CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE BOARD EXAMINATION Case Situation:

QUESTIONS COMPILATION Allan and Grace while walking towards home

were approached by Lenie. The latter who is armed
Case Situation: with a gun declared hold-up while poking the said gun
Bong surreptitiously went into the premises of Esco. upon Allan. Lenie demanded for their wallet and gave
Not knowing that Esco was inside the house, he burned the
the same to him for fear of their lives. Lenie with
house that resulted also to the death of Esco.
intent to gain, employed intimidation in taking the
1. Bong is liable of what crime? personal property of Allan and Grace.
a. Arson 8. What crime committed by Lenie?
b. Murder a. Theft
c. Homicide b. snatching
d. Arson with Murder c. Robbery
2. However if Bong knew that Esco was inside the house and
d. Grave Threat
his purpose of burning is to kill Esco.What crime
committed by Bong? Case Situation:
a. Arson Manuel entered the house of Lenie by
b. Murder breaking the main door. Once inside, Manuel with
c. Homicide intent to gain took the LCD Television.
d. Arson with Murder 9. Manuel is liable of what crime?
Case Situation:
Marcos and Chiz conspired to kill Llanes. They a. Robbery
mutually helped one another in abducting Llanes. Before they b. Theft
shoot Llanes, Marcos intentionally cut off his right ear. c. Malicious mischief
d. snatchig
3. What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit?
a. Homicide 10. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main
b. Murder door without breaking it since it was left unlocked and
c. Homicide with Mutilation thereafter took the LCD Television of Lenie. Manuel is
d. Murder with serious physical injur liable of a crime of.
4. What if Marcos and Chiz did not cut off the right ear, a. Robbery
instead they soak Llanes into a boiling water. What are did
b. Theft
they commit?
a. Homicide c. Malicious mischief
b. Murder d. snatching
c. Homicide with Mutilation 11. What if Manuel entered the house through the main door
d. Murder with serious without breaking it since it was left opened and thereafter
5. What if Marcos and Chiz did not conspired to kill Llanes took the LCD Television, however, when he is supposed to
but they just saw the latter while walking and intentionally leave, Lenie arrived, thus Manuel was forced to pass at the
they shoot which resulted to the death of Llanes. What
back door which was locked by breaking it. Manuel is
crime did they commit?
a. Homicide liable of what crime?
b. Murder a. Robbery
c. Frustrated homicide b. Theft
d. Attempted murder c. Malicious mischief
Case Situation: d. snatching
Grace and Jomar begot a child named 12. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main
Manuel without being married. Grace and Jomar door by opening it with the use of an ATM card to open
parted their ways. Grace got married to Bong, the door lock without breaking it. Upon entry he took the
however, they were not blessed to have a child of LCD Television. Manuel is liable of a crime of?
their own, and thus, they had legally adopted Manuel. a. Robbery
One afternoon, Manuel killed Jomar while the latter b. Theft
was sleeping. c. Malicious mischief
6. What crime committed by Manuel? d. Robbery with Theft
a. Parricide Case Situation:
The pig of Mang Rodrigo entered in the farm
b. Homicide
of Manuel and destroyed the mongo crop of the
c. Murder
latter. As a consequence, Mang Rodrigo got furious,
d. Infanticide
thus, he hacked the pig with a bolo. The pig dies as a
7. What if Manuel killed Grace?
result.
13. What crime is committed by Mang Rodrigo?
b. Homicide
a. Parricide c. Murder a. theft
d. Infanticide b. property damaged

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 c. malicious mischief 23. What if it is the father of Alden who killed the infant?
d. robbery a. homicide b. parricide
14. Supposing that after killing the pig, Mang Rodrigo makes c. murder d. infanticide
24. What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What crime is
use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked
committed by Alden, Maine or the father of Alden?
some. What crime committed by Mang Rodrigo? a. homicide b. parricide
a. theft c. murder d. infanticide
b. property damaged Case Situation:
c. malicious mischief Lola A, Lola B and Lola C robbed a bank. Lola A and B
d. robbery entered the bank and took all the money from the teller while
15. Supposed it was a Carabao that destroyed the mongo Lola C remains outside the bank and served as look-out.
25. Lola A is liable for a crime as?
crops of Manuel. What crime committed by Manuel?
a. principal by inducement
a. theft b.principal by direct participation
b. malicious mischief c. principal by indispensable cooperation
c. Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law d.principal
d. robbery 26. Lola B is liable for a crime as?
16. Supposed after killing the Carabao Mang Rodrigo makes a. principal by inducement
use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked b.principal by direct participation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
some, what crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
d.principal
a. theft 27. Lola C is liable for a crime as?
b. malicious mischief a. principal by inducement
c.Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law b.principal by direct participation
d. robbery c. principal by indispensable cooperation
17. Validity of Search Warrant d.principal
28. What if Lola C who actually entered the bank and took all
a. when the judge sign the money from the teller?
a. principal by inducement
b. upon serve
b.principal by direct participation
c. from the date indicated therein
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
d. from the date receive by officer d.principal
18. Quantum of proof required whether to file an information 29. What if Lola A who was outside the bank and served as
or complaint in court? look-out??
a. probable cause a. principal by inducement
b. personal knowledge b.principal by direct participation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
c. substancial
d.principal
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt Case Situation:
19. If the search is illegal the things seized is? Alden induces Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice to kill
a. competent Aldub who is living on an island far from the town, in
b. irrelevant consideration of the amount of 500,000.00. Lola Dora, te
c. inadmissible owner of the only boat in the place agreed to transport Yaya
d. admissible Dub, Pastillas and Vice and actually transported them in a
place in consideration of 10,000.00,Lola Dora agreed despite
20. t is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved.
knowing the criminal purpose of Yaya Dub,Pastillas and Vice.
It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of Upon reaching the place, Yaya Dub held the hands of Aldub
action? while Pastillas stabs Yayadub and as a result, Aldub dies.
a. Factum probandum Viceremains as look-out.
b. Evidence
c. factum probans 30. Alden is liable for a crime as?
a. principal by inducement
d. factum prubans
b.principal by direct participation
Case Situation:
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
Alden got married to Maine Mendoza. After 4years
d.principal
from of being husband and wife, they were not blessed with a
31. Yaya Dub is also liable for a crime as?
child. Alden had an illicit relation with Ms. Pastillas. Ang a
a. principal by inducement
neighbor), who gave birth to child (C). Maine learned about
b.principal by direct participation
Alden’s relation with Ms. Pastillas. To cover their illicit relation,
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
Alden intentionally killed his illegitimate infant at its 72 hours
d.principal
age.
32. Vice Pastillas so liable for a crime as?
21. For what crime Alden can be charged?
a. principal by inducement
a. homicide b. parricide
b.principal by direct participation
c. murder d. infanticide
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
22. What if it is Maine who killed the infant?
d.principal
a. homicide b. parricide
33. Lola Dora as the owner of the only boat is liable of a crime
c. murder d. infanticide
as?
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 a. principal by inducement 4.They should be transferred to mental institution of
b.principal by direct participation proper psychiatric treatment
c. principal by indispensable cooperation a. 2, 3 and 4
d.principal
b. 3, 4 and 1
34. What if there are several boats available to transport, Lola
Dora is liable of a crime as? c. 4, 1 and 2
a. principal d. 1, 2 and 3
b.accessories 42. Which of the following is not an element of malicious
c. accomplice mischief?
d.principal by indispensable cooperation a. The damage was caused inadvertently
35. What if Pastillas just bury the cadaver of Aldub and he has b. The damage caused does not fall with the provisions
knowledge about the crime Pastillas is liable of a crime as?
of arson
a. principal
b.accessories c. The offender has caused damage to the property of
c. accomplice another
d.principal by indispensable cooperation d. The damage was caused deliberately
26. This theory views crime and delinquency as a 43. In special law, the imposed penalty is two years to seven
result of the frustration and anger people experience years. Applying the indeterminate sentence law, how many
over their inability to achieve legitimate social and years?
financial success.
a. 1
a. strain theory
b. psychological theories b. 2
c. differential association theory c. 7
d. labeling theory d. 8
36. A and B one neighbors who case to play “tako” ane day, A 44. George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, was
persuaded B to steal the bike of C.In the study of criminal arrested at the NAIA arrival lounge and found positive for
law what is the term used for it?
opium, a dangerous drug. When arrested, 15 grams of
a. Conspiracy
b. Proposal cocaine were found in his bagpack. What offense would
c. Entrapment you charge George under R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive
d. Instigation Dangerous Drug Act)?
37. In tumultuous affray ender Article 251 of the RPC how a. Importation of dangerous drugs.
person may are included? b. Possession of dangerous drugs.
a. 3 c. Use and possession of dangerous drugs
b. 8
d. Use of dangerous drugs
c. 4
d. 6 45. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the
38. What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case? appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly
a. Preponderance of evidence a. Accepted
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt b. Determinate
c. Probable cause c. Sensitive
d. Substantial Evidence d. Unreliable
39. In Revise Penal Code, the intentional or malicious
46. In the Criminal Law, the Court personnel next in rank to the
destruction of property by means of fire is called.
a. Arson presiding judge in the lower court is the Branch Clerk of
b. Combustion Court. In the absence of the judge, the branch clerk of court
c. Disposition may hear simple case of unjust vexation.
d. Murder a. Possible
40. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from b. No
among citizens of c. It depends
a. Good repute and probity d. Yes
b. High educational level 47. Who among the following can apply for release under the
c. Good religious background Law on Recognizance?
d. High social standing a. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty
41. Which of the following procedures should be observed is three (3) years and above
in handling drug addicts who are incarcerated? b. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty
1.They should be segrageted especially during the is Twelve (12) months and above
withdrawal period c. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty
2.They should be closely supervised to prevent is not morethan Six (6) months
attempts to commit suicide or d. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty
self-mutilation is Six (6) months and above
3.They should not be administered 48. A hostile witness is one whose testimony is not favorable to
sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a the cause of the party who called him as a witness. Can
physician leading question be asked?

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 a. It depends latin word "probitio" and had historical roots in the pratice of
b. No judicial repreive?
c. Partially a. Live with integrity
d. Yes b. Testing period
49. What is the function responsibility of prison guards? c. Walk with faith
a. Inmates health d. Out of the institution
b. Prison security 57. In the study of crime, what is the distinction, if any, between
c. Prison's Interpersonal relations a felony and a crime?
d. Prison industry a. Crime and felony are the same
50. A has grudge against B. He went to the house of B and look b. Crime covers felonies
for the latter. However, B was on vacation in the province. In c. No distinction whatsoever
his spite, he destroyed the door of B. Later on, he noticed d. The source of felony is a RPC
that the door could be useful. So, he brought it to his house. 58. Mayor saw A and B boxing each other. He approached the two
What crime was committed? and identified himself as a mayor and attempted to pacify
a. Robbery them whereupon B attacked mayor. C, a bystander came to
b. Maliscious Mischief aid of the Mayor. Upon seeing C helping the mayor, A attacked
c. Attempted Qualified Trespass to Dwelling C. What crime was committed by the one who attacked C?
d. Theft a. Direct assault
51. What do you call the court that co-equal to the Court of b. Indirect assault
Appeals? c. None
a. Sandiganbayan d. Physical injury
b. Court of first instance 59. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a thick
c. Supreme court wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in every
d. Tanodbayan corner, a tower post is manned by heavily armed guards:
52. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what a. Maximum security facility
portion of the sentence must have been served by a b. Medium security facility
petitioner-prisoner? c. Super maximum security facility
a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his d. Minimum security facility
indeterminate sentence 60. Ramon witnessed the commission of a crime but he refuses
b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his to testify for fear of his life despite a subpoena being served
indeterminate sentence on him. Can the court punish him for contempt?
c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his a. No, since no person can be compelled to be a
indeterminate sentence witness against another.
d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his b. No, since Ramon has a valid reason for not
indeterminate sentence testifying.
53. Is there a complex crime when crime is committed to conceal c. Yes , since litigants need help in presenting their
another crime? 2 CRIMES case.
a. It depends d. Yes, since public interest in justice requires his
b. No testimony.
c. Partially 61. What documents are attached to the Release Document of
d. Yes the Parolee?
54. What is the primary purpose of the pre-sentence Prison record
investigation? Name of the Parolee and Probation Officer
a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate Location of the Prison or Confinement
sentence of the offender Order of Court
b. To exonerate the offender a. 4 and 1
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend b. 1 and 2
himself c. 3 and 4
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case d. 2 and 3
55. The following are rights of a witness under the rules of court 62. We known that the Lord Jesus Christ, our savior, was brutally
EXCEPT: crucified in the Middle East some 2100 years ago. According
a. To be examine only as to matters pertinent to the to our criminal/ penal law, What aggravating circumstance
issue will you use to those who consfired in the killing?
b. Not to give an answer which will tend to subject him a. Abused of Superior Strength
to a penaly of an offense b. Conspiracy
c. To remain silent c. Intimidation
d. To be protected from irrelevant questions d. Treachery
56. What is meant by the concept of probation which is from the 63. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides

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 undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer. a. 10-day period
However, control over the probationer and probation b. 30-day period
program is exercised by c. 15-day period
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she d. 60-day period
resides 71. Within how many days after the expiration of the period to
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator execute the warrant of arrest that the officer to whom it was
c. The Secretary of Justice assigned for the execution shall make a report to the judge
d. The Court who place him on probation who issued the warrant?
64. According to the control theory, crime and delinquency result a. 10
with an individual bond to _____________ is weak and b. 15
broken. c. 20
a. Behavior d. 30
b. Police 72. Which of the following is a crime against the Fundamental
c. Law Law of the State?
d. Society a. Espionage
65. Which of the following offenses may be prosecuted by a b. Piracy
person other than (not) the offended party? c. Treason
a. Abduction d. Violation of Domicile; if private person- Qualified
b. Act of lasciviousness trespass to dwelling
c. Seduction 73. The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina of
d. Falsification concubinage. Pending appeal, they applied for bail, claiming
66. What types of questions are allowed to be asked to a witness they are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is their claim
who is unwilling to testify? correct?
a. Intelligent a. No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight.
b. Leading b. No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction.
c. Misleading c. Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not invloving
d. Unresponsive moral turpitude.
67. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment d. Yes, bail is a matter of right in the Metropolitan
is imposed on the offender to allow society to vent its anger Trial Court before and after conviction.
toward and exact vengeance upon the criminal? 74. X went to the United States. While he was there,
a. Retribution encountered Y an American. They eventually got
b. Restoration married. When X returned to the Philippines, his wife Z
c. Rehabilitation filed an action against him for violating their marriage.
d. Deterrence What is X liable to?
68. The following are the elements of maliscious mischief: a. Adultery
i. The offender deliberately caused damage b. Bigamy
to property c. Concubinage
ii. Such act does not constitute arson or other d. Polygamy
crimes involving destruction 75. Leave of Court is required to amend a complaint or
iii. Such acts also constitute other crimes information before arraignment if the
involving destruction amendment_______________.
iv. The act of damaging anothers property was a. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a
committed merely for the sake of damaging higher to a lower offense or excludes any
it accused
b. I, III, IV b. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a
c. I, II, IV higher to a lower offense and adds another
d. I, II, III accused
e. II, III, IV c. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower
69. Who among the following may be granted conditional to a higher offense and excludes any of the
pardon? accused
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government d. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower
physician to a higher offense and adds another accused
b. A prisoner who served as "bastonero" 76. In Criminal law and Jurisprudence, there are two acts-
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above internal and external act. Which of the two acts is
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his indispensable for the act to be punishable as a crime?
probation conditions a. External act
70. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to court b. Intentional act
within_________. c. Internal act

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 d. Unintentional act b. Bureau of Correction
77. In criminal procedure, who conducts the direct c. Parole and Probation Administration
examination? d. Office of the Executive Secretary
a. Opponent 86. What law prohibits the imposition of death penalty in the
b. PAO lawyer philippines?
c. Proponent a. R.A 7659
d. Prosecution b. R.A 7965
78. The system of key control in a jail includes: c. R.A 8177
a. An updated system of monitoring and control d. R.A 9346
of keys 87. For search to be considered as an incident of the arrest, it
b. A documented inventory of security personnel must be made at the place where the:
c. A collector of all padlocks and keys a. Contraband was found
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting b. Police station is located
them c. Arrest was effected
79. The following are classified as crimes against chastity, d. Crime was forced
EXCEPT: 88. Bearing in mind the distinction between private and public
a. Simple Seduction document, which of the folowing is admissible in evidence
b. Adultery without further proof of due execution or genuiness?
c. White Slave Trade a. Baptismal Certificates.
d. Sexual Harassment b. Documents acknowledged before a Notary Public in
80. The following are considered minor offenses of an Hongkong
inmate, EXCEPT: c. Official record of the Philippines Embassy in
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate Singapore certified by the Vice-consul with official
b. Failing to stand at attention and give due seal
respect when confronted by or reporting to any d. Unblimished receipt dated December 20, 1985
officer or member of the custodial force signed by the promise, showing payment of a loan,
c. Willful watse of food found among the well-kept file of the promissor.
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and 89. A drug user who is placed under probation may be made to
orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings serve his sentence by the court if he
81. The following are classified as crimes against honor, a. Becomes unruly and undicipline
EXCEPT: b. Commits another offense
a. Premature Marriage c. He is 21 years old
b. libel d. Violates any of the conditions of the probation
c. Incriminating innocent person 90. Which evidence is presented to vary the terms of a written
d. Slanderp agreement, there is the application of
82. A complaint may be filed by any of the following, EXCEPT: the____________evidence rule.
a. Offender a. Documentary
b. The offender party b. Best
c. Other public officers c. Written
d. Any peace officers d. Parol
83. Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from 91. X, a doctor, put a poison on the food of his wife. When she
criminal liability/ eat the food, moments later, she suffered excruciating pain
a. It depends in the stomach. Seeing his in agony, X got pity on his wife and
b. No administered an antidote. Thus, the wife did not die. What
c. Sometimes crime was committed by X?
d. Yes a. Attempted Parricide
84. X tried to kill Y by poisoning. One morning, X put sugar on b. Frustrated Parricide
the food of Y thinking that it was arsenic. Instead of c. Serious Physical Injuries
dying, Y suffered diabetes. In this case, the crime is not d. No crime
committed because the material he mixed on the foods 92. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of
is probation in the United States?
a. Impossible a. Sir Walter crofton
b. Inadequate b. Alexander Maconochie
c. Ineffectual c. John murry spear
d. Intentional d. John Augustus
85. The president grants absolute/conditional pardon based 93. A petition for the grant of basolute or conditional pardon
on the recommendation of: shall be favorably endorsed to the Board by the________ if
a. Board of Pardon and Parole the crime committed by the petitioner is against national

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 security. 101. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision
a. Secretary of foreign Affairs correccional. Will he qualify for probation?
b. Secretary of Justice a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
c. Secretary of National Defense b. No, his sentence is morethan Six (6) years and One
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government (1) day
94. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be c. Yes, his sentence is less than Six (6) years and One
treated__________. (1) day
a. Comprehensively d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
b. Appopriately 102. There are four (4) acknowledged goals of ___________ as
c. Confidentially follows: retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, and
d. Judiciously rehabilitation.
95. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of a. Criminal intent
residents with crimes which are not usually reported to the b. Criminal mind
police. What are these studies called? c. Criminal sanction
a. Population Surveys d. Criminal action
b. Police surveys 103. The city prosecutor charged Ben with serious physical injuries
c. Victimization surveys for stabbing terence. He was tried and convicted as charged.
d. Information surveys A few days later, Terence died due to severe infection of his
96. What term denotes a new or fresh trial when an appellate stab wounds. Can the prosecution file another information
court sends a case back to lower court for new trial? against Ben for homicide?
a. Trial by publicity a. No, double jeopardy is present since Ben had
b. Trial by jury already been convicted of the first offense.
c. Trial by default b. No, there is double jeopardy since serious physical
d. Trial de novo injuries is necessarily included in the charged of
97. Facts already known or ought to be known by judge by homicide.
reason of their office and of which they may properly take c. Yes, since supervening event altered the kind of
and act without proof re called matters of: crime the accused committed.
a. Priveleged communication d. Yes, since Terence's death shows irregularity in the
b. Judicial notice filing of the earlier charge against him.
c. Pleadings 104. Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately
d. Judgment released provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been
98. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of prison previously convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
sentence? a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the maximum
a. Commutation of sentence penalty for the offense he may be found guilty of is
b. Parole destierro
c. Absolute pardon b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum
d. Conditional pardon penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is
99. Which among the following is a requisite before an accused prision correccional
may be discharged to become a state witness? c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum
penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is
a. The accused does not appear to be guilty. reclusion perpetua
b. The accused has not at any time been convicted of d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or
any offense. morethan the possible maximum term of
c. The testimony of the accused sought to be punishment of the offense he maybe found guilty
discharged can be substantially of.
corroborated on all points. 105. A science involving technical knowledge about the traces of
d. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the crime is known as:
accused hose discharge is requested. a. Forensic medicine
100. Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be held b. Physical science
liable for rape: c. Forensic science
a. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in the d. Criminalistic Technology
victims drink to enable her husband to have 106. To be considered an accessory, the author of the crime must
intercourse with the victim's. be guilty of any of the following, EXCEPT:
b. When the offender uses an instrument and inserts it a. Murder
in the mouth of the victim's. b. Treason
c. When the rape is committed by two or more c. Parricide
person's. d. Infanticide
d. With the use of force or intimidation. 107. The following are crimes against national security and the

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 law of nations EXCEPT one: d. fixed
a. Violation of neutrality 116. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted
b. Rebellion either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the
offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the
c. Treason
defense and the accused presumed innocent.
d. Espionage a. inquisitorial
108. Which of the following is NOT classified as a crime committed b. mixed
by public officers? c. accusatorial
a. Forgery d. fixed
b. Official breaking seal 117. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC,
c. Malversation MCTC.
a. R.A. 7691
d. Refusal of assistance
b. R.A. 8493
109. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little c. BP 129
more care than the other inmates. Which of the following d. R.A. 1379
should NOT be done by a jail officer? 118. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff court, EXCEPT:
regularly a. Extent of penalty
b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his prescribed b. Person accused
c. territory
diet
d. subject matter
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate 119. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient inmate peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of
110. The following are aggravating circumstances EXCEPT: the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of
a. Movement of the offender is restricted the prosecutor.
b. Cruelty a. Complaint
b. Pleadings
c. Adding ignominy
c. Information
d. Taking advantage of superior strength d. Affidavit
111. When taking up arms against the government was 120. Prescription of offense commence to run:
undertaken by members of the military, what law was a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
violated? Republic Act________. party or peace officers or their agent.
a. 9165 b. Upon filing of cases in court.
b. 7610 c. Upon escape of the accused.
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
c. 6506
d. 6968 121. The following are cases covered by rules on summary
112. The following properties may be taken by the officer procedure, EXCEPT:
effecting the arrest, EXCEPT those: a. Where the penalty is six months Imprisonment
a. That may be used for escaping b. Violation of traffic laws
b. Used in the commission of a crime c. Violation of rental laws
d. Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6) months
c. That are within the immediate vicinity
imprisonment
d. Which are means of committing violence
122. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central
113. Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has nervous system and are commonly referred to as
undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the “uppers”?
maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged a. Amphetamines
with? b. Naptha
a. Batas Pambansa 95 c. Barbiturates
d. Diazepam
b. Batas Pambansa 85
123. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio
c. Batas Pambansa 105 without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
d. Batas Pambansa 965 EXCEPT:
114. An advantageous result in the integration of correctional a. Rape
agencies is: b. Abduction
a. More physical facilities to maintain c. Seduction
b. More prisoners to supervise d. Adultery and Concubinage
124. Complaint or Information shall charge only one offense.
c. Divided resources such as manpower and finances
This is the rule on:
d. Better coordination of services and increased cost- a. Duplicity of offense
efficiency b. Complex crime
115. It is the system or criminal procedure which is c. compound crime
characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of d. continuing crime
the defense and prosecution to appeal. 125. In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional Mandates
a. Inquisatorial an arresting officer should inform the person to be
b. mixed arrested of his rights?
c. accusatorial a. Art. III Sec. 12
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 b. b.Miranda Doctrine c. 10 days
c. R.A. 7438 d. 30 days
d. Rule 115 134. Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may
126. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous be bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
Drugs Act of 2002, providing Funds Therefore and for a. Arrest
Other Purposes. b. Warrant
a. RA 9165 c. jurisdiction
b. RA 1956 d. Seizure
c. RA 9156 135. Validity of the warrant of arrest?
d. RA 1965 a. no fixed duration
127. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug b. 30 days
incidents? c. 20 days
a. Reclusion Perpetua d. 10 days
b. Life Imprisonment 136. Lifetime of search warrant?
c. Death a. 10 days
d. Fine b. 20 days
109. Complaint and information can be amended to ____ c. 5 days
after plea and during the trial with leave of court and without d. No fixed duration
causing prejudice to the rights of the accused. 137. Within how many days upon the date of execution of a
a. form warrant of arrest the person charged with its execution
b. substance and form shall report to the court which issue such warrant when
c. substance arrest was not been made?
d. none of these a. 10 days
128. A petition for suspension of criminal action upon the b. 30 days
pendency of a prejudicial question in a civil action may be c. 20 days
filed: d. 5 days
a. before the prosecution rests 138. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing
b. before arraignment the law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan.
c. before preliminary investigation a. instigation
d. before plea b. investigation
129. Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a logical c. entrapment
antecedent of the issue involved therein, and the d. Entertainment
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal. 139. In flagrante delicto means _____?
a. Prejudicial question a. caught in the act
b. inquest proceeding b. instigation
c. preliminary investigation c. caught after commission
d. custodial investigation d. entrapment
130. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is 140. When arrest may be made?
sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a a. At any time of the day and night
crime has been committed and the respondent is probably b. At day time
guilty thereof, and should be held for trial. c. At night time
a. preliminary investigation d. from sun dust till dawn
b. inquest proceeding 141. When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ the
c. prejudicial question warrant of arrest in his possession?
d. custodial investigation a. Need not have
131. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases b. Should always have
punishable by: c. may sometime have
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one d. need to have
(1) day 142. It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement
b. more than four years, two months and one day officer after a person has been taken into custody.
c. less than four years, two months and one day a. custodial investigation
d. six years, one day and above b. inquest
132. The following persons are authorized to conduct c. interview
preliminary investigation, EXCEPT: d. interrogation
a. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court 143. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even
b. Provincial and city prosecutors and their without a warrant?
assistants a. When the crime was committed in the presence
c. Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and Municipal of the arresting officer.
Circuit Trial Courts b. When the crime was in fact been committed and
d. National and Regional state prosecutors; there is personal knowledge based on probable
e. a and c cause that the person to be arrested has
133. After the filing of the Complaint or Information in court committed it.
without a preliminary investigation within how many days c. When the person to be arrested is an escapees.
an accused person upon knowing the filing of said d. All of the choices
complaint may ask for preliminary investigation? 144. It is a security given for the temporary release of a person
a. 5 days in custody of the law.
b. 15 days a. Bail
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 b. parole b. Presumption of guilt
c. fine c. Hornbook doctrine
d. conditional pardon d. due process of law
145. Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused person failed 154. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
to appear at the trial without justification and despite due assist destitute litigant?
notice. a. Counsel de officio
a. In absentia b. counsel de parte
b. in flagrante de licto c. Public Attorney’s Office
c. on the merits d. National Prosecution Office
d. none of these 155. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend
146. When Bail is a matter of right? and to testify or to bring with him any books or documents
a. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan, under his control at the trial of an action.
Municipal or Municipal Circuit trial court. a. subpoena
b. Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court b. subpoena ducestecum
c. before conviction by the Regional Trial Court c. subpoena ad testificandum
d. upon preliminary investigation d. d. warrant of arrest
147. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT: 156. Unless shorter period is provided by special law or
a. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to death Supreme Court Circular, the arraignment shall be held
b. crime punishable by life imprisonment within ___ days from the date the court acquires
c. crimes punishable by death jurisdiction over the person of the accused.
d. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or life a. 30 days
imprisonment when evidence of guilt is strong b. 10 days
148. When bail is a discretionary? c. 15 days
a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by d. 5 days
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment. 157. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___
b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years shall be entered.
but not more than 20 years who is a recidivist. a. Not guilty
c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years b. admission by silence
but not more than 20 years when there is undue c. guilty
risk that he may commit another crime during d. none
the pendency of the appeal. 158. When reception of evidence is necessary under the
d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years following circumstances:
but not more than 20 years who has previously a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
escaped from legal confinement. b. plea of guilty to capital offense
149. Is an offense which, under the existing law at the time of c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
its commission and at the time of the application for d. all of these
admission to bail may be punished with death. 159. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a
a. capital offense motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint
b. less grave or information and the details desired in order to enable
c. heinous crime him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion
d. grave felony is known as:
150. The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT: a. motion for bill of particular
a. Property Bond b. motion for clarification
b. Cash Bond c. motion to dismiss
c. Corporate surety bond d. motion for postponement
d. Recognizance 160. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be
e. None of the choices suspended on the following grounds:
151. When the maximum penalty to which the accused may be a. The accused appears to be suffering from
sentenced is destierro, he shall be released after ____ of unsound mental condition.
preventive imprisonment. b. There exist a prejudicial question.
a. 30 days c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the
b. 20 days prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office
c. 15 days of the President .
d. 60 days d. All of the choices
152. Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon: 161. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by
a. acquittal of the accused an accused is:
b. execution of the judgment of conviction a. Motion to quash
c. dismissal of the case b. nolleprosequi
d. all of the choices c. Motion to dismiss
153. It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory facts and d. bill of particulars
circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation, 162. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and
one which is consistent with the innocence of the accused punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or
and the other consistent with his guilt, or they are evenly punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite
balanced. The constitutional presumption of innocence period from the commission of the offense.
should tilt the scale in favor of the accused and he must a. Prescription of crime
be acquitted. b. acquisitive
a. Equipoise rule c. prescription of penalty
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 d. extinctive 173. Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an
163. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the accused to be state witness:
danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the a. there is absolute necessity for the testimony of
second time. the accused.
a. double jeopardy b. said accused does not appear to be the most
b. double trial guilty
c. double trouble c. said accused has not been convicted of a crime
d. double counter involving moral turpitude/
164. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by d. all of the choices
imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any 174. After the prosecution rest its case, the accused person
amount or both shall become permanent after ____. may move for the dismissal of the case on:
a. one year a. on its own initiative after giving the prosecution
b. 2 years an opportunity to be heard.
c. 5 years b. Demurrer to evidence
d. d. 4 years c. motion for reconsideration
165. Within how many days after arraignment and from the d. motion for new trial
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the 175. It is the judicial examination and determination of the
accused shall order a pre-trial conference? issue in an action or proceeding, civil or criminal.
a. 30 days a. pre-trial
b. 15 days b. trial
c. 20 days c. plea bargaining
d. d. 60 days d. Judgment
166. How many days are given to an accused person to prepare 176. Is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? or not guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of
a. 15 days the proper penalty and civil liability.
b. 20 days a. judgment
c. 30 days b. rendition of judgment
d. 180 days c. promulgation of judgment
167. The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days from d. conviction
receipt of the pre-trial order? 177. It is the degree of proof which does not excluding the
a. 30 days possibility of error, produces absolute certain. Moral
b. 15 days certainty only is required.
c. 20 days a. acquittal
d. 60 days b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
168. The trial court have how many days from the first day of c. clear and convincing
trial to terminate the same? d. preponderance of evidence
a. 60 days 178. It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that the
b. 365 days evidence does not show that his guilt is proof beyond
c. 180 days reasonable doubt.
d. 150 days a. dismissal
169. The trial of a case can be made in absentia except on the b. conviction
following circumstances: c. acquittal
a. at the arraignment and plea d. judgment
b. during the trial whenever necessary for 179. Judgment becomes final when?
identification purposes a. the period for perfecting an appeal lapse.
c. at the promulgation of sentence, unless for a b. when the sentence is partially of totally satisfied
light offense or served.
d. all of the choices c. when the accused waived in writing his right to
170. The order of trial is: appeal.
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal d. when he appealed for probation
b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross e. all of the choices
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct 180. Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal conviction becomes final.
171. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, a. Motion for new trial
mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative b. Motion for reconsideration
device to assist him in testimony. c. Motion to dismiss
a. Testimonial aids d. All of these
b. Emotional security items 181. Who represents the State in an action for appeal?
c. support a. prosecutor
d. none of these b. Secretary of DOJ
172. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages c. appellant
of examination of a child, if the same will further the d. Solicitor General
interest of justice. 182. The party appealing the case shall be called?
a. leading questions a. appellant
b. relevant b. accused
c. misleading c. Appellee
d. Narrative d. Defendant
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183. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit 193. When search must be made?
where the power of the court is exercised and which is a. in the day time
jurisdictional in criminal case. b. only during sunrise
a. Venue c. any time of the day and night
b. Jurisprudence d. in the presence of two witnesses
c. jurisdiction 194. In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the
d. court ____?
184. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first a. Plaintiff
instance. b. Private offended party
a. Original jurisdiction c. defendant
b. Exclusive jurisdiction d. Respondent
c. concurrent jurisdiction 195. A complaint or information have the same legal content,
d. appellate jurisdiction however, they differ as to who subscribe to it, who
185. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of subscribe an information?
the others. a. Accused
a. Original jurisdiction b. Prosecutor
b. Exclusive jurisdiction c. Witness
c. appellate jurisdiction d. victim
d. concurrent jurisdiction 196. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court,
186. It is the system or criminal procedure which is the following officers are authorized to conduct
characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of preliminary investigation except?
the defense and prosecution to appeal. a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
a. Inquisitorial b. Judge MTC/MCTC
b. mixed c. Regional State Prosecutor
c. accusatorial d. Public Attorney’s office
d. fixed e. b and d
187. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted 197. An Special Law which defines certain rights of accused,
either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties
offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
defense and the accused is innocent. a. R.A. 7438
a. inquisitorial b. R.A. 7348
b. mixed c. R.A. 7834
c. accusatorial d. d. R.A. 3478
d. fixed 198. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused
188. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This
EXCEPT: principle also known as:
a. Extent of penalty a. rights against illegal arrest
b. Person accused b. the right to presume innocent
c. territory c. rights against self- incrimination
d. subject matter d. right to live
189. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any 199. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following
peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of pleading are prohibited except:
the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of a. motion to quash
the prosecutor. b. bill of particular
a. Complaint c. answer
b. Pleadings Section d. demurred to evidence
c. Information 200. The following cases committed by public official with
salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive
d. Affidavit
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
190. Prescription of offense commences to run: a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two
party or peace officers or their agent. of the RPC
b. Upon filing of cases in court. b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
c. Upon escape of the accused. connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused 14-A.
191. When an appeal shall be taken? c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to
a. within 10 days their office.
b. within 30 days d. None of the choices
c. within 15 days 201. It is the law which classifies rape from crime against
d. within 5 days chastity to crimes against person, making crime
192. Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT? prosecutable even without a complaint filed the offender
a. Subject of the offense party?
b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits a. R.A. 8353
of the offense b. R.A. 9283
c. Used or intended to be used as the means of c. R.A. 8493
committing an offense d. d. R.A. 7055
d. Firearm

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202. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed d. Said accused must appear to be innocent as char
instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as 211. P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government Code of
provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances 1991. Under the said code, the Lupon of each barangay
can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be shall have authority to bring together the parties actually
separated? residing in the same city or municipality for amicable
a. When the offended party waives the civil action; settlement where the offense committed is punishable by
b. When the offended party reserves his right to imprisonment exceeding one (1) year. This statement is:
institute the civil action; a. absolutely true
c. When the institution of the civil action is made b. partly true
prior to the criminal action. c. absolutely false
d. all of the choices d. partly false
203. What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions? 212. In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with the:
a. It extinguishes the civil liability arising from a. Office of the President
delict. b. Office of the Clerk of Court
b. Independent civil action instituted may be c. Office of the Prosecutor
continued against the estate or legal d. Office of the Ombudsman
representative of the accused. 213. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or
c. If the accused dies before arraignment, the case information are the following, EXCEPT:
shall be dismissed without prejudice to any civil a. It must be in writing
action the offended party may file against the b. It must be in the name of the People of the
estate of the deceased. Philippines.
d. all of the choices c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
204. Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee may d. It must be filed in court
be released on bail in the following manner, except: 214. Z as husband dies before he could institute the criminal
a. property bond action for adultery against his wife and the paramour. The
b. performance bond case may:
c. corporate surety a. No longer be prosecuted
d. recognized b. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
205. Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a case c. Still be prosecuted
a. after arraignment d. Be prosecuted by the State
b. after the defense has rested its case 215. The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf
c. after trial of incapacitated individual with no known parents,
d. after the prosecution had rested its case grandparents or guardian is known as:
206. The accused may questioned the legality of his arrest ___ a. Doctrine of parens patriae
otherwise the said accused could no longer questioned b. Doctrine of non-suability
the same and that the arrest is presumed by the court as c. police power
valid. d. habeas corpus
a. before arraignment 216. The modes of making an arrest are:
b. before conviction a. by an actual restraint of the person to be arrested
c. before preliminary investigation b. by the submission to the custody of the person
d. before trial making the arrest
207. The following are the matters to be taken up in pre-trial c. by using unreasonable force
conference except: d. a and b only
a. examination of witnesses e. a and c only
b. marking of evidence 217. The following are crimes Against National Security and
c. plea bargaining Law of Nations, EXCEPT.
d. stipulation & simplification of issues a. Treason
208. The reservation of the right to institute separate civil b. Piracy and mutiny
action shall be made: c. Espionage
a. before arraignment d. Rebellion
b. before the pre-trial conference 218. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a
c. before the prosecution rest its case person who owes allegiance to it.
d. before the prosecution presents evidence a. treason
209. Amendment without leave of court before the accused b. espionage
pleads is allowed by the Rules of Court under the following c. adherence to the enemy
instances EXCEPT: d. rebellion
a. amendment as to substance 219. The degree of proof required to convict a person accused
b. amendment as to form of treason.
c. amendment that reflect typographical error a. substantial evidence
d. amendments to downgrades the nature of the b. proof beyond reasonable doubt
crime c. two witness rule
210. One of the requisites in order that one of the accused may d. preponderance of evidence
be discharged in order to be state witness is that 220. The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT:
a. Said accused does not appear to be the most a. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine
guilty waters;
b. Said accused does not appear to be least guilty b. The offenders are not members of its
c. Said accused must not appear to be guilty complement or passengers of the vessel;
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 c. That the offender resist to a superior officer;
d. The offenders either attack or seize that vessel
or seize the whole or part of the cargo of said
vessel, its equipment or personal belonging of its
complement or passengers.
221. Which of the following does NOT qualify the crime of
Piracy:
a. Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on
the high seas or in Philippine waters
b. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by
boarding or firing upon the same.
c. c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned their
victims without means of saving themselves.
d. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder,
homicide, physical injuries, or rape.
222. Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-highway
Robbery Law of 1974.
a. Comm. Act No. 616
b. P.D. 532
c. P.D. 533
d. R.A. 6235
223. PO1 Matiyaga, without legal grounds arrested and
detained Mr. Tamad and deprived said person of his
liberty is liable for:
a. illegal detention
b. arbitrary detention
c. unlawful arrest
d. kidnapping
224. The following are legal grounds for the detention of any
person, EXCEPT:
a. commission of a crime
b. escape from prison / penal institution
c. violent insanity or other ailment requiring the
compulsory confinement
d. a and c only
e. a, b and c
225. The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying
release, EXCEPT:
a. Delays the performance of a judicial or executive
order for the release of a prisoner.
b. Delays the service of the notice of such order to
said prisoner.
c. Delays the proceedings upon any petition for the
liberation of such person.
d. Delays the filing of a criminal offense against the
detainee to the proper judicial authority.
e. All of these
226. Mr. Mabait was arrested for illegal possession of firearms
which is considered a low power gun. Considering that the
crime is punishable by correctional penalty, within how
many hours should that a case be filed to the proper
judicial authority?
a. 12 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 36 hours
227. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a
person to change his resident or otherwise expels him
from the Philippines.
a. violation of domicile
b. arbitrary detention
c. trespass to dwelling
d. expulsion
228. The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.
a. Any public officer or employee who enters any
dwelling against the will of the owner thereof.
G.S.T. 2019
b. Any public officer or employee who searches any
papers or other effects found therein without the
previous consent of the owner.
c. Any public officer or employee who refuses to
leave the premises, after having surreptitiously
entered said dwelling and after having been
required to leave the premises.
d. Any public officer or employee who searches
domicile without witnesses.
e. All of the choices
229. SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search warrant,
search the house of Mr. Mando N. Ducot. After having
discovered the item specified in the warrant, SPO1
Masinop took the same and includes the jewelry box filled
with jewelry which is not included in the list of the item to
be seized. SPO1 Masinop is:
a. Liable for the crime of violation of domicile
b. Not liable for the crime of violation of domicile
c. May not be liable for violation of domicile
d. Liable for a crime but not on
violation of domicile
230. The following are crimes against the fundamental law of
the States. Which one can be committed by private
person?
a. Arbitrary detention
b. Violation of Domicile
c. Interruption of religious worship
d. Offending religious feelings
e. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of
peaceful meetings
231. The law which provides Human Security
a. R.A. 9208
b. R.A. 9745
c. R.A. 9372
d. R.A. 7438
232. Angelo Vergara not only confessed his membership with
the Sparrow unit but also his participation and that of his
Group in the killing of SPO2 Manalad while the latter was
manning the traffic along C. M. Recto Ave. Manila. Under
the facts given, what crime was committed by the former
and that of his Group?
a. murder
b. sedition
c. rebellion
d. homicide
233. This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking arms
against government to completely overthrow and
supersede said existing government.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
234. A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation,
stealth, directed against duly constituted authorities,
public utilities, military camps and installation with or
without civilian support for the purpose of diminishing
state power.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
235. It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of
communications or disturbances in the state outside of
the legal method.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
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 d. sedition
236. A police officer, who arrested a member of congress while
going to attend a senate session for a traffic violation is
liable for:
a. crime against popular representation
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the
National Assembly
c. violation of parliamentary immunity
d. all of the foregoing
237. The Kilusan ng mga hindi Ungas at Paranoid (KHUP) was
organized by Mr. Panot allegedly for protecting the poor
laborer, where in fact it was organized to form a group
that would rise against the rich businessmen of their city.
For what crime can they be charged?
a. Illegal assembly
b. Illegal association
c. coup d’etat
d. rebellion
238. Any association, organization, political party or group of
persons organized for the purpose of overthrowing the
Government of the Republic of the Philippines or for the
purpose of removing the allegiance to said government or
its law, the territory of the Phils. or any part thereof, with
the open or covert assistance or support of a foreign
power by force violence, deceit or other illegal means. Is a
crime of:
a. Rebellion
b. Illegal Association
c. Subversive Association or Organization
d. Illegal Assembly
239. Mrs. Grace, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer
Pandac and Councilor Panot were surveying the land
occupied by informal settlers for government projects and
for their relocation. The residents oppose with the plan.
Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of
Mayor Ditas when the latter came near. One of the close
escorts of the Mayor defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also
slapped him and punched as well. For what crime Mrs.
Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor Grace?
a. Sedition
b. Slander by Deeds
c. Direct Assault
d. Rebellion
240. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
a. The assault is committed with a weapon
b. The offender is a public officer or employee
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in
authority
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting
a person in authority
241. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an
individual or as a member of some court or government
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority
b. Judicial authority
c. person in authority
d. Public employee
242. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously
disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such
person, while engaged in the performance of official
functions.
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect Assault
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National
Assembly
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in
authority or the agents of such person
G.S.T. 2019
243. The following are crimes classified as public disorders,
EXCEPT.
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful
utterances
c. Alarms and scandals
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
e. None of the choices
244. Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor fired a
gun in the air to proclaim to the people that he is
celebrating his birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
a. illegal discharge of firearm
b. alarm & scandals
c. disturbances
d. outcry
245. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion
of service of sentence.
a. By means of unlawful entry By breaking doors,
windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
b. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit,
violence or intimidation.
c. Through connivance with other convicts or
employees of the penal institution.
d. All of the choices
246. Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of robbery before
serving his sentence or while serving the same he
committed a crime of murder. What condition is said to
have occurred?
a. recidivism
b. reiteration
c. quasi-recidivism
d. habitual delinquency
247. It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank note or any
instrument payable to bearer or to order the appearance
of a true and genuine document. It is likewise committed
by falsification through erasing, substituting,
counterfeiting, or altering by any means, the figures,
letters, words or signs contained therein (Art. 169)
a. Falsification of public document
b. Forgery
c. Falsification
d. d.Fasification by public officer, employee or
notary or ecclesiastical minister
248. A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic police
sticker and sell the same shall be liable for a crime of:
a. Estafa through falsification of a public document
b. Theft through falsification of a public document
c. Falsification of public document
d. Forgeries
249. This crime is committed by any person without any
distinction, by falsely representing himself as an officer
and performing under pretense of official position any act
pertaining to such person.
a. usurpation of authority
b. estafa
c. usurpation of official functions
d. a & c
250. Any other name a person which publicly applies to himself
without authority of the law.
a. alias
b. A.K.A.
c. fictitious names
d. true name
251. It is committed by a person, who being under oath are
required to testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a
hearing before a competent authority, shall deny the truth
or say something contrary to it.
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 a. forgery 259. It is a crime committed by any appointed public official
b. perjury who shall become interested in any transaction within his
c. falsification territory, subject to his jurisdiction during his incumbency.
d. false testimony a. Prohibited transaction
252. Consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good b. Possession of prohibited interest by a public
customs, which having been committed publicly, have officer
given rise to public scandal to persons who have witness c. Fraud against public treasury
the same. d. Prevarication
a. immoral doctrines 260. This is committed by an accountable public officer who,
b. obscene publication and exhibition shall appropriate, or shall misappropriate or shall consent,
c. grave scandal or through abandonment or negligence shall permit
d. libel another person to take public funds or property.
253. Refers to persons having no apparent means of a. Direct bribery
subsistence but has the physical ability to work and b. Technical malversation
neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling. c. Malversation of public funds
a. bum d. Embezzelment
b. vagrant 261. The following are crimes classified under infidelity or
c. prostitute public officers:
d. destitute a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners
254. It is the improper performance of some acts which should b. Infidelity in the custody of documents
have been lawfully be done. c. Revelation of secrets
a. malfeasance d. all of these
b. misfeasance 262. This is committed by any public officer or employee who
c. nonfeasance shall overdo himself in the correction or handling of a
d. dereliction of duty prisoner or detention prisoner under his charge by the
255. It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly issued an imposition of punishment not authorize by the regulations
unjust order which decides some point or matter but or inflicting punishment in a cruel or humiliating manner.
which however, is not a final decisions of the matter in a. Police brutality
issue: b. Sadism
a. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment c. Maltreament of prisoners
b. Judgment rendered through negligence d. Physical injures
c. Unjust interlocutory order 263. This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit or
d. Malicious delay in the administration of justice make immoral advances to a woman under his custody or
e. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor – to other women like the wife, daughter, sister or relative
revelation of secrets within the same degree by affinity of any person in the
256. This one is committed by public officers or employees custody of a warden or officer.
who, in dereliction of the duties of his office, shall a. Sexual harassment
maliciously refrain from instituting prosecution for the b. Abuses against chastity
punishment of violators of law, or shall tolerate the c. Acts of Lasciviousness
commission of offenses. d. Abuse of authority
a. Direct bribery 264. Takes place whenever a person is killed during a confusion
b. Indirect bribery attendant to quarrel among the several persons not
c. Qualified bribery continuing a group and the perpetrators cannot be
d. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in ascertained.
prosecution of offenses a. homicide
257. What crime is committed by any public officer or b. murder
employee who shall agree to perform an act constituting c. death caused by tumultuous affray
a crime, in connection with the performance of his official d. riots
duties, in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or 265. Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing
present received by such officer, personally or through the the death of their unborn child is guilty of:
mediation of another. a. parricide
a. Direct bribery b. abortion
b. Qualified bribery c. intentional abortion
c. Indirect bribery d. unintentional abortion
d. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in 266. A formal and regular combat previously concerted
prosecution between two parties in the presence of two or more
258. Any public office who is entrusted with law enforcement seconds of lawful age on each side, who make the
who refrain from arresting or prosecuting an offender selection of arms and fix all other conditions.
who has committed a crime punishable by reclusion a. riot
perpetua and/or death in consideration of any offer, b. duel
promise, gift or present. c. tumultuous affray
a. bribery d. mutilation
b. direct bribery 267. It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the body, e.g.
c. qualified bribery a woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive of
d. indirect bribery the latter of its true.
a. physical injury
b. duel
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 c. tumultuous affray intimidations upon things of any person, or using force
d. mutilation upon anything.
268. What crime is committed by person who assaulted a. robbery
another, causing the latter to be absent from work for two b. theft
weeks? c. brigandage
a. mutilation d. estafa
b. serious physical injury 278. A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the
c. less serious physical injury owner, what crime was committed?
d. slight physical injury a. a theft
269. Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge with a b. robbery
child less than 12 years old. c. possession of pick locks
a. rape d. possession of false key
b. acts of lasciviousness 279. A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors
c. seduction who form a band for the purpose of committing robbery
d. abduction in the highway or kidnapping persons for the purpose of
270. A private individual who detains another for the purpose extortion or to obtain ransom, or for any other purpose to
of depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three be attained by means of force & violence.
days is guilty of: a. Robbery
a. illegal detention b. kidnapping
b. arbitrary detention c. brigandage
c. serious illegal detention d. d. theft
d. slight illegal detention 280. Committed by any person who with intent to gain but
271. A person who got into a dispute with another, assaulted without violence or intimidation of persons nor force
the latter for the purpose of delivering his victims to the upon things shall take personal property of another
jailer is guilty of what crime? without latter’s consent.
a. illegal detention a. robbery
b. illegal arrest b. kidnapping
c. unlawful arrest c. brigandage
d. physical injuries d. theft
272. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens 281. A housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away
another with the infliction upon the person, honor or the furniture of her employer would be charged of what
property of the latter or of his family of any wrong crime?
amounting to a crime. a. theft
a. grave threat b. robbery
b. light threat c. qualified theft
c. grave coercion d. estafa
d. light coercion 282. Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the
273. When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime property would be large when surveyed is a crime of:
is made by another, what crime is committed? a. estafa
a. grave threat b. chattel mortgage
b. light threat c. usurpation
c. graver coercion d. altering boundaries or landmarks
d. light coercion 283. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the
274. Any person who by means of violence shall seize anything sake of causing damage due to hate, revenge or other evil
belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the motive.
same to the payment of a debt, is committing. a. swindling
a. grave threat b. destruction of property
b. light threat c. malicious mischief
c. graver coercion d. chattel mortgage
d. light coercion 284. What crime was committed by a married woman having
275. It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means carnal knowledge with a man not her husband?
of force, violence or intimidation to do something against a. adultery
his will, whether right or wrong. b. concubinage
c. acts of lasciviousness
a. grave threat d. seduction
b. light threat 285. A married man who allows his paramour to live in their
c. grave coercion conjugal dwelling is liable of what crime?
d. light coercion a. adultery
276. It includes human conduct, which although not productive b. concubinage
of some physical or material harm would annoy any c. acts of lasciviousness
innocent person d. seduction
a. light threat 286. Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex not
b. light coercion amounting to rape by using force or intimidation.
c. unjust vexation a. adultery
d. grave coercion b. concubinage
277. It is the taking of personal belonging to another, with c. acts of lasciviousness
intent to gain by means of violence against, or d. seduction
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287. A person who ripped the dress of a woman and placed his d. substantive law
penis over the woman’s genital organ is liable for what 297. The following are sources of criminal law, EXCEPT:
crime? a. Act 3815
a. rape b. City and municipal ordinance
b. seduction c. Special penal laws
c. forcible seduction d. constitution
d. acts of lasciviousness 298. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of
288. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his criminal laws in the Philippines. It took effect on?
girlfriend by promising the latter with marriage, what a. January 1, 1923
crime was committed? b. January 1, 1932
a. seduction c. December 8, 1930
b. acts of lasciviousness d. January 1, 1933
c. abduction 299. The following are characteristics of classical theory of
d. none of the foregoing criminal law, EXCEPT:
289. Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver several pieces a. the basis of criminal liability is human free will
of jewelries to his Mother whom he had and the purpose of the penalty is retribution.
misunderstanding. The latter however, pawned the said b. Man is essentially a moral creature with an
jewelries and misappropriated the same. What would be absolutely free will to choose between good and
the proper offense committed by Luz? evil, thereby placing more stress upon the effect
a. swindling or result of the felonious act than the man.
b. theft c. there is scant regard to the human element.
c. robbery d. That man is subdued occasionally by strange
d. malicious mischief and morbid phenomenon which constrains him
290. Which of the following crimes does not operates as an to do wrong, in spite of or contrary to his
absolutory cause which could serves as an exemption violation.
against members of the family from criminal ability in 300. Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. What are
crimes against properties. acts committed or omitted in violations of special laws?
a. Robbery a. felony
b. theft b. offense
c. malicious mischief c. misdemeanor
d. estafa d. in fractional law
291. It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and 301. Basically, there are three fundamental characteristics of
prosecution of person alleged to have committed a crime. criminal law. What characteristics of criminal law states
a. Criminal procedure that criminal law is binding on all persons who live or
b. Criminal jurisprudence sojourn in the Philippines?
c. rules of court a. Generality
d. rules of procedure b. Territoriality
292. It refers to the authority or power to hear and decided c. Prospective
cases. d. Retroactive
a. Jurisdiction 302. The following are the exemption to the rule of Generality,
b. b. Jurisprudence EXCEPT:
c. Venue a. Those who are subject of treaty stipulation
d. territory b. Those who are immune under the law of
293. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit preferential application
where the power of the court is exercised and which is c. Those who are exempted under Public
jurisdictional in criminal case. International law
a. Venue d. President, Prime Minister and Ambassador
b. Jurisprudence 303. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan
c. jurisdiction Recto on January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a city ordinance
d. court was passed punishing loitering within the vicinity of Isetan
294. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance. Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of loitering?
a. Original jurisdiction a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
b. Exclusive jurisdiction b. Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect of
c. concurrent criminal law
d. appellate jurisdiction c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity
295. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the of the law
others. d. No, for a did not loiter again
a. Original jurisdiction 304. Under what characteristics of criminal law the above
b. Exclusive jurisdiction circumstance falls?
c. appellate jurisdiction a. Generality
d. concurrent jurisdiction b. Territoriality
296. Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines c. Prospective
crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their d. Retroactive
punishment? 305. What legal maxims support the above scenario?
a. civil law a. Pro reo Principle
b. procedural law b. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege
c. criminal law c. Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea
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 d. Actus me invitusfactus non d. Probable cause
306. Which of the following legal maxim means “the act cannot 316. Death is presumed to be the natural consequence of
be criminal unless the mind is criminal”. physical injuries inflicted in the following; EXCEPT
a. Pro reo a. The victim at the time the physical injuries were
b. Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege inflicted was in normal heath.
c. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea b. The death may be expected from the physical
d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus injuries inflicted.
307. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its c. Death ensued within a reasonable time.
essence being the substitution of a legislative flat for a d. The resulting injury is due to the intentional act
judicial determination of guilt. of the victim.
a. Ex post facto law 317. The following are elements of impossible crime, EXCEPT:
b. Bill of attainder a. That the act performed would be an offense
c. Retroactive law against persons or property.
d. Prospective b. That the act was done with evil intent
308. The following persons are exempt from criminal liability c. That its accomplishment is inherently impossible,
under the principle of public international law, EXCEPT: or that the means employed is either inadequate
a. Heads of states or ineffectual.
b. ambassador d. That the act does not constitute a crime of
c. ministers of plenipotentiary negligence or imprudence.
d. charges d affaires 318. X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance which he
e. None of the choices thought was arsenic (poison) when in fact it was just a
309. Crimes committed within the territorial water of another sugar. Y was not killed as a consequence. What X did he
country can either be triable in that country or in the commit?
country where the vessel is registered. What rule provides a. Mistake in the blow
that a crime committed on board vessel shall be NOT tried b. No crime committed
in the court of the country having territorial jurisdiction, c. preaterintentionem
unless their commission affects the peace and security of d. impossible crime
the territory or the safety of the state is endangered. 319. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may
a. French rule deem proper to repress and which is not punishable by
b. American Rule law, it shall:
c. Spanish Rule a. Render the proper decision, and shall report to
d. English Rule the Chief Executive, through the Department of
310. Any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in Justice
the external world. b. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
a. act Executive, through the Department of Justice.
b. Omission c. Render the proper decision, and shall report to
c. Dolo the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
d. Culpa d. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
311. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____. Justice of the Supreme Court.
a. Deceit 320. This takes place when the offender commences that
b. Fault commission of a felony by overt acts, and does not
c. Culpa perform all the acts of execution which should produce
d. Intent the felony by reason of some cause or accident other than
312. Things which are wrongful in their nature. his own spontaneous desistance.
a. evil a. Consummated
b. mala in ce b. Frustrated
c. mala in se c. Attempted
d. mala prohibita d. Impossible crime
313. The moving power which impels one to action for a 321. A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting B at his
definite result. shoulder. B was able to run away and survived the injury,
a. intent what crime is committed by A?
b. motive a. Physical Injury
c. deceit b. Frustrated Homicide
d. fault c. Attempted Homicide
314. The following are crime committed by mistakes which d. Less serious physical injury
does not operate as an Exemption/justification, EXCEPT:
a. Aberratio Ictus 322. The following are the elements of frustrated felonious,
b. Error in Personae EXCEPT:
c. PreaterIntentionem a. The offender performs all the acts of execution
d. Mistake in fact b. All the acts performed would produce the felony
315. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous as a consequence but the felony is not produced.
sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause, c. By reason of causes independent of the will of
produces the injury without which the result would not the perpetrator.
have occurred. d. Due to some cause or accident other than his
a. Proximate cause own spontaneous desistance.
b. Intervening cause 323. Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the coffee of
c. Immediate cause her husband Mr. William Herschel, when Mr. was at the
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 stage of convulsion, Mrs. Lucila had a change of heart and
administer an antidote causing Mr. William to survive but
left in comatose. What was committed by Mrs. Lucila?
a. Frustrated parricide
b. b.attempted parricide
c. serious physical injury
d. less serious physical injury
324. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime, starting
from the point where the offender begins the commission
of the crime to that point where he has still control over
his acts including their (acts) natural course.
a. Subjective Phase
b. Objective Phase
c. Internal Act
d. Act of Execution
325. Which of the following is NOT a Factor in determining
stage of execution of felony?
a. Nature of the offense
b. Elements constituting the felony;
c. Manner of committing the felony
d. Intent in committing the crime
326. A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to rob the
Banco de Oro. While having their meeting at their safe-
house, a group of PNP personnel arrested them. What
crime was committed by A,B, and C?
a. Illegal Assembly
b. Conspiracy to commit robbery
c. Attempted Robbery
d. No crime
327. A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine National Bank in
their secret safe house. While they are planning how to
commit the crime, operatives of the NBI barged in and
arrested the group.
a. What crime was committed by A,B and C?
b. No crime was committed
c. Under the facts no crime was committed as
mere conspiracy to commit a crime is not
punishable
d. Attempted robbery
e. Frustrated robbery
328. Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the
capital punishment or penalties which in any of their
periods are:
a. light
b. correctional
c. afflictive
d. reflective
329. In case of crimes which are latter subject of special penal
laws, what rule of interpretation shall be applied?
a. The RPC shall be observed
b. The RPC shall prevails over special laws.
c. The RPC will be supplementary to special law
d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to the
RPC
330. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a
person as its author or owner. It implies that the act
committed has been freely and consciously done and may
therefore be put down to the doer as his very own.
a. Guilt
b. Liability
c. Responsibility
d. Imputability
331. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with
the law, so that such person is deemed not to have
transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and
civil liability.
a. justifying circumstances
G.S.T. 2019
b. mitigating circumstances
c. exempting circumstances
d. aggravating circumstance
332. The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT
a. Unlawful aggression.
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to
prevent or repel it.
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the
person defending himself.
d. Lack of intent on the part of the person
defending himself.
333. Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for
the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the
crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or
negligent.
a. Justifying
b. Mitigating
c. Exempting
d. Aggravating
334. Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the cellphone of
Ms. IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___.
a. Liable for the crime of theft
b. Liable for the crime of robbery
c. Not liable for the crime of theft
d. Not liable for the crime of robbery
335. The following circumstances exempt a person from
criminal liability though there is civil liability considering
that there is crime committed, EXCEPT:
a. Minority
b. Accident
c. Imbecility/Insanity
d. Acting under compulsion of an irresistible force
e. Acting under the impulse of an uncontrollable
fear of an equal or greater injury.
336. The following are exempted from criminal liability,
EXCEPT:
a. Children 15 years of age below
b. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without
discernment
c. Insane persons or an imbecile persons
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
discernment.
337. Who among the following incurs full responsibility upon
commission of a crime?
a. Those 15 years of age and below
b. Those who are 18 years of age and above
c. Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of age
d. Those who are 18 years of age
338. Are those where the act committed is a crime but for
reasons of public policy and sentiment, there is no penalty
imposed.
a. Justifying circumstances
b. Mitigating circumstances
c. Absolutory cause
d. Exempting circumstances
339. X was charged before the court. During the pendency of
his trial he died. What would be the effect of his death on
the case involved and on his criminal liability?
a. The criminal case will be dismissed ad his
criminal liability is extinguished.
b. The criminal case will proceed and his criminal
liability is not extinguished.
c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for his
resurrection.
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 d. Actually there will be no effect at all because his c. principal by induction
relatives will be the one to face trial and punished d. instigators
in case of his conviction. 349. The desire or wish in common thing
340. Which of the following operates as an absolutory cause. a. intent
a. Spontaneous desistance b. motive
b. Accessories who are exempt from criminal c. conspire
liability by reason of relationship d. cooperate
c. Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight physical 350. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the
injuries under exceptional circumstances murder of another person is liable as:
d. Person exempt from criminal liability for theft a. principal
swindling and malicious mischief by relationship b. accessory
to the offended party c. accomplice
e. All of the choices d. conspirator
341. An aggravating circumstances which generally apply to all 351. Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no
crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism. property to meet the fine.
a. generic a. subsidiary penalty
b. specific b. suspension
c. qualifying c. penalty
d. Inherent d. d.civil interdiction
342. C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing 352. In cases where in the commission of an offense is
her using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is necessary in the commission of another it is said the crime
committed aggravated by what circumstances? is:
a. ignominy a. formal crime
b. passion b. informal crime
c. cruelty c. compound crime
d. Craft d. complex crime
343. Is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for 353. An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated scale of
past offense and is rarely exercised in favor of a single penalties.
individual and is usually granted to certain classes of a. degree
persons usually political offenders, who are subject to trial b. period
but not yet convicted. c. prescription
a. Pardon d. duration
b. Commutation 354. A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period
c. Parole defined by law subject to the termination by the parole
d. Amnesty board at any time after service of the sentence.
344. The law which prohibits the imposition of the death a. Suspension
penalty? b. indeterminate sentence
a. RA 6981 c. prescription
b. P.D. 968 d. period of penalty
c. R.A. 9346 355. The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall
d. R.A. 4103 prescribe in how many years?
345. How do you call an offender who within a period of ten a. 15 years
(10) years from the date of his release or last conviction of b. 1year
the crimes of Serious Physical Injuries, robbery (robo), c. 10 years
Theft (hurto), Estafa or falsification is found guilty of any d. 5 years
of the said crimes a third time or offener? 356. Those crime punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and
a. Recidivist reclusion temporal shall prescribe in:
b. Quasi recidivist a. 20 years
c. Reiteration b. 15 years
d. habitual delinquent c. 10 years
346. The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms d. 5 years
of alternative circumstances, except: 357. Those punishable by correctional penalties shall prescribe
a. Low degree education in how many years?
b. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not a. 20 years
intended it or not a habitual drunkard. b. 15 years
c. Relationship in crimes against property c. 10 years
d. Relationship in crimes against persons d. 5 years
347. Refers to persons who take direct part in the execution 358. Light offenses prescribe in:
of a crime. a. 12 months
a. principals b. 6 months
b. accessories c. 4 months
c. accomplice d. 2 months
d. instigators 359. A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill you this
348. A person who directly induce others to commit a crime is week”. A bought a firearms. On Friday, he waited for B
regarded as: and shot him but killed C instead. In so far as B is
a. principal by direct participation concerned, the crime committed by A is:
b. principal by indispensable cooperation a. Attempted murder
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 b. frustrated murder 368. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have
c. illegal discharge of firearm acted together in the commission of a crime.
d. all of these a.gang
360. In so far as C is concerned the crime committed is: b.conspiracy
a. frustrated homicide c.band
b. murder d.piracy
c. consummated homicide 369. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound
d. none of the above to.
361. X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide a.Negligence
(consummated) which is punishable by Reclusion b.imprudence
Perpetua. c.omission
He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment. d.act
Determine his penalty. 370. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of
a. Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum to trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of
Reclusion temporal (minimum period) as the his criminal plan.
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty. a.Misfeasance
b. Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to b.entrapment
Reclusion temporal (any period) as the maximum c.inducement
period of the indeterminate penalty d.instigation
c. Reclusion temporal as the minimum period to 371. The following are exempted from criminal liability,
reclusion perpetua as maximum EXCEPT:
d. Prision mayor a. Children 15 years of age below
362. X (as principal) committed grave coercion (consummated) b. Insane persons or Imbecile persons
punishable by prision correctional. There was one c. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
aggravating circumstances in the commission of the crime
discernment
let us say “with the aid of armed men”. Fix his penalty.
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted
a. Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to
Prision correctional (maximum period) as without discernment
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty. 372. Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for
b. Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum to the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the
Prision correctional (any period) as maximum crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or
period of the indeterminate penalty negligent.
c. Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor as a. Justifying
maximum period b. Exempting
d. None of the above c. Mitigating
363. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a d. Aggravating
crime.
373. When a public officer convinces a person to commit a
a.15-18 years old
felony and would arrest him or her after its commission he
b.18-70 years old
is committing.
c.9 years old and below
a. instigation
d.between 9 and 15 years old
364. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the b. entrapment
execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. c. conspiracy
a.Accomplices d. proposal
b.Suspects 374. It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two DEGREES
c.principal actors depending upon what the law provides and cannot be
d.accessories offset by any aggravating circumstances.
365. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to a. Mitigating Circumstances
execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time b. Exempting circumstances
fixed by law. c. Ordinary Mitigating Circumstances
a.prescription of crime d. Privilege Mitigating circumstances
b.prescription of prosecution 375. Crimes are classified in various categories. What
c.prescription of judgment classifications of crime is when a single act results to or
d.prescription of penalty more serious or less serious offenses.
366. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of a. Continuing Crime
penalty is suspended. b. Complex crime or delito complejo
a.Pardon c. Special complex crime
b.commutation d. Compound crime or delito compuesto
c.amnesty 376. Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts bought a rifle
d.reprieve from Mr. C. Goddard. Knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr.
367. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to Goddard sold the gun. Since Mr. Pitts is in an Island for
secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the vacation and the only way to reach the island is to ride a
society. boat, Mr. Dellinger rented the boat of Mr. F. Galton, the
a.mala prohibita owner of the only boat that can be rented to reach the
b.mala in se island. Also knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. F. Galton
c.private crimes allowed the boat to be rented for a much higher price. Mr.
d.public crimes Dellinger successfully reached the island and killed Mr. R.
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 Pitts. Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts requested the a. Prohibition of a peaceful meeting
service of Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds to bury Mr’s b. dissolution of peaceful meeting
Pitts Body in exchange for thousand of pesos. What was c. Interruption of peaceful meeting
the crime committed by Mr. Dellinger? d. all of the choices.
a. Homicide 387. If a private person removes a person confined in jail or
b. Murder penal institution or helps in the escape of such person by
c. Parricide means of violence, intimidation, bribery or any other
d. Manslaughter means, the crime committed is:
377. What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton? a. Evasion of service of sentence
a. Principal by direct participation b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
b. Principal by induction c. Delivery of prison from jail
c. Principal by indispensable cooperation d. corruption of public official
d. Accomplice 388. Light offenses prescribe in:
378. What about Mr. C. Goddard? a. 12 months
a. Principal b. 4 months
b. Accomplice c. 6 months
c. Accessory
d. 2 months
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
389. X raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing
379. What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds?
her, using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is
a. Principal
committed aggravated by what circumstances?
b. Accomplice
a. ignominy
c. Accessory
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation b. passion
380. The following are Justifying Circumstances, EXCEPT? c. cruelty
a. Obedience to a lawful order d. obstruction
b. Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or 390. Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information
performance of duty relative to national defense with intent to be used to the
c. A person who acts under compulsion of an injury of the Republic of the Philippines.
irresistible force a. treason
d. Avoidance of greater evil or injury b. conspiracy to commit treason
381. The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de officio
c. espionage
without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
EXCEPT: d. misprision to treason
a. Seduction 391. To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of
b. Rape persons to proper judicial authorities, a person caught in
c. Abduction the act of committing a felony punishable by penalties
d. Acts of Lasciviousness which are correctional in nature must be delivered to said
382. What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of authorities within how many hours?
personal property belonging to another is committed with a. 12
grave abuse of confidence? b. 36
a. Robbery c. 18
b. Qualified Theft d. 48
c. Theft 392. Amendments with leave of court after the accused pleads
d. Burglary are allowed under the following circumstance.
383. What crime is committed if a person commits a crime of a. Amendments as to substance
murder with the use of unlicensed firearm? b. Amendments as to form
a. Murder c. Amendments that change the nature of the
b. Illegal Possession of firearm offense
c. Qualified Illegal possession of firearm d. None of these
d. Murder with illegal possession of f/a. 393. The rule is that the civil action for the recovery of civil
384. If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted upon a liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
person in a manner that is determined and constant until instituted with the criminal action. This rule does not
the lawful purpose is realize, the crime committed is: apply in the following instances, EXCEPT.
a. Threat a. When the offended party waives the civil action
b. Grave threat b. When the offended party reserves the right to
c. Coercions institute separate civil action
d. Light threat c. When the offended party institute the criminal
385. When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon the action
offended party does not amount to a crime the d. When the offended party institute the civil action
designation of the offense is called prior to the criminal action.
a. Threats 394. The reservation of the right to institute separate civil
b. Grave threats action shall be made:
c. Light Threats a. Before the arraignment
d. Coercion
b. During the pre-trial conference
386. A public officer who without legal ground shall prohibit or c. Before the prosecution rest
interrupt the holding of a peaceful meeting or dissolved d. Before the prosecution present evidence
the same is liable for:
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395. The rule prohibits the filing of the following pleadings in
the criminal case, EXCEPT:
a. Motion for postponement
b. Counter affidavit
c. Counterclaim
d. Third party complaint
396. The petition for suspension of the criminal action based
upon the pendency of prejudicial question in a civil action
may be filed with the following, EXCEPT one:
a. The court where the civil action is pending
b. The court where the criminal action is pending
c. Office of the prosecutor
d. None of these
397. Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is required
before the filing of a complaint or information where the
penalty for the offense is:
a. At least 6 years and 1 day
b. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
c. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
d. Exceeding 6 years and one day
398. The following may be submitted by the respondent in a
preliminary investigation, EXEPT:
a. Counter-affidavit
b. Motion to dismiss
c. Witness counter affidavit
d. supporting documents
399. The following officers are authorized to conduct
preliminary investigation on cases falling within their
jurisdiction, EXCEPT:
a. Provincial prosecutor
b. City prosecutor
c. Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman
d. Judges of Municipal trial court
400. An offense which under the law existing at the time of its
commission and of the application for admission to bail
may be punish with death is called:
a. Capital punishment
b. Heinous crime
c. Capital Offense
d. Grave offense
401. The court may dismiss the case on the ground of
insufficiency of evidence:
a. On the motion of the accused filed with prior
leave of court
b. By its own initiative after giving the prosecution
an opportunity to be heard
c. On motion of the accused thru counsel
d. A and B only
402. Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession of Ruben
which was snatched from him three days ago. He
confronted the latter and force to get back said cell phone
against his will. For what crime or crimes may Manuel be
liable for, if he will go to force to get back the same?
a. Coercion
b. Robbery
c. Threats
d. Theft
403. The following statement are false, EXCEPT:
a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
b. The accused must personally enter his plea
c. The accused must excused/waived arraignment
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other
than where the case is assigned.
404. Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital offense
and the evidence of guilt is strong.
G.S.T. 2019
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Partly true
d. Partly false
405. Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be placed under
the custody of the law. It should be made at:
a. Anytime of the day
b. anytime of the day and night
c. Anytime of the morning
d. d. anytime of the night
406. It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made with
kettles, his horns, etc, designated to deride or annoy:
a. Charivari
b. Grave scandal
c. Alarm and Scandal
d. Harana
407. The application for search warrant may be filed with the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a
crime was committed.
b. Any court within the judicial region where the
crime was committed
c. Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines
d. Any Court Within judicial region where the
warrant shall be enforced
408. An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the first level
court shall be by:
a. Notice of appeal
b. by Petition for review
c. Petition for review on certiorari
d. Petition for certiorari
409. After the prosecution rest its case, the case can be dismiss
due to insufficiency of evidence by:
a. The courts own initiative
b. By the accused through his counsel by Demurrer
to evidence
c. By the prosecution on its own initiative
d. a and b only
410. Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden for the
escape of his brother Chan. The Warden ordered his jail
guard to leave the door unlocked so as to facilitate the
escape of Mr. Chan. The guard leaves the door unlocked
and tells Mr. Chan to escape at mid-night. What crime was
committed by the Warden?
a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. Direct Bribery
c. Delivery of prison from jail
d. corruption of public official
411. What Crime can be charged against the guard who
connives with the prisoner?
a. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
c. Delivering prisoner from jail
d. A and B
412. A public officer or a warden who solicits or makes immoral
or indecent advances to a woman who is under his
custody or wife or daughter of the person under his
custody shall be liable for:
a. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Abuses against Chastity
c. Indirect Bribery
d. infidelity in the custody of prisoners
413. Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of
evidence which means that evidence must have such
relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its
existence or non-existence. The other requisite is
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 ____________? d. Affidavit
a. That is should not be excluded for by law. 422. Prescription of offense commence to run:
b. That it is material to the facts in issue a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
c. That it is credible party or peace officers or their agent.
b. Upon filing of cases in court
d. That it is the best evidence
c. Upon escape of the accused
414. Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible d. Upon re-appearance of the accuse
hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except: 423. The following are cases covered by rules on summary
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to procedure EXCEPT:
establish the probability or improbability of the a. Where the penalty is six months imprisonment.
fact in issue. b. Violation of traffic laws
b. When it is competent c. Violation of rental laws
c. When it is credible d. Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6) months
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue imprisonment
424. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
based on other related evidence.
assist destitute litigant?
415. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights a. Counsel de officio
of a person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored
b. counsel de parte
on what requisites of admissibility?
a. materiality c. Public Attorney’s Office
b. competency d. National Prosecution Office
c. relevancy 425. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend
and to testify or to bring with him any books or documents
d. credibility
under his control at the trial of an action.
416. It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the a. subpoena
trier of facts because of its logical connection with the
b. subpoena duces tecum
issue. Evidence which has an effective influence or bearing
to the question? c. subpoena ad testificandum
a. material d. warrant of arrest
b. relevant 426. The order of trial is:
c. competent a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
d. credible b. Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross
417. The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct
imprisonment of more than 6 years shall become d. Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal.
permanent ________ after issuance of the order without 427. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings,
the case having been revived. mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative
a. One year device to assist him in testimony.
b. six months a. Testimonial aids
c. Two years b. Emotional security items
d. three years c. support item
418. Within how many days after arraignment and from the d. none of these
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
428. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages
accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
of examination of a child, if the same will further the
a. 30 days
interest of justice.
b. 20 days a. leading questions
c. 15 days b. misleading
d. 60 days c. relevant
419. How many days is given to an accused person to prepare d. narrative
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
429. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction
a. 15 days
of evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
b. 30 days a. Matters of Public Knowledge
c. 20 days b. The measure of time
d. 180 days c. Law of nations
420. The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan d. Law of nature
Trial Court is called?
430. Court may take judicial notice of the following in exercise
a. R.A. 7691
of its discretion, EXCEPT.
b. R.A. 3019
a. The geographical divisions
c. R.A. 8493
d. B.P. 129 b. Matter which are of public knowledge;
421. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any c. Matters capable of unquestionable
peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement demonstration; or
of the law violated filed either to the court or to the office d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of
of the prosecutor. their judicial functions.
a. Complaint 431. Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites.
b. Information These requisites are:
c. Pleadings
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 a. The matter must be one of common and general
knowledge.
b. It must be well and authoritatively settled and
not doubtful or uncertain
c. It must be known to be within the limits of the
jurisdiction of the court.
d. All of the choices
432. Self incriminatory statement falling short of an
acknowledgement of guilt made by a party in the course
of the proceeding in the same case which does not require
proof.
a. Admission
b. self serving statement
c. declaration against interest
d. confession
433. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document
no evidence shall be admissible other than the original
documents itself. This refers to the _____.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
434. What are secondary evidence?
a. Certified true COPY of a document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
document
c. Testimony of witnesses
d. All of the choices
435. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed
upon and there can be, as between the parties and their
successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other
than the contents of the agreement.
a. Parol evidence Rule
b. b. parol evidence
c. Best Evidence Rule
d. Secondary Evidence
436. As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving,
can make known of their perception to others can be
witness and the following shall not be a ground for
disqualification.
a. Religious and political belief
b. Interest in the outcome of the case
c. conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided
by law
d. All of the choices
437. An Act Providing for A Witness Protection, Security and
Benefit program and for other purposes.
a. R.A. 6981
b. R.A. 6646
c. P.D.749
d. R.A. 6770
438. No person may be compelled to testify against his
parents, other direct ascendants, children or other direct
descendants. This is embodied under what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege.
b. declaration against pedigree
c. declaration against common reputation
d. res inter alois acta rule
439. An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of
any liability and is not admissible in evidence against the
offeror on the following case, EXCEPT.
G.S.T. 2019
a. In civil cases
b. Those arising from criminal negligence
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical,
hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
injury.
d. In criminal cases
440. A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of
a plea of guilty to a lesser offense is_____?
a. not admissible in evidence against the accused
who made the plea of offer.
b. admissible in evidence against the accused who
made the plea of offer
c. shall not be considered an plea
d. will be considered a plea of not guilty
441. The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act,
declaration, or omission of another, except as provided by
the rules of court.
a. Res inter alios acta rule
b. admission by co-partner
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by silence of a person for not doing or
saying anything when an act or declaration is said
against him in his presence.
442. The following are the requirements in determining child’s
competency as a witness EXCEPT:
a. capacity of Observation
b. capacity of Recollection
c. capacity of Communication
d. capacity to Comprehend
443. Where several extrajudicial confessions had been made
by several person charged with the same offense and
without the possibility of collision among them, the fact
that the statements are in all respects identical is
confirmatory of the confessions of the co-defendants and
are admissible against the other persons implicated
therein.
a. interlocking confessions
b. res inter alios acta rule
c. admission by privies
d. confession by co-defendant
444. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the
hearing or observation of a party who does or says nothing
when the act or declaration is such as to call for action or
comment if not true, and when proper and possible for
him to do so, may be given in evidence against him.
a. admission by silence
b. confession
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by privies
445. Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence rule?
a. That a witness can testify only to those facts
which he knows of his personal knowledge; that
ism which are derived from his own perception.
b. hearsay evidence is not acceptable as evidence in
court
c. Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the
authority of another person.
d. hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to
facts of which the witness has no personal
knowledge because it is derived from the
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 knowledge or perception of others who are not 455. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry
called to testify. and render judgment after a fair trial.
446. The declaration of a dying person, made under the a.ex post facto law
consciousness of an impending death, may be received in b.equal protection of the law
any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as c.rule of law
evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of d.due process of law
such death. 456. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that
a. Dying declaration which is intended.
a. Aberratio ictus
b. res gestae
b. Error in personae
c. declaration against interest c. Dura Lex Sed lex
d. declaration about pedigree d. Praeter Intentionem
447. Is the duty of the party to present evidence on the facts in 457. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___
issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by the shall be entered.
amount of evidence required by law. a. Not guilty
a. burden of evidence b. admission by silence
b. burden of proof c. guilty
c. proof of evidence d. none
d. cause of action 458. When reception of evidence is necessary under the
following circumstances:
448. A Foreign vessel registered in the country of Australia
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
anchored at Manila Bay wherein an Australian national
b. plea of guilty to capital offense
was caught in possession of Cocaine. What rule provides
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
that a crime committed while on board of the vessel.
d. all of these
a. French rule
459. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a
b. American Rule
motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint
c. Spanish Rule
or information and the details desired in order to enable
d. English Rule
him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion
449. Shall deprive the offender rights of parental authority or
is known as:
guardianship.
a. motion for bill of particular
a. subsidiary penalty
b. motion for clarification
b. penalty
c. motion to dismiss
c. suspension
d. motion for postponement
d. civil interdiction
460. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be
450. It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a sexual
suspended on the following grounds:
relationship to a married man. This statement is?
a. The accused appears to be suffering from
a. True
unsound mental condition.
b. false
b. There exist a prejudicial question.
c. It depends
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the
d. Partly false
prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office
451. The following are considered afflictive penalties, except:
of the President .
a. death by lethal injection
d. All of the choices
b. reclusion perpetua
461. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by
c. reclusion temporal
an accused is:
d. prison mayor
a. Motion to quash
452. It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual
b. Nolle pro sequi
relationship to a married woman.
c. Motion to dismiss
This statement is?
d. bill of particulars
a. True
462. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and
b. false
punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or
c. It depends
punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite
e. Partly false
period from the commission of the offense.
a. Prescription of crime
453. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or b. acquisitive
derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by c. prescription of penalty
which ideas are represented on material substances. d. extinctive
a.documentary evidence 463. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the
b.testimonial evidence danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the
c.material evidence second time.
d.real evidence a. double jeopardy
454. When the witness states that he did not see or know the b. double trial
occurrence of a fact. c. double trouble
a.positive evidence d. double counter
b.corroborative evidence 464. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by
c.secondary evidence imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any
d.negative evidence amount or both shall become permanent after ____.
a. one year
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 b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 4 years
465. Within how many days after arraignment and from the
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 60 days
466. How many days are given to an accused person to
prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 30 days
d. 180 days
467. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court,
the following officers are authorized to conduct
preliminary investigation except?
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
b. Judge MTC/MCTC
c. Regional State Prosecutor
d. Public Attorney’s office
468. A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused,
detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties
of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
a.
b. R.A. 7348
c. R.A. 7834
d. R.A. 3478
469. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused
cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This
principle also known as:
a. b and d
R.A. 7438
b. rights against self- incrimination
c. rights against illegal arrest
d. the right to presume innocent
e. right to live
470. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following
pleading are prohibited except:
a. motion to quash
b. bill of particular
c. answer
d. demurred to evidence
471. The following cases committed by public official with
salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two
of the RPC
b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and
14-A.
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to
their office.
d. None of the choices
472. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as
provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances
can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be
separated?
a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
b. When the offended party reserves his right to
institute the civil action;
G.S.T. 2019
c. When the institution of the civil action is made
prior to the criminal action.
d. all of the choices
473. Alden Richard, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with
engineer Maine Mendoza and Councilor Sipag were
surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for
government projects and for their relocation. The
residents oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the
residents, slapped the face of Mayor Alden when the
latter came near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor
defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and
punched as well. For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be
charged for in relation to Mayor Alden?
a. Sedition
b. Slander by Deeds
c. Direct Assault
d. Rebellion
474. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
a. The assault is committed with a weapon
b. The offender is a public officer or employee
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in
authority
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting
a person in authority
e. It should be noted that the assault should be mad
without public uprising.
475. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an
individual or as a member of some court or government
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority
b. Judicial authority
c. person in authority
d. Public employee
476. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously
disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such
person, while engaged in the performance of official
functions.
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect Assault
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National
Assembly
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in
authority or the agents of such person
477. The following are crimes classified as public disorders,
EXCEPT.
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful
utterances
c. Alarms and scandals
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
e. None of the choices
478. Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor fired a gun
in the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating
his birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
a. illegal discharge of firearm
b. alarm & scandals
c. disturbances
d. outcry
479. Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced prisoner),
gave 20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or allow the
escape of her brother is guilty of what crime?
a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. delivering prisoners from jail
c. Bribery
d. Corruption of public official
Page 28 of 227
 489. Known in other countries as the body of principles,
480. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion practices, usages and rules of action which are not
of service of sentence. recognized in our country.
a. By means of unlawful entry a.penal laws
b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs b.special laws
or floors. c.common laws
c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, d.statutory laws
violence or intimidation. 490. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of
d. Through connivance with other convicts or the crime any of all the conditions that would make an act.
employees of the penal institution. Voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability
e. All of the choices there is civil liability
481. Within how many days after arraignment and from the a.Exempting
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the b.alternative
accused shall order a pre-trial conference? c.justifying
a. 30 days d.aggravating
b. 20 days 491. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in
c. 15 days accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal
and civil liability.
d. 60 days
a.exempting
482. How many days is given to an accused person to prepare b.alternative
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? c.justifying
a. 15 days d.aggravating
b. 30 days 492. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his
c. 20 days victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing him
d. 180 days unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the
483. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be criminal act.
prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom? a.Ignominy
b.cruelty
a.Parents
c.treachery
b.Offended Spouse d.masochism
c.Guardians 493. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have
d.God father been previously convicted by final judgment of another
484. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal
of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty Code.
imposed. a.Recidivism
b.habitual delinquency
a.impossible crimes c.reiteracion
b.aggravating circumstances d.quasi-recidivism
c.absolutory causes 494. Alevosia means
d.complex crimes a. Craft
485. An act which would be an offense against persons or b. treachery
property if it was not for the inherent impossibility of its c. evident premeditation
accomplishment. d. cruelty
a.compound crime 495. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry
b.impossible crime and render judgment after a fair trial.
c.complex crime a. ex post facto law
d.accidental crime b. equal protection of the law
486. The law which re-imposed the death penalty. c. rule of law
a.RA 5425 d. due process of law
b.RA 8553
c.RA 7659 496. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his
d.RA 9346 release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less
487. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or
as its owner or author falsification, he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a
a.responsibility third time or oftener.
b.duty a. Recidivist
c.guilt b. quasi-recidivist
d.imputability c. habitual delinquent
488. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and d. hardened criminal
although it comes about through some acts of our will, lies 497. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that
beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable which is intended.
consequences. a. Aberratio ictus
a.fortuitous event b. Error in personae
b.fate c. Dura Lex Sed lex
c.accident d. Praeter Intentionem
d.destiny 498. It means mistake in the blow.
a. Aberratio Ictus
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 b. Error in Personae b. relevancy
c. Dura lex sed lex c. competency
d. Praeter Intentionem d. credibility
499. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for
507. Evidence which the witness states that he did not see or
its execution and accomplishment are present.
a. Attempted know of the factual occurrences what kind of evidence?
b. Frustrated a. negative
c. Consummated b. affirmative
d. Accomplished c. positive
500. An act or omission which is the result of a d. Alibi
misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not 508. An additional evidence of different kind tending to prove
intentional.
the same facts in issue. Evidence which are supplementary
a. Absolutory Cause
b. Mistake of facts to that already given and tending to strengthen or confirm
c. Conspiracy it.
d. Felony a. Corroborative
501. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining b. Associative
in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of c. Commulative
fact? d. Credible
a. Evidence 509. Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It refers to the
b. Facts logical and inevitable result of the evidence on record,
c. Proof exclusive of any other consideration, of the moral
d. Burden of proof certainty of the guilt of the accused or that degree of proof
502. It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. which produces conviction in an unprejudiced mind.
It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
action? b. Clear and Convincing Evidence
a. Factum probandum c. Preponderance of evidence
b. Evidence d. Substantial evidence
c. factum probans 510. It is that proof which, if unexplained or uncontradicted, is
d. proof sufficient to sustain the proposition it supports or to
503. The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as otherwise establish the facts or to counterbalance the presumptions
provided by law or these rules. of innocence to warrant a conviction.
a. the same in all courts and in all trials and a. Prima-facie evidence
hearings b. Preponderance of evidence
b. not the same in all courts and in all trials and c. Rebuttal evidence
hearings d. Sur-rebuttal evidence
c. dependent on the type of case involved 511. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction
d. absolutely the same in all courts and in all trials of evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
and hearings a. Matters of Public Knowledge
504. Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of b. Law of nation
evidence which means that evidence must have such c. The measure of time
relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its d. Law of nature
existence or non-existence. The other requisite is ____? 512. Court may take judicial notice of the following exercise of
a. That it should not be excluded for by law its discretion, EXCEPT:
b. That it is material to the facts in issue a. The geographical divisions
c. That it is credible b. Matter which are of public knowledge
d. That it is the best evidence c. Matters capable of unquestionable
505. Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible demonstration; or
hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except: d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to their judicial functions.
establish the probability or improbability of the 513. When can proper court, on its own initiative or on request
fact in issue. of a party, may take judicial notice of any matter and allow
b. When it is competent the parties to be heard thereon if such matter is decisive
c. When it is credible of a material issue in the case?
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue a. after the trial
based on other related evidence b. before judgment
506. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights c. on appeal
of a person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored d. all of the choices
on what requisites of admissibility? 514. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an
a. a. materiality acknowledgment of guilt made by a party in the course of

Page 30 of 227
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 the proceeding in the same case which does not require
proof.
a. Admission
b. declaration against interest
c. self-serving statement
515. Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses of the
court.
a. Real or Object
b. Testimonial
c. Documentary
d. Direct
516. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document
no evidence shall be admissible other than the original
documents itself. This refers to the ___.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parole Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
517. What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule:
a. When the original has been lost or destroyed
orunder cannot be produced in court, without
bad faith on the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is in the custody or under the
control of the party against whom the evidence
is offered, and the latter fails to produce it after
reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts
or other documents which cannot be examined
in court without great loss of time and the fact
sought to be established from them is only the
general result of the whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the
custody of the public officer or is recorded in a
public office.
e. All of the choices
518. When the original document has been lost or destroyed,
or cannot be reproduced in court, the offeror, upon proof
of its execution or existence and the cause of its
unavailability without bad faith on his part, may prove its
contents by a copy, or by a recital of its contents in some
authentic document or by the testimony of witnesses in
the order stated.
a. Secondary Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Secondary Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
519. When secondary evidence is allowed?
a. When the original has been lost, destroyed or
cannot be produced in court, without bad faith
on the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is under the custody or under
the control of the party against whom the
evidence is offered, and the latter fails to
produce it after reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts
or other documents which cannot be examined
in court without great loss of time and the fact
G.S.T. 2019
sought to be established from them is only the
general result of the whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the
custody of a public officer or is recorded in a
public office
e. All of the choices
520. What are secondary evidence?
a. A Certified True COPY of a document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
document
c. Testimony of witnesses
d. All of the choices
521. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed
upon and there can be, as between the parties and their
successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other
than the contents of the agreement.
a. Parol Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence
d. Secondary Evidence
522. It refers to an evidence of oral or written statement of a
party presented as evidence to modify, explain or add to
the terms of the written agreement.
a. Parol Evidence
b. Secondary Evidence
c. Best Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
523. On which of the following circumstances parol evidence
can be accepted?
a. When there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or
imperfection in the written agreement;
b. The fulfillment of the written agreement to
express the true intent and agreement of the
parties thereto;
c. The validity of the written agreement;
d. The existence of other terms agreed to by the
parties or their successors in interest after the
execution of the written agreement.
524. The following are qualifications for discharged of a person
to be state witness.
a. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of
the accused whose discharge is requested;
b. There is no other direct evidence available for the
proper prosecution for the offense committed
except the testimony of said accused;
c. The testimony of said accused can be
substantially corroborated in its material points;
d. Said accused appear to be the most guilty;
e. Said accused has not at any time been convicted
of an offense involving moral turpitude;
525. R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the disclosure or
examination of bank deposits. As a general rule bank
deposits are absolutely confidential in nature and may not
examined or inquired or looked into by any person or
government officials, EXCEPT:
a. upon written permission of the depositor
b. in cases of impeachment
Page 31 of 227
 c. upon order of competent court in cases of briber, c. Dura Lex Sed lex
dereliction of duty of public officials d. Praeter Intentionem
d. in case where the money deposited or invested is 535. Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes,
treats of their nature and provides for their punishment?
the subject matter of litigation
a. Act 3815
e. in cases of well explained wealth b. Criminal Law
526. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, c. Revised Penal Code
other direct ascendants, children or other direct d. Criminal Procedure
descendants. This is embodied under what principle? 536. Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn
a. Parental and filial privilege in Philippine territory regardless of sex, race or religious
b. declaration against pedigree affiliation. EXCEPT matters covered by:
a. Treaty Stipulation
c. declaration against common reputation
b. Public International Law
d. declaration against Parental relationship c. Law of Preferential Application
527. An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of d. All of the choices
any liability and is not admissible in evidence against the 537. By Principles of Public International law, the following
offeror on the following case, EXCEPT: enjoin immunity from the application of the Philippine
a. In civil cases Criminal law, EXCEPT:
b. Those arising from criminal negligence a. Consul
b. Heads of State
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical,
c. Ambassador
hospital or other expenses occasioned by an d. d. Minister de affaires
injury 538. Acts or omission punishable by public law commanding or
d. In criminal cases forbidding it:
528. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of a. Crimes
facts. b. Felonies
a. secondary evidence c. Offense
b. prima facie evidence d. Infractions of law
c.corroborative evidence 539. Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of criminal
d. Cumulative evidence liability is human free will, the purpose of punishment is
529. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or retribution and is generally exemplified in the Revised
uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition Penal Code.
affirmed. a. Eclectic
a.secondary evidence b. Classical Theory
b.prima facie evidence c. Positivist Theory
c.corroborative evidence d. Neo-Classical Theory
d.best evidence 540. The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign territorial
530. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or jurisdiction which generally follows the Nationality
derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by Principle and not the Domiciliary Principle except when
which ideas are represented on material substances. the crime committed on board vessels affects the national
a.documentary evidence security of the Country where such vessel is located.
b.testimonial evidence a. French Rule
c.material evidence b. English Rule
d.real evidence c. Spanish Rule
531. When the witness states that he did not see or know the d. Greek Rule
occurrence of a fact. 541. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its
a. positive evidence essence being the substitution of legislative fiat for a
b. corroborative evidence judicial determination of guilt.
c. secondary evidence a. Ex post facto law
d. negative evidence b. Retroactivity
532. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry c. Bill of attainder
and render judgment after a fair trial. d. Prospective
a.ex post facto law
542. Which of the following is NOT an element of the Crime of
b.equal protection of the law
Dolo or Deceit?
c.rule of law
a. Intent
d.due process of law
b. Freedom
533. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of
c. Intelligence
criminal laws in the Philippines. It approved on?
d. Negligence
a. January 1, 1923
543. These are crimes which are NOT considered bad in itself
b. January 1, 1932
but the doer is found to have transgress the law for act
c. December 8, 1930
which it prohibits.
d. January 1, 1933
a. Crime
534. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that
b. Felonies
which is intended.
c. Mala in se
a. Aberratio ictus
d. Mala Prohibita
b. Error in personae
544. Is that act performed which would be an offense against

Page 32 of 227
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 persons or property where it not for the inherent or legal imposed by the court and to the supervision of a
impossibility of its accomplishment. probation officer.
a. Mala in se a. Parole
b. mala prohibita b. Pardon
c. Impossible crime c. Probation
d. Formal crimes d. Amnesty
545. It is the moving power or which impels a person to act and 554. Known as the “Indeterminate Sentence Law” or the
not an essential element of a crime but would tend to Parole Law.
establish the identity of the perpetrator. a. Act No. 4103 as amended
a. Intent b. RA No. 4103 as amended
b. Motive c. RA No. 4225 as amended
c. Negligence d. PD No. 968 as amended
d. ignorance 555. What is the penalty of impossible crime? (Art. 59)
546. The following are causes which would produce criminal a. Arresto Menor
liability though the result be different from what is b. Arresto Mayor
intended, EXCEPT: c. Prision Correctional
a.Abberatio ictus d. Prision Mayor
b.Error in Personae 556. It provides that the maximum duration of convict’s
c.Preater intentionem sentence shall not be more than 3 times the length of the
d.Ignorantia Facti most severe of the penalties imposed upon him but in no
547. The offender performs all the acts of execution that would case to exceed 40 years.
produce the felony as a consequence but the felony is not a. Three-fold rule
produced by reason of causes independent of the will of b. Three-fold liability rule
the perpetrator. c. Four-fold rule
a. Attempted d. Four-fold liability rule
b. Consummated 557. In case the offender cannot pay the fine, he shall serve
c. Frustrated the same in prison and shall be credited ___ for each day
d. Formal Crimes of subsidiary imprisonment.
548. Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a a. Php 8.00
single act. b. Php 12.00
a.formal crimes c. Php 35. 00
b.formal felonies d. Highest minimum wage existing in the country
c.informal crimes 558. It is the expenses of litigation allowed by the Rules of
Court to be assessed against or to be recovered by a
d.material crimes
party in litigation.
549. It exists when two or more persons come to an a. Costs
agreement to commit a felony and decide to commit it. b. Fine
a. Proposal c. Damages
b. Conspiracy d. Civil liability
c. A & B 559. Who may grant pardon?
d. Cuadrilla a. The President
550. A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence b. The private offended party
shall be granted to any prisoner who, having evaded the c. The accused
service of his sentence during calamity, gives himself up d. The People of the Philippines
to the authorities within 48 hours following the issuance 560. If the detention prisoner does not agree to abide by the
of a proclamation announcing the passing away of the same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted
calamity. prisoners, the credited preventive imprisonment is
a. Good Conduct Time Allowance a. Fulltime credit
b. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty b. 4/5 credit
c. Executive Clemency c. 2/3 credit
d. Indeterminate Sentence d. 1/5 credit
551. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to 561. Period of detention undergone by an accused where the
execute the final sentence after the lapse of certain time. crime with which he is charged is non‐bailable or, even if
a. Prescription of Crime bailable, he is unable to post the requisite bail. (Art. 39)
b. Prescription of Penalty a. Solitary confinement
c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime b. Preventive imprisonment
d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the c. Inmate incarceration
commission of crime d. Suppressive Detention
552. The forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to 562. A penalty that deprive the offender of his (1) rights of
prosecute the offender after the lapse of certain time. parental authority, or guardianship;(2) Marital authority;
a. Prescription of Crime (3) The right to manage his property; and (4) The right to
b. Prescription of Penalty dispose of such property by any act or any conveyance
c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime inter vivos.
d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the a. Absolute disqualification
commission of crime b. Temporary disqualification
553. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after c. Bond to keep the peace
conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions d. Civil interdiction
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G.S.T. 2019
563. It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished to a a. Cruelty
certain place and is prohibited from entering or coming b. Ignominy
near that place designated in the sentence, not less than c. Outraging
25 kilometers but not to extend beyond 250 kilometers. d. Scoffing
a. Transportation 573. Husband A treating his wife B and his child as a sex
b. Deportation object, also forcing to watch obscene indecent shows .Is
c. Destierro A committed crime of Violence Against Women and Their
d. Extradition Children?
564. Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except: a. Maybe NO
a. Capital b. Yes
b. Afflictive c. No
c. Correctional d. Maybe YES
d. Slight 574. The offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing
e. Light information respecting the national defense with intent,
565. Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the or there is reason to believe that information is to be used
imposition of penalty: to the injury of the Republic of the Philippines or to the
a. Retribution or expiation advantage of any foreign nation.
b. Correction or reformation a. Treason
c. Social defense b. Rebellion
d. Public Rataliation c. Espionage
566. The punishment imposed by lawful authority upon a d. Mutiny
person who commits a deliberate or negligent act which 575. Other acts constituting the crime of espionage are
is against the law. punishable under
a. Penalty a. BP No. 616
b. Ordeal b. PD No. 616
c. Fine c. CA No. 616
d. Imprisonment d. RA No. 616
567. Article 20 provides for the exemption as accessories from 576. Committed when two countries are at war of which the
criminal liability, EXCEPT: Philippines is not involved and the offender violates the
a. Natural brother/ sister regulation issued by the government enforcing
b. Legitimate brother/ sister neutrality.
c. Adopted brother/ sister a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal
d. Brother-in-Law/ Sister-in-Law b. Violation of neutrality
e. Brother in a fraternity c. Correspondence with hostile country
568. One who: (a) concurs with the criminal design of the d. Flight to enemy’s country
principals by direct participation; (b) cooperates in the 577. A person who wrote a letter to an official of an enemy
execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous country despite government prohibition is liable of this
acts, with the intention of supplying material or moral crime.
aid in the execution of the crime in an efficacious way. a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal
a. Principal by indispensable cooperation b. Violation of neutrality
b. Principal by inducement c. Correspondence with hostile country
c. Accomplice d. Flight to enemy’s country
d. Accessory 578. Robbery or depredation in the high seas, without lawful
569. Principal who materially execute the crime. He appears authority and done with animo furandi and in the spirit
at the crime scene and performs acts necessary in the and intention of universal hostility.
commission of the crime. a. Mutiny
a. Principal by inducement/ induction b. Piracy
b. Principal by indispensable cooperation c. Sea-jacking
c. Principal by direct participation d. Hi-jacking
d. Principal by conspiracy 579. The axe gang are raping women in all the places they go
570. Who are criminally liable? from Batanes to Sulu. Their acts sow and created a
a. Principals widespread and extra-ordinary fear and panic among the
b. Accomplices populace. They demanded from the government to
c. Accessories release all prisoners entire the country for them to stop
d. All of the choices raping. Are they liable for terrorism?
571. Those which must be taken into consideration as a. Yes
aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and b. No
effects of the crime and the other conditions attending c. Doubtful
its commission. d. No answer
a. Extenuating 580. Which of the following is not a form of arbitrary
b. Mitigating detention?
c. Alternative a. Detaining a person without legal ground
d. Aggravating b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
572. It pertains to the moral order, which adds disgrace to the proper authorities
material injury caused by the crime. It adds insult to c. Delaying release
injury or adds shame to the natural effects of the crime. d. Illegal Detention
It shocks the moral conscience of man.
Page 34 of 227
G.S.T. 2019
581. A crime committed by a public officer/ employee who indeterminate sentence
detains a person without legal ground. d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his
a. Arbitrary detention indeterminate sentence
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
590. What is the oldest written penal law of the Philippines?
proper authorities
a. Codigo Penal
c. Delaying release
b. Code of Kalantiao
d. Illegal Detention
c. Code of Hammurabi
e. No crime
d. Maragtas Code
582. A crime committed by a private individual who detains a
591. How penal laws are construed when the law is vague?
person without legal ground.
a. Liberally in favor of the government
a. Arbitrary detention
b. Liberally in favor of the offended party
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
c. Liberally in favor of the accused
proper authorities
d. Liberally in favor of the innocent
c. Delaying release
592. Refers to crimes which are wrongful in their nature thus
d. Illegal Detention
requires the highest condemnation of the society.
583. Committed by a public officer who detains a person for
a. Crimes mala prohibita
some legal ground but fails to deliver such person to the
b. Crimes mala in se
proper authority w/n the prescribed time.
c. Crimes supersedeas
a. Arbitrary detention
d. Crimes flagrante delicto
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
593. This rule recognizes that the host country has jurisdiction
proper authorities
over crimes committed on board the vessel unless they
c. Delaying release
involve the internal management of the vessel.
d. Illegal Detention
a. American Rule
584. A crime committed by a public officer who unduly delays
b. English Rule
the release of a person in his custody in spite of a
c. French Rule
judicial/ executive order to release him.
d. Filipino Rule
a. Arbitrary detention
594. Literally, “friend of the court”. Are experienced and
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
proper authorities impartial attorneys that may be invited by the court to
c. Delaying release appear as amicus curiae’
d. Illegal Detention
585. A public officer who without authority compels a person a. Champertous contract
to change his residence is guilty of b. Amicus curiae
a. Grave Coercion c. Amicus curiea
b. Grave Threat d. Champertuos contract
c. Expulsion 595. A contract whereby the lawyer agrees to pay the expenses
d. Violation of Domicile of litigation in return for the agreement of the client to pay
586. A public officer who procures a search warrant without the lawyer a portion of the thing or property that might be
just cause is liable of won or recovered in the trial or litigation. This is unethical
a. Abuse in the service of search warrant for the lawyer and hence illegal.
b. Warrant maliciously obtained
c. Searching domicile without witnesses a. Champertous contract
d. Violation of Domicile b. Amicus curiae
587. An order in writing, issued in the name of the People of c. Amicus curiea
the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace d. Champertuos contract
officer, commanding him to SEARCH for personal 596. The practice of filing multiple suits on different courts
property described therein and bring it before the court.
based on the same cause of action. This is not allowed and
a. Warrant of Arrest
is a ground for dismissal of the case filed by the guilty
b. Search Warrant
c. Subpoena party.
d. Summons
588. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the a. contempt
appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly b. forum shipping
a. Accepted c. forum shopping
b. Determinate d. direct contempt
c. Sensitive 597. It is a small ceremonial mallet commonly made of hardwood,
d. Unreliable and a symbol of the authority and right to act officially in the
589. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what capacity of a chair or presiding officer.
portion of the sentence must have been served by a a. Gavel
b. Hammer
petitioner-prisoner?
c. Wood hammer
a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his 598. The constitution provides for the prescribed dress code
indeterminate sentence of all judges and it is called as.
b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his a. Black robes
indeterminate sentence b. Black toga
c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his c. Black dress

Page 35 of 227
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 d.White robes 608. There were 750 rape cases in 2010, as against 928 in 2011.
599. It is the lists of cases that are scheduled to be heard on a What was the percent increase?
particular day usually placed or posted outside the a. +27.3%
courtroom. b. +23.7%
c. +37.2%
a. Court calendar d. +32.7%
b. Supreme Court calendar 609. In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
c. School calendar a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
d. Schedule calendar b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
600. Contempt committed in the presence of or so near a court c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
or judge as to obstruct or interrupt proceedings before it. d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
a. contempt 610. The importance of the firm or installation with
b. direct contempt reference to the national economy or security:
c. indirect contempt a. Relative security
d. disobedience b. Relative necessity
c. Relative criticality
d. Relative vulnerability
Law Enforcement 611. These are the major courses of action that the
organization plans to take in order to achieve its
Administration objectives.
a. Procedures
b. Strategies
601. A-2 in Intelligence report means? c. Plans
a. usually reliable source and is confirmed by other d. Objectives
sources 612. In this form of authority, personnel do not give
b. completely reliable source and is orders but they offer advice. Frequently this advice
Probably true is based on the high level of expertise, but the
c. completely reliable source and is advice carries no formal requirement of acceptance.
Usually reliable a. Democracy
d. completely reliable source and is confirmed by b. Functional authority
other sources c. Line authority
602. Seeing ahead and making sound assumption? d. Staff authority
613. The __________ means controlling the direction
a. prioritizing
and flow of decisions through unity of command
b. foretelling
from top to bottom organization.
c. forecasting
a. Audit
d. documenting
b. Coordination
603. This Police Station activity increases the number of arrest
c. Monitoring
of criminal syndicate member?
d. Authority
a. investigation 614. PO III Peter Factor is assigned to collect available
b. intelligence information concerning the activities of the Red
c. crime search Scorpion Group (RSG). He is with what unit of the
d. patrol police?
604. Which agent who has reached the enemy and able to get a. anti – juvenile delinquency
information and would be managed to get back? b. criminal investigation
a. mercenary c. intelligence operations
b. none d. patrol activities
c. penetration 615. Intelligence can and should do nothing more than.
d. assassin a. promote better police-citizen interaction
605. Which of the following is the oldest warning device? b. enhance the probability of accuracy in report
a. trumpet writing
b. siren c. improve administration efficiency particularly
c. horn in recruitment and selection
d. radio d. increase the number of arrests of criminal
606. The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is syndicate members
called? 616. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report
a. tear down evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
b. eviction a. information is usually from a reliable source
c. squadron and is possibly true
d. demolition b. information is usually from a reliable source
607. H refers to the importance of the establishment with and is improbable
reference to the national economy and security? c. information is usually from a reliable source
and is probably true
a. risk analysis
d. information is usually from a reliable source
b. relative critically
and is doubtfully true
c. risk assessment
d. relative vulnerability
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 617. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report 625. New employees should be briefed on security rules
evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean? and regulations of the organization and the importance of
a. information is usually from a reliable source observing them. This process is called:
and is possibly true a. security information
b. information is usually from a reliable source b. security reminders
and is improbable c. security orientation
c. information is usually from a reliable source d. security investigation
and is probably true 626. What plans require action or assistance from
d. information is usually from a reliable source persons or agencies outside the police organization?
and is doubtfully true
a. tactical plan
618. Who may be automatically granted height waiver,
b. extra department plan
as provided under Section 15 of Republic Act No. 8551? c. management plan
a. Police retirables requesting for extension of d. all of these
service. 627. This is a patrol program designed to ensure law
b. Member of the cultural minorities duly abiding citizens feeling of security but the reaction of
certified by the appropriate government
fear for the would be violators.
agency.
c.Government employees wishing to transfer to a. double-officer patrol
the PNP b. single-officer patrol
d.Graduates of Criminology c. low visibility patrol
619. Plans which require action or assistance from d. high visibility patrol
628. The transfer of heat from one material to another
persons or agencies outside the police organization.
by direct contact is called _______?
a. management plans
a. oxidation
b. operational plans
b. convection
c. tactical plans
c. conduction
d. extra-department plan
d. radiation
620. Protection of classified document concerning their
629. How is one classified if he steals primarily because
preparation, classification, reproduction, handling,
of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and
transmission, disposal and destruction.
little chance of detection?
a. document security
b. operational security a. systematic pilferer
c. physical security b. ordinary pilferer
d. organizational security c. casual pilferer
d. unusual pilferer
621. What is the system of natural or man-made barriers
630. An appeal filed with the Napolcom Regional
placed between the potential intruder and the objects,
Appellate Board shall be decided within ______ days
persons and matters being protected?
from receipt of the nation appeal.
a. document security
b. communications security a. fifty
c. physical security b. twenty
d. personnel security c. thirty
622. Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of d. sixty
operation used in the planning and objects, persons and 631. In the intelligence functions, the black list includes
matters being protected? ________ forces.
a. military intelligence a. unwanted
b. strategic intelligence b. friendly
c. combat intelligence c .neutral
d. counter-intelligence d. unfriendly
623. The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol 632. The first step in the planning process is to
function can be enhanced if there is detailed and up-to recognize the need to plan. Which of the following is
date information about crime and criminals. This calls for NOT a way to discovering the need to plan?
the establishment of: a. conduct of research
a. patrol base headquarters b. conduct of training
b. crime information center c. conduct of inspection
c. management information center d. conduct of management audit
d. public information office 633. The special formations used in crowd control
624. Planning cannot be undertaken without referring to
include the wedge, diagonal and deployed line. When
________ on the entire police organization, community,
a crowd is small enough not to require a squad, then
crime, equipment inventories, personal data, etc.
the formation is:
a. costs
a. diagonal
b. data
b. wedge
c. plans
c. deployed line
d. statement
d. clockwise
634. Under this principle, the chief executive directly
controls two to ten subordinates, who then control two to

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 ten subordinates each and so on until the bottom of the
organization is reached.
a. scalar principle
b. exception principle
c. unity of command
d. span of control
635. What is meant by an evaluation of C-1?
a. information comes from an unreliable source
and is probably true
b. information comes from a fairly reliable
source and is confirmed by other sources
c. information comes from an unreliable source
and is improbable
d.information comes from an unreliable source
and is doubtfully true
636. Under physical security, what should be placed
between the prospective intruder and target
installation?
a. Hazard
b. Net
c. Risk
d. Barrier
637. Mr. Jun de las Alas was born on June 1, 1975. Does
he meet the age requirement for entry to the
police service in June 1999?
a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within the
age requirement
c. Yes, he meets the maximum age requirement
d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
requirement
638. A police officer who manages a police station must
use all of the following skills, EXCEPT.
a. conceptual
b. technical
c. interpersonal
d. communication
639. The planning process generally consists of five (5)
steps in sequential order. (Which is the first step?)
a. formulation of details of the plan
b. recognition of the need to plan
c. setting up planning objectives
d. gathering and analysis of data
640. In the PNP organization what do you mean by
RCA:
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
641.These are barbed wires placed above a vertical
fence in order to increase physical protection of
establishment or installations.
a. top tower
b. top guard
c. cellar guard
d. tower guard house
642. What is the next planning step after the need to
plan is recognized?
a. evaluate alternatives
b. formulate the objective
c. execute the plan
d. analyze the data
G.S.T. 2019
643. This type of patrol performs certain specific,
predetermined preventive strategies in a regular
and systematic basis.
a. apprehension-oriented patrol
b. low visibility patrol
c. split-force patrol
d. directed deterrent patrol
644. Among the following applicants for appointment to
the police service, who may be automatically granted
height waiver?
a. government employees wishing to transfer to
the PNP
b. members of cultural minorities duly certified
by the appropriate government agency
c. police retirables requesting for extension of
service
d. graduate of criminology
645. The following changes must be made in police
operating procedures if the investigative skills of patrol
personnel are to be employed to their fullest advantage
EXCEPT.
a. patrol supervisor should insists that patrol
officers simply make a brief report and return to
patrol duties rather than complete their
investigations
b. patrol officers should be better trained and
equipped to conduct routine investigations
c. patrol officers should be encouraged to
devote more time to the investigation of crimes
to which they respond
d. the patrol supervision should be able to
provide the patrol officer with assistance in
determining whether a case has sufficient merit
to warrant immediate follow-up investigation by
the patrol officer
646. The more complex the organization, the more
highly specialized the division of work, the greater the
need for:
a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. coordinating authority
c. strictly line discipline
d. finer division of supervision
647. The ________ differs from routine patrol methods
in that patrol officers perform certain specific,
predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and
systematic basis.
a. low-visibility patrol
b. directed deterrent patrol
c. split force patrol
d. apprehension-oriented patrol
648. PO II Carlo Y. Alba and PO I Anglelo S. Suba report
only to one (1) supervisor. This is the principle of
_______________.
a. unity of command
b. delegation of authority
c. span of control
d. report to immediate superior
649. PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of
amusement and entertainment known to be
habitually visited by his subject and his subject’s
associates. PO III Alta’s undercover assignment is
called.
a. multiple assignment
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 b. social assignment d. efficiency
c. work assignment 658. What is the importance of a firm or installation in
d. dwelling assignment the relation to national security referred to?
650. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. relative security
a. classified information must not be discussed by b. relative necessity
one friends and members of the family c. relative criticality
b. classified information should be known only d. relative vulnerability
by one person 659. When heat is transmitted by a circulating medium,
c. cabinets with classified documents must be the method is called ____________.
secured with padlocks and security measures at
a. radiation
all time
b. oxidation
d. all classified documents must be safeguarded
c. convection
651. Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is
d. conduction
usually known as: 660. The __________ includes citizens who are cleared
a. force field analysis to attend meeting in Malacañang.
b. Delphi technique
a. white list
c. simulation model
b. black list
d. forecasting
c. target list
652. These regulations establish the specifications of
d. access list
uniform and the manner in which they are to be 661. The attestation function over police appointment
worn: is vested in the:
a. personnel transaction regulations a. Civil Service Commission
b. firearms regulations b. National Police Commission
c. uniform regulations c. Professional Regulations Commission
d. equipment regulations d. Department of Interior and Local Government
662. Selling security within the organization sets and
653. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas maintains a climate of _______ to the
projects ________ thus, an effective crime prevention appreciation of the department’s objectives.
strategy. a. participation
a. police omnipresence b. clear
b. police effectiveness c. understanding
c. police discretion d. collaboration
d. police authority 663. Mr. Jaime del S. Rio was born on May 1, 1975, does he
654. Which of the following trait or ability is most meet the age requirement for entry to the police
important for a police officer? service in June 2002?
a. personnel integrity and honesty a. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
b. physical stamina and bearing requirement
c. courageous b. Yes, he is only 27 years old and is within the
d .high intelligence age requirement
655. In 2001, there were 200, 450 crimes reported to c. No, but he can apply for age waiver
the Police Station of Municipality A. If the d. Yes, he meets the maximum education
population of Municipality is 5 Million, what is requirement
the crime rate? 664. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report
a. 3509 which is “the information comes from a completely
b. 4010 reliable source and is probably true”?
c. 4250 a. B-2
d. 4009 b. A-2
656. If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully disposed of c. A-3
as a result of the first investigation, a _________ d. A 1
report should be submitted. 665. In 2001, physical injuries numbered 12,500 out of
a. investigation report a total crime volume of 60,500. What percent of the
b. case disposition report total crime volume is attributed to physical injuries?
c. follow-up report a. 18.7%
d. crime report b. 20.7%
657.The advantages of a strong patrol are more than c. 25.7%
make up for slightly inferior performance. More d. 4.8%
patrolmen are then made available for emergency and 666. SPO I Edna E. Castro evaluated the information
the more active and widespread the patrol, the more gathered as “completely reliable, source probably
apparent is their presence, thus, promoting the true”. What is the type of evaluation?
impression of - a. A-5
a. suspensions b. A-1
b. effectiveness c. A-4
c. omnipresence d. A-2

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 667. It is ongoing process which ensures that new risks 676. The more complex the organization, the more
are recognized and that established deterrents remain highly specialized the division of work, the
necessary and cost effective. greater the need for:
a. inspection a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. interrogation b. coordinating authority
c. risk analysis c. strictly line discipline
d. evaluation d. finer division of supervision
668. What type of patrol performs certain specific, 677. The following questions are tests for accuracy of
predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and information, EXCEPT:
systematic basis? a. Does the report agree or disagree with
a. split-force patrol available and related intelligence?
b. low visibility patrol b. Is the reported fact or event known in advance
c. apprehension-oriented c. Is it the same or consistent with known modus
d. directed deterrent patrol operandi?
669. A patrol beat refers to a: d. Is the information about the target or area of
a. Number of crimes to be solved the operation?
b. Number of residents to be protected 678. Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes,
c. Location of police headquarters floods or lahar cannot be prevented from
d. Geographical area to be patrolled occurring. To minimize the disastrous effects of
670. It is importance of installation in relation to these phenomena, the security officer must
national security. prepare a:
a. relative criticality a. guard deployment plan
b. relative indispensability b. security education plan
c. relative security c. civil defense plan
d. relative vulnerability d. disaster or emergency plan
671. It is the formal process of choosing the 679. It involves segregation of deviants into isolated
organization mission and overall objective both geographic areas so that they can easily be
the short and long term as well as the divisional controlled.
and individual objectives based on the a. Coercion
organizational objectives. b. Quarantine
a. planning c. Conversion
b. organizing d. Containment
c. directing 680. What management principle provides that only
d. managerial decision-making one officer be in direct command or supervision
672. A _________ is usually for the purpose of waiting for of each officer.
the anticipated arrival of a suspect who is either a. span control
wanted for investigation or who is expected to b. unity of command
commit a crime at a certain location. c. chain of command
a. stake out d. line of authority
b. cops and robbers game 681. What is referred to as total number of police
c. follow up officers assigned to patrol duties?
d. surveillance a. effective strength
673. How is the crew complement of a Mobile Patrol b. mandatory strength
Division organized into shifts for each duty? c. actual strength
a. daily four-shift d. authorized strength
b .daily five-shift 682. When police patrols are increased beyond normal
c. one shift-daily levels, this is called ________?
d. daily three-shift a. reactive patrol
674. The formulation of conclusions from the theory b. directed deterrent patrol
developed, tested and considered valid as a c. citizen patrol
result of interpretation is called. d. proactive patrol
683. What is the method of collection of information
a. collection
b. integration wherein the investigator tails or shadows the
c. evaluation persons or vehicles?
d. deduction a. Research
675. In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all index b. Surveillance
crimes. If the total index crimes were 25,000, how c. Casing
many were murder incidents? d. Photography
684. Before a security expert can recommend what
a. 250
b. 2,500 type of security will needed by an industrial
c. 500 establishment, there is a need for him to undertake a :
d. 5,000 a. security training
b. security check

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 c. security survey considered as the most different (difficult) investigate
d. security education activity, yet the most rewarding.
685. When one procures information about subject a. casing
secretly; he is performing _______ collection b. undercover operation
method. c. penetration
a. routine d. surveillance
b. overt 694. As Security Director of Company B, you should
c. active know how many beds, are normally available in a
d. covert multiple injury situation and how many ________
686. Under this principle, each group reports to an patients can be processed at a single time.
individual who is part of a supervisory group that a. Wounded
answers to a higher supervisor and so on until a b. Emergency
group of administrators report to the chief c. Female
executive. d. Male
a. unity of command 695. A person’s suitability to be given a security
b. span of control clearance is determined through a process called
c. scalar principle _________.
d. aggregation a. security training
687. Which of the following is NOT patrol pattern? b. security education
a. clockwise c. security promotion
b. zigzag d. security investigation
c. criss-cross 696.This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and
d. stationary lying in wait rather that upon high visibility patrol
688. To what unit do policeman in plain clothes belong techniques?
when they infiltrate and gather information about a. decoy patrol
criminal syndicates? b. high visibility patrol
a. Budget c. directed patrol
b. Planning d. low visibility patrol
c. Intelligence 697. What police plans refer to actions to be taken
d. Patrol at a designated location and under specific
689. Which of the following statement is TRUE? circumstances?
a. Performance evaluation measures a. management plans
credibility of the police personnel. b. tactical plans
b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for c. operating plans
salary increases of promotion. d. procedural plans
c. Performance evaluation is done once a year 698. What type of organization consciously coordinates
among police personnel.
the activities of two or more persons towards a
d. Performance evaluation is implemented to
determine the quality of work performance given objective?
of personnel. a. flexible organization
690. Line units such as the patrol section or b. formal organization
c. informal organization
investigation section in police stations prepare their
d. non-flexible organization
work programs in which areas are called ___.
699. Who among the following meets the age
a. Budget
qualification for appointment to the police
b. Management
c. Operational plans service?
d. Tactical plan a. Rey who is 20 years old
691. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining b. Dennis who is 17 years old
to capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable c. John who is 22 years old
d. Santi who is 35 years old
course of actions of foreign nations?
700. The covert observation of an area, a building or
a. combat intelligence
stationary object in order to gain information is
b. national intelligence
called:
c. police intelligence
d. strategic intelligence a. undercover works
692. How are coded messages converted to intelligible b. penetration
language? c. casing
d. surveillance
a. Encoding
701. If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve barrels
b. Processing
c. Labeling of bleaching powder, the greatest danger would be
d. Decoding from:
693. The type of undercover operation wherein a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be
techniques are applied for a longer time and are controlled
b. an explosion
c. the impossibility of using water on the fire
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 d. a toxic and irritant gas 710. Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation
702. Which of the following is not included in the patrol of the facility caused by human action, accidental or
function? intentional.
a. Response to citizen calls a. security hazards
b. Investigation of crimes b. man-made hazard
c. Routine preventive patrol
c. natural hazard
d. Inspection of identified hazards
d. all of the above
703. Disaster preparedness and control plans should
711. Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused
include _______ so that people who are directly
damage, disturbance and problems of the normal
involved know the extent of the incident.
a. evacuation services functioning of human activities, including security.
b. identification services a. security hazards
c. counseling services b. man-made hazard
d. public information services c. natural hazard
704. An intelligence report classified as A-2 d. all of the above
means__________. 712. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the
a.the information comes from a completely national economy and security.
reliable source and is doubtfully true a. relative criticality
b. the information comes from a completely
b. relative vulnerability
reliable source and is probably true
c.the information comes from a usually reliable c. all of the above
source and is and is probably true. d. non of the above
d.the information comes from a usually reliable 713. One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes
source and is possibly true away any of all types of items or supplies for
705. It ensures the question “what is to be economic gain.
accomplish by the plan?” a. pilferer
a. objectives b. casual pilferer
b. planning assumptions c. systematic pilferer
c. problems
d. intruder
d. planning environment
706. The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the 714. . A medium of structure which defines the physical
following organizational features, EXCEPT: limits of an installation to restrict or impede access
a. Unified delivery of services thereto.
b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making a. natural barrier
c. Combined investigation and patrol functions b. man-made barrier
d. Unity of direction c. perimeter barrier
707. Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if they d. physical security
are properly trained in criminal investigation. Which 715. . It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link
of the following cannot be undertaken by them? with mesh openings not larger that two inches
a. He can locate and question the suspect if he square, and made or #9 gauge wire or heavier.
apprehends him.
a. clear zone
b. He can identify available evidences.
b. bodies of water
c. He can take note of statements of the suspect.
d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow c. building wall
policemen. d. wire fence
708. It is a physical security applied to business groups 716. . It surmounted by the barbed wire top guards, and
engaged in industries, like manufacturing, if the height is less than the prescribed, additional
assembling, research and development, processing, topping is placed to attain the minimum height
warehousing and even agriculture. requirement.
a. operational security a. clear zone
b. industrial security b. bodies of water
c. physical security c. building wall
d. special types d. wire fence
709. It is the broadest branch of security which is 717. . An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of
concerned with the physical measures to prevent the perimeter barrier.
unauthorized access. a. clear zone
a. operational security b. bodies of water
b. industrial security c. building wall
c. physical security d. wire fence
d. special types 718. . He may issue or revoke licenses issued to security
guards.
a. Chief, PNP

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 b. Mayor b. human guard
c. Governor c. company guard
d. Secretary, DILG d. agency guard
719. . It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on 728. . It is a term used in England for lock pickers,
vertical perimeter fences facing upward and safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms
outward with a 45 degree angle with three to four or areas.
strand of barbed wire. a. doppler effect
a. topping b. duress code
b. top guard c. peterman
c. all of the above d. fail safe
d. non of the above 729. . A term applied to a device or system that in the
720. . Are house like structure above the perimeter event of failure or a component, the incapacity will
barriers, it give psychological effect to violators. be signaled.
a. guard towers a. doppler effect
b. tower guards b. duress code
c. guard house c. peterman
d. guard post d. fail safe
721. . A conference or dialogue between the survey 730. . It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test
team and management officials before security its validity, it is also an operational readiness
survey is conducted. exercise.
a. pre- security survey a. dry run
b. post- security survey b. run through
c. entrance conference c. controlling
d. exit conference d. fire drill
722. . It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s 731. . It is the susceptibility of the plant or
adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security. establishment to damage, loss or disruption of
a. security inspections operation due to various hazard.
b. security survey a. relative criticality
c. special survey b. relative vulnerability
d. supplemental survey c. all of the above
723. . It is the exposure and teaching of employees on d. non of the above
security and its relevance to their work. 732. . It includes records that are irreplaceable,
a. security education reproduction of which does not have the same
b. security indoctrination value as the original records.
c. security training a. useful records
d. security awareness b. vital records
724. . It is an authenticated list of personnel given to c. important records
security allowing entry to a compound or d. non-essential records
installation thereof. 733. . How is one classified if he steals primarily because
a. controlling of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity?
b. access list a. casual pilferer
c. exclusion area b. ordinary pilferer
d. controlled area c. systematic
725. . Any area, access to which is subject to special d. unusual pilferer
restriction control. 734. . The extinguishment of fire by using water
a. restricted area solution, and the temperature is lowered below the
b. exclusion area burning point.
c. controlled area a. smothering
d. coverage factor b. starving
726. . A restricted area containing materials or c. cooling
operation of security interest. d. all of the above
a. restricted area 735. . It is a type of built-in sprinklers which works by
b. exclusion area the increase of room temperature, and which
c. controlled area automatically operates the system to put out the
d. coverage factor fire.
727. It is the key elements in the security survey system a. wet pipe system
of a plant or installation. b. automatic sprinklers
a. security guard c. dry pipe system

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 d. stand pipe system 745. . The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs shall not
736. . These fire results from the burning of wood, exceed a basic load of how many rounds per unit of
paper, textiles and other carbonaceous materials. duly licensed firearms.
a. Class “A” Fires a. 20
b. Class “B” Fires b. 12
c. Class “C” Fires c. 50
d. Class “D” Fires d. 25
737. . Private Security Agencies must be registered at 746. . This is quantity of ammunitions to be issued to
what government agency. individual security guards.
a. DTI a. 20
b. PNP b. 12
c. CSC c. 50
d. LGU d. 25
738. It is the minimum guard requirements for the 747. It is the only instances wherein PDAs & PSAs may
issuance of temporary license. be allowed to use high powered firearms; except
a.100 one.
b.1,000 a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality
c.50 b. upsurge of bank and armored bank robbery
d.200 c. transporting big amount of money
739. . The regular security guard license is good for how d. providing security to VIPs
many years? 748. . The prescribed high-powered firearms not exceed
a. 1 year how many percent of the total number of guards
b. 2 years employed.
c. 6 months a.5%
d. 3 years b.10%
740. . It is the minimum capitalization for PSA. c.15%
a. P1,000,000.00 d.20%
b. P500,000.00 749. . These are the qualifications of a licensed
c. P100,000.00 watchman or security guard, EXCEPT:
d. non of the above a. high school graduate
741. . It is the required minimum number of guards to b. physically & mentally fit
operate company security forces. c. 18 to 50 years of age
a. 30 d. without pre-licensing training
b. 200 750. . There are two different ways in which security
c. 50 guards are hired or employed, the company guard
d.100 and the other one is:
742. . A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay how much a. government guards
amount of surety bond to a reputable insurance b. private security agency
company. c .propriety guards
a. P50,000.00 d. in-house guards
b. P100,000.00 751. . This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and
c. P150,000.00 Operation of PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs.
d. P200,000.00 a. PD 603
743. . PSAs with 100 guards must initially procure at b. EO 292
least how many firearms for use of its security c. RA 5487
guards. d. PD 968
a. 10 752. . They are any person who offers or renders
b. 20 personal service to watch or secure either
c. 30 residential or business establishment or both.
d. 70 a. private detective
744. . PSAs who have been applying for regular license b. security guards
to operate must have at least ___ pieces of licensed c. propriety guards
firearms. d. company guards
a. 10 753. . Are any person who is not a member of the AFP or
b. 20 PNP, but involved in detective work.
c. 30 a. private detective
d. 70 b. security guards
c. propriety guards

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 d. company guards a. 20
754. . It is any person who for hire or reward or on b. 30
commission, conducts or carries on or holds himself c. 10
out in carrying detective works. d. 40
a. PDA 763. . __________ are included in the category of in-
b. PSA house guards.
c. GSU a. government guards
d. CSF b. private security agency
755. . It is any person, association, partnership, firm or c. propriety guards
private corporation that employs any watchman or d. all of the above
guards. 764. . It is charge with the directing the work and
a. PDA observing the behavior performance of the men
b. PSA under his unit.
c. GSU a. security guard
d. CSF b. security supervisor
756. . It is a security force maintained and operated by c. watchman
the private company/corporation for its own c. security officer
protection and security requirements 765. . The following items must be stipulated in the
a. PDA security service contract, EXCEPT:
b. PSA a. money consideration
c. GSU b. number of hours of security service
d. CSF c. salary of the security guard
757. . It is a security unit maintained and operated by d. commission of the operator
any government entity other than military or 766. . It is administrative sanctions that can be imposed
police. to any applicant who failed to submit the complete
a. PDA requirements in the renewal of license.
b. PSA a. cancellation
b. GSU b. revocation
c. CSF c. nullification
d.PAD d. suspension
758. . It is the umbrella organization for PDA and PSA. 767. . It shall apply to all PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs
a. PADPAO, Inc. throughout the Philippines.
b. SAGSD a. Private Scty. Law
c. SEC b. RA 5487
d. PNP c .IRR of RA 5487
759. . It is a government agency involved in the d.all of the above
supervision of the internal affairs of the PSAs, 768. . It refers to the Summary Power of the Chief, PNP
PDAs, CSFs and GSUs. as provided by R.A. 5487.
a. PADPAO, Inc. a. suspension of license
b. SAGSD b. cancellation of license
c. SEC c. all of the above
d. PNP d. non of the above
760. . It is the age requirement for the operator or 769. . It is the established rules and regulations in the
manager of PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU. operation of GSUs, EXCEPT:
a. 25 years a. registration at SAGSD
b. 30 years b. registration at CSG
c. 35 years c. both A & B
d. 20 years d. registration at SEC
761. . It is the initial number of guard requirements that 770. . Any member of the GSUs shall be required to
must be contracted for the 1st year of operation of secure a __________ to exercise profession at
PSA. SAGSD.
a. 100 a. permit
b. 200 b. authority
c. 1,000 c. registration
d. 50 d. license
762. . What is the minimum number of guard 771. . How many days prior expiry month of license shall
requirements in the operation of branch offices of require PSL holders to undergo NP examinations.
PSA. a. 60 days

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 b. 30 days a. regular license
c. 45 days b. temporary license
d. 15 days c. license to operate
772. . Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be issued by the d. permit to operate
accredited testing centers within how many days 782. . These are the classifications of offenses as
after the date of examination. prescribed by the IRR of R.A. 5487, EXCEPT:
a. 60 days a. serious offense
b. 30 days b. light offense
c .45 days c. grave offense
d.15 days d. less grave offense
773. . Moribund but previously licensed security agency, 783. . They have the authority to conduct inspection to
means: PSAs/PDAs/CSFs/GSUs, EXCEPT:
a. dying PSA a. C, SAGSD
b. viable PSA b. C, ROPD
c. new PSA c. PD, PPO
d. renewing PSA d. SAGSD Officer
774. .It refers to the requirements for application for 784. . These are authorized to conduct investigation on
licenses as security officers, guards, and operators. all complaints against securities of PSAs or
a. physical & mental examination detective of PDAs.
b. medical & dental examination a. C, ROPD
c. physical agility test examination b. Inves. Comm., CSG
d. drug test examination c. all of the above
775. . Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by whom? d. none of the above
a. DILG 785. . It must be avoided by the private security
b. C, PNP personnel, either physically or otherwise with the
c. PD, PPO strikers.
d. RD, PRO 3 a. direct contact
776. . Letter of Commendation to PSGs is awarded by b. indirect contact
whom? c. confrontation
a. PSAs Operators d. carrying of firearms
b. CSF Managers 786. . The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to
c. all of the above muster or _________ the members of the agency in
d. non of the above case of emergency or in times of disasters or
777. . It shall be submitted immediately after graduation calamity.
to the C, PNP. a. organize
a. closing reports b. incorporate
b. opening reports c. utilize
c. participants d. deputize
d. name of course 787. . The staff directorate in charge of gathering
778. . It is required to the License to Operate PSAs/CSFs. information is-
a. displayed a. Intelligence
b. carried b. Police Community Relation
c. registered c. Civil Security Group
d. all of the above d. Investigation and Detective Mngt.
779. . Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly known as 788. . Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM?
______ in the industrial security management. a. Chief of Staff, AFP
a. Kabit System b. Secretary of the DILG
b. Illegal Operation c. Secretary of National Defense
c. Merger of Security d. Chief of the PNP
d. Moribund Security 789. . It is the minimum educational attainment for
780. . It is no anymore required to PSAs/PDAs securing promotion in the PNP.
temporary license to operate. a. MNSA
a. pre-inspection b. Master’s Degree
b. post-inspection c. OSEC
c. inspection d. BS Degree
d. continuing inspection 790. . Attrition system is a means under Republic Act Nr.
781. . It shall not be issued unless prior inspection is 8551 to remove from the PNP, police officers who
conducted to the applicant agency. are-

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 a. inefficient d. post
b. ineffective 800. . The system used in PNP promotions is called-
c. unproductive a. Performance
d. all of the choices b. Seniority
791. . The nature of which, the police officer is free from c. Palakasan
specific routine duty is the definition of - d. Merit
a. “on duty” 801. . The directorate who is in charge of supplies and
b. “special duty” equipments of PNP is-
c. “leave of absence” a. logistics
d. “off duty” b. comptrollership
792. . An area containing two or more beats, routes or c. intelligence
post is called- d. plans
a. post 802. . What is the maximum tenure of a Police Regional
b. unit Director?
c. sector a. 4 years
d. section b .5 years
793. . The lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation c. 6 years
Rating in the PNP is- d. 9 years
a. Very Satisfactory 803. . The period of time in the present rank in
b. Fair permanent status is called-
c. Outstanding a. Time-In-Grade
d. Poor b. Length of Service
794. . The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years c. Seniority in rank
and receive a Base Pay of 25,000 pesos a month. d. Plantilla position
How much will be his Longevity Pay? 804. . The directorate who is the “make-up artist” and
a. 5,000 pesos “deodorant” of the PNP is called-
b. 7,500 pesos a. Personnel Records Mgt.
c. 10,000 pesos
d. 12,500 pesos b. Research Development
795. . SPO4 Masipag receives a base pay of Php14, 000. c. Police Community Relation
He had been in the service for 27 years. How much d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt.
is his longevity pay? 805. . The National Capital Region Police Office is
a.Php4, 200 divided into how many districts?
b. Php5, 000 a. four
c. Php6, 500 b. six
d. Php7, 000 c. five
796. . A primary subdivision of a bureau is called- d. seven
a. division 806. . A functional group within a section is called-
b. unit a. division
c. section b. route
d. department c. unit
797. . The mandatory training course for PO1 for them d. sector
to be promoted to PO2 or PO3. 807. . The staff directorate in charge of gathering
a. PSJLC information is-
b. PSOBC a. Intelligence
c. PSOOC b. Police Community Relation
d. PSBRC c. Comptrollership
798. . Time-In-Grade needed by a Senior Inspector d.Investigation and Detective Mgt.
before he could be promoted to Chief Inspector is- 808. . Which of the following is not an administrative
a. 1 year support unit?
b. 3 years a. Special Action Force
c. 2 years b. Civil Security Group
d. 5 years c. Police Security and Protection Office
799. . An area assigned for foot or motorized patrol d. all of the choices
purposes is called- 809. . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for
a. beat PNP members who want to be promoted to-
b. sector a. SPO4
c. route b. SPO3

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 c. SP01 c. physical fitness examination
d. PO3 d. drug test
810. Under the general qualifications for appointment in 820. . Age waiver can be granted if the applicant is-
the PNP, male applicant must be with a height of at a. 20 to 36 years old
least- b. 19 to 36 years old
a. 1.62 m c. 21 to 35 years old
b. 1.64 m d. 20 to 35 years old
c. 1.57 m 821. . What is the minimum rank for a police officer to
d. 1.54 be qualified a the C, PNP?
811. . The mandatory training course of SPO4 before a. Director
they can be promoted to the rank of Police b. Superintendent
Inspector is- c. Chief Superintendent
a. Officers Basic Course d. Director General
b. Officers Candidate Course 822. . The law that grants automatic eligibility for those
c. Officers Advance Course who passed any licensure examination
d. Senior Leadership Course administered by the Professional Regulations
812. . What is the nature of appointment of PNP Commission is-
personnel under the waiver program? a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
a. permanent b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
b. contractual c. Republic Act Nr. 6975
c. temporary d. Republic Act Nr. 8551
d. probationary 823. . The highest award given to a PNP member is-
813. .The Police Regional Office covering Metro-Manila a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan
is- b. Medalya ng Kagitingan
a. Western Police District c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting
b. NCRPO d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
c. Southern Police District 824. . What is the duration of the PNP Field Training
d. Central Police District Program?
814. . The equivalent rank of Major General in the PNP a. 10 months
is- b. 18 months
a. Director General c. 12 months
b. Chief Superintendent d. 24 months
c. Deputy Director General 825. . When is the date of effectively of the PNP Reform
d. Director and Reorganization Act?
815. . The number 2 man in the PNP organization in- a. 1992
a. TCDS b. 1996
b. DDG for Administration c. 1994
c. DDG for Operations d. 1998
d. none of them 826. . What law was amended by RA 8551?
816. .The national headquarters of the PNP is- a. RA 7659
a. Camp Dangwa b. RA 6425
b. Camp Crame c. RA 6975
c. Camp Aguinaldo d. RA 9165
d. Fort Bonifacio 827. . Valenzuela City maintains a police force with a
817. . The purpose of promotion in the PNP is- total manpower of 2000 officers and men. How
a. recognition of good work many PLEB must be established?
b. gives officers high morale a. two
c. gives higher pay b. four
d. all of the choices c. three
818. . Waiver system in the PNP will apply if- d. five
a. recruitment falls on summer 828. . What is the lowest administrative penalty?
b. qualified applicant falls below quota a. Forfeiture of Pay
c. ordered by the President b. Restricted to Specified limits
d. none of them c. Witholding of Privilege
819. . Mental fitness of an applicant in the PNP is d. Admonition
verified thru- 829. . It is the period given for a PNP member admitted
a. medical examination under the educational attainment waiver to finish
b. neuro-psychiatric examination his B.S. Degree according to RA 8551?

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 a. 4 years 839. . Which of the following administer the PNP
b. 6 years Entrance and Promotional Exam for policemen as
c. 5 years provided for under Republic Act Nr. 8551?
d. 7 years a. NAPOLCOM
830. . It is the number of year of non-promotion before b. Civil Service Commission
a PNP Member can be attrited. c. Congress
a. 5 years d. PNP
b. 15 years 840. . What is the basis for promotion that includes the
c. 10 years length of service in the present rank?
d. 20 years a. Merit
831. . It also referred to as Monthly Retirement Benefits b. Superiority
(MRB). c. Time-In-Grade
a. lump sum d. Age
b. pension 841. . In availing of early retirement, one must have
c. gratuity rendered continuous service of-
d. allowance a. 10 years
832. . Insubordination is an administrative infraction c. 15 years
referred to as- b. 20 years
a. citizens complaint d. 25 years
b. grave misconduct 842. . What is the length of service before a PNP
c. breach of internal discipline member would be qualified for optional
d. none of them retirement?
833. . PLEB is composed of how many person? a. 5 years
a. 3 b. 10 years
b. 5 c. 15 years
c. 4 d. 20 years
d. 6 843. . A promotion by virtue of exhibited act of courage
834. . How many years is maximum tenure in officer of and extra-ordinary gallantry beyond the call of duty
the Chief, PNP? is called-
a. four years a. Regular
b. six years b. Permanent
c. five years c. Temporary
d. nine years d. Meritorious
835. . How long will be the extension of tenure of the 844. . Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
Chief, PNP if extended? authorized by the PNP, is conducted to
a. not more than 1 year deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce
b. not less than 2 years the law, and for other legitimate purposes.
c. more than 1 year a. Clear Zone
d. none of them b. Public Place
836. . The law that grants eligibility to Criminology Board c. Police Checkpoint
d. Pre-Determined Area
Exam passers is-
845. . It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of
c. Republic Act Nr. 8551
determining the individual’s identity and resolving
d. Republic Act Nr. 6975
the officer’s suspicion concerning criminal activity.
837. . The agency that administers all the mandatory
a. Frisking
training for police officers is
b. Search
a. PPSC
c. Spot Check
b. PNP
d. Pat-down Search
c. DHRDD
846. . A promotion granted to PNP personnel who dies
d. NAPOLCOM
while in the performance of duty is called-
838. . Who can grant waivers for applicants in the PNP?
a. Regular
a. President
b. Posthumous
b. Chief, PNP
c. Temporary
c. Sec. of DILG
d. None of them
d. NAPOLCOM
847. . Under the lateral entry program in the PNP, a
criminologist who applied and selected will have
the initial rank of -
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 a. Senior Inspector 857. .It is an association or group of individuals with a
b. Inspector common goal.
c. SPO4 a. Police organization
d. Chief of Inspector b. Law enforcement group
848. . The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police c. Non-government organization
Superintendent is vested in the- d. Organization
a. Chief, PNP 858. . Who is the Father of Modern Policing System?
b. President a. Edwin Sutherland
c. Civil Service Commission b. Emile Durkhiem
d. NAPOLCOM c. Sir Robert Peel
849. . When can the President extend the tenure of d. Leonard Keeler
service of the Chief, PNP? 859. .Who is the first Chief of Police of Manila?
a. after 4 years a. Capt. George Curry
b. there is no successor b. Capt. Henry Allen
c. during martial law c. Capt. Columbus Piatt
d. national emergencies d. Capt. Howard Taft
850. . What is the benefit derived by a PNP officer 860. . Rape punished under RPC is crime against _____.
qualified for early retirement? a. chastity
a. two ranks higher b. passion
b. one rank higher c. person
c. his present rank d. mankind
d. one year gratuity 861. . What is given to a PNP member for every 5 years
851. . Who shall attest the appointment of PNP officers? of satisfactory service rendered?
a. Civil Service Commission a. promotion
b. Congress b. longevity pay
c. Commission of Appointment c. additional allowance
d. NAPOLCOM d. retirement benefits
852. . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for 862. . What is the lowest administrative penalty?
PNP members who want to be promoted to- a. reprimand
a. SPO4 b. admonition
b. SPO1 c. restriction
c. SPO3 d. forfeiture of pay
d. PO3 863. .Citizen’s complaint may be brought before the
853. . The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that the Chief of Police, City or Municipal Mayors and
State shall establish and maintain one police for _______.
which shall be- a. Chief, PNP
a. national in scope b. Provincial Director
b. civilian in scope c. Regional Director
c. national in character d. PLEB
d. military in character 864. . Decision the Chief, PNP in administrative cases
854. . What is the meaning of PPSC? where the penalty is dismissal, demotion and
a. Phil. Public Safety Course forced resignation may be appealed before this
b. Phil. Private Safety College body.
c. Phil. Public Safety College a. Regional Appellate Board
d. Phil. Private Safety Course b. Office of the President
855. .The mandatory training required for promotion to c. National Appellate Board
the rank of Police Superintendent is called- d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
a. MNSA 865. . Which of the following composed the PNP?
b. OSEC a. members of the INP
c. MPSA b. members of the PC
d. Master’s Degree c. members of the PNP
856. . He is the first Chief of the Philippine d. all of the choices
Constabulary? 866. .What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff?
a. Capt. Henry T. Allen a. Deputy Director General
b. Gen. Rafael Crame b. Police Director
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera c. Police Chief Superintendent
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt d. Police Senior Superintendent

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 867. . The kind of promotion granted to a candidate who d. Seventeen
meets all the basic qualification for promotion is 877. . The Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is
termed- done how many times per year?
a. special a. once
b. meritorious b. thrice
c. regular c. twice
d. ordinary d. four
868. . It is the mandatory training course for SPO4 878. . MNSA or Master’s in National Security
before they can be promoted to the rank of Police Administration is offered and administered by an
Inspector. institution known as-
a. Officer’s Basic Course a. PPSC
b. Officer’s Advance Course b. NAPOLCOM
c. Officer’s Candidate Course c. National Defense Office
d. Senior Leadership Course d. National Defense College
869. . How many Staff Directorates are there in the PNP 879. . The mandatory training course needed to be
National Office (NHQ-PNP)? promoted to SPO1 and SPO2 is called-
a. eleven a. Police Basic Course
b. ten b. Junior Leadership Course
c. nine c. Senior Leadership Course
d. twelve d. Officers Candidate Course
870. . Generally, PNP promotions are subject to the 880. . The administrative support unit in charge of
confirmation of the: delivering the necessary supplies and materials to
a. Civil Service Commission all PNP units in the field is called-
b. NAPOLCOM a.Finance Service
c. Commission on Appointment b.Logistics Support Service
d. President of the Phil. c.Computer Service
871. . The number 4 man in the PNP organization is the - d.Communications & Electronics Svc
a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns 881. . The highest ranking Police Non-Commissioned
b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm Officer is-
c. The Chief Directorial Staff a. SPO2
d. Regional Director of the NCR b. SPO4
872. . The National Appellate Board Office of the c. SPO3
NAPOLCOM is located in what city? d. Inspector
a. Quezon City 882. . How many stars are there in the rank of Police
b. City Of Manila Director?
c. Mandaluyong City a. one
d. Makati City b. three
873. . Police Senior Superintendents are appointed by- c. two
a. Chief, PNP d. four
b. Secretary, DILG 883. . The Republic Act that is also known as the DILG
c. President of the Phil. Act of 1990 that established the PNP under the
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM DILG is-
874. . The law that merges the police and Philippine a. Republic Act Nr. 6975
Constabulary into the PC-INP is- b. Republic Act Nr. 7659
a. R.A. 7659 c. Republic Act 8551
b. R.A. 6975 d. Presidential Decree 765
c. R.A. 8551 884. . In the history of our police force, who was the first
d. P.D. 765 Director General of the Philippine National Police
875. . How many deputies do the PNP consist? (PNP)?
a. one a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
b. three b. Gen. Raul Imperial
c. two c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
d. four
885. . The primary objective of Philippine National Police:
876. . How many police Regional Offices (PRO) are there
a. Law Enforcement
in the PNP Organization?
b. Peace and Order
a. fourteen
c. Protect and Serve
b. sixteen
d. Crime Prevention
c. Fifteen

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 886. . The national headquarters of the PNP is located in d. none of the choices
Quezon City. It was named after the 1st Filipino Chief 894. . The following are functions in a police organization,
of the Philippine Constabulary. EXCEPT:
a. Rafael Palma a. primary functions
b. Cesar Nazareno b. administrative functions
c. Rafael Crame c. secondary functions
d. Emilio Aguinaldo d. auxiliary functions
887. . Richard Aldenjoined the PNP in 1996. He was 30 895. . If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails
years old then. What year can Alden retire? to disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure
a. 2017 of the Patrol officer is:
b. 2031 a. Conduct a complete search.
c. 2032 b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
d. 2022 c. No further search may be made.
888. . The Role of the PNP on matters involving the d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
suppression of insurgency and serious treats to supervisor.
national security? 896. . He is known as the father of modern policing
a. The AFP operating through the area system?
commander is the one primarily responsible a. August Vollmer
on matters involving insurgency and other b. Robert Peel
serious treats to national security.
c. Oliver Cromwell
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role
towards insurgency and other serious treats d. Cesare Lombroso
to national security. 897. . When responding to call for police assistance due
c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP to planted or found explosives, what immediate
in insurgency-affected areas. actions should the patrol officer will do?
d. All of the choices a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
889. . The procedure which is intended to be used in b.Dispose the item immediately to avoid further
situations of all kinds and outlined as guide and by injury to happen.
men in the field operations relative to reporting, c.Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive
dispatching, raids, arrest and investigation refers to Ordinance Disposal Team.
a. Field Procedure d.Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper
b. Time Specific plan
procedure to be followed, after investigating the
c. Problem oriented plan
d. Headquarters procedure item.
890. . The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a 898. . Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the
period ______? Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is his
a. Not exceeding four years. equivalent rank in the PNP?
b. Not exceeding five years. a. Inspector
c. Not exceeding six years. b. Chief Inspector
d. Not exceeding three years. c. Senior Inspector
891. . The law that empowered the police commission to d. Superintendent
conduct entrance and promotional examination for 899. . How many Deputy Director General ranks are there
police members refers to: in the PNP?
a. RA 6040 a. 1
b. RA 157 b. 3
c. RA 5487 c. 2
d. PD 765 d. 4
892. . The theory of police service which states those 900. . The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
police officers are servants of the people or the a. Four star general
community refers to: b. Director
a. Old c. Chief Superintendent
b. Home rule d. Director General (PNP)
c. Modern 901. . What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?
d. Continental a. 1:1000
893. . Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to b. 1:1500
join the Philippine National Police. What would be c. 1:500
his initial rank upon entry? d. 1:7
a. Senior Inspector 902. . The fourth man in command of the PNP is the
b. Chief Inspector __________.
c. Inspector a. DDG for operation

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 b. Chief, Directorial Staff 911. . As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should
c. DDG for administration be how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel?
d. Chief, PNP a. one (1)
903. . Which of the following is NOT included in the b. more than one
powers and function of the PNP? c. at least one
a. enforce all laws and ordinances d. less than one
b. maintain peace and order 912. . If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be
c. investigate and prevent crimes the immediate things to do when accident occur?
d. prosecute criminal offenders a. Cordon the area
904. . The word “police” was derived from the Greek b. Go away and call your superior
word _______, which means government of the city. c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
a. politia d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
b. Polis 913. . Detective Beat System is one of the concrete
c. politeia responses of the PNP in reinventing the field of
d. Policy investigation. Who is the NCRPO Chief who
905. . It is defined as the determination in advance of introduces this DBS?
how the objectives of the organization will be a. Dir. Alma Jose
attained. b. Dir. Romeo Pena
a. planning c. Dir. Sonny Razon
b. Advancement d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento
c. police planning 914. . All of the following are members of the People’s
d. Development Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
906. . It is the premier educational institution for the a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and
training, human resource development and Order Council from among the respected
continuing education of all personnel of the PNP, members of the community
b. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality
BFP, and BJMP.
concerned chosen by the association of barangay
a. PPSC captains
b. RTS c. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
c. PNPA d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar
d. NPC of the Philippines
907. . It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s 915. . Two or more persons forming an organization must
complaint against the police officers. identify first the reason for establishing such
a. IAS organization. They must identify the organization’s
b. PNP _________:
c. PLEB a. strategy
d. NAPOLCOM b.mission
908. . The provincial governor shall choose the provincial c.vision
director from a list of _____ eligible’s recommended d. objective
by the PNP regional director: 916. . To improve delegation, the following must be
a. six done, EXCEPT:
b. Five a. establish objectives and standards
c. Three b. count the number of supervisors
c. require completed work
d. four
d. define authority and responsibility
909. . The deployment of officers in a given community, 917. . The number of subordinates that can be supervised
area or locality to prevent and deter criminal activity directly by one person tends to:
and to provide day-to-day services to the a. Increase as the physical distance between
community. supervisor and subordinate as well as between
a. Patrol individual subordinate increases
b. Beat Patrol b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and
c. Line Patrol experience of the subordinate
d. Area Patrol c. Increase as the level of supervision progresses
for the first line supervisory level to the
910. . The head of the IAS shall have a designation of
management level
____________? d. All of the above
a. Director General 918. . This means controlling the direction and flow of
b. Solicitor General decisions through unity of command from top to
c. Inspector General bottom of organization:
d. IAS General a. Audit
b. Coordination

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 c. Monitoring
d. Authority
919. . Which of the following statements is true:
a.Performance evaluation measures credibility
of the police
b.Performance evaluation is not a basis for
salary increases or promotion
c.Performance evaluation is done once a year
among police personnel
d.Performance evaluation is implemented to
determine the quality of work performance
of personnel
920. . The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG
for _______:
a. Administrative control
b. Operational supervision
c. Administration and control
d. Policy and program coordination
921. . SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same
supervisor. This is the principle of __________:
a. delegation of authority
b. span of control
c. unity of command
d. chain of command
922. . The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP
or the Director General of the PNP is;
a. 4 years
b. 56 years
c. 5 years
d. 21 years
923. . In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
a. standard operation procedures
b. special operation procedures
c. standard operating procedures
d. special operating procedures
924. . The following are the characteristics of a good plan,
except:
a. Flexibility
b. specific
c. Clear
d. expensive
925. . If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How
many of the annual quota is allocated for women?
a.10%
b.120
c.100
d.200
926. . Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be
waived in the following order:
a. age, height, weight & education
b. age, weight, height & education
c. height, education, weight & age
d. in any order
927. . It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis
provided by law.
a. attrition
b. separation
c. romotion
d. Retirement
928. . The age requirement for new PNP applicants must
not be less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The
G.S.T. 2019
Maximum age requirement for PNP applicants using
the lateral entry program is ____.
a. 35 years old
b. 25 years old
c. 30 years old
d. 31 years old
929. . A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed
members is required for permanency of their
appointment. Who among the following is
exempted to undergo the Field Training Program
and issued a permanent appointment?
a. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr.
Inspector via Lateral entry.
b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr.
Inspector via Lateral entry.
c. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed
Inspector after graduation.
d. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist
and First Place in the Examination.
930. . Planning as a management function is to
be done in the various levels of PNP
Organization. Broad policy based from laws
directives, policies and needs in general is the
responsibility of:
a. Directorate for Plans
b. President of the Philippines
c. Chief, PNP
d. Dep. Dir. For Administration
931. . What is the rank equivalent of PNPDeputy
Director General in the Armed Forces of the
Philippines?
a. Lt. General
b. Major General
c. Brigade General
d. General
932. . The Philippine National Police will recruit
500 new policemen on April 2013 to fill up its
quota. Who among the following applicants is
qualified to apply?
a. Alden who was born on April 24, 1978
b. Maine who was born on November 22, 1980
c. Vice who was born on March 17, 1993
d. Plastillas who was born on August 10, 1991
933. . Police Inspector Katunggali joined the
Philippine National Police on October 1,
1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as
embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement
so that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP
which he served with extreme commitment and
loyalty. When does Mark Espinosa can retire?
a. October 5, 1998
b. October 6, 1999
c. September 5, 2010
d. September 5, 2008
934. . Which of the following administrative
penalties is immediately executory?
a. Dismissal
b. Forfeiture of pay
Page 54 of 227
 c. Suspension 943. .PNP members under the waiver program but is
d. Death penalty dismissed for failure to comply with the
935. . It is the third in command in the Philippine National requirements can re-apply to the PNP?
Police: A. Maybe Yes
a. Regional Director B.Maybe No
b. Chief Directorial Staff C..Absolutely Yes
c. DeputyChief for Administrationd. D.Absolutely No
d. Deputy Chief for Operation 944. .The reason why police officer appears in court as a
936. . The head of the National Capital Regional witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR director respect to the court and to his:
with the rank of: A.Position/Rank
a. Chief Superintendent B.Superior
b. Director C.Profession
c. Superintendent D.Comrades
d. General 945. .Which among the following is NOT subjected to
937. . Under the waiver program, who among the field Operational Plans?
following PNP applicants is the least priority for A.Patrol
appointment? B.Records
a. maine who just earned 72 units in college b. C.Investigation
Paloma who is under height D. Traffic
c. Jauquinwho is underweight 946. . Which of the following statement is not true about
d. Alden who is overage patrol?
938. . Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known A.It is the backbone of the police department
as____________. B.It is the essence of police operation
a.Department of Interior and Local Government Act C.It is the single largest unit in the police department
of 1990 that can be eliminated
b.Department of the Interior and Local Government D.It is the nucleus of the police department
Act of 1990 E.It is the operational heart of the police department
c.Department of Interior and the Local Government 947. .The performance evaluation system in the PNP is
Act of 1990 conducted:
d.Department of the Interior and the Local A.thrice a year
Government Act of 1990 B. Every 6 months
939. . SPO3 Manny Weather receives 27, 690.00 C.Every 2 years
base pay since he was promoted. After five years from D. Quarterly
promotion, what would be his monthly base pay after 948. . A PNP member who acquired permanent physical
adding his longevity pay? disability in the performance of his dutyand unable to
a. 32, 690.00 further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime
b. 37, 690.00 pension equivalent to:
c. 30, 459.00 A50% of his last salary
d. 31, 549.00 B. 70% of his last salary
940. . Decisions rendered by the national IAS C.60% of his last salary
shall be appealed to the__________: D. 80% of his last salary
a. Regional Appellate Board 949. . How many successive annual ratingperiods before
b. National Appellate Board a police officer may be separated due to inefficiency
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board or poor performance?
d. National Police Commission A.2
941. . It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966. B.4
a. R.A. 4864 C.3
D.1
b. R.A. 8551
c. Act 175 950. . How many cumulative annual ratingperiods before
d. PD 765 a police officer may be separated due to inefficiency
942. .__________ is given to any PNP member who has or poor performance?
exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk A.2
of his life above and beyond the call of duty. B.4
A. Meritorious Promotion C.3
B. Special Promotion D.1
C. Regular Promotion 951. .In this theory, management assumes employees
D. On-the-Spot Promotion may be ambitious and self-motivated and exercise

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 self-control. It is believed that employees enjoy their D. policy or procedural plan
mental and physical work duties. 959. .The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____?
A.Hawthorne Effect A.Superintendent
B.Stockholm Syndrome B. Director
C.X theory C.Senior Superintendent
D.Y theory D. Chief Superintendent
952. .The theory X and Y is a human motivation created
960. . The institution of a criminal action or complaint
by?
against a police officer is
A.Edward H. Sutherland
A.A ground for dismissal
B.C. Edwin Hawthorne
B.Not qualified for promotion
C.Henry A. Landsberger
C.Automatically dismiss
D.Douglas McGregor
D.Not a bar to promotion
953. In this theory, which has been proven counter-
961. .Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of
effective in most modern practice, management
the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and
assumes employees are inherently lazy and will
properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of
avoid work if they can and that they inherently
peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of
dislike work. As a result of this, management
criminals and bringing the offenders to justice
believes that workers need to be closely supervised
A.Deployment
and comprehensive systems of controls developed. B.Reinforcement
A.Hawthorne Effect C.Reintegration
B.Stockholm Syndrome D.Employment
C.X theory 962. . What is the first step in making a plan?
D.Y theory
A.Frame of reference
954. .This kind of organizational structure classifies
B.Analyzing the Facts
people according to the function they perform in C.Collecting all pertinent data
their professional life or according to the functions D.Identification of the problems
performed by them in the organization. 963. .It identify the role of police in the community and
A.Functional Structure future condition in state
B.Line and Staff Structure A.Visionary Plans
C.Line Structure B.Strategic Plans
D.Divisional Structure C.Synoptic Planning
D.Incremental Planning
955. .If the offense is punishable for a period of not
964. .Is that field of management which involves
exceeding 30 days but not less than 16 days, the
planning, and controlling the efforts of a group of
citizen’s complaint against erring PNP member shall
individuals toward achieving a common goal with
be filed at the
maximum dispatch and minimum use of
A.Office of the chief of police
administrative resources.
B.PLEB
C.Mayor’s Office A.Human Resources
D. any of the choices B.Personnel Management
956. .Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of C.Human Management
D.Personnel Administration
the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade
965. . Is the process of developing methods or procedure
in case of 20 years active service
or an arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the
A.50%
accomplishment of a definite objective.
B.10%
C.2.5% A.Management
D.55% B.Functioning
957. .This type of plan is intended for specific purpose C.Budgeting
D.Planning
such as drug crackdown, crime prevention program,
966. . Are guidelines for action to be taken under specific
or neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes
circumstances and details with the following
when the objective is accomplished or the problem
procedures.
is solved
A.Field Procedures
A.Strategic plan B.Procedural plan
B.Time Specific plan C.Operational Plans
C.Problem oriented plan D.Functional plan
D.time bound operational plan 967. . Which of the following is not a function of police
958. .This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members personnel unit?
on routine and field operations and some special A.Preparing policy statements and standard
operations operating Procedures relating to all areas of the
A.Strategic plan administration of human resources
B.Time Specific plan B.Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line
C.Problem oriented plan officials regarding personnel matters

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 C.Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to 976. . Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal
identify, and subsequently correct, unsatisfactory and ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence
working conditions of an award:
D. Establish criteria for promotion to the exclusive
A.Medal
ranks
968. .It refers to the process of screening out or B. Awards
eliminating undesirable applicants that do not meet C.Decorations
the organization’s selection criteria D.Ribbons
A. Promotion Recruitment 977. .For every _______ letters of commendation, a
B.Transfer Selection medalya ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP
C.Recruitment member:
D.Selection
A.Six
969. .It is recognized as the best method of filing
B. Four
A.Pigeon Hole
B.retrieval operation C.Five
C.Records Management D. Three
D.chain of custody 978. .Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful
970. .It is considered to be the heart of any identification exaction, domination, or excessive use of authority:
system; it provides positive identification of the A.Misconduct
criminal B. Dishonesty
A.Arrest and booking report C.Incompetency
B.Miscellaneous Records D. Oppression
C.Identification record 979. .The operational support unit of the PNP shall
D.Fingerprint Records
function as a mobile strike force or reaction unit to
971. .The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s
augment police forces for civil disturbance control,
monthly salary and allowances for the heirs is for a
counter-insurgency, hostage taking, rescue
maximum of how many year?
operations and other special operations:
A.1 year
A.NARCOM
B. 2 months
C. 4 years B. SAF
D.2 years C.SWAT
972. .In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number D. SOCO
of hours of classroom training should be required for 980. .The organizational structure of the PNP is
newly promoted supervisory personnel __________.
A.72 hours A.Line
B.80 hours B. functional
C.75 hours C.staff
D.85 hours
D. line and staff
973. .It should be proactive, people oriented, based on
981. . As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not
individual need, and delivered in such a way as to
allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge
motivate the experienced officer Higher dgreee of
of lawlessness and criminality as determined by
professionalism/
proper authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the
Professionalization.
total number of security guards.
A.Recruit Training
B.Specialized training A.50%
C.In Service B. 20%
D.Field Training C.30%
974. . When an officer reaches the time-in-grade D. 10%
possessing the entire mandatory and other 982. . The vault door should be made of steel at least
consideration in promotion, is what kind of __________ in thickness?
promotion? A.7 inches
A.Promotion by Virtue of Position B. 9 inches
B. Regular Promotion C.6 inches
C.Meritorious Promotion D. 20 feet or more
D. Promotion
983. . An act or condition, which results in a situation
975. .It involves assistance and action by non police
conducive to a breach of the protection system, or
agencies such as Local Safety Council for Traffic
that, could result to loss.
Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or
A.Hazards
Disaster Preparedness plans and Civil defense plans
B. Environmental Hazards
A.Management Plans
B.Procedural plan C.Natural Hazards
C.Tactical Plans D. Security Hazards
D. Extra departmental plan

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 984. .An inquiry into the character, reputation, 993. .What type of alarm is best suited for doors and
discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an windows?
individual in order to determines person suitability A. Photoelectric
for appointment or access to classified matter. B. Metallic foil
A.Character Investigation C. Audio detection
B.Physical Investigation D. Microwave Detection
C.Background Investigation 994. .Is the process of conducting physical examination to
D. Personnel Security Investigation determine compliance with establishment security
985. .The importance of the firm or installation with policies and procedures?
reference to the national economy security A. Security Education
A.Relative vulnerability B. Security Survey
B. Relative program C. Security Planning
C.Relative criticality D. Security Inspection
D. Relative security 995. . Is a corporate and executive responsibility,
986. .Private security agencies have to be registered with involving the knowledge of the objectives of the
the: security and the means and the method to reach
A.SEC these objective or goal must then involve.
B.DTI A. Security Inspection
C.PADPAO B. Security Hazards
D. PNP, SAGSD C. Security Planning
987. .To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain D. Security Survey
facility what must be constructed. 996. . A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic
A.Full view fence device designed to prevent entry into a building,
B. Chain link fence room container, or hiding place, and to prevent the
C. Solid fence removal of items without the consent of the owner
D. Multiple fences A .Padlocks
988. . A private security Guard who is escorting a big B. Locks
amount of money or cash outside his area of C. Code Operated
jurisdiction shall be issued with a- D. Lever Locks
A.Firearms 997. . A type of protective alarm system where the
B. Mission Order central station located outside the installation.
C.Duty Detail Order When the alarm is sounded, it will notifies the police
D. None of These and other agency
989. .What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard A. Local Alarm system
Course? B. Auxiliary System
A. 150 Hours C. Central Station System
B. 72 Hours D. Proprietary
C. 48 Hours 998. . It is placed on the floor in such a position that
D. 300 Hours tellers may activate the alarm by placing the front of
990. .All except one are the line leadership staff: their foot to engage the activation bar
A.Detachment Commander A. Bill traps
B.Post-in-Charge B. Foot Rail Activator
C.Chief Inspector C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
D.Security Supervisor 1 D. Foot buttons
991. . Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, 999. These are wide beam units, used to extend the
double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
spaces in an equal part. Barbed wire fencing should approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a
not be less than ___ high excluding the top guard. narrow, horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the
A.8 feet vertical plane
B.7 feet A. Fresnel Lights
C.9 feet B. Street Lights
D. 6 feet C. Floodlights
992. . Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, D.Search lights
license issued to security guards. 1000. . What is the required capital investment for
A. Any of the choices organization of private security agency?
B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM A. P 500,000
C. Secretary, DILG B. B. P 100,000
D. C/PNP C. P 1,000,000

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 D. P 50,000 1010. .The following are principles of Physical
1001. . One who steals with preconceived plans Security, EXCEPT:
and takes away any or all types of items or supplies a. There is impenetrable Barrier.
b.Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
for economic gain?
c.Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
A. Normal Pilferer d.Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
B. Regular Pilferer 1011. . The susceptibility of a plant or
C. Casual Pilferer establishment to damage, loss or disruption of
D. Systematic pilferer operations due to various hazards.
1002. . The metallic container used for securing a. Relative vulnerability
documents or small items in an office or installation b. Relative criticality
c. Relative susceptibility
refers to:
d. Relative security
A. Safe 1012. . Security Clearance is a certification by a
B. Vault responsible authority that the person described is
C. File room cleared to access and classify matters at
D. None of these appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain
1003. .Chain link fences must be constructed valid for a period of____ from the date of
in______ material excluding the top guard? issuance.
a. Seven feet a. 1 year
b. Six feet b. 4 years
c. Four feet c. 2 years
d. Five feet d. 5 years
1013. . The tenure of a security guard is:
1004. .The following things are used as barrier, a. Six Months
which serves as a deterrent to the possible intruder b. Co-terminus with the service contract
in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT: c. Two years
a. Human d. Contractual
b. Fences 1014. . Which among the following is not an
c. Doors advantage of a full-view fence, except:
d. Concertina a.It allows visual access to the installation which aids
1005. .Vaults are storage devices which are usually the intruder in planning.
designed to be at least _______fire resistant. b.It allows the intruder to become familiar with
a. 3 hours .the movements of persons in the installation
b. 24hours c.It creates shadows which could prevent
c. 6hours concealment of the intruder.
d. 12 hours d.None of these
1006. . A lock which is commonly installed in safe 1015. .Every registered PSA are mandatory to give
deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is surety bond which shall answer for any valid and
operated by utilizing combinations by means of a legal claims against such agency filed by aggrieved
dial. party. How much is the Surety bond of PSA with
a. Lever locks 500-799 guards.
b. Combination lock a. 50, 000
c. Padlock b. 100, 000
d. Code operated locks c. 150, 000
1007. . The maximum number of firearms allowed d. 200,00
to possess by a PSA should not exceed by___ units. 1016. . What type of investigation involves all
a. 30 aspect and details about the circumstances of a
b. 70 person?
c. 500 a. partial background investigation
d. 1000 b. completebackground investigation
1008. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits c. personnel security investigation
a blue- green color? d. national agency check
a. Sodium vapor lamp 1017. . The exposure and the teaching of
b. Incandescent lamp employees on security and its relevance to their
c. Mercury vapor lamp work is:
d. Quartz lamp a.Security Inspection
1009. .What type of security deals with the b.Security Education
industrial plants and business enterprises where c.Security Orientation
personnel, processes, properties and operations d.Security Survey
are safeguarded? 1018. .A type of security which provides sufficient
a. Personnel security illumination to areas during hours of darkness
b. industrial security a. Protective Lighting
c. Physical security b. Fresnel Lights
d. bank security c. Search Lights
d. Street Lights

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 1019. . Type of alarm system which is usually b. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective
activated by the interruption of the light beam is Agency Operators, Inc.
known as: c. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector
a. Metallic foil Agency Operators, Inc.
b. Electric eye device d. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective
c. Audio alarm Associations Operators, Inc.
d. Microwave alarm 1028. 1 It refers to a protection against any type of
1023.What is the ratio of the security guard to their crime to safeguard life and assets by various
licensed firearm is needed after operating for six methods and device.
months. a. Physical Security
a. 1:3 b. Perimeter Security
b. 1:5 c. Operational Security
c. 1:2 d. Security
d. 1:1 1029. . All except are the qualifications of a security
1020. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp is officer.
useful in areas where insects predominate? a. Has graduated from a Security Officer
a. Mercury vapor lamp b. Training Course.
b. Quartz lamp c. Holder of Masters Degree.
c. Sodium vapor Lamp d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp e. Physically or mentally fit.
1021. . What is an act governing the organization 1030. .These provides access within the perimeter
and management of private security agency, barrier and should be locked and guarded.
company guard force and government security a. Gates and Doors
forces? b. Side-Walk Elevator
a. RA 8574 c. Utilities Opening
b. RA 5478 d. Clear Zones
c. RA 4587 1031. .A fact finding probe to determine a plant
d. RA 5487 adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security,
1022. .Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link with the corresponding recommendation is:
or concertina. Chain link are for ______. a. security inspection
a. Solid structure b. security education
b. Least permanent structure c. security training
c. Permanent structure d. security survey
d. Semi- permanent structure 1032. . What unit of PNP handles the processing and
1023. it is more comprehensive investigation than the issuances of license for private security
NAC & LAC since it includes thorough and complete personnel?
investigation of all or some of the circumstances or a. PNP SOSIA
aspects of a person’s life is conducted? b. PNP FED
a. Personnel Security Investigation c. PADPAO
b. Partial Background Investigation d. PNP SAGSD
c. Background Investigation 1033. . What is the most common type of human
d. Complete Background Investigation hazard?
1024.The unobstructed area maintained on both a. Sabotage
sides of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and b. Pilferage
interior parallel area to afford better observation of c. Theft
the installation refers to: d. Subversion
a. Clear zone 1034. . What is the security force maintained and
b. Complimentary zone operated by any private company/ corporation
c. Open zone for its own security requirements?
d. Free zone a. GSU
1025.The extension period for a license to operate issued b. CSF
upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum number of c. PSA
guards is: d. PD
a. 1 month 1035. . What type of controlled area requires highest
b. 6 months degree of security?
c. 2 years a. Limited
d. 1 year b. Restricted
1026.Which of the following types of lock is generally c. Special
used in car doors? d. Exclusive
a. Warded lock 1036. . What lock requires manipulation of parts
b. Lever lock according to a predetermined combination code
c. Disc tumbler lock of numbers?
d. Combination lock a. Card- operated lock
1027. PADPAO stands for: b. Combination lock
a. Philippine Association of Detective and c. Electromagnetic lock
Protective Agency Operators, Inc. d. Card Operated
1037. .What type of lamp emits bright white light?
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 a. Sodium vapor lamp 1045. . Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour
b. Mercury vapor lamp of Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm?
c. Incandescent lamp
d. Quartz lamp a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the
1038. . What type of security lighting is focused to the company’s Vault.
intruder while the guard remains in the b. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
comparative darkness? c. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
a. Controlled lighting d. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the
b. Fresnel light guards table.
c. Emergency lighting
d. Glare- projection 1046. . Any physical structure whether natural or man-
1039. . What is the system of natural or man- made made capable of restricting, deterring or delaying
barriers placed between the potential intruder illegal or unauthorized access.
and the object, person and matter being a. Perimeter Fences
protected? b. Wire Fences
a. Communication security c. Moveable Barrier
b. Document security d. Barrier
c. Physical security 1047. . A company owned protective alarm with unit in
d. Barrier a nearest police station of fire department.
a. A. Proprietary Alarm
1040. .The following are the purposes of Security b. Auxiliary Alarm
Survey, EXCEPT: c. Central Alarm
a. To ascertain the present economic status d. Security Alarm
b. To determine the protection needed 1048. . It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused
c. To make recommendations to improve the overall light rather than direction beam. They are widely
security used in parking areas
d. None of these a. Street Lights
b. Search Lights
1041. . License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate c. Flood Lights
document which is issued by ____________ d. Fresnel Lights
authorizing a person to engage in employing
security guard or detective, or a juridical person
to establish, engage, direct, manage or operate a 1049. . A portable and detachable lock having or sliding
private detective agency. hasp which passes through a staple ring or the like
a. Secretary of DILG and is then made fast or secured.
b. Security and Exchange Commission a. Lock
b. Padlock
c. Chief, PNP c. Code Operated
d. President d. Card Operated

1042. . One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence 1050. . It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden
is that the distances between strands will not rise in temperature will not cause the safe to
exceed _______and at least one wire will be rupture. If the safe can withstand 2000
interlock vertical and midway between posts. 0
F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it
a. 3 inches has passed the test.
b. 6 inches a. Fire Endurance Test
c. 4 inches b. Fire and Impact Test
d. 7 inches c. Burning Test
d. Explain Hazard Test
1043. .Clear Zone of _______ must be established
between the perimeter barrier and structure 1051. . The following are phases of Security Education,
within the protected areas. EXCEPT:
a. 20 feet or more a. Special Interview
b. 40 feet or more b. Security Seminar
c. 30 feet or more c. Security Promotion
d. 50 feet or more d. Training Conference

1044. .A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance 1052. . How is one classified if he steals primarily
container usually a part of the building structure because of irresistible urge due to unexpected
use to keep, and protect cash, documents and opportunity and little chance of detection?
valuables materials. a. Systematic pilferer
a. Vault b. Ordinary pilferer
b. Safe c. Casual pilferer
c. File Room d. Unusual pilferer
d. None of these
1053. Psychology of Omnipresence means______.

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 a. Low Visibility perform specific predetermined preventive
b. High Visibility functions on a planned systematic basis:
c. Reactive a. Target Oriented Patrol
d. Proactive b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
1054. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and d. Directed deterrent Patrol
operational framework in truly affecting 1062. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can
mechanisms toward enhancing the efficiency and be best penetrated by the police through.
effectiveness of PNP investigational capability. a. Foot patrol
a. Detective Beat Patrol b. Bicycle patrol
b. Integrated Patrol System c. Mobile patrol
c. Community Oriented Policing System d. Helicopter patrol
d. Team Policing 1063. Integrated patrol system is the total system used
1055. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon to accomplish the police visibility program of the
reaching the end of the line beat, and before PNP. The Police officers in Police Community
returning to the point of origin. Precincts render 24 hours duty with prescribed
a. Patrol Report divisions of:
b.Situation Report a. 2 shifts
c.Investigation Report b. 4 shifts
d.Incident Report c. 3 shifts
d. every other day shift.
1056. The ideal police response time is:
a. 3 minutes 1064. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally
b. 5 minutes prevent the desire of human being to commit
c. 7 minutes crime.
d. 10 minutes a. Preventive
b. Proactive
1057. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition c. Reactive
possessing a high potential for criminal attack or d. High Visibility
for the creation of problem necessitating a
demand for immediate police service: 1065. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of
a. Hazard ________________ since they can be operated
b. Opportunity very quietly and without attracting attention.
c. Perception of Hazard a. Mobility and wide area coverage.
d. Police Hazard b. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
c. Shorter travel time and faster response.
1058. The most expensive patrol method and gives the d. Mobility and stealth
greatest opportunity to develop sources of
information is: 1066. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in
a. Foot Patrol San Juanico Bridge?
b. Marine Patrol a. Foot Patrol
c. Mobile Patrol b. K-9 Patrol
d. Helicopter Patrol c. Automobile Patrol
1059. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic d. Bicycle Patrol
in patrol which makes the policemen less visible
during the night. The primary purpose is:
a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a 1067. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in
crime the Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile
b. To have sufficient cover patrol bureau of Manila Police Department was
c. To attract less attention Isaias Alma Jose?
d. For safety of the Patrol officer a. May 7, 1954
b. May 17, 1954
1060. The following are included in the cause and effect c. May 14, 1957
of team policing. d. March 10, 1917
a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate; 1068. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious
c. Facilitate career development; persons, places, buildings/ establishments and
d. Diminish police morale; and vehicles especially during night-time, be prepared
e. Improve police community relation. to use your service firearm and Flashlight should
be-
a. a, b, e
b. c. a, b, d, e a. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a
c.a, c, d, e possible target.
d. d. a, b, c, e b. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you
1061. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol a possible target.
methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers

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 c. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten
possible adversary.
a. None of these
1069. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when
responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
a. Arrest criminals
b. Securing the area
c. Aiding the injured
d. Extort Money
1070. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon,
except when its occupants pose imminent danger
of causing death or injury to the police officer or
any other person, and that the use of firearm does
not create a danger to the public and outweighs
the likely benefits of its non-use. In firing upon a
moving vehicle, the following parameters should
be considered EXCEPT:
a. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing
suspect/s with the police officer and other persons.
b. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
harm in certainty the police officer or other
persons
c. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
the police officer or other persons.
d. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s
to avoid traffic accident.
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Proactive Patrol
1075. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?
a. It is the backbone of the police department
b. It is the essence of police operation
c. It is the nucleus of the police department
d.It is the single largest unit in the police Department
that can be eliminated
1076. It is an immediate response to block the escape of
lawless elements from a crime scene, and is also
established when nearby checkpoints are ignored
or during hot pursuit operations. It is set up by
police personnel conducting mobile patrol on
board a marked police vehicle, or those
conducting ISO and foot patrol operations within
the vicinity/periphery of the national or provincial
highways.
a. Dragnet Operation
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest
d. High Risk Stop
1077. The following are patrol activities, except:
A. Arrest of alleged criminals
B. Responding to emergency calls
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports

1071. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon 1078. This type of patrol maintains better personal
during pat-down search, a more secure search contact with the members of the community ideal
position may be: in gaining the trust and confidence of the people
a. Standing position to the police:
b. Lying Face down Position A. Horse Patrol
c. Hands placed against a stationary object, B. Bicycle Patrol
and feet spread apart. C. Automobile Patrol
d. All of these D. Foot Patrol

1096. The following are types of specialized patrol 1079. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last
method except: hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened
a. Marine Patrol in the area of responsibility of the patrol officer is:
b. Air Patrol A. Clockwise pattern
c. Canine Patrol B. Zigzag pattern
d. Foot Patrol C. Counter clockwise pattern
1072. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally D. Crisscross pattern
judged by his-
a. Knowledge of all problems in the community 1080. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol.
b. Residents developed good public relations EXCEPT:
c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor a. It involves larger number of personnel
offenses b. It develops greater contact with the public
d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his c. It insures familiarization of area
area d. It promotes easier detection of crime

1073. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful 1081. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue
assemblies? as well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What
a. True do you call the large dog with drooping ears and
b. False sagging jaws and keenest smell among all dogs,
c. Absolutely Yes d. formerly used for tracking purposes?
Absolutely No a. German shepherd
b. Bloodhounds
1074. This patrol tactic is designed to increase the c. Doberman pinscher
number of apprehension of law violator to engage d. Black Labrador Retrievers
in certain types of crimes:
a. Preventive Patrol 1082. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:
b. High-Visibility Patrol a. Foot

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 b. Automobile b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate
c. Bicycle the law.
d. Helicopter c. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized
squads.

1083. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed

in terms of number of:
1091. Team Policing is said to be originated in________:
a. Superiors to whom he reports
a. Aberdeen, Scotland
b. Superiors from whom he takes orders
b. Lyons, France
c. Subordinates directly reporting to him
c. Vienna. Austria
d. Any of these
d. London, England
1092. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for
1084. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer
patrolling:
from becoming _______ with people, hazards,
a. Egyptians
and facilities on his beat.
b. English
a. Well Acquainted
c. Chinese
b. Sluggish
d. American
c. Energetic
d. Unfamiliar
1093. The patrol strategy which employs bait or
distracter to in order to catch criminals is known
1085. The patrol pattern to be followed after the as:
clockwise and before the counter-clockwise? a. High visibility patrol
a. Straightway b. Blending patrol
b. Crisscross c. Low visibility patrol
c. Sector d. Decoy patrol
d. Zigzag
1094. A wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 14h
1086. The two-man patrol became_________ due to floor building. Which of the following should be
increase attack of police officer by militant, the first thing to do by the Patrol officer who first
dangerous section to be patrolled and many riots arrived at the scene?
demonstration in the street. a. Urge no to jump
a. Unnecessary b. Call nearest relative
b. Necessary c. Clear the area
c. Voluntary d. Report immediately to Station
d. Redundant
1095. What is the most realistic advantage of the
1087. A police strategy which aims to directly involve motorcycle patrol over the other patrol methods?
members of the community in the maintenance A. Low cost
of peace and order by police officers. B.Visibility
a. Integrated Police System C. Speed
b. Comparative Police System D. Security
c. Detective Beat System 1096. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively
d. Community Oriented Policing System implemented by police activity which-

1088. Which among the following routine patrol duties, a. Provides for many types of specialized
is the least likely to become completely a function patrol, with less emphasis on routine.
of automobile patrol is the checking of- b.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker
a. Security of business establishment. aspiration to commit crime.
b. Street light outrages. c.Influences favorable individual and group
c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs. attitudes in routine daily associations with the police.
D.llegalposting of signs and other advertisement. d. Intensifies the potential offender’s
expectation of apprehension.
1089. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for 1097. What is the new concept, police strategy which
patrolmen in areas where police hazards are integrates the police and community interests
serious is that, it usually- into a working relationship so as to produce the
a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman. desired organizational objectives of
b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges. peacemaking?
c. Wasteful of manpower.
d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when a. Preventive patrol
quick mobilization is needed. b. Directed Patrol
1090. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in c. Community Relation
the- d. Team policing
a. Opportunity for graft.

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 1098. What is the appropriate patrol method that is c. Police Discretion
most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and- d. Integrated Patrol
rescue operations? 1106. The patrol method characterized by speed and
a. Motorcycle mobility and considered as lest expensive as it
b. Automobile utilizes lesser number of men and covers a wider
c. Helicopter area in a short period of time, while protection to
d. Horse patrol officers:
a. Foot patrol
1099. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing b. Motorcycle Patrol
fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the next c. Automobile Patrol
procedure of the Patrol officer is: d. Helicopter patrol
a.Conduct a complete search.
b.The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect. 1107. Team members of the decoy may dress
c. No further search may be made. themselves in a manner designed to help them
d.Turnover the suspect to the immediate blend the neighborhood where they are
supervisor. deployed.
a. Absolutely False
1100. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized b. Absolutely True
when demonstrators become unruly and c. Absolutely Yes
aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their d. Absolutely No
secondary positions?
a. Tear Gas 1108. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage
b. Water Cannon of:
c. Truncheon a. One Man Patrol Car
d. Shield b. Two Man Patrol Car
1101. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every c. Foot Patrol
intersection until reaching the point of origin is d. Canine Patrol
following what pattern?
a. Clockwise 1109. The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack
b. Zigzag of activities:
c. Counter clockwise a. Afternoon Shift
d. Crisscross b. Morning Shift
c. Night Shift
1102. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol: d. None of these
a. Can report regularly to the command center.
b. Can operate quietly and without attracting 1110. It refers to a patrol strategy directed towards
attention. specific persons or places:
c. It is inexpensive to operate . a. Target Oriented Patrol
d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol b. High-Visibility Patrol
cars. c. Reactive Patrol
d. Directed deterrent Patrol
1103. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and
operational framework in truly affecting 1111. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol
mechanisms toward enhancing the efficiency and methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers
effectiveness of PNP investigational capability. perform specific predetermined preventive
a. Detective Beat Patrol functions on a planned systematic basis:
b. Integrated Patrol System a. Target Oriented Patrol
c. COPS-Community Oriented Policing System b. High-Visibility Patrol
d. Team Policing c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Directed deterrent Patrol
1104. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and
assemble at the police unit
headquarters at least _______ before the start of
their shift for accounting-
a. 10 minutes
b. hour
c. 30 minutes 1112. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of
d. 15 minutes armed and dangerous person or persons, aboard
a vehicle or on foot, including the power to use all
1105. The police must make an effort to ascertain and necessary and legal means to accomplish such
amaze upon the law abiding citizens and would be end.
criminals alike that the police are always existing a. Dragnet Operation
to respond to any situation at a moment’s notice b. Hasty Checkpoint
and he will just around the corner at all times. This c. High-Risk Arrest
statement refers to: d. High Risk Stop
a. Police Omnipresence
b. Police Patrol
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 1113. Which among the following activities during post- d.Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities
patrol or post-deployment phase is not included? to subordinates.
a. Formation & Accounting
b. Debriefing/Report Submission 1121. Which among the following Patrol Method is
c. Inspection & recall of Equipment appropriate when responding to quick emergency
d. Briefing call?
a. Motorcycle Patrol
1114. Police Patrols were restricted only to answering b. Air Patrol
calls of service. c. Automobile Patrol
a. Reactive d. Foot Patrol
b. High Visibility
c. Proactive 1122. This patrol strategy is focused more on called for
d. Low Visibility services
a. Reactive patrol
1115. The first organized patrol for policing purposes b. Directed deterrent patrol
was formed in London. This patrol pattern is c. Proactive patrol
usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain d. Blending patrol
that nothing happened in the area of
responsibility of the patrol? 1123. Before policemen become a dispatcher he must
a. Straight be_______.
b. Crisscross a. Voice Radio Operator
c. Clockwise b. Trained Formally
d. counter clockwise c. Licensed Dispatcher
d. Coordinator
1116. Itis a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer
garments of an individual for weapons only. 1124. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was
a. Frisking initiated on:
b. Search a. August 10, 1917
c. Spot Check b. August 7, 1901
d. Pat-down Search c. November 22, 1901
d. March 17, 1901
1117. It is one by patrolling the streets within the
perimeter of the beat not at random but with 1125. What should be accomplished by Patrol officers
definite target location where he knows his during Post-Deployment Phase?
presence is necessary. a. Situation Report
a. Target Oriented b. Citation Report
b. Zigzag c. Daily Patrol Report
c. Clockwise d. Hourly Patrol Report
d. Criss-Cross
1126. This patrol tactic would result to improvement of
1118. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the police omnipresence:
following are the advantages of Foot patrol, a. Target Oriented Patrol
EXCEPT: b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action d. Directed deterrent Patrol
taken.
b. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable 1127. It is the most prevalent and economical method
area of patrol used in patrol force:
c. Inspire more Public confidence. a. Foot Patrol
d. The officer can actually get to know the physical b. Air Patrol
layout of his beat better. c. Automobile Patrol
d. Motorcycle Patrol
1119. The word Patrol was derived from the French 1128. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times
word ________which means to go through more sensitive than human’s sense of smell?
paddles. a. One thousand times
a. Patroulier b. One hundred times
b. Patroul c. Ten thousand times
c. Politeia d. Ten million times
d. Politia
1129. Transfer of knowledge from one person to
1120. The concept of Unity of command is: another through common medium and channel.
a. No one should have more than one boss. a. Information
b. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom. b. Communication
c. Number of subordinates that a Superior can c. Police Communication
effectively supervise. d. Radio

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 1130. Refers to a location where the search, which is b. Low police visibility theory
duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to c. Low profile theory
deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce d. Maximum deterrence theory
the law, and for other legitimate purposes.
a. Clear Zone 1139. The principle of patrol force organization which
b. Public Place states that patrol officers should be under the
c. Police Checkpoint command of only one man refers to:
d. Pre-Determined Area a. Span of control
b. Unity of command
1131. It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding, c. Chain of command
primarily to prevent the commission of crimes d. Command responsibility
and maintain the peace and order situation in a
particular area: 1140. The elimination of the opportunity of people to
a. Police Patrol commit crime as a result of patrol.
b. Preventive Patrol a. Crime prevention
c. Foot Patrol b. Crime intervention
d. Patrol c. Crime suppression
d. Crime deterrence
1132. It is the primary objective of police patrol
operations: 1141. The Greek word which means “government of a
A.Crime Prevention city” or “civil organization and the state”, which is
B.Protect and Serve claimed as the origin of the word police refers to:
C.Law enforcement a. Politia
D. All of the choices b. Policia
c. Politeia
1133. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a a. patrol d. Polis
strategy called: 1142. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary
a. Reactive Patrol objective of patrol activity is:
b. Directed Patrol a. To prevent commission of crime.
c. Preventive Patrol b. Integrate the police and the community
d. Proactive Patrol c. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
d. Visibility and Omniprescence.
1134. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime 1143. What law provides for the creation of the National
incident faster but undetected, then the best Intelligence Coordinating Agency?
patrol method that he should employ is: a. RA 157
a. Bicycle patrol b. B. EO 213
b. Automobile patrol c. RA 6040
c. Motorcycle patrol d. EO 246
d. Foot patrol 1144. A person who breaks intercepted codes.
a. Crypto Analyst
1135. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a b. Cryptographer
person that enables another to victimize him: c. Cryptograph
a. Instrumentality d. Code breaker
b. Opportunity
c. Motive 1145. Agent who is a member of paramilitary group
d. Capability organized to harass the enemy in a hot war
1136. The factors to be considered in determining the situation.
number of patrol officers to be deployed in an a. Guerilla
area are the following, except: b. Propagandist
a. Size of the area c. Provocateur
b. Possible problems to be encountered d. Strong Arm
c. Topography 1146. It is a type of Cover which alters the background
d. none of the choices that will correspond to the operation.
1137. The patrol strategy which brings the police and a. Multiple
the people together in a cooperative manner in b. Natural
order to prevent crime: c. Artificial
a. Integrated Patrol d. Unusual
b. Team policing 1147. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
c. Reactive patrol
d. Proactive patrol A.Intelligence Officer can submit his information
report any time since it is to processes.
b. All intelligence information’s are collected by
1138. The theory in patrol which states that police clandestine method.
officers should conduct overt police operations in c. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a
order to discourage people from committing medium size police station.
crime refers to: d. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence
a. Theory of police omnipresence information by initiating good public relations.
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 1148. Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly a. Elicitation
prohibited but it can be done at the commander’s b. Surveillance
discretion since it tends to collect intelligence c. Roping
information. d. Undercover Operations
a. Partly True
b. Partly False 1157. It is a type of Agent used in collecting information
c. Wholly True who leaks false information to the enemy.
d. Wholly False a. Double Agent
1149. If information comes with a low reliability and b. Expendable Agent
doubtful accuracy, will this information be c. Agent of Influence
discarded or refused acceptance? d. Penetration Agent
a. Maybe Yes
b. Yes 1158. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
c. No Intelligence which refers to the knowledge
d. Maybe No essential to the prevention of crimes and the
1150. In selection and recruitment of informers the best investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal
factor to be considered is: offenders.
A.Age a. Internal Security Intelligence
B.Access b. Public Safety Intelligence
C.Educational Attainment D.Body c. Criminal Intelligence
built d. Preventive Intelligence
1151. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping
Act” which prohibits wiretapping in our country. 1159. Intelligence is the end product resulting from the
a. RA 1700 collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and
b. RA 4200 interpretation of all available information. What is
c. RA 7877 considered as the core of intelligence operations?
d. RA 7160 a.Dissemination
1152. Security Clearance is a certification by a b. Analysis
responsible authority that the person described is c. Mission
cleared to access and classify matters at d. Planning
appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain
valid for a period of____ from the date of 1160. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized
issuance. Military Espionage".
a. 1 year a. Alexander the Great
b. 5 years b. Frederick the Great
c. 2 years c. Karl Schulmeister
d. 4 years d. Arthur Wellesley

1153. How will you evaluate the intelligence report of
Agent Mariano with an evaluation rating of D2?
a. Completely reliable source doubtfully true
information
b. Unreliable source – probably true information
c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true
information
1154. It is a process or method of obtaining information
from a captured enemy who is reluctant to
divulge information.
a. Interview
b. Interrogation
c. Forceful Interrogation
d. Tactical Interrogation
1155. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and
record discreetly conversations of other people.
a. Eavesdropping
b. Bugging
c. None of these
d. Wiretapping
1156. The process of extracting information from a
person believes to be in possession of vital
information without his knowledge or suspicion.
1161. There are four categories of classified matters;
top secret, secret, confidential, and restricted. To
distinguish, their folder consists of different
colors. What will be the color of the document
which requires the highest degree of protection?
a. Red
b. Black
c. Blue
d. Green
1162. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the
biblical indication of the beginning of
Intelligence?
a. Number 13:17
b. Number 3:17
c. Number 17:13
d. Number 17:3
1163. A certain locality is identified to be a major source
of illicit drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence
officer was deployed to live in the area for a
considerable amount of time to find out the
authenticity of such reports.
a. Social assignments
b. Work assignments
c. Organizational assignments
d. Residential assignments

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 1164. It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with b. Secret Intelligence Service
defending the organization against its criminal c. Government Communication Headquarters
enemies? d. Defense Intelligence Staff
a. Line Intelligence 1173. Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as
b. Counter-Intelligence minister of police he studied the use of
c. Strategic Intelligence propaganda and censorship as well as utilizing
d. Tactical Intelligence statistical intelligence accounting.
a. Herbert Yadley
1165. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report b. Wilhem Steiber
which is “usually from a reliable source and c. Admiral Yamamoto
improbable information”? d. Joseph Fouche
a. C-5
b. B-5 1174. If the information or documents are procured
c. B-3 openly without regard as to whether the subject
d. C-3 of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of
1166. It is a form of investigation in which the operative the purpose or purposes for which it is being
assumes a cover in order to obtain information regarded.
a. Overt operation a. Overt Operation
b. Undercover assignment b. Surveillance
c. Covert operation c. Covert Operation
d. clandestine operation d. Analysis

1167. It refers to a person who is highly skilled in

converting message from clear to unintelligible 1175. Investigation of the records and files of agencies
forms by use of codes and cipher. in the area and residence of the individual being
a. Cryptographer investigated.
b. Crypto Analyst a. CBI
c. Cryptography b. NAC
d. Cryptechnician c. PBI
d. LAC
1168. What is evaluation of the intelligence report
gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly 1176. The type of intelligence that is immediate in
Reliable and doubtfully true information? nature and necessary for more effective police
a. D-4 planning.
b. C-4 a. Line Intelligence
c. C-5 b. Strategic Intelligence
d. D-5 c. Police Intelligence
d. Departmental Intelligence
1169. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the
appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT: 1177. It is considered as the most secured method of
a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle disseminating the information to the user of
b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses classified matters is by means of:
c.Change of seating arrangement within the a. Debriefing
surveillance vehicle b. Conference
d.Keep the cars behind the subject car. c. Cryptographic method
d. Seminar
1170. A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for
the anticipated arrival of the suspect who is either
wanted for investigation or who is expected to 1178. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to
commit a crime at a certain location. form a logical picture or theory.
a. Stake out a. Integration
b. Rough Shadowing b. Evaluation
c. Shadowing c. Deduction
d. Surveillance d. Interpretation

1171. In the Intelligence function, the black list includes 1179. In intelligence functions, a black list means:
________ forces. a. Neutral
a. Unwanted b. Unwanted
b. Friendly c. Friendly
c. Neutral d. Unfriendly
d. Unfriendly
1180. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained
1172. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of from conspicuous sources and 1% of information
United Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850 is obtained from clandestine sources. Clandestine
because of its old post office box number. means.
a. Security Service a. Observable

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 b. Overt b. Background Investigation
c. Visible c. Complete Background Investigation
d. Covert d. Personnel Security Investigation

1181. An E-3 intelligence report means: 1190. He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all
time:
a. The information comes from completely reliable a. Frederick the Great
sources and Improbable true. b. Alexander the Great
b. The information comes from Unreliable sources c. Arthur Wellesley
and probably true. d. Joseph Hernandez
c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources
and doubtfully true. 1191. What specialist group of CIA that was established
d. The information comes from Unreliable sources to research, create and manage technical
and possibly true. collection discipline and equipment.
1182. Refers to the observations of person’s
movements is generally refers to as? a.National Clandestine Service
a. Plant b.Directorate of Support
b. Stakeout c. Directorate of Intelligence
c. None d. Directorate of Science and Technology
d. Tailing or Shadowing
1183. The classification “Top secret”, have the security 1192. The persons listed in________ are allowed to
color folderof? enter a certain establishment or building.
a. Red a. Access list
b. Black b. Black List
c. Blue c. Blue Print
d. Green d. Silver list

1184. The process of assigning higher category of 1193. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage
document or information according to the degree of equipment, a public service, as by enemy agent
of security needed. or dissatisfied employees.
a. Degrading a. Subversion
b. Classification b. Sabotage
c. Upgrading c. Espionage
d. Advancement d. None of these

1185. It is a process or method of obtaining information 1194. The combination of the elements isolated analysis
from a captured enemy who is reluctant to with other known information related to the
divulge information. operation.
a. Interview a. Recording
b. Forceful Interrogation b. Analysis
c. Interrogation c. Integration
d. Tactical Interrogation d. Interpretation

1186. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to 1195. It deals with the demographic and psychological
determine if the information is true and- aspects of groups of people.
a. Reliable a. Sociological Intelligence
b. Accurate b. Economic Intelligence
c. Correct c. Biographical Intelligence
d. Probably true d. Political Intelligence

1187. This kind of intelligence is long range in nature: 1196. Which among the following principles of
a. Line Intelligence intelligence deemed to be the most important?
b. Operational Intelligence
c. Strategic Intelligence a.intelligence requires continuous security measures
d. Counter Intelligence b. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
c. Intelligence must be available on time
1188. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area d. Intelligence must be flexible
where police undercover men meet for debriefing
or reporting purposes. 1197. It is the careful inspection of a place to determine
a. Safe house its suitability for a particular operational purpose.
b. Log a. Casing
c. Live Drop b. Loose Tail
d. Decoy c. Rough Shadowing
d. Stakeout
1189. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC,
which includes some or all of the circumstances.
a. National Agency Check
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 1198. It refers to the determination of the pertinence of b. Clandestine
the information to the operation, reliability of the c. Surveillance
source of or agency and the accuracy of the d. Covert Operation
information.
a. Evaluation 1206. Which of the following is the most common
b. Recording reason why an informer gives information to the
c. Credibility police?
d. Appraisal a. Monetary Reward
Popularity
Revenge
As a good citizen
1199. It refers to the most dangerous type of informant.
a. Women 1207. A method of collecting information thru
b. Double Crosser interception of telephone conversation.
c. False a. Bugging
d. Anonymous b. Wire Tapping
c. Code name
1200. It is the transforming of coded message into plain d. NONE
text.
a. Coding 1208. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the
b. Encrypting enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the
c. Decoding criminal groups susceptible to damage,
d. Reclassify deception, or defeat by the police organization.
a.Conclusion
1201. After the planning on how intelligence is to be b.Capabilities
collected, the intelligence officer must have c. Vulnerabilities
thorough knowledge of the __________. d.Evaluation

a. The strength of the area where the information will 1209. It is the general statement describing the current
be gathered police internal defense, internal development,
b. Where they will be collecting the information psychological operation and responsibilities of the
c. Available sources of information organization
d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence a. Area of operation
b. Capabilities of organized crime
1202. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street c. the crime situation
of Rome to gather first hand information, he is d. the mission
considered as the greatest military strategist.
a. Alexander the Great 1210. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted
b. Hannibal information concerning organized crime and
c. Frederick the Great other major police problems.
d. Genghis Khan A.Military Intelligence
b.Military Information
1203. If information comes with a low reliability and c.Police Intelligence
doubtful accuracy, will this information be d.Police Investigation
discarded or refused acceptance?
a. Yes 1211. The term appropriate for someone who gives
b. True information in exchange for a reward is:
c. No a. Informer
d. False b. Informant
c. Special informer
1204. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police d. Confidential Informant
Intelligence which refers to the knowledge
essential to the prevention of crimes and the 1212. The intelligence required by department or
investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal agencies of the government to execute its mission
offenders. and discharge its responsibilities.
a. Internal Security Intelligence a. Counter
b. Criminal Intelligence b. Departmental
c. Public Safety Intelligence c. Line
d. Preventive Intelligence d. National

1205. If the information or documents are procured
openly without regard as to whether the subject
of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of
the purpose or purposes for which it is being
regarded.
a. Overt Operation
1213. Is the reduction of information into writing or
some other form of graphical representation and
the arranging of this information into groups
related items.
a. Recording
b. Integration

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 c. Analysis d. Vanity
d. Demonstration 1223. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led
by a-
1214. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and a. Director
Possibly true? b. General
a. -2 c. President
b. E-2 d. Director-General
c. E-3
d. C-3 1224. Integrated product of intelligence developed by
all government departments concerning the
1215. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted broad aspect of national policy and national
in destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign Security.
activities and the protection of information a National Intelligence
against espionage, subversion and sabotage. b.Departmental Intelligence
a. Passive Intelligence c. International Intelligence
b. Counter Intelligence d. Social Intelligence
c. Line Intelligence
d. Demographic Intelligence 1225. .The process of categorizing a document or
information according to the degree of security
1216. Refers to the knowledge essential to the needed.
maintenance of peace and order. a. Classification
a. CRIMINT b. Upgrading
b. SIGINT c. Reclassification
c. PUSINT d. None of these
d. INSINT
1226. Final clearance will remain valid for a period
of____ from the date of issuance.
1217. Who directs the organization conducting the a. 2 years
clandestine activity? b. 5 years
a. Manager c. 4 years
b. Superior d. 1 year
c. Sponsor
d. Agent 1227. It refers to the person who conducts the
surveillance.
1218. Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and a.Surveillant
actions of an individual group or nation. b Subject
a. Propagandist c. Interrogator
b. Support Agent d. Interviewee
c. Principal Agent
d. Action Agent 1228. The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan
employed more than 4,000 agents for the sole
1219. Refers to a place where agents or informants purpose of bringing him the truth that his throne
leave their messages to the other Agents. might rest upon it.
a. Live Drop a. Joseph Petrosino
b. Safe House b. Edgar Hoover
c. Decoy c. Napoleon Bonaparte
d. Bait d. Akbar

1229. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to

1220. All except one are interrelated to one another.
determine if the information is true and-
a. Fixed Surveillance
a Reliable
b. Stakeout Surveillance
b. Correct
c. Stationary Surveillance
c. Probably true
d. Active Surveillance
d. Accurate
1230. It refers to those measures, which seek actively to
1221. The agent will gain access to the subject by going
block the enemies’ effort to gain information or
to the different hang out places of the subject.
engage in espionage, subversion, and sabotage.
a. Social Assignment
a. Counter Intelligence
b. Residential Assignment
c. Work Assignment
b. Passive Counter Intelligence
d. None of these
c. Active Counter Intelligence
d. Intelligence
1222. A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or
other material gain he is to receive.
1231. Chronological records of activities that took place
a. Gratitude
in the establishment under surveillance.
b. Repentance
a. Memory
c. Remuneration
b. records
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 c. Log a. Watch man
d. Report b. Prefect
c. Gendemarie
1232. It is defined as an art and science of codes and d. Constabulary
ciphers.
a. Cryptography 1241. She is the first Filipino commissionedofficer in a
b. Cryptanalysis UN integral mission.
c. Decipher a. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
d. Coding b. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
c. C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
1233. The protection resulting from the application of d. None of these
various measures which prevent or delay the
enemy or unauthorized person in gaining 1242. New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited
information through communication. jurisdiction on _______:
a. Communication Security a. USA
b. Physical Security b. New York
c. Document Security c. None of these
d. Internal Security d. Los Angeles

1234. Those documents place on a Blue Folder are 1243. The Penal Provisions of the electronic Commerce
considered as: Act:
a. Top Secret a. RA 5678
b. Secret b. RA 9165
c. Restricted c. RA 1298
d. Confidential d. RA 8792

1235. Documents which are classified as Secret should 1244. In the etymology of the word police the ancient
be placed on- word “Polisoos” referred to a person who_____?
a. Blue Folder a. Enforcing Law
b. Black folder b. Civil Policy
c. Green Folder c. Guarding a City
d. Red Folder d. Citizenship

1236. It is a certification by a responsible authority that 1245. During the middle ages, there were two guard
the person described is cleared to access and officer of the kingdom of France with police
classify matters at appropriate levels. responsibilities those are the Marshal of France
a. Security Clearance and ________:
b. Document Clearance a. Constable of France
c. Interim Clearance b. Queens Royal Guard
d. Nome of these c. Scotland Yard
d. Constabulary
1237. Extreme precautions are taken against losing the 1246. Peace officers are treated as state servants and
subject is employed where constant surveillance people have minimal share in their duties or any
is necessary. direct connection with them. This reflected the:
a. Close tail a. Continental Theory
b. Loose tail b. Home rule Theory
c. Rough Shadowing c. Old Concept
d. Surveillance d. Modern concept
1247. The typical number of Detectives are roughly
1238. M evaluates the information as usually reliable ________ of a police service personnel:
and probably true. a. 75%
a. C-4 b. 5 to 10%
b. B-3 c. 15 to 25%
c. B-2 d. 7 to 10%
d. C-5
1248. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal
crimes or those with an interstate components.
1239. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of The statement is:
_____________. a. Correct
a. Russia b. Partially Correct
b. Germany c. False
c. Israel d. partly False
d. Pakistan
1240. Law enforcement in China was carried out by 1249. This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in
_______ which developed in both chu and jin some sense transgress national borders:
kingdom of the Spring and Autumn period. a. International Policing
b. Global Policing
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 c. National Policing
d. Transnational Policing 1258. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police
Force:
a. Commissioner General
1250. In US, he introduced police reforms to include b. Director General
educational requirement for police officer: c. Commissioner
a. James Q. Wilson d. Director
b. Sir Henry Peel
c. August Volmer 1259. The code of secrecy of Mafia:
d. O.W. Wilson a. Omerta
b. Morse
1251. The motto of Hongkong Police force: c. Nostra Compra
a. Law and Order d. Cosa Nostra
b. Safer Communities together
c. Serve and Protect 1260. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is
d. We serve with pride and Care the:
a. Executive Assembly
1252. Where do you can find the so called Police b. Major Assembly
Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization for c. National Assembly
police officer whose are changed of committing d. General Assembly
any form of misconduct:
a. Northern Ireland 1261. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is
b. England run by the:
c. China a. Director General
d. Japan b. Supervisor
c. Inspector General
1253. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank d. Secretary General
structured of police force is identical up to the
rank of? 1262. In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption
a. Chief Constable and introduced professionalism in Winchita,
b. Chief Inspector Kansas and Chicago Police Department:
c. Chief Superintendent a. August Volmer
d. Inspector b. Margaret Adams
c. William Stewart
1254. In USA, what state are among the first to hire d. O.W. Wilson
women and minorities as police officer. 1263. The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi:
a. Massachusetts a. Policeman
b. California b. Chief Superintendent
c. New York c. Superintendent
d. Washington d. Senior Superintendent

1255. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable 1264. It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct
rank to inspector or sub-lieutenant? in Japan:
a. Police Rank 4 a. Keishi
b. Police Supervisor Rank 4 b. Koban
c. Police Officer Rank 1 c. Omerta
d. Police Supervisor Rank 1 d. Keiban

1256. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the 1265. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the
lowest possible rank of its police personnel? highest position in Japan Police Organization:
a. Police Rank 1
b. Police Officer Rank 1 a. Commissioner Secretariat
c. Investigator 1 b. Commissioner
d. Constable c. Chairman
d. Commissioner General
1257. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau 1266. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a
Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Commissioner General who is appointed by:
Finest” police force and in having, set up the a. Japans Emperor
foundation for the social stability of Hong Kong b. Prime Minister
and has won a good reputation as one of the c. National Public Safety Commission
safety cities in the world. d. Japan Commission

a. Philippine National Polic 1267. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:
b. Hong Kong Police Force a. Junsa
c. Japan Police Department b. Constable
d. National Police Agency c. Sergeant

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 d. Police Officer
1277. It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes
1268. Irish Police are called: committed via the internet:
a. Militsiya a. Dynamic IP Address
b. Constable b. Internet Protocol Address
c. Police Force c. Static IP Address
d. Garda Socha d. Email Address

1269. In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN integral 1278. It is the act of illegally accessing the computer
Mission in Timor-Leste, he is the first Filipino system or network of an individual, group or
police commissioner of a United Nation business enterprise without the consent of the
Operation. party’s system:
a. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas a. Computer Fraud
b. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra b. Hacking
c. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor c. Cracking
d. None of these d. Theft

1270. It States that the yardstick of police proficiency 1279. It refers to a Code written with the intention of
relies on the absence of crime. replicating itself.
a. Home rule a. Trojan Horse
b. Continental b. Worm
c. Old police service c. Virus
d. Modern police service d. None of these

1271. The first secretary general of the Interpol. 1280. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to
a. Oskar Dressler establish a shared database among concerned
b. Ronald K. Noble agencies for information on criminals,
c. Johann Schober methodologies, arrests and convictions on
d. Aberdeen Scotland transnational crime

1272. The first president of the Interpol. a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)
a. Oskar Dressler b. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
b. Ronald K. Noble c. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
c. Johann Schober d. Philippine National Police (PNP)
d. Aberdeen Scotland 1281. What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan?
a. KEISHI SOKAN
1273. Group of highly specialized a armed man who b. KEISHI SO
inflicts fear and uses violence to accomplish c. KEISHI KAN
their objectives with a usual international scope of d. KEIBU-HO
activity.
a. Organized Crime 1282. The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to
b. Transnational Crime be the “Father of Texas”.
c. Transnational Organized crime a. Stephen Austin
d. Terrorist b. Vernon Knell
c. Dave Batista
1274. Is the terrorist group which was founded by d. Johann Schober
Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
a. Al Qaeda 1283. An order strengthening the operational,
b. Jihad administrative and information support system of
c. Mafia the PCTC. Under this EO, the centre shall
d. Nuestra Costra exercise general supervision and control over
NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG
1275. Is the term which refers to the holy war waged by a. EO 100
members of the Islamic religion against the Jews? b. EO 465
a. Al Qaeda c. EO 465
b. Jihad d. EO 789
c. Mafia
d. Nuestra Costra 1284. Richard Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29
years old then. What year will Amado will retire?
1276. It is the category of terrorist organization which is a. 2016
aimed in achieving political autonomy or religious b. 2023
freedom. c. 2012
a. Revolutionary d. 2031
b. Separalist
c. Ethnocentric 1285. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP
d. Political commissioned and non-commissioned officer

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 may retire and be paid separation benefits minimum annual quota. Appointment status
corresponding to a position two ranks higher than under a waiver program is ________.
his/her rank: a. Temporary
a. Retirement in the next higher grad b. Probationary
b. Compulsory retirement c. Permanent
c. Early retirement program d. Regular
d. Optional Retirement
1293. __________ is given to any PNP member who has
1286. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the
independence from the PNP. It has an risk of his life above and beyond the call of duty.
investigative and adjudicatory power over PNP a. Meritorious Promotion
members. b. Special Promotion
a. Internal Affairs Service c. Regular Promotion
b. National Police Commission d. On-the-Spot Promotion
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board
d. National Appellate Board 1294. Which among the following has no promotional
authority over the members of the PNP?
1287. In police operational planning the use of the a. Deputy Director General
wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line would be b. Director General
probable used for: c. President of the Philippines
a. Arm confrontation d. Regional Director
b. Relief Operation 1295. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately
c. Civil Disturbance from the service after due notice and summary
d. VIP Security hearings if it was proven that he went on AWOL
for a continuous period of:
1288. What is the appropriate training course for POIII
to SPOI? a. 30 days or more
a. Officers Senior Executive Course b. 15 days or more
b. Officer Basic Course c. 20 days or more
c. Senior Leadership Course d. 60 days or more
d. Junior Leadership Course 1296. Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons
following a high-risk stop.
1289. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of a. Dragnet Operation
deputation of local chief executives as
representative of the NAPOLCOM: b. Hasty Checkpoint
Repeated unauthorized absences; c. High-Risk Arrest
d. High Risk Stop

1297. PO3Maine Mendoza, receives 19, 870.00 base pay

.II. Abuse of authority; since he was promoted. After five years from
promotion, what would be his monthly base pay
III. Habitual tardiness;
after adding his longevity pay?
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
a. 21, 857.00
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
b. 19, 970.00
c. 24, 870.00
d. 31, 549.00
A. I, II, III, V
1298. It refers to those situations or conditions that may
B. II, V, IV, I
induce incidents for some kind of police action:
C.I, II, IV, III
a. Police Accident
D. I, II, III, IV, V
b. Police Brutality
1290. Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at
c. Police Hazard
known locations.
a. Functional Plan d. Police Operation
b. Time Specific Plans
c. Tactical Plans 1299. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means-
d. Operational Plans a. The Sword Bearer
1291. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the b. The Base
lump sum of his retirement benefits for the period c. Islamic Congregation
of the first _____. d. Ayman Al Zawahiri
a. 10 years
b. 5 years 1300. What kind of force is needed during armed
c. 6 years confrontation?
d. 2 years a. Reasonable force
b. Logical Force
1292. Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age, c. Rational Force
Height, Weight and Education, only when the d. Evenhanded Force
number of qualified applicants falls below the 1301. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in
the picket line (or confrontation line) but should

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 be stationed in such manner that their presence a. 3 days
may deter the commission of criminal acts or any b. 10 days
untoward incident from either side. The members c. 5 days
of the peace-keeping detail shall stay outside a d. 15 days
_______ radius from the picket line.
a. 50 feet 1308. It may be utilized to break up formations or
b. 50 meter groupings of demonstrations who continue to be
c. 100 feet aggressive and refused to disperse despite earlier
d. 100 meter efforts.
a. Tear Gas
1302. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported b. Water Cannon
by a patrol jeep, the subject must be- c. Truncheon
d. Shield
a. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall 1309. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether
sit at the rear on the Right side facing the subject on foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable
b. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of
sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject determining the individual’s identity and
c. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning
sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject criminal activity.
d. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall a. Frisking
sit at the rear on the Right side facing the subject b. Search
c. Spot Check
d. Pat-down Search
1310. Refers to a location where the search, which is
duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to
deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce
1303. Female detainees shall not be transported in the law, and for other legitimate purposes.
handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and a. Clear Zone
proper escort, preferably aided by a police b. Public Place
woman. The statement is- c. Police Checkpoint
a. Partially True d. Pre-Determined Area
b. Wholly True 1311. Electronic blotter is a computerized system,
c. Partially False which was accepted by the courts, prosecutors’
d. Wholly False office and the public in general. What police office
is using this kind of blotter?
1304. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other a. Makati
public assemblies, employment of tear gas and b. Cebu
water cannons shall be made under the control c. Baguio
and supervision of the- d. Davao
a. Ground Commander 1312. It refers to the venue or place established or
b. Incident Commander designated by local government units within their
c. Immediate Commander d. respective jurisdictions where a public assembly
Superior Officer could be held without securing any permit for
such purpose from the local government unit
1305. What should be the action of patrol officers, when concerned.
responding to Calls for Police Assistance, except? a. Secured Area
a. Stop the car at some distance away from the scene. b. Wide Space
b. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals c. Freedom Park
c. Determine the crime committed. d. Clear Zone
d. None of these 1313. The police function in which patrol belong is:
a. Line function
1306. Where should the patrol officer turnover the b. Administrative function
information and pieces of evidence gathered at c. Staff function
the crime scene? d. Auxiliary function
a. SOCO team 1314. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings
b. Immediate Supervisor of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is standing near
c. Responding unit Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by
d. Medico Legal Officer existence of Insp. Gonzales but the ______ for
successful robbery is prevented.
1307. Request for police assistance in the a. Ambition
implementation of final decisions or orders of the b. Intention
court in civil cases and of administrative bodies on c. Motive
controversies within their jurisdiction shall be d. Opportunity
acted upon by the appropriate police office. The 1315. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his
request is filed at least _____ prior to the actual retirement is Superintendent shall retire with the
implementation. rank of __________:

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 a. Superintendent b.Gaseous Discharge Lamp
b. C/Superintendent c. Mercury Vapor Lamp
c. Sr. Superintendent d. Quarts Lamp
d. C/Inspector
1316. Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow- 1324. The following are the areas to be lighted:
up without material interval for the purpose of A.Parking Areas;
taking into custody any person wanted by virtue b.Thoroughfare;
of a warrant, or one suspected to have committed c. Pedestrian Gates;
a recent offense while fleeing from one police d. Vehicular Gates; and
jurisdictional boundary to another that will E.Susceptible Areas.
normally require prior official inter-unit a. a, c, e
coordination but which the pursuing unit cannot, b. a, b, c, d
at that moment, comply due to the urgency of the c. a, c, d, e
situation. d. a, b, c, d, e
a. Hot Pursuit
b. Hasty Checkpoint 1325. It refers to records that are irreplaceable;
reproduction of this record does not have the same
c. Dragnet Operation value as the original.
d. High Risk Stop a. Vital Documents
1317. Which among the following terms is not related b. Important Documents
to each other? c. Useful Documents
a. Hot Pursuit d. Non- Essential Documents
b. Fresh Pursuit
c. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit 1326. It is the importance of firm with reference to
d. Bright Pursuit the natural economy and security.
1318. Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the a.. Relative Operation
police, military and other peace keeping b Relative Security
authorities shall observe during a public assembly c. Relative Vulnerability
or in the dispersal of the same. d. Relative Criticality of Operation
a. Reasonable Force
b. Greatest Lenience 1327. A new Private security agency that has been
c. Maximum Tolerance issued a temporary license to operate is good for how
d. Utmost Patience many years?
1319. Which among the following aspects of a. a. One
Security is the weakest of them all? b. Two
a. Physical security c.Three
b. Personnel security d.Four
c. Document and information security
d. Personal Security 1328. The removal of the security classification from
the classified matter.
1320. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The a.Segregation
statement is- b. Declassify
a. Partially Correct c. Reclassify
b. Partially Wrong d. Exclusion
c. Absolutely Correct
d. Absolutely Wrong 1329.The form of security that employs cryptography
to protect information refers to:
1321.It refers to any structure or physical device A. Document and information security
capable of restriction, deterring or delaying illegal b. Operational security
access to an installation. c. Communication security
a. Hazard d. Industrial security
b. Perimeter Barrier
c. Barrier 1330. The type of fence that is primarily designed to
d .Energy Barrier allow complete visual access between two areas is:
a. Solid fence
1322. It is normally provided at main perimeter b. Semi-solid fence
entrances to secure areas located out of doors, and c. Full-view fence
manned by guards on a full time basis. d. Masonry Fence
a. Guard Control Stations
b. Tower 1331.The minimum age requirement for Security
c. Tower Guard Manager or Operator of a security agency is:
d. Top Guard a. 40 yrs. Old
b. 25 yrs. Old
1323 .This lamps have the advantage of providing c. 30 yrs. Old
instant illumination when the switch is open and most d. 35 yrs. Old
commonly used protective lighting system.
a. Incandescent Lamp
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 1332.The following are the categories of automatic
alarm system, except:
a. Photoelectric
b. Electric Eye Device
c. Audio detection
d. Bill Traps
1333. Which of the following is not a false key?
a. A picklock or similar tool .
b. A duplicate key of the owner.
c. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
d.Any key other than those intended by the owner.
1334. The Normal weight of a safe is at least: 1339. The thickness of paper is expressed in thousands
a. 500 lbs. of inch.
b. 750 lbs. A. Measurement
c. 1000 lbs.
B. Caliper
d. 600 lbs.
C. Buffer
1335. The minimum number of guards required for a D. Calibre
company security force is: 1340. Chemical used to whiten paper pulp.
a. 1000 A. Bleach
b. 30 B. Alum
c. 100 C. Sufite
d. 200
D. Pulp
1336. It refers to a system use in big installation 1341. A form of printing to produce a raised impression
whereby keys can open a group of locks. or pattern on the surface of a sheet of paper.
a. Key Control A. Lithograph printing
b. Master Keying B. Embossing
c. Change Key C. Edge chains
d. Great Grand Master Key D. Reprographing
1342. The original inventor of Fourdrinier paper
1337. What is called as devices and contrivance
installed inside and outside a facility to compliment machine.
and provide additional security measures and A. Fourdrinier Brothers
operates to advertise entry into sensitive and B. Bryan Donkin
protected area? C. Nicholas-Louis Robert
a. Protective locks D. Milton Reynolds
b. Protective cabinet
1343. Quality of a paper related to the amount of light
c. Protective barrier
d. Protective Lighting that can be transmitted through its surface.
A. Thickness
1338. A fixed point or location to which an officer is B. Opacity
assigned for duty: C. Translucent
a. Post D. Texture
b. Beat 1344. Fundamentally, the grand mission and objective
c. Area
of document examiner is to determine and
d. Route
conclude with scientific basis and technique who
is the
A. Beneficiaries
B. Writer or signatory
C. Master mind
D. Conspirator
1345. In questioned document, it is where all
characteristics are grouped.
A. Class characteristics
B. Individual characteristics
C. Both A and B
D. Neither
1346. Writing was written by one person when there is a
sufficient number of identical writing habits and
the absence of divergent characteristics. This is in
consonance with;
A. Identification

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 B. Non-identification 1356. Baseline is the ruled or imaginary line upon which
C. Either the writing ______
D. Niether A. Holds
1347. Embellishment is an example of B. Rests
A. Individual Characteristics C. Stays
B. Class Characteristics D. Slants
C. Both 1357. Among the following, which is a common defect
D. Neither of forgery?
1348. Hiatus is a gap between strokes due to
A. Speed in writing A. Patching
B. Defective writing instrument B. Retracing
C. Unevenness of writing materials C. A and B
D. All of the choices D. None
1349. Among the following, which is not an element of 1358. Letters that extend a distance vertically above the
movement? linear letters.
A. Line Quality A. Infra-linear
B. Rhythm B. Supra-linear
C. Speed Freedom C. Linear
D. emphasis D. None
1350. Writing, done rapidly, will exhibit no pen lift, 1359. The only question to tackle in this kind of
except those at the signature forgery is the determination of the
A. Middle of the words/strokes probable writer of the forgery.
B. End of the stroke A. Simple forgery
C. Beginning of strokes B. Simulated forgery
D. B and C C. Traced forgery
D. A and B
1351. The orientation of the writing instrument is 1360. A kind of signature forgery where the
referred to as resemblance of the questioned signature and
A. Pen position genuine is apparent.
B. Pen hold A. Fraudulent
C. Pen emphasis B. Simulated
D. Pen orientation C. Simple
1352. The relation between the tall and short letters is D. Traced
referred to as 1361. To identify whether simple forgery was
A. Ratio committed, which of the following should be
B. Proportion retrieved?
C. Line quality A. Standard signature from the forger
D. All B. Standard of the genuine signature
1353. In questioned document examination, it is C. Standard of the person who made the
referred to as the flourishing succession of motion forgery
which are recorded in a written record. D. Identity of the forger
A. Line quality 1362. One of the following statements best describe
B. Rhythm what a collected standard is.
C. Speed in writing A. It has the advantage of easily finding it.
D. Movement B. Attempt to disguise is removed.
1354. Slant is the angle or inclination of the axis of the C. The accused is aware that the specimen will
letters relative to the be used against him.
A. Baseline D. None
B. Slope 1363. Authenticity of private documents is not
C. Alignment necessary when
D. Staff A. It is 30 years old
1355. Uncommon and well fixed characteristic that B. More than 30 years old
serve as a fundamental point of identification. C. Less than 30 years old
A. Slant D. More or less 30 years old
B. Habit 1364. During paper manufacture, the following are
C. Movement included except
D. All A. Security fiber
B. Watermarks

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 C. Iridescent band night. Among these, what is the basic component of
D. Serial number photography?
1365. Which of the following is not a crime called A. All of these
forgery? B. Film
A. Forging the seal of the government C. Camera
B. Counterfeiting of coins D. Light
C. Mutilation of coins 1374. Positive result of photography is called –
D. Using forged signature or counterfeit seal or A. Picture
stamp B. Photograph
1366. The imitation of a legal or genuine coin. C. Positive
A. Counterfeit D. Negative
B. Mutilation 1375. Other term for lie detector is –
C. Utter A. GSR
D. Import B. Pneumograph
1367. When a spurious coin is made, there is C. Cardiograph
A. Counterfeiting D. Polygraph
B. Uttering 1376. In key classification, is it placed on the leftmost
C. Mutilation corner on the numerator?
D. Importing A. Yes
1368. Mutilation of coins without the intent to defraud B. Maybe
is C. No
A. Not punishable under the revised penal D. Sometimes
code 1377. Flash bulb and electronic flash are two examples
B. Not punishable by any law of light of short duration. Which among of these is
C. Punishable under the revised penal code popular today?
D. Punishable under Art. 164 of the RPC. A. Flash bulb
1369. To make false instrument intended to be passed B. Electronic bulb
for the genuine one is a form of C. Lamp
A. Falsification D. Flash light
B. Forgery 1378. Can a strong acid destroy the fingerprint
C. Tracing permanently?
D. Fraud A. Yes
1370. Which of the following method should be used in B. No
order for the naked eye to see a charred C. Maybe
document? D. This time
A. X-ray 1379. In forensic ballistic, the firearm examiner
B. Spectrograph examines the firearm usually involved in a crime
C. Ultra violet or the case_____?
D. Infra red A. In court
1371. Which of the following security features of a B. In progress
paper bill does not react to ultra-violet light? C. Controversy
A. Serial Number D. Handled
B. Watermark 1380. In polygraph, it is the process of detecting false
C. Fluorescent printing statement or signs of -
D. Invisible security fibers A. Detection
1372. Paper is for china while papyrus is for B. Deception
A. Sumer C. Lie
B. Turkey D. Untrue statement
C. Sumeria 1381. In typewriting examination which of the following
D. Egypt first to be conducted?
1373. What is gustatory sensation? A. Examination of the questioned specimen
A. Smell B. Collecting of typewriting standards
B. Taste C. Locate the type writer used
C. Skin D. Examination of the exemplar
D. Hearing 1382. Aside from fingerprint, what is the other
43. The Bible (Genesis 1:3-5) God created the earth and identification in securing NBI clearance?
there should be light and darkness which is daylight and A. Thumb mark
B. Pending case

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 C. Picture 1392. What is the test in examination of blood if belong
D. Signature to human or animal?
1383. Which of the following is a must to be considered A. Takayama
in a sketch? B. Benzidine
A. Compass direction C. Kestle Meyer
B. Name of placed D. Precipitin
C. Time 1393. How many standards in questioned documents is
D. Location needed to prove?
1384. In addition to medicine, as prober, how can you A. 5 standards
preserve perishable evidence like injuries, B. 10 signatures
contusions, hematoma and the like? C. Sufficient amount
A. Recording D. 5 pages
B. Sketching 1394. In USA, what year photography was used for court
C. Photography presentation?
D. Note taking A. 1909
1385. In questioned document examination, it refers to B. 1859
a stroke which goes back to writing stroke. C. 1890
A. Patching D. 1903
B. Retouching 1395. What is the official purpose of conducting post
C. Retracing mortem examination?
D. Restroking A. To determine the duration of death
1386. In photography probe, when murder occurred B. To determine the manner of death
showing disarray of cabinets, photography is C. To determine the deadly weapon
essential to show defense of the - D. To determine the cause of death.
A. Suspect 1396. What part of the polygraph machine is
B. Witness responsible in detecting pulse rate and heart
C. Victim beat?
D. Kibitzers A. Kymograph
1387. In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the B. Pneumograph
energy coming from the muzzle point is called - C. Polygraph
A. Armor-piercing D. Cardiograph
B. Velocity 1397. In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with
C. Lead bullet polydactyl, he or she has -
D. Muzzle energy A. Extra fingerprint
1388. What are the two types of firearms according to B. Extra hand
the construction of the interior of the barrel? C. Extra finger
A. Short and long barreled firearms D. Added finger
B. Small arms and artilleries 1398. What year did the colored photography was
C. Lands and grooves accepted in US court?
D. Smoothbore and rifled bore A. 1956
1389. What is the symbol of tented arch? B. 1978
A. Dash C. 1946
B. T D. 1960
C. Te 1399. Blood stays liquid for how many hours?
D. A and/or B A. 6-8 hours
1390. It is the centermost part of the fingerprint B. 9-10 hours
pattern. C. 8-12 hours
A. Inner terminus D. 3-6 hours
B. Delta 1400. The one who creates his own systolic in polygraph
C. Inner shoulder examination?
D. Core A. James MacKenzie
1391. Fingerprint patterns like loop and whorl are found B. Angelo Mosso
in the - C. William Marston
A. Pattern area D. John Larson
B. Delta 1401. What is the color of blood in post mortem lividity?
C. Core
D. Type lines
A. Blue

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 B. Violet D. Crime scene photography
C. Pink 1411. In what way to determine the date of a paper was
D. Bright red made?
1402. In crime laboratory concerning the study of types, A. Wiremark
model of firearm and its bullets is done by - B. Trademark
A. Ballistician C. Copyright
B. Ballistic engineer D. Watermark
C. Forensic engineer 1412. Tripod has how many feet?
D. Firearm prober A. It depends
1403. What is the type of document which is notarized B. Two
by a RTC judge? C. Three
A. Public D. Four
B. Official 1413. In robbery case involving force upon things, which
C. Private should be closely photographed?
D. None of these A. Weapons used
1404. Going back to a defective portion of a writing B. Victims wounds
stroke is called - C. Entrance and exit
A. Slicing D. Things stolen
B. Embracing 1414. What is the advantage of other agencies with
C. Retouching other agencies when it comes to authenticity?
D. Patching A. Signature and photograph
1405. What is the part of firearm that extract cartridge B. Thumb mark and photograph
from the chamber? C. Thumb mark and signature
A. Breech D. Signature only
B. Firing pin 1415. What is the best test in determining the presence
C. Extractor of blood?
D. Ejector A. Benzedine
1406. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm is B. Marquis
measured by - C. Takayama
A. Gauge D. Teichman
B. Caliber 1416. Is taking a tranquilizer and medicine for colds
C. Caliper affects the result of polygraph examination?
D. Hundredth of an inch A. Yes
1407. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he B. No
is involved in a crime the examiner should report C. Depends
it to the - D. Maybe
A. Victim 1417. It is where handwriting rest?
B. Investigator A. Feet
C. Object relative B. Vase line
D. Prosecutor C. Baseline
1408. In fingerprint, which of the following is the D. Alignment
pattern which refers to the rolled fingers onto the 1418. Medically speaking, it is the sudden stoppage of
rolling impression columns? the heart that results to death.
A. Rolled impression A. Instantaneous rigor
B. Indexing impression B. Heart attack
C. Palm impression C. Myocardial infarction
D. Little finger impression D. Death
1409. A complete rotation of a fired bullet in the rifling 1419. In polygraph test, it indicates air in system, and is
of a gun is also termed as – measured in millimeter by the -
A. Twist of rifling A. Kymograph
B. Gyroscopic action B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Rotating motion C. Pneumograph
D. Pitch of rifling D. Galvanograph
1410. In photography, it is an exhibit shown in court for 1420. In Dactyloscopy, the primary purpose and
scrutiny by litigants and others. importance of fingerprint is for -
A. Police photography A. Indemnification
B. Photograph B. Comparison
C. Forensic photography C. Identification

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 D. Collection a. 20 inches
1421. Photography at the crime scene taken at the b. 10 inches
crime scene which will be used for court c. 7 inches
presentation is called - d. 8 inches
A. Crime scene photography 1431. An industrial complex must establish its first line
B. Forensic photography of physical defense. It must have:
C. Crime photography a. the building itself
D. Police photography b. communication barrier
1422. The study of projectiles the moment the bullet c. perimeter barrier
leaves the muzzle of the gun is a kind of – d. window barrier
A. Interior ballistics 102. If the dead person is laying, where will the
B. Terminal ballistics blood go during livor mortis?
C. Forensic ballistics A. Back
D. Exterior ballistics B. Neck
1423. A magistrate and law professor in Austria who is C. Head
known for introducing the word “Criminalistics.” D. Legs
A. Hans Gross 1432. If there are 6 grooves, is it also the same in lands?
B. Alphonse Bertillon A. Yes
C. Prof. R.A. Riess B. No
D. Edmond Locard C. Partly Yes
1424. In dactyloscopy, is plain whorl always with two D. Partly No
deltas? 1433. What is the other term for dot?
a. No A. Islet
b. Never B. Core
c. Yes C. Delta
d. Maybe D. Bifurcation
1425. A light proof box with a means of forming an 1434. In writing, what is being used?
image, with a means of holding sensitized A. Finger
material and with a means of regulating the B. Forearm
amount of light that enters the camera at a given C. Hands
time. a. camera D. All of the choices
b. light 1435. There are three types of fingerprint pattern; arch,
c. film whorl and _____.
d. lens A. Ulnar loop
1426. The location of the blood pressure in the chart B. Radial loop
paper C. Loop
a. Side D. Arch
b. Middle 1436. Is your name Eric? What kind of question is this?
c. Lower A. Irrelevant
d. Upper B. Relevant
1427. What is the most common death caused by C. Control
asphyxia? D. Evidence
a. strangulation 1437. In polygraph examination, what is being detected?
b. drowning A. Lying
c. throttling B. Dying
d. Hanging C. Truth
1428. What is being affected in intracranial D. Response
hemorrhage? 1438. In pubic hair, what is the best examination to be
a. brain conducted in the crime laboratory?
b. stomach A. DNA
c. lung B. Microscope examination
1429. A firearm which has a size of less than 1 inch C. Chemical examination
a. small firearm D. Serology examination
b. handgun 1439. If you didn’t clean the fingerprint slab, what will
c. revolver be the effect to the fingerprint?
d. shotgun A. Blurred
1430. What is the measure of the rubber tube in the B. Sticky
pneumograph? C. Classified

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 D. Clear B. No
1440. What is found on the left white portion of the C. It depends
portrait? 1450. If you are a patrol officer, what type of CS will you
A. Vignette photograph even though there is no SOCO
B. Watermark photographer?
C. Security fiber A. Vehicular accident scene
D. Fiber B. Infanticide scene
1441. In Henry System how many clasifications of C. Homicide scene
fingerprints are there? D. Parricide scene
A. 2 1451. What is the most common symptom of coma?
B. 3 A. Unconsciousness
C. 8 B. Blackening of lips
D. 7 C. Dilated eyes
1442. Indication of tremor due to old age, illiteracy and D. consciousness
sickness is what kind of signature? 1452. The dead person is dehydrated. What is lacking?
A. Genuine A. H2O
B. Spurious B. Blood
C. Forged C. Air
D. Simulated D. Anesthesia
1443. If in the CS, you found semen and blood, can you 1453. In police laboratory, the one examined by
consider it as rape on minor? biologist is not limited to ____.
A. Yes A. Semen
B. No B. Blood
C. Partly Yes C. Riverstone
D. Partly No D. None of these
1444. In polarization film, how long is the developing? 1454. These bullets when fired emit bright red flame
A. 5 minutes from their base, thereby showing the gunner the
B. 7 min path as well as the striking point of the bullet.
a. Jacketed bullet
C. 3 min
b. Armor-piercing
D. 8 minutes c. Semi-wed cutter bullet
1445. What do you call the outer cover of the bullet? d. Tracer bullet
A. Jacketed 1455. The caliber of the firearms can be determined by
B. Metallic the bore diameter measured from:
C. Silver
D. Ogive a. Land to firearm
1446. In snake, the two snake venum is neorotoxic and b. Land to land
c. Land to groves
_____.
d. Groves to land
A. Hemotoxic 1456. The breech end of the chamber of the firearm is
B. Viral sealed by a solid flat block of metal against which
C. Surgical the barrel comes into position when the weapon is
D. B or C closed for firing, which is termed as:
a. Extractor
b. Breechface
1447. Why is polygraphy in the Philippines not c. Head space
admissible? d. Breechblock
A. Under experimental stage 1457. The firearms that propelled projectiles more than
B. Under analysis one inch in diameter is called.
C. Based on opinion a. Machine gun
b. Musket
D. Unskill
c. Artillery
d. Single-shot firearm
1448. Phos means light, graphia means _____. 1458. A Smith & Wesson type of firearm has a class
A. Write characteristics of:
B. Study a. Four lands, four grooves right twist
C. Technology b. Six lands, six grooves left twist
D. Record c. Seven lands, seven grooves right twist
1449. In major classification, the right thumb is the d. Five lands, five grooves right twist
numerator while the left is the denominator?
A. Yes

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 1459. To impact a motion of rotation to a bullet during its b. Firing slowly and carefully
passage inside the barrel to insure gyroscopic c. A relaxed and natural position
stability in its flight is called: d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
a. Range
1467. The term muzzle velocity refers most
b. Gauge
c. Rifling accurately to the:
d. Center-fire
1460. Most commonly these marks are found on bullets a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight
fired from a Revolver due to a poor alignment of
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
the cylinder with the bore: d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
a. Shaving marks
b. Skid marks 1468. Discharged bullet are initiated at:
c. Pivot marks
d. landmarks a. On base or nose
1461. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to: b. Left side
a. James Forsythe c. Right side
b. Philip O. Gravelle d. The end of the bullet
c. Van Amberg 1469. Discharged shell are initiated at:
d. Berthold Scwartz
1461. That science dealing with the motion of projectile a. Inside or outside of a case near open end
from the time the firer squeezes the trigger up to b. Where firing pin strikes
the time it reaches the muzzle of the barrel is c. On any part of the shell
d. None of the above
called:
1470. Rifling in the bore of small arms is
a. Posterior ballistics designed to:
b. Interior ballistics
c. Exterior ballistics a. Increase the speed of the bullet
d. Terminal ballistics b. Decrease the amount of recoil
1462. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in the air
different from those left by any other gun barrel.
This fact is most useful in directly identifying the:
1471. The caliber of the gun is:
a. Person who fired the particular gun
b. Direction form which a shot was fired a. Its barrel length
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired b. The circumference of its barrel
d.Bullet which caused a fatal wound c. The size of the ammunition used
d. Diameter of the bore
1463. A patrolman should fire his pistol: 1472. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts
of the exploded shell have been recovered by the
a. At no time
b. Primarily to stop a quarrel investigator of the crime. In order to identify the
c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect shell with the gun that fired, the laboratory should
d. Only as a last resort be given:
1464. . Which of the following, the best method to use in
firing a revolver is to keep: a. The cap, the weds and the pellets
b. The cap and the wads
a. Both eyes closed c. The cap and the pellets
b. Both eyes open d. The shot shell only
c. Only the right eye is open 1473. Which of the following, the most accurate
d. Only the left eye is open statement concerning the identification of an
1465. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on unknown firearm by means of the ballistics is that:
the differentiated by the direction of the twist of
the rifling which may be either be to the left or to a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least eight
the right. Of the following statement the one which lands
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be determined
can most accurately be inferred is that:
by the angle of lead
c. Pistols with the same number of land can be
a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves
differentiated by the direction of the lead
b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and right
d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from the
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either
left or right width of the groove
d. All of the above
1474. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are
1466. The secret of good shooting form is:
different from those left by any other gun barrel.
a. Proper sighting of the target This fact is most useful in directly identifying the:

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 a. Person who fired the particular gun
b. Direction form which a shot was fired
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
d. Bullet which caused a fatal wound
1475. A patrolman should fire his pistol:
a. At no time
b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
d. Only as a last resort
1476. Which of the following, the best method to use in
firing a revolver is to keep:
a. Both eyes closed
b. Both eyes open
c. Only the right eye is open
d. Only the left eye is open
1477. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on
the differentiated by the direction of the twist of
the rifling which may be either be to the left or to
the right. Of the following statement the one which
can most accurately be inferred is that:
a. Most pistols have the same number of
grooves
b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left
and right
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can
be either left or right
d. All of the above
1478. The secret of good shooting form is:
a.Proper sighting of the target
b.Firing slowly and carefully
c.A relaxed and natural position
d.Speed at which the bullet leaves the
revolver
1479. The term muzzle velocity refers most
accurately to the:
a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the
muzzle
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the
revolver
1480. Discharged bullet are initiated at:
a. On base or nose
b. Left side
c. Right side
d. The end of the bullet
1481. Discharged shell are initiated at:
a. Inside or outside of a case near open end
b. Where firing pin strikes
c. On any part of the shell
d. None of the above
1482. Rifling in the bore of small arms is
designed to:
a. Increase the speed of the bullet
b. Decrease the amount of recoil
G.S.T. 2019
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of
identification
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over
and in the air
1483. The caliber of the gun is:
a. Its barrel length
b. The circumference of its barrel
c. The size of the ammunition used
d. Diameter of the bore
1484. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts
of the exploded shell have been recovered by the
investigator of the crime. In order to identify the
shell with the gun that fired, the laboratory should
be given:
a. The cap, the weds and the pellets
b. The cap and the wads
c. The cap and the pellets
d. The shot shell only
1485. Which of the following, the most accurate
statement concerning the identification of an
unknown firearm by means of the ballistics is that:
a. Most pistol which have left dead have at
least eight lands
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be
determined by the angle of lead
c. Pistols with the same number of land can be
differentiated by the direction of the lead
d. The angle lead is the angle which the land
from the width of the groove
1486. Paraffin test is used to:
a. Detect whether a witness is telling the truth
b. Discover whether the deceased person was
poisoned
c. Estimate the approximate time of death of
the deceased
d. Determine whether a suspect has fired a
gun recently
1487. The term double action with reference to revolver
means most nearly that:
a. The revolver has both safely and automatic firing
action
b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released the
hammer
c. The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell
ejection
d. The shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge
is pushed from the magazine at the same time
1488. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a Pistol or
Rifle barrels is called:
a. Land
b. Groove
c. Lead
d. One complete revolution inside the bore
1489. Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a
shell by the:
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 a. Firing a. To disperse a disorder group of people
b. Ejector b. To subdue a maniac
c. Extractor c. To prevent the escape of a pelon
d. Hammer d. To stop a man suspected of having committed a crime
1490. It is the part of the mechanism in a firearm that 1498. A policeman arriving at the scene of a crime found
withdrawn the shell or cartridge from the chamber a revolver, in reference to this he should be most
is called the: careful:

a. Ejector a. To see that it is not loaded

b. Primer b. To put on the safety lock
c. Striker c. Not to handle it unnecessarily
d. extractor d. To mark it readily on the barrel

1499. The term “MAGNUM” originated in:

a. United States
b. France
1491. A revolver to be tested and used in c. England
evidence should be picked up by: d. Italy
1500. The chemical eating away of the bore of an arm
a. Inserting a pencil or ballpen in the barrel due to rusting or the action of salts deposited from
b. Placing a piece of wire or string through the trigger the cap or gunpowder is:
guard
c. Grasping the handle with the handkerchief a. Pressure
d. Grasping the barrel with clean cloth b. Extractor
1492. The part of a .45 caliber semi-automatic pistol c. Corrosion
found at the scene of the crime is normally not d. Priming Composition
individual marked for identification in the: 1501. The mechanical wear and fear of the bore of an
arm due to sliding friction when the bullet passes
a. Trigger through is:
b. Ejector
c. Slide a. Ejector
d. barrel b. Single action
1493. The type of bore found on sewed-off shotgun is c. Erosion
usually a: d. Potassium nitrate
1502. When the mechanism is so arranged that it will fire
a. Rifled bore continuously while the trigger is depressed is
b. Choke bore called:
c. Full choke bore
d. Smooth bore a. Double action
1494. The maximum distance form the muzzle at which b. Caliber
a firearm discharge will usually produce detectable c. Automatic
powder pattern on a target is about: d. Trigger
1503. The distance that the rifling advances to make one
a. 6 to 10 inches complete turn inside the gun barrel is called:
b. 6 to 10 feet
c. 6 to 10 yards a. Gauge
d. 6 to 10 meters b. Breech End
1495. When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a c. Pitch of rifling
criminal: d. Velocity
1504. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger
a. The empty shell remain within the chamber releases the hammer that must be manually
b. The empty in most cases will be found at the scene of cocked is called:
firing
c. The shell is rarely found at the crime scene a. Automatic
d. The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator b. Repeating arms
1496. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, c. Single action
the index finger should: d. Ejector
1505. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both
a. Grasp the stock cocks and releases the hammer:
b. Be straight along the barrel
c. Touch the outside of the trigger guard a. Single action
d. Be inside of the trigger guard b. Trigger
1497. A member of the police force may properly used c. Hammer
his pistol: d. Double action

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 1506. When a barrel of a game guns are almost 1513. This process of combustion results in the solid
invariability bored with a slightly constriction near powder being converted into gases rapidly, and at
the muzzle end is known as: a high temperature, and it is the expansion of these
gases which causes the explosive force which
a. Shotgun propels the bullet or shot charge along the barrel.
b. Choke
This force is known as:
c. Gauge
d. Chamber
a. Energy
1507. The only sure method of determining the velocity
b. Pressure
is by the use of: c. Velocity
d. High Intensity
a. Micrometer 1514. A type of firearm having six lands, six grooves with
b. Taper Gauge
the right hand twist is:
c. Caliber
d. Chronograph
a. Smith & Wesson
1508. One of the most important single case in Firearms
b. Browning type
Identification History was that involving two men c. Colt type
who were supposed to have their employer and his d. Webley type
housekeeper in upper New York State: 1515. An instrument used for the propulsion of projectile
by the expansive force of gases coming from
a. Castelo Case burning powder a:
b. Timbol Case
c. The Stielow Case a. Helixometer
d. Castaneda case b. Firearm
c. Stereoscopic
1509. During the seven years of radical agitation that d. Comparison microscope
followed the arrest of these men , It was 1516. A knurled ring or serrated groove around the body
apparently forgotten that they had been seized on of the bullet which contains lubricant in order to
specific charge of murdering one Parameter, a minimize friction during the passage of the bullet
paymaster and his guard Berrdelli. Forensic inside the bore is:
Ballistics sprange into national prominence during
this last phrase of: a. Jacketed bullet
b. Wad cutter bullet
a. Brownell Case c. Cannelure
b. Sacco-Vanzetti Case d. Plated bullet
c. Mitchell Case 1517. The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its
d. Weber Case original trajectory is:
1510. He is doctor of medicine in Medical corps in the
First World War who had transferred to the a. Range
ordinance corps and considered the Father of b. Fouling
c. Key hole shot
modern Ballistics:
d. ricochet
1518. Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time
a. Lieutenant Van Amberg
b. Maj. Calvin Goddard or there is a delayed in explosion due to faulty
c. Capt. Edward C. Crossman functioning of the primer or faulty ignition of the
d. Philip O. Gravelle propellant is:
1511. The most important single process in barrel
manufacture from the standpoint of the a. Misfire
identification expert is: b. Recoil
c. Hang-fire
a. Reaming operation d. velocity
b. Rifling operation 1519. type of bullet that contains a mixture, such as
c. Boring operation phosphorus or other material, that can set fire
d. Grinding or machining upon impact is called:

1512. That part of the mechanism in a firearm which a. Boat tail bullet
causes empty shells or cartridge cases to be thrown b. Tracer bullet
from the gun is called: c. Incendiary bullet
d. Ball type
a. Extractor 1520. A short barrel rifle, with its barrel not longer than
b. Ejector 22”.
c. Hammer
d. trigger a. Gatling guns
b. Pistolized shotgun

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 c. Carbine a. Breechface
d. muskets b. Breechblock
1521. A type of weapon designed to propel projectile by c. Chamber
means of compressed air is: d. bore
1529. Firearms which propel projectile of less than one
a. Springfield armory inch in diameter are generally classified as:
b. Marlin rifle
c. Carbine a. Artillery
d. Air rifle b. Small arms
1522. The class characteristics of a 9 mm Browning Pistol c. Cannons
is: d. Recoilless rifle
1530. It is the study of firearms Identification by means
a. 5 lands, 5 grooves, right hand twist of the ammunition fired through them:
b. 4 lands, 4 grooves, right hand twist
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves, right hand twist a. Ballistics
d. 7 lands, 7 grooves, right hand twist b. Forensic Ballistics
1523. A caliber 6.35mm is equivalent to: c. Terminal ballistics
d. Interior ballistics
a. Caliber .32 1531. The class characteristics of a Smith & Wesson,
b. Caliber .25 revolver caliber .38 is:
c. Caliber .45
d. Caliber .22 a. Six lands, six grooves, right hand twist
1524. How many lead pellets dies a 12 gauge 00 bunch b. Five lands, five grooves, right hand twist
shot shotgun cartridges contains: c. Six lands, six grooves, left hand twist
d. Four lands, four grooves, right hand twist
a. 12 gauge 1532. Velocity of the bullet is being measure in:
b. 24 pellets
c. 6 pellets a. Foot pound
d. 9 pellets b. Lbs./sq. inch
1525. Here is a case, when two specimens are examined c. Feet per second
under the comparison microscopic and was d. millimeter
erroneously drawn a conclusion and actually no 1533. How many types of problem are there in Forensic
identity exist, this matching is called: Ballistics?

a. Photomicrograph a. 8
b. Pseudomatch b. 7
c. Microphotograph c. 6
d. striagraph d. 5
1526. When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a 1534. What is that part in a cartridge cases where in the
stationary position and is forced abruptly into the flame coming from the priming composition
rifling, its natural tendency is to go straight forward passes?
before encountering the regular rifling twist is
a. Shell head
called: b. Vent
c. Primer pocket
a. Shaving marks d. anvil
b. Skidmarks 1535. What is the most powerful handgun in the world?
c. Individual characteristics
d. Slippage marks a. Magnum .357
1527. Those characteristics which are determinable only b. Magnum .44
after the manufacture of the firearm. They are c. Magnum .50
characteristics whose existence is beyond the d. Magnum .41
control of men and which have random 1536. What is the equivalent of a caliber .25 in
distribution. Their existence in a firearm is brought millimeter?
about through the failure of the tool in its normal
a. 7.65mm
operation through wear and tear, abuse,
b. 6.35 mm
mutilation, corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous
c. 9 mm
causes: d. 7.63 mm
1537. When a cartridge fails to explode on time or
a. Forensic ballistics
delayed in explosion;
b. Class characteristics
c. Riflings
a. Misfired cartridge
d. Individual characteristics
b. Hang-fire
1528. The steel block which closes the rear of the bore
c. Tapered cartridge
against the force of the charge is: d. Rebated cartridge

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 1538. What is the equipment in measuring the velocity 1548. The distance from the face of the closed breech of
of the bullet? a firearm to the surface in the chamber on which
a. Omoscope the cartridge seats.
b. Helixometer a. Keyhole
c. Chronograph b. Headspace
d. micrometer c. Gas operator
1539. Riflings located inside the barrel of a gun is a d. Silencer
combination of: 1549. The most important single process in barrel
a. Pitch grifling manufacture from the standpoint of the
b. Twist identification expert.
c. Lands & grooves a. Reaming operation
d. cannelures b. Rifling operation
c. Boring operation
1540. The sound created at the muzzle of the firearm d. Grinding operation
after explosion is called: 1550. The tumbling of the bullet in flight and hitting the
a. Suppressor target sideways;
b. Muzzle blast a. Ricochet
c. Compensation b. Hang-fire
d. choke c. Key hole shot
1541. What are muzzle loading firearms? d. misfired
a. Muskets 1551. An obsolete barrel designed in which the major
b. Shotgun length of the barrel in smooth and the few inches
c. Single sot firearms
are rifled.
d. Rifled arms
a. Gas operated
1542. In a caliber 7.62 mm x 51 cartridge. What do you
b. Damascus barrel
mean by 51?
c. Paradox gun
a. The diameter of the cartridge case d. Cape gun
b. The shoulder of the cartridge case 1552. A notched wheel on the rear of a revolver cylinder
c. The diameter of the cartridge
to rotate when force is applied by a level called a
d. The length of the cartridge case
1543. A caliber 7.62 mm x 51 is equivalent hand.
a. Headspace
a. Caliber .32
b. Ratchet
b. Caliber .30
c. Trigger pull
c. Caliber .308
d. Cylinder stop
d. Caliber 30.06
1553. A rigid loop which partially surrounds the trigger
1544. How many pellets are there in a 00 buckshot
shotgun cartridge 12 gauge? to prevent accident discharge or damage to it.
a. 12 pellets a. Trigger pull
b. 9 pellets b. Trigger guard
c. 10 pellets c. Trailing edge
d. 16 pellets d. Thumb rest
1545. . A firearm which features a movable firearm which 1554. Pressure developed after explosion is measured
is manually actuated in motion parallel to the in:
a. feet/second
barrel by the shooter;
b. Lbs./sq. inch
a. Slide action type
c. Foot pound
b. Lower action type
d. Millimetre
c. Bolt action type
d. Single shot firearm
1555. Used in cases such as for sending signals and
1546. A device primarily designed for another purposes
enabling to see enemies in the dark.
that have a gun mechanism in corporated in them.
a. Gas gun a. Harpoon guns
b. Liberator b. Gas guns
c. Freakish device c. Flare guns
d. Flare guns d. Care guns
1547. The numerals, letters and symbols stamped into 1556. In a caliber .30-30. What do you mean by the
the head of the cartridge case to shotshell to second 30?
identify the manufacturer, caliber or gauge.
a. Headspace a. Refers to the caliber
b. Headstamp b. Refers to the weight of gunpowder
c. Proof mark c. Refers to the weight of the cartridge case
d. ratchet d. Refers to the weight of the bullet
1557. In a caliber .250-3000.The 3000 refers to the.

a. Muzzle energy

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 b. Diameter of the cartridge a. Transparent
c. Muzzle velocity of the bullet b. Translucent
d. Pressure developed c. Opaque
1558. In a caliber .45 pistol. What is defective when more d. All of the above
than one bullets will come out of the barrel in one 1568. To separate colors, this homogenous medium
press of the trigger? absorbs and transmits light rays passing through it.
a. Filter
a. Slide b. Stop bath
b. Main spring c. Developer
c. Disconnector d. Fixer
d. Magazine catch 1569. In crime scene photography what is the sufficient
1559. The amount of force which must be applied to the lens type for interior photograph?
a. Wide angle lens
trigger of a firearm to cause sear to be released.
b. Normal lens
a. Velocity c. Telephoto lens
b. Muzzle energy d. Narrow angle lens
c. Trigger pull 1570. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for
d. Shocking power a predetermined time interval.
1560. Characteristic of photographic paper usually a. View finder
utilized in police photography? b. Shutter
a. Single, glossy, white c. Light tight box
b. Single, matte, cream d. Holder of sensitized material
c. Double, glossy, white 1571. Its primary use in photography is focus the light to
d. Double matte, cream the subject.
1561. When a photograph was developed, the objects in a. Light tight box
open space casts a deep and uniform shadow, what b. Shutter
was the lighting condition when the shot was c. Lens
taken? d. View finder
a. Bright 1572. It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is
b. Dull focused with a given particular diaphragm opening.
c. Hazy a. Depth of field
d. Cloudy b. Hyper-focal distance
c. Focal distance
d. Scale bed
1562. Refers to the response of film to different 1573. It is the distance measured from the nearest to the
wavelength of light source. farthest object.
a. Spectral sensitivity a. Depth field
b. Color sensitivity b. Hyper-focal distance
c. Light sensitivity c. Scale bed
d. Film sensitivity d. Focal distance
1563. A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color 1574. Which among the following is not a primary color?
only. a. Red
a. Blue sensitive b. Blue
b. Orthochromatic c. Yellow
c. Panchromatic d. Green
d. Infra red 1575. It is a microscopically small photograph.
1564. Lighting condition when objects in open space a. Microphotograph
casts no shadow. b. Photomicrograph
a. Bright c. Photomacrograph
b. Dull d. Macrophotograph
c. Hazy 1576. The normal developing time of a paper or film.
d. Cloudy a. 1 to 1 ½ minutes
b. 5 to 10 minutes
1565. Lens corrected for astigmatism. c. 20 to 30 minutes
a. Aprochomat lens d. 30 to 60 minutes
b. Anastigmat lens 1577. In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal
c. Achromatic lens paper for printing?
d. Rapid rectilinear lens a. Chloride paper
1566. A camera used for surveillance must have a lens b. Bromide paper
with focal length that is: c. Contact paper
a. Wide angle lens d. Chloro-bromide paper
b. Normal lens 1578. This refers to the absence of all colors.
c. Telephoto lens a. White
d. Narrow angle lens b. Red
1567. When a material does not allow light to pass its c. Blue
medium it is said to be: d. Black

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 1579. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space b. Eye level
casts a transparent shadow. c. Bird’s eye view
a. Hazy d. Worm’s eye view
b. Cloudy Dull 1589. The wavelength of electromagnetic energy in
c. Cloudy bright reference to visible light is:
d. Bright a. 001 to 100
1580. To view watermarks in disputed documents, what b. 300 to 400
particular method of photography is utilized? c. 400 to 700
a. Bounce light d. 700 to 1000
b. Side light 1590. Photography is defined as drawing with what
c. Transmitted light particular element?
d. Reflected light a. Light
1581. Its primary function is to prevent the b. Camera
contamination of two chemical solution in c. Film
chemical processing in photography. d. Developer
a. Development 1591. It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the
b. Stop-bath thicker center and thinner sides.
c. Fixation a. Positive lens
d. Bleaching b. Negative lens
1582. Which among the following comprises the c. Concave lens
essential parts of a camera? d. Convex lens
a. Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized 1592. It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to
material, View finder the various energies of the electromagnetic
b. Light tight box, Shutter, holder of sensitized spectrum.
material, View finder a. Infra-red
c. Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of b. X-ray
sensitized material, Shutter c. Orthochromatic
d. Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens, d. Panchromatic
holder of sensitized material 1593. The first use of photography in police work is in
1583. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal what particular field?
of its negative material. a. Crime prevention
a. Wide angle lens b. Identification files
b. Normal lens c. Surveillance work
c. Long lens d. Crime scene investigation
d. Telephoto lens 1594. The chemical processing step wherein the latent
1584. Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of image recorded on the paper or film becomes
convergence of light coming from a subject as seen visible.
from two apertures. a. Fixer
a. Focusing scale b. Bleacher
b. Scale bed c. Stop bath
c. View finder d. Developer
d. Range finder

1595. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the

use of microscope.
1585. It is a magnified picture of a small object produced a. Microphotography
by connecting the lens of a camera with the ocular b. Photomicrography
of a compound microscope. c. Macrophotography
a. Microphotograph d. Photomacrography
b. Photomicrograph 1596. The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of
c. Photomacrograph image refers to:
d. Macrophotograph a. Hyper-focal distance
1586. Attributed as the person who first discovered first b. Focal distance
true photography. c. Focusing
a. William Henry Fox Talbot d. Focal length
b. Thomas Wedgewood 1597. Infrared radiation is also referred to as:
c. Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre a. Laser light
d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce b. Coherent light
1587. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at c. Black light
bright sunlight with normal subject. d. Heat rays
a. 1/30 f-8 1598. The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in
b. 1/125 f-11 logarithmic values refers to:
c. 1/60 f-4 a. ISO rating
d. 1/250 f 2-8 b. ASA rating
1588. In police photography, to obtain a general view of c. DIN rating
the scene we use a camera at what particular level? d. BSI rating
a. Elevated
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 1599. Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing d. None of the foregoing
solution. 1611. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the
a. Hypo or silver halide impression are arbitrarily classified as.
b. Potassium Alum a. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
c. Sodium Sulfate b. Loops with ridge count
d. Acetic Acid c. Arches
1600. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer d. Dependent on ridge tracings
solution. 1612. Referred to as outer terminus:
a. Hydroquinone a. Delta
b. Sodium sulfite b. Dots
c. Sodium carbonate c. Bifurcation
d. Potassium bromide d. None of the foregoing
1601. Refers to the product of illumination and time. 1613. Failure to clean the slab after using it produces:
a. Exposure a. Impression of false markings
b. Development b. Accentuation of patterns
c. Sensitized material c. Pattern reversals
d. Photograph d. Difficulty in photographing
1602. Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging. 1614. In taking fingerprints ______ are rolled away from
a. Potassium Bromide the body of the subject.
b. Sodium Sulfite a. All fingers
c. Sodium Carbonate b. All fingers except the thumbs
d. Boric Acid c. Both thumbs
1603. A homogenous mixture which absorbs and d. Both little fingers
transmits differentially light rays passing through 1615. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the
it. fingerprint card are referred to as:
a. Stop bath a. Rolled impressions
b. Fixer b. Plain impressions
c. Filter c. Fragmentary impressions
d. Dektol d. Visible impressions
1604. Papillary or friction ridges may be located at: 1616. Known for his rule which states that “No two
a. Fingers individuals in the world are exactly the same size
b. Palms and that human skeleton does not change after 20
c. Soles of the feet years.
d. All of the choices a. Darwin
1605. The fingerprint classification which is used in the b. Mendel
US and other English speaking country. c. Galton
a. Henry System d. Bertillon
b. Batley System 1617. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint,
c. Bertillion System is to view the area:
d. Galton System a. Obliquely
1606. Which among the following is considered as a basic b. About half an inch distance
type of ridge characteristics? c. Directly
a. Ridge endings d. About one inch distance
b. Bifurcation 1618. Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type
c. Dots of pattern are represented:
d. All of the choices a. Accidental Whorl
1607. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of b. Central pocket loop
papillary ridges as means of identification. c. Double loop
a. Edgeoscopy d. Whorl
b. Poroscopy 1619. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate
c. Podoscopy loops, with its respective shoulder and deltas.
d. Chiroscopy a. Double loop
1608. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the b. Accidental loop
subject’s hand is: c. Central pocket loop
a. Necessary d. Whorl
b. Unnecessary 1620. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but it has
c. Optional two deltas.
d. Excessive a. Accidental loop
1609. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is: b. Double loop
a. Temporary c. Whorl
b. Permanent d. Central pocket loop
c. Lasting 1621. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge
d. Stable from the thumb toward the little finger?
1610. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller. a. Tented Arch
a. Porelon b. Radial loop
b. Special pad c. Ulnar loop
c. Inkless pad d. Loop
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 1622. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges a. Delta
enter on either side of the impression by a recurve, b. Bifurcation
and terminate on the same side where the ridge c. Core
has entered. d. Pores
a. Tented arch 1633. Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant
b. Radial loop or ridges from the little finger toward the thumb.
c. Ulnar loop a. Ulnar loop
d. Loop b. Radial loop
1623. It is a triangular shaped and formed by the c. Arch
bifurcation of a ridge at the outer portion of the d. Whorl
pattern. 1634. Basis of fingerprint identification.
a. Latent prints a. Pores
b. Ridge b. Ridges
c. Core c. Friction ridges
d. Delta d. Latent print
1635. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable
1624. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are: method of identification due to following reason;
a. Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts except:
b. Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges and a. Fingerprints are not changeable
spurs b. There are no two identical fingerprints
c. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations c. Wounded or burned out patterns will re-
d. Type lines, converging ridges and recurving appear
ridges d. It is formed in the ninth month of
1625. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to pregnancy
form a single ridge is called:
a. Enclosure ridge 1636. Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges
b. Dot ridges are formed and developed?
c. Short ridges a. 3rd month of fetus life
d. Resembling a loop b. 6th month of infancy
c. At birth
d. 3 months after birth
1626. Which part of the human body has no papillary 1637. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may
ridges. resemble a loop, spiral or rod.
a. Soles of the foot a. Delta
b. Palm b. Core
c. Finger c. Ridge
d. Elbow d. Whorl
1627. Points often missed in rolling impression. 1638. Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify
a. Bifurcation the identity between two points.
b. Core a. Nine
c. Delta b. Twelve
d. Ridge c. Fifteen
1628. Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be d. Eighteen
an impression or imprint. 1639. Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical
a. Latent print and chemical properties, physiological action,
b. Pattern treatment and method of detection.
c. Loop a. Forensic Chemistry
d. Arch b. Toxicology
1629. Which among the following is not considered as a c. Posology
basic fingerprint pattern? d. Forensic Medicine
a. Loop 1640. A substance which when introduced into the body
b. Arch is absorbed in the blood stream and acting
c. Whorl chemically is capable of producing noxious effect.
d. Accidental a. Drugs
1630. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a b. Dangerous drugs
sequence of spirals around core axes. c. Poison
a. Whorl d. Antidotes
b. Central pocket loop 1641. Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of
c. Double loop the mucus membrane and characterized by
d. Accidental vomiting, pain in the abdomen and purging.
1631. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found a. Corrosives
on papillary ridges as a means of identification. b. Irritants
a. Poroscopy c. Narcotics
b. Edgeoscopy d. Tetanics
c. Podoscopy 1642. When a substance acts directly upon the spinal
d. Dactyloscopy cord producing immobility or stiffness to the parts
1632. A ridge which forks out into two ridges. to which they are attached, it is classified as:
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 a. Corrosives 1653. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual
b. Irritants proof that subject is definitely blood.
c. Narcotics a. Preliminary test
d. Tetanics b. Confirmatory test
1643. In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an c. Precipitin test
important application in: d. Blood typing and grouping
a. Counterfeit coins 1654. Test to determine whether blood is of human
b. Theft and Robbery origin or not.
c. Bombs and Explosives a. Preliminary test
d. Restoration of tampered serial numbers b. Confirmatory test
1644. Agents which depress or retard the physiological c. Precipitin test
action of an organ. d. Blood typing and grouping
a. Corrosives
b. Sedatives 1655. Positive result in the preliminary examination for
c. Tetanics semen in Barberio’s test.
d. Narcotics a. Picric acid
b. Spermine picrate
1645. According to the methods of isolation, what poison c. Napthol diazonium
is isolated by means of distillation. d. Anthraquinous chloride
a. Volatile poisons 1656. Animal fiber may be best described by:
b. Non volatile poisons a. It is composed of protein
c. Metallic poisons b. Gives yellow fluorescence under ultra violet
d. Tetanic poisons light
1646. When the effect of a poison is marked by c. It burns fast
disturbance of function or death within a short d. It has acid like odor when burned
time, the poisoning is classified as: 1657. When gunpowder explodes, this would determine
a. Acute poisoning the approximate time of firing the gun?
b. Sub-acute poisoning a. Soot
c. Chronic poisoning b. Nitrates and nitrites
d. Suicidal poisoning c. Gases
1647. When the action of the poison is marked by d. Metallic fragments
disturbance produced in distant part from the site 1658. In determining whether the hair is of human or
of application, it is classified as: animal origin what should the chemist examine
a. Local under the microscope?
b. Remote a. Parts of the shaft
c. Combined b. Parts of the tip
d. Acute c. Parts of the hair
d. Parts of the root
1648. Referred to as the circulating tissue of the body. 1659. A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns
a. Semen blue litmus to red, it is:
b. Blood a. Cotton
c. Cells b. Silk
d. Muscles c. Fiber glass
1649. A man of average built would normally have how d. Steel wool
many quarts of blood? 1660. It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a
a. 6 quarts race determinant?
b. 7 quarts a. Cortex
c. 8 quarts b. Cuticle
d. 9 quarts c. Medulla
1650. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises d. Shaft
about 65% of the blood. 1661. A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of
a. Platelets human or animal origin
b. Fibrin a. Ignition test or burning
c. Leucocytes b. Fluorescence analysis
d. Plasma c. Chemical analysis
1651. It is the oxygen carrier of the blood. d. Microscopic analysis
a. Plasma 1662. Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches
b. Hemoglobin is ineffective.
c. Erythrocytes a. Carbon
d. Fibrin b. Logwood
1652. Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is c. Nigrosine
decomposed and stained with contamination. d. Gallotanic
a. Benzidine test 1663. Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and
b. Van Deen’s Test its effects.
c. Phenolphthalein test a. Emetics
d. Precipitin test b. Antidotes
c. Alkaloids
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 d. Tetanics b. Ammonia
1664. Which among the following exhibits bluish c. Carbon dioxide
fluorescence when exposed to u.v. light? d. Hydrogen sulfide
a. Blood 1676. The application of chemical principles in the
b. Semen examination of evidence.
c. Saliva a. Forensics
d. Urine b. Criminalistics
1665. Oldest known explosive. c. Instrumentation
a. Black powder d. Forensic Chemistry
b. Smoke powder 1677. To positively determine the presence of blood in
c. Dynalite stained material, what test is used?
d. TNT a. Takayama Test
1666. Deals with the study and identification by means of b. Phenolphtalien test
body fluids. c. Baberio’s test
a. Immunology d. Florence test
b. Serology 1678. According to the method of isolation, volatile
c. Posology poisons may be isolated by means of what
d. Pharmacology process?
1667. The process in reproducing physical evidence by a. Extraction
plaster moulds. b. Dilution
a. Casting c. Distillation
b. Cementing d. Dialysis
c. Moulage 1679. Which of the following is not an accurate test for
d. Pickling the presence of alcohol in the human body?
1668. Major component of a glass. a. Saliva test
a. Lime b. Harger breath test
b. Silica c. Fecal test
c. Soda d. Drug test
d. Lime 1680. A disturbance produced by poison on that part
1669. Highly irritant poison which causes local with which the poison came into contact.
destruction of tissues and causes nausea. a. Acute
a. Corrosives b. Local
b. Irritants c. Remote
c. Tetanics d. Combined
d. Asthenics 1681. A material which is used to which is used to
improve the quality of the paper.
1670. A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity a. Sizing material
and rigidity. b. Rosin
a. Lime c. Gelatin
b. Soda d. Starch
c. Glass 1682. By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color would be
d. Gel formed if it is pesent.
1671. An organic bacterial poison. a. Rosin
a. Strychnine b. Starch
b. Ptomaine c. Casein
c. Brucine d. Gelatin
d. Chloroform 1683. Oldest ink material known to man.
1672. This test is used to detect the presence of semen a. Logwood
particularly in stained clothing. b. Nigrosine
a. Microscopic test c. Carbon
b. Barberio’s test d. Gallotanic
c. Florence test 1684. Only type of ink wherein age may be determined.
d. Ultraviolet test a. Logwood
1673. The best method in comparative soil analysis. b. Nigrosine
a. Chemical examination c. Carbon
b. Density gradient test d. Gallotanic
c. Ultra-violet light examination 1685. It refers to the obscuring of writing by
d. Microscopic test superimposing ink, pencil or other marking
1674. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what material.
test is utilized? a. Erasure
a. Accelerated aging test b. Obliterated writing
b. Bursting strength test c. Indented writing
c. Opacity examination d. Contact writing
d. Microscopic examination 1686. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with
1675. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by male pelvis.
decaying body. a. Greater
a. Chloride b. Equal
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 c. Lesser 1696. A nervous disease marked by seizures with
d. Less significant convulsion and loss of consciousness.
a. Epilepsy
b. Apoplexy
c. Catalepsy
d. Uremia
1687. How many minutes is necessary persistent 1697. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily
cessation in respiration, circulation and brain eliminated in the urine; specifically a toxic
function is sufficient to declare a person clinically condition seen in urinary suppression, marked by
dead? nausea, vertigo, vomiting, coma and convulsion.
a. 10-15 minutes
b. 15-30 minutes a. Epilepsy
c. 30-45 minutes b. Apoplexy
d. 45-60 minutes c. Catalepsy
d. Uremia
1688. A simple test used to determine cessation of 1698. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in
respiration by placing water or mercury in a how many hours when the blood has already
container on top of the chest of a person and no clotted or diffused to different parts of the body
visible movement is noticed. wherein the discoloration is permanent and darker
a. Winslov test in color?
b. Florence test a. 12 hours
c. Barberio test b. 24 hours
d. Castle Meyer test c. 36 hours
1689. A muscular change characterized by the softness of d. 48 hours
the muscles and in which it no longer responds to 1699. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination
mechanical or electrical stimulus due to the with either group A or B what would be the
dissolution of proteins. particular blood group of the sample.
a. Stage of primary flaccidity a. Group A
b. Stage of secondary flaccidity b. Group B
c. Rigor mortis c. Group AB
d. Livor mortis d. Group O
1690. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached 1700. Period of time wherein human bones will not
from a dead body in how many days? exhibit changes.
a. 7 a. 10 years
b. 14 b. 20 years
c. 21 c. 30 years
d. 28 d. 40 years
1691. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in 1701. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish
warm countries within how many days from white greasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after
death? death.
a. 1 a. Saponification
b. 2 b. Rigor mortis
c. 3 c. Mummification
d. 4 d. Maceration
1692. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the 1702. A discoloration of the body after death when the
bone, loss of alignment of the affected bones and blood tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most
separation of fragment bones. dependent portions of the body and starts 20 to 30
a. Simple fracture minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours.
b. Compound fracture a. Rigor mortis
c. Comminuted fracture b. Primary flaccidity
d. None of the foregoing c. Maceration
1693. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body. d. Livor mortis
a. Internal hemorrhage 1703. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents
b. Hematoma after meals.
c. Contusion a. 2 to 3 hours
d. Internal wound b. 3 to 4 hours
1694. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object. c. 4 to 5 hours
a. Imprint abrasion d. 5 to 6 hours
b. Pressure abrasion 1704. Rate of growth of human hair.
c. Friction abrasion a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day
d. Graze b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day
1695. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and c. 0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day
with accompanying movement over the skin. d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day
a. Pressure abrasion 1705. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of
b. Imprint abrasion body temperature is about:
c. Impact abrasion a. 10 to 15 deg. F
d. Graze b. 15 to 20 deg. F
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 c. 20 to 25 deg. F 1716. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what
d. 25 to 30 deg. F wound would be exhibited?
1706. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin. a. Punctured wound
a. Wound b. Hack wound
b. Trauma c. Lacerated wound
c. Bruise d. Incised wound
d. Scratch 1717. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.
1707. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so a. Punctured wound
serious that it will endanger one’s life. b. Hack wound
a. Non-mortal wound c. Lacerated wound
b. Mortal wound d. Incised wound
c. Trauma 1718. The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows
d. Coup injury ACGT, A stands for what?
1708. A collection of blood underneath the skin. a. Adenine
a. Contusion b. Adenide
b. Bruise c. Adenum
c. Petechiae d. Adenoid
d. Hematoma 1719. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what
1709. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and sample should be obtained for DNA testing?
muscles causing skin discoloration and extreme a. Fingerprints
pain. b. Hair
a. Sprain c. Skeleton
b. Contusion d. Teeth
c. Fracture 1720. It is inherited from the mother found in the
d. Dislocation mitochondria which is in the cell body
1710. It is fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone a. Nuclear DNA
is evident. b. Helix
a. Simple c. Mitochondrial DNA
b. Compound d. DNA nucleus
c. Comminuted 1721. Period of time wherein human bones will not
d. Dislocation exhibit changes.
1711. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone a. 10 years
without external wounds. b. 20 years
a. Sprain c. 30 years
b. Fracture d. 40 years
c. Hematoma 1722. A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of
d. Dislocation respiration, circulation and almost all brain
1712. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning function of an organism.
of tissue and blackening of the skin, it may be a. Somatic death
ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning b. Cellular death
that the distance of the body to the gun is c. Molecular death
approximately. d. Apparent death
a. 6 inches 1723. Manner of walking of a person which may be
b. 12 inches natural
c. 18 inches a. Mannerism
d. 24 inches b. Tic
1713. A physical injury which is found at the site and also c. Gait
the opposite site of the application of force. d. Body language
a. Extensive injury 1724. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to
b. Coup injury 30 minutes and is characterized by the relaxation
c. Contre coup injury of the muscles and loss of their natural tone.
d. Coup and contre coup injury a. Stage of primary flaccidity
1714. A physical injury found at the site of the application b. Post mortem rigidity
of force. c. Cadaveric spasm
a. Extensive injury d. Secondary flaccidity
b. Coup injury
c. Contre coup injury
d. Coup and contre coup injury 1725. Approximate time for the completion of one case
for DNA testing.
1715. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as a. Minimum of 2 weeks
log and stone. b. Minimum of 4 weeks
a. Punctured wound c. Minimum of six weeks
b. Hack wound d. Minimum of eight weeks
c. Lacerated wound
d. Incised wound 1726. Period of time wherein there body would be
skeletonized, under normal conditions in tropical
countries.
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 a. 1 month d. Facies lionine
b. 3 months 1737. Conclusive evidence that a person is a male.
c. 6 months a. Presence of testis
d. 12 months b. Presence of androsterone
1727. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable c. Possession of penis
muscular change. d. Possession of testosterone
a. Cold stiffening 1738. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to
b. Heat stiffening mucous secretion of the respiratory track after
c. Instantaneous rigor death.
d. Putrefaction a. “Cutis anserina”
1728. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the b. Washerwoman
blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of c. “Champignon d’ ocume”
the body. d. Cadaveric spasm
a. Diffusion lividity 1739. It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body.
b. Clotting of the blood a. Natural death
c. Rigor mortis b. Molecular death
d. Hypostatic lividity c. Somatic death
1729. Approximate average amount of semen per d. Apparent death
ejaculation under normal conditions. 1740. A type of burn produced as a result of the body
a. 2 to 2.5 cc coming into contact with a moving object.
b. 2.5 to 5 cc a. Thermal burn
c. 5 to 10 cc b. Friction burn
d. 1.5 to 3.5 cc c. Radiation burn
1730. DNA is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is d. Electrical burn
regarded as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands 1741. A condition of a woman who have had one or more
for? sexual experience but not had conceived a child.
a. Deonatural acid a. Moral virginity
b. Dynamic natural anti-body b. Demi-virginity
c. Deoxyribonucleic acid c. Physical virginity
d. Deoxyribunucliec acid d. Virgo intact
1731. A powerful tool in identification which points to 1742. Refers to the action of a bacteria to a dead body.
the source of biological evidence by matching it a. Flaccidity
with samples from the victims, suspects and their b. Rigidity
relatives. c. Lividity
a. DNA profiling d. Putrefaction
b. Serology 1743. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of
c. Instrumentation certain parts of the body which produces
d. Forensics mechanical disruption of cell structure
1732. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good characterized by cold stiffening and diminished
sources of cells. body temperature.
a. Saliva and tears a. Gangrene
b. Semen and saliva b. Frostbite
c. Urine and semen c. Trench foot
d. Semen and blood d. Immersion foot
1733. Human being’s tissue attached to the body which 1744. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the
may undergo DNA testing. breakdown of sweating mechanism.
a. Hair a. Heat cramp
b. Bone b. Heat exhaustion
c. Skin c. Heat stroke
d. Fingernails d. Burning
1734. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive 1745. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton,
action of its bacteria and enzyme. which part is not used?
a. Primary flaccidity a. Skull
b. Post mortem rigidity b. Pelvis
c. Cadaveric spasm c. Sternum
d. Putrefaction d. Tibia
1735. Conclusive evidence that subject person is a 1746. A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and
female. bones, considered as the most severe burn causing
a. Possession of vagina death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the
b. Possession of ovaries body and massive infection.
c. Possession of estrogen a. Sunburn
d. Possession of progesterone b. 1st degree burn
c. 2nd degree burn
1736. A person with big face and prominent cheek bones. d. 3rd degree burn
a. Hippocratic facie 1747. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5
b. Mongolian facie minutes would die, the case of death would be?
c. Myxedema facie a. Stupor
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 b. Stroke 1758. Type of question related to the facts of the case
c. Asphyxia and is answerable by NO.
d. Exhaustion a. Relevant question
1748. Most effective method in determining sex of an b. Irrelevant question
individual. c. General question
a. Gonodal test d. Immaterial question
b. Social test 1759. Question known to the subject and is answerable by
c. Genital test YES.
d. Chromosomal test a. Relevant question
1749. Its medical-legal importance is to approximate the b. Irrelevant question
time of death. c. General question
a. Cadaveric spasm d. Immaterial question
b. Putrefaction 1760. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that
c. Mascular contraction something is hidden or obscure.
d. Rigor mortis a. Fear
1750. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to: b. Deception
a. Masturbation c. Detection
b. Fingering d. Reaction
c. Sodomy 1761. An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector
d. Sexual intercourse organ or organism as a result of stimulation.
1751. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual a. Response
cell occurs in: b. Deception
a. 20 to 30 minutes c. Detection
b. 3 to 6 hours d. Reaction
c. 12 to 24 hours 1762. Refers to an emotional response to a specific
d. 24 to 36 hours danger, which appears to go beyond a person’s
1752. Most noticeable sign of death. defensive power.
a. Cessation of respiration a. Response
b. Progressive fall of body temperature b. Reaction
c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to c. Stimuli
move d. Fear
d. Cessation of heart action and circulation 1763. This component drives the chart paper under the
1753. Most common and scientific method of detecting recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12
deception. inches per minute.
a. Polygraphy a. Cardiosphygmograph
b. Polygraph b. Kymograph
c. Truth serum c. Galvanograph
d. Interrogation d. Pneumograph
1754. Devised an instrument capable of continuously 1764. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left
recording pulse rate, respiration and blood fingers of the subject.
pressure. a. Finger electrode plate
a. William Marston b. Diacritic notch
b. Angelo Mosso c. Rubber convoluted tube
c. John Larson d. Kymograph
d. Sticker 1765. This component record changes of the subject
blood pressure and pulse rate.
a. Cardiosphygmograph
1755. Psychological response to any demand. b. Sphygmomanometer
a. Reaction c. Galvanograph
b. Stress d. Pneumograph
c. Pressure 1766. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small
d. All of the above amount of electricity.
1756. For male subjects, what is the amount of air a. Cardisphygmograph
pressure is to be utilized in the system of cardio or b. Sphygmomanometer
vent. c. Galvanograph
a. 30 mm d. Pneumograph
b. 60 mm 1767. This component records the changes in the
c. 90 mm breathing of the subject.
d. 120 mm a. Cardisphygmograph
1757. A subject must have at least how many hours of b. Sphygmomanometer
sleep considered fit for polygraph examination. c. Galvanograph
a. 5 d. Pneumograph
b. 6 1768. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another
c. 7 identity to deceive others.
d. 8 a. Black lie
b. White lie
c. Red lie
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 d. Yellow lie 1780. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with
1769. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the measurement, respiration component and blood
relevant question. pressure.
a. Reaction a. Harold Burtt
b. Normal response b. Hans Gross
c. Specific response c. Leonarde Keeler
d. Positive response d. John Larson
1770. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions 1781. Refers to any specimen or writing executed
were answered. normally without any attempt to change or
a. Reaction control its identifying habits and its usual quality
b. Normal response of execution.
c. Specific response a. Natural writing
d. Positive response b. Disguised writing
1771. Normal time interval for pre-test interview. c. Cursive writing
a. 20 to 30 minutes d. System of writing
b. 30 to 60 minutes 1782. Jose Pidal in trying to fake his own signature to
c. 60 to 90 minutes hide his identity is using:
d. 90 to 120 minutes a. Natural writing
1772. The primary objective of post test interview. b. Disguised writing
a. To thank the subject c. Cursive writing
b. To obtain confession d. System of writing
c. To make the subject calm 1783. Writing in which are for most part joined
d. To explain polygraph test procedures together.
a. Natural writing
1773. The purpose of pretest interview. b. Disguised writing
a. To prepare subject for polygraph test c. Cursive writing
b. To obtain confession d. System of writing
c. To make the subject calm 1784. Usual deviations found between repeated
d. To explain polygraph test procedures specimen of any individual handwriting or in the
1774. Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s product of any typewriter.
normal pattern of response. a. Normal variation
a. Relevant questions b. Natural variation
b. Irrelevant questions c. Tremor
c. Supplementary questions d. Wrong hand writing
d. Control questions
1775. The number of basic tracings in the modern polygraph. 1785. A person executing a signature while his arm is
a. 3 steadied and assisted produces a:
b. 4 a. Guided signature
c. 5 b. Normal signature
d. 6 c. Scribble
1776. Developed the systolic blood pressure method for d. Handwriting signature
detecting deception. 1786. A preliminary embellished initial common to
a. William Marston capital letters.
b. Harold Burtt a. Embellishment
c. John Larson b. Beard
d. Leonarde Keeler c. Buckle knot
d. Diacritic
1777. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood 1787. A minute curve which occurs at the end of
pressure changes were signs of deception. terminal strokes.
a. William Marston a. Hook
b. Harold Burtt b. Spur
c. Leonard Keeler c. Loop
d. John Larson d. Staff
1778. Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph 1788. An oblong curve found in small letters f,g,h and l.
procedure for accused persons. a. Hook
a. Angelo Mosso b. Spur
b. Veraguth c. Loop
c. Lombroso d. Staff
d. Vittorio Benussi 1789. The introductory backward stroke added to the
1779. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin staff of many capital letters and which can also be
reflex. seen occasionally in introductory strokes of small
a. Angelo Mosso letters.
b. Veraguth a. Embellishment
c. Lombroso b. Beard
d. Vittorio Benussi c. Buckle knot
d. Hitch

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 1790. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a c. Obliteration
letter. d. Interlineation
a. Embellishment 1801. A class of signature for routine document or day
b. Beard to day correspondence.
c. Buckle knot a. Formal
d. Diacritic b. Complete
1791. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental c. Cursory
purposes. d. Careless scribble
a. Embellishment 1802. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge
b. Hump important documents.
c. Diacritic a. Complete
d. Knot b. Cursory
1792. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious c. Informal
recurrence of stress of impulse. d. Careless scribble
a. Line quality 1803. A process by which a canal like outline is produced
b. Rhythm on a fraudulent document underneath the
c. Baseline genuine and tracing it with the use of pointed
d. Writing pressure instrument.
1793. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or a. Carbon process
intermittently forcing the pen against the paper b. Indention process
surface with increase pressure. c. Projection process
a. Writing pressure d. Transmitted light process
b. Shading 1804. A type face defect wherein one side is printed
c. Pen emphasis heavier than the rest of its outline.
d. Natural variation a. Off its feet
1794. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests. b. Twisted letter
a. Line quality c. Clogged type face
b. Baseline d. Rebound
c. Foot
d. Hitch
1795. A signature written by the forger in his own style 1805. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is
of handwriting without attempting to copy to almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular
form of the genuine signature. habits reacting from fixed mental impressions.
a. Traced forgery a. Handwriting
b. Disguised forgery b. Writing
c. Simulated forgery c. Typewriting
d. Simple forgery d. Writing movement
1796. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most 1806. A writing instrument that makes detection of
skillful type of forgery. hesitation and pen-lifts difficult.
a. Traced forgery a. Ball point pen
b. Disguised forgery b. Fountain pen
c. Simulated forgery c. Iron nutgall ink
d. Simple forgery d. Markers
1807. Disconnection between letters or letter
1797. Which among the following is an indication of combination due to lack of movement control.
genuineness of handwriting? a. Pen lift
a. Continuity b. Retouching
b. Smoothness c. Patching
c. Skillful writing d. Retracing
d. Tremor 1808. A distinctive design which is translucent
impressed on the paper during manufacture.
1798. Document which is completely written and signed a. Water marks
by the testator. b. Fiber marks
a. Genuine document c. Paper design
b. Disputed document d. Wire marks
c. Holographic document 1809. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph,
d. Authentic document what particular condition is manifested?
1799. A document which contains some changes either a. Grainy image
as an addition or deletion. b. Two image
a. Altered documents c. Overlapping image
b. Disputed document d. Three dimensional image
c. Obliterated document 1810. An element which is added to complete another
d. Inserted document letter.
1800. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make a. Spur
the original undecipherable. b. Slant
a. Decipherment c. Diacritics
b. Restoration d. Arc
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 1811. It is a signature signed at a particular time and d. Type face
place, purpose and normal writing conditions. 1822. Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon which the
a. Complete signature writing rests.
b. Standard signature a. Base
c. Evidential signature b. Baseline
d. Model signature c. Foot
1812. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by d. Staff
widening of the ink stroke. 1823. It is the process of making out what is illegible or
a. Shading what has been effaced.
b. Pen emphasis a. Decipherment
c. Pen lift b. Collation
d. Pen pressure c. Obliteration
1813. The most reliable criterion in judging the d. Comparison
authenticity of paper money. 1824. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their
a. Quality of the engraving identifying characteristics.
b. Color of the seal a. Comparison
c. Wet strength of the paper b. Collation
d. Watermarks c. Conclusion
1814. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but d. Examination
made inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of
the genuine coin.
a. Priceless coin 1825. An examination of documents wherein it is
b. Mutilated coin viewed with the source of illumination behind it
c. False coin and the light passing through the paper.
d. All of the choices a. Transmitted light examination
1815. It is a deviation showing free connecting and b. Oblique photography examination
terminal strokes made by the momentum of the c. Infrared examination
hand. d. Ultraviolet examination
a. Tremor 1826. The art of attempting to interpret the personality
b. Tremors of fraud of a person from his handwriting.
c. Genuine tremor a. Questioned Document Examination
d. Deterioration b. Polygraphy
1816. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters. c. Graphology
a. Staff d. Psychology
b. Slant 1827. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet.
c. Diacritics a. Projectile
d. Humps b. Ball
c. Shell
1817. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the d. Missile
horizontal inch. 1828. The science of dealing with the motion of
a. Pica projectiles at the same time it leaves the muzzle of
b. Elite the firearm to the time it hits the target.
c. Proportional spacing machine a. Interior ballistics
d. Adding machine b. Exterior ballistics
1818. Developed the system of handwriting c. Terminal ballistics
classification utilized by most police departments. d. Posterior ballistics
a. Lee and Abbey 1829. The science which deals with the effect of the
b. Rolando Wilson impact of the projectile on the target.
c. Levine a. Interior ballistics
d. Landsteiner b. Exterior ballistics
1819. A kind of document executed by a person in c. Terminal ballistics
authority and by private parties but notarized by d. Posterior ballistics
competent officials. 1830. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.
a. Official document a. Trigger
b. Public document b. Hammer
c. Commercial document c. Sear
d. Private document d. Main spring
1820. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine
coin. 1831. Applied to a shotgun which indicates bore
a. False coin diameter is equal to the diameter of the lead ball
b. Counterfeit coin whose weight in pound equal to reciprocal gauge
c. Priceless coin index.
d. Mutilation of coin a. Caliber
1821. It refers to the printing surface of a type block. b. Gauge
a. Character c. Shot
b. Design d. Charge
c. Pitch
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 1832. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot c. Van Amberg
a single round lead ball. d. Berthold Schwartz
a. Shotgun 1844. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition
b. Rifle placed into gun chamber.
c. Musket a. Cartridge
d. Pistol b. Primer
1833. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a c. Bullet
number of lead pellets in one charge. d. Shell
a. Shotgun 1845. The measurement of the bore diameter from land
b. Rile to land.
c. Musket a. Gauge
d. Pistol b. Mean diameter
1834. Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the c. Caliber
bore against the force of the charge. d. Riflings
a. Breechblock 1846. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing
b. Breechface the firing of the cartridge.
c. Ejector a. Hammer
d. Extractor b. Ejector
1835. Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be c. Trigger
withdrawn from the chamber. d. Firing pin
a. Breechblock 1847. Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet.
b. Breechface a. Breech
c. Ejector b. Ogive
d. Extractor c. Rim
1836. Channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel. d. Pitch
a. Rifling 1848. A smooth bore military firearm which has no
b. Land riflings.
c. Groove a. Shotgun
d. Cannelure b. Rifle
1837. Rearward movement of a firearm from firing. c. Pistol
a. Recoil d. Revolver
b. Force 1849. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper
c. Backfire alloy to prevent leading.
d. Shot force a. Jacketed bullet
1838. Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore b. Metal cased bullet
due to sliding friction when the bullet passes c. Metal point bullet
through it. d. Plated bullet
a. Erosion 1850. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and
b. Rusting hitting the target sideways.
c. Corrosion a. Key hole shot
d. Decomposition b. Ricochet
1839. Distance that the rifling advances to make one c. Hang fire
compete turn. d. Misfire
a. Pitch of rifling 1851. A part of ballistics dealing with firearm
b. Choke identification.
c. Trajectory a. Interior
d. Recoil b. Exterior
1840. Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a c. Terminal
complete unfired unit d. Forensic
a. Bullet 1852. Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions
b. Primer in forensic ballistics.
c. Gunpowder a. 3 test bullets/shell
d. All of the choices b. 4 test bullets
1841. Most common individual characteristic that are c. 5 test bullets/shell
visible on the base portion of then fired cartridge. d. 6 test bullets/shell
a. Firing pin impression 1853. It refers to the placement of the right and left
b. Ejector marks specimen in side by side position.
c. Extractor marks a. Drag marks
d. Chamber marks b. Positively matched
1842. Failure of cartridge to discharge. c. Juxtaposition
a. Misfire d. Pseudomatch
b. Hang fire 1854. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
c. Ricochet a. Range
d. Key hole shot b. Trajectory
1843. Invented the gunpowder. c. Velocity
a. Chinese d. Yaw
b. James Forsythe
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 1855. Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set b. Ejector marks
on fire when it is projected. c. Chamber marks
a. Incendiary bullet d. Breech face marks
b. Ball bullet 1867. It literally means delay in discharge or the
c. Tracer bullet cartridge’s failure to explode on time.
d. Explosive bullet a. Misfire
1856. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel b. Hang fire
from what particular part? c. Ricochet
a. From land to land d. Key hole shot
b. From land to groove 1868. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or
c. From groove to groove oily barrel or its lands have been worn down would
d. From groove to land produce what kind of markings?
a. Slippage marks
b. Skid marks
1857. Revolver is distinguished from pistol by: c. Rifling marks
a. Frame d. Shearing marks
b. Barrel 1869. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of
c. Slide assembly projectiles.
d. Rotating cylinder a. Caliper
1858. The term double action in a firearm means. b. Chronograph
a. Cocks and releases the hammer c. Test bullet
simultaneously d. Bullet recovery box
b. Manually cocks the hammer 1870. Refers to the means of recognizing the
c. Autoloads before firing characteristics of persons so as to differentiate
d. Double pressing of trigger him from others
1859. Regarded as the father of ballistics, a. Dactyloscopy
a. Albert Osborne c. Identification
b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard b. Personal
c. Hans Gross d. Comparison
d. Charles Waite 1871. Considered to be first scientific method of
1860. Raised portion between the groove found inside Identification in person done by measuring
the barrel. various bony structure of the human body.
a. Land
a. Portrait-Parle
b. Caliber
c. Gauge b. Photography
d. Rifling c. Antropometry
1861. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet. d. Anthropometry
a. Yaw 547. The following are principles in personal
b. Trajectory Identification, except.
c. Velocity
d. Gyroscopic action a. Law of individuality
1862. A lead type bullet is usually fired from what c. Law of multiplicity of evidence
particular firearm?
b. Law of infallibility
a. Rifle
b. Revolver d. Law of constancy
c. Pistol 1872. Which of the following personal Identification is
d. Sub-machine gun not easy to change?
1863. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior a. Hair
surface of the bore. b. Speech
a. Rifling c. Dress
b. Breaching
d. personal pharapernalia
c. Ogive
d. Swaging 1873. Considered to be one of the most infallible means
1864. A primer with two vents or flash holes. of Identification.
a. Bordan primer a. DNA fingerprinting
b. Berdan primer b. Dactyloscopy
c. Boxer primer c. Fingerprint Identification
d. Battery primer
d. Photography
1865. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are
1874. Identification of person can be done either by
usually classified as:
a. Flare guns Comparison or by____?
b. Zip guns a. Exclusion
c. Matchlock b. Examination
d. Freakish device c. Experimentation
1866. The most reliable of all individual characteristics, d. Inclusion
when fired cartridges are concerned.
a. Extractor marks
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 1875. The person credited for the discovery of the two 1883. The following are characteristics of man which
main layers of the friction skin. can easily be changed EXCEPT?
a. Alphonse Bertillion
b. Marcelo Malpighe a. Hair Growth
c. Herman Welcker b. Body Ornamentation
d. J.C.A. Mayer c. Speech
1876. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved d. Clothing
from white jade containing the name and the 1884. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which
thumb print of the owner. gives recognition to the science of fingerprint?
a. Tien Chi a. People vs. Medina
b. Tein Chi b. US vs. Jennings
c. Tein Shi c. Miranda vs. Arizona
d. Tien Shi d. West Case
1877. He is known to be the father of personal 1885. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first
Identification having devised the first scientific individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by
method of personal Identification. using his own thumb mark as a protection to
a. John Dellinger prevent tampering with the pay order he issued.
b. Cesare Lombroso a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
c. John F. W. Herschel b. Gilbert Thompson
d. Alphonse Bertillion c. Capt James Parke
1878. He took prints of his own palm twice with the d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores
lapse of forty-one years just to prove that prints 1886. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive
do not change, except for some scratches due to examination in fingerprint which was initiated by
old age. New York Police Dept. and FBI.
a. Herman Welcker a. Generoso Reyes
b. Marcelo Malpighi b. Isabela Bernales
c. J.C.A. Mayer c. Patricio Agustin
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji d. Marcelo Bonifacio
1879. The person who used fingerprints in replacement 1887. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is
for signature to avoid impersonation among there is possibility for two prints to be the same it
Indian native. is 1:63,000,000,000.
a. William Herschel a. Francis Bacon
b. Dr. Henry Faulds b. Francis Galton
c. Dr. Francis Galton c. J.C.A. Mayer
d. Sir Edward Henry d. Herman Welker
1880. Is person considered to be the father of modern 1888. The person who used the system of identification
fingerprint. His system of classification was which was accepted by Spanish countries.
accepted in almost all English speaking country. a. Juan Vucetich
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry b. Henry Faulds
b. Juan Vucetich c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
c. Alphonse Bertillion d. William Herschel
d. Dr. Hans Gross 1889. Is the law which states that the greater the
1881. Makes a publication of a report describing the number of the similarity or differences the more
ridges and pores of the hand and feet which was probability for the conclusion to be correct.
read before the Royal Society of London.
a. Law of Infallability
a. Nehemiah Grew
b. Law of Multiplicity of evidence
b. G. Bidloo
c. Law of Permenancy
c. Hintze
d. Law of Barcelinity
d. Albinus
1890. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what
1882. A system of Identification best used in case of
word?
burned body.
a. Greek word
a. Fingerprint
b. French word
b. Skeletal Identification
c. Latin word
c. Odontology
d. English word
d. Photography
1891. If screw driver is for mechanic. What is used by a
photographer?
A. Filter
B. Camera
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 C. Firearm 1901. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to
D. Handcuff a normal light.
1892. Can exptert in Ballistics testify witout photograph a. Ultra Violet Photography
or demonstration?. b. Infra red photograhpy
a. Yes c. Macro Photography
b. Partly Yes d. Micro photography
c. No 1902. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the
d. Partly No amount of light reaching the film by varying the
1893. Burned document or charred document is best length of time, and it is considered as the door of
examined by. the camera.
a. Infrared Photography a. Shutter
b. Ultraviolet Photography b. lens
c. Macro Photography c. obscura
d. Micro Photography d. view finder
1894. The average age of menopausal period of women 1903. It covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg-
to take place. like formation.
a. 50 yrs old
b. 45 yrs old a. dermis
c. 35 yrs old b. Dermal papillae
d. 42 yrs old c. papillae
1895. Mustache and beard begin to appear in male at d. dermal
the age of. 1904. The morphological constituents of human hair are
a. 14-16 cuticle, cortex and medulla, is the statement
b. 13-15 correct?
c. 16 to 18 a. Partly Yes
d. 12-14 b. Partly No
1896. Menstruation usually commences at the age of? c. Yes
a. 14 d. No
b. 13 1905. It is the sensitized material that has the primary
c. 16 function of recording the image that is focused
d. 12 upon it by the lens of the camera.
1897. In a robbery case, close up photographs must be E. Filter
taken to show: F. Film
a. Entrance G. Firearm
b. Entrance and Exit H. Handcuff
c. Exit 1906. Considered to be first scientific method of
d. Either a or b Identification in person done by measuring
1898. The development of breast in female commences various bony structure of the human body.
at the age of. a. Portrait-Parle
a. 13 to 14 b. Photography
b. 12 to 13 c. Antropometry
c. 10-11 d. Anthropometry
d. 11 to 12 1907. The person credited for the discovery of the two
main layers of the friction skin.
1899. In photography, when we say tripod, how many a. Alphonse Bertillion
stands are there? b. Marcelo Malpighe
a. 2 c. Herman Welcker
b. 3.5 d. J.C.A. Mayer
c. 4
d. 5 1908. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved
from white jade containing the name and the
1900. The first police surgeon or forensic pathologist thumb print of the owner.
who performed the autopsy of Julius Cesar. a. Tien Chi
a. Landsteinir b. Tein Chi
b. Zacchias c. Tein Shi
c. Antistus d. Tien Shi
d. Hippocrates

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 1909. He is known to be the father of personal 1917. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is
Identification having devised the first scientific there is possibility for two prints to be the same it
method of personal Identification. is 1:63,000,000,000.
a. John Dellinger a. Francis Bacon
b. Cesare Lombroso b. Francis Galton
c. John F. W. Herschel c. J.C.A. Mayer
d. Alphonse Bertillion d. Herman Welker
1910. He took prints of his own palm twice with the 1918. The person who used the system of identification
lapse of forty-one years just to prove that prints which was accepted by Spanish countries.
do not change, except for some scratches due to a. Juan Vucetich
old age. b. Henry Faulds
a. Herman Welcker c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
b. Marcelo Malpighi d. William Herschel
c. J.C.A. Mayer 1919. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji word?
1911. The person who used fingerprints in replacement a. Greek word
for signature to avoid impersonation among b. French word
Indian native. c. Latin word
a. William Herschel d. English word
b. Dr. Henry Faulds 1920. Is the science of fingerprint study, which deals
c. Dr. Francis Galton with the interpretation of one’s personality?
d. Sir Edward Henry a. Dactyloscopy
1912. He is considered to be the father of modern b. Dactylomancy
fingerprint. His system of classification was c. Dactylography
accepted in almost all English speaking country. d. Dactylo-analysis
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry 1921. Is an impression designed by the ridges on the
b. Juan Vucetich inside of the last joint of the fingers and thumb on
c. Alphonse Bertillion some smooth surface with the aid of sweet or ink?
d. Dr. Hans Gross a. Dactyloscopy
1913. Makes a publication of a report describing the b. Dactyloanalysis
ridges and pores of the hand and feet which was c. Latent Print
read before the Royal Society of London. d. Fingerprint
a. Nehemiah Grew 1922. Which of the following serves the importance of
b. G. Bidloo Poroscopy?
c. Hintze a. For determination of whether the prints
d. Albinus belong to a young or adult person.
1914. A system of Identification best used in case of b. For Identification of person
burned body. c. For determination of whether the prints
a. Fingerprint was taken during the lifetime or after
b. Skeletal Identification death of a person
c. Odontology d. B and C only
d. Photography 1923. Is that parts of the friction skin which if damage
1915. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first will constitute a permanent scar.
individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by a. Epidermis
using his own thumb mark as a protection to b. Stratum corneum
prevent tampering with the pay order he issued. c. Dermis
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier d. Stratum mucosum
b. Gilbert Thompson 1924. He is considered as the Father of Poroscopy.
c. Capt James Parke a. Francis Galton
d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores b. Marcelo Malpighe
1916. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive c. John Herschel
examination in fingerprint which was initiated by d. Edmond Locard
New York Police Dept. and FBI.
a. Generoso Reyes 1925. Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across
b. Isabela Bernales the ridges.
c. Patricio Agustin a. Podoscopy
d. Marcelo Bonifacio b. Poroscopy
c. Chiroscopy

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 d. Edgeoscopy d. Dermis Papillary
1926. Up to what deep a cut or injury will constitute a 1935. Is the principle in the study of fingerprint which
permanent scar in a normal friction skin? states that fingerprint is a reliable and positive
a. less than 1cm means of Identification?
b. less than 1 mm a. Principle of Individuality
c. more than 1cm b. Principle of Infallibility
d. more than 1mm c. Principle of Constancy
1927. Considered to be one of the most notorious d. Principle of Permanency
criminal in U.S who attempt to destroy his friction 1936. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on
skin with the use of corrosive acid. one side of the pattern and flow to the other side
a. John Derenger with a rise or wave in the center?
b. John Dillenger a. Loop
c. Robert James Pitts b. tented arch
d. Robert Joworski c. plain arch
1928. Are the strips of skin without coloring pigment d. exceptional arch
and without hair found on the palm of the hand 1937. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it
and soles of the feet? should have _______ridge count.
a. Epidermal skin a. 1
b. Papillary skin b. 2
c. Friction c. at least 1
d. All of the choices d. 3
1929. Is the outer layer of the Epidermis layer which 1938. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an
covers the skin? uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics
a. Epidermis of the loop?
b. Stratum corneum a. Plain arch
c. Stratum Sangum b. central pocket loop
d. Stratum musocum c. tented arch
1930. Is the scientific study of the prints of the palm of d. accidental whorl
the hands? 1939. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping
a. Podoscopy or slanting ridges flows towards the little finger?
b. Chiroscopy a. loop
c. Poroscopy b. radial loop
d. Chairoscopy c. ulnar loop
1931. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots d. tented arc
(called pores) in an inked finger impression?
a. sweat pores 1940. A type of a pattern consisting of a core, delta,
b. furrows recurving ridge and a ridge count of at least one.
c. ridges a. radial loop
d. sweat duct b. ulnar loop
1932. What are the depressed portions or canal c. loop
structure of the friction skin (found between d. tented arch
ridges). 1941. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more
a. Pores deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete
b. indentions circuitry and when an imaginary line is drawn
c. furrows from left delta to right delta it touches or cross
d. duct the circuiting ridge/s considered as the most
1933. What is the tiny openings on the skin from where common type of whorl.
sweat is excreted? a. plain whorl
a. duct b. central pocket loop whorl
b. furrows c. double loop whorl
c. pores d. accidental whorl
d. sweat glands 1942. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what
1934. That part of the friction skin between the pattern is excluded in the combination?
epidermis and dermis layer which responsible for a. ulnar loop
the ridge formation b. plain whorl
a. Generating layer c. tented arch
b. Dermal papillae d. plain arch
c. Sweat glands 1943. The core and delta are also termed as _____?

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 a. inner terminus 1952. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced
b. outer terminus the line flow above the right delta and there are
c. focal point three intervening ridges.
d. pattern area a. meeting whorl
1944. A point on a ridge formation, in front or near the b. outer whorl
center of the diverging typelines. c. inner whorl
a. Core d. central pocket loop whorl
b. island ridge 1953. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other
c. delta regular ridge which is not included as a ridge
d. convergence count even if it has been cross by the imaginary
1945. What is the rule where there are two or more line.
possible bifurcation deltas which conform to the a. ending ridge
definition of delta? b. incipient ridge
a. the one nearest the core should be chosen c. intervening ridge
b. the one away from the core should be d. enclosure
counted 1954. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and
c. the one which does not open towards the
which resembles a fork structure
core is counted
a. divergence
d. the one towards the core should be
counted b. convergence
1946. What is that spreading of two ridges that c. bifurcation
previously running side by side? d. enclosure
a. Bifurcation 1955. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet
b. convergence during its infants stage which usually starts:
c. divergence a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
d. enclosure b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
1947. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
a period? d. 5th to 6th months before birth
a. Lake 1956. Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch.
b. ending ridge a. T
c. island ridge b. A
d. incipient ridge c. P
1948. What ridge divides itself into or more branches d. W
that meets to form the original figure?
a. bifurcation
b. island ridge 1957. It is the process of counting the ridges which
c. lake ridge intervene between the delta and core of a loop?
d. convergence a. ridge tracing
1949. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to b. ridge counting
the direction from which it started? c. ridge tracking
a. diverging ridge d. ridge summing
b. recurving ridge 1958. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the
c. converging ridge fingerprint ink to the slab?
d. bifurcation a. Fingerprint brush
1950. Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the b. Fingerprint lifting tapes
ridge curves inward? c. Fingerprint roller
a. sufficient recurve d. fingerprint card
b. appendage 1959. The fingerprint card used in recording the subject
c. obstruction ridge print has a size of:
d. shoulder of loop a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
1951. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving b. 8” x 8”
ridge which has spoiled the inner line of flow from c. 9” x 9”
the inner delta to the center of the pattern. This d. 8” x 10”
is also found in the second type of central pocket 1960. The fingerprint card used in court exhibit the card
loop. has a size of:
a. bar a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
b. appendage b. 8” x 8”
c. uptrust c. 9” x 9”
d. obstruction d. 8” x 10”

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 1961. Is a piece of plane glass or metal where the c. All fingers including thumbs
fingerprint ink is distributed for fingerprinting? d. All fingers except the thumbs
a. Card Holder 1970. An instrument used to hold or secure fingerprint
b. Fingerprint roller cards in taking fingerprint of a dead person
c. Fingerprint transfer card a. Card holder
d. ink slab b. Spatula
1962. A chemical compound used in conventional c. Strip holder
developing of latent prints being one of the best d. Forceps
methods that can be utilized by a fingerprint 1971. When taking fingers for the purpose of taking
technician. rolled impression the fingers must be inked
a. Fingerprint powder from______ to base of the first joint.
b. Fingerprint Brush a. a. Base
c. Fingerprint Fuming Device b. Tip
d. Inkless Inking Device c. second joint
1963. Is an instrument used for clipping the fingerprint d. third joint
card to avoid movement of the card during 1972. Occupational problems such as acid works,
printing? plasters, cement mixer usually causes weak
a. Card Holder friction skin and such is known as:
b. Forceps a. Permanent Disabilities
c. Carrying Case b. Temporary Deformities
d. Fingerprint card clip c. Permanent Destructions
1964. Is a card used in recording and preserving d. Deformities
developed latent print? 1973. Is the term applied to a person whose fingers are
a. Fingerprint lifting tapes more than the usual number in both hands?
b. Fingerprint transfer card a. Polyfinger
c. Evidence Identification tags b. Deformities
d. Post-mortem fingerprint Equipment c. Polydactyl
1965. Is the type of an impression made or printed on d. Bidactyl
the card by individually rolling the ten fingers of 1974. Is the process of placing under each pattern the
the subject. letter symbols as a result of the interpretation?
a. Latent Prints a. Checking
b. Rolled Impression b. Identification
c. Plain Impression c. Classification
d. Molded Impression d. Blocking
1966. Is the type of impression taken simultaneously 1975. Three blocks after finger number 4 is what finger.
and serves as a guide in checking the proper a. left thumb
rolling of the finger in the card? b. index finger
a. Rolled Impression c. left index
b. Plain Impression d. left middle
c. Contaminated with colored substance 1976. It is the division in the fingerprint classification
d. Molded Prints which is always represented by a numerical value
depending upon a whorl pattern appearing on
1967. In taking prints of the subject the technician each finger.
always instruct the subject to: a. key division
a. Stand straight b. major division
b. Cooperate c. primary division
c. Relax d. final division
d. Help the technician rolling 1977. In getting the Secondary Division of a given
1968. One of the cardinal rule in taking of fingerprints of fingerprint from what finger does the Capital
the subject is that fingers must be: letter is derived.
a. Healthy a. thumb
b. Dry b. index
c. Moisten c. little finger
d. Oily d. middle finger
1969. In taking prints of the subject what fingers are 1978. The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum of the
rolled away from the body of the subjects numerator and the denominator in the primary
a. Both thumbs division is ____.
b. All eight fingers a. so that there will be an equal value

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 b. to complete the primary div. d. Exceptional
c. to have a complete 32 numerical value 1987. What do you call a loop in the left thumb having a
d. for formality ridge count of 17 or more.
1979. What patterns are included in the small letter a. Small
classification under the secondary division. b. Medium
a. Radial loop, plain arch and Tented arch c. Large
b. Rdial loop, Unar loop and Arch d. Exceptional
c. Radial loop, Plain Arch and Ulnar loop 1988. What division in the fingerprint classification is
d. Radial Loop, Arch, and Tented Arch derived by ridge counting a loop and tracing a
whorl on the thumb.
1980. In ridge counting a loop on the middle finger what a. Key Division
is the classification of 14 ridge count. b. Final Division
a. Inner Loop c. Major Division
b. Outer Loop d. Secondary Division
c. Medium 1989. What division in the classification is place at
d. Small extreme right of the fingerprint card represented
1981. What patterns are almost always represented by a by a numerical value.
dash in the classification formula except in the a. key
secondary division. b. final
a. Ulnar loop and Plain Arch c. Major
b. Whorl and Arch d. Primary
c. Plain and Tented Arch 1990. Final Division is derived by getting the ridge count
d. Ulnar and Whorl of a loop or a whorl appearing on the;
1982. It is a type of a whorl pattern in which when the a. Little Finger
tracing ridge flows below the right delta and there b. Thumb Finger
are five intervening ridges. c. Index Finger
a. Outer Whorl d. Middle Finger
b. Meeting Whorl 1991. The key Division is derived by getting the ridge
c. Inner Whorl count of the
d. Accidental Whorl a. ulnar Loop
1983. In the course of tracing a whorl pattern, once the b. Radial Loop
tracing splits into two branches the tracing will c. First Loop
proceed on the: d. First Radial Loop
a. next ridge counting below the bifurcation 1992. What Fingers are not included in looking for a
ridge loop in the key division?
b. upper line of the bifurcation a. Both Index
c. Lower limb b. Both little
d. next ridge just below c. Both thumb
1984. It refers to the number of ridges that appears d. Both middle
between the tracing ridge and the right delta of a 1993. In the case of a missing one digit in the fingerprint
whorl pattern. card of a subject, said missing finger will be
a. Ridge Count interpreted as.
b. Intervening Ridge a. Amputated finger
c. Incipient ridge b. Same as the corresponding digit of the
d. Ridge tracing other hand
1985. A Loop with ridge count of 16 in the right is c. Meeting whorl
interpreted as ____, if the left thumb has 17 ridge d. Outer loop
count. 1994. If in case that there were no loop on all fingers,
a. Small how will the key be obtained.
b. Medium a. Ridge count of the first plain whorl
c. Large b. Ridge count of the first whorl
d. Exceptional c. No key division to derived
1986. A ridge count of 17 in the left thumb is d. Just indicate Dash
interpreted as ____ when the right thumb reaches 1995. In the event that same fingers of both hand is
17. missing what will be the pattern interpretation of
a. Small the two missing fingers.
b. Large a. Plain Whorl
c. Medium b. Plain Whorl With Meeting Tracing

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 c. Dash a. aA3a/tT3T
d. Same as the pattern of the next fingers c. A2a/tT2t
b. aT3a/aA3t
d. tT3t/aA3a
1996. It is the term applied to cases of missing or cut 2005. What division in the formula classification is left
finger? blank if all fingers are amputated?
a. Mutilated finger a. Major and key
b. Amputated finger b. key and final
c. Fragmentary finger c. Key and primary
d. Deformities d. final and major
1997. What will be the primary Division if all fingers are 2006. The word Photography was coined by _____?
amputated. a. John F. W. Herschel
a. 1/1 b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre
b. 31/31 c. Henry Fox Talbot
c. 32/32 d. Leonardo Da Venci
d. 16/16 2007. What color will produced if r RED and BLUE colors
1998. What division will be left blank in the classification are combined each other?
formula if all fingers are missing? a. magenta
a. Major and Final Division c. yellow
b. Key and Major Division b. cyan
c. Major and sub-secondary d. Green
d. key and final Division
1999. Menstruation usually commences at the age of? 2008. Which of the following are NOT considered as the
a. 14 primary colors, EXCEPT.
b. 13 a. yellow
c. 16 b. Blue
d. 12 c. Green
2000. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an d. Red
uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics 2009. The act of attempting to interpret the character or
of the loop? personality of an individual from his handwriting.
a. Plain arch a. paleography
b. tented arch b. collation
c. central pocket loop c. graphology
d. accidental whorl d. cacography
2001. Is the process of counting the ridges which 2010. In Q.D it is the term used by some document
intervene between the delta and core of a loop? examiners and attorneys to characterize known
a. ridge tracing material.
b. ridge counting a. exemplar
c. ridge tracking b. evidence
d. ridge summing c. questioned
2002. In assigning the numerical value of whorl pattern, d. disputed
what finger should be given a value of 4 when a 2011. In Q.D it is the term used when a person having
whorl pattern appears therein: the ability to write with both left and right.
a. left little finger and right thumb a. cacography
b. right thumb and left little finger b. calligraphy
c. right little finger and left thumb c. calcography
d. left thumb and right d. ambidextrous
2003. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and 2012. Which of the following are NOT considered as the
all the fingers of the left hand are loops, what will secondary colors, EXCEPT.
be the primary division? a. yellow
a. 25/29 b. Blue
c. 24/28 c. Green
b. 29/25 d. Red
d. 28/24 2013. An interruption in a stroke caused by removing
2004. What would be the secondary division if all the the writing instrument from the paper is called..
fingers at right hand are plain arches while all the a. pen emphasis
left hand fingers are tented arches? b. pen pressure
c. pen jump

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 d. pen lift b. 9
2014. The term document came from latin word c. 7
“documentum”, which means. d. 6
a. write 2023. How many security features are there in the new
b. to teach 1000 peso bill?
c. lesson a. 8
d. paper b. 9
c. 7
2015. It is the extra deposit of ink in the initial and d. 6
terminal stroke due to the slow withdrawal of 2024. The equipment is Forensic Ballistics that
the pen from the paper ( usually applicable to the measures the pitch of rifling is:
fountain pen). a. whirl a. Chronograph
b. knob b. Helixometer
c. sour c. Micrometer
d. Taper gauge
d. loop
1463. A magnified photograph of a small object
produced by connecting a camera with the ocular of
2016. The portrait printed in the 20 peso-bill is
a compound microscope is:
a. Manuel Quezon
a. Photomacrograph
b. Emilio Aguinaldo b. Microphotograph
c. Segio Osmena c. Photomicrograph
d. Apolinario Mabini d. Photography
2225. A center-fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is
2017. The only security features that the BSP was smaller than the diameter of the body of the case:
portrait in the new 500 and 1,000 peso bill is. a. Rimmed cartridge
a. optically variable ink b. Rebated cartridge
b. optical device c. Tapered cartridge
c. optical ink d. Rimless cartridge
2226. If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the lands
d. optically variable device
have been worn down or through a bore is slightly oversize or
oily, the marks are called:
2018. It is Embossed “1000” denominated value at the
a. Skid marks
lower right corner of the face of the note changes
b. Slippage marks
color from green to blue when viewed at different c. Rifling marks
angles d. Shearing marks
a. optically variable ink 2227. When two specimens are compared under the
b. optical device comparison microscope at the same direction, the same level,
c. optical ink the same magnification and the same image, they are called:
d. optically variable device a. Positively match
2019. What changes of color of the parrot in 500 peso bill b. Pseudo match
and the clam in 1000 peso when the note is rotated c. Juxtaposition
at 90 degrees? d. Drag marks
2228. In the United States, crimes are committed by juveniles
a. blue to green
using home-made weapons generally referred to as:
b. green to blue
a. Freakish device
c. red to green
b. Zip guns
d. green to red c. Matchlock
2020. The new banknote of the BSP is made of what d. Flare guns
kind of paper. 2229. A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from:
a. abaca-cotton a. Revolver
b. plastic-polymer b. Pistol
c. abaca c. Rifle
d. Pistol & Revolver
d. cotton
2230. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
2021. The portrait printed in the 200 peso-bill is
a. 730”
a. Diosdado P Macapagal b. 728”
b. Emilio Aguinaldo c. 729”
c. Segio Osmena d. 724”
d. Apolinario Mabini 2231. A complete unfired unit ammunition is inserted into the
2022. How many security features are there in the new chamber of firearm for firing is referred to as:
500 peso bill? a. Bullet
a. 8 b. Shell

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 c. Primer 2241. These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their
d. Cartridge own legitimate work or profession but works as a
2232. Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a combination prostitutes to supplement their income?
of: a. Door knocker
a. Pitch b. Street walker
b. Twist c. Call Girl
c. Lands & grooves d. Factory Girl
d. Cannelures 2242. The following countries which comprises the Golden
2233 Class characteristics are determinable even: Triangle, EXCEPT.
a. During
b. After a. Vietnam
c. Before b. Thailand
d. Never the manufactures of the firearm c. Myanmar
2234. The caliber is determined with the aid of: d. Laos
a. Combined microscope 2243. Is a serial cheater who betrays his spouse or long term
b. Micrometer partner repeatedly?
c. Macrometer
d. Manufacturer of the firearm a. philander
2235. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from the b. prostitution
crime scene will request the ballistician to determine: c. philandering
d. prostitute
a. Owner of the firearm
2244. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to
b. Model of the firearm
c. Caliber and types of the firearm female customers?
d. Manufacture
2236. That science which deals with the motion of the a. gigolo
projectiles at the time it leaves the muzzle of the gun to the b. pimps
time it hits the target is known as: c. callboy
a. Terminal ballistics d. Johns
b. Interior ballistics 2245. A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag
c. Exterior ballistics factor of 0.70 leaves a skid marks of 20.6 meters, what
d. Forensic ballistics is the approximate speed of the said vehicle when
2237. That science dealing with the effect of the impact of the involved in accident. .
a. 64 kms./hour
projectile on target is called:
b. 54 kms./hour
c. 46 km.s/hour
a. Exterior ballistics
d. 45 kms./hour
b. Interior ballistics
2246. This method of identification depends on the ability of
c. Anterior ballistics
the witness to describe the person seen committing the
d. Terminal ballistics
crime.
a. Verbal description
b. Photographic files
c. Police line up
d. General photograph

2247. Criminals whose identity may be established

background identification.
2238. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal
a. Known criminals
drugs?
b. Unknown criminals
a. Lot Lizards
c. Convicted criminals
b. Hookers
d. Unidentified criminals
c. Skeezers
2248. Compilation of known criminals available from police
d. Hustler
files and records.
2239. It is the occasional or selective type of prostitute. She
a. Rouge gallery
is usually a newcomer in the business?
b. General photograph
a. Door knocker
c. Police blotter
b. Street walker
d. Modus operandi files
c. Call girl
2249. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is
d. skeezers
necessary.
2240. are the real professional type of prostitutes. She
a. Loose tail
works in regular houses of prostitution or brothels?
b. Rough shadowing
a. Door knocker
c. Close tail
b. Street walker
d. None of the foregoing
c. Call Girl
2250. The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence
d. Factory Girl
is:

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 a. Place it in a pill box and label it c. Instrumentation
b. Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining d. Investigation
c. Place it in a plastic bag and label it 2261. Special crime investigation is more concerned on:
d. Tag it with a label a. Physical evidence
2251. To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an b. Tracing evidence
interrogation room must be: c. Testimonial evidence
a. With no windows or views d. Associative evidence
b. There should only be one door 2262. Is a person who provides an investigator with
c. It must be sound proof confidential information concerning a past or
d. All of the choices projected crime and does not wish to be
2252. In this type of interrogation the investigator must have known as a source of information.
great knowledge of the case and is preferable when a. Informants
the subject is not the talkative type. b. Witness
a. Narrative type c. Informers
b. Question and answer type d. Confidential informants
c. Stern type 2263. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to
d. Simple interrogation divulge information.
2253. What should the investigator do to protect while in a. Interview
transport those collected evidence from the crime b. Interrogation
scene? c. Investigation
a. Seal it d. All of the foregoing
b. Mark it 2264. A compilation of photographs of known criminals,
c. Pack it properly utilized in investigation for identifying suspects in a
d. Label it crime.
2254. Shadowing has the following purposes, except: a. Photographic file
a. To detect evidences of criminal activities b. 201 file
b. To establish association of a suspect c. Rogue gallery
c. To locate wanted persons d. Cartographic sketch
d. None of the foregoing 2265. This is an element of crime commission wherein one is
2255. “A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his gun to induced to commit the crime.
the latter, as “A” pressed the trigger, the gun jammed a. Motive
and “B” managed to escape. This is an example of: b. Intent
a. Attempted felony c. Opportunity
b. Frustrated felony d. Deceit
c. Consummated felony 2266. In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate
d. Consummated felony the power of suggestion as a factor in identification as
2256. Kind of recognition whereby the description and a procedure how many persons is needed in such a
characteristics maybe vague that identification is line-up?
difficult. a. 3 to 5
a. Known fugitives b. 5 to 7
b. Professional criminals c. 7 to 10
c. Ordinary criminals d. 10 to 15
d. Unknown fugitives 2267. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have
committed the crime.
2257. The methods of determining and finding the a. Motive
best way to remedy the specific cause or b. Intent
causes of the complaint or grievance refers to: c. Opportunity
a. Cross examination d. Deceit
b. Grievance procedures 2268. Motive in giving information wherein the
c. Investigative procedure informant delights in giving information to gain
d. Criminal procedures favorable attention from the police.
2258. A type of informant reveals information usually of no a. Competition
consequence of stuff produced from thin air. b. Repentance
a. False informant c. Vanity
b. Double-crosser informant d. Jealousy
c. Mercenary informant 2269. Employed where a general impression of the subject’s
d. Frightened informant habits and associate are required.
2259. Clandestine operation in police parlance. a. Surveillance
a. Covert intelligence b. Loose tail shadowing
b. Secret activity c. Rough shadowing
c. Over intelligence d. Close tail shadowing
d. Surveillance 2270. More advantageous because it permits immediate
2260. It is an art which deals with the identity and changes of men and less likely to be recognized.
location of the offender and provides evidence a. One man shadow
of his guilt through criminal proceeding. b. Two man shadow
a. Information c. Three man shadow
b. Interrogation d. ABC method
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 2271. In this method of search, the searchers proceed slowly d. Mercenary informants
at the same pace along the path parallel to one side of 2282. Most common type of shadowing.
the rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the searcher a. One man shadow
turns and proceeds back along new lanes but parallel to b. Two man shadow
the first movement. c. Three man shadow
a. Zone method d. Rough shadow
b. Strip method 2283. Articles and materials which are found in connection with
c. Spiral method the investigation and which aid in establishing the identity
d. Wheel method of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the
2272. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into crime was committed or which, in general assist in the
quadrant and each searcher is assigned in each prosecution of the criminal.
quadrant. a. Tracing evidence
a. Zone method b. Corpus delicti
b. Strip method c. Associative evidence
c. Spiral method d. Physical or material evidence
d. Wheel method 2284. Instrumental detection of deception
2273. The surroundings of the crime scene must be a. Ballistic test
photograph to show the relative location and distances. b. Fingerprint test
a. Environmental photograph c. Questioned document test
b. Physical reconstruction d. Polygraph testing
c. Overview 2285. When the subject is in prone position what type of
d. Over-all photograph search should be implemented.
2274. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No scale, a. Kneeling search
proportion ignored and everything is approximate. b. Standing search
a. Sketch c. Floor search
b. Draft d. Wall search
c. Rough sketch 2286. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the arrest.
d. Finished sketch To discover weapons or evidences and determine the
2275. Most common reason in discharging informants identity of the suspects.
a. Burn out a. Preliminary search of a person
b. Too expensive to maintain b. Wall search
c. Lack of loyalty c. Standing search
d. Reprehensible behavior d. Floor search
2276. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects. 2287. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an
a. Stylus automobile, which has been stolen and abandoned.
b. Pen a. Dashboard
c. Ink b. Door handles
d. Chalk c. Steering wheel
2277. A form of investigation in which an investigator d. Rear view mirror
assumes a different and unofficial identity. 2288. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the
a. Tailing law enforcers in order to get more information from them
b. Shadowing than he gives.
c. Surveillance a. Double-crosser informants
d. Roping b. Mercenary informants
2278. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk. c. False informants
a. Narrative type d. Self-aggrandizing informants
b. Interrogation type 2289. That profession and scientific discipline directed to the
c. Question and answer type recognition, identification, individualization and
d. Stern type evaluation of physical science by application of natural
2279. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty sciences in matters of law and science.
of a person taken into custody. a. Chemist
a. Protective custody b. Scientist
b. Detaining for questioning c. Criminalistics
c. Police restraint d. Toxicologist
d. All of the choices 2290. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are
2280. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime committed in one place.
scene as well as the objects, what naturally occurred a. Local crimes
and what were the circumstances of the crime. b. Local action
a. Crime scene c. Transitory crimes
b. Physical reconstruction d. Transitory action
c. Mental reconstruction 2291. The number of persons who handle the pieces of evidence
d. Reconstruction of the crime from the scene of the crime and between the times of the
commission up to final disposition of cases.
2281. Paid informants
a. Anonymous informants a. Time custody
b. Rival elimination informants b. Time disposition
c. False informants c. Time disposal
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 d. Chain of custody a. Assault
b. Attack
2292. A declaration made under the consciousness of an c. Raid
impending death. d. Surveillance
a. Part of res gestate 2304. Primary requisite for conducting raids.
b. Dying Declaration a. Search warrant
c. Confession b. Raiding team
d. admission c. Firearms
2293. Principles of science applied to law enforcement. d. Back-up personnel
a. Instrumentation 2305. A public officer when not being authorized by
b. Forensic judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against the
c. Legal medicines will of the owner thereof is committing:
d. Criminology a. Legal entry
2294. Evidence which offers least resistance to b. Violation of domicile
decomposition c. Trespassing
a. Blood d. Illegal entry
b. Semen 2306. A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his
c. Saliva constitutional rights namely:
d. Hair a. The right to oppose whatever accusation on
2295. The sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest him.
physical surroundings. b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty
a. Finished sketch c. The right to remain silent, to counsel and the
b. Sketch of details right to be informed of such rights.
c. Sketch of locality d. The right to face his accuser in public trial
d. Sketch of grounds
2296. The explanation of any symbols used to identify objects 2307. A type of informant reveals information usually of no
in a sketch. consequences of stuff concocted of thin air.
a. Compass direction a. False informant
b. Title b. Mercenary informant
c. Legend c. Double crosser informant
d. Scale d. Self-aggrandizing informant
2297. Such articles and evidences which assists the 2308. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are
investigator in locating the suspect. committed in many places.
a. Physical evidence a. Local crime
b. Material evidence b. Local action
c. Associative evidence c. Transitory crime
d. Tracing evidence d. Transitory action
2298. Objects or substances which are essential part of the
body of the crime. 2309. The primary job of an investigator is to determine
a. Corpus delicti whether a crime has been committed, in order to
b. Physical evidences determine such, he must have knowledge of the so-
c. Material evidences called cardinal questions of investigation. How many
d. Associative evidences cardinal questions are there?
2299. The primary consideration in transporting evidences. a. Three
a. Markings should be placed b. Four
b. Proper turnover must be observed c. Five
c. Avoid altering contents d. Six
d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while in 2310. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of
transit transportation by stealing the vehicle and providing plate
2300. General rule in handling pieces of evidence on it.
a. MAC rule a. Drivers
b. Right of way rule b. Ripper
c. Last clear chance rule c. Wheelman
d. None of the choices d. Rover
2301. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas 2311. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to
are usually encircled. What is the primary objective? facilitate proper sketch orientation.
a. To show points of interest a. Proper north
b. To have proper marking b. True north
c. To avoid contamination c. Legend
d. To prevent alterations d. Compass direction
2302. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve 2312. A search method in which the searchers follow each other
the specimen? in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside
a. Formaldehyde proceeding toward the center.
b. Saline solution a. Zone method
c. Alcohol b. Wheel method
d. Distilled water c. Spiral method
2303. It is the surprise invasion of building or an area. d. Strip method
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 2313. Taking into custody property described in the search 2323. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area
warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as of the material with unit temperature gradient.
evidence in a case. a. Conduction
a. Seizure b. Thermal conductivity
b. Detention c. Radiation
c. Safekeeping d. Fission
d. Confiscation 2324. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through
2314. A method of criminal identification whereby the space or materials as waves.
perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals a. Conduction
are identified by depiction. b. Convection
a. Verbal description c. Radiation
b. General photographs d. Fission
c. Police line up 2325. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with
d. Rouge gallery a motive.
2315. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants. a. Providential fire
a. Sprinkler b. Accidental fire
b. Fire pump c. Intentional fire
c. Fire hose d. None of the foregoing
d. Hydrant key 2326. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in
the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788.
a. Arson
2316. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a b. Providential fire
result of its reaction with other elements promotes a c. Accidental fire
rapid drop in temperature of the immediate d. None of the foregoing
surroundings. 2327. First element known to man by experience, a colorless,
a. Dust tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
b. Oxidizing material a. Nitrogen
c. Pyrolysis b. Hydrogen
d. Cryogenic c. Oxygen
2317. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at d. Neon
which vapors are evolved fast enough to support 2328. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to
continuous combustion. start a fire.
a. Ignition temperature a. Fuel
b. Kindling temperature b. Oxygen
c. Fire point c. Heat
d. Flash point d. None of the choices
2318. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a 2329. Refers to gases liberated by heat.
vapor-air mixture that ignites. a. Free radicals
a. Ignition temperature b. Flash point
b. Kindling temperature c. Thermal balance
c. Fire point d. Thermal imbalance
d. Flash point 2330. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke
2319. Minimum temperature in which the substance and fire gases within a building or structure under
in the air must be heated in order to initiate or natural conditions.
cause a self-contained combustion without the a. Free radicals
addition of heat from outside sources. b. Pyrolysis
a. Boiling point c. Thermal balance
b. Ignition temperature d. Thermal imbalance
c. Fire point 2331. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its
d. Flash point destructive capabilities is developed.
2320. An exothermic chemical change in which a a. Initial phase
combustible material react with an oxidizing agent. b. Incipient phase
a. Thermal balance c. Free burning phase
b. Thermal imbalance d. Smoldering phase
c. Combustion 2332. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
d. Oxidation a. The fire triangle
2321. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light. b. The fingerprint of the fire
a. Pyrolysis c. Flashover
b. Combustion d. Incipient phase of the fire
c. Detonation 2333. An occurrence when the heat has brought the
d. All of the foregoing combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition
2322. A chemical decomposition of matter through the temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or
action of heat. shooting forth light and flames.
a. Pyrolysis a. Flashover
b. Combustion b. Backdraft
c. Detonation c. Thermal balance
d. Oxidation d. Thermal imbalance
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 2334. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, d. Falling debris
it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen. 2346. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames
a. Flashover indicates the burning of what material?
b. Backdraft a. Rubber
c. Thermal balance b. Nitrogen products
d. Thermal imbalance c. Asphalt singles
2335. Which among the following is the primary objective in d. Chlorine
investigating fires? 2347. Which among the following is commonly used in fire
a. To determine its cause resistant materials?
b. To prevent recurrence a. Asbestos
c. To determine liable persons b. Diamond
d. All of the foregoing c. Asphalt
2336. Reason why fire investigation is unique. d. Cotton
a. It does not conform with regular investigative 2348. A form of static electricity of great magnitude
procedure producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the
b. Unavailability of witnesses most common cause of providential fires.
c. Fire destroys evidence a. Rays of the sun
d. All of the foregoing b. Spontaneous heating
2337. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God. c. Arcing
a. Providential d. Lighting
b. Accidental 2349. Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
c. Intentional a. Smoking
d. Incendiarism b. Arcing
2338. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat c. Sparkling
and oxygen. d. Overloading
a. Fire 2350. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the
b. Origin of fire room or throughout the structure.
c. Fire triangle a. Accelerant
d. All of the foregoing b. Plants
2339. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns. c. Trailer
a. Fuel d. Wick
b. Heat 2351. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a
c. Oxygen contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
d. Gas a. Accelerant
2340. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating b. Plants
medium either gas or a liquid. c. Trailer
a. Conduction d. Wick
b. Convection 2352. Most common reason of arson cases.
c. Radiation a. Revenge
d. Fission b. Profit
2341. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid. c. Competition
a. Specific heat d. All of the foregoing
b. Latent heat 2353. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
c. Heat of Combustion a. Spontaneous heating
d. Heat of fusion b. Combustible gases
2342. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or c. Combustible dust
natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air. d. None of the choices
a. Carbon black 2354. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to
b. Lamp black start a fire.
c. Soot a. Plants
d. Black bone b. Trailers
2343. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed c. Accelerants
vapor as a result of combustion. d. Wick
a. Fire 2355. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
b. Flame a. Abatement
c. Heat b. Combustion
d. Smoke c. Allotment
2344. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation. d. Distillation
a. Fire 2356. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry
b. Flame materials with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly
c. Heat known as:
d. Smoke a. Black bone
2345. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been b. Used petroleum
contained. c. Soot
a. Backdraft d. Black iron
b. Flashover
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
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 2357. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume d. All of the foregoing
electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the 2368. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance
existing electrical system. when it changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
a. Overloading a. Calorie
b. Jumper b. Latent heat
c. Wire tapping c. Thermal heat
d. Arcing d. Specific heat
2358. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of 2369. Refers to gases that remain when the products of
the assessed value of the building: combustion are cooled to normal temperature.
a. Schools a. Fire gases
b. Department stores b. Combustion gases
c. Hospitals c. Oxidation gases
d. Single family dwellings d. Flame
2359. Enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to 2370. Fires caused by human error and negligence.
floor, as well as from the base to top of the building. a. Providential fires
a. Standpipe system b. Intentional fires
b. Sprinkler system c. Accidental fires
c. Vertical shaft d. Incendiarism
d. Flash point 2371. Primary component of wood
2360. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire a. Fiber
resistance rating of not less than four hours with b. Cellulose
structural stability to remain standing even if the adjacent c. Carbon
construction collapses under fire conditions: d. Pulp
a. Post wall 2372. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern
b. Fire trap or fingerprint of fire is developed.
c. Fire wall a. Incipient phase
d. Firewood b. Initial phase
2361. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local c. Free burning phase
government for any particular establishment. d. Smoldering phase
a. Fire service 2373. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the flame
b. Fire safety inspection and carbon monoxide builds up in volume.
c. Fire drill a. Incipient
d. Fire protection assembly b. Initial phase
2362. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to c. Free burning phase
another. d. Smoldering phase
a. Radiation 2374. Most effective way of regulating vices.
b. Convection a. Continued police action by relentless drives in
c. Conduction vice control
d. Fission b. Sincere and honest law enforcement
2363. The active principle of burning characterized by the c. Both a and b
heat and light of combustion. d. None of the choices
a. Oxidation 2375. Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive
b. Flash point intake of alcoholic beverages develops physical and
c. Smoldering psychological changes and dependence to alcohol.
d. Fire a. Alcoholics
2364. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction b. Liquor addicts
takes place. c. Drunkard
a. Endothermic reactions d. Chronic alcoholics
b. Exothermic reactions 2376. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which
c. Oxidation contains alcohol.
d. Combustion a. Liquor
2365. Product of an incomplete combustion. b. Wine
a. Soot c. Booze
b. Charring d. Vodka
c. Ashes 2377. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of ill-
d. All of foregoing refute whereby the business of prostitution is
2366. Color of a luminous flame. conducted.
a. Orange-blue a. Operator
b. Blue b. Banker
c. Yellow c. Mama
d. Red d. Pimp
2367. Refers to the amount of heat released during complete 2378. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse
oxidation whereby the organic fuel is converted to with another for hire.
water and carbon dioxide. a. Prostitute
a. Heat of combustion b. Whores
b. Calorific value c. Knockers
c. Fuel value d. All of the foregoing
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 2379. The procurement and transportation of women from c. Papaver somniferum
far flung places for immoral purposes. d. Methamphetamine
a. White slavery 2391. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily used
b. Prostitution as:
c. Organized crimes a. Pain killer
d. All of the foregoing b. Cough reliever
2380. This place usually lodges several number of factory girls c. Stimulant
or professional prostitutes under the control of an d. Depressant
organized crime ring. 2392. Who among the following acts as the chairman of the
a. Disorderly houses DDB?
b. Furnished room houses a. Secretary of Justice
c. Call houses b. Secretary of National Defense
d. Massage clinics c. Secretary of Education
2381. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the means d. Secretary of Health
with which to carry on the gambling game. 2393. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking drug,
a. Maintainer it was brought to the Philippines by a Japanese tourist.
b. Conductor a. Marijuana
c. Banker b. Cocaine
d. Operator c. Shabu
2382. Anti gambling law d. Opium
a. PD 1869 2394. The most potent derivative from opium.
b. PD 1612 a. Codeine
c. PD 1602 b. Cocaine
d. PD 1866 c. Morphine
2383. Social causes of prostitution are the following, except d. Heroin
a. Broken families 2395. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in
b. Poverty Bolivia and first used by the Incas of Peru.
c. Anonymity of city life a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
d. All of the choices b. Papaver somniferum
2384. Refers to a person having no apparent means of c. Amphetamine
subsistence. d. Erythroxylon coca
a. Gambler 2396. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical
b. Prostitute name is “Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine”.
c. Vagrants a. Chomper
d. None of the foregoing b. Ecstacy
2385. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white slave c. Shabu
trade. d. Heroin
a. Prision correctional 2397. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to
b. Prison mayor circumvent legal restrictions.
c. Reclusion temporal a. Designer drugs
d. Reclusion perpetua b. Hallucinogens
2386. A person who manages or carries a gambling game. c. Amphetamines
a. Maintainer d. Methamphetamines
b. Conductor 2398. A law which prohibits government officials to enter and
c. Banker gamble in Philippine casinos.
d. Operator a. PD 1602
2387. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to maintain b. PD 1869
the same effect. c. PD 510
a. Tolerance d. PD 483
b. Physical dependence 2399. Office that controls and regulates gambling.
c. Poly drug abuse a. PAGCOR
d. Drug experimenter b. PCGG
2388. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of c. PACC
potent Cannabis Sativa. d. PNP
a. Marijuana 2400. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among
b. Hashish persons who have paid or agreed to pay a valuable
c. Opium consideration for the chance to obtain a prize.
d. Morphine a. Gambling
2389. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning b. Sport
sleep, what is the other term given to narcotics? c. Lottery
a. Opium d. All of the choices
b. Opiates 2401. A bet or consideration placed on gambling games.
c. Morphine a. Wage
d. Heroin b. Wager
2390. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana. c. Prize
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol d. Banker
b. Cannabis sativa
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 2402. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much as c. Drunk
25% of the substance: d. Coma
a. Hashish 2413. This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on
b. Codeine conversion and fellowship.
c. Morphine a. Aversion treatment
d. Heroin b. Psychotherapy method
2403. Amphetamine is a representative of good class of c. Withdrawal method
stimulants known as: d. Program of alcoholic anonymous
a. Crank 2414. Oldest profession known to man which involves
b. Pep pills habitual indulgement in sexual intercourse for money
c. Knock-out drops or profit.
d. Stick a. Gambling
2404. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on b. Prostitution
prohibited and regulated drugs. c. Addiction
a. DDB d. All of the foregoing
b. NBI 2415. Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution to
c. PACC supplement their income.
d. PNP a. Call girls
2405. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, b. Factory girls
melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions. c. Hustler
a. Narcotics d. Door knocker
b. Stimulants
c. Depressants 2416. Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent
d. Hallucinogens legitimate roomers to maintain an appearance of
2406. Chemical substance which effects a person in such a responsibility.
way as to bring out physiological, behavioral or a. Disorderly houses
emotional change. b. Furnished room houses
a. Alcohol c. Call houses
b. Coca leaf d. Massage clinics
c. Drug 2417. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the
d. Marijuana world originated is located specifically in:
2407. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying a. Thailand-Burma-China border
emotions, thought disruption and ego distortion. b. Laos-Thailand-China border
a. Depressants c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border
b. Tranquilizers d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border
c. Hallucinogens 2418. Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made from
d. Stimulants Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains meal
2408. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which altering ingredient. Which among the following
leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the is not an immediate effect of weed?
mind and body. a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate
a. Abuse b. Impaired reflexes coordination and
b. Vice concentration
c. Addiction c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external fear of
d. Gambling losing control
2409. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock d. Altered sense of time/disorientation
owners and other bettors. 2419. A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South
a. Promoter American shrub. It is a central nervous system
b. “Cristo” stimulant.
c. Banker a. Marijuana
d. Gambler b. Shabu
2410. Most common problem encountered by the police in c. Cocaine
vice control measures: d. Opiates
a. Unwillingness of government officials to work 2420. A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly
against vices upon chance or hazard.
b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices a. Gambling
c. Public apathy b. Sports
d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts c. Tupada
2411. The process of undergoing or producing gradual d. All of the above
chemical change which later becomes sour or alcoholic. 2421. Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is
a. Distillation difficult to control is that:
b. Fermentation a. The big demand
c. Ionization b. The plant can be easily cultivated
d. Purification c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the
2412. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes country
argumentative and over confident. d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
a. Slight inebration 2442. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is
b. Moderate inebration reluctant to divulge information?
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 A. interview D. Strip Search
C. interrogation 2452. Crime scene photographs are admissible as
B. information evidence in court; it should be taken from ____.
D. instrumentation A. General View
2443. It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be C. Close-up view
shown in order to obtain conviction? B. Mid-range
A. intent D. General to Specific
B.desire 2453. It is the simplest and most effective way of
C. motive showing actual measurements and of identifying
D. opportunity significant items of evidence in their location at
2444. Information gathered upon initiative of the the scene.
investigator from informants, vendors, taxicab A. Sketch
driver, GRO, and others. B. Rough Sketch
A. Grapevine Sources C. Final Sketch
B. Cultivated Sources D. Finish Sketch
C.Regular Sources 2454. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene
D.Cognitive interview of the crime and its environs, including
2445. What interrogation techniques when the neighboring buildings, roads, etc.?
investigator indicates he does not consider his a. Sketch of Locality
subject’s indiscretion a grave offense. b. Sketch of Environs
A. Sympathetic Appeal c. Sketch of the Ground
B. Mutt and Jeff d. Sketch in Details
C Extenuation 2455. Elements of the Sketch:
D. Emotional Appeal a. Measurement and compass direction
2446. It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject b. Essential items and scale of proportion
falling short of an acknowledgment of guilt. c. Legend and title
d. All of the choices
a. Confession 2456. During a custodial investigation, Jayson was
b. Extra-Judicial Confession subjected to physical harm by continuously
c. Admission kicking and punching him in the stomach so that
d. Judicial Confession the same may confess.
A. Coercion
2447. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known B. Physical torture
criminals, their Modus Operandi, hiding places C. Duress
and names of associate criminals. D. Verbal threats
a. Physical Line-up 2457. A person who killed his spouse but was entitled
b. Physical Show-up to the benefits of Article 247 of the Revised Penal
c. Geographic Sketch Code shall suffer the penalty of:
d. Rogues Gallery A. Reclusion perpetua
2448. It is the general questioning of all persons at the B. Death
crime scene/ traffic accident, no need to recite C. Reclusion temporal
the Miranda doctrine D. Destierro
A. Custodial Investigation 2458. The Unit now charged with conducting field
B. Interview operation and technical investigation at the
C. Field Inquiry crime scene is:
D. Interrogation a. PNP Crime Laboratory
2449. It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is b. Criminal Investigation and Detection
committed and is established by a series of Group
crimes under one classification. c. Scene of the Crime Operation
A. Modus Operandi d. Crime Scene Investigation
B. Modes of Operation
C. Methods of Operation 2459. Police Officer Athan is the first officer to arrive
D. Pattern of Operation at the scene of a shooting incident. he saw the
2450. It refers to a person who gives information victim lying on the pavement sustaining multiple
relevant to a criminal case about the activities of gun shot wounds, but still moving. What is the
the criminals voluntarily to the investigator and proper course of action he should take?
who may even be willing to be a witness. a. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO
A. Informant team to arrive
B. Informer b. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the
C. Mercenary crime scene and assist him with the
D. Women situation.
2451. Methods of Search whereby the searchers will C. Call the investigator and inquire
proceed at the same place along the path about his decision concerning the victim.
parallel to one side of the rectangle. D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the
A. Wheel search method nearest hospital.
B.Quadrant Search 2460. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____
C. Spiral search method a. the property taken
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 b. the fact that the crime was committed A. Chief of Police
c. anything of value B. PCP Commander
d. Intent of the suspect C. Investigator-on-case
2461. One of the elements of sketch wherein the D. owner of the place
graphical representation must indicate the ____ 2469. Are all physical evidence found and collected at
direction for proper orientation of the scene. the crime scene to be transported to the Crime
A. North Laboratory?
B. West a. Yes, because they were collected for
C. East examination
D. South b. Yes, because the Investigator is not
2462. The following are the rules to be observed when allowed to take custody of evidence
intervening a witness, EXCEPT: c. No, because the SOCO Team has no
a. allow implied answer authority to bring the evidence to the
b. saving faces Crime Laboratory if the investigator did
c. one question at a time not request
d. avoid leading questions d. No, only those which require further
2463. In case there is no other available means of laboratory examination will be
establishing the age of the offender, what should transported.
be done if he claims that he is still a minor? 2470. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly
a. Do not listen to his claim because documented and locations of evidence was
probably he is already of majority age. noted, the collection process begins and will
b. Wait for the court to determine the age usually start with –
of the offender A. point of exit
c. Resolve the issued in favor of the B. fragile evidence
declarant C. large objects
d. Ask the social worker to determine the D. removal of cadaver
age of the offender 2471. Who conducts the final survey of the crime
2464. 24. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime scene?
incident shall have the following duties, EXCEPT: A. Chief Investigator
a. Record the date and time the report was B. Team Leader
made C. Chief of Police
b. Immediately respond to the crime scene D. Investigator-on-case
c. Made a synopsis of the incident 2472. This is produced by forcible contact on the body
d. Inform his superior officer or duty officer by sharp edged instrument like bolos, knives,
regarding the report and broken glasses:
2465. What is the area located adjacent to the crime A. Incised wound
scene where the briefing is to be conducted and B. Punctured wound
also the place where the evidence custodian C. Stab wound
receives the evidence collected during crime D. Lacerated wound
scene investigation? 2473. What is the means of identifying physical
A. crime scene evidence in which the investigator inscribe initial
C. fixed post date and time directly?
B. command post A. marking
D. reception area B. labeling
2466. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the C. tagging
team leader performs the following duties, D. none of these
EXCEPT: 2474. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as a
a. Takes down note to document important evidence should be marked where ____.
factors A. At the tip of the blade
b. Makes a general assessment of the crime B. At the frame
scene C. At the base
c. Photograph the crime scene before D. At the handle
walking through the crime scene 2475. What may be added to blood to preserve for a
d. Defines the extent of search area week?
2467. What is the purpose of conducting final survey A. Sodium Chloride
of the crime scene? B. Sodium Fluoride
a. To determine whether or not the C. Sodium Dioxide
processing has been completed. D. NONE
b. To turn over the scene to the Chief of 2476. What is the most important part of the hair?
Police. A. Follicle
c. To check all evidence gathered from the B. Medulla
crime scene. C. Root
d. To determine whether there is a need to D. All of these
request for additional personnel 2477. What is the minimum number of hair strands is
2468. After the conduct of final survey by the team needed?
leader to whom will the crime scene be turned A. 10 strands
over? B. 30 to 60 strands
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 C. 120 strands 2486. What is the court process requiring a person to
D. unlimited bring documents in his possession to the courts?
2478. Mummification is a condition of arrested a. summon
decomposition due to the absence of moisture. b. subpoena ducestecum
It is common in hot dry conditions, usually takes C.subpoena testificandum
___ to form. D. bill of particulars
A. 3 months 2487. What is the best method of collection evidence
B. 1 month like footprints and tire prints?
C. 6 months A. Casting
D. 1 year B. Dental Stone
2479. A dead body was found and there is already C. Plaster of Paris
presence of maggots, it indicates that the dead D. Photograph
body was at least ___. 2488. Investigation has 3 I’s, to be precise these are
A. 2 days the information, interview/interrogation and
B. 5 days instrumentation. Among of them information is
C. 3 days deemed to be the most important because
D. 1 week a. Information involves the elements of the
2480. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the crime
grave for the conduct of medical examination: b. Information identifies the perpetrator of
A. Inhumation the crime
B. Exhumation c. Information identifies witnesses that will
C. Autopsy lead to the suspect
D. Interment d. None of these
2481. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine 2489. Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of a
which of the following hit-and-run may be particularly useful in the
a. The actual cause of death of the victim investigation process because the year and make
b. The actual killer of the victim of the car involved may be determinable. The
c. The modus operandi involved paint chips evidence collected should be ideally
d. The motive behind killing placed on?
2482. 41. The method used to support a likely a. Clear plastic envelope
sequence of events by the observation and b. Clear plastic container
evaluation of physical evidence, as well as c. Small plastic bag
statement made by those involved with the d. Cotton
incident: 2490. Which of the following is the primary source of
evidence?
a. Crime Scene Reconstruction A. victim
b. Physical reconstruction B. crime scene
c. Mental reconstruction C. suspect
d. Any of the above D. all of these
2483. The purposes of a crime scene search are the 2491. Which among the following is an essential
following, EXCEPT: element of parricide?
a. To identify the method of operation a. by means of treachery
b. To analyze physical evidence b. relationship of the offender with the
c. To reduce the number of suspects victim
d. To obtain physical evidence c. relationship of the offender with the
2484. In the course of investigating the house where a witness
stabbing took place, police find what to be d. age of the victim
bloodstains on the front door, since the 2492. In crime scene investigation, who determines its
unknown perpetrator and the victim who may entry/exit?
die were both cut their identities need to be A. the prober
established through the bloodstains. How will B. SOCO
the police collect the stains? C. COP
a. moisten a piece a clean cotton with a D. First responded
saline solution and rub gently. 2493. After developing the latent print found at the
b. remove the door and submit it to the crime scene, it is best to lift it first then take
crime lab photographs as a back record, is it a correct
c. scrap the stain into white paper using a practice and do you agree with the prober?
clean razor blade A. yes
d. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked B. no
in alcohol C. maybe
2485. The primary reason a finished sketch is made D. It depends
from a rough sketch is for 2494. What would be the best camera position in
A. scale and proportion taking photographs showing a view of what a
B. future use witness might have seen?
C. accuracy and clarity a. at 6 foot distance from the camera man
D.courtroom presentation b. parallel to the subject witness
c. overhead
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 d. at the eye level d. Libel
2495. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch or 2504. There are two robbers who broke into a house
engraved the initial on a collected hard object is and carried away some valuables. After they left
called? such house these two robbers decided to cut or
A. Collection divide the loot already so that they can go of
C. Scratcher them . So while they are dividing the loot
B. Luminous the other robber noticed that the one doing the
D. Stylus division is trying to cheat him and so he
2496. As regards to the suspect, what will be the immediately boxed him. Now this robber who
purpose of interrogation? was boxed then pulled out his gun and fired at
a. To extract illegally the confession of a the other one killing the latter. What crime is
suspect committed?
b. To extract the information he possesses a. Robbery and Murde
c. To extract a confession of admission b. Murder
d. All of the above c. Robbery w/ Homicide
2497. Before going to court, be sure to review the d. Homicide
___?
a. Names of the suspect
b. Names of the witness 2505. If a person had an enemy and killed him and after
c. Number of the cases killing him, saw that he had a beautiful ring and
d. Facts of the cases took this, the crime would be?
a. Robbery and Murder
b. Robbery and Theft
c. Robbery w/ Homicide
2498. In collecting bloodstains at the crime scene, d. Murder
prober must keep in mind that before placing the 2506. A committed robbery but during the robbery he
specimen in a paper packet it must be allowed saw B a beautiful woman which he raped it. But
first to ____? B. pardoned A, and they get married. What
A. Refrigerate crime is committed?
B. Air dried A. Robbery
C. Moist B. Robbery w/ Rape
D. Freeze C. Robbery and Rape
2499. Why is it important for a perishable material to D. NONE
be preserved by the way or the methods of 2507. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall.
preservation? The wall collapsed. There was a small opening
a. So that the evidence will not be there. At night, a man entered through that
destroyed opening without breaking the same and gets
b. In order that this evidence will reach the items there. What crime is committed?
court in the same physical condition as A. Robbery
when they were collected B. Theft
c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the C. Robbery w/ force upon things
acquittal of the accused D. None
d. All of the above 2508. The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998:
2500. In police photography, when one say tripod, the A. RA 8484
stand has how many legs or vertical support? B. RA 7877
A. two C. RA 7080
B. four D. RA 8353
C. one 2509. If stolen goods such as laptops and cell phones
D. three are found in your house by the police, then it is
2501. Pointed metal instrument is used to mark bullet ____.
and empty shell for a. Prima facie evidence of Fencing
A. proper and lasting mark b. Prima facie evidence of theft
B. preservation c. Conclusive Evidence of Theft
C. marking it d. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing
D. labeling 2510. The following are the grounds to execute a
2502. Which of the following is not the function of Lawful warrantless arrest EXCEPT:
criminal investigation? A. Seized in “Plain view”
a. Identify, locate and arrest the person B. Customs search
who commits crime C. Search of a moving vehicle
b. Prosecute and convict the criminal D. None of the choices
c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence 2511. After serving the search warrant, deliver
d. Bring the offender to justice immediately the things or property seized to the
2503. Below are serious crimes which leave physical ____ together with an inventory duly verified
evidence, EXCEPT: under oath.
a. Homicide a. Judge who issued the warrant
b. Carnapping and arson b. Prosecution Counsel
c. Sexual assault and robbery c. Requesting Party
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 d. Any of these b. psychological questioning
2512. The validity period of Search Warrant is ____. c. physical questioning
A. 10 days d. None of these
B. No time Limit 2522. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign
C. 15 days territory” such as the investigator room at the
D. NONE police station because the place –
2513. The taking of a person into custody in the a. Is comfortable to the suspect
manner authorized by law for the purpose of b. Is familiar to the suspect
presenting that person before the court to c. Provides food and cigarette to the
answer for the commission of a crime. investigator
d. Intimidates the suspect
2523. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime
A. Search scene, he should first of all –
B. Arrest a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking
C. Initial Contact care not to jar
D. Warrant of Arrest b. wait until the crime scene has been
2514. Who shall issue a Search Warrant? sketched, photographed and
A. Judge measurements taken before he collects
B. Executive Branch the evidence
C. Investigator on Case c. immediately collects it and always sends
D. Prober it to the Crime Laboratory for specific
2515. All but one are the instances you can execute a examination
lawful warrantless arrest. d. Compare the following edge of the took
A. Flagrante Delicto with impression to determine if this was
B. Escaped prisoner the tool used in crime
C. Hot pursuit Principle 2524. All of the following are generally accepted rules
D. None of these of behavior that should be followed by police
2516. Physical evidence is generally given weight the officer first arriving at the crime scene of a
courts because- murder committed indoors, EXCEPT –
a. it speaks for itself a. Try to keep witnesses separated
b. it cannot lie b. Record the time of discovery of the crime
c. not affected by emotion c. Discus the crime with persons who
d. all of the choices witness the incident
2517. Physical or personal appearance is important d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as
when testifying in court because – possible but do not leave the scene
a. it will determine the quality of your unguarded while doing so
testimony 2525. The primary reason for conducting a search in
b. it will determine the quantity of your the crime scene is to –
testimony a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
c. it will affect the weight given to your b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
testimony by the court c. Undercover hidden evidence
d. it will reduce the chances of the defense d. Determine the criminals method of
2518. What does DNA stand for? operation
a. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid 2526. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should
b. Deoxyribunucleic Acid be made on the item itself upon collection, in a
c. Deoxyribonucleic Acid place least likely to affect the appearance of its -
d. Deoxyribunucliec Acid A. Physical Integrity
2519. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was B. Evidentiary
pioneered by Allan Pinkerton C. Legal Integrity
a. Every contact leaves a Mark D. Integrity and Identity
b. modus operandi 2527. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that
c. shadowing the pursuit is not possible, what should you not
d. casing do?
2520. The fact that no physical evidence was found at a. Better use your time and efforts to alert
the scene of the crime will most likely mean that another unit
– b. Forego the pursuit and keep on what you
a. the victim cleaned up before the police are formerly doing
arrived c. Inform the dispatched of the unit
b. the suspect was professional d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in
c. the suspect was juvenile coordination with other police units
d. the police probably did not conduct a 2528. This situation takes place when a police officer
complete search for evidence. induced a person to commit a crime and arrest
2521. During an interview, planning is important and him after the commission of the crime.
must follow the order of time and bring out facts A. Instigation
orderly as they happened, this technique is B. Search
called – C. Recidivism
a. chronological questioning D. Entrapment
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 2529. The investigator who collects physical evidence
should take it to the laboratory by himself
whenever this is possible, otherwise, he should
obtain a receipt from each person to whom he
gives or receives evidence. This statement is
applicable to –
a. Chain of custody of evidence
b. Cardinal rules in investigation
c. Three tools in investigation
d. To establish the guilt of the accused
2530. It is the duty of the officer who first arrives at
the crime scene.
a. Locate and apprehend the accused
b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt
2531. These are some of the investigative activities in a
homicide case, EXCEPT:
a. record the crime scene through notes,
photographs, and sketches
b. recognizes, collect, and preserves all
physical evidences and clue materials
c. establish the cause and the manner of
death of the victim
d. alleged suspicion as they initially appear
to the investigators
2532. Another set of the investigative activities in a
homicide case, are the following, EXCEPT:
a. determine the categories and modes of
death
b. seek additional information by
interviewing witness
c. ascertaining the motive of the suspect
d. questioning the suspect after explaining
his rights
2533. White-collar crimes are generally very difficult to
prevent and when detected or reported, they
pose many ____.
a. investigative difficulties
b. investigative tasks
c. investigative problems
d. investigative burden
2534. To secure conviction of white-collar criminals,
the investigator must develop ___, eh must also
remember that the victim may suddenly lose
interest in aiding prosecution.
a. every phase of the case
b. contingency of case
c. friendly atmosphere
d. rapport with victim
2535. The following are characteristics of organized
crime, EXCEPT:
a. close-knit nature of its membership
b. their elaborate planning and lack of
impulsiveness
c. violence and intimidation are common
tools
d. basically a street gang with criminal skills
2536. The following statements, answers the questions
“when” and “how” rape can be committed,
EXCEPT:
a. sexual assault by inserting penis into
another person’s mouth
b. inserting any instrument or object into
the genital or anal orifice or another
person
G.S.T. 2019
c. committed under all the elements
enumerated by Art. 324 of the Revised
Penal Code
d. rape case is a crime against chastity
2537. Rape is committed under any of the following
circumstance, EXCEPT:
a. through the use of force, threat or
intimidation
b. when the offended party is deprived of
reasons or otherwise unconscious
c. by means of fraudulent machinations or
grave abuse of authority
d. it is an exclusive offense committed by
man to a woman
2538. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery
is divided into two different classifications, one is
robbery by the use of force upon things, and the
other is:
a. robbery with violence, or intimidation of
person
b. taking of personal property belonging to
another
c. with intent, to gain and to possess the
property
d. pre-conceived plans and unexpected
opportunity
2539. The following are the elements of the crime
robbery, EXCEPT:
a. personal property belonging to another
b. the taking must be with intent to gain
c. there is violence or intimidation of any
person
d. it engender fear and quality of life
2540. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of
the thief in an automobile which has been stolen
and abandoned is on
A. Door handles
C. Steering wheel
B. Rear view mirror
D. Dashboard
2541. If criminal investigation is a process, after
identifying then collecting information and
evidences, the next logical step to do is
a. presents them in court
b. preserves their legal integrity
c. evaluate their strength in establishing
proof
d. recognize their importance in the case
2542. During a quarrel on a crowded street of Avenida,
one man, stabs another and flees. PO1 Lim
policeman arriving at the scene a short time later
finds the victim unconscious, calls for an
ambulance and orders the crowd to leave. His
action was
a. bad; there may have been witnesses to
the assault among the crowd
b. good; it is proper first aid procedure to
give an injured person room and air
c. bad; the assailant is probably among the
crowd
d. good; a crowd may destroy needed
evidence
e. bad; it is poor public relations for the
police to order people about needlessly.
2543. The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:
Page 130 of 227
 a. sketch, search, photograph C. Barangay Road
b. search, sketch, photograph D. City Road
c. photograph, search, sketch 2551. It refers to a vehicles covered by certificate of
d. photograph, sketch, search public convenience or special permit issued by
2544. It is often important to know the time of death. LTFRB
The reasons offered to this are as follows, A. Private
EXCEPT: B. For Hire
a. to question individual who last talk with C. Government
the victim D. Diplomatic
b. to look for flaws on a witness’s account 2552. Professional and non-professional driver’s
of incident license is valid for ___ from the date of issuance
c. protect the innocent from malicious and renewable every birth month.
allegations A. 18 Months
d. to know what was occur and how did it B.36 Months
occur C. 24 Months
2545. 1st Driver’s License is a matter of right not only a D.12 Months
privilege, 2nd Driver’s License is issued to a 2553. It is any accident occurring on a public traffic
person, who has all the qualification as provided way involving persons using vehicle or
by law, 3rd Driver’s License is a public document transportation, but not involving a motor vehicle
a. The 1st and 2nd statements are incorrect in motion:
b. The 1st and 3rd statements are correct a. Vehicle Traffic Accident
c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct b. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident
d. All statements are correct c. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
2546. Which of the following is not a function of d. Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic Accident
warning symbol? 2554. Which of the following law created the
a. To call the decrease of speed Metropolitan Manila Development Authority
b. To seek carefulness on the part of (MMDA)?
motorist of the approaching danger A. RA 8750
c. To direct motorist along the establish B .RA 7924
direction C. RA 8749
d. To notify traffic units an approaching D. PD 96
hazardous circumstance either on or 2555. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement
adjacent to road program is best measured by which of the
2547. 106. These are the functions of guide signs, following:
EXCEPT: a. A cutback of traffic accidents and
a. To guide motorist along established interruption
routes b. A amplify in traffic enforcement actions
b. To inform proper routes c. A dwindle in the ratio of convictions to
c. To help him along his way to the most enforcement manner
simple and direct method d. None of these
d. To call the diminution of speed 2556. 115. In an intersection not controlled by lights or
2548. 107. A number of traffic regulations revolve peace officers, pedestrian have the right of way
around questions of right of way, for practically the moment he starts to cross.
purposes, one of the following is the best A. Absolutely true
definition of “Right of Way”. B. Partly true
a. The personal right to move from one C. Absolutely false
place to another D. Partly false
b. The privilege of immediate use of 2557. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway
particular section of highway above street level for free-flow traffic.
c. The way or place open to the motorist A. Expressway
and pedestrian B. Subway
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space C. Skyway
which at the time is occupied by another D. Tunnel road
vehicle 2558. City roads inter-link between municipalities and
2549. It is intended to inform road user of special within the city with a right of way of 15 meters;
obligation, instruction nor prohibitions which what is the minimum width of sidewalk?
they must comply. A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters
A. Traffic Signs B. 1.5 to 1.8 meters
B. Informative Signs C. 1.2 to 1.5 meters
C. Regulatory Signs D. 2.0 meters
D. Danger/warning signs 2559. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of
taking a person into custody for the purpose of
2550. A kind of road according to political subdivision holding or detaining him to answer a charge of
within town proper Right of Way not less than 10 law violation before a court.
meters. A. Arrest
A. National Road B. Traffic Arrest
B. Municipal Road C. Traffic Citation
Page 131 of 227
G.S.T. 2019
 D. Traffic Warning
2560. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period
of not less than ___ can apply for non-
professional driver’s license
A. 150 Days
B. 180 Days
C. 60 Days
D. 30 Days
2561. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury
other than serious to one or more persons:
A. Property damage
B. Less Serious Injury
C.Fatal Accident
D. Non-fatal Accident
2562. When two vehicles approach an intersection at
approximately the same time, which shall give
the right of way:
a. The vehicle coming from the right
b. Vehicle from the center
c. The vehicle coming from the left
d. The vehicle that arrives first
2563. Which of the following consideration does not
act as a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
A. Fear of fine and punishment
B.Loss of driving privileged
C.Possibility involve in an accident
D.Increase of insurance premium
2564. Human errors as one cause of traffic
congestion is best characterized by, EXCEPT:
A.Poor legislation activities
B.Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
C.Effective and efficient traffic officers
D.Slow drivers or bad driving habit
2565 The following are NOT functions of Land
Transportation Office, EXCEPT:
A.Reparation of vehicles
B.Registration and licensing
C.Rental and license
D.Licensing operating
2566. One of the following statements that best
indicates the main purpose of traffic law enforcement
is:
A.reduce traffic by punishing B.violators of
traffic rules
C.keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid
bottlenecks
control the speed limited in densely
populated areas
D.prevent traffic accidents and expedite the
flow of traffic
2567. Most common defect attributed to the human
element in cases of traffic vehicular accidents:
A. Intellectual
B. Perceptual
C. Decision
D. Attitudinal
2568. Statistically it is considered as the most
common reason for public utility vehicular accidents.
A.Not observing the proper distance and
following too close
B.Unnecessary
C.Recklessness
D.Discussion regarding fare
2569. What is the general rule for the movement of
vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left”
B. Safety First
G.S.T. 2019
C. “keep to the right”
D. “watch out”
2570. What would drivers do when an emergency
vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red
light and sounding a siren?
A.pull aside and stop the car abruptly
B.continue driving slowly without regard of
the emerging
C.yield at the right of way and wait for the
passage of the vehicle
D.disregard the red light and siren
2571. As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, you
approach an intersection with the traffic light
with a “green color” on but a traffic policeman
is standing at the center of intersection
conducting the flow normally. As a driver you
will ignore the traffic man and follow the
automatic traffic light-
A. True
B. False
C. Sometimes
D. It depends
2572. Term used for an operator or a vehicle which
strikes another vehicle, object or person and
left the scene without stopping to identify
himself or render aid
A. hit and run
B. third party liability
C. reckless driving
D. side sweeper
2573. A systematic examination of all the facts
relating to conditions, actions and physical
features associated with motor collision or
accident –
A.traffic engineering
B.traffic accident investigation
C.reckless driving
D.hit and run
2574. A public officials, law enforcement officers or
anybody who are not a member of the
organization who can helps the organization
A. Enforcer
B. Capo
C. Corrupter
D. Corruptee
2575. What type of OCG which is manned by semi-
organized individual with the end view of
attaining psychological gratification such as
adolescent gangs.
A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
B.Political Graft
C.Predatory Organized Crime
D.Syndicated Organized Crime
2576. A continuing illegal activity of group of person
which is primarily concerned with the
generation of profits, irrespective of national
boundaries as a result of globalization.
A.Transnational Organized Crime
B.Transnational Crime
C.Organized Criminal Group
D.NONE
2577. What category of terrorist group which is What
category of terrorist group which is dedicated
to overthrow an established order and
replacing it with a new political or social
structure?
A. Ethnocentric
Page 132 of 227
 B. Revolutionary B. Prostitution
C. Separalist C. Drug Trafficking
D. Political D. Sex tourism
2578. ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 stands 2588. The crime of human trafficking shall be
for? qualified when:
A.InformationConnection Technology A.the person trafficked is an elderly
B.InformationCommunication B.the person trafficked is a special child
Technology C.the person trafficked is a woman
C.InternetCommunication D.the person trafficked is a child
Technology
D.Internet Connection Technology 2589. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000
2579. Economic crime is known as: provides that an organized criminal group must
A.Blue Collar Crime have a membership of at least ___:
B.Wildlife Smuggling A. 3 or More
C.White Collar Crime B. 2 or More
D.Wildlife trafficking C. 4 or More
2580. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten: D. 5 or More
A. Terrorisme 2590. In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is
B.Terrere formerly included.
C. Rapere A. Al Qaeda
D. Vestigarre B. MILF
2581. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code C. MNLF
of silence that forbids Mafiosi from betraying D. JI
their comrades to the authorities: 2591. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means:
A. Capo A.Swords bearer
B. Omerta B.Islamic Congregation
C. Jihad C.Father of the Swordsman
D. Ideology D.The Base
2582. It was an event said to be the origin of conflict 2592. These are the most frequent terrorist acts,
in Mindanao and for the establishment of Moro accounting for as much as 80% of terrorist-
National Liberation Front (MNLF): related violence:
A.Rizal Day Bombing A. Bombings
B.Ninoy assassination B. Assassinations
C.Black September C. Kidnapping
D.Jabbidah Massacre D. Prostitution
2583. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted 2593. This is also known as the Human Security Act of
terrorist in the world who issued a “fatwa” that 2007:
calls all Muslims around the world to slay A. RA 9372
Americans and their allies. B. RA 9160
A. Abu-Abbas C. RA 9165
B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef D. RA 8294
C. Ahmed Yassin 2594. This is the country which believed to be the
D. Osama bin-Laden origin of Mafia and Cosa Nostra:
2584. This refers to an attribute of organized crime A. United States of America
that their memberships have limitations based B. Italy
on kinship, criminal record, or similar C. Japan
considerations: D. China
A.No Political Goals 2595. An Asian organized crime that represents
B.Hierarchical mystical symbol in the form of an equilateral
C.Constitutes a Unique Subculture triangle representing the heaven, earth and
D.Limited or Exclusive Membership man:
2585. Organized crime differs from terrorism in terms A. Yakuza
of their: B. Triad
A. membership C. Tongs
B. motivation D. Born to Kill of Vietnam
C. leadership 2596. Chain of custody should be observed by the
D. networking investigating team of cybercrimes:
2586. This theory refers to those processes by which A.The Statement is wrong
the community influences its members towards B.The statement is true
conformity with established norms and C.None of these
behavior. D.All of these
A. differential association 2597. Internet pornography is punishable under E-
B. social control Commerce Act of 2000:
C. anomie A.The Statement is correct
D. strain B.Statement is wrong
2587. It is a form of modern day slavery. C.either of the above
A. Human Trafficking D.neither of the above
Page 133 of 227
G.S.T. 2019
 2598. Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet cafes criminals, methodologies, arrests and
and cyber cafes, where majority of cybercrimes conviction on transnational crime.
are perpetuated, are legally required to have A.Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes
permanent logs and records of their clients: (PCTC)
A.The statement is true B.National Commission on Anti Hijacking
B.The statement is false (NACAH)
C.Neither of the above C.International Criminal Police Organization
D.Either of the above (ICPO)
2599. The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides that D.Philippine National Police (PNP)
telecommunication companies are legally
bound to cooperate with the law enforcement
agencies in the course of their investigation: 2608. It is known as IP address that changes every
A.The statement is absolutely correct time the internet accesses his ISP:
B.The statement is absolutely wrong A. ISP
C.The statement is partially correct B. Dynamic IP address
D.The statement is partially wrong C. Static IP Address
D. IP Address
2600. It is the maximum imprisonment for violation of 2609. It refers to an act sending fraudulent mails or
E-Commerce Act of 2000. website pop-ups, to get victims to divulge
A. 20 years sensitive financial information such as credit
B. 12 years card numbers or social security numbers.
C. 6 years A. Phising
D. 3 years B. Hacking
2601. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful C. Cracking
activity are transacted or attempted to be D. Identity Theft
transacted, to make them appear to have 2610. It refers to a computer program that can copy
originated from legitimate sources: itself and infect a computer without permission
A. Estafa or knowledge of the user
B.Money Laundering A. Virus
C. Anti-Money Laundering B. Trojan Horse
D. Swindling C. Logic Bomb
2602. This refers to any distinctive mark, D. Worm
characteristic and/or sound in electronic form, 2611. What kind of hacker who breaks into computer
representing the identity of a person and systems with malicious intent, usually for some
attached to or logically associated with the criminal purpose.
electronic data message: A. Black Hat Hackers
A. electronic key B. Gray Hat Hacker
B. originator C. White Hat Hackers
C. electronic signature D. Any color
D. electronic date message 2612. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is
2603. Only a computer forensic expert should search known as “Back to Islam”.
for any evidence contained in a computer A. Abu Sayyaf
hardware. B. MILF
A.The statement is absolutely correct C. Je naah Islamiya
B.The statement is absolutely wrong D. Rajah Solaiman Movement
C.The statement is partially correct
D.The statement is partially wrong 2613. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon
2604. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of with the capacity to indiscriminately kill large
1998: numbers of people.
A. RA 8551 A.Nuclear
B. RA 8484 B.Weapon of mass destruction
C. RA 9160 C.Anthrax
D. RA 9165 D.Chemical weapons
2605. What is the name of the operation launched by 2614. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest
US Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden? criminal organization in the world.
A.Operation Geronimo A. Al Qaeda
B.Operation Jabbidah B. Jihad
C.Operation Neptune Spear C. Chinese Mafia
D.Operation Merdeka D. Nuestra Costra
2606. These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT?
A. The Neopolitan Camera 2615. What is the constant temperature at which the
B. Sinilian Mafia vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the
C. Cali Cartel atmospheric pressure?
D. Sacra Corona Unita A. vapor density
2607. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 B. fire point
to establish a shared database among B. boiling point
concerned agencies for information on D. vapor pressure
Page 134 of 227
G.S.T. 2019
 2626. 236. This is the normal/ common behavior of
2616. It is a combustion product and a manifestation fire in a building:
of fire when it is in its gas-phased combustion. A.It only moves horizontally
A. Flames B.It has a circular movement
B. Exothermic reaction C.It moves sideways while moving vertically
C. Endothermic reaction D.It has a circular movement while moving
D. NONE horizontally
2617. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot 2627. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space
at the bottom or a vessel being heated due to containing an oxygen-starved superheated
incomplete combustion and has a low product of incomplete combustion or oxygen-
temperature. deficient free radicals, may result to an
A. Luminous explosion, which is called:
B. Non-luminous A. Spontaneous ignition
C. Laminar B. flashover
D. Turbulent C. Backdraft
2618. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ____. D. Flash fire
A. Infection
C. shock 2628. It refers to the increase or rising of amperage
B. burns while electric current is flowing in a
D. asphyxiation transmission line resulting to the damage or
2619. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous destruction of insulating materials, maybe
state under pressure and at normal gradual or rapid, internal or external.
atmospheric temperature inside its container? A. Arcing
A. cryogenic gas B. Induced Current
B. liquefied gas C. Over Heating
C. compressed gas D. sparkling
D. nuclear gas 2629. The most common motive for arson is
A. jealousy
2620. When heat is transmitted in circulating B. profit
medium, the method is called ____. C. spite
A. radiation D. revenge
B. oxidation 2630. Which of the following is “prima facie”
C. convection existence of arson?
D. conduction A.inflammable substance found in the
2621. Which of the following does NOT fall under premises
class A fires? B.simultaneous fire in more than one part of
A. none of the choices the building
B. burning nipa hut C.building insurance
C. exploding gas depot D.any of the choices
D. forest fire 2631. What is the process of raising the temperature
2622. Which of the following best illustrate arson? to separate the on-volatile from the less volatile
A.simultaneous fire parts and then cooling and condensing the
B.thick reddish smoke resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly
C.faulty electric wiring purified substance?
D.unexplained explosion A. combustion
2623. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D B. evaporation
fires? C. distillation
A.water is not capable of extinguishing the D. condensation
fire
B.there is the danger of electrocution 2632. What is the instrument used to open and close
C.burning metals are too hot a fire hydrant?
D.explosion may occur A. hydrant key
2624. Mechanical device strategically located in an B. key board
installation or street where fire hose is C. fire hose
connected so that water with pressure will be D. jumper
available to extinguish fire. 2633. What equipment is made of trussed or solid
A. fire hose box beam where rungs are connected horizontally
B. fire truck to the beam forming ascent or descent?
C. hose reel A. rope
D. fire hydrant B. hydrant
2625. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion C. ladder
reaction is known as ___. D. nozzle
A. reducing agent 2634. What are the cross members between the
B. oxidizing agent beam and used in climbing the ladder called?
C. cooling agent A. hangar
D. chemical agent B. beams
C. rungs
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G.S.T. 2019
 D. braces 2644. What color of smoke is present when the
2635. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson materials burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or
cases in our midst, which of the following hay?
facilities should you check? A. Black
A.Gift-wrapped packages B. White
B.Electric switch system C. Yellow
C.Telephones D. Blue
D.All of these 2645. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has
2636. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the been declared, what is the first thing that a fire
highest point of the roof is referred to as: prober must determine?
A. vertical ventilation A.look for survivors
B. cross ventilation B.search for debris
C. forced ventilation C.locate the point of origin
D. horizontal ventilation D.established corpus delicti
2637. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a 2646. Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C
fire, the most probable extinguishing method (1000F) is a:
is: A. Combustible liquid
A. smothering B. Corrosive liquid
B. fuel removal C. Flammable liquid
C. cooling D. Volatile liquid
D. dilution 2647. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy;
2638. The most important element of Fire? however examination of lungs and blood
A.Fuel showed no abnormal quantity of carbon
B.Chemical chain reaction monoxide or dioxide, what will be your
C.Heat interpretation under such circumstance?
D.Oxygen A.The person died because of asphyxia
2639. A complete and detailed checked of the B.The person died because of the burning
structures and material involved in the fire to C.The person was killed before it was burned
make sure that every spark and ember has been D.The person died not of fire but because of
extinguished and to have assurance against suffocation
A. Overhaul 2648. What type of ladder is best suited for
B. Rescue firefighting operation involving high-rise
C. Salvage building?
D. None A. attic
2640. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a B. extension
hose they usually lean forward on the hose. C. aerial
What is the most likely reason for taking this D. hook
position? 2649. 257.What type of ground ladder which contains
A.The stream is projected farther only one section, it ranges between 12 to 16
B.The surrounding air is cool making the feet.
firemen comfortable A. Straight ladder
C.A backward force is developed which must B. Attic ladder
be counter acted C. Extension ladder
D.The firemen can see better when the D. Wall ladder
stream strikes 2650. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to
2641. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, facilitate flame propagation.
the crime that you have to file is: A. Plant
A. murder with arson B. Trailer
B. arson with murder C. Accelerant
C. murder D. Gasoline
D. arson 2651. Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober.
2642. This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical A. Witness
powder intended to fight all classes of fires. B. Society
A. H20 C. First responder
B. Liquefied D. Owner
C. Dry Chemical 2652. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines.
D. Soda Acid A. RA 9514
2643. All except one are aggravating circumstances in B. PD 1185
Arson. C. RA 8294
A.If committed with intent to gain: D. RA 8484
B.If committed with the benefit of another: 2653. All BUT one are the basis of criminal liability in
C.If the offender is motivated by spite or Arson.
hatred towards the owner or occupant of A.Kind and character of the building burned
the property burned: B.Location of the building
D.If committed by a syndicate C.Extent or value of the damage
E.None of the Above D.Whether inhabited or not
E.None of the choices
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G.S.T. 2019
 2654. The amount of drug that produces untoward C. Papayer Somniferum
effect of symptoms of poisoning. D. claviceps purpurea
A. Minimal Dose 2664. Opium subjected to Marquis Test will run into
B. Abusive Dose ___ specs.
C. Toxic Dose A. Blue
D. Maximal Dose B. Orange
C. Violet
2655. A kind of Drug users, whose activities revolve D. Red
almost entirely around the drug experience and 2665. PDEA is headed by Director General with the
securing supplies. rank of ___
A. Situational A. Assistant Secretary
B. Hard-core B. Secretary
C. Hippies C. Chairman
D. Spree D. Undersecretary
2656. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are 2666. What is the minimum age required to be able to
quickly absorbed by the rich capillary system, it become a PDEA agent?
is probably the second most commonly used A. 16
route of drug administration, B. 18
A. Snorting C. 21
B. inhalation D. s25
C. oral ingestion 2667. The Academy shall be headed by a ____, with
D. Injection the rank of Director. He/She shall be appointed
2657. Among the countries involved in the first by the ___.
important drug traffic route, which is A. Chairman/President
responsible for preparation for distribution? B. Secretary/PDEA DG
A. Middle East C. CSUPT/President
B. USA D. SUPT/PDEA DG
C. Turkey 2668. The policy-making and strategy-formulating
D. Europe body in the planning and formulation of policies
and programs on drug prevention and control
A. PDES
B. DDB
C. PNP Narcotics
2658. Which among the following responsible for D. NBI Narcotics
producing almost 60% of Opium in the world. 2669. They serve as permanent consultant of the
A. Golden triangle Dangerous Drug Board:
B. Golden Crescent A.NBI Director and PNP Director General
C. Silver Triangle B.PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
D. White Christmas C.PNP Director and PDEA Director
2659. What countries constitute the Golden D.Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice
Crescent? 2670. If the clandestine laboratory is established in
A.Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India the following circumstances such will serve as
B.Peru, Columbia, Bolivia Aggravating Circumstances:
C.Burma, Laos, Thailand A.Conducted in the presence or with the
D.Myanmar, Laos, Thailand help of minor/s
2660. It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in B.Established within one hundred (100)
Europe”. meters of a residential, business, church
A. Philippines or school premises.
B. Mexico C.Secured or protected with booby traps
C. Spain D.Concealed with legitimate business
D. Lebanon operations
2661. It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve pain and E.Employment of a practitioner, chemical
often induce sleep. engineer, public official or foreigner
A. Sedatives F.all of the choices
B. Stimulants 2671. The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed
C. Hallucinogen of how many Ex-officio Members?
D. Narcotics. A. 2
2662. It is the most important alkaloids and C. 2
constitutes about 10% of the use raw opium. B. 12
A. Morphine D. 17
B. Heroin 2672. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
C. Codeine A.Its branches which occur at opposite
D. Opium points on the stalk
2663. The drug taken from the cola bust plant B.Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
Ertyroxylon coca. C.Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets
A. Cocaine whose edges are serrated in shape.
B. Marijuana
Page 137 of 227
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 D.Its pungent scent when matured or fully
grown.
2673. What agency of the government supervises
drug rehabilitation centers and drug testing
networks and laboratories?
A.Department of Interior and Local
Government
B.Department of Health
C.Department of Justice
D.Department of Social Welfare and
Development
2674. The term of office of the Chairman of the
Dangerous Drug Board:
A. 2 years
B. 6 years
C. 4 years
D. co-terminus
2675. The penalty imposed for possession of
Dangerous Drug Paraphernalia shall be:
A.6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of
50 to 200 thousand pesos.
B.6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine of
10 to 50 thousand pesos.
C.4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to 40
thousand pesos.
D.6 months rehabilitation
2676. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs
into the body of any person with or without
his/her knowledge either by injection
inhalation, ingestion or other means.
A. Administer
B. Use
C. Dispense
D. Deliver
2677. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made
secretly that makes it detection quite difficult.
Various techniques were made by its operator
in concealing their activities.
A. Hide-out operation
B. Safe house
C. Clandestine Operation
D. Drug Syndicate
2678. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect
on:
A. June 7, 2002
B. July 4, 2002
C. July 30, 2002
D. June 18, 2003
2679. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug
Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT
A.Officers and Employee of public and
private offices.
B.Applicant for firearms license and for
permit to carry firearms outside residence
C.Officers and Members of the Military,
police and other law enforcement agencies
D.All candidates for public office whether
appointed or elected both in national or
local government units.
E.All persons charged before the
prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense
G.S.T. 2019
having an imposable penalty of not less
than six (6) years and one (1) day.
2680. Apprehending team having initial custody and
control of dangerous drugs or controlled of
chemical, or plant sources of dangerous drugs
or laboratory equipment shall immediately
after seizure, physical inventory and
photograph the same in the presence of the
following, EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items were
confiscated or his representative or
counsel.
B.A representative from the media.
C.A representative from the DOJ.
D.Any elected public official.
E.None of the choices
2681. Apprehending team having initial
custody and control of dangerous drugs or
controlled of chemical, or plant sources of
dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall
immediately after seizure, physical inventory
and photograph the same in the presence of
the following, EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items were
confiscated or his representative or counsel
B.A representative from the media
C.A representative from the DOJ
D.Any elected public official
E.None of the choices
2682. In what quantity of specimen should be taken
by forensic examiner of drugs for scientific
analysis:
A.Not more than five (5) grams per
package/bag
B.Not more than three (3) tablets for
capsules or tables
C.Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid
solution
D.Not more than ten (10 grams) for dried
leaves and not more than 2 plants.
E.All of the choices
2683. The following shall not be subject to Mandatory
Drug Testing EXCEPT:
A.Students of Secondary and Tertiary
Schools
B.Persons apprehended or arrested for
violation of the Provision of Comprehensive
Dangerous Drug Act.
C.Officers and Employee of public and
private offices
D.A and C only
2684. Preliminary Investigation of cases involving
dangerous drugs shall be terminated within a
period of:
A. 180 days
B. 45 days
B. 30 days
D. 60 days
2685. An analytical test using some tools or device
design to validate or affirm the result of a
preliminary or screening test.
A. Screening test
B. Confirmatory rest
C. Physical test
D. Chemical Test
Page 138 of 227
 2686. The ____ shall designate special courts from D. None of these
among the existing RTC in each judicial region 2695. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more as
to exclusively try and hear cases involving a cough reliever?
violation of RA 9165. A. morphine
A. DOJ B. cocaine
B. Supreme Court C. opium
C. DDB D. codeine
D. Sandiganbayan 2696. When drunken person does not know the
intoxicating strength of the beverage he has
taken.
A. involuntary
B. Intentional
2687. The law that penalized the use and possession C. Habitual
or the unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile D. Coma
substances is: 2697. Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of which
A. P.D. 1519 leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption
B. P.D. 1916 of the mind and body.
C. P.D. 1619 A. Morality
D. P.D. 580 B. Vices
2688. A laboratory examination is only required to C. Prostitutions
apprehend offender within 24 hours if the D. Gambling
person arrested has: 2698. After filling of the criminal cases, the court shall
A.Physical sign of drug abuse conduct ocular inspection of the confiscated,
B.Symptoms of Drug abuse seized and/or surrendered dangerous drugs,
C.Visible manifestation that suspect was and controlled precursors within:
under the influence of drugs A. 24 hours
D.All of the choices B. 30 days
2689. Within how many minutes after intake of C. 72 hours
alcoholic beverage is the absorption is faster? D. 48 hours
A. 20 to 30 minutes 2699. That part of the body most affected to by heavy
B. 30 to 60 minutes drinking are:
C. 10 to 20 minutes A.digestive system and nervous system
D. 50 to 60 minutes B.brain and veins of the body
2690. It is the percentage of alcohol blood which C.the lungs and heart
indicates that the person is under the influence D.None of the above
of the liquor (alcohol)? 2700. Can a high school student be compelled to
A. 0.05 undergo drug test?
B. 1.5 A. yes
C. 0.15 B. maybe
D. 0.50 C. upon circumstances
2691. The person who manages houses of ill-refute D. No
where the business of prostitution is 2701. SPO4 Mabagal intentionally failed to appear as
conducted. a prosecution witness during trial of the case
A. Pimp against the alleged drug dealer caught in buy-
B. prostitute bust operation. What will be his penalty?
C. Knocker A.20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment
D. Maintainer B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
2692. The person is argumentative and C. Life imprisonment
overconfident. There is slight impairment of D. Death penalty
mental difficulties.
A. Slight inebriation 2702. PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their
B. Moderate inebriation suspect and PO2 Tayson planted 1 gram of
C. Drunk shabu. Is their penalty the same?
D. Very drunk A. No
B. False
2693. Persons who were found guilty under the C. Yes
Section 70 of RA 9165 is ____: D. True
A.Qualified to apply for probation 2703. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and
B.Disqualified to apply for probation subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct
C.Allowed to apply for probation of investigation involving the violations of RA
D.Not allowed to apply if the sentence is 9165.
more than 6 years and 1 day A. True
2694. What drug is known as the “assassins of the B. Partially True
youth”. C. False
A. Marijuana D. Partially False
B. Ecstacy
C. Shabu
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 C.under six years old
2704. A dangerous drug which predominant D.seven years old and under
legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic. 2714. Marijuana is also known as?
A. Ketamine
B. Codeine A. Coke
C. Anesthesia B. Poppers
D. Sleeping pills C. Cannabis
2705. What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its D. Morphine
2nd violation. 2715. Who will be punished of life imprisonment in
A.6 Months Rehabilitation illegal drug cases?
B.12 Months Rehabilitation A. User
C.6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years B. Pusher
D.12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years C. Possessor
2706. It refers to the willful act of any person of D. Coddler
maliciously and secretly inserting, placing, 2716. Most abuse drugs in the Philippines?
attaching, or adding directly or indirectly, A. Marijuana
through any overt or cover acts: B. Shabu
A. Entrapment C. Cocaine
B. Planting of Evidence D. Morphine
C. Instigation 2717. Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal
D. Black mailing behavior?
2707. It is the Agency of the government that will take A. Yes
charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs B. No
confiscated: C. Sometimes
A. Maritime Police D. It depends
B. Dangerous Drug Board
C. PDEA 2718. It is very important to rehabilitate every drug addict to?
D. NBI A. Reintegrate him to society
E. PNP B. Punish him
2708. “A” was arrested for possessing seven (7) grams C. Give him a lesson
of Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, 2012. Up to D. Incapacitate him
what time and date the arresting officers have
to subject “A” to a drug test as required by the 2719. In investigation, “corpus delicti” means body of the
law? crime scene. Legally, it means
A.7:00 P.M., October 25 A. proof in the commission of crime
B.7:00 P.M., October 24 B. body of the victim
C.8:00 A.M., October 26 C. wrongful act
D.8:00 A.M., October 25 D. none of these
2709. Which among the following data concerning 2720. Deals with the study of major crimes based on the
photographs as evidence is LEAST essential? application of special investigative technique.
A.date and hour which each photograph was A. background investigation
taken B. criminal investigation
B.identification of the police photographer C. preliminary investigation
C.proof of ownership of the camera D. special investigation
D.focal length of the lens 2721. What is the other name for marijuana?
2710. The primary reason a finished sketch is made A. rope
from a rough sketch is for _____. B. grassland
A.scale and proportion C. weed
B.future use D. leaf
C.accuracy and clarity 2722. Purpose of coordination prior to buy-bust operation
D.courtroom presentation regarding drug operation.
2711. All except are object evidence that should be A. information
taken photograph individually, EXCEPT? B. abuses
A. Knife C. integrity
B. Semen D. reliability
C. stone 2723. The Miranda Law in the Philippine setting is:
D. Gun A. RA 7438
2712. All are considered as emergency vehicle, B. RA 8353
EXCEPT? C. RA 9160
A. Police car on call D. RA 9165
B. Ambulance on call
C. Fire Truck on call 2724. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source
D. Physician’s car of a prohibited drug?
2713. Children who are prohibited to be seated in the A. Marijuana
front seat of any running motor vehicle: B. Opium
A.Seven years old C. Coca bush
B.six years and old and under D. Peyote
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2725. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self- which the alkaloid base may be made by treating morphine
awareness and emotion? with acetyl chloride, washing the product with a dilute
A. Narcotics alkaline solution and crystallizing from alcoholic solution?
B. Stimulants A. cocaine
C. Depressants B. codeine
D. Hallucinogens C. heroin
2726. What is that state arising from repeated administration D. paregoric
of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis? 2736. Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as
A. Habituation A. cocaine
B. Drug dependence B. marijuana
C. Drug Addiction C. opium
D. Physical dependence D. shabu
2727. What classification would solvents, paints and gasoline 2737. Is any agent which neutralizes, opposes or counteracts
which are examples of substances that are sniffed to obtain poison or its effect
intoxication fall? A. alkaloid
A. Depressants B. antidote
B. energizers C. emetic
C. inhalants D. titanic
D. tranquilizers
2738. “Shabu” is chemically known as:
2728. What is the act of injecting or that means of A. methamphetamine
introducing the dangerous drug into the physiological system B. methamphetamine HCL
of the body? C. methyl amphetamine
A. Consumption D. methyleneamine
B. Use
C. Administration 2739. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of
D. Abuse potent Cannabis Sativa.
2729. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in A. hashish
obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing about it and using B. marijuana
it to meet his problems and to escape from reality, he is – C. morphine
A. Socially dependent on drugs D. opium
B. Mentally dependent on drugs
C. Psychologically dependent on drugs 2740. Scientific name for cocaine.
D. Physically dependent on drugs A. cannabis sativa
2730. A derivative of opium 5 times more powerful than B. erythroxylon coca
morphine. C. methamphetamine hydrochloride
A. amphetamines D. methyl benzoyl ecgonine
B. cocaine
C. heroin 2741. Analgesic or pain-killing substance that depresses vital
D. iodine body functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and
breathing rate. The regular administration of narcotics will
2731. The most important constituent of opium is the drug: produce physical dependence.
A. cocaine A. depressants
B. codeine B. hallucinogens
C. heroin C. narcotic
D. morphine D. stimulants
2732. The number of persons who handle the evidence from 2742. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the
the scene of the crime and between the times of the deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric current?
commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the A. Topical method
case. B. Injection method
A. chain of custody C. Iontophoresis
B. time of custody D. Oral method
C. time of disposal
D. time of disposition
2733. The substance known as the “miracle drug” refers to:
A. morphine 2743. What part of the globe is the principal source of all
B. cocaine forms of cocaine?
C. heroin A. South East Asia
D. codeine B. South America
2734. The word hashish is derived from the name of C. Middle East
Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashish refers to: D. South West Asia
A. female marijuana plant 2744. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in
B. male marijuana plant A. Columbia
C. marijuana leaves B. India
D. the marijuana resin C. Mexico
2735. What drug is the hydrochloride of an alkaloid D. France
obtainable by the action of acetic anhydride or morphine in
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2745. What is the group of drugs that are considered to be A. opiates
mind altering and gives the general effect of mood B. Track
distortion? C. Shabu
A. Sedatives D. coke
B. Hallucinogens 2755. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-
C. Hypnotic awareness and emotion?
D. Tranquillizers A. Narcotics
2746. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”? B. Stimulants
A. Heroin C. Depressants
B. Marijuana D. Hallucinogens
C. Cocaine 2756. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous
D. Shabu Drugs Act of 2002, Providing Funds Therefore and for Other
Purposes.
2747. Which of the following refers to acute cases of
withdrawal of drugs that causes serious physical illness? A. RA 9165
A. Psychological dependence B. RA 1956
B. Physical dependence C. RA 9156
C. Addiction D. RA 1965
D. Withdrawal syndrome 2757. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug
2748. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from incidents?
injection of hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to A. Reclusion Perpetua
A. liquid amphetamine B. Life Imprisonment
B. Shabu C. Death
C. Heroin D. Fine
D. freebase cocaine 2758. Who is the primary author of RA 9165?
A. Sen. Ramon Revilla
2749. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and B. Sen. Miriam Defensor Santiago
functions of drug use, the more a drug is used the more it C. Sen. Joker Arroyo
tends to D. Sen. Tito Sotto
A. reduce the need for the drug
B. satisfy more than one motive or need 2759. These are the requirements during the conduct of
C. increase the satisfaction of use actual buy-bust operations.
D. give sense of well being A. poseur buyer
B. marked money
2750. Which of the following drugs produces the effect of C. all of the choices
mood elevation, heightened alertness, and increase energy? D. none of these
A. Solvents 2760. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for,
B. LSD or underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by RA
C. Shabu 9165.
D. Narcotics A. employee
B. caretaker
2751. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs C. financier D.
are known as “downers”? lookout
A. Hallucinogens
B. Barbiturates 2761. What do you call a prostitute who offers services
C. solvents to female customers?
D. cocaine a. Johns
b. Gigolo
c. Pimps
2752. Who has committed an act which is punishable under d. Rentboys
RA 6425, as amended, with a penalty range of reclusion 2762. What is the theory of organized crime wherein the
perpetua to death and a fine of P500,000 to P10,000,000.00? penalty of crimes must be severe in order to deter the
A. Pedro who is caught cultivating marijuana commission of crimes?
plants in a plantation in the Cordillera. a. Anomie
B. Julio who was caught for illegal possession b. Deterrence theory
of opium pipes and other paraphernalia. c. Rational choice theory
C. Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful d. None of the above
medical prescription 2763. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal
D. Pablo who maintains a den for the illegal drugs?
use of volatile substances. A. Lot lizards
2753. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central C. Hookers
nervous system and are commonly referred to as “uppers”? B. Skeezers
A. Amphetamines D. Punters
B. Naptha 2764. Globalization refers to the rapid growth and
C. Barbiturates development of what culture?
D. Diazepam a. Northern
2754. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers? b. Eastern
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 c. Western 2778. As a general rule, you should overtake on the
d. Southern left side, except when-
A.the oncoming traffic is free from an
2765. Crimes consummated by the use of computers obstruction
and other highly modern devices. B.the opposite traffic is free from oncoming
a. Transnational crimes motor vehicles
b. white collar crimes C.traversing on a two-way two-lane highway
c. modern crimes D.cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic
d. cyber crimes way
2768. The following are transnational crimes, except 2779. The double solid white line:
a. drug trafficking A.doesn’t allow lane changing
b. gun smuggling B.allows overtaking
c. money laundering C.allows lane changing
d. illegal recruitment D.allows parking
2769. The following countries comprises the Golden 2780. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails
Triangle, except looking for defects in the behavior of the motorists,
a. Thailand pedestrian, vehicles and roadway condition.
b. Laos A. Apprehension
c. Myanmar B. Adjudication
d. Vietnam C. Defection
2770. A term used to describe a place where trafficked D. Prosecution
person are brought and forced to become prostitutes. 2781. Traffic arrest can be made when the following
a. sweat shops are present, EXCEPT:
b. hotels A to avoid continues violation
c. brothels B. offense committed is serious
d. motels C. the violator will not attend in court
2771. Founder of the Abu-Sayyaf Group? D. involved in vehicular accident
a. Khaddafy Janjalani 2782. The following are the good ways of searching
b. Hashim Salamay the scene of hit-and-run accident, EXCEPT:
c. Abdurajack Janjalani A.look over the grounds at what seems to be
d. Nur Misuari the point of collision
B.follow the path that the vehicle took in
2772. It is correct to say that the world’s first traffic leaving the scene
light came into being before the automobile was in C.study the objects the vehicle has struck
use? D.established the identity of the vehicles
A. No 2783. These are the basic steps in traffic accident-
B. It depends investigation, EXCEPT
C. Sometimes A.goes to scene as quickly as possible
D. Yes B.Gassesses the situation and call for
2773. In planning for a traffic control program, which assistance
of the following is NOT a factor to consider C.care to the injured and protect their
A.model of cars and vehicles property
B.existing road /highway system 2462
C.incidence of traffic accidents 2784. A general principle of traffic accident,
D.traffic congestion hazards investigation is to:
A.Look for the key event that causes the
2774. In interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident
accident what is the primary consideration to be B.Regard any unfavorable factor, existing
taken by the police investigator. immediately prior to the accident, as a cause
A.Conduct each interview separately C.Consider violations as primary causes and
B.Listen only to witnesses because they are any factors as secondary causes
not biased D.Consider road conditions as limiting
C.Listen to both sides conditions rather as causes
D.Conduct the interview jointly 2785. One of the following is exempted from paying
2775. When two vehicles approach or enter an 0.01% of the assessed value of a building.
intersection at the same time who shall yield the right A. single family dwellings
of way as a general rule B. department store
A. The driver on the left C. hospitals
B.The faster vehicle D. schools
C.The driver on the right 2786. This marking on the roadway indicates that the
D. The slower vehicle lane is for right turn only:
2776. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, A.Two headed arrow
slow moving vehicles should use the: B.Arrow pointing to left
A.lanes 2 and 3 C.Straight arrow on the pavement
B.outer lanes D.The arrow is pointing to the right
C.inner lanes
D.either the inner or outer lanes
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 2787. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while a. their white bodies are very good materials
observing the flow of traffic tries to attract attention to make drawings.
of the motorists by keeping in full view of traffic: b. it one culture of the Japanese to put tattoos
A. Stationary on their bodies.
B. Visible c. they delight in showing theother members
C.Conspicuous their tattoos.
D. Inconspicuous d. anybody without tattoos are expelled from
2788. Licensed person allowing limited number of the group.
passengers, freight or cargo in public utility truck or 2798. The initiation of the Chinese Triad
buses consists of
A. Operator a. placing a drop of blood of the recruit on a
B. Driver photograph of a saint and then let it burn
C.Conductor on his palm while reciting his oath to the
D. Pedestrian organization.
2789. It is the separation of a traffic unit in motion b. the recruit will drink the blood of a
from an object with which it has collided; the force sacrificed animal mixed with his blood and
between the object ceases at this time. pass beneath an arch of swords while
A. Stopping reciting his oath to the organization.
B. Disengagement c. the recruit will put body tattoos and lift
C. Maximum Engagement three fingers while reciting his oath.
D. Initial Contact d. the recruit will drink the blood of a
2790. A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire sacrificed animal mixed with his blood and a
that is sliding without rotation. Sliding of wheels may picture of a saint will be burned on his palm
be due to braking to collision damage, or rarely, to while reciting his oath.
other circumstances. 2799. What do the Yakuza do with their
A. Skid Mark tattoos?
B.Scuff Marks a. Cover them as they are sacred.
C.Skip skid b. They undress to show everybody their
D. Gas Skid tattoos.
2791. The place and time after or beyond which c. They undress only inside their house.
accident cannot be prevented by a particular traffic d. They only undress during oicho kabu.
unit.
A.point of no escape 2800. What OPLAN was created by the
B.point of Possible Perception PNP as their campaign against most wanted
C.Perception Delay persons and other fugitives?
D.Any of the above a. Oplan Cleansweep
2792. Main cause of human trafficking. b. Oplan Criminal
a. lack of employment opportunities c. Oplan Pagtugis
b. poverty d. Oplan Batas
c. corruption in government 2801. 31. It is a type of anomie wherein a
d. organized crimes person who accepts the cultural goals to
2793. Meaning of the phase Abu Sayyaf become rich but failed to accept the
a. Holder of the sword institutional means of achieving it.
b. Founder of the sword a. Rebellion
c. Bearer of the sword b. Retreatism
d. Keeper of the sword c. Conformity
2794. The other name given to the UN d. Innovation
Convention Against Transnational Crimes 2802. It is a type of anomie wherein an
a. Palerna Convention individual does not accept the cultural goal
b. Paterno Convention but accepted the institutional means of
c. Palermo Convention achieving it?
d. Paderno Convention a. Innovation
2795. A prostitute who solicits customers b. Retreatism
in public places is called c. Rebellion
a. street walker d. Ritualism
b. Johns. 2803. It is referred to as oldest and
c. call boy. biggest criminal organization in the world.
d. whore. a. Mafia
2796. Placement is also called as b. Yakuza
a. heavy soaping c. Chinese Triad
b. banking d. Cali Cartel
c. immersion 2804. The name given to a person
d. spin dry. afflicted with a mental illness wherein he is
2797. The Yakuza has the ritual of sexually aroused by young children.
putting tattoos in almost all parts of their a. Pedophile
bodies. The reason is b. pervert
c. Maniac
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 d. Pedophilia 2815. South America country principal
source of cocaine.
2805. The former and original name of a. Brazil
the Mafia b. Spain
a. Sicilian Clan c. Columbia
b. Code of Omerta d. Chile
c. Mafiosi 2816. Country which is 2/3 controlled by
d. La Cosa Nostra Hezbollah
2806. Moslem who participated in the a. Israel
Afghan war are referred to as b. Gaza Strip
a. Jihadis c. Lebanon
b. Fundamentalists d. West bank
c. Mujaheddins 2817. The smallest terrorist group in its
d. Holy warriors hierarchy.
2807. Founder of the New People’s a. organization
Army of NPA b. faction
a. Jose Mari Chan c. cell
b. Jose Maria Sison d. station
c. Jose Marie Gonzales 2818. Terrorist group responsible for the
d. Jose Maria Sioson bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in
2808. A member of the Bar refers to this Yemen
profession a. Hezbollah
a. judges b. Hamas
b. investigators c. Al Qaeda
c. lawyers d. Fatah
d. prosecutors

2819. One of the most important

2809. The year the UN Convention components of terrorist-related
Against Transnational Crimes was held. investigations is the collection and
a. 2000 preservation of what?
b. 2002 a. physical evidence
c. 2001 b. witnesses
d. 2003 c. information
2810. The founder of the Moro Islamic d. all of these
Liberation Front 2820. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-
a. Nur Misuari Wire Tapping Law.”
b. Khadaffy Janjalani a. RA 4200
c. Hashim Salamat b. RA 4002
d. Abdurajack Janjalani C. RA 2004
D. RA 4020
2811. The founder of the Moro National 2821. Meaning of the term “Jihad”.
Liberation Front a. Holy War
a. Nur Misuari b. Holy Mass
b. Khadaffy Janjalani c. Holy Cow
c. Hashim Salamat d. Holy Ghost
d. Abdurajack Janjaalani 2822. Founder of the terrorist group Al
2812. In the strategy of terrorist, what is Qaeda
used for the people, government and the a. Yasser Arafart
world to know their aims? b. Osama Bin Laden
a. Television c. Abdurajack Janjalani
b. Newspaper d. Abu Nidal
c. Radio 2823. Standard rifle of socialist and
d. All of the choices communist countries
2813. Refers to the terrorist group a. M16
“Soldiers of God”. b. AK47
a. Abu Sayaff c. M14
b. Hezbollah d. Galil
c. Fatah 2824. Terrorist group that operates
d. Hamas within a single state or country.
2814. The most notorious and sought a. Transnational
after terrorist group responsible for the 9/11 b. national
bombing in the USA. c. international
a. Hezbollah d. none of them
b. Al Qaeda 2825. The most wanted terrorist in the
c. Fatah world.
d. Hamas a. Yasser Arafat
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 b. Abu Nidal c. Biological and physiological
c. Osama Bin Laden d. Biblical and Astrological
d. Mohammad Alzawari 2836. What is secreted by the endocrine
2826. It is entitled as, ”An Act to Secure glands which trigger and control many kinds
the State and Protect the People from of bodily activities and behavior?
Terrorism,” a. A.Tears
a. RA 9372 b. B.Hormone
b. RA 9732 c. C.Blood
c. RA 9273 d. Sweat
d. RA 9237 2837. Who among the following has the
2827. It can be defined as the use of authority to conduct examination of a
force of the fear of force to achieve a deceased person?
political end. a. A.Medico Legal prober
a. terrorism b. B.Medical Justice
b. violence c. C.Medico Legal Officer
c. felony d. Medical Scientist
d. criminal act
2828. Who formally organized the
Kuratong Baleleng? 2838. These are the three fold aims of
a. Francisco Manuel the criminal investigator, EXCEPT:
b. Franco Calanog a. to identify the guilty party
c. Fidel Ramos b. to provide evidence of his guilt
d. Fajardo Sebastian c. to locate the guilty party
d. to file charges at the proper court
2839. It is a type of search wherein one
2829. An organized crime in the searcher is assigned to each subdivision of a
Philippines which is made up of former quadrant. Tax evasion
MNLF and MILF rebels. a. zone method
a. A.Lexus Group b. spiral method
b. B.Pentagon Group c. wheel method
c. C.Abu Sayyaf d. strip method
d. D.Ilonggo KFR Group 2840. It is the simplest way to locate
2830. The largest and most powerful points on sketch to give the distances from
triad. two mutually perpendicular lines. common
a. A.Su Yee On
b. B.14K a. surveying methods
c. C.Wo Shing Wo b. cross projection
d. Sham Shui Po c. rectangular coordinates
2831. What numeric code refer to the d. polar coordinate
Dragon head of the chinese triads? 2841. It is existing between the
a. A.438 investigator and the subject, and it is usually
b. B.49 determines the success of the investigation.
c. C.489 a. rapport
d. D.426 b. personality
2832. What do you call the act of lending c. breadth of interest
money in exchange of exorbitant interest? d. the approach
a. Tax evasion 2842. Usually, the conduct of
b. Revolutionary tax investigation must start with this, purposely
c. Sokaiya to develop rapport with the subject, either
d. Loansharking the victim or suspect.
2833. What kind of vices are Lotto and a. opening statement
casino? b. inquiry of subject
a. common c. narration
b. prohibited d. sympathetic approach
c. regulated
d. unusual 2843. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to
2834. What is the penalty of a person increase mental and physical function
using a diplomatic passport in importing a. stimulants
prohibited drugs inside the country? b. Depressants
a. A.8-12 years c. Hallucinogens
b. B.life imprisonment to death d. Narcotics/ Opiates
c. C.40 years to life imprisonment 2844. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’
d. all of the above and medically potent pain killers/ cough
2835. What are the two divisions of suppressants
Criminalistics? a. stimulants
a. Physiacl and metallurgical b. Depressants
b. Scientific and technological
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 c. Hallucinogens a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
d. Narcotics/ Opiates property
2845. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs b. Arson
reducing functional nervous activity. c. malicious mischief
a. stimulants d. no crime
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens 2854. It can effectively assist law
d. Narcotics/ Opiates enforcement agencies in combating
organized crime and terrorism.
a. family
b. school
2846. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs c. NGO
that causes hallucinations and changes our d. Community
perception, thought, emotion and
consciousness and physical function 2855. A massacre that occurred June
a. stimulants 4,1989, China wherein the pro-democracy
b. Depressants protesters was killed
c. Hallucinogens a. Tiananmen square massacre
d. Narcotics/ Opiates b. Beijing square massacre
2847. The following countries which c. Tienanmen massacre
considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also d. Tienanmen square massacre
considered as world’s top supplier for 2856. A case of reckless imprudence
opium. Which of the choices does not occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a
belong. resident from Manila while the victim from
a. Vietnam Quezon City. Where the case should be
b. Iran filed?
c. Afghanistan a. Quezon City
d. Pakistan b. Pasig City
2848. According to PDEA goal that c. Manila
Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country in d. either of the above choices
year___? 2857. It is a willfully and maliciously
a. 2035 placing any dangerous drugs to implicate
b. 2025 person to drug related crime.
c. 2030 a. Buy bust operation
d. 2020 b. Instigation
2849. It is the PDEA campaign to fight c. entrapment
illicit drugs with the participation of the d. planting evidence
community. 2858. September 11, 2001 tragedies is
a. Oplan lambat sibat known as Intelligence_______.
b. operation private eye a. Invalidate
c. operation public eye b. unsolved
d. oplan galugad c. success
2850. In the PNP what campaign was d. failure
created to fight against drug trafficking.
a. Oplan lambat sibat 2859. In investigation wherein a Death
b. operation private eye appearing to be suicidal or accidental it
c. operation public eye should be treated as?
d. oplan cleansweep a. Homicide case
b. Suicide case
2851. A fire just started only a very small c. Murder case
or insignificant portion of house was being d. Any of the choices
damaged. 2860. What is the penalty when a person
a. Consummated arson bringing into country of illegal drugs using
b. Attempted arson diplomatic channel or passport.
c. Frustrated arson a. Life imprisonment
d. No crime b. Life imprisonment-death
2852. When a person sets fire to his own c. death
property under what circumstances which d. no penalty because of immunity
expose to danger of life or property of
another.
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of 2861. In E-crimes it is accessing in order
property to corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information
b. Arson and communication system
c. malicious mischief a. hacking
d. no crime b. Trojan
2853. Burning of house was due to c. virus
lightning as a result of his prayer. d. intellectual property

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 a. Sprinkler
b. Fire pump
2862. The vehicles should not parked at c. Fire hose
these area. d. Hydrant key
a. Private driveway 2871. Descriptive of any material when by
b. intersection its nature or as a result of its reaction with
c. pedestrian lane other elements promotes a rapid drop in
d. fire hydrant temperature of the immediate surroundings.
e. all the choices a. Dust
b. Oxidizing material
2863. What is the penalty when a police c. Pyrolysis
officer failed to appear in court to testify in a d. Cryogenic
drug case without justifiable reason? 2872. Lowest temperature of a liquid in
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment open container at which vapors are evolved
b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment fast enough to support continuous
c. Life imprisonment combustion.
d. Death a. Ignition temperature
2864. Most important equipment in b. Kindling temperature
traffic accident investigation? c. Fire point
a. cellphone d. Flash point
b. camera 2873. The temperature at which
c. Manila flammable liquid form a vapor-air mixture
d. All of the choices that ignites.
2865. What is the penalty when less than a. Ignition temperature
5 grams shabu,heroin,morphine was b. Kindling temperature
confiscated. c. Fire point
a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to d. Flash point
400k 2874. Minimum temperature in
b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to which the substance in the air must
400k be heated in order to initiate or
c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to cause a self-contained combustion
400k without the addition of heat from
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k outside sources.
to 400k a. Boiling point
2866. Refers to the standard arrow b. Ignition temperature
designating the north to facilitate proper c. Fire point
sketch orientation. d. Flash point
a. Proper north 2875. An exothermic chemical change in
b. True north which a combustible material react with an
c. Legend oxidizing agent.
d. Compass direction a. Thermal balance
2867. A search method in which the b. Thermal imbalance
searchers follow each other in the path of the c. Combustion
coiled beginning from the outside proceeding d. Oxidation
toward the center. 2876. Rapid oxidation accompanied by
a. Zone method heat and light.
b. Wheel method a. Pyrolysis
c. Spiral method b. Combustion
d. Strip method c. Detonation
2868. Taking into custody property d. All of the foregoing
described in the search warrant as a result of 2877. A chemical decomposition of
a search, to be utilized as evidence in a case. matter through the action of heat.
a. Seizure a. Pyrolysis
b. Detention b. Combustion
c. Safekeeping c. Detonation
d. Confiscation d. Oxidation
2869. A method of criminal 2878. Measure of the rate of flow of
identification whereby the heat, through unit area of the material with
perceptions of witnesses are key and unit temperature gradient.
criminals are identified by depiction. a. Conduction
a. Verbal description b. Thermal conductivity
b. General photographs c. Radiation
c. Police line up d. Fission
d. Rouge gallery 2879. A means of heat transfer when
2870. Instrument used to open / close energy travels through space or materials as
fire hydrants. waves.
a. Conduction
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 b. Convection 2889. An explosive condition in the
c. Radiation smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a
d. Fission sudden introduction of oxygen.
2880. It is legally classified as arson and a. Flashover
set on purpose with a motive. b. Backdraft
a. Providential fire c. Thermal balance
b. Accidental fire d. Thermal imbalance
c. Intentional fire 2890. Which among the following is the
d. None of the foregoing primary objective in investigating fires?
2881. Malicious and willful burning of a a. To determine its cause
building, defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay b. To prevent recurrence
60 P 788. c. To determine liable persons
a. Arson d. All of the foregoing
b. Providential fire 2891. Reason why fire investigation is
c. Accidental fire unique.
d. None of the foregoing a. It does not conform with regular
2882. First element known to man by investigative procedure
experience, a colorless, tasteless and odorless b. Unavailability of witnesses
gas which supports life and fire. c. Fire destroys evidence
a. Nitrogen d. All of the foregoing
b. Hydrogen 2892. They are fires caused by
c. Oxygen unforeseen acts of God.
d. Neon a. Providential
2883. Known as ignition heat, it refers to b. Accidental
any contrivance to start a fire. c. Intentional
a. Fuel d. Incendiarism
b. Oxygen 2893. A combination of three elements
c. Heat namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.
d. None of the choices a. Fire
2884. Refers to gases liberated by heat. b. Origin of fire
a. Free radicals c. Fire triangle
b. Flash point d. All of the foregoing
c. Thermal balance 2894. Most important part of fire triangle for
d. Thermal imbalance it is what burns.
2885. Refers to the normal pattern or a. Fuel
movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within b. Heat
a building or structure under natural c. Oxygen
conditions. d. Gas
a. Free radicals 2895. A means by which heat is
b. Pyrolysis transformed by a circulating medium either
c. Thermal balance gas or a liquid.
d. Thermal imbalance a. Conduction
2886. In this phase of the fire the b. Convection
maximum heat and its destructive c. Radiation
capabilities is developed. d. Fission
a. Initial phase 2896. The amount of heat necessary to
b. Incipient phase convert solid to liquid.
c. Free burning phase a. Specific heat
d. Smoldering phase b. Latent heat
2887. A burnt pattern of inverted cone c. Heat of Combustion
indicates. d. Heat of fusion
a. The fire triangle 2897. Formed by the incomplete
b. The fingerprint of the fire combustion of acetylene or natural cracking
c. Flashover of hydrogen in the absence of air.
d. Incipient phase of the fire a. Carbon black
b. Lamp black
c. Soot
d. Black bone
2888. An occurrence when the heat has 2898. Matter made up of very fine
brought the combus-tible portion of the ceiling particles and condensed vapor as a result of
to their ignition temperature, it is combustion.
characterized by a sudden burst or shooting a. Fire
forth light and flames. b. Flame
a. Flashover c. Heat
b. Backdraft d. Smoke
c. Thermal balance 2899. Incandescent gases accompanied
d. Thermal imbalance by oxidation.
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 a. Fire a. Plants
b. Flame b. Trailers
c. Heat c. Accelerants
d. Smoke d. Wick
2900. The threat to arson investigators 2910. Act that would remove or
after fire has been contained. neutralize a fire hazard.
a. Backdraft a. Abatement
b. Flashover b. Combustion
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning c. Allotment
d. Falling debris d. Distillation

2901. Color smoke produced 2911. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to

accompanied by red flames indicates the increase mental and physical function
burning of what material? a. stimulants
a. Rubber b. Depressants
b. Nitrogen products c. Hallucinogens
c. Asphalt singles d. Narcotics/ Opiates
d. Chlorine 2912. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’
2902. Which among the following is and medically potent pain killers/ cough
commonly used in fire resistant materials? suppressants
a. Asbestos a. stimulants
b. Diamond b. Depressants
c. Asphalt c. Hallucinogens
d. Cotton d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2903. A form of static electricity of great 2913. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs
magnitude producing tremendous amperage reducing functional nervous activity.
and voltage, it is the most common cause of a. stimulants
providential fires. b. Depressants
a. Rays of the sun c. Hallucinogens
b. Spontaneous heating d. Narcotics/ Opiates
c. Arcing
d. Lighting 2914. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs
2904. Most common source of accidental that causes hallucinations and changes our
fire is related to: perception, thought, emotion and
a. Smoking consciousness and physical function
b. Arcing a. stimulants
c. Sparkling b. Depressants
d. Overloading c. Hallucinogens
2905. A device used by arsonists to spread d. Narcotics/ Opiates
the fire within the room or throughout the 2915. The following countries which
structure. considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also
a. Accelerant considered as world’s top supplier for
b. Plants opium. Which of the choices does not
c. Trailer belong.
d. Wick a. Vietnam
2906. Usually comes in form of b. Iran
combustible liquid which is a contrivance to c. Afghanistan
hasten the start of fire. d. Pakistan
a. Accelerant 2916. According to PDEA goal that
b. Plants Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country in
c. Trailer year___?
d. Wick a. 2035
b. 2025
2907. Most common reason of arson c. 2030
cases. d. 2020
a. Revenge 2917. It is the PDEA campaign to fight
b. Profit illicit drugs with the participation of the
c. Competition community.
d. All of the foregoing a. Oplan lambat sibat
2908. Result of slow oxidation of a b. operation private eye
combustible material. c. operation public eye
a. Spontaneous heating d. oplan galugad
b. Combustible gases 2918. In the PNP what campaign was
c. Combustible dust created to fight against drug trafficking.
d. None of the choices a. Oplan lambat sibat
2909. Refers to the preparation and b. operation private eye
gathering of materials to start a fire. c. operation public eye
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 d. oplan cleansweep b. unsolved
c. success
2919. A fire just started only a very small d. failure
or insignificant portion of house was being
damaged. 2927. In investigation wherein a Death
a. Consummated arson appearing to be suicidal or accidental it
b. Attempted arson should be treated as?
c. Frustrated arson a. Homicide case
d. No crime b. Suicide case
c. Murder case
2920. When a person sets fire to his own d. Any of the choices
property under what circumstances which 2928. What is the penalty when a person
expose to danger of life or property of bringing into country of illegal drugs using
another. diplomatic channel or passport.
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of a. Life imprisonment
property b. Life imprisonment-death
b. Arson c. death
c. malicious mischief d. no penalty because of immunity
d. no crime 2929. In E-crimes it is accessing in order
2921. Burning of house was due to to corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information
lightning as a result of his prayer. and communication system
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of a. hacking
property b. Trojan
b. Arson c. virus
c. malicious mischief d. intellectual property
d. no crime 2930. The vehicles should not parked at
2922. It can effectively assist law these area.
enforcement agencies in combating a. Private driveway
organized crime and terrorism. b. intersection
a. family c. pedestrian lane
b. school d. fire hydrant
c. NGO e. all the choices
d. Community
2931. What is the penalty when a police
2923. A massacre that occurred June officer failed to appear in court to testify in a
4,1989, China wherein the pro-democracy drug case without justifiable reason?
protesters was killed a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
a. Tiananmen square massacre b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment
b. Beijing square massacre c. Life imprisonment
c. Tienanmen massacre d. Death
d. Tienanmen square massacre 2932. Most important equipment in
traffic accident investigation?
a. cellphone
b. camera
c. Manila
d. All of the choices
2924. A case of reckless imprudence 2933. What is the penalty when less than
occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a 5 grams of shabu,heroin,morphine was
resident from Manila while the victim from confiscated.
Quezon City. Where the case should be a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to
filed? 400k
a. Quezon City b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to
b. Pasig City 400k
c. Manila c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to
d. either of the above choices 400k
2925. It is a willfully and maliciously d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k
placing any dangerous drugs to implicate to 400k
person to drug related crime. e.
a. Buy bust operation 2934. Refers to the terrorist group
b. Instigation “Soldiers of God”.
c. entrapment a. Abu Sayaff
d. planting evidence b. Hezbollah
c. Fatah
2926. September 11, 2001 tragedies is d. Hamas
known as Intelligence_______. 2935. The most notorious and sought
a. Invalidate after terrorist group responsible for the 9/11
bombing in the USA.
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 a. Hezbollah b. Abu Nidal
b. Al Qaeda c. Osama Bin Laden
c. Fatah d. Mohammad Alzawari
d. Hamas 2946. It can be defined as the use of
2936. South America country principal force of the fear of force to achieve a
source of cocaine. political end.
a. Brazil a. terrorism
b. Spain b. violence
c. Columbia c. felony
d. Chile d. criminal act
2937. Country which is 2/3 controlled by 2947. The largest and most powerful
Hezbollah triad.
a. Israel a. Su Yee On
b. Gaza Strip b. 14K
c. Lebanon c. Wo Shing Wo
d. West bank d. Sham Shui Po
2938. The smallest terrorist group in its
hierarchy.
a. organization
b. faction
c. cell
d. station
2939. Terrorist group responsible for the
bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in
Yemen
a. Hezbollah
b. Hamas
c. Al Qaeda
d. Fatah
2940. One of the most important
components of terrorist-related
investigations is the collection and
preservation of what?
a. physical evidence
b. witnesses
c. information
d. all of these

2941. Meaning of the term “Jihad”.

a. Holy War
b. Holy Mass 2948. The apprehension or taking into
c. Holy Cow custody of a child in conflict with the law by
d. Holy Ghost law enforcement officers or private citizens is
2942. Founder of the terrorist group Al
termed as:
Qaeda
a. Yasser Arafart
b. Osama Bin Laden A.Arrest
c. Abdurajack Janjalani B.Initialcontact
d. Abu Nidal C.Childcustody
2943. Standard rifle of socialist and D. All of the above
communist countries
a. M16
2949. It is the study of human society, its
b. AK47
c. M14 origin structure, functions and direction.
d. Galil a. criminology
2944. Terrorist group that operates b. sociology
within a single state or country. c. psychology
a. Transnational d. anthropology
b. national 2950. The science of classifying the
c. international
physical characteristics.
d. none of them
2945. The most wanted terrorist in the a. free will
world. b. positivism
a. Yasser Arafat c. atavism
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 d. somatology d. authority
2951. The approach that is using the 2960. This refers to a significant loss of
perspective of heredity in explaining the contact with reality.
cause of crime. a. split mind
a. geographical approach b. psychosis
b. biological approach c. neurosis
c. psychiatric application d. schizoprenia
d. psychological application
2952. The purpose of penalty in the 2961. What is a person who kills 3 or more
positivism school of criminology. in a separate events?
a. retribution A.mass murder
b. rejection B. serial killer
c. reformation C.homicidal
d. restoration D. spree killer
2953. It is the study of formation of the 2962. A bank robber who kills some
skull in relation to the behavior of the individual in the bank, flees with hostages,
criminal. and kills a number of people while in flight
a. entomology diving a chase would be an example of:
b. penology
c. phrenology A. Serial Murder
d. criminology B. Spree Murder
2954. Children shall be given priority C. Mass Murder
during_____ as result of armed conflict.? D. Multiple Murder
a. war 2963. What is the legal term for
b. treatment nighttime?
c. evacuation A. sanctuary
d. education B.absurdity
2955. Science concerned with improving C. ephitomy
the quality of offspring. D. nocturnity
a. criminology 2964. These are the rights of an accused
b. eugenics
that are derived from special laws enacted by
c. genetics
d. heredity Congress.
A. Constitutional rights
B. Civil rights
C.Statutoryrights
2956. Commonly known as victimless D. Natural rights
crime: 2965. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of
A.occassional crime the national total crime volume of 84, 875,
B.political crime How many crimes were reported to the
C.public order crime police?
D. conventional crime a. 22, 868
2957. A child whose basic needs have b. 22, 068
been deliberately unattended. c. 20, 250
a. abandoned child d. 32, 644
b. dependent child 2966. What is the antonyms of the word
c. abusive child arrest?
d. neglected child A. Apprehend
2958. The principle that events including B. Search
criminal behavior that has sufficient causes.. C. Set free
a. atavism D. Renounce
b. narassism 2967. How many members composed the
c. determinism “Pangkat?”
d. positivism A. 1 member C.
2959. An established and generally 2 members
accepted moral values refer to. B. 3 members
a. integrity D. 4 members
b. morality
c. ethical standard

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 2968. Murder cases numbered 180 in 2976. This theory suggest that females
2010 and 220 in 2011. What was the percent and males are becoming equal in society in
increase? terms of family, politics, and education
A. Feminist Theory
a. + 22.2%
B. Paternalism
b. + 20.2% C. Liberation Theory
c. + 22.0% D. Life Course Theory
d. + 20.1% 2977. In the power control theory by
2969. If the population in municipality A is Hagan, which father and mother share similar
195, 000 and the crime volume is 2, 540, what roles in the workplace and power in the
is the crime rate? family
A. Feminist theory
a. 1230.6
B. Egalitarian family
b. 1465.2 C. Patriarchal family
c. 1302.6 D. Matriarchal family
d. 1203.5 2978. These views suggest that males
2970. In 2011 there were 90,345 crimes such as judges, police officers, and
reported to the police. If the 2011 population prosecutors tend to have traditional views on
was 63 million what was the crime rate? women thus, they are more lenient to them
as compared to their male counterparts.
a. 147.5 b. 145.7
A. Paternalism
c. 143.4 B. Chivalry Hypothesis
d. 154.7 C. Masculinity
2971. In 2000 the police recorded a total D. Power Control Theory
of 84,875 crimes committed. If the 2979. This new branch in criminology
population was 62 million what was the crime opposes the theoretical perspective and
proposes the involvement of all stakeholders
rate?
in the use of non violent solutions
a. 139.6 b. 193.6 A. Peacemaking Criminology
c. 136.9 B. Sociology of Law
d. 163.9 C. Restorative Justice
2972. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of D. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
the national total crime volume of 84, 875, 2980. This crimes are those that the lower
how many crimes were reported to the class commit against the upper class of
society in a capitalist system
police?
A. Crimes of Passion
a. 20, 250 B. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
b. 32, 644 C. Crimes of domination and Repression
c. 22, 068 D. Crimes of Lower class group
d. 22, 858 2981. The ruling class in a capitalist
2973. If the 128 murder cases in City B system is the
A. Proletariat
represent 40% of the total murder cases in
B. Bourgeois
the province, what is the total value for
C. Capitalist
murder cases province wide? D. Ruling class
a. 120 2982. Who proposed the theory of
b. 420 capitalism and invoked communism as a
c. 430 remedy?
d. 340 A. George Vold
B. Karl Marx
2974. This theory views crime and
C. Emile Durkheim
delinquency as a result of the frustration and
D. Max Weber
anger people experience over their inability
2983. This theory believes that society is
to achieve legitimate social and financial
divided into two groups with competing
success.
values the upper class and lower class.
a. strain theory
A. Class Theory
b. psychological theories
B. Differential Opportunity
c. differential association theory
C. Conflict Theory
d. labeling theory
D. Consensus Theory
2984. A problem that occurs when
2975. This theory suggest that stability offenders who have been released from the
and changes in criminal and deviant behavior system are placed in a program simply
through time and different stages in life. because the program exist.
A. Self Derogation Theory A. Diversion Movement
B. Anomie Theory B. Intervention
C. Life Course Theory C. Net widening
D. Routine Activities Theory D. Primary Deviance
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 2985. The term criminology was originally 2995. Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled woman
derived from Italian word: in making deception through verbal
a. crimen communication. She had committed estafa to
b. criminologo several persons through illegal recruitment.
c. criminologia What crime according to result did she
d. criminologie committed?
2986. It is the scientific study of crime and a. acquisitive crime
the effort of the society to prevent and b. extinctive crime
repressed them? c) instant crime
a. Crime d) situational crime
b. Criminology 2996. It refers to the study of the role of
c. Victimology the victim in the commission of a crime.
d. Criminal justice a. criminal victim
2987. The study of Criminology involves b. criminal psychiatry
the use of knowledge and concept of other c. victimless crime
sciences and field of study which makes the d. victimology
study of criminology: 2997. It is the scientific study of human
a. Dynamic behavior or man’s external manifestation in
b. Nationalistic relation to criminality.
c. Social science a) Epidiomology
d. An applied science b) Criminal Psychiatry
2988. Criminal ________ refers to the c) Criminal psychology
study of the relationship between criminality d) Physical anthropology
and the inhabitants of a certain locality: 2998. A crime can be classified according
a.Ecology to its stages of commission. What crime is
b) Demography committed when the offender merely
c) Epidiomology commences the execution of an offense by
d) Physical anthropology overt act but which nevertheless did not
2989. It is the study of human society, Its perform all acts of execution which would
origin, structure, functions and direction. produce the felony by reason of some cause
a. Sociology other than his own spontaneous desistance?
b. Criminology a. Attempted crime
c. Psychology b. Consummated crime
d. Anthropology c. Frustrated crime
2990. It deals primarily with the study of d. Complex crime
crime causation. 2999. It is the process by which individual
a. Criminology reduce the frequency of their offending
b. Criminal Etiology behavior as the age increases.
c. Victimology a. doing gender
d. Criminal Sociology b. aging out
2991. An act or omission in violation of c. criminal reduction
the public law commanding or forbidding it. d. active precipitation
a. Crime 3000. Crimes are classified under the
b. Felony Revised Penal Code according to their gravity.
c. Offense What crime to which the law attaches the
d. Infraction of law capital punishment or afflictive penalties.
2992. Crimes are committed either by a. grave felonies
dolo or deceit or by _____________. b. less grave felonies
a. Culpa c. light felonies
b. intent d. complex felonies
c. Fault 3001. What crimes according to the time
d. both a and c or period of the commission are those which
2993. The following are the elements of are committed only when the circumstances
Dolo or deceit, EXCEPT: or situation is conducive to its commission
a. Intelligence like for instance, committing theft in a
c. Freedom crowded place.
b. Intent a. seasonal crimes
d. Negligence b. instant crimes
2994. Perla, a victim of rape, was able to c. situational crimes
identify her assailant, a neighbor, before he d. continuing crimes
dies on her way to the hospital where she was 3002. There are crimes that are
declared dead on arrival, This crime is called, committed within a certain length of time.
a. complex crime What crime is committed by a series of acts in
b. simple crime a lengthy space of time?
c) instant crime a. static crime
d) situational crime b. instant crime
c. situational crime
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 d. episoidal crime c. phrenology
3003. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, d) psychology
and others which are committed to maintain 3012. It is a proposal of a double male or
one’s livelihood or as a means for living are super male syndrome. This theory held that
what crimes? the possession of an extra Y-chromosome
a. Rational crimes causes males to be violent and aggressive.
b. Irrational crimes a. XYY syndrome b XXY
c. Blue-collar crimes syndrome
d. White collar crimes c. YYX syndrome d. YXX
3004. It is that element of intentional syndrome
felony which means that the person who 3013. A phenomenon that refers to the
committed the felony has the capacity to handling down of delinquent behaviors as
distinguish between what is right and wrong socially learned and transferred from one
and fully understands the consequences of generation to the next taking place mostly
his actions: among disorganized urban areas.
a. intelligence a. Cultural Transmission b) Social
b. imprudence Phenomenon
c. intent c. Crime d)
d. freedom Delinquent behavior
3005. A psychological disorder in which a 3014. In this theory of crime causation,
child shows developmentally inappropriate mankind is viewed as manifestations of
impulsivity, hyperactivity and lack of basically evil human nature reflecting either
attention. with the prince of darkness or an expression
a. psychotism of divine wrath.
b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder a. Classical theory
c. neuroticism b. positivist theory
d. KSP disorder c. Demonological theory
3006. The commission of criminal acts d. neo-classical theory
using the instruments of modern technology 3015. An attempt to determine
such as computers or the internet. intelligence and personality on the basis of
a. cyber sex the size and shape of the skull.
b. cyber crime a. Physiognomy
c. computer crimes b. palmistry
d. computer hacking c. Craniology
3007. An act in violation of the criminal d. Somatotype
law that is designed to bring financial gain to 3016. It involves the measurement of
the offender. facial and other body characteristics as
a. organized crime indicative of human personality.
b. economic crime a. Physiology
c. cyber crime b. somatotype
d. profit crime c. Physiognomy
3008. This term literally means “little d. Palmistry
war”. Today, the term is used 3017. According to Sheldon, the three
interchangeably with the term “terrorism”. “somatotypes” or body built which have
a. violence relationships to personality characteristics
b. revolution are the following, EXCEPT:
c. guerilla a. Ectomorph
d. rebel b. extomorph
3009. The killing of a large number of c. Endomorph
people over time by an offender who seeks to d. Mesomorph
escape detection. 3018. A type of violent offender who uses
a. road rage violence as a means of perpetrating the
b. hate crime criminal act:
c. mass murder a. Culturally violent offender
d. serial murder b. pathologically violent offender
3010. Known as the “Mother of c. Criminally violent offender
Criminals”. d. d. situationally violent offender
a. Margaret Juke b. Ada 3019. One way of classifying criminals is
Kallikak on the basis of etiology. What kind of criminal
c. Ada Juke is that whose action arises from the intra-
d. Ada Edwards psychic conflict between the social and anti-
3011. It refers to an study showing the social components of his personality?
relationship between the physical built of a a. Acute
person to his personality structure and the c. Chronic
type of offense he is most prone to commit b. neurotic
a. physiognomy b) d. normal
somatotype
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 3020. Criminals can also be classified c. Emile Durkheim
according to this behavioral system. What are d. Enrico Ferri
those criminals who have high degree of
organization that enables them to commit 3029. This theory contested the findings
crime without being detected and usually of Beccaria’s Free Will Study, stating that its
operates in a large scale? absence among mentally retardate persons
a. ordinary criminals or those with some psychological imbalances
b. professional criminals and personality disorders or physical
c. situational criminals disabilities, could likewise lead to violation of
d. organized criminals laws thereby citing said theory as one of
3021. A forcible sex in which the offender crime causation.
and the victim are acquainted with each a. Classical Criminology
other. b. Positivist Criminology
a. statutory rape c. Neoclassical Criminology
b. date rape d. Social Structure Theory
c. marital rape 3030. This refers to the act of killing a
d. acquaintance rape large number of people in a single violent
3022. According to Lombroso, these are outburst.
physical characteristics that distinguish born a. Road rage
criminals from the general population and are b. serial killing
throwbacks to animals or primitive people. c. Mass murder
a. physical deviations d. mass destruction
b. distinguishable traits 3031. A type of sexual deviancy where the
c. atavistic stigmata person achieves sexual gratification by
d. ape-like appearance cruelty, psychotic desire to often torment
3023. It is the most essential part of the torture or otherwise abuse his victim.
definition of the criminal law: a. Masochism
a. elements b. bestiality
b. penalty c. Sadism
c. degree of evidence d. Incest
d. motive 3032. A sexual relationship between
persons closely related by blood.
3024. The concept that conduct norms a. Incest
are passed down from one generation to the b. sadism
next so that they become stable within the c. Masochism
boundaries of a culture. d. rape
a. heredity 3033. These are violent acts directed
b. inheritance toward a particular person or members of
c. cultural transmission group merely because the targets share
d. DNA discernible racial, ethnic, religious or gender
3025. Group of urban sociologists who characteristics.
studies the relationship between a. Violent crimes
environmental conditions and crime. b. hate crimes
a. classical school c. Copy-cat crimes
b. chicago school d. victimless crimes
c. neo-classical school 3034. A term to denote a premeditated,
d. positive school politically motivated violence perpetrated
3026. He is recognized as the first codifier against non-combatant targets by
of laws: subnational groups or clandestine agents,
a. Drakon usually intended to influence an audience.
b. the Hittites a. Rebellion
c. Solon b. piracy
d. Hammurabi c. Terrorism
3027. He said that individuals are like d. little war
human calculators. Before a person commits 3035. It conceded that certain factors
a crime, he first analyzes whether the such as insanity might inhibit the exercise of
satisfaction he would gain is greater than the free will.
possible negative effect he would have to a. Classical theory
suffer if the gets caught doing the crime: b. neo-classical
a. Cesare Beccaria c. Sociological
b. Cesare Lombroso d. positivist
c. Edwin Sutherland 3036. These are crimes committed by a
d. Jeremy Bentham person of respectability and high social status
3028. Who stated that crime is normal in in the course of occupation.
a society? a. Blue collar crimes
a. Cesare Beccaria b. crime of the upper world
b. Cesare Lombroso c. White collar crimes
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 d. crime of the underworld
3037. Public order crime is otherwise
known as: 3045. He introduced the “theory of
a. Violent crimes imitation” which states that individuals copy
b. economic crimes behavior patterns of other individuals, and
c. Organized crimes that those with weaker personalities tend to
d. victimless crimes get influenced easier by those with stronger
3038. The law that provides Board personalities:
Examination for Criminologists in the a. Emile Durkheim b)
Philippines. Adolphe Quetelet
a. R.A. 6975 c) Gabriel Tarde
b. R.A. 8551 d) Enrico Ferri
c. R.A. 6506 3046. A term that used to describe
d. R.A. 8353 motorists who assault each other.
3039. Criminals who have a high degree a. road rage
of organization to enable them to commit b. predation
crimes without being detected. c. hate crime
a. Professional criminals d. serial murder
b. ordinary criminals 3047. This theory argues that intelligence
c. Organized criminals is largely determined genetically; that
d. expert criminals ancestry determines IQ; and, that low
intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is
3040. Who among the following are the linked to behavior including criminal
“Holy Three in Criminology”? behavior:
a. Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria a. Nature Theory
b. Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri b) Psychological theory
c. Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri c) Strain Theory
d. Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso d) Labeling theory
3041. Culture Conflict Theory was
thorough studied by ____ wherein he 3048. The theory which states that
concluded that the main difference between attachment, connection and link to society
a criminal and a non-criminal is that each is will determine whether a person shall
responding to different sets of conduct commit a crime or not:
norms. a. social control
a) Emile Durkheim b) social disorganization
b) Andre Michael Guerry c) social bond
c) Thorsten Sellin d) social learning
d) Abraham Maslow 3049. The philosophy of justice that
asserts that those who violate the rights of
3042. This school of thought in others deserve to be punished. The severity
criminology states that although individuals of the punishment should be commensurate
have self-rule, there are other factors that with the seriousness of the crime.
affect the exercise of their autonomy, which a. restorative justice
cause them commit crimes: b. jus desert
a) neo-classical c. utilitarianism d.
b) utilitarianism equality of punishment
c) classical 3050. A condition in which the glucose in
d) positivist the blood falls below levels necessary for
3043. This theory reflects the way people normal and efficient brain functioning.
react to a given situation based on the social a. hyperglycemia
influences they acquired from other people b. hyperglycomia
that practically determine their behaviors. c. hypoglycemia
This theory likewise serves as the learning d. hypoglycomia
process of delinquent behaviors and 3051. This school on crime causation
considered as one of the most important emphasized economic determinism and
theory in crime causation. concentrated on the need for the quality
a) Social Disorganization theory among all citizens. They provided statistical
b) Culture Conflict theory data which claimed to show that variations in
c) Differential Association Theory crime rates are associated with variations in
d) Social Reaction Theory economic conditions.
3044. It is the breakdown of social order a. Cartographic School
as a result of the loss of order in a society. b. Socialist School
a. synomie c. Psychiatric School
b) anarchy d. Chicago School
c) anomie 3052. “Manie sans delire” (madness
d) chaos without confusion) This was the term used by
Philippe Pinel describing the personality that
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 is characterized by an inability to learn from feeblemindedness is inherited and related to
experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of deviant behavior and poverty. He was the
guilt better known as: first person to use the term “moron”.
a. psychotic personality a. Robert Dugdale
b. psychopathic personality b. Henry Goddard
c. neurotic behavior c. Eaenest Hooton
d. dementia praecox d. Charles Goring
3061. This theory focuses on the
development of high crime areas associated
3053. A police officer’s frustration in the with the disintegration of conventional values
realization of his ambition and goals in life caused by rapid industrialization, increased
both as an officer of the law, and as a migration and urbanization.
private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, a. Cultural Deviance Theory
as pointed out in this particular theory. b. Differential Association Theory
c. Social Disorganization Theory
a. Disorganization Theory d. Strain Theory
b. Culture Conflict Theory
C.Differential Association Theory 3062. A societal stage marked by
d. Strain Theory normlessness in which disintegration and
chaos have replaced social cohesion.
3054. Crimes which occur per 100,000 a. Social disorganization
population per month. It is the theoretical b. Anomie
basis which determines the peace and order c. Strain
situation. d. Synomie
a. index crimes 3063. It is otherwise known as the decline
b. crime rate in criminal activities together with the time.
c. non-index crimes a. Birth cohort
d. crime statistics b. aging out phenomenon
3055. The Idea that low female crime and c. Criminal aging
delinquency rates are a reflection of the d. crime rate
leniency which the police treat female 3064. He invoked that only justified
offenders. rationale for laws and punishment is the
a. Doing gender principle of the greatest happiness shared by
b. masculinity hypothesis the greatest number of people.
c. Chivalry hypothesis a. Utilitatrianism
d. pre-menstrual syndrome b. Jeremy Bentham
3056. A stage of development when girls c. Felicific Calculus
begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers. d. Cesare Beccaria
a. Oedipus complex
b. doing gender 3065. The beginning to have sexual
c. Electra complex feelings for the mother, which occurs during
d. chivalry hypothsis the third year from birth is known as:
3057. The legal principle by which the a. Oedipus Complex
decision or holding in an earlier case becomes b. Inferiority Complex
the standard by which subsequent similar c. Electra Complex
cases are judged. It literally means “to stand d. Incest
by decided cases”. 3066. Serious illegal detention is a crime
a. jus desert committed through series of acts or episodes
b. stare decisis and in much longer time. This crime is
c. story decisis classified as:
d. just stare a. Instant crime
3058. This is a theory by Robert Merton b. episoidal crime
which assumes that people are law abiding c. Situational crime
but under great pressure, they will resort to d. seasonal crime
crime. 3067. The following are the
a. strain theory characteristics of the Classical School of
b. social learning Criminology:
c. cultural deviance I. The basis of criminal liability is human free
d. anomie will and the purpose of penalty is retribution
3059. The first IQ test was developed by a II. Man is essentially a moral creature with an
French psychologist named: absolute free will to choose between right
a. Rafael Garofalo and wrong.
b. Albert Bandura III. Criminals are distinguishable from non-
c. Walter Reckless criminals because of their physical
d. Alfred Binet deviations.
3060. His study focused on the Kallikak IV. That every man is therefore responsible for
family tree and he concluded that his act.
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 3076. The principle of criminal law which
a. I, II, III are correct. is “nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege”
b. I, III, IV are correct. means:
c. II, III, IV are correct. a. An act done by me against my will is not
d. I, II, IV are correct. my act
3068. It conceded factors such as insanity b. There is no crime where no law
might inhibit the exercise of free will. punishing it.
a. Classical theory c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
b. positivist theory d. Mistake of fact is an excuse.
c. Neo-classical theory 3077. He was the one who introduced the
d. radical theory following definition of criminology: “It is the
3069. His great contributions to entire body of knowledge regarding crime as
criminology were the principle of a social phenomenon. It includes within its
utilitarianism and the felicific calculus. scope the process of making laws, of breaking
a. Cesare Beccaria laws and of reacting towards the breaking of
b. Jeremy Bentham the laws”:
c. Cesare Lombroso a) Raffaelle Garofalo
d. Emile Durkheim b) Edwin Sutherland
3070. He propounded the theory of c) Cesare Beccaria
evolution that inspired the now known d) Paul Topinard
“Father of Modern Criminology” to develop 3078. Classical Theory states that
the theory of atavism. individuals have freewill. It is focused on an
a. Cesare Lombroso individual's choice as to whether or not he
b. Charles Goring will commit a crime and the purpose of
c. Cesare Beccaria Classical Theory in giving punishment
d. Charles Darwin is________________.
3071. According to him, people with a) Restoration
criminal behavior, should be prohibited from b) Treatment
having children. c) Retribution
a. Robert Dugdale d) Deterrence
b. Henry Goddard
c. Charles Goring
d. George Wilker 3079. Refers to the circumstances which
3072. It states that individuals are deviant attendant in the commission of a crime serve
mainly because they have been labeled as to increase the penalty, without however
deviant by social agencies and others. The exceeding the maximum of the penalty
notion of deviance is not inherent in the act provided by law for the offense.
itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma a. Justifying
attached to the actor. b. Exempting
a. Containment Theory c. Mitigating
b. Theory of Imitation d. Aggravating
c. Social Process Theory 3080. Those wherein the acts of the
d. Social Reaction theory person are in accordance with the law, hence
3073. Cesare Lombroso classified this he incurs no criminal liability.
type of criminal with five (5) or more atavistic a. Exempting
stigmata. b. aggravating
a. Born-criminal type c. Justifying
b. insane d. Mitigating
c. Criminaloid 3081. Mr. A committed loitering within
d. pseudo-criminal the vicinity of Manila City Hall on January 14,
3074. These are crimes which are wrong 2011. June 14, 2011, a city ordinance was
from their very nature. Examples of these are passed punishing loitering within the vicinity
murder, robbery, and other violations of the of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act
Revised Penal Code. of loitering?
a. Heinous crimes a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
b. mala in se b. Yes under the principle of retroactive
c. Serious crimes effect of criminal law
d. mala prohibita c. No, for the act was done prior to the
3075. These are crimes which are wrong effectivity of the law.
only because there are laws that prohibit d. No, for A did not loiter again.
them in order to regulate an orderly society. 3082. His theory was that God did not
Examples of these are the violations of special make all the various species of animals in two
laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”. days, as what the bible says but rather that
a. Mala prohibita the species had evolved through a process of
b. less grave felonies adoptive mutation and natural selection
c. Mala in se which led to his conclusion that man was
d. light felonies traced to have originated from the apes.
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 a. Jeremy Bentham c. guardian ad litem
b. Charles Darwin d. temporary guardian
c. Prince Charles 3090. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15
d)Charles de Gaulle under 18 is exempt from criminal liability
3083. Having spent half of his life in the unless:
study of the causes of crime and true to his a. he is committed a henious crime
dedication to his lifetime works, upon his b. he is the principal accused
death he willed his brain and body to the c. he acted without discernment
Institute of Anatomy at the University of d. he acted with discernment
Turin in Italy to be further studied. To this, he 3091. The Child in Conflict with the law
was named the “Father of Modern and cannot be prosecuted for the commission of
Empirical Criminology”. the following, EXCEPT:
a) Cesare Beccaria a. mendicancy
b) Edwin Sutherland b. sniffing of rugby
c) Cesare Lombroso c. prostitution
d) Jeremy Bentham d. theft
3084. Having spent half of his life in the 3092. A child left by himself without
study of the causes of crime and true to his provisions for his needs/or without proper
dedication to his lifetime works, upon his supervision falls under what special category
death he willed his brain and body to the of a child?
Institute of Anatomy at the University of a. abandoned child
Turin in Italy to be further studied. To this, he b. abused child
was named the “Father of Modern and c. neglected child
Empirical Criminology”. d. dependent child
a) Cesare Beccaria 3093. In the absence of death of both
b) Edwin Sutherland parents of the child who shall continue to
c) Cesare Lombroso exercise authority over the child?
d) Jeremy Bentham I. Surviving grand parents
3085. Which of the following is NOT II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of
included in the components of criminal age
justice system of the United States? III. Surviving parents of child
a. Law enforcement IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21
b. Corrections years of age.
c. Prosecution a. I, II and IV only
d. Courts b. I and II only
3086. The power of the state to give any c. I, II, III only
form of charity of public nature. It is the d. all of the above
philosophy behind the view that youthful 3094. Is a self-association of peers, bound
offender/child in conflict with the law is the together by mental interest, who acted in
victim of improper care and that the state is concert in order to achieve a specific purpose
duty bound to provide protection. which includes the conduct of illegal activities
a. positivism and control over a particular territory, facility
b. loco parentis or type of enterprises.
c. patria potestas d. a. Juvenile gang
parens patriae b. Organized criminal
3087. Under the law, they are the one c. a bond
responsible for preventing the child from d. street corner gang
becoming addicted to intoxicating drinks,
narcotic drugs, smoking, gambling or any 3095. The court can suspend parental
harmful practices. authority if it finds that the parent:
a. DSWD b. I. Treats the child with excessive
Parents harshness of cruelty.
c. state II. Gives the child corrupting order,
d. police counsel or example
3088. The civil personality of the child is III. Compel the child to beg
deemed to have been commenced upon: IV. Imposed to child disciplinary actions.
a. birth of the child a. I and II only
b. when the child celebrates his first birthday c. I and III only
c. from the time of his conception b. I, II, III and IV
d. upon reaching the age of majority d. I, II and III only
3089. Refers to a person appointed by the 3096. Who among the following is
court to act as the legal guardian of the child considered as “Child in Conflict with the
even though the parents of the child are still Law”?
alive when the best interest of the said child a. Bryan who is 15 years old.
so require. b. Yang who is 10 years old.
a. adopter c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old
b. loco parentis d. anyone of them
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 3097. Refers to the totality of the b. legitimated child
circumstances which are most beneficial for c. legitimate child
the child. d. adopted child
a. child as zone of peace b. nation 3106. This refers to the apprehension or
building taking into custody of a child who committed
c. best interest of the child an offense by the law enforcement officer:
d. presumption of minority a. initial contact with the child
3098. Is the mass obligation which the b. preliminary investigation
parents have in relation to the persons and c. initial investigation
property of their an unemancipated child. d. inquest proceedings
a. Paretal authority 3107. This common procedure applied
b. Patria Potestas when arresting an offender shall NOT be
c. Parens’ Patriae employed when the person who is the
d. Parental Responsibility subject of apprehension is a child.
3099. A person of such age is a. informing the suspect is a child
automatically exempted from criminal b. stating the reason for the arrest
liability but should be taken to the custody c. employing reasonable force
and care of his parents, DSWD representative d. use of handcuffs
or any institution engage in child caring. 3108. It refers to the totality of the
a. 15 years and below circumstances and conditions which are most
b. under 18 years of age congenial to the survival, protection and
c. under 15 years of age feelings of security of the child and most
d. under 21 years of age encouraging to the child's physical,
3100. Refers to a child raise to the status psychological and emotional development. It
of legitimate child by subsequent marriage of also means the least detrimental available
his/her parents. alternative for safeguarding the growth and
a. illegitimate development of the child.
b. legitimated a. Child at risk
c. legitimate b. Best Interest of the Child
d. adopted c. Full development.
3101. In case of separation between d. Child welfare program
parents of the child, a child of such age is 3109. In case of a child in conflict with the
given by the court the preference to choose law his age shall be determine in the absence
between either parents. of proof what principle shall be observed?
a. under 9 years of age a. He is presumed to be minor
b. 7 years of age b. He should prove his age
c. 10 years of age c. The Birth certificate should be produced
d. 5 years of age pending such issuance he should be hold.
3102. Refers to aggregate of persons d. The testimony of the child should be enough
working in commercial, industrial and to prove his age.
agricultural establishments or enterprises 3110. It is the psychological, emotional
whether belonging to the labor or and behavioral reactions and deficits of
management whose primary duty is to care women victims and their inability to respond
for the welfare of the working children. to repeated physical and psychological
a. civic association of adult violence?
b. community A. Battered Woman Syndrome
c. Samahan B. Battered Wife
d. youth association C. Abused Woman
3103. Parental authority is deemed D. Rape trauma syndrome
terminated upon: 3111. Child in conflict with the law may
a. death of the parents undergo diversion program without necessity
b. emancipation of the child of court intervention on the following:
c. death of the child a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
d. All of the choices committee is not more than six (6) years
3104. Which of the following is the best imprisonment;
way for the police to win youth’s trust and b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
confidence? committed exceeds six (6) years
a. be friendly imprisonment;
b. be firm and show them that you are strong c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
c. show to them that your bearing is good committed exceeds six (6) years but not
and stand with pride more than 12 years imprisonment;
d. let them know that you are an agent of a d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
person in authority committed does not exceeds 12 years
3105. A child born inside a marriage imprisonment.
where either party is suffering from an 3112. Once the court, after trial finds that
impediments. a child in conflict with the law is guilty of the
a. illegitimate child crime charged, the court shall:
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 A. Pronounce its judgment; c. abuse
B. Wait for the application for suspension of d. trafficking
sentence of the child and order his turn over to 3120. This refers to the maltreatment of
DSWD. children, whether habitual or not:
C. Automatically place the child in conflict a. exploitation
with law under suspension of sentence. b. abuse
D. Determine the civil liability and order the c. prostitution
final discharge of the child in conflict with the law. d. trafficking
3121. Children are declared as
3113. Once the child in conflict with the ____________ in situations of armed conflict:
law reached the age of 18 while under a. priorities for evacuation
suspended sentence the court may: b. exemptions
A. Order the execution of sentence; c. zones of peace d.
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with shields
the law; 3122. This refers to pledging by the
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain debtor of his or her personal services or those
period or to its maximum age of 21. of a person under his or her control as
D. Any of the above choices security or payment for a debt, when the
3114. All records and proceedings length and nature of services are not clearly
involving children in conflict with the law defined:
from initial contact until final disposition of a. debt bondage
the case shall be: b. involuntary servitude
a. placed in the dockets of court forms part c. abuse
of the public record; d. slavery
b. open to the public; 3123. A working child below fifteen years
c. considered restricted; old may be allowed to work for only _______
d. considered privileged and confidential hours per day:
3115. Mona was charged with vandalism a. eight
on her 18th birthday when she painted her b. four
neighbor’s walls with greeting to herself. How c. five
will you classify Mona as an offender? d. six
a. juvenile offender 3124. Publication of photographs of
b. habitual offender persons or children in various obscene or
c. adult offender indecent poses meant to cause sexual
d. none excitement to those who will see them is a
3116. All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are form of:
correct: a. adult entertainment
a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile b. illegal publication
delinquency when parents find it hard to balance c. obscene material
their jobs with their parental responsibilities d. pornography
b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency 3125. Employers shall provide an
c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency opportunity for education to all working
d. it is only within the family that a child must children up to this level:
learn his life values a. elementary
3117. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, b. college
roams the street 24 hours a day with no place c.secondary
to go, surviving on foods given by kind- d. vocational
hearted people with no one to supervise him 3126. In employing children, the
at his young age of six (6). How do you employment contract must be signed:
categorize Pedro as a child? a) by the Department of Labor and
a. neglected child b. Employment
independent child b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer
c. Abandoned child c) by the child’s parent or guardian
d. dependent child d) and notarized by a Notary Public
3118. Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old mongoloid, 3127. In cases of working children, this
was raped by her addict neighbor, Mr. Go. has the duty of securing the permit from the
How do you classify her as a victim? Department of Labor and Employment:
a. an adult a. parents
b. an insane b. working child
c. a child c. manager
d. an adolescent d. employer
3128. This form of violence includes acts
causing or likely to cause mental or emotional
3119. It is the act of buying and selling suffering of the victim such as but not limited
children: to intimidation, harassment, stalking and
a. exploitation repeated verbal abuse:
b. prostitution
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 a. battery c. battery
b. psychological d. sexual violence
c. sexual 3137. This includes the employment, use,
d. physical inducement or coercion of a child to engage
3129. The crime of human trafficking shall in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct;
be qualified when: the molestation, prostitution and or incest
a) the person trafficked is an elderly with children.
b) the person trafficked is a woman a. sexual abuse
c) the person trafficked is a special child b. physical abuse
d) the person trafficked is a child b. psychological abuse
3130. This refers to any word or deed d. cruelty
which debases, degrades or demeans the
intrinsic worth and dignity of the child as 3138. Refers to a program organized by
human being. travel establishments and individuals which
a. eglect consist of packages or activities, utilizing and
b. psychological abuse offering escort and sexual services as
c. sexual abuse enticement for tourists.
d. cruelty a. prostitution
b. exploitation
3131. The following person are liable for c. sex tourism
child prostitution, EXCEPT: d. pornography
a. those who act as procurer of child 3139. Refers to an intentional act
prostitute committed by a person who knowingly and
b. children recruited as prostitutes without lawful justification follows the
c. managers or owners of the establishment woman or her child or places the woman or
where the prostitution takes place her child under surveillance directly or
d. clients of child prostitute indirectly.
3132. This refers to the use, hiring, a. stalking
employment and coercing of children as b. economic abuse
actors or models in printed pornographic c. battery
materials: d. sexual violence
a. indecent shows 3140. A working child over fifteen but
b. child prostitution under eighteen may work but his work hours
c. obscene publication must not exceed ____ hours:
d. child exploitation a) eight
3133. The legislative act that penalizes b) seven
the acts, means and purposes of human c) ten
trafficking: d) six
a. R.A. 9344 3141. A working child who is below
b. R.A. 7610 eighteen but over fifteen years old may be
c. R.A. 9208 allowed to work between the hours of:
d. R.A. 8043 a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven
to eight o’clock p
3134. 1st. The crime of trafficking in c) six to ten o’clock pm
person is qualified when the trafficked person d) seven to ten o’clock pm
is a child. 3142. It means failure to provide, for
2nd. As a general rule, children below 15 reasons other than poverty, the basic needs
years of age shall not be employed. of the child, such as food, clothing, medical
care, shelter and basic education
a. Both statements are correct. a. sexual abuse
b. The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is b. physical abuse
incorrect. c. psychological abuse
c. The 1st statement is incorrect, the 2nd is d. neglect
correct. 3143. Refers to acts that make or attempt
d. Both statements are incorrect. to make a woman financially dependent.
3135. The “Anti-Violence Against Women a. stalking
and their Children Act of 2004”: b. economic abuse
a. R.A. 9262 c. battery
b. R.A. 7610 d. sexual violence
c. R.A. 9208
d. R.A. 9344 3144. No child shall be employed as a
3136. It refers to an act of inflicting model in any advertisement directly or
physical harm upon the woman or her child indirectly promoting the following:
resulting to the physical and psychological or I. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating drinks
emotional distress. II. pornographic materials
a. stalking III. medicines for use of adults
b. economic abuse IV. cigarettes and any form of gambling
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 a. I, II, III are correct d) abandoned child
b. II, III, IV are correct 3154. This form of violence includes acts
c. I, II, IV are correct causing or likely to cause mental or emotional
d. I, III, IV are correct suffering of the victim such as but not limited
3145. The law that provides special to intimidation, harassment, stalking and
protection of children against child abuse, repeated verbal abuse:
exploitation and discrimination. a) battery
a. R.A. 7610 b) psychological
b. R.A. 9208 c) sexual
c. R.A. 9231 d) physical
d. P.D. 603 3155. A working child who is below
3146. The law prohibiting the worst forms eighteen but over fifteen years old may be
of child labor. allowed to work between the hours of:
a. R.A. 9262 a) six to eight o’clock pm
b. R.A. 7610 b) seven to eight o’clock p
c. R.A. 9231 c) six to ten o’clock pm
d. R.A. 9344 d) seven to ten o’clock pm
3147. This form of child abuse includes 3156. Emancipation takes place when:
lacerations, fractured bones, burns, internal a) the parents decide to emancipate him or
injuries and serious bodily harm suffered by a her
child: b) the child becomes 18 years old
a. psychological c) the child is already married
b. emotional d) the child applies for it
c. physical d) games and gadgets
d. cruelty 3157. The CICL shall be entitled to the
automatic suspension of sentence until the
3148. This refers to offenses where there maximum age of __:
is no private offended party: a) twenty-three
a. Victimology b) eighteen
b. public order crime c) twenty-one
c. Victimless crime d) twenty
d. d. both a and c 3158. In case the child has been found
guilty by the court, he shall be ordered to be
3149. This is the Latin term for parental transferred to _______:
authority: a) a youth rehabilitation center
a) loco parentis b) a youth detention home
b) patria potestas c) a city or municipal jail
c) parens patriae d) an agricultural camp
d) patria adorada 3159. Preliminary investigation shall only
3150. Before any petition for adoption be conducted when the:
may be approved, the adopter and the a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen
adoptee must first undergo a supervised trial b) CICL is disqualified for diversion
custody for a period of: c) CICL acted with discernment
a) at least six months d) victim filed the complaint
b) not more than six months 3160. The law enforcement officer must
c) at least one year ensure that all statements signed by the child
d) not less than one year during investigation are witnessed and signed
3151. This refers to the document issued by the following:
by the court signifying the approval of the a) his parents, lawyer and social worker
application for adoption: b) his parents or guardian
a) decree of adoption c) legal counsel
b) petition for adoption d) social worker
c) annulment 3161. The body search of the child in
d) rescission conflict with the law must be done only by a
3152. This is the legal age in the law enforcement officer:
Philippines: a) who has initial contact
a) twenty-one b) assigned to the case
b) seventeen c) of the opposite sex
c) eighteen d) of the same gender
d) twelve 3162. The first important thing that a law
3153. A child who has been voluntarily or enforcer must do upon initial contact is to
involuntarily committed to the DSWD or to a ____:
duly licensed child placement agency and is a) know the age of the child
free from parental authority: b) notify the local DSWD
a) child legally available for adoption c) call the parents
b) legally-free child d) make a report
c) emancipated child
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 3163. It is the best evidence to prove the conflict with the law as part of the conditions
age of the child in conflict with the law: of diversion:
a) testimony of the parents of the child a) contract of diversion proceedings
b) testimony of the child b) certification of conciliation
c) certificate of birth c) memorandum of agreement
d) school records d) contract of diversion
3164. It is the holding in abeyance of the 3172. A child in conflict with the law who
service of the sentence imposed by the court is under fifteen years of age shall be turned
upon a finding of guilt of the child in conflict over to the ________________ by the police
with the law, whereby the child undergoes for the determination of appropriate
rehabilitation within a fixed period under program:
such terms and conditions as may be ordered a) nearest police station
by the court: b) family
a) probation c) local DSWSD
b) suspension of sentence d) court
c) parole
d) pardon 3173. The diversion proceedings must be
3165. It is a disposition under which a completed within ____ days:
defendant, after conviction and sentence, is a) thirty
released subject to conditions imposed by the b) forty-five
court and to the supervision of a probation c) sixty
officer: d) twenty
a) suspension of sentence 3174. If the court finds that the child in
b) parole conflict with the law is guilty of the crime he
c) probation is accused of doing, the ____________ of the
d) pardon sentence shall automatically be suspended:
3166. A child in conflict with the law is a) imposition
exempted from _____: b) determination
a) both criminal and civil liability c) execution
b) neither criminal nor civil liability d) discharge
c) criminal liability only 3175. The ________________ has the
d) civil liability only right to refuse the diversion program
3167. If the penalty for the crime designed for the child:
committed by the CICL is imprisonment of a) offended party
more than six years, diversion will be within b) parents of the child
the jurisdiction of the ____________: c) victim
a) barangay d) social worker
b) DSWD 3176. When the court decides to execute
c) police the suspended sentence, the child must be
d) court transferred to a:
3168. Discernment is the determining a) youth rehabilitation center
factor if the CICL is over fifteen years old. The b) youth detention home
decision as to whether the child acted with or c) agricultural farm
without discernment is made initially by the d) prison
_______: 3177. It shall be the duty of the
a) social worker ______________________ to make proper
c) law enforcer recommendation to the court regarding the
b) CICL disposition of the child who is undergoing
d) judge rehabilitation while under suspension of
3169. The duty of determining the age of sentence:
the child in conflict with the law lies with the a) prosecutor
_______: b) social worker
a) social worker c) lawyer
b) law enforcer d) judge
c) CICL 3178. All records pertaining to the case of
d) judge the child in conflict with the law shall remain
_______ and ______:
3170. The age of full criminal a) privileged and confidential
responsibility is: b) classified and confidential
a. Less than 18 but more than 70 years old c) privileged and restricted
b. More than 18 but less than 70 years old d) secret and confidential
c. Over 15 but under 18 years old
d. Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years 3179. The age of full criminal
old irresponsibility is:
3171. It pertains to the document that a. Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted
must be signed by the parents of the child in with discernment
b. 18 to 70 years old
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 c. 15 years old and below c. displacement
d. Below 18 even if the act is committed with d. projection
discernment 3189. An uncontrollable, morbid
3180. It refers to the sum total of man's propensity to steal or pathological stealing.
reaction to his environment or the way a. kleptomania
human beings act. b. pyromania
a. Human Beings c. phobia
b. Learning d. Dipsomania
c. Human Behavior 3190. This type of conflict occurs when
d. Stimulus there is an attraction to an object or state of
affairs at the same time repulsion towards
3181. Refers to any behavioral reactions something associated with it.
or reflexes exhibited by people because of a. avoidance-avoidance
their inherited capabilities or the process of c. approach-approach
natural selection. c. approach-avoidance
a. Inherited Behavior d. multiple
b. Inborn Behavior 3191. This is the process of excluding
c. Learned Behavior from the consciousness a thought or feeling
d. both a and c that causes pain, shame or guilt.
3182. It is a behavior pattern where an a. identification
individual return to a state of form b. regression
adjustment and attempt to experience them c. repression
again in memory. d. fixation
a. phobia 3192. This is an attempt to disguise or
b. anger cover-up felt deficiencies or undesirable
b. frustration traits by emphasizing a desirable type of
d. regression behavior.
3183. Defense mechanisms are used to a. rationalization
shield one’s self from _____. b. sublimation
a. anger c. compensation
b. fear d. projection
c. pleasure 3193. Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology
d. pain student, after tasting an unripe mango
3184. Human behavior is man’s response grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
to the interpretation of the ______ from a. olfactory
within the person or from his environment. b. Auditory
a. stimulus c. cutaneous
b. action d. gustatory
c. perception (respose to sensation) 3194. This is a serious mental and
d. inclination emotional disorder that is a manifestation of
3185. This personality system controls the withdrawal from reality.
gateway to action. a. Neurosis
a. alter ego b. Depression
b. Id c. Psychosis
c. ego d. Anxiety
d. Superego 3195. This occurs when goal achievement
3186. What is the process of interpreting is blocked.
our behavior in ways to make it more a. frustration
acceptable to the self usually with the use of b. conflict
good reasons and alibi to substitute for real c. anxiety
cause? d. Depression
a. projection
b. sublimation 3196. The aggregate observable
c. rationalization responses of an organism to internal and
d. Compensation external stimuli.
a. human behavior
3187. Conflicts and their behavioral b. behavior
outcomes are classified as follows, EXCEPT: c. personality
a. avoidance-approach d. attribute
b. avoidance-avoidance 3197. The process by which behavior
c. approach-avoidance changes as a result of experience or practice.
d. approach-approach a. actualization
3188. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, b. learning
boxed a nearby tree manifests what c. thinking
particular defense mechanism? d. feeling
a. repression
b. sublimation
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 3198. This type of conflict occurs when another girl, cries. This is an example of what
there are two desirable but mutually defense mechanism?
exclusive goals. a. Regression
a. avoidance-avoidance b. suppression
b. approach-approach c. Repression
c. approach-avoidance d. displacement
d. multiple 3208. Texting while driving is an example
3199. This type of conflict when there are of what classification of human behavior?
two courses of action, each of which has both a. Habitual
pleasant and unpleasant consequences. b. symbolic
a. avoidance-avoidance c. Instinctive
b. approach-approach d. complex
c. approach-avoidance
d. multiple 3209. It
3200. This is an excessive, irrational and refers to the person’s knowledge of a given
uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural stimulus which largely helps to determine the
situation or object. actual behavioral response in a given
a. melancholia situation.
b. phobia a. Perception
c. exaltation b. awareness
d. Mania c. Sensation
d. Learning
3201. It is characterized by anxiety,
depression and phobia. 3210. A person who is a balanced
a. psychoses introvert and extrovert is said to be:
b. neuroses a. Psychotic
c. abnormality b. ambivert
d. Psychopathy c. Neurotic
d. angry bird
3202. Hydrophobia is fear of ________. 3211. He is known as the “Father of
a. Water Psychoanalysis”.
b. darkness a. Tom Cruise
c. Snakes b. Gina Ferrero-Lombroso
d. deep water c. Sigmund Freud
3203. A distortion in reality such as d. Cesare Lombroso
delusion, hallucination and regression. 3212. Coping mechanism is the way
a. psychosis people react to __________.
b. neurosis a. Fear
c. abnormality b. anxiety
d. psychopathy c. Frustration
3204. A transmission of physical d. Anger
characteristics, mental traits, tendency to
disease, etc. from parents to offspring. 3213. It can be seen among people who
a. heredity handle their problems in a very objective way.
b. environment a. Coping Mechanism
c. inheritance b. Direct Approach
d. Introvert c. Detour
3205. Drug addicts and alcoholics may d. Withdrawal
deny that they have problems. This is a 3214. The most tolerated way of handling
manifestation of what type of defense frustration.
mechanism? a. Defense Mechanism
a. Fantasy b. Direct Approach
b. sublimation c. Detour
c. Denial d. Withdrawal
d. displacement 3215. A type of defense mechanism
3206. Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology whereby a person concentrates in area where
student in the evening session, blames his he can excel.
poor performance in the preliminary a. Displacement
examination to his professor rather than his b. compensation
lack of preparation. This is an example of c. Rationalization
what type of defense mechanism? d. fantasy
a. Reaction formation 3216. What type of defense mechanism is
b. displacement manifested by Pining Garcia when he joined
c. Sublimation the fraternity, Alpha Phi Chupapi, because of
d. rationalization low self-esteem?
3207. Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on her a. Identification
boyfriend when she saw the latter kissing b. projection

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 c. Fantasy c. sabotage
d. regression d. bombing
3217. This refers to an action-producing 3226. It is characterized by infantile level
agent: of response, lack of conscience, deficient
a. Motives feeling of affection to others and aggression
b. Drives to environment and other people.
c. Stimulus a. schizophrenic personality
d. sensation b. psychopathic personality
3218. Human actions in relation to events c. compulsive neurosis
taking place inside the body such as the brain d. neurotic personality
and the nervous system is known as: 3227. Which of the following is not a
a. Neurological common tactic in terrorism?
b. psychological a. robbery
c. Cognitive c. bombing
d. Humanistic b. hijacking
d. kidnapping
3219. A child who is always brushing his 3228. This is an abnormal mental
teeth after eating manifests what particular condition whereby a person performs an act
classification of human behavior? while sleeping.
a. Habitual a. somnambulism
b. complex b. mesmerism
c. Instinctive c. somnolencia
d. symbolic d. delirium
3220. Displaying the diplomas and 3229. Animals are used for the
graduation awards signify one’s academic achievement of sexual excitation and
achievement. This classification of human gratification.
behavior is known as: a. voyeurism
a. Habitual b. fetishism
b. complex c. pedophilia
c. Instinctive d. bestiality
d. symbolic 3230. A person suffers from _____ when
3221. Mathematical ability and English he developed a maladaptive behavior in his
communication skills are examples of what childhood as a result of an external influence
type of human behavior? that later on becomes a part of his lifestyle
a. Learned and which he uses to relate to the world
b. inborn around him.
c. Operant a. personality disorder
d. both a and c b. abnormal behavior
3222. Eating when you are hungry is an c. personality behavior
example of _______ behavior. d. abnormal personality
a. Habitual 3231. These are priorities in a hostage
b. complex taking situation EXCEPT,
c. Instinctive a. Preservation of life
d. Symbolic b. Arrest of hostage taker
3223. It is the ability to withstand c. recover and protect property
frustration without developing inadequate d. involve the media
modes of response such as being emotionally 3232. Containment in a hostage taking
depressed or irritated, becoming neurotic, or situation refers to:
becoming aggressive. a. police handling of the situation
a. Frustration Tolerance b. negotiation
b. Frustration Shield c. contact
c. Frustration Flexibility d. control of area and people
d. all of the above 3233. The cardinal rule to follow in a
3224. Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP hostage taking situation is,
applicant, turned up applying into the Armed a. commanders should not negotiate,
Forces of the Philippines when he failed in the negotiators should not command
initial height and weight measurement stage b. open the communication at once
because he was under height. This is an c. negotiate
example of: d. ask for demands
a. Sublimation 3234. When both hostage and hostage
b. repression taker develop a mutual feeling of sympathy,
c. Substitution understanding, and other shared stand on
d. withdrawal issues, leading them to become enemies of
3225. Which of the following items does the State, this turn referred to as,
not belong to the group? a. Stockholm Syndrome
a. prostitution b. Confrontation
b. assassination c. Negotiation
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 d. familiarization d. fetishism
3235. Motivation is classified under 28
needs. The need to assault or injure is: 3244. It is characterized by infantile level
a. need deference of response, lack of conscience deficient
b. need aggression feeling of affection to others and aggression.
c. need recognition a. schizophrenic personality
d. need order b. psychopathic personality
3236. The need to influence or control c. compulsive neurosis
others is: d. neurotic personality
a. need order 3245. This is a mentally disturbed person
b. need dominance who is opposed to the principles upon which
c. need achievement society is based.
d. need exhibition a. Anti-social
3237. A person has _____ when he/she b. Psychopath
has painful memories associated with some b. Schizophrenic
shocking experience which are repressed and d. Sociopath
cannot be recalled. 3246. A morbid insanity characterized by
a. anxiety a deep and morbid sense of religious feeling.
b. delusions a. mania
c. amnesia b. mania fanatica
d. phobia b. delusion
3238. The first step in hostage taking crisis d. legal insanity
is:
a. crowd control 3247. This is impairment in desire for
c. negotiation sexual gratification in the male or an inability
b. assault to achieve it.
d. traffic control a. masturbation
3239. Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant b. prostitution
takes place pleasure in imagining having c. exhibitionism
sexual relations with newly dead young d. frigidity
female bodies who were victims of suicides or 3248. This is any pattern of behavior
vehicular accidents. What sexual deviant act including a habitual, preferred, and
did Antonio commit? compelling need for sexual gratification by
a. necrophilia any technique, other than willing coitus
b. rape between man and woman and involving
c. incest actions that are directly results in genital
d. none excite.
3240. The most important person in a a. crime against chastity b. acts of
hostage situation: lasciviousness
a. negotiator c. sexual deviation
b. hostage taker d. sexual offenses
c. commander 3249. The best approach in negotiating
d. hostage with a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker
3241. A group of bank robbers barricaded is:
themselves inside the bank together with a. to accept their beliefs as being true
their hostages; their demand is geared b. to try to convince them that their beliefs are
towards: wrong
a. revenge c. to show them that they are just crazy
b. economic gain d. to try to bluff or trick them
c. escape 3250. The following are reasons, why
d. vindication common criminals are easy to negotiate,
3242. In hostage situation, non-verbal except:
communication which indicates openness a. fears of police assault and punishment
and willingness to listen can be shown by: b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant c. they are familiar with police operations and
position tactics
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
assurance 3251. In the field of terrorism, the most
c. by not attempting to trick or lie common tactic used is_____?
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that A. Kidnapping
you are willing to negotiate C. Bombing
3243. It is referred to as sexual B. Assassination
gratification by watching nude woman or D. Extortion
man. 3252. A personality disorder
a. exhibitionism characterized by suspiciousness,
b. voyeurism hypersensitivity, envy, excessive self
c. transvestitism important, and argumentativeness, plus a
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 tendency to blame others for one’s own procedures and techniques in dealing with
mistakes and failure and to ascribe evil sudden violent act of terrorist.
motives to others. a. Crisis management
A. Paranoid Personality b. stress mgt.
B. Dependent Personality c. hostage negotiation
C. Schizoid Personality d. political analysis
D. Borderline Personality 3261. Last option in hostage crisis:
3253. A personality disorder a. crowd control b.
characterized by an inability to form social negotiation
relationships and can be classified as c. traffic control d.
“loners”. assault
A. Paranoid Personality 3262. It is any incident in which people
B. Schizoid Personality are being held by another person or persons
C. Dependent Personality D. against their will, usually by force or coercion,
Borderline Personality and demands are being made by the
perpetrator.
3254. A personality disorder a. kidnapping
characterized by instability, reflected in b. crisis management
dramatic mood shifts and behavior problems. c. hostage incident
Such individuals are frequently described as d. abduction
impulsive and unpredictable. 3263. “Persons in crisis” are those
A. Borderline Personality B. hostage takers who take hostages:
Compulsive Personality a. by reason of mental illness
C. Passive-aggressive Personality D. Anti- b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair
social Personality and problems
c. for personal reason
3255. When the disorder is characterized d. because of political and ideological belief
by chronic mental and physical fatigue and by 3264. In psychoanalytic theory, the
various aches and pains, it is considered as: unconscious wish for death is called;
A. Anxiety Disorder A. eros
B. Somatoform Disorder B. animus
C. Dissociative Disorder C. thanatos
D. Amnesia D. lupus
3256. The cardinal rule to follow in a 3265. In a crisis management, there is no
hostage taking situation is, other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS” , which
a. commanders should not negotiate, means:
negotiators should not command a. the truth will prevail
b. open the communication at once b. kill the hostage-taker
c. negotiate c. to save lives
d. ask for demands d. save the host
3257. In general, hostage takers are 3266. When a highly trained and
emotionally tense, when trapped expand a motivated group of hostage takers asked
great deal of emotional physical and psychic non-negotiable demands, they were left with
energy, hence: three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen
the authorities demands to a more realistic proportions; and
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender (3) surrender. If they choose martyrdom and
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them kill hostages, the useful action is:
down a. attack them swiftly with precision
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender. b. withhold the media from the terrorist
3258. Considered as a “mortal sin” in c. give all their demands
hostage situation. d. let the hostages killed
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker 3267. In hostage negotiation, if the
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostage taker demands an
hostages airplane/helicopter, what will you do?
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker a. go to your ground commander
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker b. give it with consent
c. talk to him and delay the moment
3259. They serve as stimuli-producing d. assault and kill him immediately
action that satisfies a need:
a. interest 3268. Considered to be the oldest tactic in
b. perception terrorism:
c. motives a. Prostitution
d. drives b. Bombing
3260. It is an effective planning, c. Assassination
formulation of an effective plan, policies, d. Kidnapping

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 3269. These are important in a hostage 3277. What is known to be the oldest but
taking situation, EXCEPT: commonly used terrorist tactic where target
a. Presence of linguist negotiator are often police, military officials or political
b. Considerable screening of all members figures?
c. Dry run or constant practice a.Hijacking
d. Inclusion of the media people in the b. Ambush
negotiation c.Assassination
3270. It is the position from which a unit d. Kidnap for Ransom
commander and his staff exercise command 3278. The stage of advance planning,
over the hostage incident. organization and coordination and control in
a. command post response to an anticipated future crisis
b. outer perimeter occurrence is called
c. inner perimeter a. Proactive Crisis Management
d. command headquarters b. Reactive Crisis Management
3271. It is an assault team responsible in c. Performance Stage
carrying out assault operation whenever d. Reaction Phase
negotiation fails.
a. Negotiation Team 3279. A comprehensive plan which
b. Medical Team delineates responsibilities and specific action
c. Tactical Team to be taken when a bomb incident or bomb
d. Response Team threat occurs is called
3272. Pursuant to the PNP Police a. Floor plan
Operational Procedures Manual of 2010, this b. Bomb threat plan
group should immediately be activated in c. Drill
case of hostage situation: d. Contingency plan
a. Hostage Negotiation Team
b. Civil Disturbance Management 3280. the crime charged against a child in
Team conflict with the law is more than 12 years of
c. Crisis Management Task Group imprisonment, which will determine whether
d. PNP Command Post diversion is necessary?
3273. P/SSupt. Pablo Job is the highest A. The Police
ranking PNP officer who first arrives in a B. The Prosecutor
hostage taking incident. As a rule he serves C. The Court
now as a ground commander on the said D. The Barangay Chairman
crisis. Having decided to conduct hostage 3281. From the moment a child is taken
rescue operations, the objectives are as into custody, the law enforcement officer
follows, except one: shall immediately but not later than
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or hours after apprehension, turnover custody
unharmed, and set free. of the child to the Social Welfare and
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by Development Office.
yielding to the demands of the hostage A. Nine
takers. B. Eight
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats. C. Seven
d. hostage takers come to the fold of the law by D. Six
surrendering or be incapable of causing
harm 3282. An Act Strengthening the Juvenile
3274. Which of the following is Justice System in the Philippines.
considered least among terroristic tactic? A. RA 9344
a.noise barrage B. RA 10630
b.assassination C. RA 10627
c.bombing D. RA 8960
d.kidnapping 3283. It is one of the most important assets of the nation.
3275. In dealing with the hostage taker, Thus, every effort should be exerted to promote his
the negotiator should not: welfare and enhance his opportunities for a useful and
a.give his name happy life.
b. give his rank and designation A. Teenager
c.give in to all demands B. Kid
d.look friendly or accommodating C. Child
3276. The highest ranking field D. Youth
commander should not also be the chief 3284. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is under
negotiator because: what agency of the government?
A. Department of Justice
a. hostage takers will be afraid B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
b. he is not authorized to grant concessions C. Department of Tourism
c. of conflict of interest as mediator and D. Department of Interior and Local Government
decision maker 3285. It refers to any form of detention or imprisonment, or
d. hostage takers will not trust him to the placement of a child in conflict with the law in a
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 public or private custodial setting, from which the child in 3294. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18
conflict with the law is not permitted to leave at will by years of age at the time of the commission of the crime,
order of any judicial or administrative authority. he is often referred to as?
A. Apprehension A. Socialized delinquent
B. Confinement B. Truant
C. Deprivation of Liberty C. Criminal
D. Incarceration D. Youth offender
3295. What is an institution that receives and rehabilitates
3286. It refers to any organization whose members are 21 youthful offenders or other disturbed children who have
years or older which is directly or indirectly involved in behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the
carrying out child welfare activities and programs. appropriate care for them or recommending their
A. NGO permanent treatment or rehabilitation in other child
B. Youth association welfare agencies?
C. Youth organization A. Rehabilitation Center
D. Civic organization B. Reintegration Center
C. Reformation Center
3287. The taking of the statement of the child in conflict D. Restoration Center
with the law shall be conducted in the presence of the 3296. Which among the following is not part of the rights of
following, EXCEPT. a child in conflict with the law?
A. Child’s counsel of choice A. The right to be imposed a sentence of capital
B. Local Social Welfare and Development Officer punishment or life imprisonment, without the
C. Child’s relative possibility of release
D. Child’s parents B. The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel,
inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment
3288. It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily,
Protection of Children in the formulation and of his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment being a
implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the
programs in the If community. shortest appropriate period of time
A. Women and Children Protection Desk D. The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate
B. Local Government Unit cases
C. Sangguniang Kabataan 3297. It refers to inherited propensities which cannot be
D. Local Social Welfare and Development considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that
3289. It attributes variations in delinquency to influence a crime will be committed.
social structures. A. Precipitating factor
A. Biogenic approach B. Environmental factor
B. Sociogenic approach C. Biologic factor
C. Psychogenic approach D. Predisposing factor
D. All of these 3298. A person who learns the facts or circumstances that
3290. It refers to a person whose behavior results with give rise to the belief that a child has suffered abuse may
repeated conflict with the law. report the same to what agency?
A. Delinquent A. School
B. Habitual delinquent B. Neighborhood Association
C. Juvenile C. Barangay Council
D. Recidivist D. Church
3291. Failure to provide for the child’s support for this 3299. Who are those with any behavioral disorder, whether
period shall be a presumptive evidence of the intent to functional or organic, which of such a degree of severity
abandon. as to require professional help or hospitalization?
A. 3 Months A. Mentally Ill Children
B. 5 Months B. Physically Handicapped Children
C. 4 Months C. Emotional Disturbed Children
D. 6 Months D. Retarded at Maturity
3292. These are undesirable conditions in the community 3300. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and
which are harmful to the youth, EXCEPT. becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a:
A. Gambling Houses A. Social delinquent
B. Recreational Facilities B. Accidental delinquent
C. Vice Dens C. Asocial delinquent
D. Attractive Nuisances D. Neurotic delinquent
3293. This view asserts that children who started 3301. It exists when the children are maltreated, raped or
delinquent careers early and committed violent acts seduced; when children are exploited, over worried or
throughout their adolescence would likely to continue as made to beg in the streets or public places, or when
adults. children are in moral danger, or exposed to gambling,
A. Culture conflict prostitution, or other vices.
B. Persistence A. Physically Neglected Child
C. Containment theory B. Emotionally Neglected Child
D. Reflective role taking C. Psychologically Neglected Child
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3302. The implementation of the comprehensive juvenile A. Diversion
intervention program shall be reviewed and assessed B. Community Service
annually by Local Government Unit and its result shall be C. Parole
submitted by the provincial and city governments to the D. Probation
Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council not later than of what 3311. It is the application of the criminal justice to minors
date of every year? and youthful offender through the cooperation of the
A. February 28 criminal justice system.
B. April 30 A. Child Justice System
C. March 30 B. Youth Justice System
D. May 30 C. Minor Justice System
3303. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with D. Juvenile Justice System
I.Q.s from about 75 to about 89. The members of this 3312. A category of delinquency which may be credited to
classification are only slightly retarded and they can peer pressure or pure curiosity on the part of the young
usually get by in regular classes if they receive some extra person.
help, guidance and consideration. A. Social
A. Trainable group B. Accidental
B. Custodial group C. Neurotic
C. Educable group D. Asocial
D. Borderline or low normal group 3313. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in
3304. It refers to any club, organization or association of an activity.
individuals below twenty-one years of age which is A. Coercion
directly or indirectly involved in carrying out child or youth B. Cruelty
welfare programs and activities. C. Molestation
A. Samahan D. Abuse
B. Student organization 3314. It is otherwise known as Special Protection of
C. Sanguniang Kabataan Children Against Child Abuse, Exploitation and
D. Youth association Discrimination Act of 1992.
3305. A theory that point criminal behavioral patterns to A. RA 6809
childhood socialization and pro or anti social attachments B. RA 9344
over the life course. C. RA 9262
A. Culture conflict D. RA 7610
B. Social development model 3315. It asserts that lower class youths with limited
C. Differential opportunity legitimate opportunity, join gangs and pursue a criminal
D. Containment theory career to achieve alternate means universal success goals.
3306. This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75, A. Culture conflict
and the intellectual development is approximately ½ to ¾ B. Social development model
of that expected of a normal child of the same C. Containment theory
chronological age. D. Differential opportunity
A. Trainable group 3316. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”,
B. Borderline or low normal group which among the following refers to a child who is alleged
C. Educable group as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an
D. Custodial group offense under Philippine laws?
3307. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a A. Juvenile Delinquent
result of factors such as personal problems, ignorance and B. Child in Conflict with the Law
curiosity. C. Minor Offender
A. Predisposing factor
D. Youth Criminal
B. Environmental factor
3317. It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on
C. Biologic factor
delinquency through undertaking preventive programs,
D. Precipitating factor
policies and activities.
3308. This is where the molding of the character of the child
A. Philippine National Police
starts and every member of the family should strive to
B. Department of National Defense
make it a wholesome and a harmonious place.
C. Local Government
A. Family
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B. Home
3318. An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children Below
C. Church
15 Years of Age in Public and Private Undertakings.
D. School
3309. The youth misdeed may be attributed to their A. RA 7610
learning process cultured in on youth gangs, stigmatizing B. RA 9262
contacts with governmental and social control agencies C. RA 7658
and other similar variables. D. RA 9231
A. Biogenic approach 3319. A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs
B. Socio-genic approach and illicit experiences is stressed.
C. Psychogenic approach A. Conflict sub-culture
D. None of the above B. Criminal sub-culture
3310. What program is required for the child in conflict with C. Retreatist sub-culture
the law to undergo after he/she is found responsible for D. All of these
an offense without resorting to formal court proceedings?
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3320. It refers to one with no proper parental care or 3328. A phenomenon that occurs when youth who regard
guardianship, whose abandonment is for a period of at themselves as delinquents are giving an inner voice to
least six months. their perception or view of how significant others feel
A. Neglected Child about them.
B. Deserted Child A. Reflective role taking
C. Unattended Child B. Culture conflict
D. Abandoned Child C. Persistence
3321. It refers to the programs provided in a community D. Containment theory
setting developed for purposes of intervention and 3329. A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the
diversion, as well as rehabilitation of the child in conflict Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
with the law, for reintegration into his/her family and/or duly licensed child placement agency or individual.
community. A. Placement
A. Community Juvenile Programs B. Commitment
B. Community Rehabilitation Programs C. Consignment
C. Community Outreach Programs D. Entrustment
D. Community - Based Programs 3330. Failure to provide the basic needs of a child.
3322. Who shall coordinate with the Local Councils for the A. Abuse
Protection of Children (LCPC) in the formulation and B. Cruelty
implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion C. Exploitation
programs in the community? D. Neglect
A. Sangguniang Kabataan 3331. High moral principles should be instilled in the child
B. Kabataan Partylist by the following, EXCEPT.
C. Commission on Human Right A. Government
D. National Youth Commission B. School
3323. Their degree of success or accomplishment depends C. Home
upon the quality and type of education they receive as D. Church
well as on the treatment at home and in the community, 3332. A child left by himself without provisions for his needs
their I.Q range from about 50 to 75. and / or without proper supervision.
A. Educable A. Unattended Child
B. Custodial B. Neglected Child
C. Borderline C. Dependent Child
D. Trainable D. Abandoned Child
3324. It refers to anti-social act which deviates from normal 3333. It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process
pattern of rules and regulations. of determining the responsibility and treatment of a child
A. Recidivism in conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social,
B. Juvenile delinquency cultural, economic, psychological or educational
C. Quasi recidivism background without resorting to formal court
D. Delinquency proceedings.
3325. It refers to persons and individuals who are effective A. Diversion
deterrents to crime and delinquency such as police or B. Friendly Interview
watchful and concerned neighbors. C. Due Process
A. Clever guardians D. Preliminary Investigation
B. Proficient guardians 3334. Family home type which provide temporary shelter
C. Capable guardians from 10 to 20 days for children under observation by the
D. Qualified guardians DSWD.
A. Receiving homes
B. Maternity homes
C. Nursery
3326. It exists when the child is malnourished, ill clad and D. Shelter care institution
without proper shelter. A child is unattended when left by 3335. His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality
himself without provision for his needs and/or without for which the youth feels no remorse.
proper supervision. What classification of neglected child A. Asocial
is this? B. Neurotic
A. Physically Neglected Child C. Accidental
B. Psychologically Neglected Child D. Social
C. Emotionally Neglected Child 3336. It is known as spontaneous remission, it is the manner
D. Sexually Neglected Child by which an individual reduce the rate of their aberrant
3327. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and behavior as they age.
children in conflict with the law, which provides child- A. Aging-out
appropriate proceedings, including programs and services B. Decadence
for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration C. Desistance
and aftercare to ensure their normal growth and D. Reduction
development. 3337. Who among the following shall primarily ensure that
A. Child Justice and Welfare the status, rights and interests of children are upheld in
B. Youth Justice and Welfare accordance with the Constitution and international
C. Minor Justice and Welfare instruments on human rights?
D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare A. National Youth Commission
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 B. Kabataan Partylist age of majority and stands a good chance of becoming an
C. Commission on Human Rights adult criminal.
D. Sangguniang Kabataan A. Acute offender
3338. Sellin’s study which asserts that it is a condition which B. Severe offender
results from rules and norms of an individual’s sub- C. Chronic offender
cultural affiliation disagreement with the role of demands D. Desperate offender
of conformist society. 3348. A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do
A. Differential opportunity so with a permit or clearance issued by:
B. Culture conflict A. The parents
C. Containment theory B. The guardians
D. Social development model C. Department of Social Welfare and Development
3339. Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some D. Any of the choices
hereditary defect. 3349. This refers to children who are unable to cope with
A. Psychogenic approach their family life and chooses to leave the family home. This
B. Biologic approach is a direct result of feeble-mindedness, disagreeable home
C. Sociogenic approach conditions, broken homes and misdirected fancy for
D. Biogenic approach adventures.
3340. It is characterized by disrespect or disobedience for A. Vagrancy
authority. B. Cheating
A. Emotional Disorder C. Lying
B. Vagrancy D. Stealing
C. Truancy 3350. What is a child caring institution that provides care for
D. Anti Social Behavior six or more children below six years of age twenty-four
3341. These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind, or otherwise hours a day, except those duly licensed to offer primarily
defective which restricts their means of action on medical and educational services?
communication with others. A. Nursery
A. Physically Handicapped Children B. Detention Home
B. Mentally Subnormal C. Day Care
C. Essentially Incurable D. Maternity
D. Retarded at Maturity 3351. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and
3342. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon conditions, which are most congenial to the survival,
any knowledge of a child who have been treated or protection and feelings of security of the child and most
suffered from abuse. encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and
A. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery emotional development.
of abuse A. Anti Youth Exploitation Measure
B. Report the incident to the family B. Special Protection of Minor
C. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority C. Restorative Juvenile Justice
D. File a case in court in behalf of the child D. Best Interest of the Child
3343. Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against 3352. A place of residence whose primary function is to give
any violation of R.A. 7610? shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
A. Parents or guardians A. Maternity home
B. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3rd B. Hospital
degree of consanguinity C. Rehabilitation center
C. Barangay Chairman Officer or DSWD or at least any D. Foster homes
three responsible citizen 3353. This may be demonstrated by any of the following:
D. All of the choices severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal
3344. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result behavior.
of internal conflict and pre-occupation with his own A. Psychological injury
emotion and mood. B. Mental injury
A. Neurotic C. Physical injury
B. Social D. Emotional injury
C. Accidental 3354. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to
D. Asocial address issues that caused the child to commit an offense.
3345. Forcing an activity on the child without consent. It may take the form of an individualized treatment
A. Coercion program, which may include counseling, skills training,
B. Abuse education, and other activities that will enhance his/her
C. Cruelty psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-being.
D. Molestation A. Diversion
3346. View that youth can move in and out of delinquency B. Rehabilitation
and that their lifestyle can adjust and embrace both C. Probation
deviant and conventional values. D. Intervention
A. Swift 3355. If children, whether male or female, who for money,
B. Drift profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion or
C. Coast influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in
D. Waft sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as…
3347. A term coined by Wolfgang to denote a delinquent A. Child Abuse
offender who is arrested more than four times before the B. Child Trafficking
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 C. Child Prostitution stigmatizing contacts with social control agencies and
D. Child Exploitation other variables of that time.
3356. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from A. Biogenic
occurring B. Psychogenic
A. Control C. Phatogenic
B. Recession D. Sociogenic
C. Repression 3365. It plays an active role in the promotion of child rights,
D. Prevention and delinquency prevention by relaying consistent
3357. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, messages through a balanced approach.
it refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as A. The mass media
defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including B. The family
a barangay tanod. C. The community
A. Police Officer D. The educational system
B. Probation Officer 3366. What approach towards delinquency views the
C. Law Enforcement Officer lawbreaker as a person whose misconduct is the result of
D. Public Officer faulty biology?
3358. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately A. Phatogenic
unattended or inadequately attended. B. Biogenic
A. Abandoned Child C. Psychogenic
B. Abused Child D. Sociogenic
C. Neglected Child 3367. In determining whether diversion is appropriate and
D. Dependent Child desirable, the following factors shall be taken into
3359. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years consideration, EXCEPT.
old.
A. Adolescence A. The safety of the child
B. Early adolescence B. The nature and circumstances of the offense charged
C. Juvenile
D. None of the above C. The circumstances of the child
3360. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which D. The best interest of the child
deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, 3368. It refers to offenses, which discriminate only against
custom and culture which society does not accept and a child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for
which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective committing similar acts. These shall include curfew
measures in the public interest and it is being committed violations; truancy, parental disobedience and the like.
by minors? A. Delinquency
A. Juvenile Delinquency B. Exclusive
B. Minor Delinquency C. Status
C. Child Delinquency D. Grave
D. Youth Delinquency 3369. Children detained pending trial may be released on
3361. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in bail or as provided for under Sections 34
conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is and 35 of RA 9344.
mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the A. Probation
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any B. Recognizance
accredited Non-Government Organization immediately C. Parole
but not later than hours after apprehension. D. Bond
A. 8 3370. Which of the following refers to the maltreatment of
B. 24 a minor, whether habitual or not?
C. 12 A. Caress
D. 36 B. Abuse
3362. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by C. Discrimination
aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any D. Exploitation
person who tries to control his behavior. 3371. He is one who is without a parent or guardian, or
A. Neurotic whose parents, guardian or other custodian for good
B. Accidental cause desire to be relieved of his care and custody; and is
C. Asocial dependent upon the public of support.
D. Social A. Abandoned Child
3363. If the parents, guardians or nearest relatives of the B. Neglected Child
CICL refused to take custody, the child may be release to C. Abused Child
any of the following, EXCEPT. D. Dependent Child
A. Duly registered nongovernmental or religious 3372. It refers to aggregate of persons or those responsible
organization persons from various sector of the community.
B. A barangay official or a member of the Barangay A. Organization
Council for the Protection of Children B. Association
C. A local social welfare and development officer C. Club
D. Duly authorized Women and Children Protection D. Samahan
Desk Officer 3373. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short
3364. It accounts for individual offender by reference to term resident care for youthful offenders.
learning process, which goes on in youth gangs, A. Bahay Pag-asa
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 B. Nursery c. Law and order
C. Child caring institution d. Due process
D. Foster home 3381. According to this criminal justice
model, the rights of an individual must be co-
3374. The parents of guardian of a working child is obligated equal with the concern for public safety.
by law to set up a trust fund for the child which shall a. Crime prevention
constitute at least percent of the earning of the child. b. crime control
A. 20 c. Law and order
B. 40 d. due process
C. 30 3382. This concerns to the obligations of
D. 50 the community to individuals, and requires
3375. The chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council fair disbursement of common advantages
under the law is: and sharing of common burden.
A. The undersecretary of the DOJ a. Prosecution
B. The undersecretary of DepEd b. justice
C. The undersecretary of the DILG c. equality
D. The undersecretary of the DSWD d. trial
3376. It refers to a principle, which requires a process of 3383. This function of the law
resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the enforcement is being done through
victim, the offender and the community. It seeks to obtain elimination of factors influencing the
reparation for the victim; reconciliation of the offender, occurrence of crimes, good community
the offended and the community; and reassurance to the relations, educating the citizens about their
offender that he/she can be reintegrated into society. It role, introduction of delinquency prevention
also enhances public safety by activating the offender, the programs, good parenting and others.
victim and the community in prevention strategies. a. Maintenance of law and order
A. Restorative Justice b. Reduction of crime
B. Rehabilitative Justice c. crime prevention
C. Reformative Justice d. crime control
D. Reintegrative Justice 3384. This principal character of the
3377. It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed criminal justice process links all components
by the Department of Social Welfare and Development of the CJS.
(DSWD), LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGOs a. Offender
monitored by the DSWD, which provides care, treatment b. Victim
and rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the c. witness
law. Rehabilitation services are provided under the d. Crime
guidance of a trained staff where residents are cared for 3385. The frontline defender of
under a structured therapeutic environment with the end democracy in the CJS.
view of reintegrating them into their families and a. Prosecution
communities as socially functioning individuals. Physical b. Correction
mobility of residents of said centers may be restricted c. Police
pending court disposition of the charges against them. d. Court
A. Youth Reformation Center 3386. He is responsible in evaluating the
B. Youth Reintegration Center evidence the police have gathered and
C. Youth Rehabilitation Center deciding whether it is sufficient to warrant
D. Youth Restoration Center the filing of charge(s) against the alleged
3378. The child who is under 18-years of age at the time of violator.
the commission of the offense is found guilty of the a. Investigator
offense charged, shall place the child under b. judge
. c. prosecutor
A. Recognizance d. solicitor genera
B. Diversion 3387. He is an arbiter in court who ensues
C. Bail that the defense and the prosecution adhere
D. Suspended Sentence to the legal requirements of introducing
evidences.
3379. Who is the chairman of the Lupon Tagapamayapa in a. Clerk of court
the Barangay Level where there is a diversion program? b. judge
A. Punong Barangay c. sheriff
B. BCPC Chairman d. jury
C. LSWDO 3388. The pillar of the CJS which is not
D. PNP member under the executive branch of the
government.
3380. This criminal justice model is based a. law enforcement (Excutive)
on the idea that the most important function b. court
of the CJS is the protection of the public and c. prosecution (Executive)
the repression of criminal conduct. d. correction (judiciary)
a. Crime prevention
b. Crime control
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 3389. This is a governmental body that is reaching an agreement whereby the
charged with the responsibility of prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the
administering justice. judge a lighter sentence in exchange for the
a. Law enforcement defendant’s entering a guilty plea.
b. correction a. arraignment
c. Prosecution b. preliminary investigation
d. court c. pre-trial
3390. Any person directly vested with d. plea bargaining
jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a
member of some court, Government 3398. The PNP is the law enforcement
Corporation, board or commission. agency of the country which is under the
a. Agent of person in authority ________?
b. Government employee a. DOJ
c. Government officer b. DILG
d. person in authority c. NAPOLCOM
3391. A pillar of CJS which occupies a d. DSWD
unique position in the Philippine Criminal 3399. A person who is under custodial
Justice System serving as the lawyer of the investigation is basically protected by a
State or government in criminal cases. number of rights mandated under the
a. law enforcement constitution and this was even expounded in
b. court the legislative act known as _______?
c. prosecution a. Miranda Doctrine
d. correction b. R.A. 7438
3392. This document is required by the c. Bill of Rights
Prosecutor’s Office before it can entertain a d. R.A. 6975
complaint on a case covered by the Barangay 3400. A body officially assembled under
Court. authority of law in which judicial power is
a. Certificate of Non-Settlement vested or the administration of justice is
b. Certificate of Non-arbitration delegated.
c. Certificate to file action a. court
d. complaint affidavit b. corrections
3393. It refers to the study of the various c. prosecution
agency of our government in charged of d. law enforcement
processing law violators to ensure the 3401. A body of civil authority tasked to
protection of the society and maintenance of maintain peace and order, enforce the law,
peace and order. protect life, liberty and property and ensure
a. Criminology public safety.
b. Criminal Justice a. police
c. Victimlogy b. prosecution
d. Sociology c. court
3394. Refers to the person who is being d. corrections
implicated to the commission of a crime and 3402. System of taking care of the
subject of an investigation. custody, rehabilitation and treatment of
a. Convict persons convicted of committing crime.
b. respondent a. police
c. Accused b. prosecution
d. suspect c. court
3395. Is the machinery of the state which d. corrections
enforces the rules of conduct necessary to 3403. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt
protect life and property and to maintain Practices Act”.
peace and order? a. R.A. 8294
a. Criminal Justice System b. R.A. 7080
b. Criminology c. R.A. 1379
c. Criminal law d. R.A. 3019
d. Criminal jurisprudence
3396. It is that degree of proof requires in
criminal case which would convince a 3404. Exclusive original jurisdiction over
reasonable mind based on moral certainty all offenses punishable with imprisonment
but which nevertheless does not preclude the not exceeding six years.
possibility of error. a. Supreme Court
a. Preponderance of evidence c. RTC
b. Clear and convincing evidence b. Court of Appeals
c. substantive evidence d. MTC
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt 3405. It is otherwise known as the
Department of the Interior and Local
3397. A negotiation between the defense Government Act of 1990, enacted on
counsel and the prosecutor, aimed at
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 December 13, 1990. Established the PNP, violated filed either to the court or to the
BFP, BJMP and the PPSC. office of the prosecutor.
a. R.A. 6975 a. Complaint
b. P.D. 1184 b. Information
c. R.A. 8551 c. Pleadings
d. R.A. 6040 d. Affidavit

3406. Refers to that sector of society 3414. Is an inquiry or proceeding to

composed of NGO’s, cause oriented groups determine whether there is sufficient ground
and advocacy groups that promote the to engender a well-founded belief that a
welfare of the people against all forms of crime has been committed and the
abuse and exploitation. respondent is probably guilty thereof, and
a. crime control should be held for trial.
b. political parties a. preliminary investigation
c. civil society b. Prejudicial question
d. volunteer c. inquest proceeding
3407. It is the process of reducing if not d. custodial investigation
eliminate the existence of a cause from
initially occurring, thus, lessen the police 3415. Preliminary investigation is
work as suppressing the spread of criminality. conducted on cases punishable by:
a. Crime Prevention a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1)
b. Crime control day.
c. Criminal apprehension d. law b. more than four years, two months and one day
enforcement c. less than four years, two months and one day
3408. Directly under the supervision of d. six years, one day and above
the Department of Justice, its most important 3416. It is the actual restraint of a person
function in the Criminal Justice System is to into custody of the law in order for him to
maintain and recognize the rule of law answer for the commission of an offense.
through the speedy d2elivery of services a. Arrest
particularly in the prosecution and b. investigation
investigation of all crimes. c. invitation
a. National Prosecution Service d. seizure
b. PNP 3417. It refers to the ways and means of
c. Ombudsman trapping and capturing the law breakers in
d. Solicitor General the execution of their criminal plan.
3409. What do you call a court covering a. Instigation
two (2) or more municipalities? b. Entrapment
a. MTC c. Investigation
b. MeTC d. Raid
c. MCTC 3418. A pillar of our CJS which is not under
d. MTC’s or interdependent from any branch of
3410. What is that term which refers to government.
the wise use of one’s own judgment in a given a. prosecution
situation without referring to your superior b. correction
due to the eminence of the situation? c. court
a. Police resourcefulness b. Police d. community
discretion 3419. During trial of a criminal case, it is
c. Police integrity d. police the prosecutor who directs the prosecution
prudence of the offense and he/she did it on the behalf
3411. It refers to the art or science of of the state. Once a case is elevated to the
identifying law violators, locating and tracing higher court such as Court of Appeals, who
them in order to affect their arrest and gather represents the State in the prosecution of the
evidence to prove their guilt in court. offense?
a. Crime prevention a. Chief State Prosecutor
b. criminal investigation b. Solicitor General
c. Crime control c. National or provincial prosecutor
d. Intelligence work d. Judge
3412. An attached agency of the Office of 3420. It refers to the questioning initiated
the President tasked to implement and by law enforcement officer after a person has
undertake drug law enforcement. been taken into custody.
a. Narcotics Command a. custodial investigation
b. AID-SOTF b. interview
c. PDEA c. inquest
d. NBI d. interrogation
3413. Sworn statement, subscribed by 3421. In cases committed by Public officer
Offended party, any peace officer of public with salary grade 27 and above in violation of
officer in charged of enforcement of the law Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art. 210 to 212 of the
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 Revised Penal Code a complaint should first a. All of the choices
be filed to the office of _______ for the b. When the crime was committed in the presence of
conduct of the required preliminary the arresting officer.
investigation. c. When the crime was in fact been committed and
a. Ombudsman there is personal knowledge based on probable cause
b. Solicitor General that the person to be arrest has committed it.
c. Judge of MTC d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee
d. the President 3431. It is a process directed to a person
3422. In flagrante delicto means ______? requiring him to attend and to testify or to
a. caught in the act bring with him any books or documents
b. caught after commission under his control at the trial of an action.
c. instigation a. subpoena
d. entrapment b. subpoena ad testificandum
3423. Courts in the Philippines are cloth c. subpoena duces tecum
with the power or try cases submitted to for d. warrant of arrest
adjudication. What term is use in referring to
the authority or power to hear and decided 3432. The “anti-Plunder Act”.
cases. a. R.A. 7080
a. Jurisdiction c. R.A. 3019
b. Venue b. R.A. 1379
c. Jurisprudence d. R.A. 6713
d. Territory 3433. This attached agency of the DOJ is
3424. It is the authority of the court to tasked to provide free legal assistance to poor
try/hear cases for the first time to the members of society:
exclusion of other courts. a. National Bureau of Investigation
a. original jurisdiction b. National Prosecution Service
b. exclusive jurisdiction c. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. appellate jurisdiction d. Public Attorney’s Office
d. concurrent jurisdiction 3434. This is the power to apply the law to
3425. It is the formal reading of the contests or disputes concerning legally
charges against a person accused of a crime recognized rights or duties between the state
and latter asking him whether he pleads and private persons, or between individual
guilty or not to the crime charged. litigants in cases properly brought before the
a. arraignment judicial tribunal.
b. preliminary investigation a. Judicial Power
c. plea b. Judicial Review
d. promulgation of judgment c. Court
3426. It is a body of men created to settle d. Court of Justice
disputes within Barangay level. 3435. This is the process or method
a. barangay tanod whereby accusations are brought before the
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo court of justice to determine the innocence or
c. barangay council guilt of the accused.
d. lupon tagapamayapa a. Prosecutor
3427. It is the most common way by b. Prosecution
which the police discovers or it informed that c. Trial
a crime has been committed: d. Preliminary Investigation
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the 3436. The settlement of a dispute by a
crime. person/s chosen to hear both sides and to
b. When the police discovers the crime come to a decision.
c. When the victim reports the crime a. Mediation
d. When the suspect surrenders b. Settlement
3428. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be c. Arbitration
composed of the Brgy. Chairman as Chairman d. Agreement
of the Lupon and the Brgy. Secretary as the 3437. One who prosecutes another for a
Secretary of the Lupon and other members crime in the name of the government?
who shall be: a. Public Prosecutor
a. more than 10 but less than 20 b. Private Prosecutor
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20 c. Prosecution
c. more than 10 d. Ombudsman
d. less than 10 3438. It refers to the “court of last resort”.
3429. When arrest may be made? a. RTC
a. At any time of the day and night b. Sandiganbayan
b. At day time c. Supreme Court
c. At night time d. MTC
d. from sun dust till dawn 3439. This court was created under RA
3430. Under what circumstances arrest 1125, as amended, which has exclusive
can be made even without a warrant? appellate jurisdiction to review on appeal
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 decisions of the Commissioner of the Internal
Revenue involving internal revenue taxes and
decisions of the Commissioner of Customs
involving customs duties.
a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Court of Tax Appeals

3440. This court has jurisdiction over

crimes committed by high-ranking public
officials (with salary grade of 27 above),
which can only be committed because of
their position.
a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Court of Tax Appeals
3441. It a writ order of the court bearing
its seal and the signature of the judge
directing the jail or prison authorities to
receive the convicted offender for service of
sentence.
a. Commitment Order
b. Mittimus 3442. Is that branch of the criminal justice
c. warrant of arrest system charged with the custody, supervision
d. habeas corpus and rehabilitation of a convicted offender.
a. Penology
b. Probation
c. Correction
d. Criminology
3443. Executive clemencies are acts of
grace exercise by the president. Which of the
following is not one of them?
a. Pardon
b. Amnesty
c. Commutation of Sentence
d. Parole
3444. Prison is a place for confinement of
convicted prisoners. What classification of
prisoners is sentenced to serve a prison term
of one day to three (3) years or whose fine is
less than 6,000 but more than 200 or both?
a. National prisoner
b. City prisoner
c. provincial prisoner
d. municipal prisoner

3445. Prisons are institution for

confinement of convicted offenders
sentenced to more than three (3) years of
imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco-
Roman word _____?
a. Presinto
b. Precindio
c. presidio
d. precinto
3446. There are how many members the
composed the Lupon?
a. 3 members
b. 5 to 10 members

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 c. 10 to 20 members 3454. It refers to the examination of an
d. 5 members individual’s person, house, papers or effects,
3447. It is granted to convicted offenders or other buildings and premises to discover
who have served a portion of their service contraband or some evidence of guilt to be
granted by the Board of Pardons and Parole. used in the prosecution of a criminal action:
a. Pardon a. Search
b. Probation b. seizure
c. Amnesty c. Raid
d. Parole d. entrapment
3448. It is a security facility, usually
operated by the police stations, for the 3455. This court was established by virtue
temporary detention of persons held for of PD1083, otherwise known as “Code of
investigation or awaiting preliminary Muslim Personal Laws of the Philippines”.
investigation before the prosecutor. a. Court of Tax Appeals
a. Lock-up jail b. Shari’a Court
b. Ordinary jail c. Sandiganbayan
c. workhouses d. Family Court
d. prison 3456. Refers to any person below 18
3449. It is a form of motivation granted by years of age or those over but unable to fully
the Director of Prisons whereby a number of take care of themselves from neglect, abuse,
days are deducted from the length of years cruelty, exploitation or discrimination due to
that a prisoner have been sentenced to serve some physical defect or mental disability or
for his good conduct. condition.
a. Commutation of sentence a. child
b. Parole b. wards
c. GCTA c. physically disabled
d. reprieve d. youth
3450. Correctional institutions in the 3457. Act or omission which may not be
country is divided into National and Local punishable if committed by an adult, but
institution. What Department of the becomes unlawful when they are committed
Executive Branch is the one in charge of the by a child or a person of tender year or one
National Penitentiary? who is in need of supervision or assistance.
a. Bureau of Jail Management and a. crime
Penology b. status offense
b. Department of Justice c. delinquency
c.Department of Interior and Local d. felonies
Government 3458. It is the scientific study of crime and
d. Bureau of Correction the effort of the society to prevent and
repressed them?
3451. It is the suffering that is inflicted by a. Penology
the state for the transgression of the law. b. Victimology
a. penalty c. Criminology
b. self-defense d. Sociology of law
c. exemplarity
d. punishment 3459. In hostage situation, non-verbal
communication which indicates openness
3452. City and Municipal is the division of and willingness to listen can be shown by:
our correctional institution which primarily in a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
charge of those detention prisoner, awaiting b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
for final judgment of their trial and serving assurance
short sentences and under the Bureau of Jail c. by not attempting to trick or lie
Management and Penology. While it is true d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are
that even the Provincials Jails like the City and willing to negotiate
Municipal Jails are under the DILG, it is 3460. These are priorities in a hostage
subject to the control and supervision of the taking situation EXCEPT,
__________? a. Preservation of life
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology b. b. Arrest of hostage taker
Department of Justice c. recover and protect property
c. Bureau of Correction d. involve the media
d. Provincial government 3461. A hostage taker is characteristically
3453. This is the process wherein the all of these, EXCEPT
inmate, after serving his sentence, is released a. mental derange
to be able to mingle with the community. b. suffers severe depression and mental aberration
a. Reintegration c. sociopath personality
b. reincarnation d. mental balance
c. Realization
d. Rehabilitation
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 3462. These are not negotiable in a b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to
hostage taking situation: the demands of the hostage takers.
a. guns and ammunition c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
b. drinks d. Hostage takers come to the fold of the law by
c. foods surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
d. all of the choices 3470. In a hostage negotiation and crisis
management practice, it is a “cardinal rule”:
3463. One of the following is not a a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-taker
terrorist tactics: face to face
a. bombing b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated
b. assassination agreement
c. hostage-taking c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker
d. media exposure d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage
3464. In general, hostage takers are taker
emotionally tense when trapped expand a 3471. In a crisis management, there is no
great deal of emotional physical and psychic other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS”, which
energy, hence: means:
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for a. the truth will prevail
the authorities b. kill the hostage-taker
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender c. to save lives
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them d. save the hostages
down
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender 3472. Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a
3465. When a highly trained and hostage negotiation.
motivated group of hostage takers asked a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker
non-negotiable demands , they were left with b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the
three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the hostages
hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen c. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker
demands to a more realistic proportions; and d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage-taker
(3) surrender. If they choose martyrdom and
kill hostages, the useful action is: 3473. Last option in hostage crisis:
a. attack them swiftly with precision a. crowd control
b. withhold the media from the terrorist b. negotiation
c. give all their demands c. traffic control
d. let the hostages killed d. assault
3466. The best approach in negotiating
with a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker 3474. It is any incident in which people
is: are being held by another person or persons
a. to accept their beliefs as being true against their will, usually by force or coercion,
b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are and demands are being made by the
wrong perpetrator.
c. to show them that they are just crazy a. kidnapping
d. to try to bluff or trick them b. crisis management
3467. The following are reasons, why c. hostage incident
common criminals are easy to negotiate, d. abduction
except:
a. fears of police assault and punishment 3475. The following are the priorities in
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers hostage taking situation, except:
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics a. preservation of life
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender b. arrest of the hostage-taker
c. inclusion of the media
3468. Considered as a “mortal sin” in d. successfully negotiate
hostage situation. 3476. “Persons in crisis” are those
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker hostage takers who take hostages:
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the a. by reason of mental illness
hostages b. by reason of prolonged frustration,
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker despair and problems
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker c. for personal reason
d. because of political and ideological belief
3469. P/SSupt. is the highest ranking PNP 3477. This is an assault team responsible
officer who first arrives in a hostage taking in carrying out assault operation whenever
incident. As a rule he serves now as a ground negotiation fails.
commander on the said crisis. Having decided a. medical team
to conduct hostage rescue operations, the b. tactical team
objectives are as follows, except one: c. negotiation team
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed and d. snipers
set free.
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 3478. This asserts that strong self-image d. heredity
protects the youth from the influence and 3487. Commonly known as victimless
pressure of criminogenic pulls in his crime:
environment. A.occassional crime
A. Rational theory
B.political crime
B. Conflict theory
C. Label theory C.public order crime
D. Containment theory D. conventional crime
3479. The apprehension or taking into
custody of a child in conflict with the law by 3488. A child whose basic needs have
law enforcement officers or private citizens is been deliberately unattended.
termed as: a. abandoned child
b. dependent child
A.Arrest c. abusive child
B.Initialcontact d. neglected child
C.Childcustody 3489. The principle that events including
D. All of the above criminal behavior that has sufficient causes..
3480. It is the study of human society, its a. atavism
origin structure, functions and direction. b. narassism
a. criminology c. determinism
b. sociology d. positivism
c. psychology 3490. An established and generally
d. anthropology accepted moral values refer to.
3481. The science of classifying the a. integrity
physical characteristics. b. morality
a. free will c. ethical standard
b. positivism d. authority
c. atavism 3491. This refers to a significant loss of
d. somatology contact with reality.
3482. The approach that is using the a. split mind
perspective of heredity in explaining the b. psychosis
cause of crime. c. neurosis
a. geographical approach d. schizoprenia
b. biological approach
c. psychiatric application 3492. What is a person who kills 3 or more
d. psychological application in a separate events?
3483. The purpose of penalty in the
positivism school of criminology. A.mass murder
a. retribution B. serial killer
b. rejection C.homicidal
c. reformation D. spree killer
d. restoration 3493. A bank robber who kills some
3484. It is the study of formation of the individual in the bank, flees with hostages,
skull in relation to the behavior of the and kills a number of people while in flight
criminal. diving a chase would be an example of:
a. entomology
b. penology A. Serial Murder
c. phrenology B. Spree Murder
d. criminology C. Mass Murder
3485. Children shall be given priority D. Multiple Murder
during_____ as result of armed conflict.? 3494. What is the legal term for
a. war nighttime?
b. treatment A. sanctuary
c. evacuation B.absurdity
d. education C. ephitomy
3486. Science concerned with improving D. nocturnity
the quality of offspring. 3495. These are the rights of an accused
a. criminology that are derived from special laws enacted by
b. eugenics Congress.
c. genetics
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 A. Constitutional rights a. Solicitor General
B. Civil rights b. Public Attorney’s Office
C.Statutoryrights c. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
D. Natural rights
3504. An office which Investigate and
3496. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of prosecute on its own or on complaint by any
the national total crime volume of 84, 875, person, any act or omission of any public
How many crimes were reported to the officer or employee, office or agency, when
police? such act or omission appears to be illegal,
a. 22, 868 unjust, improper or inefficient
b. 22, 068
a. Solicitor General Office
c. 20, 250
b. Public Attorney’s Office
d. 32, 644 c. Ombudsman
3497. What is the antonyms of the word b. Sandiganbayan
arrest? 3505. An office which shall independently
A. Apprehend discharge its mandate to render, free of
B. Search charge, legal representation, assistance, and
C. Set free counselling to indigent persons in criminal,
D. Renounce civil, labor, administrative and other quasi-
3498. How many members composed the judicial cases
“Pangkat?” a. Solicitor General Office
A. 1 member b. Public Attorney’s Office
C. 2 members c. Ombudsman
B. 3 members b. Sandiganbayan
D. 5 members 3506. Is an inquiry or proceeding to
3499. He founded Sociology and applied determine whether there is sufficient ground
scientific methods in the study of society, to engender a well-founded belief that a
which to him passes through stages divided crime has been committed and the
on the basis of how people try to understand respondent is probably guilty thereof and
it, leading them to adopt a rational scientific should be held for trial
understanding of the world. Comte called a. custodial investigation
this the positive stage and those who b. inquest proceeding
followed his writings were called, c. preliminary investigation
a. August Comte b. arraignment
b. Positivists 3507. Is an inquiry made by the duty
c. Positivism prosecutor to determine the legality of the
d. Sociologists arrest made especially those arrests made
3500. Refers to the counsel provided by without a warrant
the government to assist destitute litigant? a. custodial investigation
a. Counsel de officio b. inquest proceeding
b. counsel de parte c. preliminary investigation
c. Public Attorney’s Office b. arraignment
d. volunteer counsel 3508. It is the power to apply the laws to
3501. He represent the government’s contests or disputes concerning legally
position in a criminal case during court recognized rights or duties of and between
proceedings from the time of the suspect’s the state and the private persons or between
arrest until the adjudication of his case. individual litigants in cases properly brought
a. Counsel de officio before the judicial tribunals.
b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office a. court power
d. prosecutor b. legal power
3502. What is the highest rank in the c. judicial power
national prosecution service SERVICE? b. right power
a. Prosecutor V 3509. It has original exclusive jurisdiction
b. Prosecutor IV over public officers accused of committing
c. Prosecutor VI crimes in relation to their official functions
d. Chief Prosecutor and whose salary grade is 27 and above.

3503. The Office of the a. Solicitor General Office

____________represents the Government of b. Public Attorney’s Office
the Philippines, its agencies and c. Ombudsman
instrumentalities and its officials and agents b. Sandiganbayan
in any litigation, proceeding, investigation or
3510. It is said that the home is the
matter requiring the services of lawyers
cradle of human personality, for it where the
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 child develops his fundamental attitudes and proposes the involvement of all stakeholders
habits that last throughout his life in the use of non violent solutions
a. school a. Peacemaking Criminology
b. community b. Sociology of Law
c. barangay c. Restorative Justice
b. family d. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
3511. It is a body of men created to 3519. This crimes are those that the lower
class commit against the upper class of
settle disputes within Barangay level.
society in a capitalist system
a. barangay tanod a. Crimes of Passion
b. barangay council b. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
c. pangkat tagpagkasundo c. Crimes of domination and. Repression
b. lupon tagapamayapa d. Crimes of Lower class group
3520. The ruling class in a capitalist
3512. It refers the process whereby system is the
disputants are persuaded by the Punong a. Proletariat
Barangay or Pangkat to amicably settle their b. Bourgeois
disputes c. Capitalist
a. agreement d. Ruling class
b. conciliation 3521. Who proposed the theory of
c. conference capitalism and invoked communism as a
b. mediation remedy?
3513. This theory views crime and a. George Vold
delinquency as a result of the frustration and b. Karl Marx
anger people experience over their inability c. Emile Durkheim
to achieve legitimate social and financial d. Max Weber
success. 3522. This theory believes that society is
a. strain theory divided into two groups with competing
b. psychological theories values the upper class and lower class.
c. differential association theory a. Class Theory
d. labeling theory b. Differential Opportunity
c. Conflict Theory
3514. This theory suggest that stability d. Consensus Theory
and changes in criminal and deviant behavior 3523. A problem that occurs when
through time and different stages in life. offenders who have been released from the
a. Self Derogation Theory system are placed in a program simply
b. Anomie Theory because the program exist.
c. Life Course Theory a. Diversion Movement
d. Routine Activities Theory b. Intervention
c. Net widening
3515. This theory suggest that females d. Primary Deviance
and males are becoming equal in society in 3524. It conceded factors such as insanity
terms of family, politics, and education might inhibit the exercise of free will.
A.Feminist Theory a. Classical theory
B. Paternalism b. positivist theory
C.Liberation Theory c. Neo-classical theory
D. Life Course Theory d. radical theory
3516. In the power control theory by
Hagan, which father and mother share similar 3525. His great contributions to
roles in the workplace and power in the criminology were the principle of
family utilitarianism and the felicific calculus.
a. Feminist theory a. Cesare Beccaria
b. Egalitarian family b. Jeremy Bentham
c. Patriarchal family c. Cesare Lombroso
d. Matriarchal family d. Emile Durkheim
3517. These views suggest that males 3526. He propounded the theory of
such as judges, police officers, and evolution that inspired the now known
prosecutors tend to have traditional views on “Father of Modern Criminology” to develop
women thus, they are more lenient to them the theory of atavism.
as compared to their male counterparts. a. Cesare Lombroso
a. Paternalism b. Charles Goring
b. Chivalry Hypothesis c. Cesare Beccaria
c. Masculinity d. Charles Darwin
d. Power Control Theory 3527. According to him, people with
3518. This new branch in criminology criminal behavior, should be prohibited from
opposes the theoretical perspective and having children.
a. Robert Dugdale
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 b. Henry Goddard
c. Charles Goring 3535. Refers to the circumstances which
d. George Wilker attendant in the commission of a crime serve
to increase the penalty, without however
3528. It states that individuals are deviant exceeding the maximum of the penalty
mainly because they have been labeled as provided by law for the offense.
deviant by social agencies and others. The a. Justifying
notion of deviance is not inherent in the act b. Exempting
itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma c. Mitigating
attached to the actor. d. Aggravating
a. Containment Theory 3536. Those wherein the acts of the
b. Theory of Imitation person are in accordance with the law, hence
c. Social Process Theory he incurs no criminal liability.
d. Social Reaction theory a. Exempting
3529. Cesare Lombroso classified this b. aggravating
type of criminal with five (5) or more atavistic c. Justifying
stigmata. d. Mitigating
a. Born-criminal type
b. insane 3537. A place of residence whose primary function is to give
c. Criminaloid shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
d. pseudo-criminal a. Maternity home
3530. These are crimes which are wrong b. Hospital
from their very nature. Examples of these are c. Rehabilitation center
murder, robbery, and other violations of the d. Foster homes
Revised Penal Code. 3538. This may be demonstrated by any of the following:
a. Heinous crimes severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal
b. mala in se behavior.
c. Serious crimes a. Psychological injury
d. mala prohibita b. Mental injury
3531. These are crimes which are wrong c. Physical injury
only because there are laws that prohibit d. Emotional injury
them in order to regulate an orderly society. 3539. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to
Examples of these are the violations of special address issues that caused the child to commit an offense.
laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”. It may take the form of an individualized treatment
a. Mala prohibita program, which may include counseling, skills training,
b. less grave felonies education, and other activities that will enhance his/her
c. Mala in se psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-being.
d. light felonies a. Diversion
3532. The principle of criminal law which b. Rehabilitation
is “nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege” c. Probation
means: d. Intervention
a. An act done by me against my will is not my 3540. If children, whether male or female, who for money,
act profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion or
b. There is no crime where no law punishing it. influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in
c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one. sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as…
d. Mistake of fact is an excuse. a. Child Abuse
3533. He was the one who introduced the b. Child Trafficking
following definition of criminology: “It is the c. Child Prostitution
entire body of knowledge regarding crime as d. Child Exploitation
a social phenomenon. It includes within its
scope the process of making laws, of breaking
laws and of reacting towards the breaking of 3541. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from
the laws”: occurring
a) Raffaelle Garofalo a. Control
b) Edwin Sutherland b. Recession
c) Cesare Beccaria c. Repression
d) Paul Topinard d. Prevention
3534. Classical Theory states that 3542. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”,
individuals have freewill. It is focused on an it refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as
individual's choice as to whether or not he defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including
will commit a crime and the purpose of a barangay tanod.
Classical Theory in giving punishment a. Police Officer
is________________. b. Probation Officer
a) Restoration c. Law Enforcement Officer
b) Treatment d. Public Officer
c) Retribution 3543. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately
d) Deterrence unattended or inadequately attended.
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 a. Abandoned Child a. Davao penal farm
b. Abused Child b. Sablayan penal colony
c. Neglected Child c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
d. Dependent Child
d. Iwahig penal colony
3544. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years
old. 3552. Which is called the finest penal
a. Adolescence farm in the world?
b. Early adolescence a. Davao penal farm
c. Juvenile b. Sablayan penal colony
d. None of the above c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
3545. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which d. Iwahig penal colony
deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation,
3553. . Under the UN Standard Minimum
custom and culture which society does not accept and
which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective Rules for treatment of Prisoners, which of
measures in the public interest and it is being committed the following are the two basic principles
by minors? under rules of general application to
a. Juvenile Delinquency prisoners?
b. Minor Delinquency 1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of
c. Child Delinquency race, color, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion,
d. Youth Delinquency
national or social origin, birth or other status
3546. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in
conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is 2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief and
mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the moral rule of the group to which the prisoner belong
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any 3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not
accredited Non-Government Organization immediately their exclusion from the community, but their continuing part
but not later than hours after apprehension. in it
a. 8
4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be innocent
b. 24
c. 12 and shall be treated as such.
d. 36 a. 2 and 3
3547. This concerns to the obligations of b. 4 and 1
the community to individuals, and requires c. 1 and 2
fair disbursement of common advantages d. 3 and 4
and sharing of common burden. 3554. What does classical theory
a. Prosecution
provides?
b. justice
c. equality a. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could
d. trial be controlled by regulating the reproduction of
3548. A probationer is allowed to do the families
following except? b. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with
a. Stay away from bad associates other persons in the process of communication
b. Work regularly to support his family c. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and
c. Make periodic office report penalty disorders
d. Go and play in a gambling den d. The basis for criminal liability is human free will
3549. Which of the following are the and the purpose of penalty is retribution
major goals of correction? 3555. The theory in criminal causation
a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment focuses on the criminal disorders,
b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, chromosomes irregularity, and abnormal
rehabilitation brain activity?
c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, a. Biological
treatment b. Psychological
d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment c. Sociological
3550. A judicial action for legal d. Geological
disposition that allows the offender to 3556. Where Rene Boy shall be confined
remain in the community subject to if his sentence is 6 months or less?
conditions imposed by the court? a. National prison
a. Reprieve b. Municipal jail
b. Probation c. City jail
c. Commutation d. Provincial jail
d. Parole 3557. Crimes with no private offended
3551. Which of the following is an open party?
correctional institution known to be the best a. Complex crime
and prison without walls? b. Status offense

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 c. Simple crime b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place
d. Victimless crime c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in the
3558. A married prisoner is visited by his jail where it is off- limits to inmates
wife and they were granted the time for d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official
their marital sexual obligation. What do you communication, transaction or investigation
call this affair? 3566. Failure to assist in putting out fires
a. Sexual relation inside the jail is a type of offense?
b. Conjugal partnership a. Grave offense
c. Conjugal privilege b. Less grave offense
d. Conjugal visit c. Not so grave offense
3559. What institution conducts the d. Minor offense
training program for uniformed personnel of
the BJMP? 3567. How many hours should the jail
a. Fire Training Center disciplinary board hear and decide the case
b. Philippine National Jail Academy brought before it?
c. PNP Training Center a. 24 hours
d. Jail Management Training Institute b. 12 hours
3560. Robin Padilla was convicted and c. 48 hours
ready to serve his sentence inside the prison. d. 72 hours
Why was he photographed at the Reception 3568. Minimum number of time in
and Diagnostic Center? counting the inmates on daily basis?
a. He is a actor and photogenic a. Three times
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph b. Two times
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor c. Four times
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the d. Five times
reception procedure 3569. What is the duration should the
3561. A penalty having its minimum and probation officer submit his post sentence
maximum duration is referred to as investigation to the court?
a. Determinate sentence a. 60 days
b. Capital punishment b. 30 days
c. Corporal punishment c. within 60 days
d. Indeterminate sentence d. 15 days
3562. Which of the following executive 3570. A shoemaker and became the
clemency needs the concurrence of the father of probation in the U.S
congress? a. Mathew Davenport Hill
a. Pardon b. Edward Savage
b. Amnesty c. John Augustus
c. Probation d. Teodolo Natividad
d. Parole 3571. When does probation started?
3563. It is an executive clemency a. 1938
whereby the convicted person should serve b. 1841
part of his sentence? c. 1896
a. Pardon d. 1932
b. Parole 3572. It is regarded as the most
c. Probation important program that aids in the
d. Amnesty rehabilitation or prisoners
3564. What should the court do where a. Recreational program
the accused violated the terms and b. Religious program
conditions of his probation? c. Educational program
a. Court releases the probationer to the community d. Employment of prisoners
b. Revoked and let the probationer served his 3573. Person who are deemed
sentence instrumental on the reformation of prisoners
c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole due to their daily contact with inmates?
d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his a. Chaplain
probation b. Warden
3565. Which of the following is a minor c. Psychologist
offense in jail? d. Prison guards
a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate

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 3574. Person who are deemed 3582. It is the deduction of the term of
instrumental on the reformation of prisoners imprisonment due to the convict’s good
due to their daily contact with inmates? behavior while serving his sentence?
a. Chaplain a. Special time allowance
b. Warden b. Parole
c. Psychologist c. Good conduct time allowance
d. Prison guards d. Probation
3575. It is given to prisoners who have 3583. A writ ordering the confinement of
returned to their places of confinement a person in penal institution.
within 48 hours after a calamity. a. Detention order
a. Good conduct time allowance b. Commitment order
b. Special time allowance c. Warrant of arrest
c. Visitation privileges d. None of the above
d. Good treatment allowance 3584. Who grants probation?
3576. Juan Manalo was convicted by final a. Probation officer
judgment to serve the term of imprisonment b. Solicitor general
for 20 years. While serving his sixth year of c. Court
imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the d. All of the above
prison and several inmates escaped. Roberto 3585. Where the application for
returned the following day, how many years probation should be filed?
would be deducted from his sentence? a. Board of Pardons and Parole
a. 4 years b. Office of the Solicitor General
b. 8 years c. Trial court
c. 9 years d. Appellate court
d. 11 years 3586. The court shall resolve the
3577. A person convicted to serve 6 application for probation for _.
years imprisonment would be classified as a. Not later than 60 days
what kind of prisoner? b. Within 10 days
a. Municipal prisoner c. Within 5 days
b. Insular prisoner d. Within 15 days
c. Provincial prisoner 3587. Pending the submission of the
d. Detention prisoner investigation report, the defendant may be
3578. It is one of the forerunners of allowed on temporary liberty through_.
modern correctional system wherein they a. Release on recognizance
confine the prisoners in single cell at night b. Bail
but allow them to work during the day. c. Manifestation
a. Auburn system d. Cash bond
b. Pennsylvania system 3588. Probation shall be denied if the
c. Elmira reformatory court finds that_.
d. None of the above a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the
3579. It is an institution intended to offense committed.
detain or house political offenders. b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment
a. Iwahig Penal farm c. There is undue risk that during the period of
b. Davao Penal Farm probation the offender will commit another crime
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm d. All of the choices
d. Sablayan Prison Farm 3589. The probationer and his probation
3580. This forerunner whereby he program shall be under the control and
introduced the theory of atavism? supervision of ___?
a. Lombroso a. Probation officer
b. Becarria b. Board of pardons and parole
c. Ferri c. Court
d. Garofalo d. All of the above
3581. It is the temporary suspension in 3590. Is the denial of probation
the execution of sentence? appealable?
a. Pardon a. It depends on the violation
b. Appeal b. Yes
c. Commutation c. No
d. Reprieve d. Partially No

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 3591. Who shall have the control over of medical examination, vaccination, x-rays
the probationer once the latter is permitted to prevent physical contamination
to reside under the jurisdiction of another a. Reception diagnostic center
court? b. Medical center
a. Regional Director c. Quarantine unit
b. Executive judge of the municipal court d. None of the above
c. Executive Judge of the first instance 3599. A writ issued by the court to a
d. Appellate court correctional facility indicating the basis of
3592. Pedro Juana was sentenced to confinement of a prisoner
serve an imprisonment of six months, how a. Mittimus
many years would be the duration of his b. Detention order
probation? c. Warrant of arrest
a. One year d. Writ of Hebeas Corpus
b. Two years 3600. A code which provides “an eye for
c. Shall not exceed two years an eye, a tooth for a tooth.”
d. Shall not be more than six years a. Code of Babylon
3593. In the hearing for the violation b. Code of Kalantiaw
committed by the probationer, the latter c. Hammurabi code
shall have the right to be informed of the d. Bible
violation charged and to adduce evidence in 3601. A French word meaning “word of
his favor. This right is in pursuant to his right honor”
to ___? a. Pardon
a. Equal protection b. Probation
b. Presumption of innocence c. Parole
c. Miranda rights d. Amnesty
d. Due process of law 3602. Refers to those who are confined
3594. What is the effect of the in correctional facilities awaiting verdict in
termination of probation? their cases
a. Erase criminal records a. Prisoner
b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended as b. Detainees
a result of conviction c. Probationer
c. Both A and B d. Offender
d. None of the above 3603. It is said to be the alternative for
3595. Probation aids shall have the term jail confinement in modern penology.
in office for ___? a. Amnesty
a. 3 years b. Parole
b. 1 year c. Probation
c. 2 years d. Pardon
d. 4 years 3604. He advocated the Irish system
3596. Ideal number of days for proper which is considered by many as one of the
classification of newly convicted offenders at most famous contributor to the reformatory
the RDC? movement.
a. 45 days a. Z.R. Brockway
b. 30 days b. Alexander Macanochie
c. 60 days c. Ceasar Lombroso
d. 15 days d. Walter Crofton
3597. An inherent responsibility of a 3605. He is the father of probation in the
warden in seeing to it that he continually Philippines
motivates his staff and personnel to perform a. Ferdinand Marcos
at their best. b. Manuel Roxas
a. Decision making c. Teodulo Natividad
b. Control of prison operation and activities d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.
c. Personnel program 3606. A Boston shoemaker who
d. Executive leadership advocated in behalf of alcoholic and youthful
3598. Place wherein a newly convicted offenders and known as the father of
prisoner is housed for at least a minimum probation.
period of 5 days to ten days for the conduct a. Mathew Davenport Hill
b. Edward Savage

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G.S.T. 2019
 c. John Augustus a. Detention prisoner
d. Alexander Rice b. Sentenced prisoner
3607. He is the first appointed probation c. Provincial prisoner
officer in the world. d. National prisoner
a. Hans Gross 3616. Penology came from the latin word
b. Edward Savage “poena” which means
c. John Augustus a. Conviction
d. Benjamin Franklin b. Pain and suffering
3608. This case paved the way for the c. Punishment
abolition of the first probation law? d. Deterrence
a. People v. De Vera, 376 O.G. 164 3617. It is the suffering inflicted by the
b. People v. Vera, 376 O.G. 164 state against an offending member of the
c. Vera v. People, 376 O.G. 164 society for the transgression of the law
d. People v. De Vera, 376 O,G. 164 a. Penalty
3609. It serves as the basis in granting b. Punishment
probation to qualified applicants. c. Suffering
a. Post Investigation Report d. Any of the above
b. Pre Sentence Investigation report 3618. When different crimes should be
c. Admission report punished with different penalties,
d. Post Sentence Investigation punishment should therefore be
3610. After receiving the PSIR, within a. Correctional
how many days must a judge decide b. Legal
whether to grant or deny the application for c. Productive of suffering
probation. d. Commensurate with the offense
a. 5 days 3619. An institution for the
b. 15 days imprisonment of persons convicted of major
c. 30 days offenses refers to
d. 60 days a. Jail
3611. Under the Indeterminate Sentence b. Prison
Law, who acts as the chairman of the Board c. Penitentiary
of Pardons and Parole? d. All of the above
a. PNP Chief 3620. Imprisonment for a term of 6 years
b. DILG Secretary 1 day to 12 years
c. DOJ Secretary a. Prision correccional
d. Chief Executive b. Reclusion temporal
3612. Operation conducted by the BJMP c. Arresto mayor
where a prisoner maybe checked at anytime. d. Prision mayor
a. Search and seizure 3621. A criminal can seek refuge in a
b. Confiscation church in order to avoid punishment in a
c. Inspection period of ninety days. This refers to
d. Operation greyhound a. Refuge
3613. These are long, narrow, single b. Securing sanctuary
decked ships propelled by sails, usually c. Hidden church
rowed by criminals. d. Claiming penitentiary
a. Hulks 3622. This were the former warships
b. Ships of criminals used to house prisoners in the 18th century
c. Galleys and 19th century as means of relieving
d. none of the above congestion of prisones refers to
3614. What is the standard ratio in a. Galleys
escorting a non- bailable inmate? b. Hulks
a. One is to one security officer c. Gaols
b. One is to three security officers d. Warships
c. One is to two plus one security officers 3623. In the ancient times, who were
d. One is to one plus one security officer commonly subjected to harsh punishments?
3615. Offenders who are committed to a. Middle class
the jail or prison in order to serve their b. Black people
sentence after final conviction of a c. Slaves
competent court is known as d. Any of the above.

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 3624. Offenders who were convicted b. Quarantine Cell
should be kept away from the society for its c. Medical and Health Center
protection. This is frequently called as d. RDC
a. Incapacitation 3632. Who provides the security system
b. Deterrence of sound custody, security and control of
c. Penalization inamtes and their movements and also
d. Rehabilitation responsible to enforce jail or prison
3625. What code specified punishment discipline
according to the social class of the a. Administrative Group
offenders? b. Security Group
a. Greek Code of Draco c. Rehabilitation Group
b. Justinian Code d. Medical Group
c. Burgundian Code
d. Akadian Code
3626. The establishment of the 3633. What law was passed during the
usefulness and responsibility of the offender Aquino administration that renamed the
as a productive individual is a punishment Bureau of Prisons to Bureau of Corrections?
justified by a. E.O. 292
a. Expiation b. E.O. 229
b. Rehabilitation c. A.O 262
c. Atonement d. E.O. 292
d. Retribution 3634. Who appoints the Director of
3627. The penalty of banishing a person Prisons who shall be the Head of the
from the place where he committed a crime Bureau?
refers to what contemporary forms of a. Chief BJMP
punishment b. Sec. of DILG
a. Atonement c. Chief Executive
b. Destierro d. Sec. of DOJ
c. Exile 3635. What agency has supervision and
d. Incapacitation control over all the national prisons or
3628. The early Roman place of penitentiaries?
confinement which was built under the a. Bureau of Prisons
main sewer of Rome in 64 BC refers to b. Bureau of Correction
a. Town Gates c. Bureau of Jail
b. Wulnut Street Jail d. None of the above
c. Bridewell Workhouse 3636. Which of the following statements
d. Mamertime Prison is not true?
3629. What was the most popular a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the
workhouse in London which was built for the jurisdiction of the DOJ
employment of English prisoners? b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the
a. Borstal prison provincial government
b. Panoptican prison c. The jail bureau controls the administration and
c. Elmira reformatory supervision of all jails nationwide
d. None of the choices d. The BJMP is under the DILG
3630. Which branch takes charge of the 3637. Who appoints jail Sr. Superintend?
preparation of the daily menu, prepares and a. Chief Executive
cooks food and serve to inmates? b. DILG Sec
a. General Service Branch c. Chief BJMP
b. Mess Service Branch d. Chief of BUCOR
c. Budget and Finance Brach 3638. Who appoints the Chief Inspector
d. Property and Supply Branch as warden?
3631. The unit where the prisoner is a. DILG sec
given thorough physical examination b. Chief Executive
including blood test, x-rays, vaccinations and c. Chief BJMP
immunity for the purpose of insuring that d. Chief of BuCor
the prisoner is not suffering from contagious 3639. Early forms of Prison Discipline by
disease? means of uttering insulting words or
a. Rehabilitation Unit languages on the part of prison staff to the

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 prisoners to degrade or break the confidence shops during the day also known as
of prisoners. “Congregate System”.
A. Degradation A. Auburn Prison System
B. Corporal Punishment B. Custody Oriented Prison
C. Monotony C. Pennsylvania Prison System
D. Mass Movement D. Treatment Oriented Prison
3640. The public will be protected if the 3647. The first juvenile reformatory which
offender has being held in conditions where was opened in January 1825 and located in
he cannot harm others especially the public. New York City.
Punishment is effected by placing offenders A. Borstal Institution
in prison so that society will be ensured from B. Elmira Reformatory
further criminal depredations of criminals. C. New York House of Refuge
A. Deterrence D. Panoptican Prison
B. Incapacitation & Protection 3648. One of the juridical conditions of
C. Retribution Penalty, The consequence must be in
D. Atonement accordance with the law it is a result of a
3641. judgment
H rendered by a court of justice.
e is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment A. Equal
as correctional treatment for major offenders B. Legal
also responsible for the abolition of death C. Commensurate w/ the offense
penalty and torture as a form of punishment. D. Personal
A. John Howard 3649. X was sentenced to serve with a
B.Charles Montesquieu penalty of Reclusion Temporal who has the
C. William Penn jurisdiction to detain him?
D. Jeremy Bentham
3642. Director of the Prisons of Valencia, A. BuCor
Spain who divided prisoners into companies C. BJMP
and appointed prisoners as petty officer in B. PNP
charge. D. AFP
A. Domets of France 3650. Baby Ama was sentenced to serve
C. Manuel Montesimos Prison Correctional. What is the duration of
B. Zebulon Brockway his penalty?
D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y
3643. What governing law of Aklan and C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y
Panay based on the beliefs, customs and B. 6M1D to 6 Y
practices, it is also reflects the level of D. 1M&1D – 6 M
uprightness and morality of the people? 3651. It is then known as Carcel y Presidio.
A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203 A. Old Bilibid Prison
B. Law of the Talion B. Manila City Jail
C. Kalantiaw Code C. NBP
D. Penitentiary Act of 1779 D. May Halique Estate
3644. It refers to prison which is used to 3652. Formerly known as the Luhit Penal
confine slaves where they were attached to Settlement.
workbenches and forced to do hard labor in A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
the period of their imprisonment. B. San Ramon Prison
A. Underground Cistern C. Sablayan Prison
B. Ergastalum D. New Bilibid Prison
C. Sing-Sing Prison 3653. When an inmate is given a
D. Alcatraz Prison “shakedown” before admission it meant
3645. It is known as the “Age of Reason of A. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and
Age of Enlightment” Photograph
A. 1870 – 1880 B. Examination for Contraband
B. 18th century C. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record
C. 19th century Clerk
D. 21st century D. All of These
3646. It refers to a Prison System whereby 3654. ____ is the Chairman of the
prisoners are confined in their own cells Classification Board in BJMP.
during the night and congregate work in A. Assistant Warden

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 B. Medical Officer C. 5 days
C. Chief, Security Officer D. NONE
D. Jail Chaplain
3655. A general agreed principle that 3662. One of the components of RDC
women prisoners should be placed in a which is responsible in the examination of the
special building on the same site with the prisoner’s mental and emotional make-up.
men prison. A. Medical Center
A. Diversification by Sex B. Sociologist
B. Segregation C. Psychologist
C. Diversification by Age D.Psychiatrist
D. Diversification by Degree of Custody 3663. The Bureau of Jail Management and
3656. What satellite of NBP does RDC is Penology was created thru ____ as one of the
situated? Tri Bureau under the Department of Interior
A. Camp Bukang Liwayway and Local Government .
B. Camp Sampaguita
A. Section 13, RA 6975 NAPOLCOM
C. Main building
B. Section 53, RA 6975
D. Chapel
C. Section 23 of RA 6975
3657. What is the prescribed color of
D. Section 60 of RA 6975
uniform for Minimum Security Prisoners?
3664. X was sentenced to serve with a
A. Blue
penalty of Reclusion Temporal who has the
B. Brown
jurisdiction to detain him?
C. Tangerine
A. BuCor
D.Gray
C. BJMP
3658. It is located in Sto. Tomas, Davao
B. PNP
Del Norte, General Paulino Santos led the first
D. AFP
contingent which opened the colony.
3665. All except one is included in the
A. Davao Penal Colony
command group of BJMP
B. Tagum
A. Chief of Staff
C. Panabo
B. Deputy C/BJMP
D. Kapalong
C. Chief of BJMP
E. Tanglaw
D. Chief of Directorial staff
3659. Gov. White E. Dwigth made the
3666. One of the Administrative groups in
suggestion of the construction of this penal
BJMP responsible for preparation of the daily
institution and it was established on 1904
menu, prepare and cook the food and serve it
through the orders of Gov. Forbes. It is
to inmates.
considered a one of the most open penal
A. Mess Service Branch
institutions in the world.
B. General Service Branch (maintenance)
A. Iwahig
C. Budget and Finance Branch (financial)
B. Tagumpay
D. Property and Supply Branch (logistics)
C. Sta. Lucia
3667. When the offender is in transit, the
D. Inagawan
ratio of __ for every offender shall be
3660. The following are the sub colonies
observed.
of Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm.
A. 1:1+1
I. Central III. Pusog
B. 1:2
II. Pasugui IV. Yapang
C. 1:7
V. Panabo VI. Kapalong
D. 1:500
VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan
3668. When the offender is in transit, in
IX. Montible X. Central
case of ___ that demands extra precaution
A. I, II, III, IV
additional guards shall be employed
B. V and VI
A. High Profile offender
C. VII, VIII, IX & X
B. Female Offender
D. Either of these
C. High-risk offender
3661. Convicts committed to BUCOR are
D. Either of these
brought to RDC for a total period of ____ for
3669. If the inmate agrees to abide by the
classification and determination of
same disciplinary rules imposed upon
appropriate program.
convicted prisoners, he shall be asked to,
A. 60 days
manifest his ___ in writing.
B. 55 days
A. Certification
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 C. Agreement disciplinary infraction or violation of prison
B. Manifestation rules and regulation.
D. Affidavit A. Director of BJMP
3670. John was sentenced to serve B. Warden
Arresto Mayor, what classification of C. President
sentenced prisoner is John classified? D. Director of Corrections
A. Municipal Prisoner 3678. Inmates earnings that may be used
C. City Prisoner to buy his needs.
B. Provincial Prisoner A. ½ of his earnings
D. Insular Prisoner B. ¼ if his earnings
3671. Ser Chief is a newly arrived inmate C. ¾ of his earnings
committed for the first time. He classified as D. Discretion of Warden
a ____ among the classification of inmates
according to privileges. 3679. GCTA is a kind of ___ that can only
A. 1st class inmate be denied if the prisoner breaks the rules and
B. 3rd class inmate only after due process is observed.
C. 2nd class inmate A. right
D. Colonist B. Privileges
3672. What classification of Prisoners C. Discretion
according to Degree of Security if the prisoner D. liberty
cannot be trusted in open conditions and 3680. A colonist when classified by the
pose lesser danger than maximum-security director of the Bureau of Corrections who is
prisoners in case they escape. punished with reclusion perpetua will have
A. Minimum Security Prisoners benefit from an automatic reduction from
B. Medium Security Prisoners maximum term of forty years to ___.
C. Maximum Security Prisoners A. 20 Years
D. Any of the Above B. 25 Years
3673. What is the lowest authorized C. 30 Years
disciplinary punishment imposable to D. 35 Years
inmates? 3681. Duration of viewing of privilege of a
A. Close Confinement deceased relative is limited to ___ hours.
B. Extra-Fatigue Duty A. 3
C. Reprimand B. 9
D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges C. 6
3674. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP D. 12
shall be between ___ in any calendar month 3682. Who among the following inmates
provided that this punishment shall be may not be allowed to see the remains of a
imposed only in the case of an incorrigible dead immediate family member?
prisoner when other disciplinary measured A. Minimum Security
had been proven ineffective. B.Maximum Security
A. 30-60 days C. Medium Security
C. 1-7 Days D. None of these
B. 1 day 3683. Telephone calls are permitted for
D. NONE inmates for a period not exceeding 5 minutes
3675. All except one are instruments of every ___ days.
restraints. A. 30
A. Handcuffs B. 90
B. Whipping Rod C. 60
C. Leg iron D. 120
D. Strait Jackets 3684. If escorting an inmate a guard shall
3676. Inmates ____ may be excused from keep distance of not less than ____ paces
mandatory prison labor. from his charge.
A. 60 years old A. 10
B. 56 years old B. 30
C. 50 years old C. 15
D. 21 years old D. 45
3677. The _____ may grant GCTA to an
inmate for good behavior with no record of

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 3685. In mess hall and dining area for D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot
purposes of precaution, the prescribe utensil
for inmates shall be made of: 3693. Within the radius by road from the
A. Wood confinement facility and the actual stay of the
B. Paper inmates to view the remains.
C. Plastic A. 20 kilometer
D. Carton B. 40 Kilometer
3686. It is a continuing state of good C. 30 Kilometer
order. D. 50 Kilometer
A. Discipline 3694. Under RA 9344, what happens to
B. Communication the sentence of a Child in Conflict with the
C. Morale law after conviction of a trial Court?
D. Loyalty A. His sentence serve
3687. Unload as method in searching the B. His sentence is suspended
prisoner for possession of contraband’s C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his family
inside the prison cell and compound. D. His sentence is NOT suspended
A. Frisking 3695. One-fifth of the sentence for
B. Shakedown Loyalty equivalent shall be deducted from the
C. Operation Greyhound inmates sentence if, after the inmate
D. Body Frisking abandoned prison due to disorder arising
3688. It is considered as the highest A. STA
income earner among the Philippine B. GCTA
Correctional Institution. C. Commutation
A. Iwahig Penal Colony D.Visitation Privilege
B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm 3696. It is a kind of court to settle tribunal
C. Davao Penal Colony and even individuals people conflicts:
D. Sablayan Prison and Farm A. Bodong
3689. The most common problem for C. Capic
national penitentiaries. B. Korte Supremo
A. Excessive number of inmates D. Hito
B. Lack of funds 3697. The following are the aims of
C. Sex problems diversification in prison or jail, except:
D. Discipline A. more effective execution of treatment programs
3690. Which of these authorizes the B. to prevent physical contamination of one group or
release of a detainee who has undergone another
preventive imprisonment equivalent to the C. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk
maximum imposable sentence for the D. none of the above
offense he is charged with? 3698. It provides some opportunities for
A. B.P 85 inmates of a normal sex life.
B. RA 4200 A. Maternal Visit
C. B.P. 22 B. Sodomy
D. PD 968 C. Masturbation
3691. The act of prisoner trying to convert D. Conjugal Visit
or induce another to change his religious 3699. An offender who surrenders from
beliefs sect or the like to another while under escaping because of calamity immediately 48
confinement is referred to as hours after the pronouncement of the
A. Proselytizing passing away of calamity shall be granted
B. Initiation A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
C. Fraternization B. 1/2 reduction of sentence
D. Inducement C. 1/3 reduction of sentence
3692. Who composed of guards trained D. 4/5 reduction of sentence
on proper handling and use of firearms who
shall be ready to fire when the lives of the 3700. Which of these is known as the
guards are in danger on orders of the Officer Release on Recognizance Law providers for
in Command. the release of offender charged with an
A. 1st group Anti-Riot offense whose penalty is not more than six (6)
B. 4th Group Anti-Riot months and /or a fine of P2,000.00 or both,
C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot

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 to the custody of a responsible person in the 3708. It refers to the entrusting for
community, instead of a bail bond- confinement of an inmate to a jail by
A. RA 6036 competent court or authority for
B. PD 603 investigation, trial and/or service of sentence
C. Act 2489 A. Commitment
D. RA 9262 B. Safekeeping
3701. If the Warden is taken as the C. Entrustment
hostage, for all intents and purposes, he D. Imprisonment
ceases to exercise authority and the next in 3709. This was the right in ecclesiastical
command or the ___ officer present shall court during the middle ages particularly in
assume the command. England.
A. Veteran A. Inquisition
B. most senior B. Incapacitation
C. assistant C. Benefit of Clergy
D. custodian D. Retribution
3702. In case of mass jailbreak, all 3710. The inmates may request a review
member of the custodial force shall be of the findings of the Disciplinary Board and
immediately issued firearms and assigned to the propriety and the penalty to the ____.
critical posts to: A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board
A. plug off the escape routes B. BJMP
B. protect the other inmates C. Central office/BJMP
C. to shoot the escape D. Warden
D. give warning shots 3711. If the inmate fails to claim his letter
3703. When a jailbreak, escape or riot in within ____ after it has been posted, the mail
progress or has just been perpetrated in the should be delivered to him.
jail, the officer at the control centers shall
immediately: A. 48 hours
A. sound the alarm B. 24 hours
B. notify the nearest police precinct C. 30 days
C. locked prisoners in their respective cells D. 60 days
D. call the warden or the director 3712. All letters passed by censors should
3704. The following are the duties of the bear the censor’s stamp at the ____ of each
custodial force in prison, except: page and on the envelope. The letter should
A. Censor offender’s inmate be placed back in the same envelope and
B. Escort inmates resealed.
C. Inspect security devices A. Back
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing B. Conspicuous Area
3705. It served as the cornerstone or C. Side
rehabilitation D. Top
A. Religion 3713. In case if jailbreaks, who will
B. Education immediately sound the alarm?
C. Discipline A. Desk Officer
D. Recreational B. Armorer
3706. Maiming; Physical Torture; C. Control Center
Electrocution; ____ D. Officer-in-Charge
A. Social degradation 3714. It is designed to improve their
B. Exile communication and computation skills, such
C. Physical torture as the ability to read and write in order to
D. Death Penalty enhance their individual educational level.
3707. It refers to those items, though A. Skills Training
authorized, is already in excessive quantities B. Adult Education
to become a fire hazard, a threat to security C. Secondary Education
or has become causative in making the place D. Non-Formal Education for Adults
unsanitary. 3715. Detention Prisoners are allowed to
A. Contraband smoke cigars and cigarettes, except in
B. Paraphernalia prohibited cases. The statement is –
C. Prohibited items A. Partially true
D.Nuisance Contraband B. Partially false

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 C. Absolute False C. Director for operation
D. Absolutely True B. Director
3716. All persons in custody shall before D. Desk Officer
final conviction, be entitled to bail as a matter 3724. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a
of ____ chief with a rank of Director, and assisted by
A. Right Deputy Chief with the rank of Senior
B. preference Superintendent. This sentence is
C. Privilege A. partially true
D. Discretion C. true
3717. The visiting room officer shall be B. partially false
responsible for compiling the regular visiting D. false
list for each inmate. 3725. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules
A. Special Visitor for the treatment of offenders prescribes that
B. Strange Visitor penal facilities should not exceed _____
C. Regular Visitor inmates.
D. Unusual visitor A. 1000
3718. ____responsible for handling the B. 1500
keys in Women’s quarter and the keys shall C. 1200
be available all the time. D. 2000
A. Key Matron 3726. Who among the following inmates
B. .Resident Matron may not be allowed to see the remains of a
C. Matron dead immediate family members?
D. Any of these A. Minimum security
3719. Ms. Malou Wang has duration of B. Maximum security
penalty of 6 years and one day to 12 years. C. Medium security
What correctional facility he should be D. None of these
incarcerated? 3727. Minimum number of times in
A. Bureau of Correction counting the inmates on a daily basis.
B. Prision Correctional A. Two
C. Prision Mayor B. Four
D. BJMP C. Three
3720. Mr. Abdul Salsalani was convicted D. Five
of the crime murder. After 12 days from the 3728. Ideal number of days for an inmate
promulgation of the sentence he escaped to be placed in the quarantine unit at the
from his place of confinement. Abdul Reception and Diagnostic Center .
Salsalani is: A. 55 days
A. liable of evasion of service of sentence B. 5 days
B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence C. 60 days
C. considered as an escaped prisoner D. 15 days
D. Either of C 3729. In the 13th century, a criminal could
3721. It should be executed by the avoid punishment by claiming refugee in a
interviewer, which will exempt prison church for a period of ___ at the end of which
authorities from any liability arising from time he has compelled to leave the realm by
death or injury sustained while in prison: a road or path assigned to him.
A. Waiver of Liability
B. Waiver of Responsibility A. 30 days
C. Waiver of Acceptance B. 50 days
D. Waiver of Agreement C. 40 days
3722. Before the actual date of interview D. 60 days
the media shall file request within ____ 3730. In Operation Greyhound, all orders
A. 1 day concerning troop movements will emanate
B. 3 days from him.
C. 2 days A. Assistant team leader
D. 8 days B. Team Leader
3723. Who should make an immediate C. Ground Commander
preparation for the issuance of the necessary D. Security Teams
anti-riot equipment and firearms? 3731. Who among the following shall be
A. the Warden responsible in the custody of all the

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 properties seized from the detainee prior to B. None
his detention? C. Rehabilitation
A. Custodial Officer D. Retribution
B. Chief of Detention Center 3739. Richard Alden was convicted to
C. Evidence Custodian Officer serve a penalty of 6 years imprisonment for
D. Court usurpation of a person in authority due to his
3732. Female detainees shall not be frequent introduction of himself as NBI agent,
transported in handcuffs but only with what would be his classification under PD 29?
necessary restraint and proper escort A. Detention prisoner
preferably aided by a police woman. The B. Municipal prisoner
statement is C.Provincial prisoner
A. Yes D. Insular prisoner
B. Wholly True 3740. Theory which states that criminal
C. Partially False behavior is learned in interaction with other
D. Wholly False persons in the process of communication.
3733. Ms. Malou Wang, a prisoner, learns A. Differential Association Theory
that she is already overstaying in jail because B. Social Disorganization Theory
her jail guard, Benny B. Rotcha, who happens C. Classical Theory
to be a law student advised her that there is D. Strain Theory
no more legal ground for his continued 3741. Having a pornographic materials
imprisonment, and Benny told her that she inside jail is a?
can go. Ms. Malou Wang got out of jail and A. Minor offense
went home. Was there any crime committed? B. Moral Turpitude
A. Evasion of Service C. Grave Offense
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners D. Less grave offense
C. Evasion through Negligence 3742. A chemical that is injected to a
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison Death Convict that puts him into deep sleep
3734. As far as Benny B. Rotcha, the jail in lethal injection.
guard who allowed Ms. Malou Wang to go, is A. Potassium Chloride (stops heart beat)
concerned, the crime committed is: B. Hydrogen Peroxide (Paralyzes the muscles) C.
A. Evasion of Service Sodium Thiopenthotal
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner D. Sodium chloride (salt)
C. Evasion through Negligence 3743. If a regular convicted prisoner has 3
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison shifting guards, X which is a Death Convict
3735. This refers to the one-in-charge of a should have___.
Prison. A. 2 Shifting Guards
A. Director B. 3 Shifting Guards
C. Warden C. 4 Shifting Guards
B. Superintendent D. 5. Shifting Guards
D. Wardress 3744. How do inmates know that they
3736. What correctional institution have letters?
houses accused persons awaiting A. A list of mails for inmates is posted
investigation? B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally
A. BUCOR C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the
B. Jail addressee
C. Penitentiary D. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’
D. Prison Office
3737. Who supervised and control the 3745. What is referred to as “hustling”
Provincial Jail. inside the prison?
A. DILG A. Reporting illegal activities
B. Governor B. Doing prison assignment
C. DOJ C. Using prohibited drugs
D. LGU D. Selling illegal commodities
3746. ____ program employs prisoner in
3738. It is one of the earliest devices for various product or good-producing tasks.
softening brutal severity of punishment A. Agricultural
through a compromise with the church. B. Industrial
A. Benefit of Clergy C. Operational

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 D. Administrative D. 15 days
3747. The 2nd group shall not use riot 3755. Abdul Jackonini was sentenced to
control gases, except on orders of the – imprisonment on March 21, 2013. On March
25, 2013 the judge who promulgated the
A. Desk Officer decision died. What is the effect of the
B. Armorer judge’s death to the service of Abdul’s
C. Control Center sentence?
D. Officer-in-Charge A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
3748. Detention Prisoners are NOT B. He will have to serve his sentence
allowed to have a Conjugal Visit. The C. His sentence will be suspended
statement is – D. His sentence will be reduced
A. True
B. Maybe True
C. Maybe False
D. False 3756. It is the national record of a
3749. If Jail Officer I Masunurin was prisoner at New Bilibid Prison.
appointed in 2013 at a monthly salary of A. Mittimus
19,000, how much is longevity pay in 2018? B. Carpeta
A. 9000 pesos C. Commitment Order
B. 1900 pesos D. Prison Record
C. 9500 pesos 3757. How many days before election
D. NONE does inmate are prohibited from going out?
3750. An inmate shall be transferred to a A. 30 days
separation center for adjustment process B. 90 Days
from life in prison to life is free community C. 60 Days
within – D. 120 Days
A. 60 days prior to release 3758. Maya is in prison for the past 48
B. 30 days prior to release months and has never been involved in any
C. 90 days before release trouble, no matter how minor. If you were
D. 15 days prior to release the prison director, how many days for each
3751. How many days are given to the month would you approve as Maya’s good
disciplinary board of BJMP to resolve issue? conduct time allowance?
A. 5 working days A. 5 days
B. 2 days B. 8 days
C. 30 working days C. 10 days
D. 24 hours D. 12 days
3752. How long does an inmate mother 3759. A powerful earthquake destroyed a
who gave birth inside the jail is allowed to be prison where W,X,Y & Z are inmates. All,
with his child? except Z, escaped. W surrendered after 24
A. 6 months hours, X b. surrendered after 24 hours, X
B. 1 year surrendered after 2 days and Y surrendered
C. 2 years after 3 days. Who among them are not
D. 7 years entitled to Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
3753. A colonist when classified by the under Art. 98.
director of the Bureau of Corrections who is
punished with reclusion perpetua will have A. X
benefit from an automatic reduction from a C. W
maximum term of forty years to ____. B. Y
A. 20 years D. Z
B. 25 years 3760. Which of the following
C. 30 years organizations donated the Half-way House
D. 35 years inside the compound of the Bureau of
Corrections?
3754. Close confinement in Prison shall A. Office of the President
not exceed – B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office
A. 45 days C. United Nations Security Council
B. 30 to 60 days D. Asia Crime Foundation
C. 7 days

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 3761. Mail letters of a Death Convict B. 20 or less
should be documented within ____ before C. 21 to 99
the execution. D. 101 to 150
A. 24 hours 3769. This theory assumes that people
B. 72 hours are law abiding but under great pressure they
C. 48 hours will resort to crime and that disparity
D. NONE between goals and means provides that
3762. Involves the formulation of a pressure.
tentative treatment program best suited to A. Differential Association Theory
the needs of the individual prisoner, based on B. Psychoanalytic Theory
the findings. D. Strain Theory
A. treatment planning 3770. This is also known as “Youth
C. reclassification Camps” and is being maintained by Bucor
B. Execution of treatment Plan where youth offenders may serve their
D. Diagnosis sentence in lieu of confinement in a prison.
3763. An authorization that permits A. AFP Stockade
inmate to leave place of confinement for B. Agricultural and Forestry Camps
emergency reasons. C. Social Camps
A. Furlough D. A or C
B. Prisonization 3771. It was established in 1910 under
C. Diversification the American Regime.
D. Counseling A. Philippine Prison System
B. Provincial Jail System
C. Probation
3764. A warden who limits his role to D. Parole
consider policy matters and major problems, 3772. The following are the requisite of a
his responsibility is centered on: valid Commitment Order EXCEPT:
A. Decision Making A. Signature of the Judge
B. Personnel Program B. Seal of the Court
C. Public Relations C. Valid Identification of Prisoner
D. Executive Leadership D. Signature of the Clerk
3765. For minimum security institution, 3773. A prisoner having the natural
the purpose of fencing the surrounding is: inclination or tendency to evade custody
A. To keep away the civilian population from entering the against the will of the custodian or from the
institution. place where he is held in lawful custody or
B. It is designed to prevent escapes. confinement.
C. It is designed for agricultural purposes A. Escape Prone Prisoner
D. It is designed to facilitate open view of the B. Mental Deranged Prisoner
surrounding. C. Sex Deviate Prisoner
3766. It is the primary objective of D. Alien Prisoner
custodial and security division? 3774. Where a person commits FELONY
A. To prevent riots before beginning to serve or while serving his
B. To implement discipline sentence on a previous conviction
C. To prevent escapes A. Quasi-recidivism
D. To help in the reformation of prisoners B. Reiteration
3767. 230. When the death penalty was C. Habitual Delinquency
still enforced by means of lethal injection, D. Recidivism
four guards keep a death watch, the convict
is confined in an individual cell ___ hours 3775. If a prisoner who is serving
prior to the scheduled time of execution sentence is found in possession of dangerous
which is usually 3:00 in the afternoon. drugs can be considered a quasi-recidivist?
A. 6 A. Yes, because he committed another crime while
B. 24 serving his sentence
C. 12 B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities in
D. 36 prison
3768. What is the population of a type A C. No. because what he violated is not a Felony
Jail? D. A and B
A. More than 100

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 3776. What is the legal process that B. Chief, Directorial Staff (4th in command)
results in the removal of conviction from the C. Deputy for Operation (3rd in command)
official records? D. Any of these
A. Mitigation 3784. All original appointments of officers
B. Expungement in the jail bureau shall commence with the
C. Exoneration rank of ___
D. Restriction A. JO1
3777. Who advocated the principle that B. Jail Inspector
the basis of all social actions must be the C. JO11
utilitarian conception of the greatest D. Jail Senior Inspector
happiness for the greatest number? 3785. What is the minimum tank required
A. John Howard to be appointed as Chief Bureau of Jail
B. Jeremy Bentham Management and Penology?
C. Cesare Becaria A. Superintendent
D. George Void B. C/Superintendent
3778. Prison work assignments are C. Senior Superintendent
usually given to prisoners. D. Director
A. After recreational activities 3786. It is a means correcting an offender
B. At early morning hours by placing him to an institution where he can
C. Before sleeping hours be treated well until he becomes fully
D. During middle hours of the day recovered and accepted by the community.
3779. Forced is used only by correctional A. Institutional Corrections
to, B. Non Institutional Correction
A. Exact respect C. BJMP
B. Enforce discipline D. Parole
C. Show physical strength and power 3787. This is the basic needs of a
D. Perform assignments convicted person under custody.
3780. One of the effects of social stigma a. Shelter b. Food e. cigarettes
maintained by an unforgiving society against b. gadgets d. Slippers f. Drinks
criminals is ____. A. a,b,c,d
A. Worked out good relationship with the community B. a,c,d,e
B. Respond to a rehabilitation program C. c,d,e,f
C. Difficulties in securing employment D. a,b,d,f
D. Fostered friendship with co-prisoner 3788. It is a conditional release after the
3781. With respect to the UN Standard prisoner’s conviction is final and executory
Minimum Rules for the Treatment of and has already served the minimum period
Prisoners, which of the following should NOT of the sentence imposed to him.
be done to the prisoners? A. Parole
A. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from B. Word of Hohor
convicted prisoners. B. Parole d’ Honeur
B. Young offenders shall be kept separated from adult D.Probare
prisoners. 3789. He is the Governor/Superintendent
C. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept away in Norfolk Island, a penal colony in the East of
from male prisoners. Australia and initiated the famous “Mark
D. Female prisoner shall be allowed to have her children System”.
stay with her. A. Alexander Macanochie
3782. Which of the following unusual B. Edward Savage
offender should be under the close C. Walter Crofton
supervision of the jail physician? D. Edward Savage
1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick 3790. Ex-officio Chairperson of board of
2. Sex deviates 4. Escape-prone prisoners Pardons and Parole.
A. 1 and 2 A. Administrator
B. 3 and 4 B. Sec. of DOJ
C. 1 and 3 C. Sociologist
D. 2 and 3 D. Clergyman
3783. Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in 3791. It is known as the Indeterminate
command in BJMP? Sentence Law that creates the board of
A. Deputy for Administration

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 Indeterminate Sentence which took effect on of the terms and conditions stated in the
December 5, 1933. release document.
A. EO 83 S. 1937 A. Violation Report
B. EO 94 B. Progress Report
C. Act 4103 C. Infraction Report
D. EO 292 D. Summary Report
3792. All except one are the requisites to 3799. Upon receipt of the Report the
be eligible for review of a Parole cases. BOARD may issue an ____ against the
A. Final conviction parolee.
B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one yr A. Warrant of Arrest
C. served the minimum period of said sentence B. Search Warrant
D. None of the above C. Order of Arrest
3793. All except one are objectives of the D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR)
Parole System. 3800. What is the effect of the
A. It standardize the penalty recommitment of a Parolee?
B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence
liberty B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and C. Minimum sentence impose
economic usefulness D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in
D. Individualize the administration of criminal law, full
without prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining and 3801. As a general rule, a Parolee may not
protecting social order transfer residence stated in the release
3794. Director of Prisons has the document except if the petition for transfer
responsibility to forward the document to the of residence is approved by ____.
board, ____ before the expiration of A. Regional Director
prisoner’s minimum sentence. B. Probation & Parole Officer
A. 15 days C. BOARD
B. 45 days D. Administration
C. 30 days 3802. A Chief Probation and Parole
D. 60 days Officer may authorize outside travel his area
3795. The board shall assess and of jurisdiction for a period of NOT more than
determine whether the petitioner is qualified ___.
for Parole, the decision or action must be A. 30 days
suspended by ____ of the members of the B. 15 days
board. C. 20 days
A. 4 votes D. 10 days
B. Majority 3803. If a travel of a Parolee is more than
C. 5 members of the Board 30 days shall be approved by the ____.
D. at least four (4) votes A. Regional Director
3796. If petition for Parole was granted, B. Probation & Parole Officer
BOARD will issue a ____ or specifically known C. BOARD
as discharge on parole. D. Administration
A. Release Document 3804. A parolee may work or travel
B. Final Release & Discharge abroad if he has NO pending criminal case in
C. Discharge on Parole any court. Application for travel and work
D. Summary Report abroad shall be approved by the
3797. One of the mandatory conditions Administration and confirmed by the ____.
attached to the parolee is to report at least A. Regional Director
once a month for those residing outside C. BOARD
Metro Manila/to report at least twice a B. Probation and Parole Officer
month for those who are residing in Metro D. Administration
Manila. 3805. Parole is not claimed as a right but
A. True the Board of Parole grants it as a privilege to
B. Partially True a qualified prisoner. This is statement is:
C. False A. Partially true
D. Partially False C. True
3798. The Probation and Parole Officer B. Partially false
submits ___ if parolee commits any violation D. False

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 3806. The following are disqualifications the crime committed is against the national
for Parole to be granted. security?
a. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence; A. DFA Secretary
b. those who have pending criminal case; B. COMELEC
c. habitual delinquencies; C. DOJ Secretary
d. suffering from any mental disorder; and D. DND Secretary
e. conviction is on appeal 3814. Any wilful or malicious concealing
A. a,b,c, and e material information made by the client
B. a,b,c, and d either or after the grant of Conditional
C. b,c,d, and e Pardon or Parole is a ground for the BOARD
D. a,b,c,d, and e to –
3807. It is exercise exclusively within the A. Extend the period of Supervision
sound discretion of the President for the B. Modify the conditions appeared on released
objective of preventing miscarriage of Justice document
or correcting manifests injustice. C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of
A. Parole Conditional Pardon
B. Pardon D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good
C. Executive behavior has shown by the client
D. Reprieve 3815. All except one are the instances
3808. Who has the authority to assist the wherein supervision of parole and conditional
Chief Executive in his exercise of the power to pardon case deemed to archive/close.
grant executive clemency? A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the Board
A. DOJ against the client
B. BOARD B. Certificate of transfer of resident
C. Administration C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and
D. Administrator discharge of the client
3809. Kind of Executive Clemency which D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the
exempts an individual within certain limits or deceased client
conditions from the punishment that the law 3816. The power of the Chief Executive to
inflicts for the offense he has committed grant pardon is limited to the following,
resulting from the partial extinction of his EXCEPT:
criminal liability. A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment
A. Absolute Pardon B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
B. Reprieve violation of any election law may be granted without
C. Commutation of Sentence favourable recommendation of the Commission of
D. Conditional Pardon Elections
3810. Pardon by the President shall be C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
extended ____. D. Pardon is administered by the Court
A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action 3817. Pardon can be extended to any of
B. After Conviction of Final Judgment the cases, EXCEPT:
C. After Filling of Complaint/Information A. Carnapping
D. Upon the discretion of the President B. Impeachment
3811. A pardon violator upon conviction B. Estafa
will be liable for imprisonment of “prision D. Parricide
correctional”. 3818. Father of Philippine Probation.
A. Article 95 of RPC A. John Augustus
B. Article 59 of RPC B. Edward Savage
C. Article 159 of RPC C. Matthew Davenport Hill
D. A and C D. Teodulo Natividad
3812. On Executive Clemency petition 3819. First juvenile court established in
filed by prisoner should be addressed to 1899
____. A. Chicago
A. Board B. Massachusetts
B. Administrator C. England
C. Chairman of BPP D. Philippines
D. President 3820. Federal Probation act signed by
3813. Who shall endorse to the Board the President Calvin Coolidge became a Law on
petition for absolute or conditional pardon if _____.

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 A. April 26, 1878 B. True
B. 1899 C. No
C. 1887 D. False
D. March 4, 1925 3829. Violations of the following Special
3821. Probation in Philippines was first Laws shall disqualify an offender to avail of
introduced by virtue of ___ also known as the benefits of PD 968.
Philippine Probation Act of 1935 A. Omnibus Election Code
A. HB 393 B. Robbery
B. PD 968 C. Wage Rationalization Act
C. Act 4221 D. Videogram Law
D. RA 4221
3822. Celebrated case which paved the 3830. As a general rule Violation of
way for declaring unconstitutional of the first Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002
probation law of November 16, 1937 is disqualify to apply for Probation, EXCEPT:
A. People vs. Vera A. Section 12
B. People vs. De Vera B. Section 14
C. People vs. De Vega C. Section 13
D. People vs. Vega D. Section 17
3823. How long is the period of probation E. Section 70
of a defendant sentenced to a term of 3831. This decree mandated the
imprisonment of not more than one (1) year? disqualification of the petitioner’s application
A. Not to exceed 6 years for probation if an appeal is perfected.
B. Not to exceed 8 years A. PD 1357
C. Not to exceed 10 years B. BP 76
D. Not to exceed 2 years C. PD 968
3824. The power of the Chief Executive to D.PD 1257
grant pardon is limited to the following, 3832. He is a convicted defendant whose
EXCEPT: application for probation has been given due
A. Pardon is administered by the court course by the court but fails to report to the
B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of impeachment. probation officer or cannot be located within
C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the a reasonable period of time.
violation of any election law may granted without A. Absconding Petitioner
favourable recommendation of the Commission of B. Absconding Probationer
Elections. C. Disobedient Petitioner
D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction D. Uncooperative Petitioner
3825. What court will you apply for 3833. Probation is a privilege granted to
Probation? deserving and qualified petitioners, when
A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above does it become a matter of right?
B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below A. After the submission of the PSIR
C. Same court, where you had been convicted B. When the convict files a petition for probation
D. Any of these C. When the appeal was undertaken
3826. Waiting for the decision of the D. When his probation is approved
court on the application for probation, the 3834. When shall probation order take
offender applying for probation – effect?
A. Must stay in prison as a detainee A. Three days after issuance
B. Maybe set free without bail B. Three days prior to issuance
C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance C. Upon its issuance
D. all of these D. Upon reporting to the probation officer
3827. When will the court deny 3835. Which of the following cases is
application for probation of a petitioner? disqualified to apply for probation?
A. Petitioner is a foreigner A. Infanticide
B. Petitioner is a drug dependent C. Simple Theft
C. Petitioner violates the condition B. Malicious Mischief
D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution D.Unjust Vexation
3828. Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to 3836. Who appoints Probation
serve a penalty of Prision Correctional. Is he Administrator, Regional Probation Officers
qualified to apply for probation? and Assistant Probation Officers?
A. Yes A. DILG Secretary

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 B. President of minor violations that would result in the
C. DOJ Secretary revocation of the probation order?
D. Administrator A. 5 Violations
3837. How many days are given to the B. 3 Violations
court to act on application for probation? C. 4 Violations
A. 15 days D. 2 Violations
B. 60 days 3845. Maximum number of probationers
C. 10 days under supervision of a probation aide
D. 5 days A. 3
3838. Probationer and his Probation B. 7
Officer will prepare a _____. C. 5
A. Associate Plan D. 9
B. Supervision & Treatment Plan 3846. Probation is a privilege granted to
C. Treatment Program deserving and qualified petitioners, when
D. Orientation Plan does it become a matter of right?
3839. One of the mandatory conditions to A. After submission of the PSIR
a probationer is to present himself to the B. When the convict files a petition for probation
probation officer designated to undertake his C. When the appeal was undertaken
supervision within ___ from receipt of said D. When the probation is approved
order. 3847. Who is the ultimate beneficiary of
A. 24 hours Probation Law?
B. 72 hours A. Criminal
C. 48 hours B. Society
D. 150 hours C. Family
3840. When shall probation order take D. Governor
effect? 3848. It refers to those that handle the
A. Three days after issuance investigation of petitioners for probation, and
B. Upon its issuance the supervision of probationers, parolees and
C. Three Days Prior to Issuance conditional pardonees.
D. Upon Reporting to the Probation Officer A. Parole and Probation Administration
3841. Modifications of conditions for B. Board of Pardons and Parole
probation is allowed ___. C. Secretary of Justice
A. 15 days after granting it D. Department of Justice
B. At any time during supervision 3849. Post Sentence Investigation report
C. Upon the application of the community must be submitted by the probation officer to
D. Any of these the court within
A. 20 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 90 days
3850. Those that have been once on
3842. If the Probationer did not comply probation under the Probation Law:
with the conditions, if the reasons for non- A. are qualified to apply for probation
compliance is not meritorious the court will B. are disqualified to apply for probation
issue a ____. C. may be granted for another probation
A. termination order D. should be confined in prison
B. Warrant of Arrest 3851. Maximum term of office for those
C. OAR appointed as members of the Board of
D. Revocation Order Pardon and Parole.
3843. What is the effect of the A. 3 years
recommitment of a Probationer? B. 5 years
A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence C. 4 years
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum D. 6 years
sentence 3852. When will you close a probation
C. Minimum sentence impose case?
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full A. When the probationer absconds the place
3844. Under rules and methods employed B. When he incurred violations
by probation, what is the maximum number C. When there is recommendation for revocation

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 D. When the termination order is approved d. d. Jail Management
3853. Volunteer Probation Aides may be
appointed from among the citizen’s of ____ 3860. Any article, thing, or item
prohibited by law/ or forbidden by jail rules is
A. Good religious background
called:
B. High Educational Level a. Instrument of restraint
C. Good Repute and Probity b. contraband
D. High Social Standing c. Handcuff
3854. It refers to the manner or practice d. leg iron
of managing or controlling places of 3861. It shall exercise supervision and control over all district,
confinement as in jails or prisons. city and municipal jails to ensure “a secured, clean and sanitary
and adequately equipped jail for the custody and safekeeping
A. Penology
of city, municipal prisoners, any fugitive from justice or
B. Penal Management persons detained awaiting for investigation or trial and/or
C. Correctional Administration transfer to the National Penitentiary:
D. Correction a. Bureau of Corrections
3855. It refers to a long, low narrow, b. Dep’t of Social Welfare and Development
single decked ships propelled by sails, usually b. Jail Bureau
rowed by criminals. A. type of ship used for c. Department of Justice
3862. Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times a day
transportation of criminals in the 16th
or as often as necessary to ensure that all inmates are duly
century. accounted for:
A. Gaols a. Two
B. Galleys b. Four
C. Hulks c. Three
D. D. Mamertine Prison d. d. Five
3863. The head of prison may establish _______ whenever
the frequency of requests for interviews reach a volume that
3856. Represented the earliest warrants limitations:
codification of Roman Law incorporated into a. Media group
the Justinian Code. It is also collection of legal b. news team
principles engraved on metal tablets and set c.Press pool
up on . d. public affairs
A. Twelve Tablets 3864. An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in
CIW may be allowed to stay with the mother for a period not
B. Burgundian Code
exceeding:
C. Hammurabic Code a. 1 month
D.Greek code of Draco b. 1 year
c. 6 months
3857. The most popular workhouse in d. 6 years
London which was built for the employment 3865. BUCOR has two (2) Assistant Directors, one for
Administration and Rehabilitation and one for:
and housing of English prisoners.
a. Health and Care services
A. Bridewell
b. Prisons and Security
B. Hospicio de San Michelle c. Correction and Rehabilitation d. Custody and Security
C. Saint Bridget” Well
D. Walnut Street Jail
3866. A representative of the news media may file a written
3858. Who appoints Probation request with the head of prison for a personal interview of an
inmate that he/she shall file a written request at least:
Administrator, Regional Probation Officers
a. One day
and Assistant Probation Officers? b. two days
A. DILG Secretary c. Three days
C. President d. four days
B. DOJ Secretary 3867. This is the process wherein prison officials try to convert
D. Administrator inmates and be affiliated into their religion:
a. Conversions
b. agitation
c. Proselytizing
d. Captivation
3868. Prisoner who violated prison rules may be punished by
3859. It is the branch of criminology a confinement in a disciplinary cell from _ to _ months
which deals with the management and depending upon the gravity of the offense committed:
administration of inmates: a. One to two
a. Criminal justice b. one to three
b. Penology c. One to four
c. Victimology d. one to five
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3869. During the 11th and successive years of following years b. Punishment
of prisoners imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction c. Deterrence
of __ days for each month of good behaviour: d. Rehabilitation
a. Five
3878. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called
b. eight
c. Ten a. Reprieve
d. fifteen c. Amnesty
3870. During the following years until the 10th year, inclusive, b. Pardon
of inmate’s imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction d. Communication
of:
a. Five
b. eight
c. Ten
d. fifteen
3871. During the first two years of inmates imprisonment, he 3879. Defined by the BJMP refers to a person who is accused
shall be allowed a deduction of: before a court or competent authority and is temporarily
a. Five days confined in jail while undergoing or awaiting investigation,
b. ten days trial or final judgment.
c. Seven days a. Prisoner
d. twelve days
b. Bail
3872. GCTA means:
a. Good conduct turning allowance c. Detainee
b. . good conduct time allowance d. Arrest
c. Good conduct training allotment 3880. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be
d. d. none of the foregoing prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
a. Parents
3873. It is a form of bails that the court may release a person
b. Offended Spouse
in custody of a responsible person.
c. Guardians
a. Property bond
d. Godfather
b. Recognizance
3881. He is considered as the American Pioneer of Probation
c. Corporate surety
a. Matthew Davenport Hill
d. Cash deposit
b. John Augustus
3874. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the
c. Father Cook
Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the:
d. d. Edward Savage
a. Department of Justice
3882. Which of the following is an executive clemency that
b. Chief Executive
requires the concurrence of congress?
c. Judiciary
a. probation
d. Legislative
b. Amnesty
338. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to
c. pardon
suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence
d. Parole
and extinguish criminal liability.
3883. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted
a. Parole
by the probation officer to the court within
c. Pardon
a. 20 days
b. Executive clemency
c. 60 days
d. none of the above
b. 30 days
3875. The B.J.M.P. is under
d. none of the above
the administration of the:
3884. Parole is a matter of ___.
a. DILG
a. privilege
c. BUCor
b. right
b. PNP
c. grace
d. DOJ
d. requirement
3876. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier
3885. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.
sentence to a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter
a. punishment
term.
b. treatment
a. Amnesty
c. enjoyment
c. Reprieve
d. incarceration
b. Commutation
3886. PPA is headed by:
d. none of the foregoing
a. Director
3877. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear
b. Administrator
of punishment.
c. Secretary
a. Retribution
d. Superior

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3887. Is a pecuniary punishment imposed by the law tribunal c. Provincial Government
upon a person convicted of crime or misdemeanor. d. Parole and Probation Administration
a. Remission 3896. Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of
b. Forfeiture what government agency
c. Fine a. Parole and Probation Administration
d. All of the above b. Board of Pardons and Parole
3888. Who may grant GCTA to an inmate who displays good c. Probation and Parole Administration
behavior and no record of violation of prisons rules and d. Board of Parole and Pardons
regulations 3897. It is known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006.
a. President a. R.A. 7610
b. Director of Prisons b. P.D. 603
c. Warden c. R.A. 9262
d. None of the above d. R.A. 9344
3889. A person who is placed under probation. 3898. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the:
a. Petitioner a. Director
b. Probationer b. Secretary of the dnd
c. Probationee c. Chief of executive
d. None of the above d. Prison inspector
3899. A term means a friend of a court
a. Amicos curae
b. Amigos curae
3890. It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability
c. Amicus curiae
of the individual to whom it is granted without any condition.
d. None of the above
a. Special pardon
3900. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he
b. Absolute pardon
or she may not commit another crime in the future.
c. Conditional pardon
a. Retribution
d. General pardon
b. Deterrence
3891. Which is not a form of bail?
c. Incapacitation
a. Cash deposit
d. Rehabilitation
b. Corporate surety
c. Recognizance
d. Title bond
3892. An offender who surrenders from escaping 3901. He is considered as the father of Probation in England.
because of calamity immediately 48 hours after the a. Matthew Davenport Hill
pronouncement of the passing away of calamity shall be b. Father Cook
granted c. John Augustus
a. 1/5 reduction of sentence d. Edward Savage
b. 1/2 reduction of sentence 3902. An attached agency of the Department of Justice
c. 2/5 reduction of sentence which provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of
d. 2/6 reduction of sentence offenders who are likely to respond to individualized
3893. He is considered as the father of probation in the community based treatment programs.
Philippines. a. BJMP
a. Ferdinand Marcos b. Bureau of Corrections
b. Teodulo Natividad c. Provincial Government
c. Fidel Ramos d. Parole and Probation Administration
d. Antonio Torres 3903. Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual
3894. The following are forms of executive clemency, for an ordinary crime.
EXCEPT a. General pardon
a. Commutation b. Absolute pardon
b. Reform model c. Conditional pardon
c. Amnesty d. Special pardon
d. Pardon 3904. Refers to incurring of a liability to pay a definite sum of
3895. An agency under the Department of Justice that is money as the consequence of violating the provisions of some
charged with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, statute or refusal to comply with some requirement of law.
that is, those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of a. Remission
more than three (3) years b. Forfeiture
a. BJMP c. Fine
b. Bureau of Corrections d. All of the above

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3905. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is c. intelligence officer
limited to the following, except: d. law enforcer
a. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment.
b. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the 3914. When does probation revocable before the final
violation of any election law may be granted without discharge of the probationer by the court for the violation of
favorable recommendation of the Commission of Elections. any of the conditions of probation.
c. Pardon is exercised only after conviction a. any time during probation
d. Pardon is administered by the court b. 1st 3 months of the probationer
3906. It refers to commission of another crime during c. after 1 year under probation
service of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous d. none of the above
offense. 3915. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has
a. Recidivism been subsequently convicted of another crime;
b. Delinquency a. progress report
c. Quasi-recidivism b. violation report
d. City prisoner c. infraction report
3907. It refers to leniency or mercy. d. arrest report
a. Power 3916. The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT
b. Clemency one:
c. Grace a. those who escape from confinement or evaded
d. Damages sentence
3908. A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on b. those convicted of offense punished by death penalty,
a certain category. reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment
a. Special pardon c. those who are habitual delinquents
b. Absolute pardon d. none of the above
c. Conditional pardon 3917. During the 11th and successive years of imprisonment
d. General pardon of an inmate, he shall allowed a deduction of how many days
3909. During the 3rd to 5th year inclusive of imprisonment of for each month for displaying good behavior?
an inmate, He shall allow a deduction of how many days for a. 10 days
each month for displaying good behavior? b. 15 days
a. 10 days c. 8 days
b. 15 days d. 5 days
c. 8 days 3918. It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of
d. 5 days punishment for a time after conviction and sentence.
3910. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in a. Reprieve
the state which exempts an individual from the punishment b. Amnesty
which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended c. Probation
by the President thru the recommendation of the Board of d. Commutation
Parole and Pardon is called: 3919. Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction.
a. Amnesty a. Administrator
b. Parole b. Warden
c. Probation c. Director
d. Pardon d. Commander
3911. It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty. 3920. Among the following, which has the authority to grant
a. Reprieve parole?
b. Amnesty a. President
c. Probation b. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Commutation c. Director of Prison
3912. Refers to the conditional release of an offender from a d. Court
correctional institution after he has served the minimum of his
prison sentences.
a. Parole
b. Pardon 3921. The Bureau of Corrections is under the:
c. Probation a. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. None of the above b. Department of Justice
c. Department of the Interior and Local Government
3913. The who investigates for the court a referral for
d. Department of Health
probation or supervises a probationer or both 3922. is the redress that the state takes against an offending
a. police officer member of society that usually involves pain and suffering:
b. probationer officer a. incarceration

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b. floggings d. Hedonism
c. ordeal 3932. This approached of penology assessed at the time of
d. punishment French Revolution:
a. Classical school
3923. This code introduced the concept of restitution. But b. Neo classical school
punishments were meted according to the social class of c. Positivist school
the offender: d. Hedonism
a. Justinian code 3933. According to this theory “a criminal is like a sick man
b. The Greeks who needs not to be punished but treated in a hospital so that
c. Burgundian code his illness which has something to do with the commission of
d. Code of Hammurabi crime may be cured”:
3924. According to this ancient law that a. Corrections
was practice in the areas of Babylon, b. Penology
The killer is answerable not to the family c. Classical
but to the king: d. Positivist
a. Code of Hammurabi 3934. This school views as crime as social phenomenon:
b. Roman twelve tables a. Classical school
c. Pharaoh’s law b. Neo classical school
d. Burgundian code c. Positivist school
3925. This Roman Catholic tribunal was responsible for the d. Sociology
detection and punishment of unbelievers and heresy: 3935. It is the study and practice of a systematic management
a. Inquisition in jails or prisons and other institutions concerned with the
b. Lateran council custody, treatment and rehabilitation of criminal offenders:
c. Ecclesiastical court a. Penology
d. Tortio millenio adviniente b. Corrections
3926. borne out of the need to maintain the health of c. Correctional administration
prisoners so that their profitability can be maximized not out d. Penal management
of humanitarian reasons as the government and the 3936. a Latin word which means pain or suffering:
merchants want to make it appear: a. Penology
a. UN convention for profitability of prisoners b. Poena
b. US convention for rehabilitation of prisoners c. Peona
c. UN convention for treatment of prisoners d. All of the abovementioned
d. US convention for treatment of prisoners 3937. It is the field of criminal justice administration which
3927. In an attempt to further limit the blood feuds, the feudal utilizes the body of knowledge and practices of the
lords instituted official methods by which God could indicate government and the society in handling individuals who have
who was innocent and who was guilty. One such method was been convicted of an offense:
called: a. Penology
a. Trial by fighting b. Corrections
b. Trial by ordeal c. Criminal justice
c. Trial by combat d. All of the above
d. Dei indicum 3938. The principle of tit for tat appears throughout this code:
3928. Exist as the more common forms of punishment. this a. Code of drakon
was tied to the crime committed: b. Code of Hammurabi
a. Banishment c. Justinian code
b. Death d. Burgundian code
c. Torture 3939. existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years
d. Mutilation before Christ was born, the king ruled the City of Ur in ancient
3929. Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the Sumeria:
public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring
a. king Ur Nammu
the latter to undergo institutional treatment program:
b. king Herodes
a. Solitary confinement
b. Punishment c. Emperor Justin
c. Floggings d. None of the above
d. Imprisonment 3940. Death Penalty awaits slaves who commit murder,
3930. It is conditional release after the prisoner has served assaults on noble or middle class women, sexual relations with
part of his sentenced on prison for the purpose of gradually re- noble or middle class women and giving aid or comfort to
introducing them to free life:
escape offender:
a. Probation
b. Parole a. Burgundian code
c. Pardon b. Drakonian code
d. Executive clemency c. Law of Talion
3931. This school argues that since children and lunatic cannot d. The Greeks
calculate pleasure and pain they should not be prepared as 3941. This people love to philosophize that their brand of
criminals and as such that they should not be punished:
justice was not vengeful and retributive. They maintain that
a. Classical school
justice should reform the offender but must also serve as
b. Neo classical school
c. Positivist school deterrence to others from committing offense:

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a. The Romans c. Must not have committed any crime against national
b. The Greeks security
c. The Jews d. Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment
d. The Americans 3950. The following are the unanticipated consequence of
3942. Today, the stand of the Church has become a punishment; EXCEPT:
complete reversal of the past. it was the late Pro-Life Pope a. It develops a caution in the parts of criminal committing
John Paul II who reversed this so called: crime during night time
a. Eclessiastical court b. Generally stops constructive effort (lack of respect to the
b. Inquisition law)
c. Ordeal c. Punishment elevates the criminal
d. Culture of death d. Develops public attitude of idolizing criminals
3943. punishment inflicted by Greek Justice which is also 3951. It assumes that every individual has free will and knows
practice of the Israelites in Jesus time: the penal laws:
a. stoning to death a. Classical school
b. breaking on a wheel b. Neo classical
c. burning alive
c. Positivist
d. trial by ordeal
3952. This school focuses on crimes and on the corresponding
3944. the offended party is fastened by metal bands to a
punishment attached to it:
board made of wood and then had their bones systematically
a. Classical school
broken:
a. stoning to death b. Neo classical
b. breaking on a wheel c. Positivist
c. burning alive 3953. This school maintains that criminals must be
d. trial by ordeal rehabilitated to institutions provided by the government and
3945. like breaking on a wheel, burning alive was once should not be punished contrary to other schools ideology:
practiced by Romans. The Roman Catholic Church has also a. Classical school
been known to resort to this form of punishment during the b. Neo classical
time of inquisition for non believers, witches and heretics: c. Positivist
a. stoning to death 3954. BJMP stands for:
b. breaking on a wheel a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
c. burning alive b. The government
d. trial by ordeal c. The jail bureau
3946. The systematic transfer of offenders to colonized land d. None of the abovementioned
started to intensify in 17th Century. 3955. STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are
a. Absolutely true
administered and controlled by the Provincial Government
b. Probably true
(Governor).
c. Absolutely false
STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the
d. Probably false
supervision of the Department of the Interior and Local
Government.
a. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
3947. Is the procedure by which prisoner are selected for b. Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true
release on the basis of individual response and progress within c. Both statement is true
the correctional institution and a service by which they are d. Both statement is false
provided with necessary control of guidance as they served the 3956. The following institutions are controlled and
remainder of their sentence with in the free community: supervised by our government EXCEPT:
a. Probation a. New Bilibid Prisons
b. Parole b. Manila City Jail
c. Imprisonment c. Iwahig Penal Colony
d. Reprieve d. Elmira Reformatory
3948. The indeterminate sentence law was approved on: 3957. The confinement of an inmate may be transferred to an
a. December 5, 1933 AFP stockade provided the inmate is certified as minimum
b. December 25, 1933 security risk and is __ years of old who can no longer perform
c. December 5, 1955 manual work:
d. December 25, 1955 a. More than 60
3949. The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT: b. more than 50
a. Granted by the court c. More than 70
b. He was once on Probation d. more than 80

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3958. As a general rule, viewing the remains of the deceased 3968. This correctional facility introduced individuals
relative of an inmate may be enjoyed only if the deceased housing in cellblocks, with congregate work in shops during the
relative is in a place within a radius of ___ kilometres by road day:
from prison: a. Elmira reformatory
a. 10 b. Borstal institution
b. 30 c. Auburn prison system
c. 20 d. Pennsylvania prison system
3969. His progressive move was noted when the convicts
d. d. 40
after good behavior were given marks and after accumulating
3959. An inmate over _ years of age may be excused from
the required number, a ticket to leave was issued to deserving
mandatory labor: convicts:
a. 50 a. Sir Walter Crofton
b. 60 b. Alexander Macanochie
c. 55 c. Zebulon Brockway
d. 65 d. Manuel Montesinos
3960. The color of maximum security risk prisoner’s uniform: 3970. opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to
a. Tangerine remodel its philosophy away from punitive and retributive
b. Blue practices and veered towards reformation and treatment
c. Brown educational and vocational are imparted to the prisoner as a
way to treat his lack of life skills to survive according to the
d. Yellow
rules of the outside society:
3961. The color of medium security risk prisoner’s uniform:
a. Elmira reformatory
a. Tangerine
b. Sing-sing prisons
b. Blue
c. Alcatraz
c. Brown
d. Walnut street jail
d. Yellow
3971. This is considered as the “institution of silent
3962. The color of minimum security risk prisoner’s uniform: system” due to the imposition of strict code of silence:
a. Tangerine a. Auburn
b. Blue b. Pennsylvania
c. Brown c. Walnut street
d. Yellow d. Irish prisons
3972. He established an agricultural colony for male
youth:
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
3963. The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement or b. Sir Walter Crofton
custody by an inmate: c. Manuel Montesinos
a. Detention d. Domer of france
b. emancipation 3973. assigned as superintendent of the English Penal
c. Release of prisoner Colony located at Norfolk Island in Australia:
d. escape a. Alexander Macanochie
3964. The following are considered instruments of restraint; b. Domer of France
EXCEPT: c. 8Sir Walter Crofton
a. Leg irons d. Zebulon Brockway
b. whipping rod 3974. He introduced the progressive stage system. It was
also referred to as the Irish System:
c. Straight jacket
a. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
d. handcuffs b. Manuel Montesinos
3965. Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders: c. Sir Walter Crofton
a. 100 or more d. Alexander Macanochie
b. 21- 99 3975. He was the superintendent of the Elmira
c. 150 or more Reformatory in New York. He introduced a system of grades
for prisoners:
d. 20 or less
a. Zebulon Brockway
3966. Type B jail has a population of ___ offenders:
b. Alexander Macanochie
a. 21 – 99 c. Manuel Montesinos
b. 120 d. Domer of France
c. 20 or less 3976. The progressive development of the prison system
d. 150 came to the middle of the __ century:
3967. Type C jail has a population of ___ offenders: a. 18th
a. 21 – 99 b. 19th
b. 120 c. 20th
c. 20 or less d. 21st
d. 150
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3977. This law brought about extensive reforms in the 3986. He was a penologist and is sometimes regarded as
prison and authorized o penitentiary house with 16 cells to be the father of prison reform in the United States of America:
built in the yard of the jail to carry out solitary confinement a. Alexander Maconochie
with labor for ``hardened atrocious offenders’’: b. Zebulon Reed Brockway
a. ACT of 1890 c. Sir Walter Crofton
b. ACT of 1790 d. Domer of France
3987. It is considered the best reform institution for
c. ACT of 1690
young offenders:
d. ACT of 1590 a. Borstal Institution
b. St. Michael Institution
c. Auburn System
d. Pennsylvania
3988. This is the discipline being implemented in
Louisiana state penitentiary. Under this discipline, every
3978. The new prison had the traditional lay out of large inmate is responsible for the actuations of all the others:
rooms for the inmates: a. Rough Rider Industries
a. Auburn Prison b. I am my Brother’s keeper
b. Pennsylvania c. Conditional setting
c. Walnut Street d. collective responsibility
d. Irish Prisons
3979. On the year ___, the Elmira Reformatory is 3989. Sweden, a convict may undergo
founded: probation with community service and
a. 1875 render service to the community for ___
b. 1876 to ____ hours depending on the
c. 1877 seriousness of the crime committed:
d. 1888 a. 50 – 250
3980. He was the Director of Prison in Valencia, Spain b. 40- 280
which organized prisoners into companies and appointed c. 40 – 240
petty officer in charge: d. 50 – 260
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise 3403. what type of questions are allowed to be
b. Manuel Montesinos asked to a witness who is unwilling to testify?
c. Alexander Maconochie A. Intelligent
d. Sir Walter Crofton B. Misleading
3981. This state prison contained cells in the pits similar C. Unresponsive
to the underground cistern of long ago rome:
D. Leading
a. St Michael System
b. Sing-Sing prisons 3990. Which theory of criminal
c. Maine State prisons punishment holds that punishment is
d. Wal nut street imposed on the offender to allow
3982. An agricultural colony for male juveniles was society to vent its anger toward and
established by Domer of France. The boys were confined in exact vengeance upon the criminal?
cottages with an appointed ___ to supervise them: A. Retribution
a. Penal guards
B. Restoration
b. Immediate supervisors
c. House fathers C. The Executive
d. Big brothers D. The Quasi-Judiciary
3983. Under the Irish system, a prison who wanted to 3991. The post-sentence investigation
lessen their period of imprisonment should be confined in a report is submitted to court
singular cell (Solitary confinement) for a period of ___ months within___________?
with a reduce diet:
A. 10-days period
a. 6 months
b. 7 months B. 30-days period
c. 8 months C. 15-days period
d. 9 months D. 60-days period
3984. This system created by Sir Walter Crofton is an 3992. To what agency is an alien parolee
equivalent to a modern day parole: turned over for
a. Progressive stage system disposition,documentation and
b. Spanish system
appropriate order?
c. Criminal justice system
d. None of the foregoing A. Bureau of Corrections
3985. It features consisted solitary confinement of B. Bureau of Immigration and
prisoners in their own cell day and night: Deportation
a. Auburn system C. Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Pennsylvania system D. National Bureau of Investigation
c. St Michael System 3993. A complaint may be filed by any of
d. Irish system
the following, EXCEPT:

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 A. The offended party 4001. Ideal number of days for an inmate
B. other public officers to be placed in the quarantine unit at
C. any peace officer the Reception and Diagnostic Center .
D. Offender A. 55 days
3994. The President grants B. 5 days
absolute/conditional pardon based on C. 60 days
the recommendation of D. 15 days
A. Bureau of Corrections
B. Office of the Executive Secretary
C. Board of Pardon and Parole 4002. In the 13th century, a criminal could
D. Parole and Probation Administration avoid punishment by claiming refugee
in a church for a period of ___ at the end
3995. A penalty having its minimum and of which time he has compelled to leave
maximum duration is referred to as the realm by a road or path assigned to
a. Determinate sentence him.
b. Capital punishment
c. Corporal punishment A. 30 days
d. Indeterminate sentence B. 50 days
3996. Which of the following executive C. 40 days
clemency needs the concurrence of the D. 60 days
congress? 4003. Who among the following may be
a.Pardon granted conditional pardon?
a. Amnesty a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by
government physician
b. Probation
b. A prisoner who served as “bastonero”
c. Parole c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
3997. It is an executive clemency d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he
whereby the convicted person should broke his probation conditions
serve part of his sentence? 4004. The following are considered
a.Pardon minor offenses of an inmate, EXCEPT:
b.Parole a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
b. Failing to stand at attention and give due
c.Probation
respect when confronted by or reporting to
d.Amnesty any officer or member of the custodial force
3998. How many days before election c. Willful waste of food
does inmate are prohibited from going d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness
out? and orderliness in his quarter and/or
A. 30 days surroundings
4005. What documents are attached to
B. 90 Days
the Release Document of the parolee?
C. 60 Days
1. Prison record
D. 120 Days 2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer
3999. Maya is in prison for the past 48 3. Location of the Prison or Confinement
months and has never been involved in 4. Order of Court
any trouble, no matter how minor. If a. 4 and 1
you were the prison director, how many b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
days for each month would you approve
d. 2 and 3
as Maya’s good conduct time 4006. An advantageous result in the
allowance? integration of correctional agencies is:
A. 5 days a. More physical facilities to maintain
B. 8 days b. More prisoners to supervise
C. 10 days c. Divided resources such as manpower and
D. 12 days finances
d. Better coordination of services and
4000. The post-sentence investigation
increased cost-efficiency
report is submitted to court
within___________?
A. 10-days period
B. 30-days period 4007. A petition for the grant of absolute
C. 15-days period or conditional pardon shall be
favorably endorsed to the Board by the
D. 60-days period
_______ if the crime committed by the
petitioner is against national security.
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 a. Secretary of Foreign Affairs
b. Secretary of Justice
c. Secretary of National Defense 4014. The President grants
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local absolute/conditional pardon based on
Government the recommendation of:
4008. Under which condition can a a. Board of Pardon and Parole
prisoner be immediately released b. Bureau of Corrections
provided he is not a recidivist or he had c. Parole and Probation Administration
not been previously convicted 3 or d. Office of the Executive Secretary
more times of any crime? 4015. Which of the following are
a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the classified as detainees?
maximum penalty for the offense he may 1. Accused person who is confined in jail while
be found guilty of is destierro undergoing investigation
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the 2. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting
maximum penalty of the offense he may be of undergoing trial
found guilty of is prision correccional 3. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting
c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the final judgment
maximum penalty of the offense he may be 4. Accused person who is confined in jail and already
found guilty of is reclusion perpetua convicted to serve a prison term
d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or a. 3, 4 and 1
more than the possible maximum term of b. 2, 3 and 4
punishment of the offense he may be found c. 4, 1 and 2
guilty of d. 1, 2 and 3
4009. Zosimo was convicted to a prison
term of prision correccional. Will he 4016. Why is probation service
qualify for probation? analogous to parole service?
a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) a. Both have similar investigation and
day supervision functions.
b. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years b. Both services are performed by the
and one (1) day prosecutors.
c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years c. Both services are performed by alcoholics.
and one (1) day d. Both services are under the courts.
d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one
(1) day
4010. There are four (4) acknowledged 4017. The Probation Officer and
goals of _____________ as follows: Volunteer Probation Aides undertake
retribution, deterrence, incapacitation supervision and visitation of the
and rehabilitation. probationer. However, control over the
a. Criminal intent probationer and probation program is
b. Criminal mind exercised by:
c. Criminal sanction a. The Chief of Police of the place where
d. Criminal action he/she resides
4011. The system of key control in a jail b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
includes: c. The Secretary of Justice
a. An updated system of monitoring and d. The Court who placed him on probation
control of keys
b. A documented inventory of security
personnel 4018. Which authorizes the release of a
c. A collection of all padlocks and keys detainee who has undergone
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting preventive imprisonment equivalent to
them the maximum imposable sentence for
4012. To what agency is an alien parolee the offense he is charged with?
turned over for disposition, a. Batas Pambansa 95
documentation and appropriate order? b. Batas Pambansa 85
a. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation c. Batas Pambansa 105
b. Bureau of Corrections d. Batas Pambansa 965
c. Board of Pardons and Parole 4019. What is the primary purpose of the
d. National Bureau of Investigation presentence investigation?
a. To help the judge in selecting the
appropriate sentence of the offender
4013. The Post-Sentence Investigation b. To exonerate the offender
Report is submitted to court within c. To give the offender an opportunity to
_____________. defend himself
a. 10-day period d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case
b. 30-day period
c. 15-day period
d. 60-day period
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 4020. According to the control theory, c. It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job skills
crime and delinquency result when an or educational achievement
individual’s bond to d. It assigns prisoners to daily routine work
________________ is weak and like laundry and janitorial
broken. 4028. There are two (2) inmates arguing
a. Behavior over loss of some items in their cell.
b. Police You are the guard on duty. What will
c. Law you do?
d. Society a. Invite both of them to the office and
investigate the matter
b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the
4021. A drug user who is placed under heated discussion
probation may be made to serve his c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
sentence by the court if he d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the
a. Becomes unruly and undisciplined culprit
b. Commits another offense
c. He is 21 years old
d. Violates any of the conditions of his 4029. Pedro Ayog is a probationer who is
probation ordered by the Court to pay certain
4022. JOI Jean Sibuto confiscated white amounts to the victim as part of his
crystalline substance rolled in a civil liability. To whom shall he pay the
transparent sachet and she suspected amount for remittance of the victim?
it to be “shabu”. What should he do a. Municipal treasurer
first? b. Cashier of the trial court
a. Record the incident in the logbook c. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
b. Bring the substance to NBI d. Cashier of the Probation Office
c. Properly identify the substance
d. Properly preserve the evidence
4023. All data gathered about the
probation applicant shall be treated 4030. The ______________ model of
_________________. correctional institution focuses in
a. Comprehensively security, discipline and order:
b. Appropriately a. Rehabilitative
c. Confidentially b. Reintegration
d. Judiciously c. Medical
d. Custodial
4031. Studies are conducted to
4024. Is the court order revoking the determine the experiences of residents
grant of probation appealable? with crimes which are not usually
a. Definitely yes, it is appealable reported to the police. What are these
b. Definitely no, it is not appealable studies called?
c. It depends on the outcome of the a. Population surveys
investigation b. Police surveys
d. It depends on the violations committed c. Victimization surveys
4025. Which theory of criminal d. Information surveys
punishment holds that punishment is 4032. Inmates with heart diseases need
imposed on the offender to allow to be treated with a little more care
society to vent its anger toward and than other inmates. Which of the
exact vengeance upon the criminal? following should NOT be done by a jail
a. Retribution officer?
b. Restoration a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical
c. Rehabilitation staff regularly
d. Deterrence b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his
4026. What is referred to as the prescribed diet
reduction of the duration of a prison c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the
sentence? inmate
a. Commutation of sentence d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient
b. Parole inmate
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon
4027. There are various types of prison 4033. What is the classification of the
programs. For what purpose is a prisoner’s offense of possession of
rehabilitative program? lewd or pornographic literature and/or
a. It secures prisoners from escape or violence photographs?
b. It employs prisoners in various products or a. Minor offense
good-producing tasks b. Less grave offense
c. Victimless offense
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G.S.T. 2019
 d. Grave offense 4041. Which of the following is NOT an
4034. Juveniles are not capable of objective in the conduct of interview of
committing deviant acts, and what are probation applicant?
considered deviant acts are deviant a. To diagnose the applicant’s problems
only by mainstream standards, not by b. To determine how the person shall respond
the offender’s standards. This to supervision
assumption is advanced by the c. To gather information about the person
________________ theory. d. To determine his paying capacity
a. Social
b. Juvenile 4042. Who is the Boston bootmaker who
c. Cultural deviance was the founder of probation in the
d. Choice United States?
4035. If people fear being apprehended a. Sir Walter Crofton
and punished, they will not risk b. Alexander Maconochie
breaking the law. This view is being c. John Murray Spear
held by the __________ theory. d. John Augustus
a. Displacement 4043. What is meant by the concept of
b. General deterrence probation which is from the Latin word
c. Discouragement “probatio” and had historical roots in
d. Incapacitation the practice of judicial reprieve?
4036. One of the following is NOT a a. Live with integrity
gauge in determining the age of the b. Testing period
child and that is: c. Walk with faith
a. Baptismal certificate d. Out of the institution
b. Birth certificate 4044. Sociologists look at corrections as:
c. Looks a. The intervention which documents the
d. Warts attitudinal response of offenders and staff
4037. What do you call the monitoring to processes of punishment
and support of juveniles who have b. The medium through which prisoners
been released from custody or change their behavior and attitudes
supervision by the juvenile court. c. The consolidation of interactions between
a. After care correctional officers and the prisoners
b. Welfare d. A total institution in which the basic
c. Duty physiological needs of prisoners were to be
d. Concern met away from the outside world

4045. What is the function responsibility

4038. The scientific approach to the of prison guards?
study of criminal behavior is a. Inmates’ health
____________________. b. Prison security
a. Research c. Prisoner’s interpersonal relations
b. Survey d. Prison industry
c. Criminology 4046. Level of security facility which is
d. Study usually enclosed by a thick wall about
4039. To be eligible for the grant of 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in
conditional pardon, what portion of every corner, a tower post is manned
the sentence must have been served by heavily armed guards:
by a petitioner-prisoner? a. Maximum security facility
a. At least one half of the minimum of his b. Medium security facility
indeterminate sentence c. Super maximum security facility
b. At least one half of the maximum of his d. Minimum security facility
indeterminate sentence 4047. Which of the following procedures
c. At least one fourth of the maximum of his should be observed in handling drug
indeterminate sentence addicts who are incarcerated?
d. At least one third of the minimum of his 1. They should be segregated especially during the
indeterminate sentence withdrawal period
4040. Who among the following can 2. They should be closely supervised to prevent
apply for release under the Law on attempts to commit suicide or self-mutilation
Release on Recognizance? 3. They should not be administered
a. One who is charged with an offense whose sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a
penalty is three (3) years and above physician
b. One who is charged with an offense whose 4. They should be transferred to mental institution of
penalty is twelve (12) months and above proper psychiatric treatment
c. One who is charged with an offense whose a. 2, 3 and 4
penalty is not more than six (6) months b. 3, 4 and 1
d. One who is charged with an offense whose c. 4, 1 and 2
penalty is six (6) months and above d. 1, 2 and 3
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 conditions appearing in his Release
Documents?
4048. A prisoner who is aggressive, 1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and
violent, quarrelsome and does not submits an Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon
cooperate with other inmates is and Parole
referred to as 2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders
a. Squealer the arrest of the parolee
b. Sucker 3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board
c. Hustler finds that the continuation of his parole is
d. Tough incompatible with public welfare
4049. When does an applicant who was 4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction
granted probation report to the a. 2, 3 and 4
assigned Probation Officer for b. 4, 1 and 2
Interview? c. 1, 2 and 3
a. Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt of d. 3, 4 and 1
probation order 4055. You are a jail personnel assigned to
b. Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of censor inmates’ mails. In one mail, you
probation order found unusual names and sentences.
c. Within seventy-two (72) hours from his What shall you do?
receipt of the probation order a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
d. Within twenty-four (24) hours from receipt b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and
of probation order give it to the inmate
4050. What agency issues the Certificate c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the
of Final Release and Discharge of a contents to determine the real meaning of
Parolee? the names and sentences
a. Bureau of Corrections d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the
b. Board of Pardons and Parole addressee
c. Parole and Probation Administration 4056. The classical theory of criminology
d. Department of Justice provides that the basis for criminal
4051. Pedro was arrested by the police liability is ______________________
for theft in the amount of P5,000.00. a. Individual’s thinking
He was brought to the police station b. Individual’s mental state
and an administrative record of the c. Human free will
arrest was prepared. He was d. Human facilities
fingerprinted, interrogated and placed 4057. He said the “crime must be
in a line-up for identification by considered an injury to society, and the
witnesses. What process did he only rational measure of crime is the
undergo? extent of injury.”
a. Preliminary hearing a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Booking b. Cesare Beccaria
c. Trial c. James Wilson
d. Indictment d. John Howard
4058. What is the effect of the grant of
probation?
4052. The “Discharge on Parole” issued a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
by the Board to the parolee, and also b. The execution of sentence is suspended
issued by the President of the c. The probationer is sent to prison
Philippines to a pardonee upon the d. The prison term is doubled
Board’s recommendation.
a. Release document 4059. To what programs shall prisoners
b. Release folders be assigned so that they can engage in
c. Release signatures producing goods?
d. Release notes a. Industrial
b. Operational
c. Agricultural
4053. What is called the body of d. Administrative
unwritten guidelines which expresses 4060. In case of mass jailbreak, all
the values, attitudes and types of members of the custodial force shall
behavior that older inmates demand of proceed to their assigned critical posts
younger ones? armed with their issued firearms to:
a. Code of jail conduct a. Shoot at the escapees
b. Rehabilitation guidelines b. Protect the other inmates
c. Code of silence c. Plug off the escape routes
d. Inmate social code d. Give warning shots
4054. Which of the following guidelines 4061. When shall the prison record and
shall be followed when the parolee carpeta of a petitioner for executive
commits an infraction of the terms and

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 clemency be forwarded to the Board of 4068. An offender can apply for Release
Pardon and Parole (BPP)? on Recognizance is he is convicted with
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the an offense whose penalty is:
BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP a. Three (3) years and above
for prison record and carpeta b. Not more than six (6) months
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration c. Twelve (12) months and above
of the minimum of the prisoner’s d. Six (6) months and above
indeterminate sentence 4069. Which of the following is the
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the prison administrator’s tool for
BUCOR Director of the BPP request for controlling and stabilizing prison
prison record and carpeta operation?
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the a. Leadership
BUCOR Director of the request made by the b. Supervision
BPP for the prison record and carpeta c. Activity
d. Recreation
4070. Mario is soon to be released from
4062. Which of the following contributes camp Bukang Liwayway. He is sent to a
to prison violence? pre-release facility called
a. Prison industry _______________ for counseling and
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including therapy.
overcrowding and threats of homosexual a. Recreation Center
rapes b. Congregate Group
c. Conjugal visits c. Half-way House
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out d. Diagnostic Center
and work 4071. What is referred to as the concept
4063. Which of the following factors of the “greatest happiness of the
makes it difficult for a released greater number” espoused by Jeremy
prisoner to lead a straight life? Bentham?
a. Scientific advances have made modern a. Utilitarianism
living more pleasant b. Rehabilitation
b. Police conduct close supervision on c. Reformation
released prisoners d. Conformance
c. Lasting reformation must come from within 4072. Juanito was convicted and
and cannot be imposed sentenced for the crime of serious
d. Many of his contacts and friends are physical injuries to a prison term of
underworld characters prision correccional. Based on his
4064. Under the plan for riots and violent penalty, is he qualified for probation?
disturbances, what shall be done at the a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1
sound of the first pre-arranged alarm? day
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1
rioters day
b. Saturate the area with riot gas c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their years
respective cell d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders 4073. The approval of the application of
4065. Which agency exercises probation is done by the Judge thru the
supervision over parolees? issuance of
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole a. Probation Citation Ticket
b. Probation and Parole Administration b. Probation Order
c. Bureau of Corrections c. Probation Certificate
d. Department of Justice d. Probation Clearance
4066. The judge approves or denies the
grant of probation based on the report
of the 4074. According to this theory, social
a. Social worker actions are repeated (or not repeated)
b. Probation officer as a consequence of their association in
c. Prosecutor the actors mind with punishing or
d. Police office rewarding experiences.
a. Containment
4067. What law grants probation to first b. Differential Association
time offenders who are sent to prison c. Operant Conditioning
terms of not more than six (6) years? d. Differential Identification
a. Presidential Decree No. 448 4075. This theory assumes that people
b. Presidential Decree No. 968 are law-abiding but under great
c. Presidential Decree No. 603 pressure they will resort to crime. . .
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184 a. Strain theory
b. Differential association theory
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 c. Social learning theory participating in various types of
d. Psychoanalytic theory vocational, educational and treatment
4076. What is referred to as the programs.
reduction of the duration of a prison a. Good time
sentence? b. Credits
a. Parole c. Days off
b. Commutation of sentence d. Vacation
c. Absolute pardon 4085. Which of the following
d. Conditional pardon requirements shall qualify a prisoner
4077. It is a report on the background of for parole?
the convict, prepared for the judge to 1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an
decide on the approval or denial of indeterminate sentence
application of probation. 2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a
a. Probation Report final judgment of conviction
b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report 3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less
c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report the good conduct time allowance earned
d. Pre-Trial Report 4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence
4078. By what term is selling of illegal a. 4, 1 and 2
commodities inside prison or jail b. 2, 3 and 4
known? c. 3, 4 and 1
a. Gleaning d. 1, 2 and 3
b. Hustling 4086. When an accused is released from
c. Benting imprisonment on his or her promise to
d. Vending return to court as required, or upon
the undertaking of a suitable person
that he will guarantee the accused’
4079. There are various types of prison appearance in court, there is what is
programs. What type of program that called:
secures prisoner from escape or a. Promise
violence? b. Acknowledgment
a. Maintenance c. Surety
b. Rehabilitative d. Recognizance
c. Industrial 4087. According to the routine activities
d. Security theory, the volume and distribution of
4080. The National Record of the predatory crimes are affected by the
prisoner at the New Bilibid Prison is following, EXCEPT:
called a. Presence of motivated offenders
a. Carpeta b. Absence of capable guardians
b. Released Document c. Availability of suitable targets
c. Commitment Order d. Absence of motivated offenders
d. Mittimus 4088. A group that has a short history,
4081. The founder of the Classical School limited size, and little define territory is
of Criminological Theory. a type of gang known as:
a. John Howard a. Status
b. Jeremy Bentham b. Sporadic
c. Cesare Lombroso c. Criminal
d. Cesare Beccaria d. Collective
4082. If probation is granted by a court 4089. The correctional program which
judge, who grants pardon? enables an individual to enhance his
a. Secretary of Justice employability, develop his intellectual
b. President of the Philippines faculties, and graduate to a free
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court existence in community living all at the
d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole same time is referred to as
_______________
4083. What guarantees the appearance a. Livelihood program
in court of a defendant granted release b. Guidance counseling
on recognizance? c. Education program
a. His/her promise to live a new life d. Religious program
b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison 4090. What rehabilitation program that
c. His/her ties with family, friends, provides a presocial environment
employment, etc. within the prison to help the inmates
d. His/her capacity to raise bail develop noncriminal ways to coping
outside?
a. Psychotherapy
4084. Prisoners are awarded ________ b. Behavior therapy
off from their minimum or maximum c. Occupational therapy
term for maintaining good behavior or d. Milieu therapy
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 4091. Prisoners should not be given 4099. You are a jail personnel assigned to
corporal punishment nor confined in censor inmates’ mails. In one mail, you
dark cells or sweat boxes as these are: found unusual names and sentences.
a. Somewhat prohibited What shall you do?
b. Relatively prohibited a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
c. Absolutely prohibited b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and
d. Fairly prohibited give it to the inmate
4092. Which does not form part of the c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the
basic principles for riot control? contents to determine the real meaning of
a. Preparation of a specific plan of action the names and sentences
b. Dissemination of plan to everyone d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the
c. Rapid execution of plan addressee
d. Firmness in executing the plan 4100. The classical theory of criminology
4093. Prison time is considered a dead provides that the basis for criminal
time when minutes seem to crawl and liability is ______________________
the soul grows bitter. Which of the a. Individual’s thinking
following mitigate the oppressiveness b. Individual’s mental state
of time? c. Human free will
a. Administrative program d. Human facilities
b. Security programs 4101. He said the “crime must be
c. Rehabilitation programs considered an injury to society, and the
d. Custodial program only rational measure of crime is the
4094. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a extent of injury.”
prison term of three (3) years and one a. Jeremy Bentham
(1) day to death, is known as: b. Cesare Beccaria
a. Provincial Prisoner c. James Wilson
b. Insular Prisoner d. John Howard
c. City Prisoner 4102. What is the effect of the grant of
d. Municipal Prisoner probation?
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
b. The execution of sentence is suspended
4095. How is an offender released from c. The probationer is sent to prison
prison or jail? d. The prison term is doubled
1. After service of sentence 4103. To what programs shall prisoners
2. Issuance of order of the court be assigned so that they can engage in
3. Grant of parole producing goods?
4. Grant of pardon a. Industrial
5. Grant of amnesty b. Operational
6. Any lawful order of competent authority c. Agricultural
a. 1,3,4,5 and 6 d. Administrative
b. 1,2,3,4 and 5 4104. In case of mass jailbreak, all
c. All of those listed above members of the custodial force shall
d. 2,3,4,5, and 6 proceed to their assigned critical posts
4096. The institution during the Golden armed with their issued firearms to:
Age of Penology in 1870 to 1880 that a. Shoot at the escapees
used parole extensively. b. Protect the other inmates
a. Irish Prison System c. Plug off the escape routes
b. Elmira Reformatory d. Give warning shots
c. Federal Bureau of Prisons 4105. When shall the prison record and
d. Irish Parole Organization carpeta of a petitioner for executive
4097. Strip search should be conducted: clemency be forwarded to the Board of
a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
witnesses a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the
b. At the warden’s office BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP
c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail for prison record and carpeta
personnel b. At least one (1) month before the expiration
d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the of the minimum of the prisoner’s
others to avoid further embarrassment indeterminate sentence
4098. Idea of probation first existed early c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the
in the 19th century in BUCOR Director of the BPP request for
a. Japan prison record and carpeta
b. U.S.A. d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the
c. England BUCOR Director of the request made by the
d. Ireland BPP for the prison record and carpeta

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 4106. Which of the following contributes pre-release facility called
to prison violence? _______________ for counseling and
a. Prison industry therapy.
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including a. Recreation Center
overcrowding and threats of homosexual b. Congregate Group
rapes c. Half-way House
c. Conjugal visits d. Diagnostic Center
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out 4115. What is referred to as the concept
and work of the “greatest happiness of the
4107. Which of the following factors greater number” espoused by Jeremy
makes it difficult for a released Bentham?
prisoner to lead a straight life? a. Utilitarianism
a. Scientific advances have made modern b. Rehabilitation
living more pleasant c. Reformation
b. Police conduct close supervision on d. Conformance
released prisoners 4116. Juanito was convicted and
c. Lasting reformation must come from within sentenced for the crime of serious
and cannot be imposed physical injuries to a prison term of
d. Many of his contacts and friends are prision correccional. Based on his
underworld characters penalty, is he qualified for probation?
4108. Under the plan for riots and violent a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1
disturbances, what shall be done at the day
sound of the first pre-arranged alarm? b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the day
rioters c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12
b. Saturate the area with riot gas years
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
respective cell 4117. The approval of the application of
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders probation is done by the Judge thru the
4109. Which agency exercises issuance of
supervision over parolees? a. Probation Citation Ticket
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole b. Probation Order
b. Probation and Parole Administration c. Probation Certificate
c. Bureau of Corrections d. Probation Clearance
d. Department of Justice
4110. The judge approves or denies the
grant of probation based on the report 4118. According to this theory, social
of the actions are repeated (or not repeated)
a. Social worker as a consequence of their association in
b. Probation officer the actors mind with punishing or
c. Prosecutor rewarding experiences.
d. Police office a. Containment
b. Differential Association
4111. What law grants probation to first c. Operant Conditioning
time offenders who are sent to prison d. Differential Identification
terms of not more than six (6) years? 4119. This theory assumes that people
a. Presidential Decree No. 448 are law-abiding but under great
b. Presidential Decree No. 968 pressure they will resort to crime. . .
c. Presidential Decree No. 603 a. Strain theory
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184 b. Differential association theory
4112. An offender can apply for Release c. Social learning theory
on Recognizance is he is convicted with d. Psychoanalytic theory
an offense whose penalty is: 4120. What is referred to as the
a. Three (3) years and above reduction of the duration of a prison
b. Not more than six (6) months sentence?
c. Twelve (12) months and above a. Parole
d. Six (6) months and above b. Commutation of sentence
4113. Which of the following is the c. Absolute pardon
prison administrator’s tool for d. Conditional pardon
controlling and stabilizing prison 4121. It is a report on the background of
operation? the convict, prepared for the judge to
a. Leadership decide on the approval or denial of
b. Supervision application of probation.
c. Activity a. Probation Report
d. Recreation b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
4114. Mario is soon to be released from c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
camp Bukang Liwayway. He is sent to a d. Pre-Trial Report
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 4122. By what term is selling of illegal 3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence
commodities inside prison or jail less the good conduct time allowance earned
known? 4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence
a. Gleaning a. 4, 1 and 2
b. Hustling b. 2, 3 and 4
c. Benting c. 3, 4 and 1
d. Vending d. 1, 2 and 3
4130. When an accused is released from
imprisonment on his or her promise to
4123. There are various types of prison return to court as required, or upon
programs. What type of program that the undertaking of a suitable person
secures prisoner from escape or that he will guarantee the accused’
violence? appearance in court, there is what is
a. Maintenance called:
b. Rehabilitative a. Promise
c. Industrial b. Acknowledgment
d. Security c. Surety
4124. The National Record of the d. Recognizance
prisoner at the New Bilibid Prison is 4131. According to the routine activities
called theory, the volume and distribution of
a. Carpeta predatory crimes are affected by the
b. Released Document following, EXCEPT:
c. Commitment Order a. Presence of motivated offenders
d. Mittimus b. Absence of capable guardians
4125. The founder of the Classical School c. Availability of suitable targets
of Criminological Theory. d. Absence of motivated offenders
a. John Howard
b. Jeremy Bentham 4132. A group that has a short history,
c. Cesare Lombroso limited size, and little define territory is
d. Cesare Beccaria a type of gang known as:
a. Status
4126. If probation is granted by a court b. Sporadic
judge, who grants pardon? c. Criminal
a. Secretary of Justice d. Collective
b. President of the Philippines 4133. The correctional program which
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court enables an individual to enhance his
d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole employability, develop his intellectual
faculties, and graduate to a free
existence in community living all at the
4127. What guarantees the appearance same time is referred to as
in court of a defendant granted release _______________
on recognizance? a. Livelihood program
a. His/her promise to live a new life b. Guidance counseling
b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison c. Education program
c. His/her ties with family, friends, d. Religious program
employment, etc. 4134. What rehabilitation program that
d. His/her capacity to raise bail provides a presocial environment
within the prison to help the inmates
develop noncriminal ways to coping
4128. Prisoners are awarded ________ outside?
off from their minimum or maximum a. Psychotherapy
term for maintaining good behavior or b. Behavior therapy
participating in various types of c. Occupational therapy
vocational, educational and treatment d. Milieu therapy
programs. 4135. Pardon cannot be extended to one
a. Good time of the following instances:
b. Credits a. Rape
c. Days off b. Murder
d. Vacation c. Impeachment
4129. Which of the following d. Brigandage
requirements shall qualify a prisoner 4136. It was held as the 1st probation
for parole? officer employed by the government:
1. Confinement in jail or a. John Augustus
prison to serve an b. Teodolo C Natividad
indeterminate sentence c. Edward N Savage
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to d. Mattew Davenport
a final judgment of conviction

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G.S.T. 2019
 4137. Which of the following is a
prerogative of the chief executive with
concurrence of congress:
a. probation
b. amnesty
c. pardon
d. parole
4138. What crimes apparently have no
complaining victims such as gambling,
prostitution and drunkenness?
a. Compound crime
b. Complex crime
c. Blue collar crime
d. Victimless crime
4139. An open institution usually a penal
form or camp.
a. Maximum security institution
b. Minimum security institution
c. Medium security institution
d. None of these
4140. They assist probation and parole
office in the supervision of the
probationers.
a. Volunteer workers
b. Volunteer probation officers
c. Volunteer community workers
d. Volunteer probation aides

4141. It ensures a more careful selection

of the institution in which the prisoner
is to be confined.
a. Quarantine unit
b. Courts
c. RDC
d. Correction
4142. The continuing relationship
between probation officer and
probationer is known as?
a. Pre-Sentence Investigation
b. None of these
c. supervision
d. affiliation guidance
4143. The ideal ratio or escort is____
prison guard for every____number of
inmates.
a. 1:2
b. 1:4
c. 1:12
d. 1:7

4144. He was the first Superintendent of

Elmira sentence reformatory.
a. John Augustus
b. John Howard
c. Zebulon Brockway
d. Teodulo Natividad

4145. Reducing the degree of Death

penalty inflected upon the council.
a. amnesty
b. commutation
c. pardon
d. commutation of sentence

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