Markscheme: (244 Marks)

T6-1 [244 marks]
[4 marks]
1a.
Markscheme
Remember, up to TWO “quality of construction” marks per essay.
a. clotting factor released by platelets/damaged tissue/cells;

b. cascade/series of reactions;
c. prothrombin (activated) to thrombin;
d. soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin / thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin;
e. mesh of fibrin/fibres seals wound/traps platelets/red blood cells;
Examiners report
There were many general accounts of the sealing up of cuts with clotted blood but what was needed here was the
process that leads to clotting. The programme specifies which stages in the cascade of reactions are expected and
better answers included these and scored full marks without difficulty.
[6 marks]
1b.
Markscheme
a. mRNA/gene coding for factor IX extracted from human cell/tissue;

b. mRNA copied to DNA/cDNA (using reverse transcriptase);
c. plasmids used (for gene transfer);
d. restriction enzyme/endonuclease used to open plasmid/cut DNA;
e. complementary bases/sticky ends on gene and plasmid/link gene to plasmid;
f. sealed using ligase;
g. recombinant plasmid/plasmid containing desired gene taken up by bacteria;
h. isolate/clone the recombinant/transformed bacteria;
i. bacteria cultured/grown in fermenter to produce factor IX;
Examiners report
Marks for this part of the question covered the whole range. Among weaker candidate there were various
misunderstandings about gene transfer and many confused gene transfer with gene therapy, describing the transfer
of the Factor IX gene to haemophiliacs rather than to bacteria. In almost every case the method of gene transfer
described in successful answers was that using plasmids. There were some detailed and accurate accounts of this
process.
1c. [8 marks]
Markscheme
a. hemophilia is due to a recessive allele/is a recessive trait / X H is normal allele and X h is hemophilia allele;
b. hemophilia is sex linked;
c. allele/gene is on the X chromosome;
Reject disease/hemophilia carried on X chromosome.
d. (sex chromosomes in) females are XX while males are XY;
e. Y chromosomes do not have the allele/hemophiliac males are X hY;

f. males inherit their X chromosome from their mother/do not pass the allele to sons;
g. males have only one copy so recessive trait/allele is not masked;
h. males have a 50% chance of hemophilia/receiving the allele if mother is a carrier;
i. carrier is heterozygous for the gene/is X HX h;

j. dominant/normal allele masks the recessive allele (so clotting is normal);
k. females inherit one X chromosome from father and one from mother;
l. affected/hemophiliac males have carrier daughters;
m. hemophilia allele could have been inherited from either parent;
Accept the points above explained either in text or clearly using a Punnett grid or genetic diagram, but not for simply
reproducing an unlabeled Punnett grid or diagram without explanation.
Examiners report
Almost all candidates knew something about the inheritance of hemophilia. The mark scheme rewarded a wide range
of relevant points as long as they were clearly made. Punnett grids could be used to illustrate particular points but they
did not score marks in themselves. One area of confusion among weaker candidates was the difference between
genes and chromosomes, with answers referring to dominant or recessive X chromosomes or implying that X was the
gene for hemophilia.
[4 marks]
2a.
Markscheme
Award [1] for each one of the following labelled structures.
a. outer membrane and inner membrane shown as two separate lines;
b. inter-membrane space / space between inner and outer membranes;
c. cristae (shown as projections of inner membrane);
d. matrix;
e. (70S) ribosomes (shown as dots in the matrix);
Examiners report
There were some excellent diagrams of mitochondria that scored full marks but also many incorrect ones. A frequent
fault was to show the cristae as an extra membrane, rather than as part of inner membrane. Some diagrams showed
so many gaps and overlaps in the membranes that a mark was lost. The weakest candidates depicted in their
diagrams whole cells with eukaryote features.
[6 marks]
2b.
Markscheme
a. large surface area from having many alveoli;

b. single/flattened layer of (thin) cells in wall;
Reject one-cell membrane/thin membrane.
c. (surrounded by) dense network of capillaries/capillary bed;
d. short distance for gases/oxygen/carbon dioxide to diffuse;
e. moist lining / film of moisture on inside of alveolus;
f. moisture allows oxygen/gases to dissolve;
g. diffusion of oxygen down concentration gradient;
Examiners report
There were some strong answers to this relatively easy question that quickly gained the six marks. Other answers
lacked precision and so scored less highly. One common misunderstanding is that it is the spherical shape of alveoli
that give the lungs a large surface area for gas exchange. In fact a sphere has the less surface area for a given volume
of any shape and it is the small size and large number of alveoli that gives the large surface area.
[8 marks]
2c.
Markscheme
Award these points either for inspiration or expiration but not both:
a. ventilation is movement of air into and out of lungs;
b. volume of thorax/lungs/chest increased/decreased;
c. pressure in thorax/lungs/chest decreased/increased;
d. air flows from higher to lower pressure / air flows until the pressures are equal;
During inspiration/inhalation:
e. external intercostal muscles contract so ribcage moved up/out;
f. diaphragm contracts so moves down/becomes flatter;
g. internal intercostal/abdomen (wall) muscles relax;
During expiration/exhalation:
h. external intercostal muscles relax so ribcage moved down/in;
i. diaphragm relaxes;
j. recoil of elastic fibres that stretched during inspiration;
k. internal intercostal muscles contract (during forced ventilation);
l. abdomen (wall) muscles contract (during forced ventilation);
Examiners report
This was a standard and relatively straightforward question and strong candidates scored full marks. As with other
questions on this paper, the weaker candidates revealed a wide range of misunderstandings. Cause and effect were
confused in some answers, so it is that movement of air into the lungs that causes the diaphragm to move down rather
than vice versa. One particularly common misapprehension is that pure air is breathed in and pure carbon dioxide
breathed out. Were this to be possible it would make gas exchange much more efficient but unfortunately it is not.
3a. [4 marks]
Markscheme
a. glucose (from photosynthesis) stored as starch;
b. starch stored (as granules) in chloroplast/in plastids;
c. (starch stored) in seeds/storage roots/stem tubers;
d. stored as lipids/oils;
e. (lipid/oils storage) in seeds;
f. lipids store twice as much energy per gram as starch;
Examiners report
This was a popular question among candidates.
For part a, many did not earn full marks and this appeared to be due to a lack of knowledge of this part of the syllabus.
[6 marks]
3b.
Markscheme
a. pyramid of energy shows the flow of energy from one trophic level to the next (in a community);
b. units of pyramids of energy are energy per unit area per unit time/kJ m –2 yr –1;
c. bar width is proportional to the energy stored (in the biomass) in that trophic level;
d. the first/lowest trophic level is producers;
e. second level is primary consumers/herbivores;
f. third level of secondary consumers/carnivores;
g. only a small amount (10 to 20 %) of energy of one level is passed to the next;
h. bar width/energy stored in the trophic level decreases (proportionally) as you go up each level;
i. pyramid shows that there is a limit to the length of food chains;
Award any of the above marking points to a correctly drawn and clearly labelled pyramid.
Examiners report
For b, many candidates easily earned the marks for parts d, e and f requiring them to identify examples of organisms
that occupy the various trophic levels of organisms. A number lost marks due to poorly constructed diagrams
especially in relation to the bars not being drawn proportionately. Few correctly indicated the correct units for
productivity of the various trophic levels.
3c. [8 marks]
Markscheme
a. normal body core temperature constant/36.5 to 37.5°C; (accept single values within this range)
b. regulated by negative feedback/homeostatic mechanisms;
c. hypothalamus is the centre of thermoregulation;
d. hypothalamus sends impulses to the body to increase/decrease temperatures;
e. release of sweat (by sweat glands in the skin) if skin temperature rises;
f. evaporation of water cools the body; (concept of evaporation must be mentioned)
g. heat is transferred by blood;
h. transfer of heat from body core in blood to surface;
i. if temperature rises, increased flow of blood/heat to the skin/vasodilation of skin blood vessels/arterioles; (do not
accept veins, arteries or capillaries)
j. if temperature drops, decreased flow of blood/heat to the skin/vasoconstriction of skin blood vessels/arterioles; (do
not accept veins, arteries or capillaries)
k. shivering increases heat production (in muscles);
l. example of one behavioural mechanism; (eg reducing activity (to lower body temperature) / reducing exposed
surfaces (to reduce heat loss)
Examiners report
Part c was generally well done. Most used the term homeostasis and negative feedback in their answers. A number
have a misconception regarding vasodilation and vasoconstriction as they are writing that arterioles move toward and
away from the skin surface. Few discussed the role of the hypothalamus in regulated body temperature.
[4 marks]
4a.
Markscheme
Must be description of types not a list.
a. (simple) diffusion when molecules move down a concentration gradient directly through membrane/unaided by
carrier molecule;
b. (passive transport by) facilitated diffusion through (specific) channel proteins;
c. osmosis of water via aquaporins/from area of low solute concentration to area of high solute concentration;
d. active transport against a concentration gradient using protein pumps/ATP;
e. vesicles attach to plasma membrane and release materials to exterior/ exocytosis;
f. cell membrane invaginates/pinches off to bring material to interior / endocytosis / phagocytosis;
Examiners report
Question 8 was the least popular question.
In part a, few discussed exocytosis and endocytosis. The distinction between simple diffusion and passive diffusion was
often confused. Reference to aquaporins was rare. Discussion of osmosis was generally well done.
[6 marks]
4b.
Markscheme
a. FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by follicle cells;
b. at start of menstrual cycle;
c. leading to development of endometrium;
d. (FSH and) LH (rise to a peak and) causes egg to be released/ovulation;
e. causes follicle cells to secrete less estrogen/more progesterone;
f. progesterone maintains endometrium/uterine lining
g. LH promotes change of follicle to corpus luteum;
h. secretion of LH and FSH regulated by negative feedback;
i. regulated/inhibited by high estrogen and progesterone levels;
j. low progesterone levels cause menstruation;
Examiners report
In part b, the knowledge of students was adequate. The challenge for this question was structuring the response to
address the demands of the question as the events within the ovary had to be linked to the events within the
uterus. The role of estrogen in developing the uterine lining was well known as was the role of progesterone in
maintaining the lining. They were also reasonably successful in discussing the role of LH. Students were less
commonly successful with discussing the specific actions of FSH and the regulation of hormone levels.
[8 marks]
4c.
Markscheme
a. disc shaped structure
b. embedded in uterus wall;
c. connected to fetus by umbilical cord;
d. contains fetal and maternal structures/tissues;
e. placental villi/maternal intervillous space provide large surface area for exchange of materials;
f. blood of fetus and mother flow close to each other (but no mixing);
g. materials exchanged/diffuse (through membranes) between mother and fetal blood;
h. oxygen/nutrients/antibodies/other substances diffuse (through membranes) to fetus;
i. CO2 and wastes diffuse (through membranes) to mother;
j. caffeine/drugs/alcohol/viruses from mother may damage fetal development;
k. takes over role of corpus luteum (to produce hormones);
l. produces hormones/estrogen/progesterone/HCG;
Examiners report
Answers to part c were adequate, though it was common for the use of terminology to be poor. Most candidates were
able to identify the placenta as a disc shaped structure embedded in the uterine wall that was connected to the
mother via the umbilical cord. Most showed adequate understanding of the types of material exchanged within the
placenta. Fewer showed adequate comprehension of the mechanism of materials exchange between the mother and
the fetus. Few adequately described the structure of the placental villi or the relationship between maternal and fetal
blood flow.
[1 mark]
5.
Markscheme
B
Examiners report
N/A
6. [1 mark]
Markscheme
A
Examiners report
In contrast Questions 9, 24, 28 and 32 had very high discrimination indices. Each required secure knowledge the
details of HL Biology, which diligent and capable students acquire but others tend not to.
[1 mark]
7.
Markscheme
C
Examiners report
The correct answer in Question 25 was contested by some teachers who thought that LH both stimulates follicle
development of follicles and ovulation. This view is not supported by the evidence, which shows that LH promotes
secretion of estrogen by cells in the developing follicle but that follicle development is stimulated by FSH. The two
pituitary hormones FSH and LH have distinctly different roles and it is not correct to lump them together in an
explanation of the menstrual cycle. The LH surge is such a good predictor of ovulation for couples wanting to conceive
because LH stimulates ovulation.
[1 mark]
8.
Markscheme
C
Examiners report
N/A
[1 mark]
9.
Markscheme
B
Examiners report
Three teachers expressed concern over this question. A number chose answer A, suggesting that these students do
not understand the concept of the myogenic origin of the heart beat.The role of adrenaline is required, so students
should have been able to rule out response C.
[1 mark]
10.
Markscheme
A
Examiners report
Four teachers objected to the wording of the question. 92.5% of students answered correctly so the wording did not
appear to affect student performance.
[1 mark]
11.
Markscheme
B
Examiners report
N/A
[1 mark]
12.
Markscheme
C
Examiners report
N/A
[1 mark]
13.
Markscheme
C
Examiners report
N/A
[1 mark]
14.
Markscheme
A
Examiners report
N/A
[1 mark]
15a.
Markscheme
0.38 (allow any value in the range 0.37–0.39)
Examiners report
Most candidates gave answers within the accepted range of 0.37-0.39. Those who gave 0.40 were not credited.
[3 marks]
15b.
Markscheme
a. as the ratio increases, the symptoms decrease;
b. between 0 and 0.16 (accept 0.14 – 0.18) symptoms decrease/are moderate;
c. between 0.16 (accept 0.14 – 0.18) and 0.4 (accept 0.38 – 0.42) symptoms are mild;
d. between 0.38 and 0.41 mice may have mild or no symptoms;
e. after 0.4 (accept 0.38 – 0.42) there are no symptoms;
Examiners report
Many candidates recognized that as the RAChE to OP ratio increases, the symptoms decrease. Some others also saw
that after a ratio of 0.4 (accept 0.38 - 0.42) there were no symptoms. Additional marking points were available but
often not awarded because candidates did not think to give more details or were not precise enough when analyzing
the graph. For example, for ratios between 0 and 0.16 (accept 0.14 - 0.18) the symptoms decrease; or, between 0.16
(accept 0.14 - 0.18) and 0.4 (accept 0.38 - 0.42) the symptoms are mild. The given tolerances provided adequate
leeway to candidates who observed those features of the graph and made careful measurements.
[2 marks]
15c.
Markscheme
a. (ratio would have been) 0.5/1 to 2;
b. no symptoms;
Examiners report
Much success was seen here. The prediction of 0.5 and “no symptoms” was very common. It was based on using the
supplied data in a simple calculation.
[1 mark]
15d.
Markscheme
90 μm 2 (accept 75 – 100) (units required)
Examiners report
This additional calculation for candidates also produced widespread success. It involved finding a difference using box
plot data presented in the second graph. There was a generous acceptable range for the answer (from 75-100
μm2). Units were required.
[2 marks]
15e.
Markscheme
a. higher/highest median area of synapses;
b. higher/highest maximum/minimum area of synapses;
c. higher/highest 25th/75th percentile;
Examiners report
Often, at least one mark was gained for describing the evidence. Candidates usually mentioned “highest median area
of synapses” or “highest maximum area of synapses” or, sometimes, both for two marks
[2 marks]
15f.
Markscheme
a. the higher the RAChE, the milder the symptoms/damage (first graph);
b. with or without OP, RAChE decreases area of synapses / RAChE reduces the damage to synapses (second graph);
c. (but still) some increase in area/damage to synapses (with OP) even with RAChE;
d. the study was done on mice with no evidence that its results extend to humans;
Examiners report
Again, many candidates gained at least one mark. In this case the task was to evaluate an hypothesis. True evaluative
statements were not seen very often. A few candidates pointed out that the study was done on mice with no evidence
that its results could extend to humans. Other candidates said that since humans and mice are mammals the RAChE
might offer protection to humans. Both types of reasoning were accepted. The marks gained most frequently were for
more descriptive answers such as “the higher the RAChE, the milder the symptoms” from the first graph or “RAChE
decreases area of synapses” or “RAChE reduces the damage to synapses” from second graph.
[4 marks]
16a.
Markscheme
a. water is a polar molecule / hydrogen bonding;
b. (makes it) (versatile) solvent;
c. example of dissolved substance (eg salts/proteins or other example);
d. (water is) fluid/liquid at body temperature;
e. example of transported material (eg nutrients/metabolic wastes/gases/hormones/blood cells or other example);
f. high heat capacity/specific heat allows water to carry heat without warming up;
g. (allows) blood to move heat (for warming/cooling/homeostasis);
Examiners report
This question troubled the rote learner who was unable to apply a general idea to a specific case. Candidates knew
key properties of water but could not specifically relate them to blood. Most candidates correctly answered that the
polarity of water molecules makes water a good solvent but forgot to give examples of dissolved substances in blood
or materials that blood transports. High specific of water was cited but not how blood temperature can remain steady
because of it.
[8 marks]
16b.
Markscheme
Arteries: [3 max]
a. thick walls to withstand high pressure/maintain blood flow/pressure;
b. collagen fibres/elastic fibres/connective tissue (in outer layer) give wall strength/flexibility/ability to stretch and
recoil;
c. (smooth) muscle layer (contracts) to maintain pressure;
d. narrow lumen maintains high pressure;
e. smooth endothelium for efficient transport/reduced friction;
Capillaries: [3 max]
f. wall has one layer of cells allowing (fast) diffusion of substances;
g. pores to allow lymphocytes/plasma to exit / to increase permeability;
h. extensive branching increases surface area for exchange of materials;
i. small diameter allows them to fit between cells/perfuse tissue;
j. narrow diameter increases oxygen diffusion from RBC;
Veins: [3 max]
k. thin walls allow (skeletal) muscles to exert pressure on veins;
l. thin outer layer of collagen/elastic/muscle fibres provide structural support;
m. wide lumen allows great volume of blood to pass;
n. valves prevent backflow;
NB Every structure requires a function for the mark.
Examiners report
Many candidates only wrote about the direction of blood flow through arteries, the heart veins. They completely
missed out on the link between structure and function. Other candidates who did write about structural features of
blood vessels failed to relate the features to function. Many confused the size of lumen with the degree of pressure in
the vessels. Understanding of capillary structure and function appeared to be less than that of arteries or veins. Pores
to increase permeability and allow lymphocytes to escape, extensive branching to increase surface area for
exchange, and small diameters to allow capillaries to penetrate spaces between cells are examples of ideas often
missed.
[6 marks]
16c.
Markscheme
a. leucocytes/phagocytes/macrophages can recognize pathogens/foreign matter;
b. (phagocytes) engulf pathogens by endocytosis/phagocytosis;
c. migration to tissues/squeezing out of capillaries;
d. each pathogen has specific antigens;
e. leukocytes/lymphocytes produce antibodies by reacting to specific antigen/ pathogens;
f. antibody joins to (specific) antigen inactivating/destroying them;
g. lymphocyte makes a clone/copies itself;
h. thus increasing the total number of (specific) antibodies;
Examiners report
Many candidates knew that leucocytes can recognize pathogens and engulf them by phagocytosis/endocytosis. More
knowledgeable candidates mentioned production of antibodies with specificity to antigens on pathogens. Further
details about antigen inactivation and lymphocyte cloning to amplify antibody production were seen only in the very
best answers.
[4 marks]
17a.
Markscheme
eg source: pancreas;
substrate: triglycerides / lipids / fats / oils;
product: glycerol and (three) fatty acids; (both needed)
optimal pH: 8; (accept answers in the range of 7 to 8)
Accept other correct examples.
Examiners report
Clear answers were given by most of the students that had the knowledge.
[6 marks]
17b.
Markscheme
a. plasmids are removed/obtained from bacteria;
b. endonuclease/restriction enzymes cut the plasmids at target sequences;
c. DNA fragments of other organism are cut with the same restriction enzymes;
d. in both DNA and plasmid, complementary sticky ends/staggered cut are produced;
e. DNA segment added to the opened plasmid;
f. spliced together by ligase;
g. reverse transcriptase makes DNA copies of mRNA / DNA polymerase to increase the amount of DNA;
h. recombinant plasmids inserted into new/host cells;
i. cultured/cloned to produce the new genes/more genetically modified cells;
Award [3 max] if no specific enzyme names are given.
Do not accept the word “enzyme” on its own.
Examiners report
Some students got confused with other biological techniques, making reference to PCR for example, apart from
explaining correctly some steps in gene transfer. There was often no mention of reverse transcriptase.
[8 marks]
17c.
Markscheme
pH:
a. enzymes have an optimal pH/work best at a given pH;
b. activity increases as pH gets closer to optimal pH;
c. extreme pH denatures enzymes;
d. by breaking bonds / changing enzyme shape/structure / active site shape/structure;
substrate:
e. as substrate concentration increases, activity increases;
f. as substrate concentration increases, the collisions between substrate and enzyme increase;
g. up to a maximal level of action / reaching a plateau;
h. all active sites are saturated/occupied;
temperature:
i. enzymes have an optimal temperature (where they work most effectively);
j. activity increases as it gets closer to optimal temperature;
k. high temperatures stop enzyme activity due to irreversible changes in structure / denaturation;
l. by breaking bonds / changing enzyme shape/structure / active site shape/structure;
Award any of the above points in an annotated graph.
Award up to [8] if all three addressed and [6 max] if only two addressed.
Examiners report
Most of the students scored marks for this answer, some of them confused the graphs of temperature and pH with the
one of substrate concentration, consequently their explanations were incorrect. A number of students incorrectly
wrote that the enzyme denatures once it reaches its optimal temperature or pH, so marks were not awarded.
[5 marks]
18a.
Markscheme
lysosome:
a. (from Golgi apparatus) with digestive enzymes / break down food/organelles/ cell;
Golgi apparatus:
b. site that processes/modifies/packages and releases proteins;
free ribosomes:
c. site of synthesis of proteins (released to cytoplasm);
plasma membrane:
d. controls entry and exit of materials/substances in cell;
rough endoplasmic reticulum:

e. synthesis and transport of proteins; (both needed)
Examiners report
Question 6 was the most popular to answer.
The major confusions were found when explaining the functions of the Golgi Apparatus and the rough endoplasmic
reticulum. Some candidates did not make any reference to proteins when explaining the function of the Golgi, for
which they did not receive the mark.
[4 marks]
18b.
Markscheme
Award [1] for each contrasting characteristic.
Table format is not necessary for the marks.
Examiners report
Marks were not awarded generally for incomplete answers. E.g. Not mentioning one of the end products of anaerobic
respiration, either CO2 or ethanol or in products of aerobic respiration, water was often omitted. The comparisons
were sometimes difficult to spot, given that they did not use a chart or did not follow a proper order. Finally some
candidates simply failed to compare, explaining only one type of cell respiration.
[9 marks]
18c.
Markscheme
a. inspiration/inhalation brings air into lungs;
b. external intercostal muscles contract;
c. and move rib cage upwards and outwards;
d. diaphragm flattens/contracts;
e. increasing thoracic volume;
f. pressure decreases from atmospheric pressure so air rushes into lungs;
g. expiration/exhalation forces air out;
h. internal intercostal muscles contract / external intercostal muscles and diaphragm relax;
i. abdominal/abdomen wall muscles contract and push diaphragm upwards;
j. decreasing thoracic volume;
k. increasing pressure in lungs so air is forced out;
l. a concentration gradient between air sacs and blood needs to be maintained;
Examiners report
There were quite a few students who gave very good descriptions of gas exchange and even respiration in some
cases, and the properties of the alveoli that made them well adapted for gas exchange. Unfortunately the question
was "Explain the mechanism of ventilation in the lungs in order to promote gas exchange for cell respiration". Many
candidates did not read the question correctly. Some candidates even gave more detail of aerobic respiration here
than they did in part b. Among the most common errors found were to say that "...inspiration brings oxygen into the
lungs" and that "...expiration releases CO2". In some of the answers there was no differentiation between external and
internal intercostal muscles. Some candidates referred to changes in the lung volume, instead of thoracic volume.
[6 marks]
19a.
Markscheme
a. pyramid of energy shows the flow of energy from one trophic level to the next (in a community);
b. units of pyramids of energy are energy per unit area per unit time/kJ m –2 yr –1;
c. bar width is proportional to the energy stored (in the biomass) in that trophic level;
d. the first/lowest trophic level is producers;
e. second level is primary consumers/herbivores;
f. third level of secondary consumers/carnivores;
g. only a small amount (10 to 20 %) of energy of one level is passed to the next;
h. bar width/energy stored in the trophic level decreases (proportionally) as you go up each level;
i. pyramid shows that there is a limit to the length of food chains;
Award any of the above marking points to a correctly drawn and clearly labelled pyramid.
Examiners report
The pyramids of energy were not always shown in the correct energy proportions for each step. As in many of the text
books this error is also found, we decided to accept it and award the corresponding mark. Many of the marks were
awarded for correctly drawn and clearly labelled pyramids.
[8 marks]
19b.
Markscheme
a. normal body core temperature constant/36.5 to 37.5°C; (accept single values within this range)
b. regulated by negative feedback/homeostatic mechanisms;
c. hypothalamus is the centre of thermoregulation;
d. hypothalamus sends impulses to the body to increase/decrease temperatures;
e. release of sweat (by sweat glands in the skin) if skin temperature rises;
f. evaporation of water cools the body; (concept of evaporation must be mentioned)
g. heat is transferred by blood;
h. transfer of heat from body core in blood to surface;
i. if temperature rises, increased flow of blood/heat to the skin/vasodilation of skin blood vessels/arterioles; (do not
accept veins, arteries or capillaries)
j. if temperature drops, decreased flow of blood/heat to the skin/vasoconstriction of skin blood vessels/arterioles; (do
not accept
veins, arteries or capillaries)
k. shivering increases heat production (in muscles);
l. example of one behavioural mechanism; (eg reducing activity (to lower body temperature) / reducing exposed
surfaces (to reduce heat loss)
Examiners report
Among the most common errors were to mention dilation of arteries capillaries or veins instead of arterioles and
shivering was not always associated to heat production. The concept of evaporation was not always mentioned. Few
were able to account for the role of the hypothalamus.
[1 mark]
20a.
Markscheme
0.8 (Accept answers from 0.75 to 0.85.)
Examiners report
In E1 (a) and (b) almost all candidates had correct answers.
[2 marks]
20b.
Markscheme
a. increases neuron activity;
b. increase over three days/increase of about 75 %/of 50–100 %;
c. then plateaus/levels off;
d. large variation on days 14 and 15;
Examiners report
In E1, (a) and (b) almost all candidates had correct answers.
[1 mark]
20c.
Markscheme
a. small sample so one measure can skew the average / higher average value due to only one measurement;
b. different birds respond differently/nothing being learned;
c. change in behaviour due to biotic/abiotic changes;
Examiners report
(c) appeared to confuse most candidates.
[2 marks]
20d.
Markscheme
a. hypothesis seems to be verified since all points after exposure to birdsong are higher;
b. learning phase (supported by changes on days 5–7);
c. experiment shows only one brain area activity / other factors may also be involved;
Examiners report
(d) in general answers were on topic, but few students evaluated the hypothesis.
[1 mark]
20e.
Markscheme
20 g l–1 (Accept answers from 20 to 21. Units required.)
Examiners report
Few candidates answered this option.
In F1 the data was a challenge for students who attempted this option and responses to this section were quite poor.
[1 mark]
20f.
Markscheme
0.08 mmol m –2 (Accept answers between 0.07 and 0.09 mmol m – 2. Units required.)
Examiners report
For C1 (a) and (b) most candidates had these answers correct.
[1 mark]
20g.
Markscheme
142–117/25 mm Hg (Units required)
Examiners report
A relatively small number of candidates answered this option, but those who did generally achieved well.
In B1 (a) most answers were correct.
[1 mark]
20h.
Markscheme
a. high (vitamin C) causes a positive change (in BMD) whereas medium/low causes negative change;
b. inversely proportional (for relative change);
c. if vitamin C intake increases, BMD increases;
Examiners report
The data in A1 was understood by most candidates who were able to analyse the data and connect the vitamin C
intake to changes in bone density.
[1 mark]
20i.
Markscheme
early succession species/examples of species /(numerical species numbers)/9
Examiners report
This option was attempted by many candidates. The data was more challenging for some than in previous years but
candidates on the whole responded well to it.
(a) (i) almost all answers were correct
[1 mark]
20j.
Markscheme
stress-tolerance value: 34 (Accept answers between 33 and 35)
competitiveness value: 38 (Accept answers between 37 and 39)
Examiners report
(i) almost all answers were correct, though (ii) proved more difficult.
[3 marks]
20k.
Markscheme
a. high ruderalism and (slightly higher) competitiveness in early succession;
b. (as time goes / succession stages advance) stress-tolerance increases;
c. competitiveness decreases;
d. ruderalism decreases/is more variable;
e. competitiveness least important factor / stress-tolerance most important factor;
f. exceptions for all categories;
Examiners report
For (b) candidates were able to list, but few were able to analyse as required by the question stem.
[1 mark]
20l.
Markscheme
at 30 °C ethanol produced more quickly/increased rate of production/positive correlation
Examiners report
[1 mark]
20m.
Markscheme
22.5 (%) (Percentage symbol is not required. Accept answers between 22.0 and 23.0)
Examiners report
For C1 (a) and (b) most candidates had these answers correct.
[2 marks]
20n.
Markscheme
a. pressure at systole/diastole / diastolic/systolic pressure increases;
b. pressure at diastole/diastolic pressure does not change much;
c. time between heartbeats decreases / heart beats/rate faster;
Examiners report
In B1 (b) Almost all answers were correct, although some candidates failed to have enough detail for two marks.
[2 marks]
20o.
Markscheme
a. positive change/reduced loss for femoral neck at all levels whereas only at high intake for spine;
b. higher values for femoral neck for each intake category;
c. inversely proportional for both;
d. no overlap between range/standard deviation / clear distinction of protective effect between femoral neck and
spine (for high/all intake categories);
Examiners report
Many students failed to compare the data and only achieved one mark.
[1 mark]
20p.
Markscheme
to absorb the same quantity of light (as high intensity)
Examiners report
A relatively small number of candidates answered this option, but those who did generally achieved well. There were
many good answers in 1c.
[3 marks]
20q.
Markscheme
Arguments supporting the need for adjustment:
a. (blood) pressure increased but then decreased later in flight;
b. time between heartbeats (at rest) increased then decreased / heart rate decreased then increased;
Arguments not supporting the need for adjustment:

c. (blood) pressure/time between heartbeats/heart rate does not change (much) in space;
d. data is from a few trained astronauts and may not reflect general population / OWTTE;
e. data for more extended periods of time not included (so difficult to evaluate);
Award [2 max] if only one perspective is presented.
Examiners report
Most answers were poor and tended to be descriptive rather than discussions as required.
[2 marks]
20r.
Markscheme
Implications:
a. high intake results in positive value (for all locations);
b. protective effect proportional to intake;
Limitations:
c. proportion of vitamin C intake from supplements / influence of other factors not stated;
d. only a few bone locations measured / sample size unknown / high medium and low not defined;
At least one implication and one limitation required.
Examiners report
Few candidates evaluated the evidence provided. Practice of this style of question is invaluable in preparing for the
examination.
[1 mark]
20s.
Markscheme
glucose ran out
Examiners report
[1 mark]
20t.
Markscheme
cells are dying / enzymes denatured
Examiners report
[3 marks]
20u.
Markscheme
Arguments against low temperature
a. high temperatures kill B. bruxellensis;
b. high temperatures results in low acetic acid in wine;
c. high temperature results in low alcohol content;
Arguments for low temperature

d. rate of fermentation/use of glucose/alcohol production is higher;
e. no real arguments for low temperature as B. bruxellensis growth rate/acetic acid production high;
Must include at least one for and against point for full marks.
Examiners report
[3 marks]
20v.
Markscheme
a. (hypothesis is supported as) there is an increase in chlorophyll/nitrogen content for the three species at lower light
intensity;
b. (hypothesis is not supported as) total leaf nitrogen decreases in low light for Alocasia and Phaseolus but not for
Spinacia/remains the same for Spinacia;
c. greatest difference in Alocasia / smaller differences in the other two species;
d. chosen species may not be representative of all plants;
e. (hypothesis is not supported as) increase in nitrogen may be due to stroma protein;
Reject unqualified answers suggesting only that there are insufficient data.
Examiners report
Few candidates evaluated the hypothesis. To evaluate, students are required to have arguments for and against. Few
did.
[2 marks]
21a.
Markscheme
I iris
II vitreous humour
III choroid
IV fovea (do not accept yellow spot)
Award [1] for every two correct answers.
Examiners report
(a) was well done with most candidates being able to identify the structures of the eye appropriately.
[2 marks]
21b.
Markscheme
a. (dissolved) chemicals detected by taste buds (in the tongue and mouth);
b. (airborne) chemicals detected by (olfactory) receptors;
c. chemicals/ions/pH in blood (for example CO2/glucose) detected by chemoreceptors (in carotid artery/medulla
oblongata);
d. neuroreceptors detect neurotransmitters;
Examiners report
(c) was also well answered.
[1 mark]
21c.
Markscheme
secondary (structure) / α helix
Examiners report
In C2 (a) (i) most answers were correct.
[1 mark]
21d.
Markscheme
fixes/adds carbon/CO2 to RuBP
Examiners report
A comment on a G2 suggested that the examination should have used the abbreviation Rubisco as this is found in
many texts rather than ribulose bisphosphate. Although many texts may use this abbreviation, the examination was
based on the terminology used in the subject guide. Teachers who do not use the terminology of the guide may
disadvantage students, as appears to have been possible with this question.
[1 mark]
21e.
Markscheme
connect bones to bones / enable joint movement/flexibility/articulation/ prevent dislocation
Examiners report
Most candidates could state the role of ligaments.
[2 marks]
21f.
Markscheme
a. wheat and rice almost equivalent for energy value;
b. rice has only slightly less kJ/energy from fat/protein / more from carbohydrate;
c. considering food miles / availability may be decision factor for choice;
Examiners report
Few were able to appropriately compare wheat flour and rice as sources of energy.
[2 marks]
21g.
Markscheme
a. inhibitor binds to enzyme at different location than active site;
b. this causes a change in the shape/conformational change of active site;
c. thus preventing the substrate from binding to the active site / resulting in a decrease of enzyme activity/speed of
reaction;
Examiners report
In C2 (c) in general candidates did know how non-competitive inhibitors work. This is a standard question that revision
of past papers would have prepared candidates well for.
[2 marks]
21h.
Markscheme
a. dietary cholesterol correlated to blood cholesterol/fatty acids;
b. high blood cholesterol is an important risk factor (but not the only cause);
c. some cholesterol required for normal synthesis of body molecules;
d. genetic factors play an important role in determining cholesterol levels;
e. other environmental factors (smoking) play a role in determining cholesterol levels;
Examiners report
In A2 (c) many candidates gave very long answers talking about the benefits of reducing cholesterol but did not
connect them to heart disease.
[2 marks]
21i.
Markscheme
a. increased (muscle) cell respiration releases more CO2/decreases pH (in blood);
b. detected by (respiration centre in) brain/medulla;
c. signal sent to respiratory muscles to contract at a faster rate;
d. more oxygen carried by the blood / needed for aerobic (cell) respiration;
Examiners report
B2 (c) was well answered but B2 (d) was not, with students failing to explain the changes in ventilation during exercise.
[3 marks]
22a.
Markscheme
a. dopamine initiates depolarization of post-synaptic membrane;
b. cocaine binds to (transporter) carrier proteins/proteins in pre-synaptic membrane;
c. cocaine blocks reabsorption (of dopamine);
d. cocaine causes dopamine build up in synaptic cleft/space;
e. so stimulus continues/cocaine is excitatory;
Examiners report
Most candidates were able to explain the effect of cocaine at synapses.
[2 marks]
22b.
Markscheme
Reject unqualified statements to the effect that both are types of evolution.
Examiners report
D3 (a) was reasonably answered by most candidates, though many answers in (b) were very vague.
[4 marks]
22c.
Markscheme
Polyploidy:
a. having more than 2 (complete) chromosome sets/description of polyploidy;
b. happens through chromosome mutation / non-disjunction;
c. occurs more frequently in plants than animals;
Contribution to speciation
d. polyploids cannot reproduce with original species / meiosis fails / chromosomes cannot pair;
e. creates reproductive barrier;
f. but can self-fertilize / reproduce with similar individuals;
g. thus forming a new species;
h. new species formed by sympatric speciation;
Examiners report
D3 (a) was reasonably answered by most candidates, though many answers in (b) were very vague.
[3 marks]
22d.
Markscheme
a. each photosynthetic pigment has a different absorption spectrum;
b. as light of different wavelengths is absorbed differently;
c. absorption spectra combine to create the action spectrum / action spectrum shows how much photosynthesis occurs
at each wavelength;
d. so plant can use a wider range of wavelengths for photosynthesis;
e. appropriate labelled diagram of absorption and action spectra;
f. action spectrum takes into account “in vivo”/actual environmental conditions;
Examiners report
The question was generally poorly answered.

[2 marks]
22e.
Markscheme
a. consumer may have more than one food source;
b. organisms eaten may be at different trophic levels;
c. may change their trophic level over time;
d. different stages in life cycle might exist in different trophic level (eg frog);
e. example of organism (presenting such a difficulty);
Examiners report
Few candidates had any difficulty with this question.
[2 marks]
22f.
Markscheme
Award [1] for each structure clearly drawn and correctly labelled.
a. Z lines;
b. thin actin filaments shown attached to Z lines;
c. thick myosin filaments with heads;
d. light and dark bands;
Examiners report
The diagram of the structure of a sarcomere was well answered on the whole.
[2 marks]
22g.
Markscheme
a. appetite control centre (in brain) makes person feel full/satiated/hungry;
b. function is both nervous and hormonal;
c. after eating (centre) responds to hormones/insulin from pancreas/hormones/PYY from small intestine/hormones
from adipose tissue/leptin in response to fat storage;
d. centre responds to hormone/ghrelin released from empty stomach;
e. part of centre responds to levels of lipid/sugar in the blood;
Examiners report
Most students could outline the control mechanism for appetite.
[4 marks]
22h.
Markscheme
a. a process in which chemical substances become more concentrated at each trophic level;
b. valid named example (for example mercury, organophosphorous pesticides, DDT, TBT);
c. these substances cannot be broken down / are broken down slowly by metabolism;
d. are often stored in (adipose) tissues;
e. each organism consumes large quantities of the trophic level below it;
f. so substance accumulates/increases to reach toxic levels;
If no example is given award [3 max].
Examiners report
For G3(b) there were many full mark answers. Most candidates were able to give examples of biomagnification and
explain the cause and consequences of it.
22i. [4 marks]
Markscheme
a. raw sewage contains pathogens;
b. can contaminate drinking water / cause disease/death;
c. nitrate fertilizers cause algal blooms/(aquatic) plant development;
d. algae release toxins that can contaminate drinking water;
e. more organic matter results / eutrophication;
f. more oxygen required to decompose organic matter / increase in BOD;
g. (leading to) death of aquatic animals/organisms;
h. recovery follows since algae/plants release more oxygen;
Examiners report
In (b) most candidates only scored one or two marks in this question as few could explain the consequences of
releasing raw sewage and nitrate fertilizer into rivers.
22j. [4 marks]
Markscheme
a. calcium/Ca 2+ frees myosin binding sites on actin/thin filament;
b. ATP (linked to myosin head) hydrolysed to ADP + P(i);
c. myosin head cocked/assumes high energy configuration;
d. myosin head binds to actin / forms a cross-bridge;
e. actin filament slides towards center of sarcomere / dark band;
f. combined sliding of actin filaments shortens muscle fiber / muscle;
g. ATP binds to myosin head and breaks cross-bridge;
Accept answers with properly annotated diagrams.
Examiners report
Most candidates had difficulty explaining the roles of actin and myosin in muscle contraction.
22k. [3 marks]
Markscheme
a. high amount of one nutrient may cause deficiency in another one;
b. excess protein not stored as protein by the body / converted to fat;
c. results in weight/mass loss in many people (due to fat/carbohydrate deficiency);
d. health problems such as kidney stones/other health problems;
e. high protein as part of a weight/mass loss diet;
Examiners report
Few were able to achieve well in A3 (b), lacking the detail required of the consequences of protein rich diets.
© International Baccalaureate Organization 2017
International Baccalaureate® - Baccalauréat International® - Bachillerato Internacional®

Markscheme: (244 Marks)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Markscheme: (244 Marks)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

T6-1 [244 marks]

a. clotting factor released by platelets/damaged tissue/cells;

a. mRNA/gene coding for factor IX extracted from human cell/tissue;

e. Y chromosomes do not have the allele/hemophiliac males are X hY;

i. carrier is heterozygous for the gene/is X HX h;

a. large surface area from having many alveoli;

rough endoplasmic reticulum:

Award [1] for each contrasting characteristic.

Table format is not necessary for the marks.

In B1 (a) most answers were correct.

(a) (i) almost all answers were correct

Arguments not supporting the need for adjustment:

Arguments for low temperature

In C2 (a) (i) most answers were correct.

Most candidates could state the role of ligaments.

The question was generally poorly answered.

Few candidates had any difficulty with this question.

You might also like