? Describe the life
cycle of the parasite in this insect. (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
Female Anopheles pick up Plasmodium at gametocyte stage from human body.
Inside mosquito’s body, the gametocytes develop to form male and female gametes.
These gametes fuse and form zygote, which further divides to form many sporozoites in
the intestine of mosquito. These sporozoites later move into salivary glands. See text
on page no. 206.
Question 72.
(i) Differentiate between benign and malignant tumours.
(ii) Why is colostrum a boon to the newborn baby? (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
(i) Differences between benign and malignant tumours are as follows

Benign tumour Malignant tumour

Tumour remains confined to the affected The tumour spreads to other organs of
organ. The rate of tumour growth is the body. Rate of tumour growth is
usually slow. usually rapid.

These tumours have neoplastic cells that

migrate to other sites of the body and
These tumours cause limited damage.
start a new tumour wherever they land.
This property is called metastasis.

It is non-cancerous. It is cancerous.
(ii) The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum, which
contains IgA antibodies. These are essential to develop resistance in newborn babies
as they provide passive immunity. Thus, breast- feeding during the initial period of
infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing up a healthy baby.
Question 73.
A heavily bleeding and bruised road accident victim was brought to a nursing home. The
doctor immediately gave him an injection to protect him against a deadly disease.
(i) Write what did the doctor inject into the patient’s body?
(ii) How do you think this injection would protect the patient against the disease?
(iii) Name the disease against which this injection was given and the kind of immunity it
provides. (All India 2015)
Answer:
(i) The doctor must have injected the tetanus vaccine into the patient.
(ii) The vaccine injection stimulates the body to make antibodies against the tetanus
toxin.
(iii) The disease is tetanus, which is caused by bacterium Clostridium tetani. It may
enter the skin through a cut or puncture wound. Once bacteria is under the skin, it
makes a toxin that causes severe and painful muscle spasms, which can even be fatal.
The injection provides passive immunity.
Question 74.
Community service department of your school plans a visit to a slum near the school
with an objective to educate the slum dwellers with respect to health and hygiene,
(i) Why is there a need to organise such visits?
(ii) Write the steps you will highlight, as a member of this department, in your
interactions with them to enable them to lead a healthy life. All Indio 2Q14
Answer:
(i) The community service department of schools plans a visit to a slum is educate
them about health, hygiene and nutrition. These, people are’always at risk of acquiring
infections due to poor hygiene. Therefore, there is always a need to organise visits to
slums so, as to educate and create awareness among them regarding the importance
of hygiene.
(ii) The points to be highlighted while interacting with the slum people may be:

• Importance of cleanliness and hygiene of body as well as surroundings.

• Awareness and prevention of infectious diseases.
• Use of public facilities, i.e. toiletries.
• Consumption of properly cooked and hygienic food and water.
• Administration of vaccines to newborn children, so as to prevent diseases.
Question 75.
(i) Name and explain giving reason, the type of immunity provided to the newborn by the
colostrum and vaccinations.
(ii) Name the type of antibody
(a) present in colostrum.
(b) produced in response to allergens in human body. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
(i) The immunity provided to the newborn by colostrum and vaccinations is called
passive immunity.
This is because both in colostrum and vaccines the antibodies conferred are not
produced by own body, but are rather transferred passively to recipient’s body. Such as
IgA antibodies pass through milk (colostrum) to infants and provides passive immunity
against infection.
(ii) (a) The type of antibody present in colostrum is IgA.
(b) IgE is produced in response to allergens in human body.
Question 76.
(i) Name the causative organisms for the following diseases
(a) Elephantiasis
(b) Ringworm
(c) Amoebiasis
(ii) How can public hygiene help to control such diseases? Delhi 2014c
Answer:
(i) The causative agents or organisms for the following diseases are:
(a) Elephantiasis- Wuchereria bancrofti
(b) Ringworm- Microsporum
(c) Amoebiasis-Entamoeba histolytica
(ii) Maintenance of public hygiene includes

• keeping body and surroundings clean.

• consumption of clean drinking water, fruits and vegetables, etc.
• proper disposal of waste and excreta.
• regular cleaning and disinfection of tanks and other water reservoirs, etc.
• all the above measures help to control the increase in vectors of infectious
diseases and their breeding places. Thus, there would be reduced chances of
transmission of infectious diseases.
Question 77.
Name the cells HIV attacks first, when it gains entry into a human body. How does this
virus replicate further to cause immunodeficiency in the body? (Delhi 2013C, 2010; All
India 2D10C)
Or
Trace the events occur in human body to cause immunodeficiency, when HIV gains
entry into the body. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
The HIV virus attacks the macrophages first in human body. The further replication of
virus causes immuno deficiency in the following way
 • RNA is replicated to form viral DNA by the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
• Viral DNA gets incorporated into the host cell’s DNA and directs the infected cells
to produce viruses.
• Macrophages continue to produce virus particles and function as HIV factories.
• The virus particles enter helper T-lymphocytes in the blood, where they continue
to replicate and produce viral progenies.
• The number of helper T-lymphocytes progressively decreases in the body of the
infected person.
• With the decrease in number of T-cells, the immunity also decreases. The person
is unable to produce any immune response even against common bacteria like
Mycobacterium, parasites like Toxoplasma, viruses and fungi.
Question 78.
Trace the life cycle of malarial parasite in human body, when bitten by infected female
Anopheles. (All India 2012)
Or
Trace the life cycle of Plasmodium in humans from the stage of entry until it is picked
up by the female Anopheles. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Life Cycle of Malarial Parasite (Plasmodium) in Human Body

Question 79.
Study a part of the life cycle of malarial parasite given below. Answer the questions that
follows.

(i) Mention the role of A in the life cycle of the malarial parasite.
(ii) Name the event C and the organ where this event occurs.
(iii) Identify the organ B and name the cells being released from it. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
(i) A is female Anopheles mosquito, these mosquitoes act as vectors and transmit the
disease from infected to healthy individuals.
(ii) The event C is fertilisation. It occurs in the intestinal wall of mosquito.
(iii) B is salivary glands of mosquito, sporozoites cells are released from it.
Question 80.
Study the diagram showing replication of HIV in humans and answer the following
questions accordingly.

(i) Write the chemical nature of the coat A.

(ii) Name the enzyme B acting on X to produce molecule C. Name C.
(iii) Mention the name of the host cell D the HIV attacks first, when it enters into the
human body.
(iv) Name the two different cells the new viruses E subsequently attack. (All India 2011)
Answer:
(i) A – Protein coat
(ii) B – Reverse transcriptase, A-viral RNA, C – Viral DNA
(iii) D – Macrophages (animal or human cell)
(iv) E – Macrophages and helper T-cells.

Question 81.
(i) Name the causative agent of typhoid in humans.
(ii) Name the test administered to confirm the disease.
(iii) How does the pathogen gain entry into the human body? Write the diagnostic
symptoms and mention the body organ that gets affected in severe cases? All India
2011
Answer:
(i) Salmonella typhi.
(ii) Widal test.
(iii) Pathogens enter the human body through contaminated food and water.
Diagnostic symptoms high fever, weakness, stomach pain. The body organ affected is
small intestine.
Question 82.
An antibody molecule is represented as H2L2. Explain. (Delhi 2010.)
Answer:
For Antibody H2L2, Refer to Answer No. 44.
Refer to figure 8.2. on page no. 210.
Question 83.
(i) All human beings have cellular oncogenes, but only few suffer from cancer disease.
Give reasons.
(ii) How is a malignant tumour different from a benign tumour? (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
(i) Ail cells have cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto-oncogene, but only few suffer from
cancer disease because these genes code for certain growth factors. Under certain
conditions, they get activated and lead to oncogenic transformation causing cancer.
This transformation is induced by physical, chemical and biological factors called
carcinogens.
(ii) For differences between benign and malignant tumours, Refer to Answer No. 72 (i).
Question 84.
Under polio prevention programme, infants in India were given polio vaccines on a large
scale at regular intervals to eradicate polio from the country.
(i) What is a vaccine? Explain, how does it impart immunity to the child against the
disease.
(ii) With the help of an example each, differentiate between active and passive
immunity. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
(i) Vaccine is a preparation of inactivated or weakened pathogen of polio virus or
protein that is injected into a person to provide protection against disease. Refer to
Answer No. 34.
(ii) Refer to Answer No. 33.
Question 85.
(i) Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases. Explain ‘contact inhibition’ and
‘metastasis’ with respect to disease.
(ii) Name the group of genes that have been identified in normal cells that could lead to
cancer. How do these genes cause cancer?
(iii) Name any two techniques that are useful in detecting cancers of internal organs.
(iv) Why are cancer patients often given a-interferon as part of the treatment? (Delhi
2014)
Answer:
(i) Contact inhibition is the property exhibited by normal cells. It prevents their
uncontrolled proliferation when they are in contact with other neighbouring cells. But
cancerous cells seem to have lost this property and continue to divide despite being in
contact with other cells, which leads to masses of cells called tumours.
Metastasis is the property exhibited by malignant tumours which grows rapidly, invades
neighbouring tissues and is capable of reaching distant sites through blood and lymph
thus, spreading malignant tumours to other organs or parts of body. These two
properties make ‘cancer’ one of the dreaded diseases.
(ii) The group of genes called cellular oncogenes or proto-oncogenes in normal cells
could lead to cancer. These genes are present in inactivated or suppressed form. Some
factors, i.e. physical, chemical or biological called carcinogens are capable of activating
these oncogenes and thus, transforming normal cells into cancerous one.
(iii) The two techniques useful in detecting cancers of internal organs, are CT
(Computed Tomography) and MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging).
(iv) As tumour cells are capable of avoiding recognition and destruction by immune
system, the cancer patients are given a-interferons, which are biological response
modifiers. It helps in activating the immune system and destroy tumours.
Question 86.
(i) Name and explain any four lymphoid organs present in humans.
(ii) Categorise the named lymphoid organs as primary or secondary lymphoid organs,
giving reasons. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
(i) The four lymphoid organs are:

• Bone marrow Major lymphoid organs as both B and T-lymphocytes are formed
here and p-lymphocytes mature here only.
• Thymus T-lymphocytes mature in thymus and they are responsible for cell
mediated iinmupe response.
 • Spleen Bean-shaped organ comprising of single mass of lymphoid tissues. In
foetal stage, it produces all type of blood cells but only lymphocytes are
produced in adult stage.
• Lymph nodes These are small solid structures composed of lymphoid tissue.
They produce lymphocytes and plasma cells and also act as filters for lymph.
(ii) The above described lymphoid organs, such as bone marrow and thymus can be
grouped under primary lymphoid organs, because these act as organs where both B and
T-lymphocytes mature and acquire their antigenic specificity. Whereas the spleen and
lymph nodes are considered as secondary lymphoid organs where the lymphocytes
undergo proliferation and differentiation. These are the site of acquired immune
response to antigens and formation of effector cells.
Question 87.
A person in your colony has recently been diagnosed with AIDS. People/residents in the
colony want him to leave the colony for the fear of spread of AIDS.
(i) Write your view on the situation, giving reasons.
(ii) List the possible preventive measures that you would suggest to the residents of
your locality in a meeting organised by you so that they understand the situation.
(iii) Write the symptoms and the causative agent of AIDS. (All India 2013)
Answer:
(i) AIDS is not contagious, i.e: it does not spread by shaking hand, talking and use of
common utensils. So, there is no need of fear to live with the AIDS patient.
(ii) Some preventive and safe steps to be suggested are:

• Taking out HIV affected blood from blood bank, ensuring the use of only
disposable needles and syringes in all public and private hospitals and clinics.
• Free distribution of condoms in public.
• Advocating safe sex and promoting regular check-up for HIV in population.
(iii) AIDS is caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), a retrovirus. This virus
attacks on T-helper cells, thus destroying the immune system.
The common symptoms of AIDS are weakness, fever, weight loss, regular illness, etc.
Question 88.
Describe the asexual and sexual phases of life cycle of Plasmodium that causes
malaria in humans. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
For life cycle of Plasmodium, Refer to page no. 206.
Question 89.
Mention the useful as well as the harmful drug obtained from the latex of poppy plant.
(Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Morphine is obtained from latex of poppy plant. It is useful as an analgesic. Heroin
formed after acetylation of morphine is harmful as it is a depressant.
Question 90.
How does smoking tobacco in human lead to oxygen deficiency in their body? (Delhi
2012)
Answer:
Smoking increases carbon monoxide (CO) content in blood and reduces the
concentration of haem-bound oxygen. This causes oxygen deficiency in the body. (1)
Question 91.
(i) Name the source plant of heroin drug. How is it obtained from the plant? (2018C)
(ii) Write the effects of heroin on the human body.20ia c
Answer:
(i) Heroin is obtained from Papaver somniferum. It is extracted from the latex of the
plant.
(ii) Heroin is a depressant and slows down body function.
Question 92.
Why are adolescents especially advised not to smoke? How does smoking affect the
functioning of the body? (Outside Delhi 2016C)
Answer:
Adolescents are advised not to smoke for the following reasons

• Smoking paves way for hard drugs.

• Smoking is associated with increased incidences of cancers of lung, throat and
bronchitis and emphysema. It also increases carbon monoxide content in blood
and reduces the concentration of haem-bound oxygen.
Question 93.
Name two drugs obtained from poppy plant. ‘These drugs are medically useful, but are
often abused’. Taking the mentioned examples justify by giving reasons. (Delhi 2016 C)
Or
How are morphine and heroin related? Mention the effect each one of them has on the
human body? (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Both morphine and heroin are extracted from the latex of plant Papaver somniferum.
Heroin is actually obtained by the acetylation of morphine. Thus, both heroine and
morphine are related.
Morphine acts as an effective sedative and pain-killer while heroin acts as depressant
and slows down body functions.
Question 94.
What happens to an individual when a regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly
discontinued? What characteristics manifest in the individual under such a situation?
(Outside Delhi 2016C)
Or
What is ‘withdrawal syndrome’? List any two symptoms it is characterised by. (Foreign
2014)
Answer:
If the regular dose of drug or alcohol in an addicted person is discontinued abruptly, the
body exhibits characteristic and unpleasant symptoms called ‘withdrawal syndrome’.
The ‘withdrawal syndrome’ is characterised by symptoms like anxiety, nausea and
excessive sweating.
Question 95.
Write the scientific name of the source plant of the drugs-marijuana and hashish and
mention their effects on human body. (Delhi 2014C)
Or
Name the plant source of ganja. How does it affect the body of the abuser? (All Indio
2012)
Answer:
The scientific name of source plant of drugs marijuana, hashish and ganja is Cannabis
sativa. These drugs usually affect the cardiovascular system of human body.
Question 96.
Name the plant source of the drug popularly called smack. How does it affect the body
of the abuser? (Delhi 2012)
Or
Name the opioid drug and its source plant. How does the drug affect the human body?
(All India 2010)
Answer:
Smack is obtained from Papaver somniferum (poppy plant).
Drug’s affects

• It binds to specific opioid receptors present in our central nervous system and
gastro-intestinal tract.
• It is a depressant that slows down the body functions.
Question 97.
Identify A, B, C and D in the following table. (Delhi 2012C)

Scientific name of the Harmful effects/Human

Drug
source plant body part affected
 Depressant/ slows body
Papaver somniferum A
function

Cannabis sativa Cannabinoids B

Erythroxylum coca C D
Answer:
A- Heroine
B – Cardiovascular system
C – Cocaine
D – Central nervous system
Question 98.
Why is tobacco smoking associated with rise in blood pressure and emphysema
(oxygen deficiency in the body)? Explain. (All India 2011)
Answer:
The nicotine present in tobacco stimulates
adrenal glands to secrete adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. Both these hormones increase
blood pressure and heart rates. ID
Smoking is associated with increased incidence of lung cancers. It increases carbon
monoxide level of the blood, which competes with oxygen for transport. As the
concentration of haem-bound oxygen decreases, there is oxygen deficiency in the body.
It also increases the craving for hard drugs.
Question 99.
Why is there a fear amongst the guardians that their adolescent wards may get trapped
in drug/alcohol abuse? (All India 2017)
Answer:
There is always a fear amongst guardians that their adolescents may get trapped in
drug/alcohol abuse due to following reasons:
• Adolescence is accompanied by several biological and behavioural changes. It is
a vulnerable phase of mental and psychological development of an individual in
which an individual may get addicted to alcohol/drugs very easily.
• In this age, the first use of drugs or alcohol may be out of curiosity or
experimentation, which later on turns to addiction.
• Adolescents usually take drugs due to social pressure, need of adventure,
excitement to avoid stress, depression and frustration.
Question 100.
Explain ‘addiction’ and ‘dependence’ in respect of drug/alcohol abuse in youth. (All India
2017)
Answer:
Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects such as euphoria and a
temporary feeling of well-being associated with drugs and alcohol. These drive people
to take them without need or even when it becomes self-destructive. In the absence of
any guidance or counselling, the person gets addicted and becomes dependent on their
use.
Dependence on drug/alcohol is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic
and unpleasant withdrawal syndrome, if regular dose of drugs/alcohol is discontinued
abruptly. Withdrawal symptoms are characterised by anxiety, shakiness, nausea and
sweating. Sometimes, it can be so severe that they may be life threatening.
Question 101.
Prior a sports event blood and urine samples of sports persons are collected for drug
tests.
(i) Why is there a need to conduct such tests?
(ii) Name the drugs the authorities usually look for.
(iii) Write the generic names of two plants from which these drugs are obtained. (Delhi
2016)
Answer:
(i) It is necessary to conduct these tests as sports-persons often take drugs to increase
their performance.
(ii) Cocaine and morphines are the drugs the authorities usually look for.
(iii) Morphine is extracted from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum. Cocaine
is obtained from the coca plant Erythroxylum coca.
Question 102.
A team of students are preparing to particfpate in the interschool sports meet. During a
practice session you find some vials with labels of certain cannabinoids.
(i) Will you report to the authorities? Why?
(ii) Name a plant from which such chemicals are obtained.
(iii) Write the effect of these chemicals on human body. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
(i) Yes, I will report it to the authorities, because cannabinoids are classified as drugs
and taking them without medical supervision is illegal.
(ii) Cannabinoids are obtained from various parts of plant Cannabis sativa.
(iii) Effect The cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid receptors in the brain and affect
the cardiovascular system of the body.
Question 103.
Do you support ‘dope test’ being conducted on sports persons participating in a
prestigious athletic meet? Give three reasons in support of your answer. (All India
2014C)
Answer:
Yes, the ‘dope test’ should be conducted on sports persons participating in a
prestigious athletic meet. This is done to find out if any participant had taken any kind
of performance enhancing drugs.
The use of drugs in sports should be banned as

• they increase muscle strength.

• promote aggressiveness.
• increase athletic performance.
Because of above reasons, use of such drugs, e.g. steroids, analgesics, diuretics should
be banned for participants as it would be unfair on the part of other participants (not
consuming such drugs).
Question 104.
‘Prevention is better than cure’ is an apt slogan to safeguard adolescents from drug
abuse. List any 6 steps that could be taken in this regard. (All India 2013C)
Answer:
Six steps that could be taken to prevent adolescents from drug alcohol abuse are as
follows

• A child should not be pushed unduly to perform beyond his/her limits in studies,
sports or any other activities.
• Educating and counselling him/her to face problems and stresses and accept
disappointments and failures as part of life.
• Parents and teachers can identify the danger signs and take appropriate steps to
diagnose the malady and underlying causes.
• Help should be taken from qualified psychologists and psychiatrists.
• Parents and teacher should become more supportive.
• Help of close friends and relatives can also be taken.

Question 105.
Write the source and the effect on the human body of the following drugs
(i) Morphine
(ii) Cocaine
(iii) Marijuana (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
(i) Morphine is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum. It is a depressant, which
slows down the body functions.
(ii) Cocaine is obtained from Erythroxylum coca. It is a stimulant and produces a sense
of euphoria and increased energy.
(iii) Marijuana is obtained from the inflorescence of Cannabis sativa. It affects
cardiovascular system of the body.
Question 106.
(i) Name the drug used
(a) as an effective sedative and pain killer.
(b) for helping patients to cope with mental illness like depression, but often misused.
(ii) How does moderate and high dosage of cocaine affect the human body? (Foreign
2011)
Answer:
(i) (a) Morphine is an effective sedative and pain-killer.
(b) Lysergic Acid Diethylamides (LAD) or barbiturates are often misused.
(ii) Moderate dose of cocaine have a stimulating action on central nervous system. It
produces a sense of euphoria and increased energy. High dosage of cocaine causes
hallucinations.
Question 107.
Municipal corporation has deputed personals to check mosquito breeding in your
school. Which places they should check for mosquitoes and name two diseases which
are spread by them.
Answer:
They should check water tanks, flower pots, etc. These are the places where
mosquitoes breed. Mosquitoes spread dengue and malaria.
Question 108.
It is commonly observed that parents feel embarrassed to discuss freely with their
adolescent children about sexuality and reproduction. The result of this parental
inhibition is that the children go astray sometimes.
(i) Explain the reasons that you feel are behind such embarrassment amongst some
parents to freely discuss such issues with their growing children.
(ii) By taking one example of a local plant and animal, how would you help these parents
to overcome such inhibitions about reproduction and sexuality? (All India 2017)
Answer:
(i) The reasons behind the embarrassment amongst some parents to freely discuss
sexuality and reproduction related issues are as follows

• Communication gap is a big reason for the same. The parents feel that talking
about such issues will have a negative impact on children.
• In India, sex-related issues are considered as taboos, so people feel awkward
while talking about them.
• Social beliefs are also responsible for this. Most parents think that there has to
be a V line of respect between parents and their children. Parents usually think
that their child is too young to discuss over this topic.
(ii) To overcome this inhibition, parents can make children understand about sexuality
via scientific perspective.
For example, in order to tell them about sexuality parents can take the example of
cucurbit and papaya. In cucurbits, both male and female reproductive structures are
present on the same plant, i.e, they are bisexual, while in papaya both male and female
reproductive structures are present on different plants, i.e. they are unisexual. Similarly,
in animals, earthworm is bisexual or hermaphrodite while cockroaches are unisexual.
The concept of reproduction can be taught in same way by citing the examples of
asexual reproduction in lower animals and sexual reproduction in higher animals.
Question 109.
Modern life style in big cities and towns is surely making the life more easy and
comfortable for people. On the contrary, many more health issues and problems are on
the rise and one of them is allergic reactions.
(i) Write any four steps you would suggest to minimise the cause of the above allergic
responses.
(ii) List any two allergens. How does the human body respond to them? Explain. (Delhi
2014)
Answer:
(i) Allergy is a hypersensitive reaction of the immune system to certain antigens present
in the environment. The following steps can be used to minimise the allergic reactions

• Provide a less protected environment in early childhood.

• Avoiding exposure to allergens like mites in dust, pollens, animal dander, etc.
• Use of drugs; like antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids.
• Exposing the patient to small doses of allergens and studying possible reactions.
(ii) Mist in dust and pollens are allergens. The human body responds to them by
producing IgE antibodies and releasing chemicals like histamine and serotonin from
mast cells.
Question 110.
Peer pressure plays a negative role in triggering smoking habits in adolescents. As a
school captain list any two activities you would like to organise with the help of senior
students of your school and any other two activities you would like your school
authorities to organise for the students to tackle this problem. Explain how these
activities will help in doing so. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
As a captain, we will organise craft competition to create the awareness among the
students. Secondly, we will prepare some students to deliver debate during morning
assembly to make it more effective and with the help of school authorities, we will
prepare hoardings and put them Up on walls. We will also distribute some brochure
amongst the students including the lecture of principal during morning assembly, we
can also arrange a play on any auspicious occasion.
Question 111.
You have attended a birthday party hosted by one of your classmates. You found some
guests at the party sitting in a corner making a lot of noise and consuming ‘something’.
After a while one of the boys from the group started screaming, behaving abnormally
and sweating profusely.
(i) Would you inform your parents/school authorities? Yes/No? Give reason in support
of your answer.
(ii) Prepare a note to be circulated amongst the schoolmates about the sources and
dangers of any two drugs.
(iii) Write any two ways that you will suggest to your school principal, so as to promote
awareness amongst the youth against the use of these drugs. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
(i) Yes, I will inform the school authorities, because such kind of behaviour may lead to
terrible consequences in future. It may lead to addiction to drugs. (1)
(ii) Following are two drugs that are most commonly available

Drugs Sources Danger

Damage to blood vessel,

Cocaine Coca plant increased heart rate, even
death.

Mental retardation, lung

Marijuana Cannabis sativa
infection, lung cancer.
(iii) Ways to promote awareness amongst the youth against the use of these drugs are
as follows:

• All students must be inspired to adopt a healthy life style.

• There should be a counsellor who must talk to students about their problems and
situations that force them to adopt wrong habits.

Question 112.
An active member of an awareness group conducts regular programmes to sensitise
public against alcoholism amongst youth as a serious health hazard in his locality.
Identify the values this member of the group is trying to propagate amongst the people
in his locality. (Value Based Question, Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Member of an awareness group is trying to aware public, commonly youth about the
harmful impacts of alcohol.
He wants to tell people that alcohol has several ill effects which affect the body of the
individual in many ways as follows
 • Alcohol affects the foetus in case of pregnancy.
• It leads to reckless behaviour, vandalism and violence.
• It causes aggressiveness, rebellious behaviour and depression.
• Fatigue, isolation, fluctuations in weight are the other ill effects.
• Change in sleeping pattern, loss of appetite and lack of personal hygiene is also
seen in addicts.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Q.1. State with examples why a few pathogens are organ/tissue-specific.

A.1. Lymph nodes – HIV, Filariasis Lungs – Pneumonia

Q.2. When the ELISA test was conducted on an immune-suppressed person, he tested positive for a
pathogen.

(a) Identify the disease the patient is suffering from.

(b) Name the causative entity.

(c) Mention the cells of the body that are attacked by the pathogen.

A.2.

(a) The patient is suffering from AIDS

(b) It is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus(HIV)

(c) It affects a type of white blood cells called CD4 cells

Q.3. Mention the site in the body where the B-cells and T-cells are formed. Give one difference
between them.

A.3. Both the B-cells and T-cells are formed in the bone marrow. They differ in the site of maturation.
B-cells mature in the bone marrow whereas the T-cells mature in the thymus.

Q.4. One of the following is not a matching pair of the pathogen and the disease they cause. Pick the
odd one out and state why.

(a)Virus Common cold

(b)Salmonella Typhoid

(c)Microsporum Filariasis

(d)Plasmodium Malaria
A.4. Option (c) is matched incorrectly. Fungi that belong to the genera Microsporum, causes ringworm
that are infectious diseases in man.
Q.5. How would a person’s immune system be affected in the absence of the thymus gland?

A.5. T-Lymphocytes in our body mature in the thymus gland. If the thymus gland is removed from the
body, T-Lymphocytes will fail to mature causing the immune system to not develop. Thus the person
turns susceptible to most of the diseases.

Q.6. List the preventive barriers that protect the body against microbial bacteria entering the gut
through the food consumed. Name the immunity type observed in this case.

A.6. Following are the barriers:

• Lysozyme present in the saliva

• Presence of acid (HCl) in the stomach
• Mucous coating the epithelial lining in the gut

Innate immunity is observed here.

Q.7. State the significance of mother’s milk to a new-born infant.

A.7. Mother’s milk is considered essential because of the presence of the colostrum which is a
yellowish fluid secreted by the mother in the initial days of lactation. It has antibodies(IgA) in
abundance which is crucial in protecting the infant from picking up infections.

Q.8. What is interferon? How do they monitor the infection of new cells?

A.8. Virus-infected and tumour cells secrete glycoproteins which protect the non-infected cells from
pathogen’s attack, they are known as interferons. Interferons activate macrophages which are natural
killer cells, prevent viral replication. They increase antigen presentation to lymphocytes which
constantly multiply to eliminate foreign bodies.

Q.9. Mention four withdrawal symptoms exhibited by an alcohol or drug addict.

A.9. Shakiness, anxiety, sweating and nausea.

Q.10. Why is it recommended to avoid crowded and closed air-conditioned places during changing
the weather?

A.10. It is because pathogens are most active in moist conditions and favour their growth. One can
easily get affected as the body is getting adapted to the fluctuating ambient temperature and humidity
making them susceptible to diseases.

Q.11. What is the role of lymph nodes in our immunity response?

A.11. Lymphocytes present in the lymph nodes prevent microbes or antigens from entering through
the tissue and lymph fluid by filtering out, disposing and immobilizing pathogens.

Q.12. State why an antibody is represented as H2L2 .

A.12. Antibodies are Y shaped structures with two chains, four peptide- two light chains (L2) and two
heavy chains (H2), hence the representation.

Q.13. What does ‘memory’ associated with immune system mean?

A.13. Our body appears to have a memory of the first encounter it had with a pathogen which
stimulated an immune response by generating antibodies. This response is intensified during the
secondary response which is elicited by memory T-cells, B-cells which are ready to attack in case the
same pathogen reappears in the future.

Q.14. Name the infection and its causative if a patient is prescribed the Anti Retroviral therapy.

A.14. The disease is AIDS and its causative is HIV.

Q.15.What is pathology?

A.15.The word pathology refers to the study of the causes and effects of diseases.

Q.16.What are Noncommunicable diseases?

A.16.Noncommunicable diseases are also referred to as chronic diseases, which are long-lasting
and are caused by inherited genetic abnormalities.

Q.17.What is Epidemiology?

A.17.Epidemiology is the branch of medicine, which deals with the causes of diseases, mode of
transmission, precautions of diseases and other factors relating to health and diseases.

Q.18.What is Deficiency Diseases?

A.18.The group of diseases produced by the deficiency of nutrients, vitamins, minerals, and
hormones are collectively called deficiency diseases. Kwashiorkor, night blindness, goitre, anaemia,
diabetes, scurvy are a few examples of deficiency diseases.

Q.19.What are immunity and different types of immunity?

A.19. Immunity is defined as the ability of the body to protect against all types of infectious diseases
by defending against disease-causing pathogens like bacteria, virus, fungi and other toxic
substances from invading our body. There are two types of immunity:

1. Innate Immunity or Natural

2. Acquired Immunity

Q.20. Define Antigens and Antibodies.

A.20.

Antigens–They are the large molecules of proteins and polysaccharides present on the surface of
cells. These molecules function by triggering the production of antibodies by inducing an immune
response.

Antibodies— The are proteins produced by the immune system, which functions by defending the
host against foreign invasion.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q.1. How is active immunity different from passive immunity?

A.1. Following are the differences:

Active Immunity Passive Immunity

 Produced by the immune system actively Produced by the immune system passively

Antibodies are produced by immunogens Antibodies are transferred not produced

It involves antigens Involves antibodies

It is durable It is transient

Natural passive immunity is by transfer of

Natural active immunity is by clinical infection
antibodies through the placenta
Q.2. How is benign tumour different from the malignant tumour?

A.2. Listed below are the differences.

Benign Tumour Malign Tumour

It does not metastasize Metastasizes to other parts of the body

Slow-growing Fast-growing

Does not invade the ambient tissue Invades the surrounding tissue

Chances of recurrence are less after surgery Recurs even after surgery

Examples: Myomas, Adenomas, Neuromas Examples: Carcinomas, Sarcomas

Q.3. What do you think is more dangerous – Active smoking or passive smoking? State why.

A.3. Active and passive smoking can equally be dangerous, as passive smoking exposes one to the
same harmful effects as active smoking. Once smoke is inhaled, it induces cough, prolonged exposure
can cause emphysema, bronchitis and infections of the respiratory tract thereby causing lung cancer
eventually.

Q.4. Elucidate why “Prevention is better than cure”.

A.4. It is because some diseases have the potential to cause extensive damage to the organs or
tissues of the body which can affect their functioning capacity. It can induce a permanent debilitating
effect not only physically but also mentally affecting one’s psychology. It also incurs an additional
financial burden.

Q.5. List three remedial measures to treat microbial infections.

A.5. Following are the preventive measures:

• Avoid being in crowded places

• Consume healthy food, safe drinking and pure air
• Maintaining community as well as personal hygiene through vaccine administration

Q.6. The diagram shows replication of the retrovirus in the host. Note and answer the following
questions.
(a) Fill in the missing data in boxes labelled 1 & 2.

(b) Why is it named as retrovirus?

(c) While the virus is being replicated and released, does the infected cell survive?

A.6. (a) 1 – Viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase. 2 – New viral RNA is produced by the
infected cell. (b) RNA produces DNA by reverse transcription and is the genetic material of the virus.
(c) An infected cell can survive.

Q.7. Fill the missing data in the table depicting diseases, their causatives and symptoms.

A.7.

Name of the disease Causative Organism Symptoms

Muscular pain, internal

Ascariasis Ascaris
bleeding, fever, anaemia,
 blockage of the intestinal
passage

The appearance of scaly

Ringworm Trichophyton lesions, dry skin on various
parts of the body

Stomach pain, High fever,

Typhoid Salmonella Typhimurium headache, weakness,
constipation.

Fever, cough, chills, headache.

Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumonia Fingernails and lips may turn
gry to bluish in some cases.

Nasal congestion and

Common cold Rhinoviruses discharge, sore throat, cough,
headache.

Wuchereria(W.bancrofti,
Filariasis Inflammation in lower limbs
W.malayi)
Q.8. Answer the following questions on the outline structure of a drug shown below:

(a) Name the group of drugs this structure represents.

(b) List the modes of consumption of this drug

(c)Which organ of the body is affected by the consumption of this drug?

A.8.

(a) Cannabinoids

(b) Oral Ingestion or inhalation

(c) The cardiovascular system and the heart are affected

Q.9. What is the full form of MRI and CT? Where are they used? State the difference between them.

A.9. MRI – Magnetic Resonance Imaging CT – Computed Tomography MRI uses magnetic fields and
is a non-invasive technique whereas CT uses X-rays and is an invasive technique. MRI gives a better
contrast of softer tissues compared to CT but cannot be used on patients with metal implants and
pacemakers. CT provides a 3D and sectional picture of any part or section of the body.
Q.10. Why is the use of cannabinoids prohibited in games and sports?
A.10. It was banned since athletes misused these drugs so as to improve their performances.
Cannabinoids can have adverse negative effects on health in the long run that can impede the
normal functioning of the organs.

Q.11. What is secondary metabolism?

A.11. It is used to refer to pathways and metabolites produced by metabolism that are not essential
for the survival of entities. In plants, metabolites help in the development and growth of plants. It also
promotes primary metabolism. It is also known as specialized metabolism.

Q.12. Why are diseases like cholera, typhoid, dysentery etc., more common in overcrowded places?

A.12. It is because they are infectious diseases and can communicate from person to person. Water
gets mixed with the excreta of infected people thereby contaminating it. Such water, if consumed
causes the infection to spread to non-infected people.

Q.13. Which plant yields cannabinoids? List any two cannabinoids. Name the part of the body that is
affected by its consumption.

A.13. Cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescence of the Cannabis Sativa plant. Some of the
cannabinoids are – Marijuana, charas, ganja etc. These substances have the potential to interact with
the cannabinoid receptors of the body that are located in the brain. It also affects the cardiovascular
system of the body.

Q.14. What causes asthma/allergy in metropolitan cities of India? List some of its symptoms.

A.14. More polluted environment lowers the immunity levels and sensitivity to allergens in
metropolitan cities. Dust in the surroundings rises the chances of allergy in children. Few symptoms
are – watery eyes, sneezing, difficulty in breathing and running nose.

Q.15. State the principle of vaccination. How can vaccines be used to prevent microbial infections?
Write the name of the entity from which the hepatitis B vaccine is synthesized.

A.15. It is based on the principle of ‘memory’ of the immune system. In vaccination, a preparation of
antigenic proteins or inactivated pathogen is introduced in the body. These antigens generate a
primary immune response by generating antibodies with memory B-cells and T-cells. Hence when the
vaccinated person is attacked again by the same pathogen, the current T-cells and B-cells recognize
the antigen and cause massive production of antibodies and lymphocytes. Yeasts produce the
hepatitis-B vaccine.

Q.16. What is cancer? What causes a normal cell to turn cancerous? How is it different from a normal
cell?

A.16. Cancer is an uncontrolled and abnormal division of cells. Under certain conditions, genes such
as proto-oncogenes or cellular oncogenes present in normal cells get activated leading to their
oncogenic transformation causing cancer. Following are the differences between normal and
cancerous cells.

Normal cells Cancerous cells

 They divide in a controlled manner Divide uncontrollably

Cells exhibit contact inhibition Cells do not display contact inhibition

Definite lifespan Indefinite lifespan

Q.17. Detect the medical ailment in the following case – Strong hypersensitive reactions displayed
by a person when exposed to a few substances in the air. Identify the cells causing this reaction.
State a precautionary measure to avoid such a reaction.

A.17. The patient is allergic to the substances in the air. Allergies are due to the release of chemicals
such as serotonin and histamine from the mast cells. One of the precautionary measures can be to
avoid coming in contact with such allergens present in the air.

Q.18. Is it advantageous to have an identical twin for an organ transplant? If yes/no, why?

A.18. It is advantageous since the organ has the same surface markers. Hence the immune system
of the recipient will not detect it as alien or imported and thereby will not react against it. The immune
system reacts killing the foreign tissue only if it detects different surface markers.

Q.19. What is a lifestyle disease? List two lifestyle diseases. What is their causative?

A.19. It is a disease or disorder which is associated with the way a person lives. They are caused by
certain work-related ethics, posture, specific food habits or even exposure to harmful substances or
radiations. It could even arise due to lack of physical activity, exercise, mental disturbance etc.
Examples – Heart Disease, Cancer, Obesity etc.

Q.20. Which pathogenic virus would mutate faster, one with DNA or RNA? Why?

A.20. The pathogenic virus with RNA would mutate faster than DNA as DNA is more stable and
possesses better repair mechanisms. They have the potential to rectify the changes in base pairs (if
any) as soon as a change has occurred.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q.1. What causes adolescents to start using drugs? How can the use of drugs be avoided?

A.1. Few reasons that cause adolescents to start consuming drugs are:

• Curiosity to experiment
• For excitement and adventure sake
• Peer pressure
• In an attempt to push one’s physical and mental boundaries and produce more work
• To overcome depression and frustration caused due to failure in miscellaneous activities.
• Lack of support from family

Remedial measures to avoid usage of drugs are:

• Avoid pressuring children to perform beyond his/her academic capabilities

• Educate and counsel children to deal with stress and disturbances in life
• Seek help from family, peers
• Stay alert on the danger signs by adopting suitable measures to treat them
 • Seek medical/professional help for rehabilitation and de-addiction.

Q.2. State the behavioural changes observed in an alcohol addict and remedial measures to
overcome the problem.

A.2. Following changes are observed:

• Alcohol drinks are costly, it may deprive the family of their basic needs
• Drinking is associated with crimes and dissolution of cultural and moral inhibitions.
• Few corrupt practices and violence are often directly or indirectly related to alcohol
consumption

Remedial measures:

• Avoid getting influenced by pressure from peers

• Counselling and education aids in overcoming issues like stress, failure and disturbance
• Seek aid from family and peers
• Staying aware of danger signals, if one finds himself amidst a group of people consuming
alcohol.
• Seeking medical or professional help is one of the resorts for people suffering from
addiction, to lead a healthy and normal life.

Q.3. How to detect cancer? What are a few approaches to treat cancer?

A.3. Cancer can be detected at early stages and early detection is essential. Following are a few can
diagnosis and detection areas:

• Tests for increases cell counts(blood cancer)

• Histo-pathological and biopsy of blood/tissues/bone marrow
• Radiography, CT, MRI to detect cancer of internal organs
• Identification of cancer-specific antigens
• Application of molecular biology techniques to detect genes with inherited susceptibility to a
few cancers

Treatment of cancer: Listed below are a few approaches that can be used to treat cancer.

• Surgery to remove the tumour

• Immunotherapy to boost the killing of cancer cells
• Radiotherapy to kill cancerous cells
• Chemotherapy
• Administration of biological response mediators such as ∝-interferons that activate the
immune system thus helping in destroying the tumour

Q.4. Explain why excessive dosage and abusive usage of drugs such as amphetamines, LSD and
barbiturates used to treat mental illness, are considered harmful? What are the major effects of the
usage of drugs in humans?

A.4. Its harmful effects are:

• Shakiness, anxiety, sweating and nausea, loss of mind control

• Vandalism, violence and reckless behaviour
• Fluctuations in appetite and weight, lack of interest in personal hygiene
 • Isolation, depression, withdrawal, aggressive behaviour, fatigue
• Social adjustment problems
• Severe and life-threatening withdrawal symptoms
• Excessive drug dosage can lead to coma and eventually death may occur due to respiratory
failure, cerebral haemorrhage or heart failure

Q.5. What is a recombinant DNA vaccine? List two such vaccines. State their advantages.

A.5. Recombinant DNA vaccines consist of plasmid, which is a small circular DNA. It contains a
pathogen DNA to produce one or two specific proteins of the pathogen. This DNA is then inserted into
the yeast or bacteria cells to utilize the machinery of the cell to generate pathogen’s polypeptides.
These vaccines can be used to stimulate the organization of immune responses. Vaccines hence
produced are used on a large scale for the manufacture of

• Hepatitis-B vaccine (yeast)

• Bird flu DNA vaccine

Some of their advantages are:

• These vaccines are always more beneficial than attenuated vaccines as they do not mutate
again
• They are distinctly pure and specific and evokes strong immune responses.

Q.6.What Is Typhoid? List out the symptoms of Typhoid?

A.6.Typhoid is an infectious disease caused by the Salmonella typhi or S. Typhi bacteria, which
infects the intestinal tract and the blood cells of an individual.

Listed below are a few common symptoms of Typhoid:

• Headache
• Dry cough
• Sweating
• Skin Rashes
• Muscle aches
• Abdominal pain
• Weakness and fatigue
• Diarrhoea or constipation
• Loss of appetite and weight loss
• Sustained fever or fever with the elevating body temperature.

Q.7. What is Ringworm? What are the different types of ringworm?

A.7.Ringworm is a type of skin infection, caused by the fungus. It is a contagious skin disorder,
which can spread by the skin contact with an infected person. There are different types of ringworm
and are mainly classified based on the body parts which get infected. The most common forms of
ringworm are tinea pedis, tinea capitis, tinea cruris and tinea corporis.

Types of Ringworm are:

Ringworm is classified based on the part of the body it affects.

3. Tinea corporis: This fungal infection might occur in any part of the body.
4. Tinea capitis: It is also called scalp ringworm. This fungal infection affects the scalp.
5. Tinea cruris: This fungal infection affects the skin around the buttocks, inner thighs, and
groin. It is also known as the Jock itch.
6. Tinea pedis: This fungal infection affects both the foot, in between the fingernails and
toenails. It is also known as Athlete’s foot.

Q.8. What are the factors responsible for triggering asthma attacks?

A.8. Asthma is a chronic condition, which alters the airways of the human respiratory system. There
are several factors responsible for triggering asthma attacks and they vary from person to person.
Listed below are a few of them.

• Pollen.
• Smoking.
• Sinusitis.
• Allergies.
• Pollution.
• Pet dander.
• Common cold.
• Dust and dust mites.
• Respiratory infections.
• Side effects of Medication.
• Exhausted gases from vehicles and industries.

Q.9. Define minerals and list out the essential minerals along with the deficiency diseases caused
by the lack of essential minerals.

A.9. Minerals are inorganic nutrients that include trace elements such as copper, zinc, iodine, iron,
along with the macronutrients such as calcium, potassium, magnesium and sodium. The important
minerals required by our body are calcium, chloride, magnesium, phosphorus, potassium, sodium
and sulphur.

Here is the list of deficiency diseases caused by the lack of minerals in our body.

7. Anaemia.
8. Joint pain
9. Loss of appetite.
10. Retarded growth.
11. Excessive bleeding.
12. Brittle and weak bones.
13. Diarrhoea or vomiting.
14. Dental cavities and gum disease.
15. Goitre and enlarged thyroid gland.
16. Purple colored or blood spots under the skin.

Q.10. List out the major deficiency diseases caused due to lack of essential minerals and vitamins?
A.10.

Here is the list of incredibly common nutrients deficiencies disorders caused due to lack of essential
minerals and vitamins.

Vitamins and Minerals Deficiency Diseases

Night blindness, Xerophthalmia, chronic

Vitamin-A (Retinol)
diarrhoea, etc.

Beri-beri, Weight loss, confusions, short-term

Vitamin-B1 (Thiamine)
memory loss, etc.

Vitamin-B2 (Riboflavin) Dry skin, Mouth ulcers, itchy and watery, etc.

VitaminB12 (Cyanocobalamin) Anaemia, fatigue, fatigue, breathlessness, etc.

Fatigue, depression, skin rashes, internal

Vitamin-C (Ascorbic acid)
bleeding, etc.

Vitamin-D (Calciferol) Rickets, Fatigue, Tiredness, etc.

Vitamin-K (Phylloquinone) Excessive bleeding due to injury

Calcium Brittle bones and excessive bleeding

Bad teeth, Rickets, osteomalacia and

Phosphorus
osteoporosis.

Iron Anaemia, fatigue with low red blood cell count.

Goitre, enlarged thyroid gland and

Iodine
hypothyroidism.

Low appetite, muscle weakness, anaemia, low

Copper
white blood cell count, and retard growth.

Study Important Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 - Human

Health and Disease
Very Short Answer Questions (1 Mark)
1. Name the diagnostic test which confirms typhoid.

Ans: The diagnostic test which confirms typhoid is the Widal test.
2. Name the two major groups of cells required to attain specific
immunity.

Ans: B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes are the two major groups of cells
required to attain specific immunity.

3. You have heard of many incidences of Chikungunya in our country.

Name the vector of the disease.

Ans: Aedes mosquito is the name of the vector of the Chikungunya disease.

4. Breast-fed babies are more immune to diseases than bottle-fed babies.

Why?

Ans: Breast-fed babies are more immune to diseases than bottle-fed babies
because the mother s milk consists of antibodies (Ig A) which are not available
in the case of bottle-fed babies.

5. Name the pathogen which causes malignant malaria.

Ans: The pathogen which causes malignant malaria is Plasmodium falciparum.

6. Which microorganism is used to produce the hepatitis B Vaccine?

Ans: The microorganism which is used to produce the hepatitis B Vaccine is

Yeast.

7. What is the reason for shivering in malarial patients?

Ans: The reason for shivering in malarial patients is the release of the toxic
substance hemozoin when RBC ruptures, after sporozoite infection, and
causes chilling and high fever.

8. When is a tumor referred to as malignant?

Ans: A tumor is referred to as malignant when it starts to grow rapidly and

then invade & damage the surrounding of the normal tissues.

9. Why does an AIDS patient suffer from many infections?

Ans: AIDS patients suffer from many infections because, in AIDS patients, the
immune system weakens greatly and is unable to fight against any infection.

10. Name two curable sexually transmitted diseases?

Ans: The two curable sexually transmitted diseases are Gonorrhoea & Syphilis.

11. Name the type of cells that produce antibodies?

Ans: B – lymphocytes are the type of cells that produce antibodies.

12. Give the scientific name of the causative germ of elephantiasis?

Ans: The scientific name of the causative germ of elephantiasis is Wuchereria

bancrofti.

13. Name the fish that help in the eradication of mosquito larvae.
Ans: Gambusia is the fish that help in the eradication of mosquito larvae.

Short Answer Questions (2 Marks)

1. Where are B-cells and T-cells formed? How do they differ from each
other?

Ans: B-cells and T-cells are the lymphocytes that are formed in the bone
marrow. The function of B-cells is to produce antibodies while the T-cells do
not produce antibodies instead they help B-cells in producing antibodies.

2. Given below are the pathogens and the diseases caused by them.
Which out of these pairs is not the correct matching pair and why?

(a) Wuchereria Filariasis

(b) Microsporum Ringworm

(c) Salmonella Common Cold

(d) Plasmodium Malaria

Ans: Salmonella: Common cold is not a matching pair because the common
cold is a viral disease that is caused by a virus while Salmonella is a bacterium
that causes bacterial disease in the intestinal tract of the body.

3. What would happen to the immune system, if the thymus gland is

removed from the body of a person?

Ans: The thymus gland is responsible for the production and maturation of T-
lymphocytes. If the thymus gland is removed from the body of a person, then
the immune system of the person will become weak.
4. Lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid organs. Describe the role of
lymph nodes in our immune response.

Ans: The role of lymph nodes in our immune response is to act as the site
where the lymphocytes and the antigen interact with each other. The immune
system of the person got responsive when the microorganisms enter the
lymph nodes resulting in the activation of the lymphocytes present there.

5. What is the role of histamine in inflammatory response? Name few

drugs which reduce the symptoms of allergy.

Ans: Histamine is released by mast cells and they act as an allergy-mediator

which causes the dilation of the blood vessels. The drugs which reduce the
symptoms of allergy are Antihistamine steroids and adrenaline.

6. Differentiate between two different types of tumors?

Ans: The difference between two different types of tumors is:

Benign Tumour Malignant Tumour

i) Tumor remains confined to the i) Tumor invade surrounding tissue

place of origin or affected organ. & spread throughout the body.

ii) It is harmless. ii) It is harmful.

iii) rate of growth of tumors is low. iii) rate of growth of tumors is rapid.

iv) causes limited damage. iv) Cause uncontrolled damage.

7. What do you mean by withdrawal Symptoms? What are its

characteristics?
Ans: Withdrawal symptoms are observed in the case of a drug addict where
the body of a person shows characteristic unpleasant symptoms if they
suddenly do not get the regular dose of the drug. The characteristics
symptoms include anxiety, sweating, shakiness, depression, restlessness,
muscular cramps, etc.

8. Differentiate between active & passive immunity?

Ans: The difference between active & passive immunity are:

Active Immunity Passive Immunity

i) When antibodies developed in

i) When antibodies are developed by
other vertebrates in response to the
our cells in response to antigen.
deliberate infection of antigen.

ii) It is used when the immune

ii) It takes time to develop immunity.
response has to be faster.

iii) It stays for a longer period. iii) It stays for a short period.

9. Enumerate the two properties of cancer cells that distinguish them

from normal cells.

Ans: The two properties of cancer cells that distinguish them from the normal
cells are:

i) The cells undergo uncontrolled proliferation without any differentiation

ii) The cells can invade other tissues which are called metastasis.

10. What are allergens? How do they cause inflammatory responses

inside the human body?
Ans: The allergens are the substances that cause the hypersensitive reaction
of the immune system such as dust, pollen grains, etc. When the person is
exposed to an allergen for the first time then no allergy is caused but if they
get exposed to allergens frequently then the allergen combines with Ig E on
the mast cell resulting in the bursting of the cells and release of Histamines
which leads to the inflammatory response. Thus, allergens are said to be weak
antigens.

11. What are autoimmune diseases? Give two examples?

Ans: Autoimmune diseases are those in which the immune system of the body
gets disturbed ad starts to attack the healthy cells. Immunity is based on the
ability to differentiate foreign organisms from self-cells. Sometimes the
immune system may go off the track & turns against self-antigen and elicit
immunity. Examples of autoimmune diseases are Rheumatoid arthritis and
Myasthenia gravis.

Long Answer Questions (3 Marks)

1. What are Cannabinoids? From which plant Cannabinoids are obtained?
Which part of the body is affected by consuming these substances?

Ans: Cannabinoids are a group of naturally occurring chemicals present in

Cannabis and interact with Cannabinoid receptors present there.

- Cannabinoids are obtained from the plant Cannabis sativa mainly from their
inflorescence.

- The part of the body which is affected adversely by consuming these

substances is the cardiovascular system.

2. In the figure, the structure of an antibody molecule is shown. Observe

it and answer the following questions.
(i) Label parts A, B, and C.

Ans: A - Antigen binding site, B - Light chain, C- Heavy chain.

(ii) Which cells produce these chemicals?

Ans: B – lymphocytes are the cells that produce these chemicals.

(iii) State the function of these molecules.

Ans: The function of antibodies is to provide an acquired immune response to

the body.

3. Mention any three causes of drug abuse. Suggest some measures for
the prevention and control of drug abuse.

Ans: Reasons to attract towards and cause drug abuse: Curiosity, escape from
frustration and failure, peer pressure, false belief of enhanced performance,
family problems.
Preventive measures:

- Avoid undue peer pressure

- Education and Counselling

- Seeking help from parents and peers.

- Looking for danger signs

- Seeking professional and medical help

4. A person shows unwelcome immunogenic reactions while exposed to

certain substances.

(a) Name this condition.

Ans: When a person shows unwelcome immunogenic reactions while exposed

to certain substances is called allergy.

(b) What common term is given to the substances responsible for this
condition?

Ans: Allergens is the common term that is given to the substances responsible
for the allergy.

(c) Name the cells and the chemical substances released which cause
such reactions.

Ans: Mast Cells are the cells while Histamine and Serotonin are the chemical
substances released which cause such reactions.
5. Fill in the blanks in the different columns of the table given below to
identify the no’s 1 to 6.

Name of Disease Causative Organism Symptoms

Pneumonia Streptococcus (1)

High fever, weakness,

Typhoid (2) headache, stomach
pain.

Nasal Congestion, and

(3) Rhinoviruses discharge sore throat
cough, headache

Ascariasis Ascaris (4)

Dry, Scaly lesions on

various body parts,
Ringworm (5)
Intense itching,
redness.

Constipation, cramps,
abdominal pain, Stools
(6) Entamoeba histolytica
with excess mucous
and blood clots.

Ans: The fill-in blanks in the different columns of the table given below to
identify the no’s 1 to 6 are:

(i) Alveoli filled with fluid, reduced breathing, fever, chills, cough, and
headache.

(ii) Salmonella typhi

(iii) Common Cold

(iv) Internal bleeding, muscular pain, anemia, fever, and blockage of the
intestinal passage.
(v) Microsporum species/Trichophyton species/Epidermophyton Species.

(vi) Amoebiasis/amoebic dysentery

6. In the given flow diagram, the replication of retrovirus in a host cell is

shown. Examine it and answer the following questions

(a) Why is a virus called retrovirus?

Ans: A virus is called retrovirus because it consists of RNA as genetic material
and undergoes reverse transcription to produce DNA as in the case of HIV.

(b) Fill in (1) and (2)

Ans: 1: Viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.

2: New Viral RNA is produced by the infected cell.

(c) Can infected cells survive while viruses are being replicated and
released by the host cells?

Ans: Yes, the infected cell can survive while viruses are being replicated and
released by the host cell.

7. What is innate immunity? List the four types of barriers that protect
the body from the entry of foreign agents.

Ans: The immunity which is resent at the time of birth and shows a non-
specific type of defense is called Innate Immunity.

The four types of barriers that protect the body from the entry of foreign
agents are:

(i) Physical Barriers: Skin, digestive and urinogenital tract, mucous-coated

epithelium, or respiratory.

(ii) Physiological Barriers: Acidity of Stomach, tears, sweat, lysozyme in

saliva.

(iii) Cellular Barrier: Macrophages, monocytes neutrophils, and natural killer

lymphocytes.

(iv) Cytokine Barriers: Interferons produced by Virally infected cells, protect

the non-infected cells from further Viral infection.
8. How does the humoral immune system works when our body is
infected?

Ans: The immunity in which antibodies are developed for attacking the
microbes is called the Humoral immune response. The receptors are present
on the surface of each B-cell that recognize a specific antigen. When the B-cell
is exposed to antigens then it will result in triggering of B-cells to proliferate
further thus leading to the formation of a large clone cell which continuous
stimulation and then result in the increase in the number of B-lymphocytes
which then differentiates into plasma cells that are smaller antibody-
producing cells. Antibodies that are produced by each clone of plasma cells
will react with their antigenic determinant and leads to the stimulation of the
initial proliferation. The phagocytic cells digest the antigen-antibody complex
which is formed when the antibody binds to the antigen. When plasma cells
are exposed to the same antigen later then some of these plasma cells develop
into memory cells.

9. It was diagnosed by a specialist that the Immune System of the body

of a patient has been suppressed. Describe the infection and the
mechanism of its proliferation in the body.
Ans: If the immune system of the patient has been suppressed then he is
found to be suffering from the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The HIV
enters into the helper T- cells & undergoes replication to produce progeny
viruses. The replication of virus involves: -

(i)First viral capsid enters the cell where the reverse transcriptase enzyme will
copy single-stranded RNA and convert it into complementary DNA.

(ii) The ribonuclease H degrades the RNA & the DNA strand becomes double-
stranded DNA after its duplication.
(iii) Integrase enzyme is responsible for a complex sequence of reactions in
which the Proviral DNA is integrated into cells’ DNA.

(iv) Virus becomes active once it has infected the cell resulting in the liberation
of a large number of virus particles that can infect other cells.

10. What are carcinogens? What are the different types of carcinogens?
Also, mention the different methods of treatment of cancer?

Ans: Carcinogens are the substances that cause cancer. These substances may
be chemical or physical things like: -

1. Smoking

2. Tobacco chewing

3. Radiations e.g., UV- x-ray, cosmic rays.

4. Chemical agents.g., mustard gas, aflatoxin, cadmium oxide

5. Biological agents e.g., retroviruses

6. Cellular agents proto-oncogenes which when activated under certain

conditions may lead to oncogenic transformation of cells.

Treatment of cancer involves: -

1. Surgery: - surgical removal of the tumor.

2. Chemotherapy: treatment with drugs that can destroy cancer cells.

3. Immunotherapy: interleukin, use of interferons, vaccines to generate non-

specific defense mechanism.

4. Radiation Therapy: - therapy like x-ray or radiotherapy and the utilization

of ionizing radiations that help to kill cancer cells.

5. Hormonal Suppression: providing or blocking certain hormones.

11. describe the ill – effects of drug abuse in males and females. also,
mention the preventive measures that are to be taken to reduce such
effects.

Ans: the ill-effects of drug abuse in males and females are:

1) ILL – Defects in Males: - increased aggressiveness, acne, decreased sperm

production, mood swing depression reduction of the size of testicles,
premature baldness, kidney, and liver dysfunction.

2) ILL – Effects in Females: - increased aggressiveness, masculinization, mood

swings, excessive hair growth on the face and body, depression abnormal
menstrual cycle, and deepening of the voice.

the preventive measures that are to be taken to reduce such effects are: -

1. Education and Counselling: - to accept failure as part of life, to face

problems or stress, and to channel child’s energy to some health-promoting
activities.

2. Avoid Undue Peer Pressure: - to pressurize a child to perform beyond his

capabilities.

3. Seeking Help From Parents and Peers: - to share the feeling of anxiety
and guilt.

4. Seeking Professional for Medical Help: - help available in the form of a

highly qualified psychiatrist, psychologist, etc.

12. What is vaccination? What type of immunity is provided by

vaccination?

Ans: The process of development of immunity with the help of vaccines taken
in the body is called vaccination, here to produce immunity against a particular
pathogen a weakened pathogen is injected into the body that results in the
production of antibodies. The antibodies that are produced against these
antigens would result in the neutralization of the pathogenic agent. The
vaccine will startle the pathogen by producing a large number of antibodies
and will also generate memory B – and T – cells that help in recognizing the
pathogen quickly when they are exposed to them.

The type of immunity provided by vaccination is Active immunity. However, we

need to directly inject the immunity to a patient’s body if a person is infected
with some deadly microbe to which a quick immune response is required, this
type of immunization is called Passive immunization.

13. (i) Differentiate between communicable and non – communicable

diseases?

Ans: The difference between communicable & non – communicable diseases

are:

Communicable Diseases Non – Communicable Diseases

Communicable diseases are caused Non – communicable diseases are

lay biological agents & can spread the disease that is not able to spread
from one person to another or one through one person to another.
place to another through the air,
water, physical contact, etc.

(ii) Name the body part & the host in which the following events take
place in the life cycle of plasmodium.

(a) Fertilization

Ans: Fertilization in the life cycle of plasmodium takes place in the gut of
female anopheles.

(b) Development of Gametophyte

Ans: Development of Gametophyte in the life cycle of plasmodium takes place
in RBCs of Human beings.

(c) Release of sporozoites

Ans: Salivary gland of female anopheles release of sporozoites.

(d) Asexual Reproduction.

Ans: Asexual Reproduction takes place in the liver cells of human beings.

Very Long Answer Questions (5 Marks)

1. Answer the following concerning Caner.

(a) How does a cancerous cell differ from a normal cell?

Ans: The growth and differentiation in normal cells are highly controlled and
regulated (contact = inhibition) while in the case of cancerous cells they
continue to divide giving rise to masses of cells (tumours) and have lost the
property of contact inhibition.

(b) Benign tumour is less dangerous than a malignant tumour. Why?

Ans: Benign tumour is less dangerous than a malignant tumour because the
benign tumour will be confined to only the affected organ and is enclosed in a
connective tissue sheath and does not enter the metastatic stage.

(c) Describe the causes of cancer.

Ans: Cancer may be caused due to various carcinogens that include chemicals
(Nicotine, Aflatoxin, Cadmium oxide, Asbestos), physical (radiations), and
biological (viral oncogenes).

(d) mention two methods of treatment of the disease.

Ans: The methods of treatment of the disease are surgery, radiotherapy,

chemotherapy.

2. The pathogen of a disease depends on the RBCs of humans for growth

and reproduction. The person with this pathogen suffers from the chill
and high fever.

(a) Name the disease.

Ans: Malaria is a disease where the pathogen of a disease depends on the

RBCs of humans for growth and reproduction.

(b) Name the different species of Plasmodium.

Ans: The different species of Plasmodium are Plasmodium. vivax, P. Malariae

and P. falciparum.

(c) How malaria is caused?

Ans: Malaria is caused by the release of toxins (hemozoin) which is produced

by the malarial parasite in the human body by the rupturing of RBCs in the
blood.

(d) Represent the life cycle of the pathogen diagrammatically.

Ans: The life cycle of Plasmodium:

3. The immune system of a person is suppressed. He was found positive

for a pathogen in the diagnostic test ELISA.

(a) Name the disease, the patient is suffering from.

Ans: When the immune system of a person is suppressed then the person is
found to be suffering from AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome).

(b) Which pathogen is identified by the ELISA test?

Ans: HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) pathogen is identified by ELISA test.

(c) Which cells of the body are attacked by the pathogen?

Ans: Helper T-cells, macrophages, B-lymphocytes are cells of the body that are
attacked by the pathogen.

(d) Suggest preventive measures of the infection.

Ans: Preventive measures of the infection are:

(i) People should be educated about AIDS transmission.

(ii) Disposable needles and syringes should be used

(iii) Sexual habits should be changed immediately

(iv) High-risk groups should be discouraged from donating blood.

(v) Routine screening may be done.

4. Discuss the role of lymphoid organs in the immune response. Explain

the different types of lymphoid organs giving two examples of each type
in humans.

Ans: the role of lymphoid organs in the immune response is the origin,
maturation & proliferation of lymphocytes. these lymphoid organs are of two
types: -

1. Primary Lymphoid Organ: - they are sensitive lymphocytes in which the

immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigens. it consists of: -
(a) Bone Marrow: – it is the main lymphoid organ where all types of blood
cells including lymphocytes are formed and are present in the thigh region. it
helps in the development & maturation of b – cells by providing a micro-
environment.

(b) Thymus: - it is located beneath the chest bone near the heart. it helps in
the development & maturation of t – lymphocytes by providing a
microenvironment.

2. Secondary Lymphoid Organ: - they help the lymphocytes to interact with

the antigen which results in the proliferation leading to the formation of
effector cells. it includes.
(a) Spleen: - it is a large bean-shaped organ that consists of lymphocytes &
phagocytes. it is called the graveyard of rbcs and thus acts as a filter of blood
by trapping blood–bound microorganisms.

(b) Lymph Node: - they are small – solid structures and are part of the
lymphatic systems that are located at different points. its main role is to trap
the antigens that try to enter into lymph & tissue fluid. these antigens will
result in the activation of lymphocytes.

5. With the help of a well–labeled diagram, Describe the life cycle of

malarial parasite.

Ans: Malaria is a protozoan disease caused by plasmodium vivax. It has two

hosts – female anopheles which acts as the vector of plasmodium and man
that acts as the primary host where the parasite maintains an amoeboid stage
in RBCS & later produces gametophyte.

The life cycle of plasmodium involves the following steps: -

• In humans malaria is caused by Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium
vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium
knowlesi.
• Malaria parasite life cycle in humans is of four-phase- pre-erythrocytic
schizogony phase, erythrocytic schizogony phase, gametogenic phase,
and exoerythrocytic schizogony phase.
• Sporozoites of malaria are present in the salivary gland of mosquitoes
and transmitted to humans by mosquito bites where sporozoites are
introduced into the blood.
• The development phase of malaria sporozoites takes place in the liver
of humans where multiple nuclear divisions develop schizont containing
numerous merozoites.
• Numerous merozoites are released and enter red blood cells by the
receptor for merozoites in the glycoprotein.
 • Malaria disease’s first onset appears after the incubation period of 9-14
days, where patients may not appear to be ill.
• The common symptoms of malaria disease are- fever, headache, chills,
and vomiting appear for up to 10-15 days after the person is infected by
the malaria parasite.

6. What do you mean by “Outbreeding”. What are the different methods

employed for outbreeding?

Ans: Outbreeding is the process where the breeding between unrelated male
& female animals takes place. It can be done in the following ways: -

1. Out Cross: - the outcross is the process of the mating of animals that are of
the same breed but for 4-6 generations of their pedigree, they do not have any
common ancestor. for those animals that have a below-average in growth rate
of beef cattle, milk production, etc, it is the best method of breeding animals.

2. Cross–Breeding: - the breeding between the superior males of one breed

& superior females of another breed is called cross-breeding. by this breeding
technique, the desirable qualities of two different breeds can be combined
which is then used for commercial production e.g., the formation of hisardale,
a new breed of sheep is developed by crossing bikaneri ewes & marino rams.

3. Interspecific Hybridisation: - it is the cross where the breeding occurs in

between the male & female animals of two different related species, resulting
in the progeny which is a combination of desirable features of both parents
e.g., the mule is produced by the cross between donkey & a female horse.

7. What is somatic hybridization – Explain the steps involved in the

production of somatic hybrids?

Ans: The process of fusion of two protoplasts from the somatic cells of two
different varieties or species of a plant under sterile on a suitable nutrient
culture medium condition is called Somatic hybridization. For example,
tomato which is produced by fusion of protoplast of tomato & potato is a
somatic hybrid.

The steps involved in the production of somatic hybrids are: -

1. First the protoplasts from two different varieties of plants are isolated that
are having a desirable character.

2. The cytoplasm of two protoplasts then undergoes fusion resulting in the

mixing of cytoplasm. In this fusion, even after fusion of cytoplasm the nuclei
of two protoplasts may or may not fuse. The fusion here requires a suitable
agent called fusogenic, PEG, or polyethene glycol.

3. The hybrid protoplast produced will then synthesize a new cell wall around
it under favourable conditions. This hybrid cell will act as a single cell & later
undergo division that results in the formation of callus.

4. The callus which is regenerated is then transferred to a new culture plate

that contains the suitable culture media. In this culture media, the callus
divides and then results in the formation of roots and shoots by the process
of organogenesis.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Important Questions- Summary

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Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Important Questions- Summary

Types of Diseases
The body of a human tends to suffer from many kinds of infections and
diseases and that might be because of genetic defects or an unhealthy
lifestyle. These diseases can be classified into two different categories:

17. Congenital Diseases: Presence of genetic abnormalities from the

time of birth. These kinds of diseases might occur due to mutation of the
gene, chromosomal aberration, or effects on the environment. In such
diseases, the next generation might get affected by chromosomal and
gene defect transmission. Haemophilia, Turner's disease, colour
blindness, Down syndrome, etc. are some of the examples.
18. Acquired Diseases: These are the kinds of diseases that have
been acquired during the lifetime of a person. The types of acquired
diseases are Infectious or communicable disease, Non-communicable
disease, Deficiency disease, and Allergies.
• The pathogen can be defined as the organism which is responsible for
causing disease. Examples of the same may include, viruses, bacteria,
fungi, protozoa, worms, and others. The entry of such pathogens inside
the body can occur in multiple ways.

Immunity
Immunity is called the capacity of the body to defend and fight against any
foreign body or pathogen. Our body is protected by the help and working of
the immune system against any infection

Two kinds of immunity are found:

 • Innate immunity: It is the kind of immunity that is present from the
time of birth. In our body's defense system, there are four kinds of
barriers that help in protecting the body against any infection or disease.
These barriers include- Physical barriers, Physiological barriers, Cellular
barriers, and Cytokine barriers.
• Acquired immunity: It is the kind of immunity that is acquired during
the lifespan and is pathogen-specific. After the first contact with a
pathogen, the low-intensity primary response is initiated. Later
infection, due to first response memory, results in a strongly amplified
secondary response or anamnestic response.

AIDS (Acquired Immuno- Deficiency Syndrome)

• AIDS is caused due to the virus, named HIV which stands for Human
Immunodeficiency Virus.
• It is a retrovirus, with its genome being RNA.
• The virus, via the enzyme reverse transcriptase, generates viral DNA in
the host.
• In the host genome, the viral DNA is incorporated and multiple copies of
the virus are made.
• The virus enters T-cells, where it reproduces and multiplies, causing the
number of T lymphocytes to decrease significantly.

Cancer
• The main reason for cancer is uncontrolled cell division which ultimately
leads to tumour development.
• There is a failure of the regulatory system in the oncogenic
transformation of the normal cells.
• These Cancerous cells are observed to lack the property of contact
inhibition, which prevents further cell growth when they come into
contact with other types of cells.
 • Benign tumours and Malignant tumours are the types of tumours
observed.

Drugs and Alcohol Abuse

• The widely abused drugs may include heroin, cannabinoids, and coca
alkaloids.
• Some opioid receptors exist in the CNS and GI tract, where opioid drugs
are found to get bound.
• A popularly known heroin or smack, named Diacetylmorphine is derived
from the latex of Papaver somniferum, a poppy plant. It is extracted by
morphine acetylation.
• Cannabinoids bind to the receptors of cannabinoids which are found in
the brain.
• From the top of the flower, resins, leaves, of the Cannabis sativa plant,
cannabinoids, such as, marijuana, charas, hashish, ganja, and others are
obtained.
• Cocaine also called coca alkaloid is derived from the plant Erythroxylum
coca.
• Cocaine functions by dealing with the transport of dopamine which is
also a neurotransmitter.
• To increase their performance, muscle relaxation and decrease anxiety,
sportsmen often take cannabinoids.
• For the purpose of relieving pain and inducing sedatives, morphine is
used.
• As a medicine for depression, anxiety, and other mental disorders,
barbiturates, benzodiazepines, amphetamines, etc. are included.
• The nicotine (alkaloid) found in tobacco activates the adrenal gland to
release adrenaline and noradrenaline hormones.
Human Health and Disease Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type
Question 1.
What is health?
Answer:
It is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being of a person.
Question 2.
What is a disease?
Answer:
Malfunctioning of one or more organs characterised by signs and symptoms is called
disease.
Question 3.
Write the role of interferons. (CBSE Delhi 2019(C))
Answer:
Role of interferon. These are glycoprotein released by virus-infected cells. They protect
the adjoining cells from the attack of the virus.
Question 4.
Define autoimmunity.
Answer:
It is an abnormality which sometimes occurs in the immune system and instead of
destroying foreign molecules, it attacks the body’s own cells.
Question 5.
A boy of ten years had chickenpox. He is not expected to have the same disease for the
rest of his life. Mention how it is possible. (CBSE 2009)
Answer:
The body will acquire active immunity as the antibodies formed will protect him from
the attack of microbes of chickenpox.
Question 6.
What is it that prevents a child to suffer from a disease he/she is vaccinated against?
Give one reason. (CBSE 2010)
Answer:
19. Antibodies
20. These antibodies neutralise the action of antigens.
Question 7.
Name the pathogen which causes Typhoid. Name the test that confirms the disease.
(CBSE Delhi 2019 (C))
Answer:
Causative pathogen: Salmonella typhi Test: Widal test
Question 8.
Name two types of cells in which the HIV multiplies after gaining entry into the human
body. (CBSE 2008)
Answer:
21. T-Lymphocytes
22. White Blood Corpuscles (Macrophages).
Question 9.
Why is a secondary immune response more intense than the primary immune response
in human? (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
It is because the human body appears to have more memory of the first encounter.
Question 10.
When does a human body elicit an anamnestic response? (CBSE (Outside Delhi) 2013)
Answer:
The primary immune response is of low intensity; a subsequent encounter with the
same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic or secondary response.
Question 11.
Name the two intermediate hosts which the human liver fluke depends on to complete
its life cycle so as to facilitate parasitisation of its primary host. (CBSE Delhi 2014)
Answer:
23. Freshwater Snail
24. Fish
Question 12.
Indiscriminate use of X-rays for diagnoses should be avoided. Give reason. (CBSE
(Delhi) 2015)
Answer:
X-rays cause mutation thus may lead to cancer.
Question 13.
Give the scientific name of the source organism from which the first antibiotic was
produced. (CBSE Sample paper 2018-19)
Answer:
Penicillium Notatum
Question 14.
Name two diseases whose spread can be controlled by the eradication of Aedes
mosquitoes. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Dengue and chikungunya
Question 15.
How do cytokine barriers provide innate immunity in humans? (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Cytokine barriers: Cytokines inhibit viral replication. Virus-infected cells secrete proteins
called interferons which protect non-infected cells from virus.
Question 16.
Name two recent incidences of wide-spread diseases caused by Aedes mosquitoes.
(CBSE Delhi 2008)
Answer:
25. Dengue
26. Chikungunya
Question 17.
How does the human body respond when haemozoin produced by Plasmodium is
released in its blood? (CBSE Delhi 2019 (C))
Answer:
As haemozoin is released in the blood, the patient shows symptoms of malaria such as
restlessness, sleeplessness, muscular pain and chilliness. In response to chill, the body
temperature rises.
Question 18.
How does saliva act in body defence? (CBSE Delhi 2004)
Answer:
Human saliva contains lysozyme, a lytic enzyme, which kills the germs in the food.
Question 19.
Name the type of cells that produce antibodies. (CBSE 2004)
Answer:
Lymphocytes which is a form of leucocytes (white blood cells) produce antibodies.
Question 20.
Why sharing injection needles between two individuals is not recommended? (CBSE
Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Sharing of injection needles between two individuals may cause the transmission of
AIDS and Hepatitis B.
Question 21.
How do monocytes act as a cellular barrier in humans to provide innate immunity?
(CBSE Delhi 2018C)
Answer:
Monocytes kill bacteria by the process of phagocytosis.
Human Health and Disease Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type
Question 1.
Make a list of common infectious diseases.
Answer:
Common infectious diseases: Depending on the pathogen, infectious diseases are as
follows:

Question 2.
Given below are pairs of pathogens and diseases caused by them. Which of these is not
a matching pair and why?
(i) Virus Common Cold
(ii) Salmonella Typhoid
(iii) Microsporum Filariasis
(iv) Plasmodium Malaria
Answer:
27. (iii) is not matching.
28. Microsporum is a fungus which causes ringworm disease. Filariasis is caused by
Wuchereria bancrofti and W. Malayi (roundworm).
Question 3.
Differentiate between antibodies and interferons.
Answer:
Differences between antibodies and interferons:

Antibodies Interferons

1. They are slow-acting and long-lasting. 1. They are quick acting and temporary.

2. They act outside the cells. 2. They act inside the cells.

3. They act against bacterial and viral

3. They act against the virus only.
infections.
Question 4.
(i) Name the source plants of heroin drug. How is it obtained from the plants?
Answer:
Papaver somniferum is the source plant of heroin drug. It is obtained by acetylation of
morphine, which is extracted from the latex of poppy plant (Papaver somniferum).
(ii) Write the effects of heroin on the human body. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Heroin is depressant and slows down body functions.
Question 5.
Mention one application for each of the following:
(i) Passive immunisation
Answer:
(i) Passive Immunisation: When ready¬made antibodies are introduced into the body, it
is called passive immunisation. Passive immunisation provides a quick immune
response in the body.
(ii) Antihistamine
Answer:
Anti-Histamines: Anti-Histamines are the chemicals which are given against allergic
reactions.
(iii) Colostrum (CBSE 2017, 2019)
Answer:
Colostrum: Colostrum is the yellow fluid produced during the initial days of lactation. It
is rich in antibodies and is essential to develop resistance in a newborn baby.
Question 6.
What is a vaccine? (CBSE Delhi 2019 C)
Answer:
Vaccine: It is a preparation of dead or altered (weakened) germs of a disease which on
entry into the body of a healthy person provide temporary or permanent active/passive
immunity by inducing antibody formation. Thus antibody provoking agents are called
vaccines. The vaccine provides artificial active immunity.
Question 7.
Name the primary and secondary lymphoid organs. (CBSE Delhi 2019 C)
Or
State the function of primary and secondary lymphoid organs. (CBSE Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Primary lymphoid organs:

• Bone Marrow
• Thymus.
Secondary lymphoid organs:

• Spleen
 • Lymph nodes
• Tonsils
• Peyer’s Patches of the small intestine.
Or
Primary lymphoid organs are the sites where immature lymphocytes differentiate and
become antigen-sensitive mature lymphocytes.
However, secondary lymphoid organs provide site/location for mature lymphocyte &
antigen interaction.
Question 8.
Explain what is meant by metastasis. (CBSE 2009)
Answer:
Metastasis. Small pieces of primary tumour break off and are carried to other body
parts by the blood or lymph where these form the secondary tumours. This process is
called metastasis. So metastasis is the process of transference of cancerous cells from
the site of origin to distant parts of the body. The most frequent sites of metastasis are
lymph nodes, lungs, long bones, liver, skin and brain. Metastasis is the most feared
property of malignant tumours.
Question 9.
A person shows strong unusual hypersensitive reactions when exposed to certain
substances present in the air. Identify the condition. Name the cells responsible for
such reactions. What precaution should be taken to avoid such reactions?
Answer:
The condition is called allergy. Mast cells are responsible for such reactions. To avoid
such reactions, the following precautions must be taken:

• Use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenalin and steroids quickly reduces the
symptoms.
• Avoid contact with substances to which a person is hypersensitive.
Question 10.
What are the symptoms of allergic reactions?
Answer:
Symptoms of allergic reactions.
The following are the symptoms of allergies:

• The person may suffer from high fever

• The mucous membrane of the lower part of the respiratory tract gets affected
which leads to cough and asthma.
• Reddening of the skin, the appearance of blisters on the skin.
• Accumulation of tissue fluid below the skin.
 • Watering of eyes and inability to breathe.
• Sneezing, running nose, etc.
Question 11.
In the metropolitan cities of India, many children are suffering from allergy asthma.
What are the main causes of this problem? Give some symptoms of allergic reactions.
Answer:
29. Allergy is the exaggerated (hypersensitive) response of the immune system to
certain antigens present in the environment. These certain antigens are called
allergens. Our immune system responds to it by releasing histamines and
serotonin from mast cells. Common allergens are mites in the dust, pollens and
animal dander (material shed from animals),
30. Lifestyle in metro cities is making them sensitive to allergens.
31. The symptoms are sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and difficulty in
breathing.
Question 12.
Drugs and alcohol give short-term ‘high’ and long-term ‘damages’. Discuss.
Answer:
Mostly stimulant drugs (caffeine) and alcohol (depressant) give a feeling of intoxication
and euphoria for only a brief period soon after use. However, prolonged use for long-
term causes permanent damage to vital body parts like liver, kidneys, lungs,
cardiovascular system, etc.
Question 13.
List any two adaptive features evolved in parasites enabling them to live successfully
on their hosts. (CBSE Delhi 2008)
Answer:
Adaptations of parasites:
32. Presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling to the host.
33. Loss of unnecessary sense organs.
Question 14.
What is dengue fever? List two symptoms.
Answer:
Dengue fever: Dengue fever is caused by an RNA containing arbovirus of flavivirus
group which also causes yellow fever (not found in India). Thus, the virus which causes
dengue fever is a mosquito-borne flavi-ribo virus. The virus of dengue fever is
transmitted by the bite of Aedes aegypti (mosquito). The incubation period is 3-8 days.
Symptoms:

• Abrupt onset of high fever.

 • Severe frontal headache and pain behind eyes which worsens with eye
movement.
Question 15.
Why is the structure of an antibody molecule represented as H2L2? Name any two types
of antibodies produced in humans. (CBSE Delhi 2018C)
Answer:

• The antibody molecule is made up of four peptide chains-two small chains are
called light chains and two longer chains are called heavy chains. Hence it is
represented as H2L2.
• Ig G, Ig A, Ig M. and Ig E are the antibodies produced in humans.
Question 16.
What are the preventive measures of dengue fever? Is there any vaccine available?
Answer:
Prevention and treatment:
34. Mosquitoes and their eggs should be eliminated. Put wire mesh on doors and
windows.
35. No specific treatment is available.
36. Symptomatic care including bed rest, intake of adequate fluid and pain killer
medicines are recommended.
37. Do not take Aspirin and Aspirin. Give plenty of liquids to the patient.
38. No vaccine for Dengue fever is available.
Question 17.
Differentiate between the roles of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in generating
immune responses. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Role of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in the immune response:
39. B-cells (B-lymphocytes) and T-cells (T lymphocytes) comprising the immune
system are produced in the bone marrow. T-cells differentiate in the thymus.
40. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies in response to foreign substances (antigens)
such as pathogens and pollen. Antibodies are immunoglobulins. They are
specific for each antigen. There is more than one antibody for an antigen.
Antibodies bind antigens but do not destroy them. This is attacked through other
mechanisms. Allergens which are weak antigens cause allergy.
41. T-cells respond to pathogens by producing three types of cells: killer T-cells,
helper T-cell and suppressor T-cells. T lymphocytes either help B-lymphocytes to
produce antibodies or kill the pathogen directly (killer T-cells). Both B- and T-cells
produce memory cells when stimulated. These have long lives and form the
basis of acquired immunity.
Question 18.
Why is tobacco smoking associated with rising in blood pressure and emphysema?
Explain. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Nicotine, an alkaloid present in tobacco, stimulates the adrenal gland to release
adrenaline and nor-adrenaline into blood circulation. Both these hormones increase
blood pressure and heart rate.
Smoking causes emphysema. Tobacco smoke damages the air sacs (alveoli) of the
lungs. Thus surface area for exchange of gases becomes less and disorder
emphysema is caused.
Question 19.
Write the scientific names of the causal organisms of elephantiasis and ringworm in
humans. Mention the body parts affected by them. (CBSE DeLhi 2012)
Answer:

Name of
Causative organism Organ affected
disease

(i) Wuchereria bancrofti

1. Genital organs, swelling of
(ii) Wuchereria malayi Fungi
Elephantiasis lower limbs.
namely

(i) Microsporum
2. Ringworm (ii) Trichophyton Skin, nails and scalps.
(iii) Epidermophyton
Human Health and Disease Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type
Question 1.
(i) How and at what stage does Plasmodium enter a human body?
Answer:
Sporozoite stage enters human body aLong with saLiva of female anopheLes mosquito
as ii
bites to suck bLood.
(ii) With the help of a flow chart only shows the stages of asexual reproduction in the
life cycle of the parasite in the infected human.
Answer:
Asexual phases of the life history of plasmodium in the body of a human

(iii) Why does the victim show symptoms of high fever? (CBSE Delhi 2008, 2013)
Answer:
When the parasite attacks red blood cells, it leads to its rupture with the release of
haemozoin, which is a toxin. As the haemozoin is released into blood, symptoms (high
fever) of malaria appear.
Question 2.
What is Immune system? Mention the two types of the immune system. (CBSE Delhi
2011)
Answer:
The system which protects our body from pathogens and other foreign invaders is
called the immune system. It is of two types.
42. Innate
43. Acquired
Innate immunity is non-specific and is present by birth. It includes physical barriers,
physiological barriers, cellular and cytokinin barriers.
Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific and is obtained with experience. It is of two
types- Humoral and cell-mediated
Question 3.
Distinguish between B-cells and T-cells.
Answer:
Differences between B-cells and T-cells:

B-cells T-cells

1. They are produced in cells of bone

1. They are produced in cells of bone
marrow and migrate to the thymus and
marrow and remain there and later
differentiate under the influence of
migrate to lymphoid tissues.
thymus.

2. These cells are responsible for

2. These crafts produce plasma cells,
recognising a specific antigen and attack
once triggered off by the antigens.
it by releasing chemicals.

3. They are part of the cell-mediated

3. They are part of a humoral system.
immune system.

4. They act against viruses and bacteria 4. They act against pathogenic
and do not react against transplants and microorganism, organ transplants and
cancer cells. cancer cells.

5. No inhibitory effect on the immune 5. Suppressor cells inhibit the immune

system. system.
Question 4.
(i) Name the infective stage of Plasmodium which Anopheles mosquito takes in along
with the blood meal from an infected human.
Answer:
Gametocytes
(ii) Why does the infection cause fever in humans?
Answer:
Due to the release of haemozoin toxin in the blood.
(iii) Give a flow chart of the part of the life cycle of this parasite passed in the insect.
(CBSE (Delhi) 2008, 2011)
Answer:

Question 5.
(i) Why do the symptoms of malaria not appear immediately after the entry of
sporozoites into the human body when bitten by female Anopheles? Explain.
Answer:
As the sporozoites enter the human body along with saliva of female anopheles
mosquito, these parasites pass through hepatic schizogony in liver cells and
erythrocytic schizogony in RBCs. Haemozoin present in unused cytoplasm of RBC is
released, followed by the appearance of malarial symptoms. This period is also called
the incubation period.
(ii) Give the scientific name of the malarial parasite that causes malignant malaria in
humans. (CBSE 2009)
Answer:
Plasmodium falciparum. Causes malignant malaria in human.
Question 6.
Give the scientific name of the parasite that causes malignant malaria in humans. At
what stage does this parasite enter the human body? Trace its life cycle in the human
body. (CBSE 2009, 2012)
Answer:

• Plasmodium falciparum
• Sporozoites enter the human body along with saliva of the female anopheles
mosquito.
• The life cycle of Plasmodium in the human body

Life Cycle of
Plasmodium
Question 7.
A 17-year-old boy is suffering from high fever with profuse sweating and chills. Choose
the correct option from the following diseases which explains these symptoms and rule
out the rest with adequate reasons.
(i) Typhoid
Answer:
If the boy is suffering from typhoid, then he should have sustained high fever (39°
to40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation and headache. So it cannot be typhoid.
(ii) Viral Fever
Answer:
If the boy is suffering from viral fever, he will suffer from high fever, joint pain, weakness
and headache. So it cannot be a viral fever.
(iii) Malaria (CBSE Sample paper 2018-19)
Answer:
If the boy is suffering from malaria, he should have high fever recurring with profuse
sweating every three to four days associated with chills and headache. There is a
possibility that he is suffering from malaria because high fever associated with chills is
possible with malaria.
Question 8.
Medically it is advised to all young mothers that breastfeeding is the best for their
newborn babies. Do you agree? Give reasons in support of your answer. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the fact that breastfeeding is the best for newborn babies.
Mammary glands start producing milk at the end of pregnancy. The milk produced
during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum which contains several
antibodies. It helps in developing resistance for newborn baby against diseases. It helps
the baby fight off viruses and bacteria. Thus breast milk is packed with a disease-
fighting substance that protects newborn babies from illness. Breast milk also naturally
contains many of the vitamins and minerals that a newborn requires. It is easily
digested as well. There is no constipation, diarrhoea and upset stomach.
Question 9.
Name a human disease, its causal organism, symptoms (any three) and vector, spread
by intake of water and food contaminated by human faecal matter. (CBSE 2017)
Answer:

• Amoebic dysentery [Amoebiasis]

• Causal Organism: Entamoeba historlytica, protozoa.
Symptoms:

• Abdominal pain
• Constipation
• Cramps.
Vector: Housefly.
Question 10.
(i) Why is there a fear amongst the guardians that their adolescent wards may get
trapped in drug/alcohol abuse?
Answer:
Reasons for alcohol abuse in adolescents:
(a) Curiosity for adventure, excitement and experiment
(b) Social pressure
(c) To escape from stress, depression and frustration
(d) To overcome hardships of life
(e) Unstable or unsupportive family structure, etc.
(ii) Explain ‘addiction’ and dependence’ in respect of drug/alcohol abuse in youth. (CBSE
2017)
Answer:
Addiction is the psychological attachment to certain effects such as euphoria and a
temporary feeling of well-being, associated with drugs and alcohol. The addicted person
cannot manage him/herself without drug or alcohol.
Dependence: Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and
unpleasant withdrawal syndrome on abrupt discontinuation of a regular dose of
drug/alcohol.
Question 11.
What is the basic principle of vaccination? How do vaccines prevent microbial
infections? Name the organism from which the hepatitis B vaccine is produced.
Or
Principle of vaccination is based on the property of “memory” of the immune system.
Taking one suitable example, justify the statement. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Principle of vaccination is based on the property of ‘memory’ of the immune system.
In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogens or inactivated/live but
weakened pathogens is introduced into the body. The antigens generate a primary
immune response by producing antibodies along with forming memory B-cells and T-
cells. When the vaccinated person is attacked by the same pathogens, the existing
memory B-cells and T-cells recognise the antigen and overwhelm the invaders with
massive production of lymphocytes and antibodies. The hepatitis-B vaccine is produced
from yeast.
Question 12.
Prior to a sports event blood and urine samples of sportspersons are collected for drug
tests.
(i) Why is there a need to conduct such tests?
Answer:
Drugs are consumed by sportspersons to enhance their performance. It is necessary to
test the blood and urine of sportspersons to analyse the presence of any performance-
enhancing drug.
(ii) Name the drugs the authorities usually look for.
Answer:
Narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics.
(iii) Write the generic names of two plants from which these drugs are obtained. (CBSE
Delhi 2016)
Answer:
(a) Cocaine is obtained from Erythroxylum coca
(b) Caffeine is obtained from Coffea arabica and narcotics from Papaver somniferum.
Question 13.
Explain the following terms:
(i) Benign tumour
Answer:
A benign tumour (Non-malignant tumour). Such tumours grow slowly but become quite
large. It remains restricted to the place of origin and does not spread to other areas of
the body. Most tumours are of this type and do not give rise to cancer.
(ii) Cancerous tumour
Answer:
A cancerous tumour (Malignant tumour): It begins as a small tumour growth at first,
grows slowly in the starting and more rapidly later on. The tumour ultimately spreads to
the neighbouring tissue like the roots of a tree. Later on, cancerous cells separate off
from the original site and migrate through the blood to the other sites and they divide
and redivide to form a secondary tumour.
(iii) Metastasis.
Answer:
Metastasis: The stage when the secondary tumour is formed and accumulated by
repeated division, is called metastasis. This stage is fatal and causes death sooner or
later.
Question 14.
Why cannabinoids are banned in sports and games?
Answer:
Cannabinoids are hallucinogenic chemicals obtained from leaves, resins and
inflorescence of Hemp plant, Cannabis sativa. They are used by sportspersons to
increase their athletic performance. Intake of cannabinoids results in rapid heartbeat
decreased vital capacity of the lung. But their misuse is associated with a number of
problems in both sportsmen and sportswomen, e.g. these cause masculinisation,
increased aggressiveness, mood swings, abnormal menstrual cycles, enlarged clitoris
in sportswomen, while their misuse in sportsmen is known to cause acne, mood swings,
reduced testicular size, decreased spermatogenesis, enlarged breasts and prostate
gland, dysfunctioning of liver and kidney, etc.
Question 15.
The outline structure of a drug is given below:
1. Which group of drugs does this represent?
2. What are the modes of consumption of these drugs?
3. Name the organ of the body which is affected by the consumption of this drug.
Answer:
44. Cannabinoids.
45. By smoking or oral ingestion.
46. Cannabinoids generally affect the cardiovascular system of the body.
Question 16.
What is cannabis? List its main derivatives.
Answer:
Cannabis: It is the most ancient drug and is obtained from hemp plants.
The following three kinds of drugs are obtained from these plants (Derivative of
Cannabis indica):
47. Hashish or Charas is obtained from flowering tops of female plants.
48. Bhang is obtained from dry leaves.
49. Ganja is obtained from small leaves and bracts of inflorescence.
Marijuana is another drug obtained from Cannabis sativa. The common reaction of
these drugs is relaxation, euphoria, laughing tendency and rise in blood sugar level.
Question 17.
Why is using tobacco in any form injurious to the health? Explain. (CBSE Delhi 2008,
Outside Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Tobacco is injurious to health:
50. Nicotine present in tobacco is toxic and addictive. It causes coronary diseases.
51. Heat irritants and carcinogens cause mouth cancer and lung cancer.
52. Tobacco leads to male infertility.
53. in pregnant women, nicotine causes decreased foetal growth and development.
54. Tobacco addiction often leads to gastric and duodenal ulcers.
55. It is an expensive habit causing staining of teeth and fingers and making breath
unpleasant.
56. Swelling of respiratory tract leads to chronic bronchitis.
Question 18.
Give reasons for the following:
(a) Antibody-mediated immunity is called humoral immunity.
Answer:
(a) Antibodies produced by plasma cells are present in the blood, the response is called
humoral, immunity response. Thus it is termed humoral immunity.
(b) How is a child protected from a disease for which he/she is vaccinated?
Answer:
The principle of vaccination is based on the property of the ‘memory’ of the immune
system. As during vaccination, antigens are introduced in the body. In response to
antigens, antibodies are produced in the body against them. They neutralise the
pathogen during actual infection.
(c) Name the type of cells the AIDS virus enters after getting into the human body.
(CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
HIV enters macrophages. Simultaneously HIV enters T helper- Lymphocytes.
Question 19.
(a) Write the scientific names of the source plants from where opioids and
cannabinoids are extracted.
Answer:
Opioids are obtained from the opium plant Papaver somniferous. Cannabinoids are
extracted from Cannabis sativa.
(b) Write their receptor sites in the human body. How do these drugs affect human
beings? (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Receptors of opioids are present on the central nervous system and gastrointestinal
tract. They are a depressant and slow down the body functions. Receptors of
cannabinoids are present in the brain. They affect the cardiovascular system of the
body.
Question 20.
Briefly describe the life history of the malarial parasite.
Answer:
57. Malarial parasite (Plasmodium) completes its life cycle in two hosts., i.e. female
anopheles mosquito and humans.
58. Sporozoites are the infective stage.
59. The sporozoites enter the human body, reach the liver through blood and multiply
within the liver cells.
60. Such liver cells burst and release the parasites (Cryptomerozoites) into the
blood.
61. Then they attack RBCs, multiply and cause their rupture.
62. The rupture of RBCs is associated with the release of a toxin called haemozoin,
which is responsible for the high recurring fever and the chill/ shivering and
causing malaria.
63. Sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in the red blood cells.
64. The parasite then enters the female Anopheles mosquito along with the blood
when it bites the infected person.
65. Further development occurs in the stomach wall of the mosquito.
 66. The gametes fuse to form a zygote. It takes the worm-like shape called ookinete
as it pierces the wall of the stomach.
67. The zygote undergoes further development in the body of the mosquito to form
sporozoites.
68. Sporozoites are transported to and stored in the salivary glands of mosquitoes
and are transferred to a human body during the bite of the mosquito.
69. Female mosquito sucks human blood because it requires blood proteins for the
development of its eggs.
Question 21.
Describe the effects of drug and alcohol abuse.
Answer:
Effects of drug/alcohol abuse:
70. The immediate effects of drugs/ alcohol abuse are manifested as reckless
behaviour, vandalism and violence.
71. Excess doses can lead to coma and death due to cerebral haemorrhage,
respiratory and heart failure.
72. A combination of drugs or their intake of alcohol leads to death.
73. The most common warning signals of drug/alcohol abuse include:
(a) Drop in academic performance.
(b) Lack of interest in personal hygiene.
(c) Withdrawal and isolation from family and friends.
(d) Aggressive and rebellious behaviour.
(e) Lack of interest in hobbies.
(f) Change in sleeping and eating habits.
(g) Fluctuations in weight, etc.
Question 22.
Name the type of immunity that is present at the time of birth in humans. Explain any
two ways by which it is accomplished. (CBSE 2008)
Answer:
Innate immunity: It is also called inborn or non-specific immunity. It is the first line of
defence. It is composed of the following steps:
1. Anatomic barriers: The skin and mucous membranes secrete certain chemicals
which dispose of pathogens. Specific cases of this defence are cited below: The oil and
sweat secreted by sebaceous and sudoriferous glands contain lactic acid and fatty
acids, which make the skin surface acidic (pH 3 to 5). This does not allow the
microorganisms to establish.
2. Physiological barrier: Body temperature, pH and various body secretions like saliva
prevent the growth of many pathogenic microorganisms. Pyrogens and interferons aid
in fighting infections.
Question 23.
On what basis diagnosis of cancer is made?
Answer:
Diagnosis of cancer:
74. Blood and bone marrow tests are done for increased cell counts in case of
leukaemia.
75. Histopathological study or biopsy: In a biopsy, a piece of the suspected tissue
cut into thin sections is stained and examined under a microscope by a
pathologist.
76. Radiography: X-rays are used to detect cancer of the internal organs
77. Computed tomography: It uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional internal
image of an object.
78. Resonance imaging: Non-ionising radiation and strong magnetic field are used in
MRI to accurately detect pathological and physiological changes in the living
tissue.
79. Monoclonal antibodies: Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are also
used for the detection of certain cancers.
Question 24.
Explain with the help of sketch the action of HIV in the body. (CBSE Delhi 2011)
Or
Name the cells HIV (Human Immuno Deficiency Virus) gains entry into after infecting
the human body. Explain the events that occur in these cells. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2016)
Or
Trace the events that occur in the human body to cause immunodeficiency when HIV
gains entry into the body. (CBSE 2011, 2014)
Answer:
The action of HIV in the body. After getting into the body of the person, the virus enters
into macrophages where RNA genome of the virus replicates to form viral DNA with the
help of the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This viral DNA gets incorporated into the host
cell’s DNA and directs the infected cells to produce virus particles. The macrophages
continue to produce virus and in this way acts as an HIV factory.
Simultaneously, HIV enters into helper (Th) T-lymphocytes (a type or subset of T-
lymphocytes about which you have read above, in the immune system), replicates and
produces progeny viruses. The progeny viruses released in blood attack other helper T-
lymphocytes. This is repeated leading to a progressive decrease in the number of helper
T-lymphocytes in the body of the infected person.
During this period, the person suffers from bouts of fever, diarrhoea and weight loss.
Due to the decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes, the person starts suffering
from an infection due to bacteria such as Mycobacterium, viruses, fungi and even
parasite Toxoplasma. The patient becomes so much immunologically deficient and
unable to fight against such infections.

The action of HIV in the

body cells.
Question 25.
(a) If a patient is advised anti-retroviral drug, name the possible infection he/ she is
likely to be suffering from. Name the causative organism.
Answer:
The person may be suffering from AIDS. It is caused by HIV (Human Immunodeficiency
Virus).
(b) How do vaccines prevent subsequent microbial infection by the same pathogen?
Answer:
Antibody-provoking agents are called a vaccine. They prevent microbial infection by
initiating production of antibodies to act against antigens to neutralise the pathogenic
agents during later actual infection.
The vaccine also generates memory B-cells and T-cells that actually recognise the
pathogen quickly in case of infection at later stages of life.
(c) How does a cancerous cell differ from a normal cell?
Answer:
Differences between the cancerous cell and normal cell:

Cancerous cells Normal cells

1. These cells divide in an uncontrolled 1. These cells divide in a regulated and

manner and rate of division is high. controlled manner.

2. These cells do not show contact

2. These cells show contact inhibition.
inhibition.

3. These cells do not undergo 3. These cells undergo programmed

differentiation. differentiation.

4. They have the ability to move in the

body fluid and settle at different sites and 4. These cells don’t show metastasis.
divide thus show metastasis.
(d) Many microbial pathogens enter the gut of humans along with food. Name the
physiological barrier that protects the body from such pathogens. (CBSE Sample Paper
2020)
Answer:
The acid present in the stomach and saliva kills the microbial pathogens that enter
along with food.
Question 26.
Write the source and the effect on the human body of the following drugs:
(i) Morphine
(ii) Cocaine
(iii) Marijuana (CBSE Delhi 2011)
Answer:

Name of drug Source Effects on the human body

1. Depresses respiratory centre.

2. Causes fall in blood pressure.
1. Morphine Opium plant
3. Slow heartbeat.
4. Mild hyperglycaemia
 1. It is a powerful stimulant of the
Natural coca alkaloid
central nervous system (CNS)
2. Cocaine obtained from Erythroxylon
2. Increases heartbeat, blood
coca
pressure and body temperature.

1. It causes psychosis
Dried flowers and top leaves
2. Raises blood sugar and
3. Marijuana of female plant of Cannabis
increases the frequency of
Sativa
urination

Extra Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter

8 Human Health and Diseases
Q.1. Why is Gambusia introduced into drains and ponds?
Ans. To feed on mosquito larvae so as to eliminate the vectors responsible
for causing malaria.
Q.2. Name any two physiological barriers that provide innate immunity?
Ans. Acid in stomach/saliva in mouth/tears in eyes. (Any two)
Q.3. Name the two intermediate hosts which the human liver fluke
depends on to complete its life cycle so as to facilitate parasitization of its
primary host.
Ans. Snail and Fish
Q.4. Name two STDs which can be transmitted through contaminated
blood.
Ans. Hepatitis-B and AIDS are the two STDs which can be transmitted
through contaminated blood.
Q.5. How does haemozoin affect the human body when released in blood
during malarial infection?
Ans. Haemozoin is responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every
three to four days during malarial infection
Q.6. Malaria, typhoid, pneumonia and amoebiasis are some of the human
infectious diseases. Which ones of these are transmitted through
mechanical carriers?
Ans. Malaria and amoebiasis are transmitted through mechanical carriers.
Q.7. How do interferons protect us?
Ans. Interferons protect non-infected cells from further viral infections, by
creating cytokine barriers.
Q.8. State two different roles of spleen in the human body.
Ans. Spleen is the secondary lymphoid organ that stores lymphocytes, it
filters microbes and acts as a reservoir to store erythrocytes (Any two).
Q.9. What is an autoimmune disease? Give an example.
Ans. It is an abnormal immune response in which the immune system of
the body starts rejecting its own body cells or ‘self’ cells and molecules. For
example, rheumatoid arthritis.
Q.10. How does colostrum provide initial protection against diseases to
new born infants? Give one reason.
Ans. Colostrum contains several antibodies which are absolutely essential
for developing resistance in the new-born babies.
Q.11. What is it that prevents a child to suffer from a disease he/she is
vaccinated against? Give one reason.
Ans. The immunological memory induced by the vaccine in a child prevents
the recurrence of a disease.
Q.12. What are interferons?
Ans. Virus infected cells secrete proteins called interferons which protect
non-infected cells from
further viral infection.
Q.13. Name two diseases whose spread can be controlled by the
eradication of Aedes mosquitoes.
Ans. Dengue/Chikungunya/yellow fever/Eastern equine encephalitis/West
Nile fever/Zika virus
disease. (Any two)
Q.14. When does a human body elicit an anamnestic response?
Ans. At the time of secondary response.
Q.15. “Pranay suffered from measles at the age of 10 years. There are rare
chances of his getting infected with the same disease for the rest of his
life.” Give reason for the statement.
Ans. First exposure to the infection works as vaccination, the immune
system of the body gets familiar with the nature of microorganisms and
specific antibodies can be produced against infection.
Q.16. In what way are monocytes a cellular barrier in immunity?
Ans. Monocytes can phagocytose (by the process called phagocytosis) and
thereby destroy the pathogens.
Q.17. State the functions of mast cells in allergy response.
Ans. Mast cells release chemicals like histamine and serotonin in allergic
response.
Q.18. Why do pollen grains of some flowers trigger ‘sneezing’ in some
people?
Ans. Pollen grains trigger sneezing by causing allergic reaction.
Q.19. High fever, loss of appetite, stomach pain and constipation are some
of the symptoms seen in a patient. How would the doctor confirm that the
patient is suffering from typhoid and not amoebiasis?
Ans. By performing Widal test.
Q.20. Name the category of the disease: Rheumatoid arthritis.
Ans. Auto-immune disease.
Q.21. Millions of chickens were killed in West Bengal, Orissa and
Maharashtra recently. What was the reason?
Ans. Millions of chickens were killed (culled) in West Bengal, Orissa and
Maharashtra because they were found to be infected with H5N1 virus, the
causal organism of Bird Flu.
Human Health and Disease Class 12 Biology
MCQs Pdf
Question 1.
AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission
of HIV?
(a) Transfusion of contaminated blood.
(b) Sharing the infected needles.
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons.
(d) Sexual contact with infected persons.
Answer:
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons.
Question 2.
‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from the
(a) latex of Papever somniferum
(b) leaves of Cannabis saliva
(c) flowers of Datura
(d) fruits of Erythroxyl coca.
Answer:
(a) latex of Papever somniferum
Question 3.
The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from
further infection is
(a) serotonin
(b) colostrum
(c) interferon
(d) histamine.
Answer:
(c) interferon
Question 4.
Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from certain diseases is of
(a) IgG type
(b) IgA type
(c) IgD type
(d) IgE type.
Answer:
(b) IgA type
Question 5.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline.
The component causing this could be
(a) nicotine
(b) tannic acid
(c) curaimin
(d) catechin.
Answer:
(a) nicotine
Question 6.
Antivenom against snake poison contains
(a) antigens
(b) antigen-antibody complexes
(c) antibodies
(d) enzymes
Answer:
(c) antibodies
Question 7.
Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue ?
(a) Spleen
(b) Tonsils
(c) Pancreas
(d) Thymus
Answer:
(c) Pancreas
Question 8.
Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size with ageing ?
(a) Pineal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thymus
(d) Thyroid
Answer:
(c) Thymus
Question 9.
Haemozoin is a
(a) precursor of haemoglobin
(b) toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
(c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
(d) toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells.
Answer:
(c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
Question 10.
One of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm.
(a) Microsporum
(b) Trichophyton
(c) Epidermophyton
(d) Macrosporum
Answer:
(d) Macrosporum
Question 11.
A person with sickle cell anaemia is
(a) more prone to malaria
(b) more prone to typhoid
(c) less prone to malaria
(d) less prone to typhoid.
Answer:
(c) less prone to malaria
Question 12.
Which of the following facrtors affect human health ?
(i) Infections
(ii) Silent mutation
(iii) Life style
(iv) Genetic disorders
(a) (i), (ii)and(iv)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Question 13.
Which one of the following disease is non – communicable ?
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Flu
(c) Cancer
(d) Malaria
Answer:
(c) Cancer
Question 14.
Which of the following pairs contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease
respectively ?
(a) Typhoid and AIDS
(b) AIDS and cancer
(c) Pneumonia and malaria
(d) Cancer and malaria
Answer:
(b) AIDS and cancer
Question 15.
Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Trichophyton
(c) Salmonella typhi
(d) Rhinoviruses.
Answer:
(c) Salmonella typhi
Question 16.
Which of the following is the bacterial disease in humans ?
(a) Dysentery
(b) Malaria
(c) Plague
(d) Both (a) & (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) & (c)
Question 17.
Which of the following pathogens causes whooping coough ?
(a) Legionella spp.
(b) Bordetella pertussis
(c) Vibrio cholerae
(d) Burcella melitensis
Answer:
(b) Bordetella pertussis
Question 18.
Which one of the following sets includes bacterial diseases ?
(a) Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
(b) Diptheria, leprosy, plague
(c) Cholera, typhoid, mumps
(d) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelits
Answer:
(b) Diptheria, leprosy, plague
Question 19.
The common cold is caused by
(a) Rhino viruses
(b) Streptococcus pnemoniae
(c) Salmonella typhimurium
(d) Plasmodium vivax.
Answer:
(a) Rhino viruses
Question 20.
Hepatitis B is transmitted through
(a) sneezing
(b) female Anopheles
(c) coughing
(d) blood transfusion.
Answer:
(b) female Anopheles
Question 21.
A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four
days in malarial fever, is
(a) interferon
(b) haemozoin
(c) hirudin
(d) colostrum
Answer:
(b) haemozoin
Question 22.
Humoral immunity is associated with
(a) T-cells
(b) B-cells
(c) macrophages
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) B-cells
Question 23.
The antibody which can cross placental barrier is.
(a) IgA
(b) JgE
(c) IgM
(d) IgG.
Answer:
(d) IgG.
Question 24.
The most abundant class of immunoglobulins (Igs) in the body is
(a) IgA
(b) IgG
(c) IgE
(d) IgM
Answer:
(b) IgG
Question 25.
A protein or polysaccharide molecule that stimulates antibody formation.
(a) antigen
(b) antibiotics
(c) exotoxin
(d) endotoxins.
Answer:
(a) antigen
Question 26.
Passive immunity can be conferred directly by
(a) vaccines
(b) antitoxins
(c) colostrum
(d) both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) & (c)
Question 27.
Which form of pathogen is used in vaccination ?
(a) Activated and strong pathogenic antigens
(b) Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
(c) Hyperactive and strong pathogen
(d) Preformed antibodies
Answer:
(b) Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
Question 28.
Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers which type of immunisation ?
(a) Active immunisation
(b) Passive immunisation
(c) Auto-immunisation
(d) Humoral immunisation
Answer:
(b) Passive immunisation
Question 29.
The term ‘antitoxin’ refers to a preparation containing
(a) B-lymphoctyes and T-lymphocytes
(b) antibodies to the toxin
(c) weakend pathogen
(d) inactivated T-lymphocytes.
Answer:
(b) antibodies to the toxin
Question 30.
The injection given against the snake venom contains
(a) antigenic proteins
(b) preformed antibodies
(c) attenuated pathogen
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(b) preformed antibodies
Question 31.
Vaccine against polio viruses is an example of
(a) auto-immunisation
(b) passive immunisation
(c) active immunisation
(d) simple immunisation
Answer:
(c) active immunisation
Question 32.
During the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual reproduction takes place in which of the
following hosts ?
(a) Human
(b) Female Anopheles mosquito
(c) Male Anopheles mosquito
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) Female Anopheles mosquito
Question 33.
Amoebic dysentery (amoebiasis) is caused by
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
(b) E. coli
(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(d) Trichophyton.
Answer:
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
Question 34.
Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured by taking antibiotics ?
(a) Plague
(b) Amoebiasis
(c) Leprosy
(d) Whooping cough
Answer:
(b) Amoebiasis
Question 35.
An intestinal parasite which causes blockage of the intestinal passage and whose eggs
are excreted along with the faeces of infected person is ______.
(a) Wuchereria bancrofti
(b) Ascaris
(c) Epidermophyton
(d) Microsporum
Answer:
(b) Ascaris
Question 36.
Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by
(a) Ascaris
(b) E.coli
(c) Wuchereria
(d) Trichophyton
Answer:
(c) Wuchereria
Question 37.
Which of the following is affected by the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti ?
(a) Lymphatic vessels
(b) Respiratory system
(c) Nervous system
(d) Blood circulation
Answer:
(a) Lymphatic vessels
Question 38.
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of the female mosquito
vector ?
(a) Filariasis
(b) Amoebiasis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Pneumonia
Answer:
(a) Filariasis
Question 39.
Which of the following pairs correctly matches a disease and a pathogen causing it ?
(a) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi
(b) Pneumonia – Haemophilus pneumoniae
(c) Malaria – Ascaris lumbricoides
(d) Ringworm – Entamoeba histolytica
Answer:
(a) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi
Question 40.
The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the
same kingdom as that of
(a) Taenia, a tapeworm
(b) Ascaris, a roundworm
(c) Rhizopus, a mould
(d) Wuchereria, a filarial worm,
Answer:
(c) Rhizopus, a mould
Question 41.
Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with itching on various parts of the body are the
symptoms of _______.
(a) elephantiasis
(b) ringworm
(c) ascariasis
(d) amoebiasis
Answer:
(b) ringworm
Question 42.
Heroin is commonly called as
(a) coke
(b) crack
(c) smack
(d) charas.
Answer:
(c) smack
Question 43.
Which compound is formed by acetylation of morphine ?
(a) Heroin
(b) Cocaine
(C) Tobacco.
(d) Marijuana
Answer:
(a) Heroin
Question 44.
Marijuana is extracted from .
(a) dried leaves and flowers of hemp plant .
(b) ergot fungus
(c) roots of hemp plant
(d) cocoa plant.
Answer:
(a) dried leaves and flowers of hemp plant .
Question 45.
Charas and ganja are the drugs which affect
(a) respiratory system
(b) cardiovascular system
(c) digestive system
(d) nervous system.
Answer:
(b) cardiovascular system
Question 46.
Cocaine is obtained from
(a) Erythroxylon coca
(b) Papaver somniferum
(c) Atropa belladona
(d) Dature stramonium
Answer:
(a) Erythroxylon coca
Question 47.
Cocaine is commonly called as
(a) smack
(b) coke
(c) crack
(d) both(b)&(c)
Answer:
(d) both(b)&(c)
Question 48.
_______ is a CNS stimulant as it interferes with the trasport of the neuro-transmitter
__________ .
(a) Cocaine, acetylcoline
(b) Barbituarate, glutamate
(c) Cocaine, dopamine
(d) Barbiturate, glycine
Answer:
(c) Cocaine, dopamine
Question 49.
Whihc of the following plants possess hallucinogenic properties ?
(a) Erythroxylon coca
(b) Atropa belladona
(c) Datura stramonium
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 50.
Which drug is being excessively taken by some sports persons nowadays ?
(a) Opioids
(b) Barbiturates
(c) Cannabinoids
(d) Lysergic acid diethly amides (LSD)
Answer:
(c) Cannabinoids
Question 51.
Which drug is used as medicine to help patients cope with depression and insomnia ?
(a) Morphine
(b) Amphetamines
(c) Barbiturate
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Question 52.
Hepatitis B vaccine is produced from
(a) inactivated viruses
(b) yeast
(c) Haemophilus influenzae
(d) Salmonella typhimurium.
Answer:
(b) yeast
Question 53.
Use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have controlled which of the following
infectious diseases ?
(a) Polio and tetanus
(b) Diphtheria and pheumonia
(c) Cancer and AIDS
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Question 54.
The most abundant antibody produced against allergens is
(a) IgE
(b) IgA
(c) IgG
(d) IgM.
Answer:
(a) IgE
Question 55.
Which of the following cells actively participate during allergy ?
(a) B-lymphocytes
(b) Liver cells
(c) Mast cells
(d) Red blood cells
Answer:
(c) Mast cells
Question 56.
The drugs used to quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy are
(a) ati-histamine and adrenaline
(b) histamine and thyroxine
(c) adrenaline and a-interferon
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) ati-histamine and adrenaline
Question 57.
An auto-immune disease is
(a) SCID
(b) rheumatoid arthritis
(c) myasthenia gravis
(d) both (b) and (c).
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c).
Question 58.
Which out of the following groups represent auto-immune disorders ?
(a) SCID and diphtheria
(b) Diabetes mellitus (type 1) and rheumatic fever
(c) AIDS and cholera
(d) Hepatitis and leukaemia
Answer:
(b) Diabetes mellitus (type 1) and rheumatic fever
Question 59.
The primary lymphoid organs are
(a) spleen and thymus
(b) bone marrow and thymus
(c) bone marrow and lymph node
(d) thymus and MALT.
Answer:
(d) thymus and MALT.
Question 60.
The site where lymphocytes interact with antigens and proliferate to become effector
cells are
(a) spleen and lymph nodes
(b) bone marrow and thymus
(c) Peyer’s patches and tonsils
(d) both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (c).
Question 61.
Which of these glands is large at the time of birth but in adults, it reduces to a very small
size ?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Adrenal
(c) Thymus
(d) Spleen
Answer:
(c) Thymus
Question 62.
AIDS is widely diagnosed by
(a) Widal test
(b) ELISA
(c) PC
(d) Chromatography.
Answer:
(b) ELISA
Question 63.
Which of the following day is celebrated as ‘World AIDS Day’ ?
(a) 31st March
(b) 1st March
(c) Ist December
(d) 31st December
Answer:
(c) Ist December
Question 64.
Cancer cells do not exhibit the property of
(a) generating tumors
(b) metastasis
(c) contact inhibition
(d) less number of mitochondrial^cristae.
Answer:
(c) contact inhibition
Question 65.
A person suffering from leukaemia has
(a) tumors in adipose tissue
(b) increased number of plasma cells
(c) increased number of melanocytes
(d) increased number of WBCs.
Answer:
(d) increased number of WBCs.
Question 66.
A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ‘sarcoma’ if the disorder is in
(a) fibroblasts
(b) circulatory system
(c) immune system
(d) epithelial cells.
Answer:
(a) fibroblasts
Question 67.
A chemical carcinogen present in tobacco smoke is responsible for
(a) skin cancer
(b) pancreatic cancer
(c) stomach cancer
(d) lung cancer.
Answer:
(d) lung cancer.
Question 68.
Major factors that cause cancer are
(a) oncogenes and polymorphonuclear leucocytes
(b) oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes
(c) MHC genes
(d) cellular oncogenes and a-interferons.
Answer:
(b) oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes
Question 69.
Which of the following approaches are used for the treatment of cancer ?
(a) Immunotherapy
(b) Surgery
(c) Radiotherapy & chemotherapy
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 70.
The substance given to cancer patients in order to activate their immune system and
destroy the tumour is
(a) histamine
(b) interleukin
(c) a-interferon
(d) morphine.
Answer:
(c) a-interferon
Question 71.
In humans, receptors for opioids are present in
(a) central nervous system
(b) gastrointestinal tract
(c) respiratory tract
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Human Health And Disease MCQ

1. Immunosuppressants such as _________ prevent transplanted organs from being rejected in
recipients.

•
o
i. Thrombin
ii. Cyclosporine
iii. Aspirin
iv. None of the above

2. Both B & T lymphocytes are produced in the bone marrow; however, only the T lymphocytes
travel to the ______ and mature there.

•
o
v. Spleen
vi. Thymus
vii. Pituitary gland
viii. Adrenal gland

3. The _________ is at its largest in children, but with the onset of puberty, it eventually shrinks and
gets replaced by fat.

•
o
ix. Thymus
x. Hypothalamus
xi. Parathyroid gland
xii. None of the above

4. Ascaris lumbricoides is a species of parasitic roundworm that lives in _________.

•
o
xiii. Humans
xiv. Grasshoppers
xv. Pigs
xvi. None of the above
5. Which of the following diseases has been eradicated?

•
o
xvii. Smallpox
xviii. Rinderpest
xix. Polio
xx. All of the above

6. A kind of an injury or damage, which results in the premature death of all the nearby cells in a
tissue or an organ through autolysis is called _______.

•
o
xxi. Neurosis
xxii. Necrosis
xxiii. Apoptosis
xxiv. Cellular senescence

7. Hypochondria is also termed as_______.

•
o
xxv. Health anxiety
xxvi. Sleep apnea
xxvii. Hypnagogia
xxviii. Narcolepsy

8. The immune system comprises_______.

•
o
xxix. Humoral and fibrous systems
xxx. Humoral and Cell-mediated systems
xxxi. Antigens
xxxii. Lymphocytes

9. Which of the following is a viral disease?

•
o
xxxiii. Diphtheria
xxxiv. Filariasis
xxxv. Leprosy
xxxvi. Influenza

10. Carcinoma arises from the_______.

•
o
xxxvii. Epithelial cells
 xxxviii. Bone Marrow
xxxix. Pigment containing Cells
xl. None of the above

11. Melanoma is a type of cancer that develops from _______.

•
o
xli. Granulocytes
xlii. Melanocytes
xliii. Adipocyte
xliv. None of the above

12. Human Immunodeficiency Virus causes aids by attacking a type of white blood cell
called_______.

•
o
xlv. CD4
xlvi. CD3
xlvii. CD8
xlviii. None of the above

13. Plague is caused by the bacterium _______.

•
o
xlix. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
l. Yersinia pestis
li. Yersinia enterocolitica
lii. None of the above

14. Elephantiasis is caused by _______.

•
o
liii. Filarial worms
liv. Flatworms
lv. Tapeworms
lvi. None of the above

15. ___________ is an example of a stimulant.

•
o
lvii. Lorazepam
lviii. Amphetamine
lix. Oxazepam
lx. Phencyclidine

Answer Keys
 1-2 2- 2 3- 1 4- 1 5- 4

6- 2 7- 1 8- 2 9- 4 10- 1

11- 2 12- 1 13- 2 14- 1 15- 2

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Human Health and Diseases
Q.1. Who is called the father of surgery?
(A) Hippocrates (B) Susruta
(C) Charaka (D) Robert Koch

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.2. Epidemiology is more helpful in

(A) Non-communicable disease (B) Communicable disease
(C) Selective mating population (D) Random mating population.

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.3. Health is
(A) Wealth
(B) Absence of disease or infirmity
(C) Weight of body according to height
(D) State of complete physical mental and social well-being.

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.4. Which is an analgesic drug?

(A) Chloramphenicol (B) Alprazolam
(C) Codeine and Morphine (D) Paracetamol

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.5 Antihistamine drug is effective in

(A) Bacterial infection (B) Viral infection
(C) Paraplegia (D) Allergy

AnswerAnswer: D
Q.6. Agents used to kill microbes on living surfaces are called
(A) Disinfectant (B) Tranquilizers
(C) Antiseptic (D) (A) and (C) are correct

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.7. Which is a bacteriostatic drug?

(A) Penicillin (B) Tetracycline
(C) Streptomycin (D) Ciprofloxacin

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.8. Proteinuria is
(A) Protein in blood (B) Protein in urine
(C) Both (D) None of these

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.9. First line of defence of body is

(A) Skin and Mucous membrane (B) Neutrophils and Monocytes
(C) Fever (D) Interferon

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.10. Antigen is
(A) Substances which stimulates the production of venom
(B) Vaccine
(C) Antibody production stimulating agent
(D) Part of the body defence system

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.11. Substances that regulate or coordinate other leucocytes are called.

(A) Interferon (B) Interleukin
(C) Phagocytic chemical (D) Enzyme

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.12. Which is correct sequence of events of inflammation or phagocytosis –

(A) Vasodilation Diapedesis Adhesion Chemotaxis Phagocytosis

(B) Vasodilation Adhesion Emigration Chemotaxis Phagocytosis

(C) Adhesion Vasodilation Diapedesis Chemotaxis Phagocytosis
(D) Vasodilation Adhesion Chemotaxis Diapedesis Phagocytosis

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.13. Immune system retain the memory of which response in vaccination process
(A) Passive immunization response (B) Primary immune response
(C) Secondary immune response (D) All the above.

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.14. Presence of R.B.C in urine is known as

(A) Hematuria (B) Urolethiasis
(C) Nephritis (D) Proteinuria

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.15. Antiviral substances produced by many vertebrates in response to viral infection for resisting the
multiplication of virus is known as
(A) Virion (B) Interferon
(C) Antivirin (D) Antigen

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.16. Penicillin is bacteriolytic because –

(A) It checks spindle formation (B) It destroys chromatin
(C) It inhibit cell wall formation (D) It inhibit protein synthesis

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.17. The pain killer aspirin is also related with

(A) Antipyretic (B) Antiallergic
(C) Anticoagulant (D) All above

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.18. An excessive enlargement of a diseased organ due to an increase in the number of cells in called
(A) Atrophy (B) Ahyperplasia
(C) Necrosis (D) Angina

AnswerAnswer: B
Q.19. D.P.T vaccine is an example of
(A) Passive immunity (B) Active immunity
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Interferon

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.20. Clonal selection is

(A) Change in gene frequency (B) Proliferation of T and B-cell
(C) Formation of dolly sheep (D) Allergy

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.21. Number of polypeptide chain present in a molecule of antibody –

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.22. Which antibody is called secretary antibodies.

(A) IgE (B) IgA (C) IgG (D) IgM

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.23. Which of the following is a circulating antibody that protect the body fluid?
(A) IgD (B) IgZ (C) IgG (D) IgA

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.24. Nobel Prize for passive immunity was awarded to

(A) Edward Jenner (B) Von Behring (C) Wakmen (D) A. Fleming

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.25. Cell mediated immunity is provided by

(A) B-lymphocytes (B) Plasma cells
(C) C-lymphocytes (D) Thymus cells or Thymocytes

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.26. Which is a primary lymphoid organ?

(A) Bone marrow and spleen (B) Spleen and thymus
(C) Bone-marrow and tonsils (D) Thymus gland and bone marrow
AnswerAnswer: D

Q. 27 At the time of birth, presence of which antibody indicates the infection of foetus (Intrauterine
infection)?
(A) IgG (B) IgD (C) IgM (D) IgA

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.28. Vaccination is a part of

(A) Treatment of disease (B) Etiology
(C) Cow (D) Prophylaxis

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.29. Vaccine is
(A) Live oral pathogen (B) Inactivated antigen
(C) Inactivated pathogen (D) Complete pathogen

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.30. Colostrum, the first milk secretion of mammary gland is rich in immunoglobulin
(A) IgE (B) IgM (C) IgA (D) IgG

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.31. Immunisation is based on

(A) Memory of individuals (B) Pathogenic power
(C) Phagocytosis (D) Memory of immune system

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.32. Second generation vaccine is

(A) Small pox vaccine (B) D.P.T vaccine
(C) Hepatitis – B vaccine (D) Polio vaccine

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.33. Cyto-toxic cells are

(A) T-cells (B) B-cells (C) Memory cells (D) Mast cells

AnswerAnswer: A
Q.34. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to
(A) A reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
(B) A reduction in stem cell production
(C) Loss of antibody mediated immunity
(D) Loss of cell mediated immunity

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.35. Neutrophils and monocytes are important cells participating in

(A) Phagocytosis (B) Perforin production
(C) Passive immunity (D) Antibody production

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.36. An antibody is a
(A) component of blood
(B) Secretion of mammalian erythrocyte
(C) Molecule that specifically react with an antigen
(D) White corpuscle which attack invading bacteria

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.37. Interferons
(A) Kill the virus in virus infected cell
(B) Kill the virus and destroy cancerous cell
(C) Stimulate the T.I.P (Translation Inhibiting protein)
(D) None of the above

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.38. Short lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to
the infant is categorised as –
(A) Active immunity (B) Passive immunity
(C) Cellular immunity (D) Innate non-specific immunity

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.39. Membrane attack complex (MAC) associated with

(A) B-lymphocytes (B) Compliments system
(C) Macrophages (D) T-lymphocytes
MAC = It causes pores in invading microbes

AnswerAnswer: B
Q.40. Angiology is
(A) Study of Anxiety (B) Study of blood vessels
(C) Study of blood (D) Study of X-ray

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.41. Which are not a type of T-lymphocyte?

(A) Helper (B) Suppressor
(C) Cytotoxic (D) Repressor

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.42. Which of the following organs is not involved in the elicitation of immune response?
(A) Brain (B) Lymph nodes
(C) Spleen (D) Thymus

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.43. BCG vaccine is a preventive measure against

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Typhoid
(C) AIDS (D) Cholera

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.44. Allograft is
(A) Grafting in between the individuals of different species
(B) Grafting in between the individuals of same species
(C) Heterograft
(D) Isograft

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.45. Now a days cornea transplant is very popular reason is that

(A) Is easy to preserve (B) Is transplant very easily
(C) It can be easily obtained (D) Cornea is avascular.

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.46. Congenital diseases are

(A) Diseases present at birth (B) Deficiency diseases
(C) Spread from one individual to another (D) Occur during life
Human Health and Disease
AnswerAnswer: A

Q.47. Number of Barr body present in a female child with Down syndrome
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) All are correct

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.48. Which is an autosomal chromosomal mutational disorder?

(A) Huntington chorea (B) Cri-du-chat
(C) Thalassemia (D) Jacob syndrome or super male

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.49. Most common cause of mental retardation (Congenital in male children) is

(A) Jacob syndrome or super males (B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Patau’s syndrome (D) Phenyl ketonuria

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.50. Which disorder is due to gene incompatibility?

(A) Erythroblastosis foetalies (B) Jaundice
(C) Hemolytic disease of new born (D) All of the above

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.51. Which disorder is due to 4th chromosomal abnormality?

(A) Huntington chorea (B) Cri-du-chat or Cat-cry syndrome
(C) Tay-Sac disease (D) Achondroplasia

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.52. Thalassemia is due to

(A) Increased consumption of sea food
(B) Decreased synthesis of β-polypeptide chain of haemoglobin
(C) Decreased production of R.B.C that cause anemia
(D) All the above.

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.53. Individuals with a karyotype of 45 chromosome 44 autosome and one sex chromosome have been
found to suffering from the abnormally called female dysgenesis or
(A) Down syndrome (B) Turner syndrome
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) Testicular feminization.

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.54. A person has long legs, female like appearance with breast (gynecomastia) and sterile will have
one of the genetic complement.
(A) XO (B) XXY (C) XXO (D) XXX

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.55. Huntington chorea is a disease

(A) Which affects the kidney
(B) In which degeneration of nervous system leading to involuntary shaking of head, arms and legs
(C) Common in Korea
(D) Similar to diabetes

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.56. Achondroplasia is a disease related with the defect in formation of

(A) Mucosa (C) Cartilage
(C) Membrane of joint (D) Bone

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.57. Trisomic autosomal congenital disease is

(A) Criminal syndrome (B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) Turner’s syndrome

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.58. Symptoms of Diphtheria is

(A) Gum bleeding (B) Fear of water
(C) Suffocation (D) Stomach ache

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.59. Which is an infectious disease?

(A) Coronary thrombosis (B) Diphtheria
(C) Diabetes mellitus (D) Hypertension

AnswerAnswer: B
Q.60. Diphtheria is connected with
(A) Lungs (B) Throat
(C) Blood (D) Liver

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.61. Widal test is employed for detecting

(A) Yellow fever (B) Malaria
(C) Typhoid (D) Cholera

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.62. Toxin produced by tetanus affects

(A) Voluntary muscles (B) Involuntary muscles
(C) Both voluntary and involuntary muscles (D) Jaw bones

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.63. Syphilis a sexually transmitted disease is caused by

(A) Lephtospira (B) Vibrio
(C) Pasteurella (D) Treponema

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.64. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Dengue fever – Arbovirus (B) Plague – Yersinia pestis
(C) Syphilis – Trichuris trichura (D) Sleeping sickness – Trypanosoma

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.65. ‘Lock Jaw’ is associated with

(A) Opisthotonus (B) Risus sardonicus
(C) Clostridium (D) All of these

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.66. Which disease is caused by vector Xenopsylla cheopsis?

(A) Plague (B) Black fever
(C) Yersinia pestis (D) All of these

AnswerAnswer: A
Q.67. Multi Drug Therapy (M.D.T) is given in
(A) Tetanus (B) Diphtheria
(C) Leprosy (D) All of these

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.68. Ciprofloxacin drug is ineffective in

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Chicken pox
(C) Pneumonia (D) Typhoid

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.69. Mantoux test is done to detect.

(A) Leprosy (B) Typhoid (C) Tuberculosis (D) Diphtheria

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.70. Tetanus affect

(A) Involuntary muscle (B) Voluntary muscle
(C) Lungs (D) Respiratory mucosa

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.71. Schick test is associated with

(A) Bordetella pertussis (B) Chlamydia trochomatis
(C) Diplococcus pneumoniae (D) Cornebacterium diptheriae

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.72. Causative agent of French pox (Syphilis)?

(A) Tryponema (B) Varicella
(C) H.I.V (D) Treponema pallidum

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.73. Antibiotic used in tetanus is

(A) Erythromycin (B) Tetracycline
(C) Penicillin (D) Ciprofloxacin

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.74. V.D.R.L test is done in

(A) Gonorrhoea (B) Diptheria
(C) Syphilis (D) A.I.D.S
AnswerAnswer: C

Q.75. Bradycardia, high fever, anorexia, is found in

(A) Hepatitis – A (B) Kala – azar
(C) Typhoid (D) A.I.D.S

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.76. Causative agent of 100 days cough

(A) Clostridium (B) Neisseria
(C) Bordetella (D) Corynebacterium

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.77. O.R.S is given in infection of

(A) Vibrio cholerae (B) Entamoeba histolytica
(C) Clostridium botulinum (D) All the above

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.78. AIDS is caused by

(A) Fungus (B) Virus
(C) Bacteria (D) Helminth

Answer

Q.79. Which one is a viral disease?

(A) Syphilis (B) Rickets
(C) Measles (D) None of the above

Answer

Q.80. Jaundice a pathological disease of liver is commonly due to

(A) Bacterium (B) Virus
(C) Protozoan (D) Helminth

Answer

Q.81. Small pox and rabies are caused by

(A) Virus (B) Protozoan
(C) Bacterium (D) Nematode

AnswerAnswer: A
Q.82. Which of the following is a viral disease?
(A) Tetanus (B) Dysentery
(C) Typhoid (D) None of the above

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.83. During deficiency of folic acid the number of leucocytes fall considerably and then the disease or
condition is called
(A) Leukaemia (B) Leucopenia
(C) Polycythemia (D) Tay-sac disease

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.84. Vishuchika in Ayurveda is called

(A) Plague (B) Small pox (C) AIDS (D) Cholera

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.85. Dengue fever is transmitted by

(A) Aedes aegypti (Tiger mosquito) (B) Culex fatigaus
(C) Anopheles (D) Aedes donovoni

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.86. Which of the following disease is spread by mosquito but not caused by virus?
(A) Dengue fever (B) Yellow fever
(C) Filariasis (D) Chicken pox

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.87. Which is not a viral droplet infection?

(A) Measles (B) Mumps
(C) Whooping cough (D) Influenza

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.88. Most common cause of jaundice

(A) Yellow Fever (B) AIDS
(C) Hepatitis – A (D) Hepatitis – B

AnswerAnswer: C
Q.89. Which safe vaccine is used in pulse polio programme ?
(A) Live vaccine (B) Killed vaccine
(C) Recombinant D.N.A vaccine (D) Third generation vaccine

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.90. Mumps affect which part of the body ?

(A) Parotid gland (B) Thyroid gland
(C) Testis (D) (A) and (C) is correct

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.91. Dew drop like appearance on trunk is caused by which virus

(A) Corona virus (B) Myxo virus
(C) Varicella virus (D) Arbo virus

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.92. Which disease is not transmitted through placenta

(A) Hepatitis –A (B) Hepatitis – B (C) A.I.D.S (D) Syphilis

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.93. Which of the following disease is eradicated from India

(A) Polio (B) Leprosy (C) Measles (D) Small pox

AnswerAnswer: D

Q.94. Tourniquet test is done in

(A) Diphtheria (B) Break bone fever (C) A.I.D.S (D) Hepatitis – A

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.95. Street virus affects

(A) Kidney (B) C.N.S (C) Lungs (D) Eyes

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.96. 30 pregnant female A.I.D.S. patient are admit in female ward. Find out the probable number of
neonates (children) having the H.I.V. from these pregnant female
(A) 30 children (B) 20 Children (C) 10 children (D) 3 children
AnswerAnswer: C

Q.97. Blood cancer is

(A) Leukemia (B) Thrombosis (C) Haemophilia (D) Haemolysis

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.98. Which is carcinogen and pathogen?

(A) Mycobacterium (B) LAV (Lymphadenopathy Associated virus)
(C) Hepatitis – A virus (D) Cancero bacterium virus

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.99. The disease in which high level of uric acid in blood is characteristic is
(A) Arthritis (B) Rheumatism
(C) Gout (D) Rheumatic heart

AnswerAnswer: C

Q.100. Arthritis is a disease of the inflammations of

(A) Joint (B) Blood vessel (C) Brain (D) Intestine

AnswerAnswer: A

Q.101. Myasthenia gravis due to

(A) Interferon (B) Autoantibody (C) Antigen (D) Toxins

AnswerAnswer: B

Q.102. Which is not cancer?

(A) Leukaemia (B) Glaucoma (C) Carcinoma (D) Sarcoma

AnswerAnswer: B

Human Health and Disease Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Pain-killer drugs:
(a) Makes Tissue
(b) Relieve from pain
(c) Relieve from tired
(d) Pain creater

Answer

Answer: (c) Relieve from tired

Question 2.
AIDS caused by:
(a) By fungus
(b) By Virus
(c) By Bacteria
(d) By Helminthes

Answer

Answer: (b) By Virus

Question 3.
Immune deficiency symdrome is caused by:
(a) Defected liver
(b) Defected thymus
(c) AIDS Virus
(d) Loss of Immune system

Answer

Answer: (c) AIDS Virus

Question 4.
Opium is:
(a) Hemp
(b) Charas
(c) Heroin
(d) Nicotin

Answer

Answer: (c) Heroin

Question 5.
AIDS occur by which cause?
(a) Reduction of T-Helper cells
(b) Reduction of Killer T-cells
(c) Auto immune
(d) Less production of interferon

Answer

Answer: (a) Reduction of T-Helper cells

Question 6.
Heroin is the form of :
(a) Aesthetic
(b) Hallucination
(c) Irritation
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Hallucination

Question 7.
Caffein, Amphetamine and coceins are:
(a) Pain Killer
(b) Tranquillizer
(c) Hallucination
(d) Stimulant

Answer

Answer: (d) Stimulant

Question 8.
Following is Hallucinator
(a) LSD
(b) Heroin
(c) Cocein
(d) Morphin

Answer
Answer: (a) LSD

Question 9.
World AIDS day is:
(a) 1 May
(b) 20 December
(c) 1 June
(d) 1 December

Answer

Answer: (d) 1 December

Question 10.
By the plant of which family Heroin is obtained?
(a) Leguminaceae
(b) Papa Veraceae
(c) Liliaece
(d) Solanaceae

Answer

Answer: (b) Papa Veraceae

Question 11.
Opiates are obtained from
(a) Thea sinesis
(b) Coffea Arabica
(c) Oryzasativa
(d) Papaver Seminiferum

Answer

Answer: (d) Papaver Seminiferum

Question 12.
PCR is test for:
(a) HIV
(b) Cancer
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Cholera

Answer

Answer: (a) HIV

Question 13.
Following which is STD:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Cholera
(c) Malaria
(d) Syphilis

Answer

Answer: (d) Syphilis

Question 14.
Wuchereria bancrofti causes filaria in human being. It is of which group:
(a) Protozoa
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) Helminth

Answer

Answer: (d) Helminth

Question 15.
Which organ of body is most affected by excessive intake of alcohol?
(a) Lungs
(b) Liver
(c) Stomach
(d) Spleen

Answer

Answer: (b) Liver

Question 16.
Common cold is caused by:
(a) Retro virus
(b) Phage virus
(c) Rhino virus
(d) Sendai virus

Answer

Answer: (c) Rhino virus

Question 17.
Which of the following is the cancer of blood?
(a) Sarcoma
(b) Lymphoms
(c) Leukemia
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Leukemia

Question 18.
Gonorrhoea is caused by:
(a) By Treponema pallidium
(b) By Entamoeba gingivalis
(c) By Mycobacterium taprae
(d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer

Answer: (d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 19.
Antigen-binding site in an antibody, is found between:
(a) Two light chains
(b) Two heavy chains
(c) One heavy and one light chain
(d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain

Answer
Answer: (d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain

Question 20.
Alcohol is the most socially accepted narcotic drug. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to:
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Live cirrhosis
(c) State of hellucination
(d) Suppresion of brain function

Answer

Answer: (b) Live cirrhosis

Question 21.
Disease associated with secretion of toxin is:
(a) TB
(b) AIDS
(c) Tetanus
(d) Food Poisoning

Answer

Answer: (c) Tetanus

Question 22.
Widal test is done to confirm:
(a) Malaria
(b) Typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) Cancer

Answer

Answer: (b) Typhoid

Question 23.
Which part of poppy plant yields opium:
(a) Latex from unripe capsules
(b) Dried roots
(c) Dried leaves
(d) Dired seeds

Answer

Answer: (a) Latex from unripe capsules

Question 24.
Kala-azar is transmitted by:
(a) By Sand fly
(b) By Tsetse fly
(c) By House fly
(d) By Mosquitoes

Answer

Answer: (a) By Sand fly

Question 25.
Memory cells are formed from:
(a) Monocytes
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Lymphocytes

Answer

Answer: (d) Lymphocytes

Question 26.
BCG vaccine is a preventive measure against:
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) Cholera

Answer

Answer: (a) Tuberculosis

Question 27.
Antigens are present:
(a) Inside nucleus
(b) One the cell surface
(c) Inside cytoplasm
(d) On nuclear membrane

Answer

Answer: (b) One the cell surface

Question 28.
The disease, tetanus also known as:
(a) Shingles
(b) Gangrene
(c) Lockjaw
(d) Whooping cough

Answer

Answer: (c) Lockjaw

Question 29.
Man in the life-cycle of plasmodium is:
(a) Primary host
(b) Secondary host
(c) Intemediate host
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Secondary host

Question 30.
Allegens:
(a) Infectious and increase secretion of IgE antiboides
(b) Non-infectious and increase secretion of IgE antibodies
(c) Infectious and increase secretion of IgS antibodies
(d) Non-infectious and increase secretion of IgM antibodies

Answer
Answer: (b) Non-infectious and increase secretion of IgE antibodies

Question 31.
Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chores are:
(a) Bacerial diseases
(b) Congenital diseases
(c) Pollution related diseases
(d) Viral diseases

Answer

Answer: (b) Congenital diseases

Question 32.
In AIDS, which of these cells are most affected:
(a) B-cells
(b) T-cells
(c) Monocytes
(d) Neutrophils

Answer

Answer: (b) T-cells

Question 33.
Passive immunity can be obtained by injecting:
(a) Antibodies
(b) Antigens
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Vaccination

Answer

Answer: (a) Antibodies

Question 34.
Changa’s disease is caused by:
(a) Trypanosoma ganabiense
(b) Trypanosoma Cruzi
(c) Trypanosoma-rhodesiense
(d) Leishmania donovani

Answer

Answer: (b) Trypanosoma Cruzi

Question 35.
Which of the following disease effect the immune system directly?
(a) Cholera
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Tetanus
(d) AIDS

Answer

Answer: (d) AIDS

Question 36.
Which of the following vaccines are injected at the age of 11/2, 21/2 and 31/2 months:
(a) DPT-Hib and Polio
(b) Polio and BCG
(c) BCG and DTP-Hib
(d) BCG and Hepatitis-B

Answer

Answer: (a) DPT-Hib and Polio

Question 37.
The drug which stimulates the nervous system and makes him more wakeful alert and active is called :
(a) Sedative
(b) Opiate narcotic
(c) Stimulant
(d) Hallucinogen

Answer

Answer: (c) Stimulant

Question 38.
Ascaris is most commonly found in:
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Children
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Children

Question 39.
Kupffer cells are present in:
(a) Liver
(b) Small intestine
(c) Pancreas
(d) Thyroid

Answer

Answer: (a) Liver

Question 40.
Intermediate host of Schistosoma is:
(a) Snail
(b) Mosquito
(c) Housefly
(d) Sheep

Answer

Answer: (d) Sheep

Question 41.
A person showing unpredicatable moods, outbursts of emotion quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts
with other is suffering from:
(a) Addictive disorders
(b) Schizophrenia
(c) Borderline personality disorder (BOD)
(d) Mood disorders
Answer

Answer: (c) Borderline personality disorder (BOD)

Question 42.
Current treatment for cancer does not include which of the following:
(a) Chemotherapy
(b) Radiaotherapy
(c) Surgery
(d) Physiotherapy

Answer

Answer: (d) Physiotherapy

Question 43.
Screening test of AIDS is:
(a) Western blot
(b) ALISA
(c) PCR
(d) Southern blot

Answer

Answer: (b) ALISA

Question 44.
The vactor of Break bone fever is:
(a) Anopheled
(b) Aedes
(c) Culex
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Culex

Question 45.
An allergic reaction is intiated by antibodies of, group :
(a) IgG
(b) IgE
(c) IgM
(d) IgA

Answer

Answer: (b) IgE

Question 46.
In Malaria, the product released by mosquito into blood that causes chill and fever is called:
(a) Haematin
(b) Schuffher’s dots
(c) Haemozoin
(d) Haemotoxin

Answer

Answer: (b) Schuffher’s dots

Question 47.
HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
(a) Helper T-lymphocytes
(b) B-Lymphocytes
(c) Leucocytes
(d) Thrombocytes

Answer

Answer: (a) Helper T-lymphocytes

Question 48.
Morphine obtained from opium is:
(a) Latex
(b) Pome
(c) Alkaloid
(d) Tannin

Answer

Answer: (c) Alkaloid

Human Health and Disease Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers
Question 1.
Pain-killer drugs:
(a) Makes Tissue
(b) Relieve from pain
(c) Relieve from tired
(d) Pain creater

Answer

Answer: (c) Relieve from tired

Question 2.
AIDS caused by:
(a) By fungus
(b) By Virus
(c) By Bacteria
(d) By Helminthes

Answer

Answer: (b) By Virus

Question 3.
Immune deficiency symdrome is caused by:
(a) Defected liver
(b) Defected thymus
(c) AIDS Virus
(d) Loss of Immune system

Answer

Answer: (c) AIDS Virus

Question 4.
Opium is:
(a) Hemp
(b) Charas
(c) Heroin
(d) Nicotin

Answer

Answer: (c) Heroin

Question 5.
AIDS occur by which cause?
(a) Reduction of T-Helper cells
(b) Reduction of Killer T-cells
(c) Auto immune
(d) Less production of interferon

Answer

Answer: (a) Reduction of T-Helper cells

Question 6.
Heroin is the form of :
(a) Aesthetic
(b) Hallucination
(c) Irritation
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Hallucination

Question 7.
Caffein, Amphetamine and coceins are:
(a) Pain Killer
(b) Tranquillizer
(c) Hallucination
(d) Stimulant

Answer

Answer: (d) Stimulant

Question 8.
Following is Hallucinator
(a) LSD
(b) Heroin
(c) Cocein
(d) Morphin

Answer

Answer: (a) LSD

Question 9.
World AIDS day is:
(a) 1 May
(b) 20 December
(c) 1 June
(d) 1 December

Answer

Answer: (d) 1 December

Question 10.
By the plant of which family Heroin is obtained?
(a) Leguminaceae
(b) Papa Veraceae
(c) Liliaece
(d) Solanaceae

Answer

Answer: (b) Papa Veraceae

Question 11.
Opiates are obtained from
(a) Thea sinesis
(b) Coffea Arabica
(c) Oryzasativa
(d) Papaver Seminiferum

Answer
Answer: (d) Papaver Seminiferum

Question 12.
PCR is test for:
(a) HIV
(b) Cancer
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Cholera

Answer

Answer: (a) HIV

Question 13.
Following which is STD:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Cholera
(c) Malaria
(d) Syphilis

Answer

Answer: (d) Syphilis

Question 14.
Wuchereria bancrofti causes filaria in human being. It is of which group:
(a) Protozoa
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) Helminth

Answer

Answer: (d) Helminth

Question 15.
Which organ of body is most affected by excessive intake of alcohol?
(a) Lungs
(b) Liver
(c) Stomach
(d) Spleen

Answer

Answer: (b) Liver

Question 16.
Common cold is caused by:
(a) Retro virus
(b) Phage virus
(c) Rhino virus
(d) Sendai virus

Answer

Answer: (c) Rhino virus

Question 17.
Which of the following is the cancer of blood?
(a) Sarcoma
(b) Lymphoms
(c) Leukemia
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Leukemia

Question 18.
Gonorrhoea is caused by:
(a) By Treponema pallidium
(b) By Entamoeba gingivalis
(c) By Mycobacterium taprae
(d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer

Answer: (d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 19.
Antigen-binding site in an antibody, is found between:
(a) Two light chains
(b) Two heavy chains
(c) One heavy and one light chain
(d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain

Answer

Answer: (d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain

Question 20.
Alcohol is the most socially accepted narcotic drug. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to:
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Live cirrhosis
(c) State of hellucination
(d) Suppresion of brain function

Answer

Answer: (b) Live cirrhosis

Question 21.
Disease associated with secretion of toxin is:
(a) TB
(b) AIDS
(c) Tetanus
(d) Food Poisoning

Answer

Answer: (c) Tetanus

Question 22.
Widal test is done to confirm:
(a) Malaria
(b) Typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) Cancer

Answer
Answer: (b) Typhoid

Question 23.
Which part of poppy plant yields opium:
(a) Latex from unripe capsules
(b) Dried roots
(c) Dried leaves
(d) Dired seeds

Answer

Answer: (a) Latex from unripe capsules

Question 24.
Kala-azar is transmitted by:
(a) By Sand fly
(b) By Tsetse fly
(c) By House fly
(d) By Mosquitoes

Answer

Answer: (a) By Sand fly

Question 25.
Memory cells are formed from:
(a) Monocytes
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Lymphocytes

Answer

Answer: (d) Lymphocytes

Question 26.
BCG vaccine is a preventive measure against:
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) Cholera

Answer

Answer: (a) Tuberculosis

Question 27.
Antigens are present:
(a) Inside nucleus
(b) One the cell surface
(c) Inside cytoplasm
(d) On nuclear membrane

Answer

Answer: (b) One the cell surface

Question 28.
The disease, tetanus also known as:
(a) Shingles
(b) Gangrene
(c) Lockjaw
(d) Whooping cough

Answer

Answer: (c) Lockjaw

Question 29.
Man in the life-cycle of plasmodium is:
(a) Primary host
(b) Secondary host
(c) Intemediate host
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Secondary host

Question 30.
Allegens:
(a) Infectious and increase secretion of IgE antiboides
(b) Non-infectious and increase secretion of IgE antibodies
(c) Infectious and increase secretion of IgS antibodies
(d) Non-infectious and increase secretion of IgM antibodies

Answer

Answer: (b) Non-infectious and increase secretion of IgE antibodies

Question 31.
Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chores are:
(a) Bacerial diseases
(b) Congenital diseases
(c) Pollution related diseases
(d) Viral diseases

Answer

Answer: (b) Congenital diseases

Question 32.
In AIDS, which of these cells are most affected:
(a) B-cells
(b) T-cells
(c) Monocytes
(d) Neutrophils

Answer

Answer: (b) T-cells

Question 33.
Passive immunity can be obtained by injecting:
(a) Antibodies
(b) Antigens
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Vaccination

Answer
Answer: (a) Antibodies

Question 34.
Changa’s disease is caused by:
(a) Trypanosoma ganabiense
(b) Trypanosoma Cruzi
(c) Trypanosoma-rhodesiense
(d) Leishmania donovani

Answer

Answer: (b) Trypanosoma Cruzi

Question 35.
Which of the following disease effect the immune system directly?
(a) Cholera
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Tetanus
(d) AIDS

Answer

Answer: (d) AIDS

Question 36.
Which of the following vaccines are injected at the age of 11/2, 21/2 and 31/2 months:
(a) DPT-Hib and Polio
(b) Polio and BCG
(c) BCG and DTP-Hib
(d) BCG and Hepatitis-B

Answer

Answer: (a) DPT-Hib and Polio

Question 37.
The drug which stimulates the nervous system and makes him more wakeful alert and active is called :
(a) Sedative
(b) Opiate narcotic
(c) Stimulant
(d) Hallucinogen

Answer

Answer: (c) Stimulant

Question 38.
Ascaris is most commonly found in:
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Children
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Children

Question 39.
Kupffer cells are present in:
(a) Liver
(b) Small intestine
(c) Pancreas
(d) Thyroid

Answer

Answer: (a) Liver

Question 40.
Intermediate host of Schistosoma is:
(a) Snail
(b) Mosquito
(c) Housefly
(d) Sheep

Answer

Answer: (d) Sheep

Question 41.
A person showing unpredicatable moods, outbursts of emotion quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts
with other is suffering from:
(a) Addictive disorders
(b) Schizophrenia
(c) Borderline personality disorder (BOD)
(d) Mood disorders

Answer

Answer: (c) Borderline personality disorder (BOD)

Question 42.
Current treatment for cancer does not include which of the following:
(a) Chemotherapy
(b) Radiaotherapy
(c) Surgery
(d) Physiotherapy

Answer

Answer: (d) Physiotherapy

Question 43.
Screening test of AIDS is:
(a) Western blot
(b) ALISA
(c) PCR
(d) Southern blot

Answer

Answer: (b) ALISA

Question 44.
The vactor of Break bone fever is:
(a) Anopheled
(b) Aedes
(c) Culex
(d) None of these
Answer

Answer: (c) Culex

Question 45.
An allergic reaction is intiated by antibodies of, group :
(a) IgG
(b) IgE
(c) IgM
(d) IgA

Answer

Answer: (b) IgE

Question 46.
In Malaria, the product released by mosquito into blood that causes chill and fever is called:
(a) Haematin
(b) Schuffher’s dots
(c) Haemozoin
(d) Haemotoxin

Answer

Answer: (b) Schuffher’s dots

Question 47.
HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
(a) Helper T-lymphocytes
(b) B-Lymphocytes
(c) Leucocytes
(d) Thrombocytes

Answer

Answer: (a) Helper T-lymphocytes

Question 48.
Morphine obtained from opium is:
(a) Latex
(b) Pome
(c) Alkaloid
(d) Tannin

Answer

Answer: (c) Alkaloid