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TOEFL
SECTION 1
Listening Comprehension
APPROXIMATELY 40 MINUTES
50 QUESTIONS
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section. Answer all the questions on
the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. Do not take notes or write in your test
boo at anytime. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so.
Part A
Directions: in Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation,
you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeat-
ed. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best
answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corre-
spond to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is the example
On the recording, you will hear:
(Woman) : I don’t like this painting very much.

(Man) : Neither do I.
(Narrator) : What does the man mean?
In your test book, you will read:
He doesn’t like the painting either.

He doesn’t know how to paint.
He doesn’t have any paintings.
He doesn’t know what to do.
Sample answer
B C D
Listening Comprehension 1
You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting. The best
answer to the question, ”What does the man mean?” is (A), ”He doesn’t like the painting either”.
Therefore, the correct choice is answer (A).
Now, we will begin part A with the first conversation.
1.
A. At the hospital
B. At the cinema
C. At the post office
D. At school
2.
A. The man wants to say something to the woman.
B. The man does not want to see amazing thing.
C. The man disagrees with the woman’s statement.
D. The man agrees with the woman’s statement.
3.
A. The man has not known the price of the apartment.
B. The woman helped the man to buy the apartment.
C. The man will see the apartment with the woman.
D. The man will not buy the apartment.
4.
A. She has not finished her annual report.
B. She finished her annual report after throwing her towel.
C. After finishing her annual report, the woman went to the bathroom.
D. The woman needs a help to finish her annual report.
5.
A. The woman is going to take a test.
B. The woman does not want to take a test with the man.
C. The woman has different test.
D. The woman agrees with the man’s opinion.
6.
A. The man could present well after preparing it better.
B. The presentation was not running smoothly.
C. The man hopes that he can help the woman with the presentation.
D. The man will prepare for his presentation.
2 Listening Comprehension
7.
A. The woman wants to buy a shirt for the man.
B. The man will buy a shirt with the woman.
C. The woman gives a suggestion to the man.
D. The woman will have a birthday next week.
8.
A. The woman was going to the university.
B. The man and woman will study hard for university entrance test.
C. The man and the woman will be with Tania in university.
D. Tania was not accepted in the university.
9.
A. The man needs to meet his family.
B. The man agrees to the woman’s idea.
C. The man and the woman do not want to make a design for the room.
D. The man is in the consultation room.
10.
A. The man helps the woman to make chicken soup.
B. The man was not hungry at that time.
C. The man has drunk a glass of orange juice.
D. Chicken soup is the man’s favourite food.
11.
A. At the campus
B. At the office.
C. At the restaurant
D. At the train station
12.
A. The man will work with the woman.
B. The man has not finished his proposal.
C. The man will meet Mr. Smith soon.
D. The woman will help the man to finish the proposal.
13.
A. The man lives in Singapore.
B. The man will go to Singapore with the woman next week.
C. The woman hopes that she will meet the man in Singapore.
D. The man cannot go to Singapore with the woman.
14.
A. The man got loss in trading.
B. The man had much profit from trading.
C. The man is asked by them woman to have trading.
D. The man is interested in investing his money in the stock.
15.
A. The woman does not get a seat to watch the opera.
B. The woman was so interested in the opera.
C. The woman thought that the opera was boring.
D. The woman does not want to watch the opera anymore.
16.
A. The woman likes butterflies.
B. The man has passed the final examination.
C. The man and the woman had taken care of butterflies.
D. Tio was nervous facing the final test.
17.
A. The woman did not have her breakfast.
B. The woman wants to have meal with the man.
C. The woman will buy newspaper for the woman.
D. The woman did not read the newspaper.
18.
A. The man will meet the woman in the summer holiday
B. The man has not decided what to do in the summer holiday.
C. The man and the woman will have holiday together.
D. The man and the woman need fresh air.
19.
A. The woman wants to eat a cake with the man
B. The woman will have a cake after having a test.
C. The test is very easy.
D. They will do an esay test after having a cake.
20.
A. The traditional dance performance made them bored.
B. The woman was not really interested in the performance
C. The concert traditional dance performance amazed them.
D. They won’t watch traditional dance performance anymore.
21.
A. The man is daydreaming in the meeting.
B. The man and the woman are having a meeting.
C. The meeting won’t be over soon.
D. The want to have a meeting with the woman.
22.
A. At the canteen
B. At the lobby
C. At the hotel
D. At the library
23.
A. The woman likes mathematics class.
B. Mathematics is the woman’s favourite subject.
C. They always study mathematics together.
D. Both of them do not like mathematics class.
24.
A. The man does not like the new restaurant.
B. The man will skip the lunch.
C. The man will go to the restaurant with the woman.
D. The man promises the woman to have a lunch together.
25.
A. The woman cannot cannot help the man.
B. The woman refuses the man’s offer.
C. The man does not bring the bag.
D. The woman does not bring her bag.
26.
A. The man does not like the gown.
B. The man thinks that the gown is suitable for the woman.
C. The man will buy a gown for the woman.
D. The man is the owner of the boutique.
27.
A. The woman’s sister often helps her with her assignment.
B. The man does not have a sister.
C. The woman’s sister also does not help her with the assignment.
D. The man does not have English assignment.
28.
A. The woman allows the man to borrow her dictionary.
B. The woman does not have a locker.
C. The woman does not have a dictionary.
D. The woman refuses to lend the dictionary to the man.
29.
A. The woman’s recovery is fast.
B. The man does not need to accompany the woman.
C. The woman does not like the medicine.
D. The man is the owner of the company.
30.
A. The man will not watch the Moto GP.
B. The man bought the ticket from the woman.
C. The man did not get the ticket.
D. The man will watch the Moto GP.
Part B
Directions: In this part of the test you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation you
will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of
the answer you have chosen.
Remember you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
Here is the example
(Narrator) : Questions 31 through 34. Listen to a conversation about a trip.

(Man) : Are you ready for “The Big Apple”?
(Woman) : Excuse me?
(Man) : You know, New York City. You are going to New York with us, aren’t you? I
wanted to show everybody around my old neighborhood.
(Woman) : Oh...sure! I wouldn’t miss it – especially when the tour guide is a native New
Yorker.
(Man) : I thought we could start at the Museum of Modern Art. Right now there’s an
exhibit on twentieth century American painters.
(Woman) : Fine with me..but whar were you saying about...a big apple?
(Man) : “The Big Apple.” It’s a nickname for New York. I think I heard once that it start-
ed with jazz musicians in the 20’s
(Woman) : Oh.
(Man) : Whenever they played a concert in a city, they called that city an “apple.” In
those days, New York was the biggest city in the country, so they called it “The
Big Apple.”
(Woman) : Hey, I have an idea! Let’s go to a jazz club whole we’re here.
(Man) : Sounds good.
Source: TOEFL ITP Test Taker Handbook
You will hear:
(Narrator) What is the man planning to see?

On your test book, you : A. An art exhibit
will read B. A Broadway play
C. A modern dance production
D. An opera
Sample answer
B C D
The man plan to see an art exhibit. Therefore, the correct answer for the question “what is the man
planning to see?” is A.
Now, we will begin Part B with the first cnversation
Questions 31 to 34
31.
A. At the post office
B. At the bank
C. At the ticket counter
D. At the train station
32.
A. $2,752
B. $1,755
C. $1,772
D. $1,752
33.
A. $70
B. $80
C. $90
D. $100
34.
A. 4:00
B. 5:00
C. 6:00
D. 7:00
Questions 35 to 38
35.
A. 28th of November
B. 8th of November
C. 18th of November
D. 19th of November
36.
A. $120
B. $220
C. $20
D. $122
37.
A. 6.15 p.m.
B. 6.50 p.m.
C. 6.15 a.m.
D. 6.50 a.m.
38.
A. 13 minutes before
B. 30 minutes before
C. 40 minutes before
D. 20 minutes before
Part C
Directions: In this part of the test you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some ques-
tions. The talks and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read four possible
answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is th example
(narrator) : Questions 39 through 42. Listen to an instructor talk to his class about a
television program.
(man) : I’d like to tell you about an interesting TV program that’ll be shown this
coming Thursday. It’ll be on from 9 to 10 pm on Channel 4. It’s part of a se-
ries called “Mysteries of Human Biology.” The subject of the program is the
human brain-how it functions and how it can malfunction. Topics that will be
covered are dreams, memory, and depression. These topics are illustrated
with outstanding computer animation that makes the explanations easy to
follow. Make an effort to see this show. Since we’ve been studying the ner-
vous system in class, I know you’ll find it very helpful.
Source: TOEFL ITP Test Taker Handbook
You will hear:
(Narrator) What is the main purpose of the program?

On your test book, you will read :
A. To demonstrate the latest use of computer graphics

B. To discuss the possibility of an economic depression
C. To explain the workings of the brain
D. To dramatize a famous mystery story
Sample answer
A B C D
The correct answer from the previous question is to explain the workings of the brain. Therefore, the
answer is C.
Now, we will begin to the Part C.
Question 39 to 42
39.
A. Delta variant
B. Omicron variant
C. Vaccines
D. Boosters
40.
A. December 12, 2021
B. December 22, 2021
C. December 21, 2021
D. December 20, 2021
41.
A. more difficult than Delta variant
B. more easily than the original virus causing Covid-19 and Delta variant
C. the same as the original virus causing Covid-19
D. the same as Delta variant
42.
A. COVID-19 vaccines
B. Hospitalization
C. Self isolation
D. Drugs
Question 43 to 46
43.
A. German
B. Spain
C. British
D. United States
44.
A. 2010
B. 2011
C. 2012
D. 2013
45.
A. 2017
B. 2018
C. 2019
D. 2020
46.
A. 2019
B. 2020
C. 2021
D. 2022
Question 47 to 50
47.
A. Wild animal
B. Shark
C. Whale
D. Dolphin
48.
A. 30
B. Less than 400
C. More than 400
D. 46
49.
A. 18
B. 15
C. 14
D. 59
50.
A. Basking shark
B. Whale shark
C. White shark
D. Hammerhead shark
SECTION 2
Structure and Written Expression
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for stan-
dard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each
type.
STRUCTURE
Direction: Questions 1 – 15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words
orphrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sen-
tence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corre-
sponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Look at the following examples.
Example I
Arctic wolves may ………….in a den dug into the ground or snow where this is possible, though it is not
always the case if the ground is frozen too hard.
A. gives birth
B. gave birth
C. given birth
D. give birth
Sample answer
A B C D
The sentence should read, “Arctic wolves may give birth in a den dug into the ground or snow where
this is possible, though it is not always the case if the ground is frozen too hard.” Therefore, you
should choose answer (D).
Example II
They survive in some of the ………..places on earth, they have a number of anatomical, behavioural and
physiological adaptations that allow them to do this successfully.
A. coldest
B. most coldest
12 Structure and Written Expression

C. more colder
D. most colder
Sample answer
A B C D
The sentence should read, “They survive in some of the coldest places on earth, they have a number
of anatomical, behavioural and physiological adaptations that allow them to do this successfully.”
Therefore, you should choose answer (A).
Now begin work on the questions
1. Compared to other the grey wolf and other subspecies, arctic wolves have ………. smaller ears.
A. proper
B. proportion
C. proportional
D. proportionally
2. Blood entering the paws is used to heat up blood that is leaving, this prevents the core from
………… by heat loss at the extremities.
A. Been cooled
B. Being cooled
C. Being cool
D. Been cool
3. A weather station named Eureka is pinned to the west coast and ……..a year-round staff of about
eight.
A. Maintains
B. Maintain
C. Maintaining
D. Maintained
4. Bill Gates …………. his first software program at the age of 13.
A. Writing
B. Writes
C. Write
D. Wrote
5. Largely on the strength of Microsoft’s success, Gates amassed a huge paper fortune as the com-
pany’s …………………..
A. Most largest individually shareholder
B. Most largest individual shareholder
C. Largest individually shareholder
D. Largest individual shareholder
6. In addition ………… his work at Microsoft, Gates was also known for his charitable work.
A. To
B. For
C. Being
D. From
7. During the latter part of the 1990s, the couple also funded North American libraries through
the Gates Library Foundation and ………….money for minority study grants through the Gates
Millennium Scholars program.
A. Raises
B. Raised
C. Raising
D. Raise
8. In 1988, after obtaining a Canadian passport, Elon Musk left South Africa because he was un-
willing to support apartheid through compulsory military service and because he sought the
…………………….. available in the United States.
A. greater economic opportunities
B. greatest economic opportunities
C. greater economically opportunities
D. greatest economics opportunities
9. Elon Musk had long been ………….. the possibilities of electric cars, and in 2004 he became one
of the major funders of Tesla Motors, an electric car company founded by entrepreneurs Martin
Eberhard and Marc Tarpenning.
A. interested from
B. interested at
C. interested in
D. interested for
10. After graduating summa cum laude from Princeton University with degrees in electrical engi-
neering and computer science, he undertook a series of jobs before ……… the New York invest-
ment bank D.E. Shaw & Co. in 1990.
A. Joining
B. Joined
C. Join
D. Joint
11. In 1999, Bezos added auctions to the site and invested in ………….
A. other virtually stores
B. others virtual stores
C. another virtual stores
D. other virtual stores
12. In late 2007, Amazon released ………………. called the Kindle, a digital book reader with wireless
Internet connectivity, enabling customers to purchase, download, read, and store a vast selection
of books on demand.
A. a new handheld read device
B. a new handheld reading devices
C. a new handheld reading device
D. a newly handheld reading device
13. Born in 1964 in New Mexico, Bezos …… an early love of computers and studied computer science
and electrical engineering at Princeton University.
A. Had
B. Having
C. Has
D. Have
14. After ……….. from Princeton, Bezos found work at several firms on Wall Street, including Fitel,
Bankers Trust and the investment firm D.E. Shaw.
A. Graduates
B. Graduated
C. Graduation
D. Graduating
15. A large variety of crocodilian fossils ………………..that date back 200 million years to the Late Tri-
assic Epoch.
A. have been discovered
B. have been discovering
C. has been discovered
D. has been discovering
WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Direction: In questions 16 – 40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four un-
derlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or
phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet,
find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen.
Look at the following examples:
Example I
In 2003, Leibovitz publishes the book American Music, with an emphasis on important
(A) (B) (C)
figures in the realm of blues, country, folk, hip-hop and jazz.
(C)
Sample answer
A B C D
The sentence should read, “In 2003, Leibovitz published the book American Music, with an emphasis
on important figures in the realm of blues, country, folk, hip-hop and jazz.” Therefore, you should
choose answer (A).
Example II
The researchers state that monkeys, and presumably apes, have mouths, vocal cords and other
(A)
vocal tract element capable of articulating at least five vowel sounds.
(B) (C) (D)
Sample answer
A B C D
The sentence should read “The researchers state that monkeys, and presumably apes, have mouths,
vocal cords and other vocal tract elements capable of articulating at least five vowel sounds.” There-
fore, you should answer (B).
16. Crocodiles have powerful jaws with many conical tooth and short legs with clawed
A B C
webbed toes.
D
17. A large variety of crocodilian fossils have been discovery that date back 200 million
A B C
years to the Late Triassic Epoch.
D
18. Throughout their range, crocodile populations have declined as human occupation and
A B
land use change have reduced their habitat.
C D
19. Many crocodilian species have been greatly depleted by overhunting for their valuable
A B
skins which provide leather for handbags, shoes, belts, and others articles.
C D
20. Since about 1970, improved national protection, habitat conservation, and international
A B
regulation of trade have allow many populations to recover.
C D
21. About half of the 23 species remain widespread and numerous with little chance of
A B C
extinct.
D
22. The name Nile is derive from the Greek Neilos, which probably originated from the
A B
Semitic root naḥal, meaning a valley or a river valley and hence, by an extension of the
C
meaning, a river.
D
23. The Nile River basin, which covers about one-tenth of the area of the continent, served
A B
as the stage for the evolution and decay of advance civilizations in the ancient world.
C D
24. According to one theory on the evolution of the Nile system, about 25,000 years ago
A
the East African drainage to Lake Victoria develops an outlet to the north, which sent
B C
its water into Lake Sudd.
D
25. The first use of the Nile for irrigation in Egypt began when seeds were sown in the mud
A B
left after the annually floodwater had subsided.
C D
26. Along with many another animals including domestic dogs, there is a mechanism in the
A
paws of arctic wolves that keeps them at a lower temperature than the body core so
B
minimizing heat loss via this extremity that is in contact with the ground
C D
27. Beginning in 1995 and 1996, Gates feverish refocused Microsoft on the development
A
of consumer and enterprise software solutions for the Internet, developed the Windows
B
CE operating system platform, created the Microsoft Network and, acquired the huge
C
Bettmann photo archives and other collections for use in electronic distribution.
D
28. Unlike most previous electric vehicles, which Elon Musk thought were stodgy and
A B
uninteresting, it was a sports car that could going from 0 to 60 miles per hour in less
C
than four seconds.
D
29. In late 2007, Amazon released a new handheld reading device called the Kindle, a
A B
digital book reader with wireless internet connectivity, enabling customers to purchase,
C
download, read, and stored a vast selection of books on demand.
D
30. After graduation, he worked on Wall Street, and in 1990 he became

A B
the most youngest senior vice president at the investment firm D.E. Shaw.
C D
31. Bezos showed an early interest in how things work, turning his parents’ garage into a
A B
laboratory and rigged electrical contraptions around his house as a child.
C D
32. Amazon.com went public in 1997, leading many market analysts to question whether
A
the company could held its own when traditional retailers launched their own
B C
e-commerce sites.
D
33. Bezos had been eyed the food delivery market, and in 2017 Amazon announced it
A B
had acquired the Whole Foods grocery chain for $13.7 billion in cash.

C D
34. The species are identified principally by the proportions of the snout; by the bony
A B
structures on the dorsal, or upper, surface of the snout; and by the number and the
C
arranges of the scales.
D
35. People living near crocodiles often dislike them because they become entangled in
A B
fishnets, prey on pets and livestock, and occasional kill people.
C D
36. Sustainable harvesting, regulated trade, and education have became valuable
A B C
components of crocodilian conservation.
D
37. Crocodiles in captivity are known to have reached ages of 70 or more years, but
A B
longevity in the wild is poor known.
C D
38. Crocodiles have sensitive pressure receptors locates in pits in the scales around the
A B
mouth that detect motion; these structures assist in the capture of prey in dark or murky
C D
water.
39. As already mentioned, the Nile River is still a vital waterway for the transportation of
A B
people and goods, especially in the flood season when motor transport is not feasibly.
C D
40. The dam is designed to control the Nile water for the expansion of cultivation and for
A B
the generation of hydroelectric power and to providing protection downstream for both
C D
crops and population against unusually high floods.
SECTION 3
Reading Comprehension
Approximately 55 Minutes
50 questions
This section is designed to measure the ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic
and style to those found in universities and colleges.
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions
about it. for questions 1- 50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each ques-
tion. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill the space that corresponds
to the letter you have chosen.
Answer all quetions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Read the following passage:
Born as Michael King Jr. on January 15, 1929, Martin Luther King Jr. was the middle child
of Michael King Sr. and Alberta Williams King. The King and Williams families were rooted in
5
rural Georgia. Martin Jr.’s grandfather, A.D. Williams, was a rural minister for years and then
moved to Atlanta in 1893. He took over the small, struggling Ebenezer Baptist church with
around 13 members and made it into a forceful congregation.
Growing up in Atlanta, Georgia, Martin Luther King Jr. entered public school at age 5. In
May, 1936 he was baptized, but the event made little impression on him. In May, 1941, Martin
was 12 years old when his grandmother, Jennie, died of a heart attack. The event was trau-
10
matic for Martin, more so because he was out watching a parade against his parents’ wishes
when she died. Distraught at the news, young Martin jumped from a second story window at
the family home, allegedly attempting suicide.
Reading Comprehension 21
King attended Booker T. Washington High School, where he was said to be a precocious
student. He skipped both the ninth and eleventh grades, and entered Morehouse College in
15
Atlanta at age 15, in 1944. He was a popular student, especially with his female classmates,
but an unmotivated student who floated though his first two years. Although his family was
deeply involved in the church and worship, young Martin questioned religion in general and
felt uncomfortable with overly emotional displays of religious worship. This discomfort con-
20
tinued through much of his adolescence, initially leading him to decide against entering the
ministry, much to his father’s dismay. But in his junior year, Martin took a Bible class, renewed
his faith and began to envision a career in the ministry. In the fall of his senior year, he told
his father of his decision.
In 1948, Martin Luther King Jr. earned a sociology degree from Morehouse College
25
and attended the liberal Crozer Theological Seminary in Chester, Pennsylvania. He thrived in
all his studies, and was valedictorian of his class in 1951, and elected student body president.
30 He also earned a fellowship for graduate study. But Martin also rebelled against his father’s
more conservative influence by drinking beer and playing pool while at college. He became
involved with a white woman and went through a difficult time before he could break off the
affair.
During his last year in seminary, Martin Luther King Jr. came under the guidance of
Morehouse College President Benjamin E. Mays who influenced King’s spiritual development.
Mays was an outspoken advocate for racial equality and encouraged King to view Christianity
35
as a potential force for social change. After being accepted at several colleges for his doctoral
study, including Yale and Edinburgh in Scotland, King enrolled in Boston University.
During the work on this doctorate, Martin Luther King Jr. met Coretta Scott, an aspiring
singer and musician, at the New England Conservatory school in Boston. They were married in
June 1953 and had four children, Yolanda, Martin Luther King III, Dexter Scott and Bernice. In
40
1954, while still working on his dissertation, King became pastor of the Dexter Avenue Baptist
Church of Montgomery, Alabama. He completed his Ph.D. and was award his degree in 1955.
King was only 25 years old.
Source: www.biography.com
Example I
What does the passage talk about?
A. The education background of Martin Luther King Jr.

B. The biography of Martin Luther King Jr.
C. The parents of Martin Luther King Jr.
D. The college of Martin Luther King Jr.
Sample answer
A B C D
The passage talks about the biography of Martin Luther King Jr. therefore, you should choose (B).
Example II
The word “distraught” in line 11 is closest in meaning to ....
A. Extremely upset
B. Extremely surprised
C. Extremely happy
D. Extremely new
Sample answer
A B C D
The word “distraught” is closest in meaning to “exteremely upset”. Therefore, you should choose (A).
Now begin work on the questions.
Questions 1 through 10 are based on the following passage
In the areas where no irrigation is practiced, different zones of plant life may be roughly di-
vided according to the amount of rainfall. Tropical rainforest is found along the Nile–Congo
5
divide, in parts of the Lake Plateau, and in southwestern Ethiopia. Heat and copious rainfall
produce thick forests with a great variety of tropical trees and plants, including ebony, ba-
nana, rubber, bamboo, and coffee shrub. Mixed woodland and grassland (savanna), charac-
terized by a sparse growth of thinly foliaged trees of medium height and a ground covering of
grass and perennial herbs, occurs in large parts of the Lake Plateau, in parts of the Ethiopian
10 Plateau, in the area that fringes the Blue Nile near Al-Ruṣayriṣ, and in the southern Al-Ghazāl
River region.
On the Sudanese plains, a mixture of thin bush, thorny trees, and open grassland prevails. This
area is swampy during the rainy season, particularly in the Al-Sudd region of central South Su-
15
dan, which has an area of nearly 100,000 square miles. The vegetation there includes papyrus,
tall bamboolike grasses, reed mace ambatch, or turor, water lettuce, a species of convolvulus,
and the South American water hyacinth.
North of latitude 10° N there occurs a belt of thorny savanna or orchard shrub country charac-
terized by small scattered tree stands, thornbush, and—after rain—grass and herbs. North of
20
this, however, rainfall decreases and the vegetation thins out, so that the countryside is dot-
ted with small thorny shrubs, mostly acacias. From Khartoum northward there is true desert,
with scanty and irregular rainfall and no permanent vegetation at all except for a few stunted
shrubs. Grasses and small herbs may be scattered along drainage lines after rainfall, but these
die away in a few weeks. In Egypt the vegetation near the Nile is almost entirely the result of
25 irrigation and cultivation.
Many varieties of fish are found in the Nile system. Notable among those found in the lower
Nile system are the Nile perch (which may attain a weight of more than 175 pounds), the bolti
(a species of Tilapia), the barbel, several species of catfish, the elephant-snout fish, and the
30
tigerfish, or water leopard. Most of these species and the sardinelike Haplochromis, the lung-
fish, and the mudfish are found as far upstream as Lake Victoria. The common eel penetrates
as far south as Khartoum, and the spiny eel is found in Lake Victoria.
35 The Nile crocodile, found in most parts of the river, has not yet penetrated the lakes of the
upper Nile basin. Other reptiles found in the Nile basin include the soft-shelled turtle, three
species of monitor lizard, and some 30 species of snakes, of which more than half are ven-
omous. The hippopotamus, once common throughout the Nile system, is now found only in
40 the Al-Sudd region and to the south. Many schools of fish that fed in the waters of the Nile in
Egypt during the flood season have been reduced or have disappeared since the construction
of the Aswan High Dam. Most of the species of the Nile fish were migrants, and the dam has
prevented many from migrating to Lake Nasser. The diminution in the number of anchovies
in the eastern Mediterranean has also been attributed to the serious reduction in the outflow
45
of waterborne nutrients due to the dam. Lake Nasser, however, has been developed into a
commercial fishery, where the Nile perch and other species thrive.
1. What does the text talk about?

A. Nile River
B. Egypt
C. Flora and fauna of Nile River
D. The economic development of Nile River
2. What does the fourth paragraph mainly talk about?

A. The Nile Crocodile
B. The varieties of fish of Nile River
C. The irrigation of Nile River
D. The plants near Nile River
3. In what paragraph does the text talk about the plants of Sudanese plain?
A. First paragraph
B. Second paragraph
C. Third paragraph
D. Fourth paragraph
4. The word “prevails” in line 12 has the closest meaning to …………

A. Little
B. Vanish
C. Perish
D. Dominate
5. Based on the last paragraph, the following information are true, except …………
A. The hippopotamus is now found only in the Al-Sudd region and to the south
B. Most of the species of the Nile fish were migrants
C. The Nile crocodile, found in most parts of the river, has not yet penetrated the lakes of the
upper Nile basin
D. Many schools of fish that fed in the waters of the Nile in Egypt during the flood season have
been increased or have disappeared since the construction of the Aswan High Dam
6. The word “prevented” in line 42 has the closest meaning to ………….

A. Avoided
B. Supported
C. Maintained
D. Kept
7. What does the second paragraph mainly talk about?

A. Many varieties of fish are found in the Nile system
B. The domination of fish in the Nile River
C. The irrigation system used in the Nile River
D. The plants on the Sudanese plains
8. The word “thrive” in line 45 has the opposite meaning of ………

A. Flourish
B. Bloom
C. Advance
D. Decrease
9. The word “attributed” in line 42 has the closest meaning to …………

A. Related
B. Disconnected
C. Maintained
D. Positioned
10. According to the text, the following information are true, except…………
A. Tropical rainforest is found along the Nile–Congo divide, in parts of the Lake Plateau, and in
southwestern Ethiopia.
B. The vegetation on the Sudanese plain includes papyrus, tall bamboolike grasses, reed mace
ambatch, or turor, water lettuce, a species of convolvulus, and the South American water
hyacinth.
C. The common eel penetrates as far south as Khartoum, and the spiny eel is found in Lake
Victoria.
D. Only few varieties of fish found in the Nile System.
Global warming, the phenomenon of increasing average air temperatures near the surface of
Earth over the past one to two centuries. Climate scientists have since the mid-20th century
gathered detailed observations of various weather phenomena (such as temperatures, pre-
5 cipitation, and storms) and of related influences on climate (such as ocean currents and the
atmosphere’s chemical composition). These data indicate that Earth’s climate has changed
over almost every conceivable timescale since the beginning of geologic time and that hu-
man activities since at least the beginning of the Industrial Revolution have a growing influ-
ence over the pace and extent of present-day climate change.
Giving voice to a growing conviction of most of the scientific community, the Intergovern-
10
mental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) was formed in 1988 by the World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Program (UNEP). The IPCC’s Sixth
Assessment Report (AR6), published in 2021, noted that the best estimate of the increase in
15
global average surface temperature between 1850 and 2019 was 1.07 °C (1.9 °F). An IPCC
special report produced in 2018 noted that human beings and their activities have been
responsible for a worldwide average temperature increase between 0.8 and 1.2 °C (1.4 and
20
2.2 °F) since preindustrial times, and most of the warming over the second half of the 20th
century could be attributed to human activities.
AR6 produced a series of global climate predictions based on modeling five greenhouse gas
emission scenarios that accounted for future emissions, mitigation (severity reduction) mea-
25
sures, and uncertainties in the model projections. Some of the main uncertainties include the
precise role of feedback processes and the impacts of industrial pollutants known as aero-
sols, which may offset some warming. The lowest-emissions scenario, which assumed steep
cuts in greenhouse gas emissions beginning in 2015, predicted that the global mean surface
30 temperature would increase between 1.0 and 1.8 °C (1.8 and 3.2 °F) by 2100 relative to the
1850–1900 average. This range stood in stark contrast to the highest-emissions scenario,
which predicted that the mean surface temperature would rise between 3.3 and 5.7 °C (5.9
35 and 10.2 °F) by 2100 based on the assumption that greenhouse gas emissions would con-
tinue to increase throughout the 21st century. The intermediate-emissions scenario, which
assumed that emissions would stabilize by 2050 before declining gradually, projected an
increase of between 2.1 and 3.5 °C (3.8 and 6.3 °F) by 2100.
Many climate scientists agree that significant societal, economic, and ecological damage would
result if the global average temperature rose by more than 2 °C (3.6 °F) in such a short time. Such
40 damage would include increased extinction of many plant and animal species, shifts in patterns
of agriculture, and rising sea levels. By 2015 all but a few national governments had begun the
process of instituting carbon reduction plans as part of the Paris Agreement, a treaty designed to
help countries keep global warming to 1.5 °C (2.7 °F) above preindustrial levels in order to avoid
the worst of the predicted effects. Whereas authors of the 2018 special report noted that should
45
carbon emissions continue at their present rate, the increase in average near-surface air tempera-
ture would reach 1.5 °C sometime between 2030 and 2052, authors of the AR6 report suggested
that this threshold would be reached by 2041 at the latest.
The AR6 report also noted that the global average sea level had risen by some 20 cm (7.9 inches)
50 between 1901 and 2018 and that sea level rose faster in the second half of the 20th century than
in the first half. It also predicted, again depending on a wide range of scenarios, that the global av-
erage sea level would rise by different amounts by 2100 relative to the 1995–2014 average. Under
the report’s lowest-emission scenario, sea level would rise by 28–55 cm (11–21.7 inches), whereas,
under the intermediate emissions scenario, sea level would rise by 44–76 cm (17.3–29.9 inches).
55 The highest-emissions scenario suggested that sea level would rise by 63–101 cm (24.8–39.8 inch-
es) by 2100.
The scenarios referred to above depend mainly on future concentrations of certain trace gases,
60 called greenhouse gases, that have been injected into the lower atmosphere in increasing amounts
through the burning of fossil fuels for industry, transportation, and residential uses. Modern global
warming is the result of an increase in magnitude of the so-called greenhouse effect, a warming
of Earth’s surface and lower atmosphere caused by the presence of water vapour, carbon dioxide,
methane, nitrous oxides, and other greenhouse gases. In 2014 the IPCC first reported that concen-
65 trations of carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxides in the atmosphere surpassed those found
in ice cores dating back 800,000 years.
Of all these gases, carbon dioxide is the most important, both for its role in the greenhouse effect
70 and for its role in the human economy. It has been estimated that, at the beginning of the industri-
al age in the mid-18th century, carbon dioxide concentrations in the atmosphere were roughly 280
parts per million (ppm). By the end of 2021 they had risen to 416 ppm, and, if fossil fuels continue
75 to be burned at current rates, they are projected to reach 550 ppm by the mid-21st century—es-
sentially, a doubling of carbon dioxide concentrations in 300 years.
A vigorous debate is in progress over the extent and seriousness of rising surface temperatures,
the effects of past and future warming on human life, and the need for action to reduce future
warming and deal with its consequences. This article provides an overview of the scientific back-
ground and public policy debate related to the subject of global warming. It considers the causes
80 of rising near-surface air temperatures, the influencing factors, the process of climate research
and forecasting, the possible ecological and social impacts of rising temperatures, and the public
policy developments since the mid-20th century. For a detailed description of Earth’s climate, its
processes, and the responses of living things to its changing nature, see climate. For additional
background on how Earth’s climate has changed throughout geologic time, see climatic variation
and change. For a full description of Earth’s gaseous envelope, within which climate change and
global warming occur.
A. Climate scientists
B. Global warming
C. Debate on the climate change
D. Climatic change and variation
12. The bases of AR6 produced global climate predictions consist of the following, except …….
A. Modeling five greenhouse gas emission scenarios that accounted for future emissions,
B. Mitigation (severity reduction) measures
C. Debate on the climate changes
D. Uncertainties in the model projections.
13. What is the global average sea level had risen between 1901 and 2018?
A. 7.9 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 300 cm
D. 200 cm
14. The following are the damages stated by the scientists as the results of the global average tem-
perature rose by more than 20C, except ………
A. Increased extinction of many plant and animal species
B. Shifts in patterns of agriculture
C. Rising sea levels.
D. Landslides and earthquakes
15. Based on the IPC special report, who is the most responsible for the average temperature in-
crease between 0.8 and 1.2 °C?
A. Human being and their activities
B. Animals
C. The arctic and Antarctic
D. The oceans and atmosphere
16. When was the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) was formed?
A. 1998
B. 1988
C. 2019
D. 2045
17. When was the concentration of carbon dioxide risen to 416 ppm?
A. 2021
B. 2020
C. 2019
D. 2018
18. What is the lowest-emissions scenario, which assumed steep cuts in greenhouse gas emissions
beginning in 2015, predicted that the global mean surface temperature would increase?
A. between 3.2 and 4 °C
B. between 1.8 and 3.2 °C
C. between 1.8 and 4 °C
D. between 1.0 and 1.8 °C
19. when was the IPCC first reported that concentrations of carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous
oxides in the atmosphere surpassed those found in ice cores dating back 800,000 years?
A. 2021
B. 2014
C. 2045
D. 2022
20. Based on he 2018 special report, when the carbon emissions continue at their present rate, what
is the temperature between 2030 and 2052?
A. It would reach 4.5 °C
B. It would reach 2.3 °C
C. It would reach 1.5 °C
D. It would reach 2.5 °C
Born on May 2, 1975, in Leytonstone, London, England, to parents Ted Beckham, an appli-
ance repairman, and his wife Sandra, a hair stylist, David Beckham was the family’s only son.
5
A middle child between two sisters, Beckham grew up with parents and siblings who were
committed fans of Manchester United, England’s legendary soccer franchise.
At an early age, Beckham showed his own promise as a footballer, winning the coveted Bob-
by Charlton Soccer Schools National Skills competition at 11 years old. His talent soon caught
the notice of Manchester United team officials, who asked him to try out for the club’s youth
10
league. By the age of 16, Beckham had left home and was playing for United’s training divi-
sion. Two years later he made the club, and by 1995, he was a full-time starter.
His bravado and good looks offered up plenty of off-field potential, too. In 1998, Beckham,
who’d already signed a deal with Adidas, netted $13 million in endorsement deals. The Beck-
ham brand only enhanced in value when he met Victoria Adams, also known as “Posh Spice”
15
of the Spice Girls, in 1997. The two quickly fell in love, and on March 4, 1999, they had their
first child, a son they named Brooklyn Joseph. Two months later, Beckham and Victoria tied
the knot at a lavish $800,000 wedding at a castle outside of Dublin, Ireland.
On the field, Beckham didn’t miss a beat. In 1999, he led Manchester United to the Premier
League title, the FA Cup championship, and the Champions League title. Thanks to a last-min-
20
ute free kick against Greece in 2001, England qualified for the 2002 World Cup. That same
year, Beckham signed a three-year $22 million contract to remain with Manchester United.
But Beckham’s time with United proved to be shorter than anyone thought. In 2003, he was
25 acquired by Real Madrid in a stunner of a deal that brought to light Beckham’s growing rift
with Manchester’s manager, Sir Alex Ferguson.
America’s fascination with Beckham and his decade of dominance culminated in 2007, when
the soccer great moved across the Atlantic to sign a reported five-year, $250 million deal
30 with the L.A. Galaxy. The relocation was as much about giving Victoria Beckham’s career a
boost (she helped drive the decision to move to the States) as it was to give America’s Major
League Soccer a shot in the arm. Within 48 hours of the signing, the Galaxy sold more than
5,000 season tickets.
Beckham’s career since moving to the United States, however, has been a rocky one. He’s
35 been beset by injuries, spraining a knee ligament his first season in L.A., and later missed out
on a chance to play in the 2010 World Cup because of an Achilles tendon injury.
On May 16, 2013, just days after winning a title with French club Paris Saint-Germain, the
38-year-old Beckham announced that he would be retiring at the end of the 2013 season,
40
ending his 21-year soccer career. By 2013, Beckham had become credited as England’s
wealthiest sportsman, reportedly earning more than $46 million annually.
21. What does the passage talk about?

A. The early life of David Beckham
B. The achievement of David Beckham
C. The Career of David Beckham
D. The biography of David Beckham
22. In what year did David Beckham marry Victoria?

A. 1998
B. 1999
C. 2000
D. 2003
23. What does the second paragraph talk about?

A. A full time player of MU
B. Beckham’s contract with Real Madrid
C. Beckam’s career in his early age
D. Beckham’s marriage life
24. In what paragraph does the author mention that Beckham miss out on a chance to play in 2010
World Cup?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
25. Why did Beckham miss out of a chance to play in the 2010 World Cup?
A. Because he’s spraining a knee ligament his first season in L.A
B. Because of an Achilles tendon injury.
C. Because he signed a contract with Real Madrid
D. Because he was moving to the United States
26. In what line does the author mention that in 2003, he was acquired by Real Madrid in a stunner
of a deal that brought to light Beckham’s growing rift with Manchester’s manager, Sir Alex Fer-
guson?
A. 16 – 20
B. 35 - 37
C. 12 – 14
D. 24 – 26
27. The word wealthiest in line 40 is closest in meaning to.....

A. Richest
B. Fastest
C. The most ambitious
D. Luckiest
28. In what age did Beckham retire from being a football player?
A. 37
B. 38
C. 39
D. 40
29. In what paragraph does the author mention that Beckham led MU to the Premier League title,
the FA Cup championship, and the Champions League title?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
30. The word enhanced in line 14 is closest in meaning to.......

A. Connected
B. Helped
C. Promoted
D. Improved
Though no birth records exist, church records indicate that a William Shakespeare was bap-
tized at Holy Trinity Church in Stratford-upon-Avon on April 26, 1564. From this, it is believed
5
he was born on or near April 23, 1564, and this is the date scholars acknowledge as William
Shakespeare’s birthday.
Located 103 miles west of London, during Shakespeare’s time Stratford-upon-Avon was a
market town bisected with a country road and the River Avon. William was the third child of
John Shakespeare, a leather merchant, and Mary Arden, a local landed heiress. William had
10
two older sisters, Joan and Judith, and three younger brothers, Gilbert, Richard and Edmund.
Before William’s birth, his father became a successful merchant and held official positions as
alderman and bailiff, an office resembling a mayor. However, records indicate John’s fortunes
declined sometime in the late 1570s.
William Shakespeare married Anne Hathaway on November 28, 1582, in Worcester, in Can-
terbury Province. Hathaway was from Shottery, a small village a mile west of Stratford. Wil-
15 liam was 18 and Anne was 26, and, as it turns out, pregnant. Their first child, a daughter
they named Susanna, was born on May 26, 1583. Two years later, on February 2, 1585, twins
Hamnet and Judith were born. Hamnet later died of unknown causes at age 11.
By 1592, there is evidence William Shakespeare earned a living as an actor and a playwright
20 in London and possibly had several plays produced. By 1597, 15 of the 37 plays written by
William Shakespeare were published. Civil records show that at this time he purchased the
second largest house in Stratford, called New House, for his family. It was a four-day ride by
25 horse from Stratford to London, so it is believed that Shakespeare spent most of his time in
the city writing and acting and came home once a year during the 40-day Lenten period,
when the theaters were closed.
By 1599, William Shakespeare and his business partners built their own theater on the south
bank of the Thames River, which they called the Globe. In 1605, Shakespeare purchased leas-
30 es of real estate near Stratford for 440 pounds, which doubled in value and earned him 60
pounds a year. This made him an entrepreneur as well as an artist, and scholars believe these
investments gave him the time to write his plays uninterrupted.
Tradition has it that William Shakespeare died on his birthday, April 23, 1616, though many
scholars believe this is a myth. Church records show he was interred at Trinity Church on
April 25, 1616. In his will, he left the bulk of his possessions to his eldest daughter, Susanna.
35
Though entitled to a third of his estate, little seems to have gone to his wife, Anne, whom he
bequeathed his “second-best bed.”
A. The tradition of William Shakespeare
B. The business partner of William Shakespeare
C. The time when William Shakespeare was baptized
D. The life story of William Shakespeare
32. Why did William Shakespeare’s daughter passed away at the age of 11?
A. Cancer
B. Unknown causes
C. Accident
D. Pandemic
33. When was William Shakespeare died?

A. 1597
B. 1616
C. 1570
D. 1564
34. What does the fifth paragraph talk about?

A. The religion of William Shakespeare and his family.
B. The literary works of William Shakespeare
C. The family of William Shakespeare
D. William Shakespeare and his business partners built their own theater
35. The word acknowledge in line 4 has closest meaning to ....

A. Refuse
B. Understand
C. Guess
D. Admit
36. The word bequeathed in line 37 has the closest meaning to…..
A. Purchased
B. Inherited
C. Acknowledged
D. Complicated
37. The following information are mentioned in the last paragraph, EXCEPT...
A. Shakespeare left his fortune mostly to his daughter.
B. Shakespeare’s oldest daughter is Susanna.
C. Church records show he was interred at Trinity Church on April 25, 1616
D. All scholars believed that Shakespeare died in April 23, 1616.
38. When did William Shakespeare marry Anne Hathaway?
A. on April 26, 1564
B. on April 23, 1616
C. on April 25, 1616
D. on November 28, 1582
39. How many children did he has?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
40. According to the text, the following information are true, except……..
A. Shakespeare purchased leases of real estate near Stratford for 440 pounds, which doubled
in value and earned him 60 pounds a year.
B. By 1592, there is evidence William Shakespeare earned a living as an actor and a playwright
in London
C. William was the second child
D. William Shakespeare married Anne Hathaway in Worcester, in Canterbury Province.
Traditional Japanese music is basically meditative in character. Its performance is highly rit-
ualized, as much in the music itself, as in the composure of the musicians when performing
it. Japanese chamber and solo music have a slow meditative pace. Westerners obviously
5 discern melodies and musical structures, but ones which do not have much in common with
Western music.
The performance of Japanese music has traditionally been of a spiritual character, similarly
to martial arts and other art forms of arts such as the tea ceremony and calligraphy, for ex-
ample. The musician works on an inner strength in mastering of his or her instrument, more
10 than simply perfecting a technique of some sort and providing entertainment. Audiences are
looking for this self-mastery in musicians. For this reason, among many, this music has be-
come highly ritualised. Musicians must show this spiritual self-mastery in their performance
and composure.
Traditional Japanese music uses concrete elements which serve to represent natural sounds
15 and the sounds of life. Contrary to Western music, the musician’s self-expression is mini-
mized through the ritualistic and contemplative use of these concrete sounds and effects.
Many Westerners feel there is not much emotion in Japanese music. This important distinc-
20
tion in their aesthetic of music is important for Westerners to understand, and for the appre-
ciation of Japanese traditional music.
Although composers were signing their works during the Nara period (553-794 AD), much
earlier than the Europeans, composers and writers alike did not consider they had intellectual
25
and individual rights over their work (though this has changed since the 20th century follow-
ing Western influences). There are apparently two reasons for this. First, music, as well as
theatre and poetry, are based on strict forms and patterns of composition, which are strictly
followed. The concept of individual rights, thus, did not apply in this context. The second
reason is that for the Japanese mind, the social and collective ego has precedence over the
30 individual ego. So, when a musician writes a new musical work, it is done in the spirit of the
school of which he or she belongs, and it is considered part of the repertoire of that school
first and foremost. In this sense, tradition and the tradition of the school one belongs to have
precedence over one’s individuality.
For Japanese, the basic principle governing the universe is not God or man, but time - a time
35 which is a primordial flowing energy, through which everything evolves and becomes. The
concept of naru, meaning becoming, is very important in Japanese traditional music and all
other Japanese forms of art. It is even considered a natural law. All art evolves through its
40
own temporal movement and flow. This includes as well the movement of the painter or the
sculptor in creating their works, the musician performing a piece of music, a poet reciting a
poem or an actor performing in a play.
Source: www.mustrad.org.uk
41. What does the passage mainly talk about?

A. Japanese culture
B. Japanese traditional music
C. Basic principles in Japanese culture
D. Japanese art
42. In what paragraph does the author state that for Japanese, the basic principle governing the
universe is not God or man, but time?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. Fifth
43. What kind of concept which is very important in Japanese traditional music and all other Japa-
nese forms of art?
A. The concept of naru
B. The concept of nature
C. The concept of life
D. The concept of universe
44. In which paragraph does the author mentions the reasons why composers and writers alike did
not consider they had intellectual and individual rights over their work?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
45. The word composure in line 2 has closest meaning to .....

A. Spiritful
B. Beauty
C. Calmness
D. Wisdom
46. The word represent in line 14 has the closest meaning to ……

A. Reflect
B. Mention
C. Compose
D. Consider
47. What is the performance of Japanese music considered as?

A. Spiritual character
B. Praying
C. Ceremony
D. Ritual
48. The word governing in line 34 is closest in meaning to ......

A. Accepting
B. Asking
C. Carrying out
D. Ruling
49. When were composers signing their works?

A. After Nara period
B. Before Nara period
C. During the Nara period
D. It has not been recorded
50. According to the text, the following information are true, except……
A. The Japanese musician works on an inner strength in mastering of his or her instrument,
more than simply perfecting a technique of some sort and providing entertainment
B. When a musician writes a new musical work, it is done in the spirit of the school of which he
or she belongs, and it is considered part of the repertoire of that school first and foremost
C. Traditional Japanese music uses concrete elements which serve to represent natural sounds
and the sounds of life
D. For Japanese, the basic principle governing the universe is God or man
Kunci Jawaban
Dan Pembahasan
TOEFL
SECTION 1
Listening Comprehension
1.
Woman : I want to send this package to New York.
Man : What kind of delivery do you want to choose?
Narrator : Where may the conversation take place?
Jawaban : C (At the post office)
Pembahasan :
Kata kunci yang dapat digunakan adalah para speaker 2 yang menyebutkan kata delivery. Seh-
ingga, dapat disimpulkan bahwa lokasi dari percakapan di atas adalah di kantor pos.
2.
Woman : This is the most amazing view I have ever seen.
Man : I’ll say.
Narrator : What does the man mean?
Jawaban : D (The man agrees with the woman’s statement)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan I’ll say menunjukkan bahwa speaker ke 2 menyetujui pernyataan yang disampaikan
oleh speaker pertama.
3.
Woman : Have you decided to buy the apartment we saw yesterday?
Man : The price is more than I can afford.
Jawaban : D (The man will not buy the apartment)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan The price is more than I can afford memiliki makna bahwa harganya melebihi dari
apa yang bisa dibayar oleh speaker 2. Sehingga dapat disimpulkan bahwa speaker 1 tidak akan
membeli apartemen tersebut.
4.
Man : Have you finished your annual report?
Woman : I threw in the towel and went to bed last night.
Narrator : What does the woman mean?
Jawaban : A (She has not finished her annual report.)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan I threw in the towel and went to bed last night menunjukkan bahwa speaker 2 tidur
semalam sehingga tidak mengerjakan laporan tahunan.
5.
Man : The time is too limited for our test.
Woman : You can say that again.
Jawaban : D (The woman agrees with the man’s opinion)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan You can say that again menunjukkan ungkapan bahwa speaker 2 menyetujui apa yang
disampaikan oleh speaker 1.
6.
Woman : How was your presentation going on?
Man : I hope that I prepared it better last night.
Narrator : What does the man imply?
Jawaban : B (The presentation was not running smoothly)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan I hope that I prepared it better last night menunjukkan bahwa speaker 2 merasa bah-
wa ia tidak mempersiapakan presentasinya dengan baik.
7.
Man : Next week will be my brother’s birthday. I do not know what kind of gift
should I give.
Woman : What about a shirt?
Jawaban : C (The woman gives a suggestion to the man)
Pembahasan :
Konteks percakapan di atas adalah kebingungan speaker 1 terkait dengan hadiah yang akan
ia berikan kepada kakaknya. Kemudian speaker 2 menawarkan pilihan berupa kaos. Sehingga,
pilihan C adalah yang paling tepat.
8.
Man : Tania has been studying so hard for being accepted in that university.
Woman : I know. It must be a bitter pill to swallow for her.
Narrator : What do they talk about?
Jawaban : D (Tania was not accepted in the university)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan a bitter pill to swallow menunjukkan bahwa ada sesuatu yang tidak menyenangkan
sedang terjadi. Dalam konteks tersebut, dapat disimpulkan bahwa speaker 2 tidak diterima di
universitas.
9.
Woman : I think we need to re-design this family room. What about you?
Man : I think we are on the same page.
Jawaban : B (The man agrees to the woman’s idea
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan on the same boat menunjukkan bahwa dua orang ada atau bersepakat atau sesuatu
yang sama. Sehingga, dapat dikatakan bahwa speaker 2 menyetujui atau speakat denga napa
yang disampaikan oleh speaker 1.
10.
Woman : I have just finished cooking chicken soup. Do you want some?
Man : I prefer a glass of orange juice.
Narrator : What might the man imply?
Jawaban : B (The man was not hungry at that time)
Pembahasan :
Jawaban speaker 2 yang lebih memilih segelas orange juice menunjukkan bahwa ia belum mera-
sa lapar pada saat itu. Sehingga, pilihan jawaban B adalah yang paling tepat.
11.
Man : Good evening. How may I help you, Madam?
Woman : Good evening. I have made a reservation. A table for three persons.
Narrator : Where might the conversation occur?
Jawaban : C (At the restaurant)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan I have made a reservation. A table for three persons menunjukkan bahwa speaker
2 menyatakan bahwa ia telah membuat reservasi dengan meja untuk 3 orang. Dari sini, dapat
disimpulkan bahwa percakapan tersebut terjadi di restoran.
12.
Woman : My proposal is done. Finally, I can send it to Mr. Smith.
Man : That’s great. I am still working on mine.
Jawaban : B (The man has not finished his proposal)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan I am still working on mine menunjukkan bahwa speaker 2 masih sedang mengerjakan
proposalnya. Sehingga dapat disimpulkan bahwa proposal tersebut belum selesai.
13.
Woman : I really hope that you will go to Singapore with us.
Man : Don’t worry about me. That will be fun.
Narrator : What can be inferred from the conversation?
Jawaban : D (The man cannot go to Singapore with the woman)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan Don’t worry about me. That will be fun mwnunjukkan bahwa speaker 2 menghibur
speaker 1 karena ia tidak dapat ikut pergi ke Singapura. Dari ungkapan tersebut, dapat disimpul-
kan bahwa ia tidak pergi ke Singapura.
14.
Woman : I heard that you traded much money in this stock.
Man : I’am throwing my money down the drain.
Jawaban : A (The man got loss in trading)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan I’am throwing my money down the drain memiliki makna membuang buang uang
untuk sesuatu yang tidak berguna. Sehingga, dapat dikatakan bahwa speaker 2 mengalami ker-
ugian pada saat trading.
15.
Man : How was the last night’s opera?
Woman : I was on the edge of my seat.
Narrator : What does the woman imply?
Jawaban : B (The woman was so interested in the opera)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan I was on the edge of my seat menunjukkan ketertarikan seseorang terhadap sesuatu.
Dalam konteks tersebut, dapat dikatakan bahwa speaker 2 tertarik pada opera.
16.
Man : I think Tio will pass this final examination.
Woman : He said that he had butterflies in his stomach yesterday.
Jawaban : D (Tio was nervous facing the final test)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan he had butterflies in his stomach menunjukkan perasaan nervous yang dialami seseo-
rang. Sehingga, dapat disimpulkan bahwa Tio mengalami atau memiliki perasaan nervous ketika
menghadapi ujian.
17.
Man : Did you read today’s newspaper?
Woman : I did not even have a chance to have my meal.
Jawaban : D (The woman did not read the newspaper)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan I did not even have a chance to have my meal menunjukkan bahwa speaker 2 bahkan
tidak sempat atau tidak memiliki waktu untuk makan. Sehingga, dapat disimpulkan bahwa ia
juga tidak memiliki waktu untuk membaca koran.
18.
Woman : What will you do in your summer holiday?
Man : It’s still up in the air.
Jawaban : B (The man has not decided what to do in the summer holiday.)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan It’s still up in the air menunjukkan posisi seseorang yang belum membuat keputusan
pasti. Sehingga, dalam konteks tersebut speaker 2 belum memutuskan kemana akan mengha-
biskan liburan musim panasnya.
19.
Man : What do you think about our last test?
Woman : That’s a piece of cake.
Jawaban : C (The test is very easy)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan That’s a piece of cake memiliki makna sangat mudah. Sehingga dapat dikatakan bah-
wa tes yang dilaksanakan oleh speaker 2 mudah ia lakukan.
20.
Man : Last night’s traditional dance performance knocked my sock ff.
Woman : Well, none won’t deny it.
Narrator : What can be inferred from the conversation?
Jawaban : C (The concert traditional dance performance amazed them)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan none won’t deny it memiliki makna tidak ada seorangpun yang menyangkalnya. Da-
lam konteks tersebut berkaitan dengan pertunjukan tari yang dilakakukan semalam. Sehingga,
dapat dikatakan bahwa pertunjukkan tersebut memukau kedua speaker.
21.
Man : I hope that the meeting will be over soon.
Woman : In your dream, Mike.
Jawaban : C (The meeting won’t be over soon)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan in your dream menunjukkan bahwa apa yang diharapkan hanya terjadi di mimpi seh-
ingga kenyataan yang terjadi adalah kebalikannya.
22.
Woman : Excuse me, can you show me where the shelf of economics books
is?
Man : It’s in the third shelf.
Narrator : Where may the conversation take place?
Jawaban : D (At the library)
Pembahasan :
Dalam percakapan tersebut, kata kunci yang dapat digunakan adalah kata books dan shelf. Dari
kedua kata tersebut, dapat dismpulkan bahwa lokasi percakapannya terjadi di perpusatakaan.
23.
Man : I don’t like mathematics class.
Woman : Neither do I.
Jawaban : D (Both of them do not like mathematics class)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan Neither do I menunjukkan persetujuan atas apa yang disampaikan oleh speaker 1
yang menyebutkan bahwa ia tidak menyukai matematika. Sehingga, dapat disimpulkan bahwa
keduanya tidak menyukai matematika.
24.
Woman : What about having lunch together? there’s a new restaurant in front of
our office.
Man : I think I’ll pass.
Jawaban : B (The man will skip the lunch)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan I think I’ll pass menunjukkan bahwa si speaker tidak bisa ikut bergabung untuk makan
siang bersama.
25.
Man : Your bag looks so heavy. I can help you to bring it.
Woman : It’s not as heavy as you think.
Jawaban : B (The woman refuses the man’s offer)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan It’s not as heavy as you think menunjukkan bahwa tas yang dibawa si speaker 2 tidak
tidak terlalu berat sehingga ungkapan tersebut memiliki makna penolakan terhadap tawaran
yang diberikan speaker 1 untuk membantunya.
26.
Woman : What do you think about this gown?
Man : The previous one is better.
Jawaban : A (The man does not like the gown)
Pembahasan :
Kalimat The previous one is better memiliki makna bahwa gaun sebelumnya lebih baik. Hal ini
berarti bahwa gaun yang saat itu sedang dicoba oleh di speaker 1 tidak terlalu bagus dan speak-
er 2 tidak menyukainya.
27.
Man : My sister has never helped me with my English assignment.
Woman : Neither does my sister.
Jawaban : C (C. The woman’s sister also does not help her with the assignment)
Pembahasan :
Ungkapan Neither does my sister menunjukkan persetujuan atas apa yang disampaikan oleh
speaker 1 yang menyebutkan bahwa kakaknya tidak pernah membantunya dala mengerjakan
tugas Bahasa Inggris. Sehingga, dapat disimpulkan bahwa keduanya mengalami kejadian yang
serupa.
28.
Man : Can I borrow your dictionary?
Woman : It’s in my locker.
Jawaban : A (The woman allows the man to borrow her dictionary)
Pembahasan :
Meskipun tidak menjawab secara lamgsung bahwa speaker 2 mau meminjamkan kamusnya ke-
pada speaker 1, namun ungkapan it’s in my locker menunjukkan persetujuan tersebut.
29.
Man : You have to take more rest. I’ll accompany you here.
Woman : I feel good after taking these medicines.
Jawaban : B (The man does not need to accompany the woman)
Pembahasan :
Dalam konteks tersebut, speaker 2 tengah sakit, dan speaker 1 menawarkan untuk menemanin-
ya. Namun, tawaran tersebut ditolak secara halus dengan menyatakan I feel good after taking
these medicines, bahwa ia merasa lebih baik setelah meminum obatnya.
30.
Woman : Will you watch Moto GP next week?
Man : I have gotten the ticket from my little sister.
Jawaban : D (The man will watch the Moto GP)
Pembahasan :
Dalam konteks tersebut speaker 2 telah menyatakan bahwa ia telah mendapatkan tiket dari adi-
knya. Sehingga, implikasinya ia akan menonton Moto GP
Questions 31 to 34
Bank Teller : Can I help you?

Antonio : Yes, I’d like to deposit this check.
Bank Teller : Please fill out a deposit slip and be sure to endorse the check on the back.
Antonio : Here you are. I’ve already filled out a slip and signed the check. I’d also like
to cash this other check.
Bank Teller : Sure, I can help you with that. Here you are. Here’s a receipt for your deposit
and I’ve cashed your check. Let me count out your $100: 20, 40, 60, 80, 100.
Antonio : Thanks. Could I also check my bank balance for my other account?
Bank Teller : No problem. You just have to swipe your ATM card and enter your PIN. It
looks like you have a balance of $1,752. Will that be all?
Antonio : Oh, I have that much? I’d like to withdraw $80.
Bank Teller : All right. You’ll need to fill out a withdrawal slip. Why don’t you step aside
while you do that so I can help the next customer, and when you’re done,
come back to this window and I’ll help you.
Antonio : Okay, I’ll do that. And if I want to transfer money between accounts?
Bank Teller : You’ll need to fill out a withdrawal slip for the first account and a deposit slip
for the second.
Antonio : Got it. This might take a while.
Bank Teller : No problem, sir. We’re here all day – at least until 5:00.
31. Where might be the conversation take place?

Jawaban : B (At the bank)
Pembahasan :
Ada cukup banyak kata kunci yang dapat menyimpulkan lokasi percakapan di atas. Salah satun-
ya adalah kalimat I’d like to deposit this check. Dari sini dapat disimpulkan bahwa lokasi percaka-
pan tersebut ada di suatu bank.
32. What is the balance of the man?

Jawaban : D ($1,752)
Pembahasan :
Jawaban tersebut secara jelas disebutkan dalam kalimat It looks like you have a balance of
$1,752.
33. How much money is withdrawn by the man?

Jawaban : C ($80)
Pembahasan :
Uang yang akan diambil oleh si laki laki adalah 80 Dollar. Hal ini disebutkan dalam pernyataan
Oh, I have that much? I’d like to withdraw $80
34. What time is the service still available?

Jawaban : B (5:00)
Pembahasan :
Jam buka bank tersebut sampai pukul 5. Hal ini disebutkan dalam pernyataan We’re here all day
– at least until 5:00
Questions 35 to 38
Mike : I’d like a ticket from Sydney to Melbourne for the 18th of November please.
Ticket Seller : Single or return?
Mike : Single please.
Ticket Seller : First class or second class?
Mike : Second class, please.
Ticket Seller : Your name please?
Mike : Mike Smith
Ticket Seller : That’s $120. Thank you. Here is your ticket and receipt. The train leaves at
6:15 in the morning. You need to be at the station 30 minutes before.
Mike : Thank you.
35. When will Mike go to Melbourne?

Jawaban : C (18th of November)
Pembahasan :
Dari pernyataan I’d like a ticket from Sydney to Melbourne for the 18th of November please dapat
disebutkan bahwa Mike akan pergi ke Melbourne pada tanggal 18 November.
36. How much is the ticket?

Jawaban : A ($120)
Pembahasan :
Harga tiket yang harus dibayarkan oleh Mike adalah 120 dollar.
37. What time will the train leave?

Jawaban : C (6.15 a.m.)
Pembahasan :
Dari pernyataan The train leaves at 6:15 in the morning dapat disimpulkan bahwa kereta akan
berangkat pukul 6.15 pagi.
38. What time should the man be ready at the train station?
Jawaban : B (30 minutes before)
Pembahasan :
Dari pernyataan You need to be at the station 30 minutes before ditunjukkan bahwa Mike harus
stand by di stasiun 30 menit sebelumnya.
Question 39 to 42
CDC is working with state and local public health officials to monitor the spread of Omicron. As of
December 20, 2021, Omicron had been detected in every state and some territories and continues
to be the dominant variant in the United States.
CDC has been collaborating with global public health and industry partners to learn about Omi-
cron, as we continue to monitor its course. We are still learning about how easily it spreads, the
severity of illness it causes, and how well available vaccines and medications work against it.
The Omicron variant spreads more easily than the original virus that causes COVID-19 and the Del-
ta variant. CDC expects that anyone with Omicron infection can spread the virus to others, even if
they are vaccinated or don’t have symptoms.
Persons infected with the Omicron variant can present with symptoms similar to previous variants.
The presence and severity of symptoms can be affected by COVID-19 vaccination status, the pres-
ence of other health conditions, age, and history of prior infection.
Omicron infection generally causes less severe disease than infection with prior variants. Prelim-
inary data suggest that Omicron may cause more mild disease, although some people may still
have severe disease, need hospitalization, and could die from the infection with this variant. Even if
only a small percentage of people with Omicron infection need hospitalization, the large volume of
cases could overwhelm the healthcare system which is why it’s important to take steps to protect
yourself.
COVID-19 vaccines remain the best public health measure to protect people from COVID-19 and
reduce the likelihood of new variants emerging. This includes primary series, booster shots, and
additional doses for those who need them.
Scientists are still learning how effective COVID-19 vaccines are at preventing infection from Omi-
cron. Current vaccines are expected to protect against severe illness, hospitalizations, and deaths
due to infection with the Omicron variant. However, breakthrough infections in people who are
vaccinated are likely to occur. People who are up to date with their COVID-19 vaccines and get
COVID-19 are less likely to develop serious illness than those who are unvaccinated and get
COVID-19.
Scientists are working to determine how well existing treatments for COVID-19 work. Some, but
not all, monoclonal antibody treatments remain effective against Omicron. Public health agencies
work with healthcare providers to ensure that effective treatments are used appropriately to treat
patients.
39. What might be the text talk about?
Jawaban : B (Omicron Variant)
Pembahasan :
Tema dari teks tersebut di atas dapat disimpulkan dari kalimat pertama teks tersebut CDC is
working with state and local public health officials to monitor the spread of Omicron. Sehingga,
tema yang paling tepat adalah varian Omicron.
40. When Omicron had been detected in every state and some territories and continues to be the
dominant variant in the United States?
Jawaban : D (December 20, 2021)
Pembahasan :
Dari kalimat As of December 20, 2021, Omicron had been detected in every state and some
territories and continues to be the dominant variant in the United States menunjukkan bahwa
tanggal 20 Desember 2021varian tersebut terdekatsi di US.
41. How does Omicron variant spread?

Jawaban : B (B. more easily than the original virus causing Covid-19 and Delta vari-
ant)
Pembahasan :
Kalimat The Omicron variant spreads more easily than the original virus that causes COVID-19
and the Delta variant menunjukkan bahwa varian Omicron lebih mudah tersebut dari virus
Covid-19 asli maupun varian Delta.
42. what is the best public health measure to protect people from COVID-19 and reduce the likeli-
hood of new variants emerging?
Jawaban : A (Covid-19 vaccines)
Pembahasan :
Kalimat Scientists are still learning how effective COVID-19 vaccines are at preventing infection
from Omicron menunjukkan bahwa vaksin adalah cara yang paling efektif untuk mencegah omi-
cron.
Question 43 to 46
Marc Márquez is a championship-winning MotoGP™ rider from Cervera, Spain. He first climbed
onto a bike at the age of four and soon collected more domestic titles than he knew what to do
with.
A move onto 125cc machinery was inevitable, and back-to-back Catalan titles in 2005 and 2006
followed, as did a successful debut season in the world-renowned CEV Championship before his
rapid ascent continued on the World Championship stage with Team Repsol KTM in 2008.
At the British Grand Prix, he became the youngest-ever Spaniard (15 years and 127 days) to earn
a podium finish as his promise prospered even further. 2010 saw Márquez secure the backing of
Red Bull, switching to Derbi bikes as he joined Ajo Motorsport, and the season turned out to be a
golden one. He claimed his first world championship title and then swiftly moved up to Moto2 for
the 2011 season.
A string of championship-worthy results saw him winning six races and grabbing nine podiums,
including victories at Mugello, Sachsenring and Assen. Unfortunately, a crash in practice in Malay-
sia ended his title charge, and he finished runner-up. Márquez continued to dominate in Moto2 in
2012 and eventually took the overall title.
In 2013, he became a history-maker. At the beginning of the year, he stepped into MotoGP™ with
Repsol Honda, first making his mark by becoming the youngest rider in history to win a MotoGP™
race. He then became the youngest rider to claim three successive podiums. Finally, in November,
he shocked the sporting world when he became the world’s youngest-ever MotoGP™ champion.
But he didn’t stop there and cruised through 2014 to take another world title with three rounds to
go.
2015 proved to be a testing season for Márquez, who, despite six DNFs, still managed to get onto
the podium nine times, five of those as a winner. He ended a tough campaign third overall in the
championship.
In 2016 Márquez was back to winning ways, taking an historic third championship title with three
races to spare at the Twin Ring Motegi circuit in Japan, home of his Repsol Honda team.
2017 saw the same result, another title for Márquez, but he was pushed all the way to Valencia and
the final race of the season as Andrea Dovizioso took a thrilling championship right to the wire.
In 2018, Márquez claimed the title with victory at the Japanese Grand Prix. One year later, he con-
tinued his relentless pursuit of silverware as he claimed a fourth consecutive championship – and
sixth premier class crown – in Thailand with four races remaining.
Starting the 2020 campaign as the favourite, Márquez broke his humorous in the first race in Jerez
and subsequently missed the entire season.
The Spanish rider returned to racing in the 2021 season and, despite still feeling the effects of the
wrist injury, secured his first win of the campaign at the German GP. Showing that he was returning
to his best, he then triumphed late in the season at the Circuit of the Americas, recording a seventh
victory at the track in Austin, Texas.
43. Where does Marc Márquez come from?

Jawaban : B, Spain.
Pembahasan :
Marquez berasal dari Spanyol. Hal ini disebutkan dalam kalimat pertama teks yaitu Marc Márquez
is a championship-winning MotoGP™ rider from Cervera, Spain.
44. When was Marc Márquez becoming a history maker?
Jawaban : D (2013)
Pembahasan :
Pada tahun 2013, Marquez menjadi history maker. Hal ini disebutkan dalam kalimat In 2013, he
became a history-maker. At the beginning of the year, he stepped into MotoGP™ with Repsol
Honda, first making his mark by becoming the youngest rider in history to win a MotoGP™ race.
45. In what year Márquez claimed the title with victory at the Japanese Grand Prix?
Jawaban : B (2018)
Pembahasan :
Kalimat In 2018, Márquez claimed the title with victory at the Japanese Grand Prix menunjukkan
bahwa pada tahun 2018 Marquez mendapatkan gelar juara di Japanese Grand Prix.
46. When did he return after his injury?

Jawaban : C (2021)
Pembahasan :
Pada tahun 2021, Marquez Kembali ke arena balap setelah cederanya. Hal ini ditunjukkan dalam
kalimat The Spanish rider returned to racing in the 2021 season and, despite still feeling the ef-
fects of the wrist injury, secured his first win of the campaign at the German GP.
Question 47 to 50
Sharks, together with rays and skates, make up the subclass Elasmobranchii of the Chondrichthyes.
Sharks differ from other elasmobranchs, however, and resemble ordinary fishes, in the fusiform
shape of their body and in the location of their gill clefts on each side of the head. Though there
are exceptions, sharks typically have a tough skin that is dull gray in colour and is roughened by
toothlike scales. They also usually have a muscular, asymmetrical, upturned tail; pointed fins; and
a pointed snout extending forward and over a crescentic mouth set with sharp triangular teeth.
Sharks have no swim bladder and must swim perpetually to keep from sinking to the bottom.
There are more than 400 living species of sharks, taxonomically grouped into 14–30 families, ac-
cording to different authorities. Several larger species can be dangerous to humans. Numerous
sharks are fished commercially. However, overfishing in the late 20th and early 21st centuries sub-
stantially reduced the populations of some shark species.
The whale shark (Rhincodon typus) and the basking shark (Cetorhinus maximus), both of which
may weigh several tons, are harmless giants that subsist on plankton strained from the sea through
modified gill rakers. Whale sharks may grow up to 18 metres (59 feet) in length, whereas basking
sharks may reach 14 metres (46 feet) fully grown. All other sharks prey on smaller sharks, fish,
squid, octopuses, shellfish, other invertebrates, and, in some species, trash. The largest among
the more predatory species is the voracious 6-metre (20-foot) white shark, which attacks seals,
dolphins, sea turtles, large fish, and occasionally people. The more sluggish Greenland shark (Som-
niosus microcephalus) of cold deep waters feeds on seals, large fish, and even swimming reindeer;
they may also scavenge whale carcasses.
47. What does the lecture talk about?
Jawaban : B (Shark)
Pembahasan :
Tema dari teks di atas adalah terkait dengan shark. Hal ini seperti yang disebutkan dalam teks
Sharks, together with rays and skates, make up the subclass Elasmobranchii of the Chondrich-
thyes.
48. How many living species of sharks existed?

Jawaban : C (More than 400)
Pembahasan :
Dalam teks tersebut disebutkan bahwa ada lebih dari 400 jenis hiu yang ada. Hal ini disebutkan
dalam kalimat There are more than 400 living species of sharks, taxonomically grouped into
14–30 families, according to different authorities.
49. How many metres whale shark may grow?

Jawaban :A
Pembahasan :
Pilihan jawaban A adalah yang paling tepat. Hal ini seperti yang disebutkan dalam kalimat Whale
sharks may grow up to 18 metres (59 feet) in length, whereas basking sharks may reach 14 me-
tres (46 feet) fully grown.
50. What is the largest predatory shark species?

Jawaban : C (White shark)
Pembahasan :
White shark adalah predator yang paling besar dari spesies hiu. Hal ini disebutkan dalam kalimat
The largest among the more predatory species is the voracious 6-metre (20-foot) white shark,
which attacks seals, dolphins, sea turtles, large fish, and occasionally people.
SECTION 2
Structure and Written Expression
Structure
1. Compared to other the grey wolf and other subspecies, arctic wolves have ………. smaller ears.
Jawaban : D (proportionally)
Pembahasan :
Pilihan D menjadi pilihan yang paling tepat karena terletak setelah kata kerja. Kata proportionally
adalah kata keterangan cara (adverb of manner) yang biasanya menerangkan kata kerja (verb).
2. Blood entering the paws is used to heat up blood that is leaving, this prevents the core from
………… by heat loss at the extremities.
Jawaban : B (Being cooled)
Pembahasan :
Kasus di atas adalah gabungan antara gerund dan passive voice. Kata yang diletakkan setelah
preposisi dalam hal ini from harus dalam bentuk gerund (V-Ing). Kemudian, dalam kasus di atas
juga menunjukkan pola kalimat pasif, dimana rumus dasarnya kata dasar wajib dalam bentuk V3.
3. A weather station named Eureka is pinned to the west coast and ……..a year-round staff of about
eight.
Jawaban : A (Maintains)
Pembahasan :
Kasus dalam kalimat di atas adalah tentang kesesuaian antara subjek dan verb. Karena kalimat
di atas menggunakan present tense dan subjek adalah subjek tunggal (A weather station), maka
kata kerja yang paling tepat adalah kata maintains (orang ketika tunggal)
4. Bill Gates …………. his first software program at the age of 13.
Jawaban : D (Wrote)
Pembahasan :
Kalimat di atas sudah dipastikan dalam bentuk past tense karena ditunjukkan dengan kata ket-
erangan waktu berup at the age of 13. Sehingga, pola past tense digunakan yaitu Subject + V2
+ Object. Sehingga, pilihan D adalah yang paling tepat.
Structure and Written Expression 55

5. Largely on the strength of Microsoft’s success, Gates amassed a huge paper fortune as the com-
pany’s …………………..
Jawaban : D (Largest individual shareholder)
Pembahasan :
Pola yang digunakan adalah pola superlative. Karena lata large hanya terdiri atas satu suku kata,
maka hanya diperlukan penambahan akhiran -est. tidak diperlukan adanya penambahan kata
most. Sehingga, pilihan D yang paling tepat untuk dipilih.
6. In addition ………… his work at Microsoft, Gates was also known for his charitable work.
Jawaban : A (To)
Pembahasan :
Kata in addition, bisanya disambungkan dengan preposisi to.
7. During the latter part of the 1990s, the couple also funded North American libraries through
the Gates Library Foundation and ………….money for minority study grants through the Gates
Millennium Scholars program.
Jawaban : B (Raised)
Pembahasan :
Pola kalimat di atas menggunakan pola past tense karena sudah ditunjukkan dengan kata ket-
erangan waktu during the latter part of the 1990s. di samping itu, parallelism juga ditunjukkkan
dengan melihat pada kata kerja funded yang sebelumnya ada. Sehingga kata kerja setelahnya
pun mengikuti berupa raised.
8. In 1988, after obtaining a Canadian passport, Elon Musk left South Africa because he was un-
willing to support apartheid through compulsory military service and because he sought the
…………………….. available in the United States.
Jawaban : A (Greater economic opportunities)
Pembahasan :
Pola yang digunakan adalah pola comparative. Karena kata great hanya terdiri atas satu suku
kata maka pilihan A menjadi yang paling tepat. Di samping itu, pola pembentukan noun phrase
greater economic opportunities juga yang paling tepat.
9. Elon Musk had long been ………….. the possibilities of electric cars, and in 2004 he became one
of the major funders of Tesla Motors, an electric car company founded by entrepreneurs Martin
Eberhard and Marc Tarpenning.
Jawaban : C (Interested in)
Pembahasan :
Kata interested biasanya disambungkan dengan preposisi in.
10. After graduating summa cum laude from Princeton University with degrees in electrical engi-
neering and computer science, he undertook a series of jobs before ……… the New York invest-
ment bank D.E. Shaw & Co. in 1990.
Jawaban : A (Joining)
Pembahasan :
Kasus yang ada dalam kalimat adalah penggunaan gerund yangdiletakkan setelah kata before.
Sehingga pilihan bentuk gerund (V-ing) adalah yang paling tepat, yaitu Joining.
11. In 1999, Bezos added auctions to the site and invested in ………….
Jawaban : D (Other virtual stores)
Pembahasan :
Karena kata benda yang digunakan berbentuk jamak tyaitu stores, maka penggunaan kata other
yang lebih tepat dibandingkan dengan kata another. Pola nya adalah another + singular noun
dan other + plural noun.
12. In late 2007, Amazon released ………………. called the Kindle, a digital book reader with wireless
Internet connectivity, enabling customers to purchase, download, read, and store a vast selection
of books on demand.
Jawaban : C (A new handled reading device)
Pembahasan :
Pola yang digunakan adalah Noun phrase. Sehingga, pilihan C adalah pola yang paling tepat
digunakan.
13. Born in 1964 in New Mexico, Bezos …… an early love of computers and studied computer science
and electrical engineering at Princeton University.
Jawaban : A, (Had)
Pembahasan :
Pola yang digunakan adalah past tense sehingga kata kerja bentuk kedua (V2) yang digunakan.
Hal ini karena kalimat di atas menunjukkan cerita atau sesuatu yang lampau.
14. After ……….. from Princeton, Bezos found work at several firms on Wall Street, including Fitel,
Bankers Trust and the investment firm D.E. Shaw.
Jawaban : D (Graduating)
Pembahasan :
Kata kerja yang diletakkan setelah kata before harus menggunakan V-ing.
15. A large variety of crocodilian fossils ………………..that date back 200 million years to the Late Tri-
assic Epoch.
Jawaban : A (Have been discovered)
Pembahasan :
Pola kalimat pasif yang digunakan, sehingga rumus yang digunakan adalah Subject + To be +
V3.
Written Expression
16. Crocodiles have powerful jaws with many conical tooth and short legs with clawed
A B C
webbed toes.
D
Jawaban : B (Many conical tooth)
Pembahasan :
Pilihan B tidak tepat karena adanya kata tooth. Kata tersebut seharusnya diubah menjadi teeth
yang menunjukkan kata jamak. Hal ini karena ada kata many di atas.
17. A large variety of crocodilian fossils have been discovery that date back 200 million
A B C
years to the Late Triassic Epoch.
D
Jawaban : C (Discovery)
Pembahasan :
Kata discovery tergolong dalam NOUN. Namun dalam konteks di atas, seharusnya menggu-
nakan kata kerja spesifiknya adalah kata kerja bentuk ketiga mengingat pola kalimat pasif yang
digunakan. Kata discovery seharusnya diubah menjadi DISCOVERED.
18. Throughout their range, crocodile populations have declined as human occupation and
A B
land use change have reduced their habitat.
C D
Jawaban : D (Have)
Pembahasan :
Kata have pada kalimat tersebut seharusnya diubah menjadi has untuk menunjukkan keseuaian
antara subjek dan predikat.
19. Many crocodilian species have been greatly depleted by overhunting for their valuable
A B
skins which provide leather for handbags, shoes, belts, and others articles.
C D
Jawaban : D (Others articles)
Pembahasan :
Karena kata benda di belakang menggunkaan pola jamak, maka seharusnya kata others diubah
menjadi OTHER.
20. Since about 1970, improved national protection, habitat conservation, and international
A B
regulation of trade have allow many populations to recover.
C D
Jawaban : C, allow
Pembahasan :
Pola yang diguankana adalah pola present perfect tense. Sehingga kata allow seharusnya diubah
menjadi ALLOWED karena diletakkan setelah kata HAVE.
21. About half of the 23 species remain widespread and numerous with little chance of
A B C
extinct.
D
Jawaban : D, extinct
Pembahasan :
Kata extinct seharusnya diubah menjadi extinction karena seharusnya masuk dalam kategori
noun.
22. The name Nile is derive from the Greek Neilos, which probably originated from the
A B
Semitic root naḥal, meaning a valley or a river valley and hence, by an extension of the
C
meaning, a river.
D
Jawaban : A, derive from
Pembahasan :
Pola kalimat pasif adalah Subject + to be + V3. Sehingga, kata derive seharusnya diubah menjadi
DERIVED
23. The Nile River basin, which covers about one-tenth of the area of the continent, served
A B
as the stage for the evolution and decay of advance civilizations in the ancient world.
C D
Jawaban : D, Advance civilization
Pembahasan :
Kata advance tidak tepat diletakkan pada pola di atas. Kata tersebut seharusnya diubah menjadi
bentuk pasif menjadi advanced.
24. According to one theory on the evolution of the Nile system, about 25,000 years ago
A
the East African drainage to Lake Victoria develops an outlet to the north, which sent
B C
its water into Lake Sudd.
D
Jawaban : B, develops
Pembahasan :
Pada kalimat di atas telah ditunjukkan kata keterangan waktu berupa about 25,000 years ago.
Sehingga pola past tense yang digunakan. Sehingga kata develops seharusnya diubah menjadi
DEVELOPED.
25. The first use of the Nile for irrigation in Egypt began when seeds were sown in the mud
A B
left after the annually floodwater had subsided.
C D
Jawaban : C, annually floodwater
Pembahasan :
Kata annually seharusnya diubah menjadi ANNUAL untuk membentuk pola noun phrase yang
tepat.
26. Along with many another animals including domestic dogs, there is a mechanism in the
A
paws of arctic wolves that keeps them at a lower temperature than the body core so
B
minimizing heat loss via this extremity that is in contact with the ground
C D
Jawaban : A, many another animals.
Pembahasan :
Kata another tidak tepat diletakkan pada pola di atas. Kata tersebut seharusnya diubah menjadi
other.
27. Beginning in 1995 and 1996, Gates feverish refocused Microsoft on the development
A
of consumer and enterprise software solutions for the Internet, developed the Windows
B
CE operating system platform, created the Microsoft Network and, acquired the huge
C
Bettmann photo archives and other collections for use in electronic distribution.
D
Jawaban : A (feverish refocused)
Pembahasan :
Kata feverish seharusnya diubah menjadi bentuk kata keterangan (adverb), sehingga kata terse-
but seharusnya diubah menjadi Fverishly.
28. Unlike most previous electric vehicles, which Elon Musk thought were stodgy and
A B
uninteresting, it was a sports car that could going from 0 to 60 miles per hour in less
C
than four seconds.
D
Jawaban : C (going)
Pembahasan :
Kata kerja yang diletakkan setelah modal (can, could, would, will, may, might dan lainnya) harus
menggunakan pola kata kerja dasar (tanpa tambahan) sehingga kata going seharusnya diubah
menjadi GO.
29. In late 2007, Amazon released a new handheld reading device called the Kindle, a
A B
digital book reader with wireless internet connectivity, enabling customers to purchase,
C
download, read, and stored a vast selection of books on demand.
D
Jawaban : D, stored
Pembahasan :
Pola yang digunakan adalah parallelism. Pada kalimat tersebut telah ada kata kerja purchase,
download, read, sehingga kata stored seharusnya diubah menjadi store.
30. After graduation, he worked on Wall Street, and in 1990 he became

A B
the most youngest senior vice president at the investment firm D.E. Shaw.
C D
Jawaban : C the most youngest senior
Pembahasan :
Kata young hanya terdiri atas satu suku kata sehingga tuidak diperlukan adanya kata most se-
bagai penanda superlative.
31. Bezos showed an early interest in how things work, turning his parents’ garage into a
A B
laboratory and rigged electrical contraptions around his house as a child.
C D
Jawaban : C (rigged)
Pembahasan :
Pola kalimat di atas adalah parallelism. Karena sebelumnya telah ada kata turning maka kata
rigged seharusnya diubah menjadi V-ing pula menjadi rigging
32. Amazon.com went public in 1997, leading many market analysts to question whether
A
the company could held its own when traditional retailers launched their own
B C
e-commerce sites.
D
Jawaban : B, held
Pembahasan :
Kata kerja yang diletakkan setelah modal (can, could, would, will, may, might dan lainnya) harus
menggunakan pola kata kerja dasar (tanpa tambahan) sehingga kata held seharusnya diubah
menjadi HOLD.
33. Bezos had been eyed the food delivery market, and in 2017 Amazon announced it
A B
had acquired the Whole Foods grocery chain for $13.7 billion in cash.

C D
Jawaban : A eyed
Pembahasan :
Pola kalimat di atas menggunakan pola past perfect continuous tense. Sehingga kata eyed seha-
rusnya diubah menjadi V-ing untuk menjadi pola yang tepat.
34. The species are identified principally by the proportions of the snout; by the bony
A B
structures on the dorsal, or upper, surface of the snout; and by the number and the
C
arranges of the scales.
D
Jawaban : D, arranges
Pembahasan :
Kata arranges seharusnya diubah menjadi kata arrangement untuk menunjukkan pola noun
phrase yang tepat.
35. People living near crocodiles often dislike them because they become entangled in
A B
fishnets, prey on pets and livestock, and occasional kill people.
C D
Jawaban : D occasional
Pembahasan :
Untuk menjadi pola yang tepat, kata occasional seharusnya diubah menjadi occasionally karena
kata tersebut menerangkat kata kerja setelahnya yaitu kata kill.
36. Sustainable harvesting, regulated trade, and education have became valuable
A B C
components of crocodilian conservation.
D
Jawaban : C, became
Pembahasan :
Kata became adalah bentuk kedua dari become. Sedangkan bentuk ketiganya adalah become.
Karena telah diawali dengan auxiliary berupa have maka seharusnya kata became diubah men-
jadi become.
37. Crocodiles in captivity are known to have reached ages of 70 or more years, but
A B
longevity in the wild is poor known.
C D
Jawaban : D, poor known.
Pembahasan :
Kata poor seharusnya diubah menjadi poorly karena posisinya yang menjuadi kata keterangan
untuk kata known.
38. Crocodiles have sensitive pressure receptors locates in pits in the scales around the
A B
mouth that detect motion; these structures assist in the capture of prey in dark or murky
C D
water.
Jawaban : B, locates
Pembahasan :
Kata locates seharusnya diubha menjadi located untuk menunjuukan pola pasif.
39. As already mentioned, the Nile River is still a vital waterway for the transportation of

A B
people and goods, especially in the flood season when motor transport is not feasibly.
C D
Jawaban : D, feasibly
Pembahasan :
Kata feasibly seharusnya diubha menjadi feasible untuk menunjukkan pola yang tepat.
40. The dam is designed to control the Nile water for the expansion of cultivation and for
A B
the generation of hydroelectric power and to providing protection downstream for both
C D
crops and population against unusually high floods.
Jawaban : D, providing
Pembahasan :
Pola yang digunakan adalah parallelism. Jika dilihat pada bagian kalimat sebelumnya telah ada
pola to control, maka seharusnya setelahnya adalah to provide.
SECTION 3
Reading Comprehension

Jawaban : C, Flora and Fauna of Nile River
Pembahasan :
Secara umum, teks di atas membhaasa tentang tanaman dan binatang yang ada di sungai Nil.
Hal ini ditunjukkan pada kalimat In the areas where no irrigation is practiced, different zones of
plant life may be roughly divided according to the amount of rainfall dan Many varieties of fish
are found in the Nile system.
2. What does the fourth paragraph mainly talk about?

Jawaban : B, the varieties of fish of Nile River
Pembahasan :
Hal ini dapat disimpulkan dari kalimat pertama yaitu Many varieties of fish are found in the Nile
system.
3. In what paragraph does the text talk about the plants of Sudanese plain?
Jawaban : B, Second Paragraph
Pembahasan :
Pilihan B adalah yang paling tepat, dimana hal ini ditunjukkan pada kalimat On the Sudanese
plains, a mixture of thin bush, thorny trees, and open grassland prevails.
4. The word “prevails” in line 12 has the closest meaning to …………

Jawaban : D, Dominate
Pembahasan :
Little (Sedikit)
Vanish (Menghilang)
Perish (Menghilang/lenyap)
Dominate (mendominasi)
5. Based on the last paragraph, the following information are true, except …………
Jawaban : D, D. Many schools of fish that fed in the waters of the Nile in Egypt
during the flood season have been increased or have disappeared since the construction of the
Aswan High Dam
Pembahasan :
Informasi yang ada pada Pilihan D tidak ditemukan di paragraph terakhir.
Reading Comprehension 65
6. The word “prevented” in line 42 has the closest meaning to ………….
Jawaban : A, Avoided
Pembahasan :
Avoided (menghindari)
Supported (mendukung)
Maintained (menjaga)
Kept (menjaga)
7. What does the second paragraph mainly talk about?

Jawaban : D, The plants on the Sudanese plains
Pembahasan :
Pilihan D adalah yang paling tepat dimana hal ini ditunjukkan pada kalimat On the Sudanese
plains, a mixture of thin bush, thorny trees, and open grassland prevails.
8. The word “thrive” in line 45 has the opposite meaning of ………

Jawaban : D, decrease
Pembahasan :
Flourish (mekar/berkembang)
Bloom (berkembang)
Advance (berkembang)
Decrease (menurun)
9. The word “attributed” in line 42 has the closest meaning to …………

Jawaban : A, related
Pembahasan :
Related (berhubungan)
Disconnected (putus)
Maintained (terjaga)
Positioned (dipoisikan)
10. According to the text, the following information are true, except…………
Jawaban : D, D. Only few varieties of fish found in the Nile System
Pembahasan :
Informasi yang dipilihan D berkebalikan dengan informasi dalam kalimat Many varieties of fish
are found in the Nile system. Notable among those found in the lower Nile system are the Nile
perch (which may attain a weight of more than 175 pounds), the bolti (a species of Tilapia), the
barbel, several species of catfish, the elephant-snout fish, and the tigerfish, or water leopard

Jawaban : B, Global warming
Pembahasan :
Tema biasanya ditunjukkan pada bagian awal teks. Dalam hal ini bagian awal teks menyebutkan
Global warming, the phenomenon of increasing average air temperatures near the surface of
Earth over the past one to two centuries.
12. The bases of AR6 produced global climate predictions consist of the following, except …….
Jawaban : C, C. Debate on the climate changes
Pembahasan :
Pilihan C tidak sesuai dengan informasi yang disebutkan di dalam teks.
13. What is the global average sea level had risen between 1901 and 2018?
Jawaban : B, 20 cm
Pembahasan :
Pilihan B adalah yang paling tepat, dimana hal ini sesuai dengan kalimat The AR6 report also
noted that the global average sea level had risen by some 20 cm (7.9 inches) between 1901 and
2018 and that sea level rose faster in the second half of the 20th century than in the first half.
14. The following are the damages stated by the scientists as the results of the global average tem-
perature rose by more than 20C, except ………
Jawaban : D, landslides and earthquakes
Pembahasan :
Pilihan D tidak sesuai denga napa yang disebutkan di dalam teks.
15. Based on the IPC special report, who is the most responsible for the average temperature in-
crease between 0.8 and 1.2 °C?
Jawaban : A, human being and their activities
Pembahasan :
Pilihan jawaban C adalah yang paling tepat dimana manusia dan kegiatannya yang bertanggung
jawab atas naiknya suhu. Hal ini disebutkan dalam kalimat An IPCC special report produced in
2018 noted that human beings and their activities have been responsible for a worldwide aver-
age temperature increase between 0.8 and 1.2 °C (1.4 and 2.2 °F) since preindustrial times, and
most of the warming over the second half of the 20th century could be attributed to human
activities.
16. When was the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) was formed?
Jawaban : B, 1988
Pembahasan :
Jawaban B adalah yang paling tepat, dimana informasi ini disebutkan dalam kalimat Giving voice
to a growing conviction of most of the scientific community, the Intergovernmental Panel on
Climate Change (IPCC) was formed in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
and the United Nations Environment Program (UNEP).
17. When was the concentration of carbon dioxide risen to 416 ppm?
Jawaban : A, 2021
Pembahasan :
Pilihan A adalah yang paling tepat. Informasi ini berdasarkan pada kalimat By the end of 2021
they had risen to 416 ppm, and, if fossil fuels continue to be burned at current rates, they are
projected to reach 550 ppm by the mid-21st century—essentially, a doubling of carbon dioxide
concentrations in 300 years.
18. What is the lowest-emissions scenario, which assumed steep cuts in greenhouse gas emissions
beginning in 2015, predicted that the global mean surface temperature would increase?
Jawaban : D, between 1.0 and 1.80C
Pembahasan :
Pilihan D adalah yang sesuaid engan informasi yang ada di dalam teks.
19. when was the IPCC first reported that concentrations of carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous
oxides in the atmosphere surpassed those found in ice cores dating back 800,000 years?
Jawaban : B, 2014
Pembahasan :
Informasi tersebut disebutkan dalam kalimat In 2014 the IPCC first reported that concentrations
of carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxides in the atmosphere surpassed those found in ice
cores dating back 800,000 years.
20. Based on he 2018 special report, when the carbon emissions continue at their present rate, what
is the temperature between 2030 and 2052?
Jawaban : C, It would reach 1.5 °C
Pembahasan :
Pilihan C adalah yang paling tepat berdasarkan teks di atas.
21. What does the passage talk about?

Jawaban : D, (The biography of David Beckham)
Pembahasan :
Teks di atas membahas tentang biografi David Beckham.
22. In what year did David Beckham marry Victoria?

Jawaban : B, (1999)
Pembahasan :
David Beckham dan Victoria menikah pada tahun 1999. Hal ini seperti yang disebutkan dalam
teks The two quickly fell in love, and on March 4, 1999, they had their first child, a son they named
Brooklyn Joseph. Two months later, Beckham and Victoria tied the knot at a lavish $800,000 wed-
ding at a castle outside of Dublin, Ireland.
23. What does the second paragraph talk about?

Jawaban : C, (Beckham’s career in his early age)
Pembahasan :
Pilihan jawaban C adalah yang paling tepat. Hal ini dapat kita simpulkan dari kalimat pertama
paragraf kedua, At an early age, Beckham showed his own promise as a footballer, winning the
coveted Bobby Charlton Soccer Schools National Skills competition at 11 years old.
24. In what paragraph does the author mention that Beckham miss out on a chance to play in 2010
World Cup?
Jawaban : D, (Seven)
Pembahasan :
Informasi di atas disebutkan dalam paragraf ketujuh.
25. Why did Beckham miss out of a chance to play in the 2010 World Cup?
Jawaban : B, (Because of an Achiless tendo injury)
Pembahasan :
Pilihan jawaban B adalah yang paling tepat. Hal ini disebutkan dalam kalimat He’s been beset by
injuries, spraining a knee ligament his first season in L.A., and later missed out on a chance to play
in the 2010 World Cup because of an Achilles tendon injury.
26. In what line does the author mention that in 2003, he was acquired by Real Madrid in a stunner
of a deal that brought to light Beckham’s growing rift with Manchester’s manager, Sir Alex Fer-
guson?
Jawaban : D, (24 – 26)
Pembahasan :
Informasi di atas disebutkan dalam baris ke 24 – 26
27. The word wealthiest in line 40 is closest in meaning to.....

Jawaban : A, (richest)
Pembahasan :
Kata wealthiest memiliki makna yang serupa dengan richest
28. In what age did Beckham retire from being a football player?
Jawaban : B, (38)
Pembahasan :
Beckham pensiun dari sepak bola pada usia 38 tahun. Hal ini disebutkan dalam kalimat On May
16, 2013, just days after winning a title with French club Paris Saint-Germain, the 38-year-old
Beckham announced that he would be retiring at the end of the 2013 season, ending his 21-year
soccer career.
29. In what paragraph does the author mention that Beckham led MU to the Premier League title,
the FA Cup championship, and the Champions League title?
Jawaban : A, (four)
Pembahasan :
Informasi di atas disebutkan dalam paragraf keempat
30. The word enhanced in line 14 is closest in meaning to.......

Jawaban : D, (Improved)
Pembahasan :
Kata enhanced memiliki makna yang serupa dengan improved

Jawaban : D, D. The life story of William Shakespeare
Pembahasan :
The tradition of William Shakespeare (Tradisi William Shakespeare)
The business partner of William Shakespeare (patner bisnis William Shakespeare)
The time when William Shakespeare was baptized (waktu William Shakespeare dibaptis)
The life story of William Shakespeare (kisah hidup William Shakespeare)
32. Why did William Shakespeare’s daughter passed away at the age of 11?
Jawaban : B, unknown disease
Pembahasan :
Pilihan B adalah yang paling tepat dimana informasi ini didapatkan dari kalimat Two years later,
on February 2, 1585, twins Hamnet and Judith were born. Hamnet later died of unknown causes
at age 11.
33. When was William Shakespeare died?

Jawaban : B, 1616
Pembaahsan :
Berdasarkan teks di atas William Shakespeare meninggal pada tahun 1616. Hal ini berdasar pada
kalimat Tradition has it that William Shakespeare died on his birthday, April 23, 1616, though
many scholars believe this is a myth.
34. What does the fifth paragraph talk about?

Jawaban : D, William Shakespeare and his business partners built their own theater
Pembahasan :
The religion of William Shakespeare and his family. (Agama William skaespeare dan keluarganya)
The literary works of William Shakespeare karya sastra William Shakespeare)
The family of William Shakespeare (Keluarga William Shakespeare)
William Shakespeare and his business partners built their own theater (William Shake-
speare dan bisnis patnernya membangun teaternya)
Hal ini didasarkan pada kalimayt By 1599, William Shakespeare and his business partners built
their own theater on the south bank of the Thames River, which they called the Globe.
35. The word acknowledge in line 4 has closest meaning to ....

Jawaban : D, admit
Pembahasan :
Refuse (menolak)
Understand (memahami)
Guess (menebak)
Admit (emngakui)
36. The word bequeathed in line 37 has the closest meaning to…..
Jawaban : B, inherited
Pembahasan :
Purchased (membeli)
Inherited (mewariskan)
Acknowledged (mengakui)
Complicated (rumit)
37. The following information are mentioned in the last paragraph, EXCEPT...
Jawaban : D, D. All scholars believed that Shakespeare died in April 23, 1616.
Pembahasan :
Pilihan D tidak sesuai denga napa yang disebutkan pada paragraph terakhir yaitu kalimat Tradi-
tion has it that William Shakespeare died on his birthday, April 23, 1616, though many scholars
believe this is a myth.
38. When did William Shakespeare marry Anne Hathaway?

Jawaban : D, on November 28, 1582
Pembahasan :
Pilihan D adalah yang paling tepat. Hal ini disebutkan dalam kalimat William Shakespeare mar-
ried Anne Hathaway on November 28, 1582, in Worcester, in Canterbury Province. Hathaway was
from Shottery, a small village a mile west of Stratford.
39. How many children did he has?

Jawaban : C, Three
Pembahasan :
Pilihan C adalah yang paling tepat. Hal ini berdasarkan informasi pada kalimat Their first child, a
daughter they named Susanna, was born on May 26, 1583. Two years later, on February 2, 1585,
twins Hamnet and Judith were born. Hamnet later died of unknown causes at age 11.
40. According to the text, the following information are true, except……..
Jawaban : C, William was the second child
Pembahasan :
Pilihan C tidak sesuai dengan informasi yang ada di dalam teks.
41. What does the passage mainly talk about?

Jawaban : B, Japanese traditional music
Pembahasan :
Japanese culture (budaya Jepang)
Japanese traditional music (Musik tradisional Jepang)
Basic principles in Japanese culture (Prinsip dasar di kebudayaan Jepang)
Japanese art (seni yanga da di Jepang)
Pilihan jawaban B adalah yang paling tepat. Informasi ini berdasarkan pada Traditional Japanese
music is basically meditative in character.
42. In what paragraph does the author state that for Japanese, the basic principle governing the
universe is not God or man, but time?
Jawaban : D, fifth
Pembahasan :
Pilihan D adalah yang paling tepat. Hal ini beradasarkan informasi pada kalimat For Japanese,
the basic principle governing the universe is not God or man, but time - a time which is a primor-
dial flowing energy, through which everything evolves and becomes.
43. What kind of concept which is very important in Japanese traditional music and all other Japa-
nese forms of art?
Jawaban : A, The concept of Naru
Pembahasan :
Pilihan jawaban A sesuai denga napa yang disebutkan di dalam teks
44. In which paragraph does the author mentions the reasons why composers and writers alike did
not consider they had intellectual and individual rights over their work?
Jawaban : D, Fourth
Pembahasan :
Pilihan jawaban D sesuai dengan jalimat Although composers were signing their works during
the Nara period (553-794 AD), much earlier than the Europeans, composers and writers alike did
not consider they had intellectual and individual rights over their work (though this has changed
since the 20th century following Western influences).
45. The word composure in line 2 has closest meaning to .....

Jawaban : C, calmness
Pembahasana :
Spiritful (semangat)
Beauty (kecantikan)
Calmness (ketenangan)
Wisdom (kebijaksanaan)
46. The word represent in line 14 has the closest meaning to ……

Jawaban : A, reflect
Pembahasan :
Reflect (merefleksikan, menggambarkan)
Mention (menyebutkan)
Compose (membuat)
Consider (mempertimbangkan)
47. What is the performance of Japanese music considered as?
Jawaban : D, ritual
Pembahasan :
Hal ini dapat disimpulkan dari kalimat The performance of Japanese music has traditionally been
of a spiritual character, similarly to martial arts and other art forms of arts such as the tea cere-
mony and calligraphy, for example.
48. The word governing in line 34 is closest in meaning to ......

Jawaban : D, ruling
Pembahasan :
Accepting (menerima)
Asking (meminta)
Carrying out (melaksanakan)
Ruling (memerintah, mengatur)
49. When were composers signing their works?

Jawaban : C, During the Nara period
Pembahasan :
Pilihan jawaban C adalah yang paling tepat. Hal ini disebutkan dalam kalimat Although compos-
ers were signing their works during the Nara period (553-794 AD), much earlier than the Euro-
peans, composers and writers alike did not consider they had intellectual and individual rights
over their work (though this has changed since the 20th century following Western influences).
50. According to the text, the following information are true, except……
Jawaban : D, D. For Japanese, the basic principle governing the universe is God or
man
Pembahasan :
Pernyataan yang ada di pilihan D berkebalikan dengan apa yang disebutkan di dalam teks.
DAFTAR PUSTAKA
Larasati, Penny., Tim ELC International. 2016. Pakar TOEFL SKOR 600+. Yogyakarta: Buku Edukasi
Lingga, Hotben D. 2006. Advanced English Grammar for TOEFL. Jakarta: Puspa Swara.
Pile, Michael dan Mary Ellen Munaz Page. TOEFL Preparation Guide. New Delhi: Wiley Dreamtech.
Strumpf, Michael., Douglas, Auriel. 2000. Golden’s Concise English Grammar. Kuala Lumpur: Golden
Books Centre SDN. BHD.
Sullivan, Patricia Noble., Zhong Grace Yi Qiu. Preparation for the TOEFL. New York: A Simon & Schus-
ter Mcmillan Company.
Tim Master Eduka. Bank Soal & Strategi TOEFL Edisi Lengkap. Solo: Genta Smart Publisher.
Deterding, David. H. and Gloria R. Poedjosoedarmo. (2001). A Practical English Grammar fourth Edi-
tion. Pearson Education Asia Pte Ltd: Singapore.
DAFTAR LAMAN
https://securwhe3.eslpod.com
https://www.theenglishspace.com
https://www.cdc.gov/coronavirus
https://www.redbull.com
https://www.britannica.com
https://www.nationalgeographic.com
https://www.coolantarctica.com
https://www.britannica.com
https://www.biography.com
www.mustrad.org.uk
74 DAFTAR PUSTAKA

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Here is the example

On the recording, you will hear:

(Woman) : I don’t like this painting very much.

In your test book, you will read:

He doesn’t like the painting either.

Now, we will begin part A with the first conversation.

Here is the example

(Narrator) : Questions 31 through 34. Listen to a conversation about a trip.

You will hear:

(Narrator) What is the man planning to see?

Now, we will begin Part B with the first cnversation

You will hear:

(Narrator) What is the main purpose of the program?

A. To demonstrate the latest use of computer graphics

Now, we will begin to the Part C.

Structure and Written Expression

Look at the following examples.

12 Structure and Written Expression

Now begin work on the questions

(A) (B) (C)

figures in the realm of blues, country, folk, hip-hop and jazz.

vocal tract element capable of articulating at least five vowel sounds.

(B) (C) (D)

Now begin work on the questions

30. After graduation, he worked on Wall Street, and in 1990 he became

Read the following passage:

What does the passage talk about?

A. The education background of Martin Luther King Jr.

The word “distraught” in line 11 is closest in meaning to ....

Now begin work on the questions.

Questions 1 through 10 are based on the following passage

1. What does the text talk about?

2. What does the fourth paragraph mainly talk about?

4. The word “prevails” in line 12 has the closest meaning to …………

6. The word “prevented” in line 42 has the closest meaning to ………….

7. What does the second paragraph mainly talk about?

8. The word “thrive” in line 45 has the opposite meaning of ………

9. The word “attributed” in line 42 has the closest meaning to …………

Questions 11 through 20 are based on the following passage

Questions 21 through 30 are based on the following passage

21. What does the passage talk about?

22. In what year did David Beckham marry Victoria?

23. What does the second paragraph talk about?

27. The word wealthiest in line 40 is closest in meaning to.....

30. The word enhanced in line 14 is closest in meaning to.......

Questions 31 through 40 are based on the following passage

33. When was William Shakespeare died?

34. What does the fifth paragraph talk about?

35. The word acknowledge in line 4 has closest meaning to ....

39. How many children did he has?

Questions 41 through 50 are based on the following passage

41. What does the passage mainly talk about?

45. The word composure in line 2 has closest meaning to .....

46. The word represent in line 14 has the closest meaning to ……

47. What is the performance of Japanese music considered as?

48. The word governing in line 34 is closest in meaning to ......

49. When were composers signing their works?

Bank Teller : Can I help you?

31. Where might be the conversation take place?

32. What is the balance of the man?

33. How much money is withdrawn by the man?

34. What time is the service still available?

35. When will Mike go to Melbourne?