NEXT IAS Prs 2022 Test 01 With Solution

CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022
1. Arrange the following events in 3. The movement was flourished because

chronological order: of the prevailing social conditions
1. Treaty between Mir Kasim and East at that time which were ripe for the
India Company was signed. adoption of radical ideas.
Which of the statements given above are
2. Major Hector Munro defeated
not correct?
combined armies of 3 rulers at Buxar.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Murshid Quli Khan became the Dewan
(b) 2 and 3 only
of Bengal
(c) 1 and 3 only
4. The Black Hole Tragedy.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct option from the codes 4. Which of the following were the effects of
given below: the political, administrative and economic
(a) 4-3-1-2 unification of the country by the Britishers
from the nationalist point of view?
(b) 3-4-1-2
1. The economic fate of the people of
(c) 3-4-2-1
different regions got linked together.
(d) 1-2-3-4 2. Leaders from different regions were
2. With reference to the Policy of Ring- brought closer to each other.
Fence by Britishers, consider the following Select the correct option using the codes
statements: given below:
1. The policy of ring-fence was brought (a) 1 only
up by Lord Wellesley. (b) 2 only
2. The policy was aimed at creating (c) Both 1 and 2
buffer zones to defend the Company’s (d) Neither 1 nor 2
frontiers. 5. With reference to history of India, consider
3. The policy was an extention of the following statements:
subsidiary alliance. 1. The direct responsibility for the
administration of the country was
Which of the statement/s given above is/are
assumed by the British Crown and
correct?
Company rule was abolished.
(a) 2 only
2. The Indian states were henceforth
(b) 2 and 3 only to recognise the paramountcy of the
(c) 1 and 2 only British Crown and were to be treated
as parts of a single charge.
(d) 1 only
3. The Army Amalgamation Scheme
3. With reference to the ‘Young Bengal moved the Company’s European
Movement’ by Henry Vivian Derozio, troops to the services of the Crown.
consider the following statements: Which of the above statement/s was/were
1. It enshrined the ideas of the French the consequences of the Revolt of 1857?
Revolution. (a) 1 only
2. The movement received support from (b) 1 and 2 only
many other social group to take up the (c) 2 and 3 only
peasants’ cause. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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6. With reference to Socio-religious 8. The early nationalists did a great deal to

movements and their leaders, consider the awaken the national sentiment. Which of
following pairs: the following statements is not correct
regarding the nationalists in the moderate
Socio-religious Leaders
phase of national movement?
Movements
(a) They were able to create a wide
1. Radhaswami Tulsi Ram national awakening of all Indians
Movement having common interests.
2. Walliullah Haji Shariatullah (b) The moderate phase of the national
movement had a wider social base and
Movement
the masses played a massive role.
3. Ahmadiyya Mirza Ghulam
(c) The Moderates were not able to take
Movement Ahmad militant political positions against the
Which of the pairs given above is/are authorities.
correctly matched? (d) Their political work was based on
(a) 1 only hard realities, and not on shallow
sentiments, religion, etc.
(b) 2 and 3 only
9. With reference to important historical events
(c) 1 and 3 only
during the time of British rule, consider the
(d) 2 only following pairs:
7. With reference to the Indian Councils Act Important Governor General/
1892, consider the following statements:
historical Events Viceroy
1. In Imperial Legislative Council, now 1. Queen Victoria Lord Lytton
the governor-general could have six to
assuming the title
ten non-officials.
of ‘Kaiser-i-Hind’
2. The officials retained their majority
2. The Ilbert Lord Mayo
in the council, thus making the non-
official member’s voice ineffective. Bill controversy
3. The budget could be discussed but 3. Setting up of Lord Lansdowne

could not be voted upon. Durand Commission
Which of the statement/s given above is/are Which of the pairs given above are correctly
not correct? matched?
(a) 1 only (a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
10. With reference to the Charter Act of 1793, (b) Bengal, Madras, Bombay and all other
consider the following statements: territories were placed under complete
1. Senior officials of the Company were control of the governor-general.
debarred from leaving India without (c) The Governments of Madras and
permission. Bombay were drastically deprived of
2. The Company was empowered to give their legislative powers.
licences to the Company’s employees (d) All revenues were to be raised under
and not individuals to trade in India. the authority of the governor-general
3. The revenue administration was who would have complete control over
amalgamated with the judiciary the expenditure too.”
functions which led to disappearing of
13. With reference to the European settlements
the Maal Adalats.
in India, consider the following statements:
1. Pedro Alvarez Cabral established
correct?
Portuguese factory at Calicut.
(a) 1 only
2. The Dutch founded their first factory in
(b) 1 and 3 only Masulipatnam.
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. The English founded their first factory
(d) 3 only in Surat under Captain Hawkins.
11. With reference to the legislative Which of the statement/s given above is/are
development in India during the British correct?
rule, consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only
1. The portfolio system was introduced
(b) 3 only
by Lord Canning.
(c) 1 and 2 only
2. The local representation for Indians
was introduced in the Indian legislature (d) 1, 2 and 3
by the The Charter Act of 1853. 14. With reference to wars fought in eighteenth
Which of the statement/s given above is/are century India, consider the following
correct? statements:
(a) 1 only 1. During the reign of Mughal Emperor
(b) 2 only Alamgir II the Battle of Plassey was
fought in June 1757.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Reign of Shah Alam II saw two
decisive battles—the Third Battle of
12. In India, a financial, legislative and
Panipat and the Battle of Buxar.
administrative centralisation of the
government was envisaged by the Charter Which of the statement/s given above is/are
Act of 1833. Which the following statements correct?
is not correct in this regard? (a) 1 only
(a) The Secretary of State was given the (b) 2 only
power to superintend, control and
(c) Both 1 and 2
direct all civil and military affairs of
the Company. (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
15. With reference to British officials and their 18. Which of the following was/were the impact
policies, consider the following pairs: of dual system of government (1765-72) by
British officials Policies East India Company(EIC) in India?
1. John Lawrence Policy of Masterly 1. Prevalent rampant corruption among

Inactivity servants of the Company who made
full use of private trading to enrich
2. Lytton
Policy of Proud
themselves.
Reserve
2. Excessive revenue collection and
3. Auckland Forward Policy
oppression of peasantry by EIC.
Which of the pair/s given above is/are
3. The EIC became bankrupt, while the
correctly matched?
servants were flourishing.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct option using the code
(b) 2 and 3 only given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
16. Which of the following is the correct (c) 1 and 3 only
chronological order of revolts/rebellions in
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Indian history?
19. During colonial period Aitchison
1. Diwan Velu Thampi’s Revolt
Committee, Islington Commission and Lee
2. Paika Rebellion. Commission were associated with:
3. Poligars’ Revolt (a) Reforms in police services
4. Revolt of Moamarias (b) Reforms in civil services
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) Reform in Judicial services
gives below:
(d) To improve relations with princely
(a) 4 – 3 – 1 – 2 states
(b) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 20. With reference to Newspapers and their
(c) 4 – 1 – 3 – 2 editor in India, consider the following pairs:
(d) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1 News papers Editors
17. Brahmo Samaj was founded with an aim to 1. Advocate G.P. Verma
(a) to institutionalise ideas of Vedanta 2. Sudharak Balgangadhar Tilak
philosophy only. 3. Indian Mirror N.N. Sen
(b) with a long-term agenda to spread Which of the pair/s given above is/are
Hinduism. correctly matched?
(c) to establish a new religion. (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) to respect teachings of all religions and (b) 1 and 3 only
kept its emphasis on human dignity,
(c) 3 only
opposition to idolatry and criticism of
social evils such as sati. (d) 1, 2 and 3
21. With reference to the theories of evolution of 23. Which of the following statements is not
Earth and Universe, consider the following correct regarding the Longitudes and
statements: Latitudes of Earth?
1. The revised Nebular Hypothesis by (a) The meridians of longitude intersect
Otto Schmidt and Carl Weizascar the equator at right angles.
considered that the sun was surrounded (b) The latitude of a place on the earth’s
by solar nebula containing mostly the surface is its distance east or west of
hydrogen and helium along with what the Prime Meridian.
may be termed as dust. (c) The longitudes are used to determine
2. The Big Bang Theory by Edwin Hubble the local time with reference to the
provided evidence that the universe is time at Prime Meridian.
expanding. (d) Latitude of a place may be determined
Which of the statement/s given above is/are with the help of the altitude of the sun
correct? or the Pole Star.
(a) 1 only 24. With reference to the layers of Earth,

consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only
1. The oceanic crust is composed of
(c) Both 1 and 2 less dense material like basalt, the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 continental crust is composed of denser
22. With reference to the evolution of material like granite.
Atmosphere and Hydrosphere of Earth, 2. The crust is made up of solidified
consider the following statements: products derived from the mantle,
where the mantle material is partially
1. The early atmosphere largely contained
melted and viscous.
water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide,
methane, ammonia and no free oxygen. 3. The outer core is not under enough
pressure to be solid, so it is liquid even
2. The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
though it has a composition similar to
got dissolved in rainwater which led that of the inner core.
to the increase in temperature, causing
more condensation and more rains.
correct?
3. Degassing is the process through
(a) 2 only
which the gases were outpoured from
the interior of the earth. (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only 25. With reference to the structure of the

atmosphere, consider the following
(b) 3 only
statements:
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest
(d) 1 and 3 only at the equator and lowest at the poles.
2. Stratosphere absorbs ultra-violet 28. With reference to the phenomenons of

radiation and shields life on the earth transfer of energy, consider the following
statements:
from intense, harmful form of energy.
1. The convective transfer of energy is
3. Radio waves transmitted from the confined only to the troposphere.
earth are reflected back to the earth by 2. The seasonal local winds called ‘loo’ is
ionosphere the outcome of advection process.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are 3. Conduction is important in heating the
lower layers of the atmosphere.
not correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only correct?
(b) 3 only (a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) None of the above (d) 1, 2 and 3
26. Which among the following factors does 29. With reference to Earthquakes and
not cause the variations in the Insolation on Eathquake waves, which of the following
statements is not correct?
Earth?
(a) All natural earthquakes take place in
(a) The rotation of earth on its axis the lithosphere.
(b) The angle of inclination of the sun’s (b) The denser the material, the higher is
rays the velocity of the surface waves.
(c) Body waves are generated due to the
(c) Reflected solar radiation release of energy at the epicentre.
(d) The transparency of the atmosphere (d) S-waves can travel only through solid
materials whereas, P-waves can travel
27. With reference to the solar radiation on
through gaseous, liquid and solid
earth, consider the following statements: materials.
1. Most of the incoming solar radiation 30. With reference to Tsunamis, consider the
on the earth suface is in the form of following statement/s:
short wavelenghts. 1. The speed of tsunami waves depends
on the distance from the source of the
2. The annual insolation received by the wave.
earth on aphelion is slightly more than 2. The effect of tsunami would occur
the amount received on perihelion. only if the epicentre of the tremor is
below oceanic waters and magnitude is
sufficiently high.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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31. Barring the basalt flows, these volcanoes 2. The continental rocks are much
are the largest of all the volcanoes on the younger than the ocean crust rocks.
earth. The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most 3. The sediments on the ocean floor are
famous examples. These volcanoes are unexpectedly very thin.
mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that
4. The midoceanic ridge areas have deep-
is very fluid when erupted. For this reason,
seated earthquake occurrences while in
these volcanoes are not steep.
the deep trenches, the quake foci have
Which of the following volcanoes is defined shallow depths.
in the above passage?
(a) Shield Volcanoes correct?
(b) Composite Volcanoes (a) 1 and 4 only
(c) Mid-Ocean Ridge Volcanoes (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Caldera (c) 1 and 3 only
32. With reference to Ocean Floor Configuration, (d) 2 and 4 only
consider the following statements: 34. With reference to the stages of landscapes
1. Ocean trenches are a feature of formed due to running water, consider the
convergent plate boundaries and are following statements:
found in every ocean basin on the 1. Waterfalls and rapids may exist in the
planet. youth stage.
2. Mid-oceanic ridges is characterised 2. In the middle stages, streams cut their
by a central rift system at the crest, a beds slower, and lateral erosion of
fractionated plateau and flank zone all valley sides becomes severe.
along its length.
3. During old age there are few smaller
3. Abyssal Plains are extensive plains that tributaries with steep gradients.
lie between the continental margins
and mid-oceanic ridges. correct?
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only
35. With reference to Cyclones, consider the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 following statements:
33. The mapping of the ocean floor and 1. The air circulates inward in an
palaeomagnetic studies of rocks from anticlockwise direction in the Northern
oceanic regions revealed many facts. hemisphere and clockwise in the
Consider the following statements in this Southern hemisphere.
regard:
2. Extra tropical cyclones occur in
1. The rocks equidistant on either sides of temperate zones and high latitude
the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show regions, though they are known to
remarkable similarities in terms of originate between the Tropics of
magnetic properties. Capricorn and Cancer.
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48. With reference to the Malaria-free 51. With reference to the later mughals which
certification by WHO, consider the one of the following is not the reason for
following statements: their downfall?
1. Countries that have achieved at (a) The appointment of the Nobels as the
least three consecutive years of zero governers who controlled the offices of
indigenous cases can apply for Malaria- revenue and military administration.
free certification by WHO.
(b) Peasant and zamindari rebellions in
2. Recently, China and El Salvador were
declared malaria-free by the WHO. many parts of northern and western
India seized the local economic
3. In the WHO South-East Asia Region
resources.
the main contributor for Malaria cases
is by India. (c) The attack of Nadir Shah in 1739.
Which of the statement given above are (d) The old Mughal provinces like Awadh
correct? broke its fromal ties with the Mughal
(a) 1 and 2 only emperor.”
(b) 2 and 3 only 52. With reference to the Lucknow Pact
(c) 1 and 3 only December, 1916 consider the following
(d) 1, 2 and 3 statements:
49. World Energy Investment Report is 1. The pact dealt with the structure of the
published by government of India.
(a) World Bank
2. The pact was headed by Bal Gangadhar
(b) International Energy Agency
Tilak from the Indian National
(c) Bureau of Energy Efficiency Congress side.
(d) World Economic Forum
3. This pact paved the way for Hindu-
50. With reference to Faster Adoption and
Muslim cooperation in the Khilafat
Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric
movement.
Vehicle (FAME-II) scheme, consider the
following statements: Which of the statements given above are
1. It was formulated as a part of National correct?
Electric Mobility Mission Plan (a) 1 and 2 only
(NEMMP) 2020
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. The scheme is under the ambit of
the Ministry for Road Transport and (c) 1 and 3 only
Highways. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. It is designed to support the 53. Which one of the following was the core
electrification of public and shared ideology behind Poona Sarvajanik Sabha?
transport and help create charging
(a) Solve the problem of minorities in
infrastructure.
India
Which of the statement given above are
correct? (b) The people should be sovereign
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Delimit the boundaries between India
(b) 2 and 3 only and Pakistan
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Demand voice for Indians in the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 government

54. The Swadeshi Movement was the result of 3. Ryotwari System was similar to
(a) The arms act Zamindari System.
(b) The Rowlatt act Which of the statement/s given above is/are
(c) The partition of Bengal correct?
(d) The vernacular press act (a) 1, 2 and 3
55. Ghadar, an early 20th-century movement
(b) 1 only
among Indians, principally Sikhs living in
North America, was started to: (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) End British rule in their homeland of (d) 1 and 2 only
India. 59. Which of the following is the most
(b) Demand equal right in America. appropriate description of the objective of
(c) Voice for Sikhs in California the Wood’s Dispatch in India?
Government. (a) The promotion of literacy among
(d) Fight against denied permission to the people using English medium of
disembark in Canada because of their language.
colour.
(b) The introduction of scientific research
56. Simon Commission was appointed in
and rationalism in the traditional Indian
November 1927 by the British Conservative
education.
government for which of the following
reason? (c) Creation of employment opportunities
(a) To suppress the khilafat movement for native Indians.
(b) To disclaim any intention to annex (d) To educate Indian people inorder to
Indian States create a class of civil servants.
(c) To abolish the Dyarchy (Diarchy) in 60. With reference to social reform movements
the Provinces in India, consider the following pairs:
(d) To report on the working of the
Movements Founder
Indian constitution established by the
Government of India Act of 1919.” 1. Satnami E.V. Ramaswamy
57. Ryoti was the predominant form of indigo movement Naicker
cultivation in which of the following state? 2. Satyashodhak Jyotirao Phule
(a) Madaras
Samaj
(b) Bengal
3. Self Respect Keshub Chunder
(c) Punjab
(d) Gujarat Movement Sen
58. With reference to Zamindari System Which of the pair/s given above is/are
consider following statement: correct?
1. It was introduced in provinces of (a) 2 only
Bengal, Bihar, Orissa and Varanasi.
(b) 1 and 2 only
2. The landlords or Zamindars had a
whole village or a group of villages (c) 3 only
under their control. (d) 2 and 3 only

61. With reference to the Battle of Buxar 64. Which of the following statements about
consider the following statements: the Indian Reform Association is correct?
1. The battle was commanded by Major
(a) It aimed to create public opinion
Hector Munro.
against child marriages; for uplift of
2. The battle resulted in the 1765 Treaty
social status of women; to legalise
of Allahabad, in which the Mughal
Emperor surrendered sovereignty of Brahmo type of marriage.
Bengal to the British. (b) It asserted Hindu faith over other
3. Hector became the first governor of religions; within a revivalist framework,
Bengal. denounced rites, Brahmins’supremacy,
Which of the above statement is/are correct? idolatry, superstitions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c)
It drew inspiration from
(b) 1 and 3 only
Upanishads,philosophy of the Vedanta
(c) 2 and 3 only
etc. to aim at religious revival and
(d) 1 and 2 only
social reform.
62. With reference to tribals during British Rule
in India, consider the following statements: (d) It defended Islam from attacks
1. The British government, in general, by Christian missionaries, Hindu
wanted the tribals to not settle in one revivalists; belief in a universal
place and move from place to place religion.
so that their cultural diversity can be 65. Arrange the following Political Associations
spread.
of colonial India era in chronological order:
2. Hazaribagh, in present-day Jharkhand,
was an area where the Santhals reared 1. Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha
cocoons. 2. Madras Mahajan Sabha
3. Initially, the movement of Birsa Mund
3. British Indian Association
was aimed at reforming tribal society.
Which of the statements given above are 4. Bombay Presidency Association
correct? Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 2 and 3 only gives below:
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 2-1-3-4
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1-3-2-4
63. With reference to Lord Macaulay’s Minute, (c) 2-4-3-1
consider the following statements: (d) 1-2-3-4
1. It was in favour of Anglicists.
66. Who among the following European
2. It opposed ‘downward filtration theory
to support Anglicist. presided over Chairmanship of Indian
Which of the statements given above is/are National Congress more than one time?
correct? (a) George Yule
(a) 1 only (b) Sir William Wedderburn.
(b) 2 only
(c) Alfred Webb
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Sir Henry Cotton

67. Consider following statement : 70. With reference to the Santhal revolt,
1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy opposed English consider the following statements:
education and spread of western 1. The Santhals stood against the
knowledge.
oppression in the mid 19th century in
2. Swami Vivekananda believed that the Raj Mahal Hills.
India had to learn work ethics, forms
of organisation and technological 2. They named their act of revolt as
advances from the West. ‘Ungulan’ i.e. a tumultuous revolt.
3. Dayanand Saraswati adopted Hindi for 3. Sidhu and Kanhu were its prominent
reaching out to the masses. leaders.
Which of the statements given above is / are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only
68. With reference to reforms of William (d) 1,2 and 3 only
Bentinck , consider the following statements
71. Consider the following statements:
1. In the military department, he abolished
the system of double batta. 1. The lithosphere is the narrow zone of
contact between the land, water and
2. In the judicial department he abolished
the provincial courts of appeal air.
established by Cornwallis. 2. The Antarctica is connected with the
Which of the statements given above is/are Pacific Ocean by a narrow stretch of
not correct? shallow water known as Berring strait.
(a) 1 only 3. The Southern Ocean encircles the
(b) 2 only continent of Antarctica and extends
(c) Both 1 and 2 northward to 60 degrees south latitude.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statement given above is/are
69. With respect to the Rand Murder incident, correct?
Poona (1897), consider the following
(a) 2 only
statements:
1. Prafulla chaki and khudiram bose were (b) 2 and 3 only
involved in the incident. (c) 3 only
2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was also
(d) 1, 2 and 3
implicated for it .
72. With reference to the Composition and
Which of the following statement is /are
correct? structure of atmosphere consider the
following statements:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 1. Water vapour is also a variable gas in
(c) Both 1 and 2 the atmosphere, which increases with
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 altitude.

2. Nitrogen is transparent to the to 75. Laterite soils are rich in iron oxide and
incoming solar radiation and opaque to aluminium compound because of:
outgoing terrestrial radiation.
(a) dry climate
3. The higher concentration of dust
particles is found in subtropical and (b) accumulation of dead organic matter
temperate regions. (c) leaching
Which of the statement given above is/are (d) soil erosion
correct?
76. With reference to the soil in India, consider
(a) 1 only
the following statements:
(b) 3 only
1. The laterite soil develops under tropical
(c)1 and 3 only
and subtropical climate with alternate
(d) 2 and 3 only wet and dry season.
73. With reference to the Indian climate, 2. Red soil develops on crystalline
igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall
1. During winter, there is a low-pressure in the eastern and southern parts of the
area north of the Himalayas.
Deccan plateau.
2. The western cyclonic disturbances
3. Arid soils are generally sandy in texture
are weather phenomena of the winter
months which are brought in by the and saline in nature.
westerly flow from the Mediterranean Which of the statements given above are
region. correct?
3. The changes in the pressure conditions (a) 1, 2 and 3
over the southern oceans also affect the
monsoons. (b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statement given above is/are (c) 2 and 3 only
correct? (d) 1 and 3 only
(a) 2 and 3 only
77. Consider the following statements:
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. Hemavati is a tributary of the river
(c) 1 and 3 only
Krishna.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The river Kaveri makes the second
74. During April and May when the sun shines biggest waterfall in India.
vertically over the Tropic of Cancer, which
one of the following phenomenon happens? 3. The main water divide in Peninsular
(a) High pressure develops over North- India is formed by the Western Ghats.
western India Which of the statements given above are
(b) Heavy rain in the North-western India. correct?
(c) The formation of an intense low (a) 1 and 3 only
pressure in the northwestern part of the
(b) 2 and 3 only
subcontinent.
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) No changes in temperature and pressure
occur in northwestern India (d) 1, 2 and 3

78. Consider the following statemtents: 81. Consider the following statements:
1. The location where sinking of a plate 1. Atal Tunnel is the World’s longest
occurs is called a subduction zone.
Highway tunnel above 10,000ft.
2. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge has convergent
boundries. 2. The Indian Railway has been
3. The Arctic Ridge has the fastest rate of reorganised into 5 zones.
plate movement. 3. Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port
Which of the statement/s given above is/are developed soon after Independence.
correct?
(a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
79. With reference to the interior of the earth
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. Lacoliths is a large body of magmatic (d) 1, 2 and 3
material that cools in the deeper depth 82. With reference to the Geomorphic process
of the crust and develops in the form of consider the following statements:
large domes.
2. The shield volcanoes are the largest of 1. The energy emanating from within
all the volcanoes on the earth. the earth is the main force behind
3. The upper portion of the mantle is endogenic geomorphic processes.
called asthenosphere. 2. The exogenic processes derive their
Which of the statements given above are energy from atmosphere.
correct?
3. Frost weathering occurs due to growth
(a) 1 and 2 only
of ice within pores and cracks of rocks.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
80. With reference to agriculture, consider the (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. Primitive Subsistence Farming is a
‘slash and burn’ agriculture. (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Zaid season is a short duration month (d) 1, 2 and 3
during winter between kharif and rabi
seasons. 83. Which one of the following pass is not
Which of the statement/s given above is/are crossed by the Manali - Leh highway?
correct? (a) Lungalacha la
(a) 1 only
(b) Shipki la
(b) 2 only
(c) Baralacha la
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Rohtang la

84. With reference to the grasslands of the Which among the following types of climate
world, consider the following statements: does the above description best describe?
1. The temperate grasslands of South (a) Monsoon type
Africa are called the Prairies. (b) China type
2. The temperate grasslands of North (c) British type
America are known as the velds.
(d) Meditteranean type
3. The grasslands of Prairies were the
87. Which among the following is/are the
home of Red Indians.
‘Depositional Landforms by the Glaciers’?
1. Drumlins
correct?
2. Moraines
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Cirque
(b) 3 only
4. Eskers
(c) 2 and 3 only
5. Serrated Ridge
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
85. With reference to the ‘Sargasso Sea’ ,
given below:
consider the following statements :
(a) 1, 3, and 5 only
1. It is a unique region in the Pacific
Ocean. (b) 1, 2 and, 4 only
2. It is surrounded by Gulf Stream and (c) 2, 4, and 5 only

Benguela current . (d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4 only
3. Sargasso Sea contains large quantities 88. With reference to the ‘Temperature
of seaweeds known as a brown algae. Inversion’, consider the following
4. It is an important fishing ground statements :
because of mixing of oceanic currents. 1. It is the phenomenon in which
Which of the statements given above is/are temperature decreases with increase in
correct? elevation.
(a) 1 and 4 only 2. A long winter night with clear skies

and strong wind is ideal situation for
(b) 2 and 3 only
inversion.
(c) 3 and 4 only
3. The inversion takes place in mountains
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 due to air drainage.
86. Consider the following description: Which of the statements given above is/are
This type of climate is generally found along correct?
the western margins of the continents. The (a) 1 and 2 only
summers are dry with offshore trade winds (b) 1 and 3 only
and rainfall is concentrated in winters.
(c) 3 only
Citrus fruits and olives are typical to this
type of climate. (d) 2 and 3 only

89. With reference to the ‘Fronts’, consider the 2. It is mandatory under the Companies
following statements : Act, 2013, for all listed companies and
1. When two different air masses meet, prescribed public companies to appoint
the boundary zone between them is independent directors.
called a front. 3. Independent directors are allowed
2. Occluded front occurs when an air to receive stock options from the
mass is partially lifted above the land companies.
surface. Which of the statements given above are
3. They bring abrupt changes in correct?
temperature and generally cause (a) 1 and 2 only
precipitation. (b) 2 and 3 only
4. The fronts occur in lower latitudes. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statement/s given above is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
92. With reference to the policy on archiving,
(a) 1 and 3 only declassification & compilation of war/
(b) 2 and 4 only operations histories in India, consider the
(c) 1,3 and 4 only following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. War/Operation Records should
ordinarily be declassified in 25 years.
90. With reference to the ‘Tides’ , consider the
following statements : 2. Records older than 25 years should
be appraised by archival experts and
1. Spring tides occurs when the sun, the
transferred to the National Archives of
moon and the earth are in a straight
India once the war/operations histories
line.
have been compiled.
2. Neap tides occurs when the sun and
3. Until this policy reports were not
moon are at right angles to each other.
collated or produced centrally at the
Which of the statements given above is/are Ministry of Defence.
correct?
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
91. With reference to Independent Director (d) 1, 2 and 3
of a company, consider the following
statements: 93. With reference to heliosphere, consider the
1. Independent directors to a company’s
board are supposed to safeguard the 1. It is a protective bubble created by the
interests of the promoters and other solar wind extending from the Sun into
stakeholders, including minority and interstellar space.
small shareholders, and maintain 2. Recently, scientists created its 3D map
the overall framework of corporate using data from NASA’s Interstellar
governance. Boundary Explorer (IBEX).

Which of the statement/s given above is/are 96. With reference to Tulu language, consider
correct? the following statements:
(a) 1 only
1. It is a Dravidian language spoken
(b) 2 only
mainly in two coastal districts Dakshina
(c) Both 1 and 2
Kannada and Udupi of Karnataka and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Kasaragod district of Kerala
94. With reference to All Indian Survey of
Higher Education (AISHE) report 2019-20, 2. Tulu has a rich oral literature tradition
consider the following statements: with folk-song forms like paddana, and
1. It is released by NGO Pratham every traditional folk theatre yakshagana.
year.
3. The Karnataka government has
2. Uttar Pradesh comes at number one
introduced Tulu as a language in
with the highest student enrolment
followed by Maharashtra and Tamil schools.
Nadu. Which of the statements given above are
3. Highest share of foreign students come correct?
from the neighbouring countries of
Nepal followed by Afghanistan. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only 97. With reference to Hallmarking of jewellery

(d) 1, 2 and 3 in India, consider the following statements:
95. With reference to the Dehing Patkai National 1. Hallmarking is seen as guarantee of
Park, consider the following statements:
purity or fineness of precious metal
1. It was recently upgraded from Wildlife
articles.
Sanctuary to a National Park
2. With this upgradation Assam became 2. The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS)
the state with highest number of operates hallmarking scheme in India
national parks in the country
3. In India hallmarking is available for
3. It is said to have the highest
jewellery of gold only.
concentration of the rare endangered
White Winged Wood Duck. Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

98. With reference to Sustainable Development Which of the statement/s given above is/are
Goals India Index, consider the following correct?
statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is launched by Ministry of
Environment and forest in collaboration (b) 2 and 3 only
with the United Nations in India. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. The positive stride in India’s score is (d) 1, 2 and 3
largely driven by exemplary country-
wide performance in Goal 6 and 100. With reference to Virtual Water recently in
Goal 7. news, consider the following statements:
Which of the statement/s given above is/are 1. Virtual Water (VW) is a digital
correct? algorithm to track the virtual flow of
(a) 1 only water.
(b) 2 only 2. It was conceived to understand how
(c) Both 1 and 2 water-stressed countries could provide
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 their people with essential items such
99. With reference to Mission Karmyogi, as water-intensive products which can
consider the following statements: define its trade characteristics.
1. It is launched to effect a transformational 3. This concept was used in recent study
shift from rule based training to role- of water flows hidden in agriculture
based capacity development of all civil products moving between the various
services in the country states of India.
2. To effectively roll out this mission,
Which of the statements given above is/are
a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV),
named Karmayogi Bharat, would be correct?
set up under Public Private Partnership (a) 1 and 2 only
model. .
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. This program will be delivered by
setting up a digital platform called (c) 1 and 3 only
iGOTKarmayogi (d) 1, 2 and 3
nnnn

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ANSWER KEY

GENERAL STUDIES | Test-1 (Module-1)
Date : 31st October, 2021
Answer Key
1. (b) 21. (c) 41. (c) 61. (d) 81. (c)

2. (a) 22. (b) 42. (c) 62. (a) 82. (d)
3. (b) 23. (b) 43. (a) 63. (a) 83. (b)
4. (c) 24. (c) 44. (d) 64. (a) 84. (b)
5. (d) 25. (d) 45. (c) 65. (b) 85. (c)
6. (c) 26. (c) 46. (b) 66. (b) 86. (d)
7. (a) 27. (a) 47. (b) 67. (a) 87. (b)
8. (b) 28. (d) 48. (d) 68. (d) 88. (c)
9. (b) 29. (c) 49. (b) 69. (b) 89. (a)
10. (a) 30. (b) 50. (c) 70. (a) 90. (c)
11. (c) 31. (a) 51. (d) 71. (c) 91. (a)
12. (a) 32. (d) 52. (d) 72. (b) 92. (d)
13. (c) 33. (c) 53. (b) 73. (a) 93. (c)
14. (c) 34. (b) 54. (c) 74. (c) 94. (b)
15. (d) 35. (b) 55. (a) 75. (c) 95. (c)
16. (c) 36. (d) 56. (d) 76. (a) 96. (d)
17. (d) 37. (c) 57. (b) 77. (b) 97. (a)
18. (d) 38. (a) 58. (b) 78. (a) 98. (b)
19. (b) 39. (d) 59. (b) 79. (b) 99. (c)
20. (b) 40. (b) 60. (a) 80. (a) 100. (b)

CSE (P) Test Series-2022 Test Code: 221001

Detailed Explanations
General Studies Sectional Test:

Test - 1 Modern History, Geography and CA
1. (b) the British were to encounter the powerful

In 1700, Murshid Quli Khan became the combination of the Marathas, Mysore and
Dewan of Bengal and ruled till his death in Hyderabad. He followed a policy of ring-
1727. He was succeeded by his son-in-law, fence which aimed at creating buffer zones
Shujauddin who ruled till 1739. After that, for to defend the Company’s frontiers. It was
a year (1739-40), Sarfaraz Khan, an incapable the policy of defence of their neighbours’
son of Murshid Quli Khan, became the ruler; frontiers for safeguarding their own territories.
he was killed by Alivardi Khan. Alivardi This policy of Warren Hastings was reflected
Khan ruled till 1756 and also stopped paying in his war against the Marathas and Mysore.
tributes to the Mughal emperior. The chief danger to the Company’s territories
was from the Afghan invaders and the
Black Hole Incident is the name given to
an event that took place during Nawab Marathas.
sirajuddaula’s capture of Calcutta on 20 Statement 3 is not correct: Wellesley’s
June 1756. Siraj-ud-daula is believed to have policy of subsidiary alliance was, in fact,
imprisoned 146 English persons who were an extension of the ring-fence system
lodged in a very tiny room due to which 123 which sought to reduce the Indian states
of them died of suffocation. into a position of dependence on the British
After the Battle of Plassey, Mir Jafar was government.
increasingly irritated by the interference 3. (b)
of Clive. Vansittart, the new Governor of
During the late 1820s and early 1830s, there
Calcutta, agreed to support Mir Kasim’s
emerged a radical, intellectual trend among
claim after a treaty between Mir Kasim and
the youth in Bengal, which came to be
the Company was signed in 1760.
known as the ‘Young Bengal Movement’. A
The combined armies of Mir Kasim, the young Anglo-Indian, Henry Vivian Derozio
Nawab of Awadh and Shah Alam II were (1809-31), was the leader and inspirer of this
defeated by the English forces under Major progressive trend.
Hector Munro at Buxar on October 22,
Statement 1 is correct: Drawing inspiration
1764 in a closely contested battle. The
from the great French Revolution, Derozio
importance of this battle lay in the fact that
inspired his pupils to think freely and
not only the Nawab of Bengal but also the
rationally, question all authority, love liberty,
Mughal Emperor of India was defeated by the
equality and freedom, and oppose decadent
English.
customs and traditions. The Derozians also
Hence, Option (b) is the correct option. supported women’s rights and education.
2. (a) Also, Derozio was perhaps the first nationalist
Statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct: poet of modern India.
Warren Hastings took charge as the governor- Statement 2 is not correct: There was no
general at a critical period of British rule when support from any other social group or class.

The Derozians lacked any real link with the Hence, both statements are correct. So, option
masses; for instance, they failed to take up the (c) is correct option.
peasants’ cause. 5. (d)
Statement 3 is not correct: The Derozians,
The revolt of 1857 marks a turning point in
however, failed to have a long-term impact.
the history of India. It led to far-reaching
Derozio was removed from the Hindu College
changes in the system of administration and
in 1831 because of his radicalism. The main
the policies of the British government. Even
reason for their limited success was the
before the Revolt could be suppressed fully,
prevailing social conditions at that time,
the British Parliament, on August 2, 1858,
which were not ripe for the adoption of
passed an Act for the Better Government of
radical ideas.
India. The Act declared Queen Victoria as the
4. (c) sovereign of British India and provided for
The British rule in the Indian subcontinent the appointment of a Secretary of State for
extended from the Himalayas in the north India (a member of the British cabinet).
to the Cape Comorin in the south and from Statement 1 is correct: The direct
Assam in the east to Khyber Pass in the west. responsibility for the administration of the
The British created a larger state than that country was assumed by the British Crown
of the Mauryas or the great Mughals. While and Company rule was abolished.
Indian provinces were under ‘direct’ British As per the Queen’s proclamation, the era of
rule, the princely states were under ‘indirect’
annexations and expansion had ended and the
British rule. The British sword imposed
British promised to respect the dignity and
political unity in India. A professional civil
rights of the native princes.
service, a unified judiciary and codified civil
and criminal laws throughout the length Statement 2 is correct: The Indian states were
and breadth of the country imparted a new henceforth to recognise the paramountcy of
dimension of political unity to the hitherto the British Crown and were to be treated
cultural unity that had existed in India for as parts of a single charge.
centuries. The people of India were promised freedom
From the nationalists’ point of view, this of religion without interference from British
process of unification had a two-fold effect: officials. The proclamation also promised
(i) The economic fate of the people of equal and impartial protection under law to
different regions got linked together; all Indians, besides equal opportunities in
for instance, failure of crops in one region government services irrespective of race or
affected the prices and supply in another creed.
region. The Army, which was at the forefront of the
(ii) Modern means of transport and outbreak, was thoroughly reorganised and
communication brought people, British military policy came to be dominated
especially the leaders, from different by the idea of “division and counterpoise”.
regions together. This was important for Statement 3 is correct: The Army
the exchange of political ideas and for Amalgamation Scheme, 1861 moved the
mobilisation and organisation of public Company’s European troops to the services
opinion on political and economic issues. of the Crown. Further, the European troops in

India were constantly revamped by periodical 7. (a)

visits to England, sometimes termed as the Option (a) is correct:
‘linked-battalion’ scheme.
Main Provisions of Indian Councils Act
6. (c) 1892
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Tulsi Ram, a 1. Number of additional members in Imperial
banker from Agra, also known as Shiv Dayal Legislative Councils and the Provincial
Saheb, founded this movement in 1861. The Legislative Councils was raised. In
Radhaswamis believe in one supreme being, Imperial Legislative Council, now the
supremacy of the guru, a company of pious governor-general could have ten to
people (satsang), and a simple social life. sixteen non-officials (instead of six to
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Wahabi/ ten previously). Hence, Statement 1 is not
Walliullah Movement, the teachings of correct.
Abdul Wahab of Arabia and the preachings 2. The non-official members of the Indian
of Shah Walliullah (1702-1763) inspired this legislative council were to be nominated
essentially revivalist response to Western by the Bengal Chamber of Commerce
influences and the degeneration which had and provincial legislative councils. The
set in among Indian Muslims and called for members could be recommended by
a return to the true spirit of Islam. He was the universities, municipalities, zamindars and
first Indian Muslim leader of the 18th century chambers of commerce. So the principle
to organise Muslims around the two-fold of representation was introduced.
ideals of this movement. The teachings of
3. Budget could be discussed. Hence,
Walliullah were further popularised by Shah
Abdul Aziz and Syed Ahmed Barelvi who Statement 3 is correct.
also gave them a political perspective. 4. Questions could be asked.
Haji Shariatullah, who militantly led Limitations
Farazi Movement that stood as a source of 1. The officials retained their majority in
inspiration for several revolutionaries in the the council, thus making ineffective the
Indian Freedom Struggle, was born in 1780 non-official voice. Hence, Statement 2 is
in Bahadur / Banderlakola village, Faridpur correct.
district in Bengal. His father Abdul Zaalib
2. The ‘reformed’ Imperial Legislative
was a weaver.
Council met, during its tenure till 1909,
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Ahmadiyya on an average for only thirteen days in a
Movement: The Ahmadiyya forms a sect of year, and the number of unofficial Indian
Islam which originated from India. It was members present was only five out of
founded by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad in 1889. It twenty-four.
was based on liberal principles. It described
3. The budget could not be voted upon, nor
itself as the standard-bearer of Mohammedan
could any amendments be made to it.
Renaissance, and based itself, like the Brahmo
Samaj, on the principles of universal religion 4. Supplementaries could not be asked,
of all humanity, opposing jihad (sacred war nor could answers to any question be
against non-Muslims). discussed.

8. (b) Statement (c) is correct: Because of the lack

The early nationalists did a great deal to of mass participation, the Moderates could
awaken the national sentiment, even though not take militant political positions against
they could not draw the masses to them. the authorities.
(i) They represented the most progressive 9. (b)
forces of the time. Pair 1 is correctly matched: Queen Victoria
(ii) They were able to create a wide assumed the title of ‘Kaiser-i-Hind’ or Queen
Empress of India during the Viceroyship of
national awakening of all Indians
Lord Lytton (1876-1880).
having common interests and the need
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Ilbert
to rally around a common programme
Bill controversy (1883-84) happened during
against a common enemy, and above all,
the Viceroyship of Lord Ripon (1880-1884).
the feeling of belonging to one nation.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Durand
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Commission (1893) was set up to define the
(iii) They trained people in political work Durand Line between India and Afghanistan
and popularised modern ideas. (now between Pakistan and Afghanistan;
(iv) They exposed the basically exploitative a small portion of the line touches India in
character of colonial rule, thus Pakistan occupied Kashmir). Lord Lansdowne
(1888-1894) was the Viceroy at that period.
undermining its moral foundations.
10. (a)
(v) Their political work was based on hard
realities, and not on shallow sentiments, The Charter Act of 1793
religion, etc. Hence, option (d) is The Act renewed the Company’s commercial
correct. privileges for next 20 years.
(vi) They were able to establish the basic The Company, after paying the necessary
expenses, interest, dividends, salaries, etc.,
political truth that India should be ruled
from the Indian revenues, was to pay 5 lakh
in the interest of Indians.
pounds annually to the British government.
(vii) They created a solid base for a more
The royal approval was mandated for the
vigorous, militant, mass-based national appointment of the governor-general, the
movement in the years that followed. governors, and the commander-in-chief.
(viii) However, they failed to widen their Statement 1 is correct: Senior officials of
democratic base and the scope of their the Company were debarred from leaving
demands. India without permission—doing so was
treated as resignation.
Role of Masses
Statement 2 is not correct: The Company
Statement (b) is not correct: The moderate
was empowered to give licences to individuals
phase of the national movement had a narrow as well as the Company’s employees to trade
social base and the masses played a passive in India. The licences, known as ‘privilege’ or
role. This was because the early nationalists ‘country trade’, paved the way for shipments
lacked political faith in the masses. of opium to China.

Statement 3 is not correct: The revenue Option (d) is correct: All revenues were to
administration was separated from the be raised under the authority of the governor-
judiciary functions and this led to disappearing general who would have complete control
of the Maal Adalats. over the expenditure too.
The Home Government members were to be 13. (c)
paid out of Indian revenues which continued
Statement 1 is correct: Pedro Alvarez
up to 1919.
Cabral to trade for spices; he negotiated and
11. (c) established a factory at Calicut, where he
Statement 1 is correct: By the Indian arrived in September 1500.
Councils Act, 1861, the portfolio system
Statement 2 is correct: The Dutch founded
introduced by Lord Canning laid the
their first factory in Masulipatnam.
foundations of cabinet government in India,
each branch of the administration having Statement 3 is not correct: Captain Hawkins
its official head and spokesman in the arrived in the court of Jahangir in April 1609
government, who was responsible for its itself. But the mission to establish a factory
administration. at Surat didn’t succeed due to opposition
Statement 2 is correct: By the Charter Act from the Portuguese, and Hawkins left Agra
of 1853, local representation was introduced in November 1611. In 1611, the English had
in the Indian legislature. The legislative wing started trading at Masulipatnam on the south-
came to be known as the Indian Legislative eastern coast of India and later established
Council. However, a law to be promulgated a factory there in 1616. It was in 1612 that
needed the assent of the governor-general,
Captain Thomas Best defeated the Portuguese
and the governor-general could veto any Bill
in the sea off Surat; an impressed Jahangir
of the legislative council.
granted permission to the English in early
12. (a)
1613 to establish a factory at Surat under
The Charter Act of 1833 Thomas Aldworth and not Captain Hawkins.
In India, a financial, legislative and 14. (c)
administrative centralisation of the
government was envisaged: Statement 1 is correct: Alamgir II was a
grandson of Jahandar Shah. Ahmed Shah
Option (a) is not correct: The governor-
Abdali, the Iranian invader, reached Delhi in
general was given the power to superintend,
control and direct all civil and military affairs January 1757. During his reign, the Battle of
of the Company. Plassey was fought in June 1757. The Battle
of Plassey, in 1757, is usually regarded by
Option (b) is correct: Bengal, Madras,
historians as the decisive event that brought
Bombay and all other territories were placed
under complete control of the governor- about ultimate British rule over India.
general. Statement 2 is correct: Shah Alam II (1759-
Option (c) is correct: The Governments 1806) His reign saw two decisive battles—the
of Madras and Bombay were drastically Third Battle of Panipat (1761) and the Battle
deprived of their legislative powers and left of Buxar (1764). In 1765, according to the
with a right of proposing to the governor- terms of Treaty of Allahabad (August 1765),
general the projects of law which they thought he was taken under the East India Company’s
to be expedient. protection and resided at Allahabad. He also

issued a farman granting to the Company in The poligars (or palayakkarargal) of South
perpetuity the Diwani (the right to collect India gave a stiff resistance to the British
revenue) of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. between 1795 and 1805. The main centres
15. (d) of these strong uprisings were Tinneveli (or
Statement 1 is correct: John Lawrence (1864- Thirunelveli), Ramanathapuram, Sivaganga,
1869) started a policy of masterly inactivity Sivagiri, Madurai,and North Arcot.
which was a reaction to the disasters of the The Paika Rebellion, also called the Paika
First Afghan War and an outcome of practical Bidroha. It was an armed rebellion against
common sense and an intimate knowledge of Company rule in India in 1817. The Paikas
the frontier problem and of Afghan passion
rose in rebellion under their leader Bakshi
for independence.
Jagabandhu and, projecting Lord Jagannath
Statement 2 is correct: Lytton, a nominee of as the symbol of Odia unity, the rebellion
the Conservative government under Benjamin quickly spread across most of Odisha before
Disraeli (1874-80), became the Viceroy of
being put down by the Company’s forces. It
India in 1876. He started a new foreign policy
is now declared to be the first Indian armed
of ‘proud reserve’,which was aimed at having
movement to gain independence, replacing
scientific frontiers and safeguarding‘spheres
the prevailing view of the first one being the
of influence’. According to Lytton, the
relations with Afghanistan could no longer be Indian Rebellion of 1857.
left ambiguous. 17. (d)
Statement 3 is correct: Auckland who came Option (a) is not correct: Raja Rammohan
to India as the governor-general in 1836, Roy founded the Brahmo Sabha in August
advocated a forward policy. This implied that 1828; it was later renamed Brahmo Samaj.
the Company government in India itself had Through the Sabha he wanted to institutionalise
to take initiatives to protect the boundary of
ideas of rationalism.
British India from a probable Russian attack.
Option (b) is not correct: The long-term
16. (c)
agenda of the Brahmo Samaj was to purify
Correct option is (c):
Hinduism and to preach monotheism, it was
The revolt of the Moamarias in 1769 was a based on the twin pillars of reason and the
potent challenge to the authority of Ahom Vedas and Upanishads.
kings of Assam.
Option (c) is not correct: Rammohan Roy
Velayudhan Chempakaraman Thampi of
did not want to establish a new religion.He
Thalakulam (1765–1809) was the Dalawa
only wanted to purify Hinduism of the evil
or Prime Minister of the Indian kingdom of
practices which had crept into it.
Travancore between 1802 and 1809 during
the reign of Bala Rama Varma Kulasekhara Option (d) is correct: The Samaj also tried
Perumal. He is best known for being one of to incorporate teachings of other religions
the earliest individuals to rebel against the and kept its emphasis on human dignity,
British East India Company’s supremacy in opposition to idolatry and criticism of social
India during (1808-1809). evils such as sati.

18. (d) 20. (b)

The dual system of government (1765-72) Many newspapers emerged during 19th
where the Company had the authority but no century India under distinguished and fearless
responsibility and its Indian representatives journalists. These included The Hindu and
had all the responsibility but no authority Swadesamitran under G. Subramaniya Aiyar,
continued for seven years. The period prior The Bengalee under Surendranath Banerjea,
to enactment of the Regulating act,1773 was Voice of India under Dadabhai Naoroji,
characterised by— Amrita Bazar Patrika under Sisir Kumar
● rampant corruption among servants of the Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh, Indian Mirror
Company who made full use of private under N.N. Sen, Kesari (in Marathi) and
trading to enrich themselves; Maharatta (in English) under Balgangadhar
● excessive revenue collection and Tilak, Sudharak under Gopal Ganesh
oppression of peasantry; Agarkar, and Hindustan and Advocate
under G.P. Verma. Other main newspapers
● the Company’s bankruptcy, while the
servants were flourishing. included, Tribune and Akbhar-i-am in Punjab,
Gujarati, Indu Prakash, Dhyan Prakash and
By then the British government decided to
Kal in Bombay and Som Prakash, Banganivasi
regulate the Company to bring some order
and Sadharani in Bengal.
into its business. The 1773 Regulating Act
brought about the British government’s Hence, Pair 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
involvement in Indian affairs in the effort to 21. (c)
control and regulate the functioning of the
Origin of the Earth
East India Company.
A large number of hypotheses were put
Hence, all statements are correct.
forth by different philosophers and scientists
19. (b)
regarding the origin of the earth. One of the
The Aitchison Commission (Public Service earlier and popular arguments was by German
Commission) was set up in 1886 under the philosopher Immanuel Kant. Mathematician
chairmanship of Sir Charles Umpherston Laplace revised it in 1796. It is known
Aitchison to come up with a scheme for as Nebular Hypothesis. The hypothesis
fulfilling the claims of Indians to higher and considered that the planets were formed out of
more extensive employment in public service.
a cloud of material associated with a youthful
Lee Commission, body appointed by the sun, which was slowly rotating.
British government in 1923 to consider the
Statement 1 is correct: In 1950, Otto
ethnic composition of the superior Indian
Schmidt in Russia and Carl Weizascar in
public services of the government of India.
The chairman was Lord Lee of Fareham, and Germany somewhat revised the ‘nebular
there were equal numbers of Indian and British hypothesis’, though differing in details. They
members. The Islington Commission’s report considered that the sun was surrounded
(1917) had recommended that 25 percent by solar nebula containing mostly the
of the higher government posts should go hydrogen and helium along with what may
to Indians. That report had become a dead be termed as dust. The friction and collision
letter in 1918, when the Montagu-Chelmsford of particles led to formation of a disk-shaped
Report proposed Indian appointments to one- cloud and the planets were formed through
third of the posts. the process of accretion.

Origin of the Universe they provide systematic network of lines upon

Statement 2 is correct: The most popular which the position of various surface features
argument regarding the origin of the universe of the earth, can be represented.
is the Big Bang Theory. It is also called Parallels of Latitudes
expanding universe hypothesis. Edwin Option (a) is correct: The meridians intersect
Hubble, in 1920, provided evidence that
the equator at right angles. Unlike the parallels
the universe is expanding. As time passes,
of latitude, they are all equal in length.
galaxies move further and further apart.
The longitude of a place is its angular distance
22. (b)
east or west of the Prime Meridian. It is also
The present composition of earth’s atmosphere measured in degrees.
is chiefly contributed by nitrogen and oxygen.
Option (b) is not correct: The latitude of
There are three stages in the evolution of the
a place on the earth’s surface is its distance
present atmosphere. The first stage is marked
north or south of the equator, measured along
by the loss of primordial atmosphere. In the
the meridian of that place as an angle from the
second stage, the hot interior of the earth
centre of the earth. Lines joining places with
contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere.
the same latitudes are called parallels.
Finally, the composition of the atmosphere
was modified by the living world through the If the earth were a perfect sphere, the length
process of photosynthesis. of 10 of latitude (a one degree arc of a
Statement 1 is not correct: During the meridian) would be a constant value, i.e.
cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour 111 km everywhere on the earth.
were released from the interior solid earth. Option (c) is correct: The longitudes are used
This started the evolution of the present to determine the local time with reference to
atmosphere. The early atmosphere largely the time at Prime Meridian.
contained water vapour, nitrogen, carbon
Option (d) is correct: Latitude of a place may
dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little of
be determined with the help of the altitude of
free oxygen.
the sun or the Pole Star.
Statement 2 is not correct: As the earth
Meridians of Longitude
cooled, the water vapour released started
getting condensed. The carbon dioxide in the Unlike the parallels of latitude which are
atmosphere got dissolved in rainwater and the circles, the meridians of longitude are semi-
temperature further decreased causing more circles that converge at the poles. If opposite
condensation and more rains. meridians are taken together, they complete a
Statement 3 is correct: The process through circle, but, they are valued separately as two
which the gases were outpoured from the meridians.
interior is called degassing. Continuous 24. (c)
volcanic eruptions contributed water vapour
Chemically, the Earth can be divided into the
and gases to the atmosphere.
crust, the mantle (which can be subdivided
23. (b) into the upper and lower mantle), and the core
The latitudes and longitudes are commonly – which can also be subdivided into the outer
referred to as geographical coordinates as core, and inner core.

The crust is the outermost layer of the planet, is not under enough pressure to be solid, so
the cooled and hardened part of the Earth it is liquid even though it has a composition
that ranges in depth from approximately 5-70 similar to that of the inner core.
km (~3-44 miles). The thinner parts are the 25. (d)
oceanic crust, which underlies the ocean
The atmosphere consists of different layers
basins at a depth of 5-10 km (~3-6 miles),
with varying density and temperature.
while the thicker crust is the continental crust.
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the
Statement 1 is not correct: The oceanic
atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and
crust is composed of dense material such as
extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the
iron magnesium silicate igneous rocks (like
poles and about 18 km at the equator.
basalt) whereas the continental crust is less
Statement 1 is correct: Thickness of the
dense and composed of sodium potassium
troposphere is greatest at the equator because
aluminum silicate rocks, like granite.
heat is transported to great heights by strong
The mantle, which makes up about 84% of convectional currents.
Earth’s volume, is predominantly solid, but
The stratosphere is found above the tropopause
behaves as a very viscous fluid in geological
and extends up to a height of 50 km. One
time. Movement in the mantle (i.e. convection)
important feature of the stratosphere is that it
is expressed at the surface through the motions
contains the ozone layer.
of tectonic plates. Driven by heat from deeper
Statement 2 is correct: This layer absorbs
in the interior, this process is responsible for
ultra-violet radiation and shields life on the
Continental Drift, earthquakes, the formation
earth from intense, harmful form of energy.
of mountain chains, and a number of other
geological processes. The ionosphere is located between 80 and
400 km above the mesopause. It contains
Statement 2 is correct: The mantle is also
electrically charged particles known as ions,
chemically distinct from the crust, in addition
and hence, it is known as ionosphere.
to being different in terms of rock types
and seismic characteristics. This is due in Statement 3 is correct: Radio waves
transmitted from the earth are reflected back
large part to the fact that the crust is made
to the earth by this layer. Temperature here
up of solidified products derived from
starts increasing with height. “
the mantle, where the mantle material is
partially melted and viscous. 26. (c)
The outer core, which has been confirmed to The amount and the intensity of insolation
be liquid (based on seismic investigations), is vary during a day, in a season and in a year.
2300 km thick, extending to a radius of ~3,400 The factors that cause these variations in
km. In this region, the density is estimated to insolation are : (i) the rotation of earth on
be much higher than the mantle or crust. its axis; (ii) the angle of inclination of the
sun’s rays; (iii) the length of the day; (iv)
Statement 3 is correct: Denser elements, the transparency of the atmosphere; (v) the
like lead and uranium, are either too rare to be configuration of land in terms of its aspect.
significant or tend to bind to lighter elements The last two however, have less influence.
and thus remain in the crust. The outer core The fact that the earth’s axis makes an angle

of 66 degree with the plane of its orbit round movement. In tropical regions particularly in
the sun has a greater influence on the amount northern India during summer season local
of insolation received at different latitudes. winds called ‘loo’ is the outcome of advection
27. (a) process.
Statement 1 is correct: The earth’s Statement 3 is correct: The earth after being
surface receives most of its energy in short heated by insolation transmits the heat to the
wavelengths. The energy received by the atmospheric layers near to the earth in long
earth is known as incoming solar radiation wave form. The air in contact with the land
which in short is termed as insolation. gets heated slowly and the upper layers in
contact with the lower layers also get heated.
As the earth is a geoid resembling a sphere,
This process is called conduction.
the sun’s rays fall obliquely at the top of the
atmosphere and the earth intercepts a very The transfer of heat continues until both the
small portion of the sun’s energy. bodies attain the same temperature or the
contact is broken. Conduction is important in
Statement 2 is not correct: The solar output heating the lower layers of the atmosphere.
received at the top of the atmosphere varies
29. (c)
slightly in a year due to the variations in the
distance between the earth and the sun. An earthquake in simple words is shaking of
the earth. It is a natural event.
During its revolution around the sun, the
earth is farthest from the sun (152 million The release of energy occurs along a fault. A
km) on 4th July. This position of the earth is fault is a sharp break in the crustal rocks.
called aphelion. On 3rd January, the earth is The point where the energy is released is called
the nearest to the sun (147 million km). This the focus of an earthquake, alternatively, it
position is called perihelion. is called the hypocentre. The energy waves
Therefore, the annual insolation received travelling in different directions reach the
by the earth on 3rd January (Perihelion) is surface. The point on the surface, nearest to
slightly more than the amount received on 4th the focus, is called epicentre. It is the first one
July (Aphelion). to experience the waves. It is a point directly
above the focus.
28. (d)
Option (a) is correct: All natural earthquakes
Statement 1 is correct: The air in contact
take place in the lithosphere.
with the earth rises vertically on heating in
the form of currents and further transmits Earthquake waves are basically of two types
the heat of the atmsphere. This process of — body waves and surface waves.
vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as Option (c) is not correct: Body waves are
convection. The convective transfer of energy generated due to the release of energy at the
is confined only to the troposphere. focus and move in all directions travelling
through the body of the earth.
Statement 2 is correct: The transfer of heat
through horizontal movement of air is called The body waves interact with the surface
advection. Horizontal movement of the air is rocks and generate new set of waves called
relatively more important than the vertical surface waves. These waves move along the
surface. The velocity of waves changes as

they travel through materials with different by low-explosivity. The upcoming lava moves
densities. in the form of a fountain and throws out the
Option (b) is correct: The denser the material, cone at the top of the vent and develops into
the higher is the velocity of the surface wave. cinder cone.
Option (d) is correct: The P-waves are Hence, Option (a) is correct.
similar to sound waves. They travel through 32. (d)
gaseous, liquid and solid materials. S-waves
The ocean floor may be segmented into three
arrive at the surface with some time lag. These
major divisions based on the depth as well
are called secondary waves. An important
as the forms of relief. These divisions are
fact about S-waves is that they can travel only
through solid materials. continental margins, deep-sea basins and
mid-ocean ridges.
30. (b)
Continental Margins
A tsunami is a series of waves caused by
earthquakes or undersea volcanic eruptions. These form the transition between continental
Tsunamis are waves generated by the tremors shores and deep-sea basins. They include
and not an earthquake in itself. continental shelf, continental slope,
Out in the depths of the ocean, tsunami waves continental rise and deep-oceanic trenches.
do not dramatically increase in height. But Statement 1 is correct: Ocean trenches are
as the waves travel inland, they build up to
long, narrow depressions on the seafloor.
higher and higher heights as the depth of the
These chasms are the deepest parts of the
ocean decreases.
ocean—and some of the deepest natural
Statement 1 is not correct: The speed of
spots on Earth. Ocean trenches are found in
tsunami waves depends on ocean depth rather
every ocean basin on the planet, although the
than the distance from the source of the wave.
deepest ocean trenches ring the Pacific as part
Statement 2 is correct: The effect of tsunami
of the so-called “Ring of Fire”.
would occur only if the epicentre of the tremor
is below oceanic waters and the magnitude is Ocean trenches are a result of tectonic activity,
sufficiently high. which describes the movement of the Earth’s
31. (a) lithosphere. In particular, ocean trenches are a
feature of convergent plate boundaries, where
Shield Volcanoes
two or more tectonic plates meet.
Barring the basalt flows, the shield volcanoes
are the largest of all the volcanoes on the Statement 2 is correct: Mid-Oceanic Ridges
earth. forms an interconnected chain of mountain
The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous system within the ocean. It is the longest
examples. These volcanoes are mostly made mountain-chain on the surface of the earth
up of basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid though submerged under the oceanic waters.
when erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes It is characterised by a central rift system
are not steep. at the crest, a fractionated plateau and flank
They become explosive if somehow water gets zone all along its length. The rift system at the
into the vent; otherwise, they are characterised crest is the zone of intense volcanic activity.

Statement 3 is correct: Abyssal Plains Statement 4 is not correct: The deep trenches
are extensive plains that lie between the have deep-seated earthquake occurrences
continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges. while in the midoceanic ridge areas, the quake
The abyssal plains are the areas where the foci have shallow depths.
continental sediments that move beyond the 34. (b)
margins get deposited. The characteristics of each of the stages
33. (c) of landscapes developing in running water
regimes may be summarised as follows:
The post-drift studies provides considerable
information that was not available at the time Youth
Wegener put forth his concept of continental Streams are few during this stage with poor
drift. Particularly, the mapping of the ocean integration and flow over original slopes
floor and palaeomagnetic studies of rocks showing shallow V-shaped valleys with no
from oceanic regions revealed the following floodplains or with very narrow floodplains
facts: along trunk streams. Streams divides are
It was realised that all along the midoceanic broad and flat with marshes, swamp and
ridges, volcanic eruptions are common and lakes. Meanders if present develop over
they bring huge amounts of lava to the surface these broad upland surfaces. These meanders
in this area. may eventually entrench themselves into the
Statement 1 is correct: The rocks equidistant uplands.
on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic Statement 1 is correct: Waterfalls and rapids
ridges show remarkable similarities in terms may exist where local hard rock bodies are
of period of formation, chemical compositions exposed.
and magnetic properties. Rocks closer to the Mature
mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity
During this stage streams are plenty with good
and are the youngest. The age of the rocks
integration. The valleys are still V-shaped but
increases as one moves away from the crest.
deep; trunk streams are broad enough to have
Statement 2 is not correct: The ocean crust wider floodplains within which streams may
rocks are much younger than the continental flow in meanders confined within the valley.
rocks. The age of rocks in the oceanic crust
Statement 2 is correct: In the middle stages,
is nowhere more than 200 million years old.
streams cut their beds slower, and lateral
Some of the continental rock formations are
erosion of valley sides becomes severe.
as old as 3,200 million years.
Old
Statement 3 is correct: The sediments
on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very Statement 3 is not correct: Smaller tributaries
thin. Scientists were expecting, if the ocean during old age are few with gentle gradients.
floors were as old as the continent, to have a Streams meander freely over vast floodplains
complete sequence of sediments for a period showing natural levees, oxbow lakes, etc.
of much longer duration. However, nowhere Divides are broad and flat with lakes, swamps
was the sediment column found to be older and marshes. Most of the landscape is at or
than 200 million years. slightly above sea level.

35. (b) Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Himalayan

Cyclones are caused by atmospheric Mountains and the Alps are young fold
disturbances around a low-pressure area mountains with rugged relief and high conical
distinguished by swift and often destructive air peaks. The Aravali range in India is one of
circulation. Cyclones are usually accompanied the oldest fold mountain systems in the world.
by violent storms and bad weather. The range has considerably worn down due to
the processes of erosion.
Statement 1 is correct: The air circulates
inward in an anticlockwise direction in the The Appalachians in North America and
Northern hemisphere and clockwise in the the Ural mountains in Russia have rounded
Southern hemisphere. features and low elevation. They are very old
fold mountains.
Cyclones are classified as: (i) extra tropical
cyclones (also called temperate cyclones); Pair 2 is correctly matched: Block
and (ii) tropical cyclones. Mountains are created when large areas are
broken and displaced vertically. The uplifted
The World Meteorological Organisation
blocks are termed as horsts and the lowered
(WMO, 1976) uses the term ‘Tropical
blocks are called graben.
Cyclone’ to cover weather systems in which
winds exceed ‘Gale Force’ (minimum of 34 The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain
knots or 63 kph). Tropical cyclones are the in Europe are examples of such mountain
progeny of ocean and atmosphere, powered systems.
by the heat from the sea; and driven by Pair 3 is correctly matched: Volcanic
easterly trades and temperate westerlies, high mountains are formed due to volcanic activity.
planetary winds and their own fierce energy. Mt.Kilimanjaro in Africa and Mt.Fujiyama in
In India, cyclones are classified by: Japan are examples of such mountains.
1. Strength of associated winds, Mauna Kea (Hawaii) in the Pacific Ocean is
2. Storm surges an undersea dormant volcanic mountain. “
3. Exceptional rainfall occurrences. 37. (c)
Statement 2 is not correct: Extra tropical From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a
cyclones occur in temperate zones and high time lag of two hours. Hence, the time along
latitude regions, though they are known to the Standard Meridian of India (82° 30’ E)
originate in the Polar Regions. passing through Mirzapur (in Uttar Pradesh)
Cyclones that develop in the regions between is taken as the standard time for the whole
the Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer are country.
called tropical cyclones. Tropical cyclones are 38. (a)
large-scale weather systems developing over
Statement 1 is correct: The Himalayas
tropical or subtropical waters, where they get
consists of three parallel ranges in its
organized into surface wind circulation.
longitudinal extent. A number of valleys lie
36. (d)
between these ranges. The northern most range
There are three types of mountains- Fold is known as the Great or Inner Himalayas
Mountains, Block Mountains and the Volcanic or the ‘Himadri’. It is the most continuous
Mountains. range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an

average height of 6,000 metres. It contains all The Kali and Tista rivers demarcate the
the prominent Himalayan peaks. Nepal Himalayas and the part lying between
Statement 2 is correct: The outer most range Tista and Dihang rivers is known as Assam
of the Himalayas is called the Shiwaliks. They Himalayas.
extend over a width of 10-50 Km and have an 40. (b)
altitude varying between 900 and 1100 metres. There are three stages in the evolution of
These ranges are composed of unconsolidated the present atmosphere. The first stage is
sediments brought down by rivers from the marked by the loss of primordial atmosphere.
main Himalayan ranges located farther north. In the second stage, the hot interior of the
These valleys are covered with thick gravel earth contributed to the evolution of the
and alluvium. The longitudinal valley lying atmosphere. Finally, the composition of the
between lesser Himalaya and the Shiwaliks atmosphere was modified by the living world
are known as Duns. Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun through the process of photosynthesis. The
and Patli Dun are some of the well-known early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium,
Duns is supposed to have been stripped off as a
Statement 3 is not correct: The Brahmaputra result of the solar winds. This happened not
marks the eastern most boundary of the only in case of the earth, but also in all the
Himalayas. Beyond the Dihang gorge, the terrestrial planets, which were supposed to
Himalayas bend sharply to the south and have lost their primordial atmosphere through
spread along the eastern boundary of India. the impact of solar winds.
They are known as the Purvachal or the 41. (c)
Eastern hills and mountains. These hills
Statement 1 is correct: El Salvador became
running through the north-eastern states are
the first country in the world to adopt bitcoin
mostly composed of strong sandstones which
as legal tender on June 9, 2021. Under the
are sedimentary rocks. Covered with dense
law, bitcoin must be accepted by firms when
forests, they mostly run as parallel ranges and
offered as payment for goods and services.
valleys. The Purvachal comprises the Patkai
Tax contributions can also be paid in the
hills, the Naga hills, Manipur hills and the
cryptocurrency. Bitcoin is being seen for its
Mizo hills.
potential to help Salvadorans living abroad to
39. (d) send remittances back home.
Besides the longitudinal divisions, the Statement 2 is correct: Outside the
Himalayas have been divided on the basis United States, countries with the highest
of regions from west to east. These divisions crypto production and trading volumes are
have been demarcated by river valleys. For all developing nations, including China,
example, the part of Himalayas lying between Colombia and India.
Indus and Satluj has been traditionally
42. (c)
known as Punjab Himalaya but it is also
known regionally as Kashmir and Himachal Statement 1 is not correct: Rabies is a
Himalaya from west to east respectively. The vaccine-preventable, zoonotic (caused by
part of the Himalayas lying between Satluj and germs that spread between animals and
Kali rivers is known as Kumaon Himalayas. people.), viral disease. It can affect both

domestic and wild animals but in humans 44. (d)

domestic dogs are mostly responsible for Indian government recently cut the import
rabies virus transmission. It is spread to taxes on edible vegetable oils as in the past the
people and animals through bites or scratches, prices of edible oil have been nearly doubled.
usually via saliva.
Statement 1 is correct: India fulfils more than
Statement 2 is correct: It is present on all two-thirds of its edible oil demand through
continents, except Antarctica, with over 95% imports and it is world’s biggest vegetable oil
of human deaths occurring in the Asia and buyer.
Africa regions.
Statement 2 is correct: The share of palm oil
Statement 3 is not correct: Recently, Goa is more than 60 per cent of the country’s total
became the first state of India to be completely vegetable oil imports. Palm oil is the most
rabies free. Goa has not reported a single widely used and imported oil in India, but is
rabies case in the last three years. The task of mainly for bulk buyers such as food processors
rabies control has been carried out by Mission and for use in restaurants. Households usually
Rabies Project by Mission Rabies (UK based prefer soyoil, sunflower oil and rapeseed oil.
charity) and central government grant.
Statement 3 is correct: India imports palm
43. (a) oil mainly from top producers Indonesia and
An international group of archaeologists have Malaysia, while other oils, such as soybean
discovered a missing piece in the story of and sunflower, come from Argentina, Brazil,
human evolution which is termed as Nesher Ukraine and Russia.
Ramla Homo Lineage Type. Excavations at 45. (c)
the Israeli site of Nesher Ramla have recovered
Statement 1 is correct: The Global
example of this distinct Homo population,
Cybersecurity Index is a composite index
which lived in and around modern-day Israel
created, analyzed and published by the
from about 420,000 to 120,000 years ago.
International Telecommunication Union
Statement 1 is correct: With analysis it
(ITU), a specialized agency of the United
was found that these were neither Homo
Nations, to measure the commitment to
sapiens nor they were Neanderthals. Thus, it
cybersecurity of its 194 member countries to
is a unique population of Homo never before
raise cybersecurity awareness. The assessment
recognised by science.
is done on the basis of performance on five
Statement 2 is correct: The research team parameters of cybersecurity including legal
suggested that the individual descended from measures, technical measures, organisational
an earlier species may have spread out of the measures, capacity development, and
region hundreds of thousands of years ago and cooperation.
given rise to Neanderthals in Europe and their
Statement 2 is not correct: The US topped
equivalents in Asia. They also suggested that
the chart, followed by the UK and Saudi
the European Neanderthal actually began here
Arabia both on the second position, while
in the Levant and migrated to Europe, while
Estonia was ranked third in the index.
interbreeding with other groups of humans
Statement 3 is correct: India ranked 10th
Statement 3 is not correct: Nesher Ramla is
in the fourth edition of the Global Cyber
in Israel.

Security Index 2020 (GCI), a significant Statement 3 is correct: The GM rubber

jump of 37 places from its previous GCI rank plant, which is the first of its kind developed
in 2018. India also ranks fourth in the Asia- specifically for the northeast and is
Pacific region. expected to flourish in the region’s climatic
conditions. The plant has additional copies
46. (b)
of gene MnSOD (manganese-containing
NITI Aayog recently convened the National superoxide dismutase) in it and is expected
Convention on Prevention of Maternal, to revolutionize natural rubber production in
Adolescent and Childhood Obesity. India. It can protect plant cells and can also
Obesity is a condition where a person has survive in severe environmental conditions
accumulated abnormal or excessive body fat such as cold and drought.
that causes negative effects on health. For an 48. (d)
individual, obesity is usually the result of an Malaria is a potentially life-threatening
imbalance between calories consumed and disease caused by parasites (Plasmodium
calories expanded. In India, more than 135 vivax, Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium
million individuals were affected by obesity. malariae and Plasmodium ovale) that are
The prevalence of obesity in India varies due transmitted through the bite of infected female
to age, gender, geographical environment, Anopheles mosquitoes.
socio-economic status, etc. The developing Statement 1 is correct: Countries that
countries are facing high risk of obesity have achieved at least three consecutive
because of: years of zero indigenous cases can apply
1. Consumption of energy dense food (i.e. for WHO certification of their malaria-free
unhealthy food habits) status. They must present rigorous evidence
and demonstrate the capacity to prevent
2. Sedentary life style
transmission re-emerging.
3. Lack of health care services and financial
Statement 2 is correct: In 2021, two
support
countries El Salvador on February 25 and
47. (b) China on June 29 were declared malaria-free
Statement 1 is not correct: Recently, Assam by the WHO. Since 1900, 127 countries have
got the world’s first Genetically Modified registered malaria elimination.
rubber sapling which is developed by the Statement 3 is correct: In the WHO South-
Kerala-based Rubber Research Institute of East Asia Region, three countries accounted
India (RRII). RRII has earlier developed for 98% of the total reported cases in the
two high-yielding hybrid clones of rubber region, the main contributor being India
that are adapted to the climatic conditions of (58%), followed by Indonesia (30%) and
the North -East region through breeding and Myanmar (10%).
selection. This is the first time any GM crop is 49. (b)
developed exclusively. World Energy Investment Report, 2021 is
Statement 2 is correct: The sapling was released by International Energy Agency
planted at the Rubber board’s farm in Sarutari (IEA). According to it, global energy
near Guwahati. investment is expected to rebound this year

and increase 10 per cent year-on-year to administration (diwani and faujdari) as well.
around $1.9 trillion. Most of this investment This gave them extraordinary political,
will flow towards power and end-use economic and military powers over vast
sectors, shifting out of traditional fossil fuel regions of the Mughal Empire. As the
production. Renewable power will have the governors consolidated their control over the
largest share — around 70 per cent of the provinces, the periodic remission of revenue
total $530 million will be spent on new power to the capital declined.
generation capacity.
Option (b) is correct: Peasant and zamindari
50. (c) rebellions in many parts of northern and
The Union government has extended FAME western India added to these problems.
scheme by two years till 31 March 2024 These revolts were sometimes caused by the
recently. This scheme’s first phase began on pressures of mounting taxes. At other times
1 April 2015, and was extended till 31 March they were attempts by powerful chieftains
2019, and the second phase (Fame-2) that to consolidate their own positions. Mughal
began on 1 April 2019 is to end on 31 March authority had been challenged by rebellious
2022 groups in the past as well. But these groups
Statement 1 is correct: The National Electric were now able to seize the economic resources
Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 is a of the region to consolidate their positions.
National Mission document providing the The Mughal emperors after Aurangzeb were
vision and the roadmap for the faster adoption unable to arrest the gradual shifting of political
of electric vehicles and their manufacturing and economic authority into the hands of
in the country. As part of the NEMMP provincial governors, local chieftains and
2020, Department of Heavy Industry other groups.
formulated a Scheme viz. Faster Adoption
Option (c) is correct: In the midst of this
and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric
economic and political crisis, the ruler of Iran,
Vehicles in India (FAME India)
Nadir Shah, sacked and plundered the city of
Statement 2 is not correct: The scheme is Delhi in 1739 and took away immense amounts
under the ambit of the Department of Heavy of wealth. This invasion was followed by a
Industries (DHI) series of plundering raids by the Afghan ruler
Statement 3 is correct: It is designed to Ahmad Shah Abdali, who invaded north India
support the electrification of public and five times between 1748 and 1761.
shared transport and help create charging Option (d) is not correct: With the decline
infrastructure. in the authority of the Mughal emperors,
51. (d) the governors of large provinces, subadars,
Option (a) is correct: Under later mughals, and the great zamindars consolidated their
the efficiency of the imperial administration authority in different parts of the subcontinent.
broke down. It became increasingly difficult Through the eighteenth century, the Mughal
for the later Mughal emperors to keep a Empire gradually fragmented into a number
check on their powerful mansabdars. Nobles of independent, regional states. Broadly
appointed as governors (subadars) often speaking the states of the eighteenth century
controlled the offices of revenue and military can be divided into three overlapping groups:

(1) States that were old Mughal provinces like 53. (b)
Awadh, Bengal and Hyderabad. Although The name, “Poona Sarvajanik Sabha”, the
extremely powerful and quite independent, literal meaning of “sarvajanik” is “of or for
the rulers of these states did not break their all the people” (sarva = all + janik = of the
formal ties with the Mughal emperor. (2) States people). Though many of these associations
that had enjoyed considerable independence functioned in specific parts of the country,
under the Mughals as watan jagirs. These their goals were stated as the goals of all the
included several Rajput principalities. (3) The people of India, not those of any one region,
last group included states under the control community or class. They worked with the
of Marathas, Sikhs and others like the Jats.
idea that the people should be sovereign – a
These were of differing sizes and had seized
modern consciousness and a key feature of
their independence from the Mughals after a
nationalism. In other words, they believed
long-drawn armed struggle.
that the Indian people should be empowered
52. (d) to take decisions regarding their affairs.
Statement 1 is correct: The meeting at 54. (c)
Lucknow marked the reunion of the moderate The partition of Bengal infuriated people all
and radical wings of the Congress. The pact over India. All sections of the Congress – the
dealt both with the structure of the government Moderates and the Radicals, as they may be
of India and with the relation of the Hindu and called – opposed it. Large public meetings
Muslim communities. and demonstrations were organised and novel
methods of mass protest developed. The
Statement 2 is correct: Lucknow Pact,
struggle that unfolded came to be known as
(December 1916), agreement made by the the Swadeshi movement, strongest in Bengal
Indian National Congress headed by Maratha but with echoes elsewhere too – in deltaic
leader Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the All- Andhra for instance, it was known as the
India Muslim League led by Muhammad Ali Vandemataram Movement.
Jinnah; it was adopted by the Congress at its 55. (a)
Lucknow session on December 29 and by the Ghadar, (Urdu: “Revolution”), an early 20th-
league on Dec. 31, 1916. century movement among Indians, principally
Statement 3 is correct: The Congress agreed to Sikhs living in North America, to end British
separate electorates for Muslims in provincial rule in their homeland of India. The movement
council elections and for weightage in their originated with an organization of immigrants
in California called the Hindustani Workers
favour (beyond the proportions indicated by
of the Pacific Coast. Shortly after the outbreak
population) in all provinces except the Punjab
of World War I, many of the Ghadarites
and Bengal, where they gave some ground to
returned to India and for several months
the Hindu and Sikh minorities. This pact paved during 1915 carried on terrorist activities in
the way for Hindu-Muslim cooperation in the central Punjab. Attempted uprisings were
Khilafat movement and Mohandas Gandhi’s quickly crushed by the British. After the war,
noncooperation movement from 1920. the party in America split into Communist

and anti-Communist factions. The party was Permanent Settlement Act. It was introduced
dissolved in 1948, after India had achieved in provinces of Bengal, Bihar, Orissa and
independence. Varanasi. It was also known as Permanent
56. (d) Settlement System. Zamindars were
recognized as owner of the lands. Zamindars
Simon Commission, group appointed in
were given the rights to collect the rent from
November 1927 by the British Conservative
the peasants.
government under Stanley Baldwin to report
Statement 2 is not correct: In Mahalwari
on the working of the Indian constitution
System the landlords or Zamindars had a
established by the Government of India
whole village or a group of villages under their
Act of 1919. The commission consisted of
control. The Mahalwari system prevailed in
seven members—four Conservatives, two
UP, the North Western Province, Punjab and
Labourites, and one Liberal—under the joint
parts of Central India. In Zamindari System,
chairmanship of the distinguished Liberal
the Zamindars are responsible to pay a fixed
lawyer, Sir John Simon, and Clement Attlee,
rent to the government for the lands they
the future prime minister. Its composition
owned.
met with a storm of criticism in India because
Indians were excluded. The commission was Statement 3 is not correct: The Jagirdari
boycotted by the Indian National Congress system was similar to the Zamindari system.
and most other Indian political parties. It, 59. (b)
nevertheless, published a two-volume report, In 1854, the Court of Directors of the East
mainly the work of Simon. India Company in London sent an educational
57. (b) despatch to the Governor-General in India.
Ryoti was the predominant form of indigo Issued by Charles Wood, the President of the
cultivation in Bengal. The ryots sowed indigo Board of Control of the Company, it has come
under a contract system. It extended to a to be known as Wood’s Despatch. Outlining
period of either one, three to five or ten years. the educational policy that was to be followed
At the inception of the contract, the planter in India, it emphasised once again the practical
made an advance payment to the ryot to meet benefits of a system of European learning, as
the expenses of cultivation. In return, the ryot opposed to Oriental knowledge. One of the
agreed to cultivate indigo on his land. practical uses the Despatch pointed to was
economic. European learning, it said, would
The advances were generally made in October
enable Indians to recognise the advantages
or November at the rate of two rupees per
that flow from the expansion of trade and
beegah. As per the contract, the land had to
commerce, and make them see the importance
be sown with indigo, weeded and delivered at
of developing the resources of the country.
the indigo factories owned by the European
Introducing them to European ways of life,
planters where the plant was processed into
would change their tastes and desires, and
a dye.
create a demand for British goods, for Indians
58. (b) would begin to appreciate and buy things that
Statement 1 is correct: Zamindari System were produced in Europe. Wood’s Despatch
was introduced by Cornwallis in 1793 through also argued that European learning would

improve the moral character of Indians. It untouchables were the true upholders of an
would make them truthful and honest, and original Tamil and Dravidian culture which
thus supply the Company with civil servants had been subjugated by Brahmans. He felt that
who could be trusted and depended upon. all religious authorities saw social divisions
The literature of the East was not only full of and inequality as God-given. Untouchables
grave errors, it could also not instill in people had to free themselves, therefore, from all
a sense of duty and a commitment to work, religions in order to achieve social equality.
nor could it develop the skills required for 61. (d)
administration.
Statement 1 is correct: Battle of Buxar,
60. (a) (22 October 1764), conflict at Buxar in
Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Gradually, northeastern India between the forces of the
by the second half of the nineteenth century, British East India Company, commanded
people from within the Non-Brahman castes by Major Hector Munro, and the combined
began organising movements against caste army of an alliance of Indian states including
discrimination, and demanded social equality Bengal, Awadh, and the Mughal Empire. This
and justice. The Satnami movement in Central decisive battle confirmed British power over
India was founded by Ghasidas who worked Bengal and Bihar after their initial success at
among the leatherworkers and organised a the Battle of Plassey in 1757 and marked the
movement to improve their social status. end of the attempt to rule Bengal through a
puppet nawab. Thenceforth the company took
Pair 2 is correctly matched: According to
control. The British victory at Buxar resulted
Phule, the “upper” castes had no right to their
in a large area of the Indian subcontinent
land and power: in reality, the land belonged
coming under British control.
to indigenous people, the so-called low castes.
Phule argued that the Aryans were foreigners, Statement 2 is correct: The battle resulted in
who came from outside the subcontinent, and the 1765 Treaty of Allahabad, in which the
defeated and subjugated the true children Mughal Emperor surrendered sovereignty of
of the country – those who had lived here Bengal to the British.
from before the coming of the Aryans. Phule Statement 3 is not correct: Lord Robert
claimed that before Aryan rule there existed Clive, the victor at the Plassey, became the
a golden age when warrior-peasants tilled first governor of Bengal.
the land and ruled the Maratha countryside 62. (a)
in just and fair ways. He proposed that
Statement 1 is not correct: The British were
Shudras (labouring castes) and Ati Shudras
uncomfortable with groups who moved about
(untouchables) should unite to challenge caste
and did not have a fixed home. They wanted
discrimination. The Satyashodhak Samaj, an
tribal groups to settle down and become
association Phule founded, propagated caste
peasant cultivators. Settled peasants were
equality.
easier to control and administer than people
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Convinced who were always on the move. The British
that untouchables had to fight for their dignity, also wanted a regular revenue source for the
E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, or Periyar founded state. So they introduced land settlements –
the Self Respect Movement. He argued that that is, they measured the land, defined the

rights of each individual to that land, and 63. (a)

fixed the revenue demand for the state. Some Statement 1 is correct: The famous Lord
peasants were declared landowners, others Macaulay’s Minute settled the row in favour
tenants, the tenants were to pay rent to the of Anglicists—the limited government
landowner who in turn paid revenue to the resources were to be devoted to teaching of
state. Western sciences and literature through the
Statement 2 is correct: Hazaribagh, in medium of English language alone.
present-day Jharkhand, was an area where the
Statement 2 is not correct: The British
Santhals reared cocoons. The traders dealing
planned to educate a small section of upper
in silk sent in their agents who gave loans to
and middle classes, thus creating a class
the tribal people and collected the cocoons.
“Indian in blood and colour but English in
The growers were paid Rs 3 to Rs 4 for a
tastes, in opinions, in morals and in intellect”
thousand cocoons. These were then exported
who would act as interpreters between the
to Burdwan or Gaya where they were sold
government and masses and would enrich
at five times the price. The middlemen – so
the vernaculars by which knowledge of
called because they arranged deals between
Western sciences and literature would reach
the exporters and silk growers – made huge
the masses. This was called the ‘downward
profits. The silk growers earned very little.
filtration theory’.
Understandably, many tribal groups saw the
market and the traders as their main enemies. 64. (a)
Statement 3 is correct: Birsa was deeply Option (a) is correct: Indian Reform
influenced by many of the ideas he came Association; Calcutta (1870)- To create public
in touch with in his growing-up years. His opinion against child marriages; for uplift of
movement was aimed at reforming tribal social status of women; to legalise Brahmo
society. He urged the Mundas to give up type of marriage.
drinking liquor, clean their village, and stop Option (b) is not correct: Arya Samaj-
believing in witchcraft and sorcery. Birsa Asserted Hindu faith over other religions;
also turned against missionaries and Hindu within a revivalist framework,denounced rites,
landlords. He saw them as outside forces Brahmins’supremacy, idolatry, superstitions.
that were ruining the Munda way of life. In Dayanand Anglo-Vedic (DAV) schools were
1895 Birsa urged his followers to recover established.
their glorious past. He talked of a golden
Option (c) is not correct: The
age in the past – a satyug (the age of truth) –
Theosophical Society-Drew inspiration from
when Mundas lived a good life, constructed
Upanishads,philosophy of the Vedanta, etc to
embankments, tapped natural springs, planted
aim at religious revival and social reform.
trees and orchards, practised cultivation
to earn their living. They did not kill their Option (d) is not correct: Ahmadiya
brethren and relatives. They lived honestly. Movement; Qadiani in Punjab (1889)-
Birsa also wanted people to once again work Defended Islam from attacks by Christian
on their land, settle down and cultivate their missionaries, Hindu revivalists; belief in a
fields. universal religion.

65. (b) (1825). He was a firm believer in the concept

Political Associations Before Indian National of one God. He was opposed to idolatry
Congress and found Upanishads as the basis of true
Hinduism. He wished to purify Hinduism by
• 1836—Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha
removing all kinds of evils that had crept into
Zamindari Association or Landholders’
it over centuries.
Society
Statement 2 is correct : Swami Vivekananda
• 1843—Bengal British India Society
spread the message of spiritual Hinduism in
• 1851—British Indian Association America and Europe during his tour of 1893–
• 1866—East India Association 97. He believed that India had to learn work
• 1870—Poona Sarvajanik Sabha ethics, forms of organisation and technological
advances from the West. He pointed out that
• 1875—Indian League
the present condition of Hindus was due to
• 1876—Indian Association of Calcutta or their ignorance which was helped by their
Indian National Association being a subject race. He attempted to establish
• 1884—Madras Mahajan Sabha Hindu spiritual supremacy vis-à-vis the selfish
civilisation of the West.
• 1885—Bombay Presidency Association
He established Ramakrishna Mission in 1897
66. (b)
and set up a Math at Belur. Vivekananda
George Yule (17 April 1829 – 26 March was opposed to degeneration in religion,
1892) was a Scottish merchant in England manifold divisions, caste rigidities, practice
and India who served as the fourth President of untouchability, superstitions etc.
of the Indian National Congress in 1888 at Statement 3 is correct : Dayanand opposed
Allahabad, the first non-Indian to hold that a ritual ridden Hindu religion and called for
office. basing it on the preaching of the Vedas. Only
Sir William Wedderburn was considered Vedas, along with their correct analytical
tools, were true. He attacked puranas,
a great friend of the Indian Progressive
polytheism, idolatry and domination of the
Movement and presided at the Indian National
priestly class. He adopted Hindi for reaching
Congress, 1889 and 1910.
out to the masses. He also opposed child
At Madras in 1894, Alfred Webb became marriage. Arya Samaj started in the western
the third non-Indian (after George Yule and India and the Punjab, and gradually spread
William Wedderburn) to preside over the to a large part of the Hindi heartland. It was
Indian National Congress. founded by Dayanand Saraswati (1824-83).
In 1875, he wrote Satyarth Prakash and in the
In 1904, Sir Henry Cotton served as President
same year founded the Bombay Arya Samaj.
of the Indian National Congress.
The Lahore Arya Samaj was founded in 1877.
67. (a) Subsequently, Lahore became the epicentre
Statement 1 is not correct : Raja Ram Mohan of the Arya movement.
Roy was an advocate of modern education. 68. (d)
He was not opposed to English education and Statement 1 is correct : With respect to
spread of western knowledge. He opened an financial reform he reduced the salaries and
English school as well as a Vedanta college allowances of all officers and additional staff

were removed. In the military department, he Statement 2 is not correct: The word
abolished the system of double batta. (Batta “Ulgulan” meaning ‘Great Tumult’, sought
was an allowance to troops on active service.) to establish the right of the indigenous
By these financial reforms at the time of his people over their resources which were being
departure, he left the treasury with a surplus snatched away from the Mundas in 1899-
of Rs.1.5 millions. 1900.
Statement 2 is correct : Bentinck’s Statement 3 is correct: Sidhu Murmu
administrative reforms speak of his political and Kanhu Murmu were the leaders of the
maturity and wisdom. In the judicial
Santhal rebellion (1855–1856), the rebellion
department he abolished the provincial courts
in present-day Jharkhand and Bengal (Purulia
of appeal established by Cornwallis. They
and Bankura) in eastern India against both
were largely responsible for the huge arrears
the British colonial authority and the corrupt
of cases. This step was readily accepted by the
Directors since it cut down their expenditure. zamindari system.
Another good measure of Bentinck was the 71. (c)

introduction of local languages in the lower Statement 1 is not correct: The biosphere is
courts and English in the higher courts in the the narrow zone of contact between the land,
place of Persian. water and air. It is in this zone that life, that is
69. (b) unique to this planet, exists. There are several
species of organisms that vary in size from
Mr Rand was president of Plague Commiitte
microbes and bacteria to huge mammals. All
at Poona. His provocation was tyranny of
the living organisms including humans are
Plague Commitee on sending soldiers to
linked to each other and to the biosphere for
inspect house of civilians for plague afflicted
persons. Mr Rand was target of attack but Lt. survival.
Ayerst was shot accidentally. Statement 2 is not correct: The Arctic
Statement 1 is not correct: It was the chapekar Ocean is located within the Arctic Circle
brothers Damodar and Balkrishna who and surrounds the North Pole. It is connected
committed the murder. with the Pacific Ocean by a narrow stretch of
shallow water known as Berring strait. It is
Statement 2 is correct: In 1897, Bal Gangadhar
bound by northern coasts of North America
Tilak, known for his criticism of the British,
and Eurasia.
was charged under Section 124A for his views
in Kesari, his Marathi-language newspaper.. Statement 3 is correct: The Southern
Ocean encircles the continent of Antarctica
70. (a)
and extends northward to 60 degrees south
Statement 1 is correct: The Santhal rebellion latitude.
of 1855-56 was a major tribal rebellion by the
72. (b)
Santhals who started an uprising against
the oppressive policies of the British. The Statement 1 is not correct: Water vapour is
rebellion spread rapidly to the region also a variable gas in the atmosphere, which
between Rajmahal and Bhagalpur (not the decreases with altitude. In the warm and wet
Chota Nagpur plateau) but was mercilessly tropics, it may account for four per cent of the
suppressed by the British with people being air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas
killed and entire villages being burnt. of desert and polar regions, it may be less

than one per cent of the air. Water vapour also winter months brought in by the westerly
decreases from the equator towards the poles. flow from the Mediterranean region. They
It also absorbs parts of the insolation from the usually influence the weather of the north
sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat. and north-western regions of India. Tropical
It thus, acts like a blanket allowing the earth cyclones occur during the monsoon as well as
neither to become too cold nor too hot. in October - November, and are part of the
Statement 2 is not correct: Carbon dioxide is easterly flow. These distrurbances affect the
meteorologically a very important gas as it is coastal regions of the country.
transparent to the incoming solar radiation but Statement 3 is correct: It has also been
opaque to the outgoing terrestrial radiation. noticed that changes in the pressure conditions
It absorbs a part of terrestrial radiation and over the southern oceans also affect the
reflects back some part of it towards the monsoons. Normally when the tropical
earth’s surface. It is largely responsible for eastern south Pacific Ocean experiences high
the green house effect. pressure, the tropical eastern Indian Ocean
Statement 3 is correct: Atmosphere has experiences low pressure. But in certain years,
a sufficient capacity to keep small solid there is a reversal in the pressure conditions
particles, which may originate from different and the eastern Pacific has lower pressure
sources and include sea salts, fine soil, smoke- in comparison to the eastern Indian Ocean.
soot, ash, pollen, dust and disintegrated This periodic change in pressure conditions is
particles of meteors. Dust particles are known as the Southern Oscillation or SO.
generally concentrated in the lower layers
74. (c)
of the atmosphere; yet, convectional air
currents may transport them to great heights. Towards the end of the nineteenth century,
The higher concentration of dust particles is it was believed that the differential heating
found in subtropical and temperate regions of land and sea during the summer months
due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial is the mechanism which sets the stage for
and polar regions. Dust and salt particles act the monsoon winds to drift towards the
as hygroscopic nuclei around which water subcontinent. During April and May when
vapour condenses to produce clouds. the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of
Cancer, the large landmass in the north of
73. (a)
Indian ocean gets intensely heated. This causes
Statement 1 is not correct: The pressure and the formation of an intense low pressure in
wind conditions over India are unique. During the northwestern part of the subcontinent.
winter, there is a high-pressure area north of Since the pressure in the Indian Ocean in the
the Himalayas. Cold dry winds blow from south of the landmass is high as water gets
this region to the low-pressure areas over
heated slowly, the low pressure cell attracts
the oceans to the south. In summer, a low-
the southeast trades across the Equator.
pressure area develops over interior Asia as
well as over northwestern India. This causes 75. (c)
a complete reversal of the direction of winds The word ‘Laterite’ has been derived from
during summer. the Latin word ‘Later’ which means brick.
Statement 2 is correct: The western cyclonic The laterite soils develop in areas with high
disturbances are weather phenomena of the temperature and high rainfall. These are the

result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. also found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh,
With rain, lime and silica are leached away, southern parts of the middle Ganga plain
and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium and along the piedmont zone of the Western
compound are left behind. Humus content of Ghats. These soils develop a reddish colour
the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and
well in high temperature. These soils are poor metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it
in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and occurs in a hydrated form.
calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in Statement 3 is correct: Arid soils range from
excess. Hence, laterites are not suitable for red to brown in colour. They are generally
cultivation; however, application of manures sandy in texture and saline in nature. In
and fertilisers are required for making the some areas the salt content is very high and
soils fertile for cultivation. common salt is obtained by evaporating
76. (a) the water. Due to the dry climate, high
temperature, evaporation is faster and the
Statement 1 is correct: Laterite has been
soil lacks humus and moisture. The lower
derived from the Latin word ‘later’ which
horizons of the soil are occupied by Kankar
means brick. The laterite soil develops
because of the increasing calcium content
under tropical and subtropical climate with
downwards. The Kankar layer formations in
alternate wet and dry season. This soil is
the bottom horizons restrict the infiltration
the result of intense leaching due to heavy
of water. After proper irrigation these soils
rain. Lateritic soils are mostly deep to very
become cultivable as has been in the case of
deep, acidic (pH<6.0), generally deficient in
western Rajasthan.
plant nutrients and occur mostly in southern
states, Western Ghats region of Maharashtra, 77. (b)
Odisha, some parts of West Bengal and Statement 1 is not correct: The Kaveri rises
North-east regions. Where these soils support in the Brahmagri range of the Western Ghats
deciduous and evergreen forests, it is humus and it reaches the Bay of Bengal in south of
rich, but under sparse vegetation and in semi- Cuddalore, in Tamil Nadu. Its main tributaries
arid environment, it is generally humus poor. are Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini.
They are prone to erosion and degradation Its basin drains parts of Karnataka, Kerala
due to their position on the landscape. After and Tamil Nadu.
adopting appropriate soil conservation Statement 2 is correct: The river Kaveri
techniques particularly in the hilly areas of makes the second biggest waterfall in India,
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, this soil known as Sivasamudram. The hydroelectric
is very useful for growing tea and coffee. Red power generated from the falls is supplied to
laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh Mysore, Bangalore and the Kolar Gold Field.
and Kerala are more suitable for crops like
Statement 3 is correct: The main water divide
cashew nut. in Peninsular India is formed by the Western
Statement 2 is correct: Red soil develops Ghats, which runs from north to south close
on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low to the western coast. Most of the major rivers
rainfall in the eastern and southern parts of of the Peninsula such as the Mahanadi, the
the Deccan plateau. Yellow and red soils are Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri flow

eastwards and drain into the Bay of Bengal. large areas, and at times, assume depth that
These rivers make deltas at their mouths. may be several km. These are granitic bodies.
There are numerous small streams flowing Batholiths are the cooled portion of magma
west of the Western Ghats. The Narmada and chambers.
the Tapi are the only long rivers, which flow Statement 2 is correct: Barring the basalt
west and make esturies. The drainage basins flows, the shield volcanoes are the largest of
of the peninsular rivers are comparatively all the volcanoes on the earth. The Hawaiian
small in size. volcanoes are the most famous examples.
78. (a) These volcanoes are mostly made up of
basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid when
Statement 1 is correct: The location
erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes
where sinking of a plate occurs is called a
are not steep. They become explosive if
subduction zone. There are three ways in
somehow water gets into the vent; otherwise,
which convergence can occur. These are: (i)
they are characterised by low-explosivity.
between an oceanic and continental plate; (ii)
The upcoming lava moves in the form of a
between two oceanic plates; and (iii) between
fountain and throws out the cone at the top of
two continental plates.
the vent and develops into cinder cone.
Statement 2 is not correct: Divergent
Statement 3 is correct: The portion of the
Boundaries is where new crust is generated
interior beyond the crust is called the mantle.
as the plates pull away from each other. The
The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity
sites where the plates move away from each
to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of
other are called spreading sites. The best-
the mantle is called asthenosphere. The word
known example of divergent boundaries is
astheno means weak. It is considered to be
the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. At this, the American
extending upto 400 km. It is the main source
Plate(s) is/are separated from the Eurasian
of magma that finds its way to the surface
and African Plates.
during volcanic eruptions. It has a density
Statement 3 is not correct: The strips higher than the crust’s (3.4 g/cm3). The crust
of normal and reverse magnetic field that and the uppermost part of the mantle are
parallel the mid-oceanic ridges help scientists called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from
determine the rates of plate movement. These 10-200 km. The lower mantle extends beyond
rates vary considerably. The Arctic Ridge has the asthenosphere. It is in solid state.
the slowest rate (less than 2.5 cm/yr), and the
80. (a)
East Pacific Rise near Easter Island, in the
South Pacific about 3,400 km west of Chile, Statement 1 is correct: Primitive subsistence
has the fastest rate (more than 15 cm/yr). agriculture is practised on small patches of
land with the help of primitive tools like hoe,
79. (b)
dao and digging sticks and family/community
Statement 1 is not correct: Batholiths is a labour. This type of farming depends upon
large body of magmatic material that cools monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and
in the deeper depth of the crust develops in suitability of other environmental conditions
the form of large domes. They appear on the to the crops grown. It is a ‘slash and burn’
surface only after the denudational processes agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land
remove the overlying materials. They cover and produce cereals and other food crops to

sustain their family. When the soil fertility of exports and imports of highly productive
decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh granary and industrial belt stretching across
patch of land for cultivation. This type of the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal
shifting allows Nature to replenish the fertility Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and
of the soil through natural processes; land Gujarat.
productivity in this type of agriculture is low 82. (d)
as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other
Statement 1 is correct: The energy emanating
modern inputs. It is known by different names
from within the earth is the main force behind
in different parts of the country.
endogenic geomorphic processes. This
Statement 2 is not correct: India has three energy is mostly generated by radioactivity,
cropping seasons — rabi, kharif and zaid. In rotational and tidal friction and primordial
between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there heat from the origin of the earth. This
is a short season during the summer months energy due to geothermal gradients and heat
known as the Zaid season. Some of the crops flow from within induces diastrophism and
produced during ‘zaid’ are watermelon, volcanism in the lithosphere. Due to variations
muskmelon, cucumber vegetables and fodder in geothermal gradients and heat flow from
crops. Sugarcane takes almost a year to grow. within, crustal thickness and strength, the
81. (c) action of endogenic forces are not uniform
Statement 1 is correct: The World’s longest and hence the tectonically controlled original
Highway tunnel-Atal Tunnel (9.02 Km) has crustal surface is uneven.
been built by Border Road Organisation. This Statement 2 is correct: The exogenic
tunnel connects Manali to Lahul-Spiti valley processes derive their energy from atmosphere
throughout the year. Earlier the valley was determined by the ultimate energy from the
cut off for about 6 months each year owing to sun and also the gradients created by tectonic
heavy snowfall. The tunnel is buit with ultra- factors. As there are different climatic
modern specifications in the Pir Panjal range regions on the earth’s surface the exogenic
of Himalayas at an altitude of 3000 metres geomorphic processes vary from region to
from the Mean Sea Level (MSL). region. Temperature and precipitation are the
Statement 2 is not correct: The Indian two important climatic elements that control
Railways is the largest public sector various processes.
undertaking in the country. The first train Statement 3 is correct: Frost weathering
steamed off from Mumbai to Thane in 1853, occurs due to growth of ice within pores and
covering a distance of 34 km. The Indian cracks of rocks during repeated cycles of
Railway is now reorganised into 16 zones. freezing and melting. This process is most
Statement 3 is correct: Kandla in Kuchchh effective at high elevations in mid-latitudes
was the first port developed soon after where freezing and melting is often repeated.
Independence to ease the volume of trade Glacial areas are subject to frost wedging
on the Mumbai port, in the wake of loss of daily. In this process, the rate of freezing is
Karachi port to Pakistan after the Partition. important. Rapid freezing of water causes
Kandla also known as the Deendayal Port, is a its sudden expansion and high pressure. The
tidal port. It caters to the convenient handling resulting expansion affects joints, cracks and

directors and strengthened their position in 92. (d)

the remuneration and audit committees. Recently, Ministry of Defence (MoD)
1.
The appointment/reappointment or approved a policy on archiving,
removal of independent directors will now declassification, compilation and publication
take place through a special resolution, of war and operations histories.
which needs to be approved by 75 percent Statement 1 is correct: According to
of the shareholders, instead of a simple 50 the policy, records should ordinarily be
percent majority earlier. declassified in 25 years. The compiled history
2. SEBI mandated that at least two-thirds of on wars and operations, within five years,
its total members should be independent will be for internal consumption first, and
directors, earlier the minimum was 50 later the committee may decide to publicly
percent. release whole or parts of it, considering the
3.
A one-year cooling-off period must be sensitivity of the subject
observed before an independent director Statement 2 is correct: Records older than 25
who resigns can become a whole-time years should be appraised by archival experts
director on the board of a company. and transferred to the National Archives of
Statement 1 is correct: Independent directors India once the war/operations histories have
those who are not connected to the company been compiled
in any material way or those who do not have a Statement 3 is correct: The History Division
pecuniary relationship with the company. The will be responsible for coordination with
objective of appointing independent directors various departments while compiling,
to a company’s board is to have members who seeking approval and publishing of war and
will safeguard the interests of the promoters operations histories. Earlier though reports
and other stakeholders, including minority were prepared, many remained with the
and small shareholders, and maintain the respective services or other branches, and
overall framework of corporate governance. were not collated or produced centrally at the
Statement 2 is correct: It is mandatory Ministry of Defence. That is set to change
under the Companies Act, 2013, for all listed with the new policy.
companies and prescribed public companies 93. (c)
to appoint independent directors. The act Statement 1 is correct: The heliosphere is a
also lays down a code of conduct for such bubble created by the solar wind, a stream of
directors. mostly protons, electrons, and alpha particles
Statement 3 is not correct: SEBI recently that extends from the Sun into interstellar
agreed to make a reference to the Ministry of space and protects the Earth from harmful
Corporate Affairs for an amendment in the interstellar radiation.
Companies Act, 2013, to allow independent Statement 2 is correct: Reisenfeld and a team
directors to receive stock options instead of other scientists used data from NASA’s
of profit-linked commission. Currently, Earth-orbiting Interstellar Boundary Explorer
independent directors cannot receive stock (IBEX) satellite. This was done using a
options technique thats similar to how bats use sonar.

Interstellar Boundary Explorer, or IBEX, is national parks in the country, after Madhya
a small explorer NASA mission tasked with Pradesh’s 11. The Union Territory of Andaman
mapping the boundary where interplanetary and Nicobar has nine national parks.
space pushes up against interstellar space. Statement 3 is correct: Known for its elephant
IBEX uses instruments that look out toward population, Dehing Patkai is said to have the
the edge of the solar system from a 9-day highest concentration of the rare endangered
orbit around Earth. White Winged Wood Duck.
94. (b) 96. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: Annual Status
Various organisations initiated a Twitter
of Education Report (ASER) is released by
campaign demanding official language status
Pratham NGO. While All Indian Survey of
to Tulu
Higher Education (AISHE) report is released
by Ministry of Education. The report mentions Statement 1 is correct: It is a Dravidian
that the number of institutions of national language spoken mainly in two coastal
importance have increased to 135 in 2020 districts Dakshina Kannada and Udupi of
from 75 in 2015. Karnataka and Kasaragod district of Kerala
Statement 2 is correct: Uttar Pradesh comes Statement 2 is correct: Tulu has a rich oral
at number one with the highest student literature tradition with folk-song forms
enrolment followed by Maharashtra and like paddana, and traditional folk theatre
Tamil Nadu. yakshagana. Tulu also has an active tradition
of cinema with around 5 to 7 Tulu language
Statement 3 is correct: Highest share of
movies produced a year.
foreign students come from the neighboring
countries of which Nepal is 28.1% of the total, Statement 3 is correct: The Karnataka
followed by, Afghanistan 9.1%, Bangladesh government introduced Tulu as a language
4.6%, Bhutan constitutes 3.8% and Sudan in schools a few years ago. According to
3.6%. the state education department, in the year
2020, a total of 956 children from Dakshina
95. (c)
Kannada and Udupi districts wrote Tulu as
Statement 1 is correct: Assam’s Dehing the third optional language in SSLC (Class
Patkai wildlife sanctuary was recently 10) examination.
notified as a national park. It would help
promote conservation efforts and aid tourism 97. (a)
and agriculture sectors as well. Dehing Patkai Indian government recently announced
wildlife sanctuary (notified in 2004) is located the phased implementation of mandatory
inside the larger Dehing Patkai Elephant hallmarking of gold jewellery with effect
Reserve, which spreads across Dibrugarh, from June 16.
Tinsukia and Sivasagar districts of Upper Statement 1 is correct: Hallmarking is seen
Assam rich in coal and oil and is believed as guarantee of purity or fineness of precious
to be the last remaining contiguous patch of metal articles.
lowland rainforest area in Assam.
Statement 2 is correct: The Bureau of Indian
Statement 2 is not correct: Assam now is Standard (BIS) operates gold and silver
the state with the second highest number of hallmarking scheme in India and defines it as

accurate determination and official recording enhance citizen experience for government
of the proportionate content of precious metal services and improve availability of competent
in precious metal articles. work force.
Statement 3 is not correct: In India Statement 2 is not correct: To effectively
hallmarking is available for jewellery of gold roll out this mission, a Special Purpose
and silver. Vehicle (SPV), named Karmayogi Bharat,
98. (b) would be set up as a not-for-profit company
under section 8 of Companies Act, 2013 as
The third edition of the SDG India Index and
a 100% government-owned entity. The SPV
Dashboard 2020–21 was released by NITI
will be responsible to deliver and manage
Aayog recently. Since its inaugural launch
design, implement, enhance and manage a
in 2018, the index has been comprehensively
digital platform and infrastructure, manage
documenting and ranking the progress made
and deliver competency assessment services,
by States and Union Territories towards
and manage governance of telemetry data
achieving the Sustainable Development
and ensure provision of monitoring and
Goals.
evaluation.
Statement 1 is not correct: It is launched by
Statement 3 is correct: Mission Karmayogi
NITI aayog in collaboration with the United
programme will be delivered by setting up
Nations in India.
a digital platform called iGOTKarmayogi.
It tracks progress of all States and UTs on Empowered with specific role-competencies,
115 indicators that are aligned to MoSPI’s a civil servant will be able to ensure efficient
National Indicator Framework (NIF). service delivery of the highest quality
Statement 2 is correct: The country’s overall standards, the government said. The platform
SDG score improved by 6 points—from 60 in will act as a launchpad for the National
2019 to 66 in 2020–21. This positive stride Programme for Civil Services Capacity
towards achieving the targets is largely driven Building (NPCSCB), which will enable a
by exemplary country-wide performance in comprehensive reform of the capacity building
Goal 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation) and Goal apparatus at the individual, institutional and
7(Affordable and Clean Energy). process levels.
99. (c) 100. (b)
Recently, government appointed former Statement 1 is not correct: Virtual Water
Infosys CEO S D Shibu Lal as chairperson (VW) is the water involved in the production
of a three-member task force of Mission and trade of food and non-food commodities
Karmayogi or National Programme for Civil and services.
Services Capacity Building Statement 2 is correct: The concept of VW
Statement 1 is correct: It is launched to was first conceived in the 1990s to understand
effect a transformational shift from rule based how water-stressed countries could provide
training to role-based capacity development their people with essential items such as
of all civil services in the country so as to water-intensive products like food, clothing,

and shelter, which can define its trade that some VW flows between states are
characteristics. For example, a country with unsustainable as water through agricultural
limited water resources would rather import products flows from highly water-scarce
water-intensive cotton than use their precious states in North to other highly water-scarce
water in cultivating it. states in West and South. Such unsustainable
Statement 3 is correct: Recently, IIT flows are driven by a larger population and
Guwahati conducted study using this concept by arable land. In contrast, sustainable flows,
in India by analysing the water flows hidden i.e., from low to high water scarcity zones/
in agriculture products moving between states can help combat water scarcity.
the various states of India. The team found nnnn

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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022

1. Arrange the following events in 3. The movement was flourished because

6. With reference to Socio-religious 8. The early nationalists did a great deal to

3. The budget could be discussed but 3. Setting up of Lord Lansdowne

(a) 1 only (a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

1. John Lawrence Policy of Masterly 1. Prevalent rampant corruption among

(a) 1 only 24. With reference to the layers of Earth,

(a) 1 and 2 only 25. With reference to the structure of the

2. Stratosphere absorbs ultra-violet 28. With reference to the phenomenons of

CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022

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Modern History, Geography and CA

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Modern History, Geography and CA

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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022

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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022

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Modern History, Geography and CA

2. It is surrounded by Gulf Stream and (c) 2, 4, and 5 only

(a) 1 and 4 only 2. A long winter night with clear skies

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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022

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Modern History, Geography and CA

(c) 1 and 3 only 97. With reference to Hallmarking of jewellery

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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022

1. (b) 21. (c) 41. (c) 61. (d) 81. (c)

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CSE (P) Test Series-2022 Test Code: 221001

General Studies Sectional Test:

1. (b) the British were to encounter the powerful

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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022

India were constantly revamped by periodical 7. (a)

1. John Lawrence Policy of Masterly 1. Prevalent rampant corruption among