Section One: Structure 1

SECTION ONE

Structure and Written Expression

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for
standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions
for each type.
Part One: Structure (20 items)

Directions: Questions 1-20 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or
phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the ONE word or phrase that best
completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Look at the following example.
Example I Sample Answer
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes ---------
they both emit hot liquids from below the Earth's surface.
(A) due to
(B) because
(C) in spite of
(D) regardless of

The sentence should read, "Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because they both
emit hot liquids from below the Earth's surface." Therefore, you should choose (B).

Now start doing the following 20 questions.

1. It took us ------- to finish our paper. But, I do 5. My friend has not been able to recall where------.
not think it can satisfy our professor. A. does she live
A. much longer B. she lives
B. a long time
C. so long C. did she live
D. further long D. lived she

2. I ------ the responsibility of conducting the 6. While the researcher --------- his desk, he
experiment when my professor is away. found his first report that was appeared to be
A. should get destroyed.
B. am used to getting A. was cleared
C. could be getting B. would clear
D. would have gotten C. was clearing
3. Although the crime scene was searched D. had cleared
thoroughly, nothing substantial ------. 7. Two companies decided to end their
A. was found partnership due to a dispute -------- them.
B. has been finding A. beyond
C. were found B. in the middle of
D. would be found
C. between
4. She seems very desperate because she is D. by means of
typing -----to complete the report on
time.
A. too slowly 8. The professor’s explanation was so
B. too slow complicated that -------- students understood it.
C. slow enough
D. slowly A. few
B. any
C. none of
D. all of
 Section one: structure, written expression 2

9. The performance of new students turned out 15. Even if the unemployment rate ------
to be --------- well. sharply, the drop may still be temporary.
A. surprised A. to drop
B. surprisingly B. dropping
C. surprising C. have dropped
D. surprise D. drops

10. The manager investigated the files of the 16. The student managed to pass the entrance
employees -------- two persons for the examination -------- he was blind.
competition. A. in spite of the fact
A. to choose B. because
B. for to choose
C. for choosing C. since
D. have chosen D. unless

17. Not until a monkey is several years old -------

11. The students must need a rest; they -------- a to exhibit signs of independence from its
long session. mother.
A. have just finished A. it begins
B. have been finishing B. does it begin
C. are going to finish C. and begin
D. are to finish just D. beginning
18. None of the clocks in our faculty works, but
12. Some experienced teachers do all
exercises for their students --------- leave they ------ perfectly.
their students on their own. A. used to work
A. more often B. is used to working
B. while others C. have worked
C. if others D. are working
D. instead of.
13. My colleague asked me to answer his 19. Using many symbols makes ------ to put
student's question, to comment on his work, a large amount of information on a single
and -------- his paper. . map.
A. marked A. possible
B. to mark B. it possible
C. marking C. it is possible
D. mark D. that possible
20. It is unlikely that a nation would choose
war if its goals could be met ------.
14. Life in the Sahara has many negative features A. peace
including aridity and high temperatures but B. peacefully
C. peaceful
many positive aspects -------. D. in peace
A. in addition to
B. as well
C. coupled with
D. plus
 Section One: Written Expression 3

Part Two: Written Expression

Directions: In questions 21-30 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example Sample Answer

(A) (B) (C) (D)
Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fish because of the males' bright colours.
A B C D
The sentence should read, “Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish because of the males'
bright colours.” Therefore, you should choose (A).
Now start doing the following 10 items.

21. Damavand, a highest mountain in the Alborz mountain range, is in Tehran province.
A B C D

22. Educators claim TV can incite a child’s imagination, only and only if it proper used.
A B C D

23. Rocks can be broken apart by water that seeps into the cracks and freeze in low temperatures
A B C D

24. Knowledge about cultures provide insights into the learned behaviours of groups.
A B C D

25. Each person should be treated as an individually entity, not as a small part of a larger whole.
A B C D

26. After a hypothesis has been repeatedly tested, a hierarchy of scientific thought develop.
A B C D

27. Some people think that the desire to wear sunglasses are more a need to impress than
A B C

to protect the eyes

D

28. I am still looking at the job, but I hope to find something soon.
A B C D

29. Every year the area is visited by millions of tourists who come for a various of reasons.
A B C D

30. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
A B C D
 Section One: Grammar and Vocabulary in context 4

Part Three: Grammar and Vocabulary in Context (Questions 31-40)

Directions: In the following passage, ten words have been removed. Four choices have been suggested
for each gap. Choose one choice, (A), (B), (C), or (D) that you think is the most
appropriate choice for the gap. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter you have chosen.

The extinction of many species of birds has

undoubtedly been hastened by modern man. It 31.
A. estimation B. estimate
has been -----31----- that approximately 100 C. estimated D. to estimate
bird species have become extinct over the
world since 1600. In North America, the first 32.
species ----32----- to be annihilated was the A. to know B. known
C. knew D. knowing
great auk, a flightless bird that ----33---- as an
easy source of food and bait for Atlantic 33.
fishermen through the ----34---- of the A. services B. serve
nineteenth century. Shortly after the great C. to serve D. served
auk's extinction, two other North American
34.
species, the Carolina parakeet and the A. beginning B. to begin
passenger pigeon, began dwindling ----35---- C. begin D. begins
in numbers. The last Carolina parakeet and the
last passenger pigeon in captivity both died in 35.
A. noticeable B. noticing
September 1914. C. noticeably D. notice

Accidental injuries become more frequent

36.
and serious in later life. Thus, ----36---- to A. failure B. implication
safety is specially important for older C. attention D. oversight
persons.
Several factors make people ----37---- to 37.
A. inform B. incline
accidents. Poor eyesight and hearing can ----
C. indulge D. insure
38---- awareness of hazards. Arthritis,
neurological diseases, and impaired 38.
coordination and balance can make older A. decrease B. improve
people ----39----. C. desire D. impose
Various diseases and medications,
39.
alcohol, and preoccupation with personal A. firm B. unfair
problems can ----40---- drowsiness, C. faulty D. unsteady
distraction or poor physical conditioning.
When accidents occur, older persons are 40.
A. respect for B. rescue
especially vulnerable to severe injury and C. result in D. reserve
tend to heal slowly.
 Section two: Vocabulary 5

SECTION TWO:
VOCABULARY
Part One: Vocabulary in sentences: Questions 41-55
Directions: In the following sentences, some words or phrases have been underlined. Four
choices, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D), have been suggested as their synonyms. Choose
one of these choices that you think is the most appropriate synonym for the underlined
word. Then, mark the correspondent number on your answer sheet.

41. Many ships have vanished during hurricanes. 48. The recent eruptions of the volcano have
No survivors from the lost ships have ever seriously threatened the region.
been found. A. problems
A. arrived B. poisons
B. departed C. outbursts
C. returned D. outperforms
D. disappeared
42. The professor reiterated his remarks 49. The person who violates a law should be
after there were some misunderstanding. punished in any society.
A. changed A. breaks
B. repeated B. stops
C. concealed C. promotes
D. reversed D. obeys
50. It is sensible to choose advisers from a
43. The claim about sending correspondence specialised group
from computer to computer is excessive. A. advisable
A. unnecessary B. reasonable
B. unsafe C. capable
C. unnatural D. manageable
D. unrecognizable 51. The recent prize awarded to my supervisor was
the highest attainment of his academic career.
44. Despite its small land and population, the A. assignment
country has a diversified economy. B. failure
A. intensified C. hypothesis
B. dissolving D. achievement
C. magnified 52. There is a widespread rumour that there will
D. multifaceted be no exam next week.
A. expressive
45. The disgruntled students are thinking of B. effective
complaining about the recent tuitions fee C. extensive
increase. D. elusive
A. disgraced 53. It seems that young people are prone to
B. disappointed
C. displeased experience problems.
D. disallowed A. improved
46. Increased production seems to be a B. impressed
potent factor in our industrial expansion. C. irritated
A. inhibiting D. inclined
B. influential 54. A feeling of anxiety was discernible
C. powerful among the members of the team.
D. progressive A. changeable
47. His benevolent nature prevented him B. noticeable
from refusing any beggar who asks for C. acceptable
some money. D. reversible
A. generous 55. Although the price of gold fluctuates daily, it is
B. peaceful quite safe if you want to invest in it.
A. increases
C. harmless B. changes
D. blessed C. stabilizes
D. decreases.
 Section Two: Vocabulary 6

Part Two: Questions 56-70

Directions: One word or phrase is removed from questions 56-70. Four choices have
been suggested for it. Choose one choice, (A), (B), (C), or (D) that you think
best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter you have chosen.

56. The construction workers are -------- the old 63. The regional The tension between
buildings. members of tribes has --------- in recent
A. diverting weeks.
B. depressing
C. disturbing A. grabbed
D. demolishing B. defeated
C. escalated
57. Before the invention of refrigeration, the D. dreaded
-------of fish and meat must have been a 64. In human beings motivation --------- both
problem. conscious and unconscious drives.
A. treatment A. involves
B. presentation B. interacts
C. preservation
D. maintenance C. increases
D. invents
58. The manager is a very selfish person who 65. He did not intend to --------- the conversation any
does not show much -------- for others. further, for he realized that it would be impossible
A. consideration to come to an agreement.
B. estimation A. pursue
C. elaboration B. enter
D. condemnation C. follow
59. If we belong to a group and support it, we are D. prefer
expected to ------- its rules. 66. Under the new regulations no one is allowed to
A. violate smoke inside the building but you are ------- to
B. conform to smoke outside
C. react to A. arranged
D. offend B. permitted
60. My professor’s --------- was right. The result C. granted
of the experiment was exactly what he said it D. favoured
would be. 67. director argues that the product has great ---------
A. prescription for success in the area.
B. prospect A. manipulation
C. participation B. implementation
D. prediction C. potential
61. Some students read widely but seldom D. appliance
thought deeply so their apparent learning is 68. The audience praised the professor at
really quite ---------. the -------- of his speech. His
A. superficial presentation was excellent.
B. superior A. conclusion
C. superb B. comprehension
D. supercritical C. conversion
D. confession
62. An energetic and patient instructor will be a 69. Exposure to media information on family
planning may have positive ------- on behaviour.
great -------- to any education centre. A. infection
A. attempt B. infusion
B. autonomy C. inference
C. asset D. influence
D. assault 70. In recent years there has been a ---------
increase in the cost of living.
A. significant
B. violent
C. subsequent
D. emergent
 Section Three: Reading Comprehension 7

SECTION THREE
READING COMPREHENSION

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions
about it. For questions 71-100, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or
(D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill
in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Passage One: Questions 71- 78

line We believe the Earth is about 4.6 billion years old. At present we are forced to look to other
bodies in the solar system for hints as to what the early history of the Earth was like. Studies
of our moon, Mercury, Mars, and the large satellites of Jupiter and Saturn have provided
ample evidence that all these large celestial bodies were bombarded by smaller objects in a
05 wide variety of sizes shortly after the larger bodies had formed. This same bombardment
must have affected Earth as well. The lunar record indicates that the rate of impacts
decreased to its present low level about 4 billion years ago. On Earth, subsequent erosion
and crustal motions have obliterated the craters that must have formed during this epoch.
Scientists estimate the Earth's age by measuring the ratios of various radioactive elements
10 in rocks. The oldest Earth rocks tested thus far are about 3 1/3 billion years old. But no one
knows whether these are the oldest rocks on Earth. Tests on rocks from the moon and on
meteorites show that these are about 4.6 billion years old. Scientists believe that this is the
true age of the solar system and probably the true age of the Earth

71. Which of the following processes led

to the obliteration of the craters 75. The level of impacts of the
formed by the bombardment of the bombardments of Earth have ------.
Earth by celestial bodies? A. decreased to below normal
A. Crustal motions B. increased to a current high
B. Gravity C. decreased to a current low
C. Volcanic activity D. increased after a periodic low
D. Solar radiation
72. What is the BEST title for this passage? 76. Bombardment of the Earth at one time
A. Determining the Age of the Earth by various sized bodies is -------.
B. Determining the Age of the Solar A. proven by the lunar record
System B. inferred from what happened on
C. Erosion and Crustal Motion of Earth other planetary bodies
D. Radioactive Elements in Rocks C. documented fact
D. indicated by erosion
73. In line 5, the word “bombardment"
means --------. 77. Which of the following bodies was
A. an avoidance NOT studied to give evidence that
B. an assault the Earth was bombarded in its early
C. an effect history?
D. a cause A. Mars
74. According to this passage, the B. Mercury
scientists estimate the age of the C. Jupiter
Earth by -------. D. Earth's moon
A. examining fossils
B. measuring the ratios of radioactive 78. According to the passage, why are
elements in rocks scientists forced to look at other bodies
C. studying sunspots in the solar system to determine the
D. examining volcanic activity early history of the Earth?
A. Human alteration of the Earth
B. Solar flares
C. Erosion and crustal motions
D. Deforestation
 Section Three: Reading Comprehension 8

Passage Two: Questions 79-85

A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, that provides
information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are the
Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during campaigns presidential
line knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.
05 North Americans are familiar with the many "person on the street” interviews on local television
news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate
indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a
certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favour of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or
factory workers, depending on which area the news people select. Second, television interviews tend
10 to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who
may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it
is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of
questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it. It
15 must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions
that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired.
Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done properly and the
questions are worded accurately.
There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of
survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people find
20 it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written
questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject's
underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and
more consistent.

79. According to paragraph 3, which of the

following is most important for an
effective survey?
A. A high number of respondents
B. Carefully worded questions
C. An interviewer's ability to measure
respondents' feelings
D. A sociologist who is able to interpret the
results
80. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Problems associated with interpreting
surveys
B. The history of surveys in North America
C. The principles of conducting surveys
D. The importance of polls in American
political life
81. According to the passage, the main
disadvantage of person-on-the-street
interviews is that they -----.
A. are not based on a representative
sampling
B. are used only on television
C. are not carefully worded
D. reflect political opinions
82. It can be inferred from the passage that one
reason that sociologists may become
frustrated with questionnaires is that -----.
A. respondents often do not complete and
return questionnaires
B. questionnaires are often difficult to read
C. questionnaires are expensive and difficult
to distribute
D. respondents are too eager to supplement
questions with their own opinions
83. The word "they" in line 7 refers to -----.
A. North Americans
B. news shows
C. interviews
D. opinions
84. According to the passage, one advantage
of live interviews over questionnaires is
that live interviews -----.
A. cost less
B. can produce more information
C. are easier to interpret
D. minimize the influence of the researcher

85. The word "probe" in line 21 is closest in

meaning to ------ .
A.explore C. apply
B. influence D. analyse
 Section Three: Reading Comprehension 9

Passage Three Questions 86-91

Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make an
important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a business to invest in, involves
the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare the
line actual decisions made by people to theoretical ideal decisions to see how similar they are.
05 Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is, the best
decisions. Although there are several variations on the exact format that worksheets can take,
they are all similar in their essential aspects. Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear
and concise way and then listing all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent
considerations that will be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of
10 each consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical
value to reflect its relative importance. A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these
values together. The alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best decision.
Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to choose
from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper
15 decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more variables than their minds
can generally comprehend and remember. On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in
their minds at once. A worksheet can be especially useful when the decision involves a large
number of variables with complex relationships. A realistic example for many college students
is the question "What will I do after graduation?" A graduate might seek a position that offers
20 specialized training, pursue an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year.
A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will also
help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and
immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different decision than short-range
ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise the question above to
"What will I do after graduation that will lead to a successful career?"

86. The author develops the discussion in
paragraph I by means of -------- .
A. describing a process
B. classifying types of worksheets
C. providing historical background
D. explaining a theory
87. According to decision-worksheet
theory, an optimal decision is defined
as one that ------- .
A. has the fewest variables to consider
B. uses the most decision worksheets
C. has the most points assigned to it
D. is agreed to by the greatest number
of people
88.What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A tool to assist in making complex
decisions.
B. A comparison of actual decisions and
ideal decisions
C. Research on how people make
decisions
D. Differences between long-range and
short-range decision making
89. The word "pertinent" in line 8 is closest in
meaning to ------ .
A. relevant C. responsive
B. Preceding D. insightful
90. The word "succinct "in line 21 is closest in
meaning to ------ .
A. creative C. personal
B. Satisfactory D. concise
91. The author states that "On the average, people
can keep about seven ideas in their minds at
once (lines 16-17) to explain that -----
A. most decisions involve seven steps
B. human mental capacity has limitations
C. some people have difficulty making
minor as well as major decisions
D. people can learn to keep more than
seven ideas in their minds with practice
 Section Three: Reading Comprehension 10

Passage Four: Questions 92-97

Printmaking is the generic term for a number of processes, of which woodcut and engraving are
two prime examples. Prints are made by pressing a sheet of paper (or other material) against an
image-bearing surface to which ink has been applied. When the paper is removed, the image
line adheres to it, but in reverse.
05 The woodcut had been used in China from the fifth century A.D. for applying patterns to
textiles. The process was not introduced into Europe until the fourteenth century, first for textile
decoration and then for printing on paper. Woodcuts are created by a relief process; first, the artist
takes a block of wood, which has been sawed parallel to the grain, covers it with a white ground,
and then draws the image in ink. The background is carved away, leaving the design area slightly
10 raised. The woodblock is inked, and the ink adheres to the raised image. It is then transferred to
damp paper either by hand or with a printing press.
Engraving, which grew out of the goldsmith's art, originated in Germany and northern Italy in
the middle of the fifteenth century. It is an intaglio process (from Italian intagliare, "to carve"). The
image is incised into a highly polished metal plate, usually copper, with a cutting instrument, or
15 burin. The artist inks the plate and wipes it clean so that some ink remains in the incised grooves.
An impression is made on damp paper in a printing press, with sufficient pressure being applied so
that the paper picks up the ink.
Both woodcut and engraving have distinctive characteristics. Engraving lends itself to subtle
modelling and shading through the use of fine lines. Hatching and cross-hatching determine the
20 degree of light and shade in a print. Woodcuts tend to be more linear, with sharper contrasts
between light and dark. Printmaking is well suited to the production of multiple images. A set of
multiples is called an edition. Both methods can yield several hundred good-quality prints before
the original block or plate begins to show signs of wear. Mass production of prints in the sixteenth
century made images available, at a lower cost, to a much broader public than before.

92. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The origins of textile decoration 95. According to the passage, all of the following are
B. The characteristics of good-quality true about engraving EXCEPT that it ------.
prints A. developed from the art of the goldsmiths
C. Two types of printmaking B. requires that the paper be cut with a burin
D. Types of paper used in printmaking C. originated in the fifteenth century
93. According to the passage, what do woodcut D. involves carving into a metal plate
and engraving have in common?
A. They allow multiple copies to be produced 96. The word "incised" in line 14 is closest in
from one original. meaning to-------.
B. Their designs are slightly raised. A. burned C. framed
C. They achieve contrast through hatching B. cut D. baked
and cross-hatching. 97. The word "distinctive" in line 18 is closest
D. They were first used in Europe. in meaning to ----- .
94. According to the author, what made it A. similar C. irregular
possible for members of the general public B. accurate D. unique
to own prints in the sixteenth century?
A. Prints could be made at low cost.
B. The quality of paper and ink had improved.
C. Many people became involved in the
printmaking industry.
D. Decreased demand for prints kept prices
affordable--------- .
 Section Three: Reading Comprehension 11

Coherence Questions

Questions 98-100
Directions: One sentence is removed from the following four extracts. Four possible choices
(A. B. C. and D) are suggested for each blank. Choose the one choice that best
complete the extracts and make them coherent.

Question 98.
Gathering information on a possible adversary or adversaries is only the start of the
intelligence process. The raw material, once in hand, must be drawn together, analysed,
correlated and evaluated before it becomes useful knowledge. --------------------------- .
From their appraisal, which points to his most likely course of action, the target sated can
chart a course of action best designed to meet the developing situation.

98. Which of the following sentence is the best sentence for the blank?
A. The ethics of civil intelligence operations have long been debated
B. At this stage there emerges an estimate of the adversary’s intentions and of his ability
to achieve them.
C. But the richest source is usually the secret agent, who is always a highly skilled and
well-trained professional.
D.Intelligence findings are, therefore, usually classified and limited in circulation

Question 99
If you are under stress, your eating habits are making the problem worse. ------------------------. First,
cut down on coffee, tea and cola drinks. They all contain caffeine, which makes you feel better for a
few minutes, but which also destroys the vitamins in our bodies. Try not to eat sweets, biscuits and
cakes as well.

99. Which of the following sentence is the best sentence for the blank?

A. If you eat too quickly, you can have problems with your stomach in the long term
B. Remember to eat a good breakfast to start the day well
C. They consume sweets, biscuits and cakes frequently
D. In the long term, alcohol causes depression

Question 100
You need a total of about 60 minutes of physical activity a day. Here is the good news. -----------------.
Five or ten minute sessions of physical activities throughout the day are just as good for you. These may
include walking, jogging, running, and riding a bike.

100. Which of the following sentence is the best sentence for the blank?
A.This does not have to be done all at one time.
B. It will give you lots of ideas for staying fit and healthy.
C. You should turn off that television and get moving instead.
D.A program called "The Fitness Fighters" was started.
Good Luck!