Criminal Law

CRIMINAL LAW
Bong surreptitiously went into the premises of Esco. Not knowing that Esco was inside the
house, he burned the house that resulted also to the death of Esco.
1. Bong is liable of what crime?

a. Arson b. Murder
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder
2. However if Bong knew that Esco was inside the house and his purpose of burning is to kill
Esco.What crime committed by Bong?
a. Arson b. Murder
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder
Case Situation:
Marcos and Chiz conspired to kill Llanes. They mutually helped one another in abducting
Llanes. Before they shoot Llanes, Marcos intentionally cut off his right ear.
3. What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit?

a. Homicide b. Murder
c. Homicide with Mutilation
d. Murder with serious physical injur
4. What if Marcos and Chiz did not cut off the right ear, instead they soak Llanes into a boiling
water. What are did they commit?
c. Homicide with Mutilation
d. Murder with serious
5. What if Marcos and Chiz did not conspired to kill Llanes but they just saw the latter while
walking and intentionally they shoot which resulted to the death of Llanes. What crime did they
commit?
c. Frustrated homicide d. Attempted murder
Case Situation:
Grace and Jomar begot a child named Manuel without being married. Grace and Jomar parted
their ways. Grace got married to Bong, however, they were not blessed to have a child of their own,
and thus, they had legally adopted Manuel. One afternoon, Manuel killed Jomar while the latter was
sleeping.
6. What crime committed by Manuel?
a. Parricide b. Homicide
c. Murder d. Infanticide
7. What if Manuel killed Grace?

a. Parricide b. Homicide
c. Murder d. Infanticide
Case Situation:
Allan and Grace while walking towards home were approached by Lenie. The latter who is armed
with a gun declared hold-up while poking the said gun upon Allan. Lenie demanded for their wallet
and gave the same to him for fear of their lives. Lenie with intent to gain, employed intimidation in
taking the personal property of Allan and Grace.
8. What crime committed by Lenie?
a. Theft b. snatching
c. Robbery d. Grave Threat
Case Situation:
Manuel entered the house of Lenie by breaking the main door. Once inside, Manuel
with intent to gain took the LCD Television.
9. Manuel is liable of what crime?
a. Robbery b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief d. snatchig
10. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main door without breaking it since it was left
unlocked and thereafter took the LCD Television of Lenie. Manuel is liable of a crime of.
a. Robbery b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief d. snatching
11. What if Manuel entered the house through the main door without breaking it since it was left
opened and thereafter took the LCD Television, however, when he is supposed to leave, Lenie
arrived, thus Manuel was forced to pass at the back door which was locked by breaking it. Manuel
is liable of what crime?
a. Robbery b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief d. snatching
12. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main door by opening it with the use of an ATM
card to open the door lock without breaking it. Upon entry he took the LCD Television. Manuel is
liable of a crime of?
a. Robbery b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief d. Robbery with Theft
Case Situation:
The pig of Mang Rodrigo entered in the farm of Manuel and destroyed the mongo
crop of the latter. As a consequence, Mang Rodrigo got furious, thus, he hacked the pig with a
bolo. The pig dies as a result.
13. What crime is committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. theft
b. property damaged
c. malicious mischief
d. robbery
14. Supposing that after killing the pig, Mang Rodrigo makes use of its meat by keeping it in his
refrigerator and cooked some. What crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. theft
b. property damaged
d. robbery
15. Supposed it was a Carabao that destroyed the mongo crops of Manuel. What crime committed by
Manuel?
a. theft
b. malicious mischief
c. Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
d. robbery
16. Supposed after killing the Carabao Mang Rodrigo makes use of its meat by keeping it in his
refrigerator and cooked some, what crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. theft
b. malicious mischief
c.Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
d. robbery
17. Validity of Search Warrant
a. when the judge sign
b. upon serve
c. from the date indicated therein
d. from the date receive by officer
18. Quantum of proof required whether to file an information or complaint in court?
a. probable cause
b. personal knowledge
c. substancial
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
19. If the search is illegal the things seized is?
a. competent
b. irrelevant
c. inadmissible
d. admissible
20. t is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. It is the essential facts constituting the
plaintiff’s cause of action?
a. Factum probandum
b. Evidence
c. factum probans
d. factum prubans
Case Situation:
Alden got married to Maine Mendoza. After 4years from of being husband and wife, they
were not blessed with a child. Alden had an illicit relation with Ms. Pastillas. Ang a neighbor), who
gave birth to child (C). Maine learned about Alden’s relation with Ms. Pastillas. To cover their illicit
relation, Alden intentionally killed his illegitimate infant at its 72 hours age.
21. For what crime Alden can be charged?

a. homicide b. parricide
c. murder d. infanticide
22. What if it is Maine who killed the infant?
23. What if it is the father of Alden who killed the infant?
24. What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What crime is committed by Alden, Maine or the
father of Alden?
Case Situation:
Lola A, Lola B and Lola C robbed a bank. Lola A and B entered the bank and took all the
money from the teller while Lola C remains outside the bank and served as look-out.
25. Lola A is liable for a crime as?

a. principal by inducement
b.principal by direct participation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
d.principal
26. Lola B is liable for a crime as?
d.principal
27. Lola C is liable for a crime as?
d.principal
28. What if Lola C who actually entered the bank and took all the money from the teller?
d.principal
29. What if Lola A who was outside the bank and served as look-out??
d.principal
Case Situation:
Alden induces Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice to kill Aldub who is living on an island far from
the town, in consideration of the amount of 500,000.00. Lola Dora, te owner of the only boat in the
place agreed to transport Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice and actually transported them in a place in
consideration of 10,000.00,Lola Dora agreed despite knowing the criminal purpose of Yaya
Dub,Pastillas and Vice. Upon reaching the place, Yaya Dub held the hands of Aldub while Pastillas
stabs Yayadub and as a result, Aldub dies. Viceremains as look-out.
30. Alden is liable for a crime as?

d.principal
31. Yaya Dub is also liable for a crime as?
d.principal
32. Vice Pastillas so liable for a crime as?
d.principal
33. Lola Dora as the owner of the only boat is liable of a crime as?
d.principal
34. What if there are several boats available to transport, Lola Dora is liable of a crime as?
a. principal
b.accessories
c. accomplice
d.principal by indispensable cooperation
35. What if Pastillas just bury the cadaver of Aldub and he has knowledge about the crime Pastillas is
liable of a crime as?
a. principal
b.accessories
c. accomplice
d.principal by indispensable cooperation
26. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result of the frustration and anger people
experience over their inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
a. strain theory
b. psychological theories
c. differential association theory
d. labeling theory
36. A and B one neighbors who case to play “tako” ane day, A persuaded B to steal the bike of C.In
the study of criminal law what is the term used for it?
a. Conspiracy
b. Proposal
c. Entrapment
d. Instigation
37. In tumultuous affray ender Article 251 of the RPC how person may are included?
a. 3
b. 8
c. 4
d. 6
38. What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case?

a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. Probable cause
d. Substantial Evidence
39. In Revise Penal Code, the intentional or malicious destruction of property by means of fire is
called.
a. Arson
b. Combustion
c. Disposition
d. Murder
40. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among citizens of
a. Good repute and probity
b. High educational level
c. Good religious background
d. High social standing
41. Which of the following procedures should be observed in handling drug addicts who are
incarcerated?
1.They should be segrageted especially during the withdrawal period
2.They should be closely supervised to prevent attempts to commit suicide or
self-mutilation
3.They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a physician
4.They should be transferred to mental institution of proper psychiatric treatment
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 3, 4 and 1
c. 4, 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
42. Which of the following is not an element of malicious mischief?
a. The damage was caused inadvertently

b. The damage caused does not fall with the provisions of arson
c. The offender has caused damage to the property of another
d. The damage was caused deliberately
43. In special law, the imposed penalty is two years to seven years. Applying the indeterminate sentence
law, how many years?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 7
d. 8
44. George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, was arrested at the NAIA arrival lounge and
found positive for opium, a dangerous drug. When arrested, 15 grams of cocaine were found in his
bagpack. What offense would you charge George under R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous
Drug Act)?
a. Importation of dangerous drugs.
b. Possession of dangerous drugs.
c. Use and possession of dangerous drugs
d. Use of dangerous drugs
45. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the appreciation of that a paraffin test has
been held to be highly
a. Accepted
b. Determinate
c. Sensitive
d. Unreliable
46. In the Criminal Law, the Court personnel next in rank to the presiding judge in the lower court is the
Branch Clerk of Court. In the absence of the judge, the branch clerk of court may hear simple case of
unjust vexation.
a. Possible
b. No
c. It depends
d. Yes
47. Who among the following can apply for release under the Law on Recognizance?
a. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is three (3) years and above
b. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is Twelve (12) months and above
c. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is not morethan Six (6) months
d. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is Six (6) months and above
48. A hostile witness is one whose testimony is not favorable to the cause of the party who called him as a
witness. Can leading question be asked?
a. It depends
b. No
c. Partially
d. Yes
49. What is the function responsibility of prison guards?
a. Inmates health
b. Prison security
c. Prison's Interpersonal relations
d. Prison industry
50. A has grudge against B. He went to the house of B and look for the latter. However, B was on
vacation in the province. In his spite, he destroyed the door of B. Later on, he noticed that the door
could be useful. So, he brought it to his house. What crime was committed?
a. Robbery
b. Maliscious Mischief
c. Attempted Qualified Trespass to Dwelling
d. Theft
51. What do you call the court that co-equal to the Court of Appeals?
a. Sandiganbayan
b. Court of first instance
c. Supreme court
d. Tanodbayan
52. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of the sentence must have been served
by a petitioner-prisoner?
a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
53. Is there a complex crime when crime is committed to conceal another crime? 2 CRIMES
a. It depends
b. No
c. Partially
d. Yes
54. What is the primary purpose of the pre-sentence investigation?
a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate sentence of the offender
b. To exonerate the offender
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend himself
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case
55. The following are rights of a witness under the rules of court EXCEPT:
a. To be examine only as to matters pertinent to the issue
b. Not to give an answer which will tend to subject him to a penaly of an offense
c. To remain silent
d. To be protected from irrelevant questions
56. What is meant by the concept of probation which is from the latin word "probitio" and had historical
roots in the pratice of judicial repreive?
a. Live with integrity
b. Testing period
c. Walk with faith
d. Out of the institution
57. In the study of crime, what is the distinction, if any, between a felony and a crime?
a. Crime and felony are the same
b. Crime covers felonies
c. No distinction whatsoever
d. The source of felony is a RPC
58. Mayor saw A and B boxing each other. He approached the two and identified himself as a mayor and
attempted to pacify them whereupon B attacked mayor. C, a bystander came to aid of the Mayor.
Upon seeing C helping the mayor, A attacked C. What crime was committed by the one who attacked
C?
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect assault
c. None
d. Physical injury
59. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a thick wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are
catwalks in every corner, a tower post is manned by heavily armed guards:
a. Maximum security facility
b. Medium security facility
c. Super maximum security facility
d. Minimum security facility
60. Ramon witnessed the commission of a crime but he refuses to testify for fear of his life despite a
subpoena being served on him. Can the court punish him for contempt?
a. No, since no person can be compelled to be a witness against another.
b. No, since Ramon has a valid reason for not testifying.
c. Yes , since litigants need help in presenting their case.
d. Yes, since public interest in justice requires his testimony.
61. What documents are attached to the Release Document of the Parolee?
Prison record
Name of the Parolee and Probation Officer
Location of the Prison or Confinement
Order of Court
a. 4 and 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3
62. We known that the Lord Jesus Christ, our savior, was brutally crucified in the Middle East some 2100
years ago. According to our criminal/ penal law, What aggravating circumstance will you use to those
who consfired in the killing?
a. Abused of Superior Strength
b. Conspiracy
c. Intimidation
d. Treachery
63. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides undertake supervision and visitation of the
probationer. However, control over the probationer and probation program is exercised by
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides

b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
c. The Secretary of Justice
d. The Court who place him on probation
64. According to the control theory, crime and delinquency result with an individuals bond to
_____________ is weak and broken.
a. Behavior
b. Police
c. Law
d. Society
65. Which of the following offenses may be prosecuted by a persons other than (not) the offended party?
a. Abduction
b. Act of lasciviousness
c. Seduction
d. Falsification
66. What types of questions are allowed to be asked to a witness who is unwilling to testify?
a. Intelligent
b. Leading
c. Misleading
d. Unresponsive
67. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment is imposed on the offender to allow
society to vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the criminal?
a. Retribution
b. Restoration
c. Rehabilitation
d. Deterrence
68. The following are the elements of maliscious mischief:
I. The offender deliberately caused damage to property
II. Such act does not constitute arson or other crimes involving destruction
III. Such acts also constitute other crimes involving destruction
IV. The act of damaging anothers property was committed merely for the sake of damaging it
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. I, II, III
e. II, III, IV
69. Who among the following may be granted conditional pardon?

a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government physician
b. A prisoner who served as "bastonero"
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his probation conditions

70. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to court within_________.
a. 10-day period
b. 30-day period
c. 15-day period
d. 60-day period
71. Within how many days after the expiration of the period to execute the warrant of arrest that the
officer to whom it was assigned for the execution shall make a report to the judge who issued the
warrant?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 30
72. Which of the following is a crime against the Fundamental Law of the State?
a. Espionage
b. Piracy
c. Treason
d. Violation of Domicile; if private person- Qualified trespass to dwelling
73. The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina of concubinage. Pending appeal, they
applied for bail, claiming they are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is their claim correct?
a. No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight.
b. No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction.
c. Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not invloving moral turpitude.
d. Yes, bail is a matter of right in the Metropolitan Trial Court before and after conviction.
74. X went to the United States. While he was there, encountered Y an American. They eventually
got married. When X returned to the Philippines, his wife Z filed an action against him for
violating their marriage. What is X liable to?
a. Adultery
b. Bigamy
c. Concubinage
d. Polygamy
75. Leave of Court is required to amend a complaint or information before arraignment if the
amendment_______________.
a. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a higher to a lower offense or excludes any
accused
b. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a higher to a lower offense and adds another
accused
c. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower to a higher offense and excludes any of
the accused
d. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower to a higher offense and adds another
accused
76. In Criminal law and Jurisprudence, there are two acts- internal and external act. Which of the two
acts is indispensable for the act to be punishable as a crime?
a. External act
b. Intentional act
c. Internal act
d. Unintentional act
77. In criminal procedure, who conducts the direct examination?
a. Opponent
b. PAO lawyer
c. Proponent
d. Prosecution
78. The system of key control in a jail includes:
a. An updated system of monitoring and control of keys
b. A documented inventory of security personnel
c. A collector of all padlocks and keys
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting them
79. The following are classified as crimes against chastity, EXCEPT:
a. Simple Seduction
b. Adultery
c. White Slave Trade
d. Sexual Harassment
80. The following are considered minor offenses of an inmate, EXCEPT:
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
b. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect when confronted by or reporting to any
officer or member of the custodial force
c. Willful watse of food
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and orderliness in his quarter and/or
surroundings
81. The following are classified as crimes against honor, EXCEPT:
a. Premature Marriage
b. libel
c. Incriminating innocent person
d. Slander
82. A complaint may be filed by any of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Offender
b. The offender party
c. Other public officers
d. Any peace officers
83. Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from criminal liability/

a. It depends
b. No
c. Sometimes
d. Yes
84. X tried to kill Y by poisoning. One morning, X put sugar on the food of Y thinking that it was
arsenic. Instead of dying, Y suffered diabetes. In this case, the crime is not committed because the
material he mixed on the foods is
a. Impossible
b. Inadequate
c. Ineffectual
d. Intentional
85. The president grants absolute/conditional pardon based on the recommendation of:
a. Board of Pardon and Parole
b. Bureau of Correction
c. Parole and Probation Administration
d. Office of the Executive Secretary
86. What law prohibits the imposition of death penalty in the philippines?
a. R.A 7659
b. R.A 7965
c. R.A 8177
d. R.A 9346
87. For search to be considered as an incident of the arrest, it must be made at the place where the:
a. Contraband was found
b. Police station is located
c. Arrest was effected
d. Crime was forced
88. Bearing in mind the distinction between private and public document, which of the folowing is
admissible in evidence without further proof of due execution or genuiness?
a. Baptismal Certificates.
b. Documents acknowledged before a Notary Public in Hongkong
c. Official record of the Philippines Embassy in Singapore certified by the Vice-consul with
official seal
d. Unblimished receipt dated December 20, 1985 signed by the promise, showing payment of a
loan, found among the well-kept file of the promissor.
89. A drug user who is placed under probation may be made to serve his sentence by the court if he
a. Becomes unruly and undicipline
b. Commits another offense
c. He is 21 years old
d. Violates any of the conditions of the probation
90. Which evidence is presented to vary the terms of a written agreement, there is the application of
the____________evidence rule.
a. Documentary
b. Best
c. Written
d. Parol
91. X, a doctor, put a poison on the food of his wife. When she eat the food, moments later, she suffered
excruciating pain in the stomach. Seeing his in agony, X got pity on his wife and administered an
antidote. Thus, the wife did not die. What crime was committed by X?
a. Attempted Parricide
b. Frustrated Parricide
c. Serious Physical Injuries
d. No crime
92. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of probation in the United States?
a. Sir Walter crofton
b. Alexander Maconochie
c. John murry spear
d. John Augustus
93. A petition for the grant of basolute or conditional pardon shall be favorably endorsed to the Board by
the________ if the crime committed by the petitioner is against national security.
a. Secretary of foreign Affairs
b. Secretary of Justice
c. Secretary of National Defense
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government
94. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be treated__________.
a. Comprehensively
b. Appopriately
c. Confidentially
d. Judiciously
95. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of residents with crimes which are not usually
reported to the police. What are these studies called?
a. Population Surveys
b. Police surveys
c. Victimization surveys
d. Information surveys
96. What term denotes a new or fresh trial when an appellate court sends a case back to lower court for
new trial?
a. Trial by publicity
b. Trial by jury
c. Trial by default
d. Trial de novo
97. Facts already known or ought to be known by judge by reason of their office and of which they may
properly take and act without proof re called matters of:
a. Priveleged communication
b. Judicial notice
c. Pleadings
d. Judgment
98. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of prison sentence?
a. Commutation of sentence
b. Parole
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon
99. Which among the following is a requisite before an accused may be discharged to become a state
witness?
a. The accused does not appear to be guilty.

b. The accused has not at any time been convicted of any offense.
c. The testimony of the accused sought to be discharged can be substantially
corroborated on all points.
d. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the accused hose discharge is requested.
100. Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be held liable for rape:
a. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in the victims drink to enable her husband to
have intercourse with the victim's.
b. When the offender uses an instrument and inserts it in the mouth of the victim's.
c. When the rape is committed by two or more person's.
d. With the use of force or intimidation.
101. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision correccional. Will he qualify for probation?
a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
b. No, his sentence is morethan Six (6) years and One (1) day
c. Yes, his sentence is less than Six (6) years and One (1) day
d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
102. There are four (4) acknowledged goals of ___________ as follows: retribution, deterrence,
incapacitation, and rehabilitation.
a. Criminal intent
b. Criminal mind
c. Criminal sanction
d. Criminal action
103. The city prosecutor charged Ben with serious physical injuries for stabbing terence. He was tried
and convicted as charged. A few days later, Terence died due to severe infection of his stab wounds.
Can the prosecution file another information against Ben for homicide?
a. No, double jeopardy is present since Ben had already been convicted of the first offense.
b. No, there is double jeopardy since serious physical injuries is necessarily included in the
charged of homicide.
c. Yes, since supervening event altered the kind of crime the accused committed.
d. Yes, since Terence's death shows irregularity in the filing of the earlier charge against him.
104. Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately released provided he is not a recidivist or
he had not been previously convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the maximum penalty for the offense he may be found
guilty of is destierro
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum penalty of the offense he may be found
guilty of is prision correccional
c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum penalty of the offense he may be found
guilty of is reclusion perpetua
d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or morethan the possible maximum term of
punishment of the offense he maybe found guilty of.
105. A science involving technical knowledge about the traces of crime is known as:
a. Forensic medicine
b. Physical science
c. Forensic science
d. Criminalistic Technology
106. To be considered an accessory, the author of the crime must be guilty of any of the following,
EXCEPT:
a. Murder
b. Treason
c. Parricide
d. Infanticide
107. The following are crimes against national security and the law of nations EXCEPT one:
a. Violation of neutrality
b. Rebellion
c. Treason
d. Espionage
108. Which of the following is NOT classified as a crime committed by public officers?
a. Forgery
b. Official breaking seal
c. Malversation
d. Refusal of assistance
109. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little more care than the other inmates.
Which of the following should NOT be done by a jail officer?
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff regularly
b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his prescribed diet
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient inmate
110. The following are aggravating circumstances EXCEPT:
a. Movement of the offender is restricted
b. Cruelty
c. Adding ignominy
d. Taking advantage of superior strength
111. When taking up arms against the government was undertaken by members of the military, what
law was violated? Republic Act________.
a. 9165
b. 7610
c. 6506
d. 6968
112. The following properties may be taken by the officer effecting the arrest, EXCEPT those:
a. That may be used for escaping
b. Used in the commission of a crime
c. That are within the immediate vicinity
d. Which are means of committing violence
113. Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone preventive imprisonment
equivalent to the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged with?
a. Batas Pambansa 95
b. Batas Pambansa 85
c. Batas Pambansa 105
d. Batas Pambansa 965
114. An advantageous result in the integration of correctional agencies is:
a. More physical facilities to maintain
b. More prisoners to supervise
c. Divided resources such as manpower and finances
d. Better coordination of services and increased cost-efficiency
115. It is the system or criminal procedure which is characterized by secrecy of investigation and
the option of the defense and prosecution to appeal.
a. Inquisatorial
b. mixed
c. accusatorial
d. fixed
116. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted either at the initiative of the public
prosecutor or the offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the defense and the accused
presumed innocent.
a. inquisitorial
b. mixed
c. accusatorial
d. fixed
117. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC, MCTC.
a. R.A. 7691
b. R.A. 8493
c. BP 129
d. R.A. 1379
118. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, EXCEPT:
a. Extent of penalty
b. Person accused
c. territory
d. subject matter
119. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any peace officer of public officer in charge
of enforcement of the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of the prosecutor.
a. Complaint
b. Pleadings
c. Information
d. Affidavit
120. Prescription of offense commence to run:
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party or peace officers or their agent.
b. Upon filing of cases in court.
c. Upon escape of the accused.
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
121. The following are cases covered by rules on summary procedure, EXCEPT:
a. Where the penalty is six months Imprisonment
b. Violation of traffic laws
c. Violation of rental laws
d. Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6) months imprisonment
122. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous system and are commonly referred
to as “uppers”?
a. Amphetamines
b. Naptha
c. Barbiturates
d. Diazepam
123. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio without a complaint first filed by the
offended party, EXCEPT:
a. Rape
b. Abduction
c. Seduction
d. Adultery and Concubinage
124. Complaint or Information shall charge only one offense. This is the rule on:
a. Duplicity of offense
b. Complex crime
c. compound crime
d. continuing crime
125. In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional Mandates an arresting officer should inform
the person to be arrested of his rights?
a. Art. III Sec. 12
b. b.Miranda Doctrine
c. R.A. 7438
d. Rule 115
126. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002, providing Funds
Therefore and for Other Purposes.
a. RA 9165
b. RA 1956
c. RA 9156
d. RA 1965
127. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug incidents?
a. Reclusion Perpetua
b. Life Imprisonment
c. Death
d. Fine
109. Complaint and information can be amended to ____ after plea and during the trial with leave of
court and without causing prejudice to the rights of the accused.
a. form
b. substance and form
c. substance
d. none of these
128. A petition for suspension of criminal action upon the pendency of a prejudicial question in a
civil action may be filed:
a. before the prosecution rests
b. before arraignment
c. before preliminary investigation
d. before plea
129. Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a logical antecedent of the issue involved
therein, and the cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
a. Prejudicial question
b. inquest proceeding
c. preliminary investigation
d. custodial investigation
130. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a
well-founded belief that a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty
thereof, and should be held for trial.
a. preliminary investigation
b. inquest proceeding
c. prejudicial question
d. custodial investigation
131. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:

a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day
b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. less than four years, two months and one day
d. six years, one day and above
132. The following persons are authorized to conduct preliminary investigation, EXCEPT:
a. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court
b. Provincial and city prosecutors and their assistants
c. Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and Municipal Circuit Trial Courts
d. National and Regional state prosecutors;
e. a and c
133. After the filing of the Complaint or Information in court without a preliminary investigation
within how many days an accused person upon knowing the filing of said complaint may ask for
preliminary investigation?
a. 5 days
b. 15 days
c. 10 days
d. 30 days
134. Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.
a. Arrest
b. Warrant
c. jurisdiction
d. Seizure
135. Validity of the warrant of arrest?
a. no fixed duration
b. 30 days
c. 20 days
d. 10 days
136. Lifetime of search warrant?
a. 10 days
b. 20 days
c. 5 days
d. No fixed duration
137. Within how many days upon the date of execution of a warrant of arrest the person charged
with its execution shall report to the court which issue such warrant when arrest was not been
made?
a. 10 days
b. 30 days
c. 20 days
d. 5 days
138. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing the law breakers in the execution of
their criminal plan.
a. instigation
b. investigation
c. entrapment
d. Entertainment
139. In flagrante delicto means _____?
a. caught in the act
b. instigation
c. caught after commission
d. entrapment
140. When arrest may be made?
a. At any time of the day and night
b. At day time
c. At night time
d. from sun dust till dawn
141. When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ the warrant of arrest in his possession?
a. Need not have
b. Should always have
c. may sometime have
d. need to have
142. It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement officer after a person has been taken
into custody.
a. custodial investigation
b. inquest
c. interview
d. interrogation
143. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even without a warrant?
a. When the crime was committed in the presence of the arresting officer.
b. When the crime was in fact been committed and there is personal knowledge based on
probable cause that the person to be arrested has committed it.
c. When the person to be arrested is an escapees.
d. All of the choices
144. It is a security given for the temporary release of a person in custody of the law.
a. Bail
b. parole
c. fine
d. conditional pardon
145. Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused person failed to appear at the trial without
justification and despite due notice.
a. In absentia
b. in flagrante de licto
c. on the merits
d. none of these
146. When Bail is a matter of right?
a. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan, Municipal or Municipal Circuit trial
court.
b. Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court
c. before conviction by the Regional Trial Court
d. upon preliminary investigation
147. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT:
a. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to death
b. crime punishable by life imprisonment
c. crimes punishable by death
d. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment when evidence of guilt is
strong
148. When bail is a discretionary?

a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment.
b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20 years who is a
recidivist.
c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20 years when there is
undue risk that he may commit another crime during the pendency of the appeal.
d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20 years who has
previously escaped from legal confinement.
149. Is an offense which, under the existing law at the time of its commission and at the time of the
application for admission to bail may be punished with death.
a. capital offense
b. less grave
c. heinous crime
d. grave felony
150. The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT:
a. Property Bond
b. Cash Bond
c. Corporate surety bond
d. Recognizance
e. None of the choices
151. When the maximum penalty to which the accused may be sentenced is destierro, he shall be
released after ____ of preventive imprisonment.
a. 30 days
b. 20 days
c. 15 days
d. 60 days
152. Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon:
a. acquittal of the accused
b. execution of the judgment of conviction
c. dismissal of the case
d. all of the choices
153. It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory facts and circumstances are capable of two or
more interpretation, one which is consistent with the innocence of the accused and the other
consistent with his guilt, or they are evenly balanced. The constitutional presumption of innocence
should tilt the scale in favor of the accused and he must be acquitted.
a. Equipoise rule
b. Presumption of guilt
c. Hornbook doctrine
d. due process of law
154. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist destitute litigant?
a. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. National Prosecution Office
155. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and to testify or to bring with him
any books or documents under his control at the trial of an action.
a. subpoena
b. subpoena ducestecum
c. subpoena ad testificandum
d. d. warrant of arrest
156. Unless shorter period is provided by special law or Supreme Court Circular, the arraignment
shall be held within ___ days from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
accused.
a. 30 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 5 days
157. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ shall be entered.
a. Not guilty
b. admission by silence
c. guilty
d. none
158. When reception of evidence is necessary under the following circumstances:

a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
b. plea of guilty to capital offense
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
d. all of these
159. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a motion alleging among others the defect
of the complaint or information and the details desired in order to enable him to properly answer
and prepare for trial. This motion is known as:
a. motion for bill of particular
b. motion for clarification
c. motion to dismiss
d. motion for postponement
160. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be suspended on the following grounds:
a. The accused appears to be suffering from unsound mental condition.
b. There exist a prejudicial question.
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or
office of the President .
161. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an accused is:
a. Motion to quash
b. nolleprosequi
c. Motion to dismiss
d. bill of particulars
162. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and punish or the termination of the power
to prosecute or punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite period from the commission
of the offense.
a. Prescription of crime
b. acquisitive
c. prescription of penalty
d. extinctive
163. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the danger of being prosecuted for the same
offense for the second time.
a. double jeopardy
b. double trial
c. double trouble
d. double counter
164. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by imprisonment not exceeding six years or a
fine of any amount or both shall become permanent after ____.
a. one year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. d. 4 years
165. Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the court acquires jurisdiction
over the person of the accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. d. 60 days
166. How many days are given to an accused person to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is
entered?
a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 30 days
d. 180 days
167. The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days from receipt of the pre-trial order?
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 60 days
168. The trial court have how many days from the first day of trial to terminate the same?
a. 60 days
b. 365 days
c. 180 days
d. 150 days
169. The trial of a case can be made in absentia except on the following circumstances:
a. at the arraignment and plea
b. during the trial whenever necessary for identification purposes
c. at the promulgation of sentence, unless for a light offense
170. The order of trial is:
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal
171. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, mannequins or any other appropriate
demonstrative device to assist him in testimony.
a. Testimonial aids
b. Emotional security items
c. support
d. none of these
172. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages of examination of a child, if the
same will further the interest of justice.
a. leading questions
b. relevant
c. misleading
d. Narrative
173. Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an accused to be state witness:
a. there is absolute necessity for the testimony of the accused.
b. said accused does not appear to be the most guilty
c. said accused has not been convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude/
174. After the prosecution rest its case, the accused person may move for the dismissal of the case
on:
a. on its own initiative after giving the prosecution an opportunity to be heard.
b. Demurrer to evidence
c. motion for reconsideration
d. motion for new trial
175. It is the judicial examination and determination of the issue in an action or proceeding, civil
or criminal.
a. pre-trial
b. trial
c. plea bargaining
d. Judgment
176. Is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not guilty of the offense charged
and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability.
a. judgment
b. rendition of judgment
c. promulgation of judgment
d. conviction
177. It is the degree of proof which does not excluding the possibility of error, produces absolute
certain. Moral certainty only is required.
a. acquittal
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. clear and convincing
d. preponderance of evidence
178. It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that the evidence does not show that his guilt
is proof beyond reasonable doubt.
a. dismissal
b. conviction
c. acquittal
d. judgment
179. Judgment becomes final when?
a. the period for perfecting an appeal lapse.
b. when the sentence is partially of totally satisfied or served.
c. when the accused waived in writing his right to appeal.
d. when he appealed for probation
e. all of the choices
180. Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of conviction becomes final.
a. Motion for new trial
b. Motion for reconsideration
d. All of these
181. Who represents the State in an action for appeal?
a. prosecutor
b. Secretary of DOJ
c. appellant
d. Solicitor General
182. The party appealing the case shall be called?
a. appellant
b. accused
c. Appellee
d. Defendant
183. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit where the power of the court is
exercised and which is jurisdictional in criminal case.
a. Venue
b. Jurisprudence
c. jurisdiction
d. court
184. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
a. Original jurisdiction
b. Exclusive jurisdiction
c. concurrent jurisdiction
d. appellate jurisdiction
185. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the others.
c. appellate jurisdiction
d. concurrent jurisdiction
186. It is the system or criminal procedure which is characterized by secrecy of investigation and
the option of the defense and prosecution to appeal.
a. Inquisitorial
b. mixed
c. accusatorial
d. fixed
187. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted either at the initiative of the public
prosecutor or the offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the defense and the accused
is innocent.
a. inquisitorial
b. mixed
c. accusatorial
d. fixed
188. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, EXCEPT:
a. Extent of penalty
b. Person accused
c. territory
d. subject matter
189. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any peace officer of public officer in charge
a. Complaint
b. Pleadings Section
c. Information
d. Affidavit
190. Prescription of offense commences to run:

b. Upon filing of cases in court.
c. Upon escape of the accused.
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
191. When an appeal shall be taken?

a. within 10 days
b. within 30 days
c. within 15 days
d. within 5 days
192. Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT?
a. Subject of the offense
b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense
c. Used or intended to be used as the means of committing an offense
d. Firearm
193. When search must be made?
a. in the day time
b. only during sunrise
c. any time of the day and night
d. in the presence of two witnesses
194. In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the ____?

a. Plaintiff
b. offended party
c. defendant
d. Respondent
195. A complaint or information have the same legal content, however, they differ as to who
subscribe to it, who subscribe an information?
a. Accused
b. Prosecutor
c. Witness
d. victim
196. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, the following officers are authorized
to conduct preliminary investigation except?
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
b. Judge MTC/MCTC
c. Regional State Prosecutor
d. Public Attorney’s office
e. b and d
197. An Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, detained or under custodial
investigation as well as duties of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
a. R.A. 7438
b. R.A. 7348
c. R.A. 7834
d. d. R.A. 3478
198. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused cannot be compelled to be a witness
against himself. This principle also known as:
a. rights against illegal arrest
b. the right to presume innocent
c. rights against self- incrimination
d. right to live
199. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following pleading are prohibited except:
a. motion to quash
b. bill of particular
c. answer
d. demurred to evidence
200. The following cases committed by public official with salary grade 27 and above fall under
the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII,
Book two of the RPC
b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in connection with executive order nos. 1,
2, 14 and 14-A.
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to their office.
d. None of the choices
201. It is the law which classifies rape from crime against chastity to crimes against person,
making crime prosecutable even without a complaint filed the offender party?
a. R.A. 8353
b. R.A. 9283
c. R.A. 8493
d. d. R.A. 7055
202. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed instituted upon the filing of criminal
action in court as provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances can a civil action for
recovery of civil liability can be separated?
a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
b. When the offended party reserves his right to institute the civil action;
c. When the institution of the civil action is made prior to the criminal action.
203. What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions?
a. It extinguishes the civil liability arising from delict.
b. Independent civil action instituted may be continued against the estate or legal
representative of the accused.
c. If the accused dies before arraignment, the case shall be dismissed without prejudice to
any civil action the offended party may file against the estate of the deceased.
204. Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee may be released on bail in the
following manner, except:
a. property bond
b. performance bond
c. corporate surety
d. recognized
205. Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a case
a. after arraignment
b. after the defense has rested its case
c. after trial
d. after the prosecution had rested its case
206. The accused may questioned the legality of his arrest ___ otherwise the said accused could no
longer questioned the same and that the arrest is presumed by the court as valid.
a. before arraignment
b. before conviction
c. before preliminary investigation
d. before trial
207. The following are the matters to be taken up in pre-trial conference except:
a. examination of witnesses
b. marking of evidence
c. plea bargaining
d. stipulation & simplification of issues
208. The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action shall be made:
a. before arraignment
b. before the pre-trial conference
c. before the prosecution rest its case
d. before the prosecution presents evidence
209. Amendment without leave of court before the accused pleads is allowed by the Rules of Court
under the following instances EXCEPT:
a. amendment as to substance
b. amendment as to form
c. amendment that reflect typographical error
d. amendments to downgrades the nature of the crime
210. One of the requisites in order that one of the accused may be discharged in order to be state
witness is that
a. Said accused does not appear to be the most guilty
b. Said accused does not appear to be least guilty
c. Said accused must not appear to be guilty
d. Said accused must appear to be innocent as char
211. P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government Code of 1991. Under the said code, the Lupon
of each barangay shall have authority to bring together the parties actually residing in the same
city or municipality for amicable settlement where the offense committed is punishable by
imprisonment exceeding one (1) year. This statement is:
a. absolutely true
b. partly true
c. absolutely false
d. partly false
212. In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with the:
a. Office of the President
b. Office of the Clerk of Court
c. Office of the Prosecutor
d. Office of the Ombudsman
213. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or information are the following, EXCEPT:
a. It must be in writing
b. It must be in the name of the People of the Philippines.
c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
d. It must be filed in court
214. Z as husband dies before he could institute the criminal action for adultery against his wife
and the paramour. The case may:
a. No longer be prosecuted
b. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
c. Still be prosecuted
d. Be prosecuted by the State
215. The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of incapacitated individual with no
known parents, grandparents or guardian is known as:
a. Doctrine of parens patriae
b. Doctrine of non-suability
c. police power
d. habeas corpus
216. The modes of making an arrest are:

a. by an actual restraint of the person to be arrested
b. by the submission to the custody of the person making the arrest
c. by using unreasonable force
d. a and b only
e. a and c only
217. The following are crimes Against National Security and Law of Nations, EXCEPT.
a. Treason
b. Piracy and mutiny
c. Espionage
d. Rebellion
218. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.
a. treason
b. espionage
c. adherence to the enemy
d. rebellion
219. The degree of proof required to convict a person accused of treason.
a. substantial evidence
b. proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. two witness rule
d. preponderance of evidence
220. The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT:

a. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine waters;
b. The offenders are not members of its complement or passengers of the vessel;
c. That the offender resist to a superior officer;
d. The offenders either attack or seize that vessel or seize the whole or part of the cargo of
said vessel, its equipment or personal belonging of its complement or passengers.
221. Which of the following does NOT qualify the crime of Piracy:
a. Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on the high seas or in Philippine waters
b. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by boarding or firing upon the same.
c. c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned their victims without means of saving
themselves.
d. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, homicide, physical injuries, or rape.
222. Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-highway Robbery Law of 1974.
a. Comm. Act No. 616
b. P.D. 532
c. P.D. 533
d. R.A. 6235
223. PO1 Matiyaga, without legal grounds arrested and detained Mr. Tamad and deprived said
person of his liberty is liable for:
a. illegal detention
b. arbitrary detention
c. unlawful arrest
d. kidnapping
224. The following are legal grounds for the detention of any person, EXCEPT:
a. commission of a crime
b. escape from prison / penal institution
c. violent insanity or other ailment requiring the compulsory confinement
d. a and c only
e. a, b and c
225. The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying release, EXCEPT:
a. Delays the performance of a judicial or executive order for the release of a prisoner.
b. Delays the service of the notice of such order to said prisoner.
c. Delays the proceedings upon any petition for the liberation of such person.
d. Delays the filing of a criminal offense against the detainee to the proper judicial
authority.
e. All of these
226. Mr. Mabait was arrested for illegal possession of firearms which is considered a low power
gun. Considering that the crime is punishable by correctional penalty, within how many hours
should that a case be filed to the proper judicial authority?
a. 12 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 36 hours
227. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a person to change his resident or
otherwise expels him from the Philippines.
a. violation of domicile
c. trespass to dwelling
d. expulsion
228. The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.

a. Any public officer or employee who enters any dwelling against the will of the owner
thereof.
b. Any public officer or employee who searches any papers or other effects found therein
without the previous consent of the owner.
c. Any public officer or employee who refuses to leave the premises, after having
surreptitiously entered said dwelling and after having been required to leave the premises.
d. Any public officer or employee who searches domicile without witnesses.
e. All of the choices
229. SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search warrant, search the house of Mr. Mando N.
Ducot. After having discovered the item specified in the warrant, SPO1 Masinop took the same
and includes the jewelry box filled with jewelry which is not included in the list of the item to be
seized. SPO1 Masinop is:
a. Liable for the crime of violation of
domicile
b. Not liable for the crime of violation of domicile
c. May not be liable for violation of
domicile
d. Liable for a crime but not on
violation of domicile
230. The following are crimes against the fundamental law of the States. Which one can be
committed by private person?
a. Arbitrary detention
b. Violation of Domicile
c. Interruption of religious worship
d. Offending religious feelings
e. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of peaceful meetings
231. The law which provides Human Security
a. R.A. 9208
b. R.A. 9745
c. R.A. 9372
d. R.A. 7438
232. Angelo Vergara not only confessed his membership with the Sparrow unit but also his
participation and that of his Group in the killing of SPO2 Manalad while the latter was manning
the traffic along C. M. Recto Ave. Manila. Under the facts given, what crime was committed by
the former and that of his Group?
a. murder
b. sedition
c. rebellion
d. homicide
233. This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking arms against government to
completely overthrow and supersede said existing government.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
234. A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, stealth, directed against duly
constituted authorities, public utilities, military camps and installation with or without civilian
support for the purpose of diminishing state power.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
235. It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of communications or disturbances in the
state outside of the legal method.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
236. A police officer, who arrested a member of congress while going to attend a senate session
for a traffic violation is liable for:
a. crime against popular representation
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the National Assembly
c. violation of parliamentary immunity
d. all of the foregoing
237. The Kilusan ng mga hindi Ungas at Paranoid (KHUP) was organized by Mr. Panot allegedly
for protecting the poor laborer, where in fact it was organized to form a group that would rise
against the rich businessmen of their city. For what crime can they be charged?
a. Illegal assembly
b. Illegal association
c. coup d’etat
d. rebellion
238. Any association, organization, political party or group of persons organized for the purpose of
overthrowing the Government of the Republic of the Philippines or for the purpose of removing
the allegiance to said government or its law, the territory of the Phils. or any part thereof, with the
open or covert assistance or support of a foreign power by force violence, deceit or other illegal
means. Is a crime of:
a. Rebellion
b. Illegal Association
c. Subversive Association or Organization
d. Illegal Assembly
239. Mrs. Grace, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer Pandac and Councilor Panot were
surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for government projects and for their relocation.
The residents oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of Mayor
Ditas when the latter came near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor defends her but Mrs.
Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for
in relation to Mayor Grace?
a. Sedition
b. Slander by Deeds
c. Direct Assault
d. Rebellion
240. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
a. The assault is committed with a weapon
b. The offender is a public officer or employee
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in authority
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a person in authority

241. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a member of some
court or government corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority
b. Judicial authority
c. person in authority
d. Public employee
242. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously disobey any person in authority, or
the agents of such person, while engaged in the performance of official functions.
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect Assault
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National Assembly
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in authority or the agents of such person
243. The following are crimes classified as public disorders, EXCEPT.
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful utterances

c. Alarms and scandals
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
244. Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor fired a gun in the air to proclaim to the
people that he is celebrating his birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
a. illegal discharge of firearm
b. alarm & scandals
c. disturbances
d. outcry
245. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion of service of sentence.
a. By means of unlawful entry By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
b. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, violence or intimidation.
c. Through connivance with other convicts or employees of the penal institution.
246. Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of robbery before serving his sentence or while
serving the same he committed a crime of murder. What condition is said to have occurred?
a. recidivism
b. reiteration
c. quasi-recidivism
d. habitual delinquency
247. It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank note or any instrument payable to bearer or to
order the appearance of a true and genuine document. It is likewise committed by falsification
through erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or altering by any means, the figures, letters, words
or signs contained therein (Art. 169)
a. Falsification of public document

b. Forgery
c. Falsification
d. d.Fasification by public officer, employee or notary or ecclesiastical minister
248. A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic police sticker and sell the same shall be liable
for a crime of:
a. Estafa through falsification of a public document
b. Theft through falsification of a public document
c. Falsification of public document
d. Forgeries
249. This crime is committed by any person without any distinction, by falsely representing
himself as an officer and performing under pretense of official position any act pertaining to such
person.
a. usurpation of authority
b. estafa
c. usurpation of official functions
d. a & c
250. Any other name a person which publicly applies to himself without authority of the law.
a. alias
b. A.K.A.
c. fictitious names
d. true name
251. It is committed by a person, who being under oath are required to testify as to the truth of a
certain matter at a hearing before a competent authority, shall deny the truth or say something
contrary to it.
a. forgery
b. perjury
c. falsification
d. false testimony
252. Consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good customs, which having been
committed publicly, have given rise to public scandal to persons who have witness the same.
a. immoral doctrines
b. obscene publication and exhibition
c. grave scandal
d. libel
253. Refers to persons having no apparent means of subsistence but has the physical ability to
work and neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling.
a. bum
b. vagrant
c. prostitute
d. destitute
254. It is the improper performance of some acts which should have been lawfully be done.
a. malfeasance
b. misfeasance
c. nonfeasance
d. dereliction of duty
255. It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly issued an unjust order which decides some
point or matter but which however, is not a final decisions of the matter in issue:
a. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment
b. Judgment rendered through negligence
c. Unjust interlocutory order
d. Malicious delay in the administration of justice
e. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor – revelation of secrets
256. This one is committed by public officers or employees who, in dereliction of the duties of his
office, shall maliciously refrain from instituting prosecution for the punishment of violators of
law, or shall tolerate the commission of offenses.
a. Direct bribery
b. Indirect bribery
c. Qualified bribery
d. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in prosecution of offenses
257. What crime is committed by any public officer or employee who shall agree to perform an act
constituting a crime, in connection with the performance of his official duties, in consideration of
any offer, promise, gift or present received by such officer, personally or through the mediation of
another.
a. Direct bribery
b. Qualified bribery
c. Indirect bribery
d. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in prosecution
258. Any public office who is entrusted with law enforcement who refrain from arresting or
prosecuting an offender who has committed a crime punishable by reclusion perpetua and/or
death in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present.
a. bribery
b. direct bribery
c. qualified bribery
d. indirect bribery
259. It is a crime committed by any appointed public official who shall become interested in any
transaction within his territory, subject to his jurisdiction during his incumbency.
a. Prohibited transaction
b. Possession of prohibited interest by a public officer
c. Fraud against public treasury
d. Prevarication
260. This is committed by an accountable public officer who, shall appropriate, or shall
misappropriate or shall consent, or through abandonment or negligence shall permit another
person to take public funds or property.
a. Direct bribery
b. Technical malversation
c. Malversation of public funds
d. Embezzelment
261. The following are crimes classified under infidelity or public officers:
a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners
b. Infidelity in the custody of documents
c. Revelation of secrets
d. all of these
262. This is committed by any public officer or employee who shall overdo himself in the
correction or handling of a prisoner or detention prisoner under his charge by the imposition of
punishment not authorize by the regulations or inflicting punishment in a cruel or humiliating
manner.
a. Police brutality
b. Sadism
c. Maltreament of prisoners
d. Physical injures
263. This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit or make immoral advances to a
woman under his custody or to other women like the wife, daughter, sister or relative within the
same degree by affinity of any person in the custody of a warden or officer.
a. Sexual harassment
b. Abuses against chastity
c. Acts of Lasciviousness
d. Abuse of authority
264. Takes place whenever a person is killed during a confusion attendant to quarrel among the
several persons not continuing a group and the perpetrators cannot be ascertained.
a. homicide
b. murder
c. death caused by tumultuous affray
d. riots
265. Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing the death of their unborn child is
guilty of:
a. parricide
b. abortion
c. intentional abortion
d. unintentional abortion
266. A formal and regular combat previously concerted between two parties in the presence of two
or more seconds of lawful age on each side, who make the selection of arms and fix all other
conditions.
a. riot
b. duel
c. tumultuous affray
d. mutilation
267. It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the body, e.g. a woman cutting the penis of a
male lover to deprive of the latter of its true.
a. physical injury
b. duel
c. tumultuous affray
d. mutilation
268. What crime is committed by person who assaulted another, causing the latter to be absent
from work for two weeks?
a. mutilation
b. serious physical injury
c. less serious physical injury
d. slight physical injury
269. Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge with a child less than 12 years old.
a. rape
b. acts of lasciviousness
c. seduction
d. abduction
270. A private individual who detains another for the purpose of depriving the latter of his liberty
for more than three days is guilty of:
c. serious illegal detention
d. slight illegal detention
271. A person who got into a dispute with another, assaulted the latter for the purpose of delivering
his victims to the jailer is guilty of what crime?
b. illegal arrest
c. unlawful arrest
d. physical injuries
272. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens another with the infliction upon the
person, honor or property of the latter or of his family of any wrong amounting to a crime.
a. grave threat
b. light threat
c. grave coercion
d. light coercion
273. When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime is made by another, what crime is
committed?
a. grave threat
b. light threat
c. graver coercion
d. light coercion
274. Any person who by means of violence shall seize anything belonging to his debtor for the
purpose of applying the same to the payment of a debt, is committing.
a. grave threat b. light threat
c. light coercion d. graver coercion
275. It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to
do something against his will, whether right or wrong.
a. grave threat
b. light threat
c. grave coercion
d. light coercion
276. It includes human conduct, which although not productive of some physical or material harm
would annoy any innocent person
a. light threat
b. light coercion
c. unjust vexation
d. grave coercion
277. It is the taking of personal belonging to another, with intent to gain by means of violence
against, or intimidations upon things of any person, or using force upon anything.
a. robbery
b. theft
c. brigandage
d. estafa
278. A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the owner, what crime was committed?
a. a theft
b. robbery
c. possession of pick locks
d. possession of false key
279. A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors who form a band for the purpose of
committing robbery in the highway or kidnapping persons for the purpose of extortion or to obtain
ransom, or for any other purpose to be attained by means of force & violence.
a. Robbery
b. kidnapping
c. brigandage
d. d. theft
280. Committed by any person who with intent to gain but without violence or intimidation of
persons nor force upon things shall take personal property of another without latter’s consent.
a. robbery
b. kidnapping
c. brigandage
d. theft
281. A housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away the furniture of her employer would
be charged of what crime?
a. theft
b. robbery
c. qualified theft
d. estafa
282. Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the property would be large when
surveyed is a crime of:
a. estafa
b. chattel mortgage
c. usurpation
d. altering boundaries or landmarks
283. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake of causing damage due to hate,
revenge or other evil motive.
a. swindling
b. destruction of property
d. chattel mortgage
284. What crime was committed by a married woman having carnal knowledge with a man not
her husband?
a. adultery
b. concubinage
c. acts of lasciviousness
d. seduction
285. A married man who allows his paramour to live in their conjugal dwelling is liable of what
crime?
a. adultery
b. concubinage
d. seduction
286. Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex not amounting to rape by using force or
intimidation.
a. adultery
b. concubinage
d. seduction
287. A person who ripped the dress of a woman and placed his penis over the woman’s genital
organ is liable for what crime?
a. rape
b. seduction
c. forcible seduction
d. acts of lasciviousness
288. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his girlfriend by promising the latter with
marriage, what crime was committed?
a. seduction
b. acts of lasciviousness
c. abduction
d. none of the foregoing
289. Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver several pieces of jewelries to his Mother whom
he had misunderstanding. The latter however, pawned the said jewelries and misappropriated the
same. What would be the proper offense committed by Luz?
a. swindling
b. theft
c. robbery
d. malicious mischief
290. Which of the following crimes does not operates as an absolutory cause which could serves
as an exemption against members of the family from criminal ability in crimes against properties.
a. Robbery
b. theft
d. estafa
291. It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and prosecution of person alleged to have
committed a crime.
a. Criminal procedure
b. Criminal jurisprudence
c. rules of court
d. rules of procedure
292. It refers to the authority or power to hear and decided cases.
a. Jurisdiction
b. b. Jurisprudence
c. Venue
d. territory
293. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit where the power of the court is
exercised and which is jurisdictional in criminal case.
a. Venue
b. Jurisprudence
c. jurisdiction
d. court
294. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
c. concurrent
d. appellate jurisdiction
295. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the others.
c. appellate jurisdiction
d. concurrent jurisdiction
296. Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines crimes, treats of their nature and
provides for their punishment?
a. civil law
b. procedural law
c. criminal law
d. substantive law
297. The following are sources of criminal law, EXCEPT:
a. Act 3815
b. City and municipal ordinance
c. Special penal laws
d. constitution
298. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of criminal laws in the Philippines. It
took effect on?
a. January 1, 1923
b. January 1, 1932
c. December 8, 1930
d. January 1, 1933
299. The following are characteristics of classical theory of criminal law, EXCEPT:
a. the basis of criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of the penalty is
retribution.
b. Man is essentially a moral creature with an absolutely free will to choose between good
and evil, thereby placing more stress upon the effect or result of the felonious act than the
man.
c. there is scant regard to the human element.
d. That man is subdued occasionally by strange and morbid phenomenon which constrains
him to do wrong, in spite of or contrary to his violation.
300. Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. What are acts committed or omitted in
violations of special laws?
a. felony
b. offense
c. misdemeanor
d. in fractional law
301. Basically, there are three fundamental characteristics of criminal law. What characteristics of
criminal law states that criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn in the
Philippines?
a. Generality
b. Territoriality
c. Prospective
d. Retroactive
302. The following are the exemption to the rule of Generality, EXCEPT:
a. Those who are subject of treaty stipulation
b. Those who are immune under the law of preferential application
c. Those who are exempted under Public International law
d. President, Prime Minister and Ambassador
303. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto on January 12, 2009. June 12,
2009, a city ordinance was passed punishing loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A
be held liable for his act of loitering?
a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it

b. Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect of criminal law
c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of the law
d. No, for a did not loiter again
304. Under what characteristics of criminal law the above circumstance falls?
a. Generality
b. Territoriality
c. Prospective
d. Retroactive
305. What legal maxims support the above scenario?
a. Pro reo Principle

b. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege
c. Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea
d. Actus me invitusfactus non
306. Which of the following legal maxim means “the act cannot be criminal unless the mind is
criminal”.
a. Pro reo
b. Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege
c. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea
d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus
307. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its essence being the substitution of a
legislative flat for a judicial determination of guilt.
a. Ex post facto law
b. Bill of attainder
c. Retroactive law
d. Prospective
308. The following persons are exempt from criminal liability under the principle of public
international law, EXCEPT:
a. Heads of states
b. ambassador
c. ministers of plenipotentiary
d. charges d affaires
309. Crimes committed within the territorial water of another country can either be triable in that
country or in the country where the vessel is registered. What rule provides that a crime
committed on board vessel shall be NOT tried in the court of the country having territorial
jurisdiction, unless their commission affects the peace and security of the territory or the safety of
the state is endangered.
a. French rule
b. American Rule
c. Spanish Rule
d. English Rule
310. Any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in the external world.
a. act
b. Omission
c. Dolo
d. Culpa
311. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____.
a. Deceit
b. Fault
c. Culpa
d. Intent
312. Things which are wrongful in their nature.

a. evil
b. mala in ce
c. mala in se
d. mala prohibita
313. The moving power which impels one to action for a definite result.
a. intent
b. motive
c. deceit
d. fault
314. The following are crime committed by mistakes which does not operate as an
Exemption/justification, EXCEPT:
a. Aberratio Ictus
b. Error in Personae
c. PreaterIntentionem
d. Mistake in fact
315. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any efficient
intervening cause, produces the injury without which the result would not have occurred.
a. Proximate cause
b. Intervening cause
c. Immediate cause
d. Probable cause
316. Death is presumed to be the natural consequence of physical injuries inflicted in the
following; EXCEPT
a. The victim at the time the physical injuries were inflicted was in normal heath.
b. The death may be expected from the physical injuries inflicted.
c. Death ensued within a reasonable time.
d. The resulting injury is due to the intentional act of the victim.
317. The following are elements of impossible crime, EXCEPT:
a. That the act performed would be an offense against persons or property.
b. That the act was done with evil intent
c. That its accomplishment is inherently impossible, or that the means employed is either
inadequate or ineffectual.
d. That the act does not constitute a crime of negligence or imprudence.
318. X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance which he thought was arsenic (poison)
when in fact it was just a sugar. Y was not killed as a consequence. What X did he commit?
a. Mistake in the blow
b. No crime committed
c. preaterintentionem
d. impossible crime
319. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may deem proper to repress and which
is not punishable by law, it shall:
a. Render the proper decision, and shall report to the Chief Executive, through the
Department of Justice
b. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief Executive, through the Department of
Justice.
c. Render the proper decision, and shall report to the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
d. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
320. This takes place when the offender commences that commission of a felony by overt acts, and
does not perform all the acts of execution which should produce the felony by reason of some
cause or accident other than his own spontaneous desistance.
a. Consummated
b. Frustrated
c. Attempted
d. Impossible crime
321. A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting B at his shoulder. B was able to run away
and survived the injury, what crime is committed by A?
a. Physical Injury
b. Frustrated Homicide
c. Attempted Homicide
d. Less serious physical injury
322. The following are the elements of frustrated felonious, EXCEPT:

a. The offender performs all the acts of execution
b. All the acts performed would produce the felony as a consequence but the felony is not
produced.
c. By reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator.
d. Due to some cause or accident other than his own spontaneous desistance.
323. Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the coffee of her husband Mr. William Herschel,
when Mr. was at the stage of convulsion, Mrs. Lucila had a change of heart and administer an
antidote causing Mr. William to survive but left in comatose. What was committed by Mrs.
Lucila?
a. Frustrated parricide
b. b.attempted parricide
c. serious physical injury
d. less serious physical injury
324. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime, starting from the point where the offender
begins the commission of the crime to that point where he has still control over his acts including
their (acts) natural course.
a. Subjective Phase
b. Objective Phase
c. Internal Act
d. Act of Execution
325. Which of the following is NOT a Factor in determining stage of execution of felony?
a. Nature of the offense
b. Elements constituting the felony;
c. Manner of committing the felony
d. Intent in committing the crime
326. A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to rob the Banco de Oro. While having their
meeting at their safe-house, a group of PNP personnel arrested them. What crime was committed
by A,B, and C?
a. Illegal Assembly
b. Conspiracy to commit robbery
c. Attempted Robbery
d. No crime
327. A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine National Bank in their secret safe house. While
they are planning how to commit the crime, operatives of the NBI barged in and arrested the
group.
a. What crime was committed by A,B and C?

b. No crime was committed
c. Under the facts no crime was committed as mere conspiracy to commit a crime is not
punishable
d. Attempted robbery
e. Frustrated robbery
328. Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the capital punishment or penalties which
in any of their periods are:
a. light
b. correctional
c. afflictive
d. reflective
329. In case of crimes which are latter subject of special penal laws, what rule of interpretation
shall be applied?
a. The RPC shall be observed

b. The RPC shall prevails over special laws.
c. The RPC will be supplementary to special law
d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to the RPC

330. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a person as its author or owner. It implies
that the act committed has been freely and consciously done and may therefore be put down to the
doer as his very own.
a. Guilt
b. Liability
c. Responsibility
d. Imputability
331. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law, so that such person is
deemed not to have transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and civil liability.
a. justifying circumstances
b. mitigating circumstances
c. exempting circumstances
d. aggravating circumstance
332. The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT

a. Unlawful aggression.
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it.
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending himself.
d. Lack of intent on the part of the person defending himself.
333. Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for the offense since there is a wanting
in the agent of the crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or negligent.
a. Justifying
b. Mitigating
c. Exempting
d. Aggravating
334. Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the cellphone of Ms. IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___.
a. Liable for the crime of theft
b. Liable for the crime of robbery
c. Not liable for the crime of theft
d. Not liable for the crime of robbery
335. The following circumstances exempt a person from criminal liability though there is civil
liability considering that there is crime committed, EXCEPT:
a. Minority
b. Accident
c. Imbecility/Insanity
d. Acting under compulsion of an irresistible force
e. Acting under the impulse of an uncontrollable fear of an equal or greater injury.
336. The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT:
a. Children 15 years of age below
b. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without discernment
c. Insane persons or an imbecile persons
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with discernment.
337. Who among the following incurs full responsibility upon commission of a crime?
a. Those 15 years of age and below
b. Those who are 18 years of age and above
c. Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of age
d. Those who are 18 years of age
338. Are those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and sentiment,
there is no penalty imposed.
a. Justifying circumstances
b. Mitigating circumstances
c. Absolutory cause
d. Exempting circumstances
339. X was charged before the court. During the pendency of his trial he died. What would be the
effect of his death on the case involved and on his criminal liability?
a. The criminal case will be dismissed ad his criminal liability is extinguished.
b. The criminal case will proceed and his criminal liability is not extinguished.
c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for his resurrection.
d. Actually there will be no effect at all because his relatives will be the one to face trial and
punished in case of his conviction.
340. Which of the following operates as an absolutory cause.
a. Spontaneous desistance
b. Accessories who are exempt from criminal liability by reason of relationship
c. Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight physical injuries under exceptional
circumstances
d. Person exempt from criminal liability for theft swindling and malicious mischief by
relationship to the offended party
341. An aggravating circumstances which generally apply to all crimes such as dwelling,
nighttime or recidivism.
a. generic
b. specific
c. qualifying
d. Inherent
342. C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing her using the dog-style position in
the sexual act. Rape is committed aggravated by what circumstances?
a. ignominy
b. passion
c. cruelty
d. Craft
343. Is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for past offense and is rarely exercised
in favor of a single individual and is usually granted to certain classes of persons usually political
offenders, who are subject to trial but not yet convicted.
a. Pardon
b. Commutation
c. Parole
d. Amnesty
344. The law which prohibits the imposition of the death penalty?
a. RA 6981
b. P.D. 968
c. R.A. 9346
d. R.A. 4103
345. How do you call an offender who within a period of ten (10) years from the date of his release
or last conviction of the crimes of Serious Physical Injuries, robbery (robo), Theft (hurto), Estafa
or falsification is found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or offener?
a. Recidivist
b. Quasi recidivist
c. Reiteration
d. habitual delinquent
346. The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms of alternative circumstances,
except:
a. Low degree education
b. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not intended it or not a habitual drunkard.
c. Relationship in crimes against property
d. Relationship in crimes against persons
347. Refers to persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.
a. principals
b. accessories
c. accomplice
d. instigators
348. A person who directly induce others to commit a crime is regarded as:
a. principal by direct participation
b. principal by indispensable cooperation
c. principal by induction
d. instigators
349. The desire or wish in common thing
a. intent
b. motive
c. conspire
d. cooperate
350. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the murder of another person is liable as:
a. principal
b. accessory
c. accomplice
d. conspirator
351. Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no property to meet the fine.
a. subsidiary penalty
b. suspension
c. penalty
d. d.civil interdiction
352. In cases where in the commission of an offense is necessary in the commission of another it is
said the crime is:
a. formal crime
b. informal crime
c. compound crime
d. complex crime
353. An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated scale of penalties.
a. degree
b. period
c. prescription
d. duration
354. A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period defined by law subject to the
termination by the parole board at any time after service of the sentence.
a. Suspension
b. indeterminate sentence
c. prescription
d. period of penalty
355. The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall prescribe in how many years?
a. 15 years
b. 1year
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
356. Those crime punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and reclusion temporal shall prescribe
in:
a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
357. Those punishable by correctional penalties shall prescribe in how many years?
a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
358. Light offenses prescribe in:
a. 12 months
b. 6 months
c. 4 months
d. 2 months
359. A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill you this week”. A bought a firearms. On
Friday, he waited for B and shot him but killed C instead. In so far as B is concerned, the crime
committed by A is:
a. Attempted murder
b. frustrated murder
c. illegal discharge of firearm
d. all of these
360. In so far as C is concerned the crime committed is:
a. frustrated homicide
b. murder
c. consummated homicide
d. none of the above
361. X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide (consummated) which is punishable by
Reclusion Perpetua.
He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment. Determine his penalty.

a. Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum to Reclusion temporal (minimum period) as
the maximum period of the indeterminate penalty.
b. Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to Reclusion temporal (any period) as the
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty
c. Reclusion temporal as the minimum period to reclusion perpetua as maximum
d. Prision mayor
362. X (as principal) committed grave coercion (consummated) punishable by prision correctional.
There was one aggravating circumstances in the commission of the crime let us say “with the aid
of armed men”. Fix his penalty.
a. Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to Prision correctional (maximum period) as
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty.
b. Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum to Prision correctional (any period) as
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty
c. Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor as maximum period
d. None of the above
363. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

a.15-18 years old
b.18-70 years old
c.9 years old and below
d.between 9 and 15 years old
364. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or
simultaneous acts.
a.Accomplices
b.Suspects
c.principal actors
d.accessories
365. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the
lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
a.prescription of crime
b.prescription of prosecution
c.prescription of judgment
d.prescription of penalty
366. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.

a.Pardon
b.commutation
c.amnesty
d.reprieve
367. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the
affairs of the society.
a.mala prohibita
b.mala in se
c.private crimes
d.public crimes
368. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a
crime.
a.gang
b.conspiracy
c.band
d.piracy
369. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
a.Negligence
b.imprudence
c.omission
d.act
370. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in
the execution of his criminal plan.
a.Misfeasance
b.entrapment
c.inducement
d.instigation
371. The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT:

a. Children 15 years of age below
b. Insane persons or Imbecile persons
c. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with discernment
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without discernment
372. Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for the offense since there is a wanting
in the agent of the crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or negligent.
a. Justifying
b. Exempting
c. Mitigating
d. Aggravating
373. When a public officer convinces a person to commit a felony and would arrest him or her
after its commission he is committing.
a. instigation
b. entrapment
c. conspiracy
d. proposal
374. It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two DEGREES depending upon what the law
provides and cannot be offset by any aggravating circumstances.
a. Mitigating Circumstances
b. Exempting circumstances
c. Ordinary Mitigating Circumstances
d. Privilege Mitigating circumstances
375. Crimes are classified in various categories. What classifications of crime is when a single act
results to or more serious or less serious offenses.
a. Continuing Crime
b. Complex crime or delito complejo
c. Special complex crime
d. Compound crime or delito compuesto
376. Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts bought a rifle from Mr. C. Goddard. Knowing
Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. Goddard sold the gun. Since Mr. Pitts is in an Island for vacation and
the only way to reach the island is to ride a boat, Mr. Dellinger rented the boat of Mr. F. Galton,
the owner of the only boat that can be rented to reach the island. Also knowing Mr. Dellinger’s
plan, Mr. F. Galton allowed the boat to be rented for a much higher price. Mr. Dellinger
successfully reached the island and killed Mr. R. Pitts. Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts
requested the service of Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds to bury Mr’s Pitts Body in exchange
for thousand of pesos. What was the crime committed by Mr. Dellinger?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Parricide
d. Manslaughter
377. What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton?
a. Principal by direct participation
b. Principal by induction
c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Accomplice
378. What about Mr. C. Goddard?
a. Principal
b. Accomplice
c. Accessory
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
379. What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds?

a. Principal
b. Accomplice
c. Accessory
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
380. The following are Justifying Circumstances, EXCEPT?
a. Obedience to a lawful order
b. Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or performance of duty
c. A person who acts under compulsion of an irresistible force
d. Avoidance of greater evil or injury
381. The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de officio without a complaint first filed by the
offended party, EXCEPT:
a. Seduction
b. Rape
c. Abduction
d. Acts of Lasciviousness
382. What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of personal property belonging to another is
committed with grave abuse of confidence?
a. Robbery
b. Qualified Theft
c. Theft
d. Burglary
383. What crime is committed if a person commits a crime of murder with the use of unlicensed
firearm?
a. Murder
b. Illegal Possession of firearm
c. Qualified Illegal possession of firearm
d. Murder with illegal possession of f/a.
384. If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted upon a person in a manner that is determined
and constant until the lawful purpose is realize, the crime committed is:
a. Threat
b. Grave threat
c. Coercions
d. Light threat
385. When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon the offended party does not amount to a
crime the designation of the offense is called
a. Threats
b. Grave threats
c. Light Threats
d. Coercion
386. A public officer who without legal ground shall prohibit or interrupt the holding of a peaceful
meeting or dissolved the same is liable for:
a. Prohibition of a peaceful meeting
b. dissolution of peaceful meeting
c. Interruption of peaceful meeting
d. all of the choices.
387. If a private person removes a person confined in jail or penal institution or helps in the escape
of such person by means of violence, intimidation, bribery or any other means, the crime
committed is:
a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
c. Delivery of prison from jail
d. corruption of public official
388. Light offenses prescribe in:
a. 12 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 2 months
389. X raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing her, using the dog-style position in
the sexual act. Rape is committed aggravated by what circumstances?
a. ignominy
b. passion
c. cruelty
d. obstruction
390. Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information relative to national defense with
intent to be used to the injury of the Republic of the Philippines.
a. treason
b. conspiracy to commit treason
c. espionage
d. misprision to treason
391. To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of persons to proper judicial authorities, a
person caught in the act of committing a felony punishable by penalties which are correctional in
nature must be delivered to said authorities within how many hours?
a. 12
b. 36
c. 18
d. 48
392. Amendments with leave of court after the accused pleads are allowed under the following
circumstance.
a. Amendments as to substance
b. Amendments as to form
c. Amendments that change the nature of the offense
d. None of these
393. The rule is that the civil action for the recovery of civil liability arising from the offense
charged is deemed instituted with the criminal action. This rule does not apply in the following
instances, EXCEPT.
a. When the offended party waives the civil action
b. When the offended party reserves the right to institute separate civil action
c. When the offended party institute the criminal action
d. When the offended party institute the civil action prior to the criminal action.
394. The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action shall be made:
a. Before the arraignment
b. During the pre-trial conference
c. Before the prosecution rest
d. Before the prosecution present evidence
395. The rule prohibits the filing of the following pleadings in the criminal case, EXCEPT:
a. Motion for postponement
b. Counter affidavit
c. Counterclaim
d. Third party complaint
396. The petition for suspension of the criminal action based upon the pendency of prejudicial
question in a civil action may be filed with the following, EXCEPT one:
a. The court where the civil action is pending
b. The court where the criminal action is pending
c. Office of the prosecutor
d. None of these
397. Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is required before the filing of a complaint or
information where the penalty for the offense is:
a. At least 6 years and 1 day
b. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
c. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
d. Exceeding 6 years and one day
398. The following may be submitted by the respondent in a preliminary investigation, EXEPT:
a. Counter-affidavit
b. Motion to dismiss
c. Witness counter affidavit
d. supporting documents
399. The following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary investigation on cases falling
within their jurisdiction, EXCEPT:
a. Provincial prosecutor
b. City prosecutor
c. Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman
d. Judges of Municipal trial court
400. An offense which under the law existing at the time of its commission and of the application
for admission to bail may be punish with death is called:
a. Capital punishment
b. Heinous crime
c. Capital Offense
d. Grave offense
401. The court may dismiss the case on the ground of insufficiency of evidence:
a. On the motion of the accused filed with prior leave of court
b. By its own initiative after giving the prosecution an opportunity to be heard
c. On motion of the accused thru counsel
d. A and B only
402. Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession of Ruben which was snatched from him three
days ago. He confronted the latter and force to get back said cell phone against his will. For what
crime or crimes may Manuel be liable for, if he will go to force to get back the same?
a. Coercion
b. Robbery
c. Threats
d. Theft
403. The following statement are false, EXCEPT:

a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
b. The accused must personally enter his plea
c. The accused must excused/waived arraignment
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other than where the case is assigned.
404. Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital offense and the evidence of guilt is strong.
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Partly true
d. Partly false
405. Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be placed under the custody of the law. It should be
made at:
a. Anytime of the day
b. anytime of the day and night
c. Anytime of the morning
d. d. anytime of the night
406. It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made with kettles, his horns, etc, designated to
deride or annoy:
a. Charivari
b. Grave scandal
c. Alarm and Scandal
d. Harana
407. The application for search warrant may be filed with the following, EXCEPT:
a. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a crime was committed.
b. Any court within the judicial region where the crime was committed
c. Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines
d. Any Court Within judicial region where the warrant shall be enforced
408. An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the first level court shall be by:
a. Notice of appeal
b. by Petition for review
c. Petition for review on certiorari
d. Petition for certiorari
409. After the prosecution rest its case, the case can be dismiss due to insufficiency of evidence
by:
a. The courts own initiative
b. By the accused through his counsel by Demurrer to evidence
c. By the prosecution on its own initiative
d. a and b only
410. Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden for the escape of his brother Chan. The
Warden ordered his jail guard to leave the door unlocked so as to facilitate the escape of Mr.
Chan. The guard leaves the door unlocked and tells Mr. Chan to escape at mid-night. What crime
was committed by the Warden?
b. Direct Bribery
c. Delivery of prison from jail
d. corruption of public official
411. What Crime can be charged against the guard who connives with the prisoner?
a. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
c. Delivering prisoner from jail
d. A and B
412. A public officer or a warden who solicits or makes immoral or indecent advances to a woman
who is under his custody or wife or daughter of the person under his custody shall be liable for:
a. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Abuses against Chastity
c. Indirect Bribery
d. infidelity in the custody of prisoners
413. Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of evidence which means that evidence
must have such relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence.
The other requisite is ____________?
a. That is should not be excluded for by law.
b. That it is material to the facts in issue
c. That it is credible
d. That it is the best evidence
414. Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible hence, collateral matters are not allowed.
Except:
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the probability or improbability of the
fact in issue.
b. When it is competent
c. When it is credible
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue based on other related evidence.
415. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of a person will not be admissible
in court. This is anchored on what requisites of admissibility?
a. materiality
b. competency
c. relevancy
d. credibility
416. It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the trier of facts because of its logical
connection with the issue. Evidence which has an effective influence or bearing to the question?
a. material
b. relevant
c. competent
d. credible
417. The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by imprisonment of more than 6 years shall
become permanent ________ after issuance of the order without the case having been revived.
a. One year
b. six months
c. Two years
d. three years
a. 30 days
b. 20 days
c. 15 days
d. 60 days
419. How many days is given to an accused person to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is
entered?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 20 days
d. 180 days
420. The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial Court is called?
a. R.A. 7691
b. R.A. 3019
c. R.A. 8493
d. B.P. 129
421. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any peace officer of public officer in charged
a. Complaint
b. Information
c. Pleadings
d. Affidavit
422. Prescription of offense commence to run:
b. Upon filing of cases in court
c. Upon escape of the accused
d. Upon re-appearance of the accuse
423. The following are cases covered by rules on summary procedure EXCEPT:
a. Where the penalty is six months imprisonment.
b. Violation of traffic laws
c. Violation of rental laws
d. Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6) months imprisonment
424. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist destitute litigant?
a. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. National Prosecution Office
425. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and to testify or to bring with him
any books or documents under his control at the trial of an action.
a. subpoena
b. subpoena duces tecum
c. subpoena ad testificandum
d. warrant of arrest
426. The order of trial is:
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
b. Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal.
427. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, mannequins or any other appropriate
demonstrative device to assist him in testimony.
a. Testimonial aids
b. Emotional security items
c. support item
d. none of these
428. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages of examination of a child, if the
same will further the interest of justice.
a. leading questions
b. misleading
c. relevant
d. narrative
429. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of evidence of the following,
EXCEPT:
a. Matters of Public Knowledge
b. The measure of time
c. Law of nations
d. Law of nature
430. Court may take judicial notice of the following in exercise of its discretion, EXCEPT.
a. The geographical divisions
b. Matter which are of public knowledge;
c. Matters capable of unquestionable demonstration; or
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of their judicial functions.
431. Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites. These requisites are:
a. The matter must be one of common and general knowledge.
b. It must be well and authoritatively settled and not doubtful or uncertain
c. It must be known to be within the limits of the jurisdiction of the court.
432. Self incriminatory statement falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt made by a party in
the course of the proceeding in the same case which does not require proof.
a. Admission
b. self serving statement
c. declaration against interest
d. confession
433. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document no evidence shall be admissible
other than the original documents itself. This refers to the _____.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
434. What are secondary evidence?

a. Certified true COPY of a document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic document
c. Testimony of witnesses
435. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing, it is considered as containing
all the terms agreed upon and there can be, as between the parties and their successors in interest,
no evidence of such terms other than the contents of the agreement.
a. Parol evidence Rule

b. b. parol evidence
c. Best Evidence Rule
d. Secondary Evidence
436. As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving, can make known of their perception
to others can be witness and the following shall not be a ground for disqualification.
a. Religious and political belief
b. Interest in the outcome of the case
c. conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided by law
437. An Act Providing for A Witness Protection, Security and Benefit program and for other
purposes.
a. R.A. 6981
b. R.A. 6646
c. P.D.749
d. R.A. 6770
438. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other direct ascendants, children
or other direct descendants. This is embodied under what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege.
b. declaration against pedigree
c. declaration against common reputation
d. res inter alois acta rule
e.
439. An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of any liability and is not admissible
in evidence against the offeror on the following case, EXCEPT.
a. In civil cases
b. Those arising from criminal negligence
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
injury.
d. In criminal cases
440. A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of a plea of guilty to a lesser offense
is_____?
a. not admissible in evidence against the accused who made the plea of offer.
b. admissible in evidence against the accused who made the plea of offer
c. shall not be considered an plea
d. will be considered a plea of not guilty
441. The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, or omission of another,
except as provided by the rules of court.
a. Res inter alios acta rule
b. admission by co-partner
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by silence of a person for not doing or saying anything when an act or
declaration is said against him in his presence.
442. The following are the requirements in determining child’s competency as a witness EXCEPT:
a. capacity of Observation
b. capacity of Recollection
c. capacity of Communication
d. capacity to Comprehend
443. Where several extrajudicial confessions had been made by several person charged with the
same offense and without the possibility of collision among them, the fact that the statements are
in all respects identical is confirmatory of the confessions of the co-defendants and are admissible
against the other persons implicated therein.
a. interlocking confessions
b. res inter alios acta rule
c. admission by privies
d. confession by co-defendant
444. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a party
who does or says nothing when the act or declaration is such as to call for action or comment if
not true, and when proper and possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence against him.
a. admission by silence
b. confession
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by privies
445. Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence rule?
a. That a witness can testify only to those facts which he knows of his personal knowledge;
that ism which are derived from his own perception.
b. hearsay evidence is not acceptable as evidence in court
c. Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the authority of another person.
d. hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to facts of which the witness has no personal
knowledge because it is derived from the knowledge or perception of others who are not
called to testify.
446. The declaration of a dying person, made under the consciousness of an impending death, may
be received in any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as evidence of the cause and
surrounding circumstances of such death.
a. Dying declaration
b. res gestae
c. declaration against interest
d. declaration about pedigree
447. Is the duty of the party to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary to establish his
claim or defense by the amount of evidence required by law.
a. burden of evidence
b. burden of proof
c. proof of evidence
d. cause of action
448. A Foreign vessel registered in the country of Australia anchored at Manila Bay wherein an
Australian national was caught in possession of Cocaine. What rule provides that a crime
committed while on board of the vessel.
a. French rule
b. American Rule
c. Spanish Rule
d. English Rule
449. Shall deprive the offender rights of parental authority or guardianship.
a. subsidiary penalty
b. penalty
c. suspension
d. civil interdiction
450. It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a sexual relationship to a married man. This
statement is?
a. True
b. false
c. It depends
d. Partly false
451. The following are considered afflictive penalties, except:
a. death by lethal injection
b. reclusion perpetua
c. reclusion temporal
d. prison mayor
452. It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual relationship to a married woman.
This statement is?
a. True
b. false
c. It depends
e. Partly false
453. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols,
such as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
a.documentary evidence
b.testimonial evidence
c.material evidence
d.real evidence
454. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
a.positive evidence
b.corroborative evidence
c.secondary evidence
d.negative evidence
455. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair
trial.
a.ex post facto law
b.equal protection of the law
c.rule of law
d.due process of law
456. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is intended.
a. Aberratio ictus
b. Error in personae
c. Dura Lex Sed lex
d. Praeter Intentionem
457. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ shall be entered.
a. Not guilty
b. admission by silence
c. guilty
d. none
458. When reception of evidence is necessary under the following circumstances:
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
b. plea of guilty to capital offense
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
d. all of these
459. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a motion alleging among others the defect
of the complaint or information and the details desired in order to enable him to properly answer
and prepare for trial. This motion is known as:
a. motion for bill of particular
b. motion for clarification
c. motion to dismiss
d. motion for postponement
460. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be suspended on the following grounds:
a. The accused appears to be suffering from unsound mental condition.
b. There exist a prejudicial question.
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or
office of the President .
461. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an accused is:
a. Motion to quash
b. Nolle pro sequi
d. bill of particulars
462. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and punish or the termination of the power
to prosecute or punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite period from the commission
of the offense.
a. Prescription of crime
b. acquisitive
c. prescription of penalty
d. extinctive
463. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the danger of being prosecuted for the same
offense for the second time.
a. double jeopardy
b. double trial
c. double trouble
d. double counter
464. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by imprisonment not exceeding six years or a
fine of any amount or both shall become permanent after ____.
a. one year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 4 years
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 60 days
466. How many days are given to an accused person to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is
entered?
a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 30 days
d. 180 days
467. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, the following officers are authorized
to conduct preliminary investigation except?
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
b. Judge MTC/MCTC
c. Regional State Prosecutor
d. Public Attorney’s office
e. b and d
468. A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, detained or under custodial
investigation as well as duties of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
a. R.A. 7438
b. R.A. 7348
c. R.A. 7834
d. R.A. 3478
469. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused cannot be compelled to be a witness
against himself. This principle also known as:
a. rights against illegal arrest
b. the right to presume innocent
c. rights against self- incrimination
d. right to live
470. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following pleading are prohibited except:
a. motion to quash
b. bill of particular
c. answer
d. demurred to evidence
471. The following cases committed by public official with salary grade 27 and above fall under
the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII,
Book two of the RPC
b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in connection with executive order nos. 1,
2, 14 and 14-A.
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to their office.
d. None of the choices
472. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed instituted upon the filing of criminal
action in court as provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances can a civil action for
recovery of civil liability can be separated?
a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
b. When the offended party reserves his right to institute the civil action;
c. When the institution of the civil action is made prior to the criminal action.
473. Alden Richard, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer Maine Mendoza and Councilor
Sipag were surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for government projects and for their
relocation. The residents oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the
face of Mayor Alden when the latter came near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor defends her
but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be
charged for in relation to Mayor Alden?
a. Sedition
b. Slander by Deeds
c. Direct Assault
d. Rebellion
474. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:

a. The assault is committed with a weapon
b. The offender is a public officer or employee

c. The offender lays hands upon a person in authority
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a person in authority
e. It should be noted that the assault should be mad without public uprising.
475. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a member of some
court or government corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority
b. Judicial authority
c. person in authority
d. Public employee
476. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously disobey any person in authority, or
the agents of such person, while engaged in the performance of official functions.
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect Assault
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National Assembly

d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in authority or the agents of such person
477. The following are crimes classified as public disorders, EXCEPT.
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful utterances
c. Alarms and scandals
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
478. Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor fired a gun in the air to proclaim to the people
that he is celebrating his birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
a. illegal discharge of firearm
b. alarm & scandals
c. disturbances
d. outcry
479. Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced prisoner), gave 20K to the Jail Warden to
facilitate or allow the escape of her brother is guilty of what crime?
b. delivering prisoners from jail
c. Bribery
d. Corruption of public official
480. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion of service of sentence.
a. By means of unlawful entry
b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, violence or intimidation.
d. Through connivance with other convicts or employees of the penal institution.

a. 30 days
b. 20 days
c. 15 days
d. 60 days
482. How many days is given to an accused person to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is
entered?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 20 days
d. 180 days
483. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by
whom?
a.Parents
b.Offended Spouse
c.Guardians
d.God father
484. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and sentiment there
is no penalty imposed.
a.impossible crimes
b.aggravating circumstances
c.absolutory causes
d.complex crimes
485. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if it was not for the inherent
impossibility of its accomplishment.
a.compound crime
b.impossible crime
c.complex crime
d.accidental crime
486. The law which re-imposed the death penalty.
a.RA 5425
b.RA 8553
c.RA 7659
d.RA 9346
487. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or author
a.responsibility
b.duty
c.guilt
d.imputability
488. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it comes about through
some acts of our will, lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.
a.fortuitous event
b.fate
c.accident
d.destiny
489. Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices, usages and rules of action
which are not recognized in our country.
a.penal laws
b.special laws
c.common laws
d.statutory laws
490. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions
that would make an act. Voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability there is civil
liability
a.Exempting
b.alternative
c.justifying
d.aggravating
491. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law, and hence, he
incurs no criminal and civil liability.
a.exempting
b.alternative
c.justifying
d.aggravating
492. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffers slowly and gradually,
causing him unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
a.Ignominy
b.cruelty
c.treachery
d.masochism
493. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final
judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
a.Recidivism
b.habitual delinquency
c.reiteracion
d.quasi-recidivism
494. Alevosia means

a. Craft
b. treachery
c. evident premeditation
d. cruelty
trial.
a. ex post facto law
b. equal protection of the law
c. rule of law
d. due process of law
496. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the
crime of serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is found
guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
a. Recidivist
b. quasi-recidivist
c. habitual delinquent
d. hardened criminal
a. Aberratio ictus
c. Dura Lex Sed lex
498. It means mistake in the blow.

a. Aberratio Ictus
b. Error in Personae
c. Dura lex sed lex
499. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment
are present.
a. Attempted
b. Frustrated
c. Consummated
d. Accomplished
500. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not
intentional.
a. Absolutory Cause
b. Mistake of facts
c. Conspiracy
d. Felony
501. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth
respecting a matter of fact?
a. Evidence
b. Facts
c. Proof
d. Burden of proof
502. It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. It is the essential facts constituting
the plaintiff’s cause of action?
a. Factum probandum
b. Evidence
c. factum probans
d. proof
503. The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as otherwise provided by law or these rules.
a. the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings
b. not the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings
c. dependent on the type of case involved
d. absolutely the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings
504. Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of evidence which means that evidence
must have such relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence.
The other requisite is ____?
a. That it should not be excluded for by law
b. That it is material to the facts in issue
c. That it is credible
d. That it is the best evidence
505. Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible hence, collateral matters are not allowed.
Except:
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the probability or improbability of the
fact in issue.
b. When it is competent
c. When it is credible
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue based on other related evidence
506. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of a person will not be admissible
in court. This is anchored on what requisites of admissibility?
a. a. materiality
b. relevancy
c. competency
d. credibility
507. Evidence which the witness states that he did not see or know of the factual occurrences what
kind of evidence?
a. negative
b. affirmative
c. positive
d. Alibi
508. An additional evidence of different kind tending to prove the same facts in issue. Evidence
which are supplementary to that already given and tending to strengthen or confirm it.
a. Corroborative
b. Associative
c. Commulative
d. Credible
509. Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It refers to the logical and inevitable result of the
evidence on record, exclusive of any other consideration, of the moral certainty of the guilt of the
accused or that degree of proof which produces conviction in an unprejudiced mind.
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt

b. Clear and Convincing Evidence
c. Preponderance of evidence
d. Substantial evidence
510. It is that proof which, if unexplained or uncontradicted, is sufficient to sustain the proposition
it supports or to establish the facts or to counterbalance the presumptions of innocence to warrant
a conviction.
a. Prima-facie evidence
b. Preponderance of evidence
c. Rebuttal evidence
d. Sur-rebuttal evidence
511. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of evidence of the following,
EXCEPT:
a. Matters of Public Knowledge
b. Law of nation
c. The measure of time
d. Law of nature
512. Court may take judicial notice of the following exercise of its discretion, EXCEPT:
a. The geographical divisions
b. Matter which are of public knowledge
c. Matters capable of unquestionable demonstration; or
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of their judicial functions.
513. When can proper court, on its own initiative or on request of a party, may take judicial notice
of any matter and allow the parties to be heard thereon if such matter is decisive of a material
issue in the case?
a. after the trial
b. before judgment
c. on appeal
514. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an acknowledgment of guilt made by a party in
the course of the proceeding in the same case which does not require proof.
a. Admission
b. declaration against interest
c. self-serving statement
515. Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses of the court.
a. Real or Object
b. Testimonial
c. Documentary
d. Direct
516. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document no evidence shall be admissible
other than the original documents itself. This refers to the ___.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parole Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
517. What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule:
a. When the original has been lost or destroyed orunder cannot be produced in court,
without bad faith on the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is in the custody or under the control of the party against whom the
evidence is offered, and the latter fails to produce it after reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts or other documents which cannot be
examined in court without great loss of time and the fact sought to be established from
them is only the general result of the whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the custody of the public officer or is recorded in a
public office.
518. When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or cannot be reproduced in court, the
offeror, upon proof of its execution or existence and the cause of its unavailability without bad
faith on his part, may prove its contents by a copy, or by a recital of its contents in some authentic
document or by the testimony of witnesses in the order stated.
a. Secondary Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Secondary Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
519. When secondary evidence is allowed?
a. When the original has been lost, destroyed or cannot be produced in court, without bad
faith on the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is under the custody or under the control of the party against whom the
evidence is offered, and the latter fails to produce it after reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts or other documents which cannot be
examined in court without great loss of time and the fact sought to be established from
them is only the general result of the whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the custody of a public officer or is recorded in a
public office
520. What are secondary evidence?
a. A Certified True COPY of a document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic document
c. Testimony of witnesses
521. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing, it is considered as containing
all the terms agreed upon and there can be, as between the parties and their successors in interest,
no evidence of such terms other than the contents of the agreement.
a. Parol Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence
d. Secondary Evidence
522. It refers to an evidence of oral or written statement of a party presented as evidence to
modify, explain or add to the terms of the written agreement.
a. Parol Evidence
b. Secondary Evidence
c. Best Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
523. On which of the following circumstances parol evidence can be accepted?
a. When there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in the written agreement;
b. The fulfillment of the written agreement to express the true intent and agreement of the
parties thereto;
c. The validity of the written agreement;
d. The existence of other terms agreed to by the parties or their successors in interest after
the execution of the written agreement.
524. The following are qualifications for discharged of a person to be state witness.
a. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the accused whose discharge is requested;
b. There is no other direct evidence available for the proper prosecution for the offense
committed except the testimony of said accused;
c. The testimony of said accused can be substantially corroborated in its material points;
d. Said accused appear to be the most guilty;
e. Said accused has not at any time been convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude;
525. R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the disclosure or examination of bank deposits. As a
general rule bank deposits are absolutely confidential in nature and may not examined or inquired
or looked into by any person or government officials, EXCEPT:
a. upon written permission of the depositor
b. in cases of impeachment
c. upon order of competent court in cases of briber, dereliction of duty of public officials
d. in case where the money deposited or invested is the subject matter of litigation
e. in cases of well explained wealth
526. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other direct ascendants, children or
other direct descendants. This is embodied under what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege
b. declaration against pedigree
c. declaration against common reputation
d. declaration against Parental relationship
527. An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of any liability and is not admissible
in evidence against the offeror on the following case, EXCEPT:
a. In civil cases
b. Those arising from criminal negligence
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
injury
d. In criminal cases
528. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
a. secondary evidence
b. prima facie evidence
c.corroborative evidence
d. Cumulative evidence
529. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the
proposition affirmed.
a.secondary evidence
b.prima facie evidence
c.corroborative evidence
d.best evidence
530. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols,
such as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
a.documentary evidence
b.testimonial evidence
c.material evidence
d.real evidence
531. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
a. positive evidence
b. corroborative evidence
c. secondary evidence
d. negative evidence
trial.
a.ex post facto law
b.equal protection of the law
c.rule of law
d.due process of law
533. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of criminal laws in the Philippines. It
approved on?
a. January 1, 1923
b. January 1, 1932
c. December 8, 1930
d. January 1, 1933
a. Aberratio ictus
c. Dura Lex Sed lex
535. Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides for
their punishment?
a. Act 3815
b. Criminal Law
c. Revised Penal Code
d. Criminal Procedure
536. Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine territory regardless of
sex, race or religious affiliation. EXCEPT matters covered by:
a. Treaty Stipulation
b. Public International Law
c. Law of Preferential Application
537. By Principles of Public International law, the following enjoin immunity from the application
of the Philippine Criminal law, EXCEPT:
a. Consul
b. Heads of State
c. Ambassador
d. d. Minister de affaires
538. Acts or omission punishable by public law commanding or forbidding it:
a. Crimes
b. Felonies
c. Offense
d. Infractions of law
539. Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of criminal liability is human free will, the
purpose of punishment is retribution and is generally exemplified in the Revised Penal Code.
a. Eclectic
b. Classical Theory
c. Positivist Theory
d. Neo-Classical Theory
540. The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign territorial jurisdiction which generally
follows the Nationality Principle and not the Domiciliary Principle except when the crime
committed on board vessels affects the national security of the Country where such vessel is
located.
a. French Rule
b. English Rule
c. Spanish Rule
d. Greek Rule
541. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its essence being the substitution of
legislative fiat for a judicial determination of guilt.
a. Ex post facto law
b. Retroactivity
c. Bill of attainder
d. Prospective
542. Which of the following is NOT an element of the Crime of Dolo or Deceit?
a. Intent
b. Freedom
c. Intelligence
d. Negligence
543. These are crimes which are NOT considered bad in itself but the doer is found to have
transgress the law for act which it prohibits.
a. Crime
b. Felonies
c. Mala in se
d. Mala Prohibita
544. Is that act performed which would be an offense against persons or property where it not for
the inherent or legal impossibility of its accomplishment.
a. Mala in se
b. mala prohibita
c. Impossible crime
d. Formal crimes
545. It is the moving power or which impels a person to act and not an essential element of a crime
but would tend to establish the identity of the perpetrator.
a. Intent
b. Motive
c. Negligence
d. ignorance
546. The following are causes which would produce criminal liability though the result be
different from what is intended, EXCEPT:
a.Abberatio ictus
b.Error in Personae
c.Preater intentionem
d.Ignorantia Facti
547. The offender performs all the acts of execution that would produce the felony as a
consequence but the felony is not produced by reason of causes independent of the will of the
perpetrator.
a. Attempted
b. Consummated
c. Frustrated
d. Formal Crimes
548. Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a single act.

a.formal crimes
b.formal felonies
c.informal crimes
d.material crimes
549. It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement to commit a felony and decide to
commit it.
a. Proposal
b. Conspiracy
c. A & B
d. Cuadrilla
550. A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence shall be granted to any prisoner who,
having evaded the service of his sentence during calamity, gives himself up to the authorities
within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation announcing the passing away of the
calamity.
a. Good Conduct Time Allowance
b. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
c. Executive Clemency
d. Indeterminate Sentence
551. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the
lapse of certain time.
a. Prescription of Crime
b. Prescription of Penalty
c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the commission of crime
552. The forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to prosecute the offender after the lapse of
certain time.
a. Prescription of Crime
b. Prescription of Penalty
c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the commission of crime
553. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released subject
to conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
a. Parole
b. Pardon
c. Probation
d. Amnesty
554. Known as the “Indeterminate Sentence Law” or the Parole Law.
a. Act No. 4103 as amended
b. RA No. 4103 as amended
c. RA No. 4225 as amended
d. PD No. 968 as amended
555. What is the penalty of impossible crime? (Art. 59)
a. Arresto Menor
b. Arresto Mayor
c. Prision Correctional
d. Prision Mayor
556. It provides that the maximum duration of convict’s sentence shall not be more than 3 times
the length of the most severe of the penalties imposed upon him but in no case to exceed 40 years.
a. Three-fold rule
b. Three-fold liability rule
c. Four-fold rule
d. Four-fold liability rule
557. In case the offender cannot pay the fine, he shall serve the same in prison and shall be
credited ___ for each day of subsidiary imprisonment.
a. Php 8.00
b. Php 12.00
c. Php 35. 00
d. Highest minimum wage existing in the country
558. It is the expenses of litigation allowed by the Rules of Court to be assessed against or to be
recovered by a party in litigation.
a. Costs
b. Fine
c. Damages
d. Civil liability
559. Who may grant pardon?
a. The President
b. The private offended party
c. The accused
d. The People of the Philippines
560. If the detention prisoner does not agree to abide by the same disciplinary rules imposed upon
convicted prisoners, the credited preventive imprisonment is
a. Fulltime credit
b. 4/5 credit
c. 2/3 credit
d. 1/5 credit
561. Period of detention undergone by an accused where the crime with which he is charged is
non‐bailable or, even if bailable, he is unable to post the requisite bail. (Art. 39)
a. Solitary confinement
b. Preventive imprisonment
c. Inmate incarceration
d. Suppressive Detention
562. A penalty that deprive the offender of his (1) rights of parental authority, or guardianship;(2)
Marital authority; (3) The right to manage his property; and (4) The right to dispose of such
property by any act or any conveyance inter vivos.
a. Absolute disqualification
b. Temporary disqualification
c. Bond to keep the peace
d. Civil interdiction
563. It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished to a certain place and is prohibited from
entering or coming near that place designated in the sentence, not less than 25 kilometers but not
to extend beyond 250 kilometers.
a. Transportation
b. Deportation
c. Destierro
d. Extradition
564. Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except:

a. Capital
b. Afflictive
c. Correctional
d. Slight
e. Light
565. Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the imposition of penalty:
a. Retribution or expiation
b. Correction or reformation
c. Social defense
d. Public Rataliation
566. The punishment imposed by lawful authority upon a person who commits a deliberate or
negligent act which is against the law.
a. Penalty
b. Ordeal
c. Fine
d. Imprisonment
567. Article 20 provides for the exemption as accessories from criminal liability, EXCEPT:
a. Natural brother/ sister
b. Legitimate brother/ sister
c. Adopted brother/ sister
d. Brother-in-Law/ Sister-in-Law
e. Brother in a fraternity
568. One who: (a) concurs with the criminal design of the principals by direct participation; (b)
cooperates in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts, with the intention of
supplying material or moral aid in the execution of the crime in an efficacious way.
a. Principal by indispensable cooperation
b. Principal by inducement
c. Accomplice
d. Accessory
569. Principal who materially execute the crime. He appears at the crime scene and performs acts
necessary in the commission of the crime.
a. Principal by inducement/ induction
b. Principal by indispensable cooperation
c. Principal by direct participation
d. Principal by conspiracy
570. Who are criminally liable?

a. Principals
b. Accomplices
c. Accessories
571. Those which must be taken into consideration as aggravating or mitigating according to the
nature and effects of the crime and the other conditions attending its commission.
a. Extenuating
b. Mitigating
c. Alternative
d. Aggravating
572. It pertains to the moral order, which adds disgrace to the material injury caused by the crime.
It adds insult to injury or adds shame to the natural effects of the crime. It shocks the moral
conscience of man.
a. Cruelty
b. Ignominy
c. Outraging
d. Scoffing
573. Husband A treating his wife B and his child as a sex object, also forcing to watch obscene
indecent shows .Is A committed crime of Violence Against Women and Their Children?
a. Maybe NO
b. Yes
c. No
d. Maybe YES
574. The offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing information respecting the national defense
with intent, or there is reason to believe that information is to be used to the injury of the Republic
of the Philippines or to the advantage of any foreign nation.
a. Treason
b. Rebellion
c. Espionage
d. Mutiny
575. Other acts constituting the crime of espionage are punishable under
a. BP No. 616
b. PD No. 616
c. CA No. 616
d. RA No. 616
576. Committed when two countries are at war of which the Philippines is not involved and the
offender violates the regulation issued by the government enforcing neutrality.
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal
b. Violation of neutrality
c. Correspondence with hostile country
d. Flight to enemy’s country
577. A person who wrote a letter to an official of an enemy country despite government
prohibition is liable of this crime.
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal
b. Violation of neutrality
c. Correspondence with hostile country
d. Flight to enemy’s country
578. Robbery or depredation in the high seas, without lawful authority and done with animo
furandi and in the spirit and intention of universal hostility.
a. Mutiny
b. Piracy
c. Sea-jacking
d. Hi-jacking
579. The axe gang are raping women in all the places they go from Batanes to Sulu. Their acts sow
and created a widespread and extra-ordinary fear and panic among the populace. They demanded
from the government to release all prisoners entire the country for them to stop raping. Are they
liable for terrorism?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Doubtful
d. No answer
580. Which of the following is not a form of arbitrary detention?
a. Detaining a person without legal ground
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper authorities
c. Delaying release
d. Illegal Detention
581. A crime committed by a public officer/ employee who detains a person without legal ground.
c. Delaying release
e. No crime
582. A crime committed by a private individual who detains a person without legal ground.
c. Delaying release
583. Committed by a public officer who detains a person for some legal ground but fails to deliver
such person to the proper authority w/n the prescribed time.
c. Delaying release
584. A crime committed by a public officer who unduly delays the release of a person in his
custody in spite of a judicial/ executive order to release him.
c. Delaying release
585. A public officer who without authority compels a person to change his residence is guilty of
a. Grave Coercion
b. Grave Threat
c. Expulsion
d. Violation of Domicile
586. A public officer who procures a search warrant without just cause is liable of
a. Abuse in the service of search warrant
b. Warrant maliciously obtained
c. Searching domicile without witnesses
d. Violation of Domicile
587. An order in writing, issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and
directed to a peace officer, commanding him to SEARCH for personal property described therein
and bring it before the court.
a. Warrant of Arrest
b. Search Warrant
c. Subpoena
d. Summons
588. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the appreciation of that a paraffin test
has been held to be highly
a. Accepted
b. Determinate
c. Sensitive
d. Unreliable
589. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of the sentence must have been
served by a petitioner-prisoner?
a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
590. What is the oldest written penal law of the Philippines?
a. Codigo Penal
b. Code of Kalantiao
c. Code of Hammurabi
d. Maragtas Code
591. How penal laws are construed when the law is vague?
a. Liberally in favor of the government
b. Liberally in favor of the offended party
c. Liberally in favor of the accused
d. Liberally in favor of the innocent
592. Refers to crimes which are wrongful in their nature thus requires the highest condemnation of
the society.
a. Crimes mala prohibita
b. Crimes mala in se
c. Crimes supersedeas
d. Crimes flagrante delicto
593. This rule recognizes that the host country has jurisdiction over crimes committed on board the
vessel unless they involve the internal management of the vessel.
a. American Rule
b. English Rule
c. French Rule
d. Filipino Rule
594. Literally, “friend of the court”. Are experienced and impartial attorneys that may be invited
by the court to appear as amicus curiae’
a. Champertous contract
b. Amicus curiae
c. Amicus curiea
d. Champertuos contract
595. A contract whereby the lawyer agrees to pay the expenses of litigation in return for the
agreement of the client to pay the lawyer a portion of the thing or property that might be won or
recovered in the trial or litigation. This is unethical for the lawyer and hence illegal.
a. Champertous contract
b. Amicus curiae
c. Amicus curiea
d. Champertuos contract
596. The practice of filing multiple suits on different courts based on the same cause of action.
This is not allowed and is a ground for dismissal of the case filed by the guilty party.
a. contempt
b. forum shipping
c. forum shopping
d. direct contempt
597. It is a small ceremonial mallet commonly made of hardwood, and a symbol of the authority and
right to act officially in the capacity of a chair or presiding officer.
a. Gavel
b. Hammer
c. Wood hammer
598. The constitution provides for the prescribed dress code of all judges and it is called as.
a. Black robes
b. Black toga
c. Black dress
d.White robes
599. It is the lists of cases that are scheduled to be heard on a particular day usually placed or
posted outside the courtroom.
a. Court calendar
b. Supreme Court calendar
c. School calendar
d. Schedule calendar
600. Contempt committed in the presence of or so near a court or judge as to obstruct or interrupt
proceedings before it.
a. contempt
b. direct contempt
c. indirect contempt
d. disobedience

Criminal Law

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Criminal Law

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CRIMINAL LAW

1. Bong is liable of what crime?

3. What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit?

7. What if Manuel killed Grace?

21. For what crime Alden can be charged?

25. Lola A is liable for a crime as?

30. Alden is liable for a crime as?

38. What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case?

a. The damage was caused inadvertently

a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides

69. Who among the following may be granted conditional pardon?

d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his probation conditions

83. Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from criminal liability/

a. The accused does not appear to be guilty.

131. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:

148. When bail is a discretionary?

158. When reception of evidence is necessary under the following circumstances:

190. Prescription of offense commences to run:

191. When an appeal shall be taken?

194. In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the ____?

216. The modes of making an arrest are:

220. The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT:

228. The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.

d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a person in authority

b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful utterances

a. Falsification of public document

a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it

a. Pro reo Principle

312. Things which are wrongful in their nature.

322. The following are the elements of frustrated felonious, EXCEPT:

a. What crime was committed by A,B and C?

a. The RPC shall be observed

d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to the RPC

332. The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT

He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment. Determine his penalty.

363. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

366. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.

371. The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT:

379. What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds?

403. The following statement are false, EXCEPT:

434. What are secondary evidence?

a. Parol evidence Rule

474. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:

b. The offender is a public officer or employee

c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National Assembly

d. Through connivance with other convicts or employees of the penal institution.

494. Alevosia means

498. It means mistake in the blow.

a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt

548. Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a single act.

564. Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except:

570. Who are criminally liable?

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