EnglishCore-MS Merged

MARKING SCHEME - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2022-23)
ECONOMICS (030) CLASS 12
Q.NO. SECTION A – MACRO ECONOMICS MARKS
1 c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true 1
2 d) Outflow of US Dollars from India will rise. 1
3 a) Commercial Banks 1
4 c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true 1
5 d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false 1

OR
c) Output, Disposition 1
6 a) C=30+0.75 Y 1
OR
d) Equal to zero 1
7 a) 1,2 and 3 are correct 1
8 a) Improvement in balance of trade 1

OR
b) surplus,5 1
9 d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. 1
10 b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A) 1
11 Value of Output (in ₹) Intermediate Consumption (in ₹) Value Addition (in ₹)

A 2,000 (to B) 1,000 (Purchases) 1,000
B 2,500 (exports) 2,000 2,000
1,500(domestic sales)
Total 6,000 3,000 3,000 2
Net Domestic Product at MP = Gross Domestic Product at Market price – Consumption of Fixed Capital ½
= 3,000 – 200 = ₹ 2,800 ½
12 Equilibrium rate of exchange is established at a point where the quantity demanded and quantity supplied of
foreign exchange are equal. In the foreign exchange market, if disequilibrium occurs, it may lead to a situation
of excess demand or excess supply.
The market mechanism will drive the exchange rate back to the equilibrium level. This implies that the free
3
market forces of demand and supply will operate in such a manner that the equilibrium rate of exchange is
automatically restored.
OR
Autonomous transactions are those international economic transactions which are independent of the state of
Balance of Payments (BOP). These transactions generally take place with ‘economic motive’. These 1½
transactions are called ‘above the line’ transactions in the Balance of Payments account.
Whereas;
1
Accommodating transactions are those international economic transactions which are undertaken (by
competent authorities) to cover the surplus or deficit in Balance of Payments. These transactions are 1½
independent of any economic motive and are called ‘below the line’ transactions in the Balance of Payments
account.
13 Given, MPC = 0.75, ΔY = ₹ 2,000 Crore

1 1 1
K= = = =4
1−𝑀𝑃𝐶 1−0.75 0.25 1
According to the question:
ΔY 1
K=
ΔI
2000
4= 1
ΔI
2000
ΔI = = ₹ 500 Crore 1
4
Therefore, increase in investment (ΔI) required = ₹ 500 Crore
14 The given instance where, Reserve Bank of India has sold government securities in the secondary market
indicates towards inflation as a possible cause behind the action taken by RBI. 1
By selling off the government securities, RBI withdraws money from circulation and thereby reducing the
lending capacity of the commercial banks. In this process, the economy will experience contraction of credit,
leading to reduction in consumption and investment demand. Consequently, the inflationary pressure in the 3
economy will get eased out.
15 The given text indicates the ‘supervisory function’ of the Central Bank, under which the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) regulates and supervises routine functioning of the commercial banks.
Under this function, the RBI may exercise periodic inspections/audits of commercial banks, filing of reports 4
by commercial banks and other statutory compliances. Central bank may take necessary corrective and
punitive actions against the banks owing to deficiencies in regulatory compliances.
OR
Yes, there exists an inverse relation between Reserve Ratio and Credit Creation in the economy.
We know that:
1 ½
Money Multiplier =
𝑅𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑒 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜
½
Credit Creation = Initial Deposits x Money Multiplier
Assuming that the value of initial deposits is ₹ 10,000 crore. (All figure in ₹ crore)
Reserve Ratio Money Multiplier Initial Deposits Credit Creation
(Initial Deposits x Money Multiplier)
10% 1 10,000 1,00,000
= 10
0.1 3
25% 1 10,000 40,000
=4
0.25
From the above calculation, we can conclude that higher the reserve Ratio, lesser credit will be created by
Commercial Banks in the economy.
16 a) GDP Deflator is the ratio of Nominal to Real GDP. It is a tool which is used to eliminate the effect
of price fluctuations in the economy and to determine the real change in physical output of current 3
year. GDP deflator helps in comparison of growth rate of the economy.
b) i) Expenditure on second hand goods is not to be included in the final consumption expenditure as 1½
the production of these goods might not be attributed to the current year.
ii) Expenditure on ‘intermediate goods’ are not to be taken into account, to avoid the problem of
1½
double counting of value of goods and services.
17 a) Considering the data represented in the given diagram, trend of year-on-year deficit (reporting for
April to November) may be stated as follows:
(i) Fiscal Deficit in 2020 increased to 10.8 lakh crore from 8.1 lakh crore in 2019. In 2021 it 1
has gone down to 7 lakh crore.
2
(ii) Primary Deficit in 2020 increased to 6.9 lakh crore from 4.7 lakh crore in 2019. In 2021 it 1
has gone down to 2.4 lakh crore.
(iii) Fiscal Deficit in 2020 increased to 135.1% of Budget Expenditure from 114.8% in 2019. In 1
year 2021, it is 46.2% of Budget Expenditure.
b) Government seeks to allocate resources with a view to balance the goals of all sections of the society.
Production of goods and services which are injurious to health may be discouraged through
taxation policy. Similarly, production of goods of socially beneficial nature may be encouraged 3
through subsidies. If the private sector does not take initiative in certain activities (Public Goods),
the government may directly control them like water supply and sanitation etc.
OR
a) Revenue receipts are those receipts which neither creates any liabilities nor causes any reduction in
the assets of the government. For example: taxes, dividends received from public enterprises etc. 1½
Whereas;
Capital receipts are those receipts which either creates liabilities or causes reduction in the assets of 1½
the government. For example: borrowings, disinvestments etc.
b) Direct taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence lies on the same entity. In other words, the
liability of paying direct taxes can’t be shifted. For example: income tax. 1½
Whereas;
Indirect taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence may lie on different entities. In other words, 1½
the liability of paying indirect taxes can be shifted. For example: GST.
SECTION B – INDIAN ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT
18 b) Change in composition of India’s foreign trade 1
19 a) Karve 1
Or
b) 1948 1
20 a) I and II 1
Or
c) Great leap forward 1
21 c) Money Lenders 1
22 b) ii – B 1
23 c). Both statements 1 and 2 are true 1
24 d). Both statements 1 and 2 are false 1
25 d). Guarding green cover 1

Or
c) Use of thermal power 1
26 c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. 1
27 d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. 1
28 The given image indicates towards the environmental challenge of ‘global warming’. Global warming is a
gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere as a result in the increase in
greenhouse gases. 3
3
The statement given, ‘we are running out of time, act now before it’s too late’ represents the urgency of
actions to be taken to control the situation. Various studies have shown that global warming is causing rise
in sea level, loss of coastal land, increase risks of floods etc.
29 The given statement is true. Disguised unemployment is a situation where the marginal productivity of
labour is zero. In India, this situation is often witnessed, as farming is more of a family affair in rural areas
and most of the members are generally engaged on the farms without any direct contribution to the 3
production process. This problem persists in rural India due to lesser availability of jobs.
Or
Rapid expansion of the banking system had positive effect on rural farm and non-farm output, income and
employment. In spite of it, following problems have been faced in the rural banking such as-
 The volume of rural credit in the country is still insufficient in comparison to its demand and
1½
institutional sources have failed to cover the entire rural farmers of the country.
 Less attention has been given on the credit requirements of needy (small and marginal farmers) and
1½
the problem of overdue in agricultural credit continues.
30 The above table shows that during the given periods the Exports from India to Pakistan have increased at an
annualized rate of 3.7 % while the same with China shows 2.6% of growth. On the other hand, India’s import
from China accounted for a massive 10.3 %. The corresponding figure with Pakistan witnessed an average of
5.1% respectively.
The situation indicates that Indian imports from China are too high in comparison to the exports to China.
This shows that Indian economy was over-dependent on Chinese economy for goods and services, over the 4
given period of time. Whereas, in case of Pakistan gap is quite narrow, which may be due to various reasons.
31 a) Indian Oil Corporation Limited. 1

b) Land ceiling means fixing the maximum size of land which could be owned by an individual, beyond
which it would be taken over by the government and would be allotted to landless and small farmers. 3
The purpose of land ceiling was to reduce the concentration of land ownership in few hands and
promote equity.
OR
After independence the government of India took several institutional/land reforms to ensure transformation
of Indian agriculture, such as:
i) Land ceiling – It ensured reduction of concentration of land ownership in few hands.
2
ii) Abolition of Zamindari system – It focused on elimination of farmers’ exploitation and promotion
of agricultural growth.
These reforms have led to stability of farming as an occupation and promoted equity. 2
32 a) The given statement is not true to perfection. These two may sound similar but are not exactly
same. Whereas, human capital considers education and health as a means to increase labour
productivity, human development is based on the idea that education and health are integral to 2
human wellbeing.
b) The given statement is not true. India has a rich stock of scientific and technical manpower in the
world. Also, India has taken a number of steps to improve it qualitatively and ensure that they are 2
optimally utilized.
33 a) Agriculture marketing is a process that involves the assembling, storage, processing, transportation,
packaging grading and distribution of different agricultural commodities across the country 2
b) Self-help groups (SHG’s) have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system in India as its
delivery mechanism has not only proven inadequate but has also not been fully integrated into the 2
overall rural social and community development. It came up as the micro finance program .Focus of
4
SHGs is on those rural people, small and marginal farmers, agricultural and non-agricultural laborers
who do not have sustainable access to formal banking system.
c) i) Inadequate infrastructure and marketing 1
1
ii) Compared to conventional farm products, organic products have more shorter shelf life span
OR
a) The given statement is appropriate. Over the years India has not been able to raise the educational
standards to the desired level. Education Commission of 1964-66 had recommended that at least 6 %
of GDP should be spent on education so as to make a noticeable rate of growth in educational
achievements. However, the current expenditure level has been quite inadequate. Thus, necessary
3
steps must be taken by the government in this direction.
b) The given statement is refuted. In rural areas, non-farm job opportunities are limited. People generally
do not show preference to acquire skill and training for non-farm occupation .They prefer to stay on
family farms and fields as self-employed.
34 a) Green revolution was implemented in India to overcome the shortage of food-grain availability in the
post-independence period. Green revolution has increased the production and productivity in the 3
agriculture sector which was otherwise very low. It helped in improving the income of the farmers
by creating marketable surplus, increased employment and output.
b) The given statement is appropriate as the Green Revolution helped government to procure and
preserve more food grains through agencies like Food Corporation of India. Increase in food grain
production has been so substantial that India not only started maintaining buffer stocks of food grains 3
but also became a dominant player in food grain exports market.
5
MARKING SCHEME
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2022-23)
ENGLISH – CORE (301) - CLASS-XII
Section A: READING SKILLS (20 marks)

Note:
(i) 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q paper reading.
(ii)The Reading Section focuses on testing a candidate’s ability to comprehend.
(iii) Marks to be awarded only if the response reveals structure or semblance of coherent thought rather
than a transcribed chunk/exact line/s from the passage in an attempt to pass off as a response.
I. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Ghost nets have been named so because they
A. cause much harm to the marine life.
B. are functional though not in use by fishermen.
C. are not owned by anyone.
D. act as a snare for all animals in oceans.
(1 mark)
Value Points Guidance
C. are not owned by anyone.  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
 There is no partial credit
ii. Comment on the writer’s reference to the ghost nets as a health problem for the oceans,
in paragraph one?
(1 mark)
The ghost nets are the reason the marine life is frequently  Award 1 mark for the correct explanation
sick. If not addressed, this ‘health issue’ would soon be with reference to health and sickness.
chronic.  There is no partial credit
iii. List the two ways being entangled in a ghost net is likely to impact a walrus.
(Clue: Think about the type of animal a walrus is)
(1 mark)
[walrus is a mammal]  Award 1 mark for 2 correct points
1. entangle and cause injuries  Partial credit for 1 point
3. entangle and prevent resurfacing, leading to death by  No credit for unclear responses
drowning
iv. Select the option that conveys the opposite of ‘negligible’, from words used in paragraph two.
A. unimpressive
B. monumental
C. exposing
D. threat
(1 mark)
B. monumental  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
v. The writer would not agree with the given statements based on paragraph three, EXCEPT:
A. Most ghost nets take a few years to completely disintegrate.
B. Ghost nets contribute to the Great Pacific Garbage Patch.
C. Most ghost nets provide nutrition to marine animals, upon disintegration.
D. Ghost nets can curtail freedom of marine animals.
(1 mark)
C. Most ghost nets provide nutrition to marine  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
animals, upon disintegration.  There is no partial credit
vi. Some records share that fishing nets used to be made of common rope made of natural fibres, prior to
the 1960s. Based on your understanding of paragraph three, list one major advantage that these had over
the fishing nets being used in present times.
(1 mark)
Used to be bio-degradable/ easily disintegrated, as  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
compared to artificial fibre nets that do not disintegrate.  There is no partial credit
vii Why is it fair to say that commitment and innovation have to go hand-in-hand to rid the oceans of ghost
nets? (1 mark)
Commitment—This task will require perseverance/a long  Award 1 mark if both ‘commitment’ and
time to accomplish ‘innovation’ have been addressed
Innovation—Creative ideas and strategies would be separately and correctly.
needed to address this problem  Partial credit for addressal of one aspect
viii. Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference, with respect to the following:
The writer quotes the example of the WWF led mission in the Baltic Sea (paragraph 4), in order
to.............................
(1 mark)
--draw attention to the magnitude of the problem  Award 1 mark for 1 correct answer.
--indicate that Governments need to collaborate with such  There is no partial credit
groups for addressing the problem of ghost nets
--share evidence of human apathy/ carelessness towards
natural resources
(Any 1 OR similar)
ix. How can the solutions suggested in paragraph five best be described?
A. practical
B. presentable
C. popular
D. prejudiced
(1 mark)
 Award maximum 1 mark for the
A. practical complete correct answer
 No partial credit
x. Select the most suitable title for the above passage.
A. The Scary Side of Ghost Nets
B. Ghost Nets – A Result of Human Dominance
C. Ghost Nets – A Menace to Marine Life
D. Ways to Tackle the Problem of Ghost Nets
(1 mark)
C. Ghost Nets – A Menace to Marine Life  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
II. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Does the following statement agree with the information given in paragraph 1?
The researcher believes that educational institutions have ideal resources to study impact of leadership
skills on young adults.
Select from the following:
True - if the statement agrees with the information

False - if the statement contradicts the information
Not Given - if there is no information on this .
(1 mark)
FALSE  Award 1 mark for the correct answer
[the researcher indicates that educational institutions have  No partial credit
opportunities and programmes to inculcate leadership skills]
ii Do you think the researchers of the study aimed to change students’ outlook towards the development of
leadership skills, directly or indirectly? Support your answer with reference to the text. (1 mark)

 No  Award 1 mark for the complete answer
 The aim of seeking students’ perspectives was to (Response + explanation)
enable a better designing/ creation/ of the  No partial credit.
leadership programmes in educational institutions
OR
promote higher efficacy / betterment of leadership
programmes
iii. Select the option that displays the most likely reason for including Research Question 3 in the 2014 study.
In order to find out if...

A. learning opportunities shape students’ overall personality.
B. leadership lessons are the result of the designed learning opportunities.
C. all learning opportunities cater to a specific lesson.
D. certain lessons are common in more than one learning opportunity.
(1 mark)
D. certain lessons are common in more than one  Award 1 mark for the correct answer
 No partial credit
learning opportunity.
iv. Complete the sentence based on the following statement:

More than 50% of the identified student respondents were keen to participate in the 2014 study.
We can say this because .

72 of 130 students consented and were interviewed  Award 1 mark for the complete answer
Note-72 out of 130 is more than half / 50%.  No partial credit.
v. Which key event has been designed with “Balancing Roles” (Table 1) as the objective?
A. Students will be able to debate the issue at hand with different teams.
B. Students will be able to manage the responsibilities of a mentor, planner researcher and presenter.
C. Students will be able to surmount minor problems and focus on the final goal.
D. Students will be able to explain concepts and clarify them for peers.
(1 mark)
B. Students will be able to manage the responsibilities  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
of a mentor, planner researcher and presenter.  No partial credit
vi. The 2014 study attempts to understand student leadership by focussing on

(Choose the correct option.)
A. experiences that shaped students’ overall personality.
B. lessons gained by students as they grew up.
C. relationship of key events with particular lessons.
D. students in leadership roles.
(1 mark)

C. relationship of key events with particular lessons.  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
vii. The lessons for ‘Individual competencies’ had a range of responses.

Give one reason why having the least number of responses for ‘Decision Making’, is a matter that needs
attention. (1 mark)
This needs attention because it clearly indicates that the  Award 1 mark for complete answer
lessons created / student experiences do not allow  No partial credit
sufficient opportunity for development of this crucial skill.
viii. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.
The concluding sentence of the text makes a clear case for by listing it as a core competency
for student leadership.
A. collaboration
B. flexibility
C. hard work
D. observation
(1 mark)
A. collaboration  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
ix. Complete the sentence appropriately with one/ two words.

In the context of “Working with Others” in Table 1, the lesson of ‘Conflict’ refers to .
(1 mark)
Being able to amicably and effectively resolve matters/  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
conflict resolution  There is no partial credit
(Any other / Similar relevant)
x. Based on the reading of the text, state a point to challenge the given statement.
When theoretical knowledge about leadership suffices, it is a waste of funds by educational organisations, to
organise leadership camps and programmes. (1 mark)

I disagree because no amount of theoretical knowledge can  Award 1 mark for complete answer
aid students to actually apply their learning about  No partial credit
leadership and develop various skills.
III SECTION B – CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS

1. NOTICE
Format – 1 Content -2 Organisation of ideas -1 Accuracy 1
FORMAT – 1 mark
Box, NOTICE (centre), name of issuing authority- organisation/ agency (centre), date of issue(aligned left),
Authorisation name, designation & signature (bottom left)
NOTE-full credit if all aspects included. Partial credit (½ mark) if one-two aspects are missing. No credit if more than
two aspects are missing.
NOTE FOR GIVEN DESCRIPTORS---Dedicated marks at a level are to be awarded only if ALL descriptors match. If one
or more descriptors do not match, the marks are awarded at a level lower.
CONTENT – 2 marks
(As listed in value points) --- ½ mark *4=2 marks
ORGANISATION OF IDEAS -1 mark
1 mark -- Consistent to frequent display of the listed parameters.
 Highly effective style capable of conveying the ideas convincingly with appropriate layout of a notice viz.
opening line to indicate the target audience, details/ information to be shared, mention of last date (if the
Q lends itself to it), Line about contacting the undersigned etc.
 Carefully structured content with organised information presented cohesively in an aligned manner.
 Highly effective register (formal tone, tense, and vocabulary), relevant, lucid and appropriate
sentences for conveying the idea/s precisely and effectively.
½ mark – Limited display of listed parameters.

 Inconsistent style, expression sometimes awkward, layout of the notice, barely accurate.
 Poor sequencing of ideas; often sporadically clear and related to the given topic in an attempt to
maintain a general overall cohesion. Displays disjointed portions, exhibiting a lack of coherence of
ideas.
 Range of vocabulary is limited but manages to convey, largely, the overall meaning and the purpose of
the writing.
ACCURACY -1 mark
1 mark
 Spelling, punctuation and grammar consistently/largely accurate, with occasional minor errors, that
do not impede communication.
½ mark
 Spelling, punctuation and grammar display some errors spread across, causing minor impediments to
the message communicated.
No credit
 Frequent errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar, impeding communication.
1.A You are Josely Mathew, the President of the school book club. The club is organising a drive for promoting
reuse of study materials and books. Draft a notice in about 50 words, for the school notice board, addressing
students of classes X-XII, informing them about this drive and urging them to contribute to the endeavour.
Mention how the donated books would would benefit a charitable cause.
Value Points
 Correct format ( as listed above)
 Drawing attention—students of X-XII
 Mentioning the event
 Giving details -D,T,V
 Sharing how donated books would benefit a charitable cause + urging them to contribute
 Line with reference to the undersigned
OR
1.B As the House Captain of A.B.M Public school, Telangana, draft a notice in not more than 50 words for the
school notice board, informing House members from X-XII about the change in topic and submission dates
for Round 1 of ‘Discovery’ - the upcoming Inter-House Reasearch-based Paper Presentation Competition. Do
not forget to issue an apology for the above. You are Kruthika Reddy.
Value Points
 Correct format ( as listed above)
 Drawing attention—House members of X-XII
 Sharing the changes—giving context
 Giving details -D,T,V
 Line of polite apology/ inconvenience regretted etc.
 Line with reference to the undersigned
2. INVITATION
2 A. Features:
Letter type -Formal reply
 Acknowledge the invitation express gratefulness
 Express thanks in third person (if someone else is replying for the invited / first person – if the invited
is replying themselves)
 Mention acceptance or regret- (give reason)
 Use formal and polite language
Layout usually pertains to the format of a formal letter.
2 B. Features:
Card type-formal invite
 a single sentence presentation in third person / end line punctuations skipped
 Use the simple present tense
 answers the questions who, whom, when, where, what time and for what
 includes name and address of the organiser /host and name/s of special invitees (if any)
 No signatures
Layout usually pertains to the following--
 Name of host /hosts
 Formal standard expression-cordial
 Purpose of invitation
 Date /time of event
 Venue (address)
 Name of special guest (if any)
 RSVP
 Contact detail/ number
FORMAT – 1 mark
A. Reply to formal invite--- Letter type & B. Formal invite to many ---Card type
CONTENT – 2 marks
(As listed in value points) --- ½ mark *4=2 marks
 Highly effective style capable of conveying the ideas convincingly with appropriate layout
[Reply to formal invite--- Letter type] & [Formal invite to many ---Card type]
 Carefully structured content with organised information presented cohesively in an aligned manner.
 Highly effective register (formal tone, tense, and vocabulary), relevant, lucid and appropriate
sentences for conveying the idea/s precisely and effectively.

 Inconsistent style, expression sometimes awkward, layout, barely accurate.
ideas.
the writing.
ACCURACY -1 mark
1 mark
½ mark
No credit
2.A You are Dr. Suchitra Mukherjee. You have received an invitation from the Director, Health Services,
Kharagpur, W.B, to preside over a gathering of leading medical practitioners attending a workshop on
mental wellness on 09 November, 2023 at 11 a.m. in the Public Hospital, Jammu, J & K. Respond to accept
the invitation.
Value Points
 Reference to invitation
 Acceptance of invitation
 Confirmation of date, time and venue
 Comment on looking forward to attending (if at all)
2.B Draft an invitation in about 50 words, on behalf of your aunt, Meghna Menon, which she has to share to
invite prior work colleagues to the inaugural event of her own investment consultancy firm, in the Acer mall,
Kozhikode, Kerala.
Value Points
Refer to Features, listed above.
3. LETTER
Format
Sender’s address, Date, Receiver’s address, Subject and Salutation/ Salutation and Subject, Letter,
Complimentary close (largely accepted –Yours truly for letter to editor & in business circuits -Yours sincerely)
FORMAT – 1 mark
CONTENT – 2 marks
2 marks
 All points included
 Well-developed with sustained clarity
1½ marks
 Almost all points incorporated
 Reasonably well-developed
1 mark
 Some points incorporated
 Fair attempt at developing ideas with some impact on clarity of response
½ mark
 Most of the points of the given task not incorporated
 Limited awareness of task development
 Highly effective style capable of conveying the ideas convincingly with appropriate layout of a formal letter
viz. addresses, salutation, subscription, and ending
 Carefully structured content with organised paragraphing presented cohesively.
 Highly effective register (formal tone, tense, and vocabulary), relevant and appropriate sentences
for conveying the ideas precisely and effectively.

 Inconsistent style, expression sometimes awkward, layout barely accurate.
ideas.
the writing. Large portion of vocabulary copied from question.
ACCURACY -1 mark
1 mark
½ mark
No credit
3.A You are Minu Sen, an intern in a software company in Hyderabad. You feel that the growing relationship
of companies with non-profit organisations have made Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) the buzzword
today. Your own involvement in one such project for your company has convinced you that CSR looks beyond
the company profits and focuses on benefiting the greater community.
Write a letter to the editor of a national daily in about 120-150 words sharing your opinion about CSR and its
advantages and provide suggestions to make it an integral part of every organisation. Use the given cues
along with your own ideas to compose this letter.
Value Points
 Opinion—CSR looks beyond company profits & benefits community – reference to first- hand
experience + CSR efforts(cues)
 Advantages (reference --cues)
 Importance of making it an integral part of every organisation
 Suggestions-awareness, laws to mandate companies include CSR, privileges or offers of some kind to
companies that show some positive change in society via CSR, special rebates for students who take
up CSR projects in collaboration with such companies etc.
You are Minu Sen, employed as an Asst. Manager for Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) in your current
company in Hyderabad. You saw the given advertisement in the newspaper and wish to apply for the position
advertised.
Write a a letter to Credit Sage Pvt. Ltd. along with your bio-data, expressing your interest in the situation
vacant.
Value Points
Content
 Covering Letter
 Reference to the advertisement
 Conveying suitability for the position-CSR (Head) / CSR Manager (as advertised)
 Submission of application
Bio data as separate enclosure
 Profile of self
 Educational Qualifications (include advertised requirements)
 Work experience/s (if relevant)- include as it is a senior post
 References
Any other relevant information
4. ARTICLE / REPORT
Article: Assessment Parameters
Format
 Title & By line
Organisation & Content:
FORMAT – 1 mark
NOTE-full credit if both aspects included. Partial credit (½ mark) if one aspect is missing or erroneous. No credit if
both aspects are missing or erroneous.
CONTENT – 2 marks
2 marks
1½ marks
1 mark
½ mark
 Limited awareness of task development
 Highly effective style capable of conveying the ideas convincingly with appropriate layout

 Inconsistent style, expression sometimes awkward, layout, barely accurate.
ideas.
ACCURACY -1 mark
1 mark
½ mark
No credit
OR
Report: Assessment Parameters
Format
 Headline & By line
 Reporting place and date
 Paragraphing organisation (Introductory paragraph + one or two Body paragraphs including event
details + Concluding paragraph inclusive of witness accounts)
Organisation & Content:
FORMAT – 1 mark
NOTE-full credit if all aspects included. Partial credit (½ mark) if any one aspect is missing or erroneous. No credit if
more than one aspect is missing or erroneous.
CONTENT – 2 marks
2 marks
1½ marks
1 mark
½ mark
Limited awareness of task development
 Highly effective style capable of conveying the ideas convincingly with appropriate layout of a newspaper
report viz. headline and by-line, place, date.

 Inconsistent style, expression sometimes awkward, layout of the newspaper report barely accurate.
ideas.
ACCURACY -1 mark
1 mark
½ mark
No credit
4.A The construction sector is believed to be quite hazardous and has the maximum number of fatal work
injuries because apart from other causes, stakeholders in this sector tend to ignore safety regulations.
As a columnist for an e-zine, draft an article in about 120-150 words, on the theme of the importance of
worker safety in construction zones. Explore possible reasons for the prevailing situation and include
suggestions for addressing it. Support your ideas with cues given below.
Value Points
 Explain the hazardous nature of the construction sector and write why --refer to the importance of
worker safety
 Examine the issue with Reasons (any 2)–
 Stakeholders ignore safety regulations -exploitation
 Fatigue of workers (cues) –overworked
 Extreme weather conditions (cues) –work doesn’t stop—accidents/ health problems
 Provide Suggestions (any 2) ---
 Awareness
 Stricter laws and penalties
 Bridge gap between managers and workers (cues)
 Frequent training programmes for workers
OR
4.B The construction sector is believed to be quite hazardous and has the maximum number of fatal work
injuries. A safety fair was organised by ‘Building Safely’, an NGO in Mysuru, Karnataka with the overarching
theme ,‘Worker Safety Needs to be a Priority in Construction Zones’. You were asked to cover this event as
the junior correspondent of a local daily. Write a report covering this event in about 120-150 words. Support
your ideas with outline cues given below, to craft your newspaper report.
Value Points
Reason why the safety fair was organised—by whom? When? Who attended?
Event details –(refer to cues)
Conclude including witness/ participant account/s
SECTION C – LITERATURE
IV Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context
1.A
It is in the news that all these pitiful kin
Are to be bought out and mercifully gathered in
To live in villages, next to the theatre and the store,
Where they won’t have to think for themselves anymore,
While greedy good-doers, beneficent beasts of prey,
Swarm over their lives enforcing benefits
That are calculated to soothe them out of their wits,
And by teaching them how to sleep they sleep all day,
Destroy their sleeping at night the ancient way.
i. What is the tone of the poet in the above lines?
(i) Aggressive
(ii) Tolerant
(iii) Sarcastic
(iv) Resigned
(v) Sentimental
Choose the most appropriate option.
A. Only (i)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i), (iv) and (v)
D. Only (iii)

D. Only (iii)  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
 There is no partial credit.
ii. Identify the phrase from the extract, that suggests the following:
No one bothers to take ‘their’ consent before pushing the promise of a better life, their way.
(1 mark)
enforcing benefits  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
iii. What quality of the villagers can be inferred through these lines?
A. gullible
B. futuristic
C. hypocritical
D. ambitious
(1 mark)
A. Gullible  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
iv. Complete the following analogy correctly. Do NOT repeat from used example.
greedy good doers: alliteration:: ................................... oxymoron

(1 mark)
beneficent beasts of prey  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
v. On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to (1) and (2) given below.
(1) The city dwellers make promises for the betterment of the villagers.
(2) The city dwellers have ulterior motives.
A. (1) is true but (2) is false.

B. (2) is true but (1) is false.
C. (2) is the reason for (1).
D. Both (1) and (2) cannot be inferred from the extract.
(1 mark)

C. (2) is the reason for (1).  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
vi. Fill the blank with an appropriate word, with reference to the extract.
The line ‘… calculated to soothe them out of their wits’ implies that ‘them’ are being .
(1 mark)
manipulated / fooled / duped  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
[one word only]  There is no partial credit.
OR
1. B
A thing of beauty is a joy forever
Its loveliness increases, it will never
Pass into nothingness; but will keep
A bower quiet for us, and a sleep
Full of sweet dreams, and health, and quiet breathing.
Therefore, on every morrow, are we wreathing
A flowery band to bind us to the earth
i. Choose the option that displays the same poetic device as used in the first line of the extract.
A. I’m as happy as I can be.
B. Life is a roller coaster ride.
C. Nature is God’s gift to us.
D. The dazzling divas enchanted all.
(1 mark)
B. Life is a roller coaster ride.  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
ii. What does the phrase ‘a bower quiet’ indicate?

A. serenity
B. morality
C. superiority
D. diversity
(1 mark)
A. serenity  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
iii. The benefits of a thing of beauty for humans include .

(i) healthy body
(ii) calm mind
(iii) struggle-free life
(iv) better relationships
(v) hope to carry on
Choose the most appropriate option.
A. Only (v)
B. (i), (ii) and (v)
C. (i), (iii) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iv)
B. (i), (ii) and (v)  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
iv. Answer in ONE WORD.

When the poet says that ‘a thing of beauty’ will never pass into nothingness, he means that it is .
(1 mark)

immortal/ everlasting/ eternal / undying  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
v. On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below.
(1) We are surrounded by beautiful things.
(2) Beautiful things provide us joy.
A. (1) can be inferred from the extract but (2) cannot.

B. (2) can be inferred from the extract but (1) cannot.
C. Both (1) and (2) can be inferred from the extract.
D. (2) is the reason for (1) and can be inferred from the extract.
(1 mark)
B. (2) can be inferred from the extract but (1) cannot.  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
vi. Which of the following is an apt title for the extract?

A. Full to the Brim with Joy
B. Beauty Galore
C. Live Life King Size
D. Hope Floats
(1 mark)
D. Hope Floats  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
2.A
DERRY: You’re ... peculiar. You say peculiar things. You ask questions I don’t understand.
MR LAMB: I like to talk. Have company. You don’t have to answer questions. You don’t have to stop here at
all. The gate’s open.
DERRY: Yes, but...
MR LAMB: I’ve a hive of bees behind those trees over there. Some hear bees and they say, bees buzz. But
when you listen to bees for a long while, they humm. .. and hum means ‘sing’. I hear them singing, my bees.
DERRY: But....I like it here. I came in because I liked it ..... when I looked over the wall.
MR LAMB: If you’d seen me, you’d not have come in.
DERRY: No.
i. List the playwright’s purpose of using ellipses (…) in this extract.

(1 mark)
To indicate to the character to pause for thought/ to act  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
showing gathering of thoughts  There is no partial credit.
ii. Select the option that best describes Derry and Mr. Lamb in the extract.
A. Derry: introvert; Mr. Lamb: friendly
B. Derry: fearful; Mr. Lamb: domineering
C. Derry: friendly; Mr. Lamb: weird
D. Derry: open minded; Mr. Lamb: charming
(1 mark)
A. Derry: introvert; Mr. Lamb: friendly  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
iii. Which of the following best summarises Mr. Lamb’s attitude towards the bees.
A. Beauty is being true to yourself.
B. There is a kind of beauty in imperfection.
C. Beauty is the promise of happiness.
D. The beauty of the world lies in the details.
(1 mark)
D. The beauty of the world lies in the details.  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
iv. Derry says, “I came in here because I liked it … .” What was the one significant thing Derry might have
liked about the place, as per the extract?

Away from prying eyes/ people  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
2.B
Students on Ice, the programme I was working with on the Shokalskiy, aims to do exactly this by taking high
school students to the ends of the world and providing them with inspiring educational opportunities which
will help them foster a new understanding and respect for our planet. It’s been in operation for six years
now, headed by Canadian Geoff Green, who got tired of carting celebrities and retired, rich, curiosity-
seekers who could only ‘give’ back in a limited way. With Students on Ice, he offers the future generation of
policy-makers a life-changing experience at an age when they’re ready to absorb, learn, and most
importantly, act.
i. Complete the sentence appropriately, with reference to the extract.
The writer refers to the educational opportunities as ‘inspiring’ because .

(1 mark)
These educational opportunities would motivate them to  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
work towards the good of the planet / allow them to  There is no partial credit.
observe first-hand that the planet needs to be respected /
nurtured rather than abused
ii. Which of the following would NOT be ‘a life changing experience’?

A. Being given the lead role in a play.
B. Going on an adventure trip.
C. Playing a video game.
D. Meeting a great leader, you admire.
(1 mark)
C. Playing a video game.  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
iii. Select the most suitable title for the given extract.
A. Adventure with a Mission
B. Adventure – The Spice of Life
C. The Wanderlust
D. Students of the Future
(1 mark)
A. Adventure with a Mission  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
iv. Why does the writer refer to ‘act’ as more important than ‘absorb’ or ‘learn’? (1 mark)
Because having the right knowledge or inclination/  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
understanding is just half the job done. It fails to have an  There is no partial credit.
impact till it is applied/ practised/ put to use in our actions
3.A
A girl from the countryside, she hadn’t gone through all the stages of worldly experience that generally
precede a position of importance and sophistication that she had found herself catapulted into. She never
quite recovered from the terror she felt that day. That was the end of a brief and brilliant acting career —
the legal adviser, who was also a member of the Story Department, had unwittingly brought about that sad
end. While every other member of the Department wore a kind of uniform — khadi dhoti with a slightly
oversized and clumsily tailored white khadi shirt — the legal adviser wore pants and a tie and sometimes a
coat that looked like a coat of mail. Often he looked alone and helpless …
i. ‘Stages of worldly experience’ in the given context would refer to .

A. good education to gain knowledge.
B. situations that require one to be street smart.
C. smaller, not so important roles in acting.
D. training in soft skills.
(1 mark)
B. situations that require one to be street smart.  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
ii. Select the suitable word from the extract to complete the following analogy:
sealed: closed :: propelled:
(1 mark)
catapulted  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

The harm done to the actress was a/an
A. well-planned act.
B. unintentional act.
C. act of jealousy.
D. act of male dominance.
(1 mark)

B. unintentional act.  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
iv. Based on the above extract choose the statement that is TRUE for the legal adviser.
A. He disliked the actress from the countryside.
B. He acted after thinking through things carefully.
C. He did not gel well with others in the Department.
D. He was always dressed smartly.
(1 mark)
C. did not gel well with others in the Department.  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
v. Identify the textual clue that allows the reader to infer that the writer is sympathetic towards the
professional fate of the actor.
(Clue: a phrase)
(1 mark)
‘sad end’  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
vi. Complete the sentence with an appropriate explanation, as per the extract.
The writer uses the word ‘uniform’ to refer to the outfits of the Department members because just like a
uniform .
(1 mark)
... is a common dress code for all, similarly, their apparel/  Award 1 mark for the complete correct
dress was nearly the same - loose khadi shirt and khadi answer – similarity with uniform +
dhoti mention of the type of outfit
 Partial credit for just the mention of
the type of outfit
OR
3.B
Some might make quite extravagant claims for it as being, in its highest form, a source of truth, and, in its
practice, an art. Others, usually celebrities who see themselves as its victims, might despise the interview as
an unwarranted intrusion into their lives, or feel that it somehow diminishes them, just as in some primitive
cultures it is believed that if one takes a photographic portrait of somebody then one is stealing that
person’s soul.
i. What is the most likely reason some people consider the practice of interview to be an art?
This could be because it requires-
A. fluency of words.
B. sensitive and careful handling.
C. creativity and imagination.
D. probing and focusing on details.
(1 mark)
C. creativity and imagination.  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
ii. Rewrite the sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with its inference.
Celebrities feel that an interview diminishes them. (1 mark)
Celebrities feel that an interview makes them appear  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
ordinary.  There is no partial credit.
[accept - negatively impacts OR weakens them/ their aura]
iii. On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below.
(1) Celebrities don’t consent to be interviewed.
(2) Interviews intrude the privacy of celebrities.
A. (1) Can be inferred from the extract but (2) cannot.

B. (1) cannot be inferred from the extract but (2) can.
C. (1) is true but (2) is false.
D. (2) is the reason for (1).
(1 mark)
D. (2) is the reason for (1).  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
iv. Rationalise, to support the given opinion:

To say that an interview, in its highest form, is a source of truth is an extravagant, claim.
(1 mark)
It is an extravagant claim as an interview cannot be a  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
source of truth due to the following-  There is no partial credit.
Interview may be scripted OR People may make false

statements OR Certain questions may be left unanswered.
v. Replace the underlined word with its antonym from the extract.
Some celebrities hate the idea of having to give an interview because it makes them feel like supporters.
(1 mark)
victims  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
vi. The author’s views on interview, in the extract, can best be described as statements based on .
A. facts
B. hypothesis
C. beliefs
D. superstitions
(1 mark)
A. facts  Award 1 mark for the correct answer.
V Answer ANY FIVE of the following in about 40-50 words each. 5*2=10
Syllabus document –"Questions should elicit inferential responses through critical thinking.”
i. “You realise the true value of a thing only on losing it.” Comment on this statement in the light of the story
The Last Lesson.
Prussians put a ban on the French language - People realized the Content -
importance of holding onto their mother tongue. Award 1 mark for inclusion of both the loss and
OR the impact of any one of the 2 value points
M Hamel was considered strict and the classes / work given by given.
him were not taken seriously - After he was ordered to leave the
Award ½ mark if only the impact is listed.
country, villagers realized the importance of his contribution to
the society.
Expression –
1 mark when both given aspects are included.
 Answer organised effectively
 usage of words for effect-cause (due to, as
a result, owing to, therefore, etc.)
½ mark when either aspect is missing
Deduct ½ mark from the overall score if the

error density is high (more than a total of 2
spellings and/or grammatical errors).
ii. State the common issue faced by most of the aged in the current times, with reference to the poem My Mother at
Sixty-six.
Common issue: absence of supporting presence/ Content -
loneliness/alone when children move away Award 1 mark for writing the problem with the
– Explanation: the poet lived away from her mother. explanation.
Award ½ mark for only one thing being
mentioned.
Expression –
1 mark when both given aspects are included
 The language usage needs to be display
elaboration/comparison/ reasoning

iii. What do we come to know about the author of Lost Spring - Anees Jung, through her interactions with
Saheb and Mukesh?

[have to be relevant with respect to BOTH boys] Content -
 Observed in detail – observant Award 1 mark for giving any two qualities with
 Is moved by their plight - sensitive / empathetic explanation.
 Feels helpless about her inability to do anything for Award ½ mark for mentioning the qualities
them. only.
(Any other relevant) Expression –
 The language usage needs to be
relevant and coherent.

iv. Give two reasons why, according to Pablo Neruda, is ‘keeping quiet’ essential to attaining a better, more
peaceful world?
 Makes us introspect and reflect upon our actions. Content -
 Helps us better understand ourselves and what we Award 1 mark for stating any two reasons.
want. Award ½ mark for just stating only one reason.
 Enables us to realise that many of our mindless
actions are only harming us and not giving us Expression –
happiness. 1 mark when both given aspects are included
 The language usage needs to display
rationalisation.

v. If the Christmas spirit is about selflessness, forgiveness and becoming 'better' versions of ourselves
amongst other things, Edla Willmansson is the epitome of this spirit. Justify with two points of evidence
from The Rattrap.
Content -
Edla- Award 1 mark for 2 complete valid points
Despite knowing the truth about the peddler - Award ½ mark for 1 valid point
 gave him shelter and treated him with full respect.
(forgiveness) Expression –
 even invited him for Christmas next year. 1 mark when both given aspects are included
(better version of herself)  Answer organised effectively
inference (based on …. reveals that….
etc.)

spellings and grammatical errors).
vi. How can we say that marriage was a compromise for Aunt Jennifer? Support your response with two
justifications.
 Couldn’t live the way she wanted to or do what she Content-
wanted to. Award 1 mark for any 2 valid points.
 Burdened by responsibilities. Award ½ mark if only one valid point is
mentioned.
 Oppressed by her husband.
Expression –
justification

VI Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 40-50 words each. 2*2=4
Syllabus document –"Questions should elicit inferential responses through critical thinking.”
i. ‘It’s easy to judge others and give advice, but much more difficult to apply it to ourselves.’ Elaborate with
reference to the character of Sam in The Third Level.
Told Charley that he was dissatisfied and looking for an Content -
escape – the Third level was his imagination. Award 1 mark for 2 complete valid points.
At the end, the same is revealed as true for Sam – he went Award ½ mark for 1 valid point.
in search of the Third level himself
Expression –
 Answer organised effectively
 The language usage needs to display
reasoning ( reveals that…. etc.)

ii. Comment on the writing style of the author, Kalki in The Tiger King.
 A satire on those in power – use of humour, Content –
exaggeration and harmony to criticize Award 1 mark for 2 valid points.
 Conversational, narrative style Award ½ mark for 1 valid point.
Expression –
 Answer organised effectively
 The language usage needs to display
analysis

iii. How do we know that Dr. Sadao was conscientious as well as loyal?
Content –
 True to his profession (conscientious) – attended to Award 1 mark for 2 valid points giving reasons.
the wounded soldier and saved his life Award ½ mark for 1 valid point.
Expression –
 Informed the General about the prisoner and  Answer organised effectively
agreed to the plan of assassination. (loyal-to his  The language usage needs to display
country) reasoning ( reveals that…. etc.)

VII Answer ANY ONE of the following in about 120-150 words. 1*5=5
Syllabus document--Questions can be based on incident / theme / passage / extract / event as reference points to assess
extrapolation beyond and across the text. The question will elicit analytical and evaluative response from student.
Content 2 Expression 2 Accuracy 1
Note-
 Use the given descriptors to mark the LQs. For CONTENT (refer to Value points) and EXPRESSION
 If the response does not justify all points of a level, the response is marked down.
DESCRIPTORS FOR CONTENT (with reference to value points) MARKS

 Sustained, clear, well-developed personal response to the task 2
 Well-developed and justified arguments/evidence for the
characters
 Largely, a reasonably well-developed personal response to the 1½
task
 Clear justification with arguments/evidence for the characters
 Fairly competent personal response to the task 1
 Clear justification with restricted arguments/evidence for the
characters
 Limited awareness of the task ½
 Limited justification or relevant arguments/evidence for the
characters
DESCRIPTORS FOR EXPRESSION (Coherence & Cohesion) MARKS
 Carefully structured content with a beginning, middle and end 2

with highly relevant ideas presented cohesively.
 Highly effective vocabulary usage, relevant and appropriate
sentences for conveying the ideas precisely and effectively.
 Ideas generally well sequenced and related to the given topic 1½
maintaining overall cohesion of ideas.
 Range of vocabulary suffices in large parts to convey the overall
idea and meaning
 Ideas sequenced fairly well and related to the given topic, 1
sometimes maintaining cohesion of ideas.
 Range of vocabulary is limited and conveys a basic idea of the
overall meaning
 Poor sequencing of ideas; though related to the given topic, ½
expressed in a disjointed manner exhibiting a lack of coherence
of ideas.
 Very limited expected/ topical vocabulary as per question asked
DESCRIPTORS FOR ACCURACY MARKS
Spelling, punctuation and grammar consistently/largely 1
accurate, with occasional minor errors, that do not impede
communication.
 Spelling, punctuation and grammar display some errors spread ½
across, causing minor impediments to the message
communicated.
No credit
 Frequent errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar, impeding 0
communication.
i. The prose selections, Deep Water and Indigo, bring out the importance of overcoming fear, in order to be
able to lead our lives successfully.
Imagine yourself to be a motivational speaker who has to address high school students. Write this address
in 120 – 150 words elaborating on occurrences from the two texts to inspire your audience and to convince
them about the importance of overcoming fear.
You may begin like this …
Good morning, students!
We all know what it’s like to be afraid. Fear is our body’s natural response to a perceived threat or danger. But when …
Value Points
 Fear immobilizes us and prevents us from progressing – as in the case of William Douglas – due to his
fear of water he could not lead a normal life – could not go fishing, canoeing, etc. Similarly, due to
their fear of the Britishers, the peasants of Champaran could not take a stand for their rights.
 Need to face our fear, devise a plan and work through it – William Douglas worked through his fear
rather than giving into it. When the peasants gathered around the courthouse in Motihari, it was a
step towards overcoming their fear.
 Require determination – persistence – it took Douglas months to overcome his fear of water and learn
swimming. It took nearly a year to get justice for the peasants in Champaran.
 strength in unity when fighting a common fear – only when the people in Champaran were they able
to overcome their fear and fight for justice.
 But once overcome, one is free to live his / her life to the fullest.
(Any 4 points to be included) (Accept associated relevant points)
OR
ii ‘Their mother sighed.
Sophie watched her back stooped over the sink and wondered at the incongruity of the delicate bow which
fastened her apron strings.’
The prose selection, Going Places includes this telling comment about Sophie’s mother.
In Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers, we are told that -
‘The massive weight of Uncle’s wedding band
Sits heavily upon Aunt Jennifer’s Hand.’
Imagine a conversation between Sophie’s mother and Aunt Jennifer. Create this exchange with reference to
the two extracts given above.
You may begin the conversation like this …

Sophie’s mother: Your embroidery is so beautiful. Do you love tigers?
Value Points
 Aunt Jennifer shares about her loss of identity; use of art as a means to express her deep-down desires
and feelings.
 Sophie’s mother shares information about her servile role – all her time is spent in meeting the needs
of the family; has no life of her own. Sophie’s mother stays home while all others go to witness Danny
Casey’s football match.
 Both feel burdened with responsibilities.
 Both have domineering husbands; They do not have a say in the family matters.
 There seems to be no likelihood of any change in their status.
(Any 4 points to be included)
VIII Answer ANY ONE of the following in about 120-150 words. 1*5=5
Syllabus document--Questions to assess global comprehension and extrapolation beyond the text. Questions to
provide evaluative and analytical responses using incidents, events, themes as reference points.
Content 2 Expression 2 Accuracy 1
Note-
 Use the given descriptors to mark the LQs. For CONTENT (refer to Value points) and EXPRESSION
 If the response does not justify all points of a level, the response is marked down.
DESCRIPTORS FOR CONTENT (with reference to value points) MARKS

 Sustained, clear, well-developed personal response to the task 2
 Well-developed and justified arguments/evidence for the
characters
 Largely, a reasonably well-developed personal response to the 1½
task
 Clear justification with arguments/evidence for the characters
 Fairly competent personal response to the task 1
 Clear justification with restricted arguments/evidence for the
characters
 Limited awareness of the task ½
 Limited justification or relevant arguments/evidence for the
characters
DESCRIPTORS FOR EXPRESSION (Coherence & Cohesion) MARKS
 Carefully structured content with a beginning, middle and end 2

with highly relevant ideas presented cohesively.
 Highly effective vocabulary usage, relevant and appropriate
sentences for conveying the ideas precisely and effectively.
 Ideas generally well sequenced and related to the given topic 1½
maintaining overall cohesion of ideas.
 Range of vocabulary suffices in large parts to convey the overall
idea and meaning
 Ideas sequenced fairly well and related to the given topic, 1
sometimes maintaining cohesion of ideas.
 Range of vocabulary is limited and conveys a basic idea of the
overall meaning
 Poor sequencing of ideas; though related to the given topic, ½
expressed in a disjointed manner exhibiting a lack of coherence
of ideas.
 Very limited expected/ topical vocabulary as per question asked
DESCRIPTORS FOR ACCURACY MARKS

Spelling, punctuation and grammar consistently/largely 1
accurate, with occasional minor errors, that do not impede
communication.
 Spelling, punctuation and grammar display some errors spread ½
across, causing minor impediments to the message
communicated.
No credit
 Frequent errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar, impeding 0
communication.
i. On returning home, Tishani Doshi writes her thoughts reflecting on how her decision to enrol for the
Students on Ice programme has been the single most important decision of her life that has completely
transformed her.
Imagine yourself to be Tishani and express these thoughts.
You may begin like this:

I can’t thank my stars enough for having cashed in on the opportunity of...........
Value Points
 An experience completely different than any other - to visit a landscape that is not inhabited by
humans and so still relatively pristine.
 Provided an insight into the earth’s past, present and the future.
 Made her delve deep into the threat faced by the environment and the earth itself due to human
activities.
 Realised how little changes can have a major impact on the environment and therefore the need to
take care of the small things.
 An eye opening experience – realised how everything on this earth is interlinked.
 The trip indeed had a life changing impact.
(Any 4 points to be included.)
OR
ii. Both Bama and Zitkala Sa experienced the harsh reality of discrimination in their childhood. Instead of
letting it pull them down, they found a way to overcome it. You wish to include a cameo* of both in your
upcoming blog post.
As a part of the research, compare and contrast the experiences faced by the two and their response/s to
these experiences, in 120-150 words. [Clue: Include the similarities and differences in the discrimination they
faced - their feelings - determination to overcome – success]
*a short description that neatly encapsulates someone or something
Value Points
 Both of them faced discrimination; Zitkala Sa was discriminated against because of cultural differences
while Bama faced discrimination due to her caste.
 Zitkala sa rebelled and refused to get her hair cut. She put up a strong fight, though had to give in
finally. Bama was enraged and wanted to go and touch the packet of vadai to teach a lesson to the
landlord. But was guided by her elder brother to calm down. He showed her the path overcome
discrimination.
 Both of them worked hard to excel in education.
 Both succeeded as writers among other things; They have written much against discrimination and
evils of oppression, thus continuing the fight for justice for their communities.
Marking Scheme
Class XII
Mathematics (Code – 041)
Section : A (Multiple Choice Questions- 1 Mark each)
Question Answer Hints/Solution
No
1. (c) In a skew-symmetric matrix, the (i, j)th element is negative of
the (j, i)th element. Hence, the (i, i)th element = 0
2. (a) |𝐴𝐴 | = |𝐴||𝐴′| = (−3)(−3) = 9
3. (b) The area of the parallelogram with adjacent sides AB and AC =
𝐴𝐵⃗ × 𝐴𝐶⃗ . Hence, the area of the triangle with vertices A, B, C
= 𝐴𝐵⃗ × 𝐴𝐶⃗
4. (c) The function f is continuous at x = 0 if 𝑙𝑖𝑚 → 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑓(0)
We have f(0) = k and
𝑙𝑖𝑚 → 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑙𝑖𝑚 → = 𝑙𝑖𝑚 → =𝑙𝑖𝑚 →
=𝑙𝑖𝑚 → =1
Hence, k =1
5. (b) 𝑥 1
+ log |𝑥| + 𝐶 ∵ 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥+ 𝑑𝑥
2 𝑥
6. (c)
The given differential equation is 4 = 0. Here, m = 2
and n = 1
Hence, m + n= 3
7. (b) The strict inequality represents an open half plane and it
contains the origin as (0, 0) satisfies it.
8. (a) Scalar Projection of 3𝚤̂ − 𝚥̂ − 2𝑘 𝑜𝑛 𝑣𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝚤̂ + 2𝚥̂ − 3𝑘
̂ ̂ . ̂ ̂
= ̂ ̂
=
√
9. (c) ∫ = [𝑙 𝑜𝑔(𝑥 + 1)] = (𝑙𝑜𝑔10 − 𝑙𝑜𝑔5) = 𝑙𝑜𝑔
= 𝑙𝑜𝑔2
10. (c) (𝐴𝐵 ) = (𝐵 ) 𝐴 = 𝐵𝐴
11. (d) The minimum value of the objective function occurs at two
adjacent corner points (0.6, 1.6) and (3, 0) and there is no point
in the half plane 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 < 12 in common with the feasible
region. So, the minimum value occurs at every point of the line-
segment joining the two points.
12. (d) 2 − 20 = 2𝑥 − 24 ⟹ 2𝑥 = 6 ⟹ 𝑥 = 3 ⟹ 𝑥 = ±√3
13. (b) |𝑎𝑑𝑗𝐴| = |𝐴| ⟹ |𝑎𝑑𝑗𝐴| = 25
14. (c) P 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 = 𝑃 𝐴′) × 𝑃(𝐵′) (As A and B are independent,
( ) (
𝐴 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵′ are also independent.)
= 0.7 × 0.4 = 0.28
15. (c) 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑥
𝑦𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 ⟹ 𝑦𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 ⟹ =
𝑦 𝑥
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑥
⟹ = + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝐾, 𝐾 > 0 ⟹ log|𝑦| = log|𝑥| + log 𝐾
𝑦 𝑥
⟹ log|𝑦| = log |𝑥|𝐾 ⟹ |𝑦| = |𝑥|𝐾 ⟹ y=±𝐾𝑥 ⟹ 𝑦 = 𝐶𝑥
Page 1
16. (a) y = sin-1x
𝑑𝑦 1 𝑑𝑦
= ⟹ 1−𝑥 . =1
𝑑𝑥 √1 − 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
Again , differentiating both sides w. r. to x, we get
𝑑 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 −2𝑥
1−𝑥 + . =0
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥 2√1 − 𝑥
Simplifying, we get (1 − 𝑥 )𝑦 = 𝑥𝑦
17. (b) 𝑎⃗ − 2𝑏⃗ = 𝑎⃗ − 2𝑏⃗ . 𝑎⃗ − 2𝑏⃗
𝑎⃗ − 2𝑏⃗ = 𝑎⃗. 𝑎⃗ − 4𝑎⃗. 𝑏⃗ + 4𝑏⃗ . 𝑏⃗
= |𝑎⃗| − 4𝑎⃗. 𝑏⃗+ 4 𝑏⃗
= 4 − 16 + 36 = 24
𝑎⃗ − 2𝑏⃗ = 24 ⟹ 𝑎⃗ − 2𝑏⃗ = 2√6
18. (b) The line through the points (0, 5, -2) and (3, -1, 2) is
= =
𝑥 𝑦−5 𝑧+2
𝑜𝑟, = =
3 −6 4
Any point on the line is (3𝑘, −6𝑘 + 5,4𝑘 − 2), where k is an
arbitrary scalar.
3𝑘 = 6 ⟹ 𝑘 = 2
The z-coordinate of the point P will be 4 × 2 − 2 = 6
19. (c) 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝑥 is defined if 𝑥 ≤ −1 𝑜𝑟 𝑥 ≥ 1. Hence, 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2𝑥 will be
defined if 𝑥 ≤ − or 𝑥 ≥ .
Hence, A is true.
The range of the function 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝑥 is [0, 𝜋] − { }
R is false.
20. (a) The equation of the x-axis may be written as 𝑟⃗ = 𝑡𝚤̂. Hence, the
acute angle 𝜃 between the given line and the x-axis is given by
|1 × 1 + (−1) × 0 + 0 × 0| 1 𝜋
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = = ⟹𝜃=
1 + (−1) + 0 × √1 + 0 + 0 √2 4
SECTION B (VSA questions of 2 marks each)

21. 13𝜋 𝜋 .1
𝑠𝑖𝑛 [𝑠𝑖𝑛 ] = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 [𝑠𝑖𝑛 2𝜋 − ]
7 7
= 𝑠𝑖𝑛 [𝑠𝑖𝑛 − ] = − 1
OR
Let 𝑦 ∈ 𝑁(codomain). Then ∃ 2𝑦 ∈ 𝑁(domain) such that
𝑓(2𝑦) = = 𝑦. Hence, f is surjective. 1
1, 2 ∈ 𝑁(domain) such that 𝑓(1) = 1 = 𝑓(2)
Hence, f is not injective. 1
22. Let AB represent the height of the street light from the ground. At
any time t seconds, let the man represented as ED of height 1.6 m
be at a distance of x m from AB and the length of his shadow EC
be y m.
Using similarity of triangles, we have = ⇒ 3𝑦 = 2𝑥 ½
.
Page 2
Differentiating both sides w.r.to t, we get 3 = 2
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
= × 0.3 ⇒ = 0.2 ½
𝑑𝑡 3 𝑑𝑡
At any time t seconds, the tip of his shadow is at a distance of
(𝑥 + 𝑦) m from AB.
The rate at which the tip of his shadow moving
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑦
= + 𝑚/𝑠 = 0.5 𝑚/𝑠 ½
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
The rate at which his shadow is lengthening
𝑑𝑦
= 𝑚/𝑠 = 0.2 𝑚/𝑠 1/2
𝑑𝑡
23. 𝑎⃗ = 𝚤̂ − 𝚥̂ + 7𝑘 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏⃗ = 5𝚤̂ − 𝚥̂ + 𝜆𝑘
Hence 𝑎⃗ + 𝑏⃗ = 6 𝚤̂ − 2𝚥̂ + (7 + 𝜆)𝑘 and 𝑎⃗ − 𝑏⃗ = −4𝚤̂ + (7 − 𝜆)𝑘
𝑘 ½
⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
𝑎⃗ + 𝑏 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎⃗ − 𝑏 will be orthogonal if, 𝑎⃗ + 𝑏 . 𝑎⃗ − 𝑏 = 0 ½
i.e., if, −24 + (49 − 𝜆 ) = 0 ⟹ 𝜆 = 25
i.e., if, 𝜆 = ±5 1
OR
The equations of the line are 6𝑥 − 12 = 3𝑦 + 9 = 2𝑧 − 2, which,
when written in standard symmetric form, will be
( )
= = ½
Since, lines are parallel, we have = =

Hence, the required direction ratios are , , or (1,2,3)) ½
and the required direction cosines are , , 1
√ √ √
24. 𝑦 1−𝑥 +𝑥 1−𝑦 = 1

Let 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 = 𝐴 and 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑦 = 𝐵.. Then x = sinA and y = sinB ½
𝑦 1 − 𝑥 + 𝑥 1 − 𝑦 = 1 ⟹ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐵𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐴 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐵 = 1
𝜋
⟹ sin(𝐴 + 𝐵 ) = 1 ⟹ 𝐴 + 𝐵 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 1 =
2
𝜋
⟹ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑦 = ½
2
Differentiating w.r.to x, we obtain = − 1
25. Since 𝒂⃗ is a unit ve
vector, ∴ |𝑎⃗| = 1 ½
(𝑥⃗ − 𝑎⃗). (𝑥⃗ + 𝑎⃗) = 12.
⟹ 𝑥⃗. 𝑥⃗ + 𝑥⃗. 𝑎⃗ − 𝑎⃗. 𝑥⃗ − 𝑎⃗. 𝑎⃗ = 12 ½
⟹ |𝑥⃗| − |𝑎⃗| = 12. ½

⟹ |𝑥⃗| − 1 = 12
⟹ |𝑥⃗| = 13 ⟹ |𝑥⃗| = √13 1/2
SECTION C
(Short Answer Questions of 3 Marks each)
26. 𝑑𝑥
√3 − 2𝑥 − 𝑥
2
=∫ =∫
( ) ( )
= 𝑠𝑖𝑛 +𝐶 [∫ = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 +𝐶] 1

√
27. P(not obtaining an odd person in a single round) = P(All three of

them throw tails or All three of them throw heads)
= × × ×2= 1+1/2
P(obtaining an odd person in a single round)
= 1 − P(not obtaining an odd person in a single round) = ½
The required probability
= P(‘In first round there is no odd person’ and ‘In second round
there is no odd person’ and ‘In third round there is an odd person’)
= × × = 1
OR
Let X denote the Random Variable defined by the number of
defective items.
P(X=0) = × =
P(X=1) = 2 × × =
2
P(X=2) = × =
𝑥 0 1 2
𝑝 2 8 1
5 15 15
𝑝𝑥 0 8 2 1/2
15 15
Mean = ∑ 𝑝 𝑥 = = 1/2
28. Let I = ∫ =∫
√
𝑑𝑥 ..(i)
√ √ √
Page 4
𝒃 𝒃
Using ∫𝒂 𝒇(𝒙) 𝒅𝒙 = ∫𝒂 𝒇(𝒂 + 𝒃 − 𝒙)𝒅𝒙
I=∫ 𝑑𝑥
√
I=∫ dx ..(ii). 1
√ √
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
√ √
2I = ∫ 𝑑𝑥 + ∫ dx
√ √ √ √
1
2I = ∫ 𝑑𝑥
= [𝑥] = − =
Hence, I = ∫ = 1
√
OR
|𝑥 − 1| 𝑑𝑥 = (1 − 𝑥 )𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 − 1)𝑑𝑥 1
= 𝑥−
1
+ −𝑥
4 1
0 1
= (1 − ) + (8 − 4) − ( − 1)
=5 1
29. 𝑦𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 − 𝑦 )𝑑𝑦 = 0
𝒅𝒙
Reducing the given differential equation to the form + 𝑷𝒙 = 𝑸
𝒅𝒚
we get, + =𝑦 ½
∫
I.F = 𝑒 ∫ =𝑒 =𝑒 =𝑦 1
The general solution is given by
𝑥. 𝐼𝐹 = 𝑄. 𝐼𝐹𝑑𝑦 ⟹ 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 1
⟹ 𝑥𝑦 = + 𝐶 , which is the required general solution ½

OR
𝑥𝑑𝑦 − 𝑦𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥 + 𝑦 𝑑𝑥
It is a Homogeneous Equation as
𝑑𝑦 𝑥 +𝑦 +𝑦 𝑦 𝑦 𝑦
= = 1+( ) + = 𝑓 .
𝑑𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 ½
Put 𝑦 = 𝑣𝑥
= 𝑣+𝑥
Page 5
𝑑𝑣 ½
𝑣+𝑥 = 1+𝑣 +𝑣
𝑑𝑥
Separating variables, we get
𝑑𝑣 𝑑𝑥 ½
=
√1 + 𝑣 𝑥
Integrating, we get 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑣 + √1 + 𝑣 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔|𝑥| + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝐾, 𝐾 > 0
𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑦 + 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 𝐾
⇒ 𝑦 + 𝑥 + 𝑦 = ±𝐾𝑥
⇒ 𝑦 + 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝐶𝑥 , which is the required general solution
1+1/2
30. We have Z= 400x +300y subject to
x + y ≤ 200,𝑥 ≤ 40, 𝑥 ≥ 20, 𝑦 ≥ 0
The corner points of the feasible region are C(20,0), D(40,0),
B(40,160), A(20,180)
Corner Point Z = 400x + 300y

C(20,0) 8000
D(40,0) 16000
B(40,160) 64000
A(20,180) 62000 1
Maximum profit occurs at x= 40, y=160

and the maximum profit =₹ 64,000 1
31. 𝑑𝑥 = ∫ 𝑥 + 𝑑𝑥 1
∫ ( ) ( )( )
Now resolving into partial fractions as
( )( )
2𝑥 + 1 𝐴 𝐵
= +
(𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 + 1) 𝑥−1 𝑥+1
We get = + 1
( )( ) ( ) ( )
Page 6
Hence, ∫ ( )
𝑑𝑥 = ∫ 𝑥 + 𝑑𝑥
( )( )
=∫ 𝑥+ + 𝑑𝑥
( ) ( )
= + log|𝑥 − 1| + log|𝑥 + 1| + 𝐶
𝑥 1
= + (log|(𝑥 − 1) (𝑥 + 1)| + 𝐶 1
2 2
SECTION D
(Long answer type questions (LA) of 5 marks each)
32.
(Correct
Fig: 1
Mark)
The points of intersection of the parabola 𝑦 = 𝑥 and the line

½
𝑦 = 𝑥 are (0, 0) and (1, 1).
Required Area = ∫ 𝑦 𝑑𝑥 + ∫ 𝑦 𝑑𝑥
Required Area = ∫ 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + ∫ 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 2
1 2
= + = + = 1+1/2
0 1
33. Let (𝑎, 𝑏) ∈ 𝑁 × 𝑁. Then we have

ab = ba (by commutative property of multiplication of natural
numbers)
⟹ (𝑎, 𝑏)𝑅 (𝑎, 𝑏)
Hence, R is reflexive. 1
Let (𝑎, 𝑏), (𝑐, 𝑑) ∈ 𝑁 × 𝑁 such that (a, b) R (c, d). Then
ad = bc
⟹ 𝑐𝑏 = 𝑑𝑎 (by commutative property of multiplication of
natural numbers
⟹ (𝑐, 𝑑)𝑅(𝑎, 𝑏)
Hence, R is symmetric. 1+1/2
Let (𝑎, 𝑏), (𝑐, 𝑑), (𝑒, 𝑓) ∈ 𝑁 × 𝑁 such that
Page 7
(a, b) R (c, d) and (c, d) R (e, f).
Then ad = bc, cf = de
⟹ 𝑎𝑑𝑐𝑓 = 𝑏𝑐𝑑𝑒
⟹ 𝑎𝑓 = 𝑏𝑒
⟹ (𝑎, 𝑏)𝑅(𝑒, 𝑓)
Hence, R is transitive. 2
Since, R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive, R is an
equivalence relation on 𝑁 × 𝑁. ½
OR
Let 𝐴 ∈ 𝑃 𝑋 . Then 𝐴 ⊂ 𝐴
( )
⟹ (𝐴, 𝐴) ∈ 𝑅
Hence, R is reflexive. 1
Let 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 ∈ 𝑃(𝑋) such that
(𝐴, 𝐵), (𝐵, 𝐶) ∈ 𝑅
⟹ 𝐴 ⊂ 𝐵, 𝐵 ⊂ 𝐶
⟹𝐴⊂𝐶
⟹ (𝐴, 𝐶) ∈ 𝑅
Hence, R is transitive. 2
∅, 𝑋 ∈ 𝑃(𝑋) such that ∅ ⊂ 𝑋. Hence, (∅, 𝑋) ∈ 𝑅. But, 𝑋 ⊄ ∅,
which implies that (𝑋, ∅) ∉ 𝑅.
Thus, R is not symmetric. 2
34. The given lines are non-parallel lines. There is a unique line-
segment PQ (P lying on one and Q on the other, which is at right
angles to both the lines. PQ is the shortest distance between the
lines. Hence, the shortest possible distance between the insects =
PQ
The position vector of P lying on the line
𝑟⃗ = 6𝚤̂ + 2𝚥̂ + 2𝑘 + 𝜆 𝚤̂ − 2𝚥̂ + 2𝑘
is (6 + 𝜆)𝚤̂ + (2 − 2𝜆)𝚥̂ + (2 + 2𝜆)𝑘 for some 𝜆 ½
The position vector of Q lying on the line
𝑟⃗ = −4𝚤̂ − 𝑘 + 𝜇 3𝚤̂ − 2𝚥̂ − 2𝑘
½
is (−4 + 3𝜇)𝚤̂ + (−2𝜇)𝚥̂ + (−1 − 2𝜇)𝑘 for some 𝜇
𝑃𝑄⃗ = (−10 + 3𝜇 − 𝜆)𝚤̂ + (−2𝜇 − 2 + 2𝜆)𝚥̂ + (−3 − 2𝜇 − 2𝜆)𝑘 ½
Since, PQ is perpendicular to both the lines
(−10 + 3𝜇 − 𝜆) + (−2𝜇 − 2 + 2𝜆)(−2) + (−3 − 2𝜇 − 2𝜆)2
= 0, ½
𝑖. 𝑒. , 𝜇 − 3𝜆 = 4 …(i)
and (−10 + 3𝜇 − 𝜆)3 + (−2𝜇 − 2 + 2𝜆)(−2) + (−3 − 2𝜇 −
2𝜆)(−2) = 0, ½
𝑖. 𝑒. ,17𝜇 − 3𝜆 = 20 …(ii)
solving (i) and (ii) for 𝜆 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜇, we get 𝜇 = 1, 𝜆 = −1. 1
The position vector of the points, at which they should be so that
the distance between them is the shortest, are
5𝚤̂ + 4𝚥̂ and −𝚤̂ − 2𝚥̂ − 3𝑘 ½
𝑃𝑄⃗ = −6𝚤̂ − 6𝚥̂ − 3𝑘
The shortest distance = 𝑃𝑄⃗ = √6 + 6 + 3 = 9 1
OR
Page 8
Eliminating t between the equations, we obtain the equation of the
path = = , which are the equations of the line passing
through the origin having direction ratios <2, -4, 4>. This line is
the path of the rocket. 1
When t = 10 seconds, the rocket will be at the point (20, -40, 40).
Hence, the required distance from the origin at 10 seconds = ½
20 + 40 + 40 𝑘𝑚 = 20 × 3 𝑘𝑚 = 60 𝑘𝑚 1
The distance of the point (20, -40, 40) from the given line
( ⃗ ⃗)× ⃗ ̂ ×( ̂ ̂ ) ̂
= = 𝑘𝑚 = 𝑘𝑚 2
⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂
√
= 𝑘𝑚 = 10√3 𝑘𝑚 1/2
√
35. 2 −3 5
A = 3 2 −4
1 1 −2
½
|A| = 2(0) + 3(−2) + 5(1) = −1
𝑎𝑑𝑗𝐴
𝐴 =
|𝐴|
0 −1 2 0 −1 2
𝑎𝑑𝑗𝐴 = 2 −9 23 , 𝐴 = 2 −9 23 3
( )
1 −5 13 1 −5 13
𝑥 0 −1 2 11
X=𝐴 𝐵⟹ 𝑦 = 2 −9 23 −5
( )
𝑧 1 −5 13 −3
0+5−6
= 22 + 45 − 69
( )
11 + 25 − 39
𝑥 1 −1
⟹ 𝑦 = −2 ⟹ 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 2 , 𝑧 = 3. 1+1/2
𝑧 (−1)
−3
SECTION E(Case Studies/Passage based questions of 4 Marks each)

36. (i) f(𝑥 ) = −0.1𝑥 + 𝑚𝑥 + 98.6, being a polynomial function, is differentiable
everywhere, hence, differentiable in (0, 12) 1
(ii)𝑓 (𝑥 ) = − 0.2𝑥 + 𝑚
Since, 6 is the critical point,
𝑓 (6) = 0 ⟹ 𝑚 = 1.2 1
(iii) 𝑓(𝑥) = −0.1𝑥 + 1.2𝑥 + 98.6
𝑓 (𝑥 ) = − 0.2𝑥 + 1.2 = −0.2(𝑥 − 6)
In the Interval 𝒇 (𝒙) Conclusion

(0, 6) +ve f is strictly increasing
in [0, 6]
(6, 12) -ve f is strictly decreasing 1+1
in [6, 12]
Page 9
OR
(iii) 𝑓(𝑥) = −0.1𝑥 + 1.2𝑥 + 98.6,
𝑓 (𝑥) = − 0.2𝑥 + 1.2, 𝑓 (6) = 0,
𝑓 ′(𝑥) = − 0.2
𝑓 (6) = − 0.2 < 0
Hence, by second derivative test 6 is a point of local maximum. The local
maximum value = 𝑓(6) = − 0.1 × 6 + 1.2 × 6 + 98.6 = 102.2 1
We have 𝑓(0) = 98.6, 𝑓(6) = 102.2, 𝑓(12) = 98.6
6 is the point of absolute maximum and the absolute maximum value of the
function = 102.2. 1/2
0 and 12 both are the points of absolute minimum and the absolute minimum value
of the function = 98.6. 1/2
37. (i)
Let (𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑥, √𝑎 − 𝑥 be the upper right vertex of the rectangle.

The area function 𝐴 = 2𝑥 × 2 √𝑎 − 𝑥
= 𝑥√𝑎 − 𝑥 , 𝑥 ∈ (0, 𝑎). 1
(ii) = 𝑥× + √𝑎 − 𝑥
√
4𝑏 𝑎 − 2𝑥 4𝑏 2 𝑥 + √ (𝑥 − √ )
= × =− × ½
𝑎 √𝑎 − 𝑥 𝑎 √𝑎 − 𝑥
=0⇒𝑥= .
√
𝑥= is the critical point. 1/2
√
(iii)For the values of x less than and close to , >0
√ √
1
and for the values of x greater than and close to , < 0.
√ √
Hence, by the first derivative test, there is a local maximum at the critical point
𝑥 = . Since there is only one critical point, therefore, the area of the soccer field
√
is maximum at this critical point 𝑥 = 1/2
√
Thus, for maximum area of the soccer field, its length should be 𝑎√2 and its width
should be 𝑏√2. ½
OR
Page
10
(iii) 𝐴 = 2𝑥 × 2 √𝑎 − 𝑥 , 𝑥 ∈ (0, 𝑎).
Squaring both sides, we get
𝑍=𝐴 = 𝑥 (𝑎 − 𝑥 ) = (𝑥 𝑎 − 𝑥 ), 𝑥 ∈ (0, 𝑎).
A is maximum when Z is maximum.
𝑑𝑍 16𝑏 32𝑏
= (2𝑥𝑎 − 4𝑥 ) = 𝑥 𝑎 + √2𝑥 (𝑎 − √2𝑥)
𝑑𝑥 𝑎 𝑎
=0⇒𝑥= .
√
𝑑 𝑍 32𝑏
= (𝑎 − 6𝑥 )
𝑑𝑥 𝑎
𝑑 𝑍 32𝑏
( ) = (𝑎 − 3𝑎 ) = −64𝑏 < 0
𝑑𝑥 √ 𝑎 1
Hence, by the second derivative test, there is a local maximum value of Z at the
critical point 𝑥 = . Since there is only one critical point, therefore, Z is
√
1/2
maximum at 𝑥 = , hence, A is maximum at 𝑥 = .
√ √
Thus, for maximum area of the soccer field, its length should be 𝑎√2 and its width
should be 𝑏√2. 1/2
38. (i)Let P be the event that the shell fired from A hits the plane and Q be the event
that the shell fired from B hits the plane. The following four hypotheses are
possible before the trial, with the guns operating independently:
𝐸 = 𝑃𝑄,𝐸 = 𝑃 𝑄,𝐸 = 𝑃 𝑄,𝐸 = 𝑃𝑄
Let E = The shell fired from exactly one of them hits the plane.
𝑃(𝐸 ) = 0.3 × 0.2 = 0.06, 𝑃 (𝐸 ) = 0.7 × 0.8 = 0.56, 𝑃(𝐸 ) = 0.7 × 0.2
= 0.14, 𝑃 (𝐸 ) = 0.3 × 0.8 = 0.24
𝐸 𝐸 𝐸 𝐸
𝑃 = 0, 𝑃 = 0, 𝑃 = 1, 𝑃 =1 1
𝐸 𝐸 𝐸 𝐸
𝐸 𝐸 𝐸 𝐸
𝑃(𝐸) = 𝑃(𝐸 ). 𝑃 + 𝑃(𝐸 ). 𝑃 + 𝑃(𝐸 ). 𝑃 + 𝑃(𝐸 ). 𝑃
𝐸 𝐸 𝐸 𝐸
= 0.14 + 0.24 = 0.38 1
( ).
(ii)By Bayes’ Theorem, P =
( ). ( ). ( ). ( ).
0.14 7 2
= =
0.38 19
NOTE: The four hypotheses form the partition of the sample space and it can be
seen that the sum of their probabilities is 1. The hypotheses 𝐸 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐸 are actually
eliminated as 𝑃 =𝑃 =0
Alternative way of writing the solution:
(i)P(Shell fired from exactly one of them hits the plane)
= P[(Shell from A hits the plane and Shell from B does not hit the plane) or (Shell
1
from A does not hit the plane and Shell from B hits the plane)]
= 0.3 × 0.8 + 0.7 × 0.2 = 0.38
1
(ii)P(Shell fired from B hit the plane/Exactly one of them hit the plane)
P(Shell ired from B hit the plane ∩ Exactly one of them hit the plane)
=
P(Exactly one of them hit the plane)
Page
11
=
( ) 1
( )
0.14 7 1
= =
0.38 19
Page
12
ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2022-23
SUBJECT ACCOUNTANCY 055
CLASS XII
S.NO Question Marks
Part A
(Accounting for Partnership Firms and Companies)
1. a) 41: 7: 12 1
2. c) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect 1
3. b) ₹ 4 per share 1
OR
d) Non – Redeemable Debentures
4. a) Samiksha’s Capital A/c. Dr. 9,000 1
To Arshiya’s Capital A/c. 6,000
To Divya’s Capital A/c 3,000
Or
d) Share of Loss Sohan –₹ 1,180 Mohan – ₹ 1,770
5. d) ₹ 3,00,000 1
6. c) 6% 1
OR
b) 5%
7. c) ₹ 30,000 1
8. d) ₹70,500 1
Or
d) A ₹ 50,000; B ₹ 50,000 and C ₹ 50,000
9. c) ₹ 36,000 1
10. a) ₹ 1,80,000 1
11. c) (iii) ; (ii) ; (i); (iv) 1
12. b) ₹ 21,000 1
13. b) Providing for Premium payable on Redemption of Debentures. 1
14. c) ₹ 50,000 1
15. d) 5,000 1
Or
d) 12% p.a
16. d) ₹ 30,000 (loss) 1
17 Journal Entry 3
Date Particulars L.F. Dr. Cr. (1 + 2)
Amount Amount
1.02.22 Profit and Loss Suspense A/c Dr. 30,000
To Sara’s Capital A/c 30,000
(Being Sara’s share of profit allowed till
the date of her death)
Workings: Profit % to sales turnover for the year ended 31st
March,2021=1,20,000/10,00,000 X100= 12%
Estimated sales for the year ended 31st March,2022=₹ 10,00,000+20% of ₹ 10,00,000 = ₹
12,00,000
Estimated sales till 01st February,2022 = ₹ 12,00,000 x 10/12 = ₹ 10,00,000
Profit percentage 12-2=10%
Profit amount till 01st February, 2022 = 10% of ₹ 10,00,000 = ₹ 1,00,000
Sara’s share of profit till 1st February,2022= 1,00,000 X 3 = ₹ 30,000
10
st
18 Dr. Profit and Loss Appropriation A/c for the year ending on 31 March, 2022 Cr. 3
Particulars Amount (₹) Particulars Amount (₹) (1/2 x6)
To Interest on Capital: By Profit and Loss A/c 1,38,000
Amay’s Current A/c 9,000
Anmol’s Current A/c 4,500
Rohan’s Current A/c 4,500
To Partners’ Current A/c:
Amay 53,000
Anmol 40,000
Rohan 27,000** 1,20,000
1,38,000 1,38,000
** Guarantee met for 9 months.
Or Or
Journal Entry
Date Particulars L.F Debit (₹) Credit (₹) 3
(i) Ajay’s Capital A/c Dr. 52,000 (1+2)
To Manish’s Capital A/c 4,000
To Sachin’s Capital A/c 48,000
(Adjustment entry passed)
Working Notes
Particulars Ajay Manish Sachin Firm
Dr. Cr. Dr. Cr. Dr. Cr. Dr. Cr.
Profits taken 1,00,000 60,000 40,000 2,00,000
back
Interest on 48,000 64,000 88,000 2,00,000
Capital to be
credited
1,00,000 48,000 60,000 64,000 40,000 88,000 2,00,000 2,00,000
52,000 (Dr.) 4,000 (Cr.) 48,000 (Cr.)
19. Books of Anthony Ltd. 3
Journal Entries
Date Particulars L.F Debit (₹) Credit (₹)
(i) Assets A/c Dr. 23,50,000
Goodwill A/c Dr. 50,000
To Liabilities A/c 6,00,000
To Mithoo Ltd. A/c 18,00,000
(Business purchased of Mithoo Ltd.
comprising of Assets and Liabilities)
(ii) Mithoo Ltd. A/c Dr. 18,00,000
Loss on Issue of Debentures A/c Dr. 3,00,000
To 9% Debentures A/c 20,00,000
To Premium on Redemption of 1,00,000
Debentures A/c
(Debentures issued to Mithoo Ltd. at
Discount, redeemable at Premium)
OR
Books of Random Ltd.
Journal Entries
(i) Assets A/c Dr. 45,00,000
To Liabilities A/c 6,40,000
To Mature Ltd. A/c 36,00,000
To Capital Reserve A/c 2,60,00
(Business purchased of Mithoo Ltd.
comprising of Assets and Liabilities)
(ii) Mature Ltd. A/c Dr. 36,00,000
To Bank A/c 1,50,000
To 12% Preference Share Capital A/c 30,00,000
To Securities Premium A/c 4,50,000
(Debentures issued to Mithoo Ltd. at
Discount, redeemable at Premium)
No. of Shares = 34,50,000/115 = 30,000 shares @ 100 + 15 each
20. Journal Entry 3
Sol Date Particulars L.F. Dr. Cr. (1+2)
Amount Amount
1.4.20 Nobita’s Capital A/c Dr. 26,667
To Doremon’s Capital A/c 26,667
(Being goodwill adjusted at the time of
change in profit sharing ratio)
Workings:
(i) Calculation of gaining ratio and sacrificing ratio:
Doremon’s gain or sacrifice = 3/6-2/6= 1/6 (sacrifice)
Shinchan’s gain or sacrifice = 2/6-2/6 =0
Nobita’s gain or sacrifice = 1/6 – 2/6 = -1/6 (gain)
(ii) Calculation of goodwill:
CALCULATIONOF NORMAL PROFIT
Year Ended Profit/ Loss Adjustments Normal Profit

st
31 March,2019 50,000 ---- 50,000
st
31 March,2020 1,20,000 ----- 1,20,000
st
31 March,2021 1,80,000 ----- 1,80,000
st
31 March,2022 (70,000) 50,000-10,000 (30,000)
Total 3,20,000
Goodwill =Average Profits X No. of years Purchase
Average Profits = Total Normal Profits/Number of years
= 3,20,000/4 = 80,000
Goodwill= 80,000 X 2= ₹1,60,000
A’s share of goodwill= 1,60,000 X 1/6= ₹26,667
21. Books of Altaur Ltd. 4
Balance Sheet (Extract) as at ….. (1+3)
Particulars Note No. Current Year (₹) Previous Year (₹)
EQUITY AND LIABILITIES
Shareholders’ Funds
Share Capital 1 63,25,000 Nil
Notes to Accounts
1. Share Capital Amount (₹)
Authorised Share Capital
25,00,000 Equity Shares @ ₹ 10 each 2,50,00,000
1,50,000 9% Preference Shares @ ₹ 100 each 1,50,00,000
4,00,00,000
Issued Share Capital
8,00,000 Equity Shares @ ₹ 10 each 80,00,000
Subscribed Share Capital
(i) Subscribed and Fully Paid up --------
(ii) Subscribed but not Fully Paid up
8,00,000 Equity Shares @ ₹ 8 each 64,00,000
(-) Calls in Arrears** (75,000) 63,25,000
22. Journal Entries in the Books of Charu, Dhwani, Iknoor and Paavni 4
Date Particulars L.F. Dr. Cr.
Amount Amount
(i) Dhwani’s Loan A/c Dr. 50,000
To Bank A/c 42,000
To Realisation A/c 8,000
(Dhwani’s Loan of ₹ 50,000 settled at ₹
42,000)
(ii) Paavni’s Loan A/c Dr. 40,000
(Paavni’s Loan of ₹ 40,000 settled by
giving an unrecorded asset)
(iii) Realisation A/c Dr. 60,000
To Loan to Charu A/c 60,000
(Loan to Charu was settled by payment to
Charu’s brother Loan)
(iv) Iknoor’s Loan A/c Dr. 80,000
To Bank A/c 20,000
(Iknoor’s Loan of ₹ 80,000 and
Machinery was given as part payment and
rest through bank)
23. Books of OTUA Ltd. 6
Journal Entries
(i) Bank A/c Dr. 34,00,000
To Equity Share Application A/c 34,00,000
(Application money received on 85,000
shares)
(ii) Equity Share Application A/c Dr. 34,00,000
To Equity Share Capital A/c 24,00,000
To Equity Share Allotment A/c 6,00,000
To Bank A/c 4,00,000
(Application money transferred to share
capital, share allotment and refunded)
(iii) Equity Share Allotment A/c Dr. 51,00,000
(Allotment due on 60,000 shares with
Premium)
(iv) Bank A/c Dr. 42,00,000
Calls in Arrears A/c Dr. 3,00,000
To Equity Share Allotment A/c 45,00,000
(Allotment received on 56,000 shares)
(v) Equity Share Capital A/c Dr. 4,00,000
Securities Premium A/c Dr. 1,00,000
To Share Forfeited A/c 2,00,000
To Calls in Arrears A/c 3,00,000
(4,000 shares forfeited for non-payment of
allotment money)
Bank A/c Dr. 2,40,000
Share Forfeited A/c Dr. 60,000
(3,000 shares re-issued @ ₹ 80 per share)
To Capital Reserve A/c 90,000
(Gain on re-issue of forfeited shares
transferred to capital reserve)
OR
Books of Vikram Ltd.
Journal Entries
(i)
Date Particulars L.F Debit Credit
(₹) (₹)
(i) Share Capital A/c Dr. 50,000
To Share Forfeited A/c 18,000
To Calls in Arrears A/c 32,000
(5,000 shares forfeited for non-payment of
allotment and call money)
(ii) Bank A/c Dr. 36,000
To Share Capital A/c 30,000
To Securities Premium A/c 6,000
(iii) Share Forfeited A/c Dr. 10,800
(Gain on re-issue of forfeited shares transferred
to capital reserve)
(ii)
Books of Ratan Ltd.
Journal Entries
Date Particular L.F Debit Credit
(₹) (₹)
Share Capital A/c Dr. 21,000
To Share Forfeited A/c 15,000
To Calls in Arrears A/c 6,000
(3,000 shares forfeited for non-payment of first
call money)
Bank A/c Dr. 20,000
To Share Capital A/c 20,000
(Gain on re-issue of forfeited shares transferred
to capital reserve)
24. Dr. Revaluation Account Cr. 6

Particulars Amount Particulars Amount
(₹) (₹)
To Partner’s Capital A/c: Plant and Machinery 14,000
X 19,200 Buildings A/c 11,000
Y 12,800 32,000 Provisions for Doubtful
Debt A/c 7,000
32,000 32,000
Dr. Partner’s Capital Accounts Cr.
Particulars X Y Z Particulars X Y Z
Y’s Current A/c ---- 24,000 ---- Balance b/d 1,19,000 1,12,000 —
Balance c/d 1,68,000 1,12,000 56,000 Bank A/c — — 56,000
Z’s Current A/c 8,400 5,600 —
General Reserve A/c 8,400 5,600 —
Revaluation A/c 19,200 12,800 —
X’s Current A/c 13,000
1,68,000 1,36,000 56,000 1,68,000 1,36,000 56,000
OR
Dr. Revaluation A/c Cr.
Particulars Amount (₹) Particulars Amount (₹)
To Provision for Doubtful Debts 400 By Building A/c 7,000

To Partner’s Capital A/c:
P 3,300
Q 2,200
R 1,100 6,600
7,000 7,000
Dr. Partner’s Capital Accounts Cr.
Particulars P Q R Particulars P Q R
Goodwill A/c 13,500 — 4,500 Balance b/d 15,000 10,000 10,000
Profit & Loss 600 400 200 Revaluation A/c 3,300 2,200 1,100
Cash — 2,800 — Goodwill A/c 9,000 6,000 3,000
Q’s Loan — 15,000 — R’s Current A/c ---- ---- 1,900
P’s Current A/c 1,900 — ----
Balance c/d 11,300 ---- 11,300
27,300 18,200 16,000 27,300 18,200 16,000
25. Journal Entries 6

Date Particulars L.F. Dr. Cr.
Amount Amount
2019 Profit and Loss Suspense A/c Dr. 1,20,000
June 30 To A’s Capital A/c 1,20,000
(Being share of profit provided till
the date of his death)
Dr. A’s Executors A/c Cr.
Date Particulars J.F. Amount Date Particulars J.F. Amount
2019 2019
June 30 Furniture A/c 2,40,000 June 30 A’s Capital A/c 8,40,000
2020 2020
Mar.31 Balance c/d 6,27,000 Mar.31 Interest A/c 27,000
8,67,000 8,67,000
2020 2020
June 30 Bank A/c 2,36,000 Apr. 1 Balance b/d 6,27,000
2021 June 30 Interest A/c 9,000
Mar. 31 Balance c/d 4,18,000 2021
Mar. 31 Interest A/c 18,000
6,54,000 6,54,000
2021 2021
2022 June 30 Interest A/c 6,000
Mar. 31 Balance c/d 2,09,000 2022
Mar. 31 Interest A/c 9,000
4,33,000 4,33,000
2022 2021
June 30 Interest A/c 3,000
2,12,000 2,12,000
26. Books of Health2Wealth Ltd. 6
a) Journal Entries (2+2+2)
(i) Bank A/c Dr. 55,00,000
To Debenture Application and Allotment A/c 55,00,00
(Application money received)
(ii) Debenture Application and Allotment A/c Dr. 55,00,000
Loss on Issue of Debentures A/c Dr. 10,00,000
To 8% Debentures A/c 50,00,000
To Premium on Redemption of Debentures A/c 10,00,000
(Debenture issued at premium, to be redeemed at
premium)
b)
Dr. Loss on Issue of Debentures A/c Cr.
Date Particulars Amount Date Particulars Amount
(₹) (₹)
2021 2022
1 To Premium on 31 By Securities
Oct. Redemption of 10,00,000 Mar. Premium A/c 7,80,000
Debentures By Statement of
Profit and Loss A/c 2,20,000
10,00,000 10,00,000
c) Journal Entries
Date Particulars L.F Debit (₹) Credit
(₹)
31 Debenture Interest A/c Dr. 2,00,000
Mar. To Debentureholders A/c 2,00,000
2022 (Interest due on debentures)
31 Debentureholders A/c Dr. 2,00,000
Mar. To Bank A/c 2,00,000
2022 (Interest paid to debentureholders)
31 Statement of Profit and Loss Dr. 2,00,000
Mar. To Debenture Interest A/c 2,00,000
2022 (Interest on Debentures charged to
Statement of Profit and Loss)
Part B :- Analysis of Financial Statements

Option -I
27. c) Postulates 1
Or
c) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
28. b) 3 times 1
29. d) Subtracted under Operating Activities as Extraordinary Item and Inflow under Investing 1
Activities also
Or
c) Added ₹ 1,30,000 under Operating Activities as Loss on Issue of Debentures written off
and Inflow of ₹ 18,00,000 under Financing Activities.
30. b) ₹ 1,02,000 1
31. Item Heading Sub – Heading 3
(i) Current maturities of long Current Short term borrowings
term debts Liabilities
(ii) Furniture and Fixtures Non – Current Property, Plant and
Assets Equipments and Intangible
Assets
Property, Plant and

Equipments
(iii) Provision for Warranties Non – Current Long Term Provisions
Liabilities
(iv) Income received in advance Current Other Current Liabilities
Liabilities
(v) Capital Advances Non – Current Long Term Loans and
Assets Advances
(vi) Advances recoverable in Current Assets Short Term Loans and

cash within the operation Advances
cycle
32. Variations of Accounting Practice as Limitation is highlighted in the given statement. 3
Two Other Limitations (Any two of the following, with suitable explanation)
(a) Limitations of Accounting Data
(b) Ignores Price-level Changes
(c) Ignore Qualitative or Non-monetary Aspects
(d) Forecasting
33. Return on Investment = EBIT / Capital Employed x 100 4
= 15,00,000/1,20,00,000 x 100 = 12.5%
Capital Employed = 12% Preference Share Capital + Equity Share Capital + Reserves and
Surplus + 15% Debentures + 10% Bank Loan = 30,00,000 + 40,00,000 + 10,00,000 +
20,00,000 + 20,00,000 = ₹ 1,20,00,000
EBIT = Profits after Tax + Tax + Interest = 6,00,000 + 4,00,000 + 5,00,000 = ₹ 15,00,000
Net Assets Turnover ratio = Revenue from Operations/Capital Employed

= 3,60,00,000/1,20,00,000 = 3 times
Or
(i) Ratio will improve. Reason – Capital Employed will decrease and Debt will remain
same
(ii) Ratio will remain same. Reason – Both Debt and Capital Employed will remain
same.
(iii) Ratio will decline. Reason – Debt will decrease but Capital Employed will remain
same.
(iv) Ratio will decline. Reason – Capital Employed will increase but Debt will remain
same.
34. 1. Net Profit before tax and extraordinary items=Net Profit for the year+ Interim Dividend + Loss of 6
assets due to fire + Provision for Tax + Proposed Dividend - Insurance claim received for Loss due (1.5+
to Fire – Tax refund = 7,50,000 + 90,000 + 20,000 + 80,000 + 1,60,000 – 10,000 – 20,000 = ₹ 1.5+
10,70,000 1+
1+
2. Operating profit before working capital changes= Net Profit before tax and extraordinary items 1)
+ Adjustments for non-cash and non-operating expenses and goodwill amortised – Adjustments
for non-cash and non-operating incomes = 10,70,000 + 40,000 + 70,000** – 30,000 = 11,50,000
** Goodwill amortised = Opening goodwill + Goodwill purchased - Closing goodwill
3. Cash flow from Investing Activities = Interest on Non-Current Investments + Insurance claim for
loss of assets due to fire – Purchase of Investments – Purchase of Machinery – Goodwill
purchased = 30,000 + 10,000 – 1,00,000 - 1,60,000 – 20,000 = ₹ (2,40,000) Outflow
4. Cash flow from Financing Activities: Raise of Bank overdraft – Interim Dividend Paid – Final
Dividend paid = 50,000 – 90,000 – 1,60,000 = ₹ (2,00,000) Outflow
5. Closing Cash and Cash Equivalents : Cash in Hand + Investment in Marketable Securities =
2,00,000 + 1,50,000 =3,50,000
Part B :- Computerised Accounting

(Option – II)
27. a) PMT (rate, nper, pv, [fv], [type]) 1

Or
a) Design, Layout, Format
28. d) =AND (C4<10, D4,100) 1
29. a) SUM and AVERAGE 1

Or
c) [Home]
30. (b) Financial 1

31. Types of Accounting Vouchers 3
(i) Contra Vouchers
(ii) Payments Vouchers
(iii) Receipt Vouchers
32. The points to be considered before making investment in a database: (any three) 3
(i) What all data is to be stored in the database?
(ii) Who will capture or modify the data, and how frequently the data will be modified?
(iii) Who will be using the database, and what all tasks will they perform?
(iv) Will the database ( backend) be used by any other frontend application?
(v) Will access to database be given over LAN/ Internet, and for what purposes?
(vi) What level of hardware and operating system is available?
33. Features of computerized accounting system: 4
(i) Simple and integrated.
(ii) Transparency and control.
(iii) Accuracy and speed.
(iv) Scalability.
(v) Reliability
Or
Uses of conditional formatting:
(i) It helps in making needed information highlighted.
(ii) It changes the appearance of cells ranges.
(iii) Colour scale may be used to highlight cells .
(iv) useful in making decision making.
34. Two basic methods of charging depreciation are: 6
Straight line method : This method calculates fixed amount of depreciation every year which is
calculated keeping in view the useful life of assets and its salvage value at the end of its useful life.
Written down value method: This method uses current book value of the asset for computing the
amount of depreciation for the next period. It is also known as declining balance method..
Differences:
1. Equal amount of depreciation is charged in straight line method. Amount of depreciation
goes on decreasing every year in written down value method.
2. Depreciation is charged on original cost in straight line method. The amount is calculated
on the book value every year.
3. In straight line method the value of asset can come to zero but in written down value
method this can never be zero.
4. Generally rate of depreciation is low in case of straight line method but it is kept high in
case of written down value method.
5. It is suitable for assets in which repair charges are less and the possibility of obsolescence is
less. It is suitable for the assets which become obsolete due to changes in technology.
MARKING SCHEME
BUSINESS STUDIES
2022-23
Answers
Marks
b) Departmentalization
1 1
a) Uncertainty
2 1
d) Heads do not get training for top management positions.

3 1
a) Technological and Social

4 1
b) Management creates a dynamic organization

5 1
6 a) Internet connectivity is a prerequisite 1
c) It helps in tapping useful resources

7 1
b) Social
8 1
c) It is both forward looking and backward looking

9 1
c) Controlling
10 1
a) Organization structure
11 1
12 d) Both the statements are false 1

(a) (ii), (iii), (i)
13 1
b) Unique order code

14 1
d) physical distribution
15 1
( C )Securities Exchange Board of India performs the regulatory function of

16 controlling insider trading and imposing penalties for such practices. 1
d ).Societal Marketing concept

17 1
18 (a) Utility and demand of the product 1
a) It is a personal form of communication

19 1
d). (ii);(iii),(iv);(i)
20 1
Coordination
21 The process by which a manager synchronizes the activities of different 1
departments is known as coordination.
Coordination is the force that binds all the other functions of management. It (1X2)
is the common thread that runs through all activities. It is implicit and inherent
in all functions of an organization.
Merits of external sources: (Any three)
22 1. Qualified personnel: By using external sources of recruitment, the
management can attract qualified and trained people to apply for
vacant jobs in the organization. (1X3=3)
2. Wider choice: When vacancies are advertised wisely, a large number of
applicants from outside the organization can apply. The management ½ mark for the
has a wider choice while selecting the people for employment. heading and ½
3. Fresh Talent: The present employees may be insufficient or they may for the
not fulfill the specifications of the jobs to be filled. External explanation
recruitment provides wider choice and brings new blood in the
organization.
4. Competitive spirit: If a company taps external sources, the existing
sources, the existing staff will have to compete with the outsiders.
They will work harder to show better performance.
Critical point control: It is neither economical nor easy to keep a check on each
23 and every activity in an organization. (2+1 = 3)
Control should therefore focus on key result areas which are critical to the
success of an organization.
These KRAs are set as the critical points. If anything goes wrong at the critical
points, the entire organization suffers.
For instance, in a manufacturing organization, an increase of 5% in the labour
cost may be more troublesome than a 15% increase in postal charges.
OR
Management by Exception: Management by exception, which is often referred

to as control by exception, is an important principle of management control
based on the belief that an attempt to control everything results in controlling (2+1=3)
nothing.
Thus, only significant deviations which go beyond the permissible limit should
be brought to the notice of the management.
For instance, if the plans lay down 2% increase in labour cost as an acceptable
range of deviation in a manufacturing organization, only an increase in labour
cost beyond 2% should be brought to the notice of the management. However,
in case of major deviation from the standard (say, 5%), the matter has to
receive immediate action of management on a priority basis.
24 Following are the objectives of SEBI : ( any three)
1. To regulate stock exchanges and the securities industry to promote (1x3)

their orderly functioning
2. To protect the rights and interests of investors, particularly individual 1 mark for each
investors and to guide and educate them. correct
3. To prevent trading malpractices and achieve a balance between self- statement.
regulation by the securities industry and its statutory regulation.
4. To regulate and develop a code of conduct and fair practices by
intermediaries like brokers, merchant bankers etc., with a view to
making them competitive and professional.
OR
Following are the functions of stock exchange: (any three)
(i) Providing liquidity and marketability to existing securities.
(ii) Pricing of securities on the stock exchange is determined by the forces of (1x3)
demand and supply.
1 mark for each
(iii) Safety of transaction is ensured as membership of a stock exchange is well correct
regulated and its dealings are well defined. statement.
(iv) Contributes to economic growth through the process of disinvestment and

reinvestment.
(v) Spreading of equity cult by ensuring wider ownership by way of regulating

new issues.
(vi) Providing scope for speculation by ensuring speculative activity within the
provisions of law for it to take place in a restricted and controlled manner.
The benefits of training to an organization are as follows:(any four) (1X4=4)

25 (i) Training is a systematic learning,
Always better than hit and trial methods which lead to wastage of efforts and
money?
(ii) It enhances employee productivity both in terms of quantity and quality,
leading to higher profits.
(iii) Training equips the future manager who can take over in case of
emergency.
(iv)Training increases employee morale and reduces absenteeism and
employee turnover.
(v) It helps in obtaining an effective response to a fast changing environment –
technological and economic.
OR
1
Selection test
Types of tests are: ( any three)

a. Intelligence test is one of the important psychological tests used to
measure the level of intelligence quotient of an individual and is an
indicator of a person’s ability or the ability to make decisions and
judgments. (1X3=3)
b. Aptitude test is a measure of an individual's potential for learning new
skills and indicates the person’s capacity to develop.
c. Personality tests provide clues to a person’s emotions, her reactions,
maturity, and value system and probe the overall personality.
d. Trade tests measure the existing skills of the individual, level of
knowledge and proficiency in the area of professions or technical
training.
e. Interest tests are used to know the pattern of interests or involvement
of a person.
Semantic barriers (Any four):

26 1. Sometimes intended meaning may not be conveyed by a manager to (1x4=4)
his subordinates due to badly expressed messages which may be on
account of inadequate vocabulary, usage of wrong works, omission of 1 mark for each
needed works, etc. correct
2. A word may have different meanings and the receiver has to perceive statement
one such meaning for the word used by the communicator.
3. If the translator is not proficient with both the languages, mistakes
may creep in causing different meanings to communication.
4. Some communications may have certain assumptions which are
subject to different interpretations.
5. It is usually found that specialists use technical jargon while explaining
to persons who are not specialists in the concerned field and therefore
they may not understand the actual meaning of many words.
6. If there is no match between what is said and what is expressed in
body movements, communications may be wrongly perceived.
OR
Organizational barriers (Any four):
1. If organizational policy either explicit or implicit is not supportive to
free flow of communication it may hamper effectiveness of
communications.
2. Rigid rules and regulations, cumbersome procedures may be a hurdle
(1X4=4)
to communication, as communications through prescribed channels
may result in delays.
1 mark for each
3. Status of superior may create psychological distance between him and
correct
his subordinates.
statement
4. Complexity in the organization caused by the number of managerial
levels may delay and distort the communication as the number of
filtering points is more.
5. If facilities like frequent meetings, suggestion box, and complaint box,
social and cultural gathering, transparency in operations, etc, for
smooth, clear and timely communications are not provided,
communications may be hampered.
27 Incentives being given by the organization to the employees are:
1. Job enrichment: Job enrichment is concerned with designing jobs that (1X4=4)
include greater variety of work content, require higher level of
knowledge and skill; give workers more autonomy and responsibility; ½ mark for the
and provide opportunity for personal growth and a meaningful work heading and ½
experience. mark for the
2. Job security: Employees want their jobs to be secure. They want explanation
certain stability about future income and work so that they do not feel
worried about these aspects and work with greater zeal.
3. Perquisites: In many companies perquisites and fringe benefits are
offered such as car allowance, housing, medical aid and education to
the children, etc., over and above the salary.
4. Co-partnership/stock option: Under these incentive schemes,
employees are offered company shares at a set price which is lower
than market price. Sometimes, management may allot shares in line of
various incentives payable in cash.
28 Following are the factors affecting capital structure of a company : (Any (1X4=4)
four)
1 mark for each
1. Size of the projected Cash flows must be considered before correct
borrowing. statement
2. Interest Coverage Ratio refers to the number of times earnings before
interest and taxes of a company covers the interest obligation.
3. Debt Service Coverage Ratio takes care of the deficiencies referred to
in the interest coverage ratio.
4. More debt can be used if debt can be raised at a lower rate
5. A higher Tax Rate makes debt relatively cheaper and increases its
attraction vis-a-vis equity.
6. Process of raising resources also involves some cost which may affect
the choice between debt and equity and hence capital structure.
7. If a firm’s business risk is lower, its capacity to use debt is higher and
vice versa.
8. To maintain flexibility the firm must maintain some borrowing power
to take care of unforeseen circumstances.
9. Capital Structure of other companies is a useful guideline in the capital
structure planning.
10. Stock Market Conditions often affect the choice between debt and
equity.
11. Every company operates within a regulatory framework provided by
the law.
12. Control as a factor also influences the choice between debt and equity
especially in companies in which the current holding of management is
on a lower side.
13. If the ROI of the company is higher, it can choose to use trading on
equity to increase its EPS.
14. When a company increases debt, the financial risk faced by the equity
shareholders increases consequently their desired rate of return may
increase.
OR
Factors affecting financing decision: (Any four)
1. A prudent financial manager would normally opt for a source which is

the cheapest.
2. The risk associated with each of the sources is different.
3. Higher the floatation cost, less attractive the source.
4. A stronger cash flow position may make debt financing more viable
than funding through equity.
5. If a business has high fixed operating costs, it must reduce fixed
financing costs.
6. Issues of more equity may lead to dilution of management’s control
over the business.
7. Health of the capital market may also affect the choice of source of
funds.
Earnings per share = ₹ 35

29 3
EPS = Earning after tax / No.of equity shares
35= Earning after tax / 70,000

Earning after tax = ₹ 24,50,000
Interest= 50,00,000 x7/100 = ₹. 3,50,0000

Let the Earning before tax (EBT) = x
EBT- Tax= EAT
X-0.30 x= 24,50,000
0.70 x = 24,50,000
x= 24,50,000/0.70
x= 35,00,000
Earning before tax = ₹. 35,00,000
EBIT = Earning before tax + Interest

= 35,00,000 + 3,50,000
= ₹. 38,50,000
ROI= EBIt/total Investment × 100= 38,50,000 / 1,20,00,000 × 100 = 32.08%
As ROI (32.08%) > Rate of interest (7%). The company can choose to use
trading on equity to increase its EPS. The finance manager was justified in 1
making this recommendation.
A consumer should keep in mind the following responsibilities while
30 purchasing, using and consuming goods and services (Any four)—
(i) Be aware about various goods and services available in the market so that
an intelligent and wise choice can be made.
(ii) Buy only standardized goods as they provide quality assurance. Thus, look
for ISI mark on electrical goods, FPO mark on food products, Hallmark on
jewelry, etc.
(iii) Learn about the risks associated with products and services, follow
manufacturer’s instructions and use the products safely. (1x4=4)
(iv) Read labels carefully so as to have information about prices, net weight,
manufacturing and expiry dates, etc.
(v) Assert yourself to ensure that you get a fair deal.
(vi) Be honest in your dealings. Choose only from legal goods and services and
discourage unscrupulous practices like black-marketing, hoarding, etc.
(viii) File a complaint in an appropriate consumer forum in case of a

shortcoming in the quality of goods purchased or services availed. Do not fail
to take an action even when the amount involved is small.
(ix) Form consumer societies which would play an active part in educating
consumers and safeguarding their interests.
(x) Respect the environment. Avoid waste, littering and contributing to

pollution.
Techniques of Scientific Management given by F.W.Taylor: (3X2=6)
31
Method Study
The objective of method study is to find out one best way of doing the job.
There are various methods of doing the job. To determine the best way there
are several parameters. Right from procurement of raw materials till the final
product is delivered to the customer every activity is part of method study.
Taylor devised the concept of assembly line by using method study. Ford
Motor
Company used this concept very successfully. Even now auto companies are
using it.
The objective of the whole exercise is to minimize the cost of production and
maximize the quality and satisfaction of the customer. For this purpose many
techniques like process charts and operations research etc. are used.
For designing a car, the assembly line production would entail deciding the
sequence of operations, place for men, machines and raw materials etc. All
this is part of method study.
(b) Functional foremanship is an extension of the principle of division of work

and specialization to the shop floor. Each worker will have to take orders from
these eight foremen in the related process or function of production. Foremen
should have intelligence, education, tact, grit, judgment, special knowledge,
manual dexterity, and energy, honesty and good health. Since all these
qualities could not be found in a single person, Taylor proposed eight
specialists. Each specialist is to be assigned work according to her/his qualities.
For example, those with technical mastery, intelligence and grit may be given
planning work. Those with energy and good health may be assigned execution
work
( c ) Standardization refers to the process of setting standards for every

business activity; it can be standardization of process, raw material, time,
product, machinery, methods or working conditions. These standards are the
benchmarks, which must be adhered to during production. The Objective Of
(i) To reduce a given line or product to fixed types, sizes and characteristics.
(ii) To establish interchangeability of manufactured parts and products.
(iii) To establish standards of excellence and quality in materials.
(iv) To establish standards of performance of men and machines
(d) Taylor was a strong advocate of a piece wage system. He wanted to

differentiate between efficient and inefficient workers. The standard time and
other parameters should be determined on the basis of the work- study
discussed above. The workers can then be classified as efficient or inefficient
on the basis of these standards. He wanted to reward efficient workers. So he
introduced different rates of wage payment for those who performed above (3X2=6)
standard and for those who performed below standard.
OR
Principles of Management given by Henry Fayol:
(a)Unity of Command: According to Fayol there should be one and only one
boss for every individual employee. If an employee gets orders from two
superiors at the same time the principle of unity of command is violated. The
principle of unity of command states that each participant in a formal
organization should receive orders from and be responsible to only one
superior. Fayol gave a lot of importance to this principle. He felt that if this
principle is violated “authority is undermined; discipline is in jeopardy, order
disturbed and stability threatened”. The principle resembles military
organization. Dual subordination should be avoided. This is to prevent
confusion regarding tasks to be done. Suppose a sales person is asked to clinch
a deal with a buyer and is allowed to give a 10% discount by the marketing
manager. But the finance department tells her/ him not to offer more than a
5% discount. Now there is no unity of command. This can be avoided if there is
coordination between various departments.
b) Equity: Good sense and experience are needed to ensure fairness to all
employees, who should be treated as fairly as possible,” according to Fayol.
This principle emphasizes kindliness and justice in the behavior of managers
towards workers. This will ensure loyalty and devotion. Fayol does not rule out
use of force sometimes. Rather he says that lazy personnel should be dealt
with sternly to send the message that everyone is equal in the eyes of the
management. There should be no discrimination against anyone on account of
sex, religion, language, caste, belief or nationality etc. In practice we can
observe that now a days in multinational corporations people of various
nationalities work together in a discrimination free environment. Equal
opportunities are available for everyone in such companies to rise.
( c )Remuneration of Employees: The overall pay and compensation should be
fair to both employees and the organization. The employees should be paid
fair wages, which should give them at least a reasonable standard of living. At
the same time it should be within the paying capacity of the company. In other
words, remuneration should be just and equitable. This will ensure a congenial
atmosphere and good relations between workers and management.
Consequently, the working of the company would be smooth.
(d) Initiative: Workers should be encouraged to develop and carry out their
plans for improvements according to Fayol. Initiative means taking the first
step with self-motivation. It is thinking out and executing the plan. It is one of
the traits of an intelligent person. Initiative should be encouraged. But it does
not mean going against the established practices of the company for the sake
of being different. A good company should have an employee suggestion
system whereby initiative/suggestions which result in substantial cost/time
reduction should be
32 Steps in the process of planning to be followed by a manager before (2X3=6)
performing the step of evaluation of alternatives:
½ mark for
Setting Objectives: The first and foremost step is setting objectives. Every heading and 1½
organization must have certain objectives. Objectives may be set for the entire mark for the
organization and each department or unit within the organization. Objectives explanation
or goals specify what the organization wants to achieve. It could mean an
increase in sales by 20% which could be the objective of the entire
organization. How all departments would contribute to the organizational
goals is the plan that is to be drawn up. Objectives should be stated clearly for
all departments, units and employees. They give direction to all departments.
Departments/ units then need to set their own objectives within the broad
framework of the organization’s philosophy. Objectives have to percolate
down to each unit and employees at all levels. At the same time, managers
must contribute ideas and participate in the objective setting process. They
must also understand how their actions contribute to achieving objectives. If
the end result is clear it becomes easier to work towards the goal.
(ii) Developing Premises: Planning is concerned with the future which is

uncertain and every planner is using conjecture about what might happen in
future. Therefore, the manager is required to make certain assumptions about
the future. These assumptions are called premises. Assumptions are the base
material upon which plans are to be drawn. The base material may be in the
form of forecasts, existing plans or any past information about policies. The
premises or assumptions must be the same for all and there should be total
agreement on them. All managers involved in planning should be familiar with
and use the same assumptions. For example, forecasting is important in
developing premises as it is a technique of gathering information. Forecasts
can be made about the demand for a particular product, policy change,
interest rates, prices of capital goods, tax rates etc. Accurate forecasts
therefore become essential for successful plans.
(iii) Identifying alternative courses of action: Once objectives are set,

assumptions are made. Then the next step would be to act upon them. There
may be many ways to act and achieve objectives. All the alternative courses of
action should be identified. The course of action which may be taken could be
either routine or innovative. An innovative course may be adopted by involving
more people and sharing their ideas. If the project is important, then more (2X3=6)
alternatives should be generated and thoroughly discussed amongst the
members of the organization. ½ mark for
heading and 1½
OR mark for the
explanation
The next three steps are :
i) Identifying alternative courses of action: Once objectives are set,

assumptions are made. Then the next step would be to act upon them. There
may be many ways to act and achieve objectives. All the alternative courses of
action should be identified. The course of action which may be taken could be
either routine or innovative. An innovative course may be adopted by involving
more people and sharing their ideas. If the project is important, then more
alternatives should be generated and thoroughly discussed amongst the
members of the organization.
ii) Evaluating alternative courses: The next step is to weigh the pros and cons
of each alternative. Each course will have many variables which have to be
weighed against each other. The positive and negative aspects of each
proposal need to be evaluated in the light of the objective to be achieved. In
financial plans, for example, the risk‐return trade‐off is very common. The
more risky the investment, the higher the returns it is likely to give. To
evaluate such proposals detailed calculations of earnings, earnings per share,
interest, taxes, dividends are made and decisions taken. Accurate forecasts in
conditions of certainty/uncertainty then become vital assumptions for these
proposals. Alternatives are evaluated in the light of their feasibility and
consequences.
(iii) Selecting an alternative: This is the real point of decision making. The best
plan has to be adopted and implemented. The ideal plan, of course, would be
the most feasible, profitable and with least negative consequences. Most plans
may not always be subjected to a mathematical analysis. In such cases,
subjectivity and the manager’s experience, judgment and at times, intuition
play an important part in selecting the most viable alternative. Sometimes, a
combination of plans may be selected instead of one best course. The manager
will have to apply permutations and combinations and select the best possible
course of action.
Importance of Decentralization: (11/2X4=6)

33
1. “Response does not take time”. Quick decision making- In a (½ mark for
decentralized organization since decisions are taken at levels which are quoting+½
nearest to the point of action and there is no requirement for mark for
approvals from many levels, the process is much faster. identification+½
2. “Who can get a chance to prove their abilities”. Develops managerial mark for
talent for the future- Decentralization gives managers a chance to explaining)
prove their abilities and creates a reservoir of qualified manpower that
can be considered to fill up more challenging positions through
promotion.
3. “Identifying those executives who have the necessary potential to
become dynamic leaders”. Develops initiative among subordinates-
Decentralization helps to promote self-reliance and confidence
amongst the subordinates. It also keeps them in a state wherein they
are constantly challenged and have to develop solutions for the
various problems they encounter.
4. “This makes it possible to evaluate performance at each level and each
department can be individually held accountable for their results.”
Better control- Feedback from levels helps to analyze variances and
improve operations.
34 Functions of marketing, apart from the ones Choco Ltd is already performing: (1½ X 4 =6)
(Any four)
(½ mark for
1. Gathering and analyzing market information: This is necessary to heading and 1
identify the needs of the customers and make various decisions for the mark for the
successful marketing of the products and services. This is important for explanation)
making an analysis of the available opportunities and threats as well as
strengths and weaknesses of the organization and help in deciding
what opportunities can best be pursued by it.
2. Product designing and development: The design of the product
contributes to making the product attractive to the target customers.
A good design can improve performance of a product and give it a
competitive advantage in the market.
3. Standardization: Standardization refers to producing goods of
predetermined specifications which help in achieving uniformity and
consistency in the output
4. Packaging and labeling- Packaging refers to designing and developing
the package for the products. Labeling refers to designing and
developing the label to be put on the product.
5. Transportation- Transportation involves physical movement of goods
from one place to another. As generally the users of products
particularly consumer products are wide spread and geographically
separated from the place where they are produced.
6. Storage and warehousing- In order to maintain smooth flow of

products in the market, there is a need for proper storage of the
products. Further there is need for storage of adequate stock of goods
to protect against unavoidable delays in delivery or to meet out
contingencies in the demand. Ram Kumar the CEO of Sabarmati
Enterprises in a meeting with the middle management of the company
advised that the personal goals of the people should be reconciled
with the organizational objectives for harmony in the organization.
Briefly explain the objective of management that he was referring to.

EnglishCore-MS Merged

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

EnglishCore-MS Merged

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

MARKING SCHEME - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2022-23)

ECONOMICS (030) CLASS 12

Q.NO. SECTION A – MACRO ECONOMICS MARKS

1 c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true 1

2 d) Outflow of US Dollars from India will rise. 1

4 c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true 1

5 d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false 1

7 a) 1,2 and 3 are correct 1

8 a) Improvement in balance of trade 1

9 d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. 1

11 Value of Output (in ₹) Intermediate Consumption (in ₹) Value Addition (in ₹)

13 Given, MPC = 0.75, ΔY = ₹ 2,000 Crore

SECTION B – INDIAN ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

18 b) Change in composition of India’s foreign trade 1

23 c). Both statements 1 and 2 are true 1

24 d). Both statements 1 and 2 are false 1

25 d). Guarding green cover 1

26 c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. 1

27 d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. 1

31 a) Indian Oil Corporation Limited. 1

Section A: READING SKILLS (20 marks)

Select from the following:

True - if the statement agrees with the information

Value Points Guidance

In order to find out if...

iv. Complete the sentence based on the following statement:

We can say this because .

Value Points Guidance

vi. The 2014 study attempts to understand student leadership by focussing on

Value Points Guidance

vii. The lessons for ‘Individual competencies’ had a range of responses.

ix. Complete the sentence appropriately with one/ two words.

Value Points Guidance

III SECTION B – CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS

½ mark – Limited display of listed parameters.

½ mark – Limited display of listed parameters.

½ mark – Limited display of listed parameters.

½ mark – Limited display of listed parameters.

½ mark – Limited display of listed parameters.

i. What is the tone of the poet in the above lines?

Value Points Guidance

greedy good doers: alliteration:: ................................... oxymoron

A. (1) is true but (2) is false.

Value Points Guidance

ii. What does the phrase ‘a bower quiet’ indicate?

iii. The benefits of a thing of beauty for humans include .

iv. Answer in ONE WORD.

Value Points Guidance

A. (1) can be inferred from the extract but (2) cannot.

vi. Which of the following is an apt title for the extract?

i. List the playwright’s purpose of using ellipses (…) in this extract.

Value Points Guidance

i. Complete the sentence appropriately, with reference to the extract.

The writer refers to the educational opportunities as ‘inspiring’ because .

ii. Which of the following would NOT be ‘a life changing experience’?

i. ‘Stages of worldly experience’ in the given context would refer to .

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

Value Points Guidance

[accept - negatively impacts OR weakens them/ their aura]

A. (1) Can be inferred from the extract but (2) cannot.

iv. Rationalise, to support the given opinion:

Interview may be scripted OR People may make false

Deduct ½ mark from the overall score if the