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09.1. General. 7.

If a 737 had both engines serviced and lost


oil from both engines in flight. This
1. Accidents and engineering faults are a) Can be expected to happen statistically
a) Insignificant and decreasing due to the number of aircraft in service
b) Significant and increasing b) Would be a direct result of human error
c) Insignificant and increasing c) Can be considered an acceptable
d) None is correct probability
(Chapter 1 page 4 d) None is correct
para 2.2) (Chapter 1, page 6,
2. Murphy's law is perpetuated mainly by para 2.6.1, 3rd in box)
8. What do you do when someone is
a) Violations hypothermic?
b) Poor aircraft design a) Warm them up.
c) Complacency b) Feed them sweet things because of their
d) None is correct diabetes
(Chapter 1 page 8 c) Give them a drink because of dehydration
para 3.1) d) None is correct
3. Murphy's law can be regarded as the notion (Chapter 1, page
a) If something can go wrong it will'. 5, para 2.3)
b) It can never happen to me 9. The percentage of accidents attributable to
c) If some thing goes wrong I am certain to aircraft maintenance and inspection causes is
get the blame a) Now less significant due to the
d) None is correct introduction of more sophisticated aircraft
(Chapter 1 page b) Significant and rising
8 para 3.1 in box) c) Now less significant due to more
4. A company's safety policy should be defined advanced maintenance practices
in d) None is correct
a) In CAP 716
b) The maintenance schedule (Chapter 1 page 5, para 2.3)
c) The Maintenance Organization 10. What happened to contribute towards the
Exposition. incident in 1995 where a Boeing 737 lost oil
d) None is correct pressure and had to divert?
(Introduction a) Both warning indications were faulty, due
1, page 6, last Para) to crossed connections
5. Which of the following is least associated b) The HP rotor drive covers of both engines
with the study of human factors? had not been refitted after a boroscope
a) Ergonomics inspection.
b) Health and Safety. c) The boroscope inspection had been
c) Human error inadequate
d) None is correct d) None is correct
(Maslow hierarchy of needs, Ch 3,
page 6, fig 13 Safety & pschsiogical needs Ch3 (Chapter 1 page 6 para 2.6.1)
page 6 fig 1.3) 11. What is the most common cause of in-flight
6. The incident where a 737 lost oil from both engine shutdown?
engines is a direct result of a) Incomplete installation.
a) Poor design b) Improper fault isolation, inspection or test
b) human error c) Foreign object damage
c) Engine vibration d) None is correct
d) None is correct
(Chapter 6 page 6 para (Chapter 1 AIRINDIA H/F manual introduction
2.6.1, 3rd in box) page 16 fig 7)
1
12. Most engineering related incidents are due (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 10, para
to 3.7.1)
a) Installing dirty connectors 17. How long is the short term memory good for
b) Installing components incorrectly remembering 7 items?
c) Installing worn or old components a) 30 to 60 seconds
d) None is correct b) Up to 30 seconds.
(Chapter 1 c) Above 60 seconds
AIRINDIA H/F manual introduction page 16 point d) 10 to 20 seconds
1)
13. What causes the most aircraft accidents? (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 15, para 4.5.5)
a) Technical faults 18. What is white finger?
b) Communication a) A disorder of the finger which may occur
c) Misunderstanding between ATC and pilot through continuous use of pneumatic tools
on approach because of reduced blood flow.
d) None is correct b) A reaction when the white blood cells die
and contaminate the fingers
(CAA.co.uk- Chapter 7 page 1 first para line 2 &3) c) A skin disorder caused by extensive
contact with oils and solvents
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5,
09.2. Human Performance and Limitations. page 7, para 5.2 (VWF))
19. When someone is working in an enclosed
14. 70 - 80% of the total focusing ability of the space (such a fuel tank), another person
eye is carried out by the should be outside the space in constant
a) Iris communication to
b) cornea a) Provide instructions to the tradesman
c) Lens b) Ensure compliance with the maintenance
d) None is correct manual
c) For safety reasons
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 2, para 2.2) d) None is correct

(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 7, para 6)


20. The scientific study of measurements of the
human body is known as
15. At what distance should a person without a) Ergonomics
hearing difficulties be able to hear an b) Physiology
average conversational voice in a quiet room c) Anthropometrics
a) 2 metres (6 feet) d) None is correct
b) 3 metres (9 feet)
c) 1 metre (3 feet) (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 1, page 2, para 1.4.4)
d) None is correct 21. How long can the aural reflex protect the ear
from loud noise?
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 11, para 3.10.1) a) 5 seconds
16. A perforated ear drum could occur if b) 15 seconds
a) You were subjected to intermittent noise c) 15 minutes.
above 25 kHz d) None is correct
b) You blew your nose excessively (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 8, para 3.3)
c) you were subjected to continuous noise 22. What part of the eye controls the amount of
below 8 kHz. light that is allowed to enter the eye?
d) None is correct a) The pupil
b) The iris.
2
c) The cornea (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 20, para 5.1.1)
d) None is correct 30. What part of the eye is colour sensitive?
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 2, para 2.3) a) The rods
b) The cones
23. Learning of a routine by repeated practice is c) The iris
known as d) None is correct
a) Cognitive learning (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para
b) Motor programming 2.5.1 (1st inbox))
c) Episodic memory
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 16, para 4.6)
24. The ear is used to detect 31. What type of lens is used to overcome short
a) Speed sightedness?
b) Neither acceleration or speed a) Concave
c) Acceleration b) Bi-focal
d) None is correct c) Convex
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 8, para 3.1.1) d) None is correct
25. Light enters the eye through the (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 5, para 2.7.2
a) Cornea (Fig 6))
b) Visual cortex 32. The type of memory which is most easily
c) Retina influenced by a person's expectations of
d) None is correct what should have happened is the
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 2, para 2.2) a) Long term memory
26. To focus on a near object, the lens of the eye b) Semantic memory
must c) Episodic memory
a) Be widened d) None is correct
b) Be flattened (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 16, para 4.5.8)
c) Be thickened 33. The inability for the eyes to accommodate
d) None is correct sufficiently is known as
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.4) a) Presbyopia
27. Which type of memory is most susceptible b) Hypermetropia
to interference from external influences? c) Myopia
a) Long term d) None is correct
b) Ultra short term (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 5, para 2.7.4)
c) Short term 34. An aircraft maintenance engineer who wears
d) None is correct glasses or contact lenses should
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 15, para 4.5.5 & 4.5.6) a) Not require their duties to be restricted
28. Peripheral vision is detected by the providing they wear their glasses/contact
a) Cones lenses at all times they carry out their duties
b) Fovea b) Have their duties restricted accordingly
c) Rods c) Not require their duties to be restricted
d) None is correct providing they have frequent checks to
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.5.1 (2nd in ensure the adequacy of their glasses/contact
box)) lenses
29. Extreme discomfort experienced by a d) None is correct
maintenance engineer due to working in a (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 7, para 2.12.2)
confined space is known as 35. Ultra short term memory has a duration of
a) Claustrophobia about
b) Acrophobia a) 10 to 20 seconds
c) Agoraphobia b) 80 – 100 milliseconds
d) None is correct c) 2 seconds
3
d) None is correct 42. People with colour defective vision usually
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 15, para 4.5.4) have difficulty differentiating between
36. What type of lens is used to correct long a) Red and green
sightedness? b) Blue and yellow
a) Concave c) Blue and green
b) Convex d) None is correct
c) Bi-focal (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 6, para 2.11.2
d) None is correct (in box))
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 4, para 43. The 'cocktail party effect' is descriptive of
2.7.1(Fig. 5)) a) Selective attention
37. Visual Acuity is the ability b) Divided attention
a) To differentiate between different colours c) Focused attention
b) To detect objects in the peripheral vision d) None is correct
c) Of the eye to discriminate sharp detail at (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 13, para 4.3.3)
varying distances. 44. Hypermetropia is the medical name for
d) None is correct a) Short sightedness
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.4 in box & b) Long sightedness
2.6.2 in box) c) Deafness
38. The 'working memory' is d) None is correct
a) Long term memory (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 4, para 2.7.1)
b) Short term memory. 45. What range of sound is usually impaired
c) Ultra short term memory first with the onset of presbycusis?
d) None is correct a) High pitch sound
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 15, para 4.5.5) b) Low pitch sound
c) Mid range sound
39. Colour defective vision affects d) None is correct
a) Almost 1 in 10 of men. (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 11, para 3.9)
b) More women than men 46. The amount of light which is allowed to
c) Almost 1 in 10 of women enter the eye can vary by a factor of
d) None is correct a) 500:1
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 6, para 2.11.2 b) 5:1
in box) c) 1:5
40. At lower light levels, the visual sensing is d) None is correct
performed mainly by the (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 2, para 2.3)
a) Fovea
b) cones
c) Rods
d) None is correct 47. Presbyopia often effects the eyes of people
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.5.1 (2nd in after the age of
box)) a) 55
41. If an image formed on the retina of the eye b) 40
is inverted relative to the viewers normal c) 70
perception of the image, the viewer will d) None is correct
a) Become disoriented and dizzy (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 5, para 2.7.4)
b) Consciously mentally revert the image so 48. From what age does hearing ability normally
as to make sense of his/her surroundings begin to decline?
c) Behave and feel normal. a) 40
d) None is correct b) 50
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.5.1 & c) 30
2) d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 11, para 3.9)
4
49. A person with 20/40 vision has a) Stores sounds and lasts up to 2 seconds
a) Worse eyesight as a person with 20/20 b) Stores visual information and lasts up to
vision 1/2 second
b) Better eyesight than a person with 20/20 c) Stores visual information and lasts up to 2
vision seconds
c) The same eyesight as a person with 20/20 d) None is correct
vision (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 13, para 4.2)
d) None is correct 56. The first stage in information processing is
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 4, para 2.6.3) a) Decision
50. Long term memory capacity is usually b) Memorizing
a) Unlimited c) perception.
b) 4 – 8 years d) None is correct
c) 12 months (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 17, para 4.8.1
d) None is correct & 4.3.8)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 16, para 4.5.7) 57. Information, if not rehearsed is lost in
51. The inability for the eyes to accommodate a) 10 - 20 seconds
sufficiently is known as b) 1 minute
a) Myopia c) 30 – 40 seconds
b) Hypermetropia d) None is correct
c) Presbyopia (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 15, para 4.5.5
d) None is correct & 4.5.6)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 16, para 4.5.7) 58. What is the CAA standard for vision?
52. Ultra short term memory has a duration of a) Acceptable uncorrected vision
about b) Acceptable corrected vision
a) 10 to 20 seconds c) 18/20 vision
b) 2 seconds d) None is correct
c) 80 – 100 milliseconds (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 4, para 2.6.3)
d) None is correct 59. In the human eye most of the refraction
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 15, para 4.5.4) required to bring an image into focus on the
53. The memory can be aided by retina is accomplished by the
a) A checklist. a) Lens
b) Memory checking b) Cornea
c) Mind logging c) Iris
d) None is correct d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 15, para 4.5.6 (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 2, para 2.2)
& 4.8.9) 60. The average capacity of the working
54. In AWN 47 what is the recommended memory is about
hearing test? a) 7 chunks of information
a) The ability to hear an average b) 4 chunks of information
conversation voice at a distance of 10 feet c) 12 chunks of information
b) The ability to hear a certain noise at 8 feet d) None is correct
c) The ability to hear an average (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 15, para 4.5.5)
conversation voice at a distance of 6 feet 61. The retina is situated
d) None is correct a) Behind the cornea with the lens
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 11, para b) In front of the cornea
3.10.1) c) At the back of the eye with the optic
nerve.
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.5.1)
62. Motor programme refers to
55. Iconic memory a) Motivational computer software
5
b) A task that has been carried out so many (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 5, para 2.7.4)
times that it becomes automatic. 68. Noise signals are carried to the brain by the
c) A task that becomes programmed into a) Sensory nerve
short term memory b) Auditory nerve
d) None is correct c) Eustachian nerve
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 16, para 4.6) d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 9, para 3.4)
69. Attention Getters are designed to
a) To gain the operators attention whilst
63. Memory which can be influenced by a allowing them to continue with the task in hand
persons expectations of what should have b) To make the operator focus his/her
happened is attention fully on the task in hand
a) Echoic c) Get the operators full attention
b) Semantic d) None is correct
c) Episodic (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 13, para 4.3.5)
d) None is correct 70. At what maximum frequency does the
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 16, para 4.5.8) human ear hear?
64. Information in the long term memory a) 16 kHz
a) Is easily transferred to the short term b) 8 kHz
memory c) 20 kHz
b) Is easily lost d) None is correct
c) Is only available under hypnosis (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 9, para 3.5.1
d) None is correct (in box))
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 16, para 4.5.7)
65. How many things can be stored in the short
term memory?
a) 0 - 5
b) 9 - 15 71. Motor programmes
c) No limit a) Are behaviour subroutines
d) None is correct b) Require conscious thought to engage
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 15, para 4.5.5) c) Are stored as working rules in long term
66. In the eye, the cones are used mainly in memory.
a) Bright light to give fine detail. d) None is correct
b) Bright light levels and they give poor (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 16, para 4.6)
colour vision 72. The pupil of the eye grows smaller
c) Low light levels and they give poor a) In condition of reduced light
colour vision b) To focus the fovea
d) None is correct c) In condition of increased light
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.5.1 d) None is correct
(1st in box)) (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 2, para 2.3)
67. A person suffering from presbyopia would 73. Conductive deafness can be caused by
normally damage to the
a) Wear spectacles when reading or carrying a) Cochlea
out close detail work. b) Otoliths
b) Have defective colour vision and not be c) Semi circular canals
allowed to carry out maintenance work on d) None is correct
cable looms (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 9, para 3.4)
c) Be short sighted and need to wear 74. Detail is best sensed by the _________and
spectacles to see objects more than 30 cm movement best sensed by the__________.
away a) The periphery and the periphery
d) None is correct b) The periphery and fovea
6
c) The fovea and periphery (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 6, para 3.4.2(Fig 13)
d) None is correct 81. An engineer who has developed his own
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.5.1) way of performing a task
75. If a person is colour blind, which colours a) Is in regular violation
would be most difficult to see? b) Is improving maintenance efficiency
a) Red and green c) Should be commended for his
b) Blue and red resourcefulness
c) Yellow and red d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 8, para 2.4.2)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 6, para 6) 82. The aim of human factors programs within
76. Myopia is _____________________ and a an organizations is
____________ lens is needed to correct it. a) To safeguard the health and safety of
a) Long sightedness and concave maintenance personnel by reducing accidents in the
b) Short sightedness and convex workplace
c) Short sightedness and concave b) To optimize the relationship between
d) None is correct maintenance personnel and systems with a view to
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 5, para 2.7.2) improving
77. The most common cause of myopia is safety, efficiency and well-bring
a) Weak accommodation c) To reduce costs by increasing efficiency,
b) A shortened eyeball safety and quality and decreasing waste through
c) An elongated eyeball human
d) None is correct error
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 5, para d) Systems with a view to improving safety,
2.7.2(Fig 6)) efficiency and well-bring
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 1, page 2, para 1.4.3 (in box))
09.3. Social Psychology. 83. An aircraft engineer who has 'responsibility'
a) Must be licensed on the particular type of
78. What is peer group pressure? aircraft
a) The influence the House of Lords have b) Are liable to be called to account as being
over the House of Commons in charge or control of, or answerable for something
b) Our behaviour influenced by our friends c) Is in a management position within their
and colleagues company hierarchy
c) The influence an individual has over a d) None is correct
group of people (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 2, para 2.1 (in box))
d) None is correct 84. The impact of human factors and human
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 9, para 4.4.4 point 6th) error is most important to
a) Technicians and engineers
79. A regular behaviour of an individual is b) Planners and managers
known as c) It is equally important to technicians,
a) The norm engineers, planners and managers
b) Habit d) None is correct
c) Culture (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 1, page 4, para 1.5.4 (in box))
d) None is correct 85. Where are the responsibilities of Licensed
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 5, para 1.5.1) Aircraft Engineers laid down
80. In a discussion, the person who is most a) AWN 3
likely to be agreed with is b) The Air Navigation Order
a) The person who repeats the point most c) CAP 715
times d) None is correct
b) The most argumentative person (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 3, para 2.4.2)
c) The person with the highest status 86. Diffusion of responsibility may occur
d) None is correct
7
a) To an individual working as a member of (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 6, para 3.1/3.2/3.3 &
a team 3.4)
b) With certain people whether they are 91. According to Maslow, safety needs
working in a team or alone (protection from potentially dangerous
c) To an individual working alone objects or situations)
d) None is correct a) Is the last need of human after all other
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 3, para 2.5.2) needs have been satisfied
b) Is second only to physiological needs
(food drink, oxygen etc.).
87. Risky shift' is c) Is the most primal need of humans
a) The probability of being assigned to a d) None is correct
work task which involves some element of (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 6, para 3.4.2 (Fig 13))
risk or physical danger 92. The symptoms of de-motivation are very
b) The name given to an inadequate shift similar to the symptoms of
handover a) Stress
c) The tendency for a group of workers to b) Tiredness
arrive at a course of action which is riskier c) Mental illness
than that which any individual member d) None is correct
might pursue. (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 7, para 3.5.2 & 3.5.3)
d) None is correct 93. The desire of an individual to 'conform' to a
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 14, para 2.5.5) group by allowing one's opinions, attitudes
88. To ensure that a technician remains and actions to be affected by prevailing
reasonably current on the aircraft types to conditions is known as
which they hold authorizations, they are a) Peer pressure.
required that b) Esteem needs
a) They have appropriate c) Culture issues
continuation/refresher training only d) None is correct
b) They are involved in at least 6 months of (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 8, para 4.3)
actual aircraft maintenance experience in
any 2 year period only
c) They are involved in at least 6 months of
actual aircraft maintenance experience in
any 2 year period and they have appropriate 94. A person with low self-esteem is
continuation/refresher training. a) More likely to conform to peer pressure
d) None is correct b) Less likely to conform to peer pressure
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 6, page 1, para – Fig 21) c) Conformity to peer pressure is not
89. The difference between what a person 'can' affected by level of self-esteem
do and what he 'will' do is largely d) None is correct
determined by his (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 9, para 4.4.4)
a) Motivation 95. Motivation is
b) Educational and training a) A reward or punishment designed to
c) Physical and mental health reduce errors
d) None is correct b) A reward or punishment designed to
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 4, para 3.1 (in box)) increase work rate
90. Whose responsibility is it that an engineer c) The thing that drives someone to do
remains current on new technology and something.
procedures? d) None is correct
a) The organization’s (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 4, para 3.1 (in box))
b) The CAA’s 96. Peer pressure is
c)The engineer's. a) The perceived pressure to carry out a task
d) None is correct in the same way your colleagues would
8
b) The perceived pressure to conform to a) Members participate in team activities but
what you believe your colleagues expect of retain their own individual requirements.
you b) All the members participate in team
c) None activities and discussions
d) None is correct c) All the team members work in isolation
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 6, para 4.1 (in box)) and therefore provide highly individual
97. The eyesight of an engineer is the solutions to the same problems
responsibility of d) None is correct
a) The Quality Manager (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 13, para 6.2.3 & 6.2.4)
b) The optician 103. Good aircraft maintenance supervisory
c) The engineer judgment is usually based upon
d) None is correct a) Knowledge and experience and reference
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 7, para 2.12.2) to approved data
98. A good team is one where every member b) The evidence available and forceful
has management ability
a) An opinion c) Knowledge and experience and reference
b) An input to course notes
c) A job d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 15, para 7.2.1)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 3, para 2.51) 104. Organizational culture (whether good or
99. AWN 47 states that the engineer bad) is best described as
a) Is responsible for health and safety a) The way we do things around here'.
b) Is responsible for the work he has signed b) Written procedures
for c) Team resource management
c) Does not report for work if unfit. d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 10, para 5.1 (in box))
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 18, para 6.4.3 point 5 105. In an organization which practices human
& 6) factors there is
100. An effective group work is when a) Punishment for all violations
a) Everyone contributes in some way b) No blame unless there is a deliberate
b) Everyone discusses ideas and opinions violation.
c) Everyone has a job to do c) A no blame culture
d) None is correct d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 12, para 6.1.1 (in (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 8, para 2.4.5)
box)) 106. A person can be said to be motivated if
101. Which of the following defines a peer a) They cut corners to get the job done
pressure situation? quickly
a) Your supervising manager pressuring you b) They are on a productivity bonus
to complete the current task on time c) They are taking action to achieve
b) Your girlfriend telling you to go out with something
her d) None is correct
c) Your colleagues pressuring you to work (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 4, para 3.1 (in box))
faster so they can go home. 107. Group polarisation can result in
d) None is correct a) A group making a more cautious or
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 8, para 4.2) extreme decision.
b) A group making a better decision than the
individual
c) Members of the group not talking to one
another
102. Successful working teams have the d) None is correct
following attributes (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 4, para 2.5.5)
9
108. The ideal behaviour of a professional c) Can only be used if prescribed by your
aircraft engineer is doctor should never be done (except for coffee)
a) Goal directed rather than person directed d) Should never be done (except for coffee).
b) Both person and goal directed (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 18, para 6.4.3 point 6)
c) Neither person or goal directed 114. You are taking SUDAFED to relief nasal
d) None is correct congestion. You should
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 5, para 3.4.2, Fig 13) a) Stay away from work until you no longer
09.4. Factors Affecting Performance require the SUDAFED
b) Continue to take them at work because
109. Information on drugs and alcohol can be SUDAFED has no side effects
found in c) Avoid making engineering decisions or
a) BCARs performing licensed duties.
b) AWN 47 d) None is correct
c) AWN 3 (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 18, para 6.4.3 point 5)
d) None is correct 115. What is slow wave sleep?
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 2, para 1.5.2 & page a) Paradoxical sleep
18, para 6.3.3 & 6.4.3) b) Stage 2- 4 sleep
c) REM
d) None is correct
110. If you have been prescribed new medicine (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 11, para 5.1.3)
by your doctor you should 116. Phase 3/4 sleep
a) Continue with your normal shift pattern a) Can be induced by alcohol
b) Take 3 days off work to try out the new b) Occurs only once per sleep cycle
medication c) Is most beneficial for the body's
c) Give the new medication a 24 hour trial restoration.
d) None is correct d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 17, para 6.4.2) (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 12, para 5.1.4 (Fig
111. After a general anaesthetic you should 17))
a) Return to work as soon as possible 117. Human error can be caused by
b) Not return to work for at least 24 to 48 a) High body temperature
hours (depending on the individual). b) Normal body temperature
c) Take at least 7 days off work c) Low body temperature.
d) None is correct d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 17, para 6.4) (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 5, para 4.1 (Fig 19))
112. Your doctor has prescribed you
tranquillizers as you are suffering from
depression. You should
a) Not tell your employer and carry on work 118. What meal is most recommended after a
as normal long shift?
b) Tell your employer and carry on work as a) High carbohydrates.
normal b) Low carbohydrates
c) Not work at all when taking the c) High protein
tranquillizers d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 3, para 1.6.1 & 5.5.2)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 17 & 18, para 6.4.3) 119. Long shift work will
113. The use of 'pep' pills by an aircraft engineer a) Initially decrease your diagnostic and
a) Is recommended only when working late maintenance ability but eventually increase
or on night shift your diagnostic and maintenance ability as
b) As they stimulate the senses and make you get used to it
you less prone to accidents b) Always decrease your diagnostic and
maintenance ability
10
c) Always increase your diagnostic and b) Can be counterproductive, as fatigue
maintenance ability diminishes motor skills, perception,
d) None is correct awareness and standards.
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 16, para 5.5.4) c) Can be done providing adequate rest
120. The circadian cycle body temperature period is available at the end of the shift
a) Does not vary d) None is correct
b) Varies by 1.5°C (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 13 & 14, para
c) Varies by 1.5°F 5.3.2 & 5.3.3)
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 13, para 5.2.3
(Fig 18))
121. Acute stress is 126. Tiredness causes visual acuity to
a) Intense stress of long duration a) Decrease
b) Typically intense but of short duration b) Visual acuity is not affected by tiredness
c) A frequently reoccurring stress or of long c) Increase
duration d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 14,
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 4, para 2.3.1) para 5.3.3 point 1)
122. Chronic stress is 127. Narrowing of attention occurs at
a) A frequently reoccurring stress or of long a) Low levels of arousal
duration. b) Both high and low levels of arousal
b) Typically intense but of short duration c) High levels of arousal.
c) Intense stress of long duration d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 8, para 4.3.2 (Fig 16))
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 4, para 2.3.1) 128. The blood/alcohol limit is
123. Smoking cannabis a) 20 milligrams of alcohol per 100
a) Subtly impairs performance for up to 24 millilitres of blood for commercial aircrew,
hours air traffic controllers and 80 milligrams of
b) Has only a short term affect upon alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood for
performance maintenance engineers.
c) Has a noticeable affect on a persons b) 40 milligrams of alcohol per 100
behaviour and performance for up to 24 hours millilitres of blood
d) None is correct c) 20 milligrams of alcohol per 100
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 18, millilitres of blood for commercial aircrew, air
para 6.5.2) traffic controllers
124. Performance is and maintenance engineers
a) Inversely proportional to the individuals d) None is correct
state of arousal. (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 16, para 6.1 & 6.2))
b) Directly proportional to the individuals 129. Paradoxical sleep is also known as
state of arousal a) Stage 3 sleep
c) Greatest only at one optimum level of b) Stage 4 sleep
arousal but diminishes as arousal decreases or c) REM sleep.
increases d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 11, para 5.1.2 point 5)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 8, para 4.3.2 130. When taking medicine for the first time
(Fig 16)) a) Take the first dose at least 24 hours before
125. Missing a break in an effort to get a job done any duty to ensure that it does not have any
within a certain time frame adverse effects.
a) Can be done by those actually doing the b) Absent yourself from work for the
job providing the supervisors take regular duration of use of the medicine
breaks
11
c) Consult a doctor if you need to carry out c) Decreases mental and physical and
any duties reaction times
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 17, para 6.3.1)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 17, para 6.4.2) 137. Alertness and performance is reduced when
131. For a man to maintain his fitness and health the body temperature is
the conducive maximum recommended a) Above normal
alcohol intake is b) Below normal
a) 3 - 4 units per week c) Either above or below normal
b) 28 units per week d) None is correct
c) 28 units per day (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 12, para 5.2.3)
d) None is correct 138. A good rule of thumb for an adequate
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 3, para 1.6.1 point 4) amount of sleep is
132. Human Circadian rhythms cycle on a a) One hour of high quality sleep is good for
a) 25 hour timescale two hours of activity.
b) 8 hour timescale b) Two hours of high quality sleep is good
c) 24 hour timescale for one hour of activity
d) None is correct c) One hour of high quality sleep is good for
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 12, para 5.2.1 one hour of activity
(in box)) d) None is correct
133. Removal of alcohol from the blood stream (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 15, para 5.5.1 (in
a) Can be speeded up by sleeping box))
b) Cannot be speeded up 139. Finding that familiar tasks (such as
c) Cannot be speeded up by drinking strong programming the video recorder) seems
coffee more complicated than usual, could be an
d) None is correct early indication of
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 17, para 6.3.2) a) Acute stress
b) Chronic fatigue
134. For a person with normal Circadian rhythms, c) Cold or flu
the body temperature will be lowest d) None is correct
a) Between 4 and 6 o'clock in the morning (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 16, para 5.5.4 (in
b) Upon waking box))
c) At midday 140. The only permitted stimulant is
d) None is correct a) Bromine
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 12, para 5.2.3) b) Caffeine
135. If a maintenance engineer has a cold or flu c) Amphetamine
he should d) None is correct
a) Only absent himself from duty if his work (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 18, para 6.4.3
contract includes sickness pay point 6)
b) Only absent himself from duty if there are 141. Large amounts of caffeine can
no staff shortages at his workplace or within a) Cause anxiety, headaches and stress
his work team b) Reduce anxiety and stress
c) Absent himself from duty until fully c) Improve alertness and increased
recovered, regardless of other factors. awareness
d) None is correct d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 17, para 6.4.3) (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 18, para 6.4.3 point 6)
136. Consumption of alcohol
a) Increases mental and physical reaction
times
b) Has no affect upon mental and physical
reaction times 142. The symptoms of stress are

12
a) Violence, sickness, absence from work, 149. The cycles of body temperature, sleep
drug and alcohol abuse requirement and alertness are called
b) Indications of improved work a) Earth cycles
performance b) Circadian rhythms
c) Irritability, forgetfulness, sickness, c) Ecto - meridian cycles
absence from work, drug and alcohol abuse. d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 12, para 5.2.1)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 4, para 2.3.3)
143. Sleeping tablets can
a) Slow reaction and dull the senses.
b) Increase alertness after waking the
following morning 150. The intake of caffeine in moderate quantities
c) Help REM sleep and realign circadian can result in
rhythms a) Anxiety, headaches and negative mood
d) None is correct states
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 18, para 6.4.3 point 7) b) Lack of sleep and subsequent disruption
144. Information for certifying staff when to the circadian rhytms
medically unfit is found in c) A temporary increase in the ability to
a) AWN 3 sustain vigilance and increased alertness
b) AWN 47 d) None is correct
c) ANO (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 18, para 6.4.3 point 6)
d) None is correct 151. In theory, human error is most likely to
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 14, para 5.3.4) occur
145. What effect would the consumption of 3 - 5 a) When the body temperature is at its
units of alcohol? lowest.
a) Loss of quality of sleep b) During very hot weather
b) Low REM sleep c) When the body temperature is stable
c) A drop in body temperature d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 12, para 5.2.3)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 3, para 1.6.1 point 4) 152. An individual suffering from stress when
146. Circadian Rhythms control confronted with a task within his capability
a) Body temperature. is likely to think the task is
b) Urine output a) Too demanding
c) Sleeping patterns b) Not demanding enough
d) None is correct c) Someone else's responsibility
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 12, para 5.2.1) d) None is correct
147. A stimulant allowed to be taken without a (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 5, para 2.5.2)
doctor's prescription is 153. AWN 47 does not mention
a) Bromine a) Pep’s
b) Caffeine. b) Sudafed
c) Antihistamine c) Melatonin
d) None is correct d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 18, para 6.4.3 point 6) (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 14, para 6.4.4)
148. The conditions laid down in AWN 47 are 154. 3 - 4 units of alcohol taken before sleep
applicable to aircraft engineers reduces
a) Who sign for work completed a) Both b & c
b) When under the influence of drink or b) Quantity of sleep
drugs c) Quality of sleep
c) For their safety at work d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 3, para 1.6.1 point 4)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 14, para 5.3.4) 155. Which is important in sleep?
13
a) Quantity c) 4
b) Quality d) None is correct
c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 12, para 5.1.4 (Fig
d) None is correct 17))
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 12, para 5.1.4 (Fig 162. REM sleep can also be referred to as
17)) a) Paranormal sleep
156. Stressors in the environment of noise and b) Slow wave sleep
heat will cause c) Paradoxical sleep
a) No loss of attention d) None is correct
b) A total loss of attention (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 11, para 5.1.2 (point
c) A loss of attention and a distraction 5))
d) None is correct 163. The presence of something damaging to
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 4, para 2.3.2) ones health would be an example of a
157. When going from day shift to night shift, a) Psychological stressor
efficiency b) Reactive stressor
a) Stays the same c) Physical stressor
b) Will drop off after the first four weeks d) None is correct
c) Will drop off in the first four weeks (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 4, para 2.3.2)
d) None is correct 164. Aircraft engineers can take common sense
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 14, para 5.4) steps to maintain their fitness and health.
These are known as
a) Self-improvement measures
b) Positive self-improvement
158. When working on aircraft, the consumption c) Positive measures
of alcohol d) None is correct
a) Is permissible providing the drink driving (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 3, para 1.6.1)
limit is not exceeded 165. The amount of stress experienced with a
b) You cannot work on aircraft even 8 hours particular task is dependent on
after consuming large quantities of alcohol. a) The perceived demand and actual ability
c) A certain amount is permissible b) The perceived demand and perceived
d) None is correct ability
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 17, para 6.3.3) c) The actual demand and actual ability
159. Hypoxia can d) None is correct
a) Cause a person to slip into a coma if they (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 5, para 2.5.1)
are not quickly warmed up again
b) Impair the sensitivity of the rods and
hence have a detrimental effect on eyesight
c) Improve the night vision of the cones of
the eyes 09.5. Physical Environment.
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 5, para 2.8) 166. Environmental stresses are
160. You are taking prescribed drugs a) Caused by noise, fumes, heat and
a) Carry on working, as long as you know vibration
the primary and secondary side effects. b) Tolerated by everyone equally
b) Do not work c) Not normally cumulative
c) Work and don’t care about other things d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 1, para introduction)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 17, para 6.4.1(in box)) 167. Employers must provide their employees
161. How many stages of sleep are there? with personal ear protectors if the noise level
a) 5 reaches
b) 3 a) 70 dB
14
b) 85 dB a) Noise affects the standard of work
c) 60 dB proportionally with the level of the noise
d) None is correct b) Noise does not affect a person’s standard
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 1, para 1.3) of work
168. The maximum allowable noise dose is c) Noise does affect the standard of work
a) 85 dB with certain people
b) Any combination of noise and time which d) None is correct
exceeds 90 dB TWA (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 1, para 1.3)
c) 90 dB for 24 hours 175. The effect on an engineer of environmental
d) None is correct noise is
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 1, para 1.3) a) It improves concentration and quality of
169. Environmental capture' is a type of error work
possible when an engineer does the same job b) It decreases concentration and quality of
repeatedly work
a) But on different types of aircraft c) It has no affect on concentration of
b) On the same type of aircraft quality of work
c) In a short timescale d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 1, para 1.3)
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 7, para 2.3.1) 176. Excess noise in a working environment can
170. In the UK, an air-side ramp vehicle driver is a) Raise resistance to other stresses
most likely to go deaf in b) Not affect performance
a) The left ear c) Lower resistance to other stresses
b) Both ears d) None is correct
c) The right ear (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 5, para 2.5.1)
d) None is correct 177. If the temperature is - 15°C and you are
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 1, para 1.2) working on the line, you should
171. Up to what proximity to an aircraft with a) Rotate engineers regularly and have a
engines running is the use of ear protection supervisor keep an eye on them
recommended for maintenance personnel? b) Carry on regardless of the weather to
a) 200 - 300 metres. keep the aircraft flying
b) 20 - 30 metres c) Stop all maintenance until the weather
c) 2 - 3 metres improves
d) None is correct d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 9, para 3.5.2 (Table (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 6, para 4.6 & 4.7)
1)) 178. Cold stress can be influenced by
172. Studies have shown that working outside in a) Insufficient vitamins in the diet
a temperature of 55°F will have what effect b) A drop in body temperature
on hand dexterity c) The wind chill factor
a) Around 50%. d) None is correct
b) Very slight (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 6, para 4.6)
c) None 179. Environmental stresses in an extreme high
d) None is correct temperature and noisy environment causes
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 9, page 1, para 1.1.1 (item 6)) a) Attention to be disturbed and distributed.
173. When working with bright lights b) No loss of attention or distraction
consideration should be given to c) Total loss of attention
a) Blurred image d) None is correct
b) Shadows (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 4, para 2.3.2 (point 3))
c) Glare 180. Which of the following environments is best
d) None is correct suited to aircraft maintenance?
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 4, para 3.4) a) Working outside, at night, in the rain
174. Which of the following is true? b) Working outside, in the direct midday sun
15
c) Working inside in a well lit, comfortable a) Hold the version stationary for several
hangar seconds on each area to allow the eye to
d) None is correct focus
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 8, para 7.4 (Fig 20)) b) Not use a mirror as mirrors absorb and
181. Intense or loud noise may lead to refract light and may obscure a crack
a) Deafness c) Constantly move the eye across and
b) Fatigue. around the area of interest to avoid the crack
c) No effects falling into the eye's natural blind spot
d) None is correct d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 13, para 5.31) (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 6, page 5, para 3.6 (point))
187. When a person moves from a poorly lit area
to a well lit area, what is the minimum time
they should allow for the eyes to adapt?
a) 7 minutes
182. Facility lighting in a hangar should be b) 7 seconds
a) No brighter than 10 lux c) 30 seconds
b) Provided by fixed light units giving light d) None is correct
to shadow ratio of 3:1 (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 5, para 2.9.1)
c) Portable so that individual tasks may be 188. Itemized checklists should be dealt with
well lit a) In any order, provided all steps are
d) None is correct completed
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 3, para 3.2) b) Item by item, in order, to cover every step
183. When tasks are being designed, the diligently
maximum mass an engineer should lift is c) As memorized
a) 32 kg d) None is correct
b) 23 kg (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 6, page 2, para 1.1.2)
c) 50 kg
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 8, para 2.4.6)
184. Sensing and perception errors are most
likely to result from
a) Distraction of other engineers 189. The main disadvantage of carrying out
b) Poor lighting or noise. critical inspections under very bright
c) Lack of adequate training artificial light is
d) None is correct a) Glare
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 3, para 3.1) b) Shadows
185. Task lighting in a hangar is mainly c) Filtered light
a) Provided by fixed lighting d) None is correct
b) Provided by fluorescent tubes (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 4, para 3.4)
c) Portable so that individual tasks may be 190. When carrying out a visual inspection, an
well lit engineer is likely to make a parallax error
d) None is correct when
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 3, para 3.3) a) Inspecting a component using a 5x or 10x
magnifying glass
09.6. Tasks. b) Using precision measuring instruments
such as a vernier gauge or AVO meter
186. When inspecting an airframe structure for c) Nothing
small cracks, to avoid a crack being missed d) None is correct
you should (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 6, para 2.10)

09.7. Communication
16
191. What constitutes a good work handover?
a) A written and verbal account of the work
done 196. What is the most important means of
b) A written and documentation of the work communication in aircraft maintenance
done engineering?
c) A verbal account of the work done a) Written
d) None is correct b) Implicit
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 3, para 1.5.2) c) Verbal
192. A good shift handover should include details d) None is correct
of (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 2, para 1.1.3 (point 2))
a) Tasks that have been completed; persons 197. If you are given a task that you are unsure of
who carried out the tasks; tasks to be carried you should
out and general company and technical a) Consult the appropriate approved data
information b) Ask someone who has done it before
b) Tasks that have been completed; tasks in c) Consult type course notes
progress, their status, any problems d) None is correct
encountered etc.; tasks to be carried out and (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 6, para 3.2 (point 6, 7
tools required to carry out the tasks & 8))
c) Tasks that have been completed; tasks in 198. The alerting system for an important system
progress, their status, any problems failure should be
encountered etc.; tasks to be carried out and a) An aural warning
general company and technical information. b) A flashing visual signal, preferably red
d) None is correct c) A dolls-eye indicator
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 4 & 5, para 2.2, 2.3 & d) None is correct
2.4) (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 2, para 1.3.2)
193. A good practice for a shift handover is for
shifts to be specifically rostered so there is 09.8. Human Error.
an overlap of
a) 2 - 3 hours 199. The SHEL model of human factors takes
b) 5 - 10 minutes into account
c) 20 - 30 minutes a) Software, hardware, environment and
d) None is correct liveware
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 3, para 1.5.1) b) Software, hardware, efficiency and
194. Asynchronous' communication includes liveware
a) Immediate voice communication by radio c) Software, hardware, environment and
link location
b) Technical manuals, memos, Advisory d) None is correct
Circulars and Airworthiness Directives (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 1, page 2, para 1.5.1)
c) Face-to-face communications 200. What part of the SHEL model would the
d) None is correct writing and interpretation of maintenance
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 2, para 1.1.3 (point 3 manuals fit into?
first item)) a) Hardware
195. The most effective form of communication b) Software
is c) Environment
a) Verbal communication d) None is correct
b) Written communication (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 1, page 2, para 1.5.1 (point 1))
c) Explicit communication 201. The 'error chain' theory refers to
d) None is correct a) A chain of errors within an organisations
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 2, para 1.2.4) can be investigated, and similar errors

17
prevented by determining a common link 206. In the 'slips, lapses and mistakes' definition
between them of errors, forgetting to replace an engine
b) A company is only as good as its weakest cowling would be considered a
employee or employees, and removal of a) Mistake
that/those employee from the chain should b) Lapse
prevent errors. c) Slip
c) Errors are caused by a chain of linked d) None is correct
events, and the breaking of one link in the (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 4, para 1.4.3
chain will prevent the error. (point))
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 1, page 7, para 2.7.2 (Fig 3)) 207. In the 'slips, lapses and mistakes' definition
202. What part of the SHEL model would the of errors, a mistake would typically occur at
aircraft design fit into? the
a) Liveware a) Storage (memory) stage
b) Hardware b) Execution stage
c) Environment c) Planning stage
d) None is correct d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 1, page 2, para 1.5.1 (point 2)) (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 4, para 1.44)
208. On a task that is complex, an engineer uses
his own procedures due to pressure. This is
legally termed
a) Modification
b) Initiative
c) Violation
203. Which part of the SHEL model is most d) None is correct
difficult to protect from errors by 'designing (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 5, para 1.4.5)
out' or to 'work around' 209. Visual inspection by an 'experienced'
a) Liveware maintenance engineer is
b) Software a) Knowledge and rule base behaviour
c) Environment b) Skill and knowledge based behaviour
d) None is correct c) Skill and rule based behaviour
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 1, page 2, para 1.5.1 (point 4)) d) None is correct
204. A violation in an aircraft maintenance (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 3, para 1.2.1 (Fig 22)
procedure & para 2.6 page 9)
a) Is usually carried out with the best 210. Troubleshooting is
intentions from a genuine desire to 'get the a) Rule based
job done' b) Skill based
b) Is always considered an act of vandalism c) Knowledge based
or sabotage d) None is correct
c) Is always carried out to satisfy some (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 5, para 1.5.1 (point 2))
personal need, often unrelated to the actual
task 211. A violation is
d) None is correct a) An unintentional error
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 7, para 2.4.1) b) A deliberate departure from the rules
205. Which type of human error is easiest to c) An intentional act of sabotage
correct? d) None is correct
a) Constant error (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 5, para 1.4.5)
b) Reversible error 212. A mistake is
c) Variable error a) A deliberate departure from the rules
d) None is correct b) An intentional act of sabotage
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 3, para 1.2.1) c) An unintentional error
d) None is correct
18
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 4, para 1.4.3 (point 1)) d) None is correct
213. Whilst working on an aircraft a spanner (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 1, page 2, para 1.5.1 (point
placed on the wing surface is kicked off and 4))
subsequently falls into an open engine cowl,
breaking off a sensor connector. This is an
example of 219. A type 1 visual inspection error occurs when
a) A skill based error a) A faulty item is missed
b) Murphy's law b) A good item is incorrectly identified as
c) A punishable occurrence faulty
d) None is correct c) A duplicate inspection is not carried out
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 1, page 8, para 3.2) d) None is correct
214. An experienced engineer fits the wrong seal (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 9, para 2.6)
during a routine component change. This is 220. What is a latent failure?
a) Skill based a) A mistake that has already been made, but
b) Rule based has not yet caused an accident
c) Knowledge based b) Receiving bad instruction from a manager
d) None is correct who is out of touch with maintenance
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 5, para 1.5.1 (point 2) c) A failure which could not have been
& Chapter 7, page 7, para 4.3 (in box)) predicted
215. An engineer is working on a wing and kicks d) None is correct
a spanner off into an engine cowl and breaks (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8 page 7, para 1.6.2)
a sensor. This is 221. What happens when you break the 'chain of
a) Knowledge based error error'?
b) Skill based error a) Accident happens
c) Rule based error b) Pilot submits report within 72 hours
d) None is correct c) Accident does not happen
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 5, para 1.5.1 d) None is correct
(in box point 1)) (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 1, page 7, para 2.7.2)
216. The difference between a mistake and a 222. If an engineer forgets to fit a seal to an
violation is engine drain plug, he or she has
a) A mistake is less serious than a violation a) Made an error of commission
b) A violation is not deliberate b) Committed a violation
c) Mistake is unintentional and a violation is c) Made an error of omission.
deliberate d) None is correct
d) None is correct (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 7, para 4.3)
223. An engineer is performing a task in less than
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 5, ideal conditions in order to meet an
para 1.4.5) operational deadline is
217. An experienced engineer is fitting a valve. A a) Committed a routine error
required seal is not fitted. What type of error is this? b) Committing a situational violation
a) Knowledge based c) Making a rule based slip
b) Rule based d) None is correct
c) Skill based (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 8, para 2.4.3)
d) None is correct 224. An engineer who has developed his or her
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 7, para 4.3 (in box) & own method of performing a complex task
Chapter 7, para 1.5.1 (point 2 inbox) a) Should be commended for his/her
218. The hub of the SHEL model of human resourcefulness
factors is b) Is performing a rule based behaviour
a) Liveware c) Is violating on a regular basis
b) Hardware d) None is correct
c) Environment (CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 7, para 2.4.2)
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225. Error tolerance in maintenance progress
refers to
a) Performance of tasks specifically
designed to identify errors during a
maintenance task
b) Ability of a system to remain functional
after a maintenance error
c) Process of eliminating the contributing
factors to error
d) Both b & c
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 3, para 1.2.1 (Fig
22))

09.9. Hazards in the Workplace.

226. Engineers often work on raised platforms,


ladders etc. What dangers can this contribute
to?
a) Staging may be made of wood
b) Ladder may slip and man falls
c) Two workers may be carrying out
maintenance on the same lift
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 9, page 1, para 1.2.1 (point
3))

227. Risk assessment and management is


a) Reduction of risks to a tolerable standard
and monitoring the situation
b) The investigation of risks and totally
removing them and the monitoring of new
work practices
c) Choosing a cheaper supplier or
manufacturer for parts
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 8, para 4.1 & 4.2)
228. When carrying out a risk assessment
a) A hard hat should be worn
b) It is necessary to identify where
equipment/procedures might fail
c) Nothing
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 8, para 4.1 & 4.2)

20
1 B 47 B 93 A 139 B 185 C
2 C 48 C 94 A 140 B 186 C
3 A 49 A 95 C 141 A 187 A
4 C 50 A 96 B 142 C 188 B
5 B 51 C 97 C 143 A 189 A
6 B 52 B 98 B 144 B 190 B
7 B 53 A 99 C 145 A 191 A
8 A 54 C 100 A 146 A 192 C
9 B 55 B 101 C 147 B 193 C
10 B 56 C 102 A 148 B 194 b
11 A 57 A 103 C 149 B 195 C
12 B 58 B 104 A 150 C 196 A
13 B 59 B 105 B 151 A 197 A
14 B 60 A 106 C 152 C 198 A
15 A 61 C 107 A 153 C 199 A
16 A 62 B 108 B 154 A 200 B
17 D 63 C 109 B 155 C 201 C
18 A 64 B 110 C 156 C 202 B
19 C 65 B 111 B 157 C 203 A
20 C 66 A 112 C 158 B 204 A
21 C 67 A 113 D 159 B 205 a
22 B 68 B 114 C 160 A 206 B
23 B 69 C 115 B 161 A 207 C
24 C 70 C 116 C 162 C 208 C
25 A 71 C 117 C 163 C 209 B
26 C 72 C 118 A 164 C 210 A
27 C 73 A 119 B 165 B 211 B
28 C 74 C 120 C 166 A 212 C
29 A 75 A 121 B 167 B 213 B
30 B 76 C 122 A 168 B 214 B
31 A 77 C 123 A 169 B 215 B
32 C 78 C 124 A 170 C 216 C
33 A 79 B 125 B 171 A 217 B
34 C 80 C 126 A 172 A 218 A
35 C 81 A 127 C 173 C 219 B
36 B 82 D 128 A 174 C 220 A
37 C 83 B 129 C 175 B 221 C
38 B 84 C 130 A 176 C 222 C
39 A 85 A 131 B 177 C 223 B
40 C 86 A 132 A 178 C 224 C
41 C 87 C 133 B 179 A 225 B
42 A 88 C 134 A 180 C 226 B
43 A 89 A 135 C 181 B 227 A
44 B 90 C 136 A 182 B 228 B
45 A 91 B 137 B 183 B
46 B 92 A 138 A 184 B
--Rishikesh Pawar

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