SSC CHSL Tier 1 - Set 2S

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Conclusions. Taking the given statements
Mock Test Paper to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts, read
SSC CHSL (10+2) Tier – I CBE (Exam) all the conclusions and then decide which
(Based on Previous Exams) of the given Conclusions logically follows
EXAM360 App: SET NO – 2S from the given statements.
General Intelligence Statements:
I. No. purse is cloth.
1. Select the related letters from the given
II. All purses are leather.
alternatives:
Conclusions:
NCDP : ODEQ : : ? : MPRO
I. No leather is cloth.
(a) LOQN (c) OQNL
II. Some leather are cloth.
(b) NQOL (d) QNOL
III. Some leather are purses.
2. If ‘Electricity’ is related to ‘Wire’ in the
(a) Only Conclusion I follows.
same way as ‘Water’ is related to –
(b) Only Conclusion III follows.
(a) Bottle (c) River
(c) Only Conclusion I and II follows.
(b) Jug (d) Pipe
(d) All Conclusions follow.
3. A series is given with the one term missing.
8. Correct the following equation by
Choose the correct alternative from the
interchanging the two sings and two
given ones that will complete the series.
numbers.
15, 31, 101, 431, ?
7 × 6 + 5 – 4 = 33
(a) 2219 (c) 2018
(a) -, × and 4, 5 (c) +, - and 5, 6
(b) 1098 (d) 2222
(b) ×, + and 4, 5 (d) ×, - and 5, 6
4. Select the related letters from the given
9. A word is represented by only one set of
alternatives:
numbers are given in any one of the
Track : MECTV : : POND : ?
alternatives. The sets of numbers given in
(a) EOPQ (c) GOQQ
the alternatives are represented by two
(b) FPQR (d) HPPR
classes of alphabet as shown in the given
5. In the following question, select the
two matrices. The columns and rows of
missing number from the given
Matrix -1 are numbered from 0 to 4 and
alternatives:
that of Matrix -2 are the numbered from 5
12 13 156
to 9. A letter from these matrices can be
15 13 195
represented first by its row and next by its
14 ? 154
column, for example ‘D’ can be
(a) 11 (c) 21
represented by 68, 95 etc. and “P” can be
(b) 16 (d) 31
represented by 75, 97 etc. Similarly, you
6. Raju walks 40 metres towards south. Then
have to identify the set for the word
turning to his right he rides 30 metres.
“BAND”.
Then turning to his left, he rides 50 metres.
Matrix - 1
Again, he turns to his left and rides 30
0 1 2 3 4
metres. How far (in metres) is he from his
0 B C K N S
initial position?
1 K B S C N
(a) 65 (c) 80
2 C S N B K
(b) 70 (d) 90
3 N K B S C
7. In the following question below are given 4 S N C K B
some Statements followed by some Matrix – 2
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5 6 7 8 9 16. Find the number of triangles in the given
5 A O T P D f
6 T P A D O i
7 P D O T A g
8 O T D A P u
9 D A P O T re.
(a) 23, 76, 22, 77
(b) 11, 67, 40, 95
(c) 00, 55, 03, 59
(d) 44, 89, 30, 87
10. In the following question, from the given (a) 20 (c) 28
alternative words, select the word which (b) 24 (d) 32
cannot be formed using the letter of the 17. Select a suitable figure from the four
given word. alternatives that would complete the
CONSOLIDATE figure matrix.
(a) CONSOLE (c) SALTY
(b) ONSET (d) SOLID
11. Find the missing term’s
ab_ _tta_xy_ _ _b_
(a) xyabtax (c) xytabax
(b) xybytax (d) xtabyax
12. If ‘P’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘Q’ denotes ‘×’, ‘R’
denotes ‘+’ and ‘S’ denotes ‘-‘, then what
the value of –
18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 (a) 1 (c) 3
(a) 53 (c) 63 (b) 2 (d) 4
(b) 59 (d) 65 18. Choose the alternative which is closely
13. The position of how many digits in the resembles the water-image of the given
number 5934162 will remain unchanged combination.
after the digits are arrange in descending
order within the number?
(a) None (c) Two
(b) One (d) Three
(a) 1 (c) 3
14. In each of the following questions, four
(b) 2 (d) 4
words have been given out of which three
19. Identify the figure that completes the
are alike in some manner, while the fourth
pattern.
one is different, Choose out the odd one.
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(a) Moscow (c) Paris
(b) London (d) New York
(a) 1 (c) 3
15. D is brother of K, M is sister of K, R is father
(b) 2 (d) 4
of D and S is mother of M. How is K related
20. Find out from amongst the four
to R?
alternatives as to how the pattern would
(a) Son
appear when the transparent sheet is
(b) Daughter
folded at the dotted line.
(c) Son or Daughter
(d) None of these
APP
'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if
any).
I. We discussed about the problem so
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) thoroughly
II. on the eve of the examination
(a) 1 (c) 3 III. that I found it very easy to work it
(b) 2 (d) 4 out.
21. Arrange the given words in the sequence in IV. No error.
which they occur in the dictionary: (a) I (c) III
I. Herbivorous (b) II (d) IV
II. Harmony 27. In the following questions choose the word
III. House which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given
IV. Honour words.
V. Helm COMMISSIONED
(a) 12543 (c) 21534 (a) Started (c) Finished
(b) 25143 (d) 12354 (b) Closed (d) Terminated
22. In the following question, select the 28. Select the word with the correct spelling.
related letters from the given alternatives: (a) Ommineous (c) Ominous
HMPU : IOSY : : GMRF : ? (b) Omineous (d) Omenous
(a) FKOB (c) HPUJ 29. Which of phrases given below each
(b) HOUJ (d) HOJU sentence should replace the phrase printed
23. If 19 (36) 13 and 37 (81) 28 then what is in bold type to make the grammatically
the value of ‘A’ in 43 (A) 38? correct? If the sentence is correct as it is,
(a) 49 (c) 34 mark 'D' as the answer.
(b) 25 (d) 64 There are not many men who are so
24. A series is given with the one term missing. famous that they are frequently referred
Choose the correct alternative from the to by their short names only.
given ones that will complete the series. (a) Initials (c) pictures
2, 4, 13, 41, 106, ? (b) Signatures (d) No correction
(a) 172 (c) 219 30. In the following question, out of the four
(b) 191 (d) 232 alternatives, select the alternative which
25. In a certain code language, “REMOTE” is best expresses the meaning of the idiom/
written as “KYSPGS” and “BRAND” is phrase.
written as “IRDTC”. How is “MOBILE” To make clean breast of
written in that code language? (a) To gain prominence
(a) FMJCPN (c) DKHANL (b) To praise oneself
(b) KQMEQN (d) DMHCNN (c) To confess without of reserve
(d) To destroy before it blooms
English Comprehension 31. In the following the questions choose the
word which best expresses the meaning of
26. Read each sentence to find out whether
the given word.
there is any grammatical error in it. The
EMBEZZLE
error, if any will be in one part of the
(a) Misappropriate
sentence. The letter of that part is the
(b) Balance
answer. If there is no error, the answer is
(c) Remunerate
APP
(d) Clear A person of good understanding
32. Which of phrases given below each knowledge and reasoning power
sentence should replace the phrase printed (a) Expert (c) Snob
in bold type to make the grammatically (b) Intellectual (d) Literate
correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, 36. In the following question, the sentence
mark 'D' as the answer. given with blank is to be filled in with an
I need not offer any explanation regarding appropriate word. Select the correct
this incident - my behaviour is speaking alternative out of the four.
itself. My sister’s marriage passed__peacefully.
(a) will speak to itself (a) Away (c) off
(b) speaks for itself (b) By (d) out
(c) has been speaking 37. In the following question, the sentence
(d) No correction required given with blank is to be filled in with an
33. In each question below, there is a sentence appropriate word. Select the correct
of which some parts have been jumbled alternative out of the four.
up. Rearrange these parts which are There are ______ books on computer
labelled A, B, C and D to produce the science in your school library, so you need
correct sentence. Choose the proper to purchase them from the market.
sequence. (a) A few (c) few
When he (b) A little (d) the few
A. did not know 38. In questions given below out of four
B. he was nervous and alternatives, choose the one which can be
C. heard the hue and cry at midnight substituted for the given word/sentence.
D. what to do A style in which a writer makes a display
The Proper sequence should be – of his knowledge
(a) CBAD (c) DBAC (a) Pedantic (c) Pompous
(b) CDAB (d) ABCD (b) Verbose (d) Ornate
34. In each question below, there is a sentence 39. Read each sentence to find out whether
of which some parts have been jumbled there is any grammatical error in it. The
up. Rearrange these parts which are error, if any will be in one part of the
labelled A, B, C and D to produce the sentence. The letter of that part is the
correct sentence. Choose the proper answer. If there is no error, the answer is
sequence. 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if
Since the beginning of history any).
A. have managed to catch I. If you lend him a book
B. the Eskimos and Red Indians II. he will lend it to someone else
C. by a very difficult method III. and never you will get it back.
D. a few specimens of this aquatic IV. No error.
animal (a) I (c) III
The Proper sequence should be – (b) II (d) IV
(a) BCAD (c) DBCA 40. In the following questions choose the word
(b) DBAC (d) BADC which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given
35. In questions given below out of four words.
alternatives, choose the one which can be QUIESCENT
substituted for the given word/sentence. (a) Active (c) Weak
APP
(b) Dormant (d) Unconcerned out. Read the passage carefully and select
41. In the following the questions choose the the correct answer for the given blank out
word which best expresses the meaning of of the four alternatives.
the given word. The world has seen a (46) growth in several
STRINGENT spheres.
(a) Dry (c) Rigorous Agricultural production, industrial
(b) Strained (d) Shrill production, communication, medicine,
42. In the following question, out of the four education etc. have seen (47) growth. We
alternatives, select the alternative which can safely assume that the future is not as
best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ (48) as once appeared to be. We are not by
phrase. a vision of hungry hordes overwhelming
To leave someone in the lurch world food resources. Although it is (49)
(a) To come to compromise with that many people, especially in the
someone developing countries, are hungry, illiterate
(b) Constant source of annoyance to and (50) to diseases.
someone 46. (a) tremendous (b) mere (c) hardly (d)slow
(c) To put someone at ease 47. (a) equal (b) unprecedented (c)
(d) To desert someone in his difficulties negligible (d) negative
43. Select the word with the correct spelling. 48. (a) good (b) strong (c) strong (d)
(a) Inoculation (c) Inocculation high
(b) Innoculation (d) Inoclutation 49. (a) unclear (b) false (c)
Direction to Solve (44-45): incorrect (d) true
Male lions are rather reticent about 50. (a) prone (b) averse (c) liable (d)
expanding their energy in hunting more engross
than three quarters of kills are made by
lionesses are in front, tensely scanning
ahead, the cubs lag playfully behind and
General Awareness
the males bring up the rear, walking slowly, 51. Which of the following Chemical is used in
their massive heads nodding with each modern leather industries?
step as if they were bored with the whole (a) Sodium thiosulphate
matter. But slothfulness may have survival (b) Hydrochloric Acid
value. With lionesses’ busy hunting, the (c) Sulphuric Acid
males function as guard for the cubs, (d) Chromium sulphate and
protecting them particularly from hyenas. bichromate
44. When the lionesses go in search for their 52. 'Emergency Provisions' are discussed in
prey, they are very which part of Indian constitution?
(a) serious (c) playful (a) Part – 17 (c) Part – 21
(b) cautious (d) sluggish (b) Part – 18 (d) Part – 11
45. Lioness go for hunting 53. The Ancient University established by
(a) all alone Kumar Gupta is –
(b) with their male partners only (a) Nalanda (c) Aligarh
(c) with their cubs and male partners (b) Taxila (d) None of these
(d) with their cubs only 54. Which one among the following is a main
Directions (46-50): In the following system board of a computer?
passage, some of the words have been left (a) CPU (c) Microchip
(b) Keyboard (d) Mother Board
APP
55. Earth’s deepest point in water is Mariana (b) Normal goods
trench. It is located on which of the (c) Inferior goods
following oceans? (d) Both Giffen and Inferior goods
(a) Atlantic Ocean 63. Which of the following is not true about
(b) Arctic Ocean Pteridophyta?
(c) Indian Ocean (a) Dominant phase is saprophytes
(d) Pacific Ocean (b) Main plant body is diploid
56. Haemoglobin is an important component (c) Seeds are present
of _______. (d) Flowers are absent
(a) White blood cells 64. Tertali is a folk dance of _______.
(b) Red blood cells (a) Chhattisgarh
(c) Plasma (b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) All option are correct (c) Manipur
57. What is the minimum distance (in metres) (d) Karnataka
required to hear an echo? 65. If quantity of good X demanded increases
(a) 10 (c) 17 from 4000 units to 5000 units when price
(b) 13 (d) 21 of good Y increases from Rs. 75 to Rs. 90.
58. Who discovered X-rays? Find Arc Cross elasticity of demand?
(a) W.C. Roentgen (a) 0.55 (c) 0.25
(b) Albert Einstein (b) 1.66 (d) 1.22
(c) Samuel Cohen 66. Uranus is the ______planet from the sun.
(d) Edward Taylor (a) First (c) Fifth
59. Who is being awarded with Asian Award (b) Third (d) Seventh
2016 as the Chivas Social entrepreneur of 67. Who invented PlayStation?
the year? (a) Wright brothers
(a) Vikram Patel (b) Reynold B. Johnson
(b) Shri Prakash Lohia (c) Assen Jordanoff
(c) Rami Ranger (d) Ken Kutaragi
(d) Anil Agarwal 68. Indian Constitution is made up of how
60. Sheikh Hasina Wazed is the Prime Minister many words?
of which neighbouring country of India? (a) 40, 000 (c) 80, 000
(a) Pakistan (b) 60, 000 (d)1, 20, 000
(b) Bangladesh 69. Who is the author of “The Oath of the
(c) Afghanistan Vayuputras (Shiva Trilogy)”?
(d) Nepal (a) Amish Tripathi
61. Which of the following Article/ Articles (b) Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
cannot be suspended even during (c) Ruskin Bond
emergency? (d) Ashwin Sanghi
(a) Article 19 70. Bajirao I (1720-1740 AD) was the ruler of
(b) Article 20 and 21 which dynasty?
(c) Articles 22 and 23 (a) Nanda (c) Haryanka
(d) Articles 24 and 25 (b) Peshwas (d) Maurya
62. In which of the following case law of 71. Who is the writer of the novel series
demand fails? "Chronicles of Narnia"?
(a) Giffen goods (a) J. K Rowling
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(b) Chetan Bhagat (a) 2:3 (c) 3:4
(c) C. S Lewis (b) 1:1 (d) 4:3
(d) Stephany Meyer 79. A train can travel 50% faster than a car.
72. Which of the following states has the Both start from point A at the same time
maximum area of Mangrove forest? and reach point B 75 kms away from A at
(a) Rajasthan (c) Sikkim the same time. On the way, however, the
(b) Uttar Pradesh (d) West Bengal train lost about 12.5 minutes while
73. Which Country won the ICC under 19 stopping at the stations. The speed of the
Cricket World Cup in 2016? car is –
(a) Australia (c) Sri Lanka (a) 100kmph (c) 120kmph
(b) West Indies (d) South Africa (b) 100kmph (d) 130kmph
74. Which country is the largest producer of 80. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days
wheat? and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook
(a) Brazil (c) France to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C,
(b) United States (d) China they completed the work in 3 days. How
75. An object is in static equilibrium when it is much is to be paid to C?
_______. (a) Rs. 375 (c) Rs. 600
(a) At rest (b) Rs. 400 (d) Rs. 800
(b) Moving in a circular path 81. A father said to his son, "I was as old as you
(c) Moving with uniform velocity are at the present at the time of your
(d) Acceleration with uniform birth". If the father's age is 38 years now,
the son's age five years back was –
(a) 14 years (c) 33 years
Quantitative Aptitude (b) 19 years (d) 38 years
76. Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two 82. Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per
sides of a lighthouse. The angle of kg are mixed with a third variety in the
elevation of the top of the lighthouse is ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs.
observed from the ships are 30° and 45° 153 per kg, the price of the third variety
respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m per kg will be –
high, the distance between the two ships is (a) Rs. 169.50 (c) Rs. 175.50
– (b) Rs. 170 (d) Rs. 180
(a) 173 metre (c) 273 metre 83. What is the difference between the
(b) 200 metre (d) 300 metre compound interests on Rs. 5000 for 1.5
77. Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs. years at 4% per annum compounded yearly
13,900 divided in two different schemes A and half-yearly?
and B at the simple interest rate of 14% (a) Rs. 2.04 (c) Rs. 4.80
p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total (b) Rs. 3.06 (d) Rs. 8.30
amount of simple interest earned in 2 84. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48
years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount minutes to cover a certain distance, while
invested in Scheme B? it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance
(a) Rs. 6400 (c) Rs. 7200 running downstream. What is the ratio
(b) Rs. 6500 (d) Rs. 7500 between the speed of the boat and speed
78. Two numbers A and B are such that the of the water current respectively?
sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is two-third of (a) 2:1 (c) 8:3
the sum of 6% of A and 8% of B. Find the (b) 3:2 (d) 6:4
ratio of A : B.
APP
85. Insert the missing number. average sales of branches B1, B3 and B6 in
8, 7, 11, 12, 14, 17, 17, 22, (....) 2000?
(a) 27 (c) 22 (a) 75% (c) 82.5%
(b) 20 (d) 24 (b) 77.5% (d) 87.5%
86. If tan A + cot A =2, then what is the value 91. Total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5
of A+ A? together for both the years (in thousand
(a) (c) numbers) is?
(b) (d) 2 (a) 250 (c) 435
(b) 310 (d) 560
87. If = , then the value of 92. What is the ratio of the total sales of
branch B2 for both years to the total sales
will be,
of branch B4 for both years?
(a) 41/40 (c) 25/16 (a) 2:3 (c) 4:5
(b) 40/41 (d) 41/9 (b) 3:5 (d) 7:9
88. √6+√6+√6+… is equal to – 93. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the
(a) 2 (c) 4 sum of the areas of the floor and the
(b) 5 (d) 3 ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of
89. A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m four walls, the volume of the hall is –
wide has two concrete crossroads running (a) 720 (c) 1200
in the middle of the park and rest of the (b) 900 (d) 1800
park has been used as a lawn. If the area of 94. A two-digit number is such that the
the lawn is 2109 sq. m, then what is the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added
width of the road? to the number, then the digits are
(a) 2.91 m (c) 5 m reversed. The number is –
(b) 3 m (d) 6.75 m (a) 18 (c) 42
Direction to solve (90-92): The bar graph (b) 24 (d) 81
given below shows the sales of books (in 95. The banker's gain on a sum due 3 years
thousand number) from six branches of a hence at 12% per annum is Rs. 270. The
publishing company during two banker's discount is –
consecutive years 2000 and 2001. (a) Rs. 960 (c) Rs. 1020
Sales of Books (in thousand numbers) from (b) Rs. 840 (d) Rs. 760
Six Branches - B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 of 96. If 3√5 + √125 = 17.88, then what will be the
a publishing Company in 2000 and 2001. value of √80 + 6√5?
(a) 13.44 (c) 21.69
(b) 26.22 (d) 22.35
97.( × × ) is equal to
(a) 5 (c) 8
(b) 6 (d) 11
98. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work
in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can
complete it in 10 days. In how many days
will 10 women complete it?
90. What percent of the average sales of (a) 35 (c) 45
branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the (b) 40 (d) 55
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99. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business.
A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and B
Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit
of Rs. 35,000, A receives –
(a) Rs. 11, 200 (c) Rs. 12, 900
(b) Rs. 14, 500 (d) Rs. 14, 700
100. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and
Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8.
There is a proposal to increase these seats
by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What
will be the ratio of increased seats?
(a) 2 : 3 : 4
(b) 3 : 7 : 6
(c) 4 : 5 : 8
(d) None of these
SSC CHSL (1+2) Tier – I CBE (EXAM) MOCK TEST PAPER (BASED ON PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS)
EXAM360 SET NO – 1S
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EXAM360 SET NO – 2S (ANSWER KEY)
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a)

6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c)
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (b)
26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b)
36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (c)
46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (d)
56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (d)
66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)
76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (b)
86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (c)
96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (a)
EXAM360 SET NO – 1S
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