CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE BOARD EXAMINATION d.

Infanticide
QUESTIONS COMPILATION 7. What if Manuel killed Grace?

Case Situation:
Bong surreptitiously went into the premises of
Esco. Not knowing that Esco was inside the house, he
burned the house that resulted also to the death of Esco.
1. Bong is liable of what crime?
a. Arson
b. Murder
c. Homicide
d. Arson with Murder
2. However if Bong knew that Esco was inside the
house and his purpose of burning is to kill Esco.What
crime committed by Bong?
a. Arson
b. Murder
c. Homicide
d. Arson with Murder
Case Situation:
Marcos and Chiz conspired to kill Llanes. They
mutually helped one another in abducting Llanes. Before
they shoot Llanes, Marcos intentionally cut off his right
ear.
3. What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Homicide with Mutilation
d. Murder with serious physical injur
4. What if Marcos and Chiz did not cut off the right ear,
instead they soak Llanes into a boiling water. What
are did they commit?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Homicide with Mutilation
d. Murder with serious
5. What if Marcos and Chiz did not conspired to kill
Llanes but they just saw the latter while walking and
intentionally they shoot which resulted to the death
of Llanes. What crime did they commit?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Frustrated homicide
d. Attempted murder
Case Situation:
Grace and Jomar begot a child named
Manuel without being married. Grace and Jomar
parted their ways. Grace got married to Bong,
however, they were not blessed to have a child
of their own, and thus, they had legally adopted
Manuel. One afternoon, Manuel killed Jomar
while the latter was sleeping.
6. What crime committed by Manuel?
a. Parricide
b. Homicide
c. Murder
b. Homicide
a. Parricide c. Murder
d. Infanticide
Case Situation:
Allan and Grace while walking towards
home were approached by Lenie. The latter who
is armed with a gun declared hold-up while
poking the said gun upon Allan. Lenie demanded
for their wallet and gave the same to him for fear
of their lives. Lenie with intent to gain, employed
intimidation in taking the personal property of
Allan and Grace.
8. What crime committed by Lenie?
a. Theft
b. snatching
c. Robbery
d. Grave Threat
Case Situation:
Manuel entered the house of Lenie by
breaking the main door. Once inside, Manuel
with intent to gain took the LCD Television.
9. Manuel is liable of what crime?
a. Robbery
b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief
d. snatchig
10. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the
main door without breaking it since it was left
unlocked and thereafter took the LCD Television of
Lenie. Manuel is liable of a crime of.
a. Robbery
b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief
d. snatching
11. What if Manuel entered the house through the main
door without breaking it since it was left opened and
thereafter took the LCD Television, however, when
he is supposed to leave, Lenie arrived, thus Manuel
was forced to pass at the back door which was locked
by breaking it. Manuel is liable of what crime?
a. Robbery
b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief
d. snatching
12. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the
main door by opening it with the use of an ATM card
to open the door lock without breaking it. Upon
entry he took the LCD Television. Manuel is liable of
a crime of?

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 a. Robbery c. inadmissible
b. Theft d. admissible
c. Malicious mischief 20. t is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be
d. Robbery with Theft proved. It is the essential facts constituting the
Case Situation: plaintiff’s cause of action?
The pig of Mang Rodrigo entered in the a. Factum probandum
farm of Manuel and destroyed the mongo crop b. Evidence
of the latter. As a consequence, Mang Rodrigo c. factum probans
got furious, thus, he hacked the pig with a bolo. d. factum prubans
The pig dies as a result. Case Situation:
13. What crime is committed by Mang Rodrigo? Alden got married to Maine Mendoza. After 4years from
of being husband and wife, they were not blessed with a
a. theft child. Alden had an illicit relation with Ms. Pastillas. Ang
b. property damaged a neighbor), who gave birth to child (C). Maine learned
c. malicious mischief about Alden’s relation with Ms. Pastillas. To cover their
d. robbery illicit relation, Alden intentionally killed his illegitimate
14. Supposing that after killing the pig, Mang Rodrigo infant at its 72 hours age.
makes use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator 21. For what crime Alden can be charged?
a. homicide b. parricide
and cooked some. What crime committed by Mang
c. murder d. infanticide
Rodrigo? 22. What if it is Maine who killed the infant?
a. theft a. homicide b. parricide
b. property damaged c. murder d. infanticide
c. malicious mischief 23. What if it is the father of Alden who killed the infant?
d. robbery a. homicide b. parricide
15. Supposed it was a Carabao that destroyed the c. murder d. infanticide
24. What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What
mongo crops of Manuel. What crime committed by
crime is committed by Alden, Maine or the father of
Manuel? Alden?
a. theft a. homicide b. parricide
b. malicious mischief c. murder d. infanticide
c. Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law Case Situation:
d. robbery Lola A, Lola B and Lola C robbed a bank. Lola A
and B entered the bank and took all the money from the
16. Supposed after killing the Carabao Mang Rodrigo
teller while Lola C remains outside the bank and served
makes use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator as look-out.
and cooked some, what crime committed by Mang 25. Lola A is liable for a crime as?
Rodrigo? a. principal by inducement
a. theft b.principal by direct participation
b. malicious mischief c. principal by indispensable cooperation
c.Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law d.principal
26. Lola B is liable for a crime as?
d. robbery
a. principal by inducement
17. Validity of Search Warrant b.principal by direct participation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
a. when the judge sign
d.principal
b. upon serve 27. Lola C is liable for a crime as?
c. from the date indicated therein a. principal by inducement
d. from the date receive by officer b.principal by direct participation
18. Quantum of proof required whether to file an c. principal by indispensable cooperation
information or complaint in court? d.principal
28. What if Lola C who actually entered the bank and
a. probable cause
took all the money from the teller?
b. personal knowledge
a. principal by inducement
c. substancial b.principal by direct participation
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt c. principal by indispensable cooperation
19. If the search is illegal the things seized is? d.principal
a. competent 29. What if Lola A who was outside the bank and served
b. irrelevant as look-out??

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 a. principal by inducement 36. A and B one neighbors who case to play “tako” ane
b.principal by direct participation day, A persuaded B to steal the bike of C.In the study
c. principal by indispensable cooperation of criminal law what is the term used for it?
d.principal a. Conspiracy
Case Situation: b. Proposal
Alden induces Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice to kill c. Entrapment
Aldub who is living on an island far from the town, in d. Instigation
consideration of the amount of 500,000.00. Lola Dora, te 37. In tumultuous affray ender Article 251 of the RPC
owner of the only boat in the place agreed to transport how person may are included?
Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice and actually transported a. 3
them in a place in consideration of 10,000.00,Lola Dora b. 8
agreed despite knowing the criminal purpose of Yaya c. 4
Dub,Pastillas and Vice. Upon reaching the place, Yaya d. 6
Dub held the hands of Aldub while Pastillas stabs 38. What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal
Yayadub and as a result, Aldub dies. Viceremains as look- case?
out. a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
30. Alden is liable for a crime as? c. Probable cause
a. principal by inducement d. Substantial Evidence
b.principal by direct participation 39. In Revise Penal Code, the intentional or malicious
c. principal by indispensable cooperation destruction of property by means of fire is called.
d.principal a. Arson
31. Yaya Dub is also liable for a crime as? b. Combustion
a. principal by inducement c. Disposition
b.principal by direct participation d. Murder
c. principal by indispensable cooperation 40. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from
d.principal among citizens of
32. Vice Pastillas so liable for a crime as? a. Good repute and probity
a. principal by inducement
b. High educational level
b.principal by direct participation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation c. Good religious background
d.principal d. High social standing
33. Lola Dora as the owner of the only boat is liable of a 41. Which of the following procedures should be
crime as? observed in handling drug addicts who are
a. principal by inducement incarcerated?
b.principal by direct participation 1.They should be segrageted especially during
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
the withdrawal period
d.principal
34. What if there are several boats available to 2.They should be closely supervised to prevent
transport, Lola Dora is liable of a crime as? attempts to commit suicide or
a. principal self-mutilation
b.accessories 3.They should not be administered
c. accomplice sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a
d.principal by indispensable cooperation physician
35. What if Pastillas just bury the cadaver of Aldub and
4.They should be transferred to mental
he has knowledge about the crime Pastillas is liable
of a crime as? institution of proper psychiatric treatment
a. principal a. 2, 3 and 4
b.accessories b. 3, 4 and 1
c. accomplice c. 4, 1 and 2
d.principal by indispensable cooperation d. 1, 2 and 3
26. This theory views crime and delinquency as a
42. Which of the following is not an element of malicious
result of the frustration and anger people
experience over their inability to achieve mischief?
legitimate social and financial success. a. The damage was caused inadvertently
a. strain theory b. The damage caused does not fall with the
b. psychological theories provisions of arson
c. differential association theory c. The offender has caused damage to the
d. labeling theory property of another
d. The damage was caused deliberately

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43. In special law, the imposed penalty is two years to c. Prison's Interpersonal relations
seven years. Applying the indeterminate sentence law, d. Prison industry
how many years? 50. A has grudge against B. He went to the house of B and
a. 1 look for the latter. However, B was on vacation in the
b. 2 province. In his spite, he destroyed the door of B. Later
c. 7 on, he noticed that the door could be useful. So, he
d. 8 brought it to his house. What crime was committed?
44. George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, was a. Robbery
arrested at the NAIA arrival lounge and found b. Maliscious Mischief
positive for opium, a dangerous drug. When c. Attempted Qualified Trespass to Dwelling
arrested, 15 grams of cocaine were found in his d. Theft
bagpack. What offense would you charge George 51. What do you call the court that co-equal to the Court of
under R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Appeals?
Act)? a. Sandiganbayan
a. Importation of dangerous drugs. b. Court of first instance
b. Possession of dangerous drugs. c. Supreme court
c. Use and possession of dangerous drugs d. Tanodbayan
d. Use of dangerous drugs 52. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what
45. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court portion of the sentence must have been served by a
in the appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held petitioner-prisoner?
to be highly a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his
a. Accepted indeterminate sentence
b. Determinate b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his
c. Sensitive indeterminate sentence
d. Unreliable c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his
46. In the Criminal Law, the Court personnel next in rank to indeterminate sentence
the presiding judge in the lower court is the Branch d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his
Clerk of Court. In the absence of the judge, the branch indeterminate sentence
clerk of court may hear simple case of unjust vexation. 53. Is there a complex crime when crime is committed to
a. Possible conceal another crime? 2 CRIMES
b. No a. It depends
c. It depends b. No
d. Yes c. Partially
47. Who among the following can apply for release under d. Yes
the Law on Recognizance? 54. What is the primary purpose of the pre-sentence
a. One who is charged with an offense whose investigation?
penalty is three (3) years and above a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate
b. One who is charged with an offense whose sentence of the offender
penalty is Twelve (12) months and above b. To exonerate the offender
c. One who is charged with an offense whose c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend
penalty is not morethan Six (6) months himself
d. One who is charged with an offense whose d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case
penalty is Six (6) months and above 55. The following are rights of a witness under the rules of
48. A hostile witness is one whose testimony is not court EXCEPT:
favorable to the cause of the party who called him as a a. To be examine only as to matters pertinent to
witness. Can leading question be asked? the issue
a. It depends b. Not to give an answer which will tend to
b. No subject him to a penaly of an offense
c. Partially c. To remain silent
d. Yes d. To be protected from irrelevant questions
49. What is the function responsibility of prison guards? 56. What is meant by the concept of probation which is
a. Inmates health from the latin word "probitio" and had historical roots
b. Prison security in the pratice of judicial repreive?
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 a. Live with integrity aggravating circumstance will you use to those who
b. Testing period consfired in the killing?
c. Walk with faith a. Abused of Superior Strength
d. Out of the institution b. Conspiracy
57. In the study of crime, what is the distinction, if any, c. Intimidation
between a felony and a crime? d. Treachery
a. Crime and felony are the same 63. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides
b. Crime covers felonies undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer.
c. No distinction whatsoever However, control over the probationer and probation
d. The source of felony is a RPC program is exercised by
58. Mayor saw A and B boxing each other. He approached a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she
the two and identified himself as a mayor and attempted resides
to pacify them whereupon B attacked mayor. C, a b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
bystander came to aid of the Mayor. Upon seeing C c. The Secretary of Justice
helping the mayor, A attacked C. What crime was d. The Court who place him on probation
committed by the one who attacked C? 64. According to the control theory, crime and delinquency
a. Direct assault result with an individual bond to _____________ is
b. Indirect assault weak and broken.
c. None a. Behavior
d. Physical injury b. Police
59. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a c. Law
thick wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in d. Society
every corner, a tower post is manned by heavily armed 65. Which of the following offenses may be prosecuted by
guards: a person other than (not) the offended party?
a. Maximum security facility a. Abduction
b. Medium security facility b. Act of lasciviousness
c. Super maximum security facility c. Seduction
d. Minimum security facility d. Falsification
60. Ramon witnessed the commission of a crime but he 66. What types of questions are allowed to be asked to a
refuses to testify for fear of his life despite a subpoena witness who is unwilling to testify?
being served on him. Can the court punish him for a. Intelligent
contempt? b. Leading
a. No, since no person can be compelled to be a c. Misleading
witness against another. d. Unresponsive
b. No, since Ramon has a valid reason for not 67. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that
testifying. punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society
c. Yes , since litigants need help in presenting to vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the
their case. criminal?
d. Yes, since public interest in justice requires his a. Retribution
testimony. b. Restoration
61. What documents are attached to the Release c. Rehabilitation
Document of the Parolee? d. Deterrence
Prison record 68. The following are the elements of maliscious mischief:
Name of the Parolee and Probation Officer i. The offender deliberately caused
Location of the Prison or Confinement damage to property
Order of Court ii. Such act does not constitute arson or
a. 4 and 1 other crimes involving destruction
b. 1 and 2 iii. Such acts also constitute other crimes
c. 3 and 4 involving destruction
d. 2 and 3 iv. The act of damaging anothers property
62. We known that the Lord Jesus Christ, our savior, was was committed merely for the sake of
brutally crucified in the Middle East some 2100 years damaging it
ago. According to our criminal/ penal law, What b. I, III, IV
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 c. I, II, IV information before arraignment if the
d. I, II, III amendment_______________.
e. II, III, IV a. Downgrades the nature of the offense
69. Who among the following may be granted conditional from a higher to a lower offense or
pardon? excludes any accused
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government b. Downgrades the nature of the offense from
physician a higher to a lower offense and adds
b. A prisoner who served as "bastonero" another accused
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above c. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he lower to a higher offense and excludes any
broke his probation conditions of the accused
70. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to d. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a
court within_________. lower to a higher offense and adds another
a. 10-day period accused
b. 30-day period 76. In Criminal law and Jurisprudence, there are two
c. 15-day period acts- internal and external act. Which of the two
d. 60-day period acts is indispensable for the act to be punishable as
71. Within how many days after the expiration of the a crime?
period to execute the warrant of arrest that the officer a. External act
to whom it was assigned for the execution shall make a b. Intentional act
report to the judge who issued the warrant? c. Internal act
a. 10 d. Unintentional act
b. 15 77. In criminal procedure, who conducts the direct
c. 20 examination?
d. 30 a. Opponent
72. Which of the following is a crime against the b. PAO lawyer
Fundamental Law of the State? c. Proponent
a. Espionage d. Prosecution
b. Piracy 78. The system of key control in a jail includes:
c. Treason a. An updated system of monitoring and
d. Violation of Domicile; if private person- control of keys
Qualified trespass to dwelling b. A documented inventory of security
73. The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina personnel
of concubinage. Pending appeal, they applied for bail, c. A collector of all padlocks and keys
claiming they are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting
their claim correct? them
a. No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight. 79. The following are classified as crimes against
b. No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction. chastity, EXCEPT:
c. Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not a. Simple Seduction
invloving moral turpitude. b. Adultery
d. Yes, bail is a matter of right in the c. White Slave Trade
Metropolitan Trial Court before and after d. Sexual Harassment
conviction. 80. The following are considered minor offenses of an
74. X went to the United States. While he was there, inmate, EXCEPT:
encountered Y an American. They eventually got a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
married. When X returned to the Philippines, his b. Failing to stand at attention and give due
wife Z filed an action against him for violating their respect when confronted by or reporting
marriage. What is X liable to? to any officer or member of the custodial
a. Adultery force
b. Bigamy c. Willful watse of food
c. Concubinage d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness
d. Polygamy and orderliness in his quarter and/or
75. Leave of Court is required to amend a complaint or surroundings
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81. The following are classified as crimes against honor, Singapore certified by the Vice-consul with
EXCEPT: official seal
a. Premature Marriage d. Unblimished receipt dated December 20, 1985
b. libel signed by the promise, showing payment of a
c. Incriminating innocent person loan, found among the well-kept file of the
d. Slanderp promissor.
82. A complaint may be filed by any of the following, 89. A drug user who is placed under probation may be
EXCEPT: made to serve his sentence by the court if he
a. Offender a. Becomes unruly and undicipline
b. The offender party b. Commits another offense
c. Other public officers c. He is 21 years old
d. Any peace officers d. Violates any of the conditions of the probation
83. Is there an instance where an accesory exempted 90. Which evidence is presented to vary the terms of a
from criminal liability/ written agreement, there is the application of
a. It depends the____________evidence rule.
b. No a. Documentary
c. Sometimes b. Best
d. Yes c. Written
84. X tried to kill Y by poisoning. One morning, X put d. Parol
sugar on the food of Y thinking that it was arsenic. 91. X, a doctor, put a poison on the food of his wife. When
Instead of dying, Y suffered diabetes. In this case, she eat the food, moments later, she suffered
the crime is not committed because the material he excruciating pain in the stomach. Seeing his in agony, X
mixed on the foods is got pity on his wife and administered an antidote. Thus,
a. Impossible the wife did not die. What crime was committed by X?
b. Inadequate a. Attempted Parricide
c. Ineffectual b. Frustrated Parricide
d. Intentional c. Serious Physical Injuries
85. The president grants absolute/conditional pardon d. No crime
based on the recommendation of: 92. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of
a. Board of Pardon and Parole probation in the United States?
b. Bureau of Correction a. Sir Walter crofton
c. Parole and Probation Administration b. Alexander Maconochie
d. Office of the Executive Secretary c. John murry spear
86. What law prohibits the imposition of death penalty in d. John Augustus
the philippines? 93. A petition for the grant of basolute or conditional
a. R.A 7659 pardon shall be favorably endorsed to the Board by
b. R.A 7965 the________ if the crime committed by the petitioner
c. R.A 8177 is against national security.
d. R.A 9346 a. Secretary of foreign Affairs
87. For search to be considered as an incident of the arrest, b. Secretary of Justice
it must be made at the place where the: c. Secretary of National Defense
a. Contraband was found d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government
b. Police station is located 94. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be
c. Arrest was effected treated__________.
d. Crime was forced a. Comprehensively
88. Bearing in mind the distinction between private and b. Appopriately
public document, which of the folowing is admissible in c. Confidentially
evidence without further proof of due execution or d. Judiciously
genuiness? 95. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of
a. Baptismal Certificates. residents with crimes which are not usually reported to
b. Documents acknowledged before a Notary the police. What are these studies called?
Public in Hongkong a. Population Surveys
c. Official record of the Philippines Embassy in b. Police surveys
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 c. Victimization surveys
d. Information surveys
96. What term denotes a new or fresh trial when an
appellate court sends a case back to lower court for
new trial?
a. Trial by publicity
b. Trial by jury
c. Trial by default
d. Trial de novo
97. Facts already known or ought to be known by judge by
reason of their office and of which they may properly
take and act without proof re called matters of:
a. Priveleged communication
b. Judicial notice
c. Pleadings
d. Judgment
98. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of
prison sentence?
a. Commutation of sentence
b. Parole
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon
99. Which among the following is a requisite before an
accused may be discharged to become a state witness?
a. The accused does not appear to be guilty.
b. The accused has not at any time been convicted
of any offense.
c. The testimony of the accused sought to be
discharged can be substantially
corroborated on all points.
d. There is absolute necessity for the testimony
of the accused hose discharge is requested.
100. Choose the correct circumstance when a woman
may be held liable for rape:
a. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in
the victims drink to enable her husband to
have intercourse with the victim's.
b. When the offender uses an instrument and
inserts it in the mouth of the victim's.
c. When the rape is committed by two or more
person's.
d. With the use of force or intimidation.
101. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision
correccional. Will he qualify for probation?
a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
b. No, his sentence is morethan Six (6) years and
One (1) day
c. Yes, his sentence is less than Six (6) years and
One (1) day
d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1)
day
102. There are four (4) acknowledged goals of
G.S.T. 2019
___________ as follows: retribution, deterrence,
incapacitation, and rehabilitation.
a. Criminal intent
b. Criminal mind
c. Criminal sanction
d. Criminal action
103. The city prosecutor charged Ben with serious
physical injuries for stabbing terence. He was tried and
convicted as charged. A few days later, Terence died
due to severe infection of his stab wounds. Can the
prosecution file another information against Ben for
homicide?
a. No, double jeopardy is present since Ben had
already been convicted of the first offense.
b. No, there is double jeopardy since serious
physical injuries is necessarily included in the
charged of homicide.
c. Yes, since supervening event altered the kind
of crime the accused committed.
d. Yes, since Terence's death shows irregularity in
the filing of the earlier charge against him.
104. Under which condition can a prisoner be
immediately released provided he is not a recidivist or
he had not been previously convicted 3 or more times
of any crime?
a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the
maximum penalty for the offense he may be
found guilty of is destierro
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
maximum penalty of the offense he may be
found guilty of is prision correccional
c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
maximum penalty of the offense he may be
found guilty of is reclusion perpetua
d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or
morethan the possible maximum term of
punishment of the offense he maybe found
guilty of.
105. A science involving technical knowledge about the
traces of crime is known as:
a. Forensic medicine
b. Physical science
c. Forensic science
d. Criminalistic Technology
106. To be considered an accessory, the author of the
crime must be guilty of any of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Murder
b. Treason
c. Parricide
d. Infanticide
107. The following are crimes against national security
and the law of nations EXCEPT one:
a. Violation of neutrality
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 b. Rebellion cost-efficiency
c. Treason 115. It is the system or criminal procedure which is
d. Espionage characterized by secrecy of investigation and the
108. Which of the following is NOT classified as a crime option of the defense and prosecution to appeal.
a. Inquisatorial
committed by public officers?
b. mixed
a. Forgery c. accusatorial
b. Official breaking seal d. fixed
c. Malversation 116. It is that system of criminal procedure which is
d. Refusal of assistance conducted either at the initiative of the public
109. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated prosecutor or the offended party and the right to
with a little more care than the other inmates. Which of appeal are limited to the defense and the accused
presumed innocent.
the following should NOT be done by a jail officer?
a. inquisitorial
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff b. mixed
regularly c. accusatorial
b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his d. fixed
prescribed diet 117. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC,
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate MTCC, MCTC.
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient a. R.A. 7691
b. R.A. 8493
inmate
c. BP 129
110. The following are aggravating circumstances d. R.A. 1379
EXCEPT: 118. In criminal cases, what determine the
a. Movement of the offender is restricted jurisdiction of court, EXCEPT:
b. Cruelty a. Extent of penalty
c. Adding ignominy b. Person accused
c. territory
d. Taking advantage of superior strength
d. subject matter
111. When taking up arms against the government was 119. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party,
undertaken by members of the military, what law was any peace officer of public officer in charge of
violated? Republic Act________. enforcement of the law violated filed either to the
a. 9165 court or to the office of the prosecutor.
b. 7610 a. Complaint
c. 6506 b. Pleadings
c. Information
d. 6968
d. Affidavit
112. The following properties may be taken by the 120. Prescription of offense commence to run:
officer effecting the arrest, EXCEPT those: a. Upon discovery of the crime by the
a. That may be used for escaping offended party or peace officers or their
b. Used in the commission of a crime agent.
c. That are within the immediate vicinity b. Upon filing of cases in court.
d. Which are means of committing violence c. Upon escape of the accused.
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
113. Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has
undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the 121. The following are cases covered by rules on
maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is summary procedure, EXCEPT:
charged with? a. Where the penalty is six months
a. Batas Pambansa 95 Imprisonment
b. Batas Pambansa 85 b. Violation of traffic laws
c. Violation of rental laws
c. Batas Pambansa 105
d. Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6)
d. Batas Pambansa 965 months imprisonment
114. An advantageous result in the integration of 122. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the
correctional agencies is: central nervous system and are commonly referred
a. More physical facilities to maintain to as “uppers”?
b. More prisoners to supervise a. Amphetamines
c. Divided resources such as manpower and b. Naptha
c. Barbiturates
finances
d. Diazepam
d. Better coordination of services and increased
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123. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de a. preliminary investigation
officio without a complaint first filed by the offended b. inquest proceeding
party, EXCEPT: c. prejudicial question
a. Rape d. custodial investigation
b. Abduction 131. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases
c. Seduction punishable by:
d. Adultery and Concubinage a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and
124. Complaint or Information shall charge only one one (1) day
offense. This is the rule on: b. more than four years, two months and one
a. Duplicity of offense day
b. Complex crime c. less than four years, two months and one
c. compound crime day
d. continuing crime d. six years, one day and above
125. In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional 132. The following persons are authorized to conduct
Mandates an arresting officer should inform the preliminary investigation, EXCEPT:
person to be arrested of his rights? a. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court
a. Art. III Sec. 12 b. Provincial and city prosecutors and their
b. b.Miranda Doctrine assistants
c. R.A. 7438 c. Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and
d. Rule 115 Municipal Circuit Trial Courts
126. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive d. National and Regional state prosecutors;
Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002, providing Funds e. a and c
Therefore and for Other Purposes. 133. After the filing of the Complaint or Information
a. RA 9165 in court without a preliminary investigation within
b. RA 1956 how many days an accused person upon knowing the
c. RA 9156 filing of said complaint may ask for preliminary
d. RA 1965 investigation?
127. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in a. 5 days
drug incidents? b. 15 days
a. Reclusion Perpetua c. 10 days
b. Life Imprisonment d. 30 days
c. Death 134. Is the taking of a person into custody in order
d. Fine that he may be bound to answer for the commission
109. Complaint and information can be amended to of an offense.
____ after plea and during the trial with leave of court a. Arrest
and without causing prejudice to the rights of the b. Warrant
accused. c. jurisdiction
a. form d. Seizure
b. substance and form 135. Validity of the warrant of arrest?
c. substance a. no fixed duration
d. none of these b. 30 days
128. A petition for suspension of criminal action upon c. 20 days
the pendency of a prejudicial question in a civil d. 10 days
action may be filed: 136. Lifetime of search warrant?
a. before the prosecution rests a. 10 days
b. before arraignment b. 20 days
c. before preliminary investigation c. 5 days
d. before plea d. No fixed duration
129. Is that which in a case the resolution of which is 137. Within how many days upon the date of
a logical antecedent of the issue involved therein, execution of a warrant of arrest the person charged
and the cognizance of which pertains to another with its execution shall report to the court which
tribunal. issue such warrant when arrest was not been made?
a. Prejudicial question a. 10 days
b. inquest proceeding b. 30 days
c. preliminary investigation c. 20 days
d. custodial investigation d. 5 days
130. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine 138. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and
whether there is sufficient ground to engender a capturing the law breakers in the execution of their
well-founded belief that a crime has been committed criminal plan.
and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and a. instigation
should be held for trial. b. investigation
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 c. entrapment c. crimes punishable by death
d. Entertainment d. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or
139. In flagrante delicto means _____? life imprisonment when evidence of guilt is
a. caught in the act strong
b. instigation 148. When bail is a discretionary?
c. caught after commission a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable
d. entrapment by reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment.
140. When arrest may be made? b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6
a. At any time of the day and night years but not more than 20 years who is a
b. At day time recidivist.
c. At night time c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6
d. from sun dust till dawn years but not more than 20 years when there
141. When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ is undue risk that he may commit another
the warrant of arrest in his possession? crime during the pendency of the appeal.
a. Need not have d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6
b. Should always have years but not more than 20 years who has
c. may sometime have previously escaped from legal confinement.
d. need to have 149. Is an offense which, under the existing law at the
142. It refers to the questioning initiated by law time of its commission and at the time of the
enforcement officer after a person has been taken application for admission to bail may be punished
into custody. with death.
a. custodial investigation a. capital offense
b. inquest b. less grave
c. interview c. heinous crime
d. interrogation d. grave felony
143. Under what circumstances arrest can be made 150. The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT:
even without a warrant? a. Property Bond
a. When the crime was committed in the b. Cash Bond
presence of the arresting officer. c. Corporate surety bond
b. When the crime was in fact been committed d. Recognizance
and there is personal knowledge based on e. None of the choices
probable cause that the person to be 151. When the maximum penalty to which the
arrested has committed it. accused may be sentenced is destierro, he shall be
c. When the person to be arrested is an released after ____ of preventive imprisonment.
escapees. a. 30 days
d. All of the choices b. 20 days
144. It is a security given for the temporary release of c. 15 days
a person in custody of the law. d. 60 days
a. Bail 152. Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon:
b. parole a. acquittal of the accused
c. fine b. execution of the judgment of conviction
d. conditional pardon c. dismissal of the case
145. Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused d. all of the choices
person failed to appear at the trial without 153. It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory
justification and despite due notice. facts and circumstances are capable of two or more
a. In absentia interpretation, one which is consistent with the
b. in flagrante de licto innocence of the accused and the other consistent
c. on the merits with his guilt, or they are evenly balanced. The
d. none of these constitutional presumption of innocence should tilt
146. When Bail is a matter of right? the scale in favor of the accused and he must be
a. Before or after conviction by the acquitted.
Metropolitan, Municipal or Municipal a. Equipoise rule
Circuit trial court. b. Presumption of guilt
b. Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court c. Hornbook doctrine
c. before conviction by the Regional Trial Court d. due process of law
d. upon preliminary investigation 154. Refers to the counsel provided by the
147. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, government to assist destitute litigant?
EXCEPT: a. Counsel de officio
a. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to b. counsel de parte
death c. Public Attorney’s Office
b. crime punishable by life imprisonment d. National Prosecution Office
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155. It is a process directed to a person requiring him 163. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is
to attend and to testify or to bring with him any the danger of being prosecuted for the same offense
books or documents under his control at the trial of for the second time.
an action. a. double jeopardy
a. subpoena b. double trial
b. subpoena ducestecum c. double trouble
c. subpoena ad testificandum d. double counter
d. d. warrant of arrest 164. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by
156. Unless shorter period is provided by special law imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of
or Supreme Court Circular, the arraignment shall be any amount or both shall become permanent after
held within ___ days from the date the court ____.
acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused. a. one year
a. 30 days b. 2 years
b. 10 days c. 5 years
c. 15 days d. d. 4 years
d. 5 days 165. Within how many days after arraignment and
157. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the
plea of ___ shall be entered. person of the accused shall order a pre-trial
a. Not guilty conference?
b. admission by silence a. 30 days
c. guilty b. 15 days
d. none c. 20 days
158. When reception of evidence is necessary under d. d. 60 days
the following circumstances: 166. How many days are given to an accused person
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is
b. plea of guilty to capital offense entered?
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense a. 15 days
d. all of these b. 20 days
159. When the complaint is vague, the accused may c. 30 days
file a motion alleging among others the defect of the d. 180 days
complaint or information and the details desired in 167. The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days
order to enable him to properly answer and prepare from receipt of the pre-trial order?
for trial. This motion is known as: a. 30 days
a. motion for bill of particular b. 15 days
b. motion for clarification c. 20 days
c. motion to dismiss d. 60 days
d. motion for postponement 168. The trial court have how many days from the first
160. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment day of trial to terminate the same?
shall be suspended on the following grounds: a. 60 days
a. The accused appears to be suffering from b. 365 days
unsound mental condition. c. 180 days
b. There exist a prejudicial question. d. 150 days
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of 169. The trial of a case can be made in absentia except
the prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ on the following circumstances:
or office of the President . a. at the arraignment and plea
d. All of the choices b. during the trial whenever necessary for
161. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge identification purposes
made by an accused is: c. at the promulgation of sentence, unless for
a. Motion to quash a light offense
b. nolleprosequi d. all of the choices
c. Motion to dismiss 170. The order of trial is:
d. bill of particulars a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and
162. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute surrebattal
and punish or the termination of the power to b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross
prosecute or punish the offender after the lapse of c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct
certain definite period from the commission of the d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal
offense. 171. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings,
a. Prescription of crime mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative
b. acquisitive device to assist him in testimony.
c. prescription of penalty a. Testimonial aids
d. extinctive b. Emotional security items
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 c. support 180. Which of the following cannot be filed after
d. none of these judgment of conviction becomes final.
172. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in a. Motion for new trial
all stages of examination of a child, if the same will b. Motion for reconsideration
further the interest of justice. c. Motion to dismiss
a. leading questions d. All of these
b. relevant 181. Who represents the State in an action for
c. misleading appeal?
d. Narrative a. prosecutor
173. Which of the following is a ground for discharge b. Secretary of DOJ
of an accused to be state witness: c. appellant
a. there is absolute necessity for the testimony d. Solicitor General
of the accused. 182. The party appealing the case shall be called?
b. said accused does not appear to be the most a. appellant
guilty b. accused
c. said accused has not been convicted of a c. Appellee
crime involving moral turpitude/ d. Defendant
d. all of the choices 183. It refers to the geographical division or territorial
174. After the prosecution rest its case, the accused limit where the power of the court is exercised and
person may move for the dismissal of the case on: which is jurisdictional in criminal case.
a. on its own initiative after giving the a. Venue
prosecution an opportunity to be heard. b. Jurisprudence
b. Demurrer to evidence c. jurisdiction
c. motion for reconsideration d. court
d. motion for new trial 184. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the
175. It is the judicial examination and determination first instance.
of the issue in an action or proceeding, civil or a. Original jurisdiction
criminal. b. Exclusive jurisdiction
a. pre-trial c. concurrent jurisdiction
b. trial d. appellate jurisdiction
c. plea bargaining 185. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the
d. Judgment exclusion of the others.
176. Is the adjudication by the court that the accused a. Original jurisdiction
is guilty or not guilty of the offense charged and the b. Exclusive jurisdiction
imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability. c. appellate jurisdiction
a. judgment d. concurrent jurisdiction
b. rendition of judgment 186. It is the system or criminal procedure which is
c. promulgation of judgment characterized by secrecy of investigation and the
d. conviction option of the defense and prosecution to appeal.
177. It is the degree of proof which does not excluding a. Inquisitorial
the possibility of error, produces absolute certain. b. mixed
Moral certainty only is required. c. accusatorial
a. acquittal d. fixed
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt 187. It is that system of criminal procedure which is
c. clear and convincing conducted either at the initiative of the public
d. preponderance of evidence prosecutor or the offended party and the right to
178. It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or appeal are limited to the defense and the accused is
that the evidence does not show that his guilt is innocent.
proof beyond reasonable doubt. a. inquisitorial
a. dismissal b. mixed
b. conviction c. accusatorial
c. acquittal d. fixed
d. judgment 188. In criminal cases, what determine the
179. Judgment becomes final when? jurisdiction of court, EXCEPT:
a. the period for perfecting an appeal lapse. a. Extent of penalty
b. when the sentence is partially of totally b. Person accused
satisfied or served. c. territory
c. when the accused waived in writing his right d. subject matter
to appeal. 189. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party,
d. when he appealed for probation any peace officer of public officer in charge of
e. all of the choices
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 enforcement of the law violated filed either to the 198. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an
court or to the office of the prosecutor. accused cannot be compelled to be a witness against
a. Complaint himself. This principle also known as:
b. Pleadings Section a. rights against illegal arrest
c. Information b. the right to presume innocent
c. rights against self- incrimination
d. Affidavit
d. right to live
190. Prescription of offense commences to run: 199. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the following pleading are prohibited except:
offended party or peace officers or their a. motion to quash
agent. b. bill of particular
b. Upon filing of cases in court. c. answer
c. Upon escape of the accused. d. demurred to evidence
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused 200. The following cases committed by public official
191. When an appeal shall be taken? with salary grade 27 and above fall under the
a. within 10 days exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
b. within 30 days a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019,
c. within 15 days R.A. 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII,
d. within 5 days Book two of the RPC
192. Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT? b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and
a. Subject of the offense in connection with executive order nos. 1, 2,
b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or 14 and 14-A.
fruits of the offense c. Crimes committed by public official in
c. Used or intended to be used as the means of relation to their office.
committing an offense d. None of the choices
d. Firearm 201. It is the law which classifies rape from crime
193. When search must be made? against chastity to crimes against person, making
a. in the day time crime prosecutable even without a complaint filed
b. only during sunrise the offender party?
c. any time of the day and night a. R.A. 8353
d. in the presence of two witnesses b. R.A. 9283
194. In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines c. R.A. 8493
is the ____? d. d. R.A. 7055
a. Plaintiff 202. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is
b. Private offended party deemed instituted upon the filing of criminal action
c. defendant in court as provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In
d. Respondent what instances can a civil action for recovery of civil
195. A complaint or information have the same legal liability can be separated?
content, however, they differ as to who subscribe to a. When the offended party waives the civil
it, who subscribe an information? action;
a. Accused b. When the offended party reserves his right
b. Prosecutor to institute the civil action;
c. Witness c. When the institution of the civil action is
d. victim made prior to the criminal action.
196. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of d. all of the choices
Court, the following officers are authorized to 203. What is the effect of death of the accused in civil
conduct preliminary investigation except? actions?
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor a. It extinguishes the civil liability arising from
b. Judge MTC/MCTC delict.
c. Regional State Prosecutor b. Independent civil action instituted may be
d. Public Attorney’s office continued against the estate or legal
e. b and d representative of the accused.
197. An Special Law which defines certain rights of c. If the accused dies before arraignment, the
accused, detained or under custodial investigation as case shall be dismissed without prejudice to
well as duties of the arresting detailing and any civil action the offended party may file
investigation officer. against the estate of the deceased.
a. R.A. 7438 d. all of the choices
b. R.A. 7348 204. Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a
c. R.A. 7834 detainee may be released on bail in the following
d. d. R.A. 3478 manner, except:
a. property bond
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 b. performance bond
c. corporate surety
d. recognized
205. Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a
case
a. after arraignment
b. after the defense has rested its case
c. after trial
d. after the prosecution had rested its case
206. The accused may questioned the legality of his
arrest ___ otherwise the said accused could no
longer questioned the same and that the arrest is
presumed by the court as valid.
a. before arraignment
b. before conviction
c. before preliminary investigation
d. before trial
207. The following are the matters to be taken up in
pre-trial conference except:
a. examination of witnesses
b. marking of evidence
c. plea bargaining
d. stipulation & simplification of issues
208. The reservation of the right to institute separate
civil action shall be made:
a. before arraignment
b. before the pre-trial conference
c. before the prosecution rest its case
d. before the prosecution presents evidence
209. Amendment without leave of court before the
accused pleads is allowed by the Rules of Court
under the following instances EXCEPT:
a. amendment as to substance
b. amendment as to form
c. amendment that reflect typographical error
d. amendments to downgrades the nature of
the crime
210. One of the requisites in order that one of the
accused may be discharged in order to be state
witness is that
a. Said accused does not appear to be the
most guilty
b. Said accused does not appear to be least
guilty
c. Said accused must not appear to be guilty
d. Said accused must appear to be innocent as
char
211. P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government
Code of 1991. Under the said code, the Lupon of
each barangay shall have authority to bring together
the parties actually residing in the same city or
municipality for amicable settlement where the
offense committed is punishable by imprisonment
exceeding one (1) year. This statement is:
a. absolutely true
b. partly true
c. absolutely false
d. partly false
212. In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed
with the:
a. Office of the President
G.S.T. 2019
b. Office of the Clerk of Court
c. Office of the Prosecutor
d. Office of the Ombudsman
213. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint
or information are the following, EXCEPT:
a. It must be in writing
b. It must be in the name of the People of the
Philippines.
c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
d. It must be filed in court
214. Z as husband dies before he could institute the
criminal action for adultery against his wife and the
paramour. The case may:
a. No longer be prosecuted
b. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
c. Still be prosecuted
d. Be prosecuted by the State
215. The right of the State to initiate criminal actions
in behalf of incapacitated individual with no known
parents, grandparents or guardian is known as:
a. Doctrine of parens patriae
b. Doctrine of non-suability
c. police power
d. habeas corpus
216. The modes of making an arrest are:
a. by an actual restraint of the person to be
arrested
b. by the submission to the custody of the
person making the arrest
c. by using unreasonable force
d. a and b only
e. a and c only
217. The following are crimes Against National
Security and Law of Nations, EXCEPT.
a. Treason
b. Piracy and mutiny
c. Espionage
d. Rebellion
218. Breach of allegiance to a government,
committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.
a. treason
b. espionage
c. adherence to the enemy
d. rebellion
219. The degree of proof required to convict a person
accused of treason.
a. substantial evidence
b. proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. two witness rule
d. preponderance of evidence
220. The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT:
a. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine
waters;
b. The offenders are not members of its
complement or passengers of the vessel;
c. That the offender resist to a superior
officer;
d. The offenders either attack or seize that
vessel or seize the whole or part of the cargo
of said vessel, its equipment or personal
belonging of its complement or passengers.
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221. Which of the following does NOT qualify the
crime of Piracy:
a. Whenever the pirates have seized the
vessel on the high seas or in Philippine
waters
b. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by
boarding or firing upon the same.
c. c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned
their victims without means of saving
themselves.
d. Whenever the crime is accompanied by
murder, homicide, physical injuries, or rape.
222. Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-
highway Robbery Law of 1974.
a. Comm. Act No. 616
b. P.D. 532
c. P.D. 533
d. R.A. 6235
223. PO1 Matiyaga, without legal grounds arrested
and detained Mr. Tamad and deprived said person of
his liberty is liable for:
a. illegal detention
b. arbitrary detention
c. unlawful arrest
d. kidnapping
224. The following are legal grounds for the
detention of any person, EXCEPT:
a. commission of a crime
b. escape from prison / penal institution
c. violent insanity or other ailment requiring
the compulsory confinement
d. a and c only
e. a, b and c
225. The following are acts constitute a crime of
delaying release, EXCEPT:
a. Delays the performance of a judicial or
executive order for the release of a prisoner.
b. Delays the service of the notice of such order
to said prisoner.
c. Delays the proceedings upon any petition for
the liberation of such person.
d. Delays the filing of a criminal offense
against the detainee to the proper judicial
authority.
e. All of these
226. Mr. Mabait was arrested for illegal possession of
firearms which is considered a low power gun.
Considering that the crime is punishable by
correctional penalty, within how many hours should
that a case be filed to the proper judicial authority?
a. 12 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 36 hours
227. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who
compels a person to change his resident or otherwise
expels him from the Philippines.
a. violation of domicile
b. arbitrary detention
c. trespass to dwelling
d. expulsion
G.S.T. 2019
228. The following are act constituting Violation of
Domicile.
a. Any public officer or employee who enters
any dwelling against the will of the owner
thereof.
b. Any public officer or employee who searches
any papers or other effects found therein
without the previous consent of the owner.
c. Any public officer or employee who refuses
to leave the premises, after having
surreptitiously entered said dwelling and
after having been required to leave the
premises.
d. Any public officer or employee who searches
domicile without witnesses.
e. All of the choices
229. SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search
warrant, search the house of Mr. Mando N. Ducot.
After having discovered the item specified in the
warrant, SPO1 Masinop took the same and includes
the jewelry box filled with jewelry which is not
included in the list of the item to be seized. SPO1
Masinop is:
a. Liable for the crime of violation of domicile
b. Not liable for the crime of violation of
domicile
c. May not be liable for violation of domicile
d. Liable for a crime but not on
violation of domicile
230. The following are crimes against the
fundamental law of the States. Which one can be
committed by private person?
a. Arbitrary detention
b. Violation of Domicile
c. Interruption of religious worship
d. Offending religious feelings
e. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of
peaceful meetings
231. The law which provides Human Security
a. R.A. 9208
b. R.A. 9745
c. R.A. 9372
d. R.A. 7438
232. Angelo Vergara not only confessed his
membership with the Sparrow unit but also his
participation and that of his Group in the killing of
SPO2 Manalad while the latter was manning the
traffic along C. M. Recto Ave. Manila. Under the facts
given, what crime was committed by the former and
that of his Group?
a. murder
b. sedition
c. rebellion
d. homicide
233. This crime is committed by raising publicly and
taking arms against government to completely
overthrow and supersede said existing government.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
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234. A swift attack accompanied by violence,
intimidation, stealth, directed against duly
constituted authorities, public utilities, military
camps and installation with or without civilian
support for the purpose of diminishing state power.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
235. It is a felony which in its general sense is raising
of communications or disturbances in the state
outside of the legal method.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
236. A police officer, who arrested a member of
congress while going to attend a senate session for a
traffic violation is liable for:
a. crime against popular representation
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the
National Assembly
c. violation of parliamentary immunity
d. all of the foregoing
237. The Kilusan ng mga hindi Ungas at Paranoid
(KHUP) was organized by Mr. Panot allegedly for
protecting the poor laborer, where in fact it was
organized to form a group that would rise against the
rich businessmen of their city. For what crime can
they be charged?
a. Illegal assembly
b. Illegal association
c. coup d’etat
d. rebellion
238. Any association, organization, political party or
group of persons organized for the purpose of
overthrowing the Government of the Republic of the
Philippines or for the purpose of removing the
allegiance to said government or its law, the territory
of the Phils. or any part thereof, with the open or
covert assistance or support of a foreign power by
force violence, deceit or other illegal means. Is a
crime of:
a. Rebellion
b. Illegal Association
c. Subversive Association or Organization
d. Illegal Assembly
239. Mrs. Grace, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with
engineer Pandac and Councilor Panot were
surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for
government projects and for their relocation. The
residents oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of
the residents, slapped the face of Mayor Ditas when
the latter came near. One of the close escorts of the
Mayor defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped
him and punched as well. For what crime Mrs.
Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor
Grace?
a. Sedition
b. Slander by Deeds
c. Direct Assault
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d. Rebellion
240. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
a. The assault is committed with a weapon
b. The offender is a public officer or employee
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in
authority
d. The offender seriously intimidating or
resisting a person in authority
241. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction,
whether as an individual or as a member of some
court or government corporation, board or
commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority
b. Judicial authority
c. person in authority
d. Public employee
242. It is committed by any person who shall resist or
seriously disobey any person in authority, or the
agents of such person, while engaged in the
performance of official functions.
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect Assault
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the
National Assembly
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in
authority or the agents of such person
243. The following are crimes classified as public
disorders, EXCEPT.
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public
order
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and
lawful utterances
c. Alarms and scandals
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
e. None of the choices
244. Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor
fired a gun in the air to proclaim to the people that
he is celebrating his birthday. Such act constitutes
___?
a. illegal discharge of firearm
b. alarm & scandals
c. disturbances
d. outcry
245. The following circumstances qualifies the crime
of evasion of service of sentence.
a. By means of unlawful entry By breaking
doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
b. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise,
deceit, violence or intimidation.
c. Through connivance with other convicts or
employees of the penal institution.
d. All of the choices
246. Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of
robbery before serving his sentence or while serving
the same he committed a crime of murder. What
condition is said to have occurred?
a. recidivism
b. reiteration
c. quasi-recidivism
d. habitual delinquency
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247. It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank
note or any instrument payable to bearer or to order
the appearance of a true and genuine document. It
is likewise committed by falsification through
erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or altering by
any means, the figures, letters, words or signs
contained therein (Art. 169)
a. Falsification of public document
b. Forgery
c. Falsification
d. d.Fasification by public officer, employee or
notary or ecclesiastical minister
248. A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic
police sticker and sell the same shall be liable for a
crime of:
a. Estafa through falsification of a public
document
b. Theft through falsification of a public
document
c. Falsification of public document
d. Forgeries
249. This crime is committed by any person without
any distinction, by falsely representing himself as an
officer and performing under pretense of official
position any act pertaining to such person.
a. usurpation of authority
b. estafa
c. usurpation of official functions
d. a & c
250. Any other name a person which publicly applies
to himself without authority of the law.
a. alias
b. A.K.A.
c. fictitious names
d. true name
251. It is committed by a person, who being under
oath are required to testify as to the truth of a certain
matter at a hearing before a competent authority,
shall deny the truth or say something contrary to it.
a. forgery
b. perjury
c. falsification
d. false testimony
252. Consist of acts which are offensive to decency
and good customs, which having been committed
publicly, have given rise to public scandal to persons
who have witness the same.
a. immoral doctrines
b. obscene publication and exhibition
c. grave scandal
d. libel
253. Refers to persons having no apparent means of
subsistence but has the physical ability to work and
neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling.
a. bum
b. vagrant
c. prostitute
d. destitute
254. It is the improper performance of some acts
which should have been lawfully be done.
a. malfeasance
G.S.T. 2019
b. misfeasance
c. nonfeasance
d. dereliction of duty
255. It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly
issued an unjust order which decides some point or
matter but which however, is not a final decisions of
the matter in issue:
a. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment
b. Judgment rendered through negligence
c. Unjust interlocutory order
d. Malicious delay in the administration of
justice
e. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor –
revelation of secrets
256. This one is committed by public officers or
employees who, in dereliction of the duties of his
office, shall maliciously refrain from instituting
prosecution for the punishment of violators of law,
or shall tolerate the commission of offenses.
a. Direct bribery
b. Indirect bribery
c. Qualified bribery
d. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in
prosecution of offenses
257. What crime is committed by any public officer or
employee who shall agree to perform an act
constituting a crime, in connection with the
performance of his official duties, in consideration of
any offer, promise, gift or present received by such
officer, personally or through the mediation of
another.
a. Direct bribery
b. Qualified bribery
c. Indirect bribery
d. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in
prosecution
258. Any public office who is entrusted with law
enforcement who refrain from arresting or
prosecuting an offender who has committed a crime
punishable by reclusion perpetua and/or death in
consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present.
a. bribery
b. direct bribery
c. qualified bribery
d. indirect bribery
259. It is a crime committed by any appointed public
official who shall become interested in any
transaction within his territory, subject to his
jurisdiction during his incumbency.
a. Prohibited transaction
b. Possession of prohibited interest by a public
officer
c. Fraud against public treasury
d. Prevarication
260. This is committed by an accountable public
officer who, shall appropriate, or shall
misappropriate or shall consent, or through
abandonment or negligence shall permit another
person to take public funds or property.
a. Direct bribery
b. Technical malversation
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 c. Malversation of public funds a. mutilation
d. Embezzelment b. serious physical injury
261. The following are crimes classified under c. less serious physical injury
infidelity or public officers: d. slight physical injury
a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners 269. Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge
b. Infidelity in the custody of documents with a child less than 12 years old.
c. Revelation of secrets a. rape
d. all of these b. acts of lasciviousness
262. This is committed by any public officer or c. seduction
employee who shall overdo himself in the correction d. abduction
or handling of a prisoner or detention prisoner under 270. A private individual who detains another for the
his charge by the imposition of punishment not purpose of depriving the latter of his liberty for more
authorize by the regulations or inflicting punishment than three days is guilty of:
in a cruel or humiliating manner. a. illegal detention
a. Police brutality b. arbitrary detention
b. Sadism c. serious illegal detention
c. Maltreament of prisoners d. slight illegal detention
d. Physical injures 271. A person who got into a dispute with another,
263. This is committed by any public officer who shall assaulted the latter for the purpose of delivering his
solicit or make immoral advances to a woman under victims to the jailer is guilty of what crime?
his custody or to other women like the wife, a. illegal detention
daughter, sister or relative within the same degree b. illegal arrest
by affinity of any person in the custody of a warden c. unlawful arrest
or officer. d. physical injuries
a. Sexual harassment 272. Refers to a crime committed by any person who
b. Abuses against chastity threatens another with the infliction upon the
c. Acts of Lasciviousness person, honor or property of the latter or of his
d. Abuse of authority family of any wrong amounting to a crime.
264. Takes place whenever a person is killed during a a. grave threat
confusion attendant to quarrel among the several b. light threat
persons not continuing a group and the perpetrators c. grave coercion
cannot be ascertained. d. light coercion
a. homicide 273. When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting
b. murder a crime is made by another, what crime is
c. death caused by tumultuous affray committed?
d. riots a. grave threat
265. Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife b. light threat
causing the death of their unborn child is guilty of: c. graver coercion
a. parricide d. light coercion
b. abortion 274. Any person who by means of violence shall seize
c. intentional abortion anything belonging to his debtor for the purpose of
d. unintentional abortion applying the same to the payment of a debt, is
266. A formal and regular combat previously committing.
concerted between two parties in the presence of a. grave threat
two or more seconds of lawful age on each side, who b. light threat
make the selection of arms and fix all other c. graver coercion
conditions. d. light coercion
a. riot 275. It is a felony wherein a person compels another
b. duel by means of force, violence or intimidation to do
c. tumultuous affray something against his will, whether right or wrong.
d. mutilation
267. It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the a. grave threat
body, e.g. a woman cutting the penis of a male lover b. light threat
to deprive of the latter of its true. c. grave coercion
a. physical injury d. light coercion
b. duel 276. It includes human conduct, which although not
c. tumultuous affray productive of some physical or material harm would
d. mutilation annoy any innocent person
268. What crime is committed by person who a. light threat
assaulted another, causing the latter to be absent b. light coercion
from work for two weeks? c. unjust vexation
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 d. grave coercion 285. A married man who allows his paramour to live
277. It is the taking of personal belonging to another, in their conjugal dwelling is liable of what crime?
with intent to gain by means of violence against, or a. adultery
intimidations upon things of any person, or using b. concubinage
force upon anything. c. acts of lasciviousness
a. robbery d. seduction
b. theft 286. Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex
c. brigandage not amounting to rape by using force or intimidation.
d. estafa a. adultery
278. A stole thing from a locker by means of the key b. concubinage
of the owner, what crime was committed? c. acts of lasciviousness
a. a theft d. seduction
b. robbery 287. A person who ripped the dress of a woman and
c. possession of pick locks placed his penis over the woman’s genital organ is
d. possession of false key liable for what crime?
279. A crime committed by more than three armed a. rape
malefactors who form a band for the purpose of b. seduction
committing robbery in the highway or kidnapping c. forcible seduction
persons for the purpose of extortion or to obtain d. acts of lasciviousness
ransom, or for any other purpose to be attained by 288. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with
means of force & violence. his girlfriend by promising the latter with marriage,
a. Robbery what crime was committed?
b. kidnapping a. seduction
c. brigandage b. acts of lasciviousness
d. d. theft c. abduction
280. Committed by any person who with intent to d. none of the foregoing
gain but without violence or intimidation of persons 289. Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver
nor force upon things shall take personal property of several pieces of jewelries to his Mother whom he
another without latter’s consent. had misunderstanding. The latter however, pawned
a. robbery the said jewelries and misappropriated the same.
b. kidnapping What would be the proper offense committed by
c. brigandage Luz?
d. theft a. swindling
281. A housemaid who was caught in the act of b. theft
carting away the furniture of her employer would be c. robbery
charged of what crime? d. malicious mischief
a. theft 290. Which of the following crimes does not operates
b. robbery as an absolutory cause which could serves as an
c. qualified theft exemption against members of the family from
d. estafa criminal ability in crimes against properties.
282. Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure a. Robbery
that the property would be large when surveyed is a b. theft
crime of: c. malicious mischief
a. estafa d. estafa
b. chattel mortgage 291. It is defined as a method fixed for the
c. usurpation apprehension and prosecution of person alleged to
d. altering boundaries or landmarks have committed a crime.
283. It is the willful damaging of another’s property a. Criminal procedure
for the sake of causing damage due to hate, revenge b. Criminal jurisprudence
or other evil motive. c. rules of court
a. swindling d. rules of procedure
b. destruction of property 292. It refers to the authority or power to hear and
c. malicious mischief decided cases.
d. chattel mortgage a. Jurisdiction
284. What crime was committed by a married b. b. Jurisprudence
woman having carnal knowledge with a man not her c. Venue
husband? d. territory
a. adultery 293. It refers to the geographical division or
b. concubinage territorial limit where the power of the court is
c. acts of lasciviousness exercised and which is jurisdictional in criminal case.
d. seduction a. Venue
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 b. Jurisprudence a. Generality
c. jurisdiction b. Territoriality
d. court c. Prospective
294. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first d. Retroactive
instance. 302. The following are the exemption to the rule of
a. Original jurisdiction Generality, EXCEPT:
b. Exclusive jurisdiction a. Those who are subject of treaty stipulation
c. concurrent b. Those who are immune under the law of
d. appellate jurisdiction preferential application
295. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the c. Those who are exempted under Public
exclusion of the others. International law
a. Original jurisdiction d. President, Prime Minister and Ambassador
b. Exclusive jurisdiction 303. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of
c. appellate jurisdiction Isetan Recto on January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a
d. concurrent jurisdiction city ordinance was passed punishing loitering within
296. Is that branch of municipal or public law which the vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for
defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides his act of loitering?
for their punishment? a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
a. civil law b. Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect
b. procedural law of criminal law
c. criminal law c. No, for the act was done prior to the
d. substantive law effectivity of the law
297. The following are sources of criminal law, d. No, for a did not loiter again
EXCEPT: 304. Under what characteristics of criminal law the
a. Act 3815 above circumstance falls?
b. City and municipal ordinance a. Generality
c. Special penal laws b. Territoriality
d. constitution c. Prospective
298. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary d. Retroactive
source of criminal laws in the Philippines. It took 305. What legal maxims support the above scenario?
effect on? a. Pro reo Principle
a. January 1, 1923 b. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege
b. January 1, 1932 c. Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea
c. December 8, 1930 d. Actus me invitusfactus non
d. January 1, 1933 306. Which of the following legal maxim means “the
299. The following are characteristics of classical act cannot be criminal unless the mind is criminal”.
theory of criminal law, EXCEPT: a. Pro reo
a. the basis of criminal liability is human free b. Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege
will and the purpose of the penalty is c. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea
retribution. d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus
b. Man is essentially a moral creature with an 307. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without
absolutely free will to choose between good trial, its essence being the substitution of a legislative
and evil, thereby placing more stress upon flat for a judicial determination of guilt.
the effect or result of the felonious act than a. Ex post facto law
the man. b. Bill of attainder
c. there is scant regard to the human element. c. Retroactive law
d. That man is subdued occasionally by d. Prospective
strange and morbid phenomenon which 308. The following persons are exempt from criminal
constrains him to do wrong, in spite of or liability under the principle of public international
contrary to his violation. law, EXCEPT:
300. Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. a. Heads of states
What are acts committed or omitted in violations of b. ambassador
special laws? c. ministers of plenipotentiary
a. felony d. charges d affaires
b. offense e. None of the choices
c. misdemeanor 309. Crimes committed within the territorial water of
d. in fractional law another country can either be triable in that country
301. Basically, there are three fundamental or in the country where the vessel is registered.
characteristics of criminal law. What characteristics What rule provides that a crime committed on board
of criminal law states that criminal law is binding on vessel shall be NOT tried in the court of the country
all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines? having territorial jurisdiction, unless their
Page 21 of 262
G.S.T. 2019
 commission affects the peace and security of the d. That the act does not constitute a crime of
territory or the safety of the state is endangered. negligence or imprudence.
a. French rule 318. X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance
b. American Rule which he thought was arsenic (poison) when in fact
c. Spanish Rule it was just a sugar. Y was not killed as a consequence.
d. English Rule What X did he commit?
310. Any bodily movement tending to produce some a. Mistake in the blow
effect in the external world. b. No crime committed
a. act c. preaterintentionem
b. Omission d. impossible crime
c. Dolo 319. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act
d. Culpa which it may deem proper to repress and which is
311. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____. not punishable by law, it shall:
a. Deceit a. Render the proper decision, and shall
b. Fault report to the Chief Executive, through the
c. Culpa Department of Justice
d. Intent b. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
312. Things which are wrongful in their nature. Executive, through the Department of
a. evil Justice.
b. mala in ce c. Render the proper decision, and shall report
c. mala in se to the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
d. mala prohibita d. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
313. The moving power which impels one to action Justice of the Supreme Court.
for a definite result. 320. This takes place when the offender commences
a. intent that commission of a felony by overt acts, and does
b. motive not perform all the acts of execution which should
c. deceit produce the felony by reason of some cause or
d. fault accident other than his own spontaneous desistance.
314. The following are crime committed by mistakes a. Consummated
which does not operate as an b. Frustrated
Exemption/justification, EXCEPT: c. Attempted
a. Aberratio Ictus d. Impossible crime
b. Error in Personae 321. A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting
c. PreaterIntentionem B at his shoulder. B was able to run away and
d. Mistake in fact survived the injury, what crime is committed by A?
315. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous a. Physical Injury
sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening b. Frustrated Homicide
cause, produces the injury without which the result c. Attempted Homicide
would not have occurred. d. Less serious physical injury
a. Proximate cause
b. Intervening cause 322. The following are the elements of frustrated
c. Immediate cause felonious, EXCEPT:
d. Probable cause a. The offender performs all the acts of
316. Death is presumed to be the natural execution
consequence of physical injuries inflicted in the b. All the acts performed would produce the
following; EXCEPT felony as a consequence but the felony is not
a. The victim at the time the physical injuries produced.
were inflicted was in normal heath. c. By reason of causes independent of the will
b. The death may be expected from the of the perpetrator.
physical injuries inflicted. d. Due to some cause or accident other than
c. Death ensued within a reasonable time. his own spontaneous desistance.
d. The resulting injury is due to the intentional 323. Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the
act of the victim. coffee of her husband Mr. William Herschel, when
317. The following are elements of impossible crime, Mr. was at the stage of convulsion, Mrs. Lucila had a
EXCEPT: change of heart and administer an antidote causing
a. That the act performed would be an offense Mr. William to survive but left in comatose. What
against persons or property. was committed by Mrs. Lucila?
b. That the act was done with evil intent a. Frustrated parricide
c. That its accomplishment is inherently b. b.attempted parricide
impossible, or that the means employed is c. serious physical injury
either inadequate or ineffectual. d. less serious physical injury
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324. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime,
starting from the point where the offender begins
the commission of the crime to that point where he
has still control over his acts including their (acts)
natural course.
a. Subjective Phase
b. Objective Phase
c. Internal Act
d. Act of Execution
325. Which of the following is NOT a Factor in
determining stage of execution of felony?
a. Nature of the offense
b. Elements constituting the felony;
c. Manner of committing the felony
d. Intent in committing the crime
326. A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to
rob the Banco de Oro. While having their meeting at
their safe-house, a group of PNP personnel arrested
them. What crime was committed by A,B, and C?
a. Illegal Assembly
b. Conspiracy to commit robbery
c. Attempted Robbery
d. No crime
327. A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine
National Bank in their secret safe house. While they
are planning how to commit the crime, operatives of
the NBI barged in and arrested the group.
a. What crime was committed by A,B and C?
b. No crime was committed
c. Under the facts no crime was committed as
mere conspiracy to commit a crime is not
punishable
d. Attempted robbery
e. Frustrated robbery
328. Grave felonies are those to which the law
attaches the capital punishment or penalties which
in any of their periods are:
a. light
b. correctional
c. afflictive
d. reflective
329. In case of crimes which are latter subject of
special penal laws, what rule of interpretation shall
be applied?
a. The RPC shall be observed
b. The RPC shall prevails over special laws.
c. The RPC will be supplementary to special
law
d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to
the RPC
330. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed
to a person as its author or owner. It implies that the
act committed has been freely and consciously done
and may therefore be put down to the doer as his
very own.
a. Guilt
b. Liability
c. Responsibility
d. Imputability
331. Acts of a person which are said to be in
accordance with the law, so that such person is
G.S.T. 2019
deemed not to have transgressed the law and is free
from both criminal and civil liability.
a. justifying circumstances
b. mitigating circumstances
c. exempting circumstances
d. aggravating circumstance
332. The following are the requisites for self-defense,
EXCEPT
a. Unlawful aggression.
b. Reasonable necessity of the means
employed to prevent or repel it.
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of
the person defending himself.
d. Lack of intent on the part of the person
defending himself.
333. Those grounds which makes the person not
imputable for the offense since there is a wanting in
the agent of the crime of the conditions which make
the act voluntary or negligent.
a. Justifying
b. Mitigating
c. Exempting
d. Aggravating
334. Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the
cellphone of Ms. IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___.
a. Liable for the crime of theft
b. Liable for the crime of robbery
c. Not liable for the crime of theft
d. Not liable for the crime of robbery
335. The following circumstances exempt a person
from criminal liability though there is civil liability
considering that there is crime committed, EXCEPT:
a. Minority
b. Accident
c. Imbecility/Insanity
d. Acting under compulsion of an irresistible
force
e. Acting under the impulse of an
uncontrollable fear of an equal or greater
injury.
336. The following are exempted from criminal
liability, EXCEPT:
a. Children 15 years of age below
b. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted
without discernment
c. Insane persons or an imbecile persons
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted
with discernment.
337. Who among the following incurs full
responsibility upon commission of a crime?
a. Those 15 years of age and below
b. Those who are 18 years of age and above
c. Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of
age
d. Those who are 18 years of age
338. Are those where the act committed is a crime
but for reasons of public policy and sentiment, there
is no penalty imposed.
a. Justifying circumstances
b. Mitigating circumstances
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 c. Absolutory cause found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or
d. Exempting circumstances offener?
339. X was charged before the court. During the a. Recidivist
pendency of his trial he died. What would be the b. Quasi recidivist
effect of his death on the case involved and on his c. Reiteration
criminal liability? d. habitual delinquent
a. The criminal case will be dismissed ad his 346. The following circumstances are always
criminal liability is extinguished. mitigated in terms of alternative circumstances,
b. The criminal case will proceed and his except:
criminal liability is not extinguished. a. Low degree education
c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for b. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has
his resurrection. not intended it or not a habitual drunkard.
d. Actually there will be no effect at all because c. Relationship in crimes against property
his relatives will be the one to face trial and d. Relationship in crimes against persons
punished in case of his conviction. 347. Refers to persons who take direct part in the
340. Which of the following operates as an absolutory execution of a crime.
cause. a. principals
a. Spontaneous desistance b. accessories
b. Accessories who are exempt from criminal c. accomplice
liability by reason of relationship d. instigators
c. Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight 348. A person who directly induce others to commit a
physical injuries under exceptional crime is regarded as:
circumstances a. principal by direct participation
d. Person exempt from criminal liability for b. principal by indispensable cooperation
theft swindling and malicious mischief by c. principal by induction
relationship to the offended party d. instigators
e. All of the choices 349. The desire or wish in common thing
341. An aggravating circumstances which generally a. intent
apply to all crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or b. motive
recidivism. c. conspire
a. generic d. cooperate
b. specific 350. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in
c. qualifying the murder of another person is liable as:
d. Inherent a. principal
342. C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, b. accessory
forcing her using the dog-style position in the sexual c. accomplice
act. Rape is committed aggravated by what d. conspirator
circumstances? 351. Personal liability to be suffered by the convict
a. ignominy who has no property to meet the fine.
b. passion a. subsidiary penalty
c. cruelty b. suspension
d. Craft c. penalty
343. Is an act of sovereign power granting a general d. d.civil interdiction
pardon for past offense and is rarely exercised in 352. In cases where in the commission of an offense
favor of a single individual and is usually granted to is necessary in the commission of another it is said
certain classes of persons usually political offenders, the crime is:
who are subject to trial but not yet convicted. a. formal crime
a. Pardon b. informal crime
b. Commutation c. compound crime
c. Parole d. complex crime
d. Amnesty 353. An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated
344. The law which prohibits the imposition of the scale of penalties.
death penalty? a. degree
a. RA 6981 b. period
b. P.D. 968 c. prescription
c. R.A. 9346 d. duration
d. R.A. 4103 354. A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum
345. How do you call an offender who within a period period defined by law subject to the termination by
of ten (10) years from the date of his release or last the parole board at any time after service of the
conviction of the crimes of Serious Physical Injuries, sentence.
robbery (robo), Theft (hurto), Estafa or falsification is a. Suspension
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G.S.T. 2019
 b. indeterminate sentence a. Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to
c. prescription Prision correctional (maximum period) as
d. period of penalty maximum period of the indeterminate
355. The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall penalty.
prescribe in how many years? b. Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum
a. 15 years to Prision correctional (any period) as
b. 1year maximum period of the indeterminate
c. 10 years penalty
d. 5 years c. Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor
356. Those crime punishable by death, reclusion as maximum period
perpetua and reclusion temporal shall prescribe in: d. None of the above
a. 20 years 363. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the
b. 15 years commission of a crime.
c. 10 years a.15-18 years old
d. 5 years b.18-70 years old
357. Those punishable by correctional penalties shall c.9 years old and below
prescribe in how many years? d.between 9 and 15 years old
a. 20 years 364. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the
b. 15 years execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous
c. 10 years acts.
d. 5 years a.Accomplices
358. Light offenses prescribe in: b.Suspects
a. 12 months c.principal actors
b. 6 months d.accessories
c. 4 months 365. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the
d. 2 months government to execute the final sentence after the
359. A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
you this week”. A bought a firearms. On Friday, he a.prescription of crime
waited for B and shot him but killed C instead. In so b.prescription of prosecution
far as B is concerned, the crime committed by A is: c.prescription of judgment
a. Attempted murder d.prescription of penalty
b. frustrated murder 366. A kind of executive clemency whereby the
c. illegal discharge of firearm execution of penalty is suspended.
d. all of these a.Pardon
360. In so far as C is concerned the crime committed b.commutation
is: c.amnesty
a. frustrated homicide d.reprieve
b. murder 367. Infractions of mere rules of convenience
c. consummated homicide designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the
d. none of the above affairs of the society.
361. X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide a.mala prohibita
(consummated) which is punishable by Reclusion b.mala in se
Perpetua. c.private crimes
He pleaded guilty to the charge at the d.public crimes
arraignment. Determine his penalty. 368. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall
a. Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum have acted together in the commission of a crime.
to Reclusion temporal (minimum period) as a.gang
the maximum period of the indeterminate b.conspiracy
penalty. c.band
b. Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to d.piracy
Reclusion temporal (any period) as the 369. The failure to perform a positive duty which one
maximum period of the indeterminate is bound to.
penalty a.Negligence
c. Reclusion temporal as the minimum period b.imprudence
to reclusion perpetua as maximum c.omission
d. Prision mayor d.act
362. X (as principal) committed grave coercion 370. Ways and means are employed for the purpose
(consummated) punishable by prision correctional. of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the
There was one aggravating circumstances in the execution of his criminal plan.
commission of the crime let us say “with the aid of a.Misfeasance
armed men”. Fix his penalty. b.entrapment
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G.S.T. 2019
 c.inducement a. Principal by direct participation
d.instigation b. Principal by induction
371. The following are exempted from criminal c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
liability, EXCEPT: d. Accomplice
a. Children 15 years of age below 378. What about Mr. C. Goddard?
b. Insane persons or Imbecile persons a. Principal
c. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted b. Accomplice
c. Accessory
with discernment
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted 379. What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds?
without discernment a. Principal
372. Those grounds which makes the person not b. Accomplice
imputable for the offense since there is a wanting in c. Accessory
the agent of the crime of the conditions which make d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
the act voluntary or negligent. 380. The following are Justifying Circumstances,
a. Justifying EXCEPT?
b. Exempting a. Obedience to a lawful order
c. Mitigating b. Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or
d. Aggravating performance of duty
c. A person who acts under compulsion of an
373. When a public officer convinces a person to
irresistible force
commit a felony and would arrest him or her after its
d. Avoidance of greater evil or injury
commission he is committing.
381. The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de
a. instigation
officio without a complaint first filed by the offended
b. entrapment party, EXCEPT:
c. conspiracy a. Seduction
d. proposal b. Rape
374. It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two c. Abduction
DEGREES depending upon what the law provides and d. Acts of Lasciviousness
cannot be offset by any aggravating circumstances. 382. What crime is committed if the unlawful taking
a. Mitigating Circumstances of personal property belonging to another is
b. Exempting circumstances committed with grave abuse of confidence?
c. Ordinary Mitigating Circumstances a. Robbery
d. Privilege Mitigating circumstances b. Qualified Theft
375. Crimes are classified in various categories. What c. Theft
classifications of crime is when a single act results to d. Burglary
or more serious or less serious offenses. 383. What crime is committed if a person commits a
a. Continuing Crime crime of murder with the use of unlicensed firearm?
b. Complex crime or delito complejo a. Murder
c. Special complex crime b. Illegal Possession of firearm
d. Compound crime or delito compuesto c. Qualified Illegal possession of firearm
376. Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts d. Murder with illegal possession of f/a.
bought a rifle from Mr. C. Goddard. Knowing Mr. 384. If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted
Dellinger’s plan, Mr. Goddard sold the gun. Since Mr. upon a person in a manner that is determined and
Pitts is in an Island for vacation and the only way to constant until the lawful purpose is realize, the crime
reach the island is to ride a boat, Mr. Dellinger rented committed is:
the boat of Mr. F. Galton, the owner of the only boat a. Threat
that can be rented to reach the island. Also knowing b. Grave threat
Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. F. Galton allowed the boat c. Coercions
to be rented for a much higher price. Mr. Dellinger d. Light threat
successfully reached the island and killed Mr. R. Pitts. 385. When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon
Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts requested the the offended party does not amount to a crime the
service of Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds to bury designation of the offense is called
Mr’s Pitts Body in exchange for thousand of pesos. a. Threats
What was the crime committed by Mr. Dellinger? b. Grave threats
a. Homicide c. Light Threats
b. Murder d. Coercion
c. Parricide 386. A public officer who without legal ground shall
d. Manslaughter prohibit or interrupt the holding of a peaceful
377. What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton? meeting or dissolved the same is liable for:
a. Prohibition of a peaceful meeting
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G.S.T. 2019
 b. dissolution of peaceful meeting
c. Interruption of peaceful meeting
d. all of the choices.
387. If a private person removes a person confined in
jail or penal institution or helps in the escape of such
person by means of violence, intimidation, bribery or
any other means, the crime committed is:
a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
c. Delivery of prison from jail
d. corruption of public official
388. Light offenses prescribe in:
a. 12 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 2 months
389. X raped the wife in the presence of the husband,
forcing her, using the dog-style position in the sexual
act. Rape is committed aggravated by what
circumstances?
a. ignominy
b. passion
c. cruelty
d. obstruction
390. Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing
information relative to national defense with intent
to be used to the injury of the Republic of the
Philippines.
a. treason
b. conspiracy to commit treason
c. espionage
d. misprision to treason
391. To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery
of persons to proper judicial authorities, a person
caught in the act of committing a felony punishable
by penalties which are correctional in nature must be
delivered to said authorities within how many hours?
a. 12
b. 36
c. 18
d. 48
392. Amendments with leave of court after the
accused pleads are allowed under the following
circumstance.
a. Amendments as to substance
b. Amendments as to form
c. Amendments that change the nature of the
offense
d. None of these
393. The rule is that the civil action for the recovery
of civil liability arising from the offense charged is
deemed instituted with the criminal action. This rule
does not apply in the following instances, EXCEPT.
a. When the offended party waives the civil
action
b. When the offended party reserves the right
to institute separate civil action
c. When the offended party institute the
G.S.T. 2019
criminal action
d. When the offended party institute the civil
action prior to the criminal action.
394. The reservation of the right to institute separate
civil action shall be made:
a. Before the arraignment
b. During the pre-trial conference
c. Before the prosecution rest
d. Before the prosecution present evidence
395. The rule prohibits the filing of the following
pleadings in the criminal case, EXCEPT:
a. Motion for postponement
b. Counter affidavit
c. Counterclaim
d. Third party complaint
396. The petition for suspension of the criminal action
based upon the pendency of prejudicial question in
a civil action may be filed with the following, EXCEPT
one:
a. The court where the civil action is pending
b. The court where the criminal action is
pending
c. Office of the prosecutor
d. None of these
397. Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is
required before the filing of a complaint or
information where the penalty for the offense is:
a. At least 6 years and 1 day
b. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
c. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
d. Exceeding 6 years and one day
398. The following may be submitted by the
respondent in a preliminary investigation, EXEPT:
a. Counter-affidavit
b. Motion to dismiss
c. Witness counter affidavit
d. supporting documents
399. The following officers are authorized to conduct
preliminary investigation on cases falling within their
jurisdiction, EXCEPT:
a. Provincial prosecutor
b. City prosecutor
c. Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman
d. Judges of Municipal trial court
400. An offense which under the law existing at the
time of its commission and of the application for
admission to bail may be punish with death is called:
a. Capital punishment
b. Heinous crime
c. Capital Offense
d. Grave offense
401. The court may dismiss the case on the ground of
insufficiency of evidence:
a. On the motion of the accused filed with prior
leave of court
b. By its own initiative after giving the
prosecution an opportunity to be heard
c. On motion of the accused thru counsel
d. A and B only
402. Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession
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 of Ruben which was snatched from him three days
ago. He confronted the latter and force to get back
said cell phone against his will. For what crime or
crimes may Manuel be liable for, if he will go to force
to get back the same?
a. Coercion
b. Robbery
c. Threats
d. Theft
403. The following statement are false, EXCEPT:
a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
b. The accused must personally enter his plea
c. The accused must excused/waived
arraignment
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court
other than where the case is assigned.
404. Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital
offense and the evidence of guilt is strong.
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Partly true
d. Partly false
405. Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be
placed under the custody of the law. It should be
made at:
a. Anytime of the day
b. anytime of the day and night
c. Anytime of the morning
d. d. anytime of the night
406. It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made
with kettles, his horns, etc, designated to deride or
annoy:
a. Charivari
b. Grave scandal
c. Alarm and Scandal
d. Harana
407. The application for search warrant may be filed
with the following, EXCEPT:
a. Any court within whose territorial
jurisdiction a crime was committed.
b. Any court within the judicial region where
the crime was committed
c. Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines
d. Any Court Within judicial region where the
warrant shall be enforced
408. An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the
first level court shall be by:
a. Notice of appeal
b. by Petition for review
c. Petition for review on certiorari
d. Petition for certiorari
409. After the prosecution rest its case, the case can
be dismiss due to insufficiency of evidence by:
a. The courts own initiative
b. By the accused through his counsel by
Demurrer to evidence
c. By the prosecution on its own initiative
d. a and b only
410. Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden
G.S.T. 2019
for the escape of his brother Chan. The Warden
ordered his jail guard to leave the door unlocked so
as to facilitate the escape of Mr. Chan. The guard
leaves the door unlocked and tells Mr. Chan to
escape at mid-night. What crime was committed by
the Warden?
a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. Direct Bribery
c. Delivery of prison from jail
d. corruption of public official
411. What Crime can be charged against the guard
who connives with the prisoner?
a. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
c. Delivering prisoner from jail
d. A and B
412. A public officer or a warden who solicits or
makes immoral or indecent advances to a woman
who is under his custody or wife or daughter of the
person under his custody shall be liable for:
a. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Abuses against Chastity
c. Indirect Bribery
d. infidelity in the custody of prisoners
413. Relevancy is one of the requisites for
admissibility of evidence which means that evidence
must have such relation to the fact in issue as to
induce belief in its existence or non-existence. The
other requisite is ____________?
a. That is should not be excluded for by law.
b. That it is material to the facts in issue
c. That it is credible
d. That it is the best evidence
414. Evidence must be relevant in order to be
admissible hence, collateral matters are not allowed.
Except:
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to
establish the probability or improbability of
the fact in issue.
b. When it is competent
c. When it is credible
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in
issue based on other related evidence.
415. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of
any rights of a person will not be admissible in court.
This is anchored on what requisites of admissibility?
a. materiality
b. competency
c. relevancy
d. credibility
416. It is that quality of evidence which tends to
influence the trier of facts because of its logical
connection with the issue. Evidence which has an
effective influence or bearing to the question?
a. material
b. relevant
c. competent
d. credible
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417. The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable
by imprisonment of more than 6 years shall become
permanent ________ after issuance of the order
without the case having been revived.
a. One year
b. six months
c. Two years
d. three years
418. Within how many days after arraignment and
from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the
person of the accused shall order a pre-trial
conference?
a. 30 days
b. 20 days
c. 15 days
d. 60 days
419. How many days is given to an accused person to
prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 20 days
d. 180 days
420. The law expanding the jurisdiction of the
Metropolitan Trial Court is called?
a. R.A. 7691
b. R.A. 3019
c. R.A. 8493
d. B.P. 129
421. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party,
any peace officer of public officer in charged of
enforcement of the law violated filed either to the
court or to the office of the prosecutor.
a. Complaint
b. Information
c. Pleadings
d. Affidavit
422. Prescription of offense commence to run:
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the
offended party or peace officers or their
agent.
b. Upon filing of cases in court
c. Upon escape of the accused
d. Upon re-appearance of the accuse
423. The following are cases covered by rules on
summary procedure EXCEPT:
a. Where the penalty is six months
imprisonment.
b. Violation of traffic laws
c. Violation of rental laws
d. Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6)
months imprisonment
424. Refers to the counsel provided by the
government to assist destitute litigant?
a. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. National Prosecution Office
425. It is a process directed to a person requiring him
to attend and to testify or to bring with him any
G.S.T. 2019
books or documents under his control at the trial of
an action.
a. subpoena
b. subpoena duces tecum
c. subpoena ad testificandum
d. warrant of arrest
426. The order of trial is:
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and
surrebattal
b. Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal.
427. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings,
mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative
device to assist him in testimony.
a. Testimonial aids
b. Emotional security items
c. support item
d. none of these
428. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in
all stages of examination of a child, if the same will
further the interest of justice.
a. leading questions
b. misleading
c. relevant
d. narrative
429. Court shall take judicial notice, without the
introduction of evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Matters of Public Knowledge
b. The measure of time
c. Law of nations
d. Law of nature
430. Court may take judicial notice of the following in
exercise of its discretion, EXCEPT.
a. The geographical divisions
b. Matter which are of public knowledge;
c. Matters capable of unquestionable
demonstration; or
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because
of their judicial functions.
431. Matters of judicial notice have three material
requisites. These requisites are:
a. The matter must be one of common and
general knowledge.
b. It must be well and authoritatively settled
and not doubtful or uncertain
c. It must be known to be within the limits of
the jurisdiction of the court.
d. All of the choices
432. Self incriminatory statement falling short of an
acknowledgement of guilt made by a party in the
course of the proceeding in the same case which
does not require proof.
a. Admission
b. self serving statement
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 c. declaration against interest
d. confession
433. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a
document no evidence shall be admissible other
than the original documents itself. This refers to the
_____.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
434. What are secondary evidence?
a. Certified true COPY of a document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
document
c. Testimony of witnesses
d. All of the choices
435. When the terms of an agreement have been
reduced to writing, it is considered as containing all
the terms agreed upon and there can be, as between
the parties and their successors in interest, no
evidence of such terms other than the contents of
the agreement.
a. Parol evidence Rule
b. b. parol evidence
c. Best Evidence Rule
d. Secondary Evidence
436. As a rule all persons who can perceived, and
perceiving, can make known of their perception to
others can be witness and the following shall not be
a ground for disqualification.
a. Religious and political belief
b. Interest in the outcome of the case
c. conviction of a crime unless otherwise
provided by law
d. All of the choices
437. An Act Providing for A Witness Protection,
Security and Benefit program and for other
purposes.
a. R.A. 6981
b. R.A. 6646
c. P.D.749
d. R.A. 6770
438. No person may be compelled to testify against
his parents, other direct ascendants, children or
other direct descendants. This is embodied under
what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege.
b. declaration against pedigree
c. declaration against common reputation
d. res inter alois acta rule
439. An offer of compromise is considered not an
admission of any liability and is not admissible in
evidence against the offeror on the following case,
EXCEPT.
a. In civil cases
b. Those arising from criminal negligence
G.S.T. 2019
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical,
hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
injury.
d. In criminal cases
440. A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an
unaccepted offer of a plea of guilty to a lesser
offense is_____?
a. not admissible in evidence against the
accused who made the plea of offer.
b. admissible in evidence against the accused
who made the plea of offer
c. shall not be considered an plea
d. will be considered a plea of not guilty
441. The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an
act, declaration, or omission of another, except as
provided by the rules of court.
a. Res inter alios acta rule
b. admission by co-partner
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by silence of a person for not
doing or saying anything when an act or
declaration is said against him in his
presence.
442. The following are the requirements in
determining child’s competency as a witness
EXCEPT:
a. capacity of Observation
b. capacity of Recollection
c. capacity of Communication
d. capacity to Comprehend
443. Where several extrajudicial confessions had
been made by several person charged with the same
offense and without the possibility of collision
among them, the fact that the statements are in all
respects identical is confirmatory of the confessions
of the co-defendants and are admissible against the
other persons implicated therein.
a. interlocking confessions
b. res inter alios acta rule
c. admission by privies
d. confession by co-defendant
444. An act or declaration made in the presence and
within the hearing or observation of a party who
does or says nothing when the act or declaration is
such as to call for action or comment if not true, and
when proper and possible for him to do so, may be
given in evidence against him.
a. admission by silence
b. confession
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by privies
445. Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence
rule?
a. That a witness can testify only to those facts
which he knows of his personal knowledge;
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 that ism which are derived from his own This statement is?
perception. a. True
b. hearsay evidence is not acceptable as b. false
c. It depends
evidence in court
e. Partly false
c. Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the
authority of another person. 453. A form of evidence supplied by written
d. hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to instruments or derived from conventional symbols,
facts of which the witness has no personal such as letters, by which ideas are represented on
knowledge because it is derived from the material substances.
knowledge or perception of others who are a.documentary evidence
b.testimonial evidence
not called to testify.
c.material evidence
446. The declaration of a dying person, made under d.real evidence
the consciousness of an impending death, may be 454. When the witness states that he did not see or
received in any case wherein his death is the subject know the occurrence of a fact.
of inquiry, as evidence of the cause and surrounding a.positive evidence
circumstances of such death. b.corroborative evidence
a. Dying declaration c.secondary evidence
b. res gestae d.negative evidence
c. declaration against interest 455. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds
d. declaration about pedigree upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial.
447. Is the duty of the party to present evidence on a.ex post facto law
the facts in issue necessary to establish his claim or b.equal protection of the law
defense by the amount of evidence required by law. c.rule of law
a. burden of evidence d.due process of law
b. burden of proof 456. It means that the resulting injury is greater than
that which is intended.
c. proof of evidence
a. Aberratio ictus
d. cause of action b. Error in personae
448. A Foreign vessel registered in the country of c. Dura Lex Sed lex
Australia anchored at Manila Bay wherein an d. Praeter Intentionem
Australian national was caught in possession of 457. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea
Cocaine. What rule provides that a crime committed of ___ shall be entered.
while on board of the vessel. a. Not guilty
a. French rule b. admission by silence
b. American Rule c. guilty
c. Spanish Rule d. none
d. English Rule 458. When reception of evidence is necessary under
449. Shall deprive the offender rights of parental the following circumstances:
authority or guardianship. a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
a. subsidiary penalty b. plea of guilty to capital offense
b. penalty c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
c. suspension d. all of these
d. civil interdiction 459. When the complaint is vague, the accused may
450. It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a file a motion alleging among others the defect of the
sexual relationship to a married man. This complaint or information and the details desired in
statement is? order to enable him to properly answer and prepare
a. True for trial. This motion is known as:
b. false a. motion for bill of particular
c. It depends b. motion for clarification
d. Partly false c. motion to dismiss
451. The following are considered afflictive penalties, d. motion for postponement
except: 460. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment
a. death by lethal injection shall be suspended on the following grounds:
b. reclusion perpetua a. The accused appears to be suffering from
c. reclusion temporal unsound mental condition.
d. prison mayor b. There exist a prejudicial question.
452. It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual
relationship to a married woman.

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G.S.T. 2019
 c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of b. R.A. 7348
the prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ c. R.A. 7834
or office of the President . d. R.A. 3478
d. All of the choices 469. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an
461. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge accused cannot be compelled to be a witness against
made by an accused is: himself. This principle also known as:
a. Motion to quash a. b and d
b. Nolle pro sequi R.A. 7438
c. Motion to dismiss
d. bill of particulars b. rights against self- incrimination
462. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute c. rights against illegal arrest
and punish or the termination of the power to d. the right to presume innocent
prosecute or punish the offender after the lapse of e. right to live
certain definite period from the commission of the 470. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the
offense. following pleading are prohibited except:
a. Prescription of crime a. motion to quash
b. acquisitive b. bill of particular
c. prescription of penalty c. answer
d. extinctive d. demurred to evidence
463. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is 471. The following cases committed by public official
the danger of being prosecuted for the same offense with salary grade 27 and above fall under the
for the second time. exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
a. double jeopardy a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019,
b. double trial R.A. 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII,
c. double trouble Book two of the RPC
d. double counter b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and
464. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by in connection with executive order nos. 1, 2,
imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of 14 and 14-A.
any amount or both shall become permanent after c. Crimes committed by public official in
____. relation to their office.
a. one year d. None of the choices
b. 2 years 472. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is
c. 5 years deemed instituted upon the filing of criminal action
d. 4 years in court as provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In
465. Within how many days after arraignment and what instances can a civil action for recovery of civil
from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the liability can be separated?
person of the accused shall order a pre-trial a. When the offended party waives the civil
conference? action;
a. 30 days b. When the offended party reserves his right
b. 15 days to institute the civil action;
c. 20 days c. When the institution of the civil action is
d. 60 days made prior to the criminal action.
466. How many days are given to an accused person d. all of the choices
to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is 473. Alden Richard, a Mayor of Valenzuela together
entered? with engineer Maine Mendoza and Councilor Sipag
a. 15 days were surveying the land occupied by informal
b. 20 days settlers for government projects and for their
c. 30 days relocation. The residents oppose with the plan. Mrs.
d. 180 days Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of
467. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Mayor Alden when the latter came near. One of the
Court, the following officers are authorized to close escorts of the Mayor defends her but Mrs.
conduct preliminary investigation except? Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. For
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in
b. Judge MTC/MCTC relation to Mayor Alden?
c. Regional State Prosecutor a. Sedition
d. Public Attorney’s office b. Slander by Deeds
468. A Special Law which defines certain rights of c. Direct Assault
accused, detained or under custodial investigation as d. Rebellion
well as duties of the arresting detailing and 474. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
investigation officer. a. The assault is committed with a weapon
a. b. The offender is a public officer or employee
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 c. The offender lays hands upon a person in e. All of the choices
authority 481. Within how many days after arraignment and
d. The offender seriously intimidating or from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the
resisting a person in authority person of the accused shall order a pre-trial
e. It should be noted that the assault should be conference?
mad without public uprising. a. 30 days
475. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, b. 20 days
whether as an individual or as a member of some c. 15 days
court or government corporation, board or
d. 60 days
commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority 482. How many days is given to an accused person to
b. Judicial authority prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
c. person in authority a. 15 days
d. Public employee b. 30 days
476. It is committed by any person who shall resist or c. 20 days
seriously disobey any person in authority, or the d. 180 days
agents of such person, while engaged in the 483. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be
performance of official functions. prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
a. Direct assault
a.Parents
b. Indirect Assault
b.Offended Spouse
c.Guardians
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the d.God father
National Assembly 484. Those where the act committed is a crime but for
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no
authority or the agents of such person penalty imposed.
477. The following are crimes classified as public
disorders, EXCEPT. a.impossible crimes
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public b.aggravating circumstances
order c.absolutory causes
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and d.complex crimes
lawful utterances 485. An act which would be an offense against
c. Alarms and scandals persons or property if it was not for the inherent
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails impossibility of its accomplishment.
e. None of the choices a.compound crime
478. Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor b.impossible crime
fired a gun in the air to proclaim to the people that c.complex crime
he is celebrating his birthday. Such act constitutes d.accidental crime
___? 486. The law which re-imposed the death penalty.
a. illegal discharge of firearm a.RA 5425
b. alarm & scandals b.RA 8553
c. disturbances c.RA 7659
d. outcry d.RA 9346
479. Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced 487. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to
prisoner), gave 20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or a person as its owner or author
allow the escape of her brother is guilty of what a.responsibility
crime? b.duty
a. Evasion of service of sentence c.guilt
b. delivering prisoners from jail d.imputability
c. Bribery 488. Something that happen outside the sway of our
d. Corruption of public official will, and although it comes about through some acts
of our will, lies beyond the bound s of humanly
480. The following circumstances qualifies the crime foreseeable consequences.
of evasion of service of sentence. a.fortuitous event
a. By means of unlawful entry b.fate
b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, c.accident
roofs or floors. d.destiny
c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, 489. Known in other countries as the body of
deceit, violence or intimidation. principles, practices, usages and rules of action
d. Through connivance with other convicts or which are not recognized in our country.
employees of the penal institution.
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 a.penal laws d. Praeter Intentionem
b.special laws 498. It means mistake in the blow.
c.common laws a. Aberratio Ictus
d.statutory laws b. Error in Personae
490. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in c. Dura lex sed lex
the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that d. Praeter Intentionem
would make an act. Voluntary and hence, though 499. A stage of execution when all the elements
there is no criminal liability there is civil liability necessary for its execution and accomplishment are
a.Exempting present.
b.alternative a. Attempted
c.justifying b. Frustrated
d.aggravating c. Consummated
491. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person d. Accomplished
are in accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs 500. An act or omission which is the result of a
no criminal and civil liability. misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not
a.exempting intentional.
b.alternative a. Absolutory Cause
c.justifying b. Mistake of facts
d.aggravating c. Conspiracy
492. When the offender enjoys and delights in making d. Felony
his victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing him 501. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of
unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth
the criminal act. respecting a matter of fact?
a.Ignominy
a. Evidence
b.cruelty
c.treachery b. Facts
d.masochism c. Proof
493. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime d. Burden of proof
shall have been previously convicted by final 502. It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to
judgment of another crime embraced in the same be proved. It is the essential facts constituting the
title of the Revised Penal Code. plaintiff’s cause of action?
a.Recidivism
a. Factum probandum
b.habitual delinquency
c.reiteracion b. Evidence
d.quasi-recidivism c. factum probans
494. Alevosia means d. proof
a. Craft 503. The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as
b. treachery otherwise provided by law or these rules.
c. evident premeditation a. the same in all courts and in all trials and
d. cruelty
hearings
495. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds
upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial. b. not the same in all courts and in all trials and
a. ex post facto law hearings
b. equal protection of the law c. dependent on the type of case involved
c. rule of law d. absolutely the same in all courts and in all
d. due process of law trials and hearings
504. Relevancy is one of the requisites for
496. A person if within a period of 10 years from the
date of his release or last conviction of the crime of admissibility of evidence which means that evidence
serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery, must have such relation to the fact in issue as to
theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of any induce belief in its existence or non-existence. The
of the said crimes a third time or oftener. other requisite is ____?
a. Recidivist a. That it should not be excluded for by law
b. quasi-recidivist b. That it is material to the facts in issue
c. habitual delinquent
c. That it is credible
d. hardened criminal
497. It means that the resulting injury is greater than d. That it is the best evidence
that which is intended. 505. Evidence must be relevant in order to be
a. Aberratio ictus admissible hence, collateral matters are not allowed.
b. Error in personae Except:
c. Dura Lex Sed lex
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 a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to
establish the probability or improbability of
the fact in issue.
b. When it is competent
c. When it is credible
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in
issue based on other related evidence
506. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of
any rights of a person will not be admissible in court.
This is anchored on what requisites of admissibility?
a. a. materiality
b. relevancy
c. competency
d. credibility
507. Evidence which the witness states that he did
not see or know of the factual occurrences what kind
of evidence?
a. negative
b. affirmative
c. positive
d. Alibi
508. An additional evidence of different kind tending
to prove the same facts in issue. Evidence which are
supplementary to that already given and tending to
strengthen or confirm it.
a. Corroborative
b. Associative
c. Commulative
d. Credible
509. Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It
refers to the logical and inevitable result of the
evidence on record, exclusive of any other
consideration, of the moral certainty of the guilt of
the accused or that degree of proof which produces
conviction in an unprejudiced mind.
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. Clear and Convincing Evidence
c. Preponderance of evidence
d. Substantial evidence
510. It is that proof which, if unexplained or
uncontradicted, is sufficient to sustain the
proposition it supports or to establish the facts or to
counterbalance the presumptions of innocence to
warrant a conviction.
a. Prima-facie evidence
b. Preponderance of evidence
c. Rebuttal evidence
d. Sur-rebuttal evidence
511. Court shall take judicial notice, without the
introduction of evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Matters of Public Knowledge
b. Law of nation
c. The measure of time
G.S.T. 2019
d. Law of nature
512. Court may take judicial notice of the following
exercise of its discretion, EXCEPT:
a. The geographical divisions
b. Matter which are of public knowledge
c. Matters capable of unquestionable
demonstration; or
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because
of their judicial functions.
513. When can proper court, on its own initiative or
on request of a party, may take judicial notice of any
matter and allow the parties to be heard thereon if
such matter is decisive of a material issue in the
case?
a. after the trial
b. before judgment
c. on appeal
d. all of the choices
514. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an
acknowledgment of guilt made by a party in the
course of the proceeding in the same case which
does not require proof.
a. Admission
b. declaration against interest
c. self-serving statement
515. Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses
of the court.
a. Real or Object
b. Testimonial
c. Documentary
d. Direct
516. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a
document no evidence shall be admissible other
than the original documents itself. This refers to the
___.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parole Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
517. What are the exemptions to the best evidence
rule:
a. When the original has been lost or destroyed
orunder cannot be produced in court,
without bad faith on the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is in the custody or under
the control of the party against whom the
evidence is offered, and the latter fails to
produce it after reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous
accounts or other documents which cannot
be examined in court without great loss of
time and the fact sought to be established
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 from them is only the general result of the
whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the
custody of the public officer or is recorded in
a public office.
e. All of the choices
518. When the original document has been lost or
destroyed, or cannot be reproduced in court, the
offeror, upon proof of its execution or existence and
the cause of its unavailability without bad faith on his
part, may prove its contents by a copy, or by a recital
of its contents in some authentic document or by the
testimony of witnesses in the order stated.
a. Secondary Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Secondary Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
519. When secondary evidence is allowed?
a. When the original has been lost, destroyed
or cannot be produced in court, without bad
faith on the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is under the custody or
under the control of the party against whom
the evidence is offered, and the latter fails to
produce it after reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous
accounts or other documents which cannot
be examined in court without great loss of
time and the fact sought to be established
from them is only the general result of the
whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the
custody of a public officer or is recorded in a
public office
e. All of the choices
520. What are secondary evidence?
a. A Certified True COPY of a document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
document
c. Testimony of witnesses
d. All of the choices
521. When the terms of an agreement have been
reduced to writing, it is considered as containing all
the terms agreed upon and there can be, as between
the parties and their successors in interest, no
evidence of such terms other than the contents of
the agreement.
a. Parol Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence
d. Secondary Evidence
522. It refers to an evidence of oral or written
statement of a party presented as evidence to
G.S.T. 2019
modify, explain or add to the terms of the written
agreement.
a. Parol Evidence
b. Secondary Evidence
c. Best Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
523. On which of the following circumstances parol
evidence can be accepted?
a. When there is an intrinsic ambiguity,
mistake or imperfection in the written
agreement;
b. The fulfillment of the written agreement to
express the true intent and agreement of
the parties thereto;
c. The validity of the written agreement;
d. The existence of other terms agreed to by
the parties or their successors in interest
after the execution of the written
agreement.
524. The following are qualifications for discharged of
a person to be state witness.
a. There is absolute necessity for the testimony
of the accused whose discharge is
requested;
b. There is no other direct evidence available
for the proper prosecution for the offense
committed except the testimony of said
accused;
c. The testimony of said accused can be
substantially corroborated in its material
points;
d. Said accused appear to be the most guilty;
e. Said accused has not at any time been
convicted of an offense involving moral
turpitude;
525. R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the
disclosure or examination of bank deposits. As a
general rule bank deposits are absolutely
confidential in nature and may not examined or
inquired or looked into by any person or government
officials, EXCEPT:
a. upon written permission of the depositor
b. in cases of impeachment
c. upon order of competent court in cases of
briber, dereliction of duty of public officials
d. in case where the money deposited or
invested is the subject matter of litigation
e. in cases of well explained wealth
526. No person may be compelled to testify against
his parents, other direct ascendants, children or
other direct descendants. This is embodied under
what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege
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 b. declaration against pedigree 535. Is that branch or division of law which defines
c. declaration against common reputation crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their
d. declaration against Parental relationship punishment?
a. Act 3815
527. An offer of compromise is considered not an
b. Criminal Law
admission of any liability and is not admissible in c. Revised Penal Code
evidence against the offeror on the following case, d. Criminal Procedure
EXCEPT: 536. Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or
a. In civil cases sojourn in Philippine territory regardless of sex, race
b. Those arising from criminal negligence or religious affiliation. EXCEPT matters covered by:
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, a. Treaty Stipulation
b. Public International Law
hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
c. Law of Preferential Application
injury d. All of the choices
d. In criminal cases 537. By Principles of Public International law, the
528. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same following enjoin immunity from the application of
state of facts. the Philippine Criminal law, EXCEPT:
a. secondary evidence a. Consul
b. prima facie evidence b. Heads of State
c.corroborative evidence c. Ambassador
d. Cumulative evidence d. d. Minister de affaires
529. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or 538. Acts or omission punishable by public law
uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the commanding or forbidding it:
proposition affirmed. a. Crimes
a.secondary evidence b. Felonies
b.prima facie evidence c. Offense
c.corroborative evidence d. Infractions of law
d.best evidence 539. Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of
530. A form of evidence supplied by written criminal liability is human free will, the purpose of
instruments or derived from conventional symbols, punishment is retribution and is generally
such as letters, by which ideas are represented on exemplified in the Revised Penal Code.
material substances. a. Eclectic
a.documentary evidence b. Classical Theory
b.testimonial evidence c. Positivist Theory
c.material evidence d. Neo-Classical Theory
d.real evidence 540. The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign
531. When the witness states that he did not see or territorial jurisdiction which generally follows the
know the occurrence of a fact. Nationality Principle and not the Domiciliary
a. positive evidence Principle except when the crime committed on board
b. corroborative evidence vessels affects the national security of the Country
c. secondary evidence where such vessel is located.
d. negative evidence a. French Rule
532. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds b. English Rule
upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial. c. Spanish Rule
a.ex post facto law d. Greek Rule
b.equal protection of the law 541. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without
c.rule of law trial, its essence being the substitution of legislative
d.due process of law fiat for a judicial determination of guilt.
533. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary a. Ex post facto law
source of criminal laws in the Philippines. It approved b. Retroactivity
on? c. Bill of attainder
a. January 1, 1923
d. Prospective
b. January 1, 1932
c. December 8, 1930 542. Which of the following is NOT an element of the
d. January 1, 1933 Crime of Dolo or Deceit?
534. It means that the resulting injury is greater than a. Intent
that which is intended. b. Freedom
a. Aberratio ictus c. Intelligence
b. Error in personae d. Negligence
c. Dura Lex Sed lex
d. Praeter Intentionem
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G.S.T. 2019
543. These are crimes which are NOT considered bad 551. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the
in itself but the doer is found to have transgress the government to execute the final sentence after the
law for act which it prohibits. lapse of certain time.
a. Crime a. Prescription of Crime
b. Felonies b. Prescription of Penalty
c. Mala in se c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
d. Mala Prohibita d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in
544. Is that act performed which would be an offense the commission of crime
against persons or property where it not for the 552. The forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to
inherent or legal impossibility of its accomplishment. prosecute the offender after the lapse of certain
a. Mala in se time.
b. mala prohibita a. Prescription of Crime
c. Impossible crime b. Prescription of Penalty
d. Formal crimes c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
545. It is the moving power or which impels a person d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in
to act and not an essential element of a crime but the commission of crime
would tend to establish the identity of the 553. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after
perpetrator. conviction and sentence, is released subject to
a. Intent conditions imposed by the court and to the
b. Motive supervision of a probation officer.
c. Negligence a. Parole
d. ignorance b. Pardon
546. The following are causes which would produce c. Probation
criminal liability though the result be different from d. Amnesty
what is intended, EXCEPT: 554. Known as the “Indeterminate Sentence Law” or
a.Abberatio ictus the Parole Law.
b.Error in Personae a. Act No. 4103 as amended
c.Preater intentionem b. RA No. 4103 as amended
d.Ignorantia Facti c. RA No. 4225 as amended
547. The offender performs all the acts of execution d. PD No. 968 as amended
that would produce the felony as a consequence but 555. What is the penalty of impossible crime? (Art.
the felony is not produced by reason of causes 59)
independent of the will of the perpetrator. a. Arresto Menor
a. Attempted b. Arresto Mayor
b. Consummated c. Prision Correctional
c. Frustrated d. Prision Mayor
d. Formal Crimes 556. It provides that the maximum duration of
548. Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or convict’s sentence shall not be more than 3 times
by a single act. the length of the most severe of the penalties
a.formal crimes imposed upon him but in no case to exceed 40
b.formal felonies years.
c.informal crimes a. Three-fold rule
b. Three-fold liability rule
d.material crimes
c. Four-fold rule
549. It exists when two or more persons come to an d. Four-fold liability rule
agreement to commit a felony and decide to 557. In case the offender cannot pay the fine, he
commit it. shall serve the same in prison and shall be credited
a. Proposal ___ for each day of subsidiary imprisonment.
b. Conspiracy a. Php 8.00
c. A & B b. Php 12.00
d. Cuadrilla c. Php 35. 00
550. A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his d. Highest minimum wage existing in the
sentence shall be granted to any prisoner who, country
having evaded the service of his sentence during 558. It is the expenses of litigation allowed by the
calamity, gives himself up to the authorities within Rules of Court to be assessed against or to be
48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation recovered by a party in litigation.
announcing the passing away of the calamity. a. Costs
a. Good Conduct Time Allowance b. Fine
b. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty c. Damages
c. Executive Clemency d. Civil liability
d. Indeterminate Sentence 559. Who may grant pardon?
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G.S.T. 2019
 a. The President b. Legitimate brother/ sister
b. The private offended party c. Adopted brother/ sister
c. The accused d. Brother-in-Law/ Sister-in-Law
d. The People of the Philippines e. Brother in a fraternity
560. If the detention prisoner does not agree to 568. One who: (a) concurs with the criminal design
abide by the same disciplinary rules imposed upon of the principals by direct participation; (b)
convicted prisoners, the credited preventive cooperates in the execution of the offense by
imprisonment is previous or simultaneous acts, with the intention of
a. Fulltime credit supplying material or moral aid in the execution of
b. 4/5 credit the crime in an efficacious way.
c. 2/3 credit a. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. 1/5 credit b. Principal by inducement
561. Period of detention undergone by an accused c. Accomplice
where the crime with which he is charged is non‐ d. Accessory
bailable or, even if bailable, he is unable to post the 569. Principal who materially execute the crime. He
requisite bail. (Art. 39) appears at the crime scene and performs acts
a. Solitary confinement necessary in the commission of the crime.
b. Preventive imprisonment a. Principal by inducement/ induction
c. Inmate incarceration b. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Suppressive Detention c. Principal by direct participation
562. A penalty that deprive the offender of his (1) d. Principal by conspiracy
rights of parental authority, or guardianship;(2) 570. Who are criminally liable?
Marital authority; (3) The right to manage his a. Principals
property; and (4) The right to dispose of such b. Accomplices
property by any act or any conveyance inter vivos. c. Accessories
a. Absolute disqualification d. All of the choices
b. Temporary disqualification 571. Those which must be taken into consideration
c. Bond to keep the peace as aggravating or mitigating according to the nature
d. Civil interdiction and effects of the crime and the other conditions
563. It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished attending its commission.
to a certain place and is prohibited from entering or a. Extenuating
coming near that place designated in the sentence, b. Mitigating
not less than 25 kilometers but not to extend beyond c. Alternative
250 kilometers. d. Aggravating
a. Transportation 572. It pertains to the moral order, which adds
b. Deportation disgrace to the material injury caused by the crime.
c. Destierro It adds insult to injury or adds shame to the natural
d. Extradition effects of the crime. It shocks the moral conscience
564. Penalties according to their gravity are as of man.
follows, except: a. Cruelty
a. Capital b. Ignominy
b. Afflictive c. Outraging
c. Correctional d. Scoffing
d. Slight 573. Husband A treating his wife B and his child as a
e. Light sex object, also forcing to watch obscene indecent
565. Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the shows .Is A committed crime of Violence Against
imposition of penalty: Women and Their Children?
a. Retribution or expiation a. Maybe NO
b. Correction or reformation b. Yes
c. Social defense c. No
d. Public Rataliation d. Maybe YES
566. The punishment imposed by lawful authority 574. The offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing
upon a person who commits a deliberate or information respecting the national defense with
negligent act which is against the law. intent, or there is reason to believe that information
a. Penalty is to be used to the injury of the Republic of the
b. Ordeal Philippines or to the advantage of any foreign nation.
c. Fine a. Treason
d. Imprisonment b. Rebellion
567. Article 20 provides for the exemption as c. Espionage
accessories from criminal liability, EXCEPT: d. Mutiny
a. Natural brother/ sister
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575. Other acts constituting the crime of espionage c. Delaying release
are punishable under d. Illegal Detention
a. BP No. 616 583. Committed by a public officer who detains a
b. PD No. 616 person for some legal ground but fails to deliver
c. CA No. 616 such person to the proper authority w/n the
d. RA No. 616 prescribed time.
576. Committed when two countries are at war of a. Arbitrary detention
which the Philippines is not involved and the b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons
offender violates the regulation issued by the to the proper authorities
government enforcing neutrality. c. Delaying release
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal d. Illegal Detention
b. Violation of neutrality 584. A crime committed by a public officer who
c. Correspondence with hostile country unduly delays the release of a person in his custody
d. Flight to enemy’s country in spite of a judicial/ executive order to release him.
577. A person who wrote a letter to an official of an a. Arbitrary detention
enemy country despite government prohibition is b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to
liable of this crime. the proper authorities
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal c. Delaying release
b. Violation of neutrality d. Illegal Detention
c. Correspondence with hostile country 585. A public officer who without authority compels
d. Flight to enemy’s country a person to change his residence is guilty of
578. Robbery or depredation in the high seas, a. Grave Coercion
without lawful authority and done with animo b. Grave Threat
furandi and in the spirit and intention of universal c. Expulsion
hostility. d. Violation of Domicile
a. Mutiny 586. A public officer who procures a search warrant
b. Piracy without just cause is liable of
c. Sea-jacking a. Abuse in the service of search warrant
d. Hi-jacking b. Warrant maliciously obtained
579. The axe gang are raping women in all the places c. Searching domicile without witnesses
they go from Batanes to Sulu. Their acts sow and d. Violation of Domicile
created a widespread and extra-ordinary fear and 587. An order in writing, issued in the name of the
panic among the populace. They demanded from People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and
the government to release all prisoners entire the directed to a peace officer, commanding him to
country for them to stop raping. Are they liable for SEARCH for personal property described therein
terrorism? and bring it before the court.
a. Yes a. Warrant of Arrest
b. No b. Search Warrant
c. Doubtful c. Subpoena
d. No answer d. Summons
580. Which of the following is not a form of arbitrary 588. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme
detention? Court in the appreciation of that a paraffin test has
a. Detaining a person without legal ground been held to be highly
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to
a. Accepted
the proper authorities
c. Delaying release b. Determinate
d. Illegal Detention c. Sensitive
581. A crime committed by a public officer/ d. Unreliable
employee who detains a person without legal 589. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon
ground. what portion of the sentence must have been served by
a. Arbitrary detention a petitioner-prisoner?
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to
a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his
the proper authorities
c. Delaying release indeterminate sentence
d. Illegal Detention b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his
e. No crime indeterminate sentence
582. A crime committed by a private individual who c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his
detains a person without legal ground. indeterminate sentence
a. Arbitrary detention d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to
indeterminate sentence
the proper authorities
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590. What is the oldest written penal law of the a. Gavel
Philippines? b. Hammer
a. Codigo Penal c. Wood hammer
b. Code of Kalantiao 598. The constitution provides for the prescribed
c. Code of Hammurabi dress code of all judges and it is called as.
d. Maragtas Code a. Black robes
591. How penal laws are construed when the law is b. Black toga
vague? c. Black dress
a. Liberally in favor of the government d.White robes
b. Liberally in favor of the offended party 599. It is the lists of cases that are scheduled to be
c. Liberally in favor of the accused heard on a particular day usually placed or posted
d. Liberally in favor of the innocent outside the courtroom.
592. Refers to crimes which are wrongful in their
nature thus requires the highest condemnation of a. Court calendar
the society. b. Supreme Court calendar
a. Crimes mala prohibita c. School calendar
b. Crimes mala in se d. Schedule calendar
c. Crimes supersedeas 600. Contempt committed in the presence of or so
d. Crimes flagrante delicto near a court or judge as to obstruct or interrupt
593. This rule recognizes that the host country has proceedings before it.
jurisdiction over crimes committed on board the a. contempt
vessel unless they involve the internal management b. direct contempt
of the vessel. c. indirect contempt
a. American Rule d. disobedience
b. English Rule
c. French Rule
d. Filipino Rule Law Enforcement
594. Literally, “friend of the court”. Are experienced
l
and impartial attorneys that may be invited by the Administration
court to appear as amicus curiae’

a. Champertous contract 601. A-2 in Intelligence report means?

b. Amicus curiae a. usually reliable source and is confirmed by
c. Amicus curiea other sources
d. Champertuos contract b. completely reliable source and is
595. A contract whereby the lawyer agrees to pay the Probably true
expenses of litigation in return for the agreement of c. completely reliable source and is
the client to pay the lawyer a portion of the thing or Usually reliable
property that might be won or recovered in the trial d. completely reliable source and is confirmed by
or litigation. This is unethical for the lawyer and other sources
602. Seeing ahead and making sound assumption?
hence illegal.
a. prioritizing
a. Champertous contract b. foretelling
b. Amicus curiae c. forecasting
c. Amicus curiea d. documenting
d. Champertuos contract 603. This Police Station activity increases the number of
596. The practice of filing multiple suits on different arrest of criminal syndicate member?
courts based on the same cause of action. This is not a. investigation
allowed and is a ground for dismissal of the case filed b. intelligence
by the guilty party. c. crime search
d. patrol
a. contempt 604. Which agent who has reached the enemy and able
b. forum shipping to get information and would be managed to get back?
c. forum shopping a. mercenary
d. direct contempt b. none
c. penetration
597. It is a small ceremonial mallet commonly made
d. assassin
of hardwood, and a symbol of the authority and right to 605. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
act officially in the capacity of a chair or presiding officer. a. trumpet

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 b. siren a. anti – juvenile delinquency
c. horn b. criminal investigation
d. radio c. intelligence operations
606. The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is d. patrol activities
called? 615. Intelligence can and should do nothing
a. tear down more than.
b. eviction a. promote better police-citizen interaction
c. squadron b. enhance the probability of accuracy in
d. demolition report writing
607. H refers to the importance of the establishment c. improve administration efficiency
particularly in recruitment and selection
with reference to the national economy and security?
d. increase the number of arrests of
a. risk analysis criminal syndicate members
b. relative critically 616. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an
c. risk assessment
intelligence report evaluated as B – 5. What
d. relative vulnerability
608. There were 750 rape cases in 2010, as against 928 does that mean?
in 2011. What was the percent increase? a. information is usually from a reliable
source and is possibly true
a. +27.3%
b. information is usually from a reliable
b. +23.7%
source and is improbable
c. +37.2%
c. information is usually from a reliable
d. +32.7%
source and is probably true
609. In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
d. information is usually from a reliable
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
source and is doubtfully true
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
617. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance report evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
610. The importance of the firm or a. information is usually from a reliable
installation with reference to the national source and is possibly true
economy or security: b. information is usually from a reliable
a. Relative security source and is improbable
b. Relative necessity c. information is usually from a reliable
c. Relative criticality source and is probably true
d. Relative vulnerability d. information is usually from a reliable
611. These are the major courses of action source and is doubtfully true
that the organization plans to take in order to 618. Who may be automatically granted height
achieve its objectives. waiver, as provided under Section 15 of Republic Act
a. Procedures No. 8551?
b. Strategies a. Police retirables requesting for extension
c. Plans of service.
d. Objectives b. Member of the cultural minorities duly
612. In this form of authority, personnel do certified by the appropriate government
not give orders but they offer advice. agency.
Frequently this advice is based on the high level c.Government employees wishing to transfer
of expertise, but the advice carries no formal to the PNP
requirement of acceptance. d.Graduates of Criminology
a. Democracy 619. Plans which require action or assistance from
b. Functional authority
persons or agencies outside the police organization.
c. Line authority
d. Staff authority a. management plans
613. The __________ means controlling the b. operational plans
direction and flow of decisions through unity of c. tactical plans
command from top to bottom organization. d. extra-department plan
a. Audit 620. Protection of classified document concerning
b. Coordination their preparation, classification, reproduction,
c. Monitoring handling, transmission, disposal and destruction.
d. Authority a. document security
614. PO III Peter Factor is assigned to collect b. operational security
available information concerning the activities c. physical security
of the Red Scorpion Group (RSG). He is with d. organizational security
what unit of the police?
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 621. What is the system of natural or man-made
barriers placed between the potential intruder and
the objects, persons and matters being protected?
a. document security
b. communications security
c. physical security
d. personnel security
622. Intelligence on the enemy and the
characteristics of operation used in the planning and
objects, persons and matters being protected?
a. military intelligence
b. strategic intelligence
c. combat intelligence
d. counter-intelligence
623. The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol
function can be enhanced if there is detailed and up-
to date information about crime and criminals. This
calls for the establishment of:
a. patrol base headquarters
b. crime information center
c. management information center
d. public information office
624. Planning cannot be undertaken without referring
to ________ on the entire police organization,
community, crime, equipment inventories, personal
data, etc.
a. costs
b. data
c. plans
d. statement
625. New employees should be briefed on security
rules and regulations of the organization and the
importance of observing them. This process is called:
a. security information
b. security reminders
c. security orientation
d. security investigation
626. What plans require action or assistance from
persons or agencies outside the police
organization?
a. tactical plan
b. extra department plan
c. management plan
d. all of these
627. This is a patrol program designed to ensure
law abiding citizens feeling of security but the
reaction of fear for the would be violators.
a. double-officer patrol
b. single-officer patrol
c. low visibility patrol
d. high visibility patrol
628. The transfer of heat from one material to
another by direct contact is called _______?
a. oxidation
b. convection
c. conduction
d. radiation
G.S.T. 2019
629. How is one classified if he steals primarily
because of irresistible urge due to unexpected
opportunity and little chance of detection?
a. systematic pilferer
b. ordinary pilferer
c. casual pilferer
d. unusual pilferer
630. An appeal filed with the Napolcom Regional
Appellate Board shall be decided within ______
days from receipt of the nation appeal.
a. fifty
b. twenty
c. thirty
d. sixty
631. In the intelligence functions, the black list
includes ________ forces.
a. unwanted
b. friendly
c .neutral
d. unfriendly
632. The first step in the planning process is to
recognize the need to plan. Which of the following
is NOT a way to discovering the need to plan?
a. conduct of research
b. conduct of training
c. conduct of inspection
d. conduct of management audit
633. The special formations used in crowd control
include the wedge, diagonal and deployed line.
When a crowd is small enough not to require a
squad, then the formation is:
a. diagonal
b. wedge
c. deployed line
d. clockwise
634. Under this principle, the chief executive directly
controls two to ten subordinates, who then control
two to ten subordinates each and so on until the
bottom of the organization is reached.
a. scalar principle
b. exception principle
c. unity of command
d. span of control
635. What is meant by an evaluation of C-1?
a. information comes from an unreliable
source and is probably true
b. information comes from a fairly reliable
source and is confirmed by other sources
c. information comes from an unreliable
source and is improbable
d.information comes from an unreliable
source and is doubtfully true
636. Under physical security, what should be
placed between the prospective intruder and
target installation?
a. Hazard
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 b. Net
c. Risk
d. Barrier
637. Mr. Jun de las Alas was born on June 1, 1975.
Does he meet the age requirement for entry
to the police service in June 1999?
a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within
the age requirement
c. Yes, he meets the maximum age
requirement
d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
requirement
638. A police officer who manages a police station
must use all of the following skills,
EXCEPT.
a. conceptual
b. technical
c. interpersonal
d. communication
639. The planning process generally consists of five
(5) steps in sequential order. (Which is the first
step?)
a. formulation of details of the plan
b. recognition of the need to plan
c. setting up planning objectives
d. gathering and analysis of data
640. In the PNP organization what do you mean
by RCA:
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
641.These are barbed wires placed above a
vertical fence in order to increase physical
protection of establishment or installations.
a. top tower
b. top guard
c. cellar guard
d. tower guard house
642. What is the next planning step after the need
to plan is recognized?
a. evaluate alternatives
b. formulate the objective
c. execute the plan
d. analyze the data
643. This type of patrol performs certain specific,
predetermined preventive strategies in a
regular and systematic basis.
a. apprehension-oriented patrol
b. low visibility patrol
c. split-force patrol
d. directed deterrent patrol
644. Among the following applicants for
appointment to the police service, who may be
automatically granted height waiver?
G.S.T. 2019
a. government employees wishing to
transfer to the PNP
b. members of cultural minorities duly
certified by the appropriate government
agency
c. police retirables requesting for extension
of service
d. graduate of criminology
645. The following changes must be made in police
operating procedures if the investigative skills of
patrol personnel are to be employed to their fullest
advantage EXCEPT.
a. patrol supervisor should insists that
patrol officers simply make a brief report
and return to patrol duties rather than
complete their investigations
b. patrol officers should be better trained
and equipped to conduct routine
investigations
c. patrol officers should be encouraged to
devote more time to the investigation of
crimes to which they respond
d. the patrol supervision should be able to
provide the patrol officer with assistance in
determining whether a case has sufficient
merit to warrant immediate follow-up
investigation by the patrol officer
646. The more complex the organization, the more
highly specialized the division of work, the greater
the need for:
a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. coordinating authority
c. strictly line discipline
d. finer division of supervision
647. The ________ differs from routine patrol
methods in that patrol officers perform certain
specific, predetermined preventive strategies on
a regular and systematic basis.
a. low-visibility patrol
b. directed deterrent patrol
c. split force patrol
d. apprehension-oriented patrol
648. PO II Carlo Y. Alba and PO I Anglelo S. Suba
report only to one (1) supervisor. This is the
principle of _______________.
a. unity of command
b. delegation of authority
c. span of control
d. report to immediate superior
649. PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of
amusement and entertainment known to be
habitually visited by his subject and his
subject’s associates. PO III Alta’s undercover
assignment is called.
a. multiple assignment
b. social assignment
c. work assignment
d. dwelling assignment
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 650. Which of the following statements is FALSE? patrol, the more apparent is their presence, thus,
a. classified information must not be promoting the impression of -
discussed by one friends and members of a. suspensions
the family b. effectiveness
b. classified information should be known c. omnipresence
only by one person d. efficiency
c. cabinets with classified documents must 658. What is the importance of a firm or
be secured with padlocks and security installation in the relation to national security
measures at all time
referred to?
d. all classified documents must be
safeguarded a. relative security
651. Assessing organizational strengths and b. relative necessity
c. relative criticality
weakness is usually known as:
d. relative vulnerability
a. force field analysis 659. When heat is transmitted by a circulating
b. Delphi technique
medium, the method is called
c. simulation model
d. forecasting ____________.
652. These regulations establish the specifications a. radiation
of uniform and the manner in which they b. oxidation
c. convection
are to be worn:
d. conduction
a. personnel transaction regulations 660. The __________ includes citizens who are
b. firearms regulations
cleared to attend meeting in Malacañang.
c. uniform regulations
d. equipment regulations a. white list
b. black list
c. target list
653. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone
d. access list
areas projects ________ thus, an effective crime 661. The attestation function over police
prevention strategy. appointment is vested in the:
a. police omnipresence a. Civil Service Commission
b. police effectiveness b. National Police Commission
c. police discretion c. Professional Regulations Commission
d. police authority d. Department of Interior and Local
654. Which of the following trait or ability is most Government
important for a police officer? 662. Selling security within the organization sets and
a. personnel integrity and honesty maintains a climate of _______ to the
b. physical stamina and bearing appreciation of the department’s objectives.
c. courageous
a. participation
d .high intelligence
b. clear
655. In 2001, there were 200, 450 crimes
c. understanding
reported to the Police Station of Municipality d. collaboration
A. If the population of Municipality is 5 663. Mr. Jaime del S. Rio was born on May 1, 1975,
Million, what is the crime rate? does he meet the age requirement for entry
a. 3509 to the police service in June 2002?
b. 4010 a. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
c. 4250 requirement
d. 4009 b. Yes, he is only 27 years old and is within
656. If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully the age requirement
disposed of as a result of the first investigation, a c. No, but he can apply for age waiver
_________ report should be submitted. d. Yes, he meets the maximum education
a. investigation report requirement
b. case disposition report 664. What is the evaluation of an intelligence
c. follow-up report report which is “the information comes from a
d. crime report completely reliable source and is probably true”?
657.The advantages of a strong patrol are more a. B-2
than make up for slightly inferior performance. b. A-2
More patrolmen are then made available for c. A-3
emergency and the more active and widespread the d. A 1

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 665. In 2001, physical injuries numbered 12,500 b. cops and robbers game
out of a total crime volume of 60,500. What c. follow up
percent of the total crime volume is attributed d. surveillance
673. How is the crew complement of a Mobile
to physical injuries?
Patrol Division organized into shifts for each
a. 18.7%
b. 20.7% duty?
c. 25.7% a. daily four-shift
d. 4.8% b .daily five-shift
666. SPO I Edna E. Castro evaluated the c. one shift-daily
information gathered as “completely d. daily three-shift
674. The formulation of conclusions from the
reliable, source probably true”. What is the
theory developed, tested and considered
type of evaluation?
valid as a result of interpretation is called.
a. A-5
b. A-1 a. collection
c. A-4 b. integration
d. A-2 c. evaluation
667. It is ongoing process which ensures that new d. deduction
675. In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all
risks are recognized and that established
index crimes. If the total index crimes were
deterrents remain necessary and cost effective.
25,000, how many were murder incidents?
a. inspection
b. interrogation a. 250
c. risk analysis b. 2,500
d. evaluation c. 500
668. What type of patrol performs certain d. 5,000
676. The more complex the organization, the more
specific, predetermined preventive strategies on a
highly specialized the division of work, the
regular and systematic basis?
greater the need for:
a. split-force patrol
b. low visibility patrol a. cleaner delineation of functions
c. apprehension-oriented b. coordinating authority
d. directed deterrent patrol c. strictly line discipline
669. A patrol beat refers to a: d. finer division of supervision
677. The following questions are tests for
a. Number of crimes to be solved
b. Number of residents to be protected accuracy of information, EXCEPT:
c. Location of police headquarters a. Does the report agree or disagree with
d. Geographical area to be patrolled available and related intelligence?
670. It is importance of installation in relation to b. Is the reported fact or event known in
national security. advance
c. Is it the same or consistent with known
a. relative criticality
modus operandi?
b. relative indispensability
d. Is the information about the target or area
c. relative security
of the operation?
d. relative vulnerability
678. Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes,
671. It is the formal process of choosing the
floods or lahar cannot be prevented from
organization mission and overall objective
occurring. To minimize the disastrous effects
both the short and long term as well as the
of these phenomena, the security officer
divisional and individual objectives based on
must prepare a:
the organizational objectives.
a. guard deployment plan
a. planning
b. security education plan
b. organizing
c. civil defense plan
c. directing
d. disaster or emergency plan
d. managerial decision-making
679. It involves segregation of deviants into
672. A _________ is usually for the purpose of
isolated geographic areas so that they can
waiting for the anticipated arrival of a suspect
easily be controlled.
who is either wanted for investigation or who
a. Coercion
is expected to commit a crime at a certain
b. Quarantine
location. c. Conversion
a. stake out d. Containment

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 680. What management principle provides that 688. To what unit do policeman in plain clothes
only one officer be in direct command or belong when they infiltrate and gather information
supervision of each officer. about criminal syndicates?
a. span control a. Budget
b. unity of command b. Planning
c. chain of command c. Intelligence
d. line of authority d. Patrol
681. What is referred to as total number of police 689. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
officers assigned to patrol duties? a. Performance evaluation measures
a. effective strength credibility of the police personnel.
b. mandatory strength b. Performance evaluation is not a basis
c. actual strength for salary increases of promotion.
d. authorized strength c. Performance evaluation is done once a
682. When police patrols are increased beyond year among police personnel.
normal levels, this is called ________? d. Performance evaluation is
implemented to determine the quality of
a. reactive patrol
work performance of personnel.
b. directed deterrent patrol
690. Line units such as the patrol section or
c. citizen patrol
d. proactive patrol investigation section in police stations prepare
683. What is the method of collection of their work programs in which areas are called
information wherein the investigator tails ___.
or shadows the persons or vehicles? a. Budget
a. Research b. Management
b. Surveillance c. Operational plans
c. Casing d. Tactical plan
d. Photography 691. What is referred to as the knowledge
684. Before a security expert can recommend pertaining to capabilities, vulnerabilities
what type of security will needed by an industrial and probable course of actions of foreign
establishment, there is a need for him to nations?
undertake a : a. combat intelligence
a. security training b. national intelligence
b. security check c. police intelligence
c. security survey d. strategic intelligence
d. security education 692. How are coded messages converted to
685. When one procures information about intelligible language?
subject secretly; he is performing _______ a. Encoding
collection method. b. Processing
c. Labeling
a. routine
d. Decoding
b. overt
693. The type of undercover operation wherein
c. active
d. covert techniques are applied for a longer time and are
686. Under this principle, each group reports to considered as the most different (difficult)
an individual who is part of a supervisory group investigate activity, yet the most rewarding.
that answers to a higher supervisor and so on a. casing
until a group of administrators report to the b. undercover operation
c. penetration
chief executive.
d. surveillance
a. unity of command 694. As Security Director of Company B, you
b. span of control
should know how many beds, are normally
c. scalar principle
d. aggregation available in a multiple injury situation and how
687. Which of the following is NOT patrol pattern? many ________ patients can be processed at a
a. clockwise single time.
b. zigzag a. Wounded
c. criss-cross b. Emergency
d. stationary c. Female
d. Male

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 695. A person’s suitability to be given a security
clearance is determined through a process called
_________.
a. security training
b. security education
c. security promotion
d. security investigation
696.This patrol method utilizes disguise,
deception and lying in wait rather that upon
high visibility patrol techniques?
a. decoy patrol
b. high visibility patrol
c. directed patrol
d. low visibility patrol
697. What police plans refer to actions to be
taken at a designated location and under
specific circumstances?
a. management plans
b. tactical plans
c. operating plans
d. procedural plans
698. What type of organization consciously
coordinates the activities of two or more
persons towards a given objective?
a. flexible organization
b. formal organization
c. informal organization
d. non-flexible organization
699. Who among the following meets the age
qualification for appointment to the police
service?
a. Rey who is 20 years old
b. Dennis who is 17 years old
c. John who is 22 years old
d. Santi who is 35 years old
700. The covert observation of an area, a building
or stationary object in order to gain
information is called:
a. undercover works
b. penetration
c. casing
d. surveillance
701. If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve
barrels of bleaching powder, the greatest
danger would be from:
a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be
controlled
b. an explosion
c. the impossibility of using water on the
fire
d. a toxic and irritant gas
702. Which of the following is not included in the
patrol function?
a. Response to citizen calls
b. Investigation of crimes
c. Routine preventive patrol
d. Inspection of identified hazards
G.S.T. 2019
703. Disaster preparedness and control plans
should include _______ so that people who
are directly involved know the extent of the
incident.
a. evacuation services
b. identification services
c. counseling services
d. public information services
704. An intelligence report classified as A-2
means__________.
a.the information comes from a
completely reliable source and is
doubtfully true
b. the information comes from a completely
reliable source and is probably true
c.the information comes from a usually
reliable source and is and is probably true.
d.the information comes from a usually
reliable source and is possibly true
705. It ensures the question “what is to be
accomplish by the plan?”
a. objectives
b. planning assumptions
c. problems
d. planning environment
706. The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the
following organizational features, EXCEPT:
a. Unified delivery of services
b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making
c. Combined investigation and patrol
functions
d. Unity of direction
707. Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if
they are properly trained in criminal
investigation. Which of the following cannot be
undertaken by them?
a. He can locate and question the suspect if
he apprehends him.
b. He can identify available evidences.
c. He can take note of statements of the
suspect.
d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow
policemen.
708. It is a physical security applied to business
groups engaged in industries, like
manufacturing, assembling, research and
development, processing, warehousing and
even agriculture.
a. operational security
b. industrial security
c. physical security
d. special types
709. It is the broadest branch of security which is
concerned with the physical measures to
prevent unauthorized access.
a. operational security
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 b. industrial security d. wire fence
c. physical security 717. . An unobstructed area maintained on
d. special types both sides of the perimeter barrier.
710. Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe a. clear zone
operation of the facility caused by human b. bodies of water
action, accidental or intentional. c. building wall
a. security hazards d. wire fence
b. man-made hazard 718. . He may issue or revoke licenses issued
c. natural hazard to security guards.
d. all of the above a. Chief, PNP
711. Are those caused by natural phenomena which b. Mayor
caused damage, disturbance and problems of c. Governor
the normal functioning of human activities, d. Secretary, DILG
including security. 719. . It is an additional overhang barbed
a. security hazards wire placed on vertical perimeter fences facing
b. man-made hazard upward and outward with a 45 degree angle
c. natural hazard with three to four strand of barbed wire.
d. all of the above a. topping
712. It is the importance of the firm with b. top guard
reference to the national economy and security. c. all of the above
a. relative criticality d. non of the above
b. relative vulnerability 720. . Are house like structure above the
c. all of the above perimeter barriers, it give psychological effect
d. non of the above to violators.
713. One who steals with pre-conceived a. guard towers
plans and takes away any of all types of items or b. tower guards
supplies for economic gain. c. guard house
a. pilferer d. guard post
b. casual pilferer 721. . A conference or dialogue between the
c. systematic pilferer survey team and management officials before
d. intruder security survey is conducted.
714. . A medium of structure which defines a. pre- security survey
the physical limits of an installation to restrict b. post- security survey
or impede access thereto. c. entrance conference
a. natural barrier d. exit conference
b. man-made barrier 722. . It is a fact finding probe to determine a
c. perimeter barrier plant’s adequacy and deficiency in all aspects
d. physical security of security.
715. . It is a type of perimeter barrier made a. security inspections
of chain link with mesh openings not larger b. security survey
that two inches square, and made or #9 gauge c. special survey
wire or heavier. d. supplemental survey
a. clear zone 723. . It is the exposure and teaching of
b. bodies of water employees on security and its relevance to
c. building wall their work.
d. wire fence a. security education
716. . It surmounted by the barbed wire top b. security indoctrination
guards, and if the height is less than the c. security training
prescribed, additional topping is placed to d. security awareness
attain the minimum height requirement. 724. . It is an authenticated list of personnel
a. clear zone given to security allowing entry to a compound
b. bodies of water or installation thereof.
c. building wall a. controlling
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 b. access list b. vital records
c. exclusion area c. important records
d. controlled area d. non-essential records
725. . Any area, access to which is subject to 733. . How is one classified if he steals
special restriction control. primarily because of irresistible urge due to
a. restricted area unexpected opportunity?
b. exclusion area a. casual pilferer
c. controlled area b. ordinary pilferer
d. coverage factor c. systematic
726. . A restricted area containing materials d. unusual pilferer
or operation of security interest. 734. . The extinguishment of fire by using
a. restricted area water solution, and the temperature is
b. exclusion area lowered below the burning point.
c. controlled area a. smothering
d. coverage factor b. starving
727. It is the key elements in the security c. cooling
survey system of a plant or installation. d. all of the above
a. security guard 735. . It is a type of built-in sprinklers which
b. human guard works by the increase of room temperature,
c. company guard and which automatically operates the system
d. agency guard to put out the fire.
728. . It is a term used in England for lock a. wet pipe system
pickers, safecrackers, and penetrators of b. automatic sprinklers
restricted rooms or areas. c. dry pipe system
a. doppler effect d. stand pipe system
b. duress code 736. . These fire results from the burning of
c. peterman wood, paper, textiles and other carbonaceous
d. fail safe materials.
729. . A term applied to a device or system a. Class “A” Fires
that in the event of failure or a component, b. Class “B” Fires
the incapacity will be signaled. c. Class “C” Fires
a. doppler effect d. Class “D” Fires
b. duress code 737. . Private Security Agencies must be
c. peterman registered at what government agency.
d. fail safe a. DTI
730. . It is a practical test of a plan or any b. PNP
activity to test its validity, it is also an c. CSC
operational readiness exercise. d. LGU
a. dry run 738. It is the minimum guard requirements
b. run through for the issuance of temporary license.
c. controlling a.100
d. fire drill b.1,000
731. . It is the susceptibility of the plant or c.50
establishment to damage, loss or disruption of d.200
operation due to various hazard. 739. . The regular security guard license is
a. relative criticality good for how many years?
b. relative vulnerability a. 1 year
c. all of the above b. 2 years
d. non of the above c. 6 months
732. . It includes records that are d. 3 years
irreplaceable, reproduction of which does not 740. . It is the minimum capitalization for
have the same value as the original records. PSA.
a. useful records a. P1,000,000.00
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 b. P500,000.00 748. . The prescribed high-powered firearms
c. P100,000.00 not exceed how many percent of the total
d. non of the above number of guards employed.
741. . It is the required minimum number of a.5%
guards to operate company security forces. b.10%
a. 30 c.15%
b. 200 d.20%
c. 50 749. . These are the qualifications of a
d.100 licensed watchman or security guard, EXCEPT:
742. . A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay a. high school graduate
how much amount of surety bond to a b. physically & mentally fit
reputable insurance company. c. 18 to 50 years of age
a. P50,000.00 d. without pre-licensing training
b. P100,000.00 750. . There are two different ways in which
c. P150,000.00 security guards are hired or employed, the
d. P200,000.00 company guard and the other one is:
743. . PSAs with 100 guards must initially a. government guards
procure at least how many firearms for use of b. private security agency
its security guards. c .propriety guards
a. 10 d. in-house guards
b. 20 751. . This is an Act to Regulate the
c. 30 Organization and Operation of
d. 70 PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs.
744. . PSAs who have been applying for a. PD 603
regular license to operate must have at least b. EO 292
___ pieces of licensed firearms. c. RA 5487
a. 10 d. PD 968
b. 20 752. . They are any person who offers or
c. 30 renders personal service to watch or secure
d. 70 either residential or business establishment or
745. . The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs both.
shall not exceed a basic load of how many a. private detective
rounds per unit of duly licensed firearms. b. security guards
a. 20 c. propriety guards
b. 12 d. company guards
c. 50 753. . Are any person who is not a member
d. 25 of the AFP or PNP, but involved in detective
746. . This is quantity of ammunitions to be work.
issued to individual security guards. a. private detective
a. 20 b. security guards
b. 12 c. propriety guards
c. 50 d. company guards
d. 25 754. . It is any person who for hire or reward
747. It is the only instances wherein PDAs & or on commission, conducts or carries on or
PSAs may be allowed to use high powered holds himself out in carrying detective works.
firearms; except one. a. PDA
a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality b. PSA
b. upsurge of bank and armored bank c. GSU
robbery d. CSF
c. transporting big amount of money 755. . It is any person, association,
d. providing security to VIPs partnership, firm or private corporation that
employs any watchman or guards.
a. PDA
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 b. PSA 763. . __________ are included in the
c. GSU category of in-house guards.
d. CSF a. government guards
756. . It is a security force maintained and b. private security agency
operated by the private company/corporation c. propriety guards
for its own protection and security d. all of the above
requirements 764. . It is charge with the directing the work
a. PDA and observing the behavior performance of
b. PSA the men under his unit.
c. GSU a. security guard
d. CSF b. security supervisor
757. . It is a security unit maintained and c. watchman
operated by any government entity other than c. security officer
military or police. 765. . The following items must be stipulated
a. PDA in the security service contract, EXCEPT:
b. PSA a. money consideration
b. GSU b. number of hours of security service
c. CSF c. salary of the security guard
d.PAD d. commission of the operator
758. . It is the umbrella organization for PDA 766. . It is administrative sanctions that can
and PSA. be imposed to any applicant who failed to
a. PADPAO, Inc. submit the complete requirements in the
b. SAGSD renewal of license.
c. SEC a. cancellation
d. PNP b. revocation
759. . It is a government agency involved in c. nullification
the supervision of the internal affairs of the d. suspension
PSAs, PDAs, CSFs and GSUs. 767. . It shall apply to all
a. PADPAO, Inc. PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs throughout the
b. SAGSD Philippines.
c. SEC a. Private Scty. Law
d. PNP b. RA 5487
760. . It is the age requirement for the c .IRR of RA 5487
operator or manager of PSA, PDA, CSF, and d.all of the above
GSU. 768. . It refers to the Summary Power of the
a. 25 years Chief, PNP as provided by R.A. 5487.
b. 30 years a. suspension of license
c. 35 years b. cancellation of license
d. 20 years c. all of the above
761. . It is the initial number of guard d. non of the above
requirements that must be contracted for the 769. . It is the established rules and
1st year of operation of PSA. regulations in the operation of GSUs, EXCEPT:
a. 100 a. registration at SAGSD
b. 200 b. registration at CSG
c. 1,000 c. both A & B
d. 50 d. registration at SEC
762. . What is the minimum number of guard 770. . Any member of the GSUs shall be
requirements in the operation of branch required to secure a __________ to exercise
offices of PSA. profession at SAGSD.
a. 20 a. permit
b. 30 b. authority
c. 10 c. registration
d. 40 d. license
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 771. . How many days prior expiry month of 779. . Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly
license shall require PSL holders to undergo NP known as ______ in the industrial security
examinations. management.
a. 60 days a. Kabit System
b. 30 days b. Illegal Operation
c. 45 days c. Merger of Security
d. 15 days d. Moribund Security
772. . Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be 780. . It is no anymore required to
issued by the accredited testing centers within PSAs/PDAs securing temporary license to
how many days after the date of examination. operate.
a. 60 days a. pre-inspection
b. 30 days b. post-inspection
c .45 days c. inspection
d.15 days d. continuing inspection
773. . Moribund but previously licensed 781. . It shall not be issued unless prior
security agency, means: inspection is conducted to the applicant
a. dying PSA agency.
b. viable PSA a. regular license
c. new PSA b. temporary license
d. renewing PSA c. license to operate
774. .It refers to the requirements for d. permit to operate
application for licenses as security officers, 782. . These are the classifications of
guards, and operators. offenses as prescribed by the IRR of R.A. 5487,
a. physical & mental examination EXCEPT:
b. medical & dental examination a. serious offense
c. physical agility test examination b. light offense
d. drug test examination c. grave offense
775. . Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by d. less grave offense
whom? 783. . They have the authority to conduct
a. DILG inspection to PSAs/PDAs/CSFs/GSUs, EXCEPT:
b. C, PNP a. C, SAGSD
c. PD, PPO b. C, ROPD
d. RD, PRO 3 c. PD, PPO
776. . Letter of Commendation to PSGs is d. SAGSD Officer
awarded by whom? 784. . These are authorized to conduct
a. PSAs Operators investigation on all complaints against
b. CSF Managers securities of PSAs or detective of PDAs.
c. all of the above a. C, ROPD
d. non of the above b. Inves. Comm., CSG
777. . It shall be submitted immediately after c. all of the above
graduation to the C, PNP. d. none of the above
a. closing reports 785. . It must be avoided by the private
b. opening reports security personnel, either physically or
c. participants otherwise with the strikers.
d. name of course a. direct contact
778. . It is required to the License to Operate b. indirect contact
PSAs/CSFs. c. confrontation
a. displayed d. carrying of firearms
b. carried 786. . The City or Municipal Mayors has the
c. registered power to muster or _________ the members
d. all of the above of the agency in case of emergency or in times
of disasters or calamity.
a. organize
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 b. incorporate d. 12,500 pesos
c. utilize 795. . SPO4 Masipag receives a base pay of
d. deputize Php14, 000. He had been in the service for 27
787. . The staff directorate in charge of years. How much is his longevity pay?
gathering information is- a.Php4, 200
a. Intelligence b. Php5, 000
b. Police Community Relation c. Php6, 500
c. Civil Security Group d. Php7, 000
d. Investigation and Detective Mngt. 796. . A primary subdivision of a bureau is
788. . Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM? called-
a. Chief of Staff, AFP a. division
b. Secretary of the DILG b. unit
c. Secretary of National Defense c. section
d. Chief of the PNP d. department
789. . It is the minimum educational 797. . The mandatory training course for PO1
attainment for promotion in the PNP. for them to be promoted to PO2 or PO3.
a. MNSA a. PSJLC
b. Master’s Degree b. PSOBC
c. OSEC c. PSOOC
d. BS Degree d. PSBRC
790. . Attrition system is a means under 798. . Time-In-Grade needed by a Senior
Republic Act Nr. 8551 to remove from the Inspector before he could be promoted to
PNP, police officers who are- Chief Inspector is-
a. inefficient a. 1 year
b. ineffective b. 3 years
c. unproductive c. 2 years
d. all of the choices d. 5 years
791. . The nature of which, the police officer 799. . An area assigned for foot or motorized
is free from specific routine duty is the patrol purposes is called-
definition of - a. beat
a. “on duty” b. sector
b. “special duty” c. route
c. “leave of absence” d. post
d. “off duty” 800. . The system used in PNP promotions is
792. . An area containing two or more beats, called-
routes or post is called- a. Performance
a. post b. Seniority
b. unit c. Palakasan
c. sector d. Merit
d. section 801. . The directorate who is in charge of
793. . The lowest rate in the Performance supplies and equipments of PNP is-
Evaluation Rating in the PNP is- a. logistics
a. Very Satisfactory b. comptrollership
b. Fair c. intelligence
c. Outstanding d. plans
d. Poor 802. . What is the maximum tenure of a
794. . The Chief PNP had been in the service Police Regional Director?
for 36 years and receive a Base Pay of 25,000 a. 4 years
pesos a month. How much will be his b .5 years
Longevity Pay? c. 6 years
a. 5,000 pesos d. 9 years
b. 7,500 pesos 803. . The period of time in the present rank
c. 10,000 pesos in permanent status is called-
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 a. Time-In-Grade b. Officers Candidate Course
b. Length of Service c. Officers Advance Course
c. Seniority in rank d. Senior Leadership Course
d. Plantilla position 812. . What is the nature of appointment of
804. . The directorate who is the “make-up PNP personnel under the waiver program?
artist” and “deodorant” of the PNP is called- a. permanent
a. Personnel Records Mgt. b. contractual
c. temporary
b. Research Development d. probationary
c. Police Community Relation 813. .The Police Regional Office covering
d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt. Metro-Manila is-
805. . The National Capital Region Police a. Western Police District
Office is divided into how many districts? b. NCRPO
a. four c. Southern Police District
b. six d. Central Police District
c. five 814. . The equivalent rank of Major General
d. seven in the PNP is-
806. . A functional group within a section is a. Director General
called- b. Chief Superintendent
a. division c. Deputy Director General
b. route d. Director
c. unit 815. . The number 2 man in the PNP
d. sector organization in-
807. . The staff directorate in charge of a. TCDS
gathering information is- b. DDG for Administration
a. Intelligence c. DDG for Operations
b. Police Community Relation d. none of them
c. Comptrollership 816. .The national headquarters of the PNP
d.Investigation and Detective Mgt. is-
808. . Which of the following is not an a. Camp Dangwa
administrative support unit? b. Camp Crame
a. Special Action Force c. Camp Aguinaldo
b. Civil Security Group d. Fort Bonifacio
c. Police Security and Protection Office 817. . The purpose of promotion in the PNP
d. all of the choices is-
809. . Police Junior Leadership Course is a. recognition of good work
intended for PNP members who want to be b. gives officers high morale
promoted to- c. gives higher pay
a. SPO4 d. all of the choices
b. SPO3 818. . Waiver system in the PNP will apply if-
c. SP01 a. recruitment falls on summer
d. PO3 b. qualified applicant falls below quota
810. Under the general qualifications for c. ordered by the President
appointment in the PNP, male applicant must d. none of them
be with a height of at least- 819. . Mental fitness of an applicant in the
a. 1.62 m PNP is verified thru-
b. 1.64 m a. medical examination
c. 1.57 m b. neuro-psychiatric examination
d. 1.54 c. physical fitness examination
811. . The mandatory training course of d. drug test
SPO4 before they can be promoted to the rank 820. . Age waiver can be granted if the
of Police Inspector is- applicant is-
a. Officers Basic Course a. 20 to 36 years old
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 b. 19 to 36 years old d. Admonition
c. 21 to 35 years old 829. . It is the period given for a PNP
d. 20 to 35 years old member admitted under the educational
821. . What is the minimum rank for a police attainment waiver to finish his B.S. Degree
officer to be qualified a the C, PNP? according to RA 8551?
a. Director a. 4 years
b. Superintendent b. 6 years
c. Chief Superintendent c. 5 years
d. Director General d. 7 years
822. . The law that grants automatic 830. . It is the number of year of non-
eligibility for those who passed any licensure promotion before a PNP Member can be
examination administered by the Professional attrited.
Regulations Commission is- a. 5 years
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506 b. 15 years
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080 c. 10 years
c. Republic Act Nr. 6975 d. 20 years
d. Republic Act Nr. 8551 831. . It also referred to as Monthly
823. . The highest award given to a PNP Retirement Benefits (MRB).
member is- a. lump sum
a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan b. pension
b. Medalya ng Kagitingan c. gratuity
c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting d. allowance
d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan 832. . Insubordination is an administrative
824. . What is the duration of the PNP Field infraction referred to as-
Training Program? a. citizens complaint
a. 10 months b. grave misconduct
b. 18 months c. breach of internal discipline
c. 12 months d. none of them
d. 24 months 833. . PLEB is composed of how many
825. . When is the date of effectively of the person?
PNP Reform and Reorganization Act? a. 3
a. 1992 b. 5
b. 1996 c. 4
c. 1994 d. 6
d. 1998 834. . How many years is maximum tenure in
826. . What law was amended by RA 8551? officer of the Chief, PNP?
a. RA 7659 a. four years
b. RA 6425 b. six years
c. RA 6975 c. five years
d. RA 9165 d. nine years
827. . Valenzuela City maintains a police 835. . How long will be the extension of
force with a total manpower of 2000 officers tenure of the Chief, PNP if extended?
and men. How many PLEB must be a. not more than 1 year
established? b. not less than 2 years
a. two c. more than 1 year
b. four d. none of them
c. three 836. . The law that grants eligibility to
d. five Criminology Board Exam passers is-
828. . What is the lowest administrative a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
penalty? b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
a. Forfeiture of Pay c. Republic Act Nr. 8551
b. Restricted to Specified limits d. Republic Act Nr. 6975
c. Witholding of Privilege
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 837. . The agency that administers all the b. Public Place
mandatory training for police officers is c. Police Checkpoint
a. PPSC d. Pre-Determined Area
845. . It is the brief stopping of an individual,
b. PNP
whether on foot or in a vehicle, based on
c. DHRDD
reasonable suspicion/probable cause, for the
d. NAPOLCOM
purpose of determining the individual’s identity
838. . Who can grant waivers for applicants
and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning
in the PNP?
criminal activity.
a. President
a. Frisking
b. Chief, PNP
b. Search
c. Sec. of DILG
c. Spot Check
d. NAPOLCOM
d. Pat-down Search
839. . Which of the following administer the
846. . A promotion granted to PNP personnel
PNP Entrance and Promotional Exam for
who dies while in the performance of duty is
policemen as provided for under Republic Act
called-
Nr. 8551?
a. Regular
a. NAPOLCOM
b. Posthumous
b. Civil Service Commission
c. Temporary
c. Congress
d. None of them
d. PNP
847. . Under the lateral entry program in the
840. . What is the basis for promotion that
PNP, a criminologist who applied and selected
includes the length of service in the present
will have the initial rank of -
rank?
a. Senior Inspector
a. Merit
b. Inspector
b. Superiority
c. SPO4
c. Time-In-Grade
d. Chief of Inspector
d. Age
848. . The appointment of Police Inspectors
841. . In availing of early retirement, one
up to Police Superintendent is vested in the-
must have rendered continuous service of-
a. Chief, PNP
a. 10 years
b. President
c. 15 years
c. Civil Service Commission
b. 20 years
d. NAPOLCOM
d. 25 years
849. . When can the President extend the
842. . What is the length of service before a
tenure of service of the Chief, PNP?
PNP member would be qualified for optional
a. after 4 years
retirement?
b. there is no successor
a. 5 years
c. during martial law
b. 10 years
d. national emergencies
c. 15 years
850. . What is the benefit derived by a PNP
d. 20 years
officer qualified for early retirement?
843. . A promotion by virtue of exhibited act
a. two ranks higher
of courage and extra-ordinary gallantry
b. one rank higher
beyond the call of duty is called-
c. his present rank
a. Regular
d. one year gratuity
b. Permanent
851. . Who shall attest the appointment of
c. Temporary
PNP officers?
d. Meritorious
a. Civil Service Commission
844. . Refers to a location where the search,
b. Congress
which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
c. Commission of Appointment
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of
d. NAPOLCOM
crimes, enforce the law, and for other
legitimate purposes.
a. Clear Zone
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 852. . Police Junior Leadership Course is b. passion
intended for PNP members who want to be c. person
promoted to- d. mankind
a. SPO4 861. . What is given to a PNP member for
b. SPO1 every 5 years of satisfactory service rendered?
c. SPO3 a. promotion
d. PO3 b. longevity pay
853. . The 1987 Philippine Constitution c. additional allowance
provides that the State shall establish and d. retirement benefits
maintain one police for which shall be- 862. . What is the lowest administrative
a. national in scope penalty?
b. civilian in scope a. reprimand
c. national in character b. admonition
d. military in character c. restriction
854. . What is the meaning of PPSC? d. forfeiture of pay
a. Phil. Public Safety Course 863. .Citizen’s complaint may be brought
b. Phil. Private Safety College before the Chief of Police, City or Municipal
c. Phil. Public Safety College Mayors and _______.
d. Phil. Private Safety Course a. Chief, PNP
855. .The mandatory training required for b. Provincial Director
promotion to the rank of Police c. Regional Director
Superintendent is called- d. PLEB
a. MNSA 864. . Decision the Chief, PNP in
b. OSEC administrative cases where the penalty is
c. MPSA dismissal, demotion and forced resignation
d. Master’s Degree may be appealed before this body.
856. . He is the first Chief of the Philippine a. Regional Appellate Board
Constabulary? b. Office of the President
a. Capt. Henry T. Allen c. National Appellate Board
b. Gen. Rafael Crame d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera 865. . Which of the following composed the
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt PNP?
857. .It is an association or group of a. members of the INP
individuals with a common goal. b. members of the PC
a. Police organization c. members of the PNP
b. Law enforcement group d. all of the choices
c. Non-government organization 866. .What is the rank of the Chief
d. Organization Directorial Staff?
858. . Who is the Father of Modern Policing a. Deputy Director General
System? b. Police Director
a. Edwin Sutherland c. Police Chief Superintendent
b. Emile Durkhiem d. Police Senior Superintendent
c. Sir Robert Peel 867. . The kind of promotion granted to a
d. Leonard Keeler candidate who meets all the basic qualification
859. .Who is the first Chief of Police of for promotion is termed-
Manila? a. special
a. Capt. George Curry b. meritorious
b. Capt. Henry Allen c. regular
c. Capt. Columbus Piatt d. ordinary
d. Capt. Howard Taft 868. . It is the mandatory training course for
860. . Rape punished under RPC is crime SPO4 before they can be promoted to the rank
against _____. of Police Inspector.
a. chastity a. Officer’s Basic Course
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 b. Officer’s Advance Course a. once
c. Officer’s Candidate Course b. thrice
d. Senior Leadership Course c. twice
869. . How many Staff Directorates are there d. four
in the PNP National Office (NHQ-PNP)? 878. . MNSA or Master’s in National Security
a. eleven Administration is offered and administered by
b. ten an institution known as-
c. nine a. PPSC
d. twelve b. NAPOLCOM
870. . Generally, PNP promotions are subject c. National Defense Office
to the confirmation of the: d. National Defense College
a. Civil Service Commission 879. . The mandatory training course needed
b. NAPOLCOM to be promoted to SPO1 and SPO2 is called-
c. Commission on Appointment a. Police Basic Course
d. President of the Phil. b. Junior Leadership Course
871. . The number 4 man in the PNP c. Senior Leadership Course
organization is the - d. Officers Candidate Course
a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns 880. . The administrative support unit in
b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm charge of delivering the necessary supplies and
c. The Chief Directorial Staff materials to all PNP units in the field is called-
d. Regional Director of the NCR a.Finance Service
872. . The National Appellate Board Office of b.Logistics Support Service
the NAPOLCOM is located in what city? c.Computer Service
a. Quezon City d.Communications & Electronics Svc
b. City Of Manila 881. . The highest ranking Police Non-
c. Mandaluyong City Commissioned Officer is-
d. Makati City a. SPO2
873. . Police Senior Superintendents are b. SPO4
appointed by- c. SPO3
a. Chief, PNP d. Inspector
b. Secretary, DILG 882. . How many stars are there in the rank
c. President of the Phil. of Police Director?
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM a. one
874. . The law that merges the police and b. three
Philippine Constabulary into the PC-INP is- c. two
a. R.A. 7659 d. four
b. R.A. 6975 883. . The Republic Act that is also known as
c. R.A. 8551 the DILG Act of 1990 that established the PNP
d. P.D. 765 under the DILG is-
875. . How many deputies do the PNP a. Republic Act Nr. 6975
consist? b. Republic Act Nr. 7659
a. one c. Republic Act 8551
b. three d. Presidential Decree 765
c. two 884. . In the history of our police force, who
d. four was the first Director General of the Philippine
876. . How many police Regional Offices National Police (PNP)?
(PRO) are there in the PNP Organization? a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
a. fourteen b. Gen. Raul Imperial
b. sixteen c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
c. Fifteen
885. . The primary objective of Philippine
d. Seventeen
National Police:
877. . The Performance Evaluation Rating in
a. Law Enforcement
the PNP is done how many times per year?
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 b. Peace and Order 892. . The theory of police service which
c. Protect and Serve states those police officers are servants of the
d. Crime Prevention people or the community refers to:
886. . The national headquarters of the PNP is a. Old
located in Quezon City. It was named after the b. Home rule
1st Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary. c. Modern
a. Rafael Palma d. Continental
b. Cesar Nazareno 893. . Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he
c. Rafael Crame opted to join the Philippine National Police.
d. Emilio Aguinaldo What would be his initial rank upon entry?
887. . Richard Aldenjoined the PNP in 1996. a. Senior Inspector
He was 30 years old then. What year can Alden b. Chief Inspector
retire? c. Inspector
a. 2017 d. none of the choices
b. 2031 894. . The following are functions in a police
c. 2032 organization, EXCEPT:
d. 2022 a. primary functions
888. . The Role of the PNP on matters b. administrative functions
involving the suppression of insurgency and c. secondary functions
serious treats to national security? d. auxiliary functions
a. The AFP operating through the area 895. . If the external patting of the suspect’s
commander is the one primarily clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon
responsible on matters involving the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
insurgency and other serious treats to
a. Conduct a complete search.
national security.
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
towards insurgency and other serious c. No further search may be made.
treats to national security. d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the supervisor.
AFP in insurgency-affected areas. 896. . He is known as the father of modern
d. All of the choices policing system?
889. . The procedure which is intended to be
a. August Vollmer
used in situations of all kinds and outlined as
b. Robert Peel
guide and by men in the field operations
c. Oliver Cromwell
relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest
d. Cesare Lombroso
and investigation refers to
897. . When responding to call for police
a. Field Procedure
assistance due to planted or found explosives,
b. Time Specific plan
c. Problem oriented plan what immediate actions should the patrol
d. Headquarters procedure officer will do?
890. . The term of office of the Chief PNP shall a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
be for a period ______? b.Dispose the item immediately to avoid further
a. Not exceeding four years. injury to happen.
b. Not exceeding five years. c.Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive
c. Not exceeding six years. Ordinance Disposal Team.
d. Not exceeding three years. d.Call to the Tactical Operation Center for
891. . The law that empowered the police proper procedure to be followed, after
commission to conduct entrance and investigating the item.
promotional examination for police members 898. . Captain Matako is a commissioned
refers to: officer of the Armed Forces of the Philippines.
a. RA 6040 What is his equivalent rank in the PNP?
b. RA 157 a. Inspector
c. RA 5487 b. Chief Inspector
d. PD 765 c. Senior Inspector
d. Superintendent
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 899. . How many Deputy Director General 907. . It is the central receiving entity for any
ranks are there in the PNP? citizen’s complaint against the police officers.
a. 1 a. IAS
b. 3 b. PNP
c. 2 c. PLEB
d. 4 d. NAPOLCOM
900. . The highest rank in the BJMP is 908. . The provincial governor shall choose
__________. the provincial director from a list of _____
a. Four star general eligible’s recommended by the PNP regional
b. Director director:
c. Chief Superintendent a. six
d. Director General (PNP) b. Five
901. . What is the minimum police-to- c. Three
population ratio? d. four
a. 1:1000 909. . The deployment of officers in a given
b. 1:1500 community, area or locality to prevent and
c. 1:500 deter criminal activity and to provide day-to-
d. 1:7 day services to the community.
902. . The fourth man in command of the PNP a. Patrol
is the __________. b. Beat Patrol
a. DDG for operation c. Line Patrol
b. Chief, Directorial Staff d. Area Patrol
c. DDG for administration 910. . The head of the IAS shall have a
d. Chief, PNP designation of ____________?
903. . Which of the following is NOT included a. Director General
in the powers and function of the PNP? b. Solicitor General
a. enforce all laws and ordinances c. Inspector General
b. maintain peace and order d. IAS General
c. investigate and prevent crimes 911. . As per the requirement of R.A. 6975,
d. prosecute criminal offenders there should be how many PLEB for every 500
904. . The word “police” was derived from the police personnel?
Greek word _______, which means a. one (1)
government of the city. b. more than one
a. politia c. at least one
b. Polis d. less than one
c. politeia 912. . If you are the patrolman on beat, what
d. Policy would be the immediate things to do when
905. . It is defined as the determination in accident occur?
advance of how the objectives of the a. Cordon the area
organization will be attained. b. Go away and call your superior
a. planning c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
b. Advancement d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
c. police planning 913. . Detective Beat System is one of the
d. Development concrete responses of the PNP in reinventing
906. . It is the premier educational institution the field of investigation. Who is the NCRPO
for the training, human resource development Chief who introduces this DBS?
and continuing education of all personnel of the a. Dir. Alma Jose
PNP, BFP, and BJMP. b. Dir. Romeo Pena
a. PPSC c. Dir. Sonny Razon
b. RTS d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento
c. PNPA 914. . All of the following are members of the
d. NPC People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:

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 a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace c. Administration and control
and Order Council from among the d. Policy and program coordination
respected members of the community 921. . SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the
b. Any barangay captain of the same supervisor. This is the principle of
city/municipality concerned chosen by the __________:
association of barangay captains
a. delegation of authority
c. Any member of the Sangguniang
b. span of control
Panglunsod
c. unity of command
d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated
d. chain of command
Bar of the Philippines
922. . The maximum tenure of office of the
915. . Two or more persons forming an
Chief of PNP or the Director General of the PNP
organization must identify first the reason for
is;
establishing such organization. They must
a. 4 years
identify the organization’s _________:
b. 56 years
a. strategy
c. 5 years
b.mission
d. 21 years
c.vision
923. . In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
d. objective
a. standard operation procedures
916. . To improve delegation, the following
b. special operation procedures
must be done, EXCEPT:
c. standard operating procedures
a. establish objectives and standards
b. count the number of supervisors d. special operating procedures
c. require completed work 924. . The following are the characteristics of
d. define authority and responsibility a good plan, except:
917. . The number of subordinates that can a. Flexibility
be supervised directly by one person tends to: b. specific
a. Increase as the physical distance between c. Clear
supervisor and subordinate as well as d. expensive
between individual subordinate increases 925. . If the annual quota for the year 2013 is
b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge
1200. How many of the annual quota is
and experience of the subordinate
c. Increase as the level of supervision allocated for women?
progresses for the first line supervisory a.10%
level to the management level b.120
d. All of the above c.100
918. . This means controlling the direction d.200
and flow of decisions through unity of 926. . Waivers for initial appointment in the
command from top to bottom of organization: PNP may be waived in the following order:
a. Audit a. age, height, weight & education
b. Coordination b. age, weight, height & education
c. Monitoring c. height, education, weight & age
d. Authority d. in any order
919. . Which of the following statements is 927. . It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on
true: the basis provided by law.
a.Performance evaluation measures a. attrition
credibility of the police b. separation
b.Performance evaluation is not a basis for c. romotion
salary increases or promotion d. Retirement
c.Performance evaluation is done once a 928. . The age requirement for new PNP
year among police personnel applicants must not be less than twenty-one
d.Performance evaluation is implemented
(21) years of age. The Maximum age
to determine the quality of work
performance of personnel requirement for PNP applicants using the
920. . The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency lateral entry program is ____.
to the DILG for _______: a. 35 years old
a. Administrative control b. 25 years old
b. Operational supervision c. 30 years old

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 d. 31 years old b. October 6, 1999
929. . A Field training Program for all PNP c. September 5, 2010
uniformed members is required for d. September 5, 2008
permanency of their appointment. Who among 934. . Which of the following administrative
the following is exempted to undergo the Field penalties is immediately executory?
Training Program and issued a permanent a. Dismissal
appointment? b. Forfeiture of pay
a. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is c. Suspension
appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral d. Death penalty
entry. 935. . It is the third in command in the
b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr. Philippine National Police:
Inspector via Lateral entry. a. Regional Director
c. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is b. Chief Directorial Staff
appointed Inspector after graduation. c. DeputyChief for Administrationd.
d. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed d. Deputy Chief for Operation
Criminologist and First Place in the 936. . The head of the National Capital
Examination. Regional
930. . Planning as a management function is Police Office shall assume the position of NCR
to director with the rank of:
be done in the various levels of PNP a. Chief Superintendent
Organization. Broad policy based from laws b. Director
directives, policies and needs in general is the c. Superintendent
responsibility of: d. General
a. Directorate for Plans 937. . Under the waiver program, who among
b. President of the Philippines the following PNP applicants is the least priority
c. Chief, PNP for appointment?
d. Dep. Dir. For Administration a. maine who just earned 72 units in college
931. . What is the rank equivalent of b. Paloma who is under height
PNPDeputy c. Jauquinwho is underweight
Director General in the Armed Forces of the d. Alden who is overage
Philippines? 938. . Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
a. Lt. General as____________.
b. Major General a.Department of Interior and Local Government
c. Brigade General Act of 1990
d. General b.Department of the Interior and Local
932. . The Philippine National Police will Government Act of 1990
recruit c.Department of Interior and the Local
500 new policemen on April 2013 to fill up its Government Act of 1990
quota. Who among the following applicants is d.Department of the Interior and the Local
qualified to apply? Government Act of 1990
a. Alden who was born on April 24, 1978 939. . SPO3 Manny Weather receives 27,
b. Maine who was born on November 22, 1980 690.00
c. Vice who was born on March 17, 1993 base pay since he was promoted. After five years
d. Plastillas who was born on August 10, 1991 from promotion, what would be his monthly
933. . Police Inspector Katunggali joined the base pay after adding his longevity pay?
Philippine National Police on October 1, a. 32, 690.00
1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his b. 37, 690.00
career as embalmer, he decided to file an c. 30, 459.00
optional retirement so that he could enjoy d. 31, 549.00
benefits of the gratifying PNP which he served 940. . Decisions rendered by the national IAS
with extreme commitment and loyalty. When shall be appealed to the__________:
does Mark Espinosa can retire? a. Regional Appellate Board
a. October 5, 1998 b. National Appellate Board
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 c. People’s Law Enforcement Board 948. . A PNP member who acquired
d. National Police Commission permanent physical disability in the
941. . It is known as the Professionalization performance of his dutyand unable to further
act of 1966. perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime
a. R.A. 4864 pension equivalent to:
b. R.A. 8551 A50% of his last salary
c. Act 175 B. 70% of his last salary
d. PD 765 C.60% of his last salary
942. .__________ is given to any PNP D. 80% of his last salary
member who has exhibited act of conspicuous 949. . How many successive annual
and gallantry at the risk of his life above and ratingperiods before a police officer may be
beyond the call of duty. separated due to inefficiency or poor
A. Meritorious Promotion performance?
B. Special Promotion A.2
C. Regular Promotion B.4
D. On-the-Spot Promotion C.3
D.1
943. .PNP members under the waiver
program but is dismissed for failure to comply 950. . How many cumulative annual
with the requirements can re-apply to the PNP? ratingperiods before a police officer may be
A. Maybe Yes separated due to inefficiency or poor
B.Maybe No performance?
C..Absolutely Yes A.2
D.Absolutely No B.4
944. .The reason why police officer appears in C.3
court as a witness has to be in complete D.1
uniform is to show his respect to the court and 951. .In this theory, management assumes
to his: employees may be ambitious and self-
A.Position/Rank motivated and exercise self-control. It is
B.Superior believed that employees enjoy their mental and
C.Profession physical work duties.
D.Comrades A.Hawthorne Effect
945. .Which among the following is NOT B.Stockholm Syndrome
C.X theory
subjected to field Operational Plans?
D.Y theory
A.Patrol 952. .The theory X and Y is a human
B.Records motivation created by?
C.Investigation A.Edward H. Sutherland
D. Traffic B.C. Edwin Hawthorne
946. . Which of the following statement is not C.Henry A. Landsberger
true about patrol? D.Douglas McGregor
A.It is the backbone of the police department 953. In this theory, which has been proven
B.It is the essence of police operation counter-effective in most modern practice,
C.It is the single largest unit in the police management assumes employees are
department that can be eliminated inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can
D.It is the nucleus of the police department and that they inherently dislike work. As a result
E.It is the operational heart of the police of this, management believes that workers
department need to be closely supervised and
947. .The performance evaluation system in comprehensive systems of controls developed.
the PNP is conducted: A.Hawthorne Effect
A.thrice a year B.Stockholm Syndrome
C.X theory
B. Every 6 months
D.Y theory
C.Every 2 years 954. .This kind of organizational structure
D. Quarterly classifies people according to the function they

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 perform in their professional life or according to
the functions performed by them in the
organization.
A.Functional Structure
B.Line and Staff Structure
C.Line Structure
D.Divisional Structure
955. .If the offense is punishable for a period
of not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16
days, the citizen’s complaint against erring PNP
member shall be filed at the
A.Office of the chief of police
B.PLEB
C.Mayor’s Office
D. any of the choices
956. .Monthly retirement benefits or pay
shall be ___ of the base pay and longevity pay
of the retired grade in case of 20 years active
service
A.50%
B.10%
C.2.5%
D.55%
957. .This type of plan is intended for specific
purpose such as drug crackdown, crime
prevention program, or neighborhood clean-up
campaign. It concludes when the objective is
accomplished or the problem is solved
A.Strategic plan
B.Time Specific plan
C.Problem oriented plan
D.time bound operational plan
958. .This type of plan is intended to guide
PNP members on routine and field operations
and some special operations
A.Strategic plan
B.Time Specific plan
C.Problem oriented plan
D. policy or procedural plan
959. .The head of the NCR shall have the rank
of_____?
A.Superintendent
B. Director
C.Senior Superintendent
D. Chief Superintendent
960. . The institution of a criminal action or
complaint against a police officer is
A.A ground for dismissal
B.Not qualified for promotion
C.Automatically dismiss
D.Not a bar to promotion
961. .Refers to the utilization/use of units or
elements of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties, enforcement
of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
G.S.T. 2019
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and
bringing the offenders to justice
A.Deployment
B.Reinforcement
C.Reintegration
D.Employment
962. . What is the first step in making a plan?
A.Frame of reference
B.Analyzing the Facts
C.Collecting all pertinent data
D.Identification of the problems
963. .It identify the role of police in the
community and future condition in state
A.Visionary Plans
B.Strategic Plans
C.Synoptic Planning
D.Incremental Planning
964. .Is that field of management which
involves planning, and controlling the efforts of
a group of individuals toward achieving a
common goal with maximum dispatch and
minimum use of administrative resources.
A.Human Resources
B.Personnel Management
C.Human Management
D.Personnel Administration
965. . Is the process of developing methods or
procedure or an arrangement of parts intended
to facilitate the accomplishment of a definite
objective.
A.Management
B.Functioning
C.Budgeting
D.Planning
966. . Are guidelines for action to be taken
under specific circumstances and details with
the following procedures.
A.Field Procedures
B.Procedural plan
C.Operational Plans
D.Functional plan
967. . Which of the following is not a function
of police personnel unit?
A.Preparing policy statements and standard
operating Procedures relating to all areas of
the administration of human resources
B.Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line
officials regarding personnel matters
C.Conducts exits interviews with resigning
officers to identify, and subsequently correct,
unsatisfactory working conditions
D. Establish criteria for promotion to the
exclusive ranks
968. .It refers to the process of screening out
or eliminating undesirable applicants that do
not meet the organization’s selection criteria
A. Promotion Recruitment
B.Transfer Selection
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 C.Recruitment 976. . Refers to the distinctive physical device
D.Selection of metal and ribbon, which constitute the
969. .It is recognized as the best method of tangible evidence of an award:
filing A.Medal
A.Pigeon Hole B. Awards
B.retrieval operation
C.Decorations
C.Records Management
D.chain of custody D.Ribbons
970. .It is considered to be the heart of any 977. .For every _______ letters of
identification system; it provides positive commendation, a medalya ng papuri may be
identification of the criminal awarded to nay PNP member:
A.Arrest and booking report A.Six
B.Miscellaneous Records B. Four
C.Identification record C.Five
D.Fingerprint Records D. Three
971. .The payment of Missing Uniformed 978. .Imports an act of cruelty, severity,
Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances for unlawful exaction, domination, or excessive use
the heirs is for a maximum of how many year? of authority:
A.1 year A.Misconduct
B. 2 months B. Dishonesty
C. 4 years
C.Incompetency
D.2 years
972. .In Supervisory Training, a minimum of D. Oppression
_____ number of hours of classroom training 979. .The operational support unit of the PNP
should be required for newly promoted shall function as a mobile strike force or reaction
supervisory personnel unit to augment police forces for civil
A.72 hours disturbance control, counter-insurgency,
B.80 hours hostage taking, rescue operations and other
C.75 hours special operations:
D.85 hours A.NARCOM
973. .It should be proactive, people oriented, B. SAF
based on individual need, and delivered in such C.SWAT
a way as to motivate the experienced officer D. SOCO
Higher dgreee of professionalism/ 980. .The organizational structure of the PNP
Professionalization. is __________.
A.Recruit Training A.Line
B.Specialized training B. functional
C.In Service
C.staff
D.Field Training
974. . When an officer reaches the time-in- D. line and staff
grade possessing the entire mandatory and 981. . As a General Rule, High powered
other consideration in promotion, is what kind firearms are not allowed to possess except
of promotion? when there is an upsurge of lawlessness and
A.Promotion by Virtue of Position criminality as determined by proper authority,
B. Regular Promotion but shall not exceed ______ of the total
C.Meritorious Promotion number of security guards.
D. Promotion A.50%
975. .It involves assistance and action by non B. 20%
police agencies such as Local Safety Council for C.30%
Traffic Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile D. 10%
Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness plans 982. . The vault door should be made of steel
and Civil defense plans at least __________ in thickness?
A.Management Plans A.7 inches
B.Procedural plan
B. 9 inches
C.Tactical Plans
D. Extra departmental plan C.6 inches
D. 20 feet or more
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 983. . An act or condition, which results in a C.Chief Inspector
situation conducive to a breach of the D.Security Supervisor 1
protection system, or that, could result to loss. 991. . Barbed wire fences standard wire is
A.Hazards twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4
B. Environmental Hazards point barbs spaces in an equal part. Barbed wire
C.Natural Hazards fencing should not be less than ___ high
D. Security Hazards excluding the top guard.
984. .An inquiry into the character, A.8 feet
reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and B.7 feet
loyalty of an individual in order to determines C.9 feet
person suitability for appointment or access to D. 6 feet
classified matter. 992. . Who exercises the power to remove,
A.Character Investigation for cause, license issued to security guards.
B.Physical Investigation A. Any of the choices
C.Background Investigation B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
D. Personnel Security Investigation C. Secretary, DILG
985. .The importance of the firm or D. C/PNP
installation with reference to the national 993. .What type of alarm is best suited for
economy security doors and windows?
A.Relative vulnerability A. Photoelectric
B. Relative program B. Metallic foil
C.Relative criticality C. Audio detection
D. Relative security D. Microwave Detection
986. .Private security agencies have to be 994. .Is the process of conducting physical
registered with the: examination to determine compliance with
A.SEC establishment security policies and
B.DTI procedures?
C.PADPAO A. Security Education
D. PNP, SAGSD B. Security Survey
987. .To deny outsiders from visual access in C. Security Planning
a certain facility what must be constructed. D. Security Inspection
A.Full view fence 995. . Is a corporate and executive
B. Chain link fence responsibility, involving the knowledge of the
C. Solid fence objectives of the security and the means and
D. Multiple fences the method to reach these objective or goal
988. . A private security Guard who is must then involve.
escorting a big amount of money or cash A. Security Inspection
outside his area of jurisdiction shall be issued B. Security Hazards
with a- C. Security Planning
A.Firearms D. Security Survey
B. Mission Order 996. . A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or
C.Duty Detail Order electronic device designed to prevent entry
D. None of These into a building, room container, or hiding place,
989. .What is the duration of the Basic and to prevent the removal of items without
Security Guard Course? the consent of the owner
A. 150 Hours A .Padlocks
B. 72 Hours B. Locks
C. 48 Hours C. Code Operated
D. 300 Hours D. Lever Locks
990. .All except one are the line leadership 997. . A type of protective alarm system
staff: where the central station located outside the
A.Detachment Commander installation. When the alarm is sounded, it will
B.Post-in-Charge notifies the police and other agency
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 A. Local Alarm system c. Doors
B. Auxiliary System d. Concertina
C. Central Station System 1005. .Vaults are storage devices which are
usually designed to be at least _______fire
D. Proprietary
resistant.
998. . It is placed on the floor in such a a. 3 hours
position that tellers may activate the alarm by b. 24hours
placing the front of their foot to engage the c. 6hours
activation bar d. 12 hours
A. Bill traps 1006. . A lock which is commonly installed in
B. Foot Rail Activator safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof
since it is operated by utilizing combinations by
C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
means of a dial.
D. Foot buttons a. Lever locks
999. These are wide beam units, used to b. Combination lock
extend the illumination in long, horizontal strips c. Padlock
to protect the approaches to the perimeter d. Code operated locks
barrier; it projected a narrow, horizontal and 1007. . The maximum number of firearms
from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane allowed to possess by a PSA should not exceed
by___ units.
A. Fresnel Lights
a. 30
B. Street Lights b. 70
C. Floodlights c. 500
D.Search lights d. 1000
1000. . What is the required capital 1008. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp
investment for organization of private emits a blue- green color?
a. Sodium vapor lamp
security agency?
b. Incandescent lamp
A. P 500,000 c. Mercury vapor lamp
B. B. P 100,000 d. Quartz lamp
C. P 1,000,000 1009. .What type of security deals with the
D. P 50,000 industrial plants and business enterprises
1001. . One who steals with preconceived where personnel, processes, properties and
plans and takes away any or all types of items operations are safeguarded?
a. Personnel security
or supplies for economic gain?
b. industrial security
A. Normal Pilferer c. Physical security
B. Regular Pilferer d. bank security
C. Casual Pilferer 1010. .The following are principles of Physical
D. Systematic pilferer Security, EXCEPT:
1002. . The metallic container used for a. There is impenetrable Barrier.
securing documents or small items in an office b.Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
c.Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
or installation refers to:
d.Intelligence requires continuous security
A. Safe measures.
B. Vault 1011. . The susceptibility of a plant or
C. File room establishment to damage, loss or disruption of
D. None of these operations due to various hazards.
1003. .Chain link fences must be constructed a. Relative vulnerability
in______ material excluding the top guard? b. Relative criticality
a. Seven feet c. Relative susceptibility
b. Six feet d. Relative security
c. Four feet 1012. . Security Clearance is a certification by a
d. Five feet responsible authority that the person
described is cleared to access and classify
1004. .The following things are used as barrier, matters at appropriate levels. Interim
which serves as a deterrent to the possible clearance will remain valid for a period
intruder in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT: of____ from the date of issuance.
a. Human a. 1 year
b. Fences b. 4 years
c. 2 years
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 d. 5 years a. Mercury vapor lamp
1013. . The tenure of a security guard is: b. Quartz lamp
a. Six Months c. Sodium vapor Lamp
b. Co-terminus with the service contract d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
c. Two years 1021. . What is an act governing the
d. Contractual organization and management of private
1014. . Which among the following is not an security agency, company guard force and
advantage of a full-view fence, except: government security forces?
a.It allows visual access to the installation which a. RA 8574
aids the intruder in planning. b. RA 5478
b.It allows the intruder to become familiar with c. RA 4587
.the movements of persons in the installation d. RA 5487
c.It creates shadows which could prevent 1022. .Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain
concealment of the intruder. link or concertina. Chain link are for ______.
d.None of these a. Solid structure
1015. .Every registered PSA are mandatory to b. Least permanent structure
give surety bond which shall answer for any c. Permanent structure
valid and legal claims against such agency filed d. Semi- permanent structure
by aggrieved party. How much is the Surety 1023. it is more comprehensive investigation than
bond of PSA with 500-799 guards. the NAC & LAC since it includes thorough and
a. 50, 000 complete investigation of all or some of the
b. 100, 000 circumstances or aspects of a person’s life is
c. 150, 000 conducted?
d. 200,00 a. Personnel Security Investigation
1016. . What type of investigation involves all b. Partial Background Investigation
aspect and details about the circumstances of c. Background Investigation
a person? d. Complete Background Investigation
a. partial background investigation 1024.The unobstructed area maintained on both
b. completebackground investigation sides of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and
c. personnel security investigation interior parallel area to afford better observation
d. national agency check of the installation refers to:
1017. . The exposure and the teaching of a. Clear zone
employees on security and its relevance to b. Complimentary zone
their work is: c. Open zone
a.Security Inspection d. Free zone
b.Security Education 1025.The extension period for a license to operate
c.Security Orientation issued upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum
d.Security Survey number of guards is:
1018. .A type of security which provides a. 1 month
sufficient illumination to areas during hours b. 6 months
of darkness c. 2 years
a. Protective Lighting d. 1 year
b. Fresnel Lights 1026.Which of the following types of lock is
c. Search Lights generally used in car doors?
d. Street Lights a. Warded lock
1019. . Type of alarm system which is usually b. Lever lock
activated by the interruption of the light beam c. Disc tumbler lock
is known as: d. Combination lock
a. Metallic foil 1027. PADPAO stands for:
b. Electric eye device a. Philippine Association of Detective and
c. Audio alarm Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
d. Microwave alarm b. Philippine Alliance of Detective and
1023.What is the ratio of the security guard to Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
their licensed firearm is needed after operating c. Philippine Association of Detective and
for six months. Protector Agency Operators, Inc.
a. 1:3 d. Philippine Agencies of Detective and
b. 1:5 Protective Associations Operators, Inc.
c. 1:2 1028. 1 It refers to a protection against any
d. 1:1 type of crime to safeguard life and assets by
1020. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp is various methods and device.
useful in areas where insects predominate? a. Physical Security
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 b. Perimeter Security a. Sodium vapor lamp
c. Operational Security b. Mercury vapor lamp
d. Security c. Incandescent lamp
1029. . All except are the qualifications of a d. Quartz lamp
security officer. 1038. . What type of security lighting is
a. Has graduated from a Security Officer focused to the intruder while the guard
b. Training Course. remains in the comparative darkness?
c. Holder of Masters Degree. a. Controlled lighting
d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP. b. Fresnel light
e. Physically or mentally fit. c. Emergency lighting
1030. .These provides access within the d. Glare- projection
perimeter barrier and should be locked and 1039. . What is the system of natural or man-
guarded. made barriers placed between the potential
a. Gates and Doors intruder and the object, person and matter
b. Side-Walk Elevator being protected?
c. Utilities Opening a. Communication security
d. Clear Zones b. Document security
1031. .A fact finding probe to determine a c. Physical security
plant adequacy and deficiency in all aspects d. Barrier
of security, with the corresponding
recommendation is: 1040. .The following are the purposes of
a. security inspection Security Survey, EXCEPT:
b. security education a. To ascertain the present economic status
c. security training b. To determine the protection needed
d. security survey c. To make recommendations to improve the
1032. . What unit of PNP handles the overall security
processing and issuances of license for d. None of these
private security personnel?
a. PNP SOSIA 1041. . License to Operate (LTO) is a License
b. PNP FED Certificate document which is issued by
c. PADPAO ____________ authorizing a person to
d. PNP SAGSD engage in employing security guard or
1033. . What is the most common type of detective, or a juridical person to establish,
human hazard? engage, direct, manage or operate a private
a. Sabotage detective agency.
b. Pilferage a. Secretary of DILG
c. Theft b. Security and Exchange Commission
d. Subversion
1034. . What is the security force maintained c. Chief, PNP
and operated by any private company/ d. President
corporation for its own security
requirements? 1042. . One of the specifications of a barbed
a. GSU wire fence is that the distances between
b. CSF strands will not exceed _______and at least
c. PSA one wire will be interlock vertical and midway
d. PD between posts.
1035. . What type of controlled area requires a. 3 inches
highest degree of security? b. 6 inches
a. Limited c. 4 inches
b. Restricted d. 7 inches
c. Special
d. Exclusive 1043. .Clear Zone of _______ must be
1036. . What lock requires manipulation of established between the perimeter barrier
parts according to a predetermined and structure within the protected areas.
combination code of numbers? a. 20 feet or more
a. Card- operated lock b. 40 feet or more
b. Combination lock c. 30 feet or more
c. Electromagnetic lock d. 50 feet or more
d. Card Operated
1037. .What type of lamp emits bright white 1044. .A heavily constructed fire and burglar
light? resistance container usually a part of the
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 building structure use to keep, and protect d. Explain Hazard Test
cash, documents and valuables materials.
a. Vault 1051. . The following are phases of Security
b. Safe Education, EXCEPT:
c. File Room a. Special Interview
d. None of these b. Security Seminar
c. Security Promotion
1045. . Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after d. Training Conference
his Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his
Firearm? 1052. . How is one classified if he steals
primarily because of irresistible urge due to
a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the unexpected opportunity and little chance of
company’s Vault. detection?
b. Turnover to the next security guard on duty. a. Systematic pilferer
c. Bring home the firearms for easy responses. b. Ordinary pilferer
d. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the c. Casual pilferer
guards table. d. Unusual pilferer

1046. . Any physical structure whether natural 1053. Psychology of Omnipresence

or man-made capable of restricting, means______.
deterring or delaying illegal or unauthorized a. Low Visibility
access. b. High Visibility
a. Perimeter Fences c. Reactive
b. Wire Fences d. Proactive
c. Moveable Barrier
d. Barrier 1054. Its purpose is to provide the
1047. . A company owned protective alarm organizational and operational framework in
with unit in a nearest police station of fire truly affecting mechanisms toward
department. enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of
a. A. Proprietary Alarm PNP investigational capability.
b. Auxiliary Alarm a. Detective Beat Patrol
c. Central Alarm b. Integrated Patrol System
d. Security Alarm c. Community Oriented Policing System
1048. . It is Lighting equipment which d. Team Policing
produced diffused light rather than direction 1055. Report prepared by the patrol officer
beam. They are widely used in parking areas upon reaching the end of the line beat, and
a. Street Lights before returning to the point of origin.
b. Search Lights a. Patrol Report
c. Flood Lights b.Situation Report
d. Fresnel Lights c.Investigation Report
d.Incident Report

1049. . A portable and detachable lock having 1056. The ideal police response time is:
or sliding hasp which passes through a staple a. 3 minutes
ring or the like and is then made fast or b. 5 minutes
secured. c. 7 minutes
a. Lock d. 10 minutes
b. Padlock
c. Code Operated 1057. Persons, Place, thing, situation or
d. Card Operated condition possessing a high potential for
criminal attack or for the creation of problem
1050. . It is a test for safe’ to determine if the necessitating a demand for immediate police
sudden rise in temperature will not cause the service:
safe to rupture. If the safe can withstand a. Hazard
2000 b. Opportunity
0
F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening c. Perception of Hazard
then it has passed the test. d. Police Hazard
a. Fire Endurance Test
b. Fire and Impact Test
c. Burning Test

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 1058. The most expensive patrol method and c. Reactive
gives the greatest opportunity to develop d. High Visibility
sources of information is:
a. Foot Patrol 1065. Bicycle patrol has the combined
b. Marine Patrol advantage of ________________ since they
c. Mobile Patrol can be operated very quietly and without
d. Helicopter Patrol attracting attention.
1059. Walking closed to the building at night is a. Mobility and wide area coverage.
a tactic in patrol which makes the policemen b. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
less visible during the night. The primary c. Shorter travel time and faster response.
purpose is: d. Mobility and stealth
a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing
a crime 1066. What is the most excellent method of
b. To have sufficient cover Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?
c. To attract less attention a. Foot Patrol
d. For safety of the Patrol officer b. K-9 Patrol
c. Automobile Patrol
1060. The following are included in the cause d. Bicycle Patrol
and effect of team policing.
a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate; 1067. When was the first automobile patrol
c. Facilitate career development; initiated in the Philippines and the First Chief
d. Diminish police morale; and of the Mobile patrol bureau of Manila Police
e. Improve police community relation. Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
a. May 7, 1954
a. a, b, e b. May 17, 1954
b. c. a, b, d, e c. May 14, 1957
c.a, c, d, e d. March 10, 1917
d. d. a, b, c, e
1061. This patrol tactic differs from traditional 1068. As a Patrol officer, when checking
patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol suspicious persons, places, buildings/
officers perform specific predetermined establishments and vehicles especially during
preventive functions on a planned systematic night-time, be prepared to use your service
basis: firearm and Flashlight should be-
a. Target Oriented Patrol
b. High-Visibility Patrol a. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching
c. Low-Visibility Patrol of a possible target.
d. Directed deterrent Patrol b. Tightly away from the body to avoid making
1062. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s you a possible target.
area can be best penetrated by the police c. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten
through. possible adversary.
a. Foot patrol a. None of these
b. Bicycle patrol
c. Mobile patrol 1069. What is your priority as a Patrol officer
d. Helicopter patrol when responding to Calls for Police
1063. Integrated patrol system is the total Assistance?
system used to accomplish the police a. Arrest criminals
visibility program of the PNP. The Police b. Securing the area
officers in Police Community Precincts render c. Aiding the injured
24 hours duty with prescribed divisions of: d. Extort Money
a. 2 shifts
b. 4 shifts 1070. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be
c. 3 shifts fired upon, except when its occupants pose
d. every other day shift. imminent danger of causing death or injury to
the police officer or any other person, and
1064. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce that the use of firearm does not create a
or totally prevent the desire of human being danger to the public and outweighs the likely
to commit crime. benefits of its non-use. In firing upon a
a. Preventive moving vehicle, the following parameters
b. Proactive should be considered EXCEPT:

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a. Accessibility or the proximity of the
fleeing suspect/s with the police officer and
other persons.
b. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s
to harm in certainty the police officer or
other persons
c. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to
harm the police officer or other persons.
d. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing
suspect/s to avoid traffic accident.
1071. When Patrol officer visually observe a
weapon during pat-down search, a more
secure search position may be:
a. Standing position
b. Lying Face down Position
c. Hands placed against a stationary
object, and feet spread apart.
d. All of these
1096. The following are types of specialized
patrol method except:
a. Marine Patrol
b. Air Patrol
c. Canine Patrol
d. Foot Patrol
1072. A uniformed patrol officers work in
generally judged by his-
a. Knowledge of all problems in the community
b. Residents developed good public relations
c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and
minor offenses
d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in
his area
1073. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful
assemblies?
a. True
b. False
c. Absolutely Yes
d. Absolutely No
1074. This patrol tactic is designed to increase
the number of apprehension of law violator
to engage in certain types of crimes:
a. Preventive Patrol
b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Proactive Patrol
1075. Which of the following is NOT TRUE
about patrol?
a. It is the backbone of the police department
b. It is the essence of police operation
c. It is the nucleus of the police department
d.It is the single largest unit in the police
Department that can be eliminated
G.S.T. 2019
1076. It is an immediate response to block the
escape of lawless elements from a crime
scene, and is also established when nearby
checkpoints are ignored or during hot pursuit
operations. It is set up by police personnel
conducting mobile patrol on board a marked
police vehicle, or those conducting ISO and
foot patrol operations within the
vicinity/periphery of the national or
provincial highways.
a. Dragnet Operation
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest
d. High Risk Stop
1077. The following are patrol activities,
except:
A. Arrest of alleged criminals
B. Responding to emergency calls
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports
1078. This type of patrol maintains better
personal contact with the members of the
community ideal in gaining the trust and
confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol
B. Bicycle Patrol
C. Automobile Patrol
D. Foot Patrol
1079. The patrol pattern which is usually done
at the last hour of duty to ascertain that
nothing happened in the area of
responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern
D. Crisscross pattern
1080. The following are the advantages of Foot
Patrol. EXCEPT:
a. It involves larger number of personnel
b. It develops greater contact with the public
c. It insures familiarization of area
d. It promotes easier detection of crime
1081. Dogs are of great assistance in search
and rescue as well as in smelling out drugs
and bombs. What do you call the large dog
with drooping ears and sagging jaws and
keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used
for tracking purposes?
a. German shepherd
b. Bloodhounds
c. Doberman pinscher
d. Black Labrador Retrievers
1082. The best method of patrol to be done in
sector is:
Page 73 of 262
 a. Foot 1089. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post
b. Automobile for patrolmen in areas where police hazards
c. Bicycle are serious is that, it usually-
d. Helicopter a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted
charges.
c. Wasteful of manpower.
d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing
1083. A supervisor’s span of control is usually when quick mobilization is needed.
computed in terms of number of: 1090. Patrol weaken the potential offenders
a. Superiors to whom he reports belief in the-
b. Superiors from whom he takes orders a. Opportunity for graft.
c. Subordinates directly reporting to him b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively
d. Any of these violate the law.
c. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
1084. Frequent beat changes prevent a police d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized
officer from becoming _______ with people, squads.
hazards, and facilities on his beat.
a. Well Acquainted
b. Sluggish
c. Energetic
1091. Team Policing is said to be originated
d. Unfamiliar
in________:
a. Aberdeen, Scotland
1085. The patrol pattern to be followed after b. Lyons, France
the clockwise and before the counter- c. Vienna. Austria
clockwise? d. London, England
a. Straightway 1092. They are considered as the first to utilize
b. Crisscross dogs for patrolling:
c. Sector a. Egyptians
d. Zigzag b. English
c. Chinese
1086. The two-man patrol became_________ d. American
due to increase attack of police officer by
militant, dangerous section to be patrolled 1093. The patrol strategy which employs bait
and many riots demonstration in the street. or distracter to in order to catch criminals is
a. Unnecessary known as:
b. Necessary a. High visibility patrol
c. Voluntary b. Blending patrol
d. Redundant c. Low visibility patrol
d. Decoy patrol
1087. A police strategy which aims to directly
involve members of the community in the 1094. A wanted to commit suicide by jumping
maintenance of peace and order by police in a 14h floor building. Which of the following
officers. should be the first thing to do by the Patrol
a. Integrated Police System officer who first arrived at the scene?
b. Comparative Police System a. Urge no to jump
c. Detective Beat System b. Call nearest relative
d. Community Oriented Policing System c. Clear the area
d. Report immediately to Station
1088. Which among the following routine
patrol duties, is the least likely to become 1095. What is the most realistic advantage of
completely a function of automobile patrol is the motorcycle patrol over the other patrol
the checking of- methods?
a. Security of business establishment. A. Low cost
b. Street light outrages. B.Visibility
c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs. C. Speed
D.llegalposting of signs and other advertisement. D. Security
1096. The basic purpose of patrol is most
effectively implemented by police activity
which-

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 d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by
a. Provides for many types of specialized patrol cars.
patrol, with less emphasis on routine.
b.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker 1103. Its purpose is to provide the
aspiration to commit crime. organizational and operational framework in
c.Influences favorable individual and truly affecting mechanisms toward
group attitudes in routine daily associations with enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of
the police. PNP investigational capability.
d. Intensifies the potential offender’s a. Detective Beat Patrol
expectation of apprehension. b. Integrated Patrol System
1097. What is the new concept, police strategy c. COPS-Community Oriented Policing System
which integrates the police and community d. Team Policing
interests into a working relationship so as to
produce the desired organizational 1104. The members of the Patrol teams shall
objectives of peacemaking? form and assemble at the police unit
headquarters at least _______ before the start
a. Preventive patrol of their shift for accounting-
b. Directed Patrol a. 10 minutes
c. Community Relation b. hour
d. Team policing c. 30 minutes
1098. What is the appropriate patrol method d. 15 minutes
that is most ideally suited to evacuation and
search-and-rescue operations? 1105. The police must make an effort to
a. Motorcycle ascertain and amaze upon the law abiding
b. Automobile citizens and would be criminals alike that the
c. Helicopter police are always existing to respond to any
d. Horse situation at a moment’s notice and he will
just around the corner at all times. This
1099. If the external patting of the suspect’s statement refers to:
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a a. Police Omnipresence
weapon the next procedure of the Patrol b. Police Patrol
officer is: c. Police Discretion
a.Conduct a complete search. d. Integrated Patrol
b.The Patrol officer shall arrest the 1106. The patrol method characterized by
suspect. speed and mobility and considered as lest
c. No further search may be made. expensive as it utilizes lesser number of men
d.Turnover the suspect to the and covers a wider area in a short period of
immediate supervisor. time, while protection to patrol officers:
a. Foot patrol
1100. During Civil Disturbances, what may be b. Motorcycle Patrol
utilized when demonstrators become unruly c. Automobile Patrol
and aggressive forcing troops to fall back to d. Helicopter patrol
their secondary positions?
a. Tear Gas 1107. Team members of the decoy may dress
b. Water Cannon themselves in a manner designed to help
c. Truncheon them blend the neighborhood where they
d. Shield are deployed.
1101. Going left while patrolling upon reaching a. Absolutely False
every intersection until reaching the point of b. Absolutely True
origin is following what pattern? c. Absolutely Yes
a. Clockwise d. Absolutely No
b. Zigzag
c. Counter clockwise 1108. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the
d. Crisscross advantage of:
a. One Man Patrol Car
1102. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle b. Two Man Patrol Car
Patrol: c. Foot Patrol
a. Can report regularly to the command center. d. Canine Patrol
b. Can operate quietly and without attracting
attention. 1109. The least desirable of all police shifts due
c. It is inexpensive to operate . to lack of activities:
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 a. Afternoon Shift d. counter clockwise
b. Morning Shift
c. Night Shift 1116. Itis a “frisk” or external feeling of the
d. None of these outer garments of an individual for weapons
only.
1110. It refers to a patrol strategy directed a. Frisking
towards specific persons or places: b. Search
a. Target Oriented Patrol c. Spot Check
b. High-Visibility Patrol d. Pat-down Search
c. Reactive Patrol
d. Directed deterrent Patrol 1117. It is one by patrolling the streets within
the perimeter of the beat not at random but
1111. This patrol tactic differs from traditional with definite target location where he knows
patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol his presence is necessary.
officers perform specific predetermined a. Target Oriented
preventive functions on a planned systematic b. Zigzag
basis: c. Clockwise
a. Target Oriented Patrol d. Criss-Cross
b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol 1118. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol;
d. Directed deterrent Patrol the following are the advantages of Foot
patrol, EXCEPT:

a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for

action taken.
b. It enables patrol officers to cover a
considerable area
1112. Refers to the actual stopping or c. Inspire more Public confidence.
accosting of armed and dangerous person or d. The officer can actually get to know the
persons, aboard a vehicle or on foot, physical layout of his beat better.
including the power to use all necessary and
legal means to accomplish such end. 1119. The word Patrol was derived from the
a. Dragnet Operation French word ________which means to go
b. Hasty Checkpoint through paddles.
c. High-Risk Arrest a. Patroulier
d. High Risk Stop b. Patroul
c. Politeia
1113. Which among the following activities d. Politia
during post-patrol or post-deployment phase
is not included? 1120. The concept of Unity of command is:
a. Formation & Accounting a. No one should have more than one boss.
b. Debriefing/Report Submission b. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
c. Inspection & recall of Equipment c. Number of subordinates that a Superior can
d. Briefing effectively supervise.
d.Conferring certain tasks, duties, and
1114. Police Patrols were restricted only to responsibilities to subordinates.
answering calls of service.
a. Reactive 1121. Which among the following Patrol
b. High Visibility Method is appropriate when responding to
c. Proactive quick emergency call?
d. Low Visibility a. Motorcycle Patrol
b. Air Patrol
1115. The first organized patrol for policing c. Automobile Patrol
purposes was formed in London. This patrol d. Foot Patrol
pattern is usually done at the last hour of
duty to ascertain that nothing happened in 1122. This patrol strategy is focused more on
the area of responsibility of the patrol? called for services
a. Straight a. Reactive patrol
b. Crisscross b. Directed deterrent patrol
c. Clockwise c. Proactive patrol

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 d. Blending patrol d. Pre-Determined Area

1123. Before policemen become a dispatcher 1131. It refers to a repeated circuit of in

he must be_______. guarding, primarily to prevent the
a. Voice Radio Operator commission of crimes and maintain the
b. Trained Formally peace and order situation in a particular area:
c. Licensed Dispatcher a. Police Patrol
d. Coordinator b. Preventive Patrol
c. Foot Patrol
1124. Traditional foot patrolling in the d. Patrol
Philippines was initiated on:
a. August 10, 1917 1132. It is the primary objective of police
b. August 7, 1901 patrol operations:
c. November 22, 1901 A.Crime Prevention
d. March 17, 1901 B.Protect and Serve
C.Law enforcement
1125. What should be accomplished by Patrol D. All of the choices
officers during Post-Deployment Phase?
a. Situation Report 1133. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a
b. Citation Report a. patrol strategy called:
c. Daily Patrol Report a. Reactive Patrol
d. Hourly Patrol Report b. Directed Patrol
c. Preventive Patrol
1126. This patrol tactic would result to d. Proactive Patrol
improvement of police omnipresence:
a. Target Oriented Patrol 1134. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a
b. High-Visibility Patrol crime incident faster but undetected, then
c. Low-Visibility Patrol the best patrol method that he should
d. Directed deterrent Patrol employ is:
a. Bicycle patrol
1127. It is the most prevalent and economical b. Automobile patrol
method of patrol used in patrol force: c. Motorcycle patrol
a. Foot Patrol d. Foot patrol
b. Air Patrol
c. Automobile Patrol 1135. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to
d. Motorcycle Patrol the act of a person that enables another to
1128. The smelling sense of dog is up to how victimize him:
many times more sensitive than human’s a. Instrumentality
sense of smell? b. Opportunity
a. One thousand times c. Motive
b. One hundred times d. Capability
c. Ten thousand times 1136. The factors to be considered in
d. Ten million times determining the number of patrol officers to
be deployed in an area are the following,
1129. Transfer of knowledge from one person except:
to another through common medium and a. Size of the area
channel. b. Possible problems to be encountered
a. Information c. Topography
b. Communication d. none of the choices
c. Police Communication 1137. The patrol strategy which brings the
d. Radio police and the people together in a
cooperative manner in order to prevent
1130. Refers to a location where the search, crime:
which is duly authorized by the PNP, is a. Integrated Patrol
conducted to deter/prevent the commission b. Team policing
of crimes, enforce the law, and for other c. Reactive patrol
legitimate purposes. d. Proactive patrol
a. Clear Zone
b. Public Place
c. Police Checkpoint 1138. The theory in patrol which states that
police officers should conduct overt police
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 operations in order to discourage people b. Natural
from committing crime refers to: c. Artificial
a. Theory of police omnipresence d. Unusual
b. Low police visibility theory 1147. Which of the following statements is
c. Low profile theory TRUE?
d. Maximum deterrence theory
A.Intelligence Officer can submit his information
1139. The principle of patrol force organization report any time since it is to processes.
which states that patrol officers should be b. All intelligence information’s are collected by
under the command of only one man refers clandestine method.
to: c. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a
a. Span of control medium size police station.
b. Unity of command d. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence
c. Chain of command information by initiating good public relations.
d. Command responsibility 1148. Wire tapping operations in our country
is strictly prohibited but it can be done at the
1140. The elimination of the opportunity of commander’s discretion since it tends to
people to commit crime as a result of patrol. collect intelligence information.
a. Crime prevention a. Partly True
b. Crime intervention b. Partly False
c. Crime suppression c. Wholly True
d. Crime deterrence d. Wholly False
1149. If information comes with a low
1141. The Greek word which means reliability and doubtful accuracy, will this
“government of a city” or “civil organization information be discarded or refused
and the state”, which is claimed as the origin acceptance?
of the word police refers to: a. Maybe Yes
a. Politia b. Yes
b. Policia c. No
c. Politeia d. Maybe No
d. Polis 1150. In selection and recruitment of
1142. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the informers the best factor to be considered is:
primary objective of patrol activity is: A.Age
a. To prevent commission of crime. B.Access
b. Integrate the police and the community C.Educational Attainment
c. Constant and Alert Patrolling. D.Body built
d. Visibility and Omniprescence. 1151. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-
1143. What law provides for the creation of Wiretapping Act” which prohibits
the National Intelligence Coordinating wiretapping in our country.
Agency? a. RA 1700
a. RA 157 b. RA 4200
b. B. EO 213 c. RA 7877
c. RA 6040 d. RA 7160
d. EO 246 1152. Security Clearance is a certification by a
1144. A person who breaks intercepted codes. responsible authority that the person
a. Crypto Analyst described is cleared to access and classify
b. Cryptographer matters at appropriate levels. Interim
c. Cryptograph clearance will remain valid for a period
d. Code breaker of____ from the date of issuance.
a. 1 year
1145. Agent who is a member of paramilitary b. 5 years
group organized to harass the enemy in a hot c. 2 years
war situation. d. 4 years
a. Guerilla
b. Propagandist 1153. How will you evaluate the intelligence
c. Provocateur report of Agent Mariano with an evaluation
d. Strong Arm rating of D2?
1146. It is a type of Cover which alters the
background that will correspond to the a. Completely reliable source doubtfully true
operation. information
a. Multiple b. Unreliable source – probably true information
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 c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true a. Alexander the Great
information b. Frederick the Great
d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true c. Karl Schulmeister
information d. Arthur Wellesley

1154. It is a process or method of obtaining 1161. There are four categories of classified
information from a captured enemy who is matters; top secret, secret, confidential, and
reluctant to divulge information. restricted. To distinguish, their folder consists
a. Interview of different colors. What will be the color of
b. Interrogation the document which requires the highest
c. Forceful Interrogation degree of protection?
d. Tactical Interrogation a. Red
b. Black
1155. The use of an equipment or tool to listen c. Blue
and record discreetly conversations of other d. Green
people. 1162. What verse of the Holy Bible that
a. Eavesdropping includes the biblical indication of the
b. Bugging beginning of Intelligence?
c. None of these a. Number 13:17
d. Wiretapping b. Number 3:17
c. Number 17:13
1156. The process of extracting information d. Number 17:3
from a person believes to be in possession of 1163. A certain locality is identified to be a
vital information without his knowledge or major source of illicit drugs, to resolve this
suspicion. issue intelligence officer was deployed to live
a. Elicitation in the area for a considerable amount of time
b. Surveillance to find out the authenticity of such reports.
c. Roping a. Social assignments
d. Undercover Operations b. Work assignments
c. Organizational assignments
1157. It is a type of Agent used in collecting d. Residential assignments
information who leaks false information to
the enemy. 1164. It is a type of intelligence activity which
a. Double Agent deals with defending the organization against
b. Expendable Agent its criminal enemies?
c. Agent of Influence a. Line Intelligence
d. Penetration Agent b. Counter-Intelligence
c. Strategic Intelligence
1158. It is one of the Functional Classification d. Tactical Intelligence
of Police Intelligence which refers to the
knowledge essential to the prevention of 1165. What is the evaluation of an intelligence
crimes and the investigation, arrest, and report which is “usually from a reliable source
prosecution of criminal offenders. and improbable information”?
a. Internal Security Intelligence a. C-5
b. Public Safety Intelligence b. B-5
c. Criminal Intelligence c. B-3
d. Preventive Intelligence d. C-3
1166. It is a form of investigation in which the
1159. Intelligence is the end product resulting operative assumes a cover in order to obtain
from the collection, evaluation, analysis, information
integration, and interpretation of all available a. Overt operation
information. What is considered as the core b. Undercover assignment
of intelligence operations? c. Covert operation
a.Dissemination d. clandestine operation
b. Analysis
c. Mission 1167. It refers to a person who is highly skilled
d. Planning in converting message from clear to
unintelligible forms by use of codes and
cipher.
1160. He is regarded as the "Father of
a. Cryptographer
Organized Military Espionage".
b. Crypto Analyst
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 c. Cryptography becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or
d. Cryptechnician purposes for which it is being regarded.
a. Overt Operation
1168. What is evaluation of the intelligence b. Surveillance
report gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto c. Covert Operation
which is “Fairly Reliable and doubtfully true d. Analysis
information?
a. D-4
b. C-4 1175. Investigation of the records and files of
c. C-5 agencies in the area and residence of the
d. D-5 individual being investigated.
a. CBI
1169. In surveillance, the following are done to b. NAC
alter the appearance of the surveillance c. PBI
vehicle, EXCEPT: d. LAC
a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and 1176. The type of intelligence that is
sunglasses immediate in nature and necessary for more
c.Change of seating arrangement within the effective police planning.
surveillance vehicle a. Line Intelligence
d.Keep the cars behind the subject car. b. Strategic Intelligence
c. Police Intelligence
1170. A _______ is usually for the purpose of d. Departmental Intelligence
waiting for the anticipated arrival of the
suspect who is either wanted for 1177. It is considered as the most secured
investigation or who is expected to commit a method of disseminating the information to
crime at a certain location. the user of classified matters is by means of:
a. Stake out a. Debriefing
b. Rough Shadowing b. Conference
c. Shadowing c. Cryptographic method
d. Surveillance d. Seminar

1171. In the Intelligence function, the black list

includes ________ forces. 1178. It refers to the combination of all
a. Unwanted analyzed data to form a logical picture or
b. Friendly theory.
c. Neutral a. Integration
d. Unfriendly b. Evaluation
c. Deduction
1172. They are responsible for foreign d. Interpretation
intelligence of United Kingdom and it is also
referred as Box 850 because of its old post 1179. In intelligence functions, a black list
office box number. means:
a. Security Service a. Neutral
b. Secret Intelligence Service b. Unwanted
c. Government Communication Headquarters c. Friendly
d. Defense Intelligence Staff d. Unfriendly
1173. Known as the Prussia's "King of
Sleuthhounds" as minister of police he 1180. It is claimed that 99% of information is
studied the use of propaganda and obtained from conspicuous sources and 1%
censorship as well as utilizing statistical of information is obtained from clandestine
intelligence accounting. sources. Clandestine means.
a. Herbert Yadley a. Observable
b. Wilhem Steiber b. Overt
c. Admiral Yamamoto c. Visible
d. Joseph Fouche d. Covert

1174. If the information or documents are 1181. An E-3 intelligence report means:
procured openly without regard as to
whether the subject of the investigation

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 a. The information comes from completely 1189. It is more comprehensive than the NAC
reliable sources and Improbable true. or LAC, which includes some or all of the
b. The information comes from Unreliable circumstances.
sources and probably true. a. National Agency Check
c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable b. Background Investigation
sources and doubtfully true. c. Complete Background Investigation
d. The information comes from Unreliable d. Personnel Security Investigation
sources and possibly true.
1182. Refers to the observations of person’s 1190. He is regarded as the Greatest
movements is generally refers to as? Spymaster at all time:
a. Plant a. Frederick the Great
b. Stakeout b. Alexander the Great
c. None c. Arthur Wellesley
d. Tailing or Shadowing d. Joseph Hernandez
1183. The classification “Top secret”, have the
security color folderof? 1191. What specialist group of CIA that was
a. Red established to research, create and manage
b. Black technical collection discipline and
c. Blue equipment.
d. Green
a.National Clandestine Service
1184. The process of assigning higher category b.Directorate of Support
of document or information according to the c. Directorate of Intelligence
degree of security needed. d. Directorate of Science and Technology
a. Degrading
b. Classification 1192. The persons listed in________ are
c. Upgrading allowed to enter a certain establishment or
d. Advancement building.
a. Access list
1185. It is a process or method of obtaining b. Black List
information from a captured enemy who is c. Blue Print
reluctant to divulge information. d. Silver list
a. Interview
b. Forceful Interrogation 1193. The deliberate destruction, disruption,
c. Interrogation or damage of equipment, a public service, as
d. Tactical Interrogation by enemy agent or dissatisfied employees.
a. Subversion
1186. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is b. Sabotage
to determine if the information is true and- c. Espionage
a. Reliable d. None of these
b. Accurate
c. Correct 1194. The combination of the elements
d. Probably true isolated analysis with other known
information related to the operation.
1187. This kind of intelligence is long range in a. Recording
nature: b. Analysis
a. Line Intelligence c. Integration
b. Operational Intelligence d. Interpretation
c. Strategic Intelligence
d. Counter Intelligence 1195. It deals with the demographic and
psychological aspects of groups of people.
1188. It refers to a place, building or enclosed a. Sociological Intelligence
area where police undercover men meet for b. Economic Intelligence
debriefing or reporting purposes. c. Biographical Intelligence
a. Safe house d. Political Intelligence
b. Log
c. Live Drop 1196. Which among the following principles of
d. Decoy intelligence deemed to be the most
important?

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 a.intelligence requires continuous security 1203. If information comes with a low
measures reliability and doubtful accuracy, will this
b. Intelligence and operation are interdependent information be discarded or refused
c. Intelligence must be available on time acceptance?
d. Intelligence must be flexible a. Yes
b. True
1197. It is the careful inspection of a place to c. No
determine its suitability for a particular d. False
operational purpose.
a. Casing 1204. It is one of the Functional Classification
b. Loose Tail of Police Intelligence which refers to the
c. Rough Shadowing knowledge essential to the prevention of
d. Stakeout crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
prosecution of criminal offenders.
1198. It refers to the determination of the a. Internal Security Intelligence
pertinence of the information to the b. Criminal Intelligence
operation, reliability of the source of or c. Public Safety Intelligence
agency and the accuracy of the information. d. Preventive Intelligence
a. Evaluation
b. Recording 1205. If the information or documents are
c. Credibility procured openly without regard as to
d. Appraisal whether the subject of the investigation
becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or
purposes for which it is being regarded.
a. Overt Operation
1199. It refers to the most dangerous type of b. Clandestine
informant. c. Surveillance
a. Women d. Covert Operation
b. Double Crosser
c. False 1206. Which of the following is the most
d. Anonymous common reason why an informer gives
information to the police?
1200. It is the transforming of coded message a. Monetary Reward
into plain text. Popularity
a. Coding Revenge
b. Encrypting As a good citizen
c. Decoding
d. Reclassify 1207. A method of collecting information thru
interception of telephone conversation.
1201. After the planning on how intelligence is a. Bugging
to be collected, the intelligence officer must b. Wire Tapping
have thorough knowledge of the c. Code name
__________. d. NONE

a. The strength of the area where the
information will be gathered
b. Where they will be collecting the information
c. Available sources of information
d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of
intelligence
1202. He often dresses as a beggar & went to
the street of Rome to gather first hand
information, he is considered as the greatest
military strategist.
a. Alexander the Great
b. Hannibal
c. Frederick the Great
d. Genghis Khan
1208. Is the condition, situation, and
circumstance the enemy’s’ area of
consideration that render the criminal groups
susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat
by the police organization.
a.Conclusion
b.Capabilities
c. Vulnerabilities
d.Evaluation
1209. It is the general statement describing the
current police internal defense, internal
development, psychological operation and
responsibilities of the organization
a. Area of operation
b. Capabilities of organized crime

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 c. the crime situation
d. the mission 1217. Who directs the organization conducting
the clandestine activity?
1210. It is defined as evaluative and a. Manager
interpreted information concerning b. Superior
organized crime and other major police c. Sponsor
problems. d. Agent
A.Military Intelligence
b.Military Information 1218. Agents who molds the attitudes,
c.Police Intelligence opinions, and actions of an individual group
d.Police Investigation or nation.
a. Propagandist
1211. The term appropriate for someone who b. Support Agent
gives information in exchange for a reward is: c. Principal Agent
a. Informer d. Action Agent
b. Informant
c. Special informer 1219. Refers to a place where agents or
d. Confidential Informant informants leave their messages to the other
Agents.
1212. The intelligence required by department a. Live Drop
or agencies of the government to execute its b. Safe House
mission and discharge its responsibilities. c. Decoy
a. Counter d. Bait
b. Departmental
c. Line 1220. All except one are interrelated to one
d. National another.
a. Fixed Surveillance
1213. Is the reduction of information into b. Stakeout Surveillance
writing or some other form of graphical c. Stationary Surveillance
representation and the arranging of this d. Active Surveillance
information into groups related items.
a. Recording 1221. The agent will gain access to the subject
b. Integration by going to the different hang out places of
c. Analysis the subject.
d. Demonstration a. Social Assignment
b. Residential Assignment
1214. What is the evaluation rating of c. Work Assignment
Unreliable and Possibly true? d. None of these
a. -2
b. E-2 1222. A person who informs solely for the
c. E-3 pecuniary or other material gain he is to
d. C-3 receive.
a. Gratitude
1215. Phase of intelligence covering the b. Repentance
activity devoted in destroying the c. Remuneration
effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and d. Vanity
the protection of information against 1223. National Intelligence Coordinating
espionage, subversion and sabotage. Agency is led by a-
a. Passive Intelligence a. Director
b. Counter Intelligence b. General
c. Line Intelligence c. President
d. Demographic Intelligence d. Director-General

1216. Refers to the knowledge essential to the 1224. Integrated product of intelligence
maintenance of peace and order. developed by all government departments
a. CRIMINT concerning the broad aspect of national
b. SIGINT policy and national Security.
c. PUSINT a National Intelligence
d. INSINT b.Departmental Intelligence
c. International Intelligence

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 d. Social Intelligence b. Cryptanalysis
c. Decipher
1225. .The process of categorizing a document d. Coding
or information according to the degree of
security needed. 1233. The protection resulting from the
a. Classification application of various measures which
b. Upgrading prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
c. Reclassification person in gaining information through
d. None of these communication.
a. Communication Security
1226. Final clearance will remain valid for a b. Physical Security
period of____ from the date of issuance. c. Document Security
a. 2 years d. Internal Security
b. 5 years
c. 4 years 1234. Those documents place on a Blue Folder
d. 1 year are considered as:
a. Top Secret
1227. It refers to the person who conducts the b. Secret
surveillance. c. Restricted
a.Surveillant d. Confidential
b Subject
c. Interrogator 1235. Documents which are classified as Secret
d. Interviewee should be placed on-
a. Blue Folder
1228. The "Great Mogul" and wise master of b. Black folder
Hindustan employed more than 4,000 agents c. Green Folder
for the sole purpose of bringing him the truth d. Red Folder
that his throne might rest upon it.
a. Joseph Petrosino 1236. It is a certification by a responsible
b. Edgar Hoover authority that the person described is cleared
c. Napoleon Bonaparte to access and classify matters at appropriate
d. Akbar levels.
a. Security Clearance
1229. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is b. Document Clearance
to determine if the information is true and- c. Interim Clearance
a Reliable d. Nome of these
b. Correct
c. Probably true 1237. Extreme precautions are taken against
d. Accurate losing the subject is employed where
1230. It refers to those measures, which seek constant surveillance is necessary.
actively to block the enemies’ effort to gain a. Close tail
information or engage in espionage, b. Loose tail
subversion, and sabotage. c. Rough Shadowing
a. Counter Intelligence d. Surveillance

b. Passive Counter Intelligence 1238. M evaluates the information as usually

c. Active Counter Intelligence reliable and probably true.
d. Intelligence a. C-4
b. B-3
1231. Chronological records of activities that c. B-2
took place in the establishment under d. C-5
surveillance.
a. Memory
b. records 1239. Mossad is the National Intelligence
c. Log agency of _____________.
d. Report a. Russia
b. Germany
1232. It is defined as an art and science of c. Israel
codes and ciphers. d. Pakistan
a. Cryptography 1240. Law enforcement in China was carried
out by _______ which developed in both chu
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 and jin kingdom of the Spring and Autumn 1248. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over
period. federal crimes or those with an interstate
a. Watch man components. The statement is:
b. Prefect a. Correct
c. Gendemarie b. Partially Correct
d. Constabulary c. False
d. partly False
1241. She is the first Filipino
commissionedofficer in a UN integral 1249. This pertains to all those forms of
mission. policing that, in some sense transgress
a. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor national borders:
b. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra a. International Policing
c. C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas b. Global Policing
d. None of these c. National Policing
d. Transnational Policing
1242. New York Police Department (NYPD)
have limited jurisdiction on _______:
a. USA 1250. In US, he introduced police reforms to
b. New York include educational requirement for police
c. None of these officer:
d. Los Angeles a. James Q. Wilson
b. Sir Henry Peel
1243. The Penal Provisions of the electronic c. August Volmer
Commerce Act: d. O.W. Wilson
a. RA 5678
b. RA 9165 1251. The motto of Hongkong Police force:
c. RA 1298 a. Law and Order
d. RA 8792 b. Safer Communities together
c. Serve and Protect
1244. In the etymology of the word police the d. We serve with pride and Care
ancient word “Polisoos” referred to a person
who_____? 1252. Where do you can find the so called
a. Enforcing Law Police Ombudsman? It’s outside review
b. Civil Policy organization for police officer whose are
c. Guarding a City changed of committing any form of
d. Citizenship misconduct:
a. Northern Ireland
1245. During the middle ages, there were two b. England
guard officer of the kingdom of France with c. China
police responsibilities those are the Marshal d. Japan
of France and ________:
a. Constable of France 1253. Throughout the United Kingdom, the
b. Queens Royal Guard rank structured of police force is identical up
c. Scotland Yard to the rank of?
d. Constabulary a. Chief Constable
1246. Peace officers are treated as state b. Chief Inspector
servants and people have minimal share in c. Chief Superintendent
their duties or any direct connection with d. Inspector
them. This reflected the:
a. Continental Theory 1254. In USA, what state are among the first to
b. Home rule Theory hire women and minorities as police officer.
c. Old Concept a. Massachusetts
d. Modern concept b. California
1247. The typical number of Detectives are c. New York
roughly ________ of a police service d. Washington
personnel:
a. 75% 1255. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the
b. 5 to 10% comparable rank to inspector or sub-
c. 15 to 25% lieutenant?
d. 7 to 10% a. Police Rank 4

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 b. Police Supervisor Rank 4 1263. The police rank in Japan that is called
c. Police Officer Rank 1 Keishi:
d. Police Supervisor Rank 1 a. Policeman
b. Chief Superintendent
1256. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what c. Superintendent
is the lowest possible rank of its police d. Senior Superintendent
personnel?
a. Police Rank 1 1264. It is the counterpart of Police
b. Police Officer Rank 1 Community Precinct in Japan:
c. Investigator 1 a. Keishi
d. Constable b. Koban
c. Omerta
1257. It is being acknowledge by Federal d. Keiban
Bureau Investigation and INTERPOL to be the
“Asia’s Finest” police force and in having, set 1265. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but
up the foundation for the social stability of it is the highest position in Japan Police
Hong Kong and has won a good reputation as Organization:
one of the safety cities in the world.
a. Commissioner Secretariat
a. Philippine National Polic b. Commissioner
b. Hong Kong Police Force c. Chairman
c. Japan Police Department d. Commissioner General
d. National Police Agency 1266. The Japan’s Police Organization is
headed by a Commissioner General who is
1258. It is the highest possible rank in Australia appointed by:
Police Force: a. Japans Emperor
a. Commissioner General b. Prime Minister
b. Director General c. National Public Safety Commission
c. Commissioner d. Japan Commission
d. Director
1267. The lowest rank in Singapore Police
1259. The code of secrecy of Mafia: Force:
a. Omerta a. Junsa
b. Morse b. Constable
c. Nostra Compra c. Sergeant
d. Cosa Nostra d. Police Officer

1260. The supreme governing body of the 1268. Irish Police are called:
INTERPOL is the: a. Militsiya
a. Executive Assembly b. Constable
b. Major Assembly c. Police Force
c. National Assembly d. Garda Socha
d. General Assembly
1269. In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN
1261. The general Secretariat office of the integral Mission in Timor-Leste, he is the first
INTERPOL is run by the: Filipino police commissioner of a United
a. Director General Nation Operation.
b. Supervisor a. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
c. Inspector General b. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra
d. Secretary General c. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
d. None of these
1262. In US, who is responsible in reducing
corruption and introduced professionalism in 1270. It States that the yardstick of police
Winchita, Kansas and Chicago Police proficiency relies on the absence of crime.
Department: a. Home rule
a. August Volmer b. Continental
b. Margaret Adams c. Old police service
c. William Stewart d. Modern police service
d. O.W. Wilson

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 1271. The first secretary general of the d. Theft
Interpol.
a. Oskar Dressler 1279. It refers to a Code written with the
b. Ronald K. Noble intention of replicating itself.
c. Johann Schober a. Trojan Horse
d. Aberdeen Scotland b. Worm
c. Virus
1272. The first president of the Interpol. d. None of these
a. Oskar Dressler
b. Ronald K. Noble 1280. It is a center created by Executive Order
c. Johann Schober No. 62 to establish a shared database among
d. Aberdeen Scotland concerned agencies for information on
criminals,
1273. Group of highly specialized a armed man methodologies, arrests and convictions on
who inflicts fear and uses violence to transnational crime
accomplish
their objectives with a usual international scope a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes
of activity. (PCTC)
a. Organized Crime b. National Commission on Anti Hijacking
b. Transnational Crime (NACAH)
c. Transnational Organized crime c. International Criminal Police Organization
d. Terrorist (ICPO)
d. Philippine National Police (PNP)
1274. Is the terrorist group which was founded 1281. What is the highest rank of police officer
by Osama Bin Laden in 1980? in Japan?
a. Al Qaeda a. KEISHI SOKAN
b. Jihad b. KEISHI SO
c. Mafia c. KEISHI KAN
d. Nuestra Costra d. KEIBU-HO

1275. Is the term which refers to the holy war 1282. The founder of the Texas Rangers and
waged by members of the Islamic religion known to be the “Father of Texas”.
against the Jews? a. Stephen Austin
a. Al Qaeda b. Vernon Knell
b. Jihad c. Dave Batista
c. Mafia d. Johann Schober
d. Nuestra Costra
1283. An order strengthening the operational,
1276. It is the category of terrorist administrative and information support
organization which is aimed in achieving system of the PCTC. Under this EO, the centre
political autonomy or religious freedom. shall
a. Revolutionary exercise general supervision and control over
b. Separalist NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG
c. Ethnocentric a. EO 100
d. Political b. EO 465
c. EO 465
1277. It is the anchor of the investigation of all d. EO 789
crimes committed via the internet:
a. Dynamic IP Address 1284. Richard Perez joined the PNP in 1996.
b. Internet Protocol Address She was 29 years old then. What year will
c. Static IP Address Amado will retire?
d. Email Address a. 2016
b. 2023
1278. It is the act of illegally accessing the c. 2012
computer system or network of an individual, d. 2031
group or business enterprise without the
consent of the party’s system: 1285. It refers to a kind of retirement where
a. Computer Fraud PNP commissioned and non-commissioned
b. Hacking officer may retire and be paid separation
c. Cracking

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 benefits corresponding to a position two d. 2 years
ranks higher than his/her rank:
a. Retirement in the next higher grad 1292. Specific Qualifications may be waived
b. Compulsory retirement like Age, Height, Weight and Education, only
c. Early retirement program when the number of qualified applicants falls
d. Optional Retirement below the minimum annual quota.
Appointment status under a waiver program
1286. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an is ________.
independence from the PNP. It has an a. Temporary
investigative and adjudicatory power over b. Probationary
PNP members. c. Permanent
a. Internal Affairs Service d. Regular
b. National Police Commission
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board 1293. __________ is given to any PNP member
d. National Appellate Board who has exhibited act of conspicuous and
gallantry at the risk of his life above and
1287. In police operational planning the use of beyond the call of duty.
the wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line a. Meritorious Promotion
would be probable used for: b. Special Promotion
a. Arm confrontation c. Regular Promotion
b. Relief Operation d. On-the-Spot Promotion
c. Civil Disturbance
d. VIP Security 1294. Which among the following has no
promotional authority over the members of
1288. What is the appropriate training course the PNP?
for POIII to SPOI? a. Deputy Director General
a. Officers Senior Executive Course b. Director General
b. Officer Basic Course c. President of the Philippines
c. Senior Leadership Course d. Regional Director
d. Junior Leadership Course 1295. Any PNP member shall be dismissed
immediately from the service after due
1289. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of notice and summary hearings if it was proven
deputation of local chief executives as
that he went on AWOL for a continuous
representative of the NAPOLCOM:
Repeated unauthorized absences; period of:
a. 30 days or more
b. 15 days or more
c. 20 days or more
.II. Abuse of authority; d. 60 days or more
III. Habitual tardiness; 1296. Refers to the actual restraint of armed
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and persons following a high-risk stop.
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security. a. Dragnet Operation

b. Hasty Checkpoint
A. I, II, III, V c. High-Risk Arrest
B. II, V, IV, I d. High Risk Stop
C.I, II, IV, III
D. I, II, III, IV, V 1297. PO3Maine Mendoza, receives 19,
1290. Planning for emergencies of a specific 870.00 base pay since he was promoted.
nature at known locations. After five years from promotion, what would
a. Functional Plan be his monthly base pay after adding his
b. Time Specific Plans longevity pay?
c. Tactical Plans a. 21, 857.00
d. Operational Plans b. 19, 970.00
1291. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can c. 24, 870.00
get the lump sum of his retirement benefits d. 31, 549.00
for the period of the first _____. 1298. It refers to those situations or conditions
a. 10 years that may induce incidents for some kind of
b. 5 years police action:
c. 6 years a. Police Accident
b. Police Brutality
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 c. Police Hazard 1304. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or
d. Police Operation other public assemblies, employment of tear
gas and water cannons shall be made under
1299. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally the control and supervision of the-
means- a. Ground Commander
a. The Sword Bearer b. Incident Commander
b. The Base c. Immediate Commander
c. Islamic Congregation d. Superior Officer
d. Ayman Al Zawahiri
1305. What should be the action of patrol
1300. What kind of force is needed during officers, when responding to Calls for Police
armed confrontation? Assistance, except?
a. Reasonable force a. Stop the car at some distance away from the
b. Logical Force scene.
c. Rational Force b. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
d. Evenhanded Force c. Determine the crime committed.
1301. The peace-keeping detail shall not be d. None of these
stationed in the picket line (or confrontation
line) but should be stationed in such manner 1306. Where should the patrol officer turnover
that their presence may deter the the information and pieces of evidence
commission of criminal acts or any untoward gathered at the crime scene?
incident from either side. The members of a. SOCO team
the peace-keeping detail shall stay outside a b. Immediate Supervisor
_______ radius from the picket line. c. Responding unit
a. 50 feet d. Medico Legal Officer
b. 50 meter
c. 100 feet 1307. Request for police assistance in the
d. 100 meter implementation of final decisions or orders of
the court in civil cases and of administrative
1302. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if bodies on controversies within their
transported by a patrol jeep, the subject jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the
must be- appropriate police office. The request is filed
at least _____ prior to the actual
a. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort implementation.
shall sit at the rear on the Right side facing the a. 3 days
subject b. 10 days
b. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort c. 5 days
shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the d. 15 days
subject
c. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort 1308. It may be utilized to break up formations
shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the or groupings of demonstrations who
subject continue to be aggressive and refused to
d. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort disperse despite earlier efforts.
shall sit at the rear on the Right side facing the a. Tear Gas
subject b. Water Cannon
c. Truncheon
d. Shield
1309. It is the brief stopping of an individual,
whether on foot or in a vehicle, based on
reasonable suspicion/probable cause, for the
1303. Female detainees shall not be purpose of determining the individual’s
transported in handcuffs but only with identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion
necessary restraint and proper escort, concerning criminal activity.
preferably aided by a police woman. The a. Frisking
statement is- b. Search
a. Partially True c. Spot Check
b. Wholly True d. Pat-down Search
c. Partially False 1310. Refers to a location where the search,
d. Wholly False which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
conducted to deter/prevent the commission

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 of crimes, enforce the law, and for other b. Hasty Checkpoint
legitimate purposes.
a. Clear Zone c. Dragnet Operation
b. Public Place d. High Risk Stop
c. Police Checkpoint 1317. Which among the following terms is not
d. Pre-Determined Area related to each other?
1311. Electronic blotter is a computerized a. Hot Pursuit
system, which was accepted by the courts, b. Fresh Pursuit
prosecutors’ office and the public in general. c. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit
What police office is using this kind of d. Bright Pursuit
blotter? 1318. Refers to the highest degree of restraint
a. Makati that the police, military and other peace
b. Cebu keeping authorities shall observe during a
c. Baguio public assembly or in the dispersal of the
d. Davao same.
1312. It refers to the venue or place a. Reasonable Force
established or designated by local b. Greatest Lenience
government units within their respective c. Maximum Tolerance
jurisdictions where a public assembly could d. Utmost Patience
be held without securing any permit for such 1319. Which among the following aspects of a.
purpose from the local government unit Security is the weakest of them all?
concerned. a. Physical security
a. Secured Area b. Personnel security
b. Wide Space c. Document and information security
c. Freedom Park d. Personal Security
d. Clear Zone
1313. The police function in which patrol 1320. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The
belong is: statement is-
a. Line function a. Partially Correct
b. Administrative function b. Partially Wrong
c. Staff function c. Absolutely Correct
d. Auxiliary function d. Absolutely Wrong
1314. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the
earrings of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is 1321.It refers to any structure or physical device
standing near Josephine, Marcos plan to rob capable of restriction, deterring or delaying
is not weaken by existence of Insp. Gonzales illegal access to an installation.
but the ______ for successful robbery is a. Hazard
prevented. b. Perimeter Barrier
a. Ambition c. Barrier
b. Intention d .Energy Barrier
c. Motive
d. Opportunity 1322. It is normally provided at main perimeter
1315. Police personnel whose rank at the time entrances to secure areas located out of doors,
of his retirement is Superintendent shall and manned by guards on a full time basis.
retire with the rank of __________: a. Guard Control Stations
a. Superintendent b. Tower
b. C/Superintendent c. Tower Guard
c. Sr. Superintendent d. Top Guard
d. C/Inspector
1316. Refers to the immediate, recent chase 1323 .This lamps have the advantage of
or follow-up without material interval for the providing instant illumination when the switch is
purpose of taking into custody any person open and most commonly used protective
wanted by virtue of a warrant, or one lighting system.
suspected to have committed a recent a. Incandescent Lamp
offense while fleeing from one police b.Gaseous Discharge Lamp
jurisdictional boundary to another that will c. Mercury Vapor Lamp
normally require prior official inter-unit d. Quarts Lamp
coordination but which the pursuing unit
cannot, at that moment, comply due to the 1324. The following are the areas to be lighted:
urgency of the situation. A.Parking Areas;
a. Hot Pursuit b.Thoroughfare;
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 c. Pedestrian Gates; 1332.The following are the categories of
d. Vehicular Gates; and automatic alarm system, except:
E.Susceptible Areas. a. Photoelectric
a. a, c, e b. Electric Eye Device
b. a, b, c, d c. Audio detection
c. a, c, d, e d. Bill Traps
d. a, b, c, d, e 1333. Which of the following is not a false key?
a. A picklock or similar tool .
1325. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; b. A duplicate key of the owner.
reproduction of this record does not have the c. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
same value as the original. d.Any key other than those intended by the
a. Vital Documents owner.
b. Important Documents 1334. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
c. Useful Documents a. 500 lbs.
d. Non- Essential Documents b. 750 lbs.
c. 1000 lbs.
1326. It is the importance of firm with reference d. 600 lbs.
to the natural economy and security.
a.. Relative Operation 1335. The minimum number of guards required
b Relative Security for a company security force is:
c. Relative Vulnerability a. 1000
d. Relative Criticality of Operation b. 30
c. 100
1327. A new Private security agency that has d. 200
been issued a temporary license to operate is
good for how many years? 1336. It refers to a system use in big installation
a. One whereby keys can open a group of locks.
b. Two a. Key Control
c.Three b. Master Keying
d.Four c. Change Key
d. Great Grand Master Key
1328. The removal of the security classification
from the classified matter. 1337. What is called as devices and contrivance
a.Segregation installed inside and outside a facility to
b. Declassify compliment and provide additional security
c. Reclassify measures and operates to advertise entry into
d. Exclusion sensitive and protected area?
a. Protective locks
1329.The form of security that employs b. Protective cabinet
cryptography to protect information refers to: c. Protective barrier
A. Document and information security d. Protective Lighting
b. Operational security
c. Communication security 1338. A fixed point or location to which an officer is
d. Industrial security assigned for duty:
a. Post
1330. The type of fence that is primarily b. Beat
designed to allow complete visual access c. Area
between two areas is: d. Route
a. Solid fence
b. Semi-solid fence
c. Full-view fence
d. Masonry Fence

1331.The minimum age requirement for Security

Manager or Operator of a security agency is:
a. 40 yrs. Old
b. 25 yrs. Old
c. 30 yrs. Old
d. 35 yrs. Old

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 C. Master mind
D. Conspirator
1345. In questioned document, it is where all
characteristics are grouped.
A. Class characteristics
B. Individual characteristics
C. Both A and B
D. Neither
1346. Writing was written by one person
when there is a sufficient number of identical
writing habits and the absence of divergent
characteristics. This is in consonance with;
A. Identification
B. Non-identification
C. Either
D. Niether
1339. The thickness of paper is expressed in 1347. Embellishment is an example of
thousands of inch. A. Individual Characteristics
A. Measurement B. Class Characteristics
B. Caliper C. Both
C. Buffer D. Neither
D. Calibre 1348. Hiatus is a gap between strokes due to
1340. Chemical used to whiten paper pulp. A. Speed in writing
A. Bleach B. Defective writing instrument
B. Alum C. Unevenness of writing materials
C. Sufite D. All of the choices
D. Pulp 1349. Among the following, which is not an
1341. A form of printing to produce a raised element of movement?
impression or pattern on the surface of a A. Line Quality
sheet of paper. B. Rhythm
A. Lithograph printing C. Speed Freedom
B. Embossing D. emphasis
C. Edge chains 1350. Writing, done rapidly, will exhibit no
D. Reprographing pen lift, except those at the
1342. The original inventor of Fourdrinier A. Middle of the words/strokes
paper machine. B. End of the stroke
A. Fourdrinier Brothers C. Beginning of strokes
B. Bryan Donkin D. B and C
C. Nicholas-Louis Robert
D. Milton Reynolds 1351. The orientation of the writing
1343. Quality of a paper related to the instrument is referred to as
amount of light that can be transmitted A. Pen position
through its surface. B. Pen hold
A. Thickness C. Pen emphasis
B. Opacity D. Pen orientation
C. Translucent 1352. The relation between the tall and short
D. Texture letters is referred to as
1344. Fundamentally, the grand mission and A. Ratio
objective of document examiner is to B. Proportion
determine and conclude with scientific basis C. Line quality
and technique who is the D. All
A. Beneficiaries 1353. In questioned document examination, it
B. Writer or signatory is referred to as the flourishing succession of
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 motion which are recorded in a written 1361. To identify whether simple forgery was
record. committed, which of the following should be
A. Line quality retrieved?
B. Rhythm A. Standard signature from the forger
C. Speed in writing B. Standard of the genuine signature
D. Movement C. Standard of the person who made the
1354. Slant is the angle or inclination of the forgery
axis of the letters relative to the D. Identity of the forger
A. Baseline 1362. One of the following statements best
B. Slope describe what a collected standard is.
C. Alignment A. It has the advantage of easily finding it.
D. Staff B. Attempt to disguise is removed.
1355. Uncommon and well fixed characteristic C. The accused is aware that the specimen
that serve as a fundamental point of will be used against him.
identification. D. None
A. Slant 1363. Authenticity of private documents is
B. Habit not necessary when
C. Movement A. It is 30 years old
D. All B. More than 30 years old
1356. Baseline is the ruled or imaginary line C. Less than 30 years old
upon which the writing ______ D. More or less 30 years old
A. Holds 1364. During paper manufacture, the
B. Rests following are included except
C. Stays A. Security fiber
D. Slants B. Watermarks
1357. Among the following, which is a C. Iridescent band
common defect of forgery? D. Serial number
1365. Which of the following is not a crime
A.Patching called forgery?
B.Retracing A. Forging the seal of the government
C.A and B B. Counterfeiting of coins
D.None C. Mutilation of coins
1358. Letters that extend a distance vertically D. Using forged signature or counterfeit
above the linear letters. seal or stamp
A. Infra-linear 1366. The imitation of a legal or genuine coin.
B. Supra-linear A. Counterfeit
C. Linear B. Mutilation
D. None C. Utter
1359. The only question to tackle in this kind D. Import
of signature forgery is the determination of 1367. When a spurious coin is made, there is
the probable writer of the forgery. A. Counterfeiting
A. Simple forgery B. Uttering
B. Simulated forgery C. Mutilation
C. Traced forgery D. Importing
D. A and B 1368. Mutilation of coins without the intent
1360. A kind of signature forgery where the to defraud is
resemblance of the questioned signature and A. Not punishable under the revised penal
genuine is apparent. code
A. Fraudulent B. Not punishable by any law
B. Simulated C. Punishable under the revised penal
C. Simple code
D. Traced D. Punishable under Art. 164 of the RPC.

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 1369. To make false instrument intended to C. No
be passed for the genuine one is a form of D. Sometimes
A. Falsification 1377. Flash bulb and electronic flash are two
B. Forgery examples of light of short duration. Which
C. Tracing among of these is popular today?
D. Fraud A. Flash bulb
1370. Which of the following method should B. Electronic bulb
be used in order for the naked eye to see a C. Lamp
charred document? D. Flash light
A. X-ray 1378. Can a strong acid destroy the
B. Spectrograph fingerprint permanently?
C. Ultra violet A. Yes
D. Infra red B. No
1371. Which of the following security features C. Maybe
of a paper bill does not react to ultra-violet D. This time
light? 1379. In forensic ballistic, the firearm
A. Serial Number examiner examines the firearm usually
B. Watermark involved in a crime or the case_____?
C. Fluorescent printing A. In court
D. Invisible security fibers B. In progress
1372. Paper is for china while papyrus is for C. Controversy
A. Sumer D. Handled
B. Turkey 1380. In polygraph, it is the process of
C. Sumeria detecting false statement or signs of -
D. Egypt A. Detection
1373. What is gustatory sensation? B. Deception
A. Smell C. Lie
B. Taste D. Untrue statement
C. Skin 1381. In typewriting examination which of the
D. Hearing following first to be conducted?
43. The Bible (Genesis 1:3-5) God created the earth A. Examination of the questioned
and there should be light and darkness which is specimen
daylight and night. Among these, what is the basic B. Collecting of typewriting standards
component of photography? C. Locate the type writer used
A. All of these D. Examination of the exemplar
B. Film 1382. Aside from fingerprint, what is the
C. Camera other identification in securing NBI
D. Light clearance?
1374. Positive result of photography is called A. Thumb mark
– B. Pending case
A. Picture C. Picture
B. Photograph D. Signature
C. Positive 1383. Which of the following is a must to be
D. Negative considered in a sketch?
1375. Other term for lie detector is – A. Compass direction
A. GSR B. Name of placed
B. Pneumograph C. Time
C. Cardiograph D. Location
D. Polygraph 1384. In addition to medicine, as prober, how
1376. In key classification, is it placed on the can you preserve perishable evidence like
leftmost corner on the numerator? injuries, contusions, hematoma and the like?
A. Yes A. Recording
B. Maybe B. Sketching
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 C. Photography D. Precipitin
D. Note taking 1393. How many standards in questioned
1385. In questioned document examination, it documents is needed to prove?
refers to a stroke which goes back to writing A. 5 standards
stroke. B. 10 signatures
A. Patching C. Sufficient amount
B. Retouching D. 5 pages
C. Retracing 1394. In USA, what year photography was
D. Restroking used for court presentation?
1386. In photography probe, when murder A. 1909
occurred showing disarray of cabinets, B. 1859
photography is essential to show defense of C. 1890
the - D. 1903
A. Suspect 1395. What is the official purpose of
B. Witness conducting post mortem examination?
C. Victim A. To determine the duration of death
D. Kibitzers B. To determine the manner of death
1387. In the story of crime, with the use of C. To determine the deadly weapon
firearm, the energy coming from the muzzle D. To determine the cause of death.
point is called - 1396. What part of the polygraph machine is
A. Armor-piercing responsible in detecting pulse rate and heart
B. Velocity beat?
C. Lead bullet A. Kymograph
D. Muzzle energy B. Pneumograph
1388. What are the two types of firearms C. Polygraph
according to the construction of the interior D. Cardiograph
of the barrel? 1397. In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with
A. Short and long barreled firearms polydactyl, he or she has -
B. Small arms and artilleries A. Extra fingerprint
C. Lands and grooves B. Extra hand
D. Smoothbore and rifled bore C. Extra finger
1389. What is the symbol of tented arch? D. Added finger
A. Dash 1398. What year did the colored photography
B. T was accepted in US court?
C. Te A. 1956
D. A and/or B B. 1978
1390. It is the centermost part of the C. 1946
fingerprint pattern. D. 1960
A. Inner terminus 1399. Blood stays liquid for how many hours?
B. Delta A. 6-8 hours
C. Inner shoulder B. 9-10 hours
D. Core C. 8-12 hours
1391. Fingerprint patterns like loop and whorl D. 3-6 hours
are found in the - 1400. The one who creates his own systolic in
A. Pattern area polygraph examination?
B. Delta A. James MacKenzie
C. Core B. Angelo Mosso
D. Type lines C. William Marston
1392. What is the test in examination of blood D. John Larson
if belong to human or animal? 1401. What is the color of blood in post
A. Takayama mortem lividity?
B. Benzidine
C. Kestle Meyer
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 A. Blue C. Rotating motion
B. Violet D. Pitch of rifling
C. Pink 1410. In photography, it is an exhibit shown in
D. Bright red court for scrutiny by litigants and others.
1402. In crime laboratory concerning the A. Police photography
study of types, model of firearm and its B. Photograph
bullets is done by - C. Forensic photography
A. Ballistician D. Crime scene photography
B. Ballistic engineer 1411. In what way to determine the date of a
C. Forensic engineer paper was made?
D. Firearm prober A. Wiremark
1403. What is the type of document which is B. Trademark
notarized by a RTC judge? C. Copyright
A. Public D. Watermark
B. Official 1412. Tripod has how many feet?
C. Private A. It depends
D. None of these B. Two
1404. Going back to a defective portion of a C. Three
writing stroke is called - D. Four
A. Slicing 1413. In robbery case involving force upon
B. Embracing things, which should be closely
C. Retouching photographed?
D. Patching A. Weapons used
1405. What is the part of firearm that extract B. Victims wounds
cartridge from the chamber? C. Entrance and exit
A. Breech D. Things stolen
B. Firing pin 1414. What is the advantage of other
C. Extractor agencies with other agencies when it comes
D. Ejector to authenticity?
1406. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm A. Signature and photograph
is measured by - B. Thumb mark and photograph
A. Gauge C. Thumb mark and signature
B. Caliber D. Signature only
C. Caliper 1415. What is the best test in determining the
D. Hundredth of an inch presence of blood?
1407. In polygraph test, after the subject A. Benzedine
affirms that he is involved in a crime the B. Marquis
examiner should report it to the - C. Takayama
A. Victim D. Teichman
B. Investigator 1416. Is taking a tranquilizer and medicine for
C. Object relative colds affects the result of polygraph
D. Prosecutor examination?
1408. In fingerprint, which of the following is A. Yes
the pattern which refers to the rolled fingers B. No
onto the rolling impression columns? C. Depends
A. Rolled impression D. Maybe
B. Indexing impression 1417. It is where handwriting rest?
C. Palm impression A. Feet
D. Little finger impression B. Vase line
1409. A complete rotation of a fired bullet in C. Baseline
the rifling of a gun is also termed as – D. Alignment
A. Twist of rifling 1418. Medically speaking, it is the sudden
B. Gyroscopic action stoppage of the heart that results to death.
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 A. Instantaneous rigor 1426. The location of the blood pressure in
B. Heart attack the chart paper
C. Myocardial infarction a. Side
D. Death b. Middle
1419. In polygraph test, it indicates air in c. Lower
system, and is measured in millimeter by the d. Upper
- 1427. What is the most common death
A. Kymograph caused by asphyxia?
B. Sphygmomanometer a. strangulation
C. Pneumograph b. drowning
D. Galvanograph c. throttling
1420. In Dactyloscopy, the primary purpose d. Hanging
and importance of fingerprint is for - 1428. What is being affected in intracranial
A. Indemnification hemorrhage?
B. Comparison a. brain
C. Identification b. stomach
D. Collection c. lung
1421. Photography at the crime scene taken 1429. A firearm which has a size of less than 1
at the crime scene which will be used for inch
court presentation is called - a. small firearm
A. Crime scene photography b. handgun
B. Forensic photography c. revolver
C. Crime photography d. shotgun
D. Police photography 1430. What is the measure of the rubber tube
1422. The study of projectiles the moment in the pneumograph?
the bullet leaves the muzzle of the gun is a a. 20 inches
kind of – b. 10 inches
A. Interior ballistics c. 7 inches
B. Terminal ballistics d. 8 inches
C. Forensic ballistics 1431. An industrial complex must establish its
D. Exterior ballistics first line of physical defense. It must have:
1423. A magistrate and law professor in a. the building itself
Austria who is known for introducing the b. communication barrier
word “Criminalistics.” c. perimeter barrier
A. Hans Gross d. window barrier
B. Alphonse Bertillon 102. If the dead person is laying, where will the
C. Prof. R.A. Riess blood go during livor mortis?
D. Edmond Locard A. Back
1424. In dactyloscopy, is plain whorl always B. Neck
with two deltas? C. Head
a. No D. Legs
b. Never 1432. If there are 6 grooves, is it also the
c. Yes same in lands?
d. Maybe A. Yes
1425. A light proof box with a means of B. No
forming an image, with a means of holding C. Partly Yes
sensitized material and with a means of D. Partly No
regulating the amount of light that enters the 1433. What is the other term for dot?
camera at a given time. a. camera A. Islet
b. light B. Core
c. film C. Delta
d. lens D. Bifurcation
1434. In writing, what is being used?
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 A. Finger D. Simulated
B. Forearm 1443. If in the CS, you found semen and
C. Hands blood, can you consider it as rape on minor?
D. All of the choices A. Yes
1435. There are three types of fingerprint B. No
pattern; arch, whorl and _____. C. Partly Yes
A. Ulnar loop D. Partly No
B. Radial loop 1444. In polarization film, how long is the
C. Loop developing?
D. Arch A. 5 minutes
1436. Is your name Eric? What kind of B. 7 min
question is this? C. 3 min
A. Irrelevant D. 8 minutes
B. Relevant 1445. What do you call the outer cover of the
C. Control bullet?
D. Evidence A. Jacketed
1437. In polygraph examination, what is being B. Metallic
detected? C. Silver
A. Lying D. Ogive
B. Dying 1446. In snake, the two snake venum is
C. Truth neorotoxic and _____.
D. Response A. Hemotoxic
1438. In pubic hair, what is the best B. Viral
examination to be conducted in the crime C. Surgical
laboratory? D. B or C
A. DNA
B. Microscope examination
C. Chemical examination 1447. Why is polygraphy in the Philippines not
D. Serology examination admissible?
1439. If you didn’t clean the fingerprint slab, A. Under experimental stage
what will be the effect to the fingerprint? B. Under analysis
A. Blurred C. Based on opinion
B. Sticky D. Unskill
C. Classified
D. Clear 1448. Phos means light, graphia means _____.
1440. What is found on the left white portion A. Write
of the portrait? B. Study
A. Vignette C. Technology
B. Watermark D. Record
C. Security fiber 1449. In major classification, the right thumb
D. Fiber is the numerator while the left is the
1441. In Henry System how many denominator?
clasifications of fingerprints are there? A. Yes
A. 2 B. No
B. 3 C. It depends
C. 8 1450. If you are a patrol officer, what type of
D. 7 CS will you photograph even though there is
1442. Indication of tremor due to old age, no SOCO photographer?
illiteracy and sickness is what kind of A. Vehicular accident scene
signature? B. Infanticide scene
A. Genuine C. Homicide scene
B. Spurious D. Parricide scene
C. Forged
Page 98 of 262
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 1451. What is the most common symptom of
coma? 1459. To impact a motion of rotation to a
A. Unconsciousness bullet during its passage inside the barrel to
B. Blackening of lips insure gyroscopic stability in its flight is called:
C. Dilated eyes a. Range
D. consciousness b. Gauge
c. Rifling
1452. The dead person is dehydrated. What is
d. Center-fire
lacking? 1460. Most commonly these marks are found
A. H2O on bullets fired from a Revolver due to a poor
B. Blood alignment of the cylinder with the bore:
C. Air a. Shaving marks
D. Anesthesia b. Skid marks
1453. In police laboratory, the one examined c. Pivot marks
by biologist is not limited to ____. d. landmarks
A. Semen 1461. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to:
B. Blood a. James Forsythe
C. Riverstone b. Philip O. Gravelle
c. Van Amberg
D. None of these
d. Berthold Scwartz
1454. These bullets when fired emit bright red 1461. That science dealing with the motion of
flame from their base, thereby showing the
projectile from the time the firer squeezes the
gunner the path as well as the striking point
of the bullet. trigger up to the time it reaches the muzzle of
a. Jacketed bullet the barrel is called:
b. Armor-piercing
c. Semi-wed cutter bullet a. Posterior ballistics
d. Tracer bullet b. Interior ballistics
1455. The caliber of the firearms can be c. Exterior ballistics
d. Terminal ballistics
determined by the bore diameter measured
1462. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel
from:
are different from those left by any other gun
a. Land to firearm barrel. This fact is most useful in directly
b. Land to land identifying the:
c. Land to groves
d. Groves to land a. Person who fired the particular gun
1456. The breech end of the chamber of the b. Direction form which a shot was fired
firearm is sealed by a solid flat block of metal c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
d.Bullet which caused a fatal wound
against which the barrel comes into position
when the weapon is closed for firing, which is 1463. A patrolman should fire his pistol:
termed as:
a. Extractor a. At no time
b. Breechface b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
c. Head space c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
d. Breechblock d. Only as a last resort
1457. The firearms that propelled projectiles 1464. . Which of the following, the best
more than one inch in diameter is called. method to use in firing a revolver is to keep:
a. Machine gun
b. Musket a. Both eyes closed
c. Artillery b. Both eyes open
d. Single-shot firearm c. Only the right eye is open
1458. A Smith & Wesson type of firearm has a d. Only the left eye is open
1465. .Pistols with the same number of barrel
class characteristics of:
grooves on the differentiated by the direction
a. Four lands, four grooves right twist
b. Six lands, six grooves left twist of the twist of the rifling which may be either
c. Seven lands, seven grooves right twist be to the left or to the right. Of the following
d. Five lands, five grooves right twist statement the one which can most accurately
be inferred is that:

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 a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves 1473. Which of the following, the most
b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and accurate statement concerning the
right identification of an unknown firearm by
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be
means of the ballistics is that:
either left or right
d. All of the above a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least
1466. The secret of good shooting form is: eight lands
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be
a. Proper sighting of the target
determined by the angle of lead
b. Firing slowly and carefully
c. Pistols with the same number of land can be
c. A relaxed and natural position
differentiated by the direction of the lead
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from
the width of the groove
1467. The term muzzle velocity refers most
accurately to the: 1474. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel
are different from those left by any other gun
a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight barrel. This fact is most useful in directly
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle identifying the:
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
a. Person who fired the particular gun
1468. Discharged bullet are initiated at: b. Direction form which a shot was fired
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
a. On base or nose d. Bullet which caused a fatal wound
b. Left side 1475. A patrolman should fire his pistol:
c. Right side
d. The end of the bullet a. At no time
1469. Discharged shell are initiated at: b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
c. To impress upon citizen the need for
a. Inside or outside of a case near open end respect
b. Where firing pin strikes d. Only as a last resort
c. On any part of the shell
d. None of the above
1470. Rifling in the bore of small arms is 1476. Which of the following, the best method
designed to: to use in firing a revolver is to keep:

a. Increase the speed of the bullet a. Both eyes closed

b. Decrease the amount of recoil b. Both eyes open
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification c. Only the right eye is open
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in d. Only the left eye is open
the air 1477. .Pistols with the same number of barrel
grooves on the differentiated by the direction
of the twist of the rifling which may be either
1471. The caliber of the gun is: be to the left or to the right. Of the following
statement the one which can most accurately
a. Its barrel length
b. The circumference of its barrel be inferred is that:
c. The size of the ammunition used
d. Diameter of the bore a. Most pistols have the same number of
1472. A homicide was committed by a grooves
b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both
shotgun, all parts of the exploded shell have
left and right
been recovered by the investigator of the c. The direction of the twist in any pistol
crime. In order to identify the shell with the can be either left or right
gun that fired, the laboratory should be given: d. All of the above
1478. The secret of good shooting form is:
a. The cap, the weds and the pellets
b. The cap and the wads a. Proper sighting of the target
c. The cap and the pellets b. Firing slowly and carefully
d. The shot shell only c. A relaxed and natural position

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 d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be
revolver determined by the angle of lead
1479. The term muzzle velocity refers most c. Pistols with the same number of land
accurately to the: can be differentiated by the direction of
the lead
a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight d. The angle lead is the angle which the
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight land from the width of the groove
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the 1486. Paraffin test is used to:
muzzle
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the a. Detect whether a witness is telling the
revolver truth
1480. Discharged bullet are initiated at: b. Discover whether the deceased person
was poisoned
a. On base or nose c. Estimate the approximate time of death
b. Left side of the deceased
c. Right side d. Determine whether a suspect has fired
d. The end of the bullet a gun recently

1481. Discharged shell are initiated at: 1487. The term double action with reference
to revolver means most nearly that:
a. Inside or outside of a case near open
end a. The revolver has both safely and automatic firing
b. Where firing pin strikes action
c. On any part of the shell b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and
d. None of the above released the hammer
1482. Rifling in the bore of small arms is c. The revolver can fire with or without automatic
designed to: shell ejection
d. The shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh
a. Increase the speed of the bullet cartridge is pushed from the magazine at the
b. Decrease the amount of recoil same time
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of 1488. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of
identification a Pistol or Rifle barrels is called:
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and
over and in the air a. Land
1483. The caliber of the gun is: b. Groove
c. Lead
a. Its barrel length d. One complete revolution inside the bore
b. The circumference of its barrel 1489. Identifying markings or imprint are not
c. The size of the ammunition used left on a shell by the:
d. Diameter of the bore
1484. A homicide was committed by a a. Firing
shotgun, all parts of the exploded shell have b. Ejector
been recovered by the investigator of the c. Extractor
crime. In order to identify the shell with the d. Hammer
gun that fired, the laboratory should be given: 1490. It is the part of the mechanism in a
firearm that withdrawn the shell or cartridge
a. The cap, the weds and the pellets from the chamber is called the:
b. The cap and the wads
c. The cap and the pellets a. Ejector
d. The shot shell only b. Primer
c. Striker
d. extractor
1485. Which of the following, the most
accurate statement concerning the
identification of an unknown firearm by
means of the ballistics is that:

a. Most pistol which have left dead have 1491. A revolver to be tested and used in
at least eight lands evidence should be picked up by:

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 a. Inserting a pencil or ballpen in the barrel c. Not to handle it unnecessarily
b. Placing a piece of wire or string through the d. To mark it readily on the barrel
trigger guard
c. Grasping the handle with the handkerchief 1499. The term “MAGNUM” originated in:
d. Grasping the barrel with clean cloth
1492. The part of a .45 caliber semi-automatic a. United States
pistol found at the scene of the crime is b. France
normally not individual marked for c. England
d. Italy
identification in the:
1500. The chemical eating away of the bore of
a. Trigger an arm due to rusting or the action of salts
b. Ejector deposited from the cap or gunpowder is:
c. Slide
d. barrel a. Pressure
1493. The type of bore found on sewed-off b. Extractor
shotgun is usually a: c. Corrosion
d. Priming Composition
a. Rifled bore 1501. The mechanical wear and fear of the
b. Choke bore bore of an arm due to sliding friction when the
c. Full choke bore bullet passes through is:
d. Smooth bore
1494. The maximum distance form the muzzle a. Ejector
at which a firearm discharge will usually b. Single action
produce detectable powder pattern on a c. Erosion
d. Potassium nitrate
target is about:
1502. When the mechanism is so arranged
a. 6 to 10 inches that it will fire continuously while the trigger is
b. 6 to 10 feet depressed is called:
c. 6 to 10 yards
d. 6 to 10 meters a. Double action
1495. When a shot is fired from an automatic b. Caliber
c. Automatic
pistol by a criminal:
d. Trigger
a. The empty shell remain within the chamber 1503. The distance that the rifling advances to
b. The empty in most cases will be found at the make one complete turn inside the gun barrel
scene of firing is called:
c. The shell is rarely found at the crime scene
d. The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator a. Gauge
1496. When the “draws” of the revolver is b. Breech End
completed, the index finger should: c. Pitch of rifling
d. Velocity
a. Grasp the stock 1504. Weapon in which pressure upon the
b. Be straight along the barrel trigger releases the hammer that must be
c. Touch the outside of the trigger guard manually cocked is called:
d. Be inside of the trigger guard
1497. A member of the police force may a. Automatic
properly used his pistol: b. Repeating arms
c. Single action
a. To disperse a disorder group of people d. Ejector
b. To subdue a maniac 1505. Weapon in which pressure upon the
c. To prevent the escape of a pelon trigger both cocks and releases the hammer:
d. To stop a man suspected of having committed a
crime a. Single action
1498. A policeman arriving at the scene of a b. Trigger
crime found a revolver, in reference to this he c. Hammer
should be most careful: d. Double action
1506. When a barrel of a game guns are
a. To see that it is not loaded almost invariability bored with a slightly
b. To put on the safety lock constriction near the muzzle end is known as:

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 a. Shotgun b. Ejector
b. Choke c. Hammer
c. Gauge d. trigger
d. Chamber 1513. This process of combustion results in
1507. The only sure method of determining the solid powder being converted into gases
the velocity is by the use of: rapidly, and at a high temperature, and it is the
expansion of these gases which causes the
a. Micrometer
explosive force which propels the bullet or
b. Taper Gauge
c. Caliber shot charge along the barrel. This force is
d. Chronograph known as:
1508. One of the most important single case
in Firearms Identification History was that a. Energy
b. Pressure
involving two men who were supposed to
c. Velocity
have their employer and his housekeeper in d. High Intensity
upper New York State: 1514. A type of firearm having six lands, six
grooves with the right hand twist is:
a. Castelo Case
b. Timbol Case a. Smith & Wesson
c. The Stielow Case b. Browning type
d. Castaneda case c. Colt type
d. Webley type
1509. During the seven years of radical 1515. An instrument used for the propulsion
agitation that followed the arrest of these of projectile by the expansive force of gases
men , It was apparently forgotten that they coming from burning powder a:
had been seized on specific charge of
murdering one Parameter, a paymaster and a. Helixometer
his guard Berrdelli. Forensic Ballistics sprange b. Firearm
into national prominence during this last c. Stereoscopic
d. Comparison microscope
phrase of:
1516. A knurled ring or serrated groove
a. Brownell Case around the body of the bullet which contains
b. Sacco-Vanzetti Case lubricant in order to minimize friction during
c. Mitchell Case the passage of the bullet inside the bore is:
d. Weber Case
1510. He is doctor of medicine in Medical a. Jacketed bullet
corps in the First World War who had b. Wad cutter bullet
transferred to the ordinance corps and c. Cannelure
d. Plated bullet
considered the Father of modern Ballistics:
1517. The bouncing off or deflection of a
a. Lieutenant Van Amberg bullet from its original trajectory is:
b. Maj. Calvin Goddard
a. Range
c. Capt. Edward C. Crossman
d. Philip O. Gravelle b. Fouling
1511. The most important single process in c. Key hole shot
d. ricochet
barrel manufacture from the standpoint of the
1518. Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode
identification expert is:
on time or there is a delayed in explosion due
a. Reaming operation to faulty functioning of the primer or faulty
b. Rifling operation ignition of the propellant is:
c. Boring operation
d. Grinding or machining a. Misfire
b. Recoil
1512. That part of the mechanism in a firearm c. Hang-fire
which causes empty shells or cartridge cases d. velocity
1519. type of bullet that contains a mixture,
to be thrown from the gun is called:
such as phosphorus or other material, that can
a. Extractor set fire upon impact is called:

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 a. Boat tail bullet 1527. Those characteristics which are
b. Tracer bullet determinable only after the manufacture of
c. Incendiary bullet the firearm. They are characteristics whose
d. Ball type
existence is beyond the control of men and
1520. A short barrel rifle, with its barrel not
which have random distribution. Their
longer than 22”.
existence in a firearm is brought about
a. Gatling guns through the failure of the tool in its normal
b. Pistolized shotgun operation through wear and tear, abuse,
c. Carbine mutilation, corrosion, erosion and other
d. muskets fortuitous causes:
1521. A type of weapon designed to propel
projectile by means of compressed air is: a. Forensic ballistics
b. Class characteristics
a. Springfield armory c. Riflings
b. Marlin rifle d. Individual characteristics
c. Carbine 1528. The steel block which closes the rear of
d. Air rifle the bore against the force of the charge is:
1522. The class characteristics of a 9 mm
Browning Pistol is: a. Breechface
b. Breechblock
a. 5 lands, 5 grooves, right hand twist c. Chamber
b. 4 lands, 4 grooves, right hand twist d. bore
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves, right hand twist 1529. Firearms which propel projectile of less
d. 7 lands, 7 grooves, right hand twist than one inch in diameter are generally
1523. A caliber 6.35mm is equivalent to:
classified as:
a. Caliber .32
a. Artillery
b. Caliber .25
b. Small arms
c. Caliber .45
c. Cannons
d. Caliber .22
d. Recoilless rifle
1524. How many lead pellets dies a 12 gauge
1530. It is the study of firearms Identification
00 bunch shot shotgun cartridges contains:
by means of the ammunition fired through
a. 12 gauge them:
b. 24 pellets
c. 6 pellets a. Ballistics
d. 9 pellets b. Forensic Ballistics
1525. Here is a case, when two specimens are c. Terminal ballistics
d. Interior ballistics
examined under the comparison microscopic
1531. The class characteristics of a Smith &
and was erroneously drawn a conclusion and
Wesson, revolver caliber .38 is:
actually no identity exist, this matching is
called: a. Six lands, six grooves, right hand twist
b. Five lands, five grooves, right hand twist
a. Photomicrograph c. Six lands, six grooves, left hand twist
b. Pseudomatch d. Four lands, four grooves, right hand twist
c. Microphotograph 1532. Velocity of the bullet is being measure
d. striagraph in:
1526. When the bullet enters the rifled bore
from a stationary position and is forced a. Foot pound
abruptly into the rifling, its natural tendency is b. Lbs./sq. inch
to go straight forward before encountering c. Feet per second
the regular rifling twist is called: d. millimeter
1533. How many types of problem are there in
a. Shaving marks Forensic Ballistics?
b. Skidmarks
c. Individual characteristics a. 8
d. Slippage marks b. 7
c. 6
d. 5
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 1534. What is that part in a cartridge cases 1543. A caliber 7.62 mm x 51 is equivalent
where in the flame coming from the priming a. Caliber .32
composition passes? b. Caliber .30
c. Caliber .308
a. Shell head d. Caliber 30.06
b. Vent 1544. How many pellets are there in a 00
c. Primer pocket buckshot shotgun cartridge 12 gauge?
d. anvil a. 12 pellets
1535. What is the most powerful handgun in b. 9 pellets
the world? c. 10 pellets
d. 16 pellets
a. Magnum .357 1545. . A firearm which features a movable
b. Magnum .44 firearm which is manually actuated in motion
c. Magnum .50
parallel to the barrel by the shooter;
d. Magnum .41
1536. What is the equivalent of a caliber .25 a. Slide action type
b. Lower action type
in millimeter?
c. Bolt action type
a. 7.65mm d. Single shot firearm
b. 6.35 mm 1546. A device primarily designed for another
c. 9 mm purposes that have a gun mechanism in
d. 7.63 mm corporated in them.
1537. When a cartridge fails to explode on a. Gas gun
time or delayed in explosion; b. Liberator
c. Freakish device
a. Misfired cartridge d. Flare guns
b. Hang-fire 1547. The numerals, letters and symbols
c. Tapered cartridge stamped into the head of the cartridge case
d. Rebated cartridge to shotshell to identify the manufacturer,
1538. What is the equipment in measuring the
caliber or gauge.
velocity of the bullet?
a. Headspace
a. Omoscope b. Headstamp
b. Helixometer c. Proof mark
c. Chronograph d. ratchet
d. micrometer 1548. The distance from the face of the closed
1539. Riflings located inside the barrel of a
breech of a firearm to the surface in the
gun is a combination of:
chamber on which the cartridge seats.
a. Pitch grifling
a. Keyhole
b. Twist
b. Headspace
c. Lands & grooves
c. Gas operator
d. cannelures
d. Silencer
1549. The most important single process in
1540. The sound created at the muzzle of the
barrel manufacture from the standpoint of the
firearm after explosion is called:
identification expert.
a. Suppressor
b. Muzzle blast a. Reaming operation
c. Compensation b. Rifling operation
d. choke c. Boring operation
1541. What are muzzle loading firearms? d. Grinding operation
1550. The tumbling of the bullet in flight and
a. Muskets
b. Shotgun hitting the target sideways;
c. Single sot firearms a. Ricochet
d. Rifled arms b. Hang-fire
1542. In a caliber 7.62 mm x 51 cartridge. c. Key hole shot
What do you mean by 51? d. misfired
1551. An obsolete barrel designed in which
a. The diameter of the cartridge case
b. The shoulder of the cartridge case the major length of the barrel in smooth and
c. The diameter of the cartridge the few inches are rifled.
d. The length of the cartridge case a. Gas operated

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 b. Damascus barrel c. Trigger pull
c. Paradox gun d. Shocking power
d. Cape gun 1560. Characteristic of photographic paper
1552. A notched wheel on the rear of a usually utilized in police photography?
revolver cylinder to rotate when force is a. Single, glossy, white
applied by a level called a hand. b. Single, matte, cream
c. Double, glossy, white
a. Headspace
d. Double matte, cream
b. Ratchet
1561. When a photograph was developed, the
c. Trigger pull
objects in open space casts a deep and
d. Cylinder stop
uniform shadow, what was the lighting
1553. A rigid loop which partially surrounds
condition when the shot was taken?
the trigger to prevent accident discharge or a. Bright
damage to it. b. Dull
a. Trigger pull c. Hazy
b. Trigger guard d. Cloudy
c. Trailing edge
d. Thumb rest
1554. Pressure developed after explosion is 1562. Refers to the response of film to
measured in: different wavelength of light source.
a. feet/second a. Spectral sensitivity
b. Lbs./sq. inch b. Color sensitivity
c. Foot pound c. Light sensitivity
d. Millimetre d. Film sensitivity
1563. A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and
1555. Used in cases such as for sending signals blue color only.
and enabling to see enemies in the dark. a. Blue sensitive
b. Orthochromatic
a. Harpoon guns c. Panchromatic
b. Gas guns d. Infra red
c. Flare guns 1564. Lighting condition when objects in open
d. Care guns space casts no shadow.
1556. In a caliber .30-30. What do you mean a. Bright
by the second 30? b. Dull
c. Hazy
a. Refers to the caliber d. Cloudy
b. Refers to the weight of gunpowder
c. Refers to the weight of the cartridge case 1565. Lens corrected for astigmatism.
d. Refers to the weight of the bullet a. Aprochomat lens
1557. In a caliber .250-3000.The 3000 refers b. Anastigmat lens
c. Achromatic lens
to the.
d. Rapid rectilinear lens
a. Muzzle energy 1566. A camera used for surveillance must
b. Diameter of the cartridge have a lens with focal length that is:
c. Muzzle velocity of the bullet a. Wide angle lens
d. Pressure developed b. Normal lens
1558. In a caliber .45 pistol. What is defective c. Telephoto lens
d. Narrow angle lens
when more than one bullets will come out of
1567. When a material does not allow light to
the barrel in one press of the trigger? pass its medium it is said to be:
a. Transparent
a. Slide
b. Translucent
b. Main spring
c. Opaque
c. Disconnector
d. All of the above
d. Magazine catch
1568. To separate colors, this homogenous
1559. The amount of force which must be
medium absorbs and transmits light rays
applied to the trigger of a firearm to cause sear passing through it.
to be released. a. Filter
b. Stop bath
a. Velocity c. Developer
b. Muzzle energy d. Fixer
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 1569. In crime scene photography what is the a. Hazy
sufficient lens type for interior photograph? b. Cloudy Dull
a. Wide angle lens c. Cloudy bright
b. Normal lens d. Bright
c. Telephoto lens 1580. To view watermarks in disputed
d. Narrow angle lens documents, what particular method of
1570. It is used to allow light to enter through photography is utilized?
the lens for a predetermined time interval. a. Bounce light
a. View finder b. Side light
b. Shutter c. Transmitted light
c. Light tight box d. Reflected light
d. Holder of sensitized material 1581. Its primary function is to prevent the
1571. Its primary use in photography is focus contamination of two chemical solution in
the light to the subject. chemical processing in photography.
a. Light tight box a. Development
b. Shutter b. Stop-bath
c. Lens c. Fixation
d. View finder d. Bleaching
1572. It refers to the nearest distance at which 1582. Which among the following comprises
a lens is focused with a given particular the essential parts of a camera?
diaphragm opening. a. Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of
a. Depth of field sensitized material, View finder
b. Hyper-focal distance b. Light tight box, Shutter, holder of
c. Focal distance sensitized material, View finder
d. Scale bed c. Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of
1573. It is the distance measured from the sensitized material, Shutter
nearest to the farthest object. d. Light tight box, Shutter, range finder,
a. Depth field Lens, holder of sensitized material
b. Hyper-focal distance 1583. A lens with a focal length of less than the
c. Scale bed diagonal of its negative material.
d. Focal distance a. Wide angle lens
1574. Which among the following is not a b. Normal lens
primary color? c. Long lens
a. Red d. Telephoto lens
b. Blue 1584. Mechanism that is used to measure the
c. Yellow angle of convergence of light coming from a
d. Green subject as seen from two apertures.
1575. It is a microscopically small photograph. a. Focusing scale
a. Microphotograph b. Scale bed
b. Photomicrograph c. View finder
c. Photomacrograph d. Range finder
d. Macrophotograph
1576. The normal developing time of a paper
or film.
a. 1 to 1 ½ minutes 1585. It is a magnified picture of a small object
b. 5 to 10 minutes produced by connecting the lens of a camera
c. 20 to 30 minutes with the ocular of a compound microscope.
d. 30 to 60 minutes a. Microphotograph
1577. In enlarging a photograph what would b. Photomicrograph
be the ideal paper for printing? c. Photomacrograph
a. Chloride paper d. Macrophotograph
b. Bromide paper 1586. Attributed as the person who first
c. Contact paper discovered first true photography.
d. Chloro-bromide paper a. William Henry Fox Talbot
1578. This refers to the absence of all colors. b. Thomas Wedgewood
a. White c. Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre
b. Red d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
c. Blue 1587. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of
d. Black 100 at bright sunlight with normal subject.
1579. A lighting condition wherein subject in a. 1/30 f-8
open space casts a transparent shadow. b. 1/125 f-11
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 c. 1/60 f-4 1597. Infrared radiation is also referred to as:
d. 1/250 f 2-8 a. Laser light
1588. In police photography, to obtain a b. Coherent light
general view of the scene we use a camera at c. Black light
what particular level? d. Heat rays
a. Elevated 1598. The emulsion speed rating of films
b. Eye level expressed in logarithmic values refers to:
c. Bird’s eye view a. ISO rating
d. Worm’s eye view b. ASA rating
1589. The wavelength of electromagnetic c. DIN rating
energy in reference to visible light is: d. BSI rating
a. 001 to 100 1599. Commonly used hardening agent in an
b. 300 to 400 acid fixing solution.
c. 400 to 700 a. Hypo or silver halide
d. 700 to 1000 b. Potassium Alum
1590. Photography is defined as drawing with c. Sodium Sulfate
what particular element? d. Acetic Acid
a. Light 1600. Chemical used as an accelerator in a
b. Camera developer solution.
c. Film a. Hydroquinone
d. Developer b. Sodium sulfite
1591. It refers to a lens that is characterized as c. Sodium carbonate
by the thicker center and thinner sides. d. Potassium bromide
a. Positive lens 1601. Refers to the product of illumination and
b. Negative lens time.
c. Concave lens a. Exposure
d. Convex lens b. Development
1592. It is the film with the widest range of c. Sensitized material
sensitivity to the various energies of the d. Photograph
electromagnetic spectrum. 1602. Chemical used in developing to prevent
a. Infra-red fogging.
b. X-ray a. Potassium Bromide
c. Orthochromatic b. Sodium Sulfite
d. Panchromatic c. Sodium Carbonate
1593. The first use of photography in police d. Boric Acid
work is in what particular field? 1603. A homogenous mixture which absorbs
a. Crime prevention and transmits differentially light rays passing
b. Identification files through it.
c. Surveillance work a. Stop bath
d. Crime scene investigation b. Fixer
1594. The chemical processing step wherein c. Filter
the latent image recorded on the paper or film d. Dektol
becomes visible. 1604. Papillary or friction ridges may be
a. Fixer located at:
b. Bleacher a. Fingers
c. Stop bath b. Palms
d. Developer c. Soles of the feet
d. All of the choices
1605. The fingerprint classification which is
1595. Refers to the process of taking pictures used in the US and other English speaking
with the use of microscope. country.
a. Microphotography a. Henry System
b. Photomicrography b. Batley System
c. Macrophotography c. Bertillion System
d. Photomacrography d. Galton System
1596. The primary controlling factor of the 1606. Which among the following is
sharpness of image refers to: considered as a basic type of ridge
a. Hyper-focal distance characteristics?
b. Focal distance a. Ridge endings
c. Focusing b. Bifurcation
d. Focal length c. Dots
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 d. All of the choices a. Darwin
1607. Study of the characteristics formed by b. Mendel
the sides of papillary ridges as means of c. Galton
identification. d. Bertillon
a. Edgeoscopy 1617. The easiest means of discovering latent
b. Poroscopy fingerprint, is to view the area:
c. Podoscopy a. Obliquely
d. Chiroscopy b. About half an inch distance
1608. In taking fingerprints the absolute c. Directly
control of the subject’s hand is: d. About one inch distance
a. Necessary 1618. Fingerprint pattern in which two or
b. Unnecessary different type of pattern are represented:
c. Optional a. Accidental Whorl
d. Excessive b. Central pocket loop
1609. Usually occupational damage to ridge c. Double loop
formation is: d. Whorl
a. Temporary 1619. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two
b. Permanent separate loops, with its respective shoulder
c. Lasting and deltas.
d. Stable a. Double loop
1610. An inking pad which requires no ink or b. Accidental loop
roller. c. Central pocket loop
a. Porelon d. Whorl
b. Special pad 1620. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop
c. Inkless pad but it has two deltas.
d. None of the foregoing a. Accidental loop
1611. If the same digits of both hands are b. Double loop
missing, the impression are arbitrarily c. Whorl
classified as. d. Central pocket loop
a. Plain whorl with meeting tracing 1621. What pattern bears a downward slant of
b. Loops with ridge count ridge from the thumb toward the little finger?
c. Arches a. Tented Arch
d. Dependent on ridge tracings b. Radial loop
1612. Referred to as outer terminus: c. Ulnar loop
a. Delta d. Loop
b. Dots 1622. A fingerprint pattern which one or more
c. Bifurcation ridges enter on either side of the impression
d. None of the foregoing by a recurve, and terminate on the same side
1613. Failure to clean the slab after using it where the ridge has entered.
produces: a. Tented arch
a. Impression of false markings b. Radial loop
b. Accentuation of patterns c. Ulnar loop
c. Pattern reversals d. Loop
d. Difficulty in photographing 1623. It is a triangular shaped and formed by
1614. In taking fingerprints ______ are rolled the bifurcation of a ridge at the outer portion
away from the body of the subject. of the pattern.
a. All fingers a. Latent prints
b. All fingers except the thumbs b. Ridge
c. Both thumbs c. Core
d. Both little fingers d. Delta
1615. Impressions which are taken
simultaneously on the fingerprint card are 1624. The three basic types of ridge
referred to as: characteristics are:
a. Rolled impressions a. Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts
b. Plain impressions b. Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges
c. Fragmentary impressions and spurs
d. Visible impressions c. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations
1616. Known for his rule which states that “No d. Type lines, converging ridges and
two individuals in the world are exactly the recurving ridges
same size and that human skeleton does not 1625. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets
change after 20 years. again to form a single ridge is called:
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 a. Enclosure ridge 1635. Fingerprinting is universally used as a
b. Dot ridges valuable method of identification due to
c. Short ridges following reason; except:
d. Resembling a loop a. Fingerprints are not changeable
b. There are no two identical fingerprints
c. Wounded or burned out patterns will
1626. Which part of the human body has no re-appear
papillary ridges. d. It is formed in the ninth month of
a. Soles of the foot pregnancy
b. Palm
c. Finger 1636. Period of a person’s life wherein
d. Elbow papillary ridges are formed and developed?
1627. Points often missed in rolling a. 3rd month of fetus life
impression. b. 6th month of infancy
a. Bifurcation c. At birth
b. Core d. 3 months after birth
c. Delta 1637. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which
d. Ridge may resemble a loop, spiral or rod.
1628. Fingerprints left at the crime scene a. Delta
which may be an impression or imprint. b. Core
a. Latent print c. Ridge
b. Pattern d. Whorl
c. Loop 1638. Minimum identical characteristic detail
d. Arch to justify the identity between two points.
1629. Which among the following is not a. Nine
considered as a basic fingerprint pattern? b. Twelve
a. Loop c. Fifteen
b. Arch d. Eighteen
c. Whorl 1639. Study which deals of poisons, their
d. Accidental origin, physical and chemical properties,
1630. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges physiological action, treatment and method of
form a sequence of spirals around core axes. detection.
a. Whorl a. Forensic Chemistry
b. Central pocket loop b. Toxicology
c. Double loop c. Posology
d. Accidental d. Forensic Medicine
1631. Refers to the study of sweat gland 1640. A substance which when introduced into
openings found on papillary ridges as a means the body is absorbed in the blood stream and
of identification. acting chemically is capable of producing
a. Poroscopy noxious effect.
b. Edgeoscopy a. Drugs
c. Podoscopy b. Dangerous drugs
d. Dactyloscopy c. Poison
1632. A ridge which forks out into two ridges. d. Antidotes
a. Delta 1641. Refers to poisons which produces
b. Bifurcation inflammation of the mucus membrane and
c. Core characterized by vomiting, pain in the
d. Pores abdomen and purging.
1633. Fingerprints pattern in which the a. Corrosives
downward slant or ridges from the little finger b. Irritants
toward the thumb. c. Narcotics
a. Ulnar loop d. Tetanics
b. Radial loop 1642. When a substance acts directly upon the
c. Arch spinal cord producing immobility or stiffness
d. Whorl to the parts to which they are attached, it is
1634. Basis of fingerprint identification. classified as:
a. Pores a. Corrosives
b. Ridges b. Irritants
c. Friction ridges c. Narcotics
d. Latent print d. Tetanics

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 1643. In criminal investigation metallurgy 1652. Reliable and easy way to test blood even
plays an important application in: when it is decomposed and stained with
a. Counterfeit coins contamination.
b. Theft and Robbery a. Benzidine test
c. Bombs and Explosives b. Van Deen’s Test
d. Restoration of tampered serial c. Phenolphthalein test
numbers d. Precipitin test
1644. Agents which depress or retard the 1653. Stage of blood examination wherein the
physiological action of an organ. actual proof that subject is definitely blood.
a. Corrosives a. Preliminary test
b. Sedatives b. Confirmatory test
c. Tetanics c. Precipitin test
d. Narcotics d. Blood typing and grouping
1654. Test to determine whether blood is of
1645. According to the methods of isolation, human origin or not.
what poison is isolated by means of a. Preliminary test
distillation. b. Confirmatory test
a. Volatile poisons c. Precipitin test
b. Non volatile poisons d. Blood typing and grouping
c. Metallic poisons
d. Tetanic poisons 1655. Positive result in the preliminary
1646. When the effect of a poison is marked by examination for semen in Barberio’s test.
disturbance of function or death within a short a. Picric acid
time, the poisoning is classified as: b. Spermine picrate
a. Acute poisoning c. Napthol diazonium
b. Sub-acute poisoning d. Anthraquinous chloride
c. Chronic poisoning 1656. Animal fiber may be best described by:
d. Suicidal poisoning a. It is composed of protein
1647. When the action of the poison is marked b. Gives yellow fluorescence under ultra
by disturbance produced in distant part from violet light
the site of application, it is classified as: c. It burns fast
a. Local d. It has acid like odor when burned
b. Remote 1657. When gunpowder explodes, this would
c. Combined determine the approximate time of firing the
d. Acute gun?
a. Soot
1648. Referred to as the circulating tissue of b. Nitrates and nitrites
the body. c. Gases
a. Semen d. Metallic fragments
b. Blood 1658. In determining whether the hair is of
c. Cells human or animal origin what should the
d. Muscles chemist examine under the microscope?
1649. A man of average built would normally a. Parts of the shaft
have how many quarts of blood? b. Parts of the tip
a. 6 quarts c. Parts of the hair
b. 7 quarts d. Parts of the root
c. 8 quarts 1659. A fiber which burns rapidly and the
d. 9 quarts fumes turns blue litmus to red, it is:
1650. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and a. Cotton
comprises about 65% of the blood. b. Silk
a. Platelets c. Fiber glass
b. Fibrin d. Steel wool
c. Leucocytes 1660. It is the part of the hair which is referred
d. Plasma to as a race determinant?
1651. It is the oxygen carrier of the blood. a. Cortex
a. Plasma b. Cuticle
b. Hemoglobin c. Medulla
c. Erythrocytes d. Shaft
d. Fibrin 1661. A test for fiber used in determining
whether it is of human or animal origin
a. Ignition test or burning
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 b. Fluorescence analysis d. Chloroform
c. Chemical analysis 1672. This test is used to detect the presence
d. Microscopic analysis of semen particularly in stained clothing.
1662. Kind of ink is wherein the use of a. Microscopic test
chemical bleaches is ineffective. b. Barberio’s test
a. Carbon c. Florence test
b. Logwood d. Ultraviolet test
c. Nigrosine 1673. The best method in comparative soil
d. Gallotanic analysis.
1663. Refers to any agent which neutralizes a. Chemical examination
poison and its effects. b. Density gradient test
a. Emetics c. Ultra-violet light examination
b. Antidotes d. Microscopic test
c. Alkaloids 1674. To know whether a paper is not easily
d. Tetanics torn, what test is utilized?
1664. Which among the following exhibits a. Accelerated aging test
bluish fluorescence when exposed to u.v. b. Bursting strength test
light? c. Opacity examination
a. Blood d. Microscopic examination
b. Semen 1675. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually
c. Saliva made by decaying body.
d. Urine a. Chloride
1665. Oldest known explosive. b. Ammonia
a. Black powder c. Carbon dioxide
b. Smoke powder d. Hydrogen sulfide
c. Dynalite 1676. The application of chemical principles in
d. TNT the examination of evidence.
1666. Deals with the study and identification a. Forensics
by means of body fluids. b. Criminalistics
a. Immunology c. Instrumentation
b. Serology d. Forensic Chemistry
c. Posology 1677. To positively determine the presence of
d. Pharmacology blood in stained material, what test is used?
1667. The process in reproducing physical a. Takayama Test
evidence by plaster moulds. b. Phenolphtalien test
a. Casting c. Baberio’s test
b. Cementing d. Florence test
c. Moulage 1678. According to the method of isolation,
d. Pickling volatile poisons may be isolated by means of
1668. Major component of a glass. what process?
a. Lime a. Extraction
b. Silica b. Dilution
c. Soda c. Distillation
d. Lime d. Dialysis
1669. Highly irritant poison which causes local 1679. Which of the following is not an accurate
destruction of tissues and causes nausea. test for the presence of alcohol in the human
a. Corrosives body?
b. Irritants a. Saliva test
c. Tetanics b. Harger breath test
d. Asthenics c. Fecal test
d. Drug test
1670. A super cooled liquid which possess high 1680. A disturbance produced by poison on
viscosity and rigidity. that part with which the poison came into
a. Lime contact.
b. Soda a. Acute
c. Glass b. Local
d. Gel c. Remote
1671. An organic bacterial poison. d. Combined
a. Strychnine 1681. A material which is used to which is used
b. Ptomaine to improve the quality of the paper.
c. Brucine a. Sizing material
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 b. Rosin d. Livor mortis
c. Gelatin 1690. In tropical countries, hair and nails are
d. Starch detached from a dead body in how many
1682. By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color days?
would be formed if it is pesent. a. 7
a. Rosin b. 14
b. Starch c. 21
c. Casein d. 28
d. Gelatin 1691. Maggots are seen in dead bodies
1683. Oldest ink material known to man. particularly in warm countries within how
a. Logwood many days from death?
b. Nigrosine a. 1
c. Carbon b. 2
d. Gallotanic c. 3
1684. Only type of ink wherein age may be d. 4
determined. 1692. Refers to a fracture where there is a
a. Logwood break in the bone, loss of alignment of the
b. Nigrosine affected bones and separation of fragment
c. Carbon bones.
d. Gallotanic a. Simple fracture
1685. It refers to the obscuring of writing by b. Compound fracture
superimposing ink, pencil or other marking c. Comminuted fracture
material. d. None of the foregoing
a. Erasure 1693. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs
b. Obliterated writing in the body.
c. Indented writing a. Internal hemorrhage
d. Contact writing b. Hematoma
1686. Female pelvis diameter is _______ c. Contusion
compared with male pelvis. d. Internal wound
a. Greater 1694. Abrasion due to contact with a rough,
b. Equal hard object.
c. Lesser a. Imprint abrasion
d. Less significant b. Pressure abrasion
c. Friction abrasion
d. Graze
1695. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure
applied and with accompanying movement
1687. How many minutes is necessary over the skin.
persistent cessation in respiration, circulation a. Pressure abrasion
and brain function is sufficient to declare a b. Imprint abrasion
person clinically dead? c. Impact abrasion
a. 10-15 minutes d. Graze
b. 15-30 minutes 1696. A nervous disease marked by seizures
c. 30-45 minutes with convulsion and loss of consciousness.
d. 45-60 minutes a. Epilepsy
b. Apoplexy
1688. A simple test used to determine c. Catalepsy
cessation of respiration by placing water or d. Uremia
mercury in a container on top of the chest of a 1697. Refers to the accumulation in the blood
person and no visible movement is noticed. ordinarily eliminated in the urine; specifically
a. Winslov test a toxic condition seen in urinary suppression,
b. Florence test marked by nausea, vertigo, vomiting, coma
c. Barberio test and convulsion.
d. Castle Meyer test
1689. A muscular change characterized by the a. Epilepsy
softness of the muscles and in which it no b. Apoplexy
longer responds to mechanical or electrical c. Catalepsy
stimulus due to the dissolution of proteins. d. Uremia
a. Stage of primary flaccidity 1698. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is
b. Stage of secondary flaccidity completed in how many hours when the blood
c. Rigor mortis has already clotted or diffused to different
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 parts of the body wherein the discoloration is 1707. A wound which inflicted in the body
permanent and darker in color? which is so serious that it will endanger one’s
a. 12 hours life.
b. 24 hours a. Non-mortal wound
c. 36 hours b. Mortal wound
d. 48 hours c. Trauma
1699. In blood grouping, should there be no d. Coup injury
agglutination with either group A or B what 1708. A collection of blood underneath the
would be the particular blood group of the skin.
sample. a. Contusion
a. Group A b. Bruise
b. Group B c. Petechiae
c. Group AB d. Hematoma
d. Group O 1709. Straining or tearing of tendons,
1700. Period of time wherein human bones ligaments and muscles causing skin
will not exhibit changes. discoloration and extreme pain.
a. 10 years a. Sprain
b. 20 years b. Contusion
c. 30 years c. Fracture
d. 40 years d. Dislocation
1701. It is the formation of a soft, friable and 1710. It is fracture wherein a break of the skin
brownish white greasy substance in the soft and bone is evident.
fatty tissue after death. a. Simple
a. Saponification b. Compound
b. Rigor mortis c. Comminuted
c. Mummification d. Dislocation
d. Maceration 1711. A displacement of the articular surface
1702. A discoloration of the body after death of the bone without external wounds.
when the blood tends to pool in the blood a. Sprain
vessels of the most dependent portions of the b. Fracture
body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death c. Hematoma
and is completed by 12 hours. d. Dislocation
a. Rigor mortis 1712. In gunshot wounds, when there is
b. Primary flaccidity evident burning of tissue and blackening of the
c. Maceration skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near
d. Livor mortis contact fire meaning that the distance of the
1703. Average time for the stomach to empty body to the gun is approximately.
its contents after meals. a. 6 inches
a. 2 to 3 hours b. 12 inches
b. 3 to 4 hours c. 18 inches
c. 4 to 5 hours d. 24 inches
d. 5 to 6 hours 1713. A physical injury which is found at the
1704. Rate of growth of human hair. site and also the opposite site of the
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day application of force.
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day a. Extensive injury
c. 0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day b. Coup injury
d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day c. Contre coup injury
1705. A person is considered dead if the rate of d. Coup and contre coup injury
fall of body temperature is about: 1714. A physical injury found at the site of the
a. 10 to 15 deg. F application of force.
b. 15 to 20 deg. F a. Extensive injury
c. 20 to 25 deg. F b. Coup injury
d. 25 to 30 deg. F c. Contre coup injury
1706. A break or solution in the continuity of d. Coup and contre coup injury
the skin.
a. Wound 1715. A wound produced by a blunt
b. Trauma instrument such as log and stone.
c. Bruise a. Punctured wound
d. Scratch b. Hack wound
c. Lacerated wound
d. Incised wound
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 1725. Approximate time for the completion of
1716. When the person was stabbed by an ice one case for DNA testing.
pick, what wound would be exhibited? a. Minimum of 2 weeks
a. Punctured wound b. Minimum of 4 weeks
b. Hack wound c. Minimum of six weeks
c. Lacerated wound d. Minimum of eight weeks
d. Incised wound
1717. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife. 1726. Period of time wherein there body
a. Punctured wound would be skeletonized, under normal
b. Hack wound conditions in tropical countries.
c. Lacerated wound a. 1 month
d. Incised wound b. 3 months
1718. The basic building blocks of DNA are as c. 6 months
follows ACGT, A stands for what? d. 12 months
a. Adenine 1727. In cases of suicide, what would be the
b. Adenide noticeable muscular change.
c. Adenum a. Cold stiffening
d. Adenoid b. Heat stiffening
1719. In crimes which took place twenty years c. Instantaneous rigor
ago, what sample should be obtained for DNA d. Putrefaction
testing? 1728. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed
a. Fingerprints inside the blood vessels or has diffused to
b. Hair different parts of the body.
c. Skeleton a. Diffusion lividity
d. Teeth b. Clotting of the blood
1720. It is inherited from the mother found in c. Rigor mortis
the mitochondria which is in the cell body d. Hypostatic lividity
a. Nuclear DNA 1729. Approximate average amount of semen
b. Helix per ejaculation under normal conditions.
c. Mitochondrial DNA a. 2 to 2.5 cc
d. DNA nucleus b. 2.5 to 5 cc
1721. Period of time wherein human bones c. 5 to 10 cc
will not exhibit changes. d. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
a. 10 years 1730. DNA is found in all nucleated cells of the
b. 20 years body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of life. What
c. 30 years does it stands for?
d. 40 years a. Deonatural acid
1722. A complete, continuous, persistent b. Dynamic natural anti-body
cessation of respiration, circulation and c. Deoxyribonucleic acid
almost all brain function of an organism. d. Deoxyribunucliec acid
a. Somatic death 1731. A powerful tool in identification which
b. Cellular death points to the source of biological evidence by
c. Molecular death matching it with samples from the victims,
d. Apparent death suspects and their relatives.
1723. Manner of walking of a person which a. DNA profiling
may be natural b. Serology
a. Mannerism c. Instrumentation
b. Tic d. Forensics
c. Gait 1732. Body fluids routinely tested because
d. Body language they are good sources of cells.
1724. This muscular change upon death lasts a. Saliva and tears
about 20 to 30 minutes and is characterized by b. Semen and saliva
the relaxation of the muscles and loss of their c. Urine and semen
natural tone. d. Semen and blood
a. Stage of primary flaccidity 1733. Human being’s tissue attached to the
b. Post mortem rigidity body which may undergo DNA testing.
c. Cadaveric spasm a. Hair
d. Secondary flaccidity b. Bone
c. Skin
d. Fingernails

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 1734. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the structure characterized by cold stiffening and
digestive action of its bacteria and enzyme. diminished body temperature.
a. Primary flaccidity a. Gangrene
b. Post mortem rigidity b. Frostbite
c. Cadaveric spasm c. Trench foot
d. Putrefaction d. Immersion foot
1735. Conclusive evidence that subject person 1744. Failure of adequate heat elimination
is a female. related to the breakdown of sweating
a. Possession of vagina mechanism.
b. Possession of ovaries a. Heat cramp
c. Possession of estrogen b. Heat exhaustion
d. Possession of progesterone c. Heat stroke
d. Burning
1736. A person with big face and prominent 1745. In determining the sex by analyzing the
cheek bones. skeleton, which part is not used?
a. Hippocratic facie a. Skull
b. Mongolian facie b. Pelvis
c. Myxedema facie c. Sternum
d. Facies lionine d. Tibia
1737. Conclusive evidence that a person is a 1746. A serious burn involving skin nerves,
male. muscles and bones, considered as the most
a. Presence of testis severe burn causing death due to loss of fluids
b. Presence of androsterone and electrolytes in the body and massive
c. Possession of penis infection.
d. Possession of testosterone a. Sunburn
1738. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils b. 1st degree burn
due to mucous secretion of the respiratory c. 2nd degree burn
track after death. d. 3rd degree burn
a. “Cutis anserina” 1747. A person who is devoid of oxygen for
b. Washerwoman around 3 to 5 minutes would die, the case of
c. “Champignon d’ ocume” death would be?
d. Cadaveric spasm a. Stupor
1739. It is a death that occurs due to illness of b. Stroke
the body. c. Asphyxia
a. Natural death d. Exhaustion
b. Molecular death 1748. Most effective method in determining
c. Somatic death sex of an individual.
d. Apparent death a. Gonodal test
1740. A type of burn produced as a result of b. Social test
the body coming into contact with a moving c. Genital test
object. d. Chromosomal test
a. Thermal burn 1749. Its medical-legal importance is to
b. Friction burn approximate the time of death.
c. Radiation burn a. Cadaveric spasm
d. Electrical burn b. Putrefaction
1741. A condition of a woman who have had c. Mascular contraction
one or more sexual experience but not had d. Rigor mortis
conceived a child. 1750. Defloration is the laceration of the
a. Moral virginity hymen due to:
b. Demi-virginity a. Masturbation
c. Physical virginity b. Fingering
d. Virgo intact c. Sodomy
1742. Refers to the action of a bacteria to a d. Sexual intercourse
dead body. 1751. In cellular or molecular death, death of
a. Flaccidity individual cell occurs in:
b. Rigidity a. 20 to 30 minutes
c. Lividity b. 3 to 6 hours
d. Putrefaction c. 12 to 24 hours
1743. A condition of exposure to cold d. 24 to 36 hours
temperature of certain parts of the body 1752. Most noticeable sign of death.
which produces mechanical disruption of cell a. Cessation of respiration
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 b. Progressive fall of body temperature a. Response
c. Insensibility of body and loss of power b. Deception
to move c. Detection
d. Cessation of heart action and d. Reaction
circulation 1762. Refers to an emotional response to a
1753. Most common and scientific method of specific danger, which appears to go beyond a
detecting deception. person’s defensive power.
a. Polygraphy a. Response
b. Polygraph b. Reaction
c. Truth serum c. Stimuli
d. Interrogation d. Fear
1754. Devised an instrument capable of 1763. This component drives the chart paper
continuously recording pulse rate, respiration under the recording pen simultaneously at the
and blood pressure. rate of 6 to 12 inches per minute.
a. William Marston a. Cardiosphygmograph
b. Angelo Mosso b. Kymograph
c. John Larson c. Galvanograph
d. Sticker d. Pneumograph
1764. Part of the galvanograph attached to the
left fingers of the subject.
1755. Psychological response to any demand. a. Finger electrode plate
a. Reaction b. Diacritic notch
b. Stress c. Rubber convoluted tube
c. Pressure d. Kymograph
d. All of the above 1765. This component record changes of the
1756. For male subjects, what is the amount of subject blood pressure and pulse rate.
air pressure is to be utilized in the system of a. Cardiosphygmograph
cardio or vent. b. Sphygmomanometer
a. 30 mm c. Galvanograph
b. 60 mm d. Pneumograph
c. 90 mm 1766. It records the subject’s skin resistance to
d. 120 mm a small amount of electricity.
1757. A subject must have at least how many a. Cardisphygmograph
hours of sleep considered fit for polygraph b. Sphygmomanometer
examination. c. Galvanograph
a. 5 d. Pneumograph
b. 6 1767. This component records the changes in
c. 7 the breathing of the subject.
d. 8 a. Cardisphygmograph
b. Sphygmomanometer
1758. Type of question related to the facts of c. Galvanograph
the case and is answerable by NO. d. Pneumograph
a. Relevant question 1768. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes
b. Irrelevant question another identity to deceive others.
c. General question a. Black lie
d. Immaterial question b. White lie
1759. Question known to the subject and is c. Red lie
answerable by YES. d. Yellow lie
a. Relevant question 1769. Deviation from normal tracing of the
b. Irrelevant question subject in the relevant question.
c. General question a. Reaction
d. Immaterial question b. Normal response
1760. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact c. Specific response
that something is hidden or obscure. d. Positive response
a. Fear 1770. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant
b. Deception questions were answered.
c. Detection a. Reaction
d. Reaction b. Normal response
1761. An inhibition of a previous activity of an c. Specific response
effector organ or organism as a result of d. Positive response
stimulation.
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 1771. Normal time interval for pre-test b. Hans Gross
interview. c. Leonarde Keeler
a. 20 to 30 minutes d. John Larson
b. 30 to 60 minutes 1781. Refers to any specimen or writing
c. 60 to 90 minutes executed normally without any attempt to
d. 90 to 120 minutes change or control its identifying habits and its
1772. The primary objective of post test usual quality of execution.
interview. a. Natural writing
a. To thank the subject b. Disguised writing
b. To obtain confession c. Cursive writing
c. To make the subject calm d. System of writing
d. To explain polygraph test procedures 1782. Jose Pidal in trying to fake his own
signature to hide his identity is using:
1773. The purpose of pretest interview. a. Natural writing
a.To prepare subject for polygraph test b. Disguised writing
b.To obtain confession c. Cursive writing
c.To make the subject calm d. System of writing
d.To explain polygraph test procedures 1783. Writing in which are for most part
1774. Refers to questions to ascertain the joined together.
subject’s normal pattern of response. a. Natural writing
a. Relevant questions b. Disguised writing
b. Irrelevant questions c. Cursive writing
c. Supplementary questions d. System of writing
d. Control questions 1784. Usual deviations found between
1775. The number of basic tracings in the modern repeated specimen of any individual
polygraph. handwriting or in the product of any
a. 3 typewriter.
b. 4 a. Normal variation
c. 5 b. Natural variation
d. 6 c. Tremor
1776. Developed the systolic blood pressure d. Wrong hand writing
method for detecting deception.
a. William Marston 1785. A person executing a signature while his
b. Harold Burtt arm is steadied and assisted produces a:
c. John Larson a. Guided signature
d. Leonarde Keeler b. Normal signature
c. Scribble
1777. He noted that respiratory and systolic d. Handwriting signature
blood pressure changes were signs of 1786. A preliminary embellished initial
deception. common to capital letters.
a. William Marston a. Embellishment
b. Harold Burtt b. Beard
c. Leonard Keeler c. Buckle knot
d. John Larson d. Diacritic
1778. Italian scientist who used 1787. A minute curve which occurs at the end
hydrosphygmograph procedure for accused of terminal strokes.
persons. a. Hook
a. Angelo Mosso b. Spur
b. Veraguth c. Loop
c. Lombroso d. Staff
d. Vittorio Benussi 1788. An oblong curve found in small letters
1779. Pioneer who first used the term f,g,h and l.
psychogalvanic skin reflex. a. Hook
a. Angelo Mosso b. Spur
b. Veraguth c. Loop
c. Lombroso d. Staff
d. Vittorio Benussi 1789. The introductory backward stroke
1780. Who first incorporated the added to the staff of many capital letters and
galvanograph with measurement, respiration which can also be seen occasionally in
component and blood pressure. introductory strokes of small letters.
a. Harold Burtt a. Embellishment
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 b. Beard d. Authentic document
c. Buckle knot 1799. A document which contains some
d. Hitch changes either as an addition or deletion.
1790. A loop made as a flourish which is a. Altered documents
added to a letter. b. Disputed document
a. Embellishment c. Obliterated document
b. Beard d. Inserted document
c. Buckle knot 1800. It refers to the smearing over a writing
d. Diacritic to make the original undecipherable.
1791. Additional unnecessary stroke for a. Decipherment
ornamental purposes. b. Restoration
a. Embellishment c. Obliteration
b. Hump d. Interlineation
c. Diacritic 1801. A class of signature for routine
d. Knot document or day to day correspondence.
1792. Balance quality of movement of the a. Formal
harmonious recurrence of stress of impulse. b. Complete
a. Line quality c. Cursory
b. Rhythm d. Careless scribble
c. Baseline 1802. Refers to a class of signature to
d. Writing pressure acknowledge important documents.
1793. Refers to the periodic increase in a. Complete
pressure or intermittently forcing the pen b. Cursory
against the paper surface with increase c. Informal
pressure. d. Careless scribble
a. Writing pressure 1803. A process by which a canal like outline
b. Shading is produced on a fraudulent document
c. Pen emphasis underneath the genuine and tracing it with
d. Natural variation the use of pointed instrument.
1794. An imaginary line upon which the a. Carbon process
writing rests. b. Indention process
a. Line quality c. Projection process
b. Baseline d. Transmitted light process
c. Foot 1804. A type face defect wherein one side is
d. Hitch printed heavier than the rest of its outline.
1795. A signature written by the forger in his a. Off its feet
own style of handwriting without attempting b. Twisted letter
to copy to form of the genuine signature. c. Clogged type face
a. Traced forgery d. Rebound
b. Disguised forgery
c. Simulated forgery
d. Simple forgery 1805. It is the visible effect of bodily
1796. A freehand imitation and regarded as movement which is almost unconscious
the most skillful type of forgery. expression of fixed muscular habits reacting
a. Traced forgery from fixed mental impressions.
b. Disguised forgery a. Handwriting
c. Simulated forgery b. Writing
d. Simple forgery c. Typewriting
d. Writing movement
1797. Which among the following is an 1806. A writing instrument that makes
indication of genuineness of handwriting? detection of hesitation and pen-lifts difficult.
a. Continuity a. Ball point pen
b. Smoothness b. Fountain pen
c. Skillful writing c. Iron nutgall ink
d. Tremor d. Markers
1807. Disconnection between letters or letter
1798. Document which is completely written combination due to lack of movement
and signed by the testator. control.
a. Genuine document a. Pen lift
b. Disputed document b. Retouching
c. Holographic document c. Patching
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 d. Retracing 1817. A type face ordinarily spaced 10
1808. A distinctive design which is translucent characters to the horizontal inch.
impressed on the paper during manufacture. a. Pica
a. Water marks b. Elite
b. Fiber marks c. Proportional spacing machine
c. Paper design d. Adding machine
d. Wire marks 1818. Developed the system of handwriting
1809. In utilizing a stereo-graphic classification utilized by most police
photomicrograph, what particular condition departments.
is manifested? a. Lee and Abbey
a. Grainy image b. Rolando Wilson
b. Two image c. Levine
c. Overlapping image d. Landsteiner
d. Three dimensional image 1819. A kind of document executed by a
1810. An element which is added to complete person in authority and by private parties but
another letter. notarized by competent officials.
a. Spur a. Official document
b. Slant b. Public document
c. Diacritics c. Commercial document
d. Arc d. Private document
1811. It is a signature signed at a particular 1820. An act of diminishing the metal value of
time and place, purpose and normal writing a genuine coin.
conditions. a. False coin
a. Complete signature b. Counterfeit coin
b. Standard signature c. Priceless coin
c. Evidential signature d. Mutilation of coin
d. Model signature 1821. It refers to the printing surface of a type
1812. Periodic increase in pressure, block.
characterized by widening of the ink stroke. a. Character
a. Shading b. Design
b. Pen emphasis c. Pitch
c. Pen lift d. Type face
d. Pen pressure 1822. Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon
1813. The most reliable criterion in judging which the writing rests.
the authenticity of paper money. a. Base
a. Quality of the engraving b. Baseline
b. Color of the seal c. Foot
c. Wet strength of the paper d. Staff
d. Watermarks 1823. It is the process of making out what is
1814. A coin given the appearance of a legal illegible or what has been effaced.
tender but made inferior or superior intrinsic a. Decipherment
value to that of the genuine coin. b. Collation
a. Priceless coin c. Obliteration
b. Mutilated coin d. Comparison
c. False coin 1824. An act of setting two or more items to
d. All of the choices weigh their identifying characteristics.
1815. It is a deviation showing free connecting a. Comparison
and terminal strokes made by the b. Collation
momentum of the hand. c. Conclusion
a. Tremor d. Examination
b. Tremors of fraud
c. Genuine tremor
d. Deterioration 1825. An examination of documents wherein
1816. Any arcade formed in the body of the it is viewed with the source of illumination
letters. behind it and the light passing through the
a. Staff paper.
b. Slant a. Transmitted light examination
c. Diacritics b. Oblique photography examination
d. Humps c. Infrared examination
d. Ultraviolet examination

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 1826. The art of attempting to interpret the b. Breechface
personality of a person from his handwriting. c. Ejector
a. Questioned Document Examination d. Extractor
b. Polygraphy 1836. Channels cut in the interior surface of
c. Graphology the barrel.
d. Psychology a. Rifling
1827. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet. b. Land
a. Projectile c. Groove
b. Ball d. Cannelure
c. Shell 1837. Rearward movement of a firearm from
d. Missile firing.
1828. The science of dealing with the motion a. Recoil
of projectiles at the same time it leaves the b. Force
muzzle of the firearm to the time it hits the c. Backfire
target. d. Shot force
a. Interior ballistics 1838. Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of
b. Exterior ballistics the bore due to sliding friction when the bullet
c. Terminal ballistics passes through it.
d. Posterior ballistics a. Erosion
1829. The science which deals with the effect b. Rusting
of the impact of the projectile on the target. c. Corrosion
a. Interior ballistics d. Decomposition
b. Exterior ballistics 1839. Distance that the rifling advances to
c. Terminal ballistics make one compete turn.
d. Posterior ballistics a. Pitch of rifling
1830. Part of the firearm which strikes the b. Choke
firing pin. c. Trajectory
a. Trigger d. Recoil
b. Hammer 1840. Needed for a cartridge to be considered
c. Sear as a complete unfired unit
d. Main spring a. Bullet
b. Primer
1831. Applied to a shotgun which indicates c. Gunpowder
bore diameter is equal to the diameter of the d. All of the choices
lead ball whose weight in pound equal to 1841. Most common individual characteristic
reciprocal gauge index. that are visible on the base portion of then
a. Caliber fired cartridge.
b. Gauge a. Firing pin impression
c. Shot b. Ejector marks
d. Charge c. Extractor marks
1832. An ancient smooth bore weapon d. Chamber marks
designed to shoot a single round lead ball. 1842. Failure of cartridge to discharge.
a. Shotgun a. Misfire
b. Rifle b. Hang fire
c. Musket c. Ricochet
d. Pistol d. Key hole shot
1833. A smooth bore weapon designed to 1843. Invented the gunpowder.
shoot a number of lead pellets in one charge. a. Chinese
a. Shotgun b. James Forsythe
b. Rile c. Van Amberg
c. Musket d. Berthold Schwartz
d. Pistol 1844. Refers to a complete unfired unit of
1834. Part of the firearm which closes the rear ammunition placed into gun chamber.
of the bore against the force of the charge. a. Cartridge
a. Breechblock b. Primer
b. Breechface c. Bullet
c. Ejector d. Shell
d. Extractor 1845. The measurement of the bore diameter
1835. Firearm mechanism which causes empty from land to land.
shell to be withdrawn from the chamber. a. Gauge
a. Breechblock b. Mean diameter
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 c. Caliber d. Explosive bullet
d. Riflings 1856. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the
1846. This part of the firearm strikes the barrel from what particular part?
primer causing the firing of the cartridge. a. From land to land
a. Hammer b. From land to groove
b. Ejector c. From groove to groove
c. Trigger d. From groove to land
d. Firing pin
1847. Term used in referring to the tip of a
bullet. 1857. Revolver is distinguished from pistol by:
a. Breech a. Frame
b. Ogive b. Barrel
c. Rim c. Slide assembly
d. Pitch d. Rotating cylinder
1848. A smooth bore military firearm which 1858. The term double action in a firearm
has no riflings. means.
a. Shotgun a. Cocks and releases the hammer
b. Rifle simultaneously
c. Pistol b. Manually cocks the hammer
d. Revolver c. Autoloads before firing
1849. A bullet covered with a thick coating of d. Double pressing of trigger
copper alloy to prevent leading. 1859. Regarded as the father of ballistics,
a. Jacketed bullet a. Albert Osborne
b. Metal cased bullet b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard
c. Metal point bullet c. Hans Gross
d. Plated bullet d. Charles Waite
1850. The tumbling of the bullet in its 1860. Raised portion between the groove
trajectory and hitting the target sideways. found inside the barrel.
a. Key hole shot a. Land
b. Ricochet b. Caliber
c. Hang fire c. Gauge
d. Misfire d. Rifling
1851. A part of ballistics dealing with firearm 1861. The unstable rotating motion of the
identification. bullet.
a. Interior a. Yaw
b. Exterior b. Trajectory
c. Terminal c. Velocity
d. Forensic d. Gyroscopic action
1852. Minimum requirement for conclusive 1862. A lead type bullet is usually fired from
conclusions in forensic ballistics. what particular firearm?
a. 3 test bullets/shell a. Rifle
b. 4 test bullets b. Revolver
c. 5 test bullets/shell c. Pistol
d. 6 test bullets/shell d. Sub-machine gun
1853. It refers to the placement of the right 1863. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the
and left specimen in side by side position. interior surface of the bore.
a. Drag marks a. Rifling
b. Positively matched b. Breaching
c. Juxtaposition c. Ogive
d. Pseudomatch d. Swaging
1854. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in 1864. A primer with two vents or flash holes.
flight. a. Bordan primer
a. Range b. Berdan primer
b. Trajectory c. Boxer primer
c. Velocity d. Battery primer
d. Yaw 1865. Danao made firearms or homemade
1855. Bullets containing nitrate compounds weapons are usually classified as:
which is set on fire when it is projected. a. Flare guns
a. Incendiary bullet b. Zip guns
b. Ball bullet c. Matchlock
c. Tracer bullet d. Freakish device
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 1866. The most reliable of all individual b. Dactyloscopy
characteristics, when fired cartridges are c. Fingerprint Identification
concerned. d. Photography
a. Extractor marks
1874. Identification of person can be done
b. Ejector marks
c. Chamber marks either by Comparison or by____?
d. Breech face marks a. Exclusion
1867. It literally means delay in discharge or b. Examination
the cartridge’s failure to explode on time. c. Experimentation
a. Misfire d. Inclusion
b. Hang fire 1875. The person credited for the discovery
c. Ricochet
of the two main layers of the friction skin.
d. Key hole shot
1868. A bullet fired from a firearm with an a. Alphonse Bertillion
oversized or oily barrel or its lands have been b. Marcelo Malpighe
worn down would produce what kind of c. Herman Welcker
markings? d. J.C.A. Mayer
a. Slippage marks 1876. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a
b. Skid marks seal carved from white jade containing the
c. Rifling marks
name and the thumb print of the owner.
d. Shearing marks
1869. Measuring device used to measure the a. Tien Chi
velocity of projectiles. b. Tein Chi
a. Caliper c. Tein Shi
b. Chronograph d. Tien Shi
c. Test bullet 1877. He is known to be the father of
d. Bullet recovery box
personal Identification having devised the
1870. Refers to the means of recognizing the
characteristics of persons so as to first scientific method of personal
differentiate him from others Identification.
a. Dactyloscopy a. John Dellinger
c. Identification b. Cesare Lombroso
b. Personal c. John F. W. Herschel
d. Comparison d. Alphonse Bertillion
1871. Considered to be first scientific method
1878. He took prints of his own palm twice
of Identification in person done by measuring
with the lapse of forty-one years just to prove
various bony structure of the human body.
that prints do not change, except for some
a. Portrait-Parle
scratches due to old age.
b. Photography
a. Herman Welcker
c. Antropometry
b. Marcelo Malpighi
d. Anthropometry
c. J.C.A. Mayer
547. The following are principles in personal
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji
Identification, except.
1879. The person who used fingerprints in
a. Law of individuality replacement for signature to avoid
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence impersonation among Indian native.
b. Law of infallibility a. William Herschel
d. Law of constancy b. Dr. Henry Faulds
1872. Which of the following personal c. Dr. Francis Galton
Identification is not easy to change? d. Sir Edward Henry
a. Hair 1880. Is person considered to be the father of
b. Speech modern fingerprint. His system of
c. Dress classification was accepted in almost all
d. personal pharapernalia English speaking country.
1873. Considered to be one of the most a. Sir Edward Richard Henry
infallible means of Identification. b. Juan Vucetich
a. DNA fingerprinting c. Alphonse Bertillion
d. Dr. Hans Gross
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 1881. Makes a publication of a report d. Herman Welker
describing the ridges and pores of the hand 1888. The person who used the system of
and feet which was read before the Royal identification which was accepted by Spanish
Society of London. countries.
a. Nehemiah Grew a. Juan Vucetich
b. G. Bidloo b. Henry Faulds
c. Hintze c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
d. Albinus d. William Herschel
1882. A system of Identification best used in 1889. Is the law which states that the greater
case of burned body. the number of the similarity or differences
a. Fingerprint the more probability for the conclusion to be
b. Skeletal Identification correct.
c. Odontology
a. Law of Infallability
d. Photography
b. Law of Multiplicity of evidence
c. Law of Permenancy
1883. The following are characteristics of d. Law of Barcelinity
1890. The word Dactyloscopy was derived
man which can easily be changed EXCEPT?
from what word?
a. Hair Growth a. Greek word
b. Body Ornamentation b. French word
c. Speech c. Latin word
d. Clothing d. English word
1884. The first conviction in the Philippine 1891. If screw driver is for mechanic. What is
Case which gives recognition to the science of used by a photographer?
fingerprint? A. Filter
a. People vs. Medina B. Camera
b. US vs. Jennings C. Firearm
c. Miranda vs. Arizona D. Handcuff
d. West Case 1892. Can exptert in Ballistics testify witout
1885. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted photograph or demonstration?.
the first individual use of fingerprints in a. Yes
August 8, 1882, by using his own thumb mark b. Partly Yes
as a protection to prevent tampering with the c. No
pay order he issued. d. Partly No
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier 1893. Burned document or charred
b. Gilbert Thompson document is best examined by.
c. Capt James Parke a. Infrared Photography
d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores b. Ultraviolet Photography
1886. The Filipino who top the first c. Macro Photography
comprehensive examination in fingerprint d. Micro Photography
which was initiated by New York Police Dept. 1894. The average age of menopausal period
and FBI. of women to take place.
a. Generoso Reyes a. 50 yrs old
b. Isabela Bernales b. 45 yrs old
c. Patricio Agustin c. 35 yrs old
d. Marcelo Bonifacio d. 42 yrs old
1887. Father of fingerprint patterns who said 1895. Mustache and beard begin to appear in
that is there is possibility for two prints to be male at the age of.
the same it is 1:63,000,000,000. a. 14-16
a. Francis Bacon b. 13-15
b. Francis Galton c. 16 to 18
c. J.C.A. Mayer d. 12-14

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 1896. Menstruation usually commences at d. dermal
the age of? 1904. The morphological constituents of
a. 14 human hair are cuticle, cortex and medulla, is
b. 13 the statement correct?
c. 16 a. Partly Yes
d. 12 b. Partly No
1897. In a robbery case, close up photographs c. Yes
must be taken to show: d. No
a. Entrance 1905. It is the sensitized material that has the
b. Entrance and Exit primary function of recording the image that
c. Exit is focused upon it by the lens of the camera.
d. Either a or b E. Filter
1898. The development of breast in female F. Film
commences at the age of. G. Firearm
a. 13 to 14 H. Handcuff
b. 12 to 13 1906. Considered to be first scientific method
c. 10-11 of Identification in person done by measuring
d. 11 to 12 various bony structure of the human body.
a. Portrait-Parle
1899. In photography, when we say tripod, b. Photography
how many stands are there? c. Antropometry
a. 2 d. Anthropometry
b. 3.5 1907. The person credited for the discovery of
c. 4 the two main layers of the friction skin.
d. 5 a. Alphonse Bertillion
b. Marcelo Malpighe
1900. The first police surgeon or forensic c. Herman Welcker
pathologist who performed the autopsy of d. J.C.A. Mayer
Julius Cesar.
a. Landsteinir 1908. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a
b. Zacchias seal carved from white jade containing the
c. Antistus name and the thumb print of the owner.
d. Hippocrates a. Tien Chi
1901. Used to see stains on clothes that are b. Tein Chi
invisible to a normal light. c. Tein Shi
a. Ultra Violet Photography d. Tien Shi
b. Infra red photograhpy 1909. He is known to be the father of
c. Macro Photography personal Identification having devised the
d. Micro photography first scientific method of personal
1902. It is an adjustable mechanism that Identification.
regulates the amount of light reaching the a. John Dellinger
film by varying the length of time, and it is b. Cesare Lombroso
considered as the door of the camera. c. John F. W. Herschel
a. Shutter d. Alphonse Bertillion
b. lens 1910. He took prints of his own palm twice
c. obscura with the lapse of forty-one years just to prove
d. view finder that prints do not change, except for some
1903. It covers the surface of the dermis with scratches due to old age.
blunt peg-like formation. a. Herman Welcker
b. Marcelo Malpighi
a. dermis c. J.C.A. Mayer
b. Dermal papillae
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji
c. papillae

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 1911. The person who used fingerprints in 1918. The person who used the system of
replacement for signature to avoid identification which was accepted by Spanish
impersonation among Indian native. countries.
a. William Herschel a. Juan Vucetich
b. Dr. Henry Faulds b. Henry Faulds
c. Dr. Francis Galton c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
d. Sir Edward Henry d. William Herschel
1912. He is considered to be the father of 1919. The word Dactyloscopy was derived
modern fingerprint. His system of from what word?
classification was accepted in almost all a. Greek word
English speaking country. b. French word
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry c. Latin word
b. Juan Vucetich d. English word
c. Alphonse Bertillion 1920. Is the science of fingerprint study,
d. Dr. Hans Gross which deals with the interpretation of one’s
1913. Makes a publication of a report personality?
describing the ridges and pores of the hand a. Dactyloscopy
and feet which was read before the Royal b. Dactylomancy
Society of London. c. Dactylography
a. Nehemiah Grew d. Dactylo-analysis
b. G. Bidloo 1921. Is an impression designed by the ridges
c. Hintze on the inside of the last joint of the fingers
d. Albinus and thumb on some smooth surface with the
1914. A system of Identification best used in aid of sweet or ink?
case of burned body. a. Dactyloscopy
a. Fingerprint b. Dactyloanalysis
b. Skeletal Identification c. Latent Print
c. Odontology d. Fingerprint
d. Photography 1922. Which of the following serves the
1915. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted importance of Poroscopy?
the first individual use of fingerprints in a. For determination of whether the
August 8, 1882, by using his own thumb mark prints belong to a young or adult
as a protection to prevent tampering with the person.
pay order he issued. b. For Identification of person
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier c. For determination of whether the
b. Gilbert Thompson prints was taken during the lifetime or
c. Capt James Parke after death of a person
d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores d. B and C only
1916. The Filipino who top the first 1923. Is that parts of the friction skin which if
comprehensive examination in fingerprint damage will constitute a permanent scar.
which was initiated by New York Police Dept. a. Epidermis
and FBI. b. Stratum corneum
a. Generoso Reyes c. Dermis
b. Isabela Bernales d. Stratum mucosum
c. Patricio Agustin 1924. He is considered as the Father of
d. Marcelo Bonifacio Poroscopy.
1917. Father of fingerprint patterns who said a. Francis Galton
that is there is possibility for two prints to be b. Marcelo Malpighe
the same it is 1:63,000,000,000. c. John Herschel
a. Francis Bacon d. Edmond Locard
b. Francis Galton
c. J.C.A. Mayer 1925. Is the scientific study of the tiny
d. Herman Welker opening across the ridges.
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 a. Podoscopy 1933. What is the tiny openings on the skin
b. Poroscopy from where sweat is excreted?
c. Chiroscopy a. duct
d. Edgeoscopy b. furrows
1926. Up to what deep a cut or injury will c. pores
constitute a permanent scar in a normal d. sweat glands
friction skin? 1934. That part of the friction skin between
a. less than 1cm the epidermis and dermis layer which
b. less than 1 mm responsible for the ridge formation
c. more than 1cm a. Generating layer
d. more than 1mm b. Dermal papillae
1927. Considered to be one of the most c. Sweat glands
notorious criminal in U.S who attempt to d. Dermis Papillary
destroy his friction skin with the use of 1935. Is the principle in the study of
corrosive acid. fingerprint which states that fingerprint is a
a. John Derenger reliable and positive means of Identification?
b. John Dillenger a. Principle of Individuality
c. Robert James Pitts b. Principle of Infallibility
d. Robert Joworski c. Principle of Constancy
1928. Are the strips of skin without coloring d. Principle of Permanency
pigment and without hair found on the palm 1936. What pattern type has the ridges that
of the hand and soles of the feet? enter on one side of the pattern and flow to
a. Epidermal skin the other side with a rise or wave in the
b. Papillary skin center?
c. Friction a. Loop
d. All of the choices b. tented arch
1929. Is the outer layer of the Epidermis layer c. plain arch
which covers the skin? d. exceptional arch
a. Epidermis 1937. In order for a pattern to be considered
b. Stratum corneum as loop it should have _______ridge count.
c. Stratum Sangum a. 1
d. Stratum musocum b. 2
1930. Is the scientific study of the prints of the c. at least 1
palm of the hands? d. 3
a. Podoscopy 1938. What type of a pattern possesses an
b. Chiroscopy angle, an uptrust, or two of the three basic
c. Poroscopy characteristics of the loop?
d. Chairoscopy a. Plain arch
1931. Is that appears as tiny black line with b. central pocket loop
white dots (called pores) in an inked finger c. tented arch
impression? d. accidental whorl
a. sweat pores 1939. What is the type of a pattern in which
b. furrows the looping or slanting ridges flows towards
c. ridges the little finger?
d. sweat duct a. loop
1932. What are the depressed portions or b. radial loop
canal structure of the friction skin (found c. ulnar loop
between ridges). d. tented arc
a. Pores
b. indentions 1940. A type of a pattern consisting of a core,
c. furrows delta, recurving ridge and a ridge count of at
d. duct least one.
a. radial loop
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 b. ulnar loop d. incipient ridge
c. loop 1948. What ridge divides itself into or more
d. tented arch branches that meets to form the original
1941. What type of a pattern consisting of figure?
two ore more deltas, one or more ridge a. bifurcation
forming a complete circuitry and when an b. island ridge
imaginary line is drawn from left delta to c. lake ridge
right delta it touches or cross the circuiting d. convergence
ridge/s considered as the most common type 1949. What type of a ridge is that which
of whorl. curves back to the direction from which it
a. plain whorl started?
b. central pocket loop whorl a. diverging ridge
c. double loop whorl b. recurving ridge
d. accidental whorl c. converging ridge
1942. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, d. bifurcation
what pattern is excluded in the combination? 1950. Is a point along the recurving ridge in
a. ulnar loop which the ridge curves inward?
b. plain whorl a. sufficient recurve
c. tented arch b. appendage
d. plain arch c. obstruction ridge
1943. The core and delta are also termed as d. shoulder of loop
_____? 1951. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a
a. inner terminus recurving ridge which has spoiled the inner
b. outer terminus line of flow from the inner delta to the center
c. focal point of the pattern. This is also found in the
d. pattern area second type of central pocket loop.
1944. A point on a ridge formation, in front or a. bar
near the center of the diverging typelines. b. appendage
a. Core c. uptrust
b. island ridge d. obstruction
c. delta 1952. Is the type of pattern in which the
d. convergence course is traced the line flow above the right
1945. What is the rule where there are two or delta and there are three intervening ridges.
more possible bifurcation deltas which a. meeting whorl
conform to the definition of delta? b. outer whorl
a. the one nearest the core should be c. inner whorl
chosen d. central pocket loop whorl
b. the one away from the core should be 1953. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare
counted
to other regular ridge which is not included as
c. the one which does not open towards
the core is counted a ridge count even if it has been cross by the
d. the one towards the core should be imaginary line.
counted a. ending ridge
1946. What is that spreading of two ridges b. incipient ridge
that previously running side by side? c. intervening ridge
a. Bifurcation d. enclosure
b. convergence 1954. What is that ridge that divides into two
c. divergence ridges and which resembles a fork structure
d. enclosure a. divergence
1947. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, b. convergence
fragment or a period? c. bifurcation
a. Lake d. enclosure
b. ending ridge
c. island ridge
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 1955. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and c. Fingerprint Fuming Device
feet during its infants stage which usually d. Inkless Inking Device
starts: 1963. Is an instrument used for clipping the
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life fingerprint card to avoid movement of the
b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life card during printing?
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life a. Card Holder
d. 5th to 6th months before birth b. Forceps
1956. Is the symbol used to represent a plain c. Carrying Case
arch. d. Fingerprint card clip
a. T 1964. Is a card used in recording and
b. A preserving developed latent print?
c. P a. Fingerprint lifting tapes
d. W b. Fingerprint transfer card
c. Evidence Identification tags
d. Post-mortem fingerprint Equipment
1957. It is the process of counting the ridges 1965. Is the type of an impression made or
which intervene between the delta and core printed on the card by individually rolling the
of a loop? ten fingers of the subject.
a. ridge tracing a. Latent Prints
b. ridge counting b. Rolled Impression
c. ridge tracking c. Plain Impression
d. ridge summing d. Molded Impression
1958. Is an instrument used for the spreading 1966. Is the type of impression taken
of the fingerprint ink to the slab? simultaneously and serves as a guide in
a. Fingerprint brush checking the proper rolling of the finger in
b. Fingerprint lifting tapes the card?
c. Fingerprint roller a. Rolled Impression
d. fingerprint card b. Plain Impression
1959. The fingerprint card used in recording c. Contaminated with colored substance
the subject print has a size of: d. Molded Prints
a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
b. 8” x 8” 1967. In taking prints of the subject the
c. 9” x 9” technician always instruct the subject to:
d. 8” x 10” a. Stand straight
1960. The fingerprint card used in court b. Cooperate
exhibit the card has a size of: c. Relax
a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½” d. Help the technician rolling
b. 8” x 8” 1968. One of the cardinal rule in taking of
c. 9” x 9” fingerprints of the subject is that fingers must
d. 8” x 10” be:
1961. Is a piece of plane glass or metal where a. Healthy
the fingerprint ink is distributed for b. Dry
fingerprinting? c. Moisten
a. Card Holder d. Oily
b. Fingerprint roller 1969. In taking prints of the subject what
c. Fingerprint transfer card fingers are rolled away from the body of the
d. ink slab subjects
1962. A chemical compound used in a. Both thumbs
conventional developing of latent prints b. All eight fingers
being one of the best methods that can be c. All fingers including thumbs
utilized by a fingerprint technician. d. All fingers except the thumbs
a. Fingerprint powder
b. Fingerprint Brush
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 1970. An instrument used to hold or secure b. index
fingerprint cards in taking fingerprint of a c. little finger
dead person d. middle finger
a. Card holder 1978. The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum
b. Spatula of the numerator and the denominator in the
c. Strip holder primary division is ____.
d. Forceps a. so that there will be an equal value
1971. When taking fingers for the purpose of b. to complete the primary div.
taking rolled impression the fingers must be c. to have a complete 32 numerical value
inked from______ to base of the first joint. d. for formality
a. a. Base 1979. What patterns are included in the small
b. Tip letter classification under the secondary
c. second joint division.
d. third joint a. Radial loop, plain arch and Tented arch
1972. Occupational problems such as acid b. Rdial loop, Unar loop and Arch
works, plasters, cement mixer usually causes c. Radial loop, Plain Arch and Ulnar loop
weak friction skin and such is known as: d. Radial Loop, Arch, and Tented Arch
a. Permanent Disabilities
b. Temporary Deformities 1980. In ridge counting a loop on the middle
c. Permanent Destructions finger what is the classification of 14 ridge
d. Deformities count.
1973. Is the term applied to a person whose a. Inner Loop
fingers are more than the usual number in b. Outer Loop
both hands? c. Medium
a. Polyfinger d. Small
b. Deformities 1981. What patterns are almost always
c. Polydactyl represented by a dash in the classification
d. Bidactyl formula except in the secondary division.
1974. Is the process of placing under each a. Ulnar loop and Plain Arch
pattern the letter symbols as a result of the b. Whorl and Arch
interpretation? c. Plain and Tented Arch
a. Checking d. Ulnar and Whorl
b. Identification 1982. It is a type of a whorl pattern in which
c. Classification when the tracing ridge flows below the right
d. Blocking delta and there are five intervening ridges.
1975. Three blocks after finger number 4 is a. Outer Whorl
what finger. b. Meeting Whorl
a. left thumb c. Inner Whorl
b. index finger d. Accidental Whorl
c. left index 1983. In the course of tracing a whorl
d. left middle pattern, once the tracing splits into two
1976. It is the division in the fingerprint branches the tracing will proceed on the:
classification which is always represented by a. next ridge counting below the
a numerical value depending upon a whorl bifurcation ridge
pattern appearing on each finger. b. upper line of the bifurcation
a. key division c. Lower limb
b. major division d. next ridge just below
c. primary division 1984. It refers to the number of ridges that
d. final division appears between the tracing ridge and the
1977. In getting the Secondary Division of a right delta of a whorl pattern.
given fingerprint from what finger does the a. Ridge Count
Capital letter is derived. b. Intervening Ridge
a. thumb c. Incipient ridge
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 d. Ridge tracing d. Both middle
1985. A Loop with ridge count of 16 in the 1993. In the case of a missing one digit in the
right is interpreted as ____, if the left thumb fingerprint card of a subject, said missing
has 17 ridge count. finger will be interpreted as.
a. Small a. Amputated finger
b. Medium b. Same as the corresponding digit of the
c. Large other hand
d. Exceptional c. Meeting whorl
1986. A ridge count of 17 in the left thumb is d. Outer loop
interpreted as ____ when the right thumb 1994. If in case that there were no loop on all
reaches 17. fingers, how will the key be obtained.
a. Small a. Ridge count of the first plain whorl
b. Large b. Ridge count of the first whorl
c. Medium c. No key division to derived
d. Exceptional d. Just indicate Dash
1987. What do you call a loop in the left 1995. In the event that same fingers of both
thumb having a ridge count of 17 or more. hand is missing what will be the pattern
a. Small interpretation of the two missing fingers.
b. Medium a. Plain Whorl
c. Large b. Plain Whorl With Meeting Tracing
d. Exceptional c. Dash
1988. What division in the fingerprint d. Same as the pattern of the next
classification is derived by ridge counting a fingers
loop and tracing a whorl on the thumb.
a. Key Division
b. Final Division 1996. It is the term applied to cases of missing
c. Major Division or cut finger?
d. Secondary Division a. Mutilated finger
1989. What division in the classification is b. Amputated finger
place at extreme right of the fingerprint card c. Fragmentary finger
represented by a numerical value. d. Deformities
a. key 1997. What will be the primary Division if all
b. final fingers are amputated.
c. Major a. 1/1
d. Primary b. 31/31
1990. Final Division is derived by getting the c. 32/32
ridge count of a loop or a whorl appearing on d. 16/16
the; 1998. What division will be left blank in the
a. Little Finger classification formula if all fingers are
b. Thumb Finger missing?
c. Index Finger a. Major and Final Division
d. Middle Finger b. Key and Major Division
1991. The key Division is derived by getting c. Major and sub-secondary
the ridge count of the d. key and final Division
a. ulnar Loop 1999. Menstruation usually commences at
b. Radial Loop the age of?
c. First Loop a. 14
d. First Radial Loop b. 13
1992. What Fingers are not included in c. 16
looking for a loop in the key division? d. 12
a. Both Index 2000. What type of a pattern possesses an
b. Both little angle, an uptrust, or two of the three basic
c. Both thumb characteristics of the loop?
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 a. Plain arch d. Green
b. tented arch
c. central pocket loop 2008. Which of the following are NOT
d. accidental whorl considered as the primary colors, EXCEPT.
2001. Is the process of counting the ridges a. yellow
which intervene between the delta and core b. Blue
of a loop? c. Green
a. ridge tracing d. Red
b. ridge counting 2009. The act of attempting to interpret the
c. ridge tracking character or personality of an individual from
d. ridge summing his handwriting.
2002. In assigning the numerical value of a. paleography
whorl pattern, what finger should be given a b. collation
value of 4 when a whorl pattern appears c. graphology
therein: d. cacography
a. left little finger and right thumb 2010. In Q.D it is the term used by some
b. right thumb and left little finger document examiners and attorneys to
c. right little finger and left thumb characterize known material.
d. left thumb and right a. exemplar
2003. If all the fingers in the right hand are b. evidence
whorls and all the fingers of the left hand are c. questioned
loops, what will be the primary division? d. disputed
a. 25/29 2011. In Q.D it is the term used when a
c. 24/28 person having the ability to write with both
b. 29/25 left and right.
d. 28/24 a. cacography
2004. What would be the secondary division if b. calligraphy
all the fingers at right hand are plain arches c. calcography
while all the left hand fingers are tented d. ambidextrous
arches? 2012. Which of the following are NOT
considered as the secondary colors, EXCEPT.
a. aA3a/tT3T a. yellow
c. A2a/tT2t b. Blue
b. aT3a/aA3t c. Green
d. tT3t/aA3a d. Red
2005. What division in the formula 2013. An interruption in a stroke caused by
classification is left blank if all fingers are removing the writing instrument from the
amputated? paper is called..
a. Major and key a. pen emphasis
b. key and final b. pen pressure
c. Key and primary c. pen jump
d. final and major d. pen lift
2006. The word Photography was coined by 2014. The term document came from latin
_____? word “documentum”, which means.
a. John F. W. Herschel a. write
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre b. to teach
c. Henry Fox Talbot c. lesson
d. Leonardo Da Venci d. paper
2007. What color will produced if r RED and
BLUE colors are combined each other? 2015. It is the extra deposit of ink in the initial
a. magenta and terminal stroke due to the slow
c. yellow withdrawal of the pen from the paper (
b. cyan
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 usually applicable to the fountain pen). d. 6
a. whirl 2023. How many security features are there in
b. knob the new 1000 peso bill?
c. sour a. 8
d. loop b. 9
c. 7
2016. The portrait printed in the 20 peso-bill d. 6
is 2024. The equipment is Forensic Ballistics that
a. Manuel Quezon measures the pitch of rifling is:
b. Emilio Aguinaldo a. Chronograph
c. Segio Osmena b. Helixometer
d. Apolinario Mabini c. Micrometer
d. Taper gauge
1463. A magnified photograph of a small object
2017. The only security features that the BSP
produced by connecting a camera with the
was portrait in the new 500 and 1,000 peso
ocular of a compound microscope is:
bill is.
a. Photomacrograph
a. optically variable ink
b. Microphotograph
b. optical device c. Photomicrograph
c. optical ink d. Photography
d. optically variable device 2225. A center-fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is
smaller than the diameter of the body of the case:
2018. It is Embossed “1000” denominated a. Rimmed cartridge
value at the lower right corner of the face of b. Rebated cartridge
the note changes color from green to blue c. Tapered cartridge
when viewed at different angles d. Rimless cartridge
2226. If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the
a. optically variable ink
lands have been worn down or through a bore is slightly
b. optical device
oversize or oily, the marks are called:
c. optical ink
a. Skid marks
d. optically variable device
b. Slippage marks
2019. What changes of color of the parrot in c. Rifling marks
500 peso bill and the clam in 1000 peso when d. Shearing marks
the note is rotated at 90 degrees? 2227. When two specimens are compared under the
a. blue to green comparison microscope at the same direction, the same
b. green to blue level, the same magnification and the same image, they
c. red to green are called:
d. green to red a. Positively match
2020. The new banknote of the BSP is made b. Pseudo match
of what kind of paper. c. Juxtaposition
a. abaca-cotton d. Drag marks
2228. In the United States, crimes are committed by
b. plastic-polymer
juveniles using home-made weapons generally referred
c. abaca
to as:
d. cotton
a. Freakish device
2021. The portrait printed in the 200 peso-bill
b. Zip guns
is c. Matchlock
a. Diosdado P Macapagal d. Flare guns
b. Emilio Aguinaldo 2229. A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from:
c. Segio Osmena a. Revolver
d. Apolinario Mabini b. Pistol
2022. How many security features are there in c. Rifle
d. Pistol & Revolver
the new 500 peso bill?
2230. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
a. 8
a. 730”
b. 9 b. 728”
c. 7 c. 729”
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 d. 724” 2239. It is the occasional or selective type of
2231. A complete unfired unit ammunition is inserted prostitute. She is usually a newcomer in the
into the chamber of firearm for firing is referred to as: business?
a. Bullet a. Door knocker
b. Shell b. Street walker
c. Primer c. Call girl
d. Cartridge d. skeezers
2232. Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a 2240. are the real professional type of prostitutes.
She works in regular houses of prostitution or
combination of:
brothels?
a. Pitch a. Door knocker
b. Twist b. Street walker
c. Lands & grooves c. Call Girl
d. Cannelures d. Factory Girl
2233 Class characteristics are determinable even: 2241. These are the part-time prostitutes. They have
a. During their own legitimate work or profession but
b. After works as a prostitutes to supplement their
c. Before income?
d. Never the manufactures of the firearm a. Door knocker
2234. The caliber is determined with the aid of: b. Street walker
a. Combined microscope c. Call Girl
b. Micrometer d. Factory Girl
c. Macrometer 2242. The following countries which comprises the
d. Manufacturer of the firearm
Golden Triangle, EXCEPT.
2235. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from
the crime scene will request the ballistician to a. Vietnam
determine: b. Thailand
a. Owner of the firearm c. Myanmar
b. Model of the firearm d. Laos
c. Caliber and types of the firearm 2243. Is a serial cheater who betrays his spouse or
d. Manufacture long term partner repeatedly?
2236. That science which deals with the motion of the
projectiles at the time it leaves the muzzle of the gun to a. philander
the time it hits the target is known as: b. prostitution
a. Terminal ballistics c. philandering
b. Interior ballistics d. prostitute
c. Exterior ballistics 2244. What do you call a prostitute who offers
d. Forensic ballistics services to female customers?
2237. That science dealing with the effect of the impact
of the projectile on target is called: a. gigolo
b. pimps
a. Exterior ballistics c. callboy
b. Interior ballistics d. Johns
c. Anterior ballistics 2245. A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a
d. Terminal ballistics drag factor of 0.70 leaves a skid marks of 20.6
meters, what is the approximate speed of the
said vehicle when involved in accident. .
a. 64 kms./hour
b. 54 kms./hour
c. 46 km.s/hour
d. 45 kms./hour
2246. This method of identification depends on the
ability of the witness to describe the person seen
committing the crime.
2238. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for a. Verbal description
illegal drugs? b. Photographic files
a. Lot Lizards c. Police line up
b. Hookers d. General photograph
c. Skeezers
d. Hustler

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 2256. Kind of recognition whereby the description and
2247. Criminals whose identity may be established characteristics maybe vague that identification is
background identification. difficult.
a. Known criminals a. Known fugitives
b. Unknown criminals b. Professional criminals
c. Convicted criminals c. Ordinary criminals
d. Unidentified criminals d. Unknown fugitives
2248. Compilation of known criminals available from
police files and records. 2257. The methods of determining and finding
a. Rouge gallery the best way to remedy the specific cause
b. General photograph or causes of the complaint or grievance
c. Police blotter refers to:
d. Modus operandi files a. Cross examination
2249. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is b. Grievance procedures
necessary. c. Investigative procedure
a. Loose tail d. Criminal procedures
b. Rough shadowing 2258. A type of informant reveals information usually
c. Close tail of no consequence of stuff produced from thin
d. None of the foregoing air.
2250. The best way to label clothing to be used as a. False informant
evidence is: b. Double-crosser informant
a. Place it in a pill box and label it c. Mercenary informant
b. Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining d. Frightened informant
c. Place it in a plastic bag and label it 2259. Clandestine operation in police parlance.
d. Tag it with a label a. Covert intelligence
2251. To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an b. Secret activity
interrogation room must be: c. Over intelligence
a. With no windows or views d. Surveillance
b. There should only be one door 2260. It is an art which deals with the identity
c. It must be sound proof and location of the offender and provides
d. All of the choices evidence of his guilt through criminal
2252. In this type of interrogation the investigator proceeding.
must have great knowledge of the case and is a. Information
preferable when the subject is not the talkative b. Interrogation
type. c. Instrumentation
a. Narrative type d. Investigation
b. Question and answer type 2261. Special crime investigation is more concerned
c. Stern type on:
d. Simple interrogation a. Physical evidence
2253. What should the investigator do to protect b. Tracing evidence
while in transport those collected evidence from c. Testimonial evidence
the crime scene? d. Associative evidence
a. Seal it 2262. Is a person who provides an investigator
b. Mark it with confidential information concerning a
c. Pack it properly past or projected crime and does not wish
d. Label it to be known as a source of information.
2254. Shadowing has the following purposes, except: a. Informants
a. To detect evidences of criminal activities b. Witness
b. To establish association of a suspect c. Informers
c. To locate wanted persons d. Confidential informants
d. None of the foregoing 2263. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to
2255. “A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his divulge information.
gun to the latter, as “A” pressed the trigger, the a. Interview
gun jammed and “B” managed to escape. This is b. Interrogation
an example of: c. Investigation
a. Attempted felony d. All of the foregoing
b. Frustrated felony 2264. A compilation of photographs of known
c. Consummated felony criminals, utilized in investigation for identifying
d. Consummated felony suspects in a crime.
a. Photographic file
b. 201 file
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 c. Rogue gallery 2273. The surroundings of the crime scene must be
d. Cartographic sketch photograph to show the relative location and
2265. This is an element of crime commission wherein distances.
one is induced to commit the crime. a. Environmental photograph
a. Motive b. Physical reconstruction
b. Intent c. Overview
c. Opportunity d. Over-all photograph
d. Deceit 2274. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No
2266. In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to scale, proportion ignored and everything is
eliminate the power of suggestion as a factor in approximate.
identification as a procedure how many persons a. Sketch
is needed in such a line-up? b. Draft
a. 3 to 5 c. Rough sketch
b. 5 to 7 d. Finished sketch
c. 7 to 10 2275. Most common reason in discharging informants
d. 10 to 15 a. Burn out
2267. It is the physical possibility that the suspect b. Too expensive to maintain
could have committed the crime. c. Lack of loyalty
a. Motive d. Reprehensible behavior
b. Intent 2276. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.
c. Opportunity a. Stylus
d. Deceit b. Pen
2268. Motive in giving information wherein the c. Ink
informant delights in giving information to d. Chalk
gain favorable attention from the police. 2277. A form of investigation in which an investigator
a. Competition assumes a different and unofficial identity.
b. Repentance a. Tailing
c. Vanity b. Shadowing
d. Jealousy c. Surveillance
2269. Employed where a general impression of the d. Roping
subject’s habits and associate are required. 2278. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing
a. Surveillance to talk.
b. Loose tail shadowing a. Narrative type
c. Rough shadowing b. Interrogation type
d. Close tail shadowing c. Question and answer type
2270. More advantageous because it permits d. Stern type
immediate changes of men and less likely to be 2279. Method employed by the police to deprive the
recognized. liberty of a person taken into custody.
a. One man shadow a. Protective custody
b. Two man shadow b. Detaining for questioning
c. Three man shadow c. Police restraint
d. ABC method d. All of the choices
2271. In this method of search, the searchers proceed 2280. Necessary to determine the appearance of the
slowly at the same pace along the path parallel to crime scene as well as the objects, what naturally
one side of the rectangle. At the end of the occurred and what were the circumstances of the
rectangle, the searcher turns and proceeds back crime.
along new lanes but parallel to the first a. Crime scene
movement. b. Physical reconstruction
a. Zone method c. Mental reconstruction
b. Strip method d. Reconstruction of the crime
c. Spiral method
d. Wheel method 2281. Paid informants
2272. In this method, the area to be searched is divided a. Anonymous informants
into quadrant and each searcher is assigned in b. Rival elimination informants
each quadrant. c. False informants
a. Zone method d. Mercenary informants
b. Strip method 2282. Most common type of shadowing.
c. Spiral method a. One man shadow
d. Wheel method b. Two man shadow
c. Three man shadow
d. Rough shadow
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 2283. A a. Time custody
rticles and materials which are found in connection b. Time disposition
with the investigation and which aid in establishing c. Time disposal
the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances d. Chain of custody
under which the crime was committed or which, in
general assist in the prosecution of the criminal. 2292. A declaration made under the consciousness of
a. Tracing evidence an impending death.
b. Corpus delicti a. Part of res gestate
c. Associative evidence b. Dying Declaration
d. Physical or material evidence c. Confession
2284. Instrumental detection of deception d. admission
a. Ballistic test 2293. Principles of science applied to law enforcement.
b. Fingerprint test a. Instrumentation
c. Questioned document test b. Forensic
d. Polygraph testing c. Legal medicines
2285. When the subject is in prone position what type d. Criminology
of search should be implemented. 2294. Evidence which offers least resistance to
a. Kneeling search decomposition
b. Standing search a. Blood
c. Floor search b. Semen
d. Wall search c. Saliva
2286. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the d. Hair
arrest. To discover weapons or evidences and 2295. The sketch shows the crime scene with its
determine the identity of the suspects. nearest physical surroundings.
a. Preliminary search of a person a. Finished sketch
b. Wall search b. Sketch of details
c. Standing search c. Sketch of locality
d. Floor search d. Sketch of grounds
2287. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft 2296. The explanation of any symbols used to identify
in an automobile, which has been stolen and objects in a sketch.
abandoned. a. Compass direction
a. Dashboard b. Title
b. Door handles c. Legend
c. Steering wheel d. Scale
d. Rear view mirror 2297. Such articles and evidences which assists the
2288. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk investigator in locating the suspect.
to the law enforcers in order to get more a. Physical evidence
information from them than he gives. b. Material evidence
a. Double-crosser informants c. Associative evidence
b. Mercenary informants d. Tracing evidence
c. False informants 2298. Objects or substances which are essential part of
d. Self-aggrandizing informants the body of the crime.
2289. That profession and scientific discipline directed to a. Corpus delicti
the recognition, identification, individualization and b. Physical evidences
evaluation of physical science by application of c. Material evidences
natural sciences in matters of law and science. d. Associative evidences
a. Chemist 2299. The primary consideration in transporting
b. Scientist evidences.
c. Criminalistics a. Markings should be placed
d. Toxicologist b. Proper turnover must be observed
2290. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense c. Avoid altering contents
are committed in one place. d. Proper packing to protect the evidence
a. Local crimes while in transit
b. Local action 2300. General rule in handling pieces of evidence
c. Transitory crimes a. MAC rule
d. Transitory action b. Right of way rule
2291. The number of persons who handle the pieces of c. Last clear chance rule
evidence from the scene of the crime and between d. None of the choices
the times of the commission up to final disposition 2301. In handling clothing used as evidence, the
of cases. stained areas are usually encircled. What is the
primary objective?
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 a. To show points of interest 2310. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of
b. To have proper marking transportation by stealing the vehicle and providing
c. To avoid contamination plate on it.
d. To prevent alterations a. Drivers
2302. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to b. Ripper
preserve the specimen? c. Wheelman
a. Formaldehyde d. Rover
b. Saline solution 2311. Refers to the standard arrow designating the
c. Alcohol north to facilitate proper sketch orientation.
d. Distilled water a. Proper north
2303. It is the surprise invasion of building or an area. b. True north
a. Assault c. Legend
b. Attack d. Compass direction
c. Raid 2312. A search method in which the searchers follow
d. Surveillance each other in the path of the coiled beginning from
2304. Primary requisite for conducting raids. the outside proceeding toward the center.
a. Search warrant a. Zone method
b. Raiding team b. Wheel method
c. Firearms c. Spiral method
d. Back-up personnel d. Strip method
2305. A public officer when not being 2313. Taking into custody property described in the
authorized by judicial order, shall enter a search warrant as a result of a search, to be
dwelling against the will of the owner utilized as evidence in a case.
thereof is committing: a. Seizure
a. Legal entry b. Detention
b. Violation of domicile c. Safekeeping
c. Trespassing d. Confiscation
d. Illegal entry 2314. A method of criminal identification
2306. A person undergoing custodial investigation whereby the perceptions of witnesses are
enjoy his constitutional rights namely: key and criminals are identified by
a. The right to oppose whatever accusation on depiction.
him. a. Verbal description
b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty b. General photographs
c. The right to remain silent, to counsel and c. Police line up
the right to be informed of such rights. d. Rouge gallery
d. The right to face his accuser in public trial 2315. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
a. Sprinkler
2307. A type of informant reveals information usually b. Fire pump
of no consequences of stuff concocted of thin air. c. Fire hose
a. False informant d. Hydrant key
b. Mercenary informant
c. Double crosser informant
d. Self-aggrandizing informant 2316. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or
2308. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are as a result of its reaction with other elements
committed in many places. promotes a rapid drop in temperature of the
a. Local crime immediate surroundings.
b. Local action a. Dust
c. Transitory crime b. Oxidizing material
d. Transitory action c. Pyrolysis
d. Cryogenic
2309. The primary job of an investigator is to 2317. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open
determine whether a crime has been committed, container at which vapors are evolved fast
in order to determine such, he must have enough to support continuous combustion.
knowledge of the so-called cardinal questions of a. Ignition temperature
investigation. How many cardinal questions are b. Kindling temperature
there? c. Fire point
a. Three d. Flash point
b. Four 2318. The temperature at which flammable liquid
c. Five form a vapor-air mixture that ignites.
d. Six a. Ignition temperature
b. Kindling temperature
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 c. Fire point 2328. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any
d. Flash point contrivance to start a fire.
2319. Minimum temperature in which the a. Fuel
substance in the air must be heated in b. Oxygen
order to initiate or cause a self-contained c. Heat
combustion without the addition of heat d. None of the choices
from outside sources. 2329. Refers to gases liberated by heat.
a. Boiling point a. Free radicals
b. Ignition temperature b. Flash point
c. Fire point c. Thermal balance
d. Flash point d. Thermal imbalance
2320. An exothermic chemical change in which a 2330. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire,
combustible material react with an oxidizing smoke and fire gases within a building or structure
agent. under natural conditions.
a. Thermal balance a. Free radicals
b. Thermal imbalance b. Pyrolysis
c. Combustion c. Thermal balance
d. Oxidation d. Thermal imbalance
2321. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light. 2331. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and
a. Pyrolysis its destructive capabilities is developed.
b. Combustion a. Initial phase
c. Detonation b. Incipient phase
d. All of the foregoing c. Free burning phase
2322. A chemical decomposition of matter through d. Smoldering phase
the action of heat. 2332. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
a. Pyrolysis a. The fire triangle
b. Combustion b. The fingerprint of the fire
c. Detonation c. Flashover
d. Oxidation d. Incipient phase of the fire
2323. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through 2333. An occurrence when the heat has brought the
unit area of the material with unit temperature combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition
gradient. temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst
a. Conduction or shooting forth light and flames.
b. Thermal conductivity a. Flashover
c. Radiation b. Backdraft
d. Fission c. Thermal balance
2324. A means of heat transfer when energy travels d. Thermal imbalance
through space or materials as waves. 2334. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase
a. Conduction of fire, it is a result of a sudden introduction of
b. Convection oxygen.
c. Radiation a. Flashover
d. Fission b. Backdraft
2325. It is legally classified as arson and set on c. Thermal balance
purpose with a motive. d. Thermal imbalance
a. Providential fire 2335. Which among the following is the primary
b. Accidental fire objective in investigating fires?
c. Intentional fire a. To determine its cause
d. None of the foregoing b. To prevent recurrence
2326. Malicious and willful burning of a building, c. To determine liable persons
defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788. d. All of the foregoing
a. Arson 2336. Reason why fire investigation is unique.
b. Providential fire a. It does not conform with regular
c. Accidental fire investigative procedure
d. None of the foregoing b. Unavailability of witnesses
2327. First element known to man by experience, a c. Fire destroys evidence
colorless, tasteless and odorless gas which supports d. All of the foregoing
life and fire. 2337. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of
a. Nitrogen God.
b. Hydrogen a. Providential
c. Oxygen b. Accidental
d. Neon c. Intentional
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 d. Incendiarism 2348. A form of static electricity of great magnitude
2338. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is
heat and oxygen. the most common cause of providential fires.
a. Fire a. Rays of the sun
b. Origin of fire b. Spontaneous heating
c. Fire triangle c. Arcing
d. All of the foregoing d. Lighting
2339. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what 2349. Most common source of accidental fire is related
burns. to:
a. Fuel a. Smoking
b. Heat b. Arcing
c. Oxygen c. Sparkling
d. Gas d. Overloading
2340. A means by which heat is transformed by a 2350. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire
circulating medium either gas or a liquid. within the room or throughout the structure.
a. Conduction a. Accelerant
b. Convection b. Plants
c. Radiation c. Trailer
d. Fission d. Wick
2341. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to 2351. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid
liquid. which is a contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
a. Specific heat a. Accelerant
b. Latent heat b. Plants
c. Heat of Combustion c. Trailer
d. Heat of fusion d. Wick
2342. Formed by the incomplete combustion of 2352. Most common reason of arson cases.
acetylene or natural cracking of hydrogen in the a. Revenge
absence of air. b. Profit
a. Carbon black c. Competition
b. Lamp black d. All of the foregoing
c. Soot 2353. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible
d. Black bone material.
2343. Matter made up of very fine particles and a. Spontaneous heating
condensed vapor as a result of combustion. b. Combustible gases
a. Fire c. Combustible dust
b. Flame d. None of the choices
c. Heat 2354. Refers to the preparation and gathering of
d. Smoke materials to start a fire.
2344. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation. a. Plants
a. Fire b. Trailers
b. Flame c. Accelerants
c. Heat d. Wick
d. Smoke 2355. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire
2345. The threat to arson investigators after fire has hazard.
been contained. a. Abatement
a. Backdraft b. Combustion
b. Flashover c. Allotment
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning d. Distillation
d. Falling debris 2356. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous
2346. Color smoke produced accompanied by red tarry materials with sufficient air forms lamp black
flames indicates the burning of what material? commonly known as:
a. Rubber a. Black bone
b. Nitrogen products b. Used petroleum
c. Asphalt singles c. Soot
d. Chlorine d. Black iron
2347. Which among the following is commonly used in 2357. The use of more electrical devices which draw or
fire resistant materials? consume electrical current beyond the designed
a. Asbestos capacity of the existing electrical system.
b. Diamond a. Overloading
c. Asphalt b. Jumper
d. Cotton c. Wire tapping
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 d. Arcing b. Calorific value
2358. One of the following is exempted from paying c. Fuel value
0.01% of the assessed value of the building: d. All of the foregoing
a. Schools 2368. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a
b. Department stores substance when it changes state from solid to liquid or
c. Hospitals liquid to gas.
d. Single family dwellings a. Calorie
2359. Enclosed vertical passage that extends from b. Latent heat
floor to floor, as well as from the base to top of the c. Thermal heat
building. d. Specific heat
a. Standpipe system 2369. Refers to gases that remain when the products
b. Sprinkler system of combustion are cooled to normal temperature.
c. Vertical shaft a. Fire gases
d. Flash point b. Combustion gases
2360. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire c. Oxidation gases
resistance rating of not less than four hours with d. Flame
structural stability to remain standing even if the 2370. Fires caused by human error and negligence.
adjacent construction collapses under fire a. Providential fires
conditions: b. Intentional fires
a. Post wall c. Accidental fires
b. Fire trap d. Incendiarism
c. Fire wall 2371. Primary component of wood
d. Firewood a. Fiber
2361. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local b. Cellulose
government for any particular establishment. c. Carbon
a. Fire service d. Pulp
b. Fire safety inspection 2372. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone
c. Fire drill pattern or fingerprint of fire is developed.
d. Fire protection assembly a. Incipient phase
2362. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to b. Initial phase
another. c. Free burning phase
a. Radiation d. Smoldering phase
b. Convection 2373. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support
c. Conduction the flame and carbon monoxide builds up in
d. Fission volume.
2363. The active principle of burning characterized by a. Incipient
the heat and light of combustion. b. Initial phase
a. Oxidation c. Free burning phase
b. Flash point d. Smoldering phase
c. Smoldering 2374. Most effective way of regulating vices.
d. Fire a. Continued police action by relentless drives
2364. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the in vice control
reaction takes place. b. Sincere and honest law enforcement
a. Endothermic reactions c. Both a and b
b. Exothermic reactions d. None of the choices
c. Oxidation 2375. Refers to persons who after prolonged and
d. Combustion excessive intake of alcoholic beverages develops
2365. Product of an incomplete combustion. physical and psychological changes and
a. Soot dependence to alcohol.
b. Charring a. Alcoholics
c. Ashes b. Liquor addicts
d. All of foregoing c. Drunkard
2366. Color of a luminous flame. d. Chronic alcoholics
a. Orange-blue 2376. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants
b. Blue which contains alcohol.
c. Yellow a. Liquor
d. Red b. Wine
2367. Refers to the amount of heat released during c. Booze
complete oxidation whereby the organic fuel is d. Vodka
converted to water and carbon dioxide.
a. Heat of combustion
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 2377. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses 2387. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to
of ill-refute whereby the business of prostitution is maintain the same effect.
conducted. a. Tolerance
a. Operator b. Physical dependence
b. Banker c. Poly drug abuse
c. Mama d. Drug experimenter
d. Pimp 2388. A dark brown resin that is collected from the
2378. Refers to a person who engages in sexual tops of potent Cannabis Sativa.
intercourse with another for hire. a. Marijuana
a. Prostitute b. Hashish
b. Whores c. Opium
c. Knockers d. Morphine
d. All of the foregoing 2389. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”,
2379. The procurement and transportation of women meaning sleep, what is the other term given to
from far flung places for immoral purposes. narcotics?
a. White slavery a. Opium
b. Prostitution b. Opiates
c. Organized crimes c. Morphine
d. All of the foregoing d. Heroin
2380. This place usually lodges several number of factory 2390. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana.
girls or professional prostitutes under the control of a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
an organized crime ring. b. Cannabis sativa
a. Disorderly houses c. Papaver somniferum
b. Furnished room houses d. Methamphetamine
c. Call houses 2391. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily
d. Massage clinics used as:
2381. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the a. Pain killer
means with which to carry on the gambling game. b. Cough reliever
a. Maintainer c. Stimulant
b. Conductor d. Depressant
c. Banker 2392. Who among the following acts as the chairman
d. Operator of the DDB?
2382. Anti gambling law a. Secretary of Justice
a. PD 1869 b. Secretary of National Defense
b. PD 1612 c. Secretary of Education
c. PD 1602 d. Secretary of Health
d. PD 1866 2393. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning
2383. Social causes of prostitution are the following, walking drug, it was brought to the Philippines by
except a Japanese tourist.
a. Broken families a. Marijuana
b. Poverty b. Cocaine
c. Anonymity of city life c. Shabu
d. All of the choices d. Opium
2384. Refers to a person having no apparent means of 2394. The most potent derivative from opium.
subsistence. a. Codeine
a. Gambler b. Cocaine
b. Prostitute c. Morphine
c. Vagrants d. Heroin
d. None of the foregoing 2395. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant
2385. Penalty provided for by law which punishes cultivated in Bolivia and first used by the Incas of
white slave trade. Peru.
a. Prision correctional a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
b. Prison mayor b. Papaver somniferum
c. Reclusion temporal c. Amphetamine
d. Reclusion perpetua d. Erythroxylon coca
2386. A person who manages or carries a gambling 2396. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose
game. chemical name is “Methy Dioxy
a. Maintainer Methamphetamine”.
b. Conductor a. Chomper
c. Banker b. Ecstacy
d. Operator c. Shabu
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 d. Heroin c. Drug
2397. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to d. Marijuana
circumvent legal restrictions. 2407. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration,
a. Designer drugs varying emotions, thought disruption and ego
b. Hallucinogens distortion.
c. Amphetamines a. Depressants
d. Methamphetamines b. Tranquilizers
2398. A law which prohibits government officials to c. Hallucinogens
enter and gamble in Philippine casinos. d. Stimulants
a. PD 1602 2408. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of
b. PD 1869 which leads to depravity, wickedness and
c. PD 510 corruption of the mind and body.
d. PD 483 a. Abuse
2399. Office that controls and regulates gambling. b. Vice
a. PAGCOR c. Addiction
b. PCGG d. Gambling
c. PACC 2409. A person who calls and takes bets from
d. PNP gamecock owners and other bettors.
2400. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance a. Promoter
among persons who have paid or agreed to pay a b. “Cristo”
valuable consideration for the chance to obtain a c. Banker
prize. d. Gambler
a. Gambling 2410. Most common problem encountered by the
b. Sport police in vice control measures:
c. Lottery a. Unwillingness of government officials to
d. All of the choices work against vices
2401. A bet or consideration placed on gambling b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices
games. c. Public apathy
a. Wage d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the
b. Wager acts
c. Prize 2411. The process of undergoing or producing gradual
d. Banker chemical change which later becomes sour or
2402. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as alcoholic.
much as 25% of the substance: a. Distillation
a. Hashish b. Fermentation
b. Codeine c. Ionization
c. Morphine d. Purification
d. Heroin 2412. A degree of intoxication wherein the person
2403. Amphetamine is a representative of good class becomes argumentative and over confident.
of stimulants known as: a. Slight inebration
a. Crank b. Moderate inebration
b. Pep pills c. Drunk
c. Knock-out drops d. Coma
d. Stick 2413. This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on
2404. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law conversion and fellowship.
on prohibited and regulated drugs. a. Aversion treatment
a. DDB b. Psychotherapy method
b. NBI c. Withdrawal method
c. PACC d. Program of alcoholic anonymous
d. PNP 2414. Oldest profession known to man which involves
2405. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, habitual indulgement in sexual intercourse for
melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions. money or profit.
a. Narcotics a. Gambling
b. Stimulants b. Prostitution
c. Depressants c. Addiction
d. Hallucinogens d. All of the foregoing
2406. Chemical substance which effects a person in 2415. Classy type of prostitute who engages in
such a way as to bring out physiological, prostitution to supplement their income.
behavioral or emotional change. a. Call girls
a. Alcohol b. Factory girls
b. Coca leaf c. Hustler
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 d. Door knocker A. Grapevine Sources
B. Cultivated Sources
2416. Usually operated by experienced madam, who C.Regular Sources
rent legitimate roomers to maintain an D.Cognitive interview
appearance of responsibility. 2445. What interrogation techniques when
a. Disorderly houses the investigator indicates he does not
b. Furnished room houses consider his subject’s indiscretion a grave
c. Call houses offense.
d. Massage clinics A. Sympathetic Appeal
2417. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of B. Mutt and Jeff
the world originated is located specifically in: C Extenuation
a. Thailand-Burma-China border D. Emotional Appeal
b. Laos-Thailand-China border 2446. It is a self-incriminatory statement by
c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border the subject falling short of an
d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border acknowledgment of guilt.
2418. Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made
from Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains a. Confession
meal altering ingredient. Which among the b. Extra-Judicial Confession
following is not an immediate effect of c. Admission
weed? d. Judicial Confession
a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate
b. Impaired reflexes coordination and 2447. It refers to Police files of Photograph of
concentration known criminals, their Modus Operandi,
c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external hiding places and names of associate
fear of losing control criminals.
d. Altered sense of time/disorientation a. Physical Line-up
2419. A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South b. Physical Show-up
American shrub. It is a central nervous system c. Geographic Sketch
stimulant. d. Rogues Gallery
a. Marijuana 2448. It is the general questioning of all
b. Shabu persons at the crime scene/ traffic accident,
c. Cocaine no need to recite the Miranda doctrine
d. Opiates A. Custodial Investigation
2420. A game or scheme the result of which depends B. Interview
wholly upon chance or hazard. C. Field Inquiry
a. Gambling D. Interrogation
b. Sports 2449. It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is
c. Tupada committed and is established by a series of
d. All of the above crimes under one classification.
2421. Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is A. Modus Operandi
difficult to control is that: B. Modes of Operation
a. The big demand C. Methods of Operation
b. The plant can be easily cultivated D. Pattern of Operation
c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the 2450. It refers to a person who gives
country information relevant to a criminal case
d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously about the activities of the criminals
2442. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one voluntarily to the investigator and who may
who is reluctant to divulge information? even be willing to be a witness.
A. interview A. Informant
C. interrogation B. Informer
B. information C. Mercenary
D. instrumentation D. Women
2443. It is what induces the criminal to act and not to 2451. Methods of Search whereby the
be shown in order to obtain conviction? searchers will proceed at the same place
A. intent along the path parallel to one side of the
B.desire rectangle.
C. motive A. Wheel search method
D. opportunity B.Quadrant Search
2444. Information gathered upon initiative of C. Spiral search method
the investigator from informants, vendors, D. Strip Search
taxicab driver, GRO, and others.
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 2452. Crime scene photographs are admissible b. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the
as evidence in court; it should be taken from crime scene and assist him with the
____. situation.
A. General View C. Call the investigator and inquire
C. Close-up view about his decision concerning the victim.
B. Mid-range D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the
D. General to Specific nearest hospital.
2453. It is the simplest and most effective way 2460. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti
of showing actual measurements and of is ____
identifying significant items of evidence in a. the property taken
their location at the scene. b. the fact that the crime was
A. Sketch committed
B. Rough Sketch c. anything of value
C. Final Sketch d. Intent of the suspect
D. Finish Sketch 2461. One of the elements of sketch wherein
2454. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the the graphical representation must indicate
scene of the crime and its environs, the ____ direction for proper orientation of
including neighboring buildings, roads, etc.? the scene.
a. Sketch of Locality A. North
b. Sketch of Environs B. West
c. Sketch of the Ground C. East
d. Sketch in Details D. South
2455. Elements of the Sketch: 2462. The following are the rules to be
a. Measurement and compass direction observed when intervening a witness,
b. Essential items and scale of EXCEPT:
proportion a. allow implied answer
c. Legend and title b. saving faces
d. All of the choices c. one question at a time
2456. During a custodial investigation, Jayson d. avoid leading questions
was subjected to physical harm by 2463. In case there is no other available means
continuously kicking and punching him in of establishing the age of the offender, what
the stomach so that the same may confess. should be done if he claims that he is still a
A. Coercion minor?
B. Physical torture a. Do not listen to his claim because
C. Duress probably he is already of majority
D. Verbal threats age.
2457. A person who killed his spouse but was b. Wait for the court to determine the
entitled to the benefits of Article 247 of the age of the offender
Revised Penal Code shall suffer the penalty c. Resolve the issued in favor of the
of: declarant
A. Reclusion perpetua d. Ask the social worker to determine
B. Death the age of the offender
C. Reclusion temporal 2464. 24. The desk officer upon receipt of the
D. Destierro crime incident shall have the following
2458. The Unit now charged with conducting duties, EXCEPT:
field operation and technical investigation a. Record the date and time the report
at the crime scene is: was made
a. PNP Crime Laboratory b. Immediately respond to the crime
b. Criminal Investigation and Detection scene
Group c. Made a synopsis of the incident
c. Scene of the Crime Operation d. Inform his superior officer or duty
d. Crime Scene Investigation officer regarding the report
2465. What is the area located adjacent to the
2459. Police Officer Athan is the first officer to crime scene where the briefing is to be
arrive at the scene of a shooting incident. he conducted and also the place where the
saw the victim lying on the pavement evidence custodian receives the evidence
sustaining multiple gun shot wounds, but collected during crime scene investigation?
still moving. What is the proper course of A. crime scene
action he should take? C. fixed post
a. Cordon the area and wait for the B. command post
SOCO team to arrive D. reception area
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 2466. In preliminary survey of the crime D. Lacerated wound
scene, the team leader performs the 2473. What is the means of identifying physical
following duties, EXCEPT: evidence in which the investigator inscribe
a. Takes down note to document initial date and time directly?
important factors A. marking
b. Makes a general assessment of the B. labeling
crime scene C. tagging
c. Photograph the crime scene before D. none of these
walking through the crime scene 2474. A knife found at the crime scene to be
d. Defines the extent of search area used as a evidence should be marked where
2467. What is the purpose of conducting final ____.
survey of the crime scene? A. At the tip of the blade
a. To determine whether or not the B. At the frame
processing has been completed. C. At the base
b. To turn over the scene to the Chief of D. At the handle
Police. 2475. What may be added to blood to preserve
c. To check all evidence gathered from for a week?
the crime scene. A. Sodium Chloride
d. To determine whether there is a need B. Sodium Fluoride
to request for additional personnel C. Sodium Dioxide
2468. After the conduct of final survey by the D. NONE
team leader to whom will the crime scene 2476. What is the most important part of the
be turned over? hair?
A. Chief of Police A. Follicle
B. PCP Commander B. Medulla
C. Investigator-on-case C. Root
D. owner of the place D. All of these
2469. Are all physical evidence found and 2477. What is the minimum number of hair
collected at the crime scene to be strands is needed?
transported to the Crime Laboratory? A. 10 strands
a. Yes, because they were collected for B. 30 to 60 strands
examination C. 120 strands
b. Yes, because the Investigator is not D. unlimited
allowed to take custody of evidence 2478. Mummification is a condition of arrested
c. No, because the SOCO Team has no decomposition due to the absence of
authority to bring the evidence to the moisture. It is common in hot dry conditions,
Crime Laboratory if the investigator usually takes ___ to form.
did not request A. 3 months
d. No, only those which require further B. 1 month
laboratory examination will be C. 6 months
transported. D. 1 year
2470. Once the crime scene has been 2479. A dead body was found and there is
thoroughly documented and locations of already presence of maggots, it indicates
evidence was noted, the collection process that the dead body was at least ___.
begins and will usually start with – A. 2 days
A. point of exit B. 5 days
B. fragile evidence C. 3 days
C. large objects D. 1 week
D. removal of cadaver 2480. The lifting or removal of a dead body
2471. Who conducts the final survey of the from the grave for the conduct of medical
crime scene? examination:
A. Chief Investigator A. Inhumation
B. Team Leader B. Exhumation
C. Chief of Police C. Autopsy
D. Investigator-on-case D. Interment
2472. This is produced by forcible contact on 2481. The purpose of the autopsy is to
the body by sharp edged instrument like determine which of the following
bolos, knives, and broken glasses: a. The actual cause of death of the
A. Incised wound victim
B. Punctured wound b. The actual killer of the victim
C. Stab wound c. The modus operandi involved
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 d. The motive behind killing b. Information identifies the
2482. 41. The method used to support a likely perpetrator of the crime
sequence of events by the observation and c. Information identifies witnesses that
evaluation of physical evidence, as well as will lead to the suspect
statement made by those involved with the d. None of these
incident: 2489. Paint recovered from the victim at the
scene of a hit-and-run may be particularly
a. Crime Scene Reconstruction useful in the investigation process because
b. Physical reconstruction the year and make of the car involved may
c. Mental reconstruction be determinable. The paint chips evidence
d. Any of the above collected should be ideally placed on?
2483. The purposes of a crime scene search are a. Clear plastic envelope
the following, EXCEPT: b. Clear plastic container
a. To identify the method of operation c. Small plastic bag
b. To analyze physical evidence d. Cotton
c. To reduce the number of suspects 2490. Which of the following is the primary
d. To obtain physical evidence source of evidence?
2484. In the course of investigating the house A. victim
where a stabbing took place, police find B. crime scene
what to be bloodstains on the front door, C. suspect
since the unknown perpetrator and the D. all of these
victim who may die were both cut their 2491. Which among the following is an
identities need to be established through essential element of parricide?
the bloodstains. How will the police collect a. by means of treachery
the stains? b. relationship of the offender with the
a. moisten a piece a clean cotton with a victim
saline solution and rub gently. c. relationship of the offender with the
b. remove the door and submit it to the witness
crime lab d. age of the victim
c. scrap the stain into white paper using 2492. In crime scene investigation, who
a clean razor blade determines its entry/exit?
d. blot the stain with a clean tissue A. the prober
soaked in alcohol B. SOCO
2485. The primary reason a finished sketch is C. COP
made from a rough sketch is for D. First responded
A. scale and proportion 2493. After developing the latent print found
B. future use at the crime scene, it is best to lift it first
C. accuracy and clarity then take photographs as a back record, is it
D.courtroom presentation a correct practice and do you agree with the
2486. What is the court process requiring a prober?
person to bring documents in his possession A. yes
to the courts? B. no
a. summon C. maybe
b. subpoena ducestecum D. It depends
C.subpoena testificandum 2494. What would be the best camera position
D. bill of particulars in taking photographs showing a view of
2487. What is the best method of collection what a witness might have seen?
evidence like footprints and tire prints? a. at 6 foot distance from the camera
A. Casting man
B. Dental Stone b. parallel to the subject witness
C. Plaster of Paris c. overhead
D. Photograph d. at the eye level
2488. Investigation has 3 I’s, to be precise 2495. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to
these are the information, scratch or engraved the initial on a collected
interview/interrogation and hard object is called?
instrumentation. Among of them A. Collection
information is deemed to be the most C. Scratcher
important because B. Luminous
a. Information involves the elements of D. Stylus
the crime 2496. As regards to the suspect, what will be
the purpose of interrogation?
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 a. To extract illegally the confession of a
suspect
b. To extract the information he
possesses
c. To extract a confession of admission
d. All of the above
2497. Before going to court, be sure to review
the ___?
a. Names of the suspect
b. Names of the witness
c. Number of the cases
d. Facts of the cases
2498. In collecting bloodstains at the crime
scene, prober must keep in mind that before
placing the specimen in a paper packet it
must be allowed first to ____?
A. Refrigerate
B. Air dried
C. Moist
D. Freeze
2499. Why is it important for a perishable
material to be preserved by the way or the
methods of preservation?
a. So that the evidence will not be
destroyed
b. In order that this evidence will reach
the court in the same physical
condition as when they were
collected
c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by
the acquittal of the accused
d. All of the above
2500. In police photography, when one say
tripod, the stand has how many legs or
vertical support?
A. two
B. four
C. one
D. three
2501. Pointed metal instrument is used to
mark bullet and empty shell for
A. proper and lasting mark
B. preservation
C. marking it
D. labeling
2502. Which of the following is not the
function of criminal investigation?
a. Identify, locate and arrest the person
who commits crime
b. Prosecute and convict the criminal
c. Identify, collect and preserve
evidence
d. Bring the offender to justice
2503. Below are serious crimes which leave
physical evidence, EXCEPT:
a. Homicide
b. Carnapping and arson
c. Sexual assault and robbery
G.S.T. 2019
d. Libel
2504. There are two robbers who broke into a
house and carried away some valuables.
After they left such house these two robbers
decided to cut or divide the loot already so
that they can go of them . So while they
are dividing the loot the other robber
noticed that the one doing the division is
trying to cheat him and so he immediately
boxed him. Now this robber who was boxed
then pulled out his gun and fired at the other
one killing the latter. What crime is
committed?
a. Robbery and Murde
b. Murder
c. Robbery w/ Homicide
d. Homicide
2505. If a person had an enemy and killed him
and after killing him, saw that he had a
beautiful ring and took this, the crime would
be?
a. Robbery and Murder
b. Robbery and Theft
c. Robbery w/ Homicide
d. Murder
2506. A committed robbery but during the
robbery he saw B a beautiful woman which
he raped it. But B. pardoned A, and they get
married. What crime is committed?
A. Robbery
B. Robbery w/ Rape
C. Robbery and Rape
D. NONE
2507. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped
the wall. The wall collapsed. There was a
small opening there. At night, a man
entered through that opening without
breaking the same and gets items there.
What crime is committed?
A. Robbery
B. Theft
C. Robbery w/ force upon things
D. None
2508. The Access Devices Regulation Act of
1998:
A. RA 8484
B. RA 7877
C. RA 7080
D. RA 8353
2509. If stolen goods such as laptops and cell
phones are found in your house by the
police, then it is ____.
a. Prima facie evidence of Fencing
b. Prima facie evidence of theft
c. Conclusive Evidence of Theft
d. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing
2510. The following are the grounds to execute
a Lawful warrantless arrest EXCEPT:
A. Seized in “Plain view”
Page 148 of 262
 B. Customs search 2519. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and
C. Search of a moving vehicle this was pioneered by Allan Pinkerton
D. None of the choices a. Every contact leaves a Mark
2511. After serving the search warrant, deliver b. modus operandi
immediately the things or property seized to c. shadowing
the ____ together with an inventory duly d. casing
verified under oath. 2520. The fact that no physical evidence was
a. Judge who issued the warrant found at the scene of the crime will most
b. Prosecution Counsel likely mean that –
c. Requesting Party a. the victim cleaned up before the
d. Any of these police arrived
2512. The validity period of Search Warrant is b. the suspect was professional
____. c. the suspect was juvenile
A. 10 days d. the police probably did not conduct a
B. No time Limit complete search for evidence.
C. 15 days 2521. During an interview, planning is
D. NONE important and must follow the order of time
2513. The taking of a person into custody in and bring out facts orderly as they
the manner authorized by law for the happened, this technique is called –
purpose of presenting that person before a. chronological questioning
the court to answer for the commission of a b. psychological questioning
crime. c. physical questioning
d. None of these
2522. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a
A. Search “foreign territory” such as the investigator
B. Arrest room at the police station because the place
C. Initial Contact –
D. Warrant of Arrest a. Is comfortable to the suspect
2514. Who shall issue a Search Warrant? b. Is familiar to the suspect
A. Judge c. Provides food and cigarette to the
B. Executive Branch investigator
C. Investigator on Case d. Intimidates the suspect
D. Prober 2523. When a police officer finds a tool at the
2515. All but one are the instances you can crime scene, he should first of all –
execute a lawful warrantless arrest. a. Pick it up for a closer examination,
A. Flagrante Delicto taking care not to jar
B. Escaped prisoner b. wait until the crime scene has been
C. Hot pursuit Principle sketched, photographed and
D. None of these measurements taken before he
2516. Physical evidence is generally given collects the evidence
weight the courts because- c. immediately collects it and always
a. it speaks for itself sends it to the Crime Laboratory for
b. it cannot lie specific examination
c. not affected by emotion d. Compare the following edge of the
d. all of the choices took with impression to determine if
2517. Physical or personal appearance is this was the tool used in crime
important when testifying in court because 2524. All of the following are generally
– accepted rules of behavior that should be
a. it will determine the quality of your followed by police officer first arriving at the
testimony crime scene of a murder committed indoors,
b. it will determine the quantity of your EXCEPT –
testimony a. Try to keep witnesses separated
c. it will affect the weight given to your b. Record the time of discovery of the
testimony by the court crime
d. it will reduce the chances of the c. Discus the crime with persons who
defense witness the incident
2518. What does DNA stand for? d. Notify the superior officer as quickly
a. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid as possible but do not leave the scene
b. Deoxyribunucleic Acid unguarded while doing so
c. Deoxyribonucleic Acid 2525. The primary reason for conducting a
d. Deoxyribunucliec Acid search in the crime scene is to –
Page 149 of 262
G.S.T. 2019
 a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
c. Undercover hidden evidence
d. Determine the criminals method of
operation
2526. Marking of evidence, as far as
practicable, should be made on the item
itself upon collection, in a place least likely
to affect the appearance of its -
A. Physical Integrity
B. Evidentiary
C. Legal Integrity
D. Integrity and Identity
2527. In pursuing a criminal and when it
appears that the pursuit is not possible,
what should you not do?
a. Better use your time and efforts to
alert another unit
b. Forego the pursuit and keep on what
you are formerly doing
c. Inform the dispatched of the unit
d. Use radio for possible active pursuit
in coordination with other police
units
2528. This situation takes place when a police
officer induced a person to commit a crime
and arrest him after the commission of the
crime.
A. Instigation
B. Search
C. Recidivism
D. Entrapment
2529. The investigator who collects physical
evidence should take it to the laboratory by
himself whenever this is possible,
otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from
each person to whom he gives or receives
evidence. This statement is applicable to –
a. Chain of custody of evidence
b. Cardinal rules in investigation
c. Three tools in investigation
d. To establish the guilt of the accused
2530. It is the duty of the officer who first
arrives at the crime scene.
a. Locate and apprehend the accused
b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt
2531. These are some of the investigative
activities in a homicide case, EXCEPT:
a. record the crime scene through
notes, photographs, and sketches
b. recognizes, collect, and preserves all
physical evidences and clue materials
c. establish the cause and the manner
of death of the victim
d. alleged suspicion as they initially
appear to the investigators
G.S.T. 2019
2532. Another set of the investigative activities
in a homicide case, are the following,
EXCEPT:
a. determine the categories and modes
of death
b. seek additional information by
interviewing witness
c. ascertaining the motive of the
suspect
d. questioning the suspect after
explaining his rights
2533. White-collar crimes are generally very
difficult to prevent and when detected or
reported, they pose many ____.
a. investigative difficulties
b. investigative tasks
c. investigative problems
d. investigative burden
2534. To secure conviction of white-collar
criminals, the investigator must develop
___, eh must also remember that the victim
may suddenly lose interest in aiding
prosecution.
a. every phase of the case
b. contingency of case
c. friendly atmosphere
d. rapport with victim
2535. The following are characteristics of
organized crime, EXCEPT:
a. close-knit nature of its membership
b. their elaborate planning and lack of
impulsiveness
c. violence and intimidation are
common tools
d. basically a street gang with criminal
skills
2536. The following statements, answers the
questions “when” and “how” rape can be
committed, EXCEPT:
a. sexual assault by inserting penis into
another person’s mouth
b. inserting any instrument or object
into the genital or anal orifice or
another person
c. committed under all the elements
enumerated by Art. 324 of the
Revised Penal Code
d. rape case is a crime against chastity
2537. Rape is committed under any of the
following circumstance, EXCEPT:
a. through the use of force, threat or
intimidation
b. when the offended party is deprived
of reasons or otherwise unconscious
c. by means of fraudulent machinations
or grave abuse of authority
d. it is an exclusive offense committed
by man to a woman
2538. As provided by the Revised Penal Code,
robbery is divided into two different
Page 150 of 262
 classifications, one is robbery by the use of
force upon things, and the other is:
a. robbery with violence, or
intimidation of person
b. taking of personal property belonging
to another
c. with intent, to gain and to possess the
property
d. pre-conceived plans and unexpected
opportunity
2539. The following are the elements of the
crime robbery, EXCEPT:
a. personal property belonging to
another
b. the taking must be with intent to gain
c. there is violence or intimidation of
any person
d. it engender fear and quality of life
2540. The most likely place to look for
fingerprints of the thief in an automobile
which has been stolen and abandoned is on
A. Door handles
C. Steering wheel
B. Rear view mirror
D. Dashboard
2541. If criminal investigation is a process,
after identifying then collecting information
and evidences, the next logical step to do is
a. presents them in court
b. preserves their legal integrity
c. evaluate their strength in establishing
proof
d. recognize their importance in the
case
2542. During a quarrel on a crowded street of
Avenida, one man, stabs another and flees.
PO1 Lim policeman arriving at the scene a
short time later finds the victim
unconscious, calls for an ambulance and
orders the crowd to leave. His action was
a. bad; there may have been witnesses
to the assault among the crowd
b. good; it is proper first aid procedure
to give an injured person room and
air
c. bad; the assailant is probably among
the crowd
d. good; a crowd may destroy needed
evidence
e. bad; it is poor public relations for the
police to order people about
needlessly.
2543. The correct order of a crime scene
analysis is:
a. sketch, search, photograph
b. search, sketch, photograph
c. photograph, search, sketch
d. photograph, sketch, search
G.S.T. 2019
2544. It is often important to know the time of
death. The reasons offered to this are as
follows, EXCEPT:
a. to question individual who last talk
with the victim
b. to look for flaws on a witness’s
account of incident
c. protect the innocent from malicious
allegations
d. to know what was occur and how did
it occur
2545. 1st Driver’s License is a matter of right
not only a privilege, 2nd Driver’s License is
issued to a person, who has all the
qualification as provided by law, 3rd Driver’s
License is a public document
a. The 1st and 2nd statements are
incorrect
b. The 1st and 3rd statements are correct
c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
d. All statements are correct
2546. Which of the following is not a function
of warning symbol?
a. To call the decrease of speed
b. To seek carefulness on the part of
motorist of the approaching danger
c. To direct motorist along the establish
direction
d. To notify traffic units an approaching
hazardous circumstance either on or
adjacent to road
2547. 106. These are the functions of guide
signs, EXCEPT:
a. To guide motorist along established
routes
b. To inform proper routes
c. To help him along his way to the most
simple and direct method
d. To call the diminution of speed
2548. 107. A number of traffic regulations
revolve around questions of right of way, for
practically purposes, one of the following is
the best definition of “Right of Way”.
a. The personal right to move from one
place to another
b. The privilege of immediate use of
particular section of highway
c. The way or place open to the
motorist and pedestrian
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a
space which at the time is occupied
by another vehicle
2549. It is intended to inform road user of
special obligation, instruction nor
prohibitions which they must comply.
A. Traffic Signs
B. Informative Signs
C. Regulatory Signs
D. Danger/warning signs
Page 151 of 262
 2550. A kind of road according to political D. Tunnel road
subdivision within town proper Right of Way 2558. City roads inter-link between
not less than 10 meters. municipalities and within the city with a
A. National Road right of way of 15 meters; what is the
B. Municipal Road minimum width of sidewalk?
C. Barangay Road A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters
D. City Road B. 1.5 to 1.8 meters
2551. It refers to a vehicles covered by C. 1.2 to 1.5 meters
certificate of public convenience or special D. 2.0 meters
permit issued by LTFRB 2559. It refers to enforcement actions which
A. Private consist of taking a person into custody for
B. For Hire the purpose of holding or detaining him to
C. Government answer a charge of law violation before a
D. Diplomatic court.
2552. Professional and non-professional A. Arrest
driver’s license is valid for ___ from the date B. Traffic Arrest
of issuance and renewable every birth C. Traffic Citation
month. D. Traffic Warning
A. 18 Months 2560. Holder of student driver’s permit for the
B.36 Months period of not less than ___ can apply for
C. 24 Months non-professional driver’s license
D.12 Months A. 150 Days
2553. It is any accident occurring on a public B. 180 Days
traffic way involving persons using vehicle or C. 60 Days
transportation, but not involving a motor D. 30 Days
vehicle in motion: 2561. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results
a. Vehicle Traffic Accident in injury other than serious to one or more
b. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident persons:
c. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident A. Property damage
d. Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic B. Less Serious Injury
Accident C.Fatal Accident
2554. Which of the following law created the D. Non-fatal Accident
Metropolitan Manila Development 2562. When two vehicles approach an
Authority (MMDA)? intersection at approximately the same
A. RA 8750 time, which shall give the right of way:
B .RA 7924 a. The vehicle coming from the right
C. RA 8749 b. Vehicle from the center
D. PD 96 c. The vehicle coming from the left
2555. The effectiveness of traffic law d. The vehicle that arrives first
enforcement program is best measured by 2563. Which of the following consideration
which of the following: does not act as a deterrent to motorist and
a. A cutback of traffic accidents and pedestrian?
interruption A. Fear of fine and punishment
b. A amplify in traffic enforcement B.Loss of driving privileged
actions C.Possibility involve in an accident
c. A dwindle in the ratio of convictions D.Increase of insurance premium
to enforcement manner 2564. Human errors as one cause of traffic
d. None of these congestion is best characterized by, EXCEPT:
2556. 115. In an intersection not controlled by A.Poor legislation activities
lights or peace officers, pedestrian have the B.Lack of foresight on the part of
right of way the moment he starts to cross. pedestrians
A. Absolutely true C.Effective and efficient traffic officers
B. Partly true D.Slow drivers or bad driving habit
C. Absolutely false 2565 The following are NOT functions of Land
D. Partly false Transportation Office, EXCEPT:
2557. It refers to a modern urban system of A.Reparation of vehicles
roadway above street level for free-flow B.Registration and licensing
traffic. C.Rental and license
A. Expressway D.Licensing operating
B. Subway
C. Skyway
Page 152 of 262
G.S.T. 2019
 2566. One of the following statements that best
indicates the main purpose of traffic law
enforcement is:
A.reduce traffic by punishing B.violators of
traffic rules
C.keep traffic moving at a steady rate to
avoid bottlenecks
control the speed limited in densely
populated areas
D.prevent traffic accidents and expedite the
flow of traffic
2567. Most common defect attributed to the
human element in cases of traffic vehicular
accidents:
A. Intellectual
B. Perceptual
C. Decision
D. Attitudinal
2568. Statistically it is considered as the most
common reason for public utility vehicular
accidents.
A.Not observing the proper distance and
following too close
B.Unnecessary
C.Recklessness
D.Discussion regarding fare
2569. What is the general rule for the movement
of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left”
B. Safety First
C. “keep to the right”
D. “watch out”
2570. What would drivers do when an
emergency vehicle approaches displaying legally
authorized red light and sounding a siren?
A.pull aside and stop the car abruptly
B.continue driving slowly without regard
of the emerging
C.yield at the right of way and wait for
the passage of the vehicle
D.disregard the red light and siren
2571. As you are driving in a public
thoroughfare, you approach an
intersection with the traffic light with a
“green color” on but a traffic policeman is
standing at the center of intersection
conducting the flow normally. As a driver
you will ignore the traffic man and follow
the automatic traffic light-
A. True
B. False
C. Sometimes
D. It depends
2572. Term used for an operator or a vehicle
which strikes another vehicle, object or
person and left the scene without stopping
to identify himself or render aid
A. hit and run
B. third party liability
C. reckless driving
D. side sweeper
G.S.T. 2019
2573. A systematic examination of all the facts
relating to conditions, actions and physical
features associated with motor collision or
accident –
A.traffic engineering
B.traffic accident investigation
C.reckless driving
D.hit and run
2574. A public officials, law enforcement
officers or anybody who are not a member
of the organization who can helps the
organization
A. Enforcer
B. Capo
C. Corrupter
D. Corruptee
2575. What type of OCG which is manned by
semi-organized individual with the end
view of attaining psychological gratification
such as adolescent gangs.
A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
B.Political Graft
C.Predatory Organized Crime
D.Syndicated Organized Crime
2576. A continuing illegal activity of group of
person which is primarily concerned with
the generation of profits, irrespective of
national boundaries as a result of
globalization.
A.Transnational Organized Crime
B.Transnational Crime
C.Organized Criminal Group
D.NONE
2577. What category of terrorist group which
is What category of terrorist group which is
dedicated to overthrow an established
order and replacing it with a new political
or social structure?
A. Ethnocentric
B. Revolutionary
C. Separalist
D. Political
2578. ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000
stands for?
A.InformationConnection Technology
B.InformationCommunication
Technology
C.InternetCommunication
Technology
D.Internet Connection Technology
2579. Economic crime is known as:
A.Blue Collar Crime
B.Wildlife Smuggling
C.White Collar Crime
D.Wildlife trafficking
2580. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten:
A. Terrorisme
B.Terrere
C. Rapere
D. Vestigarre
Page 153 of 262
 2581. It refers to the code of silence and group must have a membership of at least
secrecy code of silence that forbids Mafiosi ___:
from betraying their comrades to the A. 3 or More
authorities: B. 2 or More
A. Capo C. 4 or More
B. Omerta D. 5 or More
C. Jihad 2590. In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf
D. Ideology is formerly included.
2582. It was an event said to be the origin of A. Al Qaeda
conflict in Mindanao and for the B. MILF
establishment of Moro National Liberation C. MNLF
Front (MNLF): D. JI
A.Rizal Day Bombing 2591. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means:
B.Ninoy assassination A.Swords bearer
C.Black September B.Islamic Congregation
D.Jabbidah Massacre C.Father of the Swordsman
2583. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most D.The Base
wanted terrorist in the world who issued a 2592. These are the most frequent terrorist
“fatwa” that calls all Muslims around the acts, accounting for as much as 80% of
world to slay Americans and their allies. terrorist-related violence:
A. Abu-Abbas A. Bombings
B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef B. Assassinations
C. Ahmed Yassin C. Kidnapping
D. Osama bin-Laden D. Prostitution
2584. This refers to an attribute of organized 2593. This is also known as the Human Security
crime that their memberships have Act of 2007:
limitations based on kinship, criminal A. RA 9372
record, or similar considerations: B. RA 9160
A.No Political Goals C. RA 9165
B.Hierarchical D. RA 8294
C.Constitutes a Unique Subculture 2594. This is the country which believed to be
D.Limited or Exclusive Membership the origin of Mafia and Cosa Nostra:
2585. Organized crime differs from terrorism A. United States of America
in terms of their: B. Italy
A. membership C. Japan
B. motivation D. China
C. leadership 2595. An Asian organized crime that
D. networking represents mystical symbol in the form of
2586. This theory refers to those processes by an equilateral triangle representing the
which the community influences its heaven, earth and man:
members towards conformity with A. Yakuza
established norms and behavior. B. Triad
A. differential association C. Tongs
B. social control D. Born to Kill of Vietnam
C. anomie 2596. Chain of custody should be observed by
D. strain the investigating team of cybercrimes:
2587. It is a form of modern day slavery. A.The Statement is wrong
A. Human Trafficking B.The statement is true
B. Prostitution C.None of these
C. Drug Trafficking D.All of these
D. Sex tourism 2597. Internet pornography is punishable
2588. The crime of human trafficking shall be under E-Commerce Act of 2000:
qualified when: A.The Statement is correct
A.the person trafficked is an elderly B.Statement is wrong
B.the person trafficked is a special child C.either of the above
C.the person trafficked is a woman D.neither of the above
D.the person trafficked is a child 2598. Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet
cafes and cyber cafes, where majority of
2589. The convention held at Palermo Italy in cybercrimes are perpetuated, are legally
2000 provides that an organized criminal required to have permanent logs and
records of their clients:
Page 154 of 262
G.S.T. 2019
 A.The statement is true B. Sinilian Mafia
B.The statement is false C. Cali Cartel
C.Neither of the above D. Sacra Corona Unita
D.Either of the above 2607. It is a center created by Executive Order
2599. The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides No. 62 to establish a shared database
that telecommunication companies are among concerned agencies for information
legally bound to cooperate with the law on criminals, methodologies, arrests and
enforcement agencies in the course of their conviction on transnational crime.
investigation: A.Philippine Center on Transnational
A.The statement is absolutely correct Crimes (PCTC)
B.The statement is absolutely wrong B.National Commission on Anti
C.The statement is partially correct Hijacking (NACAH)
D.The statement is partially wrong C.International Criminal Police
Organization (ICPO)
2600. It is the maximum imprisonment for D.Philippine National Police (PNP)
violation of E-Commerce Act of 2000.
A. 20 years
B. 12 years 2608. It is known as IP address that changes
C. 6 years every time the internet accesses his ISP:
D. 3 years A. ISP
2601. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of B. Dynamic IP address
unlawful activity are transacted or C. Static IP Address
attempted to be transacted, to make them D. IP Address
appear to have originated from legitimate 2609. It refers to an act sending fraudulent
sources: mails or website pop-ups, to get victims to
A. Estafa divulge sensitive financial information such
B.Money Laundering as credit card numbers or social security
C. Anti-Money Laundering numbers.
D. Swindling A. Phising
2602. This refers to any distinctive mark, B. Hacking
characteristic and/or sound in electronic C. Cracking
form, representing the identity of a person D. Identity Theft
and attached to or logically associated with 2610. It refers to a computer program that can
the electronic data message: copy itself and infect a computer without
A. electronic key permission or knowledge of the user
B. originator A. Virus
C. electronic signature B. Trojan Horse
D. electronic date message C. Logic Bomb
2603. Only a computer forensic expert should D. Worm
search for any evidence contained in a 2611. What kind of hacker who breaks into
computer hardware. computer systems with malicious intent,
A.The statement is absolutely correct usually for some criminal purpose.
B.The statement is absolutely wrong A. Black Hat Hackers
C.The statement is partially correct B. Gray Hat Hacker
D.The statement is partially wrong C. White Hat Hackers
2604. It is an act known as the Access Devices D. Any color
Act of 1998: 2612. This terrorist organization in the
A. RA 8551 Philippines is known as “Back to Islam”.
B. RA 8484 A. Abu Sayyaf
C. RA 9160 B. MILF
D. RA 9165 C. Je naah Islamiya
2605. What is the name of the operation D. Rajah Solaiman Movement
launched by US Navy Seals that killed
Osama Bin Laden? 2613. It is a term used to describe a massive
A.Operation Geronimo weapon with the capacity to
B.Operation Jabbidah indiscriminately kill large numbers of
C.Operation Neptune Spear people.
D.Operation Merdeka A.Nuclear
2606. These are Italian Organized Crime, B.Weapon of mass destruction
EXCEPT? C.Anthrax
A. The Neopolitan Camera D.Chemical weapons
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 2614. Considered to be the oldest and the C.faulty electric wiring
biggest criminal organization in the world. D.unexplained explosion
A. Al Qaeda 2623. Why water is prohibited to quench Class
B. Jihad D fires?
C. Chinese Mafia A.water is not capable of extinguishing
D. Nuestra Costra the fire
B.there is the danger of electrocution
2615. What is the constant temperature at C.burning metals are too hot
which the vapor pressure of the liquid is D.explosion may occur
equal to the atmospheric pressure? 2624. Mechanical device strategically located
A. vapor density in an installation or street where fire hose
B. fire point is connected so that water with pressure
B. boiling point will be available to extinguish fire.
D. vapor pressure A. fire hose box
B. fire truck
2616. It is a combustion product and a C. hose reel
manifestation of fire when it is in its gas- D. fire hydrant
phased combustion. 2625. In scientific terms, the fuel in a
A. Flames combustion reaction is known as ___.
B. Exothermic reaction A. reducing agent
C. Endothermic reaction B. oxidizing agent
D. NONE C. cooling agent
2617. What type of Flame is orange-red, D. chemical agent
deposit soot at the bottom or a vessel being 2626. 236. This is the normal/ common
heated due to incomplete combustion and behavior of fire in a building:
has a low temperature. A.It only moves horizontally
A. Luminous B.It has a circular movement
B. Non-luminous C.It moves sideways while moving
C. Laminar vertically
D. Turbulent D.It has a circular movement while
2618. The cause of the majority of fire deaths moving horizontally
is ____. 2627. A sudden introduction of air into a
A. Infection closed space containing an oxygen-starved
C. shock superheated product of incomplete
B. burns combustion or oxygen-deficient free
D. asphyxiation radicals, may result to an explosion, which
2619. What kind of gas exists solely in the is called:
gaseous state under pressure and at A. Spontaneous ignition
normal atmospheric temperature inside its B. flashover
container? C. Backdraft
A. cryogenic gas D. Flash fire
B. liquefied gas
C. compressed gas 2628. It refers to the increase or rising of
D. nuclear gas amperage while electric current is flowing
in a transmission line resulting to the
2620. When heat is transmitted in circulating damage or destruction of insulating
medium, the method is called ____. materials, maybe gradual or rapid, internal
A. radiation or external.
B. oxidation A. Arcing
C. convection B. Induced Current
D. conduction C. Over Heating
2621. Which of the following does NOT fall D. sparkling
under class A fires? 2629. The most common motive for arson is
A. none of the choices A. jealousy
B. burning nipa hut B. profit
C. exploding gas depot C. spite
D. forest fire D. revenge
2622. Which of the following best illustrate 2630. Which of the following is “prima facie”
arson? existence of arson?
A.simultaneous fire A.inflammable substance found in the
B.thick reddish smoke premises
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 B.simultaneous fire in more than one 2639. A complete and detailed checked of the
part of the building structures and material involved in the fire
C.building insurance to make sure that every spark and ember
D.any of the choices has been extinguished and to have
2631. What is the process of raising the assurance against
temperature to separate the on-volatile A. Overhaul
from the less volatile parts and then cooling B. Rescue
and condensing the resulting vapor so as to C. Salvage
produce a nearly purified substance? D. None
A. combustion 2640. When firemen are working at the nozzle
B. evaporation of a hose they usually lean forward on the
C. distillation hose. What is the most likely reason for
D. condensation taking this position?
A.The stream is projected farther
2632. What is the instrument used to open and B.The surrounding air is cool making the
close a fire hydrant? firemen comfortable
A. hydrant key C.A backward force is developed which
B. key board must be counter acted
C. fire hose D.The firemen can see better when the
D. jumper stream strikes
2633. What equipment is made of trussed or 2641. If arson is only the means of killing the
solid beam where rungs are connected victim, the crime that you have to file is:
horizontally to the beam forming ascent or A. murder with arson
descent? B. arson with murder
A. rope C. murder
B. hydrant D. arson
C. ladder 2642. This kind of Fire extinguisher contains
D. nozzle chemical powder intended to fight all
2634. What are the cross members between classes of fires.
the beam and used in climbing the ladder A. H20
called? B. Liquefied
A. hangar C. Dry Chemical
B. beams D. Soda Acid
C. rungs 2643. All except one are aggravating
D. braces circumstances in Arson.
2635. Aware of the common modus operandi A.If committed with intent to gain:
of arson cases in our midst, which of the B.If committed with the benefit of
following facilities should you check? another:
A.Gift-wrapped packages C.If the offender is motivated by spite or
B.Electric switch system hatred towards the owner or occupant
C.Telephones of the property burned:
D.All of these D.If committed by a syndicate
2636. The clearing of smoke and heated gases E.None of the Above
at the highest point of the roof is referred 2644. What color of smoke is present when the
to as: materials burning are Phosphorus,
A. vertical ventilation vegetable or hay?
B. cross ventilation A. Black
C. forced ventilation B. White
D. horizontal ventilation C. Yellow
2637. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect D. Blue
on a fire, the most probable extinguishing 2645. After the fire fighting operation and fire
method is: out has been declared, what is the first
A. smothering thing that a fire prober must determine?
B. fuel removal A.look for survivors
C. cooling B.search for debris
D. dilution C.locate the point of origin
2638. The most important element of Fire? D.established corpus delicti
A.Fuel 2646. Any liquid fuel with flash point above
B.Chemical chain reaction 37.80C (1000F) is a:
C.Heat A. Combustible liquid
D.Oxygen B. Corrosive liquid
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 C. Flammable liquid 2655. A kind of Drug users, whose activities
D. Volatile liquid revolve almost entirely around the drug
2647. A burned body found was subjected to experience and securing supplies.
autopsy; however examination of lungs A. Situational
and blood showed no abnormal quantity of B. Hard-core
carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be C. Hippies
your interpretation under such D. Spree
circumstance? 2656. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs
A.The person died because of asphyxia and are quickly absorbed by the rich
B.The person died because of the capillary system, it is probably the second
burning most commonly used route of drug
C.The person was killed before it was administration,
burned A. Snorting
D.The person died not of fire but B. inhalation
because of suffocation C. oral ingestion
2648. What type of ladder is best suited for D. Injection
firefighting operation involving high-rise 2657. Among the countries involved in the first
building? important drug traffic route, which is
A. attic responsible for preparation for
B. extension distribution?
C. aerial A. Middle East
D. hook B. USA
2649. 257.What type of ground ladder which C. Turkey
contains only one section, it ranges D. Europe
between 12 to 16 feet.
A. Straight ladder
B. Attic ladder
C. Extension ladder
D. Wall ladder 2658. Which among the following responsible
2650. Highly flammable chemicals that are for producing almost 60% of Opium in the
used to facilitate flame propagation. world.
A. Plant A. Golden triangle
B. Trailer B. Golden Crescent
C. Accelerant C. Silver Triangle
D. Gasoline D. White Christmas
2651. Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober. 2659. What countries constitute the Golden
A. Witness Crescent?
B. Society A.Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India
C. First responder B.Peru, Columbia, Bolivia
D. Owner C.Burma, Laos, Thailand
2652. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines. D.Myanmar, Laos, Thailand
A. RA 9514 2660. It refers to the “the paradise of drug
B. PD 1185 users in Europe”.
C. RA 8294 A. Philippines
D. RA 8484 B. Mexico
2653. All BUT one are the basis of criminal C. Spain
liability in Arson. D. Lebanon
A.Kind and character of the building 2661. It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve
burned pain and often induce sleep.
B.Location of the building A. Sedatives
C.Extent or value of the damage B. Stimulants
D.Whether inhabited or not C. Hallucinogen
E.None of the choices D. Narcotics.
2654. The amount of drug that produces 2662. It is the most important alkaloids and
untoward effect of symptoms of poisoning. constitutes about 10% of the use raw
A. Minimal Dose opium.
B. Abusive Dose A. Morphine
C. Toxic Dose B. Heroin
D. Maximal Dose C. Codeine
D. Opium

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G.S.T. 2019
 2663. The drug taken from the cola bust plant F.all of the choices
Ertyroxylon coca. 2671. The Dangerous Drug board shall be
A. Cocaine composed of how many Ex-officio
B. Marijuana Members?
C. Papayer Somniferum A. 2
D. claviceps purpurea C. 2
2664. Opium subjected to Marquis Test will B. 12
run into ___ specs. D. 17
A. Blue 2672. Marijuana plant can easily be identified
B. Orange by:
C. Violet A.Its branches which occur at opposite
D. Red points on the stalk
2665. PDEA is headed by Director General with B.Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
the rank of ___ C.Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets
A. Assistant Secretary whose edges are serrated in shape.
B. Secretary D.Its pungent scent when matured or
C. Chairman fully grown.
D. Undersecretary
2666. What is the minimum age required to be 2673. What agency of the government
able to become a PDEA agent? supervises drug rehabilitation centers and
A. 16 drug testing networks and laboratories?
B. 18 A.Department of Interior and Local
C. 21 Government
D. s25 B.Department of Health
2667. The Academy shall be headed by a ____, C.Department of Justice
with the rank of Director. He/She shall be D.Department of Social Welfare and
appointed by the ___. Development
A. Chairman/President 2674. The term of office of the Chairman of the
B. Secretary/PDEA DG Dangerous Drug Board:
C. CSUPT/President A. 2 years
D. SUPT/PDEA DG B. 6 years
2668. The policy-making and strategy- C. 4 years
formulating body in the planning and D. co-terminus
formulation of policies and programs on 2675. The penalty imposed for possession of
drug prevention and control Dangerous Drug Paraphernalia shall be:
A. PDES
B. DDB
C. PNP Narcotics
D. NBI Narcotics A.6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine
2669. They serve as permanent consultant of of 50 to 200 thousand pesos.
the Dangerous Drug Board: B.6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a
A.NBI Director and PNP Director General fine of 10 to 50 thousand pesos.
B.PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief C.4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to
C.PNP Director and PDEA Director 40 thousand pesos.
D.Secretary of DILG and Secretary of D.6 months rehabilitation
Justice 2676. It is an act of introducing any dangerous
2670. If the clandestine laboratory is drugs into the body of any person with or
established in the following circumstances without his/her knowledge either by
such will serve as Aggravating injection inhalation, ingestion or other
Circumstances: means.
A.Conducted in the presence or with the A. Administer
help of minor/s B. Use
B.Established within one hundred (100) C. Dispense
meters of a residential, business, D. Deliver
church or school premises.
C.Secured or protected with booby traps 2677. Operation of drug syndicates are usually
D.Concealed with legitimate business made secretly that makes it detection quite
operations difficult. Various techniques were made by
E.Employment of a practitioner, its operator in concealing their activities.
chemical engineer, public official or A. Hide-out operation
foreigner B. Safe house
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 C. Clandestine Operation
D. Drug Syndicate
2678. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act
took effect on:
A. June 7, 2002
B. July 4, 2002
C. July 30, 2002
D. June 18, 2003
2679. The following shall undergo Mandatory
Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165,
EXCEPT
A.Officers and Employee of public and
private offices.
B.Applicant for firearms license and for
permit to carry firearms outside
residence
C.Officers and Members of the Military,
police and other law enforcement
agencies
D.All candidates for public office
whether appointed or elected both in
national or local government units.
E.All persons charged before the
prosecutor’s office with a criminal
offense having an imposable penalty of
not less than six (6) years and one (1)
day.
2680. Apprehending team having initial
custody and control of dangerous drugs or
controlled of chemical, or plant sources of
dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment
shall immediately after seizure, physical
inventory and photograph the same in the
presence of the following, EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items
were confiscated or his representative
or counsel.
B.A representative from the media.
C.A representative from the DOJ.
D.Any elected public official.
E.None of the choices
2681. Apprehending team having
initial custody and control of dangerous
drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory
equipment shall immediately after seizure,
physical inventory and photograph the
same in the presence of the following,
EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items
were confiscated or his representative
or counsel
B.A representative from the media
C.A representative from the DOJ
D.Any elected public official
E.None of the choices
2682. In what quantity of specimen should be
taken by forensic examiner of drugs for
scientific analysis:
G.S.T. 2019
A.Not more than five (5) grams per
package/bag
B.Not more than three (3) tablets for
capsules or tables
C.Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid
solution
D.Not more than ten (10 grams) for
dried leaves and not more than 2 plants.
E.All of the choices
2683. The following shall not be subject to
Mandatory Drug Testing EXCEPT:
A.Students of Secondary and Tertiary
Schools
B.Persons apprehended or arrested for
violation of the Provision of
Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act.
C.Officers and Employee of public and
private offices
D.A and C only
2684. Preliminary Investigation of cases
involving dangerous drugs shall be
terminated within a period of:
A. 180 days
B. 45 days
B. 30 days
D. 60 days
2685. An analytical test using some tools or
device design to validate or affirm the
result of a preliminary or screening test.
A. Screening test
B. Confirmatory rest
C. Physical test
D. Chemical Test
2686. The ____ shall designate special courts
from among the existing RTC in each
judicial region to exclusively try and hear
cases involving violation of RA 9165.
A. DOJ
B. Supreme Court
C. DDB
D. Sandiganbayan
2687. The law that penalized the use and
possession or the unauthorized sale of
Solvent Volatile substances is:
A. P.D. 1519
B. P.D. 1916
C. P.D. 1619
D. P.D. 580
2688. A laboratory examination is only
required to apprehend offender within 24
hours if the person arrested has:
A.Physical sign of drug abuse
B.Symptoms of Drug abuse
C.Visible manifestation that suspect was
under the influence of drugs
D.All of the choices
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 2689. Within how many minutes after intake D. Gambling
of alcoholic beverage is the absorption is 2698. After filling of the criminal cases, the
faster? court shall conduct ocular inspection of the
A. 20 to 30 minutes confiscated, seized and/or surrendered
B. 30 to 60 minutes dangerous drugs, and controlled
C. 10 to 20 minutes precursors within:
D. 50 to 60 minutes A. 24 hours
2690. It is the percentage of alcohol blood B. 30 days
which indicates that the person is under C. 72 hours
the influence of the liquor (alcohol)? D. 48 hours
A. 0.05 2699. That part of the body most affected to
B. 1.5 by heavy drinking are:
C. 0.15 A.digestive system and nervous system
D. 0.50 B.brain and veins of the body
2691. The person who manages houses of ill- C.the lungs and heart
refute where the business of prostitution is D.None of the above
conducted. 2700. Can a high school student be compelled
A. Pimp to undergo drug test?
B. prostitute A. yes
C. Knocker B. maybe
D. Maintainer C. upon circumstances
2692. The person is argumentative and D. No
overconfident. There is slight impairment 2701. SPO4 Mabagal intentionally failed to
of mental difficulties. appear as a prosecution witness during trial
A. Slight inebriation of the case against the alleged drug dealer
B. Moderate inebriation caught in buy-bust operation. What will be
C. Drunk his penalty?
D. Very drunk A.20 years and 1 day to life
imprisonment
2693. Persons who were found guilty under B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
the Section 70 of RA 9165 is ____: C. Life imprisonment
A.Qualified to apply for probation D. Death penalty
B.Disqualified to apply for probation
C.Allowed to apply for probation 2702. PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu
D.Not allowed to apply if the sentence is to their suspect and PO2 Tayson planted 1
more than 6 years and 1 day gram of shabu. Is their penalty the same?
2694. What drug is known as the “assassins of A. No
the youth”. B. False
A. Marijuana C. Yes
B. Ecstacy D. True
C. Shabu 2703. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum
D. None of these and subpoena duces tecum relative to the
2695. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but conduct of investigation involving the
more as a cough reliever? violations of RA 9165.
A. morphine A. True
B. cocaine B. Partially True
C. opium C. False
D. codeine D. Partially False
2696. When drunken person does not know
the intoxicating strength of the beverage
he has taken.
A. involuntary 2704. A dangerous drug which predominant
B. Intentional legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.
C. Habitual A. Ketamine
D. Coma B. Codeine
2697. Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of C. Anesthesia
which leads to depravity, wickedness and D. Sleeping pills
corruption of the mind and body. 2705. What penalty is provided for a Drug user
A. Morality for its 2nd violation.
B. Vices A.6 Months Rehabilitation
C. Prostitutions B.12 Months Rehabilitation
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G.S.T. 2019
 C.6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years D.seven years old and under
D.12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years 2714. Marijuana is also known as?
2706. It refers to the willful act of any person
of maliciously and secretly inserting, A. Coke
placing, attaching, or adding directly or B. Poppers
indirectly, through any overt or cover acts: C. Cannabis
A. Entrapment D. Morphine
B. Planting of Evidence 2715. Who will be punished of life
C. Instigation imprisonment in illegal drug cases?
D. Black mailing A. User
2707. It is the Agency of the government that B. Pusher
will take charge and have custody of all C. Possessor
dangerous drugs confiscated: D. Coddler
A. Maritime Police 2716. Most abuse drugs in the Philippines?
B. Dangerous Drug Board A. Marijuana
C. PDEA B. Shabu
D. NBI C. Cocaine
E. PNP D. Morphine
2708. “A” was arrested for possessing seven 2717. Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal
(7) grams of Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, behavior?
2012. Up to what time and date the A. Yes
arresting officers have to subject “A” to a B. No
drug test as required by the law? C. Sometimes
A.7:00 P.M., October 25 D. It depends
B.7:00 P.M., October 24
C.8:00 A.M., October 26 2718. It is very important to rehabilitate every drug
D.8:00 A.M., October 25 addict to?
2709. Which among the following data A. Reintegrate him to society
concerning photographs as evidence is B. Punish him
LEAST essential? C. Give him a lesson
A.date and hour which each photograph D. Incapacitate him
was taken
B.identification of the police 2719. In investigation, “corpus delicti” means body of
photographer the crime scene. Legally, it means
C.proof of ownership of the camera A. proof in the commission of crime
D.focal length of the lens B. body of the victim
2710. The primary reason a finished sketch is C. wrongful act
made from a rough sketch is for _____. D. none of these
A.scale and proportion 2720. Deals with the study of major crimes based on
B.future use the application of special investigative technique.
C.accuracy and clarity A. background investigation
D.courtroom presentation B. criminal investigation
2711. All except are object evidence that C. preliminary investigation
should be taken photograph individually, D. special investigation
EXCEPT? 2721. What is the other name for marijuana?
A. Knife A. rope
B. Semen B. grassland
C. stone C. weed
D. Gun D. leaf
2712. All are considered as emergency vehicle, 2722. Purpose of coordination prior to buy-bust
EXCEPT? operation regarding drug operation.
A. Police car on call A. information
B. Ambulance on call B. abuses
C. Fire Truck on call C. integrity
D. Physician’s car D. reliability
2713. Children who are prohibited to be 2723. The Miranda Law in the Philippine setting is:
seated in the front seat of any running A. RA 7438
motor vehicle: B. RA 8353
A.Seven years old C. RA 9160
B.six years and old and under D. RA 9165
C.under six years old
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2724. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a C. time of disposal
source of a prohibited drug? D. time of disposition
A. Marijuana 2733. The substance known as the “miracle drug” refers
B. Opium to:
C. Coca bush A. morphine
D. Peyote B. cocaine
2725. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of C. heroin
self-awareness and emotion? D. codeine
A. Narcotics 2734. The word hashish is derived from the name of
B. Stimulants Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashish refers to:
C. Depressants A. female marijuana plant
D. Hallucinogens B. male marijuana plant
2726. What is that state arising from repeated C. marijuana leaves
administration of a drug on a periodic or on a D. the marijuana resin
continuing basis? 2735. What drug is the hydrochloride of an alkaloid
A. Habituation obtainable by the action of acetic anhydride or
B. Drug dependence morphine in which the alkaloid base may be made by
C. Drug Addiction treating morphine with acetyl chloride, washing the
D. Physical dependence product with a dilute alkaline solution and crystallizing
2727. What classification would solvents, paints and from alcoholic solution?
gasoline which are examples of substances that are A. cocaine
sniffed to obtain intoxication fall? B. codeine
A. Depressants C. heroin
B. energizers D. paregoric
C. inhalants 2736. Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as
D. tranquilizers A. cocaine
B. marijuana
2728. What is the act of injecting or that means of C. opium
introducing the dangerous drug into the physiological D. shabu
system of the body? 2737. Is any agent which neutralizes, opposes or
A. Consumption counteracts poison or its effect
B. Use A. alkaloid
C. Administration B. antidote
D. Abuse C. emetic
2729. If a person devotes considerable time and effort D. titanic
in obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing about it
and using it to meet his problems and to escape from 2738. “Shabu” is chemically known as:
reality, he is – A. methamphetamine
A. Socially dependent on drugs B. methamphetamine HCL
B. Mentally dependent on drugs C. methyl amphetamine
C. Psychologically dependent on drugs D. methyleneamine
D. Physically dependent on drugs
2730. A derivative of opium 5 times more powerful than 2739. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops
morphine. of potent Cannabis Sativa.
A. amphetamines A. hashish
B. cocaine B. marijuana
C. heroin C. morphine
D. iodine D. opium

2731. The most important constituent of opium is the 2740. Scientific name for cocaine.
drug: A. cannabis sativa
A. cocaine B. erythroxylon coca
B. codeine C. methamphetamine hydrochloride
C. heroin D. methyl benzoyl ecgonine
D. morphine
2732. The number of persons who handle the evidence 2741. Analgesic or pain-killing substance that depresses
from the scene of the crime and between the times of vital body functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate,
the commission of the crime up to the final disposition and breathing rate. The regular administration of
of the case. narcotics will produce physical dependence.
A. chain of custody A. depressants
B. time of custody B. hallucinogens
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G.S.T. 2019
 C. narcotic 2750. Which of the following drugs produces the effect
D. stimulants of mood elevation, heightened alertness, and increase
2742. What is the method of introduction of drugs into energy?
the deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric A. Solvents
current? B. LSD
A. Topical method C. Shabu
B. Injection method D. Narcotics
C. Iontophoresis
D. Oral method 2751. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what
drugs are known as “downers”?
A. Hallucinogens
B. Barbiturates
2743. What part of the globe is the principal source of C. solvents
all forms of cocaine? D. cocaine
A. South East Asia
B. South America
C. Middle East 2752. Who has committed an act which is punishable
D. South West Asia under RA 6425, as amended, with a penalty range of
2744. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine reclusion perpetua to death and a fine of P500,000 to
originated in P10,000,000.00?
A. Columbia A. Pedro who is caught cultivating
B. India marijuana plants in a plantation in the
C. Mexico Cordillera.
D. France B. Julio who was caught for illegal
2745. What is the group of drugs that are considered to possession of opium pipes and other
be mind altering and gives the general effect of mood paraphernalia.
distortion? C. Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful
A. Sedatives medical prescription
B. Hallucinogens D. Pablo who maintains a den for the
C. Hypnotic illegal use of volatile substances.
D. Tranquillizers 2753. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the
2746. What drug is known as the “assassins of the central nervous system and are commonly referred to
youth”? as “uppers”?
A. Heroin A. Amphetamines
B. Marijuana B. Naptha
C. Cocaine C. Barbiturates
D. Shabu D. Diazepam
2754. What group of drugs is used medically as pain
2747. Which of the following refers to acute cases of killers?
withdrawal of drugs that causes serious physical illness? A. opiates
A. Psychological dependence B. Track
B. Physical dependence C. Shabu
C. Addiction D. coke
D. Withdrawal syndrome 2755. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of
2748. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from self-awareness and emotion?
injection of hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to A. Narcotics
A. liquid amphetamine B. Stimulants
B. Shabu C. Depressants
C. Heroin D. Hallucinogens
D. freebase cocaine 2756. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive
Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002, Providing Funds
2749. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and Therefore and for Other Purposes.
functions of drug use, the more a drug is used the more
it tends to A. RA 9165
A. reduce the need for the drug B. RA 1956
B. satisfy more than one motive or need C. RA 9156
C. increase the satisfaction of use D. RA 1965
D. give sense of well being 2757. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in
drug incidents?
A. Reclusion Perpetua
B. Life Imprisonment
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G.S.T. 2019
 C. Death 2769. The following countries comprises the
D. Fine Golden Triangle, except
2758. Who is the primary author of RA 9165? a. Thailand
A. Sen. Ramon Revilla b. Laos
B. Sen. Miriam Defensor Santiago c. Myanmar
C. Sen. Joker Arroyo d. Vietnam
D. Sen. Tito Sotto 2770. A term used to describe a place where
trafficked person are brought and forced to become
2759. These are the requirements during the conduct of prostitutes.
actual buy-bust operations. a. sweat shops
A. poseur buyer b. hotels
B. marked money c. brothels
C. all of the choices d. motels
D. none of these 2771. Founder of the Abu-Sayyaf Group?
2760. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies a. Khaddafy Janjalani
money for, or underwrites any of the illegal activities b. Hashim Salamay
prescribed by RA 9165.
A. employee c. Abdurajack Janjalani
B. caretaker d. Nur Misuari
C. financier
D. lookout 2772. It is correct to say that the world’s first
traffic light came into being before the
2761. What do you call a prostitute who offers automobile was in use?
services to female customers? A. No
a. Johns B. It depends
b. Gigolo C. Sometimes
c. Pimps D. Yes
d. Rentboys 2773. In planning for a traffic control program,
2762. What is the theory of organized crime which of the following is NOT a factor to consider
wherein the penalty of crimes must be severe in A.model of cars and vehicles
order to deter the commission of crimes? B.existing road /highway system
a. Anomie C.incidence of traffic accidents
b. Deterrence theory D.traffic congestion hazards
c. Rational choice theory
d. None of the above 2774. In interviewing persons involved in a traffic
2763. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal accident what is the primary consideration to be
drugs? taken by the police investigator.
A. Lot lizards A.Conduct each interview separately
C. Hookers B.Listen only to witnesses because they
B. Skeezers are not biased
D. Punters C.Listen to both sides
2764. Globalization refers to the rapid growth D.Conduct the interview jointly
and development of what culture? 2775. When two vehicles approach or enter an
a. Northern intersection at the same time who shall yield the
b. Eastern right of way as a general rule
c. Western A. The driver on the left
d. Southern B.The faster vehicle
C.The driver on the right
2765. Crimes consummated by the use of D. The slower vehicle
computers and other highly modern devices. 2776. When cruising on a four-lane two-way
a. Transnational crimes highway, slow moving vehicles should use the:
b. white collar crimes A.lanes 2 and 3
c. modern crimes B.outer lanes
d. cyber crimes C.inner lanes
2768. The following are transnational crimes, D.either the inner or outer lanes
except 2778. As a general rule, you should overtake on
a. drug trafficking the left side, except when-
b. gun smuggling A.the oncoming traffic is free from an
c. money laundering obstruction
d. illegal recruitment B.the opposite traffic is free from
oncoming motor vehicles
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G.S.T. 2019
 C.traversing on a two-way two-lane B.Arrow pointing to left
highway C.Straight arrow on the pavement
D.cruising along a four-lane two-way D.The arrow is pointing to the right
traffic way 2787. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while
2779. The double solid white line: observing the flow of traffic tries to attract
A.doesn’t allow lane changing attention of the motorists by keeping in full view
B.allows overtaking of traffic:
C.allows lane changing A. Stationary
D.allows parking B. Visible
2780. It is a wholly police responsibility and C.Conspicuous
entails looking for defects in the behavior of the D. Inconspicuous
motorists, pedestrian, vehicles and roadway 2788. Licensed person allowing limited number
condition. of passengers, freight or cargo in public utility
A. Apprehension truck or buses
B. Adjudication A. Operator
C. Defection B. Driver
D. Prosecution C.Conductor
2781. Traffic arrest can be made when the D. Pedestrian
following are present, EXCEPT: 2789. It is the separation of a traffic unit in
A to avoid continues violation motion from an object with which it has collided;
B. offense committed is serious the force between the object ceases at this time.
C. the violator will not attend in court A. Stopping
D. involved in vehicular accident B. Disengagement
2782. The following are the good ways of C. Maximum Engagement
searching the scene of hit-and-run accident, D. Initial Contact
EXCEPT: 2790. A friction mark on a pavement made by a
A.look over the grounds at what seems tire that is sliding without rotation. Sliding of
to be the point of collision wheels may be due to braking to collision
B.follow the path that the vehicle took in damage, or rarely, to other circumstances.
leaving the scene A. Skid Mark
C.study the objects the vehicle has B.Scuff Marks
struck C.Skip skid
D.established the identity of the vehicles D. Gas Skid
2783. These are the basic steps in traffic 2791. The place and time after or beyond which
accident-investigation, EXCEPT accident cannot be prevented by a particular
A.goes to scene as quickly as possible traffic unit.
B.Gassesses the situation and call for A.point of no escape
assistance B.point of Possible Perception
C.care to the injured and protect their C.Perception Delay
property D.Any of the above
2462 2792. Main cause of human trafficking.
2784. A general principle of traffic accident, a. lack of employment opportunities
investigation is to: b. poverty
A.Look for the key event that causes the c. corruption in government
accident d. organized crimes
B.Regard any unfavorable factor, 2793. Meaning of the phase Abu Sayyaf
existing immediately prior to the a. Holder of the sword
accident, as a cause b. Founder of the sword
C.Consider violations as primary causes c. Bearer of the sword
and any factors as secondary causes d. Keeper of the sword
D.Consider road conditions as limiting 2794. The other name given to the
conditions rather as causes UN Convention Against Transnational
2785. One of the following is exempted from Crimes
paying 0.01% of the assessed value of a building. a. Palerna Convention
A. single family dwellings b. Paterno Convention
B. department store c. Palermo Convention
C. hospitals d. Paderno Convention
D. schools 2795. A prostitute who solicits
2786. This marking on the roadway indicates customers in public places is called
that the lane is for right turn only: a. street walker
A.Two headed arrow b. Johns.
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G.S.T. 2019
 c. call boy. cultural goal but accepted the
d. whore. institutional means of achieving it?
2796. Placement is also called as a. Innovation
a. heavy soaping b. Retreatism
b. banking c. Rebellion
c. immersion d. Ritualism
d. spin dry. 2803. It is referred to as oldest and
2797. The Yakuza has the ritual of biggest criminal organization in the
putting tattoos in almost all parts of world.
their bodies. The reason is a. Mafia
a. their white bodies are very good b. Yakuza
materials to make drawings. c. Chinese Triad
b. it one culture of the Japanese to put d. Cali Cartel
tattoos on their bodies. 2804. The name given to a person
c. they delight in showing theother afflicted with a mental illness wherein he
members their tattoos. is sexually aroused by young children.
d. anybody without tattoos are expelled a. Pedophile
from the group. b. pervert
2798. The initiation of the Chinese c. Maniac
Triad consists of d. Pedophilia
a. placing a drop of blood of the recruit on
a photograph of a saint and then let it 2805. The former and original name
burn on his palm while reciting his oath of the Mafia
to the organization. a. Sicilian Clan
b. the recruit will drink the blood of a b. Code of Omerta
sacrificed animal mixed with his blood c. Mafiosi
and pass beneath an arch of swords d. La Cosa Nostra
while reciting his oath to the 2806. Moslem who participated in
organization. the Afghan war are referred to as
c. the recruit will put body tattoos and lift a. Jihadis
three fingers while reciting his oath. b. Fundamentalists
d. the recruit will drink the blood of a c. Mujaheddins
sacrificed animal mixed with his blood d. Holy warriors
and a picture of a saint will be burned 2807. Founder of the New People’s
on his palm while reciting his oath. Army of NPA
2799. What do the Yakuza do with a. Jose Mari Chan
their tattoos? b. Jose Maria Sison
a. Cover them as they are sacred. c. Jose Marie Gonzales
b. They undress to show everybody their d. Jose Maria Sioson
tattoos. 2808. A member of the Bar refers to
c. They undress only inside their house. this profession
d. They only undress during oicho kabu. a. judges
b. investigators
2800. What OPLAN was created by c. lawyers
the PNP as their campaign against most d. prosecutors
wanted persons and other fugitives?
a. Oplan Cleansweep
b. Oplan Criminal 2809. The year the UN Convention
c. Oplan Pagtugis Against Transnational Crimes was held.
d. Oplan Batas a. 2000
2801. 31. It is a type of anomie b. 2002
wherein a person who accepts the c. 2001
cultural goals to become rich but failed d. 2003
to accept the institutional means of 2810. The founder of the Moro
achieving it. Islamic Liberation Front
a. Rebellion a. Nur Misuari
b. Retreatism b. Khadaffy Janjalani
c. Conformity c. Hashim Salamat
d. Innovation d. Abdurajack Janjalani
2802. It is a type of anomie wherein
an individual does not accept the
Page 167 of 262
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 2811. The founder of the Moro 2820. It is otherwise known as the
National Liberation Front “Anti-Wire Tapping Law.”
a. Nur Misuari a. RA 4200
b. Khadaffy Janjalani b. RA 4002
c. Hashim Salamat C. RA 2004
d. Abdurajack Janjaalani D. RA 4020
2812. In the strategy of terrorist, 2821. Meaning of the term “Jihad”.
what is used for the people, government a. Holy War
and the world to know their aims? b. Holy Mass
a. Television c. Holy Cow
b. Newspaper d. Holy Ghost
c. Radio 2822. Founder of the terrorist group
d. All of the choices Al Qaeda
2813. Refers to the terrorist group a. Yasser Arafart
“Soldiers of God”. b. Osama Bin Laden
a. Abu Sayaff c. Abdurajack Janjalani
b. Hezbollah d. Abu Nidal
c. Fatah 2823. Standard rifle of socialist and
d. Hamas communist countries
2814. The most notorious and sought a. M16
after terrorist group responsible for the b. AK47
9/11 bombing in the USA. c. M14
a. Hezbollah d. Galil
b. Al Qaeda 2824. Terrorist group that operates
c. Fatah within a single state or country.
d. Hamas a. Transnational
2815. South America country b. national
principal source of cocaine. c. international
a. Brazil d. none of them
b. Spain 2825. The most wanted terrorist in
c. Columbia the world.
d. Chile a. Yasser Arafat
2816. Country which is 2/3 controlled b. Abu Nidal
by Hezbollah c. Osama Bin Laden
a. Israel d. Mohammad Alzawari
b. Gaza Strip 2826. It is entitled as, ”An Act to
c. Lebanon Secure the State and Protect the People
d. West bank from Terrorism,”
2817. The smallest terrorist group in a. RA 9372
its hierarchy. b. RA 9732
a. organization c. RA 9273
b. faction d. RA 9237
c. cell 2827. It can be defined as the use of
d. station force of the fear of force to achieve a
2818. Terrorist group responsible for political end.
the bombing of the US destroyer USS a. terrorism
Cole in Yemen b. violence
a. Hezbollah c. felony
b. Hamas d. criminal act
c. Al Qaeda 2828. Who formally organized the
d. Fatah Kuratong Baleleng?
a. Francisco Manuel
b. Franco Calanog
2819. One of the most important c. Fidel Ramos
components of terrorist-related d. Fajardo Sebastian
investigations is the collection and
preservation of what?
a. physical evidence 2829. An organized crime in the
b. witnesses Philippines which is made up of former
c. information MNLF and MILF rebels.
d. all of these a. A.Lexus Group
Page 168 of 262
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 b. B.Pentagon Group b. to provide evidence of his guilt
c. C.Abu Sayyaf c. to locate the guilty party
d. D.Ilonggo KFR Group d. to file charges at the proper
2830. The largest and most powerful court
triad. 2839. It is a type of search wherein
a. A.Su Yee On one searcher is assigned to each
b. B.14K subdivision of a quadrant. Tax evasion
c. C.Wo Shing Wo a. zone method
d. Sham Shui Po b. spiral method
2831. What numeric code refer to c. wheel method
the Dragon head of the chinese triads? d. strip method
a. A.438 2840. It is the simplest way to locate
b. B.49 points on sketch to give the distances
c. C.489 from two mutually perpendicular lines.
d. D.426 common
2832. What do you call the act of a. surveying methods
lending money in exchange of exorbitant b. cross projection
interest? c. rectangular coordinates
a. Tax evasion d. polar coordinate
b. Revolutionary tax 2841. It is existing between the
c. Sokaiya investigator and the subject, and it is
d. Loansharking usually determines the success of the
2833. What kind of vices are Lotto investigation.
and casino? a. rapport
a. common b. personality
b. prohibited c. breadth of interest
c. regulated d. the approach
d. unusual 2842. Usually, the conduct of
2834. What is the penalty of a person investigation must start with this,
using a diplomatic passport in importing purposely to develop rapport with the
prohibited drugs inside the country? subject, either the victim or suspect.
a. A.8-12 years a. opening statement
b. B.life imprisonment to death b. inquiry of subject
c. C.40 years to life imprisonment c. narration
d. all of the above d. sympathetic approach
2835. What are the two divisions of
Criminalistics? 2843. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and
a. Physiacl and metallurgical to increase mental and physical function
b. Scientific and technological a. stimulants
c. Biological and physiological b. Depressants
d. Biblical and Astrological c. Hallucinogens
2836. What is secreted by the d. Narcotics/ Opiates
endocrine glands which trigger and 2844. A drugs that ‘derived from
control many kinds of bodily activities opium’ and medically potent pain
and behavior? killers/ cough suppressants
a. A.Tears a. stimulants
b. B.Hormone b. Depressants
c. C.Blood c. Hallucinogens
d. Sweat d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2837. Who among the following has 2845. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs
the authority to conduct examination of reducing functional nervous activity.
a deceased person? a. stimulants
a. A.Medico Legal prober b. Depressants
b. B.Medical Justice c. Hallucinogens
c. C.Medico Legal Officer d. Narcotics/ Opiates
d. Medical Scientist

2838. These are the three fold aims of
the criminal investigator, EXCEPT:
a. to identify the guilty party
G.S.T. 2019
2846. It is also called ‘psychedelics’
drugs that causes hallucinations and
changes our perception, thought,
Page 169 of 262
 emotion and consciousness and physical 2854. It can effectively assist law
function enforcement agencies in combating
a. stimulants organized crime and terrorism.
b. Depressants a. family
c. Hallucinogens b. school
d. Narcotics/ Opiates c. NGO
2847. The following countries which d. Community
considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and
also considered as world’s top supplier 2855. A massacre that occurred June
for opium. Which of the choices does 4,1989, China wherein the pro-
not belong. democracy protesters was killed
a. Vietnam a. Tiananmen square massacre
b. Iran b. Beijing square massacre
c. Afghanistan c. Tienanmen massacre
d. Pakistan d. Tienanmen square massacre
2848. According to PDEA goal that 2856. A case of reckless imprudence
Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a
in year___? resident from Manila while the victim
a. 2035 from Quezon City. Where the case
b. 2025 should be filed?
c. 2030 a. Quezon City
d. 2020 b. Pasig City
2849. It is the PDEA campaign to fight c. Manila
illicit drugs with the participation of the d. either of the above choices
community. 2857. It is a willfully and maliciously
a. Oplan lambat sibat placing any dangerous drugs to implicate
b. operation private eye person to drug related crime.
c. operation public eye a. Buy bust operation
d. oplan galugad b. Instigation
2850. In the PNP what campaign was c. entrapment
created to fight against drug trafficking. d. planting evidence
a. Oplan lambat sibat 2858. September 11, 2001 tragedies is
b. operation private eye known as Intelligence_______.
c. operation public eye a. Invalidate
d. oplan cleansweep b. unsolved
c. success
2851. A fire just started only a very d. failure
small or insignificant portion of house
was being damaged. 2859. In investigation wherein a
a. Consummated arson Death appearing to be suicidal or
b. Attempted arson accidental it should be treated as?
c. Frustrated arson a. Homicide case
d. No crime b. Suicide case
2852. When a person sets fire to his c. Murder case
own property under what circumstances d. Any of the choices
which expose to danger of life or 2860. What is the penalty when a
property of another. person bringing into country of illegal
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to drugs using diplomatic channel or
damage of property passport.
b. Arson a. Life imprisonment
c. malicious mischief b. Life imprisonment-death
d. no crime c. death
2853. Burning of house was due to d. no penalty because of immunity
lightning as a result of his prayer.
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to
damage of property 2861. In E-crimes it is accessing in
b. Arson order to corrupt,alter,steal or destroy
c. malicious mischief information and communication system
d. no crime a. hacking
b. Trojan
c. virus
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G.S.T. 2019
 d. intellectual property 2869. A method of criminal
identification whereby the
perceptions of witnesses are key
2862. The vehicles should not parked and criminals are identified by
at these area. depiction.
a. Private driveway a. Verbal description
b. intersection b. General photographs
c. pedestrian lane c. Police line up
d. fire hydrant d. Rouge gallery
e. all the choices 2870. Instrument used to open / close
fire hydrants.
2863. What is the penalty when a a. Sprinkler
police officer failed to appear in court to b. Fire pump
testify in a drug case without justifiable c. Fire hose
reason? d. Hydrant key
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment 2871. Descriptive of any material when
b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment by its nature or as a result of its reaction
c. Life imprisonment with other elements promotes a rapid
d. Death drop in temperature of the immediate
2864. Most important equipment in surroundings.
traffic accident investigation? a. Dust
a. cellphone b. Oxidizing material
b. camera c. Pyrolysis
c. Manila d. Cryogenic
d. All of the choices 2872. Lowest temperature of a liquid
2865. What is the penalty when less in open container at which vapors are
than 5 grams shabu,heroin,morphine evolved fast enough to support
was confiscated. continuous combustion.
a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of a. Ignition temperature
300k to 400k b. Kindling temperature
b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k c. Fire point
to 400k d. Flash point
c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 2873. The temperature at which
300k to 400k flammable liquid form a vapor-air
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of mixture that ignites.
300k to 400k a. Ignition temperature
2866. Refers to the standard arrow b. Kindling temperature
designating the north to facilitate proper c. Fire point
sketch orientation. d. Flash point
a. Proper north 2874. Minimum temperature
b. True north in which the substance in the air
c. Legend must be heated in order to
d. Compass direction initiate or cause a self-contained
2867. A search method in which the combustion without the addition
searchers follow each other in the path of of heat from outside sources.
the coiled beginning from the outside a. Boiling point
proceeding toward the center. b. Ignition temperature
a. Zone method c. Fire point
b. Wheel method d. Flash point
c. Spiral method 2875. An exothermic chemical change
d. Strip method in which a combustible material react
2868. Taking into custody property with an oxidizing agent.
described in the search warrant as a a. Thermal balance
result of a search, to be utilized as b. Thermal imbalance
evidence in a case. c. Combustion
a. Seizure d. Oxidation
b. Detention 2876. Rapid oxidation accompanied
c. Safekeeping by heat and light.
d. Confiscation a. Pyrolysis
b. Combustion
c. Detonation
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G.S.T. 2019
 d. All of the foregoing 2886. In this phase of the fire the
2877. A chemical decomposition of maximum heat and its destructive
matter through the action of heat. capabilities is developed.
a. Pyrolysis a. Initial phase
b. Combustion b. Incipient phase
c. Detonation c. Free burning phase
d. Oxidation d. Smoldering phase
2878. Measure of the rate of flow of 2887. A burnt pattern of inverted
heat, through unit area of the material cone indicates.
with unit temperature gradient. a. The fire triangle
a. Conduction b. The fingerprint of the fire
b. Thermal conductivity c. Flashover
c. Radiation d. Incipient phase of the fire
d. Fission
2879. A means of heat transfer when
energy travels through space or
materials as waves. 2888. An occurrence when the heat has
a. Conduction brought the combus-tible portion of the
b. Convection ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is
c. Radiation characterized by a sudden burst or
d. Fission shooting forth light and flames.
2880. It is legally classified as arson a. Flashover
and set on purpose with a motive. b. Backdraft
a. Providential fire c. Thermal balance
b. Accidental fire d. Thermal imbalance
c. Intentional fire 2889. An explosive condition in the
d. None of the foregoing smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a
2881. Malicious and willful burning of sudden introduction of oxygen.
a building, defined in the case of Ong a. Flashover
Chat Lay 60 P 788. b. Backdraft
a. Arson c. Thermal balance
b. Providential fire d. Thermal imbalance
c. Accidental fire 2890. Which among the following is
d. None of the foregoing the primary objective in investigating
2882. First element known to man by fires?
experience, a colorless, tasteless and a. To determine its cause
odorless gas which supports life and fire. b. To prevent recurrence
a. Nitrogen c. To determine liable persons
b. Hydrogen d. All of the foregoing
c. Oxygen 2891. Reason why fire investigation is
d. Neon unique.
2883. Known as ignition heat, it refers a. It does not conform with regular
to any contrivance to start a fire. investigative procedure
a. Fuel b. Unavailability of witnesses
b. Oxygen c. Fire destroys evidence
c. Heat d. All of the foregoing
d. None of the choices 2892. They are fires caused by
2884. Refers to gases liberated by unforeseen acts of God.
heat. a. Providential
a. Free radicals b. Accidental
b. Flash point c. Intentional
c. Thermal balance d. Incendiarism
d. Thermal imbalance 2893. A combination of three
2885. Refers to the normal pattern or elements namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.
movement of fire, smoke and fire gases a. Fire
within a building or structure under b. Origin of fire
natural conditions. c. Fire triangle
a. Free radicals d. All of the foregoing
b. Pyrolysis 2894. Most important part of fire triangle
c. Thermal balance for it is what burns.
d. Thermal imbalance a. Fuel
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G.S.T. 2019
 b. Heat amperage and voltage, it is the most
c. Oxygen common cause of providential fires.
d. Gas a. Rays of the sun
2895. A means by which heat is b. Spontaneous heating
transformed by a circulating medium c. Arcing
either gas or a liquid. d. Lighting
a. Conduction 2904. Most common source of
b. Convection accidental fire is related to:
c. Radiation a. Smoking
d. Fission b. Arcing
2896. The amount of heat necessary to c. Sparkling
convert solid to liquid. d. Overloading
a. Specific heat 2905. A device used by arsonists to
b. Latent heat spread the fire within the room or
c. Heat of Combustion throughout the structure.
d. Heat of fusion a. Accelerant
2897. Formed by the incomplete b. Plants
combustion of acetylene or natural c. Trailer
cracking of hydrogen in the absence of d. Wick
air. 2906. Usually comes in form of
a. Carbon black combustible liquid which is a contrivance
b. Lamp black to hasten the start of fire.
c. Soot a. Accelerant
d. Black bone b. Plants
2898. Matter made up of very fine c. Trailer
particles and condensed vapor as a result d. Wick
of combustion.
a. Fire 2907. Most common reason of arson
b. Flame cases.
c. Heat a. Revenge
d. Smoke b. Profit
2899. Incandescent gases c. Competition
accompanied by oxidation. d. All of the foregoing
a. Fire 2908. Result of slow oxidation of a
b. Flame combustible material.
c. Heat a. Spontaneous heating
d. Smoke b. Combustible gases
2900. The threat to arson investigators c. Combustible dust
after fire has been contained. d. None of the choices
a. Backdraft 2909. Refers to the preparation and
b. Flashover gathering of materials to start a fire.
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning a. Plants
d. Falling debris b. Trailers
c. Accelerants
2901. Color smoke produced d. Wick
accompanied by red flames indicates the 2910. Act that would remove or
burning of what material? neutralize a fire hazard.
a. Rubber a. Abatement
b. Nitrogen products b. Combustion
c. Asphalt singles c. Allotment
d. Chlorine d. Distillation
2902. Which among the following is
commonly used in fire resistant 2911. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and
materials? to increase mental and physical function
a. Asbestos a. stimulants
b. Diamond b. Depressants
c. Asphalt c. Hallucinogens
d. Cotton d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2903. A form of static electricity of 2912. A drugs that ‘derived from
great magnitude producing tremendous opium’ and medically potent pain
killers/ cough suppressants
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G.S.T. 2019
 a. stimulants which expose to danger of life or
b. Depressants property of another.
c. Hallucinogens a. Reckless imprudence resulting to
d. Narcotics/ Opiates damage of property
2913. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs b. Arson
reducing functional nervous activity. c. malicious mischief
a. stimulants d. no crime
b. Depressants 2921. Burning of house was due to
c. Hallucinogens lightning as a result of his prayer.
d. Narcotics/ Opiates a. Reckless imprudence resulting to
damage of property
2914. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ b. Arson
drugs that causes hallucinations and c. malicious mischief
changes our perception, thought, d. no crime
emotion and consciousness and physical 2922. It can effectively assist law
function enforcement agencies in combating
a. stimulants organized crime and terrorism.
b. Depressants a. family
c. Hallucinogens b. school
d. Narcotics/ Opiates c. NGO
2915. The following countries which d. Community
considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and
also considered as world’s top supplier 2923. A massacre that occurred June
for opium. Which of the choices does 4,1989, China wherein the pro-
not belong. democracy protesters was killed
a. Vietnam a. Tiananmen square massacre
b. Iran b. Beijing square massacre
c. Afghanistan c. Tienanmen massacre
d. Pakistan d. Tienanmen square massacre
2916. According to PDEA goal that
Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country
in year___?
a. 2035
b. 2025
c. 2030 2924. A case of reckless imprudence
d. 2020 occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a
2917. It is the PDEA campaign to fight resident from Manila while the victim
illicit drugs with the participation of the from Quezon City. Where the case
community. should be filed?
a. Oplan lambat sibat a. Quezon City
b. operation private eye b. Pasig City
c. operation public eye c. Manila
d. oplan galugad d. either of the above choices
2918. In the PNP what campaign was 2925. It is a willfully and maliciously
created to fight against drug trafficking. placing any dangerous drugs to implicate
a. Oplan lambat sibat person to drug related crime.
b. operation private eye a. Buy bust operation
c. operation public eye b. Instigation
d. oplan cleansweep c. entrapment
d. planting evidence
2919. A fire just started only a very
small or insignificant portion of house 2926. September 11, 2001 tragedies is
was being damaged. known as Intelligence_______.
a. Consummated arson a. Invalidate
b. Attempted arson b. unsolved
c. Frustrated arson c. success
d. No crime d. failure

2920. When a person sets fire to his

own property under what circumstances

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G.S.T. 2019
 2927. In investigation wherein a c. Fatah
Death appearing to be suicidal or d. Hamas
accidental it should be treated as? 2935. The most notorious and sought
a. Homicide case after terrorist group responsible for the
b. Suicide case 9/11 bombing in the USA.
c. Murder case a. Hezbollah
d. Any of the choices b. Al Qaeda
2928. What is the penalty when a c. Fatah
person bringing into country of illegal d. Hamas
drugs using diplomatic channel or 2936. South America country
passport. principal source of cocaine.
a. Life imprisonment a. Brazil
b. Life imprisonment-death b. Spain
c. death c. Columbia
d. no penalty because of immunity d. Chile
2929. In E-crimes it is accessing in 2937. Country which is 2/3 controlled
order to corrupt,alter,steal or destroy by Hezbollah
information and communication system a. Israel
a. hacking b. Gaza Strip
b. Trojan c. Lebanon
c. virus d. West bank
d. intellectual property 2938. The smallest terrorist group in
2930. The vehicles should not parked its hierarchy.
at these area. a. organization
a. Private driveway b. faction
b. intersection c. cell
c. pedestrian lane d. station
d. fire hydrant 2939. Terrorist group responsible for
e. all the choices the bombing of the US destroyer USS
Cole in Yemen
2931. What is the penalty when a a. Hezbollah
police officer failed to appear in court to b. Hamas
testify in a drug case without justifiable c. Al Qaeda
reason? d. Fatah
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment 2940. One of the most important
b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment components of terrorist-related
c. Life imprisonment investigations is the collection and
d. Death preservation of what?
2932. Most important equipment in a. physical evidence
traffic accident investigation? b. witnesses
a. cellphone c. information
b. camera d. all of these
c. Manila
d. All of the choices
2933. What is the penalty when less
than 5 grams of shabu,heroin,morphine
was confiscated. 2941. Meaning of the term “Jihad”.
a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of a. Holy War
300k to 400k b. Holy Mass
b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k c. Holy Cow
to 400k d. Holy Ghost
c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 2942. Founder of the terrorist group
300k to 400k Al Qaeda
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of a. Yasser Arafart
300k to 400k b. Osama Bin Laden
e. c. Abdurajack Janjalani
2934. Refers to the terrorist group d. Abu Nidal
“Soldiers of God”. 2943. Standard rifle of socialist and
a. Abu Sayaff communist countries
b. Hezbollah a. M16
b. AK47
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 c. M14 B.Initialcontact
d. Galil C.Childcustody
2944. Terrorist group that operates D. All of the above
within a single state or country.
a. Transnational
b. national 2949. It is the study of human society,
c. international its origin structure, functions and
d. none of them direction.
2945. The most wanted terrorist in a. criminology
the world. b. sociology
a. Yasser Arafat c. psychology
b. Abu Nidal
d. anthropology
c. Osama Bin Laden
d. Mohammad Alzawari 2950. The science of classifying the
2946. It can be defined as the use of physical characteristics.
force of the fear of force to achieve a a. free will
political end. b. positivism
a. terrorism c. atavism
b. violence d. somatology
c. felony
2951. The approach that is using the
d. criminal act
2947. The largest and most powerful perspective of heredity in explaining the
triad. cause of crime.
a. Su Yee On a. geographical approach
b. 14K b. biological approach
c. Wo Shing Wo c. psychiatric application
d. Sham Shui Po
d. psychological application
2952. The purpose of penalty in the
positivism school of criminology.
a. retribution
b. rejection
c. reformation
d. restoration
2953. It is the study of formation of the
skull in relation to the behavior of the
criminal.
a. entomology
b. penology
c. phrenology
d. criminology
2954. Children shall be given priority
during_____ as result of armed conflict.?
a. war
b. treatment
c. evacuation
d. education
2955. Science concerned with
improving the quality of offspring.
a. criminology
b. eugenics
c. genetics
2948. The apprehension or taking into
d. heredity
custody of a child in conflict with the law
by law enforcement officers or private
citizens is termed as:
2956. Commonly known as victimless
A.Arrest crime:

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 A.occassional crime 2964. These are the rights of an
B.political crime accused that are derived from special
C.public order crime laws enacted by Congress.
D. conventional crime A. Constitutional rights
2957. A child whose basic needs have B. Civil rights
been deliberately unattended. C.Statutoryrights
a. abandoned child D. Natural rights
b. dependent child 2965. If Metro Manila accounts for
c. abusive child 26% of the national total crime volume
d. neglected child of 84, 875, How many crimes were
2958. The principle that events reported to the police?
including criminal behavior that has a. 22, 868
sufficient causes.. b. 22, 068
a. atavism c. 20, 250
b. narassism d. 32, 644
c. determinism 2966. What is the antonyms of the
d. positivism word arrest?
2959. An established and generally A. Apprehend
accepted moral values refer to. B. Search
a. integrity C. Set free
b. morality D. Renounce
c. ethical standard 2967. How many members composed
d. authority the “Pangkat?”
2960. This refers to a significant loss of A. 1 member C.
contact with reality. 2 members
a. split mind B. 3 members
b. psychosis D. 4 members
c. neurosis 2968. Murder cases numbered 180 in
d. schizoprenia 2010 and 220 in 2011. What was the
percent increase?
2961. What is a person who kills 3 or a. + 22.2%
more in a separate events? b. + 20.2%
A.mass murder c. + 22.0%
B. serial killer d. + 20.1%
C.homicidal 2969. If the population in municipality
D. spree killer A is 195, 000 and the crime volume is 2,
2962. A bank robber who kills some 540, what is the crime rate?
individual in the bank, flees with a. 1230.6
hostages, and kills a number of people b. 1465.2
while in flight diving a chase would be an c. 1302.6
example of: d. 1203.5
2970. In 2011 there were 90,345
A. Serial Murder crimes reported to the police. If the 2011
B. Spree Murder population was 63 million what was the
C. Mass Murder crime rate?
D. Multiple Murder a. 147.5 b. 145.7
2963. What is the legal term for c. 143.4
nighttime? d. 154.7
A. sanctuary 2971. In 2000 the police recorded a
B.absurdity total of 84,875 crimes committed. If the
C. ephitomy population was 62 million what was the
D. nocturnity crime rate?
a. 139.6 b. 193.6
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 c. 136.9 B. Chivalry Hypothesis
d. 163.9 C. Masculinity
2972. If Metro Manila accounts for D. Power Control Theory
2979. This new branch in criminology
26% of the national total crime volume of
opposes the theoretical perspective and
84, 875, how many crimes were reported proposes the involvement of all
to the police? stakeholders in the use of non violent
a. 20, 250 solutions
b. 32, 644 A. Peacemaking Criminology
c. 22, 068 B. Sociology of Law
d. 22, 858 C. Restorative Justice
D. Non Violent Criminological
2973. If the 128 murder cases in City B
Hypothesis
represent 40% of the total murder cases 2980. This crimes are those that the
in the province, what is the total value for lower class commit against the upper
murder cases province wide? class of society in a capitalist system
a. 120 A. Crimes of Passion
b. 420 B. Crimes of Accommodation and
c. 430 Resistance
C. Crimes of domination and Repression
d. 340
D. Crimes of Lower class group
2974. This theory views crime and 2981. The ruling class in a capitalist
delinquency as a result of the frustration system is the
and anger people experience over their A. Proletariat
inability to achieve legitimate social and B. Bourgeois
financial success. C. Capitalist
a. strain theory D. Ruling class
b. psychological theories 2982. Who proposed the theory of
c. differential association theory capitalism and invoked communism as a
d. labeling theory remedy?
A. George Vold
2975. This theory suggest that stability B. Karl Marx
and changes in criminal and deviant C. Emile Durkheim
behavior through time and different D. Max Weber
stages in life. 2983. This theory believes that society
A. Self Derogation Theory is divided into two groups with
B. Anomie Theory competing values the upper class and
C. Life Course Theory lower class.
D. Routine Activities Theory A. Class Theory
2976. This theory suggest that females B. Differential Opportunity
and males are becoming equal in society C. Conflict Theory
in terms of family, politics, and education D. Consensus Theory
A. Feminist Theory 2984. A problem that occurs when
B. Paternalism offenders who have been released from
C. Liberation Theory the system are placed in a program
D. Life Course Theory simply because the program exist.
2977. In the power control theory by A. Diversion Movement
Hagan, which father and mother share B. Intervention
similar roles in the workplace and power C. Net widening
in the family D. Primary Deviance
A. Feminist theory 2985. The term criminology was
B. Egalitarian family originally derived from Italian word:
C. Patriarchal family a. crimen
D. Matriarchal family b. criminologo
2978. These views suggest that males c. criminologia
such as judges, police officers, and d. criminologie
prosecutors tend to have traditional 2986. It is the scientific study of crime
views on women thus, they are more and the effort of the society to prevent
lenient to them as compared to their and repressed them?
male counterparts. a. Crime
A. Paternalism b. Criminology
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 c. Victimology 2995. Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled
d. Criminal justice woman in making deception through
2987. The study of Criminology verbal communication. She had
involves the use of knowledge and committed estafa to several persons
concept of other sciences and field of through illegal recruitment. What crime
study which makes the study of according to result did she committed?
criminology: a. acquisitive crime
a. Dynamic b. extinctive crime
b. Nationalistic c) instant crime
c. Social science d) situational crime
d. An applied science 2996. It refers to the study of the role
2988. Criminal ________ refers to the of the victim in the commission of a
study of the relationship between crime.
criminality and the inhabitants of a a. criminal victim
certain locality: b. criminal psychiatry
a.Ecology c. victimless crime
b) Demography d. victimology
c) Epidiomology 2997. It is the scientific study of human
d) Physical anthropology behavior or man’s external manifestation
2989. It is the study of human society, in relation to criminality.
Its origin, structure, functions and a) Epidiomology
direction. b) Criminal Psychiatry
a. Sociology c) Criminal psychology
b. Criminology d) Physical anthropology
c. Psychology 2998. A crime can be classified
d. Anthropology according to its stages of commission.
2990. It deals primarily with the study What crime is committed when the
of crime causation. offender merely commences the
a. Criminology execution of an offense by overt act but
b. Criminal Etiology which nevertheless did not perform all
c. Victimology acts of execution which would produce
d. Criminal Sociology the felony by reason of some cause other
2991. An act or omission in violation of than his own spontaneous desistance?
the public law commanding or forbidding a. Attempted crime
it. b. Consummated crime
a. Crime c. Frustrated crime
b. Felony d. Complex crime
c. Offense 2999. It is the process by which
d. Infraction of law individual reduce the frequency of their
2992. Crimes are committed either by offending behavior as the age increases.
dolo or deceit or by _____________. a. doing gender
a. Culpa b. aging out
b. intent c. criminal reduction
c. Fault d. active precipitation
d. both a and c 3000. Crimes are classified under the
2993. The following are the elements Revised Penal Code according to their
of Dolo or deceit, EXCEPT: gravity. What crime to which the law
a. Intelligence attaches the capital punishment or
c. Freedom afflictive penalties.
b. Intent a. grave felonies
d. Negligence b. less grave felonies
2994. Perla, a victim of rape, was able c. light felonies
to identify her assailant, a neighbor, d. complex felonies
before he dies on her way to the hospital 3001. What crimes according to the
where she was declared dead on arrival, time or period of the commission are
This crime is called, those which are committed only when
a. complex crime the circumstances or situation is
b. simple crime conducive to its commission like for
c) instant crime instance, committing theft in a crowded
d) situational crime place.

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 a. seasonal crimes c. guerilla
b. instant crimes d. rebel
c. situational crimes 3009. The killing of a large number of
d. continuing crimes people over time by an offender who
3002. There are crimes that are seeks to escape detection.
committed within a certain length of a. road rage
time. What crime is committed by a b. hate crime
series of acts in a lengthy space of time? c. mass murder
a. static crime d. serial murder
b. instant crime 3010. Known as the “Mother of
c. situational crime Criminals”.
d. episoidal crime a. Margaret Juke
3003. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, b. Ada Kallikak
and others which are committed to c. Ada Juke
maintain one’s livelihood or as a means d. Ada Edwards
for living are what crimes? 3011. It refers to an study showing the
a. Rational crimes relationship between the physical built of
b. Irrational crimes a person to his personality structure and
c. Blue-collar crimes the type of offense he is most prone to
d. White collar crimes commit
3004. It is that element of intentional a. physiognomy
felony which means that the person who b) somatotype
committed the felony has the capacity to c. phrenology
distinguish between what is right and d) psychology
wrong and fully understands the 3012. It is a proposal of a double male
consequences of his actions: or super male syndrome. This theory held
a. intelligence that the possession of an extra Y-
b. imprudence chromosome causes males to be violent
c. intent and aggressive.
d. freedom a. XYY syndrome
3005. A psychological disorder in b XXY syndrome
which a child shows developmentally c. YYX syndrome
inappropriate impulsivity, hyperactivity d. YXX syndrome
and lack of attention. 3013. A phenomenon that refers to
a. psychotism the handling down of delinquent
b. attention deficit hyperactivity behaviors as socially learned and
disorder transferred from one generation to the
c. neuroticism next taking place mostly among
d. KSP disorder disorganized urban areas.
3006. The commission of criminal acts a. Cultural Transmission b)
using the instruments of modern Social Phenomenon
technology such as computers or the c. Crime
internet. d) Delinquent behavior
a. cyber sex 3014. In this theory of crime causation,
b. cyber crime mankind is viewed as manifestations of
c. computer crimes basically evil human nature reflecting
d. computer hacking either with the prince of darkness or an
3007. An act in violation of the expression of divine wrath.
criminal law that is designed to bring a. Classical theory
financial gain to the offender. b. positivist theory
a. organized crime c. Demonological theory
b. economic crime d. neo-classical theory
c. cyber crime 3015. An attempt to determine
d. profit crime intelligence and personality on the basis
3008. This term literally means “little of the size and shape of the skull.
war”. Today, the term is used a. Physiognomy
interchangeably with the term b. palmistry
“terrorism”. c. Craniology
a. violence d. Somatotype
b. revolution

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 3016. It involves the measurement of a. elements
facial and other body characteristics as b. penalty
indicative of human personality. c. degree of evidence
a. Physiology d. motive
b. somatotype
c. Physiognomy 3024. The concept that conduct norms
d. Palmistry are passed down from one generation to
3017. According to Sheldon, the three the next so that they become stable
“somatotypes” or body built which have within the boundaries of a culture.
relationships to personality a. heredity
characteristics are the following, EXCEPT: b. inheritance
a. Ectomorph c. cultural transmission
b. extomorph d. DNA
c. Endomorph 3025. Group of urban sociologists who
d. Mesomorph studies the relationship between
3018. A type of violent offender who environmental conditions and crime.
uses violence as a means of perpetrating a. classical school
the criminal act: b. chicago school
a. Culturally violent offender c. neo-classical school
b. pathologically violent offender d. positive school
c. Criminally violent offender 3026. He is recognized as the first
d. d. situationally violent offender codifier of laws:
3019. One way of classifying criminals a. Drakon
is on the basis of etiology. What kind of b. the Hittites
criminal is that whose action arises from c. Solon
the intra-psychic conflict between the d. Hammurabi
social and anti-social components of his 3027. He said that individuals are like
personality? human calculators. Before a person
a. Acute commits a crime, he first analyzes
c. Chronic whether the satisfaction he would gain is
b. neurotic greater than the possible negative effect
d. normal he would have to suffer if the gets caught
3020. Criminals can also be classified doing the crime:
according to this behavioral system. a. Cesare Beccaria
What are those criminals who have high b. Cesare Lombroso
degree of organization that enables them c. Edwin Sutherland
to commit crime without being detected d. Jeremy Bentham
and usually operates in a large scale? 3028. Who stated that crime is normal
a. ordinary criminals in a society?
b. professional criminals a. Cesare Beccaria
c. situational criminals b. Cesare Lombroso
d. organized criminals c. Emile Durkheim
3021. A forcible sex in which the d. Enrico Ferri
offender and the victim are acquainted
with each other. 3029. This theory contested the
a. statutory rape findings of Beccaria’s Free Will Study,
b. date rape stating that its absence among mentally
c. marital rape retardate persons or those with some
d. acquaintance rape psychological imbalances and personality
3022. According to Lombroso, these disorders or physical disabilities, could
are physical characteristics that likewise lead to violation of laws thereby
distinguish born criminals from the citing said theory as one of crime
general population and are throwbacks causation.
to animals or primitive people. a. Classical Criminology
a. physical deviations b. Positivist Criminology
b. distinguishable traits c. Neoclassical Criminology
c. atavistic stigmata d. Social Structure Theory
d. ape-like appearance 3030. This refers to the act of killing a
3023. It is the most essential part of large number of people in a single violent
the definition of the criminal law: outburst.
a. Road rage
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 b. serial killing b. R.A. 8551
c. Mass murder c. R.A. 6506
d. mass destruction d. R.A. 8353
3031. A type of sexual deviancy where 3039. Criminals who have a high
the person achieves sexual gratification degree of organization to enable them to
by cruelty, psychotic desire to often commit crimes without being detected.
torment torture or otherwise abuse his a. Professional criminals
victim. b. ordinary criminals
a. Masochism c. Organized criminals
b. bestiality d. expert criminals
c. Sadism
d. Incest 3040. Who among the following are
3032. A sexual relationship between the “Holy Three in Criminology”?
persons closely related by blood. a. Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria
a. Incest b. Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri
b. sadism c. Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri
c. Masochism d. Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso
d. rape 3041. Culture Conflict Theory was
3033. These are violent acts directed thorough studied by ____ wherein he
toward a particular person or members concluded that the main difference
of group merely because the targets between a criminal and a non-criminal is
share discernible racial, ethnic, religious that each is responding to different sets
or gender characteristics. of conduct norms.
a. Violent crimes a) Emile Durkheim
b. hate crimes b) Andre Michael Guerry
c. Copy-cat crimes c) Thorsten Sellin
d. victimless crimes d) Abraham Maslow
3034. A term to denote a
premeditated, politically motivated 3042. This school of thought in
violence perpetrated against non- criminology states that although
combatant targets by subnational groups individuals have self-rule, there are other
or clandestine agents, usually intended to factors that affect the exercise of their
influence an audience. autonomy, which cause them commit
a. Rebellion crimes:
b. piracy a) neo-classical
c. Terrorism b) utilitarianism
d. little war c) classical
3035. It conceded that certain factors d) positivist
such as insanity might inhibit the exercise 3043. This theory reflects the way
of free will. people react to a given situation based on
a. Classical theory the social influences they acquired from
b. neo-classical other people that practically determine
c. Sociological their behaviors. This theory likewise
d. positivist serves as the learning process of
3036. These are crimes committed by delinquent behaviors and considered as
a person of respectability and high social one of the most important theory in
status in the course of occupation. crime causation.
a. Blue collar crimes a) Social Disorganization theory
b. crime of the upper world b) Culture Conflict theory
c. White collar crimes c) Differential Association Theory
d. crime of the underworld d) Social Reaction Theory
3037. Public order crime is otherwise 3044. It is the breakdown of social
known as: order as a result of the loss of order in a
a. Violent crimes society.
b. economic crimes a. synomie
c. Organized crimes b) anarchy
d. victimless crimes c) anomie
3038. The law that provides Board d) chaos
Examination for Criminologists in the
Philippines.
a. R.A. 6975
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 3045. He introduced the “theory of associated with variations in economic
imitation” which states that individuals conditions.
copy behavior patterns of other a. Cartographic School
individuals, and that those with weaker b. Socialist School
personalities tend to get influenced c. Psychiatric School
easier by those with stronger d. Chicago School
personalities: 3052. “Manie sans delire” (madness
a. Emile Durkheim without confusion) This was the term
b) Adolphe Quetelet used by Philippe Pinel describing the
c) Gabriel Tarde personality that is characterized by an
d) Enrico Ferri inability to learn from experience, lack of
3046. A term that used to describe warmth, and no sense of guilt better
motorists who assault each other. known as:
a. road rage a. psychotic personality
b. predation b. psychopathic personality
c. hate crime c. neurotic behavior
d. serial murder d. dementia praecox
3047. This theory argues that
intelligence is largely determined
genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; 3053. A police officer’s frustration in
and, that low intelligence as the realization of his ambition and goals
demonstrated by low IQ is linked to in life both as an officer of the law, and
behavior including criminal behavior: as a private citizen, can push him to a life
a. Nature Theory of crime, as pointed out in this particular
b) Psychological theory theory.
c) Strain Theory
d) Labeling theory a. Disorganization Theory
b. Culture Conflict Theory
3048. The theory which states that C.Differential Association Theory
attachment, connection and link to d. Strain Theory
society will determine whether a person
shall commit a crime or not: 3054. Crimes which occur per 100,000
a. social control population per month. It is the
b) social disorganization theoretical basis which determines the
c) social bond peace and order situation.
d) social learning a. index crimes
3049. The philosophy of justice that b. crime rate
asserts that those who violate the rights c. non-index crimes
of others deserve to be punished. The d. crime statistics
severity of the punishment should be 3055. The Idea that low female crime
commensurate with the seriousness of and delinquency rates are a reflection of
the crime. the leniency which the police treat
a. restorative justice female offenders.
b. jus desert a. Doing gender
c. utilitarianism d. b. masculinity hypothesis
equality of punishment c. Chivalry hypothesis
3050. A condition in which the glucose d. pre-menstrual syndrome
in the blood falls below levels necessary 3056. A stage of development when
for normal and efficient brain girls begin to have sexual feeling for their
functioning. fathers.
a. hyperglycemia a. Oedipus complex
b. hyperglycomia b. doing gender
c. hypoglycemia c. Electra complex
d. hypoglycomia d. chivalry hypothsis
3051. This school on crime causation 3057. The legal principle by which the
emphasized economic determinism and decision or holding in an earlier case
concentrated on the need for the quality becomes the standard by which
among all citizens. They provided subsequent similar cases are judged. It
statistical data which claimed to show literally means “to stand by decided
that variations in crime rates are cases”.

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 a. jus desert
b. stare decisis 3065. The beginning to have sexual
c. story decisis feelings for the mother, which occurs
d. just stare during the third year from birth is known
3058. This is a theory by Robert as:
Merton which assumes that people are a. Oedipus Complex
law abiding but under great pressure, b. Inferiority Complex
they will resort to crime. c. Electra Complex
a. strain theory d. Incest
b. social learning 3066. Serious illegal detention is a
c. cultural deviance crime committed through series of acts
d. anomie or episodes and in much longer time. This
3059. The first IQ test was developed crime is classified as:
by a French psychologist named: a. Instant crime
a. Rafael Garofalo b. episoidal crime
b. Albert Bandura c. Situational crime
c. Walter Reckless d. seasonal crime
d. Alfred Binet 3067. The following are the
3060. His study focused on the Kallikak characteristics of the Classical School of
family tree and he concluded that Criminology:
feeblemindedness is inherited and I. The basis of criminal liability is human
related to deviant behavior and poverty. free will and the purpose of penalty is
He was the first person to use the term retribution
“moron”. II. Man is essentially a moral creature with
a. Robert Dugdale an absolute free will to choose between
b. Henry Goddard right and wrong.
c. Eaenest Hooton III. Criminals are distinguishable from non-
d. Charles Goring criminals because of their physical
3061. This theory focuses on the deviations.
development of high crime areas IV. That every man is therefore responsible
associated with the disintegration of for his act.
conventional values caused by rapid
industrialization, increased migration and a. I, II, III are correct.
urbanization. b. I, III, IV are correct.
a. Cultural Deviance Theory c. II, III, IV are correct.
b. Differential Association Theory d. I, II, IV are correct.
c. Social Disorganization Theory 3068. It conceded factors such as
d. Strain Theory insanity might inhibit the exercise of free
will.
3062. A societal stage marked by a. Classical theory
normlessness in which disintegration and b. positivist theory
chaos have replaced social cohesion. c. Neo-classical theory
a. Social disorganization d. radical theory
b. Anomie 3069. His great contributions to
c. Strain criminology were the principle of
d. Synomie utilitarianism and the felicific calculus.
3063. It is otherwise known as the a. Cesare Beccaria
decline in criminal activities together b. Jeremy Bentham
with the time. c. Cesare Lombroso
a. Birth cohort d. Emile Durkheim
b. aging out phenomenon 3070. He propounded the theory of
c. Criminal aging evolution that inspired the now known
d. crime rate “Father of Modern Criminology” to
3064. He invoked that only justified develop the theory of atavism.
rationale for laws and punishment is the a. Cesare Lombroso
principle of the greatest happiness b. Charles Goring
shared by the greatest number of people. c. Cesare Beccaria
a. Utilitatrianism d. Charles Darwin
b. Jeremy Bentham 3071. According to him, people with
c. Felicific Calculus criminal behavior, should be prohibited
d. Cesare Beccaria from having children.
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 a. Robert Dugdale 3078. Classical Theory states that
b. Henry Goddard individuals have freewill. It is focused on
c. Charles Goring an individual's choice as to whether or
d. George Wilker not he will commit a crime and the
3072. It states that individuals are purpose of Classical Theory in giving
deviant mainly because they have been punishment is________________.
labeled as deviant by social agencies and a) Restoration
others. The notion of deviance is not b) Treatment
inherent in the act itself, but rather in the c) Retribution
reaction and stigma attached to the d) Deterrence
actor.
a. Containment Theory
b. Theory of Imitation 3079. Refers to the circumstances
c. Social Process Theory which attendant in the commission of a
d. Social Reaction theory crime serve to increase the penalty,
3073. Cesare Lombroso classified this without however exceeding the
type of criminal with five (5) or more maximum of the penalty provided by law
atavistic stigmata. for the offense.
a. Born-criminal type a. Justifying
b. insane b. Exempting
c. Criminaloid c. Mitigating
d. pseudo-criminal d. Aggravating
3074. These are crimes which are 3080. Those wherein the acts of the
wrong from their very nature. Examples person are in accordance with the law,
of these are murder, robbery, and other hence he incurs no criminal liability.
violations of the Revised Penal Code. a. Exempting
a. Heinous crimes b. aggravating
b. mala in se c. Justifying
c. Serious crimes d. Mitigating
d. mala prohibita 3081. Mr. A committed loitering
3075. These are crimes which are within the vicinity of Manila City Hall on
wrong only because there are laws that January 14, 2011. June 14, 2011, a city
prohibit them in order to regulate an ordinance was passed punishing loitering
orderly society. Examples of these are the within the vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A
violations of special laws like the violation be held liable for his act of loitering?
of “Anti-Smoking Law”. a. Yes, for there is a law passed
a. Mala prohibita punishing it
b. less grave felonies b. Yes under the principle of retroactive
c. Mala in se effect of criminal law
d. light felonies c. No, for the act was done prior to the
3076. The principle of criminal law effectivity of the law.
which is “nullum crimen nulla poena sine d. No, for A did not loiter again.
lege” means: 3082. His theory was that God did not
a. An act done by me against my will is make all the various species of animals in
not my act two days, as what the bible says but
b. There is no crime where no law rather that the species had evolved
punishing it. through a process of adoptive mutation
c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one. and natural selection which led to his
d. Mistake of fact is an excuse. conclusion that man was traced to have
3077. He was the one who introduced originated from the apes.
the following definition of criminology: a. Jeremy Bentham
“It is the entire body of knowledge b. Charles Darwin
regarding crime as a social phenomenon. c. Prince Charles
It includes within its scope the process of d)Charles de Gaulle
making laws, of breaking laws and of 3083. Having spent half of his life in
reacting towards the breaking of the the study of the causes of crime and true
laws”: to his dedication to his lifetime works,
a) Raffaelle Garofalo upon his death he willed his brain and
b) Edwin Sutherland body to the Institute of Anatomy at the
c) Cesare Beccaria University of Turin in Italy to be further
d) Paul Topinard studied. To this, he was named the
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 “Father of Modern and Empirical c. guardian ad litem
Criminology”. d. temporary guardian
a) Cesare Beccaria 3090. Under the RA 9344 a child over
b) Edwin Sutherland 15 under 18 is exempt from criminal
c) Cesare Lombroso liability unless:
d) Jeremy Bentham a. he is committed a henious crime
3084. Having spent half of his life in b. he is the principal accused
the study of the causes of crime and true c. he acted without discernment
to his dedication to his lifetime works, d. he acted with discernment
upon his death he willed his brain and 3091. The Child in Conflict with the law
body to the Institute of Anatomy at the cannot be prosecuted for the commission
University of Turin in Italy to be further of the following, EXCEPT:
studied. To this, he was named the a. mendicancy
“Father of Modern and Empirical b. sniffing of rugby
Criminology”. c. prostitution
a) Cesare Beccaria d. theft
b) Edwin Sutherland 3092. A child left by himself without
c) Cesare Lombroso provisions for his needs/or without
d) Jeremy Bentham proper supervision falls under what
3085. Which of the following is NOT special category of a child?
included in the components of criminal a. abandoned child
justice system of the United States? b. abused child
a. Law enforcement c. neglected child
b. Corrections d. dependent child
c. Prosecution 3093. In the absence of death of both
d. Courts parents of the child who shall continue to
3086. The power of the state to give exercise authority over the child?
any form of charity of public nature. It is I. Surviving grand parents
the philosophy behind the view that II. Elder brother and sister over 21
youthful offender/child in conflict with years of age
the law is the victim of improper care and III. Surviving parents of child
that the state is duty bound to provide IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21
protection. years of age.
a. positivism a. I, II and IV only
b. loco parentis b. I and II only
c. patria potestas c. I, II, III only
d. parens patriae d. all of the above
3087. Under the law, they are the one 3094. Is a self-association of peers,
responsible for preventing the child from bound together by mental interest, who
becoming addicted to intoxicating drinks, acted in concert in order to achieve a
narcotic drugs, smoking, gambling or any specific purpose which includes the
harmful practices. conduct of illegal activities and control
a. DSWD over a particular territory, facility or type
b. Parents of enterprises.
c. state a. Juvenile gang
d. police b. Organized criminal
3088. The civil personality of the child c. a bond
is deemed to have been commenced d. street corner gang
upon:
a. birth of the child 3095. The court can suspend parental
b. when the child celebrates his first authority if it finds that the parent:
birthday I. Treats the child with excessive
c. from the time of his conception harshness of cruelty.
d. upon reaching the age of majority II. Gives the child corrupting order,
3089. Refers to a person appointed by counsel or example
the court to act as the legal guardian of III. Compel the child to beg
the child even though the parents of the IV. Imposed to child disciplinary
child are still alive when the best interest actions.
of the said child so require. a. I and II only
a. adopter c. I and III only
b. loco parentis
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 b. I, II, III and IV
d. I, II and III only
3096. Who among the following is
considered as “Child in Conflict with the
Law”?
a. Bryan who is 15 years old.
b. Yang who is 10 years old.
c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old
d. anyone of them
3097. Refers to the totality of the
circumstances which are most beneficial
for the child.
a. child as zone of peace
b. nation building
c. best interest of the child
d. presumption of minority
3098. Is the mass obligation which the
parents have in relation to the persons
and property of their an unemancipated
child.
a. Paretal authority
b. Patria Potestas
c. Parens’ Patriae
d. Parental Responsibility
3099. A person of such age is
automatically exempted from criminal
liability but should be taken to the
custody and care of his parents, DSWD
representative or any institution engage
in child caring.
a. 15 years and below
b. under 18 years of age
c. under 15 years of age
d. under 21 years of age
3100. Refers to a child raise to the
status of legitimate child by subsequent
marriage of his/her parents.
a. illegitimate
b. legitimated
c. legitimate
d. adopted
3101. In case of separation between
parents of the child, a child of such age is
given by the court the preference to
choose between either parents.
a. under 9 years of age
b. 7 years of age
c. 10 years of age
d. 5 years of age
3102. Refers to aggregate of persons
working in commercial, industrial and
agricultural establishments
enterprises whether belonging to the
labor or management whose primary
duty is to care for the welfare of the
working children.
a. civic association of adult
b. community
c. Samahan
d. youth association
3103. Parental authority is deemed
terminated upon:
a. death of the parents
b. emancipation of the child
c. death of the child
d. All of the choices
3104. Which of the following is the
best way for the police to win youth’s
trust and confidence?
a. be friendly
b. be firm and show them that you are
strong
c. show to them that your bearing is
good and stand with pride
d. let them know that you are an agent
of a person in authority
3105. A child born inside a marriage
where either party is suffering from an
impediments.
a. illegitimate child
b. legitimated child
c. legitimate child
d. adopted child
3106. This refers to the apprehension
or taking into custody of a child who
committed an offense by the law
enforcement officer:
a. initial contact with the child
b. preliminary investigation
c. initial investigation
d. inquest proceedings
3107. This common procedure applied
when arresting an offender shall NOT be
employed when the person who is the
subject of apprehension is a child.
a. informing the suspect is a child
b. stating the reason for the arrest
c. employing reasonable force
d. use of handcuffs
3108. It refers to the totality of the
circumstances and conditions which are
most congenial to the survival, protection
and feelings of security of the child and
most encouraging to the child's physical,
psychological and emotional
development. It also means the least
detrimental available alternative for
safeguarding the growth and
development of the child.
a. Child at risk
b. Best Interest of the Child
or c. Full development.
d. Child welfare program
3109. In case of a child in conflict with
the law his age shall be determine in the
absence of proof what principle shall be
observed?
a. He is presumed to be minor
b. He should prove his age

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 c. The Birth certificate should be b. open to the public;
produced pending such issuance he should be c. considered restricted;
hold. d. considered privileged and confidential
d. The testimony of the child should be 3115. Mona was charged with
enough to prove his age. vandalism on her 18th birthday when she
3110. It is the psychological, emotional painted her neighbor’s walls with
and behavioral reactions and deficits of greeting to herself. How will you classify
women victims and their inability to Mona as an offender?
respond to repeated physical and a. juvenile offender
psychological violence? b. habitual offender
A. Battered Woman Syndrome c. adult offender
B. Battered Wife d. none
C. Abused Woman 3116. All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are
D. Rape trauma syndrome correct:
3111. Child in conflict with the law a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile
may undergo diversion program without delinquency when parents find it hard to balance
necessity of court intervention on the their jobs with their parental responsibilities
following: b. peer group is a factor to juvenile
a. Where the imposable penalty for the delinquency
crime committee is not more than six (6) c. parental rejection causes juvenile
years imprisonment; delinquency
b. Where the imposable penalty for the d. it is only within the family that a child must
crime committed exceeds six (6) years learn his life values
imprisonment; 3117. Being an orphan, Pedro
c. Where the imposable penalty for the Basurero, roams the street 24 hours a day
crime committed exceeds six (6) years with no place to go, surviving on foods
but not more than 12 years given by kind-hearted people with no one
imprisonment; to supervise him at his young age of six
d. Where the imposable penalty for the (6). How do you categorize Pedro as a
crime committed does not exceeds 12 child?
years imprisonment. a. neglected child
3112. Once the court, after trial finds b. independent child
that a child in conflict with the law is c. Abandoned child
guilty of the crime charged, the court d. dependent child
shall: 3118. Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old
A. Pronounce its judgment; mongoloid, was raped by her addict
B. Wait for the application for neighbor, Mr. Go. How do you classify her
suspension of sentence of the child and order his as a victim?
turn over to DSWD. a. an adult
C. Automatically place the child in b. an insane
conflict with law under suspension of sentence. c. a child
D. Determine the civil liability and order d. an adolescent
the final discharge of the child in conflict with the
law.
3119. It is the act of buying and selling
3113. Once the child in conflict with children:
the law reached the age of 18 while a. exploitation
under suspended sentence the court b. prostitution
may: c. abuse
A. Order the execution of sentence; d. trafficking
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict 3120. This refers to the maltreatment
with the law; of children, whether habitual or not:
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain a. exploitation
period or to its maximum age of 21. b. abuse
D. Any of the above choices c. prostitution
3114. All records and proceedings d. trafficking
involving children in conflict with the law 3121. Children are declared as
from initial contact until final disposition ____________ in situations of armed
of the case shall be: conflict:
a. placed in the dockets of court forms a. priorities for evacuation
part of the public record; b. exemptions
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 c. zones of peace 3129. The crime of human trafficking
d. shields shall be qualified when:
3122. This refers to pledging by the a) the person trafficked is an elderly
debtor of his or her personal services or b) the person trafficked is a woman
those of a person under his or her control c) the person trafficked is a special child
as security or payment for a debt, when d) the person trafficked is a child
the length and nature of services are not 3130. This refers to any word or deed
clearly defined: which debases, degrades or demeans the
a. debt bondage intrinsic worth and dignity of the child as
b. involuntary servitude human being.
c. abuse a. eglect
d. slavery
3123. A working child below fifteen b. psychological abuse
years old may be allowed to work for only c. sexual abuse
_______ hours per day: d. cruelty
a. eight
b. four 3131. The following person are liable
c. five for child prostitution, EXCEPT:
d. six a. those who act as procurer of child
3124. Publication of photographs of prostitute
persons or children in various obscene or b. children recruited as prostitutes
indecent poses meant to cause sexual c. managers or owners of the
excitement to those who will see them is establishment where the prostitution
a form of: takes place
a. adult entertainment d. clients of child prostitute
b. illegal publication 3132. This refers to the use, hiring,
c. obscene material employment and coercing of children as
d. pornography actors or models in printed pornographic
3125. Employers shall provide an materials:
opportunity for education to all working a. indecent shows
children up to this level: b. child prostitution
a. elementary c. obscene publication
b. college d. child exploitation
c.secondary 3133. The legislative act that penalizes
d. vocational the acts, means and purposes of human
3126. In employing children, the trafficking:
employment contract must be signed: a. R.A. 9344
a) by the Department of Labor and b. R.A. 7610
Employment c. R.A. 9208
b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer d. R.A. 8043
c) by the child’s parent or guardian
d) and notarized by a Notary Public 3134. 1st. The crime of trafficking in
3127. In cases of working children, this person is qualified when the trafficked
has the duty of securing the permit from person is a child.
the Department of Labor and 2nd. As a general rule, children below 15
Employment: years of age shall not be employed.
a. parents
b. working child a. Both statements are correct.
c. manager b. The 1st statement is correct, the 2 nd
d. employer is incorrect.
3128. This form of violence includes c. The 1st statement is incorrect, the
acts causing or likely to cause mental or 2nd is correct.
emotional suffering of the victim such as d. Both statements are incorrect.
but not limited to intimidation, 3135. The “Anti-Violence Against
harassment, stalking and repeated verbal Women and their Children Act of 2004”:
abuse: a. R.A. 9262
a. battery b. R.A. 7610
b. psychological c. R.A. 9208
c. sexual d. R.A. 9344
d. physical 3136. It refers to an act of inflicting
physical harm upon the woman or her
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 child resulting to the physical and a. stalking
psychological or emotional distress. b. economic abuse
a. stalking c. battery
b. economic abuse d. sexual violence
c. battery
d. sexual violence 3144. No child shall be employed as a
3137. This includes the employment, model in any advertisement directly or
use, inducement or coercion of a child to indirectly promoting the following:
engage in sexual intercourse or lascivious I. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating
conduct; the molestation, prostitution drinks
and or incest with children. II. pornographic materials
a. sexual abuse III. medicines for use of adults
b. physical abuse IV. cigarettes and any form of gambling
b. psychological abuse a. I, II, III are correct
d. cruelty b. II, III, IV are correct
c. I, II, IV are correct
3138. Refers to a program organized d. I, III, IV are correct
by travel establishments and individuals 3145. The law that provides special
which consist of packages or activities, protection of children against child
utilizing and offering escort and sexual abuse, exploitation and discrimination.
services as enticement for tourists. a. R.A. 7610
a. prostitution b. R.A. 9208
b. exploitation c. R.A. 9231
c. sex tourism d. P.D. 603
d. pornography 3146. The law prohibiting the worst
3139. Refers to an intentional act forms of child labor.
committed by a person who knowingly a. R.A. 9262
and without lawful justification follows b. R.A. 7610
the woman or her child or places the c. R.A. 9231
woman or her child under surveillance d. R.A. 9344
directly or indirectly. 3147. This form of child abuse includes
a. stalking lacerations, fractured bones, burns,
b. economic abuse internal injuries and serious bodily harm
c. battery suffered by a child:
d. sexual violence a. psychological
3140. A working child over fifteen but b. emotional
under eighteen may work but his work c. physical
hours must not exceed ____ hours: d. cruelty
a) eight
b) seven 3148. This refers to offenses where
c) ten there is no private offended party:
d) six a. Victimology
3141. A working child who is below b. public order crime
eighteen but over fifteen years old may c. Victimless crime
be allowed to work between the hours of: d. d. both a and c
a) six to eight o’clock pm
b) seven to eight o’clock p 3149. This is the Latin term for
c) six to ten o’clock pm parental authority:
d) seven to ten o’clock pm a) loco parentis
3142. It means failure to provide, for b) patria potestas
reasons other than poverty, the basic c) parens patriae
needs of the child, such as food, clothing, d) patria adorada
medical care, shelter and basic education 3150. Before any petition for adoption
a. sexual abuse may be approved, the adopter and the
b. physical abuse adoptee must first undergo a supervised
c. psychological abuse trial custody for a period of:
d. neglect a) at least six months
3143. Refers to acts that make or b) not more than six months
attempt to make a woman financially c) at least one year
dependent. d) not less than one year

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 3151. This refers to the document
issued by the court signifying the
approval of the application for adoption:
a) decree of adoption
b) petition for adoption
c) annulment
d) rescission
3152. This is the legal age in the
Philippines:
a) twenty-one
b) seventeen
c) eighteen
d) twelve
3153. A child who has been voluntarily
or involuntarily committed to the DSWD
or to a duly licensed child placement
agency and is free from parental
authority:
a) child legally available for adoption
b) legally-free child
c) emancipated child
d) abandoned child
3154. This form of violence includes
acts causing or likely to cause mental or
emotional suffering of the victim such as
but not limited to intimidation,
harassment, stalking and repeated verbal
abuse:
a) battery
b) psychological
c) sexual
d) physical
3155. A working child who is below
eighteen but over fifteen years old may
be allowed to work between the hours of:
a) six to eight o’clock pm
b) seven to eight o’clock p
c) six to ten o’clock pm
d) seven to ten o’clock pm
3156. Emancipation takes place when:
a) the parents decide to emancipate him
or her
b) the child becomes 18 years old
c) the child is already married
d) the child applies for it
d) games and gadgets
3157. The CICL shall be entitled to the
automatic suspension of sentence until
the maximum age of __:
a) twenty-three
b) eighteen
c) twenty-one
d) twenty
3158. In case the child has been found
guilty by the court, he shall be ordered to
be transferred to _______:
a) a youth rehabilitation center
b) a youth detention home
c) a city or municipal jail
d) an agricultural camp
G.S.T. 2019
3159. Preliminary investigation shall
only be conducted when the:
a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen
b) CICL is disqualified for diversion
c) CICL acted with discernment
d) victim filed the complaint
3160. The law enforcement officer
must ensure that all statements signed by
the child during investigation are
witnessed and signed by the following:
a) his parents, lawyer and social worker
b) his parents or guardian
c) legal counsel
d) social worker
3161. The body search of the child in
conflict with the law must be done only
by a law enforcement officer:
a) who has initial contact
b) assigned to the case
c) of the opposite sex
d) of the same gender
3162. The first important thing that a
law enforcer must do upon initial contact
is to ____:
a) know the age of the child
b) notify the local DSWD
c) call the parents
d) make a report
3163. It is the best evidence to prove
the age of the child in conflict with the
law:
a) testimony of the parents of the child
b) testimony of the child
c) certificate of birth
d) school records
3164. It is the holding in abeyance of
the service of the sentence imposed by
the court upon a finding of guilt of the
child in conflict with the law, whereby the
child undergoes rehabilitation within a
fixed period under such terms and
conditions as may be ordered by the
court:
a) probation
b) suspension of sentence
c) parole
d) pardon
3165. It is a disposition under which a
defendant, after conviction and
sentence, is released subject to
conditions imposed by the court and to
the supervision of a probation officer:
a) suspension of sentence
b) parole
c) probation
d) pardon
3166. A child in conflict with the law is
exempted from _____:
a) both criminal and civil liability
b) neither criminal nor civil liability
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 c) criminal liability only he is accused of doing, the ____________
d) civil liability only of the sentence shall automatically be
3167. If the penalty for the crime suspended:
committed by the CICL is imprisonment a) imposition
of more than six years, diversion will be b) determination
within the jurisdiction of the c) execution
____________: d) discharge
a) barangay 3175. The ________________ has the
b) DSWD right to refuse the diversion program
c) police designed for the child:
d) court a) offended party
3168. Discernment is the determining b) parents of the child
factor if the CICL is over fifteen years old. c) victim
The decision as to whether the child d) social worker
acted with or without discernment is 3176. When the court decides to
made initially by the _______: execute the suspended sentence, the
a) social worker child must be transferred to a:
c) law enforcer a) youth rehabilitation center
b) CICL b) youth detention home
d) judge c) agricultural farm
3169. The duty of determining the age d) prison
of the child in conflict with the law lies 3177. It shall be the duty of the
with the _______: ______________________ to make
a) social worker proper recommendation to the court
b) law enforcer regarding the disposition of the child who
c) CICL is undergoing rehabilitation while under
d) judge suspension of sentence:
a) prosecutor
3170. The age of full criminal b) social worker
responsibility is: c) lawyer
a. Less than 18 but more than 70 years old d) judge
b. More than 18 but less than 70 years old 3178. All records pertaining to the
c. Over 15 but under 18 years old case of the child in conflict with the law
d. Not less than 18 but not more than 70 shall remain _______ and ______:
years old a) privileged and confidential
3171. It pertains to the document that b) classified and confidential
must be signed by the parents of the child c) privileged and restricted
in conflict with the law as part of the d) secret and confidential
conditions of diversion:
a) contract of diversion proceedings 3179. The age of full criminal
b) certification of conciliation irresponsibility is:
c) memorandum of agreement a. Over 15 but under 18 years old who
d) contract of diversion acted with discernment
3172. A child in conflict with the law b. 18 to 70 years old
who is under fifteen years of age shall be c. 15 years old and below
turned over to the ________________ by d. Below 18 even if the act is committed
the police for the determination of with discernment
appropriate program: 3180. It refers to the sum total of
a) nearest police station man's reaction to his environment or the
b) family way human beings act.
c) local DSWSD a. Human Beings
d) court b. Learning
c. Human Behavior
3173. The diversion proceedings must d. Stimulus
be completed within ____ days:
a) thirty 3181. Refers to any behavioral
b) forty-five reactions or reflexes exhibited by people
c) sixty because of their inherited capabilities or
d) twenty the process of natural selection.
3174. If the court finds that the child in a. Inherited Behavior
conflict with the law is guilty of the crime b. Inborn Behavior
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 c. Learned Behavior 3190. This type of conflict occurs when
d. both a and c there is an attraction to an object or state
3182. It is a behavior pattern where an of affairs at the same time repulsion
individual return to a state of form towards something associated with it.
adjustment and attempt to experience a. avoidance-avoidance
them again in memory. c. approach-approach
a. phobia c. approach-avoidance
b. anger d. multiple
b. frustration 3191. This is the process of excluding
d. regression from the consciousness a thought or
3183. Defense mechanisms are used feeling that causes pain, shame or guilt.
to shield one’s self from _____. a. identification
a. anger b. regression
b. fear c. repression
c. pleasure d. fixation
d. pain 3192. This is an attempt to disguise or
3184. Human behavior is man’s cover-up felt deficiencies or undesirable
response to the interpretation of the traits by emphasizing a desirable type of
______ from within the person or from behavior.
his environment. a. rationalization
a. stimulus b. sublimation
b. action c. compensation
c. perception (respose to sensation) d. projection
d. inclination 3193. Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology
3185. This personality system controls student, after tasting an unripe mango
the gateway to action. grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
a. alter ego a. olfactory
b. Id b. Auditory
c. ego c. cutaneous
d. Superego d. gustatory
3186. What is the process of 3194. This is a serious mental and
interpreting our behavior in ways to emotional disorder that is a
make it more acceptable to the self manifestation of withdrawal from reality.
usually with the use of good reasons and a. Neurosis
alibi to substitute for real cause? b. Depression
a. projection c. Psychosis
b. sublimation d. Anxiety
c. rationalization 3195. This occurs when goal
d. Compensation achievement is blocked.
a. frustration
3187. Conflicts and their behavioral b. conflict
outcomes are classified as follows, c. anxiety
EXCEPT: d. Depression
a. avoidance-approach
b. avoidance-avoidance 3196. The aggregate observable
c. approach-avoidance responses of an organism to internal and
d. approach-approach external stimuli.
3188. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, a. human behavior
boxed a nearby tree manifests what b. behavior
particular defense mechanism? c. personality
a. repression d. attribute
b. sublimation 3197. The process by which behavior
c. displacement changes as a result of experience or
d. projection practice.
3189. An uncontrollable, morbid a. actualization
propensity to steal or pathological b. learning
stealing. c. thinking
a. kleptomania d. feeling
b. pyromania 3198. This type of conflict occurs when
c. phobia there are two desirable but mutually
d. Dipsomania exclusive goals.
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 a. avoidance-avoidance a. Reaction formation
b. approach-approach b. displacement
c. approach-avoidance c. Sublimation
d. multiple d. rationalization
3199. This type of conflict when there 3207. Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on
are two courses of action, each of which her boyfriend when she saw the latter
has both pleasant and unpleasant kissing another girl, cries. This is an
consequences. example of what defense mechanism?
a. avoidance-avoidance a. Regression
b. approach-approach b. suppression
c. approach-avoidance c. Repression
d. multiple d. displacement
3200. This is an excessive, irrational 3208. Texting while driving is an
and uncontrollable fear of a perfectly example of what classification of human
natural situation or object. behavior?
a. melancholia a. Habitual
b. phobia b. symbolic
c. exaltation c. Instinctive
d. Mania d. complex

3201. It is characterized by anxiety, 3209. It

depression and phobia. refers to the person’s knowledge of a
a. psychoses given stimulus which largely helps to
b. neuroses determine the actual behavioral
c. abnormality response in a given situation.
d. Psychopathy a. Perception
b. awareness
3202. Hydrophobia is fear of c. Sensation
________. d. Learning
a. Water
b. darkness 3210. A person who is a balanced
c. Snakes introvert and extrovert is said to be:
d. deep water a. Psychotic
3203. A distortion in reality such as b. ambivert
delusion, hallucination and regression. c. Neurotic
a. psychosis d. angry bird
b. neurosis 3211. He is known as the “Father of
c. abnormality Psychoanalysis”.
d. psychopathy a. Tom Cruise
3204. A transmission of physical b. Gina Ferrero-Lombroso
characteristics, mental traits, tendency to c. Sigmund Freud
disease, etc. from parents to offspring. d. Cesare Lombroso
a. heredity 3212. Coping mechanism is the way
b. environment people react to __________.
c. inheritance a. Fear
d. Introvert b. anxiety
3205. Drug addicts and alcoholics may c. Frustration
deny that they have problems. This is a d. Anger
manifestation of what type of defense
mechanism? 3213. It can be seen among people
a. Fantasy who handle their problems in a very
b. sublimation objective way.
c. Denial a. Coping Mechanism
d. displacement b. Direct Approach
3206. Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. c. Detour
Criminology student in the evening d. Withdrawal
session, blames his poor performance in 3214. The most tolerated way of
the preliminary examination to his handling frustration.
professor rather than his lack of a. Defense Mechanism
preparation. This is an example of what b. Direct Approach
type of defense mechanism? c. Detour

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 d. Withdrawal d. Symbolic
3215. A type of defense mechanism 3223. It is the ability to withstand
whereby a person concentrates in area frustration without developing
where he can excel. inadequate modes of response such as
a. Displacement being emotionally depressed or irritated,
b. compensation becoming neurotic, or becoming
c. Rationalization aggressive.
d. fantasy a. Frustration Tolerance
3216. What type of defense b. Frustration Shield
mechanism is manifested by Pining c. Frustration Flexibility
Garcia when he joined the fraternity, d. all of the above
Alpha Phi Chupapi, because of low self- 3224. Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP
esteem? applicant, turned up applying into the
a. Identification Armed Forces of the Philippines when he
b. projection failed in the initial height and weight
c. Fantasy measurement stage because he was
d. regression under height. This is an example of:
3217. This refers to an action- a. Sublimation
producing agent: b. repression
a. Motives c. Substitution
b. Drives d. withdrawal
c. Stimulus 3225. Which of the following items
d. sensation does not belong to the group?
3218. Human actions in relation to a. prostitution
events taking place inside the body such b. assassination
as the brain and the nervous system is c. sabotage
known as: d. bombing
a. Neurological 3226. It is characterized by infantile
b. psychological level of response, lack of conscience,
c. Cognitive deficient feeling of affection to others
d. Humanistic and aggression to environment and other
people.
3219. A child who is always brushing a. schizophrenic personality
his teeth after eating manifests what b. psychopathic personality
particular classification of human c. compulsive neurosis
behavior? d. neurotic personality
a. Habitual 3227. Which of the following is not a
b. complex common tactic in terrorism?
c. Instinctive a. robbery
d. symbolic c. bombing
3220. Displaying the diplomas and b. hijacking
graduation awards signify one’s d. kidnapping
academic achievement. This 3228. This is an abnormal mental
classification of human behavior is known condition whereby a person performs an
as: act while sleeping.
a. Habitual a. somnambulism
b. complex b. mesmerism
c. Instinctive c. somnolencia
d. symbolic d. delirium
3221. Mathematical ability and English 3229. Animals are used for the
communication skills are examples of achievement of sexual excitation and
what type of human behavior? gratification.
a. Learned a. voyeurism
b. inborn b. fetishism
c. Operant c. pedophilia
d. both a and c d. bestiality
3222. Eating when you are hungry is 3230. A person suffers from _____
an example of _______ behavior. when he developed a maladaptive
a. Habitual behavior in his childhood as a result of an
b. complex external influence that later on becomes
c. Instinctive
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 a part of his lifestyle and which he uses to d. traffic control
relate to the world around him. 3239. Antonio, a funeral parlor
a. personality disorder attendant takes place pleasure in
b. abnormal behavior imagining having sexual relations with
c. personality behavior newly dead young female bodies who
d. abnormal personality were victims of suicides or vehicular
3231. These are priorities in a hostage accidents. What sexual deviant act did
taking situation EXCEPT, Antonio commit?
a. Preservation of life a. necrophilia
b. Arrest of hostage taker b. rape
c. recover and protect property c. incest
d. involve the media d. none
3232. Containment in a hostage taking 3240. The most important person in a
situation refers to: hostage situation:
a. police handling of the situation a. negotiator
b. negotiation b. hostage taker
c. contact c. commander
d. control of area and people d. hostage
3233. The cardinal rule to follow in a 3241. A group of bank robbers
hostage taking situation is, barricaded themselves inside the bank
a. commanders should not negotiate, together with their hostages; their
negotiators should not command demand is geared towards:
b. open the communication at once a. revenge
c. negotiate b. economic gain
d. ask for demands c. escape
3234. When both hostage and hostage d. vindication
taker develop a mutual feeling of 3242. In hostage situation, non-verbal
sympathy, understanding, and other communication which indicates
shared stand on issues, leading them to openness and willingness to listen can be
become enemies of the State, this turn shown by:
referred to as, a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant
a. Stockholm Syndrome position
b. Confrontation b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
c. Negotiation assurance
d. familiarization c. by not attempting to trick or lie
3235. Motivation is classified under 28 d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that
needs. The need to assault or injure is: you are willing to negotiate
a. need deference 3243. It is referred to as sexual
b. need aggression gratification by watching nude woman or
c. need recognition man.
d. need order a. exhibitionism
3236. The need to influence or control b. voyeurism
others is: c. transvestitism
a. need order d. fetishism
b. need dominance
c. need achievement 3244. It is characterized by infantile
d. need exhibition level of response, lack of conscience
3237. A person has _____ when deficient feeling of affection to others
he/she has painful memories associated and aggression.
with some shocking experience which are a. schizophrenic personality
repressed and cannot be b. psychopathic personality
recalled. c. compulsive neurosis
a. anxiety d. neurotic personality
b. delusions 3245. This is a mentally disturbed
c. amnesia person who is opposed to the principles
d. phobia upon which society is based.
3238. The first step in hostage taking a. Anti-social
crisis is: b. Psychopath
a. crowd control b. Schizophrenic
c. negotiation d. Sociopath
b. assault
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 3246. A morbid insanity characterized social relationships and can be classified
by a deep and morbid sense of religious as “loners”.
feeling. A. Paranoid Personality
a. mania B. Schizoid Personality
b. mania fanatica C. Dependent Personality
b. delusion D. Borderline Personality
d. legal insanity
3254. A personality disorder
3247. This is impairment in desire for characterized by instability, reflected in
sexual gratification in the male or an dramatic mood shifts and behavior
inability to achieve it. problems. Such individuals are frequently
a. masturbation described as impulsive and
b. prostitution unpredictable.
c. exhibitionism A. Borderline Personality
d. frigidity B. Compulsive Personality
3248. This is any pattern of behavior C. Passive-aggressive Personality
including a habitual, preferred, and D. Anti-social Personality
compelling need for sexual gratification
by any technique, other than willing 3255. When the disorder is
coitus between man and woman and characterized by chronic mental and
involving actions that are directly results physical fatigue and by various aches and
in genital excite. pains, it is considered as:
a. crime against chastity b. acts A. Anxiety Disorder
of lasciviousness B. Somatoform Disorder
c. sexual deviation C. Dissociative Disorder
d. sexual offenses D. Amnesia
3249. The best approach in 3256. The cardinal rule to follow in a
negotiating with a Paranoid hostage taking situation is,
Schizophrenic hostage taker is: a. commanders should not negotiate,
a. to accept their beliefs as being true negotiators should not command
b. to try to convince them that their beliefs b. open the communication at once
are wrong c. negotiate
c. to show them that they are just crazy d. ask for demands
d. to try to bluff or trick them 3257. In general, hostage takers are
3250. The following are reasons, why emotionally tense, when trapped expand
common criminals are easy to negotiate, a great deal of emotional physical and
except: psychic energy, hence:
a. fears of police assault and punishment a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers for the authorities
c. they are familiar with police operations b. shortening the time will pressed him to
and tactics surrender
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear
3251. In the field of terrorism, the them down
most common tactic used is_____? d. aggravating their stress will lead them to
A. Kidnapping surrender.
C. Bombing 3258. Considered as a “mortal sin” in
B. Assassination hostage situation.
D. Extortion a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
3252. A personality disorder b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the
characterized by suspiciousness, hostages
hypersensitivity, envy, excessive self c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
important, and argumentativeness, plus d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage
a tendency to blame others for one’s own taker
mistakes and failure and to ascribe evil
motives to others. 3259. They serve as stimuli-producing
A. Paranoid Personality action that satisfies a need:
B. Dependent Personality a. interest
C. Schizoid Personality b. perception
D. Borderline Personality c. motives
3253. A personality disorder d. drives
characterized by an inability to form
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 3260. It is an effective planning, d. assault and kill him immediately
formulation of an effective plan, policies,
procedures and techniques in dealing 3268. Considered to be the oldest
with sudden violent act of terrorist. tactic in terrorism:
a. Crisis management a. Prostitution
b. stress mgt. b. Bombing
c. hostage negotiation c. Assassination
d. political analysis d. Kidnapping
3261. Last option in hostage crisis: 3269. These are important in a
a. crowd control hostage taking situation, EXCEPT:
b. negotiation a. Presence of linguist negotiator
c. traffic control b. Considerable screening of all members
d. assault c. Dry run or constant practice
3262. It is any incident in which people d. Inclusion of the media people in the
are being held by another person or negotiation
persons against their will, usually by force 3270. It is the position from which a
or coercion, and demands are being unit commander and his staff exercise
made by the perpetrator. command over the hostage incident.
a. kidnapping a. command post
b. crisis management b. outer perimeter
c. hostage incident c. inner perimeter
d. abduction d. command headquarters
3263. “Persons in crisis” are those 3271. It is an assault team responsible
hostage takers who take hostages: in carrying out assault operation
a. by reason of mental illness whenever negotiation fails.
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, a. Negotiation Team
despair and problems b. Medical Team
c. for personal reason c. Tactical Team
d. because of political and ideological belief d. Response Team
3264. In psychoanalytic theory, the 3272. Pursuant to the PNP Police
unconscious wish for death is called; Operational Procedures Manual of 2010,
A. eros this group should immediately be
B. animus activated in case of hostage situation:
C. thanatos a. Hostage Negotiation Team
D. lupus b. Civil Disturbance
3265. In a crisis management, there is Management Team
no other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS” , c. Crisis Management Task Group
which means: d. PNP Command Post
a. the truth will prevail 3273. P/SSupt. Pablo Job is the highest
b. kill the hostage-taker ranking PNP officer who first arrives in a
c. to save lives hostage taking incident. As a rule he
d. save the host serves now as a ground commander on
3266. When a highly trained and the said crisis. Having decided to conduct
motivated group of hostage takers asked hostage rescue operations, the
non-negotiable demands, they were left objectives are as follows, except one:
with three options: (1) choose a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or
martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit unharmed, and set free.
suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by
realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If yielding to the demands of the hostage
they choose martyrdom and kill takers.
hostages, the useful action is: c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
a. attack them swiftly with precision d. hostage takers come to the fold of the
b. withhold the media from the terrorist law by surrendering or be incapable of
c. give all their demands causing harm
d. let the hostages killed 3274. Which of the following is
3267. In hostage negotiation, if the considered least among terroristic tactic?
hostage taker demands an a.noise barrage
airplane/helicopter, what will you do? b.assassination
a. go to your ground commander c.bombing
b. give it with consent d.kidnapping
c. talk to him and delay the moment
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 3275. In dealing with the hostage
taker, the negotiator should not: 3282. An Act Strengthening the
a.give his name Juvenile Justice System in the Philippines.
b. give his rank and designation A. RA 9344
c.give in to all demands B. RA 10630
d.look friendly or accommodating C. RA 10627
3276. The highest ranking field D. RA 8960
commander should not also be the chief 3283. It is one of the most important assets of the
negotiator because: nation. Thus, every effort should be exerted to
promote his welfare and enhance his opportunities
a. hostage takers will be afraid for a useful and happy life.
b. he is not authorized to grant A. Teenager
concessions B. Kid
c. of conflict of interest as mediator and C. Child
decision maker D. Youth
d. hostage takers will not trust him 3284. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is under
3277. What is known to be the oldest what agency of the government?
but commonly used terrorist tactic where A. Department of Justice
target are often police, military officials B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
or political figures? C. Department of Tourism
a.Hijacking D. Department of Interior and Local Government
b. Ambush 3285. It refers to any form of detention or
c.Assassination imprisonment, or to the placement of a child in
d. Kidnap for Ransom conflict with the law in a public or private custodial
3278. The stage of advance planning, setting, from which the child in conflict with the law
organization and coordination and is not permitted to leave at will by order of any
control in response to an anticipated judicial or administrative authority.
future crisis occurrence is called A. Apprehension
a. Proactive Crisis Management B. Confinement
b. Reactive Crisis Management C. Deprivation of Liberty
c. Performance Stage D. Incarceration
d. Reaction Phase
3286. It refers to any organization whose members are
3279. A comprehensive plan which 21 years or older which is directly or indirectly
delineates responsibilities and specific involved in carrying out child welfare activities and
action to be taken when a bomb incident programs.
or bomb threat occurs is called A. NGO
a. Floor plan B. Youth association
b. Bomb threat plan C. Youth organization
c. Drill D. Civic organization
d. Contingency plan
3287. The taking of the statement of the child in
3280. the crime charged against a conflict with the law shall be conducted in the
child in conflict with the law is more than presence of the following, EXCEPT.
12 years of imprisonment, which will A. Child’s counsel of choice
determine whether diversion is B. Local Social Welfare and Development Officer
necessary? C. Child’s relative
A. The Police D. Child’s parents
B. The Prosecutor
C. The Court 3288. It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the
D. The Barangay Chairman Protection of Children in the formulation and
3281. From the moment a child is implementation of juvenile intervention and
taken into custody, the law enforcement diversion programs in the If community.
officer shall immediately but not later A. Women and Children Protection Desk
than hours after apprehension, B. Local Government Unit
turnover custody of the child to the Social C. Sangguniang Kabataan
Welfare and Development Office. D. Local Social Welfare and Development
A. Nine 3289. It attributes variations in delinquency to
B. Eight influence social structures.
C. Seven A. Biogenic approach
D. Six B. Sociogenic approach
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 C. Psychogenic approach 3297. It refers to inherited propensities which cannot
D. All of these be considered a criminal one unless there is a
3290. It refers to a person whose behavior results with probability that a crime will be committed.
repeated conflict with the law. A. Precipitating factor
A. Delinquent B. Environmental factor
B. Habitual delinquent C. Biologic factor
C. Juvenile D. Predisposing factor
D. Recidivist 3298. A person who learns the facts or circumstances
3291. Failure to provide for the child’s support for this that give rise to the belief that a child has suffered
period shall be a presumptive evidence of the intent abuse may report the same to what agency?
to abandon. A. School
A. 3 Months B. Neighborhood Association
B. 5 Months C. Barangay Council
C. 4 Months D. Church
D. 6 Months 3299. Who are those with any behavioral disorder,
3292. These are undesirable conditions in the whether functional or organic, which of such a
community which are harmful to the youth, EXCEPT. degree of severity as to require professional help or
A. Gambling Houses hospitalization?
B. Recreational Facilities A. Mentally Ill Children
C. Vice Dens B. Physically Handicapped Children
D. Attractive Nuisances C. Emotional Disturbed Children
3293. This view asserts that children who started D. Retarded at Maturity
delinquent careers early and committed violent acts 3300. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts
throughout their adolescence would likely to and becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a:
continue as adults. A. Social delinquent
A. Culture conflict B. Accidental delinquent
B. Persistence C. Asocial delinquent
C. Containment theory D. Neurotic delinquent
D. Reflective role taking 3301. It exists when the children are maltreated, raped
3294. If the offender is over nine years of age but under or seduced; when children are exploited, over
18 years of age at the time of the commission of the worried or made to beg in the streets or public
crime, he is often referred to as? places, or when children are in moral danger, or
A. Socialized delinquent exposed to gambling, prostitution, or other vices.
B. Truant A. Physically Neglected Child
C. Criminal B. Emotionally Neglected Child
D. Youth offender C. Psychologically Neglected Child
3295. What is an institution that receives and D. Sexually Neglected Child
rehabilitates youthful offenders or other disturbed 3302. The implementation of the comprehensive
children who have behavioral problems for the juvenile intervention program shall be reviewed and
purpose of determining the appropriate care for assessed annually by Local Government Unit and its
them or recommending their permanent treatment result shall be submitted by the provincial and city
or rehabilitation in other child welfare agencies? governments to the Juvenile Justice and Welfare
A. Rehabilitation Center Council not later than of what date of every year?
B. Reintegration Center A. February 28
C. Reformation Center B. April 30
D. Restoration Center C. March 30
3296. Which among the following is not part of the D. May 30
rights of a child in conflict with the law? 3303. This is the highest group of mentally retarded,
A. The right to be imposed a sentence of capital with I.Q.s from about 75 to about 89. The members
punishment or life imprisonment, without the of this classification are only slightly retarded and
possibility of release they can usually get by in regular classes if they
B. The right not to be subjected to torture or other receive some extra help, guidance and
cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or consideration.
punishment A. Trainable group
C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or B. Custodial group
arbitrarily, of his/her liberty; detention or C. Educable group
imprisonment being a disposition of last resort, D. Borderline or low normal group
and which shall be for the shortest appropriate 3304. It refers to any club, organization or association
period of time of individuals below twenty-one years of age which
D. The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate is directly or indirectly involved in carrying out child
cases or youth welfare programs and activities.
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 A. Samahan B. Accidental
B. Student organization C. Neurotic
C. Sanguniang Kabataan D. Asocial
D. Youth association 3313. Putting a child under duress to consent to
3305. A theory that point criminal behavioral patterns engage in an activity.
to childhood socialization and pro or anti social A. Coercion
attachments over the life course. B. Cruelty
A. Culture conflict C. Molestation
B. Social development model D. Abuse
C. Differential opportunity 3314. It is otherwise known as Special Protection of
D. Containment theory Children Against Child Abuse, Exploitation and
3306. This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about Discrimination Act of 1992.
75, and the intellectual development is A. RA 6809
approximately ½ to ¾ of that expected of a normal B. RA 9344
child of the same chronological age. C. RA 9262
A. Trainable group D. RA 7610
B. Borderline or low normal group 3315. It asserts that lower class youths with limited
C. Educable group legitimate opportunity, join gangs and pursue a
D. Custodial group criminal career to achieve alternate means universal
3307. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is success goals.
a result of factors such as personal problems, A. Culture conflict
ignorance and curiosity. B. Social development model
A. Predisposing factor C. Containment theory
B. Environmental factor D. Differential opportunity
C. Biologic factor 3316. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of
D. Precipitating factor 2006”, which among the following refers to a child
3308. This is where the molding of the character of the who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having
child starts and every member of the family should committed an offense under Philippine laws?
strive to make it a wholesome and a harmonious A. Juvenile Delinquent
place. B. Child in Conflict with the Law
A. Family C. Minor Offender
B. Home
D. Youth Criminal
C. Church
D. School 3317. It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem
3309. The youth misdeed may be attributed to their on delinquency through undertaking preventive
learning process cultured in on youth gangs, programs, policies and activities.
stigmatizing contacts with governmental and social A. Philippine National Police
control agencies and other similar variables. B. Department of National Defense
A. Biogenic approach C. Local Government
B. Socio-genic approach D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
C. Psychogenic approach 3318. An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children
D. None of the above Below 15 Years of Age in Public and Private
3310. What program is required for the child in conflict Undertakings.
with the law to undergo after he/she is found A. RA 7610
responsible for an offense without resorting to B. RA 9262
formal court proceedings? C. RA 7658
A. Diversion D. RA 9231
B. Community Service 3319. A type of gang in which vices, consumption of
C. Parole drugs and illicit experiences is stressed.
D. Probation A. Conflict sub-culture
3311. It is the application of the criminal justice to B. Criminal sub-culture
minors and youthful offender through the C. Retreatist sub-culture
cooperation of the criminal justice system. D. All of these
A. Child Justice System 3320. It refers to one with no proper parental care or
B. Youth Justice System guardianship, whose abandonment is for a period of
C. Minor Justice System at least six months.
D. Juvenile Justice System A. Neglected Child
3312. A category of delinquency which may be B. Deserted Child
credited to peer pressure or pure curiosity on the C. Unattended Child
part of the young person. D. Abandoned Child
A. Social
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3321. It refers to the programs provided in a 3328. A phenomenon that occurs when youth who
community setting developed for purposes of regard themselves as delinquents are giving an inner
intervention and diversion, as well as rehabilitation voice to their perception or view of how significant
of the child in conflict with the law, for reintegration others feel about them.
into his/her family and/or community. A. Reflective role taking
A. Community Juvenile Programs B. Culture conflict
B. Community Rehabilitation Programs C. Persistence
C. Community Outreach Programs D. Containment theory
D. Community - Based Programs 3329. A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the
3322. Who shall coordinate with the Local Councils for Department of Social Welfare and Development or
the Protection of Children (LCPC) in the formulation any duly licensed child placement agency or
and implementation of juvenile intervention and individual.
diversion programs in the community? A. Placement
A. Sangguniang Kabataan B. Commitment
B. Kabataan Partylist C. Consignment
C. Commission on Human Right D. Entrustment
D. National Youth Commission 3330. Failure to provide the basic needs of a child.
3323. Their degree of success or accomplishment A. Abuse
depends upon the quality and type of education they B. Cruelty
receive as well as on the treatment at home and in C. Exploitation
the community, their I.Q range from about 50 to 75. D. Neglect
A. Educable 3331. High moral principles should be instilled in the
B. Custodial child by the following, EXCEPT.
C. Borderline A. Government
D. Trainable B. School
3324. It refers to anti-social act which deviates from C. Home
normal pattern of rules and regulations. D. Church
A. Recidivism 3332. A child left by himself without provisions for his
B. Juvenile delinquency needs and / or without proper supervision.
C. Quasi recidivism A. Unattended Child
D. Delinquency B. Neglected Child
3325. It refers to persons and individuals who are C. Dependent Child
effective deterrents to crime and delinquency such D. Abandoned Child
as police or watchful and concerned neighbors. 3333. It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate
A. Clever guardians process of determining the responsibility and
B. Proficient guardians treatment of a child in conflict with the law on the
C. Capable guardians basis of his/her social, cultural, economic,
D. Qualified guardians psychological or educational background without
resorting to formal court proceedings.
A. Diversion
B. Friendly Interview
3326. It exists when the child is malnourished, ill clad C. Due Process
and without proper shelter. A child is unattended D. Preliminary Investigation
when left by himself without provision for his needs 3334. Family home type which provide temporary
and/or without proper supervision. What shelter from 10 to 20 days for children under
classification of neglected child is this? observation by the DSWD.
A. Physically Neglected Child A. Receiving homes
B. Psychologically Neglected Child B. Maternity homes
C. Emotionally Neglected Child C. Nursery
D. Sexually Neglected Child D. Shelter care institution
3327. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk 3335. His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious
and children in conflict with the law, which provides quality for which the youth feels no remorse.
child-appropriate proceedings, including programs A. Asocial
and services for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, B. Neurotic
re-integration and aftercare to ensure their normal C. Accidental
growth and development. D. Social
A. Child Justice and Welfare 3336. It is known as spontaneous remission, it is the
B. Youth Justice and Welfare manner by which an individual reduce the rate of
C. Minor Justice and Welfare their aberrant behavior as they age.
D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare A. Aging-out
B. Decadence
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 C. Desistance 3345. Forcing an activity on the child without consent.
D. Reduction A. Coercion
3337. Who among the following shall primarily ensure B. Abuse
that the status, rights and interests of children are C. Cruelty
upheld in accordance with the Constitution and D. Molestation
international instruments on human rights? 3346. View that youth can move in and out of
A. National Youth Commission delinquency and that their lifestyle can adjust and
B. Kabataan Partylist embrace both deviant and conventional values.
C. Commission on Human Rights A. Swift
D. Sangguniang Kabataan B. Drift
3338. Sellin’s study which asserts that it is a condition C. Coast
which results from rules and norms of an individual’s D. Waft
sub-cultural affiliation disagreement with the role of 3347. A term coined by Wolfgang to denote a
demands of conformist society. delinquent offender who is arrested more than four
A. Differential opportunity times before the age of majority and stands a good
B. Culture conflict chance of becoming an adult criminal.
C. Containment theory A. Acute offender
D. Social development model B. Severe offender
3339. Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some C. Chronic offender
hereditary defect. D. Desperate offender
A. Psychogenic approach 3348. A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may
B. Biologic approach do so with a permit or clearance issued by:
C. Sociogenic approach A. The parents
D. Biogenic approach B. The guardians
3340. It is characterized by disrespect or disobedience C. Department of Social Welfare and Development
for authority. D. Any of the choices
A. Emotional Disorder 3349. This refers to children who are unable to cope
B. Vagrancy with their family life and chooses to leave the family
C. Truancy home. This is a direct result of feeble-mindedness,
D. Anti Social Behavior disagreeable home conditions, broken homes and
3341. These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind, or misdirected fancy for adventures.
otherwise defective which restricts their means of A. Vagrancy
action on communication with others. B. Cheating
A. Physically Handicapped Children C. Lying
B. Mentally Subnormal D. Stealing
C. Essentially Incurable 3350. What is a child caring institution that provides
D. Retarded at Maturity care for six or more children below six years of age
3342. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital twenty-four hours a day, except those duly licensed
upon any knowledge of a child who have been to offer primarily medical and educational services?
treated or suffered from abuse. A. Nursery
A. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon B. Detention Home
discovery of abuse C. Day Care
B. Report the incident to the family D. Maternity
C. Report the incident to the law enforcement 3351. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and
authority conditions, which are most congenial to the survival,
D. File a case in court in behalf of the child protection and feelings of security of the child and
3343. Aside from the child, who may file a complaint most encouraging to the child's physical,
against any violation of R.A. 7610? psychological and emotional development.
A. Parents or guardians A. Anti Youth Exploitation Measure
B. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3rd B. Special Protection of Minor
degree of consanguinity C. Restorative Juvenile Justice
C. Barangay Chairman Officer or DSWD or at least D. Best Interest of the Child
any three responsible citizen 3352. A place of residence whose primary function is to
D. All of the choices give shelter and care to pregnant women and their
3344. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct infants.
result of internal conflict and pre-occupation with his A. Maternity home
own emotion and mood. B. Hospital
A. Neurotic C. Rehabilitation center
B. Social D. Foster homes
C. Accidental
D. Asocial
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3353. This may be demonstrated by any of the B. Minor Delinquency
following: severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or C. Child Delinquency
withdrawal behavior. D. Youth Delinquency
A. Psychological injury 3361. Police officers who have taken into custody a
B. Mental injury child in conflict with the law, under the juvenile
C. Physical injury justice act is mandated to turn over said child to the
D. Emotional injury custody of the Department of Social Welfare and
3354. It refers to a series of activities, which are Development or any accredited Non-Government
designed to address issues that caused the child to Organization immediately but not later than
commit an offense. It may take the form of an hours after apprehension.
individualized treatment program, which may A. 8
include counseling, skills training, education, and B. 24
other activities that will enhance his/her C. 12
psychological, emotional and psychosocial well- D. 36
being. 3362. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by
A. Diversion aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of
B. Rehabilitation any person who tries to control his behavior.
C. Probation A. Neurotic
D. Intervention B. Accidental
3355. If children, whether male or female, who for C. Asocial
money, profit or any other consideration or due to D. Social
the coercion or influence of any adult, syndicate or 3363. If the parents, guardians or nearest relatives of
group, are indulge in sexual intercourse or lascivious the CICL refused to take custody, the child may be
conduct it is known as… release to any of the following, EXCEPT.
A. Child Abuse A. Duly registered nongovernmental or religious
B. Child Trafficking organization
C. Child Prostitution B. A barangay official or a member of the Barangay
D. Child Exploitation Council for the Protection of Children
3356. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from C. A local social welfare and development officer
occurring D. Duly authorized Women and Children Protection
A. Control Desk Officer
B. Recession 3364. It accounts for individual offender by reference
C. Repression to learning process, which goes on in youth gangs,
D. Prevention stigmatizing contacts with social control agencies
3357. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of and other variables of that time.
2006”, it refers to the person in authority or his/her A. Biogenic
agent as defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal B. Psychogenic
Code, including a barangay tanod. C. Phatogenic
A. Police Officer D. Sociogenic
B. Probation Officer 3365. It plays an active role in the promotion of child
C. Law Enforcement Officer rights, and delinquency prevention by relaying
D. Public Officer consistent messages through a balanced approach.
3358. He is one whose basic needs have been A. The mass media
deliberately unattended or inadequately attended. B. The family
A. Abandoned Child C. The community
B. Abused Child D. The educational system
C. Neglected Child 3366. What approach towards delinquency views the
D. Dependent Child lawbreaker as a person whose misconduct is the
3359. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 result of faulty biology?
years old. A. Phatogenic
A. Adolescence B. Biogenic
B. Early adolescence C. Psychogenic
C. Juvenile D. Sociogenic
D. None of the above 3367. In determining whether diversion is appropriate
3360. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which and desirable, the following factors shall be taken
deviates from the normal pattern of rules and into consideration, EXCEPT.
regulation, custom and culture which society does
not accept and which therefore, justifies some kind A. The safety of the child
of corrective measures in the public interest and it is B. The nature and circumstances of the offense
being committed by minors? charged
A. Juvenile Delinquency C. The circumstances of the child
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 D. The best interest of the child of the victim, the offender and the community. It
3368. It refers to offenses, which discriminate only seeks to obtain reparation for the victim;
against a child, while an adult does not suffer any reconciliation of the offender, the offended and the
penalty for committing similar acts. These shall community; and reassurance to the offender that
include curfew violations; truancy, parental he/she can be reintegrated into society. It also
disobedience and the like. enhances public safety by activating the offender,
A. Delinquency the victim and the community in prevention
B. Exclusive strategies.
C. Status A. Restorative Justice
D. Grave B. Rehabilitative Justice
3369. Children detained pending trial may be released C. Reformative Justice
on bail or as provided for under Sections D. Reintegrative Justice
34 and 35 of RA 9344. 3377. It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility
A. Probation managed by the Department of Social Welfare and
B. Recognizance Development (DSWD), LGUs, licensed and/or
C. Parole accredited NGOs monitored by the DSWD, which
D. Bond provides care, treatment and rehabilitation services
3370. Which of the following refers to the for children in conflict with the law. Rehabilitation
maltreatment of a minor, whether habitual or not? services are provided under the guidance of a trained
A. Caress staff where residents are cared for under a
B. Abuse structured therapeutic environment with the end
C. Discrimination view of reintegrating them into their families and
D. Exploitation communities as socially functioning individuals.
3371. He is one who is without a parent or guardian, or Physical mobility of residents of said centers may be
whose parents, guardian or other custodian for good restricted pending court disposition of the charges
cause desire to be relieved of his care and custody; against them.
and is dependent upon the public of support. A. Youth Reformation Center
A. Abandoned Child B. Youth Reintegration Center
B. Neglected Child C. Youth Rehabilitation Center
C. Abused Child D. Youth Restoration Center
D. Dependent Child 3378. The child who is under 18-years of age at the
3372. It refers to aggregate of persons or those time of the commission of the offense is found guilty
responsible persons from various sector of the of the offense charged, shall place the child under
community. .
A. Organization A. Recognizance
B. Association B. Diversion
C. Club C. Bail
D. Samahan D. Suspended Sentence
3373. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide
short term resident care for youthful offenders. 3379. Who is the chairman of the Lupon
A. Bahay Pag-asa Tagapamayapa in the Barangay Level where there is
B. Nursery a diversion program?
C. Child caring institution A. Punong Barangay
D. Foster home B. BCPC Chairman
C. LSWDO
3374. The parents of guardian of a working child is D. PNP member
obligated by law to set up a trust fund for the child
which shall constitute at least percent of the 3380. This criminal justice model is
earning of the child. based on the idea that the most
A. 20 important function of the CJS is the
B. 40 protection of the public and the
C. 30 repression of criminal conduct.
D. 50 a. Crime prevention
3375. The chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare b. Crime control
Council under the law is: c. Law and order
A. The undersecretary of the DOJ d. Due process
B. The undersecretary of DepEd 3381. According to this criminal justice
C. The undersecretary of the DILG model, the rights of an individual must be
D. The undersecretary of the DSWD co-equal with the concern for public
3376. It refers to a principle, which requires a process safety.
of resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement
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 a. Crime prevention c. prosecution (Executive)
b. crime control d. correction (judiciary)
c. Law and order 3389. This is a governmental body that
d. due process is charged with the responsibility of
3382. This concerns to the obligations administering justice.
of the community to individuals, and a. Law enforcement
requires fair disbursement of common b. correction
advantages and sharing of common c. Prosecution
burden. d. court
a. Prosecution 3390. Any person directly vested with
b. justice jurisdiction, whether as an individual or
c. equality as a member of some court, Government
d. trial Corporation, board or commission.
3383. This function of the law a. Agent of person in authority
enforcement is being done through b. Government employee
elimination of factors influencing the c. Government officer
occurrence of crimes, good community d. person in authority
relations, educating the citizens about 3391. A pillar of CJS which occupies a
their role, introduction of delinquency unique position in the Philippine Criminal
prevention programs, good parenting Justice System serving as the lawyer of
and others. the State or government in criminal
a. Maintenance of law and order cases.
b. Reduction of crime a. law enforcement
c. crime prevention b. court
d. crime control c. prosecution
3384. This principal character of the d. correction
criminal justice process links all 3392. This document is required by
components of the CJS. the Prosecutor’s Office before it can
a. Offender entertain a complaint on a case covered
b. Victim by the Barangay Court.
c. witness a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
d. Crime b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
3385. The frontline defender of c. Certificate to file action
democracy in the CJS. d. complaint affidavit
a. Prosecution 3393. It refers to the study of the
b. Correction various agency of our government in
c. Police charged of processing law violators to
d. Court ensure the protection of the society and
3386. He is responsible in evaluating maintenance of peace and order.
the evidence the police have gathered a. Criminology
and deciding whether it is sufficient to b. Criminal Justice
warrant the filing of charge(s) against the c. Victimlogy
alleged violator. d. Sociology
a. Investigator 3394. Refers to the person who is
b. judge being implicated to the commission of a
c. prosecutor crime and subject of an investigation.
d. solicitor genera a. Convict
3387. He is an arbiter in court who b. respondent
ensues that the defense and the c. Accused
prosecution adhere to the legal d. suspect
requirements of introducing evidences. 3395. Is the machinery of the state
a. Clerk of court which enforces the rules of conduct
b. judge necessary to protect life and property
c. sheriff and to maintain peace and order?
d. jury a. Criminal Justice System
3388. The pillar of the CJS which is not b. Criminology
under the executive branch of the c. Criminal law
government. d. Criminal jurisprudence
a. law enforcement (Excutive) 3396. It is that degree of proof
b. court requires in criminal case which would
convince a reasonable mind based on
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 moral certainty but which nevertheless a. R.A. 8294
does not preclude the possibility of error. b. R.A. 7080
a. Preponderance of evidence c. R.A. 1379
b. Clear and convincing evidence d. R.A. 3019
c. substantive evidence
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
3404. Exclusive original jurisdiction
3397. A negotiation between the over all offenses punishable with
defense counsel and the prosecutor, imprisonment not exceeding six years.
aimed at reaching an agreement a. Supreme Court
whereby the prosecutor uses discretion c. RTC
to obtain from the judge a lighter b. Court of Appeals
sentence in exchange for the defendant’s d. MTC
entering a guilty plea. 3405. It is otherwise known as the
a. arraignment Department of the Interior and Local
b. preliminary investigation Government Act of 1990, enacted on
c. pre-trial December 13, 1990. Established the PNP,
d. plea bargaining BFP, BJMP and the PPSC.
a. R.A. 6975
3398. The PNP is the law enforcement b. P.D. 1184
agency of the country which is under the c. R.A. 8551
________? d. R.A. 6040
a. DOJ
b. DILG 3406. Refers to that sector of society
c. NAPOLCOM composed of NGO’s, cause oriented
d. DSWD groups and advocacy groups that
3399. A person who is under custodial promote the welfare of the people
investigation is basically protected by a against all forms of abuse and
number of rights mandated under the exploitation.
constitution and this was even a. crime control
expounded in the legislative act known as b. political parties
_______? c. civil society
a. Miranda Doctrine d. volunteer
b. R.A. 7438 3407. It is the process of reducing if
c. Bill of Rights not eliminate the existence of a cause
d. R.A. 6975 from initially occurring, thus, lessen the
3400. A body officially assembled police work as suppressing the spread of
under authority of law in which judicial criminality.
power is vested or the administration of a. Crime Prevention
justice is delegated. b. Crime control
a. court c. Criminal apprehension
b. corrections d. law enforcement
c. prosecution 3408. Directly under the supervision of
d. law enforcement the Department of Justice, its most
3401. A body of civil authority tasked important function in the Criminal Justice
to maintain peace and order, enforce the System is to maintain and recognize the
law, protect life, liberty and property and rule of law through the speedy d2elivery
ensure public safety. of services particularly in the prosecution
a. police and investigation of all crimes.
b. prosecution a. National Prosecution Service
c. court b. PNP
d. corrections c. Ombudsman
3402. System of taking care of the d. Solicitor General
custody, rehabilitation and treatment of 3409. What do you call a court
persons convicted of committing crime. covering two (2) or more municipalities?
a. police a. MTC
b. prosecution b. MeTC
c. court c. MCTC
d. corrections d. MTC’s
3403. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt 3410. What is that term which refers
Practices Act”. to the wise use of one’s own judgment in
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 a given situation without referring to 3417. It refers to the ways and means
your superior due to the eminence of the of trapping and capturing the law
situation? breakers in the execution of their
a. Police resourcefulness criminal plan.
b. Police discretion a. Instigation
c. Police integrity b. Entrapment
d. police prudence c. Investigation
3411. It refers to the art or science of d. Raid
identifying law violators, locating and 3418. A pillar of our CJS which is not
tracing them in order to affect their under or interdependent from any
arrest and gather evidence to prove their branch of government.
guilt in court. a. prosecution
a. Crime prevention b. correction
b. criminal investigation c. court
c. Crime control d. community
d. Intelligence work 3419. During trial of a criminal case, it
3412. An attached agency of the Office is the prosecutor who directs the
of the President tasked to implement and prosecution of the offense and he/she
undertake drug law enforcement. did it on the behalf of the state. Once a
a. Narcotics Command case is elevated to the higher court such
b. AID-SOTF as Court of Appeals, who represents the
c. PDEA State in the prosecution of the offense?
d. NBI a. Chief State Prosecutor
3413. Sworn statement, subscribed by b. Solicitor General
Offended party, any peace officer of c. National or provincial prosecutor
public officer in charged of enforcement d. Judge
of the law violated filed either to the 3420. It refers to the questioning
court or to the office of the prosecutor. initiated by law enforcement officer after
a. Complaint a person has been taken into custody.
b. Information a. custodial investigation
c. Pleadings b. interview
d. Affidavit c. inquest
d. interrogation
3414. Is an inquiry or proceeding to 3421. In cases committed by Public
determine whether there is sufficient officer with salary grade 27 and above in
ground to engender a well-founded violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art.
belief that a crime has been committed 210 to 212 of the Revised Penal Code a
and the respondent is probably guilty complaint should first be filed to the
thereof, and should be held for trial. office of _______ for the conduct of the
a. preliminary investigation required preliminary investigation.
b. Prejudicial question a. Ombudsman
c. inquest proceeding b. Solicitor General
d. custodial investigation c. Judge of MTC
d. the President
3415. Preliminary investigation is 3422. In flagrante delicto means
conducted on cases punishable by: ______?
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one a. caught in the act
(1) day. b. caught after commission
b. more than four years, two months and one c. instigation
day d. entrapment
c. less than four years, two months and one day 3423. Courts in the Philippines are
d. six years, one day and above cloth with the power or try cases
3416. It is the actual restraint of a submitted to for adjudication. What term
person into custody of the law in order is use in referring to the authority or
for him to answer for the commission of power to hear and decided cases.
an offense. a. Jurisdiction
a. Arrest b. Venue
b. investigation c. Jurisprudence
c. invitation d. Territory
d. seizure

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 3424. It is the authority of the court to c. subpoena duces tecum
try/hear cases for the first time to the d. warrant of arrest
exclusion of other courts.
a. original jurisdiction 3432. The “anti-Plunder Act”.
b. exclusive jurisdiction a. R.A. 7080
c. appellate jurisdiction c. R.A. 3019
d. concurrent jurisdiction b. R.A. 1379
3425. It is the formal reading of the d. R.A. 6713
charges against a person accused of a 3433. This attached agency of the DOJ
crime and latter asking him whether he is tasked to provide free legal assistance
pleads guilty or not to the crime charged. to poor members of society:
a. arraignment a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. preliminary investigation b. National Prosecution Service
c. plea c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. promulgation of judgment d. Public Attorney’s Office
3426. It is a body of men created to 3434. This is the power to apply the
settle disputes within Barangay level. law to contests or disputes concerning
a. barangay tanod legally recognized rights or duties
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo between the state and private persons,
c. barangay council or between individual litigants in cases
d. lupon tagapamayapa properly brought before the judicial
3427. It is the most common way by tribunal.
which the police discovers or it informed a. Judicial Power
that a crime has been committed: b. Judicial Review
a. When the witness voluntarily reports c. Court
the crime. d. Court of Justice
b. When the police discovers the crime 3435. This is the process or method
c. When the victim reports the crime whereby accusations are brought before
d. When the suspect surrenders the court of justice to determine the
3428. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall innocence or guilt of the accused.
be composed of the Brgy. Chairman as a. Prosecutor
Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy. b. Prosecution
Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon c. Trial
and other members who shall be: d. Preliminary Investigation
a. more than 10 but less than 20 3436. The settlement of a dispute by a
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20 person/s chosen to hear both sides and
c. more than 10 to come to a decision.
d. less than 10 a. Mediation
3429. When arrest may be made? b. Settlement
a. At any time of the day and night c. Arbitration
b. At day time d. Agreement
c. At night time 3437. One who prosecutes another for
d. from sun dust till dawn a crime in the name of the government?
3430. Under what circumstances a. Public Prosecutor
arrest can be made even without a b. Private Prosecutor
warrant? c. Prosecution
a. All of the choices d. Ombudsman
b. When the crime was committed in the 3438. It refers to the “court of last
presence of the arresting officer. resort”.
c. When the crime was in fact been committed a. RTC
and there is personal knowledge based on b. Sandiganbayan
probable cause that the person to be arrest has c. Supreme Court
committed it. d. MTC
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee 3439. This court was created under RA
3431. It is a process directed to a 1125, as amended, which has exclusive
person requiring him to attend and to appellate jurisdiction to review on appeal
testify or to bring with him any books or decisions of the Commissioner of the
documents under his control at the trial Internal Revenue involving internal
of an action. revenue taxes and decisions of the
a. subpoena Commissioner of Customs involving
b. subpoena ad testificandum customs duties.
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 a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Court of Tax Appeals

3440. This court has jurisdiction over

crimes committed by high-ranking public
officials (with salary grade of 27 above),
which can only be committed because of
their position.
a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Court of Tax Appeals
3441. It a writ order of the court
bearing its seal and the signature of the
judge directing the jail or prison
authorities to receive the convicted
offender for service of sentence.
a. Commitment Order
b. Mittimus
c. warrant of arrest
d. habeas corpus

3442. Is that branch of the criminal

justice system charged with the custody,
supervision and rehabilitation of a
convicted offender.
a. Penology
b. Probation
c. Correction
d. Criminology
3443. Executive clemencies are acts of
grace exercise by the president. Which of
the following is not one of them?
a. Pardon
b. Amnesty
c. Commutation of Sentence
d. Parole
3444. Prison is a place for confinement
of convicted prisoners. What
classification of prisoners is sentenced to
serve a prison term of one day to three
(3) years or whose fine is less than 6,000
but more than 200 or both?
a. National prisoner
b. City prisoner
c. provincial prisoner
d. municipal prisoner

3445. Prisons are institution for

confinement of convicted offenders
sentenced to more than three (3) years of

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 imprisonment. It is derived from the primarily in charge of those detention
Greco-Roman word _____? prisoner, awaiting for final judgment of
a. Presinto their trial and serving short sentences
b. Precindio and under the Bureau of Jail
c. presidio Management and Penology. While it is
d. precinto true that even the Provincials Jails like the
3446. There are how many members City and Municipal Jails are under the
the composed the Lupon? DILG, it is subject to the control and
a. 3 members supervision of the __________?
b. 5 to 10 members a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
c. 10 to 20 members b. Department of Justice
d. 5 members c. Bureau of Correction
3447. It is granted to convicted d. Provincial government
offenders who have served a portion of 3453. This is the process wherein the
their service granted by the Board of inmate, after serving his sentence, is
Pardons and Parole. released to be able to mingle with the
a. Pardon community.
b. Probation a. Reintegration
c. Amnesty b. reincarnation
d. Parole c. Realization
3448. It is a security facility, usually d. Rehabilitation
operated by the police stations, for the 3454. It refers to the examination of
temporary detention of persons held for an individual’s person, house, papers or
investigation or awaiting preliminary effects, or other buildings and premises
investigation before the prosecutor. to discover contraband or some evidence
a. Lock-up jail of guilt to be used in the prosecution of a
b. Ordinary jail criminal action:
c. workhouses a. Search
d. prison b. seizure
3449. It is a form of motivation c. Raid
granted by the Director of Prisons d. entrapment
whereby a number of days are deducted
from the length of years that a prisoner 3455. This court was established by
have been sentenced to serve for his virtue of PD1083, otherwise known as
good conduct. “Code of Muslim Personal Laws of the
a. Commutation of sentence Philippines”.
b. Parole a. Court of Tax Appeals
c. GCTA b. Shari’a Court
d. reprieve c. Sandiganbayan
3450. Correctional institutions in the d. Family Court
country is divided into National and Local 3456. Refers to any person below 18
institution. What Department of the years of age or those over but unable to
Executive Branch is the one in charge of fully take care of themselves from
the National Penitentiary? neglect, abuse, cruelty, exploitation or
a. Bureau of Jail Management and discrimination due to some physical
Penology defect or mental disability or condition.
b. Department of Justice a. child
c.Department of Interior and Local b. wards
Government c. physically disabled
d. Bureau of Correction d. youth
3457. Act or omission which may not
3451. It is the suffering that is inflicted be punishable if committed by an adult,
by the state for the transgression of the but becomes unlawful when they are
law. committed by a child or a person of
a. penalty tender year or one who is in need of
b. self-defense supervision or assistance.
c. exemplarity a. crime
d. punishment b. status offense
c. delinquency
3452. City and Municipal is the division d. felonies
of our correctional institution which
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 3458. It is the scientific study of crime with three options: (1) choose
and the effort of the society to prevent martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit
and repressed them? suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more
a. Penology realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If
b. Victimology they choose martyrdom and kill
c. Criminology hostages, the useful action is:
d. Sociology of law a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist
3459. In hostage situation, non-verbal c. give all their demands
communication which indicates d. let the hostages killed
openness and willingness to listen can be 3466. The best approach in
shown by: negotiating with a Paranoid
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
position a. to accept their beliefs as being true
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are
assurance wrong
c. by not attempting to trick or lie c. to show them that they are just crazy
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that d. to try to bluff or trick them
you are willing to negotiate 3467. The following are reasons, why
3460. These are priorities in a hostage common criminals are easy to negotiate,
taking situation EXCEPT, except:
a. Preservation of life a. fears of police assault and punishment
b. Arrest of hostage taker b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. recover and protect property c. they are familiar with police operations and
d. involve the media tactics
3461. A hostage taker is d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
characteristically all of these, EXCEPT
a. mental derange 3468. Considered as a “mortal sin” in
b. suffers severe depression and mental hostage situation.
aberration a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
c. sociopath personality b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the
d. mental balance hostages
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
3462. These are not negotiable in a d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage
hostage taking situation: taker
a. guns and ammunition
b. drinks 3469. P/SSupt. is the highest ranking
c. foods PNP officer who first arrives in a hostage
d. all of the choices taking incident. As a rule he serves now
as a ground commander on the said crisis.
3463. One of the following is not a Having decided to conduct hostage
terrorist tactics: rescue operations, the objectives are as
a. bombing follows, except one:
b. assassination a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed
c. hostage-taking and set free.
d. media exposure b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by
3464. In general, hostage takers are yielding to the demands of the hostage takers.
emotionally tense when trapped expand c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
a great deal of emotional physical and d. Hostage takers come to the fold of the law by
psychic energy, hence: surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage 3470. In a hostage negotiation and
for the authorities crisis management practice, it is a
b. shortening the time will pressed him to “cardinal rule”:
surrender a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear taker face to face
them down b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to agreement
surrender c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker
3465. When a highly trained and d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage
motivated group of hostage takers asked taker
non-negotiable demands , they were left
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 3471. In a crisis management, there is D. Containment theory
no other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS”, 3479. The apprehension or taking into
which means: custody of a child in conflict with the law
a. the truth will prevail by law enforcement officers or private
b. kill the hostage-taker
citizens is termed as:
c. to save lives
d. save the hostages
A.Arrest
3472. Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in B.Initialcontact
a hostage negotiation. C.Childcustody
a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker D. All of the above
b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the 3480. It is the study of human society,
hostages
its origin structure, functions and
c. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker
d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage- direction.
taker a. criminology
b. sociology
3473. Last option in hostage crisis: c. psychology
a. crowd control d. anthropology
b. negotiation 3481. The science of classifying the
c. traffic control
physical characteristics.
d. assault
a. free will
3474. It is any incident in which people b. positivism
are being held by another person or c. atavism
persons against their will, usually by force d. somatology
or coercion, and demands are being 3482. The approach that is using the
made by the perpetrator.
perspective of heredity in explaining the
a. kidnapping
b. crisis management cause of crime.
c. hostage incident a. geographical approach
d. abduction b. biological approach
c. psychiatric application
3475. The following are the priorities d. psychological application
in hostage taking situation, except: 3483. The purpose of penalty in the
a. preservation of life
positivism school of criminology.
b. arrest of the hostage-taker
c. inclusion of the media a. retribution
d. successfully negotiate b. rejection
3476. “Persons in crisis” are those c. reformation
hostage takers who take hostages: d. restoration
a. by reason of mental illness 3484. It is the study of formation of the
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, skull in relation to the behavior of the
despair and problems
criminal.
c. for personal reason
d. because of political and ideological a. entomology
belief b. penology
3477. This is an assault team c. phrenology
responsible in carrying out assault d. criminology
operation whenever negotiation fails. 3485. Children shall be given priority
a. medical team
during_____ as result of armed conflict.?
b. tactical team
c. negotiation team a. war
d. snipers b. treatment
3478. This asserts that strong self- c. evacuation
image protects the youth from the d. education
influence and pressure of criminogenic 3486. Science concerned with
pulls in his environment. improving the quality of offspring.
A. Rational theory a. criminology
B. Conflict theory b. eugenics
C. Label theory
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 c. genetics 3494. What is the legal term for
d. heredity nighttime?
3487. Commonly known as victimless A. sanctuary
crime: B.absurdity
A.occassional crime C. ephitomy
B.political crime D. nocturnity
C.public order crime 3495. These are the rights of an
D. conventional crime accused that are derived from special
laws enacted by Congress.
3488. A child whose basic needs have A. Constitutional rights
been deliberately unattended. B. Civil rights
a. abandoned child C.Statutoryrights
b. dependent child D. Natural rights
c. abusive child 3496. If Metro Manila accounts for
d. neglected child 26% of the national total crime volume of
3489. The principle that events 84, 875, How many crimes were reported
including criminal behavior that has to the police?
sufficient causes.. a. 22, 868
a. atavism b. 22, 068
b. narassism c. 20, 250
c. determinism d. 32, 644
d. positivism 3497. What is the antonyms of the
3490. An established and generally word arrest?
accepted moral values refer to. A. Apprehend
a. integrity B. Search
b. morality C. Set free
c. ethical standard D. Renounce
d. authority 3498. How many members composed
3491. This refers to a significant loss of the “Pangkat?”
contact with reality. A. 1 member
a. split mind C. 2 members
b. psychosis B. 3 members
D. 5 members
c. neurosis
3499. He founded Sociology and
d. schizoprenia applied scientific methods in the study of
society, which to him passes through
3492. What is a person who kills 3 or stages divided on the basis of how people
more in a separate events? try to understand it, leading them to
adopt a rational scientific understanding
A.mass murder of the world. Comte called this the
positive stage and those who followed his
B. serial killer
writings were called,
C.homicidal a. August Comte
D. spree killer b. Positivists
3493. A bank robber who kills some c. Positivism
individual in the bank, flees with d. Sociologists
hostages, and kills a number of people 3500. Refers to the counsel provided
while in flight diving a chase would be an by the government to assist destitute
litigant?
example of:
a. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
A. Serial Murder c. Public Attorney’s Office
B. Spree Murder d. volunteer counsel
C. Mass Murder 3501. He represent the government’s
D. Multiple Murder position in a criminal case during court
proceedings from the time of the

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 suspect’s arrest until the adjudication of the arrest made especially those arrests
his case. made without a warrant
a. Counsel de officio a. custodial investigation
b. counsel de parte b. inquest proceeding
c. Public Attorney’s Office c. preliminary investigation
d. prosecutor b. arraignment
3502. What is the highest rank in the 3508. It is the power to apply the laws
national prosecution service SERVICE? to contests or disputes concerning legally
a. Prosecutor V recognized rights or duties of and
b. Prosecutor IV between the state and the private
c. Prosecutor VI persons or between individual litigants in
d. Chief Prosecutor cases properly brought before the judicial
tribunals.
3503. The Office of the
____________represents the a. court power
Government of the Philippines, its b. legal power
agencies and instrumentalities and its c. judicial power
officials and agents in any litigation, b. right power
proceeding, investigation or matter 3509. It has original exclusive
requiring the services of lawyers jurisdiction over public officers accused
a. Solicitor General of committing crimes in relation to their
b. Public Attorney’s Office official functions and whose salary grade
c. Counsel de officio is 27 and above.
b. counsel de parte
3504. An office which Investigate and a. Solicitor General Office
prosecute on its own or on complaint by b. Public Attorney’s Office
any person, any act or omission of any c. Ombudsman
public officer or employee, office or b. Sandiganbayan
agency, when such act or omission
appears to be illegal, unjust, improper or 3510. It is said that the home is the
inefficient cradle of human personality, for it where
the child develops his fundamental
a. Solicitor General Office attitudes and habits that last throughout
b. Public Attorney’s Office his life
c. Ombudsman
a. school
b. Sandiganbayan
b. community
3505. An office which shall
c. barangay
independently discharge its mandate to b. family
render, free of charge, legal 3511. It is a body of men created to
representation, assistance, and settle disputes within Barangay level.
counselling to indigent persons in a. barangay tanod
criminal, civil, labor, administrative and b. barangay council
other quasi-judicial cases c. pangkat tagpagkasundo
a. Solicitor General Office b. lupon tagapamayapa
b. Public Attorney’s Office
c. Ombudsman 3512. It refers the process whereby
b. Sandiganbayan disputants are persuaded by the Punong
3506. Is an inquiry or proceeding to Barangay or Pangkat to amicably settle
determine whether there is sufficient their disputes
ground to engender a well-founded belief a. agreement
that a crime has been committed and the b. conciliation
respondent is probably guilty thereof and c. conference
should be held for trial b. mediation
a. custodial investigation 3513. This theory views crime and
b. inquest proceeding delinquency as a result of the frustration
c. preliminary investigation and anger people experience over their
b. arraignment inability to achieve legitimate social and
3507. Is an inquiry made by the duty financial success.
prosecutor to determine the legality of a. strain theory

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 b. psychological theories d. Ruling class
c. differential association theory 3521. Who proposed the theory of
d. labeling theory capitalism and invoked communism as a
remedy?
3514. This theory suggest that stability a. George Vold
and changes in criminal and deviant b. Karl Marx
behavior through time and different c. Emile Durkheim
stages in life. d. Max Weber
a. Self Derogation Theory 3522. This theory believes that society
b. Anomie Theory is divided into two groups with
c. Life Course Theory competing values the upper class and
d. Routine Activities Theory lower class.
a. Class Theory
3515. This theory suggest that females b. Differential Opportunity
and males are becoming equal in society c. Conflict Theory
in terms of family, politics, and education d. Consensus Theory
A.Feminist Theory 3523. A problem that occurs when
B. Paternalism offenders who have been released from
C.Liberation Theory the system are placed in a program
D. Life Course Theory simply because the program exist.
3516. In the power control theory by a. Diversion Movement
Hagan, which father and mother share b. Intervention
similar roles in the workplace and power c. Net widening
in the family d. Primary Deviance
a. Feminist theory 3524. It conceded factors such as
b. Egalitarian family insanity might inhibit the exercise of free
c. Patriarchal family will.
d. Matriarchal family a. Classical theory
3517. These views suggest that males b. positivist theory
such as judges, police officers, and c. Neo-classical theory
prosecutors tend to have traditional d. radical theory
views on women thus, they are more
lenient to them as compared to their 3525. His great contributions to
male counterparts. criminology were the principle of
a. Paternalism utilitarianism and the felicific calculus.
b. Chivalry Hypothesis a. Cesare Beccaria
c. Masculinity b. Jeremy Bentham
d. Power Control Theory c. Cesare Lombroso
3518. This new branch in criminology d. Emile Durkheim
opposes the theoretical perspective and 3526. He propounded the theory of
proposes the involvement of all evolution that inspired the now known
stakeholders in the use of non violent “Father of Modern Criminology” to
solutions develop the theory of atavism.
a. Peacemaking Criminology a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Sociology of Law b. Charles Goring
c. Restorative Justice c. Cesare Beccaria
d. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis d. Charles Darwin
3519. This crimes are those that the 3527. According to him, people with
lower class commit against the upper criminal behavior, should be prohibited
class of society in a capitalist system from having children.
a. Crimes of Passion a. Robert Dugdale
b. Crimes of Accommodation and b. Henry Goddard
Resistance c. Charles Goring
c. Crimes of domination and. Repression d. George Wilker
d. Crimes of Lower class group
3520. The ruling class in a capitalist 3528. It states that individuals are
system is the deviant mainly because they have been
a. Proletariat labeled as deviant by social agencies and
b. Bourgeois others. The notion of deviance is not
c. Capitalist inherent in the act itself, but rather in the

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 reaction and stigma attached to the d) Deterrence
actor.
a. Containment Theory 3535. Refers to the circumstances
b. Theory of Imitation which attendant in the commission of a
c. Social Process Theory crime serve to increase the penalty,
d. Social Reaction theory without however exceeding the
3529. Cesare Lombroso classified this maximum of the penalty provided by law
type of criminal with five (5) or more for the offense.
atavistic stigmata. a. Justifying
a. Born-criminal type b. Exempting
b. insane c. Mitigating
c. Criminaloid d. Aggravating
d. pseudo-criminal 3536. Those wherein the acts of the
3530. These are crimes which are person are in accordance with the law,
wrong from their very nature. Examples hence he incurs no criminal liability.
of these are murder, robbery, and other a. Exempting
violations of the Revised Penal Code. b. aggravating
a. Heinous crimes c. Justifying
b. mala in se d. Mitigating
c. Serious crimes
d. mala prohibita 3537. A place of residence whose primary function is to
3531. These are crimes which are give shelter and care to pregnant women and their
wrong only because there are laws that infants.
prohibit them in order to regulate an a. Maternity home
orderly society. Examples of these are the b. Hospital
violations of special laws like the violation c. Rehabilitation center
of “Anti-Smoking Law”. d. Foster homes
a. Mala prohibita 3538. This may be demonstrated by any of the
b. less grave felonies following: severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or
c. Mala in se withdrawal behavior.
d. light felonies a. Psychological injury
3532. The principle of criminal law b. Mental injury
which is “nullum crimen nulla poena sine c. Physical injury
lege” means: d. Emotional injury
a. An act done by me against my will is not 3539. It refers to a series of activities, which are
my act designed to address issues that caused the child to
b. There is no crime where no law commit an offense. It may take the form of an
punishing it. individualized treatment program, which may
c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one. include counseling, skills training, education, and
d. Mistake of fact is an excuse. other activities that will enhance his/her
3533. He was the one who introduced psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-
the following definition of criminology: being.
“It is the entire body of knowledge a. Diversion
regarding crime as a social phenomenon. b. Rehabilitation
It includes within its scope the process of c. Probation
making laws, of breaking laws and of d. Intervention
reacting towards the breaking of the 3540. If children, whether male or female, who for
laws”: money, profit or any other consideration or due to
a) Raffaelle Garofalo the coercion or influence of any adult, syndicate or
b) Edwin Sutherland group, are indulge in sexual intercourse or lascivious
c) Cesare Beccaria conduct it is known as…
d) Paul Topinard a. Child Abuse
3534. Classical Theory states that b. Child Trafficking
individuals have freewill. It is focused on c. Child Prostitution
an individual's choice as to whether or d. Child Exploitation
not he will commit a crime and the
purpose of Classical Theory in giving
punishment is________________. 3541. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from
a) Restoration occurring
b) Treatment a. Control
c) Retribution b. Recession
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 c. Repression 3549. Which of the following are the
d. Prevention major goals of correction?
3542. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of a. Punishment, confinement, retribution,
2006”, it refers to the person in authority or his/her
treatment
agent as defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal
Code, including a barangay tanod. b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation,
a. Police Officer rehabilitation
b. Probation Officer c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation,
c. Law Enforcement Officer treatment
d. Public Officer d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment,
3543. He is one whose basic needs have been treatment
deliberately unattended or inadequately attended.
3550. A judicial action for legal
a. Abandoned Child
b. Abused Child disposition that allows the offender to
c. Neglected Child remain in the community subject to
d. Dependent Child conditions imposed by the court?
3544. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 a. Reprieve
years old. b. Probation
a. Adolescence c. Commutation
b. Early adolescence
d. Parole
c. Juvenile
d. None of the above 3551. Which of the following is an
3545. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which open correctional institution known to
deviates from the normal pattern of rules and be the best and prison without walls?
regulation, custom and culture which society does a. Davao penal farm
not accept and which therefore, justifies some kind b. Sablayan penal colony
of corrective measures in the public interest and it is
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
being committed by minors?
a. Juvenile Delinquency d. Iwahig penal colony
b. Minor Delinquency 3552. Which is called the finest penal
c. Child Delinquency farm in the world?
d. Youth Delinquency a. Davao penal farm
3546. Police officers who have taken into custody a b. Sablayan penal colony
child in conflict with the law, under the juvenile c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
justice act is mandated to turn over said child to the
d. Iwahig penal colony
custody of the Department of Social Welfare and
Development or any accredited Non-Government 3553. . Under the UN Standard
Organization immediately but not later than Minimum Rules for treatment of
hours after apprehension. Prisoners, which of the following are the
a. 8 two basic principles under rules of
b. 24 general application to prisoners?
c. 12 1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds
d. 36
of race, color, sex, language, religion, political or other
3547. This concerns to the obligations
of the community to individuals, and opinion, national or social origin, birth or other status
requires fair disbursement of common 2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief
advantages and sharing of common and moral rule of the group to which the prisoner
burden. belong
a. Prosecution 3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize
b. justice
not their exclusion from the community, but their
c. equality
d. trial continuing part in it
3548. A probationer is allowed to do 4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be
the following except? innocent and shall be treated as such.
a. Stay away from bad associates a. 2 and 3
b. Work regularly to support his family b. 4 and 1
c. Make periodic office report c. 1 and 2
d. Go and play in a gambling den d. 3 and 4
3554. What does classical theory
provides?
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 a. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
could be controlled by regulating the d. Photographing the inmate is part of the
reproduction of families reception procedure
b. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction 3561. A penalty having its minimum
with other persons in the process of and maximum duration is referred to as
communication a. Determinate sentence
c. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of b. Capital punishment
social and penalty disorders c. Corporal punishment
d. The basis for criminal liability is human free d. Indeterminate sentence
will and the purpose of penalty is retribution 3562. Which of the following
3555. The theory in criminal causation executive clemency needs the
focuses on the criminal disorders, concurrence of the congress?
chromosomes irregularity, and abnormal a. Pardon
brain activity? b. Amnesty
a. Biological c. Probation
b. Psychological d. Parole
c. Sociological 3563. It is an executive clemency
d. Geological whereby the convicted person should
3556. Where Rene Boy shall be serve part of his sentence?
confined if his sentence is 6 months or a. Pardon
less? b. Parole
a. National prison c. Probation
b. Municipal jail d. Amnesty
c. City jail 3564. What should the court do
d. Provincial jail where the accused violated the terms
3557. Crimes with no private and conditions of his probation?
offended party? a. Court releases the probationer to the
a. Complex crime community
b. Status offense b. Revoked and let the probationer served his
c. Simple crime sentence
d. Victimless crime c. Court order the probationer to apply for
3558. A married prisoner is visited by parole
his wife and they were granted the time d. Court should allow the probationer to
for their marital sexual obligation. What continue his probation
do you call this affair? 3565. Which of the following is a
a. Sexual relation minor offense in jail?
b. Conjugal partnership a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate
c. Conjugal privilege b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place
d. Conjugal visit c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places
3559. What institution conducts the in the jail where it is off- limits to inmates
training program for uniformed d. Making untruthful statements or lies in
personnel of the BJMP? official communication, transaction or
a. Fire Training Center investigation
b. Philippine National Jail Academy 3566. Failure to assist in putting out
c. PNP Training Center fires inside the jail is a type of offense?
d. Jail Management Training Institute a. Grave offense
3560. Robin Padilla was convicted and b. Less grave offense
ready to serve his sentence inside the c. Not so grave offense
prison. Why was he photographed at the d. Minor offense
Reception and Diagnostic Center?
a. He is a actor and photogenic 3567. How many hours should the jail
b. It is rare opportunity to have his disciplinary board hear and decide the
photograph case brought before it?
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 a. 24 hours confinement within 48 hours after a
b. 12 hours calamity.
c. 48 hours a. Good conduct time allowance
d. 72 hours b. Special time allowance
3568. Minimum number of time in c. Visitation privileges
counting the inmates on daily basis? d. Good treatment allowance
a. Three times 3576. Juan Manalo was convicted by
b. Two times final judgment to serve the term of
c. Four times imprisonment for 20 years. While
d. Five times serving his sixth year of imprisonment,
3569. What is the duration should the an earthquake rocked the prison and
probation officer submit his post several inmates escaped. Roberto
sentence investigation to the court? returned the following day, how many
a. 60 days years would be deducted from his
b. 30 days sentence?
c. within 60 days a. 4 years
d. 15 days b. 8 years
3570. A shoemaker and became the c. 9 years
father of probation in the U.S d. 11 years
a. Mathew Davenport Hill 3577. A person convicted to serve 6
b. Edward Savage years imprisonment would be classified
c. John Augustus as what kind of prisoner?
d. Teodolo Natividad a. Municipal prisoner
3571. When does probation started? b. Insular prisoner
a. 1938 c. Provincial prisoner
b. 1841 d. Detention prisoner
c. 1896 3578. It is one of the forerunners of
d. 1932 modern correctional system wherein
3572. It is regarded as the most they confine the prisoners in single cell
important program that aids in the at night but allow them to work during
rehabilitation or prisoners the day.
a. Recreational program a. Auburn system
b. Religious program b. Pennsylvania system
c. Educational program c. Elmira reformatory
d. Employment of prisoners d. None of the above
3573. Person who are deemed 3579. It is an institution intended to
instrumental on the reformation of detain or house political offenders.
prisoners due to their daily contact with a. Iwahig Penal farm
inmates? b. Davao Penal Farm
a. Chaplain c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm
b. Warden d. Sablayan Prison Farm
c. Psychologist 3580. This forerunner whereby he
d. Prison guards introduced the theory of atavism?
3574. Person who are deemed a. Lombroso
instrumental on the reformation of b. Becarria
prisoners due to their daily contact with c. Ferri
inmates? d. Garofalo
a. Chaplain 3581. It is the temporary suspension
b. Warden in the execution of sentence?
c. Psychologist a. Pardon
d. Prison guards b. Appeal
3575. It is given to prisoners who c. Commutation
have returned to their places of d. Reprieve
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 3582. It is the deduction of the term b. Board of pardons and parole
of imprisonment due to the convict’s c. Court
good behavior while serving his d. All of the above
sentence? 3590. Is the denial of probation
a. Special time allowance appealable?
b. Parole a. It depends on the violation
c. Good conduct time allowance b. Yes
d. Probation c. No
3583. A writ ordering the d. Partially No
confinement of a person in penal 3591. Who shall have the control over
institution. the probationer once the latter is
a. Detention order permitted to reside under the
b. Commitment order jurisdiction of another court?
c. Warrant of arrest a. Regional Director
d. None of the above b. Executive judge of the municipal court
3584. Who grants probation? c. Executive Judge of the first instance
a. Probation officer d. Appellate court
b. Solicitor general 3592. Pedro Juana was sentenced to
c. Court serve an imprisonment of six months,
d. All of the above how many years would be the duration
3585. Where the application for of his probation?
probation should be filed? a. One year
a. Board of Pardons and Parole b. Two years
b. Office of the Solicitor General c. Shall not exceed two years
c. Trial court d. Shall not be more than six years
d. Appellate court 3593. In the hearing for the violation
3586. The court shall resolve the committed by the probationer, the latter
application for probation for _. shall have the right to be informed of
a. Not later than 60 days the violation charged and to adduce
b. Within 10 days evidence in his favor. This right is in
c. Within 5 days pursuant to his right to ___?
d. Within 15 days a. Equal protection
3587. Pending the submission of the b. Presumption of innocence
investigation report, the defendant may c. Miranda rights
be allowed on temporary liberty d. Due process of law
through_. 3594. What is the effect of the
a. Release on recognizance termination of probation?
b. Bail a. Erase criminal records
c. Manifestation b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or
d. Cash bond suspended as a result of conviction
3588. Probation shall be denied if the c. Both A and B
court finds that_. d. None of the above
a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of 3595. Probation aids shall have the
the offense committed. term in office for ___?
b. The offender is in need of correctional a. 3 years
treatment b. 1 year
c. There is undue risk that during the period of c. 2 years
probation the offender will commit another crime d. 4 years
d. All of the choices 3596. Ideal number of days for proper
3589. The probationer and his classification of newly convicted
probation program shall be under the offenders at the RDC?
control and supervision of ___? a. 45 days
a. Probation officer b. 30 days
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 c. 60 days 3604. He advocated the Irish system
d. 15 days which is considered by many as one of
3597. An inherent responsibility of a the most famous contributor to the
warden in seeing to it that he continually reformatory movement.
motivates his staff and personnel to a. Z.R. Brockway
perform at their best. b. Alexander Macanochie
a. Decision making c. Ceasar Lombroso
b. Control of prison operation and activities d. Walter Crofton
c. Personnel program 3605. He is the father of probation in
d. Executive leadership the Philippines
3598. Place wherein a newly a. Ferdinand Marcos
convicted prisoner is housed for at least b. Manuel Roxas
a minimum period of 5 days to ten days c. Teodulo Natividad
for the conduct of medical examination, d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.
vaccination, x-rays to prevent physical 3606. A Boston shoemaker who
contamination advocated in behalf of alcoholic and
a. Reception diagnostic center youthful offenders and known as the
b. Medical center father of probation.
c. Quarantine unit a. Mathew Davenport Hill
d. None of the above b. Edward Savage
3599. A writ issued by the court to a c. John Augustus
correctional facility indicating the basis d. Alexander Rice
of confinement of a prisoner 3607. He is the first appointed
a. Mittimus probation officer in the world.
b. Detention order a. Hans Gross
c. Warrant of arrest b. Edward Savage
d. Writ of Hebeas Corpus c. John Augustus
3600. A code which provides “an eye d. Benjamin Franklin
for an eye, a tooth for a tooth.” 3608. This case paved the way for the
a. Code of Babylon abolition of the first probation law?
b. Code of Kalantiaw a. People v. De Vera, 376 O.G. 164
c. Hammurabi code b. People v. Vera, 376 O.G. 164
d. Bible c. Vera v. People, 376 O.G. 164
3601. A French word meaning “word d. People v. De Vera, 376 O,G. 164
of honor” 3609. It serves as the basis in granting
a. Pardon probation to qualified applicants.
b. Probation a. Post Investigation Report
c. Parole b. Pre Sentence Investigation report
d. Amnesty c. Admission report
3602. Refers to those who are d. Post Sentence Investigation
confined in correctional facilities 3610. After receiving the PSIR, within
awaiting verdict in their cases how many days must a judge decide
a. Prisoner whether to grant or deny the application
b. Detainees for probation.
c. Probationer a. 5 days
d. Offender b. 15 days
3603. It is said to be the alternative c. 30 days
for jail confinement in modern penology. d. 60 days
a. Amnesty 3611. Under the Indeterminate
b. Parole Sentence Law, who acts as the chairman
c. Probation of the Board of Pardons and Parole?
d. Pardon a. PNP Chief
b. DILG Secretary
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 c. DOJ Secretary 3619. An institution for the
d. Chief Executive imprisonment of persons convicted of
3612. Operation conducted by the major offenses refers to
BJMP where a prisoner maybe checked a. Jail
at anytime. b. Prison
a. Search and seizure c. Penitentiary
b. Confiscation d. All of the above
c. Inspection 3620. Imprisonment for a term of 6
d. Operation greyhound years 1 day to 12 years
3613. These are long, narrow, single a. Prision correccional
decked ships propelled by sails, usually b. Reclusion temporal
rowed by criminals. c. Arresto mayor
a. Hulks d. Prision mayor
b. Ships of criminals 3621. A criminal can seek refuge in a
c. Galleys church in order to avoid punishment in a
d. none of the above period of ninety days. This refers to
3614. What is the standard ratio in a. Refuge
escorting a non- bailable inmate? b. Securing sanctuary
a. One is to one security officer c. Hidden church
b. One is to three security officers d. Claiming penitentiary
c. One is to two plus one security officers 3622. This were the former warships
d. One is to one plus one security officer used to house prisoners in the 18th
3615. Offenders who are committed century and 19th century as means of
to the jail or prison in order to serve relieving congestion of prisones refers to
their sentence after final conviction of a a. Galleys
competent court is known as b. Hulks
a. Detention prisoner c. Gaols
b. Sentenced prisoner d. Warships
c. Provincial prisoner 3623. In the ancient times, who were
d. National prisoner commonly subjected to harsh
3616. Penology came from the latin punishments?
word “poena” which means a. Middle class
a. Conviction b. Black people
b. Pain and suffering c. Slaves
c. Punishment d. Any of the above.
d. Deterrence 3624. Offenders who were convicted
3617. It is the suffering inflicted by should be kept away from the society for
the state against an offending member its protection. This is frequently called as
of the society for the transgression of a. Incapacitation
the law b. Deterrence
a. Penalty c. Penalization
b. Punishment d. Rehabilitation
c. Suffering 3625. What code specified
d. Any of the above punishment according to the social class
3618. When different crimes should of the offenders?
be punished with different penalties, a. Greek Code of Draco
punishment should therefore be b. Justinian Code
a. Correctional c. Burgundian Code
b. Legal d. Akadian Code
c. Productive of suffering 3626. The establishment of the
d. Commensurate with the offense usefulness and responsibility of the
offender as a productive individual is a
punishment justified by
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 a. Expiation d. Medical Group
b. Rehabilitation
c. Atonement
d. Retribution 3633. What law was passed during
3627. The penalty of banishing a the Aquino administration that renamed
person from the place where he the Bureau of Prisons to Bureau of
committed a crime refers to what Corrections?
contemporary forms of punishment a. E.O. 292
a. Atonement b. E.O. 229
b. Destierro c. A.O 262
c. Exile d. E.O. 292
d. Incapacitation 3634. Who appoints the Director of
3628. The early Roman place of Prisons who shall be the Head of the
confinement which was built under the Bureau?
main sewer of Rome in 64 BC refers to a. Chief BJMP
a. Town Gates b. Sec. of DILG
b. Wulnut Street Jail c. Chief Executive
c. Bridewell Workhouse d. Sec. of DOJ
d. Mamertime Prison 3635. What agency has supervision
3629. What was the most popular and control over all the national prisons
workhouse in London which was built or penitentiaries?
for the employment of English a. Bureau of Prisons
prisoners? b. Bureau of Correction
a. Borstal prison c. Bureau of Jail
b. Panoptican prison d. None of the above
c. Elmira reformatory 3636. Which of the following
d. None of the choices statements is not true?
3630. Which branch takes charge of a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under
the preparation of the daily menu, the jurisdiction of the DOJ
prepares and cooks food and serve to b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled
inmates? by the provincial government
a. General Service Branch c. The jail bureau controls the administration
b. Mess Service Branch and supervision of all jails nationwide
c. Budget and Finance Brach d. The BJMP is under the DILG
d. Property and Supply Branch 3637. Who appoints jail Sr.
3631. The unit where the prisoner is Superintend?
given thorough physical examination a. Chief Executive
including blood test, x-rays, vaccinations b. DILG Sec
and immunity for the purpose of c. Chief BJMP
insuring that the prisoner is not suffering d. Chief of BUCOR
from contagious disease? 3638. Who appoints the Chief
a. Rehabilitation Unit Inspector as warden?
b. Quarantine Cell a. DILG sec
c. Medical and Health Center b. Chief Executive
d. RDC c. Chief BJMP
3632. Who provides the security d. Chief of BuCor
system of sound custody, security and 3639. Early forms of Prison Discipline
control of inamtes and their movements by means of uttering insulting words or
and also responsible to enforce jail or languages on the part of prison staff to
prison discipline the prisoners to degrade or break the
a. Administrative Group confidence of prisoners.
b. Security Group A. Degradation
c. Rehabilitation Group B. Corporal Punishment
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 C. Monotony C. 19th century
D. Mass Movement D. 21st century
3640. The public will be protected if 3646. It refers to a Prison System
the offender has being held in conditions whereby prisoners are confined in their
where he cannot harm others especially own cells during the night and
the public. Punishment is effected by congregate work in shops during the day
placing offenders in prison so that also known as “Congregate System”.
society will be ensured from further A. Auburn Prison System
criminal depredations of criminals. B. Custody Oriented Prison
A. Deterrence C. Pennsylvania Prison System
B. Incapacitation & Protection D. Treatment Oriented Prison
C. Retribution 3647. The first juvenile reformatory
D. Atonement which was opened in January 1825 and
3641. located
H in New York City.
e is the first leader to prescribe A. Borstal Institution
imprisonment as correctional treatment B. Elmira Reformatory
for major offenders also responsible for C. New York House of Refuge
the abolition of death penalty and torture D. Panoptican Prison
as a form of punishment. 3648. One of the juridical conditions of
A. John Howard Penalty, The consequence must be in
B.Charles Montesquieu accordance with the law it is a result of a
C. William Penn judgment rendered by a court of justice.
D. Jeremy Bentham A. Equal
3642. Director of the Prisons of B. Legal
Valencia, Spain who divided prisoners C. Commensurate w/ the offense
into companies and appointed prisoners D. Personal
as petty officer in charge. 3649. X was sentenced to serve with a
A. Domets of France penalty of Reclusion Temporal who has
C. Manuel Montesimos the jurisdiction to detain him?
B. Zebulon Brockway
D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise A. BuCor
3643. What governing law of Aklan C. BJMP
B. PNP
and Panay based on the beliefs, customs
and practices, it is also reflects the level D. AFP
of uprightness and morality of the 3650. Baby Ama was sentenced to
people? serve Prison Correctional. What is the
duration of his penalty?
A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203
B. Law of the Talion A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y
C. Kalantiaw Code C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y
D. Penitentiary Act of 1779 B. 6M1D to 6 Y
3644. It refers to prison which is used D. 1M&1D – 6 M
3651. It is then known as Carcel y
to confine slaves where they were
attached to workbenches and forced to Presidio.
do hard labor in the period of their A. Old Bilibid Prison
imprisonment. B. Manila City Jail
A. Underground Cistern C. NBP
D. May Halique Estate
B. Ergastalum
C. Sing-Sing Prison 3652. Formerly known as the Luhit
D. Alcatraz Prison Penal Settlement.
3645. It is known as the “Age of A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
Reason of Age of Enlightment” B. San Ramon Prison
C. Sablayan Prison
A. 1870 – 1880
B. 18th century D. New Bilibid Prison

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 3653. When an inmate is given a 3660. The following are the sub
“shakedown” before admission it meant colonies of Sablayan Prison and Penal
A. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint Farm.
and Photograph I. Central III. Pusog
B. Examination for Contraband II. Pasugui IV. Yapang
C. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to V. Panabo VI. Kapalong
Record Clerk VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan
D. All of These IX. Montible X. Central
3654. ____ is the Chairman of the A. I, II, III, IV
Classification Board in BJMP. B. V and VI
A. Assistant Warden C. VII, VIII, IX & X
B. Medical Officer D. Either of these
C. Chief, Security Officer 3661. Convicts committed to BUCOR
D. Jail Chaplain are brought to RDC for a total period of
3655. A general agreed principle that ____ for classification and determination
women prisoners should be placed in a of appropriate program.
special building on the same site with the A. 60 days
men prison. B. 55 days
A. Diversification by Sex C. 5 days
B. Segregation D. NONE
C. Diversification by Age
D. Diversification by Degree of Custody 3662. One of the components of RDC
3656. What satellite of NBP does RDC which is responsible in the examination
is situated? of the prisoner’s mental and emotional
A. Camp Bukang Liwayway make-up.
B. Camp Sampaguita A. Medical Center
C. Main building B. Sociologist
D. Chapel C. Psychologist
3657. What is the prescribed color of D.Psychiatrist
uniform for Minimum Security Prisoners? 3663. The Bureau of Jail Management
A. Blue and Penology was created thru ____ as
B. Brown one of the Tri Bureau under the
C. Tangerine Department of Interior and Local
D.Gray Government .
3658. It is located in Sto. Tomas, Davao
A. Section 13, RA 6975 NAPOLCOM
Del Norte, General Paulino Santos led the
B. Section 53, RA 6975
first contingent which opened the colony.
C. Section 23 of RA 6975
A. Davao Penal Colony
D. Section 60 of RA 6975
B. Tagum
3664. X was sentenced to serve with a
C. Panabo
penalty of Reclusion Temporal who has
D. Kapalong
the jurisdiction to detain him?
E. Tanglaw
A. BuCor
3659. Gov. White E. Dwigth made the
C. BJMP
suggestion of the construction of this
B. PNP
penal institution and it was established
D. AFP
on 1904 through the orders of Gov.
3665. All except one is included in the
Forbes. It is considered a one of the most
command group of BJMP
open penal institutions in the world.
A. Chief of Staff
A. Iwahig
B. Deputy C/BJMP
B. Tagumpay
C. Chief of BJMP
C. Sta. Lucia
D. Chief of Directorial staff
D. Inagawan

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 3666. One of the Administrative maximum-security prisoners in case they
groups in BJMP responsible for escape.
preparation of the daily menu, prepare A. Minimum Security Prisoners
and cook the food and serve it to B. Medium Security Prisoners
inmates. C. Maximum Security Prisoners
A. Mess Service Branch D. Any of the Above
B. General Service Branch (maintenance) 3673. What is the lowest authorized
C. Budget and Finance Branch (financial) disciplinary punishment imposable to
D. Property and Supply Branch (logistics) inmates?
3667. When the offender is in transit, A. Close Confinement
the ratio of __ for every offender shall be B. Extra-Fatigue Duty
observed. C. Reprimand
A. 1:1+1 D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges
B. 1:2 3674. Close confinement in a cell in
C. 1:7 BJMP shall be between ___ in any
D. 1:500 calendar month provided that this
3668. When the offender is in transit, punishment shall be imposed only in the
in case of ___ that demands extra case of an incorrigible prisoner when
precaution additional guards shall be other disciplinary measured had been
employed proven ineffective.
A. High Profile offender A. 30-60 days
B. Female Offender C. 1-7 Days
C. High-risk offender B. 1 day
D. Either of these D. NONE
3669. If the inmate agrees to abide by 3675. All except one are instruments
the same disciplinary rules imposed upon of restraints.
convicted prisoners, he shall be asked to, A. Handcuffs
manifest his ___ in writing. B. Whipping Rod
A. Certification C. Leg iron
C. Agreement D. Strait Jackets
B. Manifestation 3676. Inmates ____ may be excused
D. Affidavit from mandatory prison labor.
3670. John was sentenced to serve A. 60 years old
Arresto Mayor, what classification of B. 56 years old
sentenced prisoner is John classified? C. 50 years old
A. Municipal Prisoner D. 21 years old
C. City Prisoner 3677. The _____ may grant GCTA to an
B. Provincial Prisoner inmate for good behavior with no record
D. Insular Prisoner of disciplinary infraction or violation of
3671. Ser Chief is a newly arrived prison rules and regulation.
inmate committed for the first time. He A. Director of BJMP
classified as a ____ among the B. Warden
classification of inmates according to C. President
privileges. D. Director of Corrections
st
A. 1 class inmate 3678. Inmates earnings that may be
B. 3rd class inmate used to buy his needs.
C. 2nd class inmate A. ½ of his earnings
D. Colonist B. ¼ if his earnings
3672. What classification of Prisoners C. ¾ of his earnings
according to Degree of Security if the D. Discretion of Warden
prisoner cannot be trusted in open
conditions and pose lesser danger than 3679. GCTA is a kind of ___ that can
only be denied if the prisoner breaks the
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 rules and only after due process is 3686. It is a continuing state of good
observed. order.
A. right A. Discipline
B. Privileges B. Communication
C. Discretion C. Morale
D. liberty D. Loyalty
3680. A colonist when classified by the 3687. Unload as method in searching
director of the Bureau of Corrections who the prisoner for possession of
is punished with reclusion perpetua will contraband’s inside the prison cell and
have benefit from an automatic compound.
reduction from maximum term of forty A. Frisking
years to ___. B. Shakedown
A. 20 Years C. Operation Greyhound
B. 25 Years D. Body Frisking
C. 30 Years 3688. It is considered as the highest
D. 35 Years income earner among the Philippine
3681. Duration of viewing of privilege Correctional Institution.
of a deceased relative is limited to ___ A. Iwahig Penal Colony
hours. B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
A. 3 C. Davao Penal Colony
B. 9 D. Sablayan Prison and Farm
C. 6 3689. The most common problem for
D. 12 national penitentiaries.
3682. Who among the following A. Excessive number of inmates
inmates may not be allowed to see the B. Lack of funds
remains of a dead immediate family C. Sex problems
member? D. Discipline
A. Minimum Security 3690. Which of these authorizes the
B.Maximum Security release of a detainee who has undergone
C. Medium Security preventive imprisonment equivalent to
D. None of these the maximum imposable sentence for
3683. Telephone calls are permitted the offense he is charged with?
for inmates for a period not exceeding 5 A. B.P 85
minutes every ___ days. B. RA 4200
A. 30 C. B.P. 22
B. 90 D. PD 968
C. 60 3691. The act of prisoner trying to
D. 120 convert or induce another to change his
3684. If escorting an inmate a guard religious beliefs sect or the like to
shall keep distance of not less than ____ another while under confinement is
paces from his charge. referred to as
A. 10 A. Proselytizing
B. 30 B. Initiation
C. 15 C. Fraternization
D. 45 D. Inducement
3685. In mess hall and dining area for 3692. Who composed of guards
purposes of precaution, the prescribe trained on proper handling and use of
utensil for inmates shall be made of: firearms who shall be ready to fire when
A. Wood the lives of the guards are in danger on
B. Paper orders of the Officer in Command.
st
C. Plastic A. 1 group Anti-Riot
D. Carton B. 4th Group Anti-Riot
C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot
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 D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot C. 1/3 reduction of sentence
D. 4/5 reduction of sentence
3693. Within the radius by road from
the confinement facility and the actual 3700. Which of these is known as the
stay of the inmates to view the remains. Release on Recognizance Law providers
A. 20 kilometer for the release of offender charged with
B. 40 Kilometer an offense whose penalty is not more
C. 30 Kilometer than six (6) months and /or a fine of
D. 50 Kilometer P2,000.00 or both, to the custody of a
3694. Under RA 9344, what happens responsible person in the community,
to the sentence of a Child in Conflict with instead of a bail bond-
the law after conviction of a trial Court? A. RA 6036
A. His sentence serve B. PD 603
B. His sentence is suspended C. Act 2489
C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his D. RA 9262
family 3701. If the Warden is taken as the
D. His sentence is NOT suspended hostage, for all intents and purposes, he
3695. One-fifth of the sentence for ceases to exercise authority and the next
Loyalty equivalent shall be deducted in command or the ___ officer present
from the inmates sentence if, after the shall assume the command.
inmate abandoned prison due to disorder A. Veteran
arising B. most senior
A. STA C. assistant
B. GCTA D. custodian
C. Commutation 3702. In case of mass jailbreak, all
D.Visitation Privilege member of the custodial force shall be
3696. It is a kind of court to settle immediately issued firearms and
tribunal and even individuals people assigned to critical posts to:
conflicts: A. plug off the escape routes
A. Bodong B. protect the other inmates
C. Capic C. to shoot the escape
B. Korte Supremo D. give warning shots
D. Hito 3703. When a jailbreak, escape or riot
3697. The following are the aims of in progress or has just been perpetrated
diversification in prison or jail, except: in the jail, the officer at the control
A. more effective execution of treatment programs centers shall immediately:
B. to prevent physical contamination of one group A. sound the alarm
or another B. notify the nearest police precinct
C. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
D. none of the above D. call the warden or the director
3698. It provides some opportunities 3704. The following are the duties of
for inmates of a normal sex life. the custodial force in prison, except:
A. Maternal Visit A. Censor offender’s inmate
B. Sodomy B. Escort inmates
C. Masturbation C. Inspect security devices
D. Conjugal Visit D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
3699. An offender who surrenders 3705. It served as the cornerstone or
from escaping because of calamity rehabilitation
immediately 48 hours after the A. Religion
pronouncement of the passing away of B. Education
calamity shall be granted C. Discipline
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence D. Recreational
B. 1/2 reduction of sentence
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 3706. Maiming; Physical Torture; A. Back
Electrocution; ____ B. Conspicuous Area
A. Social degradation C. Side
B. Exile D. Top
C. Physical torture 3713. In case if jailbreaks, who will
D. Death Penalty immediately sound the alarm?
3707. It refers to those items, though A. Desk Officer
authorized, is already in excessive B. Armorer
quantities to become a fire hazard, a C. Control Center
threat to security or has become D. Officer-in-Charge
causative in making the place unsanitary. 3714. It is designed to improve their
A. Contraband communication and computation skills,
B. Paraphernalia such as the ability to read and write in
C. Prohibited items order to enhance their individual
D.Nuisance Contraband educational level.
3708. It refers to the entrusting for A. Skills Training
confinement of an inmate to a jail by B. Adult Education
competent court or authority for C. Secondary Education
investigation, trial and/or service of D. Non-Formal Education for Adults
sentence 3715. Detention Prisoners are allowed
A. Commitment to smoke cigars and cigarettes, except in
B. Safekeeping prohibited cases. The statement is –
C. Entrustment A. Partially true
D. Imprisonment B. Partially false
3709. This was the right in C. Absolute False
ecclesiastical court during the middle D. Absolutely True
ages particularly in England. 3716. All persons in custody shall
A. Inquisition before final conviction, be entitled to bail
B. Incapacitation as a matter of ____
C. Benefit of Clergy A. Right
D. Retribution B. preference
3710. The inmates may request a C. Privilege
review of the findings of the Disciplinary D. Discretion
Board and the propriety and the penalty 3717. The visiting room officer shall be
to the ____. responsible for compiling the regular
A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board visiting list for each inmate.
B. BJMP A. Special Visitor
C. Central office/BJMP B. Strange Visitor
D. Warden C. Regular Visitor
3711. If the inmate fails to claim his D. Unusual visitor
letter within ____ after it has been 3718. ____responsible for handling
posted, the mail should be delivered to the keys in Women’s quarter and the
him. keys shall be available all the time.
A. Key Matron
A. 48 hours B. .Resident Matron
B. 24 hours C. Matron
C. 30 days
D. Any of these
D. 60 days 3719. Ms. Malou Wang has duration of
3712. All letters passed by censors penalty of 6 years and one day to 12
should bear the censor’s stamp at the years. What correctional facility he
____ of each page and on the envelope. should be incarcerated?
The letter should be placed back in the
A. Bureau of Correction
same envelope and resealed. B. Prision Correctional
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 C. Prision Mayor remains of a dead immediate family
D. BJMP members?
3720. Mr. Abdul Salsalani was A. Minimum security
convicted of the crime murder. After 12 B. Maximum security
days from the promulgation of the C. Medium security
sentence he escaped from his place of D. None of these
confinement. Abdul Salsalani is: 3727. Minimum number of times in
A. liable of evasion of service of sentence counting the inmates on a daily basis.
B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence A. Two
C. considered as an escaped prisoner B. Four
D. Either of C C. Three
3721. It should be executed by the D. Five
interviewer, which will exempt prison 3728. Ideal number of days for an
authorities from any liability arising from inmate to be placed in the quarantine
death or injury sustained while in prison: unit at the Reception and Diagnostic
A. Waiver of Liability Center .
B. Waiver of Responsibility A. 55 days
C. Waiver of Acceptance B. 5 days
D. Waiver of Agreement C. 60 days
3722. Before the actual date of D. 15 days
interview the media shall file request 3729. In the 13th century, a criminal
within ____ could avoid punishment by claiming
A. 1 day refugee in a church for a period of ___ at
B. 3 days the end of which time he has compelled
C. 2 days to leave the realm by a road or path
D. 8 days assigned to him.
3723. Who should make an immediate
preparation for the issuance of the A. 30 days
necessary anti-riot equipment and B. 50 days
firearms? C. 40 days
A. the Warden D. 60 days
C. Director for operation 3730. In Operation Greyhound, all
B. Director orders concerning troop movements will
D. Desk Officer emanate from him.
3724. The Jail Bureau shall be headed A. Assistant team leader
by a chief with a rank of Director, and B. Team Leader
assisted by Deputy Chief with the rank of C. Ground Commander
Senior Superintendent. This sentence is D. Security Teams
A. partially true 3731. Who among the following shall
C. true be responsible in the custody of all the
B. partially false properties seized from the detainee prior
D. false to his detention?
3725. The U.N. Standard Minimum A. Custodial Officer
Rules for the treatment of offenders B. Chief of Detention Center
prescribes that penal facilities should not C. Evidence Custodian Officer
exceed _____ inmates. D. Court
A. 1000 3732. Female detainees shall not be
B. 1500 transported in handcuffs but only with
C. 1200 necessary restraint and proper escort
D. 2000 preferably aided by a police woman. The
3726. Who among the following statement is
inmates may not be allowed to see the A. Yes
B. Wholly True
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 C. Partially False for usurpation of a person in authority
D. Wholly False due to his frequent introduction of
3733. Ms. Malou Wang, a prisoner, himself as NBI agent, what would be his
learns that she is already overstaying in classification under PD 29?
jail because her jail guard, Benny B. A. Detention prisoner
Rotcha, who happens to be a law student B. Municipal prisoner
advised her that there is no more legal C.Provincial prisoner
ground for his continued imprisonment, D. Insular prisoner
and Benny told her that she can go. Ms. 3740. Theory which states that
Malou Wang got out of jail and went criminal behavior is learned in interaction
home. Was there any crime committed? with other persons in the process of
A. Evasion of Service communication.
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners A. Differential Association Theory
C. Evasion through Negligence B. Social Disorganization Theory
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison C. Classical Theory
3734. As far as Benny B. Rotcha, the D. Strain Theory
jail guard who allowed Ms. Malou Wang 3741. Having a pornographic materials
to go, is concerned, the crime committed inside jail is a?
is: A. Minor offense
A. Evasion of Service B. Moral Turpitude
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner C. Grave Offense
C. Evasion through Negligence D. Less grave offense
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison 3742. A chemical that is injected to a
3735. This refers to the one-in-charge Death Convict that puts him into deep
of a Prison. sleep in lethal injection.
A. Director A. Potassium Chloride (stops heart beat)
C. Warden B. Hydrogen Peroxide (Paralyzes the muscles)
B. Superintendent C. Sodium Thiopenthotal
D. Wardress D. Sodium chloride (salt)
3736. What correctional institution 3743. If a regular convicted prisoner
houses accused persons awaiting has 3 shifting guards, X which is a Death
investigation? Convict should have___.
A. BUCOR A. 2 Shifting Guards
B. Jail B. 3 Shifting Guards
C. Penitentiary C. 4 Shifting Guards
D. Prison D. 5. Shifting Guards
3737. Who supervised and control the 3744. How do inmates know that they
Provincial Jail. have letters?
A. DILG A. A list of mails for inmates is posted
B. Governor B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally
C. DOJ C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the
D. LGU addressee
D. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’
3738. It is one of the earliest devices Office
for softening brutal severity of 3745. What is referred to as “hustling”
punishment through a compromise with inside the prison?
the church. A. Reporting illegal activities
A. Benefit of Clergy B. Doing prison assignment
B. None C. Using prohibited drugs
C. Rehabilitation D. Selling illegal commodities
D. Retribution 3746. ____ program employs prisoner
3739. Richard Alden was convicted to in various product or good-producing
serve a penalty of 6 years imprisonment tasks.
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 A. Agricultural reduction from a maximum term of forty
B. Industrial years to ____.
C. Operational A. 20 years
D. Administrative B. 25 years
3747. The 2nd group shall not use riot C. 30 years
control gases, except on orders of the – D. 35 years

A. Desk Officer 3754. Close confinement in Prison

B. Armorer shall not exceed –
C. Control Center A. 45 days
D. Officer-in-Charge B. 30 to 60 days
3748. Detention Prisoners are NOT C. 7 days
allowed to have a Conjugal Visit. The D. 15 days
statement is – 3755. Abdul Jackonini was sentenced
A. True to imprisonment on March 21, 2013. On
B. Maybe True March 25, 2013 the judge who
C. Maybe False promulgated the decision died. What is
D. False the effect of the judge’s death to the
3749. If Jail Officer I Masunurin was service of Abdul’s sentence?
appointed in 2013 at a monthly salary of A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
19,000, how much is longevity pay in B. He will have to serve his sentence
2018? C. His sentence will be suspended
A. 9000 pesos D. His sentence will be reduced
B. 1900 pesos
C. 9500 pesos
D. NONE
3750. An inmate shall be transferred 3756. It is the national record of a
to a separation center for adjustment prisoner at New Bilibid Prison.
process from life in prison to life is free A. Mittimus
community within – B. Carpeta
A. 60 days prior to release C. Commitment Order
B. 30 days prior to release D. Prison Record
C. 90 days before release 3757. How many days before election
D. 15 days prior to release does inmate are prohibited from going
3751. How many days are given to the out?
disciplinary board of BJMP to resolve A. 30 days
issue? B. 90 Days
A. 5 working days C. 60 Days
B. 2 days D. 120 Days
C. 30 working days 3758. Maya is in prison for the past 48
D. 24 hours months and has never been involved in
3752. How long does an inmate any trouble, no matter how minor. If you
mother who gave birth inside the jail is were the prison director, how many days
allowed to be with his child? for each month would you approve as
A. 6 months Maya’s good conduct time allowance?
B. 1 year A. 5 days
C. 2 years B. 8 days
D. 7 years C. 10 days
3753. A colonist when classified by the D. 12 days
director of the Bureau of Corrections who 3759. A powerful earthquake
is punished with reclusion perpetua will destroyed a prison where W,X,Y & Z are
have benefit from an automatic inmates. All, except Z, escaped. W
surrendered after 24 hours, X b.
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 surrendered after 24 hours, X 3765. For minimum security
surrendered after 2 days and Y institution, the purpose of fencing the
surrendered after 3 days. Who among surrounding is:
them are not entitled to Special Time A. To keep away the civilian population from
Allowance for Loyalty under Art. 98. entering the institution.
B. It is designed to prevent escapes.
A. X C. It is designed for agricultural purposes
C. W D. It is designed to facilitate open view of the
B. Y
surrounding.
D. Z 3766. It is the primary objective of
3760. Which of the following custodial and security division?
organizations donated the Half-way A. To prevent riots
House inside the compound of the B. To implement discipline
Bureau of Corrections?
C. To prevent escapes
A. Office of the President D. To help in the reformation of prisoners
B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office 3767. 230. When the death penalty
C. United Nations Security Council was still enforced by means of lethal
D. Asia Crime Foundation
injection, four guards keep a death
watch, the convict is confined in an
3761. Mail letters of a Death Convict individual cell ___ hours prior to the
should be documented within ____ scheduled time of execution which is
before the execution. usually 3:00 in the afternoon.
A. 24 hours
A. 6
B. 72 hours B. 24
C. 48 hours C. 12
D. NONE D. 36
3762. Involves the formulation of a 3768. What is the population of a type
tentative treatment program best suited
A Jail?
to the needs of the individual prisoner, A. More than 100
based on the findings. B. 20 or less
A. treatment planning C. 21 to 99
C. reclassification D. 101 to 150
B. Execution of treatment Plan
3769. This theory assumes that
D. Diagnosis people are law abiding but under great
3763. An authorization that permits pressure they will resort to crime and
inmate to leave place of confinement for that disparity between goals and means
emergency reasons.
provides that pressure.
A. Furlough A. Differential Association Theory
B. Prisonization B. Psychoanalytic Theory
C. Diversification D. Strain Theory
D. Counseling 3770. This is also known as “Youth
Camps” and is being maintained by Bucor
where youth offenders may serve their
3764. A warden who limits his role to sentence in lieu of confinement in a
consider policy matters and major
prison.
problems, his responsibility is centered
on: A. AFP Stockade
B. Agricultural and Forestry Camps
A. Decision Making
C. Social Camps
B. Personnel Program
D. A or C
C. Public Relations
3771. It was established in 1910 under
D. Executive Leadership
the American Regime.
A. Philippine Prison System
B. Provincial Jail System
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 C. Probation 3778. Prison work assignments are
D. Parole usually given to prisoners.
3772. The following are the requisite A. After recreational activities
of a valid Commitment Order EXCEPT: B. At early morning hours
A. Signature of the Judge C. Before sleeping hours
B. Seal of the Court D. During middle hours of the day
C. Valid Identification of Prisoner 3779. Forced is used only by
D. Signature of the Clerk correctional to,
3773. A prisoner having the natural A. Exact respect
inclination or tendency to evade custody B. Enforce discipline
against the will of the custodian or from C. Show physical strength and power
the place where he is held in lawful D. Perform assignments
custody or confinement. 3780. One of the effects of social
A. Escape Prone Prisoner stigma maintained by an unforgiving
B. Mental Deranged Prisoner society against criminals is ____.
C. Sex Deviate Prisoner A. Worked out good relationship with the
D. Alien Prisoner community
3774. Where a person commits B. Respond to a rehabilitation program
FELONY before beginning to serve or C. Difficulties in securing employment
while serving his sentence on a previous D. Fostered friendship with co-prisoner
conviction 3781. With respect to the UN Standard
A. Quasi-recidivism Minimum Rules for the Treatment of
B. Reiteration Prisoners, which of the following should
C. Habitual Delinquency NOT be done to the prisoners?
D. Recidivism A. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from
convicted prisoners.
3775. If a prisoner who is serving B. Young offenders shall be kept separated from
sentence is found in possession of adult prisoners.
dangerous drugs can be considered a C. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept
quasi-recidivist? away from male prisoners.
A. Yes, because he committed another crime while D. Female prisoner shall be allowed to have her
serving his sentence children stay with her.
B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities 3782. Which of the following unusual
in prison offender should be under the close
C. No. because what he violated is not a Felony supervision of the jail physician?
D. A and B 1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick
2. Sex deviates 4. Escape-prone prisoners
3776. What is the legal process that A. 1 and 2
results in the removal of conviction from B. 3 and 4
the official records? C. 1 and 3
A. Mitigation D. 2 and 3
B. Expungement 3783. Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in
C. Exoneration command in BJMP?
D. Restriction A. Deputy for Administration
3777. Who advocated the principle B. Chief, Directorial Staff (4th in command)
that the basis of all social actions must be C. Deputy for Operation (3rd in command)
the utilitarian conception of the greatest D. Any of these
happiness for the greatest number? 3784. All original appointments of
A. John Howard officers in the jail bureau shall commence
B. Jeremy Bentham with the rank of ___
C. Cesare Becaria A. JO1
D. George Void B. Jail Inspector
C. JO11
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 D. Jail Senior Inspector A. EO 83 S. 1937
3785. What is the minimum tank B. EO 94
required to be appointed as Chief Bureau C. Act 4103
of Jail Management and Penology? D. EO 292
A. Superintendent 3792. All except one are the requisites
B. C/Superintendent to be eligible for review of a Parole cases.
C. Senior Superintendent A. Final conviction
D. Director B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one yr
3786. It is a means correcting an C. served the minimum period of said sentence
offender by placing him to an institution D. None of the above
where he can be treated well until he 3793. All except one are objectives of
becomes fully recovered and accepted by the Parole System.
the community. A. It standardize the penalty
A. Institutional Corrections B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation
B. Non Institutional Correction of liberty
C. BJMP C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and
D. Parole economic usefulness
3787. This is the basic needs of a D. Individualize the administration of criminal law,
convicted person under custody. without prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining
a. Shelter b. Food e. cigarettes and protecting social order
b. gadgets d. Slippers f. Drinks 3794. Director of Prisons has the
A. a,b,c,d responsibility to forward the document
B. a,c,d,e to the board, ____ before the expiration
C. c,d,e,f of prisoner’s minimum sentence.
D. a,b,d,f A. 15 days
3788. It is a conditional release after B. 45 days
the prisoner’s conviction is final and C. 30 days
executory and has already served the D. 60 days
minimum period of the sentence 3795. The board shall assess and
imposed to him. determine whether the petitioner is
A. Parole qualified for Parole, the decision or
B. Word of Hohor action must be suspended by ____ of the
B. Parole d’ Honeur members of the board.
D.Probare A. 4 votes
3789. He is the B. Majority
Governor/Superintendent in Norfolk C. 5 members of the Board
Island, a penal colony in the East of D. at least four (4) votes
Australia and initiated the famous “Mark 3796. If petition for Parole was
System”. granted, BOARD will issue a ____ or
A. Alexander Macanochie specifically known as discharge on parole.
B. Edward Savage A. Release Document
C. Walter Crofton B. Final Release & Discharge
D. Edward Savage C. Discharge on Parole
3790. Ex-officio Chairperson of board D. Summary Report
of Pardons and Parole. 3797. One of the mandatory
A. Administrator conditions attached to the parolee is to
B. Sec. of DOJ report at least once a month for those
C. Sociologist residing outside Metro Manila/to report
D. Clergyman at least twice a month for those who are
3791. It is known as the Indeterminate residing in Metro Manila.
Sentence Law that creates the board of A. True
Indeterminate Sentence which took B. Partially True
effect on December 5, 1933. C. False
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 D. Partially False Administration and confirmed by the
3798. The Probation and Parole ____.
Officer submits ___ if parolee commits A. Regional Director
any violation of the terms and conditions C. BOARD
stated in the release document. B. Probation and Parole Officer
A. Violation Report D. Administration
B. Progress Report 3805. Parole is not claimed as a right
C. Infraction Report but the Board of Parole grants it as a
D. Summary Report privilege to a qualified prisoner. This is
3799. Upon receipt of the Report the statement is:
BOARD may issue an ____ against the A. Partially true
parolee. C. True
A. Warrant of Arrest B. Partially false
B. Search Warrant D. False
C. Order of Arrest 3806. The following are
D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR) disqualifications for Parole to be granted.
3800. What is the effect of the a. who escaped from confinement or evaded
recommitment of a Parolee? sentence;
A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence b. those who have pending criminal case;
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum c. habitual delinquencies;
sentence d. suffering from any mental disorder; and
C. Minimum sentence impose e. conviction is on appeal
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in A. a,b,c, and e
full B. a,b,c, and d
3801. As a general rule, a Parolee may C. b,c,d, and e
not transfer residence stated in the D. a,b,c,d, and e
release document except if the petition 3807. It is exercise exclusively within
for transfer of residence is approved by the sound discretion of the President for
____. the objective of preventing miscarriage
A. Regional Director of Justice or correcting manifests
B. Probation & Parole Officer injustice.
C. BOARD A. Parole
D. Administration B. Pardon
3802. A Chief Probation and Parole C. Executive
Officer may authorize outside travel his D. Reprieve
area of jurisdiction for a period of NOT 3808. Who has the authority to assist
more than ___. the Chief Executive in his exercise of the
A. 30 days power to grant executive clemency?
B. 15 days A. DOJ
C. 20 days B. BOARD
D. 10 days C. Administration
3803. If a travel of a Parolee is more D. Administrator
than 30 days shall be approved by the 3809. Kind of Executive Clemency
____. which exempts an individual within
A. Regional Director certain limits or conditions from the
B. Probation & Parole Officer punishment that the law inflicts for the
C. BOARD offense he has committed resulting from
D. Administration the partial extinction of his criminal
3804. A parolee may work or travel liability.
abroad if he has NO pending criminal case A. Absolute Pardon
in any court. Application for travel and B. Reprieve
work abroad shall be approved by the C. Commutation of Sentence
D. Conditional Pardon
Page 237 of 262
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 3810. Pardon by the President shall be 3816. The power of the Chief
extended ____. Executive to grant pardon is limited to
A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action the following, EXCEPT:
B. After Conviction of Final Judgment A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of
C. After Filling of Complaint/Information impeachment
D. Upon the discretion of the President B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for
3811. A pardon violator upon the violation of any election law may be granted
conviction will be liable for imprisonment without favourable recommendation of the
of “prision correctional”. Commission of Elections
A. Article 95 of RPC C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
B. Article 59 of RPC D. Pardon is administered by the Court
C. Article 159 of RPC 3817. Pardon can be extended to any
D. A and C of the cases, EXCEPT:
3812. On Executive Clemency petition A. Carnapping
filed by prisoner should be addressed to B. Impeachment
____. B. Estafa
A. Board D. Parricide
B. Administrator 3818. Father of Philippine Probation.
C. Chairman of BPP A. John Augustus
D. President B. Edward Savage
3813. Who shall endorse to the Board C. Matthew Davenport Hill
the petition for absolute or conditional D. Teodulo Natividad
pardon if the crime committed is against 3819. First juvenile court established
the national security? in 1899
A. DFA Secretary A. Chicago
B. COMELEC B. Massachusetts
C. DOJ Secretary C. England
D. DND Secretary D. Philippines
3814. Any wilful or malicious 3820. Federal Probation act signed by
concealing material information made by President Calvin Coolidge became a Law
the client either or after the grant of on _____.
Conditional Pardon or Parole is a ground A. April 26, 1878
for the BOARD to – B. 1899
A. Extend the period of Supervision C. 1887
B. Modify the conditions appeared on released D. March 4, 1925
document 3821. Probation in Philippines was first
C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of introduced by virtue of ___ also known as
Conditional Pardon Philippine Probation Act of 1935
D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good A. HB 393
behavior has shown by the client B. PD 968
3815. All except one are the instances C. Act 4221
wherein supervision of parole and D. RA 4221
conditional pardon case deemed to 3822. Celebrated case which paved
archive/close. the way for declaring unconstitutional of
A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the the first probation law of November 16,
Board against the client 1937
B. Certificate of transfer of resident A. People vs. Vera
C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and B. People vs. De Vera
discharge of the client C. People vs. De Vega
D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the D. People vs. Vega
deceased client 3823. How long is the period of
probation of a defendant sentenced to a

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 term of imprisonment of not more than 2002 is disqualify to apply for Probation,
one (1) year? EXCEPT:
A. Not to exceed 6 years A. Section 12
B. Not to exceed 8 years B. Section 14
C. Not to exceed 10 years C. Section 13
D. Not to exceed 2 years D. Section 17
3824. The power of the Chief E. Section 70
Executive to grant pardon is limited to 3831. This decree mandated the
the following, EXCEPT: disqualification of the petitioner’s
A. Pardon is administered by the court application for probation if an appeal is
B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of perfected.
impeachment. A. PD 1357
C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for B. BP 76
the violation of any election law may granted C. PD 968
without favourable recommendation of the D.PD 1257
Commission of Elections. 3832. He is a convicted defendant
D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction whose application for probation has been
3825. What court will you apply for given due course by the court but fails to
Probation? report to the probation officer or cannot
A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above be located within a reasonable period of
B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below time.
C. Same court, where you had been convicted A. Absconding Petitioner
D. Any of these B. Absconding Probationer
3826. Waiting for the decision of the C. Disobedient Petitioner
court on the application for probation, D. Uncooperative Petitioner
the offender applying for probation – 3833. Probation is a privilege granted
A. Must stay in prison as a detainee to deserving and qualified petitioners,
B. Maybe set free without bail when does it become a matter of right?
C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance A. After the submission of the PSIR
D. all of these B. When the convict files a petition for probation
3827. When will the court deny C. When the appeal was undertaken
application for probation of a petitioner? D. When his probation is approved
A. Petitioner is a foreigner 3834. When shall probation order take
B. Petitioner is a drug dependent effect?
C. Petitioner violates the condition A. Three days after issuance
D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution B. Three days prior to issuance
3828. Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to C. Upon its issuance
serve a penalty of Prision Correctional. Is D. Upon reporting to the probation officer
he qualified to apply for probation? 3835. Which of the following cases is
A. Yes disqualified to apply for probation?
B. True A. Infanticide
C. No C. Simple Theft
D. False B. Malicious Mischief
3829. Violations of the following D.Unjust Vexation
Special Laws shall disqualify an offender 3836. Who appoints Probation
to avail of the benefits of PD 968. Administrator, Regional Probation
A. Omnibus Election Code Officers and Assistant Probation Officers?
B. Robbery A. DILG Secretary
C. Wage Rationalization Act B. President
D. Videogram Law C. DOJ Secretary
D. Administrator
3830. As a general rule Violation of 3837. How many days are given to the
Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of court to act on application for probation?
Page 239 of 262
G.S.T. 2019
 A. 15 days 3844. Under rules and methods
B. 60 days employed by probation, what is the
C. 10 days maximum number of minor violations
D. 5 days that would result in the revocation of the
3838. Probationer and his Probation probation order?
Officer will prepare a _____. A. 5 Violations
A. Associate Plan B. 3 Violations
B. Supervision & Treatment Plan C. 4 Violations
C. Treatment Program D. 2 Violations
D. Orientation Plan 3845. Maximum number of
3839. One of the mandatory probationers under supervision of a
conditions to a probationer is to present probation aide
himself to the probation officer A. 3
designated to undertake his supervision B. 7
within ___ from receipt of said order. C. 5
D. 9
A. 24 hours 3846. Probation is a privilege granted
B. 72 hours to deserving and qualified petitioners,
C. 48 hours when does it become a matter of right?
D. 150 hours A. After submission of the PSIR
3840. When shall probation order B. When the convict files a petition for probation
take effect? C. When the appeal was undertaken
A. Three days after issuance D. When the probation is approved
B. Upon its issuance 3847. Who is the ultimate beneficiary
C. Three Days Prior to Issuance of Probation Law?
D. Upon Reporting to the Probation Officer A. Criminal
3841. Modifications of conditions for B. Society
probation is allowed ___. C. Family
A. 15 days after granting it D. Governor
B. At any time during supervision 3848. It refers to those that handle the
C. Upon the application of the community investigation of petitioners for probation,
D. Any of these and the supervision of probationers,
parolees and conditional pardonees.
A. Parole and Probation Administration
B. Board of Pardons and Parole
C. Secretary of Justice
D. Department of Justice
3842. If the Probationer did not 3849. Post Sentence Investigation
comply with the conditions, if the reasons report must be submitted by the
for non-compliance is not meritorious probation officer to the court within
the court will issue a ____. A. 20 days
A. termination order B. 60 days
B. Warrant of Arrest C. 30 days
C. OAR D. 90 days
D. Revocation Order 3850. Those that have been once on
3843. What is the effect of the probation under the Probation Law:
recommitment of a Probationer? A. are qualified to apply for probation
A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence B. are disqualified to apply for probation
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum C. may be granted for another probation
sentence D. should be confined in prison
C. Minimum sentence impose 3851. Maximum term of office for
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in those appointed as members of the
full Board of Pardon and Parole.
Page 240 of 262
G.S.T. 2019
 A. 3 years
B. 5 years 3858. Who appoints Probation
C. 4 years Administrator, Regional Probation
D. 6 years Officers and Assistant Probation Officers?
3852. When will you close a probation A. DILG Secretary
case? C. President
A. When the probationer absconds the place B. DOJ Secretary
B. When he incurred violations D. Administrator
C. When there is recommendation for revocation
D. When the termination order is approved
3853. Volunteer Probation Aides may
be appointed from among the citizen’s of
____ 3859. It is the branch of criminology
A. Good religious background which deals with the management and
B. High Educational Level administration of inmates:
a. Criminal justice
C. Good Repute and Probity
b. Penology
D. High Social Standing c. Victimology
3854. It refers to the manner or d. d. Jail Management
practice of managing or controlling
places of confinement as in jails or 3860. Any article, thing, or item
prisons. prohibited by law/ or forbidden by jail
A. Penology rules is called:
a. Instrument of restraint
B. Penal Management
b. contraband
C. Correctional Administration c. Handcuff
D. Correction d. leg iron
3855. It refers to a long, low narrow, 3861. It shall exercise supervision and control over all
single decked ships propelled by sails, district, city and municipal jails to ensure “a secured,
usually rowed by criminals. A. type of clean and sanitary and adequately equipped jail for the
ship used for transportation of criminals custody and safekeeping of city, municipal prisoners, any
fugitive from justice or persons detained awaiting for
in the 16th century.
investigation or trial and/or transfer to the National
A. Gaols Penitentiary:
B. Galleys a. Bureau of Corrections
C. Hulks b. Dep’t of Social Welfare and Development
D. D. Mamertine Prison b. Jail Bureau
c. Department of Justice
3862. Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times
3856. Represented the earliest
a day or as often as necessary to ensure that all inmates
codification of Roman Law incorporated are duly accounted for:
into the Justinian Code. It is also a. Two
collection of legal principles engraved on b. Four
metal tablets and set up on . c. Three
A. Twelve Tablets d. d. Five
B.Burgundian Code 3863. The head of prison may establish _______
whenever the frequency of requests for interviews reach
C. Hammurabic Code
a volume that warrants limitations:
D. Greek code of Draco a. Media group
b. news team
3857. The most popular workhouse in c.Press pool
London which was built for the d. public affairs
employment and housing of English 3864. An infant born while the mother is serving
prisoners. sentence in CIW may be allowed to stay with the mother
for a period not exceeding:
A. Bridewell
a. 1 month
B. Hospicio de San Michelle b. 1 year
C. Saint Bridget” Well c. 6 months
D. Walnut Street Jail d. 6 years
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3865. BUCOR has two (2) Assistant Directors, one for c. Corporate surety
Administration and Rehabilitation and one for: d. Cash deposit
a. Health and Care services 3874. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the
b. Prisons and Security
Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested
c. Correction and Rehabilitation d. Custody and Security
with the:
a. Department of Justice
3866. A representative of the news media may file a b. Chief Executive
written request with the head of prison for a personal c. Judiciary
interview of an inmate that he/she shall file a written d. Legislative
request at least: 338. It is the authority of the President of the
a. One day
Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty,
b. two days
c. Three days reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal liability.
d. four days a. Parole
3867. This is the process wherein prison officials try to c. Pardon
convert inmates and be affiliated into their religion: b. Executive clemency
a. Conversions d. none of the above
b. agitation 3875. The B.J.M.P. is under
c. Proselytizing
the administration of the:
d. Captivation
3868. Prisoner who violated prison rules may be a. DILG
punished by a confinement in a disciplinary cell from _ to c. BUCor
_ months depending upon the gravity of the offense b. PNP
committed: d. DOJ
a. One to two 3876. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier
b. one to three
sentence to a less serious one or a longer term to a
c. One to four
d. one to five shorter term.
3869. During the 11th and successive years of following a. Amnesty
years of prisoners imprisonment, he shall be allowed to c. Reprieve
a deduction of __ days for each month of good b. Commutation
behaviour: d. none of the foregoing
a. Five 3877. The attempt to prevent future crimes through
b. eight
fear of punishment.
c. Ten
d. fifteen a. Retribution
3870. During the following years until the 10th year, b. Punishment
inclusive, of inmate’s imprisonment, he shall be allowed c. Deterrence
to a deduction of: d. Rehabilitation
a. Five 3878. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is
b. eight called
c. Ten
a. Reprieve
d. fifteen
3871. During the first two years of inmates c. Amnesty
imprisonment, he shall be allowed a deduction of: b. Pardon
a. Five days d. Communication
b. ten days
c. Seven days
d. twelve days
3872. GCTA means:
a. Good conduct turning allowance
b. . good conduct time allowance 3879. Defined by the BJMP refers to a person who is
c. Good conduct training allotment accused before a court or competent authority and is
d. d. none of the foregoing temporarily confined in jail while undergoing or
awaiting investigation, trial or final judgment.
3873. It is a form of bails that the court may release a a. Prisoner
person in custody of a responsible person. b. Bail
a. Property bond c. Detainee
b. Recognizance d. Arrest
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3880. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be d. None of the above
prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom? 3889. A person who is placed under probation.
a. Parents a. Petitioner
b. Offended Spouse b. Probationer
c. Guardians c. Probationee
d. Godfather d. None of the above
3881. He is considered as the American Pioneer of
Probation
a. Matthew Davenport Hill 3890. It refers to the total extinction of the criminal
b. John Augustus liability of the individual to whom it is granted without
c. Father Cook any condition.
d. d. Edward Savage a. Special pardon
3882. Which of the following is an executive clemency b. Absolute pardon
that requires the concurrence of congress? c. Conditional pardon
a. probation d. General pardon
b. Amnesty 3891. Which is not a form of bail?
c. pardon a. Cash deposit
d. Parole b. Corporate surety
3883. Post sentence investigation report must be c. Recognizance
submitted by the probation officer to the court within d. Title bond
a. 20 days 3892. An offender who surrenders from escaping
c. 60 days because of calamity immediately 48 hours after the
b. 30 days pronouncement of the passing away of calamity shall
d. none of the above be granted
3884. Parole is a matter of ___. a. 1/5 reduction of sentence
a. privilege b. 1/2 reduction of sentence
b. right c. 2/5 reduction of sentence
c. grace d. 2/6 reduction of sentence
d. requirement 3893. He is considered as the father of probation in the
3885. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of Philippines.
__. a. Ferdinand Marcos
a. punishment b. Teodulo Natividad
b. treatment c. Fidel Ramos
c. enjoyment d. Antonio Torres
d. incarceration 3894. The following are forms of executive clemency,
3886. PPA is headed by: EXCEPT
a. Director a. Commutation
b. Administrator b. Reform model
c. Secretary c. Amnesty
d. Superior d. Pardon
3887. Is a pecuniary punishment imposed by the law 3895. An agency under the Department of Justice that is
tribunal upon a person convicted of crime or charged with custody and rehabilitation of national
misdemeanor. offenders, that is, those sentenced to serve a term of
a. Remission imprisonment of more than three (3) years
b. Forfeiture a. BJMP
c. Fine b. Bureau of Corrections
d. All of the above c. Provincial Government
3888. Who may grant GCTA to an inmate who displays d. Parole and Probation Administration
good behavior and no record of violation of prisons rules 3896. Pardon may be granted upon the
and regulations recommendation of what government agency
a. President a. Parole and Probation Administration
b. Director of Prisons b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Warden
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c. Probation and Parole Administration b. Forfeiture
d. Board of Parole and Pardons c. Fine
3897. It is known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of d. All of the above
2006. 3905. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon
a. R.A. 7610 is limited to the following, except:
b. P.D. 603 a. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of
c. R.A. 9262 impeachment.
d. R.A. 9344 b. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for
3898. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the: the violation of any election law may be granted
a. Director without favorable recommendation of the Commission
b. Secretary of the dnd of Elections.
c. Chief of executive c. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
d. Prison inspector d. Pardon is administered by the court
3899. A term means a friend of a court 3906. It refers to commission of another crime during
a. Amicos curae service of sentence of penalty imposed for another
b. Amigos curae previous offense.
c. Amicus curiae a. Recidivism
d. None of the above b. Delinquency
3900. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so c. Quasi-recidivism
that he or she may not commit another crime in the d. City prisoner
future. 3907. It refers to leniency or mercy.
a. Retribution a. Power
b. Deterrence b. Clemency
c. Incapacitation c. Grace
d. Rehabilitation d. Damages
3908. A kind of pardon which applies to all persons
falling on a certain category.
3901. He is considered as the father of Probation in a. Special pardon
England. b. Absolute pardon
a. Matthew Davenport Hill c. Conditional pardon
b. Father Cook d. General pardon
c. John Augustus 3909. During the 3rd to 5th year inclusive of
d. Edward Savage imprisonment of an inmate, He shall allow a deduction
3902. An attached agency of the Department of Justice of how many days for each month for displaying good
which provides a less costly alternative to behavior?
imprisonment of offenders who are likely to respond to a. 10 days
individualized community based treatment programs. b. 15 days
a. BJMP c. 8 days
b. Bureau of Corrections d. 5 days
c. Provincial Government 3910. The act of grace from a sovereign power
d. Parole and Probation Administration inherent in the state which exempts an individual from
3903. Is a pardon which is conceded to a single the punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for
individual for an ordinary crime. his crime, extended by the President thru the
a. General pardon recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon
b. Absolute pardon is called:
c. Conditional pardon a. Amnesty
d. Special pardon b. Parole
3904. Refers to incurring of a liability to pay a definite c. Probation
sum of money as the consequence of violating the d. Pardon
provisions of some statute or refusal to comply with 3911. It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty.
some requirement of law. a. Reprieve
a. Remission b. Amnesty
c. Probation
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d. Commutation c. Director
3912. Refers to the conditional release of an offender d. Commander
from a correctional institution after he has served the 3920. Among the following, which has the authority to
minimum of his prison sentences. grant parole?
a. Parole a. President
b. Pardon b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Probation c. Director of Prison
d. None of the above d. Court
3913. The who investigates for the court a referral for
probation or supervises a probationer or both
a. police officer
b. probationer officer 3921. The Bureau of Corrections is under the:
c. intelligence officer a. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. law enforcer b. Department of Justice
c. Department of the Interior and Local Government
d. Department of Health
3914. When does probation revocable before the final 3922. is the redress that the state takes against an
discharge of the probationer by the court for the offending member of society that usually involves pain
violation of any of the conditions of probation. and suffering:
a. any time during probation a. incarceration
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer b. floggings
c. after 1 year under probation c. ordeal
d. punishment
d. none of the above
3915. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she 3923. This code introduced the concept of
has been subsequently convicted of another crime; restitution. But punishments were meted according
a. progress report to the social class of the offender:
b. violation report a. Justinian code
c. infraction report b. The Greeks
d. arrest report c. Burgundian code
d. Code of Hammurabi
3916. The following are disqualifications for parole
3924. According to this ancient law
EXCEPT one: that was practice in the areas of
a. those who escape from confinement or evaded Babylon, The killer is answerable not
sentence to the family but to the king:
b. those convicted of offense punished by death a. Code of Hammurabi
penalty, reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment b. Roman twelve tables
c. Pharaoh’s law
c. those who are habitual delinquents
d. Burgundian code
d. none of the above 3925. This Roman Catholic tribunal was responsible for
3917. During the 11th and successive years of the detection and punishment of unbelievers and
imprisonment of an inmate, he shall allowed a deduction heresy:
of how many days for each month for displaying good a. Inquisition
behavior? b. Lateran council
a. 10 days c. Ecclesiastical court
d. Tortio millenio adviniente
b. 15 days
3926. borne out of the need to maintain the health of
c. 8 days prisoners so that their profitability can be maximized not
d. 5 days out of humanitarian reasons as the government and the
3918. It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of merchants want to make it appear:
punishment for a time after conviction and sentence. a. UN convention for profitability of prisoners
a. Reprieve b. US convention for rehabilitation of prisoners
b. Amnesty c. UN convention for treatment of prisoners
d. US convention for treatment of prisoners
c. Probation
3927. In an attempt to further limit the blood feuds, the
d. Commutation feudal lords instituted official methods by which God
3919. Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction. could indicate who was innocent and who was guilty.
a. Administrator One such method was called:
b. Warden a. Trial by fighting

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b. Trial by ordeal b. Poena
c. Trial by combat c. Peona
d. Dei indicum d. All of the abovementioned
3928. Exist as the more common forms of punishment. 3937. It is the field of criminal justice administration
this was tied to the crime committed: which utilizes the body of knowledge and practices of the
a. Banishment government and the society in handling individuals who
b. Death have been convicted of an offense:
c. Torture a. Penology
d. Mutilation b. Corrections
3929. Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting c. Criminal justice
the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by d. All of the above
requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment 3938. The principle of tit for tat appears throughout this
program: code:
a. Solitary confinement a. Code of drakon
b. Punishment b. Code of Hammurabi
c. Floggings c. Justinian code
d. Imprisonment d. Burgundian code
3930. It is conditional release after the prisoner has 3939. existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100
served part of his sentenced on prison for the purpose of years before Christ was born, the king ruled the City of
gradually re-introducing them to free life: Ur in ancient Sumeria:
a. Probation
a. king Ur Nammu
b. Parole
c. Pardon b. king Herodes
d. Executive clemency c. Emperor Justin
3931. This school argues that since children and lunatic d. None of the above
cannot calculate pleasure and pain they should not be 3940. Death Penalty awaits slaves who commit
prepared as criminals and as such that they should not murder, assaults on noble or middle class women, sexual
be punished: relations with noble or middle class women and giving
a. Classical school
aid or comfort to escape offender:
b. Neo classical school
c. Positivist school a. Burgundian code
d. Hedonism b. Drakonian code
3932. This approached of penology assessed at the time c. Law of Talion
of French Revolution: d. The Greeks
a. Classical school 3941. This people love to philosophize that their brand
b. Neo classical school of justice was not vengeful and retributive. They
c. Positivist school
maintain that justice should reform the offender but
d. Hedonism
3933. According to this theory “a criminal is like a sick must also serve as deterrence to others from committing
man who needs not to be punished but treated in a offense:
hospital so that his illness which has something to do a. The Romans
with the commission of crime may be cured”: b. The Greeks
a. Corrections c. The Jews
b. Penology
d. The Americans
c. Classical
d. Positivist 3942. Today, the stand of the Church has become a
3934. This school views as crime as social phenomenon: complete reversal of the past. it was the late Pro-Life
a. Classical school Pope John Paul II who reversed this so called:
b. Neo classical school a. Eclessiastical court
c. Positivist school b. Inquisition
d. Sociology c. Ordeal
3935. It is the study and practice of a systematic
d. Culture of death
management in jails or prisons and other institutions
concerned with the custody, treatment and rehabilitation 3943. punishment inflicted by Greek Justice which is
of criminal offenders: also practice of the Israelites in Jesus time:
a. Penology a. stoning to death
b. Corrections b. breaking on a wheel
c. Correctional administration c. burning alive
d. Penal management d. trial by ordeal
3936. a Latin word which means pain or suffering:
a. Penology
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3944. the offended party is fastened by metal bands to 3951. It assumes that every individual has free will and
a board made of wood and then had their bones knows the penal laws:
systematically broken: a. Classical school
a. stoning to death b. Neo classical
b. breaking on a wheel c. Positivist
c. burning alive 3952. This school focuses on crimes and on the
d. trial by ordeal corresponding punishment attached to it:
3945. like breaking on a wheel, burning alive was once a. Classical school
practiced by Romans. The Roman Catholic Church has b. Neo classical
also been known to resort to this form of punishment
c. Positivist
during the time of inquisition for non believers, witches
3953. This school maintains that criminals must be
and heretics:
rehabilitated to institutions provided by the government
a. stoning to death
and should not be punished contrary to other schools
b. breaking on a wheel
ideology:
c. burning alive
a. Classical school
d. trial by ordeal
b. Neo classical
3946. The systematic transfer of offenders to colonized
land started to intensify in 17th Century. c. Positivist
a. Absolutely true 3954. BJMP stands for:
b. Probably true a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
c. Absolutely false b. The government
d. Probably false c. The jail bureau
d. None of the abovementioned
3955. STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are
administered and controlled by the Provincial
3947. Is the procedure by which prisoner are selected for
Government (Governor).
release on the basis of individual response and progress
STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the
within the correctional institution and a service by which
supervision of the Department of the Interior and Local
they are provided with necessary control of guidance as
Government.
they served the remainder of their sentence with in the
a. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
free community:
b. Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true
a. Probation
c. Both statement is true
b. Parole
d. Both statement is false
c. Imprisonment
3956. The following institutions are controlled and
d. Reprieve
supervised by our government EXCEPT:
3948. The indeterminate sentence law was approved on:
a. New Bilibid Prisons
a. December 5, 1933
b. December 25, 1933 b. Manila City Jail
c. December 5, 1955 c. Iwahig Penal Colony
d. December 25, 1955 d. Elmira Reformatory
3949. The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT: 3957. The confinement of an inmate may be transferred
a. Granted by the court to an AFP stockade provided the inmate is certified as
b. He was once on Probation minimum security risk and is __ years of old who can no
c. Must not have committed any crime against national longer perform manual work:
security a. More than 60
d. Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment b. more than 50
3950. The following are the unanticipated consequence c. More than 70
of punishment; EXCEPT: d. more than 80
a. It develops a caution in the parts of criminal 3958. As a general rule, viewing the remains of the
committing crime during night time deceased relative of an inmate may be enjoyed only if
b. Generally stops constructive effort (lack of respect to the deceased relative is in a place within a radius of ___
the law) kilometres by road from prison:
c. Punishment elevates the criminal a. 10
d. Develops public attitude of idolizing criminals b. 30

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 c. 20 b. 120
d. d. 40 c. 20 or less
3959. An inmate over _ years of age may be excused d. 150
from mandatory labor: 3968. This correctional facility introduced individuals
a. 50 housing in cellblocks, with congregate work in shops
b. 60 during the day:
c. 55 a. Elmira reformatory
b. Borstal institution
d. 65
c. Auburn prison system
3960. The color of maximum security risk prisoner’s
d. Pennsylvania prison system
uniform: 3969. His progressive move was noted when the
a. Tangerine convicts after good behavior were given marks and after
b. Blue accumulating the required number, a ticket to leave was
c. Brown issued to deserving convicts:
d. Yellow a. Sir Walter Crofton
3961. The color of medium security risk prisoner’s b. Alexander Macanochie
uniform: c. Zebulon Brockway
a. Tangerine d. Manuel Montesinos
3970. opened in 1876, was the first penal institution
b. Blue
to remodel its philosophy away from punitive and
c. Brown retributive practices and veered towards reformation
d. Yellow and treatment educational and vocational are imparted
3962. The color of minimum security risk prisoner’s to the prisoner as a way to treat his lack of life skills to
uniform: survive according to the rules of the outside society:
a. Tangerine a. Elmira reformatory
b. Blue b. Sing-sing prisons
c. Brown c. Alcatraz
d. Walnut street jail
d. Yellow
3971. This is considered as the “institution of silent
system” due to the imposition of strict code of silence:
a. Auburn
3963. The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement b. Pennsylvania
or custody by an inmate: c. Walnut street
d. Irish prisons
a. Detention
3972. He established an agricultural colony for male
b. emancipation youth:
c. Release of prisoner a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
d. escape b. Sir Walter Crofton
3964. The following are considered instruments of c. Manuel Montesinos
restraint; EXCEPT: d. Domer of france
a. Leg irons 3973. assigned as superintendent of the English
b. whipping rod Penal Colony located at Norfolk Island in Australia:
c. Straight jacket a. Alexander Macanochie
b. Domer of France
d. handcuffs
c. 8Sir Walter Crofton
3965. Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders:
d. Zebulon Brockway
a. 100 or more 3974. He introduced the progressive stage system. It
b. 21- 99 was also referred to as the Irish System:
c. 150 or more a. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
d. 20 or less b. Manuel Montesinos
3966. Type B jail has a population of ___ offenders: c. Sir Walter Crofton
d. Alexander Macanochie
a. 21 – 99
3975. He was the superintendent of the Elmira
b. 120
Reformatory in New York. He introduced a system of
c. 20 or less grades for prisoners:
d. 150 a. Zebulon Brockway
3967. Type C jail has a population of ___ offenders: b. Alexander Macanochie
a. 21 – 99 c. Manuel Montesinos
d. Domer of France

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3976. The progressive development of the prison 3984. This system created by Sir Walter Crofton is an
system came to the middle of the __ century: equivalent to a modern day parole:
a. 18th a. Progressive stage system
b. 19th b. Spanish system
c. 20th c. Criminal justice system
d. 21st d. None of the foregoing
3977. This law brought about extensive reforms in 3985. It features consisted solitary confinement of
the prison and authorized o penitentiary house with 16 prisoners in their own cell day and night:
cells to be built in the yard of the jail to carry out solitary a. Auburn system
confinement with labor for ``hardened atrocious b. Pennsylvania system
offenders’’: c. St Michael System
a. ACT of 1890 d. Irish system
3986. He was a penologist and is sometimes
b. ACT of 1790
regarded as the father of prison reform in the United
c. ACT of 1690
States of America:
d. ACT of 1590 a. Alexander Maconochie
b. Zebulon Reed Brockway
c. Sir Walter Crofton
d. Domer of France
3987. It is considered the best reform institution for
young offenders:
3978. The new prison had the traditional lay out of
a. Borstal Institution
large rooms for the inmates:
b. St. Michael Institution
a. Auburn Prison c. Auburn System
b. Pennsylvania d. Pennsylvania
c. Walnut Street 3988. This is the discipline being implemented in
d. Irish Prisons Louisiana state penitentiary. Under this discipline, every
3979. On the year ___, the Elmira Reformatory is inmate is responsible for the actuations of all the others:
founded: a. Rough Rider Industries
a. 1875 b. I am my Brother’s keeper
b. 1876 c. Conditional setting
c. 1877 d. collective responsibility
d. 1888
3980. He was the Director of Prison in Valencia, 3989. Sweden, a convict may undergo
Spain which organized prisoners into companies and probation with community service
appointed petty officer in charge: and render service to the
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise community for ___ to ____ hours
b. Manuel Montesinos depending on the seriousness of the
c. Alexander Maconochie crime committed:
d. Sir Walter Crofton a. 50 – 250
3981. This state prison contained cells in the pits b. 40- 280
similar to the underground cistern of long ago rome: c. 40 – 240
a. St Michael System d. 50 – 260
b. Sing-Sing prisons 3403. what type of questions are allowed to be
c. Maine State prisons asked to a witness who is unwilling to testify?
d. Wal nut street
A. Intelligent
3982. An agricultural colony for male juveniles was
established by Domer of France. The boys were confined B. Misleading
in cottages with an appointed ___ to supervise them: C. Unresponsive
a. Penal guards D. Leading
b. Immediate supervisors 3990. Which theory of criminal
c. House fathers punishment holds that punishment
d. Big brothers is imposed on the offender to allow
3983. Under the Irish system, a prison who wanted
society to vent its anger toward and
to lessen their period of imprisonment should be
confined in a singular cell (Solitary confinement) for a exact vengeance upon the criminal?
period of ___ months with a reduce diet: A. Retribution
a. 6 months B. Restoration
b. 7 months C. The Executive
c. 8 months D. The Quasi-Judiciary
d. 9 months
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 3991. The post-sentence investigation 3998. How many days before election
report is submitted to court does inmate are prohibited from
within___________? going out?
A. 10-days period A. 30 days
B. 30-days period B. 90 Days
C. 15-days period C. 60 Days
D. 60-days period D. 120 Days
3992. To what agency is an alien 3999. Maya is in prison for the past 48
parolee turned over for months and has never been
disposition,documentation and involved in any trouble, no matter
appropriate order? how minor. If you were the prison
A. Bureau of Corrections director, how many days for each
B. Bureau of Immigration and month would you approve as
Deportation Maya’s good conduct time
C. Board of Pardons and Parole allowance?
D. National Bureau of Investigation A. 5 days
3993. A complaint may be filed by any B. 8 days
of the following, EXCEPT: C. 10 days
A. The offended party D. 12 days
B. other public officers 4000. The post-sentence investigation
C. any peace officer report is submitted to court
D. Offender within___________?
3994. The President grants A. 10-days period
absolute/conditional pardon based B. 30-days period
on the recommendation of C. 15-days period
A. Bureau of Corrections D. 60-days period
B. Office of the Executive Secretary 4001. Ideal number of days for an
C. Board of Pardon and Parole inmate to be placed in the
D. Parole and Probation Administration quarantine unit at the Reception
and Diagnostic Center .
3995. A penalty having its minimum A. 55 days
and maximum duration is referred B. 5 days
to as C. 60 days
a. Determinate sentence D. 15 days
b. Capital punishment
c. Corporal punishment
d. Indeterminate sentence 4002. In the 13th century, a criminal
3996. Which of the following could avoid punishment by claiming
executive clemency needs the refugee in a church for a period of
concurrence of the congress? ___ at the end of which time he has
a.Pardon compelled to leave the realm by a
a. Amnesty road or path assigned to him.
b. Probation
c. Parole A. 30 days
3997. It is an executive clemency B. 50 days
whereby the convicted person C. 40 days
should serve part of his sentence? D. 60 days
a.Pardon 4003. Who among the following may
b.Parole be granted conditional pardon?
c.Probation a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by
government physician
d.Amnesty
b. A prisoner who served as “bastonero”

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 c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and may be found guilty of is prision
above correccional
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
he broke his probation conditions maximum penalty of the offense he
4004. The following are considered may be found guilty of is reclusion
minor offenses of an inmate, perpetua
EXCEPT: d. If he has been in jail for a period equal
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate to or more than the possible maximum
b. Failing to stand at attention and give term of punishment of the offense he
due respect when confronted by or may be found guilty of
reporting to any officer or member of 4009. Zosimo was convicted to a
the custodial force prison term of prision correccional.
c. Willful waste of food Will he qualify for probation?
d. Littering or failing to maintain a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one
cleanliness and orderliness in his (1) day
quarter and/or surroundings b. No, his sentence is more than six (6)
4005. What documents are attached years and one (1) day
to the Release Document of the c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6)
parolee? years and one (1) day
1. Prison record d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and
2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer one (1) day
3. Location of the Prison or Confinement 4010. There are four (4)
4. Order of Court acknowledged goals of
a. 4 and 1 _____________ as follows:
b. 1 and 2 retribution, deterrence,
c. 3 and 4 incapacitation and rehabilitation.
d. 2 and 3 a. Criminal intent
4006. An advantageous result in the b. Criminal mind
integration of correctional agencies c. Criminal sanction
is: d. Criminal action
a. More physical facilities to maintain 4011. The system of key control in a
b. More prisoners to supervise jail includes:
c. Divided resources such as manpower a. An updated system of monitoring and
and finances control of keys
d. Better coordination of services and b. A documented inventory of security
increased cost-efficiency personnel
c. A collection of all padlocks and keys
d. An accurate listing of all keys and
receipting them
4007. A petition for the grant of 4012. To what agency is an alien
absolute or conditional pardon shall parolee turned over for disposition,
be favorably endorsed to the Board documentation and appropriate
by the _______ if the crime order?
committed by the petitioner is a. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
against national security. b. Bureau of Corrections
a. Secretary of Foreign Affairs c. Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Secretary of Justice d. National Bureau of Investigation
c. Secretary of National Defense
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local
Government 4013. The Post-Sentence Investigation
4008. Under which condition can a Report is submitted to court within
prisoner be immediately released _____________.
provided he is not a recidivist or he a. 10-day period
had not been previously convicted b. 30-day period
3 or more times of any crime? c. 15-day period
a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the d. 60-day period
maximum penalty for the offense he
may be found guilty of is destierro
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the 4014. The President grants
maximum penalty of the offense he absolute/conditional pardon based
on the recommendation of:
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 a. Board of Pardon and Parole d. To assist the judge in dismissing the
b. Bureau of Corrections case
c. Parole and Probation Administration
d. Office of the Executive Secretary
4015. Which of the following are 4020. According to the control theory,
classified as detainees? crime and delinquency result when
1. Accused person who is confined in jail while an individual’s bond to
undergoing investigation ________________ is weak and
2. Accused person who is confined in jail while broken.
awaiting of undergoing trial a. Behavior
3. Accused person who is confined in jail while b. Police
awaiting final judgment c. Law
4. Accused person who is confined in jail and d. Society
already convicted to serve a prison term
a. 3, 4 and 1
b. 2, 3 and 4 4021. A drug user who is placed under
c. 4, 1 and 2 probation may be made to serve his
d. 1, 2 and 3 sentence by the court if he
a. Becomes unruly and undisciplined
4016. Why is probation service b. Commits another offense
analogous to parole service? c. He is 21 years old
a. Both have similar investigation and d. Violates any of the conditions of his
supervision functions. probation
b. Both services are performed by the 4022. JOI Jean Sibuto confiscated
prosecutors. white crystalline substance rolled in
c. Both services are performed by a transparent sachet and she
alcoholics. suspected it to be “shabu”. What
d. Both services are under the courts. should he do first?
a. Record the incident in the logbook
b. Bring the substance to NBI
4017. The Probation Officer and c. Properly identify the substance
Volunteer Probation Aides d. Properly preserve the evidence
undertake supervision and 4023. All data gathered about the
visitation of the probationer. probation applicant shall be treated
However, control over the _________________.
probationer and probation program a. Comprehensively
is exercised by: b. Appropriately
a. The Chief of Police of the place where c. Confidentially
he/she resides d. Judiciously
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
c. The Secretary of Justice
d. The Court who placed him on probation 4024. Is the court order revoking the
grant of probation appealable?
a. Definitely yes, it is appealable
4018. Which authorizes the release of b. Definitely no, it is not appealable
a detainee who has undergone c. It depends on the outcome of the
preventive imprisonment investigation
equivalent to the maximum d. It depends on the violations committed
imposable sentence for the offense 4025. Which theory of criminal
he is charged with? punishment holds that punishment
a. Batas Pambansa 95 is imposed on the offender to allow
b. Batas Pambansa 85 society to vent its anger toward and
c. Batas Pambansa 105 exact vengeance upon the criminal?
d. Batas Pambansa 965 a. Retribution
4019. What is the primary purpose of b. Restoration
the presentence investigation? c. Rehabilitation
a. To help the judge in selecting the d. Deterrence
appropriate sentence of the offender 4026. What is referred to as the
b. To exonerate the offender reduction of the duration of a
c. To give the offender an opportunity to prison sentence?
defend himself a. Commutation of sentence

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 b. Parole Which of the following should NOT
c. Absolute pardon be done by a jail officer?
d. Conditional pardon a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical
4027. There are various types of staff regularly
prison programs. For what purpose b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his
is a rehabilitative program? prescribed diet
a. It secures prisoners from escape or c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the
violence inmate
b. It employs prisoners in various products d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-
or good-producing tasks patient inmate
c. It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job
skills or educational achievement
d. It assigns prisoners to daily routine 4033. What is the classification of the
work like laundry and janitorial prisoner’s offense of possession of
4028. There are two (2) inmates lewd or pornographic literature
arguing over loss of some items in and/or photographs?
their cell. You are the guard on a. Minor offense
duty. What will you do? b. Less grave offense
a. Invite both of them to the office and c. Victimless offense
investigate the matter d. Grave offense
b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop 4034. Juveniles are not capable of
the heated discussion committing deviant acts, and what
c. Confine the culprit in a segregated are considered deviant acts are
room deviant only by mainstream
d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the standards, not by the offender’s
culprit standards. This assumption is
advanced by the
________________ theory.
4029. Pedro Ayog is a probationer a. Social
who is ordered by the Court to pay b. Juvenile
certain amounts to the victim as c. Cultural deviance
part of his civil liability. To whom d. Choice
shall he pay the amount for 4035. If people fear being
remittance of the victim? apprehended and punished, they
a. Municipal treasurer will not risk breaking the law. This
b. Cashier of the trial court view is being held by the
c. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court __________ theory.
d. Cashier of the Probation Office a. Displacement
b. General deterrence
c. Discouragement
d. Incapacitation
4030. The ______________ model of 4036. One of the following is NOT a
correctional institution focuses in gauge in determining the age of the
security, discipline and order: child and that is:
a. Rehabilitative a. Baptismal certificate
b. Reintegration b. Birth certificate
c. Medical c. Looks
d. Custodial d. Warts
4031. Studies are conducted to 4037. What do you call the
determine the experiences of monitoring and support of juveniles
residents with crimes which are not who have been released from
usually reported to the police. custody or supervision by the
What are these studies called? juvenile court.
a. Population surveys a. After care
b. Police surveys b. Welfare
c. Victimization surveys c. Duty
d. Information surveys d. Concern
4032. Inmates with heart diseases
need to be treated with a little
more care than other inmates.

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 4038. The scientific approach to the a. The intervention which documents the
study of criminal behavior is attitudinal response of offenders and
____________________. staff to processes of punishment
a. Research b. The medium through which prisoners
b. Survey change their behavior and attitudes
c. Criminology c. The consolidation of interactions
d. Study between correctional officers and the
4039. To be eligible for the grant of prisoners
conditional pardon, what portion of d. A total institution in which the basic
the sentence must have been physiological needs of prisoners were to
served by a petitioner-prisoner? be met away from the outside world
a. At least one half of the minimum of his
indeterminate sentence 4045. What is the function
b. At least one half of the maximum of his responsibility of prison guards?
indeterminate sentence a. Inmates’ health
c. At least one fourth of the maximum of b. Prison security
his indeterminate sentence c. Prisoner’s interpersonal relations
d. At least one third of the minimum of his d. Prison industry
indeterminate sentence 4046. Level of security facility which is
4040. Who among the following can usually enclosed by a thick wall
apply for release under the Law on about 18-25 feet high, on top are
Release on Recognizance? catwalks in every corner, a tower
a. One who is charged with an offense post is manned by heavily armed
whose penalty is three (3) years and guards:
above a. Maximum security facility
b. One who is charged with an offense b. Medium security facility
whose penalty is twelve (12) months c. Super maximum security facility
and above d. Minimum security facility
c. One who is charged with an offense 4047. Which of the following
whose penalty is not more than six (6) procedures should be observed in
months handling drug addicts who are
d. One who is charged with an offense incarcerated?
whose penalty is six (6) months and 1. They should be segregated especially during the
above withdrawal period
4041. Which of the following is NOT 2. They should be closely supervised to prevent
an objective in the conduct of attempts to commit suicide or self-mutilation
interview of probation applicant? 3. They should not be administered
a. To diagnose the applicant’s problems sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a
b. To determine how the person shall physician
respond to supervision 4. They should be transferred to mental institution
c. To gather information about the person of proper psychiatric treatment
d. To determine his paying capacity a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 3, 4 and 1
4042. Who is the Boston bootmaker c. 4, 1 and 2
who was the founder of probation d. 1, 2 and 3
in the United States?
a. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Alexander Maconochie 4048. A prisoner who is aggressive,
c. John Murray Spear violent, quarrelsome and does not
d. John Augustus cooperate with other inmates is
4043. What is meant by the concept referred to as
of probation which is from the Latin a. Squealer
word “probatio” and had historical b. Sucker
roots in the practice of judicial c. Hustler
reprieve? d. Tough
a. Live with integrity 4049. When does an applicant who
b. Testing period was granted probation report to
c. Walk with faith the assigned Probation Officer for
d. Out of the institution Interview?
4044. Sociologists look at corrections a. Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt
as: of probation order
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 b. Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of
probation order
c. Within seventy-two (72) hours from his
receipt of the probation order
d. Within twenty-four (24) hours from
receipt of probation order
4050. What agency issues the
Certificate of Final Release and
Discharge of a Parolee?
a. Bureau of Corrections
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Parole and Probation Administration
d. Department of Justice
4051. Pedro was arrested by the
police for theft in the amount of
P5,000.00. He was brought to the
police station and an administrative
record of the arrest was prepared.
He was fingerprinted, interrogated
and placed in a line-up for
identification by witnesses. What
process did he undergo?
a. Preliminary hearing
b. Booking
c. Trial
d. Indictment
4052. The “Discharge on Parole”
issued by the Board to the parolee,
and also issued by the President of
the Philippines to a pardonee upon
the Board’s recommendation.
a. Release document
b. Release folders
c. Release signatures
d. Release notes
4053. What is called the body of
unwritten guidelines which
expresses the values, attitudes and
types of behavior that older
inmates demand of younger ones?
a. Code of jail conduct
b. Rehabilitation guidelines
c. Code of silence
d. Inmate social code
4054. Which of the following
guidelines shall be followed when
the parolee commits an infraction
of the terms and conditions
appearing in his Release
Documents?
1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and
submits an Infraction Report to the Board of
Pardon and Parole
2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board
orders the arrest of the parolee
G.S.T. 2019
3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the
Board finds that the continuation of his parole is
incompatible with public welfare
4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his
infraction
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 4, 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 3, 4 and 1
4055. You are a jail personnel
assigned to censor inmates’ mails.
In one mail, you found unusual
names and sentences. What shall
you do?
a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
b. Put back the letter inside the envelope
and give it to the inmate
c. Study the letter carefully and analyze
the contents to determine the real
meaning of the names and sentences
d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the
addressee
4056. The classical theory of
criminology provides that the basis
for criminal liability is
______________________
a. Individual’s thinking
b. Individual’s mental state
c. Human free will
d. Human facilities
4057. He said the “crime must be
considered an injury to society, and
the only rational measure of crime
is the extent of injury.”
a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Cesare Beccaria
c. James Wilson
d. John Howard
4058. What is the effect of the grant
of probation?
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
b. The execution of sentence is suspended
c. The probationer is sent to prison
d. The prison term is doubled
4059. To what programs shall
prisoners be assigned so that they
can engage in producing goods?
a. Industrial
b. Operational
c. Agricultural
d. Administrative
4060. In case of mass jailbreak, all
members of the custodial force
shall proceed to their assigned
critical posts armed with their
issued firearms to:
a. Shoot at the escapees
b. Protect the other inmates
c. Plug off the escape routes
d. Give warning shots
Page 255 of 262
 4061. When shall the prison record b. Probation officer
and carpeta of a petitioner for c. Prosecutor
executive clemency be forwarded d. Police office
to the Board of Pardon and Parole
(BPP)? 4067. What law grants probation to
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of first time offenders who are sent to
the BUCOR Director of the request of prison terms of not more than six
the BPP for prison record and carpeta (6) years?
b. At least one (1) month before the a. Presidential Decree No. 448
expiration of the minimum of the b. Presidential Decree No. 968
prisoner’s indeterminate sentence c. Presidential Decree No. 603
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of d. Presidential Decree No. 1184
the BUCOR Director of the BPP request 4068. An offender can apply for
for prison record and carpeta Release on Recognizance is he is
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of convicted with an offense whose
the BUCOR Director of the request penalty is:
made by the BPP for the prison record a. Three (3) years and above
and carpeta b. Not more than six (6) months
c. Twelve (12) months and above
d. Six (6) months and above
4062. Which of the following 4069. Which of the following is the
contributes to prison violence? prison administrator’s tool for
a. Prison industry controlling and stabilizing prison
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including operation?
overcrowding and threats of a. Leadership
homosexual rapes b. Supervision
c. Conjugal visits c. Activity
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go d. Recreation
out and work 4070. Mario is soon to be released
4063. Which of the following factors from camp Bukang Liwayway. He is
makes it difficult for a released sent to a pre-release facility called
prisoner to lead a straight life? _______________ for counseling
a. Scientific advances have made modern and therapy.
living more pleasant a. Recreation Center
b. Police conduct close supervision on b. Congregate Group
released prisoners c. Half-way House
c. Lasting reformation must come from d. Diagnostic Center
within and cannot be imposed 4071. What is referred to as the
d. Many of his contacts and friends are concept of the “greatest happiness
underworld characters of the greater number” espoused
4064. Under the plan for riots and by Jeremy Bentham?
violent disturbances, what shall be a. Utilitarianism
done at the sound of the first pre- b. Rehabilitation
arranged alarm? c. Reformation
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the d. Conformance
rioters 4072. Juanito was convicted and
b. Saturate the area with riot gas sentenced for the crime of serious
c. All inmates must be locked up inside physical injuries to a prison term of
their respective cell prision correccional. Based on his
d. Disperse the rioters and get their penalty, is he qualified for
leaders probation?
4065. Which agency exercises a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years
supervision over parolees? and 1 day
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years
b. Probation and Parole Administration and 1 day
c. Bureau of Corrections c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to
d. Department of Justice 12 years
4066. The judge approves or denies d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
the grant of probation based on the 4073. The approval of the application
report of the of probation is done by the Judge
a. Social worker thru the issuance of
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G.S.T. 2019
 a. Probation Citation Ticket c. Commitment Order
b. Probation Order d. Mittimus
c. Probation Certificate 4081. The founder of the Classical
d. Probation Clearance School of Criminological Theory.
a. John Howard
b. Jeremy Bentham
4074. According to this theory, social c. Cesare Lombroso
actions are repeated (or not d. Cesare Beccaria
repeated) as a consequence of their 4082. If probation is granted by a
association in the actors mind with court judge, who grants pardon?
punishing or rewarding a. Secretary of Justice
experiences. b. President of the Philippines
a. Containment c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
b. Differential Association d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole
c. Operant Conditioning
d. Differential Identification 4083. What guarantees the
4075. This theory assumes that appearance in court of a defendant
people are law-abiding but under granted release on recognizance?
great pressure they will resort to a. His/her promise to live a new life
crime. . . b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison
a. Strain theory c. His/her ties with family, friends,
b. Differential association theory employment, etc.
c. Social learning theory d. His/her capacity to raise bail
d. Psychoanalytic theory
4076. What is referred to as the
reduction of the duration of a 4084. Prisoners are awarded
prison sentence? ________ off from their minimum
a. Parole or maximum term for maintaining
b. Commutation of sentence good behavior or participating in
c. Absolute pardon various types of vocational,
d. Conditional pardon educational and treatment
4077. It is a report on the background programs.
of the convict, prepared for the a. Good time
judge to decide on the approval or b. Credits
denial of application of probation. c. Days off
a. Probation Report d. Vacation
b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report 4085. Which of the following
c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report requirements shall qualify a
d. Pre-Trial Report prisoner for parole?
4078. By what term is selling of illegal 1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an
commodities inside prison or jail indeterminate sentence
known? 2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant
a. Gleaning to a final judgment of conviction
b. Hustling 3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence
c. Benting less the good conduct time allowance earned
d. Vending 4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of
sentence
a. 4, 1 and 2
4079. There are various types of b. 2, 3 and 4
prison programs. What type of c. 3, 4 and 1
program that secures prisoner from d. 1, 2 and 3
escape or violence? 4086. When an accused is released
a. Maintenance from imprisonment on his or her
b. Rehabilitative promise to return to court as
c. Industrial required, or upon the undertaking
d. Security of a suitable person that he will
4080. The National Record of the guarantee the accused’ appearance
prisoner at the New Bilibid Prison is in court, there is what is called:
called a. Promise
a. Carpeta b. Acknowledgment
b. Released Document c. Surety
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G.S.T. 2019
 d. Recognizance
4087. According to the routine
activities theory, the volume and
distribution of predatory crimes are a.
affected by the following, EXCEPT: b.
a. Presence of motivated offenders c.
b. Absence of capable guardians d.
c. Availability of suitable targets
d. Absence of motivated offenders
4088. A group that has a short history,
limited size, and little define
territory is a type of gang known as: 1.
a. Status 2.
b. Sporadic 3.
c. Criminal 4.
d. Collective 5.
4089. The correctional program which 6.
enables an individual to enhance
his employability, develop his
intellectual faculties, and graduate
to a free existence in community
living all at the same time is
referred to as _______________
a. Livelihood program
b. Guidance counseling a.
c. Education program b.
d. Religious program c.
4090. What rehabilitation program d.
that provides a presocial
environment within the prison to
help the inmates develop a.
noncriminal ways to coping
outside? b.
a. Psychotherapy c.
b. Behavior therapy
c. Occupational therapy d.
d. Milieu therapy
4091. Prisoners should not be given
corporal punishment nor confined
in dark cells or sweat boxes as a.
these are: b.
a. Somewhat prohibited c.
b. Relatively prohibited d.
c. Absolutely prohibited
d. Fairly prohibited
4092. Which does not form part of
the basic principles for riot control?
a. Preparation of a specific plan of action
b. Dissemination of plan to everyone
c. Rapid execution of plan
d. Firmness in executing the plan
4093. Prison time is considered a
dead time when minutes seem to
crawl and the soul grows bitter.
Which of the following mitigate the
oppressiveness of time?
a. Administrative program
b. Security programs
c. Rehabilitation programs
d. Custodial program
G.S.T. 2019
4094. A Prisoner who is sentenced to
a prison term of three (3) years and
one (1) day to death, is known as:
Provincial Prisoner
Insular Prisoner
City Prisoner
Municipal Prisoner
4095. How is an offender released
from prison or jail?
After service of sentence
Issuance of order of the court
Grant of parole
Grant of pardon
Grant of amnesty
Any lawful order of competent authority
a. 1,3,4,5 and 6
b. 1,2,3,4 and 5
c. All of those listed above
d. 2,3,4,5, and 6
4096. The institution during the
Golden Age of Penology in 1870 to
1880 that used parole extensively.
Irish Prison System
Elmira Reformatory
Federal Bureau of Prisons
Irish Parole Organization
4097. Strip search should be
conducted:
In the presence of other inmates so that there
are witnesses
At the warden’s office
At the admission office in the presence of other
jail personnel
Private room where it will be out of the view of
the others to avoid further embarrassment
4098. Idea of probation first existed
early in the 19th century in
Japan
U.S.A.
England
Ireland
4099. You are a jail personnel
assigned to censor inmates’ mails.
In one mail, you found unusual
names and sentences. What shall
you do?
a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
b. Put back the letter inside the envelope
and give it to the inmate
c. Study the letter carefully and analyze
the contents to determine the real
meaning of the names and sentences
d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the
addressee
4100. The classical theory of
criminology provides that the basis
Page 258 of 262
 for criminal liability is b. Inhuman prison conditions, including
______________________ overcrowding and threats of
a. Individual’s thinking homosexual rapes
b. Individual’s mental state c. Conjugal visits
c. Human free will d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go
d. Human facilities out and work
4101. He said the “crime must be 4107. Which of the following factors
considered an injury to society, and makes it difficult for a released
the only rational measure of crime prisoner to lead a straight life?
is the extent of injury.” a. Scientific advances have made modern
a. Jeremy Bentham living more pleasant
b. Cesare Beccaria b. Police conduct close supervision on
c. James Wilson released prisoners
d. John Howard c. Lasting reformation must come from
4102. What is the effect of the grant within and cannot be imposed
of probation? d. Many of his contacts and friends are
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house underworld characters
b. The execution of sentence is suspended 4108. Under the plan for riots and
c. The probationer is sent to prison violent disturbances, what shall be
d. The prison term is doubled done at the sound of the first pre-
4103. To what programs shall arranged alarm?
prisoners be assigned so that they a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the
can engage in producing goods? rioters
a. Industrial b. Saturate the area with riot gas
b. Operational c. All inmates must be locked up inside
c. Agricultural their respective cell
d. Administrative d. Disperse the rioters and get their
4104. In case of mass jailbreak, all leaders
members of the custodial force 4109. Which agency exercises
shall proceed to their assigned supervision over parolees?
critical posts armed with their a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole
issued firearms to: b. Probation and Parole Administration
a. Shoot at the escapees c. Bureau of Corrections
b. Protect the other inmates d. Department of Justice
c. Plug off the escape routes 4110. The judge approves or denies
d. Give warning shots the grant of probation based on the
4105. When shall the prison record report of the
and carpeta of a petitioner for a. Social worker
executive clemency be forwarded b. Probation officer
to the Board of Pardon and Parole c. Prosecutor
(BPP)? d. Police office
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of
the BUCOR Director of the request of 4111. What law grants probation to
the BPP for prison record and carpeta first time offenders who are sent to
b. At least one (1) month before the prison terms of not more than six
expiration of the minimum of the (6) years?
prisoner’s indeterminate sentence a. Presidential Decree No. 448
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of b. Presidential Decree No. 968
the BUCOR Director of the BPP request c. Presidential Decree No. 603
for prison record and carpeta d. Presidential Decree No. 1184
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of 4112. An offender can apply for
the BUCOR Director of the request Release on Recognizance is he is
made by the BPP for the prison record convicted with an offense whose
and carpeta penalty is:
a. Three (3) years and above
b. Not more than six (6) months
4106. Which of the following c. Twelve (12) months and above
contributes to prison violence? d. Six (6) months and above
a. Prison industry 4113. Which of the following is the
prison administrator’s tool for

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G.S.T. 2019
 controlling and stabilizing prison c. Social learning theory
operation? d. Psychoanalytic theory
a. Leadership 4120. What is referred to as the
b. Supervision reduction of the duration of a
c. Activity prison sentence?
d. Recreation a. Parole
4114. Mario is soon to be released b. Commutation of sentence
from camp Bukang Liwayway. He is c. Absolute pardon
sent to a pre-release facility called d. Conditional pardon
_______________ for counseling 4121. It is a report on the background
and therapy. of the convict, prepared for the
a. Recreation Center judge to decide on the approval or
b. Congregate Group denial of application of probation.
c. Half-way House a. Probation Report
d. Diagnostic Center b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
4115. What is referred to as the c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
concept of the “greatest happiness d. Pre-Trial Report
of the greater number” espoused 4122. By what term is selling of illegal
by Jeremy Bentham? commodities inside prison or jail
a. Utilitarianism known?
b. Rehabilitation a. Gleaning
c. Reformation b. Hustling
d. Conformance c. Benting
4116. Juanito was convicted and d. Vending
sentenced for the crime of serious
physical injuries to a prison term of
prision correccional. Based on his 4123. There are various types of
penalty, is he qualified for prison programs. What type of
probation? program that secures prisoner from
a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years escape or violence?
and 1 day a. Maintenance
b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years b. Rehabilitative
and 1 day c. Industrial
c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to d. Security
12 years 4124. The National Record of the
d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day prisoner at the New Bilibid Prison is
4117. The approval of the application called
of probation is done by the Judge a. Carpeta
thru the issuance of b. Released Document
a. Probation Citation Ticket c. Commitment Order
b. Probation Order d. Mittimus
c. Probation Certificate 4125. The founder of the Classical
d. Probation Clearance School of Criminological Theory.
a. John Howard
b. Jeremy Bentham
4118. According to this theory, social c. Cesare Lombroso
actions are repeated (or not d. Cesare Beccaria
repeated) as a consequence of their
association in the actors mind with 4126. If probation is granted by a
punishing or rewarding court judge, who grants pardon?
experiences. a. Secretary of Justice
a. Containment b. President of the Philippines
b. Differential Association c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
c. Operant Conditioning d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole
d. Differential Identification
4119. This theory assumes that
people are law-abiding but under 4127. What guarantees the
great pressure they will resort to appearance in court of a defendant
crime. . . granted release on recognizance?
a. Strain theory a. His/her promise to live a new life
b. Differential association theory b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison
Page 260 of 262
G.S.T. 2019
 c. His/her ties with family, friends, 4133. The correctional program which
employment, etc. enables an individual to enhance
d. His/her capacity to raise bail his employability, develop his
intellectual faculties, and graduate
to a free existence in community
4128. Prisoners are awarded living all at the same time is
________ off from their minimum referred to as _______________
or maximum term for maintaining a. Livelihood program
good behavior or participating in b. Guidance counseling
various types of vocational, c. Education program
educational and treatment d. Religious program
programs. 4134. What rehabilitation program
a. Good time that provides a presocial
b. Credits environment within the prison to
c. Days off help the inmates develop
d. Vacation noncriminal ways to coping
4129. Which of the following outside?
requirements shall qualify a a. Psychotherapy
prisoner for parole? b. Behavior therapy
1. Confinement in jail or c. Occupational therapy
prison to serve an d. Milieu therapy
indeterminate 4135. Pardon cannot be extended to
sentence one of the following instances:
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year a. Rape
pursuant to a final judgment of conviction b. Murder
3. Service of the minimum period of said c. Impeachment
sentence less the good conduct time d. Brigandage
allowance earned 4136. It was held as the 1st probation
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of officer employed by the
sentence government:
a. 4, 1 and 2 a. John Augustus
b. 2, 3 and 4 b. Teodolo C Natividad
c. 3, 4 and 1 c. Edward N Savage
d. 1, 2 and 3 d. Mattew Davenport
4130. When an accused is released
from imprisonment on his or her 4137. Which of the following is a
promise to return to court as prerogative of the chief executive
required, or upon the undertaking with concurrence of congress:
of a suitable person that he will a. probation
guarantee the accused’ appearance b. amnesty
in court, there is what is called: c. pardon
a. Promise d. parole
b. Acknowledgment 4138. What crimes apparently have
c. Surety no complaining victims such as
d. Recognizance gambling, prostitution and
4131. According to the routine drunkenness?
activities theory, the volume and a. Compound crime
distribution of predatory crimes are b. Complex crime
affected by the following, EXCEPT: c. Blue collar crime
a. Presence of motivated offenders d. Victimless crime
b. Absence of capable guardians 4139. An open institution usually a
c. Availability of suitable targets penal form or camp.
d. Absence of motivated offenders a. Maximum security institution
b. Minimum security institution
4132. A group that has a short history, c. Medium security institution
limited size, and little define d. None of these
territory is a type of gang known as: 4140. They assist probation and
a. Status parole office in the supervision of
b. Sporadic the probationers.
c. Criminal a. Volunteer workers
d. Collective b. Volunteer probation officers
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G.S.T. 2019
 c. Volunteer community workers
d. Volunteer probation aides

4141. It ensures a more careful

selection of the institution in which
the prisoner is to be confined.
a. Quarantine unit
b. Courts
c. RDC
d. Correction
4142. The continuing relationship
between probation officer and
probationer is known as?
a. Pre-Sentence Investigation
b. None of these
c. supervision
d. affiliation guidance
4143. The ideal ratio or escort is____
prison guard for every____number
of inmates.
a. 1:2
b. 1:4
c. 1:12
d. 1:7

4144. He was the first Superintendent

of Elmira sentence reformatory.
a. John Augustus
b. John Howard
c. Zebulon Brockway
d. Teodulo Natividad

4145. Reducing the degree of Death

penalty inflected upon the council.
a. amnesty
b. commutation
c. pardon
d. commutation of sentence

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