17 Human Health and Disease: Solutions

Chapter 17
Human Health and Disease
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Common Diseases in Humans)
1. Which of the following toxic substance is responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every three to four
days in malaria?
(1) Haemotoxin (2) Haemoglobin (3) Haemozoin (4) Sporozoites
Sol. Answer (3)
Haemozoin– Malarial parasite digest haemoglobin and release high quantities of free heme, this free heme is
toxic to cells and parasite convert it into an insoluble crystalline form called haemozoin.
Haemotoxin– Toxic substances in animal's venom, such as snake's venom.
Haemoglobin– Iron containing metalloprotein in red blood cells.
Sporozoites– Infectious form of malarial parasite.
2. In which of the following disorder, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in respiration?
(1) Common cold (2) Whooping cough (3) Diphtheria (4) Pneumonia
Sol. Answer (4)
Pneumonia: It is characterised by infection of lungs. Due to filling of fluid in alveoli gas exchange cannot occur
properly loading to severe problems in respiration.
3. Typhoid fever could be confirmed by
(1) Widal test (2) Mantoux test (3) Schick test (4) Dick test
Sol. Answer (1)
Mantoux test– Tuberculosis
Schick test– Diphtheria
Dick test– Scarlet fever
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2 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment
4. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. infection of Entamoeba histolytica

(1) It is a protozoan parasite of human
(2) It is characterised by constipation and abdominal pain
(3) It is a parasite in small intestine of man
(4) Houseflies act as mechanical carriers and serve to transmit the parasite from faeces of infected person
to food and food products
Sol. Answer (3)
Entamoeba histolytica is a parasite of large intestine of man.
5. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding malarial infection?

(1) Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of freshly moulted female Anopheles
mosquito
(2) High fever recurring every three to four days
(3) Sporozoites initially multiply within the liver cells and then attack the RBCs resulting in their rupture
(4) When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, these parasites enter the mosquito’s body
and undergo further development
Sol. Answer (1)
Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito.
6. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of the intestinal passage are the common
symptoms of
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Elephantiasis (3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid
Sol. Answer (3)
Amoebiasis– Abdominal pain, stools with excess mucus and blood clots.
Elephantiasis– Inflammation of organ in which they reside, swelling of legs, scrotum and other parts of body.
Typhoid– Sustained high fever, weakness, loss of apetite, headache, stomach pain.
7. Which of the following fish is introduced in pond to control or eliminate the vector responsible for the
transmission of malaria and filariasis?
(1) Exocoetus (2) Pristis (3) Scoliodon (4) Gambusia
Sol. Answer (4)
Gambusia is a larvivorous fish that feeds on mosquito larvae.
8. The use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have enabled us to completely eradicate a deadly disease
like
(1) Polio (2) Tetanus (3) Diphtheria (4) Small pox
Sol. Answer (4)
It was a deadly disease which is now completely eradicated by using vaccine discovered by Edward Jenner
in 1798.
Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 3
9. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual stages (gametocytes) begin to develop in
(1) Stomach of mosquito (2) Intestine of man
(3) Liver of man (4) Red blood cells of man
Sol. Answer (4)
Gametocyte begin to form in RBC of man and completes its further development to form gametes as sexual
cycle in mosquito.
10. Out of the following diseases which are caused due to bacterial infection?
a. Typhoid
b. Elephantiasis
c. Cholera
d. Tuberculosis
(1) a & b only (2) b & c only (3) a, c & d only (4) a, b, c & d
Sol. Answer (3)
Typhoid, Cholera and Tuberculosis are caused by bacteria. Elephantiasis is caused by helminth.
11. The pathogens of genera, Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for
(1) Botulism (2) Conjunctivitis (3) Ringworm (4) Skin allergy
Sol. Answer (3)
It is a fungal disease caused by Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton.
Botulism– (Food poisining)– Clostridium botulinum– bacterial disease.
Conjunctivitis– Viral, bacterial or an allergic reaction.
Skin Allergy– Caused by different allergens.
12. The use of anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of
(1) Fungal diseases (2) Viral diseases (3) Allergy (4) Helminthic diseases
Sol. Answer (3)
Allergic reaction is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from mast cells and use of
drugs like anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduces the symptom of allergy.
Fungal diseases, viral diseases and helminthic infections can be prevented by personal hygiene.
13. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?
(1) Asthma (2) Cirrhosis (3) AIDS (4) Rheumatoid arthritis
Sol. Answer (4)
Asthma– Allergic disease
Cirrhosis– Is a result of advanced liver disease.
AIDS– Caused by HIV which decreases natural immunity of the body.
(Immunity)
14. Which of the following is a non-specific type of defense that is present at the time of birth?
(1) Acquired immunity (2) Humoral immune response
(3) Cell mediated immunity (4) Innate immunity
Sol. Answer (4)
It is non-specific as it act against any type of foreign agent .
Acquired Immunity– It is pathogen specific and it initiates when a host encounters pathogen during first attack
Humoral Immunity– Type of acquired immunity– B-lymphocyte mediated in which antibodies are produced.
Cell mediated immunity– T-lymphocyte mediated.
15. Acid in stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes, all prevent microbial growth belong to which of the
following barrier?
(1) Physical barrier (2) Physiological barrier
(3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier
Sol. Answer (2)
One of the barrier of innate immunity
Physical barrier– Skin, muscous coating of epithelium
Cellular barrier– WBC– PMNL, monocytes, NK– cells
Cytokine barrier– Interferons
16. Which of the following immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in colostrum?
(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgM (4) IgE
Sol. Answer (1)
IgA– Colostrum is a golden liquid substance that a nursing mother expels from her breasts 24-48 hours after
delivery.
IgG– Only antibody that can cross the placenta and confer immunity to the foetus.
IgE– Mediator in allergic response.
IgM– Activates first in initial attack of antigen.
17. The treatment of snake bite by antivenom is an example of
(1) Artificially acquired passive immunity (2) Artificially acquired active immunity
(3) Naturally acquired active immunity (4) Naturally acquired passive immunity
Sol. Answer (1)
Because in this preformed antibodies against snake venom are directly injected into the human body.
Artificially acquired active immunity– Includes resistance induced by vaccines.
Naturally acquired passive immunity– IgA and IgG antibodies from mother to baby and foetus respectively.
Naturally acquired active immunity– Acquired when antigens gain access into the body during natural infection.
(AIDS)
18. Human immunodeficiency virus is a/an

(1) Adeno virus (2) DNA retrovirus
(3) RNA retrovirus (4) Adeno retrovirus
Sol. Answer (3)
HIV forms DNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase.
19. HIV decreases natural immunity of the body by

(1) Destroying antibodies
(2) Destroying erythrocytes
(3) Attacking T-lymphocytes
(4) Attacking B-lymphocytes
Sol. Answer (3)
HIV decreases the number of T-lymphocytes by attacking on it and due to this decrease the person starts
suffering from opportunistic infections of bacteria, viruses, fungi etc.
(Cancer)
20. Among the noninfectious diseases, which of the following is most common fatal diseases of human beings?
(1) AIDS (2) Cancer (3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Cholera
Sol. Answer (2)
AIDS– Communicable/infectious disease and fatal disease.
Cystic fibrosis– It is a genetic disorder.
Cholera– Communicable disease but not fatal.
21. The spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as

(1) Metastasis (2) Metachrosis
(3) Metamorphosis (4) Metagenesis
Sol. Answer (1)
Metastasis: It is the property of cancerous cells to spread to distant sites through blood and starting a new
tumor formation wherever they get lodged in the body.
Metachrosis: Ability of animals to change the intensity of colour.
Metamorphosis: The process of transformation from an immature form to an adult form in two or more distinct
stages.
Metagenesis: Phenomenon in which polyp form of a cnidarian alternates asexually with medusoid form.
(Drug and Alcohol Abuse)
22. Smoking increases ______ content in blood and reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen. Fill the
blank suitably
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Carbaminohaemoglobin
(3) Carbon monoxide
(4) Carboxylic acid
Sol. Answer (3)
When the smoke is inhaled into lungs, CO is rapidly absorbed into blood stream and it binds to the
haemoglobin in the red blood cells 200 times more effectively than oxygen does.
23. Which of the following drug is extracted from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum, generally taken
by snorting and injection, is a depressant and slows down body functions?
(1) Cocaine
(2) Hashish
(3) Barbiturate
(4) Heroin
Sol. Answer (4)
Cocaine: obtained from Erythroxylum coca, generally snorted. Causes hallucinations, and has a potent effect
on central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy.
Hashish: Obtained from Cannabis plant, taken by inhalation and oral ingestion.
Effects on cardiovascular system.
Barbiturates: It is a sedative.
Used as a medicine to help patients cope with mental illness like depression, insomnia etc.
Reduces excitement by depressing the CNS activity and lowers physiological activity leading to drownsiness
or sleep.
24. Use of Cannabis products results in
(1) Stimulation of nervous system thus increases alertness and activity
(2) Suppressed brain function and relief in pain
(3) Depressed brain activity and feeling of calmness
(4) Alteration of perception, thoughts and feelings
Sol. Answer (4)
Alteration of perception, thoughts and feelings are hallucinations.
SECTION - B
(Common Diseases in Humans)
1. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. common cold
(1) Rhinovirus causes common cold
(2) Rhinovirus infects the nose, respiratory passage and lungs
(3) Common cold is characterised by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough,
headache, tiredness etc.
(4) Droplets resulting from cough or sneezes of an infected person are inhaled directly or transmitted through
contaminated objects and can cause infection in a healthy person
Sol. Answer (2)
Rhinovirus infects nose and respiratory passage but not lungs.
2. Intestinal perforation is the characteristic symptom of

(1) Pneumonia (2) Plague (3) Typhoid (4) Pertussis
Sol. Answer (3)
In severe cases intestinal perforation and death may occur in typhoid.
Pneumonia: fever, chills, cough and headache.
Plague: High fever, lump in the groin or the armpit, red patches on skin.
Pertussis: Mild fever, nasal congestion, sneezing, nasal discharge.
3. Wuchereria bancrofti, the filarial worm that causes elephantiasis belongs to phylum
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
(3) Coelenterate (4) Arthropoda
Sol. Answer (2)
4. Recently chikungunya and dengue cases were reported from various parts of the country. Choose the correct
vector responsible for these diseases
(1) Anopheles mosquito (2) Xenopsylla (Rat flea)
(3) Culex mosquito (4) Aedes mosquito
Sol. Answer (4)
Culex mosquito– Vector of Wuchereria bancrofti which causes Elephantiasis.
Xenopsylla– Vector of Yersinia pestis which causes plague.
Anopheles mosquito– Vector of Plasmodium which causes malaria.
5. Which of the following causes plague?

(1) Trichinella spiralis (2) Salmonella typhimurium
(3) Yersinia pestis (4) Xenopsylla
Sol. Answer (3)

Trichinella spiralis: Causes trichinosis.
Salmonella typhimurium: Causes gastroenteritis in mammals..
Xenopsylla: Act as a vector in transmitting plague pathogen Yersinia pestis.
6. A person who met with road accident is likely to develop tetanus he is immunised by administering
(1) Weakened germs
(2) Dead germs
(3) Preformed antibodies
(4) Wide spectrum antibiotics
Sol. Answer (3)
Preformed antibodies are injected in such injury as pathogen i.e., Clostridium tetani produces a neurotoxin-
tetanospasmin and a quick response is required to stop the action of antigen which is not done by the
formation of our own antibodies as it takes time.
Weakened germs and dead germs are used in vaccine to develop immunity against them.
Wide spectrum antibiotics is used when a person is suffering from many diseases or infections but not for a
single disease/infection.
(Immunity)
7. Antigen binding site in an antibody is formed by

(1) Two light chains
(2) Two heavy chains
(3) One heavy and one light chain
(4) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature of
antigen
Sol. Answer (3)
Antigen binding site is constituted by variable region of light chain and heavy chain.
8. Mark the correct statement

(1) The anamnestic response against a pathogen is highly intensified
(2) The T-lymphocytes produce antibodies
(3) The B-lymphocytes produce cell mediated response
(4) An antibody is represented by H2L4
Sol. Answer (1)
B-lymphocytes produce antibodies
T-lymphoctes produce cell mediated response.
An antibody is represented by H2L2.
9. Which of the following will be included under innate immunity?
(1) Mucus membranes (2) Interferons
(3) Natural killer cells (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
These all are different barriers under innate immunity.
Mucus membrane– Physical barrier
Interferons– Cytokine barrier
Natural Killer cells– Cellular barrier
10. Artificial active immunity can be acquired from

(1) Serious illness
(2) Vaccination
(3) Repeated exposure to the some microbes
(4) Treatment with penicillin
Sol. Answer (2)
Repeated exposure to the same microbes or illness develops natural active immunity.
11. One of the inflammatory reaction induced by histamine is

(1) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels (2) Vasodilation of blood vessels
(3) Decreased vascular permeability (4) Accelerated blood clotting
Sol. Answer (2)
Presence of histamine in blood causes vasodilation of blood vessels which leads to a decrease in blood
pressure drastically often resulting into death.
Histamine increases the permeability of the blood vessels.
12. Blood cells involved in inflammatory reactions are

(1) Basophils (2) Neutrophils (3) Eosinophils (4) Monocytes
Sol. Answer (1)
Basophils: They release histamine and are found in tissues where allergic reactions are occurring and
contribute to the severity of these reactions.
Neutrophils: Are phagocytic cells.
Eosinophils: Are important mediator in allergic responses.
Monocyte: At site of infection it differentiates into macrophage to elicit an immune response.
13. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to

(1) Thymus (2) Thyroid (3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil
Sol. Answer (1)
T-lymphocytes mature in thymus.
Thyroid: It is an endocrine gland and it produces hormone T3 & T4.
Thalamus: It is situated between cerebral cortex and midbrain. Act as a relay organ.
Tonsil: Lymphoid tissue.
(AIDS)
14. The caustative organism of AIDS spreads by

(1) Sharing infected needles and syringes
(2) Transfusion of infected blood
(3) Unsafe sexual relationships
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
AIDS is a fatal communicable/infectious disease.
(Cancer)
15. Cancer is caused by

(1) Rupturing of cells (2) Uncontrolled meiosis
(3) Uncontrolled mitosis (4) Loss of immunity of the cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Cancerous cells undergo abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells due to breakdown of regulatory mechanism.
Cancer cells do not show the property of contact inhibition (cells when in contact with each other inhibit their
uncontrolled growth)
Cells are not rupturing.
Meiosis is reduction division
Cells do not lose immunity, they combine to form tumors.
16. Oncogene is another name for

(1) Inducer gene (2) Jumping gene (3) Structural gene (4) Cancer causing gene
Sol. Answer (4)
Cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto-oncogenes have been identified in normal cells. Which when activated under
certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells.
Cancer causing virus called oncogenic virus have genes called viral oncogenes.
Inducer gene: A molecule that regulate gene expression.
Jumping genes: Genes that can change their position within the genome.
Structural gene: Genes that codes for any RNA or protein product other than a regulatory protein.
17. The blood cancer is also known as

(1) Haemolysis (2) Haemophilia (3) Leukaemia (4) Thrombosis
Sol. Answer (3)
Because it involves proliferation of cell types present in blood and their percursors in bone marrow.
Hemolysis: Rupturing of erythrocytes and release of their content.
Haemophilia: Is a genetic disorder that impair the body's ability to control blood clotting.
Thrombosis: Is the formation of a blood lot.
(Drug and Alcohol Abuse)
18. Read the following statements

a. Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by acetylation of morphine.
b. Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
c. Dopamine is excitatory neurotransmitter.
d. Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.
Mark the option which includes both correct statement
(1) a & b (2) b & c (3) c & d (4) a & d
Sol. Answer (4)
Both (a) & (d) statements are correct.
b. Is wrong because cocaine is obtained from Erythroxylum coca.
c. Is wrong because dopamine is inhibitory neurotransmitter.
19. L.S.D. is
(1) Hallucinogenic (2) Sedative (3) Stimulant (4) Tranquiliser
Sol. Answer (1)
Hallucinogens change one's behaviour, thoughts, feelings and perceptions without any actual sensory stimulus.
Sedative: Barbiturate and benzodiazepines – Depress brain activity and produce feelings of calmness,
relaxation, drowsiness and deep sleep.
Stimulant: Caffeine, cocaine, amphetamines– Stimulate nervous system, increases alertness, produce
excitement.
Tranquilisers: Benzodiazepines– Act as anti-depressants.
20. Tick mark the incorrect match with respect to the drug, source and its action.
Durg Source Action

(1) Smack Latex of poppy Depressant slows
plant Papaver down body functions
somniferum
(2) Cocaine Sense of euphoria
and increased
energy
(3) Coke Atropa Hallucinations
belladona
(4) Hashish Cannabis Hallucinations, affects
sativa cardiovascular system
Sol. Answer (3)
Drug Source Action
Coke Erythroxylum coca Hallucinations
Rest all options are correct.
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? [NEET-2018]
(1) Psoriasis (2) Rheumatoid arthritis (3) Vitiligo (4) Alzheimer's disease
Sol. Answer (4)
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies are produced against the synovial membrane
and cartilage.
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also characterised as autoimmune disorder.
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy or sore patches of thick red skin and is also autoimmune whereas
Alzheimer's disease is due to deficiency of neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
2. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
[NEET-2018]
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ascariasis (3) Amoebiasis (4) Ringworm disease
Sol. Answer (1)
Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by Culex mosquito.
3. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”? [NEET-2018]
(1) Flowers (2) Latex (3) Leaves (4) Roots
Sol. Answer (2)
‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is formed by acetylation of morphine. It is obtained from the latex
of unripe capsule of Poppy plant.
4. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of
immune-response is responsible for such rejections? [NEET-2017]
(1) Autoimmune response (2) Cell-mediated immune response
(3) Hormonal immune response (4) Physiological immune response
Sol. Answer (2)
Non-acceptance or rejection of graft or transplanted tissues/organs is due to cell mediated immune response.
5. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II) and select
the correct option. [NEET-2017]
Column - I Column- II
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma virus
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (1)
Gonorrhoea – Neisseria (Bacteria)
Syphilis – Treponema (Bacteria)
Genital Warts – Human papilloma virus (Virus)
AIDS – HIV (Virus)
6. MALT constitutes about ___________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body [NEET-2017]
(1) 50% (2) 20% (3) 70% (4) 10%
Sol. Answer (1)
MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue and it constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in
human body.
7. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Cholera and tetanus (2) Typhoid and smallpox
(3) Tetanus and mumps (4) Herpes and influenza
Sol. Answer (1)
Cholera is caused by a bacterium Vibrio cholerae and tetanus is caused by a bacterium Clostridium tetani.
8. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse
transcriptase
(2) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules
of reverse transcriptase
(3) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
(4) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response
Sol. Answer (2)
Causative agent of AIDS is HIV which is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of ssRNA and
two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
9. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations? [NEET-2016]
(1) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
(2) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle
(3) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
(4) Mutations inactivate the cell control
Sol. Answer (1)
Cancerous cells have high telomerase activity. Telomerase inhibitors are used in cancer treatment.
10. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain
[NEET-2016]
(1) Attenuated pathogens (2) Activated pathogens
(3) Harvested antibodies (4) Gamma globulin
Sol. Answer (1)
Oral polio vaccine consists of attenuated pathogen.
11. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due
to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to [NEET-2016]
(1) Active immunity (2) Allergic response
(3) Graft rejection (4) Auto-immune disease
Sol. Answer (4)
In autoimmune diseases, the immune cells are unable to distinguish between self cells and non-self cells and
attack self cells.
12. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers [NEET-2016]
(1) Methane (2) Nitrous oxide
(3) Ozone (4) Ammonia
Sol. Answer (3)
Ozone is found in the upper part of the atmosphere called stratosphere and it acts as a shield absorbing
ultraviolet radiation from sun and so its depletion can lead to incidence of skin cancers.
13. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Innate immune response (2) Humoral immune response
(3) Cell-mediated immune response (4) Passive immune response
Sol. Answer (3)
Cell mediated immunity (CMI) is responsible for graft rejection.
14. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for
confirmatory evidence? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Serum globulins (2) Fibrinogen in plasma
(3) Serum albumins (4) Haemocytes
Sol. Answer (1)
Antibodies are present in serum. They are glycoproteins and also called gammaglobulins synthesized in lymph
nodes.
15. Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
[Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) IgG (2) IgD (3) IgM (4) IgA
Sol. Answer (4)
IgA is present in external body secretion including colostrum and milk. They provide naturally acquired passive
immunity to child.
16. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine [AIPMT-2015]
Column-I Column-II
a. Tuberculosis (i) Harmless virus
b. Whooping cough (ii) Inactivated toxin
c. Diphtheria (iii) Killed bacteria
d. Polio (iv) Harmless bacteria
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (4)
Tuberculosis vaccine BCG contains inactivated bacteria.
In DPT, contains killed pathogen of Bordetella pertussis which causes whooping cough.
In DPT diphtheria toxoid is present. Sabin polio vaccine contains inactivated virus.
17. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Ebola virus (2) Hepatitis B virus
(3) Human immunodeficiency virus (4) Chikungunya virus
Sol. Answer (4)
Chikungunya is caused by Arbovirus and transmitted through the bite of Aedes mosquito.
18. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Thrombocytes (2) B lymphocytes (3) Leucocytes (4) Helper T lymphocytes
Sol. Answer (4)
Macrophages are HIV factory, not destroyed by AIDS virus. HIV destroys Helper-T-cells, because after
replication the virus is released by lysis of the cell.
19. Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the
atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Increased liver cancer (2) Increased skin cancer
(3) Reduced Immune System (4) Damage to eyes
Sol. Answer (1)
Liver cancer can be caused due to aflatoxin (released by Aspergillus fungus), Vinyl chloride but UV-rays do
not cause cancer of liver.
20. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Blood only (2) Erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon
(3) Mucosa and submucosa of colon only (4) Food in intestine
Sol. Answer (2)
Entamoeba histolytica is present in the colon, feeds on mucosa and submucosa and can also phagocytose
RBCs.
21. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Morchella esculenta (2) Amanita muscaria (3) Neurospora sp. (4) Ustilago sp.
Sol. Answer (2)
Amanita muscaria is noted for its hallucinogenic properties, with its main psychoactive constituent being the
compound muscimol.
22. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?
[AIPMT-2014]
(1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant (3) Stimulant (4) Pain killer

Sol. Answer (1)
The given diagram is flowering branch of Datura.
23. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
(2) When the infected retro virus enters host cells
(3) When HIV damages large number of helper T lymphocytes
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
Sol. Answer (3)
Fall in number of helper T-lymphocytes causes lowering of immunity.
24. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by [NEET-2013]

(1) Eating imperfectly cooked pork (2) Tse-tse fly
(3) Mosquito bite (4) Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
Sol. Answer (4)
25. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by [NEET-2013]
(1) B lymphocytes (2) Thrombocytes (3) Eythrocytes (4) T lymphocytes
Sol. Answer (4)
26. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(2) Gout - Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
(3) Muscular dystrophy - Age related shortening of muscles
(4) Osteoporosis - Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
Sol. Answer (4)
27. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but
not the lungs
(2) Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease
(3) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no
effective vaccine
(4) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus
influenzae
Sol. Answer (1)
Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not
the lungs.
28. Widal Test is carried out to test [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Typhoid fever (2) Malaria
(3) Diabetes mellitus (4) HIV/AIDS
Sol. Answer (1)
29. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Cocaine (2) Opium
(3) Alcohol (4) Tobacco (Chewing)
Sol. Answer (3)
With continued alcohol intake, there is destruction of hepatocytes and fibroblasts (cells which form fibres) and
stimulation of collagen protein formation. This leads to Cirrhosis (liver damage from a variety of causes/
replacement of liver cells by fibrosis and lumps that occur due to attempted repair of damaged tissue) of liver.
30. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are?
(1) They show contact inhibition
(2) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients
(3) They do not remain confined in the area of formation
(4) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
Sol. Answer (1)
They do not show contact inhibition. Contact inhibition is a properly of normal cells in which dividing cells
when in contact with other cells are inhibited for their uncontrolled growth.
31. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Human liver (2) Gut of female Anopheles
(3) Salivary glands of Anopheles (4) Human RBCs
Sol. Answer (2)
Gamete formation starts in human RBC's but rest process continues in Anopheles (female) from mouth gametes
enters into stomach and reproduce sexually to produce zygote.
32. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of
immunity? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
Examples Type of immunity
(1) Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital – Physiological barriers
tract and the HCl in stomach
(2) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes – Cellular barriers
(3) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections – Active immunity
(4) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes – Physical barriers
Sol. Answer (2)
The corrected match are:
(1) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes– Physiological barriers.
(2) Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital tract– Physical barrier.
(3) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections– Passive immunity.
33. Which one of the following sets of items in the options 1-4 are correctly categorised with one exception in
it? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
Items Category Exception
(1) UAA, UAG, UGA Stop codons UAG
(2) Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat Australian marsupials Wombat
(3) Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma Protozoan parasites Cuscuta
(4) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria Bacterial diseases Diphtheria
Sol. Answer (3)
34. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use
CH3
O
N CH3 OH
O
H
(a) O (b) OH
H O
Options : [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
Molecule Source Use
(1) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine
(2) (b) Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows down body functions
(3) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa belladona Produces hallucinations
(4) (a) Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer
Sol. Answer (4)

(a) is morphine (b) is cannabinoid molecule
35. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B lymphocytes
(2) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake
(3) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T lymphocytes
(4) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains
Sol. Answer (2)
Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
(2) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by B-lymphocytes.
(3) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has 2 heavy chain and 2 light chains.
(4) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of T-lymphocytes.
36. Read the following statements (A-D)
(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.
(B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium.
(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants.
(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice.
How many of the above statement is/are wrong? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
Sol. Answer (2)
Corrected statements:
(1) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antibodies.
(3) Chikungunya is caused by a virus.
(4) Beer is manufactured without distillation of fermented grape juice.
37. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human body?
(1) Skin (2) Epithelium of urogenital tract
(3) Tears (4) Monocytes
Sol. Answer (3)
38. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
(2) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering form malaria
(4) Spleen of infected humans
Sol. Answer (2)
Salivary glands of infected female Anopheles mosquito contains sporozoites.
Life cycle of malaria takes place in liver and RBC of human not in spleen.
39. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering form Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic
technique will you recommend for its detection? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) WIDAL (2) ELISA (3) MRI (4) Ultrasound
Sol. Answer (2)
Enzyme linked immuno sorbent assay– Test that uses antibodies and colour change to identify HIV (antigen).
WIDAL– Typhoid
MRI– Magnetic Resonance Imaging– Cancer.
Ultrasound– Used in medical imaging (visual representation of interior of body).
40. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine
(2) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation
(3) If due to some reason B and T lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against
a pathogen
(4) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity
Sol. Answer (3)
41. Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B).
“A drug used for (A) patients is obtained from a species of the organism (B) .”
The one correct option for the two blanks is [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
Blank-A Blank-B
(1) Swine flu Monascus
(2) AIDS Pseudomonas
(3) Heart Penicillium
(4) Organ transplant Trichoderma
Sol. Answer (4)
42. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

(1) Caused by a Gram-negative bacterium (2) Not an infectious disease
(3) Caused by a virus (4) Caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
Sol. Answer (3)
Antibiotics are taken against bacterial infections not against viral infections.
Common cold is an infectious disease.
43. Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and
mode of infection [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
Disease Causative Organisms Mode of Infection
(1) Elephantiasis Wuchereria bancrofti With infected water and food

(2) Malaria Plasmodium vivax Bite of male Anopheles mosquito
(3) Typhoid Salmonella typhi With inspired air

(4) Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniae Droplet infection
Sol. Answer (4)
44. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom of
organisms as that of [AIPMT(Mains)-2011]
(1) Rhizopus, a mould (2) Ascaris, a round worm
(3) Taenia, a tapeworm (4) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
Sol. Answer (1)
45. Select the correct statement from the ones given below: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
(2) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer.
(3) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
(4) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
Sol. Answer (2)
46. Ringworm in humans is caused by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Viruses (2) Bacteria (3) Fungi (4) Nematodes
Sol. Answer (3)
Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton are fungi causing ring worm.
47. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers
(2) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person
(3) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection
(4) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition
Sol. Answer (1)
48. Fastest distribution of some injectible material/ medicine and with no risk of any kind can be achieved by
injecting it into the [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Muscles (2) Arteries (3) Veins (4) Lymph vessels
Sol. Answer (3)
49. Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (2) Radiography (X-ray)
(3) Computed tomography (CT) (4) Histopathological studies
Sol. Answer (1)
50. A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and fever at the time
when? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) The sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen
(2) The trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins
(3) The parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh
RBCs
(4) The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs
Sol. Answer (3)
51. Which one of the following cannot be used for preparation of vaccines against plague?[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Formalin-inactivated suspensions of virulent bacteria
(2) Avirulent live bacteria
(3) Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material
(4) Heat-killed suspensions of virulent bacteria
Sol. Answer (3)
52. Consider the following four statements (a–d) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out
of these.
a. Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immuno-suppresants for a long
time.
b. The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
c. The B lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.
d. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons.
The two correct statements are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) a & b (2) b & c (3) c & d (4) a & c
Sol. Answer (1)
Corrected statements are:
c. The T-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.
d. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on matching of tissue.
53. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Preformed antibodies (2) Wide spectrum antibiotics
(3) Weakened germs (4) Dead germs
Sol. Answer (1)
54. Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Glutamic acid (2) Acetylcholine
(3) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) (4) Dopamine
Sol. Answer (2)
55. Which one of the following statements is correct ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis.
(2) Heroin accelerates body functions.
(3) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis.
(4) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain.
Sol. Answer (3)
56. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Nausea (2) Cough (3) Headache (4) Allergy
Sol. Answer (4)
57. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?
(1) Physical barriers (2) Cytokine barriers (3) Cellular barriers (4) Physiological barriers
Sol. Answer (4)
58. Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/treatment) in Column II
Column I Column II
a. Amoebiasis (i) Treponema palladium
b. Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food and water
c. Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
d. Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
Sol. Answer (1)
59. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
(1) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
(2) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
(3) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
(4) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
Sol. Answer (2)
The corrected statments are:
(1) Barbiturates depresses brain activity and produce feeling of calmness, relaxation.
(3) Opium suppresses brain function and produce temporary euphoria.
(4) Morphine relieve pain and called analgesic.
60. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) It is a non-living layer (2) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(3) It has no blood supply (4) It is composed of enucleated cells
Sol. Answer (3)
61. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) 45–70 MHz (2) 30–45 MHz (3) 15–30 MHz (4) 1–15 MHz
Sol. Answer (4)
62. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Most virus-infected cells (2) Certain fungi
(3) Certain types of bacteria (4) All viruses
Sol. Answer (3)
63. A person showing upredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others
is suffering from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Schizophrenia (2) Borderline personality disorder (BPD)
(3) Mood disorders (4) Addictive disorders
Sol. Answer (2)
64. Antibodies in our body are complex [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Lipoproteins (2) Steroids (3) Prostaglandins (4) Glycoproteins
Sol. Answer (4)
65. Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Bacteria-related diseases (2) Congenital disorders
(3) Pollutant-induced disorders (4) Virus-related diseases
Sol. Answer (2)
66. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) All lymphocytes (2) Activator B cells
(3) T4 lymphocytes (4) Cytotoxic T cells
Sol. Answer (3)
67. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation and
drowsiness? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Valium (2) Morphine (3) Hashish (4) Amphetamines
Sol. Answer (1)
68. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus?
(1) Rabies, mumps (2) Cholera, tuberculosis
(3) Typhoid, tetanus (4) AIDS, syphilis
Sol. Answer (1)
Rabies– Rhabdo virus, Mumps– Paramyxo virus Cholera, Tuberculosis, Typhoid, tetanus, syphilis are caused
by bacteria.
AIDS caused by HIV virus.
69. Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known as
(1) Villi (2) Peyer's patches
(3) Rugae (4) Choroid plexus
Sol. Answer (2)
Villi– small, finger- like projections that protrude from thee epithelial lining of intestinal wall.
Rugae– large folds in the mucous membrane.
Choroid plexus– is a plexus in the ventricles of the brain where cerebrospinal fluid is produced.
70. Which of the following is not the main function of lymph glands?
(1) Forming RBC (2) Destroying bacteria
(3) Forming WBC (4) Forming antibodies
Sol. Answer (1)
RBCs are formed in bone marrow.
Lymph glands serve to trap micro-organisms or other antigens which are present in lymph and tissues fluid.
These antigens activate lymphocytes which destroy these antigens.
71. Which one of the following is important as one of the first line of defence against inhaled and ingested
pathogen?
(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgM (4) IgD
Sol. Answer (1)
It is the main immunoglobulin found in mucous secretions, tears, saliva, sweat, colostrum and secretions from
urinogenital tract, gastro genital tract, prostate and respiratory epithelium, which are all physical and
physiological barriers of innate immunity.
72. Saline solution is given to patients of cholera because
(1) Na+ prevents water loss from body (2) NaCl function as regulatory material
(3) NaCl produces energy (4) NaCl is antibacterial
Sol. Answer (1)
As Na+ is solute and it retains solvent in the body thus preventing loss of water from the body.
73. Interferons are synthesized in response to
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Bacteria
(3) Viruses (4) Fungi
Sol. Answer (3)
Interferons stimulate synthesis of anti-viral proteins. So they are used to control viral diseases but they do not
kill the virus.
74. The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated disease is
(1) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(2) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
(3) Development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics
(4) Activation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
Sol. Answer (3)
Antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria medicated disease because due to continuous exposure
to antibiotics bacteria develops resistance against these antibiotics by undergoing mutations.
75. Carcinoma refers to
(1) Malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(2) Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(3) Malignant tumours of the bone
(4) Benign tumours of the connective tissue
Sol. Answer (2)
Carcinoma refers to malignant tumours of epithelial tissue derived from ectoderm.
76. A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ‘sarcoma’ if the disorder is in
(1) Fibroblasts (2) Circulatory system (3) Immune system (4) Epithelial cells
Sol. Answer (1)
Sarcomas are malignant growths arising in tissues derived from primitive mesoderm.
Fibroblasts are mesodermal in origin.
77. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a protein coat and a genetic material which is
(1) Double stranded RNA (2) Double stranded DNA
(3) Single stranded DNA (4) Single stranded RNA
Sol. Answer (4)
Two single stranded molecules of RNA are found in HIV.
78. Which of the following is a viral glycoprotein that plays a role in the infection of human cells by HIV?
(1) gp 120 (2) CD4 (3) CCR5 (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
gp 120 is viral glycoprotein
It interacts with CD4+ receptor of the host cell.
CCR5 acts as a co-receptor.
79. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) The antigen binding site of the antibody molecule is called ‘paratope’
(2) Toxoids provide with passive immunity
(3) ‘ATS’ anti-tetanus serum provides us with artificially induced passive immunity
(4) The first gene therapy was done for SCID in which the gene for the enzyme adenosine deaminase was
introduced
Sol. Answer (2)
Toxoids (inactive toxins) provide active immunity.
80. The modern idea about ageing is that our body slowly loses the power of defence against the invasion of germs
and pathogens. This process starts by the disappearance of which organ?
(1) Pituitary gland (2) Spleen (3) Thymus gland (4) Parathyroid gland
Sol. Answer (3)
Thymus provides an inductive environment for development of T-cells. Thymus begins atrophy (partial or complete
wasting away of a part of the body) with age which slows down the power of defence against the invasion of
germs.
81. Mark the incorrect statement
(1) Opioids are the drugs which bind to opioid receptors present in our central nervous system and
gastrointestinal tract
(2) Cocaine is obtained from coca plant Erythroxylum coca
(3) Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescence of the plant Cannabis sativa
(4) LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide) is most powerful hallucinogen extracted from Papaver somniferum
Sol. Answer (4)
LSD shows hallucinogenic properties and is obtained from Claviceps purpurea (fruiting body of fungus).
82. Which one of the following sets of items in the options (1) - (4) are incorrectly categorised with one exception
in it?
Items Category Exception
(1) PMNL, Interferons, NK cells Cellular barrier Interferons
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis, Myasthenia gravis, AIDS Auto-immune disorders AIDS
(3) Plasmodium, Trypanosoma Entamoeba Protozoan parasites Entamoeba
(4) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Dengue Bacterial diseases Dengue
Sol. Answer (3)

Entamoeba is also a protozoan parasite. Interferons are cytokine barriers
AIDS is not an auto-immune disorder Dengue is a viral disease
83. Which of the following organisation is mainly related with AIDS?
(1) NACO (2) DOTS (3) RCH (4) WHO
Sol. Answer (1)
(1) NACO : National AIDS control Organisation
(2) DOTS : Tuberculosis– Directly observed Treatment Short-course.
(3) RCH : Reproductive and child health care programme– main aim to reduce infant, child and maternal
mortality rates.
(4) WHO : World Health Organization– Concerned with public health.
84. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant
is categorised as
(1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity
(3) Cellular immunity (4) Innate non-specific immunity
Sol. Answer (2)
As readymade antibodies move across the placenta from mother to foetus.
Active immunity– When antibodies are produced in host body itself.
Cellular immunity: Immunity mediated by different type cells in body.
Innate non-specific immunity: Immunity present at the time of birth.
85. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?
(1) There are three main types - cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
(2) These originate in secondary lymphoid tissues
(3) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris
(4) These are produced in thyroid
Sol. Answer (1)
This is true about T-cells in mammals.
The corrected statements are:
(2) These originate in primary lymphoid tissues (bone marrow)
(3) Phagocytic cells like monocytes scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris.
(4) These get mature in thymus.
86. Which of the following pairs of diseases is viral as well as transmitted by mosquitoes?
(1) Elephantiasis and dengue (2) Yellow fever and sleeping sickness
(3) Encephalitis and sleeping sickness (4) Yellow fever and dengue
Sol. Answer (4)
Yellow fever and dengue are caused by virus and transmitted by Aedes mosquito.
Elephantiasis : Helminthic disease, transmitted by Culex mosquito.
Sleeping sickness : Protozoan disease, transmitted by tse-tse fly.
87. Identify the incorrectly matched pair
(1) Plague – Viral diseases (2) Malignant malaria – Plasmodium falciparum
(3) Common cold – Rhino virus (4) Trichophyton – Ring worm
Sol. Answer (1)
Corrected is: Plague: Bacterial disease
SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Live attenuated vaccine is better in terms of immunity provided to the recipient.
R : As secondary lymphoid organs, example peyer's patches are stimulated to protect the individual.
Sol. Answer (1)
2. A : Asthma patients must never be exposed to dust.
R : Allergic response may cause vasoconstriction and death.
Sol. Answer (4)
Asthma patients can be exposed to dust but they should avoid exposure to dust as it can act as an allergen.
Allergic response may cause vasodilation and death.
3. A : Colostrum is a very efficient means of transferring immunity to a newborn.
R : IgM from mother’s milk protects the baby from the respiratory infection usually affecting in young age.
Sol. Answer (3)
Colostrum is very efficient means of transferring immunity to new born because it has abundant antibodies (IgA)
to protect the infant.
IgA from mother's milk protects the baby from the respiratory infection usually affecting in young age.
4. A : Vaccine against AIDS has not been made inspite of repeated attempts.
R : HIV has the ability to get mutated to form several subtypes.
Sol. Answer (1)
5. A : Antibiotics like penicillin can be used to treat common cold.

R : Penicillin causes lysis of viral cells.
Sol. Answer (4)
Antibiotics like penicillin are taken against bacterial disease and common cold is viral disease.
Penicillin causes lysis of bacterial cells not viral cells.
6. A : It is considered advantageous to give the polio vaccine orally.

R : It prevents reinfection by causing intestinal immunity.
Sol. Answer (1)
7. A : Typhoid carriers may be cured by surgical removal of their gall bladder.
R : The disease germs remain concentrated in it.
Sol. Answer (1)
The bacteria of typhoid remain in gall bladder.
8. A : Cancer is contagious and cells can spread from one person to other.
R : Cancerous cells are highly dedifferentiated cells.
Sol. Answer (4)
Cancer is not contagious and cells do not spread from one person to other.
9. A : A person who has received a cut accidentally and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment.
R : Anti-tetanus injection provides active immunity by providing preformed antibodies for tetanus.
Sol. Answer (3)
A person who has received a cut accident and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment because
antigen causing tetanus may have entered the body against which preformed antibodies have to be injected
to avoid the effect of antigen.
Anti-tetanus injection provides passive immunity by providing preformed antibodies for tetanus.
10. A : LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.

R : Both these drugs suppress brain function.
Sol. Answer (4)
LSD and marijuana are hallucinogens.
Both these drugs do not suppress brain function instead they alter thoughts, feelings and perceptions.

Chapter 18
Strategies for Enhancement in
Food Production
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Animal Husbandry)
1. Animal husbandry deals with
(1) Only caring of livestock (2) Only breeding of livestock
(3) Both caring and breeding of livestock (4) Slaughtering of livestock
Sol. Answer (3)
Animal husbandry is the agricultural practice of breeding and raising livestock, which are useful to humans.
2. Which of the following animal is not included in livestock?

(1) Pig (2) Buffalo (3) Goat (4) Rhinoceros
Sol. Answer (4)
Livestock are the animals which are raised for our profit. It includes pig, buffalo, goat but not rhinoceros.
3. It is estimated that more than _______ of the world livestock population is in India and China.
(1) 25% (2) 70% (3) 40% (4) 50%
Sol. Answer (2)
4. Contribution of India and China to world farm produce is only

(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 15% (4) 25%
Sol. Answer (4)
(Management of Farms and Farm Animals)
5. All the following are objectives of dairy farm management, except

(1) Improvement in quality of milk
(2) Selection of good breeds having high yielding potential
(3) Selection of breeds which are vulnerable to diseases
(4) Maintenance of quality and quantity of fodder
30 Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production Solution of Assignment
Sol. Answer (3)

Dairy farm management is the management of animals for milk and its products for human consumption and
it includes.
– Improvement in quality of milk.
– Selection of good breeds having high milk yielding potential.
– Maintenance of quality and quantity of fodder. Fodder should have all essential nutrients, vitamins, minerals
which ultimately improves the yield and quality of milk.
6. ________ is the management of animals for milk and its products for human consumption.
(1) Poultry (2) Dairying (3) Apiculture (4) Fisheries
Sol. Answer (2)
Dairying is the management of animals for milk and its products for human consumption.
Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl used for food and for their eggs.
Apiculture is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey.
Fisheries is an industry devoted to the catching, processing and selling of fish, shellfish or other aquatic
animals.
7. Which of the following measure is taken to realise the yield potential of cattle?
(1) Proper housing (2) Adequate supply of water and fodder
(3) Stringent cleanliness and hygiene (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Proper housing– Cattle have to be well looked after and have to be housed well.
Cattle should have adequate water and fodder.
Cattle should be regularly cleaned.
All these should be done to realise the yield potential of cattle.
8. In dairy farm management, we deal with processes and systems that increase yield and improve quality of
milk. Which of the following statement is incorrect in this regard?
(1) Milk yield is primarily dependent on the quality of milk, therefore selection of high yielding breed is very
important
(2) The quality and quantity of fodder provided to cattle do not contribute much to the milk yield
(3) Cleanliness and hygiene both of the cattle and handlers are of paramount importance while milking, storage
and transport of the milk and its products
(4) Regular inspections, visits by a veterinary doctor with proper record keeping help identify and rectify the
problems of cattle as early as possible thus ensuring a proper milk yield
Sol. Answer (2)
The quality and quantity of fodder provided to cattle contributes much to the milk yield.
Fodder should have nutrients, minerals, etc.
9. Which of the following birds are included in poultry?

(1) Chicken and ducks only (2) Chicken, ducks, turkey
(3) Chicken only (4) Chicken, ducks, turkey, geese
Sol. Answer (4)
It may include other birds too for meat.
Solution of Assignment Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production 31
10. The chances of contracting bird flu from a properly cooked (above 100°C) chicken and eggs are
(1) Very high (2) High (3) Moderate (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (4)
If the chicken and eggs are cooked properly (above 70°C or more) there is no chance of contracting bird flu
as the virus dies above this temperature.
11. Which of the following can drastically affect the egg and chicken consumption in a country?
(1) Bird flu (2) Inbreeding (3) Out-crossing (4) Cross-breeding
Sol. Answer (1)
Bird flu is a viral disease in birds. Presence of virus in the bird can drastically affect the eggs and chicken
consumption.
Inbreeding, out crossing and cross-breeding are methods of improving the quality of chicken and eggs.
(Animal Breeding)
12. A good breed of cattle means

(1) It should have high yielding potential (2) It should have resistance to diseases
(3) It should consume less amount of water (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
A good breed of cattle means it should have all the desirable qualities to produce high yield and quality
products. For this it should have high yielding potential and resistance to diseases.
Good amount of water and food should be consumed.
13. Controlled mating followed by selection in order to obtain superior genotypes of domesticated animals is known as
(1) Animal Breeding (2) Weeding (3) Feeding (4) Heeding
Sol. Answer (1)
Feeding– To give food or supply with nourishment.
Weeding– Removal of unwanted plants.
Heeding– To pay attention to, listen to and consider.
14. A group of animals which are related by descent and share many similarities are referred as
(1) Breed (2) Variety (3) Race (4) Species
Sol. Answer (1)
Variety– Varieties are usually the result of selective breeding and diverge from the parent species or sub-species
in relatively minor ways.
Race– Races may be distinct phenotypic populations within the same.
Species– Largest group of organisms capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offspring.
15. One of the following is an exotic breed of cattle

(1) Jersey (2) Leghorn
(3) Hisardale (4) None of the above is a breed of cattle
Sol. Answer (1)
Exotic breeds are foreign breeds.
Leghorn is an exotic breed of fowl.
Hissardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing of Bikaneri ewes and Merino rams.
16. Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it

(1) Increases vigour (2) Improves the breed
(3) Increases heterozygosity (4) Increases homozygosity
Sol. Answer (4)
Inbreeding increases homozygosity thus it is necessary to evolve pureline in any animal.
It involves accumulation of desired genes and removal of undesired genes which ultimately improves the breed.
17. Which of the following is necessary to evolve a pureline in any animal?

(1) Out-breeding (2) Out-crossing (3) Cross-breeding (4) In-breeding
Sol. Answer (4)
In this superior males are mated with superior females of same breed which gives superior progeny thus
increasing homozygosity and evolving pure line in any animal.
Outbreeding involves mating of unrelated animals with no common ancestors upto 4-6 generation of same breed
(out crossing) or breeding between different breeds (Cross-breeding).
Both types of out-breeding does not evolve pureline in any animal.
18. Mule is an example of

(1) Interspecific hybridization, obtained by crossing male donkey and female horse
(2) Interspecific hybridization, obtained by crossing female donkey and male horse
(3) Out-crossing, obtained by crossing male donkey and female horse
(4) Cross breeding, obtained by crossing female donkey and male horse
Sol. Answer (1)
Interspecific hybridization means breeding male and female of two different species. Here donkey and horse
are two different species forming a hybrid.
19. Hisardale, a new breed of sheep is produced through

(1) Out-crossing (2) In-breeding
(3) Cross-breeding (4) Interspecific hybridization
Sol. Answer (3)
Hisardale is a breed produced by cross-breeding of two different breeds of same species i.e., Bikaneri ewes
and Merino rams.
20. Artificial insemination is advantageous because

(1) It is economical and success rate of fertilization is high
(2) Several cows can be fertilised by the semen collected from one bull
(3) The semen can be stored frozen for a long period and can be easily transported to remote parts of the
country
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Artificial insemination is injection of semen collected from male chosen as parent into reproductive tract of
selected female by the breeder.
21. The process in which semen is collected from the male that is chosen as a parent and injected into the
reproductive tract of the selected female by the breeder is known as
(1) Animal breeding (2) Artificial insemination
(3) MOET (4) Artificial spermatogenesis
Sol. Answer (2)
Animal breeding – It is the normal breeding of animals to improve the breed.
MOET – (Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer): Involves administration of homones, with FSH-like activity, to
induce follicular maturation and superovulation. The fertilized eggs are then recovered non-surgically at 8-32
cells stage and transferred to surrogate mothers.
22. Following are the steps in MOET programme for herd improvement in which a cow has been administered
hormones with FSH like activity. Arrange steps A to D in their correct sequence in MOET
A. Transferred to surrogate mothers.
B. It produces 6-8 eggs instead of one egg which they normally yield per cycle.
C. It is artificially inseminated or mated with an elite bull.
D. Fertilised eggs at 32 celled stage are recovered non-surgically.
(1) B, A, C, D (2) C, A, B, D (3) B, C, A, D (4) B, C, D, A
Sol. Answer (4)
(Bee-keeping)
23. Which one of the following products of apiculture is used in cosmetics and polishes?
(1) Honey (2) Oil (3) Royal jelly (4) Beeswax
Sol. Answer (4)
Beeswax is secreted by abdominal wax glands of worker bees. It acts as an excellent support for moisturisers
and has an irritation potential of zero.
Honey has a medicinal value.
Oil– Mostly extracted from fishes.
Royal jelly– Secretion of young worker honey bees used for feeding larvae of future queens.
(Fisheries)
24. The term pisciculture means

(1) Inland fisheries (2) Aquatic plants (3) Marine fisheries (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Pisciculture is production of fishes (both fresh water & marine water)
Production of aquatic plants and aquatic animals are involved in aquaculture.
25. Blue revolution is enhancement in production of

(1) Milk (2) Egg (3) Fish (4) Wheat
Sol. Answer (3)
White revolution – Milk
Silver revolution – Egg
Green revolution – Wheat.
SECTION - B
(Management of Farms and Farm Animals)
1. The spread of bird flu can be prevented by
(1) Culling
(2) Breeding
(3) Separation of infected birds from the flock of undiseased ones
(4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Separation of infected birds from the flock of undiseased ones.
Culling– Segregating organisms from a group. In bird flu infected ones are segregated from non-infected ones.
2. Feeding constitutes the major management concern in poultry. It is required for high
(1) Egg production only
(2) Meat production only
(3) Both egg and meat production
(4) Feeding of birds in poultry is not of prime importance
Sol. Answer (3)
Feed should be nutrient rich for both egg and meat production.
3. To increase milk yield, cow is given

(1) Stilbesterol (2) Sorbitol (3) Gonadotropin (4) Prolactin
Sol. Answer (1)
Stilbesterol induces lactation
Sorbitol is given to relieve heart pain.
Prolactin is a pituitary hormone naturally present in animals which induces lactation.
4. Which of the following disease is caused by a protozoan Eimeria in fowls resulting in bloody diarrhoea?
(1) Fowl cholera (2) Coccidiosis (3) Thrush (4) Ranikhet
Sol. Answer (2)
Fowl Cholera– Pathogen Pasteurella (bacteria).
Thrush– Fungal infection.
Ranikhet– Viral infection.
5. If a cattle is showing increased respiration and blood mixed foamy discharge from mouth, nose and anus, it
is likely to be suffering from
(1) Rinderpest (2) Mad cow disease (3) Ranikhet (4) Anthrax
Sol. Answer (4)
Anthrax is a bacterial disease caused by Bacillus anthracis.
(Animal Breeding)
6. Which of the following is not an objective of animal breeding?

(1) Increasing yield of milk, eggs, meat, wool etc.
(2) Improving the desirable qualities of produce
(3) Slow growth rate
(4) Resistance to various diseases
Sol. Answer (3)
Improved growth rate is an objective of animal breeding.
7. An out-cross is produced when animals

(1) Within the same breed having common ancestors are mated
(2) Within the same breed having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree upto 4-6 generations
are mated
(3) Of different breeds are mated
(4) Of different species are mated
Sol. Answer (2)
Option (1) Defines inbreeding
Option (3) Defines cross-breeding
Option (4) Defines interspecific hybridisation.
8. Which of the following is practised to overcome for average productivity in animals w.r.t. milk production, growth
rate in beef cattle etc?
(1) Out-crossing (2) Cross-breeding
(3) Interspecific hybridization (4) Inbreeding
Sol. Answer (1)
Cross-breeding allows desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined.
Interspecific hybridization– Combine desirable features of two different species.
Inbreeding– Mainly increases homozygosity.
9. Hissardale, a new breed of sheep, developed in Punjab is obtained by crossing

(1) Bikaneri ewes and Merino rams (2) Merino ewes and Bikaneri rams
(3) Bikaneri ewes and Bikaneri rams (4) Merino ewes and Merino rams
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact
10. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. inbreeding?

(1) Inbreeding increases homozygosity
(2) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection
(3) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of deleterious alleles and elimination of desirable alleles
(4) Inbreeding helps in developing a pure-line in animal
Sol. Answer (3)
Inbreeding helps in accumulation of desirable alleles and elimination of deleterious alleles.
11. Artificial breeding of cattle is brought about by

(1) Artificial insemination (2) Superovulation and embryo transplantation
(3) Interspecific hybridization (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Interspecific hybridisation is breeding of male and female of two different species.
12. The hormone injected to cow to induce follicular maturation and superovulation is having ______ like activity
(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone (3) Testosterone (4) FSH
Sol. Answer (4)
Follicle stimulating hormone– Stimulates the formation of follicle.
Estrogen– Causes proliferation of endometrium.
Progesterone– Functions in maintaining endometrium.
Testosterone– Male hormone- development of sperm (Spermatogenesis)
13. MOET has not been practiced in

a. Cattle b. Sheep c. Rabbits d. Poultry
(1) b, c & d (2) b & d (3) d only (4) c only
Sol. Answer (3)
14. Pure line breed refers to

(1) Heterozygosity only (2) Heterozygosity and linkage
(3) Homozygosity only (4) Homozygosity and self assortment
Sol. Answer (3)
When more closely related individuals are mated within the same breed for 4-6 generations the progeny obtained
is with increased homozygosity. Thus, a pureline is evolved.
15. A cow which give more milk per lactation is evolve into pure line by mating with superior bull of same breed
for 4-6 generation. Which type of breeding is being referred to in this case?
(1) Inbreeding (2) Outbreeding (3) Cross breeding (4) Out crossing
Sol. Answer (1)
For evolving a pureline inbreeding in necessary.
16. Which of the following is correct to check the inbreeding depression?

(1) Artificial hybridisation
(2) Cross breeding
(3) Selected animal should be mated with unrelated superior animals of the same breed
(4) Selected animal should be mated with unrelated superior animals of the different breed
Sol. Answer (3)
A single outcross can even overcome inbreeding depression.
17. Ranikhet is disease of

(1) Poultry (2) Fishery (3) Apiculture (4) Cattle
Sol. Answer (1)
Ranikhet is viral disease of poultry.
18. Match the following
Column I Column II
a. Kashmiri goats (i) Superior carpet wool
b. Tibetian antelope (ii) Pashmina
c. Rabbit (iii) Shahtoosh
d. Sheep (Nali) (iv) Angoora
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (2)
a. Kashmiri goats– Pashmina: fine and soft wool used for shawls.
b Tibetian antelope– Shahtoosh: King of wool.
c. Rabbit– Angoora: Type of wool.
d. Sheep (Nali): Superior carpet wool.
(Bee-keeping)
19. Rearing of bees is
(1) Horticulture
(2) Apiary
(3) Apiculture
(4) Poultry
Sol. Answer (3)
Horticulture– is the branch of agriculture that deals with the art, science, technology and business of plant
cultivation.
Apiary– is a place where beehives of honey bees are kept.
Poultry– is the class of domesticated fowl used for food and for the eggs.
20. The most common species of honeybee reared commercially in artificial hives in India is
(1) Apis indica (2) Apis florea
(3) Apis mellifera (4) Apis dorsata
Sol. Answer (3)
It is an exotic breed of honeybee. It is also called as European honeybee or Italian bee.
This species of honeybee reared commercially in artificial hives in India because it is a better or efficient honey
producer than other Indian species. So to fulfill the needs of increasing population it is reared artificially.
Apis indica– Most common Indian species of honeybee.
Apis florea– Little bee or smallest honeybee.
Apis dorsata– The giant bee or rock bee. It is a defensive bee and it is not domesticated.
21. A queen honeybee lays eggs of

(1) One type from which all castes develop
(2) Two types, one forming queen and workers and second type forming drones
(3) Three types forming queen, drone and workers
(4) Unfertilized-eggs die while fertilized ones form all castes
Sol. Answer (2)
Queen lays two types of eggs–
Fertilized eggs – Forms queen and workers.
Unfertilized eggs – Forms drones (Parthenogenesis).
(Fisheries)
22. Which of the following are edible marine fishes?
(1) Hilsa, Catla, Sardines
(2) Sardines, Mackerel, Rohu
(3) Hilsa, Sardines, Mackerel
(4) Mackerel, Pomfrets, Common carp
Sol. Answer (3)
23. Aquaculture does not include production of

(1) Useful aquatic plants (2) Fish (3) Prawns (4) Silk
Sol. Answer (4)
Aquaculture includes all aquatic animals and plants production, which are useful to humans.
Production of silk is sericulture.
(Sericulture)
24. Pebrine in silkworm is caused by
(1) Dugesia (2) Monocystis (3) Nosema (4) Tachina flies
Sol. Answer (3)
Nosema bomycis causes pebrine disease in silkworm.
25. Shahtoosh is obtained from

(1) Lohi (2) Patanwadi (3) Chiru (4) Marwari
Sol. Answer (3)
Chiru is a Tibetian antelope. Shahtoosh– King of wools.
Lohi (breed of sheep)– Good quality wool, milk.
Patanwadi (breed of sheep)– Wool for army hosiery.
Marwari (breed of sheep)– Coarse wool.
SECTION - C
1. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by
[NEET- 2017]
(1) Mating of related individuals of same breed
(2) Mating of unrelated individuals of same breed
(3) Mating of individuals of different breed
(4) Mating of individuals of different species
Sol. Answer (1)
Inbreeding results in increase in the homozygosity. Therefore, mating of the related individuals of same breed
will increase homozygosity.
2. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan? [Re-AIPMT- 2015]
(1) Blastomycosis (2) Syphilis (3) Influenza (4) Babesiosis
Sol. Answer (4)
Babesiosis is a disease caused by a protozoan, Babesia bigemina. The vector is tick, so disease is also called
tick fever in cattle.
3. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal husbandry because it [Re-AIPMT- 2015]

(1) Exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
(2) Helps in accumulation of superior genes.
(3) Is useful in producing purelines of animals.
(4) Is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression
Sol. Answer (4)
A single outcross (a type of outbreeding) is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression.
4. Which one of the following is viral disease of poultry? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Pasteurellosis (2) Salmonellosis (3) Coryza (4) New Castle disease
Sol. Answer (4)
New Castle disease– Caused by New Castle disease virus (NDV).
Coryza-Bacterial disease: Haemophilus paragallinarum.
Pasteurellosis– Bacterial disease: Pasteurella
Salmonellosis– Bacterial disease: Salmonella
5. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) From this upto eight identical twins can be produced
(2) The egg is divided into four pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of others cows
(3) In the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted
into the womb of other cows
(4) In the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in
culture media
Sol. Answer (3)
6. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Bacterium (2) Prion (3) Worm (4) Virus
Sol. Answer (2)
7. The world’s highly prized wool yielding ‘Pashmina’ breed is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Sheep
(2) Goat
(3) Goat-sheep cross
(4) Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
8. The term aquaculture means

(1) Inland fisheries (2) Culture fishery only
(3) Marine fisheries (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Aquaculture involves production of all useful aquatic plants and animals. It involves both inland and marine
fisheries.
9. Mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generation is
(1) Outbreeding (2) Interspecific breeding
(3) Inbreeding (4) Cross breeding
Sol. Answer (3)
Interspecific breeding– Mating of different species.
Cross-breeding– Mating of different breeds of same species.
10. Inland fisheries involve

(1) Culturing fish in ponds
(2) Culturing endogenous breed of fish in deep sea and coastal areas
(3) Culturing exotic breed of fish in estuaries
(4) Culturing any breed of fish in marine water
Sol. Answer (1)
Inland fisheries include fresh water fisheries.
Deep sea and coastal areas, Estuaries, Marine water, all are marine water sources
11. Inbreeding depression occurs due to

(1) Continued out crossing within the small local population
(2) Continued cross breeding within the small local population
(3) Continued inbreeding within the small local population
(4) Interspecific hybridisation
Sol. Answer (3)
Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity.
12. Fishery is an industry devoted
(1) To the catching of fishes
(2) To the catching and processing of fishes and shell fishes
(3) To the catching, processing and selling of fishes, shell fishes, crabs, prawns etc.
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
13. Which of the following types of bees intimate source of food to other workers by dancing movements?
(1) Drones (2) Scout bees (3) Nurse bees (4) Queen bees
Sol. Answer (2)
Drones– Fertile males: Fertilize the queen.
Queen bees– Fertile females: Give birth to new bees or offspring.
Nurse bees– Worker bee that look after young ones.
14. Which one is wrongly matched?

(1) Apiculture – Honey bee only
(2) Aquaculture – Fish only
(3) Sericulture – Silk moth only
(4) Poultry – Ducks
Sol. Answer (2)
Aquaculture involves production of all aquatic plants and animals.
15. Three carp fishes, Catla, Labeo and Cirrhina, can be grown together in the same pond more economically,
as they have
(1) Positive interactions (2) Commensalism
(3) Symbiosis (4) No competition for food
Sol. Answer (4)
As these carps have different feeding habits.
16. Out-crossing, cross-breeding and interspecific hybridization are included in

(1) Inbreeding (2) Out-breeding
(3) Inbreeding depression (4) Farm management
Sol. Answer (2)
Farm management: Management of farm like poultry farm, dairy farm etc.
17. In polyculture two or more than two species of fishes are grown together in the same water body based on
their
(1) Size (2) Feeding habits (3) Reproductive habit (4) Mode of respiration
Sol. Answer (2)
Different fishes can be cultured together as they have different feeding habits so there will be no competition
for food.
18. Which of the following animal diseases is caused by a virus?

(1) Anthrax (2) Rinderpest (3) Tick fever (4) Coccidiosis
Sol. Answer (2)
Anthrax– Bacterial disease
Tick fever– Protozoan disease
Coccidiosis– Protozoan disease.
19. Mark the viral disease in cattle

(1) Cattle plague (2) Anthrax
(3) Foot and mouth disease (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
20. White revolution is associated with enhancement of

(1) Fish production (2) Egg production
(3) Milk production (4) Wheat and rice production
Sol. Answer (3)
Fish production – Blue revolution
Egg production – Silver revolution.
Wheat and rice production – Green revolution.
21. Brooders pneumonia disease is connected with

(1) Honey bee (2) Hens (3) Fish (4) Pigs
Sol. Answer (2)
Brooders pneumonia is a fungal disease of poultry and observed in almost all birds.
22. Shahtoosh, the king of wools is obtained from

(1) Chiru (2) Kashmiri goat (3) Merino sheep (4) Rabbit
Sol. Answer (1)
Kashmiri goat– Pashmina
Merino sheep (exotic breed)– Soft and fine wool
Rabbit– Angoora wool
23. Tassar silk is obtained from

(1) Antherea roylei (2) Bombyx mori (3) Apis indica (4) Apis dorsata
Sol. Answer (1)
Tassar silk is obtained from oak-feeding larvae of silk moth. Mulberry silk is obtained from Bombyx mori.
Apis indica and Apis dorsata are different species of honey bees.
24. A protozoan disease of silk worm is

(1) Muscardine (2) Pebrine (3) Maggot disease (4) Flacherie
Sol. Answer (2)
Muscardine– Fungal disease
Flacherie– Viral disease
Maggot disease– Parasite larvae of fly.
25. Which among the following is the real product of the honey bee?
(1) Honey (2) Propolis (3) Pollen (4) Bee wax
Sol. Answer (4)
It is secreted by abdominal wax glands of the worker bees.
Honey– is made by using nectar of flowers.
Propolis– it is a plant product. It is a resin from pollen grains.
Pollen– it is a fine coarse powder containing microgametophytes of seed plants. The worker bees collect pollen
in their pollen basket on their hind legs.
26. High milk yielding varieties of cows are obtained by

(1) Use of surrogate mothers (2) Super ovulation
(3) Artificial insemination (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
They are part of MOET.
27. Choose the species of honey bee that is most commonly found in Indian subcontinent
(1) Apis mellifera (2) Apis dorsata (3) Apis florea (4) Apis indica
Sol. Answer (4)
Apis mellifera– Italian bee.
Apis indica– Most common Indian species of honeybee.
Apis florea– Little bee or smallest honeybee.
Apis dorsata– The giant bee or rock bee. It is a defensive bee and it is not domesticated.
28. Entomophily through bees has resulted in enhanced production of crops, except
(1) Sunflower (2) Strawberry (3) Pears (4) Banana
Sol. Answer (4)
Entomophily– Pollination by insects
Banana crops do not exhibit pollination as their seeds are formed parthenogenetically.
SECTION - D
1. A : Bulls not selected for breeding are castrated when young and converted to bullocks.
R : They are the main source of animal drought power in India.
Sol. Answer (2)
Castrated bulls are also used as drought animals.
2. A : Anthrax is caused by a bacterium.

R : Anthrax develops only in buffaloes and can't be transferred to human.
Sol. Answer (3)
Anthrax can develop in cattle, buffaloes, horse, sheep, goats and it can be transferred to human.
3. A : In anthrax, the animal dies due to lack of oxygen.

R : The anthrax bacterium uses up the oxygen carried by the animal blood.
Sol. Answer (1)
4. A : Goat is called 'poor man's cow'.

R : It yields only a small quantity of milk.
Sol. Answer (1)
5. A : Multivoltine silkworms give upto eight crops per year.

R : Their cocoons contain a small amount of silk.
Sol. Answer (2)
Multivoltine silkworms are found in Bengal and Karnataka..
6. A : The Arabian camel is the only kind found in India.

R : The size of the hump is good indicator of its nourishment.
Sol. Answer (2)
The hump of camel contains fat.
7. A : Sericin is a gummy substance which is usually retained in case of silk till the yarn or fabric stage.
R : Sericin gives protection during processing.
Sol. Answer (1)
8. A : Poultry farming has definite advantage over live-stock rearing.

R : Poultry birds are easy to raise, can be acclimatised to a wide range of climatic conditions, have short life
span and are prolific breeders.
Sol. Answer (1)
Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason correctly explains assertion.
9. A : Encephalomalacia, disease of poultry is caused by the protozoan Eimeria.

R : Encephalomalacia causes bloody diarrhoea in poultry.
Sol. Answer (4)
Encephalomalacia, disease of poultry is caused by deficiency of vitamin E in which softening of brain tissue
occurs.
10. A : Fish meal is a rich source of protein for cattle and poultry.
R : Fish meal is prepared from the non-edible parts of fishes such as tails, fins and bones.
Sol. Answer (2)

Chapter 19
Biotechnology - Principles
and Processes
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Principles of Biotechnology)
1. Select the option that is incorrect w.r.t. traditional hybridisation
(1) Procedure extensively used in plant breeding
(2) Often leads to inclusion of undesirable genes
(3) Involves selective inclusion and multiplication of desired genes only
(4) Enabled qualitative and quantitative improvement in food production
Sol. Answer (3)
Involves inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with desired genes.
2. Which of the following is the most accepted definition of biotechnology by European Federation of
Biotechnology?
(1) Maintenance of sterile ambience for enabling growth of desired microbe/eukaryotic cell in large quantities
(2) Technique of using live organism or enzyme from organisms to produce products and processes useful
to animals
(3) Process which use genetically engineered animals only on a large scale for benefit of mankind
(4) The integration of natural science and organisms cells, parts thereof and molecular analogues for products
and services
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
(Tools of Recombinant DNA Technologies)
3. Credit for construction of first recombinant DNA may be given to

(1) Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace (2) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
(3) Meselson and Stahl (4) Esther and Joshua Lederberg
Sol. Answer (2)
Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer (Fact/Data)
In 1972 they constructed 1st recombinant DNA.
46 Biotechnology - Principles and Processes Solution of Assignment
4. Which of the following enzymes has been incorrectly matched with their function?
(1) Ligase – Molecular glue
(2) Endonuclease – Chemical scalpel
(3) DNA polymerase – Joins nucleosides
(4) RNA polymerase – Joins nucleotides

Sol. Answer (3)
DNA polymerase– Joins nucleosides (Incorrect match)
DNA polymerase– Joins nucleotides (Synthesize a new strand of DNA complementary to an existing DNA
template).
5. The first restriction enzyme to be isolated and characterised was
(1) EcoRI (2) BamHI (3) Hind III (4) Hind II

Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
6. Which of the following represents a correct palindromic sequence recognised by EcoRI?
5 – G A A T T C – 3 5 – C C C G G G – 3
(1) (2)
5 – C T T A A G – 3 3 – G G G C C C – 5
5 – G A A T T C – 3 5 – A T G C C G – 3
(3) (4)
3 – C T T A A G – 5 3 – T A C G G C – 5
Sol. Answer (3)

Fact.
7. The ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells is found in

(1) Ti plasmid (2) Retrovirus (3) All plasmids (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
– Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens : A. tumefaciens, a pathogen is able to deliver a piece of DNA
known as 'T-DNA to transform normal plant cells into a tumor.
– Retro virus : These viruses have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells.
8. Restriction in Restriction endonuclease enzyme refers to

(1) Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
(2) Cutting of DNA at specific position only
(3) Prevention of bacteriophage multiplication in bacteria
(4) Cutting each of the two strands of DNA at specific points in sugar phosphate backbone
Sol. Answer (3)
– The term 'restriction' refers to the function of these enzymes in restricting the propagation of foreign DNA
of bacteriophages in the host bacterium.
Solution of Assignment Biotechnology - Principles and Processes 47
9. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following enzymes is not used?
(1) Lysozyme (2) Ribonuclease (3) Protease (4) Deoxyribonuclease

Sol. Answer (4)
In order to isolate DNA, all other components of cell has to be broken down except DNA. So deoxyribonuclease
which breaks DNA should not be used.
Lysozyme (Damage or degrade bacterial cell wall): Enzyme that catalyzes degradation of cell wall.
Ribonuclease: Catalyzes the degradation of RNA.
Protease: Enzyme that performs proteolysis.
10. Which of the following steps is/are catalysed by Taq polymerase in a PCR?
(1) Denaturation of template DNA (2) Annealing of primers to template DNA
(3) Extension of primer end on template DNA (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (3)
Extension of primer is done by adding nucleotides to the primer which is done by DNA polymerase here taq
polymerase.
11. Which of the following statements does not hold true for restriction enzyme?
(1) It recognises a palindromic nucleotide sequence
(2) It is an endonuclease
(3) It is isolated from bacteriophages
(4) It produces the same kind of sticky ends in different DNA molecules
Sol. Answer (3)
Restriction endonucleases are isolated form bacteria.
12. Gene of interest was cloned at site Sal I in pBR322. The recombinant plasmid will exhibit susceptibility to
(1) Tetracycline (2) Tetracycline and Ampicillin
(3) Ampicillin only (4) Broad spectrum of antibiotics

Sol. Answer (1)
In pBR322
Pvu l
Pst l ampR
tetR Sal l
It has two antibiotic resistance genes (ampR and tetR)

If a gene of interest is cloned at site Sal I in pBR322, the so formed recombinant plasmid will exihibit
susceptibility to tetracycline only as tetracycline resistant gene gets inactivated due to insertion.
13. In case of Bam HI, H represents
(1) Genus (2) Species (3) Name of scientist (4) Strain

Sol. Answer (4)
B am HI
Order in which enzyme was isolated.
Genus Species Strain
14. Function of ‘ori’ site in a vector is to

(1) Initiate insertional inactivation
(2) Initiate replication
(3) Codes for the proteins involved in replication of the plasmid
(4) Initiate antibiotic resistance
Sol. Answer (2)
'ori' site is the site of origin of replication.
15. Normal E. coli cells carry resistance against which of the following antibiotics?
(1) Chloramphenicol
(2) Ampicillin
(3) Tetracycline
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (4)
E. coli cell usually does not carry resistance against any antibiotics.
(Processes of Recombinant DNA Technologies)
16. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by agarose gel
electrophoresis?
(1) DNA can be seen in visible light
(2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light
Sol. Answer (4)
– Ethidium bromide is a molecule that becomes intercalated between the stacked bases of the DNA molecule.
Soaking a DNA containing gel in ethidium bromide will result in concentration of chemical within the DNA.
Illumination of the soaked gel with light in the UV range (260 – 300 nm) results in fluorescence of ethidium
bromide and the DNA shows up on the gel as a band of fluorescence.
17. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules of different lengths are separated on the basis of their
(1) Charge only (2) Size only (3) Charge to size ratio (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (2)
The DNA will not migrate at the same rate, larger piece of DNA collide with the gel matrix more often and
are slowed down, while smaller pieces of DNA move through more quickly.
18. Significance of treating bacterial cells with calcium chloride before transformation is to facilitate
(1) Binding of DNA to the cell surface
(2) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
(3) Uptake of DNA by creating transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
(4) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
Sol. Answer (1)
Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes. In order to force bacteria to take
up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be made 'competent' to take up DNA. This is done by treating
them with a specific concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium, which increases the efficiency with
which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall. Possibly, calcium chloride causes the DNA
to precipitate onto the outside of the cells or it may improve DNA binding.
19. Who among the following was awarded Nobel Prize for development of PCR technique?
(1) Herbert Boyer (2) Kary Mullis (3) Rene Descartes (4) Andrew Fire
Sol. Answer (2)
Kary Mullis: American biochemist– Noble prize in 1993
20. Method involving entry of high velocity gold microparticles coated with DNA into plant cell is
(1) Protoplast fusion (2) Transfection (3) Biolistics (4) Magic bullet action
Sol. Answer (3)
It is also known as gene gun.
Protoplast fusion: During fusion, two or more protoplasts come in contact and adhere with one another
spontaneously or in presence of fusion inducing chemicals, such as polyethylene glycol (PEG).
Transfection: Transfer of DNA into eukaryotic cell is called transfection.
21. Pure DNA precipitated by addition of chilled ethanol can be removed from solution by
(1) Elution (2) Gel electrophoresis (3) Spooling (4) PCR
Sol. Answer (3)
Spooling is a method of obtaining DNA in a form of spool over a glass rod at the last step of DNA extraction.
Elution is extraction of separated bands of DNA from agarose gel.
Gel electrophoresis is a method for separation and analysis of macromolecules and their fragments based on
their size using gel medium.
PCR polymerase chain reaction ensures amplification of gene of interest.
22. The optimum temperature for polymerisation in PCR is _______ while the enzyme responsible for the mentioned
step can tolerate temperatures upto ________. Select the correct option according to the blanks
(1) 95°C, 60°C (2) 94°C, 95°C (3) 72°C, 95°C (4) 95°C, 72°C
Sol. Answer (3)
Fact.
23. Cells in continuous culture system are maintained in

(1) Stationary phase (2) Lag phase (3) Log phase (4) Either (1) or (3)
Sol. Answer (3)
Because in continuous culture system product is forming continuously and cells will grow exponentially in log
phase.
24. Stirrer in stirred tank type bioreactor facilitates

(1) Oxygen delivery from outside to inside (2) Mixing and aeration
(3) Temperature control (4) Foam control
Sol. Answer (2)
Bioreactor has different system for oxygen, temperature and foam control.
25. Separation and purification by filtration, centrifugation of desired compound produced in bioreactor is a part of
(1) Downstream processing only
(2) Scaling up and downstream processing
(3) Upstream processing
(4) Screening for recombinants and downstream processing
Sol. Answer (1)
Downstreaming processing is the name given to the stage after fermentation when the desired product is
recovered and purified.
SECTION - B
(Tools of Recombinant DNA Technologies)
1. A chimaeric DNA is formed by

(1) Deleting selectable markers (2) Joining c-DNA with plasmid
(3) EcoRI (4) Enzyme -galactosidase
Sol. Answer (2)
Chimaeric DNA is recombinant DNA.
2. Although the Ti plasmid has revolutionised plant genetic engineering one limitation of its use is that it
(1) Cannot infect broad leaf plants
(2) Cannot be used on fruit-bearing plants
(3) Cannot transmit prokaryotic genes
(4) Does not infect cereal plants such as corn and rice
Sol. Answer (4)
Ti plasmid of A. tumefacians does not infect cereals such as rice, corns, wheat, barley maize etc. .
Broad leaf plants and fruit bearing plants are mostly dicotyledonous and can be infected by Ti plasmid.
It can transmit prokaryotic genes.
3. A plasmid
(1) Shows dependent assortment
(2) Has ability to replicate within bacterial cells independent of the control of chromosomal DNA
(3) Cannot replicate
(4) Contains genes for vital activities
Sol. Answer (2)
Plasmid can replicate.
4. Each restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. It cleaves _________
(1) Only the master strand to produce sticky end
(2) Sense strand of DNA to produce sticky ends
(3) Each of the two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar phosphate backbones
(4) Messenger RNA to remove exons
Sol. Answer (3)
5. Which enzyme is required to prevent unwanted self-ligation of vector DNA molecules in recombinant DNA
technology?
(1) DNA polymerase (2) DNA ligase
(3) Alkaline phosphatase (4) Reverse transcriptase
Sol. Answer (3)
Alkaline phosphatase removes phosphate groups from the 5' ends of DNA molecules.
6. A set of bacterial clones, each containing a plasmid or phage, is called

(1) Gene library (2) Gene pool (3) Genophore (4) Genome
Sol. Answer (1)
Gene pool is the stock of different genes in interbreeding populations.
Genophore is the chromosomal DNA of a prokaryote.
Genome haploid set of chromosomes in a gamete.
7. Which of these are most widely used in genetic engineering?

(1) Plastid (2) Plasmid (3) Mitochondria (4) Ribosome
Sol. Answer (2)
Plasmids are much used because can replicate independently of the chromosomal DNA.
Plastid is a major double-membrane organelle found in the cells of plants and algae.
Mitochondria and ribosome are organelles found in the cells.
8. A tumor inducing plasmid widely used in the production of transgenic plants is that of
(1) Escherichia coli (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Staphylococcus aureus (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Sol. Answer (4)
Agrobacterium tumefaciens: It can cause tumor by transferring a defined segment of DNA (T-DNA) from its
tumor inducing plasmid into the nuclear genome of plant cells.
9. Which of the following is not a basis of difference between chromosomal DNA and plasmid?
a. Presence of histones b. Nature of histone
c. Nature of nucleotide d. Linear form of genetic material
(1) b & c only (2) a & d only (3) a, b & d only (4) a, b, c & d
Sol. Answer (1)
10. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector helps in selection of

(1) Competent cells (2) Transformed cells (3) Recombinant cells (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
11. Select the option that excludes characteristics applicable to plasmids

a. Circular DNA
b. Linear DNA
c. Present in all bacteria
d. Contain essential genes
e. Extra chromosomal self-replicating
(1) b & d only (2) b, c & d only (3) d, b, e & c only (4) a only
Sol. Answer (2)
Plasmids are naturally occuring circular, extrachromosomal, autonomously replicating DNA, present in many
prokaryotic and few eukaryotic organisms.
12. Term ‘Disarmed’ in disarmed vector represents

(1) Removal of T-DNA from Ti plasmid
(2) Insertional inactivation of -galactosidase gene
(3) Insertional inactivation of antibiotic gene
(4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Disarmed means without pathogenic property.
(Processes of Recombinant DNA Technologies)
13. Which of the following is not a method of introducing alien DNA into host cells?
(1) Microinjection (2) Heat shock method
(3) Being placed along with the cell into a gene gun (4) Gel electrophoresis
Sol. Answer (4)
Gel electrophoresis: Method for separation and analysis of macromolecules and their fragments based on their
size using gel medium.
14. During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to

(1) Remove proteins such as histones (2) Precipitate DNA
(3) Break open the cell to release DNA (4) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
15. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in

(1) Gel electrophoresis (2) Spectrophotometry (3) Tissue culture (4) PCR
Sol. Answer (1)
Agarose gels have very large pore size and are used primarily to separate very large molecules with a molecular
mass greater than 200 K Da.
Spectrophotometry is a method to measure how much a chemical substance absorbs light by measuring the
intensity of light as a beam of light passes through sample solution.
Tissue culture involves the growth in an artificial medium of cells derived from living tissue.
PCR is a technique used to make multiple copies of a segment of DNA.
16. PCR is used for
(1) Reverse transcribing RNA into DNA
(2) Digesting DNA
(3) Amplifying DNA
(4) Amplifying proteins and separating DNA
Sol. Answer (3)
PCR is polymerase chain reaction (in vitro replication of DNA)
17. Method in which recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal cell by using microneedles
is called as
(1) Gene gun method (2) Biolistic method
(3) Microinjection method (4) Indirect method
Sol. Answer (3)
Gene gun method is a method in which cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold or
tungsten coated with DNA.
18. Which of the following represents an advantage of growing cells in continuous culture as compared to a shake
flask?
(1) Cells can be maintained at a constant physiological state
(2) Most downstream and upstream processes are continuous in nature
(3) Continuous reactors do not need to be shut down and cleaned regularly
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
SECTION - C
1. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is [NEET-2018]
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
Sol. Answer (3)
This technique is used for making multiple copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
Each cycle has three steps
(1) Denaturation
(2) Primer annealing
(3) Extension of primer
2. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as [NEET-2017]
(1) Selectable marker (2) Vector (3) Plasmid (4) Structural gene
Sol. Answer (1)
In recombinant DNA technology, selectable markers helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and
selectively permitting the growth of the transformants.
3. DNA fragments are [NEET-2017]

(1) Positively charged
(2) Negatively charged
(3) Neutral
(4) Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
Sol. Answer (2)
DNA fragments are negatively charged because of phosphate group.
4. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with [NEET-2017]
(1) Bromophenol blue (2) Acetocarmine (3) Aniline blue (4) Ethidium bromide
Sol. Answer (4)
Ethidium bromide is used to stain the DNA fragments and will appear as orange coloured bands under UV
light.
5. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis? [NEET-2017]
(1) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
(2) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
(3) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
(4) Negatively charged fragments do not move
Sol. Answer (2)
During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect
provided by agarose gel.
6. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Purification of product (2) Addition of preservatives to the product
(3) Availability of oxygen throughout the process (4) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
Sol. Answer (3)
Stirred-tank bioreactor is provided with stirrer for availability of oxygen throughout the process.
7. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant
plasmid using [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Eco RI (2) Taq polymerase (3) Polymerase III (4) Ligase
Sol. Answer (4)
In DNA recombinant technology, linking of foreign DNA and plasmid is made possible by DNA ligase which is
also called "molecular glue".
8. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Separation (2) Purification (3) Preservation (4) Expression
Sol. Answer (4)
After the completion of biosynthetic pathway, downstreaming processing includes all the steps involved in
isolation, purification and preservation of products. All the steps before the completion of pathway are included
in upstreaming processing i.e., expression of genetic material.
9. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Sal I (2) Eco RV (3) Xho I (4) Hind III
Sol. Answer (2)
Eco RV cuts the DNA in the centre of restriction sites forming blunt ends.
The pallindromic sequence for Eco RV is
5 3
G AT AT C
C T AT A G
3 5
10. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids? [NEET-2016]

(1) Single-stranded (2) Independent replication
(3) Circular structure (4) Transferable
Sol. Answer (1)
Plasmid is extrachromosomal, double stranded circular DNA.
11. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from [NEET-2016]
(1) Pseudomonas putida (2) Thermus aquaticus
(3) Thiobacillus ferroxidans (4) Bacillus subtilis
Sol. Answer (2)
Taq polymerase is thermostable DNA polymerase obtained from Thermus aquaticus.
12. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease? [NEET-2016]
(1) RNase (2) Hind II (3) Protease (4) DNase I
Sol. Answer (2)
Hind II is a restriction endonuclease.
13. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called [ReAIPMT-2015]
(1) Carrier (2) Transformer (3) Vector (4) Template
Sol. Answer (3)
The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called vector.
14. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of [ReAIPMT-2015]
(1) Ligases (2) Restriction enzymes (3) Probes (4) Selectable markers
Sol. Answer (2)
The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of restriction enzymes called
molecular scissors or knife.
15. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Bacterial artificial chromosome (2) Yeast artificial chromosome
(3) Plasmid (4) Cosmid
Sol. Answer (3)
Plasmid can clone only a small fragment of DNA about 10 kbp size
Cosmid – 45 kbp
YAC – 1 Mbp/1000 kbp – 2,500 kbp
BAC – 300 to 350 kbp
16. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by
[NEET-2013]
(1) Polymerase chain reaction (2) Electrophoresis
(3) Restriction mapping (4) Centrifugation
Sol. Answer (2)
17. Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?
[NEET-2013]
(1) Plant cells - Cellulase (2) Algae - Methylase
(3) Fungi - Chitinase (4) Bacteria - Lysozyme
Sol. Answer (2)
18. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria
because of [NEET-2013]
(1) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
(2) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
(3) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
(4) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase
Sol. Answer (2)
19. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) It is isolated from a virus
(2) It remains active at high temperature
(3) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells
(4) It serves as a selectable marker
Sol. Answer (2)
20. For transfomation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of
(1) Silicon or Platinum (2) Gold or Tungsten (3) Silver or Platinum (4) Platinum or Zinc
Sol. Answer (2)
21. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given options
correctly identifies its certain component(s)? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
Cla I Hind III
Eco RI
Pvu I
Bam HI
Pst I amp R
tetR
pBR322 Sal I
ori
rop
Pvu II
R R
(1) amp , tet - antibiotic resistance genes (2) ori-original restriction enzyme
(3) rop-reduced osmotic pressure (4) Hind III, EcoRI-selectable markers
Sol. Answer (1)
The corrected options
(2) ori– origin of replication
(3) rop– codes for the proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid.
(4) Hind III, EcoRl– Restriction sites
22. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) DNA fingerprinting
(2) Disarming pathogen vectors
(3) Transformation of plant cells
(4) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
Sol. Answer (3)
As gene gun inserts recombinant DNA into host cells which leads to transformation of plant cells.
23. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) To keep the cultures free of infection (2) As selectable markers
(3) To select healthy vectors (4) As sequences from where replication starts
Sol. Answer (2)
The host cells must naturally be sensitive to the antibiotic in questions so that any vector molecule which
transforms a host cell can confer antibiotic resistance. By plating transformed cells on a medium containing
the antibiotic, only those cells that have been transformed by vector molecules survive.
24. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving
correct identification together with what it represents ? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
3 5
5 3
(1) A – Annealing with two sets of primers

(2) B – Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separatiing the two DNA strands
(3) A – Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C
(4) C – Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (4)
25. Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
5  GAATTC  3 5  CCAATG  3 5  CATTAG  3 5  GATACC  3

(1) (2) (3) (4)
3  CTTAAG  5 3  CAATCC  5 3  GATAAC  5 3  CCTAAG  5
Sol. Answer (1)

Palindromic sequence is a sequence of base pairs that read same on the two strands when orientation of
reading is kept same.
26. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand for?[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) coli (2) colon (3) coelom (4) coenzyme
Sol. Answer (1)
E co R I Order in which enzyme were isolated
Escherichia Rough strain (RY13 strain)

coli
27. Given below is a sample of a portein of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What
is so special shown in it?
5'______ GAATTC _____ 3'
3'______ CTTAAG ______ 5' [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Palindromic sequence of base pairs (2) Replication completed
(3) Deletion mutation (4) Start codon at the 5' end
Sol. Answer (1)
28. Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organisms?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Heavier isotope labelling (2) Hybridization
(3) Recombinant DNA techniques (4) X-ray diffraction
Sol. Answer (3)
29. Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Degrade sewage (2) Produce methane
(3) Obtain antibiotics (4) Purify enzymes
Sol. Answer (3)
Conditions in which continuous addition of sugars in fed batch fermentation is done to obtain antibiotics.
30. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Gel electrophoresis (2) Spectrophotometry
(3) Tissue Culture (4) PCR
Sol. Answer (1)
31. Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Retrovirus (2) Baculovirus
(3) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Rhizopus nigricans
Sol. Answer (1)
Retroviruses are most commonly used as they have a relatively high insert capacity.
32. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut by EcoRI?
(1) 5CACGTA3 (2) 5CGTTCG3
3...............CTCAGT5 3ATGGTA5
(3) 5GATATG3 (4) 5GAATTC3
3CTACTA5 3CTTAAG5
Sol. Answer (4)
33. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
(2) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
(3) Recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
(4) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (2)
Restruction endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.
34. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for [AIPMT(Prelims)-2010]

(1) Availability of oxygen throughout the process
(2) Addition of preservatives to the product
(3) Purification of the product
(4) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
Sol. Answer (1)
35. Which of the following are used in gene cloning? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Nucleoids (2) Lomasomes (3) Mesosomes (4) Plasmids
Sol. Answer (4)
36. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest, is transferred to the host cell through a vector.
Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more
of these can be used as a vector/ vectors [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
Statements
(A) A bacterium (B) Plasmid
(C) Plasmodium (D) Bacteriophage
(1) (A), (B) & (D) only (2) (A) only (3) (A) & (C) only (4) (B) & (D) only
Sol. Answer (4)
37. Gel electrophoresis is used for [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Isolation of DNA molecule
(2) Cutting of DNA into fragments
(3) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size
(4) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
Sol. Answer (3)
38. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with
(1) Exonucleases (2) DNA ligase (3) Endouncleases (4) DNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (2)
39. Restriction endonuclease [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Cuts the DNA molecule randomly
(2) Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
(3) Restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus
(4) Synthesizes DNA
Sol. Answer (2)
40. Microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(2) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
(3) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(4) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans
Sol. Answer (1)
41. Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because

(1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing reactions
(2) The human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
(3) The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
(4) The genetic code is universal
Sol. Answer (4)
42. Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?
(1) Lipase (2) Exonuclease
(3) Endonuclease (4) Protease
Sol. Answer (3)
43. All the following statements about Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer are correct but one is wrong. Which one
is wrong?
(1) They discovered recombinant DNA (r-DNA) technology which marked the birth of modern biotechnology.
(2) They first produced, healthy sheep clone, a Finn Dorset lamb, Dolly, from the differentiated adult mammary
cells.
(3) They invented genetic engineering by combining a piece of foreign DNA containing a gene from a bacterium
with a bacterial (E. coli) plasmid using the enzyme restriction endonuclease.
(4) They isolated the antibiotic resistance gene by cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid which was responsible
for conferring antibiotic resistance.
Sol. Answer (2)
Dolly was cloned by Ian Wilmut and Campbell.
44. There are three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism. Which of the following is wrong statement
about the process?
(1) Identification of the DNA with desirable genes
(2) Cleaving DNA segments with ‘ligase’ and joining them with endonuclease
(3) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host
(4) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of DNA to its progeny
Sol. Answer (2)
Cleaving DNA segments with endonuclease and joining them with 'ligase'.
45. What is true for plasmid?
(1) Plasmids are used widely in gene transfer (2) These are found in viruses
(3) Plasmids contain genes for vital activities (4) These are main part of chromosome
Sol. Answer (1)
These are found in bacteria and some yeast cells.
Chromosomal DNA contains vital genes necessary for cell.
Plasmid is extra chromosomal DNA.
46. Extraction of bands of DNA from the agarose gel is termed as

(1) Down stream processing (2) Upstream processing
(3) Elution (4) Insertional inactivation
Sol. Answer (3)
Down streaming processing the recovery and purification of biosynthetic products, particularly
pharmaceuticals, from natural sources such as animal or plant tissue or fermentation both, including the
recycling of salvageable components.
Upstreaming processing process from cell isolation and cultivation to cell banking and culture expansion of
the cells until final harvest.
Insertional inactivation is the inactivation of a gene upon insertion of another gene inside in its place or within
its coding sequence.
47. In plant biotechnology, PEG is used in

(1) Protoplast isolation (2) Cell culture preparation
(3) Protoplast fusion (4) Hardening
Sol. Answer (3)
Certain chemicals, such as polyethylene glycol (PEG), act as fusogen, agents that cause cell membranes
to fuse together. This can be exploited to transfect plant cells by mixing them with other cells containing large
amounts of plasmid DNA.
48. Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindromic site, but between
the same two bases on the opposite single stranded strands, these overhanging stretches formed on each
strand are called __________
(1) Blunt ends (2) Sticky ends
(3) Staggered end (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
In Blunt ends the cleavage point occur exactly on the axis of symmetry.
5'–G–A–T–A–T–C–3' EcoRV 5'–G–A–T A–T–C–3'

3'–C–T–A–T–A–G–5' 3'–C–T–A T–A–G–5'
Blunt cut
Cleavage site
5'–G–A–A–T–T–C–3' EcoRI 5'–G 5'–AA–T–T–C–3'

3'–C–T–T–A–A–G–3' 3'–C–T–T–A–A–5' G–5'
Stick or staggered cut
49. Which of the following is considered as molecular glue?

(1) Alkaline phosphatase (2) Restriction endonuclease
(3) DNA ligase (4) DNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (3)
DNA ligase: Catalyzes the joining of DNA strands together.
Alkaline phosphatase: Removes phosphate groups from the 5' ends of DNA molecules, which prevents these
molecules from being ligated to one another.
Restriction endonuclease: Enzyme that cuts DNA at or near specific recognition nucleotide sequence.
DNA polymerase: Enzymes that create DNA molecules by assembling nucleotides, the building blocks of DNA.
50. Genetic engineering is possible because

(1) DNA can be cut at specific sites by endo nucleases like DNAase
(2) Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro
(3) The phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood
(4) DNA can be seen by electron microscope
Sol. Answer (2)
Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro.
51. What would happen if a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, -
galactosidase?
(1) This will result in the inactivation of the enzyme
(2) The presence of chromogenic substrate will give blue coloured colonies
(3) The recombinant colonies do not produce any colour
(4) Both (1) & (3) are correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Blue coloured colonies are produced when plasmid does not have an insert.
52. Plasmids are used in genetic engineering because they are

(1) Easily available
(2) Able to integrate with host chromosome
(3) Able to replicate along with chromosomal DNA
(4) May contain DNA sequences coding for drug resistance
Sol. Answer (4)
Plasmids replicate independent of main genome.
Plasmid is extra chromosomal DNA and there is no integration with host chromosome.
53. The term ‘B’ and ‘R’ in the name pBR322 represents which of the following?
(1) Name of the scientists
(2) Name of the restriction endonuclease enzymes
(3) Name of cities in U.S.A.
(4) Name of the strain of bacterias used
Sol. Answer (1)
p-plasmid
BR– Boliver and Rodriguez
322– Distinguishes this plasmid from others developed in the same laboratory.
54. You suspect your patient to be suffering from a bacterial disease, however the number of bacteria in the
patient’s body is very less. Which method can help you detect these pathogens in the laboratory?
(1) Hybridoma technology (2) PCR
(3) Somatic hybridization (4) DNA fingerprinting
Sol. Answer (2)
It helps to detect very low concentration of bacteria or virus at the time when the symptoms of the disease
are not visible by amplification of their nucleic acid.
55. Downstreaming process in biotechnology refers to

(1) The process which includes separation and purification of the product, after the completion of the biosynthetic
stage
(2) Large scale production of a product, by using bioreactors
(3) The cells harbouring cloned genes of interest, being grown on a small scale
(4) The microbes which act upon the substrate are cultured and added into the fermenter
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
56. cDNA is
(1) Formed by reverse transcriptase (2) Cloned DNA
(3) Circular DNA (4) Recombinant DNA
Sol. Answer (1)
cDNA (complementary DNA) is a double stranded DNA synthesized from a messenger RNA template in a
reaction catalysed by enzyme reverse transcriptase.
Cloned DNA– DNA created by copying of DNA fragements, cells, or organisms.
Circular DNA is a form of DNA that is found in viruses, bacteria.
Recombinant DNA– DNA that has been formed artificially by combining constituents from different organisms.
SECTION - D
1. A : DNA ligase plays an important role in recombinant DNA technology.

R : The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with plasmid vector became possible by enzyme DNA ligase.
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
2. A : Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases.

R : Each restriction enzyme recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
3. A : During gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments move towards the anode.
R : DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules.
Sol. Answer (1)
DNA is negatively charged due to phosphate.
4. A : Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is cumbersome procedure.

R : It requires simultaneous plating on two plates having different antibiotics.
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
5. A : Taq Polymerase is involved in PCR technique.

R : This enzyme remain active during the high temperature including denaturation of double stranded DNA.
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
6. A : Myocardial infarction can now be treated more effectively due to genetic engineering.
R : Streptokinase produced by Streptoccocus and modified by RDT is used as a clot buster for removing
thrombus.
Sol. Answer (1)
7. A : Disarmed Ti plasmid can be utilised as a shuttle vector.

R : It can survive in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms.
Sol. Answer (1)
8. A : Pst I generates single stranded over hanging stretches in DNA after digestion that facilitate ligation.
R : These short extensions can form phosphodiester bonds with their complementary counterparts.
Sol. Answer (3)
The short extensions form covalent bonds with their complementary counter parts.
9. A : Ethidium bromide helps in visualizing DNA in UV light only.

R : This intercalating agent absorbs light in range 260 – 330 nm.
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
10. A : To extract RNA from tomato cells it must first be treated with cellulase, protease and then
deoxyribonuclease.
R : Deoxyribonuclease will digest DNA while RNA will be intact.
Sol. Answer (2)


17 Human Health and Disease: Solutions

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17 Human Health and Disease: Solutions

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Chapter 17

Human Health and Disease

(Common Diseases in Humans)

(1) Haemotoxin (2) Haemoglobin (3) Haemozoin (4) Sporozoites

Sol. Answer (3)

Haemotoxin– Toxic substances in animal's venom, such as snake's venom.

Haemoglobin– Iron containing metalloprotein in red blood cells.

Sporozoites– Infectious form of malarial parasite.

Sol. Answer (4)

3. Typhoid fever could be confirmed by

Sol. Answer (1)

Mantoux test– Tuberculosis

Schick test– Diphtheria

Dick test– Scarlet fever

4. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. infection of Entamoeba histolytica

5. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding malarial infection?

(1) Stomach of mosquito (2) Intestine of man

(3) Liver of man (4) Red blood cells of man

Sol. Answer (4)

Sol. Answer (3)

(1) Botulism (2) Conjunctivitis (3) Ringworm (4) Skin allergy

Sol. Answer (3)

It is a fungal disease caused by Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton.

Botulism– (Food poisining)– Clostridium botulinum– bacterial disease.

Conjunctivitis– Viral, bacterial or an allergic reaction.

Skin Allergy– Caused by different allergens.

Sol. Answer (3)

13. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

(1) Asthma (2) Cirrhosis (3) AIDS (4) Rheumatoid arthritis

Sol. Answer (4)

Asthma– Allergic disease

Cirrhosis– Is a result of advanced liver disease.

AIDS– Caused by HIV which decreases natural immunity of the body.

(1) Acquired immunity (2) Humoral immune response

(3) Cell mediated immunity (4) Innate immunity

Sol. Answer (4)

It is non-specific as it act against any type of foreign agent .

Cell mediated immunity– T-lymphocyte mediated.

(1) Physical barrier (2) Physiological barrier

(3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier

Sol. Answer (2)

One of the barrier of innate immunity

Physical barrier– Skin, muscous coating of epithelium

Cellular barrier– WBC– PMNL, monocytes, NK– cells

Cytokine barrier– Interferons

16. Which of the following immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in colostrum?

(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgM (4) IgE

Sol. Answer (1)

IgE– Mediator in allergic response.

IgM– Activates first in initial attack of antigen.

17. The treatment of snake bite by antivenom is an example of

Sol. Answer (1)

Artificially acquired active immunity– Includes resistance induced by vaccines.

18. Human immunodeficiency virus is a/an

19. HIV decreases natural immunity of the body by

21. The spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as

(Drug and Alcohol Abuse)

(1) Carbon dioxide

(3) Carbon monoxide

(4) Carboxylic acid

Sol. Answer (3)

Sol. Answer (4)