CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 8. What crime committed by Lenie?

COMPILATION a. Theft
b. snatching
Case Situation: c. Robbery
Bong surreptitiously went into the premises of Esco. Not d. Grave Threat
knowing that Esco was inside the house, he burned the house that
Case Situation:
resulted also to the death of Esco.
Manuel entered the house of Lenie by breaking
1. Bong is liable of what crime? the main door. Once inside, Manuel with intent to gain took
a. Arson the LCD Television.
b. Murder 9. Manuel is liable of what crime?
c. Homicide
d. Arson with Murder a. Robbery
2. However if Bong knew that Esco was inside the house and his b. Theft
purpose of burning is to kill Esco.What crime committed by c. Malicious mischief
Bong?
d. snatchig
a. Arson
b. Murder 10. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main door
c. Homicide without breaking it since it was left unlocked and thereafter took
d. Arson with Murder the LCD Television of Lenie. Manuel is liable of a crime of.
Case Situation: a. Robbery
Marcos and Chiz conspired to kill Llanes. They mutually b. Theft
helped one another in abducting Llanes. Before they shoot Llanes, c. Malicious mischief
Marcos intentionally cut off his right ear.
d. snatching
3. What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit? 11. What if Manuel entered the house through the main door
a. Homicide without breaking it since it was left opened and thereafter took
b. Murder the LCD Television, however, when he is supposed to leave,
c. Homicide with Mutilation Lenie arrived, thus Manuel was forced to pass at the back door
d. Murder with serious physical injur which was locked by breaking it. Manuel is liable of what crime?
4. What if Marcos and Chiz did not cut off the right ear, instead they
a. Robbery
soak Llanes into a boiling water. What are did they commit?
a. Homicide b. Theft
b. Murder c. Malicious mischief
c. Homicide with Mutilation d. snatching
d. Murder with serious 12. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main door by
5. What if Marcos and Chiz did not conspired to kill Llanes but they opening it with the use of an ATM card to open the door lock
just saw the latter while walking and intentionally they shoot without breaking it. Upon entry he took the LCD Television.
which resulted to the death of Llanes. What crime did they
Manuel is liable of a crime of?
commit?
a. Homicide a. Robbery
b. Murder b. Theft
c. Frustrated homicide c. Malicious mischief
d. Attempted murder d. Robbery with Theft
Case Situation: Case Situation:
Grace and Jomar begot a child named Manuel The pig of Mang Rodrigo entered in the farm of
without being married. Grace and Jomar parted their ways. Manuel and destroyed the mongo crop of the latter. As a
Grace got married to Bong, however, they were not blessed consequence, Mang Rodrigo got furious, thus, he hacked
to have a child of their own, and thus, they had legally the pig with a bolo. The pig dies as a result.
adopted Manuel. One afternoon, Manuel killed Jomar while 13. What crime is committed by Mang Rodrigo?
the latter was sleeping.
6. What crime committed by Manuel? a. theft
b. property damaged
a. Parricide c. malicious mischief
b. Homicide d. robbery
c. Murder 14. Supposing that after killing the pig, Mang Rodrigo makes use of
d. Infanticide its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked some. What
7. What if Manuel killed Grace? crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. Parricide a. theft
b. Homicide b. property damaged
c. Murder c. malicious mischief
d. Infanticide d. robbery
Case Situation: 15. Supposed it was a Carabao that destroyed the mongo crops of
Allan and Grace while walking towards home Manuel. What crime committed by Manuel?
were approached by Lenie. The latter who is armed with a a. theft
gun declared hold-up while poking the said gun upon Allan. b. malicious mischief
Lenie demanded for their wallet and gave the same to him c. Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
for fear of their lives. Lenie with intent to gain, employed d. robbery
intimidation in taking the personal property of Allan and
Grace.

Page 1 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
16. Supposed after killing the Carabao Mang Rodrigo makes use of 28. What if Lola C who actually entered the bank and took all the
its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked some, what money from the teller?
crime committed by Mang Rodrigo? a. principal by inducement
b.principal by direct participation
a. theft
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
b. malicious mischief d.principal
c.Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law 29. What if Lola A who was outside the bank and served as look-
d. robbery out??
17. Validity of Search Warrant a. principal by inducement
b.principal by direct participation
a. when the judge sign c. principal by indispensable cooperation
b. upon serve d.principal
Case Situation:
c. from the date indicated therein
Alden induces Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice to kill Aldub who
d. from the date receive by officer
is living on an island far from the town, in consideration of the amount
18. Quantum of proof required whether to file an information or of 500,000.00. Lola Dora, te owner of the only boat in the place
complaint in court? agreed to transport Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice and actually
a. probable cause transported them in a place in consideration of 10,000.00,Lola Dora
b. personal knowledge agreed despite knowing the criminal purpose of Yaya Dub,Pastillas
c. substancial and Vice. Upon reaching the place, Yaya Dub held the hands of Aldub
while Pastillas stabs Yayadub and as a result, Aldub dies. Viceremains
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
as look-out.
19. If the search is illegal the things seized is?
a. competent 30. Alden is liable for a crime as?
b. irrelevant a. principal by inducement
c. inadmissible b.principal by direct participation
d. admissible c. principal by indispensable cooperation
20. t is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. It is d.principal
31. Yaya Dub is also liable for a crime as?
the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of action?
a. principal by inducement
a. Factum probandum b.principal by direct participation
b. Evidence c. principal by indispensable cooperation
c. factum probans d.principal
d. factum prubans 32. Vice Pastillas so liable for a crime as?
Case Situation: a. principal by inducement
Alden got married to Maine Mendoza. After 4years from of b.principal by direct participation
being husband and wife, they were not blessed with a child. Alden c. principal by indispensable cooperation
had an illicit relation with Ms. Pastillas. Ang a neighbor), who gave d.principal
birth to child (C). Maine learned about Alden’s relation with Ms. 33. Lola Dora as the owner of the only boat is liable of a crime as?
Pastillas. To cover their illicit relation, Alden intentionally killed his a. principal by inducement
illegitimate infant at its 72 hours age. b.principal by direct participation
21. For what crime Alden can be charged? c. principal by indispensable cooperation
a. homicide b. parricide d.principal
c. murder d. infanticide 34. What if there are several boats available to transport, Lola Dora
22. What if it is Maine who killed the infant? is liable of a crime as?
a. homicide b. parricide a. principal
c. murder d. infanticide b.accessories
23. What if it is the father of Alden who killed the infant? c. accomplice
a. homicide b. parricide d.principal by indispensable cooperation
c. murder d. infanticide 35. What if Pastillas just bury the cadaver of Aldub and he has
24. What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What crime is knowledge about the crime Pastillas is liable of a crime as?
committed by Alden, Maine or the father of Alden? a. principal
a. homicide b. parricide b.accessories
c. murder d. infanticide c. accomplice
Case Situation: d.principal by indispensable cooperation
Lola A, Lola B and Lola C robbed a bank. Lola A and B entered 26. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result of
the bank and took all the money from the teller while Lola C remains the frustration and anger people experience over their
outside the bank and served as look-out. inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
25. Lola A is liable for a crime as? a. strain theory
a. principal by inducement b. psychological theories
b.principal by direct participation c. differential association theory
c. principal by indispensable cooperation d. labeling theory
d.principal 36. A and B one neighbors who case to play “tako” ane day, A
26. Lola B is liable for a crime as? persuaded B to steal the bike of C.In the study of criminal law
a. principal by inducement what is the term used for it?
b.principal by direct participation a. Conspiracy
c. principal by indispensable cooperation b. Proposal
d.principal c. Entrapment
27. Lola C is liable for a crime as? d. Instigation
a. principal by inducement 37. In tumultuous affray ender Article 251 of the RPC how person
b.principal by direct participation may are included?
c. principal by indispensable cooperation a. 3
d.principal b. 8
c. 4

Page 2 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. 6 b. No
38. What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case? c. It depends
a. Preponderance of evidence d. Yes
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
47. Who among the following can apply for release under the Law on
c. Probable cause
d. Substantial Evidence Recognizance?
39. In Revise Penal Code, the intentional or malicious destruction of a. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is
property by means of fire is called. three (3) years and above
a. Arson b. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is
b. Combustion Twelve (12) months and above
c. Disposition c. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is not
d. Murder
morethan Six (6) months
40. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among
d. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is Six
citizens of
(6) months and above
a. Good repute and probity
48. A hostile witness is one whose testimony is not favorable to the
b. High educational level
cause of the party who called him as a witness. Can leading question
c. Good religious background
be asked?
d. High social standing
a. It depends
41. Which of the following procedures should be observed in
b. No
handling drug addicts who are incarcerated?
c. Partially
1.They should be segrageted especially during the
d. Yes
withdrawal period
49. What is the function responsibility of prison guards?
2.They should be closely supervised to prevent attempts
a. Inmates health
to commit suicide or
b. Prison security
self-mutilation
c. Prison's Interpersonal relations
3.They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants
d. Prison industry
unless prescribed by a physician
50. A has grudge against B. He went to the house of B and look for the
4.They should be transferred to mental institution of
latter. However, B was on vacation in the province. In his spite, he
proper psychiatric treatment
destroyed the door of B. Later on, he noticed that the door could be
a. 2, 3 and 4
useful. So, he brought it to his house. What crime was committed?
b. 3, 4 and 1
a. Robbery
c. 4, 1 and 2
b. Maliscious Mischief
d. 1, 2 and 3
c. Attempted Qualified Trespass to Dwelling
42. Which of the following is not an element of malicious mischief?
d. Theft
a. The damage was caused inadvertently
51. What do you call the court that co-equal to the Court of Appeals?
b. The damage caused does not fall with the provisions of
a. Sandiganbayan
arson
b. Court of first instance
c. The offender has caused damage to the property of
c. Supreme court
another
d. Tanodbayan
d. The damage was caused deliberately
52. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of the
43. In special law, the imposed penalty is two years to seven years.
sentence must have been served by a petitioner-prisoner?
Applying the indeterminate sentence law, how many years?
a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate
a. 1
sentence
b. 2
b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate
c. 7
sentence
d. 8
c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his indeterminate
44. George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, was arrested at
sentence
the NAIA arrival lounge and found positive for opium, a
d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate
dangerous drug. When arrested, 15 grams of cocaine were found
sentence
in his bagpack. What offense would you charge George under
53. Is there a complex crime when crime is committed to conceal
R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act)?
another crime? 2 CRIMES
a. Importation of dangerous drugs.
a. It depends
b. Possession of dangerous drugs.
b. No
c. Use and possession of dangerous drugs
c. Partially
d. Use of dangerous drugs
d. Yes
45. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the
54. What is the primary purpose of the pre-sentence investigation?
appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly
a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate sentence of
a. Accepted
the offender
b. Determinate
b. To exonerate the offender
c. Sensitive
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend himself
d. Unreliable
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case
46. In the Criminal Law, the Court personnel next in rank to the
55. The following are rights of a witness under the rules of court
presiding judge in the lower court is the Branch Clerk of Court. In
EXCEPT:
the absence of the judge, the branch clerk of court may hear simple
a. To be examine only as to matters pertinent to the issue
case of unjust vexation.
b. Not to give an answer which will tend to subject him to a
a. Possible

Page 3 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 penaly of an offense d. The Court who place him on probation
c. To remain silent 64. According to the control theory, crime and delinquency result with
d. To be protected from irrelevant questions an individual bond to _____________ is weak and broken.
56. What is meant by the concept of probation which is from the latin a. Behavior
word "probitio" and had historical roots in the pratice of judicial b. Police
repreive? c. Law
a. Live with integrity d. Society
b. Testing period 65. Which of the following offenses may be prosecuted by a person
c. Walk with faith other than (not) the offended party?
d. Out of the institution a. Abduction
57. In the study of crime, what is the distinction, if any, between a b. Act of lasciviousness
felony and a crime? c. Seduction
a. Crime and felony are the same d. Falsification
b. Crime covers felonies 66. What types of questions are allowed to be asked to a witness who is
c. No distinction whatsoever unwilling to testify?
d. The source of felony is a RPC a. Intelligent
58. Mayor saw A and B boxing each other. He approached the two and b. Leading
identified himself as a mayor and attempted to pacify them c. Misleading
whereupon B attacked mayor. C, a bystander came to aid of the d. Unresponsive
Mayor. Upon seeing C helping the mayor, A attacked C. What crime 67. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment is
was committed by the one who attacked C? imposed on the offender to allow society to vent its anger toward
a. Direct assault and exact vengeance upon the criminal?
b. Indirect assault a. Retribution
c. None b. Restoration
d. Physical injury c. Rehabilitation
59. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a thick wall d. Deterrence
about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in every corner, a tower 68. The following are the elements of maliscious mischief:
post is manned by heavily armed guards: i. The offender deliberately caused damage to
a. Maximum security facility property
b. Medium security facility ii. Such act does not constitute arson or other
c. Super maximum security facility crimes involving destruction
d. Minimum security facility iii. Such acts also constitute other crimes involving
60. Ramon witnessed the commission of a crime but he refuses to destruction
testify for fear of his life despite a subpoena being served on him. iv. The act of damaging anothers property was
Can the court punish him for contempt? committed merely for the sake of damaging it
a. No, since no person can be compelled to be a witness b. I, III, IV
against another. c. I, II, IV
b. No, since Ramon has a valid reason for not testifying. d. I, II, III
c. Yes , since litigants need help in presenting their case. e. II, III, IV
d. Yes, since public interest in justice requires his testimony. 69. Who among the following may be granted conditional pardon?
61. What documents are attached to the Release Document of the a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government physician
Parolee? b. A prisoner who served as "bastonero"
Prison record c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
Name of the Parolee and Probation Officer d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his
Location of the Prison or Confinement probation conditions
Order of Court 70. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to court
a. 4 and 1 within_________.
b. 1 and 2 a. 10-day period
c. 3 and 4 b. 30-day period
d. 2 and 3 c. 15-day period
62. We known that the Lord Jesus Christ, our savior, was brutally d. 60-day period
crucified in the Middle East some 2100 years ago. According to our 71. Within how many days after the expiration of the period to execute
criminal/ penal law, What aggravating circumstance will you use to the warrant of arrest that the officer to whom it was assigned for
those who consfired in the killing? the execution shall make a report to the judge who issued the
a. Abused of Superior Strength warrant?
b. Conspiracy a. 10
c. Intimidation b. 15
d. Treachery c. 20
63. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides undertake d. 30
supervision and visitation of the probationer. However, control over 72. Which of the following is a crime against the Fundamental Law of
the probationer and probation program is exercised by the State?
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides a. Espionage
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator b. Piracy
c. The Secretary of Justice c. Treason

Page 4 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. Violation of Domicile; if private person- Qualified trespass d. Slanderp
to dwelling 82. A complaint may be filed by any of the following, EXCEPT:
73. The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina of a. Offender
concubinage. Pending appeal, they applied for bail, claiming they b. The offender party
are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is their claim correct? c. Other public officers
a. No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight. d. Any peace officers
b. No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction. 83. Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from criminal
c. Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not invloving moral liability/
turpitude. a. It depends
d. Yes, bail is a matter of right in the Metropolitan Trial Court b. No
before and after conviction. c. Sometimes
74. X went to the United States. While he was there, encountered d. Yes
Y an American. They eventually got married. When X returned 84. X tried to kill Y by poisoning. One morning, X put sugar on the
to the Philippines, his wife Z filed an action against him for food of Y thinking that it was arsenic. Instead of dying, Y
violating their marriage. What is X liable to? suffered diabetes. In this case, the crime is not committed
a. Adultery because the material he mixed on the foods is
b. Bigamy a. Impossible
c. Concubinage b. Inadequate
d. Polygamy c. Ineffectual
75. Leave of Court is required to amend a complaint or information d. Intentional
before arraignment if the amendment_______________. 85. The president grants absolute/conditional pardon based on the
a. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a higher recommendation of:
to a lower offense or excludes any accused a. Board of Pardon and Parole
b. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a higher b. Bureau of Correction
to a lower offense and adds another accused c. Parole and Probation Administration
c. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower to a d. Office of the Executive Secretary
higher offense and excludes any of the accused 86. What law prohibits the imposition of death penalty in the
d. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower to a philippines?
higher offense and adds another accused a. R.A 7659
76. In Criminal law and Jurisprudence, there are two acts- internal b. R.A 7965
and external act. Which of the two acts is indispensable for the c. R.A 8177
act to be punishable as a crime? d. R.A 9346
a. External act 87. For search to be considered as an incident of the arrest, it must be
b. Intentional act made at the place where the:
c. Internal act a. Contraband was found
d. Unintentional act b. Police station is located
77. In criminal procedure, who conducts the direct examination? c. Arrest was effected
a. Opponent d. Crime was forced
b. PAO lawyer 88. Bearing in mind the distinction between private and public
c. Proponent document, which of the folowing is admissible in evidence without
d. Prosecution further proof of due execution or genuiness?
78. The system of key control in a jail includes: a. Baptismal Certificates.
a. An updated system of monitoring and control of keys b. Documents acknowledged before a Notary Public in
b. A documented inventory of security personnel Hongkong
c. A collector of all padlocks and keys c. Official record of the Philippines Embassy in Singapore
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting them certified by the Vice-consul with official seal
79. The following are classified as crimes against chastity, EXCEPT: d. Unblimished receipt dated December 20, 1985 signed by
a. Simple Seduction the promise, showing payment of a loan, found among
b. Adultery the well-kept file of the promissor.
c. White Slave Trade 89. A drug user who is placed under probation may be made to serve
d. Sexual Harassment his sentence by the court if he
80. The following are considered minor offenses of an inmate, a. Becomes unruly and undicipline
EXCEPT: b. Commits another offense
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate c. He is 21 years old
b. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect d. Violates any of the conditions of the probation
when confronted by or reporting to any officer or 90. Which evidence is presented to vary the terms of a written
member of the custodial force agreement, there is the application of the____________evidence
c. Willful watse of food rule.
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and a. Documentary
orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings b. Best
81. The following are classified as crimes against honor, EXCEPT: c. Written
a. Premature Marriage d. Parol
b. libel 91. X, a doctor, put a poison on the food of his wife. When she eat the
c. Incriminating innocent person food, moments later, she suffered excruciating pain in the stomach.

Page 5 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 Seeing his in agony, X got pity on his wife and administered an a. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in the victims
antidote. Thus, the wife did not die. What crime was committed by drink to enable her husband to have intercourse with the
X? victim's.
a. Attempted Parricide b. When the offender uses an instrument and inserts it in the
b. Frustrated Parricide mouth of the victim's.
c. Serious Physical Injuries c. When the rape is committed by two or more person's.
d. No crime d. With the use of force or intimidation.
92. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of probation in 101. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision correccional. Will
the United States? he qualify for probation?
a. Sir Walter crofton a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
b. Alexander Maconochie b. No, his sentence is morethan Six (6) years and One (1) day
c. John murry spear c. Yes, his sentence is less than Six (6) years and One (1) day
d. John Augustus d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
93. A petition for the grant of basolute or conditional pardon shall be 102. There are four (4) acknowledged goals of ___________ as follows:
favorably endorsed to the Board by the________ if the crime retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, and rehabilitation.
committed by the petitioner is against national security. a. Criminal intent
a. Secretary of foreign Affairs b. Criminal mind
b. Secretary of Justice c. Criminal sanction
c. Secretary of National Defense d. Criminal action
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government 103. The city prosecutor charged Ben with serious physical injuries for
94. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be stabbing terence. He was tried and convicted as charged. A few days
treated__________. later, Terence died due to severe infection of his stab wounds. Can
a. Comprehensively the prosecution file another information against Ben for homicide?
b. Appopriately a. No, double jeopardy is present since Ben had already
c. Confidentially been convicted of the first offense.
d. Judiciously b. No, there is double jeopardy since serious physical injuries
95. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of residents is necessarily included in the charged of homicide.
with crimes which are not usually reported to the police. What are c. Yes, since supervening event altered the kind of crime the
these studies called? accused committed.
a. Population Surveys d. Yes, since Terence's death shows irregularity in the filing
b. Police surveys of the earlier charge against him.
c. Victimization surveys 104. Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately released
d. Information surveys provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been previously
96. What term denotes a new or fresh trial when an appellate court convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
sends a case back to lower court for new trial? a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the maximum penalty
a. Trial by publicity for the offense he may be found guilty of is destierro
b. Trial by jury b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum penalty
c. Trial by default of the offense he may be found guilty of is prision
d. Trial de novo correccional
97. Facts already known or ought to be known by judge by reason of c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum penalty
their office and of which they may properly take and act without of the offense he may be found guilty of is reclusion
proof re called matters of: perpetua
a. Priveleged communication d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or morethan the
b. Judicial notice possible maximum term of punishment of the offense he
c. Pleadings maybe found guilty of.
d. Judgment 105. A science involving technical knowledge about the traces of crime is
98. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of prison known as:
sentence? a. Forensic medicine
a. Commutation of sentence b. Physical science
b. Parole c. Forensic science
c. Absolute pardon d. Criminalistic Technology
d. Conditional pardon 106. To be considered an accessory, the author of the crime must be
99. Which among the following is a requisite before an accused may be guilty of any of the following, EXCEPT:
discharged to become a state witness? a. Murder
b. Treason
a. The accused does not appear to be guilty. c. Parricide
b. The accused has not at any time been convicted of any d. Infanticide
offense. 107. The following are crimes against national security and the law of
c. The testimony of the accused sought to be discharged can nations EXCEPT one:
be substantially corroborated on all points. a. Violation of neutrality
d. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the b. Rebellion
accused hose discharge is requested. c. Treason
100. Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be held liable d. Espionage
for rape: 108. Which of the following is NOT classified as a crime committed by

Page 6 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 public officers? b. Person accused
a. Forgery c. territory
b. Official breaking seal d. subject matter
119. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any peace
c. Malversation
officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of the law
d. Refusal of assistance violated filed either to the court or to the office of the
109. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little more prosecutor.
care than the other inmates. Which of the following should NOT be a. Complaint
done by a jail officer? b. Pleadings
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff regularly c. Information
b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his prescribed diet d. Affidavit
120. Prescription of offense commence to run:
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party or
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient inmate peace officers or their agent.
110. The following are aggravating circumstances EXCEPT: b. Upon filing of cases in court.
a. Movement of the offender is restricted c. Upon escape of the accused.
b. Cruelty d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
c. Adding ignominy
d. Taking advantage of superior strength 121. The following are cases covered by rules on summary
procedure, EXCEPT:
111. When taking up arms against the government was undertaken by
a. Where the penalty is six months Imprisonment
members of the military, what law was violated? Republic b. Violation of traffic laws
Act________. c. Violation of rental laws
a. 9165 d. Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6) months
b. 7610 imprisonment
c. 6506 122. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous
system and are commonly referred to as “uppers”?
d. 6968
a. Amphetamines
112. The following properties may be taken by the officer effecting the b. Naptha
arrest, EXCEPT those: c. Barbiturates
a. That may be used for escaping d. Diazepam
b. Used in the commission of a crime 123. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio without
c. That are within the immediate vicinity a complaint first filed by the offended party, EXCEPT:
d. Which are means of committing violence a. Rape
b. Abduction
113. Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone
c. Seduction
preventive imprisonment equivalent to the maximum imposable d. Adultery and Concubinage
sentence for the offense he is charged with? 124. Complaint or Information shall charge only one offense. This is
a. Batas Pambansa 95 the rule on:
b. Batas Pambansa 85 a. Duplicity of offense
c. Batas Pambansa 105 b. Complex crime
d. Batas Pambansa 965 c. compound crime
d. continuing crime
114. An advantageous result in the integration of correctional agencies
125. In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional Mandates an
is: arresting officer should inform the person to be arrested of his
a. More physical facilities to maintain rights?
b. More prisoners to supervise a. Art. III Sec. 12
c. Divided resources such as manpower and finances b. b.Miranda Doctrine
d. Better coordination of services and increased cost- c. R.A. 7438
d. Rule 115
efficiency
126. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
115. It is the system or criminal procedure which is characterized by of 2002, providing Funds Therefore and for Other Purposes.
secrecy of investigation and the option of the defense and a. RA 9165
prosecution to appeal. b. RA 1956
a. Inquisatorial c. RA 9156
b. mixed d. RA 1965
c. accusatorial 127. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug incidents?
d. fixed a. Reclusion Perpetua
116. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted either b. Life Imprisonment
at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the offended party c. Death
and the right to appeal are limited to the defense and the d. Fine
accused presumed innocent. 109. Complaint and information can be amended to ____ after plea
a. inquisitorial and during the trial with leave of court and without causing prejudice
b. mixed to the rights of the accused.
c. accusatorial a. form
d. fixed b. substance and form
117. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC, MCTC. c. substance
a. R.A. 7691 d. none of these
b. R.A. 8493 128. A petition for suspension of criminal action upon the pendency
c. BP 129 of a prejudicial question in a civil action may be filed:
d. R.A. 1379 a. before the prosecution rests
118. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, b. before arraignment
EXCEPT: c. before preliminary investigation
a. Extent of penalty d. before plea

Page 7 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
129. Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a logical c. At night time
antecedent of the issue involved therein, and the cognizance of d. from sun dust till dawn
which pertains to another tribunal. 141. When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ the warrant of
a. Prejudicial question arrest in his possession?
b. inquest proceeding a. Need not have
c. preliminary investigation b. Should always have
d. custodial investigation c. may sometime have
130. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is d. need to have
sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime 142. It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement officer
has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty after a person has been taken into custody.
thereof, and should be held for trial. a. custodial investigation
a. preliminary investigation b. inquest
b. inquest proceeding c. interview
c. prejudicial question d. interrogation
d. custodial investigation 143. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even without a
131. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by: warrant?
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day a. When the crime was committed in the presence of the
b. more than four years, two months and one day arresting officer.
c. less than four years, two months and one day b. When the crime was in fact been committed and there
d. six years, one day and above is personal knowledge based on probable cause that
132. The following persons are authorized to conduct preliminary the person to be arrested has committed it.
investigation, EXCEPT: c. When the person to be arrested is an escapees.
a. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court d. All of the choices
b. Provincial and city prosecutors and their assistants 144. It is a security given for the temporary release of a person in
c. Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and Municipal custody of the law.
Circuit Trial Courts a. Bail
d. National and Regional state prosecutors; b. parole
e. a and c c. fine
133. After the filing of the Complaint or Information in court without d. conditional pardon
a preliminary investigation within how many days an accused 145. Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused person failed to
person upon knowing the filing of said complaint may ask for appear at the trial without justification and despite due notice.
preliminary investigation? a. In absentia
a. 5 days b. in flagrante de licto
b. 15 days c. on the merits
c. 10 days d. none of these
d. 30 days 146. When Bail is a matter of right?
134. Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be a. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan,
bound to answer for the commission of an offense. Municipal or Municipal Circuit trial court.
a. Arrest b. Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court
b. Warrant c. before conviction by the Regional Trial Court
c. jurisdiction d. upon preliminary investigation
d. Seizure 147. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT:
135. Validity of the warrant of arrest? a. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to death
a. no fixed duration b. crime punishable by life imprisonment
b. 30 days c. crimes punishable by death
c. 20 days d. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or life
d. 10 days imprisonment when evidence of guilt is strong
136. Lifetime of search warrant? 148. When bail is a discretionary?
a. 10 days a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by
b. 20 days reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment.
c. 5 days b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not
d. No fixed duration more than 20 years who is a recidivist.
137. Within how many days upon the date of execution of a warrant c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not
of arrest the person charged with its execution shall report to more than 20 years when there is undue risk that he
the court which issue such warrant when arrest was not been may commit another crime during the pendency of the
made? appeal.
a. 10 days d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not
b. 30 days more than 20 years who has previously escaped from
c. 20 days legal confinement.
d. 5 days 149. Is an offense which, under the existing law at the time of its
138. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing the commission and at the time of the application for admission to
law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan. bail may be punished with death.
a. instigation a. capital offense
b. investigation b. less grave
c. entrapment c. heinous crime
d. Entertainment d. grave felony
139. In flagrante delicto means _____? 150. The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT:
a. caught in the act a. Property Bond
b. instigation b. Cash Bond
c. caught after commission c. Corporate surety bond
d. entrapment d. Recognizance
140. When arrest may be made? e. None of the choices
a. At any time of the day and night
b. At day time

Page 8 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
151. When the maximum penalty to which the accused may be a. Motion to quash
sentenced is destierro, he shall be released after ____ of b. nolleprosequi
preventive imprisonment. c. Motion to dismiss
a. 30 days d. bill of particulars
b. 20 days 162. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and punish or
c. 15 days the termination of the power to prosecute or punish the
d. 60 days offender after the lapse of certain definite period from the
152. Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon: commission of the offense.
a. acquittal of the accused a. Prescription of crime
b. execution of the judgment of conviction b. acquisitive
c. dismissal of the case c. prescription of penalty
d. all of the choices d. extinctive
153. It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory facts and 163. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the danger of
circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation, one being prosecuted for the same offense for the second time.
which is consistent with the innocence of the accused and the a. double jeopardy
other consistent with his guilt, or they are evenly balanced. The b. double trial
constitutional presumption of innocence should tilt the scale in c. double trouble
favor of the accused and he must be acquitted. d. double counter
a. Equipoise rule 164. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by imprisonment not
b. Presumption of guilt exceeding six years or a fine of any amount or both shall become
c. Hornbook doctrine permanent after ____.
d. due process of law a. one year
154. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist b. 2 years
destitute litigant? c. 5 years
a. Counsel de officio d. d. 4 years
b. counsel de parte 165. Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the
c. Public Attorney’s Office court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused shall
d. National Prosecution Office order a pre-trial conference?
155. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and a. 30 days
to testify or to bring with him any books or documents under his b. 15 days
control at the trial of an action. c. 20 days
a. subpoena d. d. 60 days
b. subpoena ducestecum 166. How many days are given to an accused person to prepare for
c. subpoena ad testificandum trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
d. d. warrant of arrest a. 15 days
156. Unless shorter period is provided by special law or Supreme b. 20 days
Court Circular, the arraignment shall be held within ___ days c. 30 days
from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of d. 180 days
the accused. 167. The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days from receipt of
a. 30 days the pre-trial order?
b. 10 days a. 30 days
c. 15 days b. 15 days
d. 5 days c. 20 days
157. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ shall be d. 60 days
entered. 168. The trial court have how many days from the first day of trial to
a. Not guilty terminate the same?
b. admission by silence a. 60 days
c. guilty b. 365 days
d. none c. 180 days
158. When reception of evidence is necessary under the following d. 150 days
circumstances: 169. The trial of a case can be made in absentia except on the
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense following circumstances:
b. plea of guilty to capital offense a. at the arraignment and plea
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense b. during the trial whenever necessary for identification
d. all of these purposes
159. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a motion c. at the promulgation of sentence, unless for a light
alleging among others the defect of the complaint or information offense
and the details desired in order to enable him to properly answer d. all of the choices
and prepare for trial. This motion is known as: 170. The order of trial is:
a. motion for bill of particular a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
b. motion for clarification b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross
c. motion to dismiss c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct
d. motion for postponement d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal
160. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be 171. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, mannequins or
suspended on the following grounds: any other appropriate demonstrative device to assist him in
a. The accused appears to be suffering from unsound testimony.
mental condition. a. Testimonial aids
b. There exist a prejudicial question. b. Emotional security items
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the c. support
prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office of the d. none of these
President . 172. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages of
d. All of the choices examination of a child, if the same will further the interest of
161. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an justice.
accused is: a. leading questions

Page 9 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 b. relevant 184. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
c. misleading a. Original jurisdiction
d. Narrative b. Exclusive jurisdiction
173. Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an accused to c. concurrent jurisdiction
be state witness: d. appellate jurisdiction
a. there is absolute necessity for the testimony of the 185. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the
accused. others.
b. said accused does not appear to be the most guilty a. Original jurisdiction
c. said accused has not been convicted of a crime b. Exclusive jurisdiction
involving moral turpitude/ c. appellate jurisdiction
d. all of the choices d. concurrent jurisdiction
174. After the prosecution rest its case, the accused person may 186. It is the system or criminal procedure which is characterized by
move for the dismissal of the case on: secrecy of investigation and the option of the defense and
a. on its own initiative after giving the prosecution an prosecution to appeal.
opportunity to be heard. a. Inquisitorial
b. Demurrer to evidence b. mixed
c. motion for reconsideration c. accusatorial
d. motion for new trial d. fixed
175. It is the judicial examination and determination of the issue in 187. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted either
an action or proceeding, civil or criminal. at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the offended party
a. pre-trial and the right to appeal are limited to the defense and the
b. trial accused is innocent.
c. plea bargaining a. inquisitorial
d. Judgment b. mixed
176. Is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not c. accusatorial
guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of the proper d. fixed
penalty and civil liability. 188. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court,
a. judgment EXCEPT:
b. rendition of judgment a. Extent of penalty
c. promulgation of judgment b. Person accused
d. conviction c. territory
177. It is the degree of proof which does not excluding the possibility d. subject matter
of error, produces absolute certain. Moral certainty only is 189. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any peace
required. officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of the law
a. acquittal violated filed either to the court or to the office of the
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt prosecutor.
c. clear and convincing a. Complaint
d. preponderance of evidence b. Pleadings Section
178. It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that the evidence c. Information
does not show that his guilt is proof beyond reasonable doubt.
d. Affidavit
a. dismissal
b. conviction 190. Prescription of offense commences to run:
c. acquittal a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party or
d. judgment peace officers or their agent.
179. Judgment becomes final when? b. Upon filing of cases in court.
a. the period for perfecting an appeal lapse. c. Upon escape of the accused.
b. when the sentence is partially of totally satisfied or d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
served. 191. When an appeal shall be taken?
c. when the accused waived in writing his right to appeal. a. within 10 days
d. when he appealed for probation b. within 30 days
e. all of the choices c. within 15 days
180. Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of d. within 5 days
conviction becomes final. 192. Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT?
a. Motion for new trial a. Subject of the offense
b. Motion for reconsideration b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of
c. Motion to dismiss the offense
d. All of these c. Used or intended to be used as the means of
181. Who represents the State in an action for appeal? committing an offense
a. prosecutor d. Firearm
b. Secretary of DOJ 193. When search must be made?
c. appellant a. in the day time
d. Solicitor General b. only during sunrise
182. The party appealing the case shall be called? c. any time of the day and night
a. appellant d. in the presence of two witnesses
b. accused 194. In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the ____?
c. Appellee a. Plaintiff
d. Defendant b. Private offended party
183. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit where the c. defendant
power of the court is exercised and which is jurisdictional in d. Respondent
criminal case. 195. A complaint or information have the same legal content,
a. Venue however, they differ as to who subscribe to it, who subscribe an
b. Jurisprudence information?
c. jurisdiction a. Accused
d. court b. Prosecutor

Page 10 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. Witness
d. victim
196. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, the
following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary
investigation except?
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
b. Judge MTC/MCTC
c. Regional State Prosecutor
d. Public Attorney’s office
e. b and d
197. An Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, detained
or under custodial investigation as well as duties of the arresting
detailing and investigation officer.
a. R.A. 7438
b. R.A. 7348
c. R.A. 7834
d. d. R.A. 3478
198. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused cannot be
compelled to be a witness against himself. This principle also
known as:
a. rights against illegal arrest
b. the right to presume innocent
c. rights against self- incrimination
d. right to live
199. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following pleading
are prohibited except:
a. motion to quash
b. bill of particular
c. answer
d. demurred to evidence
200. The following cases committed by public official with salary
grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of the
Sandiganbayan, Except:
a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379
and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two of the RPC
b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and 14-
A.
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to their
office.
d. None of the choices
201. It is the law which classifies rape from crime against chastity to
crimes against person, making crime prosecutable even without
a complaint filed the offender party?
a. R.A. 8353
b. R.A. 9283
c. R.A. 8493
d. d. R.A. 7055
202. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as provided
by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances can a civil action
for recovery of civil liability can be separated?
a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
b. When the offended party reserves his right to institute
the civil action;
c. When the institution of the civil action is made prior to
the criminal action.
d. all of the choices
203. What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions?
a. It extinguishes the civil liability arising from delict.
b. Independent civil action instituted may be continued
against the estate or legal representative of the
accused.
c. If the accused dies before arraignment, the case shall
be dismissed without prejudice to any civil action the
offended party may file against the estate of the
deceased.
d. all of the choices
204. Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee may be
released on bail in the following manner, except:
a. property bond
b. performance bond
c. corporate surety
d. recognized
G.S.T. 2019
205. Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a case
a. after arraignment
b. after the defense has rested its case
c. after trial
d. after the prosecution had rested its case
206. The accused may questioned the legality of his arrest ___
otherwise the said accused could no longer questioned the same
and that the arrest is presumed by the court as valid.
a. before arraignment
b. before conviction
c. before preliminary investigation
d. before trial
207. The following are the matters to be taken up in pre-trial
conference except:
a. examination of witnesses
b. marking of evidence
c. plea bargaining
d. stipulation & simplification of issues
208. The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action shall
be made:
a. before arraignment
b. before the pre-trial conference
c. before the prosecution rest its case
d. before the prosecution presents evidence
209. Amendment without leave of court before the accused pleads is
allowed by the Rules of Court under the following instances
EXCEPT:
a. amendment as to substance
b. amendment as to form
c. amendment that reflect typographical error
d. amendments to downgrades the nature of the crime
210. One of the requisites in order that one of the accused may be
discharged in order to be state witness is that
a. Said accused does not appear to be the most guilty
b. Said accused does not appear to be least guilty
c. Said accused must not appear to be guilty
d. Said accused must appear to be innocent as char
211. P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government Code of 1991.
Under the said code, the Lupon of each barangay shall have
authority to bring together the parties actually residing in the
same city or municipality for amicable settlement where the
offense committed is punishable by imprisonment exceeding
one (1) year. This statement is:
a. absolutely true
b. partly true
c. absolutely false
d. partly false
212. In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with the:
a. Office of the President
b. Office of the Clerk of Court
c. Office of the Prosecutor
d. Office of the Ombudsman
213. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or information
are the following, EXCEPT:
a. It must be in writing
b. It must be in the name of the People of the Philippines.
c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
d. It must be filed in court
214. Z as husband dies before he could institute the criminal action
for adultery against his wife and the paramour. The case may:
a. No longer be prosecuted
b. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
c. Still be prosecuted
d. Be prosecuted by the State
215. The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of
incapacitated individual with no known parents, grandparents or
guardian is known as:
a. Doctrine of parens patriae
b. Doctrine of non-suability
c. police power
d. habeas corpus
216. The modes of making an arrest are:
a. by an actual restraint of the person to be arrested
Page 11 of 197
 b. by the submission to the custody of the person making punishable by correctional penalty, within how many hours
the arrest should that a case be filed to the proper judicial authority?
c. by using unreasonable force a. 12 hours
d. a and b only b. 18 hours
e. a and c only c. 24 hours
217. The following are crimes Against National Security and Law of d. 36 hours
Nations, EXCEPT. 227. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a person
a. Treason to change his resident or otherwise expels him from the
b. Piracy and mutiny Philippines.
c. Espionage a. violation of domicile
d. Rebellion b. arbitrary detention
218. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person c. trespass to dwelling
who owes allegiance to it. d. expulsion
a. treason 228. The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.
b. espionage a. Any public officer or employee who enters any
c. adherence to the enemy dwelling against the will of the owner thereof.
d. rebellion b. Any public officer or employee who searches any
219. The degree of proof required to convict a person accused of papers or other effects found therein without the
treason. previous consent of the owner.
a. substantial evidence c. Any public officer or employee who refuses to leave
b. proof beyond reasonable doubt the premises, after having surreptitiously entered said
c. two witness rule dwelling and after having been required to leave the
d. preponderance of evidence premises.
220. The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT: d. Any public officer or employee who searches domicile
a. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine waters; without witnesses.
b. The offenders are not members of its complement or e. All of the choices
passengers of the vessel; 229. SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search warrant, search the
c. That the offender resist to a superior officer; house of Mr. Mando N. Ducot. After having discovered the item
d. The offenders either attack or seize that vessel or seize specified in the warrant, SPO1 Masinop took the same and
the whole or part of the cargo of said vessel, its includes the jewelry box filled with jewelry which is not included
equipment or personal belonging of its complement or in the list of the item to be seized. SPO1 Masinop is:
passengers. a. Liable for the crime of violation of domicile
221. Which of the following does NOT qualify the crime of Piracy: b. Not liable for the crime of violation of domicile
a. Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on the c. May not be liable for violation of domicile
high seas or in Philippine waters d. Liable for a crime but not on
b. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by boarding violation of domicile
or firing upon the same. 230. The following are crimes against the fundamental law of the
c. c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned their victims States. Which one can be committed by private person?
without means of saving themselves. a. Arbitrary detention
d. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, b. Violation of Domicile
homicide, physical injuries, or rape. c. Interruption of religious worship
222. Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-highway Robbery d. Offending religious feelings
Law of 1974. e. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of peaceful
a. Comm. Act No. 616 meetings
b. P.D. 532 231. The law which provides Human Security
c. P.D. 533 a. R.A. 9208
d. R.A. 6235 b. R.A. 9745
223. PO1 Matiyaga, without legal grounds arrested and detained Mr. c. R.A. 9372
Tamad and deprived said person of his liberty is liable for: d. R.A. 7438
a. illegal detention 232. Angelo Vergara not only confessed his membership with the
b. arbitrary detention Sparrow unit but also his participation and that of his Group in
c. unlawful arrest the killing of SPO2 Manalad while the latter was manning the
d. kidnapping traffic along C. M. Recto Ave. Manila. Under the facts given, what
224. The following are legal grounds for the detention of any person, crime was committed by the former and that of his Group?
EXCEPT: a. murder
a. commission of a crime b. sedition
b. escape from prison / penal institution c. rebellion
c. violent insanity or other ailment requiring the d. homicide
compulsory confinement 233. This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking arms
d. a and c only against government to completely overthrow and supersede
e. a, b and c said existing government.
225. The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying release, a. treason
EXCEPT: b. rebellion
a. Delays the performance of a judicial or executive order c. coup d’etat
for the release of a prisoner. d. sedition
b. Delays the service of the notice of such order to said 234. A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, stealth,
prisoner. directed against duly constituted authorities, public utilities,
c. Delays the proceedings upon any petition for the military camps and installation with or without civilian support
liberation of such person. for the purpose of diminishing state power.
d. Delays the filing of a criminal offense against the a. treason
detainee to the proper judicial authority. b. rebellion
e. All of these c. coup d’etat
226. Mr. Mabait was arrested for illegal possession of firearms which d. sedition
is considered a low power gun. Considering that the crime is

Page 12 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
235. It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of
communications or disturbances in the state outside of the legal
method.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
236. A police officer, who arrested a member of congress while going
to attend a senate session for a traffic violation is liable for:
a. crime against popular representation
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the National
Assembly
c. violation of parliamentary immunity
d. all of the foregoing
237. The Kilusan ng mga hindi Ungas at Paranoid (KHUP) was
organized by Mr. Panot allegedly for protecting the poor laborer,
where in fact it was organized to form a group that would rise
against the rich businessmen of their city. For what crime can
they be charged?
a. Illegal assembly
b. Illegal association
c. coup d’etat
d. rebellion
238. Any association, organization, political party or group of persons
organized for the purpose of overthrowing the Government of
the Republic of the Philippines or for the purpose of removing the
allegiance to said government or its law, the territory of the Phils.
or any part thereof, with the open or covert assistance or
support of a foreign power by force violence, deceit or other
illegal means. Is a crime of:
a. Rebellion
b. Illegal Association
c. Subversive Association or Organization
d. Illegal Assembly
239. Mrs. Grace, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer
Pandac and Councilor Panot were surveying the land occupied
by informal settlers for government projects and for their
relocation. The residents oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes,
one of the residents, slapped the face of Mayor Ditas when the
latter came near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor defends
her but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. For
what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor
Grace?
a. Sedition
b. Slander by Deeds
c. Direct Assault
d. Rebellion
240. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
a. The assault is committed with a weapon
b. The offender is a public officer or employee
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in authority
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a
person in authority
241. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an
individual or as a member of some court or government
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority
b. Judicial authority
c. person in authority
d. Public employee
242. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously
disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such person,
while engaged in the performance of official functions.
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect Assault
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National
Assembly
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in authority or
the agents of such person
243. The following are crimes classified as public disorders, EXCEPT.
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful
utterances
c. Alarms and scandals
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
e. None of the choices
244. Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor fired a gun in
the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating his
birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
a. illegal discharge of firearm
b. alarm & scandals
c. disturbances
d. outcry
245. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion of
service of sentence.
a. By means of unlawful entry By breaking doors,
windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
b. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, violence
or intimidation.
c. Through connivance with other convicts or employees
of the penal institution.
d. All of the choices
246. Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of robbery before serving
his sentence or while serving the same he committed a crime of
murder. What condition is said to have occurred?
a. recidivism
b. reiteration
c. quasi-recidivism
d. habitual delinquency
247. It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank note or any
instrument payable to bearer or to order the appearance of a
true and genuine document. It is likewise committed by
falsification through erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or
altering by any means, the figures, letters, words or signs
contained therein (Art. 169)
a. Falsification of public document
b. Forgery
c. Falsification
d. d.Fasification by public officer, employee or notary or
ecclesiastical minister
248. A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic police sticker and
sell the same shall be liable for a crime of:
a. Estafa through falsification of a public document
b. Theft through falsification of a public document
c. Falsification of public document
d. Forgeries
249. This crime is committed by any person without any distinction,
by falsely representing himself as an officer and performing
under pretense of official position any act pertaining to such
person.
a. usurpation of authority
b. estafa
c. usurpation of official functions
d. a & c
250. Any other name a person which publicly applies to himself
without authority of the law.
a. alias
b. A.K.A.
c. fictitious names
d. true name
251. It is committed by a person, who being under oath are required
to testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a hearing before a
competent authority, shall deny the truth or say something
contrary to it.
a. forgery
b. perjury
c. falsification
d. false testimony
252. Consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good customs,
which having been committed publicly, have given rise to public
scandal to persons who have witness the same.
a. immoral doctrines
b. obscene publication and exhibition
c. grave scandal
d. libel
253. Refers to persons having no apparent means of subsistence but
has the physical ability to work and neglects to apply himself or
herself to lawful calling.

Page 13 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 a. bum d. Physical injures
b. vagrant 263. This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit or make
c. prostitute immoral advances to a woman under his custody or to other
d. destitute women like the wife, daughter, sister or relative within the same
254. It is the improper performance of some acts which should have degree by affinity of any person in the custody of a warden or
been lawfully be done. officer.
a. malfeasance a. Sexual harassment
b. misfeasance b. Abuses against chastity
c. nonfeasance c. Acts of Lasciviousness
d. dereliction of duty d. Abuse of authority
255. It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly issued an unjust 264. Takes place whenever a person is killed during a confusion
order which decides some point or matter but which however, is attendant to quarrel among the several persons not continuing
not a final decisions of the matter in issue: a group and the perpetrators cannot be ascertained.
a. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment a. homicide
b. Judgment rendered through negligence b. murder
c. Unjust interlocutory order c. death caused by tumultuous affray
d. Malicious delay in the administration of justice d. riots
e. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor – revelation 265. Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing the
of secrets death of their unborn child is guilty of:
256. This one is committed by public officers or employees who, in a. parricide
dereliction of the duties of his office, shall maliciously refrain b. abortion
from instituting prosecution for the punishment of violators of c. intentional abortion
law, or shall tolerate the commission of offenses. d. unintentional abortion
a. Direct bribery 266. A formal and regular combat previously concerted between two
b. Indirect bribery parties in the presence of two or more seconds of lawful age on
c. Qualified bribery each side, who make the selection of arms and fix all other
d. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in conditions.
prosecution of offenses a. riot
257. What crime is committed by any public officer or employee who b. duel
shall agree to perform an act constituting a crime, in connection c. tumultuous affray
with the performance of his official duties, in consideration of d. mutilation
any offer, promise, gift or present received by such officer, 267. It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the body, e.g. a
personally or through the mediation of another. woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive of the latter
a. Direct bribery of its true.
b. Qualified bribery a. physical injury
c. Indirect bribery b. duel
d. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in prosecution c. tumultuous affray
258. Any public office who is entrusted with law enforcement who d. mutilation
refrain from arresting or prosecuting an offender who has 268. What crime is committed by person who assaulted another,
committed a crime punishable by reclusion perpetua and/or causing the latter to be absent from work for two weeks?
death in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present. a. mutilation
a. bribery b. serious physical injury
b. direct bribery c. less serious physical injury
c. qualified bribery d. slight physical injury
d. indirect bribery 269. Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge with a child less
259. It is a crime committed by any appointed public official who shall than 12 years old.
become interested in any transaction within his territory, subject a. rape
to his jurisdiction during his incumbency. b. acts of lasciviousness
a. Prohibited transaction c. seduction
b. Possession of prohibited interest by a public officer d. abduction
c. Fraud against public treasury 270. A private individual who detains another for the purpose of
d. Prevarication depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three days is
260. This is committed by an accountable public officer who, shall guilty of:
appropriate, or shall misappropriate or shall consent, or through a. illegal detention
abandonment or negligence shall permit another person to take b. arbitrary detention
public funds or property. c. serious illegal detention
a. Direct bribery d. slight illegal detention
b. Technical malversation 271. A person who got into a dispute with another, assaulted the
c. Malversation of public funds latter for the purpose of delivering his victims to the jailer is
d. Embezzelment guilty of what crime?
261. The following are crimes classified under infidelity or public a. illegal detention
officers: b. illegal arrest
a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners c. unlawful arrest
b. Infidelity in the custody of documents d. physical injuries
c. Revelation of secrets 272. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens
d. all of these another with the infliction upon the person, honor or property
262. This is committed by any public officer or employee who shall of the latter or of his family of any wrong amounting to a crime.
overdo himself in the correction or handling of a prisoner or a. grave threat
detention prisoner under his charge by the imposition of b. light threat
punishment not authorize by the regulations or inflicting c. grave coercion
punishment in a cruel or humiliating manner. d. light coercion
a. Police brutality 273. When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime is made
b. Sadism by another, what crime is committed?
c. Maltreament of prisoners a. grave threat

Page 14 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 b. light threat a. adultery
c. graver coercion b. concubinage
d. light coercion c. acts of lasciviousness
274. Any person who by means of violence shall seize anything d. seduction
belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the same to 285. A married man who allows his paramour to live in their conjugal
the payment of a debt, is committing. dwelling is liable of what crime?
a. grave threat a. adultery
b. light threat b. concubinage
c. graver coercion c. acts of lasciviousness
d. light coercion d. seduction
275. It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means of 286. Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex not amounting
force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will, to rape by using force or intimidation.
whether right or wrong. a. adultery
b. concubinage
a. grave threat c. acts of lasciviousness
b. light threat d. seduction
c. grave coercion 287. A person who ripped the dress of a woman and placed his penis
d. light coercion over the woman’s genital organ is liable for what crime?
276. It includes human conduct, which although not productive of a. rape
some physical or material harm would annoy any innocent b. seduction
person c. forcible seduction
a. light threat d. acts of lasciviousness
b. light coercion 288. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his girlfriend by
c. unjust vexation promising the latter with marriage, what crime was committed?
d. grave coercion a. seduction
277. It is the taking of personal belonging to another, with intent to b. acts of lasciviousness
gain by means of violence against, or intimidations upon things c. abduction
of any person, or using force upon anything. d. none of the foregoing
a. robbery 289. Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver several pieces of
b. theft jewelries to his Mother whom he had misunderstanding. The
c. brigandage latter however, pawned the said jewelries and misappropriated
d. estafa the same. What would be the proper offense committed by Luz?
278. A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the owner, a. swindling
what crime was committed? b. theft
a. a theft c. robbery
b. robbery d. malicious mischief
c. possession of pick locks 290. Which of the following crimes does not operates as an
d. possession of false key absolutory cause which could serves as an exemption against
279. A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors who members of the family from criminal ability in crimes against
form a band for the purpose of committing robbery in the properties.
highway or kidnapping persons for the purpose of extortion or a. Robbery
to obtain ransom, or for any other purpose to be attained by b. theft
means of force & violence. c. malicious mischief
a. Robbery d. estafa
b. kidnapping 291. It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and
c. brigandage prosecution of person alleged to have committed a crime.
d. d. theft a. Criminal procedure
280. Committed by any person who with intent to gain but without b. Criminal jurisprudence
violence or intimidation of persons nor force upon things shall c. rules of court
take personal property of another without latter’s consent. d. rules of procedure
a. robbery 292. It refers to the authority or power to hear and decided cases.
b. kidnapping a. Jurisdiction
c. brigandage b. b. Jurisprudence
d. theft c. Venue
281. A housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away the d. territory
furniture of her employer would be charged of what crime? 293. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit where the
a. theft power of the court is exercised and which is jurisdictional in
b. robbery criminal case.
c. qualified theft a. Venue
d. estafa b. Jurisprudence
282. Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the c. jurisdiction
property would be large when surveyed is a crime of: d. court
a. estafa 294. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
b. chattel mortgage a. Original jurisdiction
c. usurpation b. Exclusive jurisdiction
d. altering boundaries or landmarks c. concurrent
283. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake of d. appellate jurisdiction
causing damage due to hate, revenge or other evil motive. 295. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the
a. swindling others.
b. destruction of property a. Original jurisdiction
c. malicious mischief b. Exclusive jurisdiction
d. chattel mortgage c. appellate jurisdiction
284. What crime was committed by a married woman having carnal d. concurrent jurisdiction
knowledge with a man not her husband?

Page 15 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
296. Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines crimes, b. Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege
treats of their nature and provides for their punishment? c. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea
a. civil law d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus
b. procedural law 307. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its essence
c. criminal law being the substitution of a legislative flat for a judicial
d. substantive law determination of guilt.
297. The following are sources of criminal law, EXCEPT: a. Ex post facto law
a. Act 3815 b. Bill of attainder
b. City and municipal ordinance c. Retroactive law
c. Special penal laws d. Prospective
d. constitution 308. The following persons are exempt from criminal liability under
298. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of criminal the principle of public international law, EXCEPT:
laws in the Philippines. It took effect on? a. Heads of states
a. January 1, 1923 b. ambassador
b. January 1, 1932 c. ministers of plenipotentiary
c. December 8, 1930 d. charges d affaires
d. January 1, 1933 e. None of the choices
299. The following are characteristics of classical theory of criminal 309. Crimes committed within the territorial water of another
law, EXCEPT: country can either be triable in that country or in the country
a. the basis of criminal liability is human free will and the where the vessel is registered. What rule provides that a crime
purpose of the penalty is retribution. committed on board vessel shall be NOT tried in the court of the
b. Man is essentially a moral creature with an absolutely country having territorial jurisdiction, unless their commission
free will to choose between good and evil, thereby affects the peace and security of the territory or the safety of the
placing more stress upon the effect or result of the state is endangered.
felonious act than the man. a. French rule
c. there is scant regard to the human element. b. American Rule
d. That man is subdued occasionally by strange and c. Spanish Rule
morbid phenomenon which constrains him to do d. English Rule
wrong, in spite of or contrary to his violation. 310. Any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in the
300. Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. What are acts external world.
committed or omitted in violations of special laws? a. act
a. felony b. Omission
b. offense c. Dolo
c. misdemeanor d. Culpa
d. in fractional law 311. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____.
301. Basically, there are three fundamental characteristics of criminal a. Deceit
law. What characteristics of criminal law states that criminal law b. Fault
is binding on all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines? c. Culpa
a. Generality d. Intent
b. Territoriality 312. Things which are wrongful in their nature.
c. Prospective a. evil
d. Retroactive b. mala in ce
302. The following are the exemption to the rule of Generality, c. mala in se
EXCEPT: d. mala prohibita
a. Those who are subject of treaty stipulation 313. The moving power which impels one to action for a definite
b. Those who are immune under the law of preferential result.
application a. intent
c. Those who are exempted under Public International b. motive
law c. deceit
d. President, Prime Minister and Ambassador d. fault
303. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto on 314. The following are crime committed by mistakes which does not
January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a city ordinance was passed operate as an Exemption/justification, EXCEPT:
punishing loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be a. Aberratio Ictus
held liable for his act of loitering? b. Error in Personae
a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it c. PreaterIntentionem
b. Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect of d. Mistake in fact
criminal law 315. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous sequence,
c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of the unbroken by any efficient intervening cause, produces the injury
law without which the result would not have occurred.
d. No, for a did not loiter again a. Proximate cause
304. Under what characteristics of criminal law the above b. Intervening cause
circumstance falls? c. Immediate cause
a. Generality d. Probable cause
b. Territoriality 316. Death is presumed to be the natural consequence of physical
c. Prospective injuries inflicted in the following; EXCEPT
d. Retroactive a. The victim at the time the physical injuries were
305. What legal maxims support the above scenario? inflicted was in normal heath.
a. Pro reo Principle b. The death may be expected from the physical injuries
b. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege inflicted.
c. Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea c. Death ensued within a reasonable time.
d. Actus me invitusfactus non d. The resulting injury is due to the intentional act of the
306. Which of the following legal maxim means “the act cannot be victim.
criminal unless the mind is criminal”. 317. The following are elements of impossible crime, EXCEPT:
a. Pro reo

Page 16 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 a. That the act performed would be an offense against
persons or property.
b. That the act was done with evil intent
c. That its accomplishment is inherently impossible, or
that the means employed is either inadequate or
ineffectual.
d. That the act does not constitute a crime of negligence
or imprudence.
318. X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance which he
thought was arsenic (poison) when in fact it was just a sugar. Y
was not killed as a consequence. What X did he commit?
a. Mistake in the blow
b. No crime committed
c. preaterintentionem
d. impossible crime
319. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may deem
proper to repress and which is not punishable by law, it shall:
a. Render the proper decision, and shall report to the
Chief Executive, through the Department of Justice
b. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
Executive, through the Department of Justice.
c. Render the proper decision, and shall report to the
Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
d. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief Justice of
the Supreme Court.
320. This takes place when the offender commences that commission
of a felony by overt acts, and does not perform all the acts of
execution which should produce the felony by reason of some
cause or accident other than his own spontaneous desistance.
a. Consummated
b. Frustrated
c. Attempted
d. Impossible crime
321. A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting B at his
shoulder. B was able to run away and survived the injury, what
crime is committed by A?
a. Physical Injury
b. Frustrated Homicide
c. Attempted Homicide
d. Less serious physical injury
322. The following are the elements of frustrated felonious, EXCEPT:
a. The offender performs all the acts of execution
b. All the acts performed would produce the felony as a
consequence but the felony is not produced.
c. By reason of causes independent of the will of the
perpetrator.
d. Due to some cause or accident other than his own
spontaneous desistance.
323. Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the coffee of her
husband Mr. William Herschel, when Mr. was at the stage of
convulsion, Mrs. Lucila had a change of heart and administer an
antidote causing Mr. William to survive but left in comatose.
What was committed by Mrs. Lucila?
a. Frustrated parricide
b. b.attempted parricide
c. serious physical injury
d. less serious physical injury
324. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime, starting from
the point where the offender begins the commission of the crime
to that point where he has still control over his acts including
their (acts) natural course.
a. Subjective Phase
b. Objective Phase
c. Internal Act
d. Act of Execution
325. Which of the following is NOT a Factor in determining stage of
execution of felony?
a. Nature of the offense
b. Elements constituting the felony;
c. Manner of committing the felony
d. Intent in committing the crime
326. A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to rob the Banco de
Oro. While having their meeting at their safe-house, a group of
G.S.T. 2019
PNP personnel arrested them. What crime was committed by
A,B, and C?
a. Illegal Assembly
b. Conspiracy to commit robbery
c. Attempted Robbery
d. No crime
327. A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine National Bank in their
secret safe house. While they are planning how to commit the
crime, operatives of the NBI barged in and arrested the group.
a. What crime was committed by A,B and C?
b. No crime was committed
c. Under the facts no crime was committed as mere
conspiracy to commit a crime is not punishable
d. Attempted robbery
e. Frustrated robbery
328. Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the capital
punishment or penalties which in any of their periods are:
a. light
b. correctional
c. afflictive
d. reflective
329. In case of crimes which are latter subject of special penal laws,
what rule of interpretation shall be applied?
a. The RPC shall be observed
b. The RPC shall prevails over special laws.
c. The RPC will be supplementary to special law
d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to the RPC
330. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a person as
its author or owner. It implies that the act committed has been
freely and consciously done and may therefore be put down to
the doer as his very own.
a. Guilt
b. Liability
c. Responsibility
d. Imputability
331. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law,
so that such person is deemed not to have transgressed the law
and is free from both criminal and civil liability.
a. justifying circumstances
b. mitigating circumstances
c. exempting circumstances
d. aggravating circumstance
332. The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT
a. Unlawful aggression.
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to
prevent or repel it.
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person
defending himself.
d. Lack of intent on the part of the person defending
himself.
333. Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for the
offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the crime of the
conditions which make the act voluntary or negligent.
a. Justifying
b. Mitigating
c. Exempting
d. Aggravating
334. Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the cellphone of Ms.
IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___.
a. Liable for the crime of theft
b. Liable for the crime of robbery
c. Not liable for the crime of theft
d. Not liable for the crime of robbery
335. The following circumstances exempt a person from criminal
liability though there is civil liability considering that there is
crime committed, EXCEPT:
a. Minority
b. Accident
c. Imbecility/Insanity
d. Acting under compulsion of an irresistible force
e. Acting under the impulse of an uncontrollable fear of
an equal or greater injury.
336. The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT:
a. Children 15 years of age below
Page 17 of 197
 b. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without d. habitual delinquent
discernment 346. The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms of
c. Insane persons or an imbecile persons alternative circumstances, except:
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with a. Low degree education
discernment. b. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not
337. Who among the following incurs full responsibility upon intended it or not a habitual drunkard.
commission of a crime? c. Relationship in crimes against property
a. Those 15 years of age and below d. Relationship in crimes against persons
b. Those who are 18 years of age and above 347. Refers to persons who take direct part in the execution of a
c. Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of age crime.
d. Those who are 18 years of age a. principals
b. accessories
338. Are those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of c. accomplice
public policy and sentiment, there is no penalty imposed. d. instigators
a. Justifying circumstances 348. A person who directly induce others to commit a crime is
b. Mitigating circumstances regarded as:
c. Absolutory cause a. principal by direct participation
d. Exempting circumstances b. principal by indispensable cooperation
339. X was charged before the court. During the pendency of his trial c. principal by induction
he died. What would be the effect of his death on the case d. instigators
involved and on his criminal liability? 349. The desire or wish in common thing
a. The criminal case will be dismissed ad his criminal a. intent
liability is extinguished. b. motive
b. The criminal case will proceed and his criminal liability c. conspire
is not extinguished. d. cooperate
c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for his 350. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the murder of
resurrection. another person is liable as:
d. Actually there will be no effect at all because his a. principal
relatives will be the one to face trial and punished in b. accessory
case of his conviction. c. accomplice
340. Which of the following operates as an absolutory cause. d. conspirator
a. Spontaneous desistance 351. Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no
b. Accessories who are exempt from criminal liability by property to meet the fine.
reason of relationship a. subsidiary penalty
c. Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight physical b. suspension
injuries under exceptional circumstances c. penalty
d. Person exempt from criminal liability for theft d. d.civil interdiction
swindling and malicious mischief by relationship to the 352. In cases where in the commission of an offense is necessary in
offended party the commission of another it is said the crime is:
e. All of the choices a. formal crime
341. An aggravating circumstances which generally apply to all b. informal crime
crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism. c. compound crime
a. generic d. complex crime
b. specific 353. An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated scale of
c. qualifying penalties.
d. Inherent a. degree
342. C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing her b. period
using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is committed c. prescription
aggravated by what circumstances? d. duration
a. ignominy 354. A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period defined by
b. passion law subject to the termination by the parole board at any time
c. cruelty after service of the sentence.
d. Craft a. Suspension
343. Is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for past b. indeterminate sentence
offense and is rarely exercised in favor of a single individual and c. prescription
is usually granted to certain classes of persons usually political d. period of penalty
offenders, who are subject to trial but not yet convicted. 355. The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall prescribe in
a. Pardon how many years?
b. Commutation a. 15 years
c. Parole b. 1year
d. Amnesty c. 10 years
344. The law which prohibits the imposition of the death penalty? d. 5 years
a. RA 6981 356. Those crime punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and
b. P.D. 968 reclusion temporal shall prescribe in:
c. R.A. 9346 a. 20 years
d. R.A. 4103 b. 15 years
345. How do you call an offender who within a period of ten (10) years c. 10 years
from the date of his release or last conviction of the crimes of d. 5 years
Serious Physical Injuries, robbery (robo), Theft (hurto), Estafa or 357. Those punishable by correctional penalties shall prescribe in how
falsification is found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time many years?
or offener? a. 20 years
a. Recidivist b. 15 years
b. Quasi recidivist c. 10 years
c. Reiteration d. 5 years

Page 18 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
358. Light offenses prescribe in: 368. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted
a. 12 months together in the commission of a crime.
b. 6 months a.gang
c. 4 months b.conspiracy
d. 2 months c.band
359. A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill you this week”. d.piracy
A bought a firearms. On Friday, he waited for B and shot him but 369. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
killed C instead. In so far as B is concerned, the crime committed a.Negligence
by A is: b.imprudence
a. Attempted murder c.omission
b. frustrated murder d.act
c. illegal discharge of firearm 370. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
d. all of these capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
360. In so far as C is concerned the crime committed is: a.Misfeasance
a. frustrated homicide b.entrapment
b. murder c.inducement
c. consummated homicide d.instigation
d. none of the above 371. The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT:
361. X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide a. Children 15 years of age below
(consummated) which is punishable by Reclusion Perpetua. b. Insane persons or Imbecile persons
He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment. c. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
Determine his penalty.
discernment
a. Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum to Reclusion
temporal (minimum period) as the maximum period of d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without
the indeterminate penalty. discernment
b. Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to Reclusion 372. Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for the
temporal (any period) as the maximum period of the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the crime of the
indeterminate penalty conditions which make the act voluntary or negligent.
c. Reclusion temporal as the minimum period to a. Justifying
reclusion perpetua as maximum b. Exempting
d. Prision mayor c. Mitigating
362. X (as principal) committed grave coercion (consummated) d. Aggravating
punishable by prision correctional. There was one aggravating
373. When a public officer convinces a person to commit a felony and
circumstances in the commission of the crime let us say “with
would arrest him or her after its commission he is committing.
the aid of armed men”. Fix his penalty.
a. instigation
a. Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to Prision
correctional (maximum period) as maximum period of b. entrapment
the indeterminate penalty. c. conspiracy
b. Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum to Prision d. proposal
correctional (any period) as maximum period of the 374. It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two DEGREES
indeterminate penalty depending upon what the law provides and cannot be offset by
c. Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor as any aggravating circumstances.
maximum period a. Mitigating Circumstances
d. None of the above b. Exempting circumstances
363. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime. c. Ordinary Mitigating Circumstances
a.15-18 years old d. Privilege Mitigating circumstances
b.18-70 years old 375. Crimes are classified in various categories. What classifications
c.9 years old and below of crime is when a single act results to or more serious or less
d.between 9 and 15 years old serious offenses.
364. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution a. Continuing Crime
of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. b. Complex crime or delito complejo
a.Accomplices c. Special complex crime
b.Suspects d. Compound crime or delito compuesto
c.principal actors 376. Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts bought a rifle from
d.accessories Mr. C. Goddard. Knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. Goddard sold
365. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the gun. Since Mr. Pitts is in an Island for vacation and the only
the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law. way to reach the island is to ride a boat, Mr. Dellinger rented the
a.prescription of crime boat of Mr. F. Galton, the owner of the only boat that can be
b.prescription of prosecution rented to reach the island. Also knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr.
c.prescription of judgment F. Galton allowed the boat to be rented for a much higher price.
d.prescription of penalty Mr. Dellinger successfully reached the island and killed Mr. R.
366. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty Pitts. Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts requested the service of
is suspended. Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds to bury Mr’s Pitts Body in
a.Pardon exchange for thousand of pesos. What was the crime committed
b.commutation by Mr. Dellinger?
c.amnesty a. Homicide
d.reprieve b. Murder
367. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a c. Parricide
more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society. d. Manslaughter
a.mala prohibita 377. What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton?
b.mala in se a. Principal by direct participation
c.private crimes b. Principal by induction
d.public crimes c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Accomplice

Page 19 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
378. What about Mr. C. Goddard? a. ignominy
a. Principal b. passion
b. Accomplice c. cruelty
c. Accessory
d. obstruction
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
379. What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds? 390. Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information
a. Principal relative to national defense with intent to be used to the injury
b. Accomplice of the Republic of the Philippines.
c. Accessory a. treason
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation b. conspiracy to commit treason
380. The following are Justifying Circumstances, EXCEPT? c. espionage
a. Obedience to a lawful order d. misprision to treason
b. Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or performance of 391. To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of persons to
duty proper judicial authorities, a person caught in the act of
c. A person who acts under compulsion of an irresistible committing a felony punishable by penalties which are
force correctional in nature must be delivered to said authorities
d. Avoidance of greater evil or injury within how many hours?
381. The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de officio without a a. 12
complaint first filed by the offended party, EXCEPT: b. 36
a. Seduction
c. 18
b. Rape
c. Abduction d. 48
d. Acts of Lasciviousness 392. Amendments with leave of court after the accused pleads are
382. What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of personal allowed under the following circumstance.
property belonging to another is committed with grave abuse of a. Amendments as to substance
confidence? b. Amendments as to form
a. Robbery c. Amendments that change the nature of the offense
b. Qualified Theft d. None of these
c. Theft 393. The rule is that the civil action for the recovery of civil liability
d. Burglary arising from the offense charged is deemed instituted with the
383. What crime is committed if a person commits a crime of murder criminal action. This rule does not apply in the following
with the use of unlicensed firearm? instances, EXCEPT.
a. Murder a. When the offended party waives the civil action
b. Illegal Possession of firearm b. When the offended party reserves the right to institute
c. Qualified Illegal possession of firearm separate civil action
d. Murder with illegal possession of f/a. c. When the offended party institute the criminal action
384. If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted upon a person d. When the offended party institute the civil action prior
in a manner that is determined and constant until the lawful to the criminal action.
purpose is realize, the crime committed is: 394. The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action shall
a. Threat be made:
b. Grave threat a. Before the arraignment
c. Coercions b. During the pre-trial conference
d. Light threat c. Before the prosecution rest
385. When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon the offended d. Before the prosecution present evidence
party does not amount to a crime the designation of the offense 395. The rule prohibits the filing of the following pleadings in the
is called criminal case, EXCEPT:
a. Threats a. Motion for postponement
b. Grave threats b. Counter affidavit
c. Light Threats c. Counterclaim
d. Coercion d. Third party complaint
386. A public officer who without legal ground shall prohibit or 396. The petition for suspension of the criminal action based upon the
interrupt the holding of a peaceful meeting or dissolved the pendency of prejudicial question in a civil action may be filed
same is liable for: with the following, EXCEPT one:
a. Prohibition of a peaceful meeting a. The court where the civil action is pending
b. dissolution of peaceful meeting b. The court where the criminal action is pending
c. Interruption of peaceful meeting c. Office of the prosecutor
d. all of the choices. d. None of these
387. If a private person removes a person confined in jail or penal
institution or helps in the escape of such person by means of 397. Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is required before
violence, intimidation, bribery or any other means, the crime the filing of a complaint or information where the penalty for the
committed is: offense is:
a. Evasion of service of sentence a. At least 6 years and 1 day
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner b. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
c. Delivery of prison from jail c. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
d. corruption of public official d. Exceeding 6 years and one day
388. Light offenses prescribe in: 398. The following may be submitted by the respondent in a
a. 12 months preliminary investigation, EXEPT:
b. 4 months a. Counter-affidavit
b. Motion to dismiss
c. 6 months
c. Witness counter affidavit
d. 2 months d. supporting documents
389. X raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing her, 399. The following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary
using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is committed investigation on cases falling within their jurisdiction, EXCEPT:
aggravated by what circumstances? a. Provincial prosecutor

Page 20 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 b. City prosecutor d. a and b only
c. Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman 410. Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden for the escape
d. Judges of Municipal trial court of his brother Chan. The Warden ordered his jail guard to leave
400. An offense which under the law existing at the time of its the door unlocked so as to facilitate the escape of Mr. Chan. The
commission and of the application for admission to bail may be guard leaves the door unlocked and tells Mr. Chan to escape at
punish with death is called: mid-night. What crime was committed by the Warden?
a. Capital punishment a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. Heinous crime b. Direct Bribery
c. Capital Offense c. Delivery of prison from jail
d. Grave offense d. corruption of public official
401. The court may dismiss the case on the ground of insufficiency of 411. What Crime can be charged against the guard who connives with
evidence: the prisoner?
a. On the motion of the accused filed with prior leave of a. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
court b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
b. By its own initiative after giving the prosecution an c. Delivering prisoner from jail
opportunity to be heard d. A and B
c. On motion of the accused thru counsel 412. A public officer or a warden who solicits or makes immoral or
d. A and B only indecent advances to a woman who is under his custody or wife
402. Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession of Ruben which or daughter of the person under his custody shall be liable for:
was snatched from him three days ago. He confronted the latter a. Acts of lasciviousness
and force to get back said cell phone against his will. For what b. Abuses against Chastity
crime or crimes may Manuel be liable for, if he will go to force to c. Indirect Bribery
get back the same? d. infidelity in the custody of prisoners
a. Coercion 413. Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of evidence
b. Robbery which means that evidence must have such relation to the fact
c. Threats in issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence. The
other requisite is ____________?
d. Theft
a. That is should not be excluded for by law.
403. The following statement are false, EXCEPT:
b. That it is material to the facts in issue
a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
b. The accused must personally enter his plea c. That it is credible
c. The accused must excused/waived arraignment d. That it is the best evidence
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other than 414. Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible hence,
where the case is assigned. collateral matters are not allowed. Except:
404. Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital offense and a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish
the evidence of guilt is strong. the probability or improbability of the fact in issue.
a. Absolutely true b. When it is competent
b. Absolutely false
c. When it is credible
c. Partly true
d. Partly false d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue based
405. Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be placed under the on other related evidence.
custody of the law. It should be made at: 415. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of a
a. Anytime of the day person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored on what
b. anytime of the day and night requisites of admissibility?
c. Anytime of the morning a. materiality
d. d. anytime of the night b. competency
406. It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made with kettles, his c. relevancy
horns, etc, designated to deride or annoy: d. credibility
a. Charivari
416. It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the trier of
b. Grave scandal
facts because of its logical connection with the issue. Evidence
c. Alarm and Scandal
which has an effective influence or bearing to the question?
d. Harana
a. material
407. The application for search warrant may be filed with the
following, EXCEPT: b. relevant
a. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a crime c. competent
was committed. d. credible
b. Any court within the judicial region where the crime 417. The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by
was committed imprisonment of more than 6 years shall become permanent
c. Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines ________ after issuance of the order without the case having
d. Any Court Within judicial region where the warrant been revived.
shall be enforced a. One year
408. An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the first level court b. six months
shall be by: c. Two years
a. Notice of appeal d. three years
b. by Petition for review 418. Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the
c. Petition for review on certiorari court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused shall
d. Petition for certiorari order a pre-trial conference?
a. 30 days
409. After the prosecution rest its case, the case can be dismiss due b. 20 days
to insufficiency of evidence by: c. 15 days
a. The courts own initiative
d. 60 days
b. By the accused through his counsel by Demurrer to
evidence 419. How many days is given to an accused person to prepare for trial
c. By the prosecution on its own initiative after a plea of not guilty is entered?
a. 15 days

Page 21 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 b. 30 days a. The geographical divisions
c. 20 days b. Matter which are of public knowledge;
d. 180 days c. Matters capable of unquestionable demonstration; or
420. The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of their
Court is called? judicial functions.
a. R.A. 7691 431. Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites. These
b. R.A. 3019 requisites are:
c. R.A. 8493 a. The matter must be one of common and general
d. B.P. 129 knowledge.
421. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any peace
b. It must be well and authoritatively settled and not
officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of the law
violated filed either to the court or to the office of the doubtful or uncertain
prosecutor. c. It must be known to be within the limits of the
a. Complaint jurisdiction of the court.
b. Information d. All of the choices
c. Pleadings 432. Self incriminatory statement falling short of an
d. Affidavit acknowledgement of guilt made by a party in the course of the
422. Prescription of offense commence to run: proceeding in the same case which does not require proof.
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party or a. Admission
peace officers or their agent. b. self serving statement
b. Upon filing of cases in court
c. declaration against interest
c. Upon escape of the accused
d. Upon re-appearance of the accuse d. confession
423. The following are cases covered by rules on summary procedure 433. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document no
EXCEPT: evidence shall be admissible other than the original documents
a. Where the penalty is six months imprisonment. itself. This refers to the _____.
b. Violation of traffic laws a. Best Evidence Rule
c. Violation of rental laws b. Secondary Evidence Rule
d. Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6) months c. Parol Evidence Rule
imprisonment d. Best Evidence
424. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist 434. What are secondary evidence?
destitute litigant? a. Certified true COPY of a document
a. Counsel de officio b. A recital of its contents in some authentic document
b. counsel de parte c. Testimony of witnesses
c. Public Attorney’s Office d. All of the choices
d. National Prosecution Office 435. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing,
425. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and it is considered as containing all the terms agreed upon and
to testify or to bring with him any books or documents under his there can be, as between the parties and their successors in
control at the trial of an action. interest, no evidence of such terms other than the contents of
a. subpoena the agreement.
b. subpoena duces tecum a. Parol evidence Rule
c. subpoena ad testificandum b. b. parol evidence
d. warrant of arrest c. Best Evidence Rule
426. The order of trial is: d. Secondary Evidence
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal 436. As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving, can
b. Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross make known of their perception to others can be witness and
the following shall not be a ground for disqualification.
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct
a. Religious and political belief
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal.
b. Interest in the outcome of the case
427. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, mannequins or
c. conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided by law
any other appropriate demonstrative device to assist him in
testimony. d. All of the choices
a. Testimonial aids 437. An Act Providing for A Witness Protection, Security and Benefit
b. Emotional security items program and for other purposes.
a. R.A. 6981
c. support item
b. R.A. 6646
d. none of these
c. P.D.749
428. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages of
examination of a child, if the same will further the interest of d. R.A. 6770
justice. 438. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other
a. leading questions direct ascendants, children or other direct descendants. This is
b. misleading embodied under what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege.
c. relevant
b. declaration against pedigree
d. narrative
c. declaration against common reputation
429. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of
evidence of the following, EXCEPT: d. res inter alois acta rule
a. Matters of Public Knowledge 439. An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of any
b. The measure of time liability and is not admissible in evidence against the offeror on
the following case, EXCEPT.
c. Law of nations
a. In civil cases
d. Law of nature
b. Those arising from criminal negligence
430. Court may take judicial notice of the following in exercise of its
discretion, EXCEPT.

Page 22 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or b. burden of proof
other expenses occasioned by an injury. c. proof of evidence
d. In criminal cases d. cause of action
440. A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of a plea 448. A Foreign vessel registered in the country of Australia anchored
of guilty to a lesser offense is_____? at Manila Bay wherein an Australian national was caught in
a. not admissible in evidence against the accused who possession of Cocaine. What rule provides that a crime
made the plea of offer. committed while on board of the vessel.
b. admissible in evidence against the accused who made a. French rule
b. American Rule
the plea of offer
c. Spanish Rule
c. shall not be considered an plea d. English Rule
d. will be considered a plea of not guilty 449. Shall deprive the offender rights of parental authority or
441. The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, guardianship.
or omission of another, except as provided by the rules of court. a. subsidiary penalty
a. Res inter alios acta rule b. penalty
b. admission by co-partner c. suspension
c. admission by co-conspirator d. civil interdiction
d. admission by silence of a person for not doing or saying 450. It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a sexual
relationship to a married man. This statement is?
anything when an act or declaration is said against him
a. True
in his presence. b. false
442. The following are the requirements in determining child’s c. It depends
competency as a witness EXCEPT: d. Partly false
a. capacity of Observation 451. The following are considered afflictive penalties, except:
b. capacity of Recollection a. death by lethal injection
c. capacity of Communication b. reclusion perpetua
d. capacity to Comprehend c. reclusion temporal
443. Where several extrajudicial confessions had been made by d. prison mayor
several person charged with the same offense and without the 452. It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual relationship to
possibility of collision among them, the fact that the statements a married woman.
are in all respects identical is confirmatory of the confessions of This statement is?
the co-defendants and are admissible against the other persons a. True
implicated therein. b. false
a. interlocking confessions c. It depends
e. Partly false
b. res inter alios acta rule
c. admission by privies
453. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived
d. confession by co-defendant
from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are
444. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the represented on material substances.
hearing or observation of a party who does or says nothing when a.documentary evidence
the act or declaration is such as to call for action or comment if b.testimonial evidence
not true, and when proper and possible for him to do so, may be c.material evidence
given in evidence against him. d.real evidence
a. admission by silence 454. When the witness states that he did not see or know the
b. confession occurrence of a fact.
c. admission by co-conspirator a.positive evidence
d. admission by privies b.corroborative evidence
445. Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence rule? c.secondary evidence
a. That a witness can testify only to those facts which he d.negative evidence
455. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and
knows of his personal knowledge; that ism which are
render judgment after a fair trial.
derived from his own perception. a.ex post facto law
b. hearsay evidence is not acceptable as evidence in b.equal protection of the law
court c.rule of law
c. Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the authority of d.due process of law
another person. 456. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is
d. hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to facts of intended.
a. Aberratio ictus
which the witness has no personal knowledge because
b. Error in personae
it is derived from the knowledge or perception of c. Dura Lex Sed lex
others who are not called to testify. d. Praeter Intentionem
446. The declaration of a dying person, made under the 457. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ shall be
consciousness of an impending death, may be received in any entered.
case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as evidence of a. Not guilty
the cause and surrounding circumstances of such death. b. admission by silence
a. Dying declaration c. guilty
b. res gestae d. none
c. declaration against interest 458. When reception of evidence is necessary under the following
circumstances:
d. declaration about pedigree
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
447. Is the duty of the party to present evidence on the facts in issue
b. plea of guilty to capital offense
necessary to establish his claim or defense by the amount of
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
evidence required by law.
d. all of these
a. burden of evidence

Page 23 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
459. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a motion 469. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused cannot be
alleging among others the defect of the complaint or information compelled to be a witness against himself. This principle also
and the details desired in order to enable him to properly answer known as:
and prepare for trial. This motion is known as: a. rights against illegal arrest
a. motion for bill of particular b. the right to presume innocent
b. motion for clarification c. rights against self- incrimination
c. motion to dismiss d. right to live
d. motion for postponement 470. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following pleading
460. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be are prohibited except:
suspended on the following grounds: a. motion to quash
a. The accused appears to be suffering from unsound b. bill of particular
mental condition. c. answer
b. There exist a prejudicial question. d. demurred to evidence
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the 471. The following cases committed by public official with salary
prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office of the grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of the
President . Sandiganbayan, Except:
d. All of the choices a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379
461. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two of the RPC
accused is: b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
a. Motion to quash connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and 14-
b. Nolle pro sequi A.
c. Motion to dismiss c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to their
d. bill of particulars office.
462. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and punish or d. None of the choices
the termination of the power to prosecute or punish the 472. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
offender after the lapse of certain definite period from the instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as provided
commission of the offense. by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances can a civil action
a. Prescription of crime for recovery of civil liability can be separated?
b. acquisitive a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
c. prescription of penalty b. When the offended party reserves his right to institute
d. extinctive the civil action;
463. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the danger of c. When the institution of the civil action is made prior to
being prosecuted for the same offense for the second time. the criminal action.
a. double jeopardy d. all of the choices
b. double trial 473. Alden Richard, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer
c. double trouble Maine Mendoza and Councilor Sipag were surveying the land
d. double counter occupied by informal settlers for government projects and for
464. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by imprisonment not their relocation. The residents oppose with the plan. Mrs.
exceeding six years or a fine of any amount or both shall become Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of Mayor Alden
permanent after ____. when the latter came near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor
a. one year defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as
b. 2 years well. For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation
c. 5 years to Mayor Alden?
d. 4 years a. Sedition
465. Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the b. Slander by Deeds
court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused shall c. Direct Assault
order a pre-trial conference? d. Rebellion
a. 30 days 474. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
b. 15 days a. The assault is committed with a weapon
c. 20 days b. The offender is a public officer or employee
d. 60 days c. The offender lays hands upon a person in authority
466. How many days are given to an accused person to prepare for d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a
trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? person in authority
a. 15 days e. It should be noted that the assault should be mad
b. 20 days without public uprising.
c. 30 days 475. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an
d. 180 days individual or as a member of some court or government
467. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, the corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary a. Agent of a person in authority
investigation except? b. Judicial authority
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor c. person in authority
b. Judge MTC/MCTC d. Public employee
c. Regional State Prosecutor 476. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously
d. Public Attorney’s office disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such person,
e. b and d while engaged in the performance of official functions.
468. A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, detained a. Direct assault
or under custodial investigation as well as duties of the arresting b. Indirect Assault
detailing and investigation officer.
a. R.A. 7438
b. R.A. 7348 c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National
c. R.A. 7834 Assembly
d. R.A. 3478 d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in authority or
the agents of such person
477. The following are crimes classified as public disorders, EXCEPT.

Page 24 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order c.guilt
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful d.imputability
utterances 488. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and
c. Alarms and scandals although it comes about through some acts of our will, lies
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.
e. None of the choices a.fortuitous event
478. Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor fired a gun in the b.fate
air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating his birthday. c.accident
Such act constitutes ___? d.destiny
a. illegal discharge of firearm 489. Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices,
b. alarm & scandals usages and rules of action which are not recognized in our
c. disturbances country.
d. outcry a.penal laws
479. Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced prisoner), gave b.special laws
20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or allow the escape of her c.common laws
brother is guilty of what crime? d.statutory laws
a. Evasion of service of sentence 490. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the
b. delivering prisoners from jail crime any of all the conditions that would make an act. Voluntary
c. Bribery and hence, though there is no criminal liability there is civil
d. Corruption of public official liability
a.Exempting
480. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion of b.alternative
service of sentence. c.justifying
a. By means of unlawful entry d.aggravating
b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs or 491. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance
floors. with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, violence a.exempting
or intimidation. b.alternative
d. Through connivance with other convicts or employees c.justifying
of the penal institution. d.aggravating
e. All of the choices 492. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim
481. Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical
court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused shall pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
order a pre-trial conference? a.Ignominy
a. 30 days b.cruelty
b. 20 days c.treachery
c. 15 days d.masochism
493. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been
d. 60 days
previously convicted by final judgment of another crime
482. How many days is given to an accused person to prepare for trial embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
after a plea of not guilty is entered? a.Recidivism
a. 15 days b.habitual delinquency
b. 30 days c.reiteracion
c. 20 days d.quasi-recidivism
d. 180 days 494. Alevosia means
483. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted a. Craft
except upon a complaint filed by whom? b. treachery
c. evident premeditation
a.Parents
d. cruelty
b.Offended Spouse 495. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and
c.Guardians render judgment after a fair trial.
d.God father a. ex post facto law
484. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of b. equal protection of the law
public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed. c. rule of law
d. due process of law
a.impossible crimes
b.aggravating circumstances 496. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his
c.absolutory causes release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious
d.complex crimes physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is
485. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment. a. Recidivist
a.compound crime b. quasi-recidivist
b.impossible crime c. habitual delinquent
c.complex crime d. hardened criminal
d.accidental crime 497. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is
486. The law which re-imposed the death penalty. intended.
a.RA 5425 a. Aberratio ictus
b.RA 8553 b. Error in personae
c.RA 7659 c. Dura Lex Sed lex
d.RA 9346 d. Praeter Intentionem
487. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its 498. It means mistake in the blow.
owner or author a. Aberratio Ictus
a.responsibility b. Error in Personae
b.duty c. Dura lex sed lex

Page 25 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. Praeter Intentionem c. Commulative
499. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its d. Credible
execution and accomplishment are present. 509. Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It refers to the
a. Attempted
logical and inevitable result of the evidence on record, exclusive
b. Frustrated
c. Consummated of any other consideration, of the moral certainty of the guilt of
d. Accomplished the accused or that degree of proof which produces conviction
500. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of in an unprejudiced mind.
facts that is voluntary but not intentional. a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
a. Absolutory Cause b. Clear and Convincing Evidence
b. Mistake of facts c. Preponderance of evidence
c. Conspiracy
d. Substantial evidence
d. Felony
501. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining in a 510. It is that proof which, if unexplained or uncontradicted, is
judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact? sufficient to sustain the proposition it supports or to establish
a. Evidence the facts or to counterbalance the presumptions of innocence to
b. Facts warrant a conviction.
c. Proof a. Prima-facie evidence
d. Burden of proof b. Preponderance of evidence
502. It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. It is c. Rebuttal evidence
the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of action? d. Sur-rebuttal evidence
a. Factum probandum 511. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of
b. Evidence evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
c. factum probans a. Matters of Public Knowledge
d. proof b. Law of nation
503. The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as otherwise c. The measure of time
provided by law or these rules. d. Law of nature
a. the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings 512. Court may take judicial notice of the following exercise of its
b. not the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings discretion, EXCEPT:
c. dependent on the type of case involved a. The geographical divisions
d. absolutely the same in all courts and in all trials and b. Matter which are of public knowledge
hearings c. Matters capable of unquestionable demonstration; or
504. Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of evidence d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of their
which means that evidence must have such relation to the fact judicial functions.
in issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence. The 513. When can proper court, on its own initiative or on request of a
other requisite is ____? party, may take judicial notice of any matter and allow the
a. That it should not be excluded for by law parties to be heard thereon if such matter is decisive of a
b. That it is material to the facts in issue material issue in the case?
c. That it is credible a. after the trial
d. That it is the best evidence b. before judgment
505. Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible hence, c. on appeal
collateral matters are not allowed. Except: d. all of the choices
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish 514. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an
the probability or improbability of the fact in issue. acknowledgment of guilt made by a party in the course of the
b. When it is competent proceeding in the same case which does not require proof.
c. When it is credible a. Admission
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue based b. declaration against interest
on other related evidence c. self-serving statement
506. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of a 515. Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses of the court.
person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored on what a. Real or Object
requisites of admissibility? b. Testimonial
a. a. materiality c. Documentary
b. relevancy d. Direct
c. competency 516. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document no
d. credibility evidence shall be admissible other than the original documents
507. Evidence which the witness states that he did not see or know of itself. This refers to the ___.
the factual occurrences what kind of evidence? a. Best Evidence Rule
a. negative b. Secondary Evidence Rule
b. affirmative c. Parole Evidence Rule
c. positive d. Best Evidence
d. Alibi 517. What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule:
508. An additional evidence of different kind tending to prove the a. When the original has been lost or destroyed orunder
same facts in issue. Evidence which are supplementary to that cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on the
already given and tending to strengthen or confirm it. part of the offeror;
a. Corroborative b. When the original is in the custody or under the
b. Associative control of the party against whom the evidence is

Page 26 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 offered, and the latter fails to produce it after
reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts or
other documents which cannot be examined in court
without great loss of time and the fact sought to be
established from them is only the general result of the
whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the custody of
the public officer or is recorded in a public office.
e. All of the choices
518. When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or
cannot be reproduced in court, the offeror, upon proof of its
execution or existence and the cause of its unavailability without
bad faith on his part, may prove its contents by a copy, or by a
recital of its contents in some authentic document or by the
testimony of witnesses in the order stated.
a. Secondary Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Secondary Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
519. When secondary evidence is allowed?
a. When the original has been lost, destroyed or cannot
be produced in court, without bad faith on the part of
the offeror;
b. When the original is under the custody or under the
control of the party against whom the evidence is
offered, and the latter fails to produce it after
reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts or
other documents which cannot be examined in court
without great loss of time and the fact sought to be
established from them is only the general result of the
whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the custody of a
public officer or is recorded in a public office
e. All of the choices
520. What are secondary evidence?
a. A Certified True COPY of a document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic document
c. Testimony of witnesses
d. All of the choices
521. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing,
it is considered as containing all the terms agreed upon and
there can be, as between the parties and their successors in
interest, no evidence of such terms other than the contents of
the agreement.
a. Parol Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence
d. Secondary Evidence
522. It refers to an evidence of oral or written statement of a party
presented as evidence to modify, explain or add to the terms of
the written agreement.
a. Parol Evidence
b. Secondary Evidence
c. Best Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
523. On which of the following circumstances parol evidence can be
accepted?
a. When there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or
imperfection in the written agreement;
b. The fulfillment of the written agreement to express
the true intent and agreement of the parties thereto;
c. The validity of the written agreement;
G.S.T. 2019
d. The existence of other terms agreed to by the parties
or their successors in interest after the execution of
the written agreement.
524. The following are qualifications for discharged of a person to be
state witness.
a. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the
accused whose discharge is requested;
b. There is no other direct evidence available for the
proper prosecution for the offense committed except
the testimony of said accused;
c. The testimony of said accused can be substantially
corroborated in its material points;
d. Said accused appear to be the most guilty;
e. Said accused has not at any time been convicted of an
offense involving moral turpitude;
525. R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the disclosure or
examination of bank deposits. As a general rule bank deposits
are absolutely confidential in nature and may not examined or
inquired or looked into by any person or government officials,
EXCEPT:
a. upon written permission of the depositor
b. in cases of impeachment
c. upon order of competent court in cases of briber,
dereliction of duty of public officials
d. in case where the money deposited or invested is the
subject matter of litigation
e. in cases of well explained wealth
526. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other
direct ascendants, children or other direct descendants. This is
embodied under what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege
b. declaration against pedigree
c. declaration against common reputation
d. declaration against Parental relationship
527. An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of any
liability and is not admissible in evidence against the offeror on
the following case, EXCEPT:
a. In civil cases
b. Those arising from criminal negligence
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or
other expenses occasioned by an injury
d. In criminal cases
528. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
a. secondary evidence
b. prima facie evidence
c.corroborative evidence
d. Cumulative evidence
529. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is
sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
a.secondary evidence
b.prima facie evidence
c.corroborative evidence
d.best evidence
530. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived
from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are
represented on material substances.
a.documentary evidence
b.testimonial evidence
c.material evidence
d.real evidence
531. When the witness states that he did not see or know the
occurrence of a fact.
a. positive evidence
b. corroborative evidence
c. secondary evidence
d. negative evidence
532. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and
render judgment after a fair trial.
Page 27 of 197
 a.ex post facto law 543. These are crimes which are NOT considered bad in itself but the
b.equal protection of the law doer is found to have transgress the law for act which it
c.rule of law prohibits.
d.due process of law a. Crime
533. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of criminal b. Felonies
laws in the Philippines. It approved on? c. Mala in se
a. January 1, 1923 d. Mala Prohibita
b. January 1, 1932 544. Is that act performed which would be an offense against persons
c. December 8, 1930 or property where it not for the inherent or legal impossibility of
d. January 1, 1933 its accomplishment.
534. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is a. Mala in se
intended. b. mala prohibita
a. Aberratio ictus c. Impossible crime
b. Error in personae d. Formal crimes
c. Dura Lex Sed lex 545. It is the moving power or which impels a person to act and not
d. Praeter Intentionem an essential element of a crime but would tend to establish the
535. Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of identity of the perpetrator.
their nature and provides for their punishment? a. Intent
a. Act 3815 b. Motive
b. Criminal Law c. Negligence
c. Revised Penal Code d. ignorance
d. Criminal Procedure 546. The following are causes which would produce criminal liability
536. Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn in though the result be different from what is intended, EXCEPT:
Philippine territory regardless of sex, race or religious affiliation. a.Abberatio ictus
EXCEPT matters covered by: b.Error in Personae
a. Treaty Stipulation c.Preater intentionem
b. Public International Law d.Ignorantia Facti
c. Law of Preferential Application 547. The offender performs all the acts of execution that would
d. All of the choices produce the felony as a consequence but the felony is not
537. By Principles of Public International law, the following enjoin produced by reason of causes independent of the will of the
immunity from the application of the Philippine Criminal law, perpetrator.
EXCEPT: a. Attempted
a. Consul b. Consummated
b. Heads of State c. Frustrated
c. Ambassador d. Formal Crimes
d. d. Minister de affaires 548. Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a single act.
538. Acts or omission punishable by public law commanding or a.formal crimes
forbidding it: b.formal felonies
a. Crimes c.informal crimes
b. Felonies
d.material crimes
c. Offense
d. Infractions of law 549. It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement to
539. Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of criminal liability commit a felony and decide to commit it.
is human free will, the purpose of punishment is retribution and a. Proposal
is generally exemplified in the Revised Penal Code. b. Conspiracy
a. Eclectic c. A & B
b. Classical Theory d. Cuadrilla
c. Positivist Theory 550. A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence shall be
d. Neo-Classical Theory granted to any prisoner who, having evaded the service of his
540. The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign territorial sentence during calamity, gives himself up to the authorities
jurisdiction which generally follows the Nationality Principle and within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation
not the Domiciliary Principle except when the crime committed announcing the passing away of the calamity.
on board vessels affects the national security of the Country a. Good Conduct Time Allowance
where such vessel is located. b. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
a. French Rule c. Executive Clemency
b. English Rule d. Indeterminate Sentence
c. Spanish Rule 551. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute
d. Greek Rule the final sentence after the lapse of certain time.
541. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its essence a. Prescription of Crime
being the substitution of legislative fiat for a judicial b. Prescription of Penalty
determination of guilt. c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
a. Ex post facto law d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the
commission of crime
b. Retroactivity
552. The forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to prosecute the
c. Bill of attainder offender after the lapse of certain time.
d. Prospective a. Prescription of Crime
542. Which of the following is NOT an element of the Crime of Dolo b. Prescription of Penalty
or Deceit? c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
a. Intent d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the
b. Freedom commission of crime
c. Intelligence 553. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and
d. Negligence sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed by the court
and to the supervision of a probation officer.
a. Parole

Page 28 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 b. Pardon e. Light
c. Probation 565. Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the imposition of
d. Amnesty penalty:
554. Known as the “Indeterminate Sentence Law” or the Parole Law. a. Retribution or expiation
a. Act No. 4103 as amended b. Correction or reformation
b. RA No. 4103 as amended c. Social defense
c. RA No. 4225 as amended d. Public Rataliation
d. PD No. 968 as amended 566. The punishment imposed by lawful authority upon a person
555. What is the penalty of impossible crime? (Art. 59) who commits a deliberate or negligent act which is against the
a. Arresto Menor law.
b. Arresto Mayor a. Penalty
c. Prision Correctional b. Ordeal
d. Prision Mayor c. Fine
556. It provides that the maximum duration of convict’s sentence d. Imprisonment
shall not be more than 3 times the length of the most severe of 567. Article 20 provides for the exemption as accessories from
the penalties imposed upon him but in no case to exceed 40 criminal liability, EXCEPT:
years. a. Natural brother/ sister
a. Three-fold rule b. Legitimate brother/ sister
b. Three-fold liability rule c. Adopted brother/ sister
c. Four-fold rule d. Brother-in-Law/ Sister-in-Law
d. Four-fold liability rule e. Brother in a fraternity
557. In case the offender cannot pay the fine, he shall serve the 568. One who: (a) concurs with the criminal design of the principals
same in prison and shall be credited ___ for each day of by direct participation; (b) cooperates in the execution of the
subsidiary imprisonment. offense by previous or simultaneous acts, with the intention of
a. Php 8.00 supplying material or moral aid in the execution of the crime in
b. Php 12.00 an efficacious way.
c. Php 35. 00 a. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Highest minimum wage existing in the country b. Principal by inducement
558. It is the expenses of litigation allowed by the Rules of Court to c. Accomplice
be assessed against or to be recovered by a party in litigation. d. Accessory
a. Costs 569. Principal who materially execute the crime. He appears at the
b. Fine crime scene and performs acts necessary in the commission of
c. Damages the crime.
d. Civil liability a. Principal by inducement/ induction
559. Who may grant pardon? b. Principal by indispensable cooperation
a. The President c. Principal by direct participation
b. The private offended party d. Principal by conspiracy
c. The accused 570. Who are criminally liable?
d. The People of the Philippines a. Principals
560. If the detention prisoner does not agree to abide by the same b. Accomplices
disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted prisoners, the c. Accessories
credited preventive imprisonment is d. All of the choices
a. Fulltime credit 571. Those which must be taken into consideration as aggravating or
b. 4/5 credit mitigating according to the nature and effects of the crime and
c. 2/3 credit the other conditions attending its commission.
d. 1/5 credit a. Extenuating
561. Period of detention undergone by an accused where the crime b. Mitigating
with which he is charged is non‐bailable or, even if bailable, he c. Alternative
is unable to post the requisite bail. (Art. 39) d. Aggravating
a. Solitary confinement 572. It pertains to the moral order, which adds disgrace to the
b. Preventive imprisonment material injury caused by the crime. It adds insult to injury or
c. Inmate incarceration adds shame to the natural effects of the crime. It shocks the
d. Suppressive Detention moral conscience of man.
562. A penalty that deprive the offender of his (1) rights of parental a. Cruelty
authority, or guardianship;(2) Marital authority; (3) The right to b. Ignominy
manage his property; and (4) The right to dispose of such c. Outraging
property by any act or any conveyance inter vivos. d. Scoffing
a. Absolute disqualification 573. Husband A treating his wife B and his child as a sex object, also
b. Temporary disqualification forcing to watch obscene indecent shows .Is A committed crime
c. Bond to keep the peace of Violence Against Women and Their Children?
d. Civil interdiction a. Maybe NO
563. It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished to a certain b. Yes
place and is prohibited from entering or coming near that place c. No
designated in the sentence, not less than 25 kilometers but not d. Maybe YES
to extend beyond 250 kilometers. 574. The offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing information
a. Transportation respecting the national defense with intent, or there is reason to
b. Deportation believe that information is to be used to the injury of the
c. Destierro Republic of the Philippines or to the advantage of any foreign
d. Extradition nation.
564. Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except: a. Treason
a. Capital b. Rebellion
b. Afflictive c. Espionage
c. Correctional d. Mutiny
d. Slight

Page 29 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
575. Other acts constituting the crime of espionage are punishable 585. A public officer who without authority compels a person to
under change his residence is guilty of
a. BP No. 616 a. Grave Coercion
b. PD No. 616 b. Grave Threat
c. CA No. 616 c. Expulsion
d. RA No. 616 d. Violation of Domicile
576. Committed when two countries are at war of which the 586. A public officer who procures a search warrant without just
Philippines is not involved and the offender violates the cause is liable of
regulation issued by the government enforcing neutrality. a. Abuse in the service of search warrant
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal b. Warrant maliciously obtained
b. Violation of neutrality c. Searching domicile without witnesses
c. Correspondence with hostile country d. Violation of Domicile
d. Flight to enemy’s country 587. An order in writing, issued in the name of the People of the
577. A person who wrote a letter to an official of an enemy country Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer,
despite government prohibition is liable of this crime. commanding him to SEARCH for personal property described
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal therein and bring it before the court.
b. Violation of neutrality a. Warrant of Arrest
c. Correspondence with hostile country b. Search Warrant
d. Flight to enemy’s country c. Subpoena
578. Robbery or depredation in the high seas, without lawful d. Summons
authority and done with animo furandi and in the spirit and 588. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the
intention of universal hostility. appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly
a. Mutiny a. Accepted
b. Piracy
b. Determinate
c. Sea-jacking
d. Hi-jacking c. Sensitive
579. The axe gang are raping women in all the places they go from d. Unreliable
Batanes to Sulu. Their acts sow and created a widespread and 589. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of the
extra-ordinary fear and panic among the populace. They sentence must have been served by a petitioner-prisoner?
demanded from the government to release all prisoners entire a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate
the country for them to stop raping. Are they liable for sentence
terrorism?
b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate
a. Yes
b. No sentence
c. Doubtful c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his indeterminate
d. No answer sentence
580. Which of the following is not a form of arbitrary detention? d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate
a. Detaining a person without legal ground sentence
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the 590. What is the oldest written penal law of the Philippines?
proper authorities a. Codigo Penal
c. Delaying release b. Code of Kalantiao
d. Illegal Detention c. Code of Hammurabi
581. A crime committed by a public officer/ employee who detains a d. Maragtas Code
person without legal ground. 591. How penal laws are construed when the law is vague?
a. Arbitrary detention a. Liberally in favor of the government
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the b. Liberally in favor of the offended party
proper authorities c. Liberally in favor of the accused
c. Delaying release d. Liberally in favor of the innocent
d. Illegal Detention 592. Refers to crimes which are wrongful in their nature thus
e. No crime requires the highest condemnation of the society.
582. A crime committed by a private individual who detains a person a. Crimes mala prohibita
without legal ground. b. Crimes mala in se
a. Arbitrary detention c. Crimes supersedeas
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the d. Crimes flagrante delicto
proper authorities 593. This rule recognizes that the host country has jurisdiction over
c. Delaying release crimes committed on board the vessel unless they involve the
d. Illegal Detention internal management of the vessel.
583. Committed by a public officer who detains a person for some a. American Rule
legal ground but fails to deliver such person to the proper b. English Rule
authority w/n the prescribed time. c. French Rule
a. Arbitrary detention d. Filipino Rule
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the 594. Literally, “friend of the court”. Are experienced and impartial
proper authorities
attorneys that may be invited by the court to appear as amicus
c. Delaying release
d. Illegal Detention curiae’
584. A crime committed by a public officer who unduly delays the
release of a person in his custody in spite of a judicial/ a. Champertous contract
executive order to release him. b. Amicus curiae
a. Arbitrary detention c. Amicus curiea
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the d. Champertuos contract
proper authorities 595. A contract whereby the lawyer agrees to pay the expenses of
c. Delaying release litigation in return for the agreement of the client to pay the
d. Illegal Detention lawyer a portion of the thing or property that might be won or

Page 30 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 recovered in the trial or litigation. This is unethical for the lawyer d. assassin
and hence illegal. 605. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
a. trumpet
a. Champertous contract b. siren
b. Amicus curiae c. horn
c. Amicus curiea d. radio
d. Champertuos contract 606. The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is called?
596. The practice of filing multiple suits on different courts based on a. tear down
the same cause of action. This is not allowed and is a ground for b. eviction
dismissal of the case filed by the guilty party. c. squadron
d. demolition
a. contempt 607. H refers to the importance of the establishment with reference
b. forum shipping to the national economy and security?
c. forum shopping a. risk analysis
b. relative critically
d. direct contempt
c. risk assessment
597. It is a small ceremonial mallet commonly made of hardwood, and a
d. relative vulnerability
symbol of the authority and right to act officially in the capacity of 608. There were 750 rape cases in 2010, as against 928 in 2011. What
a chair or presiding officer. was the percent increase?
a. Gavel a. +27.3%
b. Hammer b. +23.7%
c. Wood hammer c. +37.2%
598. The constitution provides for the prescribed dress code of all d. +32.7%
judges and it is called as. 609. In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
a. Black robes a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
b. Black toga b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. Black dress c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d.White robes d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
599. It is the lists of cases that are scheduled to be heard on a 610. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to
particular day usually placed or posted outside the courtroom. the national economy or security:
a. Relative security
a. Court calendar b. Relative necessity
b. Supreme Court calendar c. Relative criticality
c. School calendar d. Relative vulnerability
d. Schedule calendar 611. These are the major courses of action that the
600. Contempt committed in the presence of or so near a court or organization plans to take in order to achieve its
judge as to obstruct or interrupt proceedings before it. objectives.
a. contempt a. Procedures
b. direct contempt b. Strategies
c. indirect contempt c. Plans
d. disobedience d. Objectives
612. In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders but
they offer advice. Frequently this advice is based on the
Law Enforcement high level of expertise, but the advice carries no formal
requirement of acceptance.
a. Democracy
Administration b. Functional authority
c. Line authority
601. A-2 in Intelligence report means? d. Staff authority
a. usually reliable source and is confirmed by other sources 613. The __________ means controlling the direction and flow
b. completely reliable source and is of decisions through unity of command from top to
Probably true bottom organization.
c. completely reliable source and is a. Audit
Usually reliable b. Coordination
d. completely reliable source and is confirmed by other c. Monitoring
sources d. Authority
602. Seeing ahead and making sound assumption? 614. PO III Peter Factor is assigned to collect available
a. prioritizing information concerning the activities of the Red Scorpion
b. foretelling Group (RSG). He is with what unit of the police?
c. forecasting a. anti – juvenile delinquency
d. documenting b. criminal investigation
603. This Police Station activity increases the number of arrest of c. intelligence operations
d. patrol activities
criminal syndicate member?
615. Intelligence can and should do nothing more than.
a. investigation a. promote better police-citizen interaction
b. intelligence b. enhance the probability of accuracy in report writing
c. crime search c. improve administration efficiency particularly in
d. patrol recruitment and selection
604. Which agent who has reached the enemy and able to get d. increase the number of arrests of criminal syndicate
information and would be managed to get back? members
a. mercenary 616. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report
b. none evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
c. penetration

Page 31 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 a. information is usually from a reliable source and is b. security reminders
possibly true c. security orientation
b. information is usually from a reliable source and is d. security investigation
improbable 626. What plans require action or assistance from persons or
c. information is usually from a reliable source and is agencies outside the police organization?
probably true a. tactical plan
d. information is usually from a reliable source and is b. extra department plan
doubtfully true c. management plan
617. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report d. all of these
evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean? 627. This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding
a. information is usually from a reliable source and is citizens feeling of security but the reaction of fear for the
possibly true would be violators.
b. information is usually from a reliable source and is
a. double-officer patrol
improbable
b. single-officer patrol
c. information is usually from a reliable source and is
c. low visibility patrol
probably true
d. high visibility patrol
d. information is usually from a reliable source and is
628. The transfer of heat from one material to another by
doubtfully true
618. Who may be automatically granted height waiver, as direct contact is called _______?
provided under Section 15 of Republic Act No. 8551? a. oxidation
b. convection
a. Police retirables requesting for extension of service.
c. conduction
b. Member of the cultural minorities duly certified by
d. radiation
the appropriate government agency.
629. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of
c.Government employees wishing to transfer to the
PNP irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little
d.Graduates of Criminology chance of detection?
619. Plans which require action or assistance from persons or a. systematic pilferer
agencies outside the police organization. b. ordinary pilferer
a. management plans c. casual pilferer
b. operational plans d. unusual pilferer
c. tactical plans 630. An appeal filed with the Napolcom Regional Appellate
d. extra-department plan Board shall be decided within ______ days from receipt of the
620. Protection of classified document concerning their nation appeal.
preparation, classification, reproduction, handling, transmission, a. fifty
disposal and destruction. b. twenty
a. document security c. thirty
b. operational security d. sixty
c. physical security 631. In the intelligence functions, the black list includes
d. organizational security ________ forces.
621. What is the system of natural or man-made barriers placed a. unwanted
between the potential intruder and the objects, persons and b. friendly
matters being protected? c .neutral
d. unfriendly
a. document security
632. The first step in the planning process is to recognize the
b. communications security
c. physical security need to plan. Which of the following is NOT a way to
d. personnel security discovering the need to plan?
622. Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of a. conduct of research
operation used in the planning and objects, persons and matters b. conduct of training
being protected? c. conduct of inspection
a. military intelligence d. conduct of management audit
b. strategic intelligence 633. The special formations used in crowd control include
c. combat intelligence the wedge, diagonal and deployed line. When a crowd is
d. counter-intelligence small enough not to require a squad, then the formation is:
623. The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol function can a. diagonal
be enhanced if there is detailed and up-to date information about b. wedge
crime and criminals. This calls for the establishment of: c. deployed line
a. patrol base headquarters d. clockwise
b. crime information center 634. Under this principle, the chief executive directly controls
c. management information center
two to ten subordinates, who then control two to ten
d. public information office
624. Planning cannot be undertaken without referring to subordinates each and so on until the bottom of the
________ on the entire police organization, community, crime, organization is reached.
equipment inventories, personal data, etc. a. scalar principle
b. exception principle
a. costs
c. unity of command
b. data
d. span of control
c. plans
d. statement
635. What is meant by an evaluation of C-1?
625. New employees should be briefed on security rules and
a. information comes from an unreliable source and is
regulations of the organization and the importance of observing
probably true
them. This process is called: b. information comes from a fairly reliable source and
a. security information is confirmed by other sources

Page 32 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. information comes from an unreliable source and is
improbable
d.information comes from an unreliable source and is
doubtfully true
636. Under physical security, what should be placed between
the prospective intruder and target installation?
a. Hazard
b. Net
c. Risk
d. Barrier
637. Mr. Jun de las Alas was born on June 1, 1975. Does he
meet the age requirement for entry to the police service
in June 1999?
a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within the age
requirement
c. Yes, he meets the maximum age requirement
d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age requirement
638. A police officer who manages a police station must use all
of the following skills, EXCEPT.
a. conceptual
b. technical
c. interpersonal
d. communication
639. The planning process generally consists of five (5) steps in
sequential order. (Which is the first step?)
a. formulation of details of the plan
b. recognition of the need to plan
c. setting up planning objectives
d. gathering and analysis of data
640. In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
641.These are barbed wires placed above a vertical fence
in order to increase physical protection of establishment or
installations.
a. top tower
b. top guard
c. cellar guard
d. tower guard house
642. What is the next planning step after the need to plan is
recognized?
a. evaluate alternatives
b. formulate the objective
c. execute the plan
d. analyze the data
643. This type of patrol performs certain specific,
predetermined preventive strategies in a regular and
systematic basis.
a. apprehension-oriented patrol
b. low visibility patrol
c. split-force patrol
d. directed deterrent patrol
644. Among the following applicants for appointment to the
police service, who may be automatically granted height
waiver?
a. government employees wishing to transfer to the
PNP
b. members of cultural minorities duly certified by the
appropriate government agency
c. police retirables requesting for extension of service
d. graduate of criminology
645. The following changes must be made in police operating
procedures if the investigative skills of patrol personnel are to be
employed to their fullest advantage EXCEPT.
a. patrol supervisor should insists that patrol officers
simply make a brief report and return to patrol duties
rather than complete their investigations
G.S.T. 2019
b. patrol officers should be better trained and
equipped to conduct routine investigations
c. patrol officers should be encouraged to devote
more time to the investigation of crimes to which they
respond
d. the patrol supervision should be able to provide
the patrol officer with assistance in determining
whether a case has sufficient merit to warrant
immediate follow-up investigation by the patrol
officer
646. The more complex the organization, the more highly
specialized the division of work, the greater the need for:
a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. coordinating authority
c. strictly line discipline
d. finer division of supervision
647. The ________ differs from routine patrol methods in that
patrol officers perform certain specific, predetermined
preventive strategies on a regular and systematic basis.
a. low-visibility patrol
b. directed deterrent patrol
c. split force patrol
d. apprehension-oriented patrol
648. PO II Carlo Y. Alba and PO I Anglelo S. Suba report only to
one (1) supervisor. This is the principle of _______________.
a. unity of command
b. delegation of authority
c. span of control
d. report to immediate superior
649. PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of
amusement and entertainment known to be habitually
visited by his subject and his subject’s associates. PO III
Alta’s undercover assignment is called.
a. multiple assignment
b. social assignment
c. work assignment
d. dwelling assignment
650. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. classified information must not be discussed by one
friends and members of the family
b. classified information should be known only by one
person
c. cabinets with classified documents must be secured
with padlocks and security measures at all time
d. all classified documents must be safeguarded
651. Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is
usually known as:
a. force field analysis
b. Delphi technique
c. simulation model
d. forecasting
652. These regulations establish the specifications of uniform
and the manner in which they are to be worn:
a. personnel transaction regulations
b. firearms regulations
c. uniform regulations
d. equipment regulations
653. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas
projects ________ thus, an effective crime prevention
strategy.
a. police omnipresence
b. police effectiveness
c. police discretion
d. police authority
654. Which of the following trait or ability is most important
for a police officer?
a. personnel integrity and honesty
b. physical stamina and bearing
c. courageous
d .high intelligence
Page 33 of 197
 655. In 2001, there were 200, 450 crimes reported to the 665. In 2001, physical injuries numbered 12,500 out of a total
Police Station of Municipality A. If the population of crime volume of 60,500. What percent of the total crime
Municipality is 5 Million, what is the crime rate? volume is attributed to physical injuries?
a. 3509 a. 18.7%
b. 4010 b. 20.7%
c. 4250 c. 25.7%
d. 4009 d. 4.8%
656. If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully disposed of as a 666. SPO I Edna E. Castro evaluated the information gathered
result of the first investigation, a _________ report should be as “completely reliable, source probably true”. What is
submitted. the type of evaluation?
a. investigation report a. A-5
b. case disposition report b. A-1
c. follow-up report c. A-4
d. crime report d. A-2
657.The advantages of a strong patrol are more than make up 667. It is ongoing process which ensures that new risks are
for slightly inferior performance. More patrolmen are then recognized and that established deterrents remain necessary
made available for emergency and the more active and and cost effective.
widespread the patrol, the more apparent is their presence, a. inspection
thus, promoting the impression of - b. interrogation
a. suspensions c. risk analysis
b. effectiveness d. evaluation
c. omnipresence 668. What type of patrol performs certain specific,
d. efficiency predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and
658. What is the importance of a firm or installation in the systematic basis?
relation to national security referred to? a. split-force patrol
a. relative security b. low visibility patrol
b. relative necessity c. apprehension-oriented
c. relative criticality d. directed deterrent patrol
d. relative vulnerability 669. A patrol beat refers to a:
659. When heat is transmitted by a circulating medium, the a. Number of crimes to be solved
method is called ____________. b. Number of residents to be protected
a. radiation c. Location of police headquarters
b. oxidation d. Geographical area to be patrolled
c. convection 670. It is importance of installation in relation to national
d. conduction security.
660. The __________ includes citizens who are cleared to a. relative criticality
attend meeting in Malacañang. b. relative indispensability
a. white list c. relative security
b. black list d. relative vulnerability
c. target list 671. It is the formal process of choosing the organization
d. access list mission and overall objective both the short and long
661. The attestation function over police appointment is term as well as the divisional and individual objectives
vested in the: based on the organizational objectives.
a. Civil Service Commission a. planning
b. National Police Commission b. organizing
c. Professional Regulations Commission c. directing
d. Department of Interior and Local Government d. managerial decision-making
662. Selling security within the organization sets and maintains a 672. A _________ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the
climate of _______ to the appreciation of the anticipated arrival of a suspect who is either wanted for
department’s objectives. investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a
a. participation certain location.
b. clear a. stake out
c. understanding b. cops and robbers game
d. collaboration c. follow up
663. Mr. Jaime del S. Rio was born on May 1, 1975, does he meet d. surveillance
the age requirement for entry to the police service in 673. How is the crew complement of a Mobile Patrol Division
June 2002? organized into shifts for each duty?
a. No, he has exceeded the maximum age requirement a. daily four-shift
b. Yes, he is only 27 years old and is within the age b .daily five-shift
requirement c. one shift-daily
c. No, but he can apply for age waiver d. daily three-shift
d. Yes, he meets the maximum education requirement 674. The formulation of conclusions from the theory
664. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is developed, tested and considered valid as a result of
“the information comes from a completely reliable source interpretation is called.
and is probably true”? a. collection
a. B-2 b. integration
b. A-2 c. evaluation
c. A-3 d. deduction
d. A 1

Page 34 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 675. In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all index crimes. If 685. When one procures information about subject secretly;
the total index crimes were 25,000, how many were he is performing _______ collection method.
murder incidents? a. routine
a. 250 b. overt
b. 2,500 c. active
c. 500 d. covert
d. 5,000 686. Under this principle, each group reports to an
676. The more complex the organization, the more highly individual who is part of a supervisory group that answers
specialized the division of work, the greater the need to a higher supervisor and so on until a group of
for: administrators report to the chief executive.
a. cleaner delineation of functions a. unity of command
b. coordinating authority b. span of control
c. strictly line discipline c. scalar principle
d. finer division of supervision d. aggregation
677. The following questions are tests for accuracy of 687. Which of the following is NOT patrol pattern?
information, EXCEPT: a. clockwise
a. Does the report agree or disagree with available and b. zigzag
related intelligence? c. criss-cross
b. Is the reported fact or event known in advance d. stationary
c. Is it the same or consistent with known modus 688. To what unit do policeman in plain clothes belong when
operandi? they infiltrate and gather information about criminal
d. Is the information about the target or area of the syndicates?
operation? a. Budget
678. Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or b. Planning
lahar cannot be prevented from occurring. To minimize c. Intelligence
the disastrous effects of these phenomena, the security d. Patrol
officer must prepare a: 689. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a. guard deployment plan a. Performance evaluation measures credibility of
b. security education plan the police personnel.
c. civil defense plan b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary
d. disaster or emergency plan increases of promotion.
679. It involves segregation of deviants into isolated c. Performance evaluation is done once a year
geographic areas so that they can easily be controlled. among police personnel.
d. Performance evaluation is implemented to
a. Coercion
determine the quality of work performance of
b. Quarantine
personnel.
c. Conversion
690. Line units such as the patrol section or investigation
d. Containment
680. What management principle provides that only one section in police stations prepare their work programs in
officer be in direct command or supervision of each which areas are called ___.
officer. a. Budget
b. Management
a. span control
c. Operational plans
b. unity of command
d. Tactical plan
c. chain of command
691. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to
d. line of authority
681. What is referred to as total number of police officers capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of
assigned to patrol duties? actions of foreign nations?
a. effective strength a. combat intelligence
b. mandatory strength b. national intelligence
c. actual strength c. police intelligence
d. authorized strength d. strategic intelligence
682. When police patrols are increased beyond normal 692. How are coded messages converted to intelligible
levels, this is called ________? language?
a. reactive patrol a. Encoding
b. directed deterrent patrol b. Processing
c. citizen patrol c. Labeling
d. proactive patrol d. Decoding
683. What is the method of collection of information 693. The type of undercover operation wherein techniques
wherein the investigator tails or shadows the persons are applied for a longer time and are considered as the most
or vehicles? different (difficult) investigate activity, yet the most
a. Research rewarding.
b. Surveillance a. casing
c. Casing b. undercover operation
d. Photography c. penetration
684. Before a security expert can recommend what type of d. surveillance
security will needed by an industrial establishment, there is a 694. As Security Director of Company B, you should know
need for him to undertake a : how many beds, are normally available in a multiple injury
a. security training situation and how many ________ patients can be processed
b. security check at a single time.
c. security survey a. Wounded
d. security education b. Emergency

Page 35 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. Female a. objectives
d. Male b. planning assumptions
695. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is c. problems
determined through a process called _________. d. planning environment
a. security training 706. The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the following
b. security education organizational features, EXCEPT:
c. security promotion a. Unified delivery of services
d. security investigation b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making
696.This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying c. Combined investigation and patrol functions
in wait rather that upon high visibility patrol techniques? d. Unity of direction
a. decoy patrol 707. Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if they are
b. high visibility patrol properly trained in criminal investigation. Which of the
c. directed patrol following cannot be undertaken by them?
d. low visibility patrol a. He can locate and question the suspect if he
697. What police plans refer to actions to be taken at a apprehends him.
designated location and under specific circumstances? b. He can identify available evidences.
a. management plans c. He can take note of statements of the suspect.
b. tactical plans d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow
c. operating plans policemen.
d. procedural plans 708. It is a physical security applied to business groups engaged
698. What type of organization consciously coordinates the in industries, like manufacturing, assembling, research and
activities of two or more persons towards a given development, processing, warehousing and even
objective? agriculture.
a. flexible organization a. operational security
b. formal organization b. industrial security
c. informal organization c. physical security
d. non-flexible organization
d. special types
699. Who among the following meets the age qualification for
709. It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned with
appointment to the police service?
the physical measures to prevent unauthorized access.
a. Rey who is 20 years old
b. Dennis who is 17 years old a. operational security
c. John who is 22 years old b. industrial security
d. Santi who is 35 years old c. physical security
700. The covert observation of an area, a building or d. special types
stationary object in order to gain information is called: 710. Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of the
a. undercover works facility caused by human action, accidental or intentional.
b. penetration a. security hazards
c. casing b. man-made hazard
d. surveillance
c. natural hazard
701. If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve barrels of
d. all of the above
bleaching powder, the greatest danger would be from:
711. Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused
a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be controlled
b. an explosion damage, disturbance and problems of the normal
c. the impossibility of using water on the fire functioning of human activities, including security.
d. a toxic and irritant gas a. security hazards
702. Which of the following is not included in the patrol b. man-made hazard
function? c. natural hazard
a. Response to citizen calls d. all of the above
b. Investigation of crimes 712. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the
c. Routine preventive patrol national economy and security.
d. Inspection of identified hazards
a. relative criticality
703. Disaster preparedness and control plans should include
b. relative vulnerability
_______ so that people who are directly involved know
c. all of the above
the extent of the incident.
d. non of the above
a. evacuation services
b. identification services 713. One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes away
c. counseling services any of all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
d. public information services a. pilferer
704. An intelligence report classified as A-2 b. casual pilferer
means__________. c. systematic pilferer
a.the information comes from a completely reliable d. intruder
source and is doubtfully true 714. . A medium of structure which defines the physical limits
b. the information comes from a completely reliable
of an installation to restrict or impede access thereto.
source and is probably true
c.the information comes from a usually reliable source a. natural barrier
and is and is probably true. b. man-made barrier
d.the information comes from a usually reliable source c. perimeter barrier
and is possibly true d. physical security
705. It ensures the question “what is to be accomplish by
the plan?”

Page 36 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 715. . It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link with d. controlled area
mesh openings not larger that two inches square, and 725. . Any area, access to which is subject to special restriction
made or #9 gauge wire or heavier. control.
a. clear zone a. restricted area
b. bodies of water b. exclusion area
c. building wall c. controlled area
d. wire fence d. coverage factor
716. . It surmounted by the barbed wire top guards, and if the 726. . A restricted area containing materials or operation of
height is less than the prescribed, additional topping is security interest.
placed to attain the minimum height requirement. a. restricted area
a. clear zone b. exclusion area
b. bodies of water c. controlled area
c. building wall d. coverage factor
d. wire fence 727. It is the key elements in the security survey system of a
717. . An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the plant or installation.
perimeter barrier. a. security guard
a. clear zone b. human guard
b. bodies of water c. company guard
c. building wall d. agency guard
d. wire fence 728. . It is a term used in England for lock pickers,
718. . He may issue or revoke licenses issued to security safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms or
guards. areas.
a. Chief, PNP a. doppler effect
b. Mayor b. duress code
c. Governor c. peterman
d. Secretary, DILG d. fail safe
719. . It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on 729. . A term applied to a device or system that in the event of
vertical perimeter fences facing upward and outward failure or a component, the incapacity will be signaled.
with a 45 degree angle with three to four strand of a. doppler effect
barbed wire. b. duress code
a. topping c. peterman
b. top guard d. fail safe
c. all of the above 730. . It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its
d. non of the above validity, it is also an operational readiness exercise.
720. . Are house like structure above the perimeter barriers, it a. dry run
give psychological effect to violators. b. run through
a. guard towers c. controlling
b. tower guards d. fire drill
c. guard house 731. . It is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to
d. guard post damage, loss or disruption of operation due to various
721. . A conference or dialogue between the survey team and hazard.
management officials before security survey is a. relative criticality
conducted. b. relative vulnerability
a. pre- security survey c. all of the above
b. post- security survey d. non of the above
c. entrance conference 732. . It includes records that are irreplaceable, reproduction
d. exit conference of which does not have the same value as the original
722. . It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s records.
adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security. a. useful records
a. security inspections b. vital records
b. security survey c. important records
c. special survey d. non-essential records
d. supplemental survey 733. . How is one classified if he steals primarily because of
723. . It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity?
and its relevance to their work. a. casual pilferer
a. security education b. ordinary pilferer
b. security indoctrination c. systematic
c. security training d. unusual pilferer
d. security awareness 734. . The extinguishment of fire by using water solution, and
724. . It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security the temperature is lowered below the burning point.
allowing entry to a compound or installation thereof. a. smothering
a. controlling b. starving
b. access list c. cooling
c. exclusion area d. all of the above

Page 37 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 735. . It is a type of built-in sprinklers which works by the 745. . The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs shall not exceed a
increase of room temperature, and which automatically basic load of how many rounds per unit of duly licensed
operates the system to put out the fire. firearms.
a. wet pipe system a. 20
b. automatic sprinklers b. 12
c. dry pipe system c. 50
d. stand pipe system d. 25
736. . These fire results from the burning of wood, paper, 746. . This is quantity of ammunitions to be issued to
textiles and other carbonaceous materials. individual security guards.
a. Class “A” Fires a. 20
b. Class “B” Fires b. 12
c. Class “C” Fires c. 50
d. Class “D” Fires d. 25
737. . Private Security Agencies must be registered at what 747. It is the only instances wherein PDAs & PSAs may be
government agency. allowed to use high powered firearms; except one.
a. DTI a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality
b. PNP b. upsurge of bank and armored bank robbery
c. CSC c. transporting big amount of money
d. LGU d. providing security to VIPs
738. It is the minimum guard requirements for the issuance 748. . The prescribed high-powered firearms not exceed how
of temporary license. many percent of the total number of guards employed.
a.100 a.5%
b.1,000 b.10%
c.50 c.15%
d.200 d.20%
739. . The regular security guard license is good for how many 749. . These are the qualifications of a licensed watchman or
years? security guard, EXCEPT:
a. 1 year a. high school graduate
b. 2 years b. physically & mentally fit
c. 6 months c. 18 to 50 years of age
d. 3 years d. without pre-licensing training
740. . It is the minimum capitalization for PSA. 750. . There are two different ways in which security guards
a. P1,000,000.00 are hired or employed, the company guard and the other
b. P500,000.00 one is:
c. P100,000.00 a. government guards
d. non of the above b. private security agency
741. . It is the required minimum number of guards to operate c .propriety guards
company security forces. d. in-house guards
a. 30 751. . This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and
b. 200 Operation of PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs.
c. 50 a. PD 603
d.100 b. EO 292
742. . A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay how much c. RA 5487
amount of surety bond to a reputable insurance d. PD 968
company. 752. . They are any person who offers or renders personal
a. P50,000.00 service to watch or secure either residential or business
b. P100,000.00 establishment or both.
c. P150,000.00 a. private detective
d. P200,000.00 b. security guards
743. . PSAs with 100 guards must initially procure at least how c. propriety guards
many firearms for use of its security guards. d. company guards
a. 10 753. . Are any person who is not a member of the AFP or PNP,
b. 20 but involved in detective work.
c. 30 a. private detective
d. 70 b. security guards
744. . PSAs who have been applying for regular license to c. propriety guards
operate must have at least ___ pieces of licensed d. company guards
firearms. 754. . It is any person who for hire or reward or on
a. 10 commission, conducts or carries on or holds himself out
b. 20 in carrying detective works.
c. 30 a. PDA
d. 70 b. PSA
c. GSU
d. CSF

Page 38 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 755. . It is any person, association, partnership, firm or private b. number of hours of security service
corporation that employs any watchman or guards. c. salary of the security guard
a. PDA d. commission of the operator
b. PSA 766. . It is administrative sanctions that can be imposed to any
c. GSU applicant who failed to submit the complete
d. CSF requirements in the renewal of license.
756. . It is a security force maintained and operated by the a. cancellation
private company/corporation for its own protection and b. revocation
security requirements c. nullification
a. PDA d. suspension
b. PSA 767. . It shall apply to all PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs throughout
c. GSU the Philippines.
d. CSF a. Private Scty. Law
757. . It is a security unit maintained and operated by any b. RA 5487
government entity other than military or police. c .IRR of RA 5487
a. PDA d.all of the above
b. PSA 768. . It refers to the Summary Power of the Chief, PNP as
b. GSU provided by R.A. 5487.
c. CSF a. suspension of license
d.PAD b. cancellation of license
758. . It is the umbrella organization for PDA and PSA. c. all of the above
a. PADPAO, Inc. d. non of the above
b. SAGSD 769. . It is the established rules and regulations in the
c. SEC operation of GSUs, EXCEPT:
d. PNP a. registration at SAGSD
759. . It is a government agency involved in the supervision of b. registration at CSG
the internal affairs of the PSAs, PDAs, CSFs and GSUs. c. both A & B
a. PADPAO, Inc. d. registration at SEC
b. SAGSD 770. . Any member of the GSUs shall be required to secure a
c. SEC __________ to exercise profession at SAGSD.
d. PNP a. permit
760. . It is the age requirement for the operator or manager of b. authority
PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU. c. registration
a. 25 years d. license
b. 30 years 771. . How many days prior expiry month of license shall
c. 35 years require PSL holders to undergo NP examinations.
d. 20 years a. 60 days
761. . It is the initial number of guard requirements that must b. 30 days
be contracted for the 1st year of operation of PSA. c. 45 days
a. 100 d. 15 days
b. 200 772. . Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be issued by the
c. 1,000 accredited testing centers within how many days after
d. 50 the date of examination.
762. . What is the minimum number of guard requirements in a. 60 days
the operation of branch offices of PSA. b. 30 days
a. 20 c .45 days
b. 30 d.15 days
c. 10 773. . Moribund but previously licensed security agency,
d. 40 means:
763. . __________ are included in the category of in-house a. dying PSA
guards. b. viable PSA
a. government guards c. new PSA
b. private security agency d. renewing PSA
c. propriety guards 774. .It refers to the requirements for application for licenses
d. all of the above as security officers, guards, and operators.
764. . It is charge with the directing the work and observing a. physical & mental examination
the behavior performance of the men under his unit. b. medical & dental examination
a. security guard c. physical agility test examination
b. security supervisor d. drug test examination
c. watchman 775. . Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by whom?
c. security officer a. DILG
765. . The following items must be stipulated in the security b. C, PNP
service contract, EXCEPT: c. PD, PPO
a. money consideration d. RD, PRO 3

Page 39 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 776. . Letter of Commendation to PSGs is awarded by whom? c. utilize
a. PSAs Operators d. deputize
b. CSF Managers 787. . The staff directorate in charge of gathering information
c. all of the above is-
d. non of the above a. Intelligence
777. . It shall be submitted immediately after graduation to b. Police Community Relation
the C, PNP. c. Civil Security Group
a. closing reports d. Investigation and Detective Mngt.
b. opening reports 788. . Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM?
c. participants a. Chief of Staff, AFP
d. name of course b. Secretary of the DILG
778. . It is required to the License to Operate PSAs/CSFs. c. Secretary of National Defense
a. displayed d. Chief of the PNP
b. carried 789. . It is the minimum educational attainment for promotion
c. registered in the PNP.
d. all of the above a. MNSA
779. . Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly known as ______ in b. Master’s Degree
the industrial security management. c. OSEC
a. Kabit System d. BS Degree
b. Illegal Operation 790. . Attrition system is a means under Republic Act Nr. 8551
c. Merger of Security to remove from the PNP, police officers who are-
d. Moribund Security a. inefficient
780. . It is no anymore required to PSAs/PDAs securing b. ineffective
temporary license to operate. c. unproductive
a. pre-inspection d. all of the choices
b. post-inspection 791. . The nature of which, the police officer is free from
c. inspection specific routine duty is the definition of -
d. continuing inspection a. “on duty”
781. . It shall not be issued unless prior inspection is b. “special duty”
conducted to the applicant agency. c. “leave of absence”
a. regular license d. “off duty”
b. temporary license 792. . An area containing two or more beats, routes or post is
c. license to operate called-
d. permit to operate a. post
782. . These are the classifications of offenses as prescribed by b. unit
the IRR of R.A. 5487, EXCEPT: c. sector
a. serious offense d. section
b. light offense 793. . The lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation Rating in
c. grave offense the PNP is-
d. less grave offense a. Very Satisfactory
783. . They have the authority to conduct inspection to b. Fair
PSAs/PDAs/CSFs/GSUs, EXCEPT: c. Outstanding
a. C, SAGSD d. Poor
b. C, ROPD 794. . The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years and
c. PD, PPO receive a Base Pay of 25,000 pesos a month. How much
d. SAGSD Officer will be his Longevity Pay?
784. . These are authorized to conduct investigation on all a. 5,000 pesos
complaints against securities of PSAs or detective of b. 7,500 pesos
PDAs. c. 10,000 pesos
a. C, ROPD d. 12,500 pesos
b. Inves. Comm., CSG 795. . SPO4 Masipag receives a base pay of Php14, 000. He
c. all of the above had been in the service for 27 years. How much is his
d. none of the above longevity pay?
785. . It must be avoided by the private security personnel, a.Php4, 200
either physically or otherwise with the strikers. b. Php5, 000
a. direct contact c. Php6, 500
b. indirect contact d. Php7, 000
c. confrontation 796. . A primary subdivision of a bureau is called-
d. carrying of firearms a. division
786. . The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to muster b. unit
or _________ the members of the agency in case of c. section
emergency or in times of disasters or calamity. d. department
a. organize 797. . The mandatory training course for PO1 for them to be
b. incorporate promoted to PO2 or PO3.

Page 40 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 a. PSJLC 808. . Which of the following is not an administrative support
b. PSOBC unit?
c. PSOOC a. Special Action Force
d. PSBRC b. Civil Security Group
798. . Time-In-Grade needed by a Senior Inspector before he c. Police Security and Protection Office
could be promoted to Chief Inspector is- d. all of the choices
a. 1 year 809. . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP
b. 3 years members who want to be promoted to-
c. 2 years a. SPO4
d. 5 years b. SPO3
799. . An area assigned for foot or motorized patrol purposes c. SP01
is called- d. PO3
a. beat 810. Under the general qualifications for appointment in the
b. sector PNP, male applicant must be with a height of at least-
c. route a. 1.62 m
d. post b. 1.64 m
800. . The system used in PNP promotions is called- c. 1.57 m
a. Performance d. 1.54
b. Seniority 811. . The mandatory training course of SPO4 before they can
c. Palakasan be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector is-
d. Merit a. Officers Basic Course
801. . The directorate who is in charge of supplies and b. Officers Candidate Course
equipments of PNP is- c. Officers Advance Course
a. logistics d. Senior Leadership Course
b. comptrollership 812. . What is the nature of appointment of PNP personnel
c. intelligence under the waiver program?
d. plans a. permanent
802. . What is the maximum tenure of a Police Regional b. contractual
Director? c. temporary
a. 4 years d. probationary
b .5 years 813. .The Police Regional Office covering Metro-Manila is-
c. 6 years a. Western Police District
d. 9 years b. NCRPO
803. . The period of time in the present rank in permanent c. Southern Police District
status is called- d. Central Police District
a. Time-In-Grade 814. . The equivalent rank of Major General in the PNP is-
b. Length of Service a. Director General
c. Seniority in rank b. Chief Superintendent
d. Plantilla position c. Deputy Director General
804. . The directorate who is the “make-up artist” and d. Director
“deodorant” of the PNP is called- 815. . The number 2 man in the PNP organization in-
a. Personnel Records Mgt. a. TCDS
b. DDG for Administration
b. Research Development c. DDG for Operations
c. Police Community Relation d. none of them
d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt. 816. .The national headquarters of the PNP is-
805. . The National Capital Region Police Office is divided into a. Camp Dangwa
how many districts? b. Camp Crame
a. four c. Camp Aguinaldo
b. six d. Fort Bonifacio
c. five 817. . The purpose of promotion in the PNP is-
d. seven a. recognition of good work
806. . A functional group within a section is called- b. gives officers high morale
a. division c. gives higher pay
b. route d. all of the choices
c. unit 818. . Waiver system in the PNP will apply if-
d. sector a. recruitment falls on summer
807. . The staff directorate in charge of gathering information b. qualified applicant falls below quota
is- c. ordered by the President
a. Intelligence d. none of them
b. Police Community Relation 819. . Mental fitness of an applicant in the PNP is verified
c. Comptrollership thru-
d.Investigation and Detective Mgt. a. medical examination
b. neuro-psychiatric examination

Page 41 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. physical fitness examination c. 10 years
d. drug test d. 20 years
820. . Age waiver can be granted if the applicant is- 831. . It also referred to as Monthly Retirement Benefits
a. 20 to 36 years old (MRB).
b. 19 to 36 years old a. lump sum
c. 21 to 35 years old b. pension
d. 20 to 35 years old c. gratuity
821. . What is the minimum rank for a police officer to be d. allowance
qualified a the C, PNP? 832. . Insubordination is an administrative infraction referred
a. Director to as-
b. Superintendent a. citizens complaint
c. Chief Superintendent b. grave misconduct
d. Director General c. breach of internal discipline
822. . The law that grants automatic eligibility for those who d. none of them
passed any licensure examination administered by the 833. . PLEB is composed of how many person?
Professional Regulations Commission is- a. 3
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506 b. 5
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080 c. 4
c. Republic Act Nr. 6975 d. 6
d. Republic Act Nr. 8551 834. . How many years is maximum tenure in officer of the
823. . The highest award given to a PNP member is- Chief, PNP?
a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan a. four years
b. Medalya ng Kagitingan b. six years
c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting c. five years
d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan d. nine years
824. . What is the duration of the PNP Field Training Program? 835. . How long will be the extension of tenure of the Chief,
a. 10 months PNP if extended?
b. 18 months a. not more than 1 year
c. 12 months b. not less than 2 years
d. 24 months c. more than 1 year
825. . When is the date of effectively of the PNP Reform and d. none of them
Reorganization Act? 836. . The law that grants eligibility to Criminology Board
a. 1992 Exam passers is-
b. 1996 a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
c. 1994 b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
d. 1998 c. Republic Act Nr. 8551
826. . What law was amended by RA 8551? d. Republic Act Nr. 6975
a. RA 7659 837. . The agency that administers all the mandatory training
b. RA 6425 for police officers is
c. RA 6975 a. PPSC
d. RA 9165 b. PNP
827. . Valenzuela City maintains a police force with a total c. DHRDD
manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB d. NAPOLCOM
must be established? 838. . Who can grant waivers for applicants in the PNP?
a. two a. President
b. four b. Chief, PNP
c. three c. Sec. of DILG
d. five d. NAPOLCOM
828. . What is the lowest administrative penalty? 839. . Which of the following administer the PNP Entrance and
a. Forfeiture of Pay Promotional Exam for policemen as provided for under
b. Restricted to Specified limits Republic Act Nr. 8551?
c. Witholding of Privilege a. NAPOLCOM
d. Admonition b. Civil Service Commission
829. . It is the period given for a PNP member admitted under c. Congress
the educational attainment waiver to finish his B.S. d. PNP
Degree according to RA 8551? 840. . What is the basis for promotion that includes the length
a. 4 years of service in the present rank?
b. 6 years a. Merit
c. 5 years b. Superiority
d. 7 years c. Time-In-Grade
830. . It is the number of year of non-promotion before a PNP d. Age
Member can be attrited. 841. . In availing of early retirement, one must have rendered
a. 5 years continuous service of-
b. 15 years a. 10 years

Page 42 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. 15 years b. Congress
b. 20 years c. Commission of Appointment
d. 25 years d. NAPOLCOM
842. . What is the length of service before a PNP member 852. . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP
would be qualified for optional retirement? members who want to be promoted to-
a. 5 years a. SPO4
b. 10 years b. SPO1
c. 15 years c. SPO3
d. 20 years d. PO3
843. . A promotion by virtue of exhibited act of courage and 853. . The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that the State
extra-ordinary gallantry beyond the call of duty is called- shall establish and maintain one police for which shall be-
a. Regular a. national in scope
b. Permanent b. civilian in scope
c. Temporary c. national in character
d. Meritorious d. military in character
844. . Refers to a location where the search, which is duly 854. . What is the meaning of PPSC?
authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the a. Phil. Public Safety Course
commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other b. Phil. Private Safety College
legitimate purposes. c. Phil. Public Safety College
a. Clear Zone d. Phil. Private Safety Course
b. Public Place 855. .The mandatory training required for promotion to the
c. Police Checkpoint rank of Police Superintendent is called-
d. Pre-Determined Area
a. MNSA
845. . It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot
b. OSEC
or in a vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable
c. MPSA
cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s
d. Master’s Degree
identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning
856. . He is the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary?
criminal activity.
a. Capt. Henry T. Allen
a. Frisking
b. Gen. Rafael Crame
b. Search
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera
c. Spot Check
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt
d. Pat-down Search
857. .It is an association or group of individuals with a
846. . A promotion granted to PNP personnel who dies while
common goal.
in the performance of duty is called-
a. Police organization
a. Regular
b. Law enforcement group
b. Posthumous
c. Non-government organization
c. Temporary
d. Organization
d. None of them
858. . Who is the Father of Modern Policing System?
847. . Under the lateral entry program in the PNP, a
a. Edwin Sutherland
criminologist who applied and selected will have the
b. Emile Durkhiem
initial rank of -
c. Sir Robert Peel
a. Senior Inspector
d. Leonard Keeler
b. Inspector
859. .Who is the first Chief of Police of Manila?
c. SPO4
a. Capt. George Curry
d. Chief of Inspector
b. Capt. Henry Allen
848. . The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police
c. Capt. Columbus Piatt
Superintendent is vested in the-
d. Capt. Howard Taft
a. Chief, PNP
860. . Rape punished under RPC is crime against _____.
b. President
a. chastity
c. Civil Service Commission
b. passion
d. NAPOLCOM
c. person
849. . When can the President extend the tenure of service of
d. mankind
the Chief, PNP?
861. . What is given to a PNP member for every 5 years of
a. after 4 years
satisfactory service rendered?
b. there is no successor
a. promotion
c. during martial law
b. longevity pay
d. national emergencies
c. additional allowance
850. . What is the benefit derived by a PNP officer qualified
d. retirement benefits
for early retirement?
862. . What is the lowest administrative penalty?
a. two ranks higher
a. reprimand
b. one rank higher
b. admonition
c. his present rank
c. restriction
d. one year gratuity
d. forfeiture of pay
851. . Who shall attest the appointment of PNP officers?
a. Civil Service Commission

Page 43 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 863. .Citizen’s complaint may be brought before the Chief of 874. . The law that merges the police and Philippine
Police, City or Municipal Mayors and _______. Constabulary into the PC-INP is-
a. Chief, PNP a. R.A. 7659
b. Provincial Director b. R.A. 6975
c. Regional Director c. R.A. 8551
d. PLEB d. P.D. 765
864. . Decision the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where 875. . How many deputies do the PNP consist?
the penalty is dismissal, demotion and forced resignation a. one
may be appealed before this body. b. three
a. Regional Appellate Board c. two
b. Office of the President d. four
c. National Appellate Board 876. . How many police Regional Offices (PRO) are there in the
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM PNP Organization?
865. . Which of the following composed the PNP? a. fourteen
a. members of the INP b. sixteen
b. members of the PC c. Fifteen
c. members of the PNP d. Seventeen
d. all of the choices 877. . The Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is done
866. .What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff? how many times per year?
a. Deputy Director General a. once
b. Police Director b. thrice
c. Police Chief Superintendent c. twice
d. Police Senior Superintendent d. four
867. . The kind of promotion granted to a candidate who 878. . MNSA or Master’s in National Security Administration is
meets all the basic qualification for promotion is termed- offered and administered by an institution known as-
a. special a. PPSC
b. meritorious b. NAPOLCOM
c. regular c. National Defense Office
d. ordinary d. National Defense College
868. . It is the mandatory training course for SPO4 before they 879. . The mandatory training course needed to be promoted
can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector. to SPO1 and SPO2 is called-
a. Officer’s Basic Course a. Police Basic Course
b. Officer’s Advance Course b. Junior Leadership Course
c. Officer’s Candidate Course c. Senior Leadership Course
d. Senior Leadership Course d. Officers Candidate Course
869. . How many Staff Directorates are there in the PNP 880. . The administrative support unit in charge of delivering
National Office (NHQ-PNP)? the necessary supplies and materials to all PNP units in
a. eleven the field is called-
b. ten a.Finance Service
c. nine b.Logistics Support Service
d. twelve c.Computer Service
870. . Generally, PNP promotions are subject to the d.Communications & Electronics Svc
confirmation of the: 881. . The highest ranking Police Non-Commissioned Officer
a. Civil Service Commission is-
b. NAPOLCOM a. SPO2
c. Commission on Appointment b. SPO4
d. President of the Phil. c. SPO3
871. . The number 4 man in the PNP organization is the - d. Inspector
a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns 882. . How many stars are there in the rank of Police Director?
b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm a. one
c. The Chief Directorial Staff b. three
d. Regional Director of the NCR c. two
872. . The National Appellate Board Office of the NAPOLCOM d. four
is located in what city? 883. . The Republic Act that is also known as the DILG Act of
a. Quezon City 1990 that established the PNP under the DILG is-
b. City Of Manila a. Republic Act Nr. 6975
c. Mandaluyong City b. Republic Act Nr. 7659
d. Makati City c. Republic Act 8551
873. . Police Senior Superintendents are appointed by- d. Presidential Decree 765
a. Chief, PNP 884. . In the history of our police force, who was the first
b. Secretary, DILG Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
c. President of the Phil. a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM b. Gen. Raul Imperial
c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento

Page 44 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 885. . The primary objective of Philippine National Police: 894. . The following are functions in a police organization,
a. Law Enforcement EXCEPT:
b. Peace and Order a. primary functions
c. Protect and Serve b. administrative functions
d. Crime Prevention c. secondary functions
886. . The national headquarters of the PNP is located in d. auxiliary functions
Quezon City. It was named after the 1 st Filipino Chief of 895. . If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to
the Philippine Constabulary. disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
a. Rafael Palma Patrol officer is:
b. Cesar Nazareno a. Conduct a complete search.
c. Rafael Crame b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
d. Emilio Aguinaldo c. No further search may be made.
887. . Richard Aldenjoined the PNP in 1996. He was 30 years d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
old then. What year can Alden retire? 896. . He is known as the father of modern policing system?
a. 2017 a. August Vollmer
b. 2031 b. Robert Peel
c. 2032 c. Oliver Cromwell
d. 2022 d. Cesare Lombroso
888. . The Role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression 897. . When responding to call for police assistance due to
of insurgency and serious treats to national security? planted or found explosives, what immediate actions
a. The AFP operating through the area commander should the patrol officer will do?
is the one primarily responsible on matters a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
involving insurgency and other serious treats to b.Dispose the item immediately to avoid further injury to
national security.
happen.
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards
insurgency and other serious treats to national c.Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive Ordinance
security. Disposal Team.
c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in d.Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper
insurgency-affected areas. procedure to be followed, after investigating the item.
d. All of the choices 898. . Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed
889. . The procedure which is intended to be used in situations Forces of the Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in
of all kinds and outlined as guide and by men in the field the PNP?
operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest a. Inspector
and investigation refers to b. Chief Inspector
a. Field Procedure c. Senior Inspector
b. Time Specific plan
d. Superintendent
c. Problem oriented plan
d. Headquarters procedure 899. . How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in the
890. . The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period PNP?
______? a. 1
a. Not exceeding four years. b. 3
b. Not exceeding five years. c. 2
c. Not exceeding six years. d. 4
d. Not exceeding three years. 900. . The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
891. . The law that empowered the police commission to a. Four star general
conduct entrance and promotional examination for police b. Director
members refers to: c. Chief Superintendent
a. RA 6040 d. Director General (PNP)
b. RA 157 901. . What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?
c. RA 5487 a. 1:1000
d. PD 765 b. 1:1500
892. . The theory of police service which states those police c. 1:500
officers are servants of the people or the community d. 1:7
refers to: 902. . The fourth man in command of the PNP is the
a. Old __________.
b. Home rule a. DDG for operation
c. Modern b. Chief, Directorial Staff
d. Continental c. DDG for administration
893. . Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the d. Chief, PNP
Philippine National Police. What would be his initial rank 903. . Which of the following is NOT included in the powers and
upon entry? function of the PNP?
a. Senior Inspector a. enforce all laws and ordinances
b. Chief Inspector b. maintain peace and order
c. Inspector c. investigate and prevent crimes
d. none of the choices d. prosecute criminal offenders

Page 45 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 904. . The word “police” was derived from the Greek word 914. . All of the following are members of the People’s Law
_______, which means government of the city. Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
a. politia a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order
b. Polis Council from among the respected members of the
c. politeia community
b. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality
d. Policy
concerned chosen by the association of barangay
905. . It is defined as the determination in advance of how the captains
objectives of the organization will be attained. c. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
a. planning d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the
b. Advancement Philippines
c. police planning 915. . Two or more persons forming an organization must
d. Development identify first the reason for establishing such organization.
906. . It is the premier educational institution for the training, They must identify the organization’s _________:
human resource development and continuing education a. strategy
of all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP. b.mission
a. PPSC c.vision
b. RTS d. objective
c. PNPA 916. . To improve delegation, the following must be done,
d. NPC EXCEPT:
907. . It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint a. establish objectives and standards
against the police officers. b. count the number of supervisors
c. require completed work
a. IAS
d. define authority and responsibility
b. PNP 917. . The number of subordinates that can be supervised
c. PLEB directly by one person tends to:
d. NAPOLCOM a. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor
908. . The provincial governor shall choose the provincial and subordinate as well as between individual
director from a list of _____ eligible’s recommended by subordinate increases
the PNP regional director: b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and
a. six experience of the subordinate
b. Five c. Increase as the level of supervision progresses for the
first line supervisory level to the management level
c. Three
d. All of the above
d. four 918. . This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions
909. . The deployment of officers in a given community, area or through unity of command from top to bottom of
locality to prevent and deter criminal activity and to organization:
provide day-to-day services to the community. a. Audit
a. Patrol b. Coordination
b. Beat Patrol c. Monitoring
c. Line Patrol d. Authority
d. Area Patrol 919. . Which of the following statements is true:
910. . The head of the IAS shall have a designation of a.Performance evaluation measures credibility of
____________? the police
a. Director General b.Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary
b. Solicitor General increases or promotion
c. Inspector General c.Performance evaluation is done once a year
among police personnel
d. IAS General
d.Performance evaluation is implemented to
911. . As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be how determine the quality of work performance of
many PLEB for every 500 police personnel? personnel
a. one (1) 920. . The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for
b. more than one _______:
c. at least one a. Administrative control
d. less than one b. Operational supervision
912. . If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the c. Administration and control
immediate things to do when accident occur? d. Policy and program coordination
921. . SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same supervisor.
a. Cordon the area
This is the principle of __________:
b. Go away and call your superior
a. delegation of authority
c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
b. span of control
d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him c. unity of command
913. . Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses d. chain of command
of the PNP in reinventing the field of investigation. Who is 922. . The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the
the NCRPO Chief who introduces this DBS? Director General of the PNP is;
a. Dir. Alma Jose a. 4 years
b. Dir. Romeo Pena b. 56 years
c. Dir. Sonny Razon c. 5 years
d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento d. 21 years

Page 46 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 923. . In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for? 932. . The Philippine National Police will recruit
a. standard operation procedures 500 new policemen on April 2013 to fill up its
b. special operation procedures quota. Who among the following applicants is
c. standard operating procedures qualified to apply?
d. special operating procedures a. Alden who was born on April 24, 1978
924. . The following are the characteristics of a good plan, b. Maine who was born on November 22, 1980
except: c. Vice who was born on March 17, 1993
a. Flexibility d. Plastillas who was born on August 10, 1991
b. specific 933. . Police Inspector Katunggali joined the
c. Clear Philippine National Police on October 1,
d. expensive 1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as
925. . If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement so
of the annual quota is allocated for women? that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP which he
a.10% served with extreme commitment and loyalty. When does
b.120 Mark Espinosa can retire?
c.100 a. October 5, 1998
d.200 b. October 6, 1999
926. . Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be c. September 5, 2010
waived in the following order: d. September 5, 2008
a. age, height, weight & education 934. . Which of the following administrative
b. age, weight, height & education penalties is immediately executory?
c. height, education, weight & age a. Dismissal
d. in any order
b. Forfeiture of pay
927. . It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis
c. Suspension
provided by law.
d. Death penalty
a. attrition
935. . It is the third in command in the Philippine National
b. separation
Police:
c. romotion
a. Regional Director
d. Retirement
b. Chief Directorial Staff
928. . The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not be
c. DeputyChief for Administrationd.
less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The Maximum age
d. Deputy Chief for Operation
requirement for PNP applicants using the lateral entry
936. . The head of the National Capital Regional
program is ____.
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR director with
a. 35 years old
the rank of:
b. 25 years old
a. Chief Superintendent
c. 30 years old
b. Director
d. 31 years old
c. Superintendent
929. . A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members
d. General
is required for permanency of their appointment. Who
937. . Under the waiver program, who among the following
among the following is exempted to undergo the Field
PNP applicants is the least priority for appointment?
Training Program and issued a permanent appointment?
a. maine who just earned 72 units in college b. Paloma
a. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr.
who is under height
Inspector via Lateral entry.
c. Jauquinwho is underweight
b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr.
d. Alden who is overage
Inspector via Lateral entry.
938. . Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
c. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed
as____________.
Inspector after graduation.
a.Department of Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
d. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist and
b.Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of
First Place in the Examination.
1990
930. . Planning as a management function is to
c.Department of Interior and the Local Government Act of
be done in the various levels of PNP
1990
Organization. Broad policy based from laws
d.Department of the Interior and the Local Government Act
directives, policies and needs in general is the responsibility
of 1990
of:
939. . SPO3 Manny Weather receives 27, 690.00
a. Directorate for Plans
base pay since he was promoted. After five years from
b. President of the Philippines
promotion, what would be his monthly base pay after
c. Chief, PNP
adding his longevity pay?
d. Dep. Dir. For Administration
a. 32, 690.00
931. . What is the rank equivalent of PNPDeputy
b. 37, 690.00
Director General in the Armed Forces of the
c. 30, 459.00
Philippines?
d. 31, 549.00
a. Lt. General
940. . Decisions rendered by the national IAS
b. Major General
shall be appealed to the__________:
c. Brigade General
a. Regional Appellate Board
d. General

Page 47 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 b. National Appellate Board 950. . How many cumulative annual ratingperiods before a
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
d. National Police Commission performance?
941. . It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966. A.2
a. R.A. 4864 B.4
b. R.A. 8551 C.3
D.1
c. Act 175
951. .In this theory, management assumes employees may be
d. PD 765
ambitious and self-motivated and exercise self-control. It
942. .__________ is given to any PNP member who has
is believed that employees enjoy their mental and physical
exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his
work duties.
life above and beyond the call of duty.
A.Hawthorne Effect
A. Meritorious Promotion B.Stockholm Syndrome
B. Special Promotion C.X theory
C. Regular Promotion D.Y theory
D. On-the-Spot Promotion 952. .The theory X and Y is a human motivation created by?
943. .PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed A.Edward H. Sutherland
for failure to comply with the requirements can re-apply B.C. Edwin Hawthorne
to the PNP? C.Henry A. Landsberger
D.Douglas McGregor
A. Maybe Yes
953. In this theory, which has been proven counter-effective in
B.Maybe No
most modern practice, management assumes employees
C..Absolutely Yes
are inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can and that
D.Absolutely No
they inherently dislike work. As a result of this,
944. .The reason why police officer appears in court as a
management believes that workers need to be closely
witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his
supervised and comprehensive systems of controls
respect to the court and to his:
developed.
A.Position/Rank
A.Hawthorne Effect
B.Superior B.Stockholm Syndrome
C.Profession C.X theory
D.Comrades D.Y theory
945. .Which among the following is NOT subjected to field 954. .This kind of organizational structure classifies people
Operational Plans? according to the function they perform in their
A.Patrol professional life or according to the functions performed
B.Records by them in the organization.
C.Investigation A.Functional Structure
D. Traffic B.Line and Staff Structure
946. . Which of the following statement is not true about C.Line Structure
patrol? D.Divisional Structure
A.It is the backbone of the police department 955. .If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding
B.It is the essence of police operation 30 days but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s complaint
C.It is the single largest unit in the police department that against erring PNP member shall be filed at the
can be eliminated A.Office of the chief of police
D.It is the nucleus of the police department B.PLEB
E.It is the operational heart of the police department C.Mayor’s Office
D. any of the choices
947. .The performance evaluation system in the PNP is
956. .Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the
conducted:
base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of
A.thrice a year
20 years active service
B. Every 6 months
A.50%
C.Every 2 years B.10%
D. Quarterly C.2.5%
948. . A PNP member who acquired permanent physical D.55%
disability in the performance of his dutyand unable to 957. .This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as
further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or
pension equivalent to: neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the
A50% of his last salary objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
B. 70% of his last salary A.Strategic plan
C.60% of his last salary B.Time Specific plan
D. 80% of his last salary C.Problem oriented plan
D.time bound operational plan
949. . How many successive annual ratingperiods before a
958. .This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on
police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
routine and field operations and some special operations
performance?
A.Strategic plan
A.2 B.Time Specific plan
B.4 C.Problem oriented plan
C.3 D. policy or procedural plan
D.1 959. .The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____?
A.Superintendent

Page 48 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 B. Director B.retrieval operation
C.Senior Superintendent C.Records Management
D. Chief Superintendent D.chain of custody
970. .It is considered to be the heart of any identification
960. . The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a
system; it provides positive identification of the criminal
police officer is
A.Arrest and booking report
A.A ground for dismissal
B.Miscellaneous Records
B.Not qualified for promotion
C.Identification record
C.Automatically dismiss
D.Fingerprint Records
D.Not a bar to promotion
961. .Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the 971. .The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly
PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties, salary and allowances for the heirs is for a maximum of
enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, how many year?
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the A.1 year
B. 2 months
offenders to justice
C. 4 years
A.Deployment D.2 years
B.Reinforcement 972. .In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of
C.Reintegration
hours of classroom training should be required for newly
D.Employment
promoted supervisory personnel
962. . What is the first step in making a plan?
A.72 hours
A.Frame of reference
B.80 hours
B.Analyzing the Facts
C.75 hours
C.Collecting all pertinent data
D.85 hours
D.Identification of the problems
973. .It should be proactive, people oriented, based on
963. .It identify the role of police in the community and future
individual need, and delivered in such a way as to motivate
condition in state
the experienced officer Higher dgreee of professionalism/
A.Visionary Plans
B.Strategic Plans Professionalization.
C.Synoptic Planning A.Recruit Training
D.Incremental Planning B.Specialized training
964. .Is that field of management which involves planning, and C.In Service
controlling the efforts of a group of individuals toward D.Field Training
974. . When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing
achieving a common goal with maximum dispatch and
the entire mandatory and other consideration in
minimum use of administrative resources.
promotion, is what kind of promotion?
A.Human Resources
B.Personnel Management A.Promotion by Virtue of Position
C.Human Management B. Regular Promotion
D.Personnel Administration C.Meritorious Promotion
965. . Is the process of developing methods or procedure or an D. Promotion
975. .It involves assistance and action by non police agencies
arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the
such as Local Safety Council for Traffic Division, DSWD for
accomplishment of a definite objective.
Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness
A.Management
B.Functioning plans and Civil defense plans
C.Budgeting A.Management Plans
D.Planning B.Procedural plan
966. . Are guidelines for action to be taken under specific C.Tactical Plans
circumstances and details with the following procedures. D. Extra departmental plan
A.Field Procedures 976. . Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and
B.Procedural plan ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence of an
C.Operational Plans award:
D.Functional plan A.Medal
967. . Which of the following is not a function of police B. Awards
personnel unit? C.Decorations
A.Preparing policy statements and standard operating D.Ribbons
Procedures relating to all areas of the administration of
977. .For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya
human resources
B.Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line officials ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP member:
regarding personnel matters A.Six
C.Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to B. Four
identify, and subsequently correct, unsatisfactory C.Five
working conditions D. Three
D. Establish criteria for promotion to the exclusive ranks 978. .Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction,
968. .It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating
domination, or excessive use of authority:
undesirable applicants that do not meet the
organization’s selection criteria A.Misconduct
A. Promotion Recruitment B. Dishonesty
B.Transfer Selection C.Incompetency
C.Recruitment D. Oppression
D.Selection 979. .The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as a
969. .It is recognized as the best method of filing mobile strike force or reaction unit to augment police forces
A.Pigeon Hole

Page 49 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency, hostage D. None of These
taking, rescue operations and other special operations: 989. .What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?
A.NARCOM A. 150 Hours
B. SAF B. 72 Hours
C.SWAT C. 48 Hours
D. SOCO D. 300 Hours
980. .The organizational structure of the PNP is __________. 990. .All except one are the line leadership staff:
A.Line A.Detachment Commander
B. functional B.Post-in-Charge
C.staff C.Chief Inspector
D. line and staff D.Security Supervisor 1
981. . As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not 991. . Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double
allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge of strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an equal
lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than ___ high
authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total number excluding the top guard.
of security guards. A.8 feet
A.50% B.7 feet
B. 20% C.9 feet
C.30% D. 6 feet
D. 10% 992. . Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license
982. . The vault door should be made of steel at least issued to security guards.
__________ in thickness? A. Any of the choices
A.7 inches B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
B. 9 inches C. Secretary, DILG
C.6 inches D. C/PNP
D. 20 feet or more 993. .What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
983. . An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive A. Photoelectric
to a breach of the protection system, or that, could result B. Metallic foil
to loss. C. Audio detection
A.Hazards D. Microwave Detection
B. Environmental Hazards 994. .Is the process of conducting physical examination to
C.Natural Hazards determine compliance with establishment security
D. Security Hazards policies and procedures?
984. .An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, A. Security Education
integrity, morals and loyalty of an individual in order to B. Security Survey
determines person suitability for appointment or access C. Security Planning
to classified matter. D. Security Inspection
A.Character Investigation 995. . Is a corporate and executive responsibility, involving the
B.Physical Investigation knowledge of the objectives of the security and the means
C.Background Investigation and the method to reach these objective or goal must
D. Personnel Security Investigation then involve.
985. .The importance of the firm or installation with reference A. Security Inspection
to the national economy security B. Security Hazards
A.Relative vulnerability C. Security Planning
B. Relative program D. Security Survey
C.Relative criticality 996. . A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device
D. Relative security designed to prevent entry into a building, room container,
986. .Private security agencies have to be registered with the: or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items
A.SEC without the consent of the owner
B.DTI A .Padlocks
C.PADPAO B. Locks
D. PNP, SAGSD C. Code Operated
987. .To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility D. Lever Locks
what must be constructed. 997. . A type of protective alarm system where the central
A.Full view fence station located outside the installation. When the alarm is
B. Chain link fence sounded, it will notifies the police and other agency
C. Solid fence A. Local Alarm system
D. Multiple fences B. Auxiliary System
988. . A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of C. Central Station System
money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction shall be D. Proprietary
issued with a- 998. . It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may
A.Firearms activate the alarm by placing the front of their foot to
B. Mission Order engage the activation bar
C.Duty Detail Order A. Bill traps

Page 50 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 B. Foot Rail Activator 1009. .What type of security deals with the industrial plants and
C. Knee or Thigh Buttons business enterprises where personnel, processes,
D. Foot buttons properties and operations are safeguarded?
a. Personnel security
999. These are wide beam units, used to extend the
b. industrial security
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the c. Physical security
approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a d. bank security
narrow, horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the 1010. .The following are principles of Physical Security, EXCEPT:
vertical plane a. There is impenetrable Barrier.
A. Fresnel Lights b.Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
B. Street Lights c.Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
d.Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
C. Floodlights
1011. . The susceptibility of a plant or establishment to
D.Search lights damage, loss or disruption of operations due to various
1000. . What is the required capital investment for hazards.
organization of private security agency? a. Relative vulnerability
A. P 500,000 b. Relative criticality
B. B. P 100,000 c. Relative susceptibility
C. P 1,000,000 d. Relative security
1012. . Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible
D. P 50,000
authority that the person described is cleared to access
1001. . One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim
any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain? clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the
A. Normal Pilferer date of issuance.
B. Regular Pilferer a. 1 year
C. Casual Pilferer b. 4 years
c. 2 years
D. Systematic pilferer
d. 5 years
1002. . The metallic container used for securing documents or 1013. . The tenure of a security guard is:
small items in an office or installation refers to: a. Six Months
A. Safe b. Co-terminus with the service contract
B. Vault c. Two years
C. File room d. Contractual
D. None of these 1014. . Which among the following is not an advantage of a full-
view fence, except:
1003. .Chain link fences must be constructed in______ material
a.It allows visual access to the installation which aids the
excluding the top guard?
intruder in planning.
a. Seven feet
b.It allows the intruder to become familiar with
b. Six feet
.the movements of persons in the installation
c. Four feet
c.It creates shadows which could prevent concealment of
d. Five feet
the intruder.
d.None of these
1004. .The following things are used as barrier, which serves as
1015. .Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety bond
a deterrent to the possible intruder in an Industrial
which shall answer for any valid and legal claims against
Complex, EXCEPT:
such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much is the
a. Human
Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
b. Fences
a. 50, 000
c. Doors
b. 100, 000
d. Concertina
c. 150, 000
1005. .Vaults are storage devices which are usually
d. 200,00
designed to be at least _______fire resistant.
1016. . What type of investigation involves all aspect and details
a. 3 hours
about the circumstances of a person?
b. 24hours
a. partial background investigation
c. 6hours
b. completebackground investigation
d. 12 hours
c. personnel security investigation
1006. . A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes
d. national agency check
and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by utilizing
1017. . The exposure and the teaching of employees on security
combinations by means of a dial.
and its relevance to their work is:
a. Lever locks
a.Security Inspection
b. Combination lock
b.Security Education
c. Padlock
c.Security Orientation
d. Code operated locks
d.Security Survey
1007. . The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess
1018. .A type of security which provides sufficient illumination
by a PSA should not exceed by___ units.
to areas during hours of darkness
a. 30
a. Protective Lighting
b. 70
b. Fresnel Lights
c. 500
c. Search Lights
d. 1000
d. Street Lights
1008. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue-
1019. . Type of alarm system which is usually activated by the
green color?
interruption of the light beam is known as:
a. Sodium vapor lamp
a. Metallic foil
b. Incandescent lamp
b. Electric eye device
c. Mercury vapor lamp
c. Audio alarm
d. Quartz lamp
d. Microwave alarm

Page 51 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1023.What is the ratio of the security guard to their licensed 1030. .These provides access within the perimeter barrier and
firearm is needed after operating for six months. should be locked and guarded.
a. 1:3 a. Gates and Doors
b. 1:5 b. Side-Walk Elevator
c. 1:2 c. Utilities Opening
d. 1:1 d. Clear Zones
1020. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in 1031. .A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and
areas where insects predominate? deficiency in all aspects of security, with the
a. Mercury vapor lamp corresponding recommendation is:
b. Quartz lamp a. security inspection
c. Sodium vapor Lamp b. security education
d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp c. security training
1021. . What is an act governing the organization and d. security survey
management of private security agency, company guard 1032. . What unit of PNP handles the processing and
force and government security forces? issuances of license for private security personnel?
a. RA 8574 a. PNP SOSIA
b. RA 5478 b. PNP FED
c. RA 4587 c. PADPAO
d. RA 5487 d. PNP SAGSD
1022. .Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or 1033. . What is the most common type of human hazard?
concertina. Chain link are for ______. a. Sabotage
a. Solid structure b. Pilferage
b. Least permanent structure c. Theft
c. Permanent structure d. Subversion
d. Semi- permanent structure 1034. . What is the security force maintained and operated by
1023. it is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC & any private company/ corporation for its own security
LAC since it includes thorough and complete investigation of all requirements?
or some of the circumstances or aspects of a person’s life is a. GSU
conducted? b. CSF
a. Personnel Security Investigation c. PSA
b. Partial Background Investigation d. PD
c. Background Investigation 1035. . What type of controlled area requires highest degree
d. Complete Background Investigation of security?
1024.The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a a. Limited
perimeter barrier on the exterior and interior parallel area b. Restricted
to afford better observation of the installation refers to: c. Special
a. Clear zone d. Exclusive
b. Complimentary zone 1036. . What lock requires manipulation of parts according to
c. Open zone a predetermined combination code of numbers?
d. Free zone a. Card- operated lock
1025.The extension period for a license to operate issued upon b. Combination lock
a PSA that lacks the required minimum number of guards is: c. Electromagnetic lock
a. 1 month d. Card Operated
b. 6 months 1037. .What type of lamp emits bright white light?
c. 2 years a. Sodium vapor lamp
d. 1 year b. Mercury vapor lamp
1026.Which of the following types of lock is generally used c. Incandescent lamp
in car doors? d. Quartz lamp
a. Warded lock 1038. . What type of security lighting is focused to the
b. Lever lock intruder while the guard remains in the comparative
c. Disc tumbler lock darkness?
d. Combination lock a. Controlled lighting
1027. PADPAO stands for: b. Fresnel light
a. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective c. Emergency lighting
Agency Operators, Inc. d. Glare- projection
b. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency 1039. . What is the system of natural or man- made barriers
Operators, Inc. placed between the potential intruder and the object,
c. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector person and matter being protected?
Agency Operators, Inc. a. Communication security
d. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective b. Document security
Associations Operators, Inc. c. Physical security
1028. 1 It refers to a protection against any type of crime to d. Barrier
safeguard life and assets by various methods and
device. 1040. .The following are the purposes of Security Survey,
a. Physical Security EXCEPT:
b. Perimeter Security a. To ascertain the present economic status
c. Operational Security b. To determine the protection needed
d. Security c. To make recommendations to improve the overall
1029. . All except are the qualifications of a security officer. security
a. Has graduated from a Security Officer d. None of these
b. Training Course.
c. Holder of Masters Degree. 1041. . License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate
d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP. document which is issued by ____________ authorizing
e. Physically or mentally fit. a person to engage in employing security guard or

Page 52 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 detective, or a juridical person to establish, engage, 1050. . It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in
direct, manage or operate a private detective agency. temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the
a. Secretary of DILG safe can withstand 2000
b. Security and Exchange Commission 0F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it has

passed the test.

c. Chief, PNP a. Fire Endurance Test
d. President b. Fire and Impact Test
c. Burning Test
1042. . One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is that d. Explain Hazard Test
the distances between strands will not exceed
_______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical 1051. . The following are phases of Security Education,
and midway between posts. EXCEPT:
a. 3 inches a. Special Interview
b. 6 inches b. Security Seminar
c. 4 inches c. Security Promotion
d. 7 inches d. Training Conference

1043. .Clear Zone of _______ must be established between 1052. . How is one classified if he steals primarily because of
the perimeter barrier and structure within the irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and
protected areas. little chance of detection?
a. 20 feet or more a. Systematic pilferer
b. 40 feet or more b. Ordinary pilferer
c. 30 feet or more c. Casual pilferer
d. 50 feet or more d. Unusual pilferer

1044. .A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance 1053. Psychology of Omnipresence means______.
container usually a part of the building structure use to a. Low Visibility
keep, and protect cash, documents and valuables b. High Visibility
materials. c. Reactive
a. Vault d. Proactive
b. Safe
c. File Room 1054. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and
d. None of these operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of
1045. . Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of PNP investigational capability.
Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm? a. Detective Beat Patrol
b. Integrated Patrol System
a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the company’s c. Community Oriented Policing System
Vault. d. Team Policing
b. Turnover to the next security guard on duty. 1055. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching
c. Bring home the firearms for easy responses. the end of the line beat, and before returning to the
d. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the guards point of origin.
table. a. Patrol Report
b.Situation Report
1046. . Any physical structure whether natural or man-made c.Investigation Report
capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or d.Incident Report
unauthorized access.
a. Perimeter Fences 1056. The ideal police response time is:
b. Wire Fences a. 3 minutes
c. Moveable Barrier b. 5 minutes
d. Barrier c. 7 minutes
1047. . A company owned protective alarm with unit in a d. 10 minutes
nearest police station of fire department.
a. A. Proprietary Alarm 1057. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition possessing
b. Auxiliary Alarm a high potential for criminal attack or for the creation
c. Central Alarm of problem necessitating a demand for immediate
d. Security Alarm police service:
1048. . It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused light a. Hazard
rather than direction beam. They are widely used in b. Opportunity
parking areas c. Perception of Hazard
a. Street Lights d. Police Hazard
b. Search Lights
c. Flood Lights 1058. The most expensive patrol method and gives the
d. Fresnel Lights greatest opportunity to develop sources of information
is:
a. Foot Patrol
1049. . A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp b. Marine Patrol
which passes through a staple ring or the like and is c. Mobile Patrol
then made fast or secured. d. Helicopter Patrol
a. Lock 1059. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in
b. Padlock patrol which makes the policemen less visible during
c. Code Operated the night. The primary purpose is:
d. Card Operated a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a crime
b. To have sufficient cover

Page 53 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. To attract less attention especially during night-time, be prepared to use your
d. For safety of the Patrol officer service firearm and Flashlight should be-

1060. The following are included in the cause and effect of a. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a
team policing. possible target.
a. Reduce public fear on crime; b. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a
b. lessen the crime rate; possible target.
c. Facilitate career development; c. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible
d. Diminish police morale; and adversary.
e. Improve police community relation. a. None of these

a. a, b, e 1069. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when

b. c. a, b, d, e responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
c.a, c, d, e a. Arrest criminals
d. d. a, b, c, e b. Securing the area
1061. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol c. Aiding the injured
methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers d. Extort Money
perform specific predetermined preventive functions
on a planned systematic basis: 1070. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon, except
a. Target Oriented Patrol when its occupants pose imminent danger of causing
b. High-Visibility Patrol death or injury to the police officer or any other person,
c. Low-Visibility Patrol and that the use of firearm does not create a danger to
d. Directed deterrent Patrol the public and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-
1062. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be best use. In firing upon a moving vehicle, the following
penetrated by the police through. parameters should be considered EXCEPT:
a. Foot patrol
b. Bicycle patrol a. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing
c. Mobile patrol suspect/s with the police officer and other persons.
d. Helicopter patrol b. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
1063. Integrated patrol system is the total system used to in certainty the police officer or other persons
accomplish the police visibility program of the PNP. The c. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm the
Police officers in Police Community Precincts render 24 police officer or other persons.
hours duty with prescribed divisions of: d. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s to
a. 2 shifts avoid traffic accident.
b. 4 shifts
c. 3 shifts 1071. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during
d. every other day shift. pat-down search, a more secure search position may
be:
1064. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally a. Standing position
prevent the desire of human being to commit crime. b. Lying Face down Position
a. Preventive c. Hands placed against a stationary object, and
b. Proactive feet spread apart.
c. Reactive d. All of these
d. High Visibility
1096. The following are types of specialized patrol method
except:
1065. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of
a. Marine Patrol
________________ since they can be operated very
b. Air Patrol
quietly and without attracting attention.
c. Canine Patrol
a. Mobility and wide area coverage.
d. Foot Patrol
b. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
1072. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged by
c. Shorter travel time and faster response.
his-
d. Mobility and stealth
a. Knowledge of all problems in the community
b. Residents developed good public relations
1066. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San
c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor
Juanico Bridge?
offenses
a. Foot Patrol
d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his area
b. K-9 Patrol
c. Automobile Patrol
d. Bicycle Patrol 1073. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies?
a. True
b. False
1067. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the c. Absolutely Yes d.
Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile patrol Absolutely No
bureau of Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma
Jose? 1074. This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number of
a. May 7, 1954 apprehension of law violator to engage in certain types
b. May 17, 1954 of crimes:
c. May 14, 1957 a. Preventive Patrol
d. March 10, 1917 b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Proactive Patrol
1068. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons,
places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles
1075. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?
a. It is the backbone of the police department

Page 54 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 b. It is the essence of police operation 1084. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from
c. It is the nucleus of the police department becoming _______ with people, hazards, and facilities
d.It is the single largest unit in the police Department that on his beat.
can be eliminated a. Well Acquainted
b. Sluggish
1076. It is an immediate response to block the escape of c. Energetic
lawless elements from a crime scene, and is also d. Unfamiliar
established when nearby checkpoints are ignored or
during hot pursuit operations. It is set up by police 1085. The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise
personnel conducting mobile patrol on board a marked and before the counter-clockwise?
police vehicle, or those conducting ISO and foot patrol a. Straightway
operations within the vicinity/periphery of the national b. Crisscross
or provincial highways. c. Sector
a. Dragnet Operation d. Zigzag
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest 1086. The two-man patrol became_________ due to increase
d. High Risk Stop attack of police officer by militant, dangerous section to
be patrolled and many riots demonstration in the
1077. The following are patrol activities, except: street.
A. Arrest of alleged criminals a. Unnecessary
B. Responding to emergency calls b. Necessary
C. Inspection services c. Voluntary
D. Preparation of investigation reports d. Redundant

1078. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact 1087. A police strategy which aims to directly involve
with the members of the community ideal in gaining members of the community in the maintenance of
the trust and confidence of the people to the police: peace and order by police officers.
A. Horse Patrol a. Integrated Police System
B. Bicycle Patrol b. Comparative Police System
C. Automobile Patrol c. Detective Beat System
D. Foot Patrol d. Community Oriented Policing System

1079. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour 1088. Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the
of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the area least likely to become completely a function of
of responsibility of the patrol officer is: automobile patrol is the checking of-
A. Clockwise pattern a. Security of business establishment.
B. Zigzag pattern b. Street light outrages.
C. Counter clockwise pattern c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
D. Crisscross pattern D.llegalposting of signs and other advertisement.

1080. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol.

EXCEPT:
a. It involves larger number of personnel
b. It develops greater contact with the public
c. It insures familiarization of area
d. It promotes easier detection of crime
1081. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as well
as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you call
the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws and
keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for
tracking purposes?
a. German shepherd
b. Bloodhounds
c. Doberman pinscher
d. Black Labrador Retrievers
1089. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen
in areas where police hazards are serious is that, it
usually-
a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
c. Wasteful of manpower.
d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick
mobilization is needed.
1090. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the-
a. Opportunity for graft.
b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the law.
c. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized squads.

1082. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is: 1091. Team Policing is said to be originated in________:
a. Foot a. Aberdeen, Scotland
b. Automobile b. Lyons, France
c. Bicycle c. Vienna. Austria
d. Helicopter d. London, England
1092. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for
patrolling:
a. Egyptians
b. English
1083. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in c. Chinese
terms of number of: d. American
a. Superiors to whom he reports
b. Superiors from whom he takes orders 1093. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to
c. Subordinates directly reporting to him in order to catch criminals is known as:
d. Any of these a. High visibility patrol
b. Blending patrol
c. Low visibility patrol

Page 55 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. Decoy patrol
1103. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and
1094. A wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 14 h floor operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
building. Which of the following should be the first toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of
thing to do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the PNP investigational capability.
scene? a. Detective Beat Patrol
a. Urge no to jump b. Integrated Patrol System
b. Call nearest relative c. COPS-Community Oriented Policing System
c. Clear the area d. Team Policing
d. Report immediately to Station
1104. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and
1095. What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle assemble at the police unit
patrol over the other patrol methods? headquarters at least _______ before the start of their shift
A. Low cost for accounting-
B.Visibility a. 10 minutes
C. Speed b. hour
D. Security c. 30 minutes
1096. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively d. 15 minutes
implemented by police activity which-
1105. The police must make an effort to ascertain and amaze
a. Provides for many types of specialized patrol, upon the law abiding citizens and would be criminals
with less emphasis on routine. alike that the police are always existing to respond to
b.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker aspiration any situation at a moment’s notice and he will just
to commit crime. around the corner at all times. This statement refers to:
c.Influences favorable individual and group a. Police Omnipresence
attitudes in routine daily associations with the police. b. Police Patrol
d. Intensifies the potential offender’s expectation c. Police Discretion
of apprehension. d. Integrated Patrol
1097. What is the new concept, police strategy which 1106. The patrol method characterized by speed and mobility
integrates the police and community interests into a and considered as lest expensive as it utilizes lesser
working relationship so as to produce the desired number of men and covers a wider area in a short
organizational objectives of peacemaking? period of time, while protection to patrol officers:
a. Foot patrol
a. Preventive patrol b. Motorcycle Patrol
b. Directed Patrol c. Automobile Patrol
c. Community Relation d. Helicopter patrol
d. Team policing
1098. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most 1107. Team members of the decoy may dress themselves in a
ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue manner designed to help them blend the neighborhood
operations? where they are deployed.
a. Motorcycle a. Absolutely False
b. Automobile b. Absolutely True
c. Helicopter c. Absolutely Yes
d. Horse d. Absolutely No

1099. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to 1108. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of:
disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of a. One Man Patrol Car
the Patrol officer is: b. Two Man Patrol Car
a.Conduct a complete search. c. Foot Patrol
b.The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect. d. Canine Patrol
c. No further search may be made.
d.Turnover the suspect to the immediate 1109. The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of
supervisor. activities:
a. Afternoon Shift
1100. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when b. Morning Shift
demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing c. Night Shift
troops to fall back to their secondary positions? d. None of these
a. Tear Gas
b. Water Cannon 1110. It refers to a patrol strategy directed towards specific
c. Truncheon persons or places:
d. Shield a. Target Oriented Patrol
1101. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every b. High-Visibility Patrol
intersection until reaching the point of origin is c. Reactive Patrol
following what pattern? d. Directed deterrent Patrol
a. Clockwise
b. Zigzag 1111. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol
c. Counter clockwise methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers
d. Crisscross perform specific predetermined preventive functions
on a planned systematic basis:
1102. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol: a. Target Oriented Patrol
a. Can report regularly to the command center. b. High-Visibility Patrol
b. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention. c. Low-Visibility Patrol
c. It is inexpensive to operate . d. Directed deterrent Patrol
d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol cars.

Page 56 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d.Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities
to subordinates.

1121. Which among the following Patrol Method is

appropriate when responding to quick emergency call?
1112. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed and a. Motorcycle Patrol
dangerous person or persons, aboard a vehicle or on b. Air Patrol
foot, including the power to use all necessary and legal c. Automobile Patrol
means to accomplish such end. d. Foot Patrol
a. Dragnet Operation
b. Hasty Checkpoint 1122. This patrol strategy is focused more on called for
c. High-Risk Arrest services
d. High Risk Stop a. Reactive patrol
b. Directed deterrent patrol
1113. Which among the following activities during post-patrol c. Proactive patrol
or post-deployment phase is not included? d. Blending patrol
a. Formation & Accounting
b. Debriefing/Report Submission 1123. Before policemen become a dispatcher he must
c. Inspection & recall of Equipment be_______.
d. Briefing a. Voice Radio Operator
b. Trained Formally
1114. Police Patrols were restricted only to answering calls of c. Licensed Dispatcher
service. d. Coordinator
a. Reactive
b. High Visibility 1124. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was
c. Proactive initiated on:
d. Low Visibility a. August 10, 1917
b. August 7, 1901
1115. The first organized patrol for policing purposes was c. November 22, 1901
formed in London. This patrol pattern is usually done at d. March 17, 1901
the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing
happened in the area of responsibility of the patrol? 1125. What should be accomplished by Patrol officers during
a. Straight Post-Deployment Phase?
b. Crisscross a. Situation Report
c. Clockwise b. Citation Report
d. counter clockwise c. Daily Patrol Report
d. Hourly Patrol Report
1116. Itis a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments of
an individual for weapons only. 1126. This patrol tactic would result to improvement of police
a. Frisking omnipresence:
b. Search a. Target Oriented Patrol
c. Spot Check b. High-Visibility Patrol
d. Pat-down Search c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Directed deterrent Patrol
1117. It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter
of the beat not at random but with definite target 1127. It is the most prevalent and economical method of
location where he knows his presence is necessary. patrol used in patrol force:
a. Target Oriented a. Foot Patrol
b. Zigzag b. Air Patrol
c. Clockwise c. Automobile Patrol
d. Criss-Cross d. Motorcycle Patrol
1128. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times
1118. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following more sensitive than human’s sense of smell?
are the advantages of Foot patrol, EXCEPT: a. One thousand times
b. One hundred times
a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action taken. c. Ten thousand times
b. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable area d. Ten million times
c. Inspire more Public confidence.
d. The officer can actually get to know the physical layout of 1129. Transfer of knowledge from one person to another
his beat better. through common medium and channel.
a. Information
1119. The word Patrol was derived from the French word b. Communication
________which means to go through paddles. c. Police Communication
a. Patroulier d. Radio
b. Patroul
c. Politeia 1130. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
d. Politia authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent
the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for
1120. The concept of Unity of command is: other legitimate purposes.
a. No one should have more than one boss. a. Clear Zone
b. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom. b. Public Place
c. Number of subordinates that a Superior can effectively c. Police Checkpoint
supervise. d. Pre-Determined Area

Page 57 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1131. It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding, primarily to 1141. The Greek word which means “government of a city” or
prevent the commission of crimes and maintain the “civil organization and the state”, which is claimed as
peace and order situation in a particular area: the origin of the word police refers to:
a. Police Patrol a. Politia
b. Preventive Patrol b. Policia
c. Foot Patrol c. Politeia
d. Patrol d. Polis
1142. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary
1132. It is the primary objective of police patrol operations: objective of patrol activity is:
A.Crime Prevention a. To prevent commission of crime.
B.Protect and Serve b. Integrate the police and the community
C.Law enforcement c. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
D. All of the choices d. Visibility and Omniprescence.
1143. What law provides for the creation of the National
1133. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a a. patrol Intelligence Coordinating Agency?
strategy called: a. RA 157
a. Reactive Patrol b. B. EO 213
b. Directed Patrol c. RA 6040
c. Preventive Patrol d. EO 246
d. Proactive Patrol 1144. A person who breaks intercepted codes.
a. Crypto Analyst
1134. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident b. Cryptographer
faster but undetected, then the best patrol method c. Cryptograph
that he should employ is: d. Code breaker
a. Bicycle patrol
b. Automobile patrol 1145. Agent who is a member of paramilitary group organized
c. Motorcycle patrol to harass the enemy in a hot war situation.
d. Foot patrol a. Guerilla
b. Propagandist
1135. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a c. Provocateur
person that enables another to victimize him: d. Strong Arm
a. Instrumentality 1146. It is a type of Cover which alters the background that
b. Opportunity will correspond to the operation.
c. Motive a. Multiple
d. Capability b. Natural
1136. The factors to be considered in determining the c. Artificial
number of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are d. Unusual
the following, except: 1147. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Size of the area
b. Possible problems to be encountered A.Intelligence Officer can submit his information report any
c. Topography time since it is to processes.
d. none of the choices b. All intelligence information’s are collected by clandestine
1137. The patrol strategy which brings the police and the method.
people together in a cooperative manner in order to c. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a medium size
prevent crime: police station.
a. Integrated Patrol d. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence information
b. Team policing by initiating good public relations.
c. Reactive patrol 1148. Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly
d. Proactive patrol prohibited but it can be done at the commander’s
discretion since it tends to collect intelligence
information.
1138. The theory in patrol which states that police officers a. Partly True
should conduct overt police operations in order to b. Partly False
discourage people from committing crime refers to: c. Wholly True
a. Theory of police omnipresence d. Wholly False
b. Low police visibility theory 1149. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful
c. Low profile theory accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
d. Maximum deterrence theory acceptance?
a. Maybe Yes
1139. The principle of patrol force organization which states b. Yes
that patrol officers should be under the command of c. No
only one man refers to: d. Maybe No
a. Span of control 1150. In selection and recruitment of informers the best
b. Unity of command factor to be considered is:
c. Chain of command A.Age
d. Command responsibility B.Access
C.Educational Attainment D.Body
1140. The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit built
crime as a result of patrol. 1151. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping Act”
a. Crime prevention which prohibits wiretapping in our country.
b. Crime intervention a. RA 1700
c. Crime suppression b. RA 4200
d. Crime deterrence c. RA 7877
d. RA 7160

Page 58 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1152. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible 1161. There are four categories of classified matters; top
authority that the person described is cleared to access secret, secret, confidential, and restricted. To
and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim distinguish, their folder consists of different colors.
clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the What will be the color of the document which requires
date of issuance. the highest degree of protection?
a. 1 year a. Red
b. 5 years b. Black
c. 2 years c. Blue
d. 4 years d. Green
1162. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the biblical
1153. How will you evaluate the intelligence report of Agent indication of the beginning of Intelligence?
Mariano with an evaluation rating of D2? a. Number 13:17
b. Number 3:17
a. Completely reliable source doubtfully true information c. Number 17:13
b. Unreliable source – probably true information d. Number 17:3
c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information 1163. A certain locality is identified to be a major source of
d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true information illicit drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence officer was
deployed to live in the area for a considerable amount
1154. It is a process or method of obtaining information from of time to find out the authenticity of such reports.
a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge a. Social assignments
information. b. Work assignments
a. Interview c. Organizational assignments
b. Interrogation d. Residential assignments
c. Forceful Interrogation
d. Tactical Interrogation 1164. It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with
defending the organization against its criminal
1155. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record enemies?
discreetly conversations of other people. a. Line Intelligence
a. Eavesdropping b. Counter-Intelligence
b. Bugging c. Strategic Intelligence
c. None of these d. Tactical Intelligence
d. Wiretapping
1165. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which
1156. The process of extracting information from a person is “usually from a reliable source and improbable
believes to be in possession of vital information without information”?
his knowledge or suspicion. a. C-5
a. Elicitation b. B-5
b. Surveillance c. B-3
c. Roping d. C-3
d. Undercover Operations 1166. It is a form of investigation in which the operative
assumes a cover in order to obtain information
1157. It is a type of Agent used in collecting information who a. Overt operation
leaks false information to the enemy. b. Undercover assignment
a. Double Agent c. Covert operation
b. Expendable Agent d. clandestine operation
c. Agent of Influence
d. Penetration Agent 1167. It refers to a person who is highly skilled in converting
message from clear to unintelligible forms by use of
1158. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police codes and cipher.
Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to a. Cryptographer
the prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, b. Crypto Analyst
and prosecution of criminal offenders. c. Cryptography
a. Internal Security Intelligence d. Cryptechnician
b. Public Safety Intelligence
c. Criminal Intelligence 1168. What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered
d. Preventive Intelligence by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable and
doubtfully true information?
1159. Intelligence is the end product resulting from the a. D-4
collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and b. C-4
interpretation of all available information. What is c. C-5
considered as the core of intelligence operations? d. D-5
a.Dissemination
b. Analysis 1169. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the
c. Mission appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT:
d. Planning a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses
1160. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized Military c.Change of seating arrangement within the surveillance
Espionage". vehicle
a. Alexander the Great d.Keep the cars behind the subject car.
b. Frederick the Great
c. Karl Schulmeister 1170. A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the
d. Arthur Wellesley anticipated arrival of the suspect who is either wanted
for investigation or who is expected to commit a crime
at a certain location.

Page 59 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 a. Stake out
b. Rough Shadowing 1180. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from
c. Shadowing conspicuous sources and 1% of information is obtained
d. Surveillance from clandestine sources. Clandestine means.
a. Observable
1171. In the Intelligence function, the black list includes b. Overt
________ forces. c. Visible
a. Unwanted d. Covert
b. Friendly
c. Neutral 1181. An E-3 intelligence report means:
d. Unfriendly
a. The information comes from completely reliable sources
1172. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United and Improbable true.
Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850 because of b. The information comes from Unreliable sources and
its old post office box number. probably true.
a. Security Service c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources and
b. Secret Intelligence Service doubtfully true.
c. Government Communication Headquarters d. The information comes from Unreliable sources and
d. Defense Intelligence Staff possibly true.
1173. Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as 1182. Refers to the observations of person’s movements is
minister of police he studied the use of propaganda and generally refers to as?
censorship as well as utilizing statistical intelligence a. Plant
accounting. b. Stakeout
a. Herbert Yadley c. None
b. Wilhem Steiber d. Tailing or Shadowing
c. Admiral Yamamoto 1183. The classification “Top secret”, have the security color
d. Joseph Fouche folderof?
a. Red
1174. If the information or documents are procured openly b. Black
without regard as to whether the subject of the c. Blue
investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose d. Green
or purposes for which it is being regarded.
a. Overt Operation 1184. The process of assigning higher category of document
b. Surveillance or information according to the degree of security
c. Covert Operation needed.
d. Analysis a. Degrading
b. Classification
c. Upgrading
1175. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the d. Advancement
area and residence of the individual being
investigated. 1185. It is a process or method of obtaining information from
a. CBI a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge
b. NAC information.
c. PBI a. Interview
d. LAC b. Forceful Interrogation
c. Interrogation
1176. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and d. Tactical Interrogation
necessary for more effective police planning.
a. Line Intelligence 1186. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine
b. Strategic Intelligence if the information is true and-
c. Police Intelligence a. Reliable
d. Departmental Intelligence b. Accurate
c. Correct
1177. It is considered as the most secured method of d. Probably true
disseminating the information to the user of classified
matters is by means of: 1187. This kind of intelligence is long range in nature:
a. Debriefing a. Line Intelligence
b. Conference b. Operational Intelligence
c. Cryptographic method c. Strategic Intelligence
d. Seminar d. Counter Intelligence

1188. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where

1178. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting
a logical picture or theory. purposes.
a. Integration a. Safe house
b. Evaluation b. Log
c. Deduction c. Live Drop
d. Interpretation d. Decoy

1179. In intelligence functions, a black list means: 1189. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which
a. Neutral includes some or all of the circumstances.
b. Unwanted a. National Agency Check
c. Friendly b. Background Investigation
d. Unfriendly c. Complete Background Investigation

Page 60 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. Personnel Security Investigation c. False
d. Anonymous
1190. He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all time:
a. Frederick the Great 1200. It is the transforming of coded message into plain text.
b. Alexander the Great a. Coding
c. Arthur Wellesley b. Encrypting
d. Joseph Hernandez c. Decoding
d. Reclassify
1191. What specialist group of CIA that was established to
research, create and manage technical collection 1201. After the planning on how intelligence is to be
discipline and equipment. collected, the intelligence officer must have thorough
knowledge of the __________.
a.National Clandestine Service
b.Directorate of Support a. The strength of the area where the information will be
c. Directorate of Intelligence gathered
d. Directorate of Science and Technology b. Where they will be collecting the information
c. Available sources of information
1192. The persons listed in________ are allowed to enter a d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
certain establishment or building.
a. Access list 1202. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of
b. Black List Rome to gather first hand information, he is considered
c. Blue Print as the greatest military strategist.
d. Silver list a. Alexander the Great
b. Hannibal
1193. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage of c. Frederick the Great
equipment, a public service, as by enemy agent or d. Genghis Khan
dissatisfied employees.
a. Subversion 1203. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful
b. Sabotage accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
c. Espionage acceptance?
d. None of these a. Yes
b. True
1194. The combination of the elements isolated analysis with c. No
other known information related to the operation. d. False
a. Recording
b. Analysis 1204. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
c. Integration Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to
d. Interpretation the prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest,
and prosecution of criminal offenders.
1195. It deals with the demographic and psychological a. Internal Security Intelligence
aspects of groups of people. b. Criminal Intelligence
a. Sociological Intelligence c. Public Safety Intelligence
b. Economic Intelligence d. Preventive Intelligence
c. Biographical Intelligence
d. Political Intelligence 1205. If the information or documents are procured openly
without regard as to whether the subject of the
1196. Which among the following principles of intelligence investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose
deemed to be the most important? or purposes for which it is being regarded.
a. Overt Operation
a.intelligence requires continuous security measures b. Clandestine
b. Intelligence and operation are interdependent c. Surveillance
c. Intelligence must be available on time d. Covert Operation
d. Intelligence must be flexible
1206. Which of the following is the most common reason why
1197. It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its an informer gives information to the police?
suitability for a particular operational purpose. a. Monetary Reward
a. Casing Popularity
b. Loose Tail Revenge
c. Rough Shadowing As a good citizen
d. Stakeout
1207. A method of collecting information thru interception of
1198. It refers to the determination of the pertinence of the telephone conversation.
information to the operation, reliability of the source of a. Bugging
or agency and the accuracy of the information. b. Wire Tapping
a. Evaluation c. Code name
b. Recording d. NONE
c. Credibility
d. Appraisal 1208. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the
enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the criminal
groups susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by
the police organization.
1199. It refers to the most dangerous type of informant. a.Conclusion
a. Women b.Capabilities
b. Double Crosser c. Vulnerabilities

Page 61 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d.Evaluation a. Propagandist
b. Support Agent
1209. It is the general statement describing the current police c. Principal Agent
internal defense, internal development, psychological d. Action Agent
operation and responsibilities of the organization
a. Area of operation 1219. Refers to a place where agents or informants leave their
b. Capabilities of organized crime messages to the other Agents.
c. the crime situation a. Live Drop
d. the mission b. Safe House
c. Decoy
1210. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information d. Bait
concerning organized crime and other major police
problems. 1220. All except one are interrelated to one another.
A.Military Intelligence a. Fixed Surveillance
b.Military Information b. Stakeout Surveillance
c.Police Intelligence c. Stationary Surveillance
d.Police Investigation d. Active Surveillance

1211. The term appropriate for someone who gives 1221. The agent will gain access to the subject by going to
information in exchange for a reward is: the different hang out places of the subject.
a. Informer a. Social Assignment
b. Informant b. Residential Assignment
c. Special informer c. Work Assignment
d. Confidential Informant d. None of these

1212. The intelligence required by department or agencies of 1222. A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other
the government to execute its mission and discharge its material gain he is to receive.
responsibilities. a. Gratitude
a. Counter b. Repentance
b. Departmental c. Remuneration
c. Line d. Vanity
d. National 1223. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led by a-
a. Director
1213. Is the reduction of information into writing or some b. General
other form of graphical representation and the c. President
arranging of this information into groups related items. d. Director-General
a. Recording
b. Integration 1224. Integrated product of intelligence developed by all
c. Analysis government departments concerning the broad aspect
d. Demonstration of national policy and national Security.
a National Intelligence
1214. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and Possibly b.Departmental Intelligence
true? c. International Intelligence
a. -2 d. Social Intelligence
b. E-2
c. E-3 1225. .The process of categorizing a document or information
d. C-3 according to the degree of security needed.
a. Classification
1215. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in b. Upgrading
destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign activities c. Reclassification
and the protection of information against espionage, d. None of these
subversion and sabotage.
a. Passive Intelligence 1226. Final clearance will remain valid for a period of____
b. Counter Intelligence from the date of issuance.
c. Line Intelligence a. 2 years
d. Demographic Intelligence b. 5 years
c. 4 years
1216. Refers to the knowledge essential to the maintenance d. 1 year
of peace and order.
a. CRIMINT 1227. It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance.
b. SIGINT a.Surveillant
c. PUSINT b Subject
d. INSINT c. Interrogator
d. Interviewee

1217. Who directs the organization conducting the 1228. The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan
clandestine activity? employed more than 4,000 agents for the sole purpose
a. Manager of bringing him the truth that his throne might rest
b. Superior upon it.
c. Sponsor a. Joseph Petrosino
d. Agent b. Edgar Hoover
c. Napoleon Bonaparte
1218. Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and actions d. Akbar
of an individual group or nation.

Page 62 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1229. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine
if the information is true and- 1239. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of
a Reliable _____________.
b. Correct a. Russia
c. Probably true b. Germany
d. Accurate c. Israel
1230. It refers to those measures, which seek actively to block d. Pakistan
the enemies’ effort to gain information or engage in 1240. Law enforcement in China was carried out by _______
espionage, subversion, and sabotage. which developed in both chu and jin kingdom of the
a. Counter Intelligence Spring and Autumn period.
a. Watch man
b. Passive Counter Intelligence b. Prefect
c. Active Counter Intelligence c. Gendemarie
d. Intelligence d. Constabulary

1231. Chronological records of activities that took place in the 1241. She is the first Filipino commissionedofficer in a UN
establishment under surveillance. integral mission.
a. Memory a. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
b. records b. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
c. Log c. C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
d. Report d. None of these

1232. It is defined as an art and science of codes and ciphers. 1242. New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited
a. Cryptography jurisdiction on _______:
b. Cryptanalysis a. USA
c. Decipher b. New York
d. Coding c. None of these
d. Los Angeles
1233. The protection resulting from the application of various
measures which prevent or delay the enemy or 1243. The Penal Provisions of the electronic Commerce Act:
unauthorized person in gaining information through a. RA 5678
communication. b. RA 9165
a. Communication Security c. RA 1298
b. Physical Security d. RA 8792
c. Document Security
d. Internal Security 1244. In the etymology of the word police the ancient word
“Polisoos” referred to a person who_____?
1234. Those documents place on a Blue Folder are considered a. Enforcing Law
as: b. Civil Policy
a. Top Secret c. Guarding a City
b. Secret d. Citizenship
c. Restricted
d. Confidential 1245. During the middle ages, there were two guard officer of
the kingdom of France with police responsibilities those
1235. Documents which are classified as Secret should be are the Marshal of France and ________:
placed on- a. Constable of France
a. Blue Folder b. Queens Royal Guard
b. Black folder c. Scotland Yard
c. Green Folder d. Constabulary
d. Red Folder 1246. Peace officers are treated as state servants and people
have minimal share in their duties or any direct
1236. It is a certification by a responsible authority that the connection with them. This reflected the:
person described is cleared to access and classify a. Continental Theory
matters at appropriate levels. b. Home rule Theory
a. Security Clearance c. Old Concept
b. Document Clearance d. Modern concept
c. Interim Clearance 1247. The typical number of Detectives are roughly ________
d. Nome of these of a police service personnel:
a. 75%
1237. Extreme precautions are taken against losing the b. 5 to 10%
subject is employed where constant surveillance is c. 15 to 25%
necessary. d. 7 to 10%
a. Close tail
b. Loose tail 1248. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal crimes or
c. Rough Shadowing those with an interstate components. The statement is:
d. Surveillance a. Correct
b. Partially Correct
1238. M evaluates the information as usually reliable and c. False
probably true. d. partly False
a. C-4
b. B-3 1249. This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in some
c. B-2 sense transgress national borders:
d. C-5 a. International Policing
b. Global Policing

Page 63 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. National Policing c. Nostra Compra
d. Transnational Policing d. Cosa Nostra

1260. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is the:

1250. In US, he introduced police reforms to include a. Executive Assembly
educational requirement for police officer: b. Major Assembly
a. James Q. Wilson c. National Assembly
b. Sir Henry Peel d. General Assembly
c. August Volmer
d. O.W. Wilson 1261. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run by
the:
1251. The motto of Hongkong Police force: a. Director General
a. Law and Order b. Supervisor
b. Safer Communities together c. Inspector General
c. Serve and Protect d. Secretary General
d. We serve with pride and Care
1262. In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption and
1252. Where do you can find the so called Police introduced professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and
Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization for Chicago Police Department:
police officer whose are changed of committing any a. August Volmer
form of misconduct: b. Margaret Adams
a. Northern Ireland c. William Stewart
b. England d. O.W. Wilson
c. China 1263. The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi:
d. Japan a. Policeman
b. Chief Superintendent
1253. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured of c. Superintendent
police force is identical up to the rank of? d. Senior Superintendent
a. Chief Constable
b. Chief Inspector 1264. It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in
c. Chief Superintendent Japan:
d. Inspector a. Keishi
b. Koban
1254. In USA, what state are among the first to hire women c. Omerta
and minorities as police officer. d. Keiban
a. Massachusetts
b. California 1265. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the
c. New York highest position in Japan Police Organization:
d. Washington
a. Commissioner Secretariat
1255. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable rank b. Commissioner
to inspector or sub-lieutenant? c. Chairman
a. Police Rank 4 d. Commissioner General
b. Police Supervisor Rank 4 1266. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a
c. Police Officer Rank 1 Commissioner General who is appointed by:
d. Police Supervisor Rank 1 a. Japans Emperor
b. Prime Minister
1256. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the lowest c. National Public Safety Commission
possible rank of its police personnel? d. Japan Commission
a. Police Rank 1
b. Police Officer Rank 1 1267. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:
c. Investigator 1 a. Junsa
d. Constable b. Constable
c. Sergeant
1257. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau Investigation d. Police Officer
and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest” police force and
in having, set up the foundation for the social stability 1268. Irish Police are called:
of Hong Kong and has won a good reputation as one of a. Militsiya
the safety cities in the world. b. Constable
c. Police Force
a. Philippine National Polic d. Garda Socha
b. Hong Kong Police Force
c. Japan Police Department 1269. In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN integral Mission
d. National Police Agency in Timor-Leste, he is the first Filipino police
commissioner of a United Nation Operation.
1258. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police Force: a. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
a. Commissioner General b. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra
b. Director General c. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
c. Commissioner d. None of these
d. Director
1270. It States that the yardstick of police proficiency relies on
1259. The code of secrecy of Mafia: the absence of crime.
a. Omerta a. Home rule
b. Morse b. Continental

Page 64 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. Old police service a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)
d. Modern police service b. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
c. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
1271. The first secretary general of the Interpol. d. Philippine National Police (PNP)
a. Oskar Dressler 1281. What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan?
b. Ronald K. Noble a. KEISHI SOKAN
c. Johann Schober b. KEISHI SO
d. Aberdeen Scotland c. KEISHI KAN
d. KEIBU-HO
1272. The first president of the Interpol.
a. Oskar Dressler 1282. The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to be the
b. Ronald K. Noble “Father of Texas”.
c. Johann Schober a. Stephen Austin
d. Aberdeen Scotland b. Vernon Knell
c. Dave Batista
1273. Group of highly specialized a armed man who inflicts d. Johann Schober
fear and uses violence to accomplish
their objectives with a usual international scope of activity. 1283. An order strengthening the operational, administrative
a. Organized Crime and information support system of the PCTC. Under this
b. Transnational Crime EO, the centre shall
c. Transnational Organized crime exercise general supervision and control over NACAHT,
d. Terrorist ICPO, PNP or DILG
a. EO 100
1274. Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama Bin b. EO 465
Laden in 1980? c. EO 465
a. Al Qaeda d. EO 789
b. Jihad
c. Mafia 1284. Richard Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 years
d. Nuestra Costra old then. What year will Amado will retire?
a. 2016
1275. Is the term which refers to the holy war waged by b. 2023
members of the Islamic religion against the Jews? c. 2012
a. Al Qaeda d. 2031
b. Jihad
c. Mafia 1285. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP
d. Nuestra Costra commissioned and non-commissioned officer may
retire and be paid separation benefits corresponding to
1276. It is the category of terrorist organization which is a position two ranks higher than his/her rank:
aimed in achieving political autonomy or religious a. Retirement in the next higher grad
freedom. b. Compulsory retirement
a. Revolutionary c. Early retirement program
b. Separalist d. Optional Retirement
c. Ethnocentric
d. Political 1286. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an independence
from the PNP. It has an investigative and adjudicatory
1277. It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes power over PNP members.
committed via the internet: a. Internal Affairs Service
a. Dynamic IP Address b. National Police Commission
b. Internet Protocol Address c. People’s Law Enforcement Board
c. Static IP Address d. National Appellate Board
d. Email Address
1287. In police operational planning the use of the wedge,
1278. It is the act of illegally accessing the computer system squad diagonal or deployed line would be probable
or network of an individual, group or business used for:
enterprise without the consent of the party’s system: a. Arm confrontation
a. Computer Fraud b. Relief Operation
b. Hacking c. Civil Disturbance
c. Cracking d. VIP Security
d. Theft
1288. What is the appropriate training course for POIII to
SPOI?
1279. It refers to a Code written with the intention of
a. Officers Senior Executive Course
replicating itself.
b. Officer Basic Course
a. Trojan Horse
c. Senior Leadership Course d. Junior
b. Worm
Leadership Course
c. Virus
d. None of these
1289. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation of
local chief executives as representative of the
1280. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to NAPOLCOM:
establish a shared database among concerned agencies Repeated unauthorized absences;
for information on criminals,
methodologies, arrests and convictions on transnational
crime
.II. Abuse of authority;

Page 65 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 III. Habitual tardiness; a. Police Accident
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and b. Police Brutality
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security. c. Police Hazard
d. Police Operation

A. I, II, III, V 1299. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means-
B. II, V, IV, I a. The Sword Bearer
C.I, II, IV, III b. The Base
D. I, II, III, IV, V c. Islamic Congregation
1290. Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at known d. Ayman Al Zawahiri
locations.
a. Functional Plan 1300. What kind of force is needed during armed
b. Time Specific Plans confrontation?
c. Tactical Plans a. Reasonable force
d. Operational Plans b. Logical Force
1291. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the lump c. Rational Force
sum of his retirement benefits for the period of the first d. Evenhanded Force
_____. 1301. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the
a. 10 years picket line (or confrontation line) but should be
b. 5 years stationed in such manner that their presence may deter
c. 6 years the commission of criminal acts or any untoward
d. 2 years incident from either side. The members of the peace-
keeping detail shall stay outside a _______ radius from
1292. Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age, Height, the picket line.
Weight and Education, only when the number of a. 50 feet
qualified applicants falls below the minimum annual b. 50 meter
quota. Appointment status under a waiver program is c. 100 feet
________. d. 100 meter
a. Temporary
b. Probationary 1302. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported by a
c. Permanent patrol jeep, the subject must be-
d. Regular
a. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at
1293. __________ is given to any PNP member who has the rear on the Right side facing the subject
exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of b. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at
his life above and beyond the call of duty. the rear on the left side facing the subject
a. Meritorious Promotion c. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at
b. Special Promotion the rear on the left side facing the subject
c. Regular Promotion d. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at
d. On-the-Spot Promotion the rear on the Right side facing the subject

1294. Which among the following has no promotional

authority over the members of the PNP?
a. Deputy Director General
b. Director General
c. President of the Philippines 1303. Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs
d. Regional Director but only with necessary restraint and proper escort,
1295. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately from preferably aided by a police woman. The statement is-
the service after due notice and summary hearings if it a. Partially True
was proven that he went on AWOL for a continuous b. Wholly True
c. Partially False
period of:
d. Wholly False
a. 30 days or more
b. 15 days or more 1304. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public
c. 20 days or more assemblies, employment of tear gas and water cannons
d. 60 days or more shall be made under the control and supervision of the-
1296. Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons a. Ground Commander
following a high-risk stop. b. Incident Commander
a. Dragnet Operation c. Immediate Commander d.
Superior Officer
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest 1305. What should be the action of patrol officers, when
d. High Risk Stop responding to Calls for Police Assistance, except?
a. Stop the car at some distance away from the scene.
1297. PO3Maine Mendoza, receives 19, 870.00 base pay since b. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
he was promoted. After five years from promotion, c. Determine the crime committed.
what would be his monthly base pay after adding his d. None of these
longevity pay?
a. 21, 857.00
1306. Where should the patrol officer turnover the
b. 19, 970.00
information and pieces of evidence gathered at the
c. 24, 870.00
crime scene?
d. 31, 549.00
a. SOCO team
1298. It refers to those situations or conditions that may
b. Immediate Supervisor
induce incidents for some kind of police action:
c. Responding unit

Page 66 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. Medico Legal Officer d. C/Inspector
1316. Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow-up
1307. Request for police assistance in the implementation of without material interval for the purpose of taking into
final decisions or orders of the court in civil cases and custody any person wanted by virtue of a warrant, or
of administrative bodies on controversies within their one suspected to have committed a recent offense
jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the appropriate while fleeing from one police jurisdictional boundary to
police office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to another that will normally require prior official inter-
the actual implementation. unit coordination but which the pursuing unit cannot,
a. 3 days at that moment, comply due to the urgency of the
b. 10 days situation.
c. 5 days a. Hot Pursuit
d. 15 days b. Hasty Checkpoint

1308. It may be utilized to break up formations or groupings c. Dragnet Operation

of demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and d. High Risk Stop
refused to disperse despite earlier efforts. 1317. Which among the following terms is not related to
a. Tear Gas each other?
b. Water Cannon a. Hot Pursuit
c. Truncheon b. Fresh Pursuit
d. Shield c. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit
1309. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot d. Bright Pursuit
or in a vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable 1318. Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the police,
cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s military and other peace keeping authorities shall
identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning observe during a public assembly or in the dispersal of
criminal activity. the same.
a. Frisking a. Reasonable Force
b. Search b. Greatest Lenience
c. Spot Check c. Maximum Tolerance
d. Pat-down Search d. Utmost Patience
1310. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly 1319. Which among the following aspects of a. Security is
authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the weakest of them all?
the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for a. Physical security
other legitimate purposes. b. Personnel security
a. Clear Zone c. Document and information security
b. Public Place d. Personal Security
c. Police Checkpoint
d. Pre-Determined Area 1320. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is-
1311. Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which was a. Partially Correct
accepted by the courts, prosecutors’ office and the b. Partially Wrong
public in general. What police office is using this kind of c. Absolutely Correct
blotter? d. Absolutely Wrong
a. Makati
b. Cebu 1321.It refers to any structure or physical device capable of
c. Baguio restriction, deterring or delaying illegal access to an
d. Davao installation.
1312. It refers to the venue or place established or a. Hazard
designated by local government units within their b. Perimeter Barrier
respective jurisdictions where a public assembly could c. Barrier
be held without securing any permit for such purpose d .Energy Barrier
from the local government unit concerned.
a. Secured Area 1322. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances
b. Wide Space to secure areas located out of doors, and manned by guards
c. Freedom Park on a full time basis.
d. Clear Zone a. Guard Control Stations
1313. The police function in which patrol belong is: b. Tower
a. Line function c. Tower Guard
b. Administrative function d. Top Guard
c. Staff function
d. Auxiliary function 1323 .This lamps have the advantage of providing instant
1314. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of illumination when the switch is open and most commonly
Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is standing near used protective lighting system.
Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by a. Incandescent Lamp
existence of Insp. Gonzales but the ______ for b.Gaseous Discharge Lamp
successful robbery is prevented. c. Mercury Vapor Lamp
a. Ambition d. Quarts Lamp
b. Intention
c. Motive 1324. The following are the areas to be lighted:
d. Opportunity A.Parking Areas;
1315. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his b.Thoroughfare;
retirement is Superintendent shall retire with the rank c. Pedestrian Gates;
of __________: d. Vehicular Gates; and
a. Superintendent E.Susceptible Areas.
b. C/Superintendent a. a, c, e
c. Sr. Superintendent b. a, b, c, d

Page 67 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. a, c, d, e c. 100
d. a, b, c, d, e d. 200

1325. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; 1336. It refers to a system use in big installation whereby
reproduction of this record does not have the same value keys can open a group of locks.
as the original. a. Key Control
a. Vital Documents b. Master Keying
b. Important Documents c. Change Key
c. Useful Documents d. Great Grand Master Key
d. Non- Essential Documents
1337. What is called as devices and contrivance installed
1326. It is the importance of firm with reference to the inside and outside a facility to compliment and provide
natural economy and security. additional security measures and operates to advertise
a.. Relative Operation entry into sensitive and protected area?
b Relative Security a. Protective locks
c. Relative Vulnerability b. Protective cabinet
d. Relative Criticality of Operation c. Protective barrier
d. Protective Lighting
1327. A new Private security agency that has been issued a
temporary license to operate is good for how many years? 1338. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned
a. One for duty:
b. Two a. Post
c.Three b. Beat
d.Four c. Area
d. Route
1328. The removal of the security classification from the
classified matter.
a.Segregation
b. Declassify
c. Reclassify
d. Exclusion

1329.The form of security that employs cryptography to

protect information refers to:
A. Document and information security
b. Operational security
c. Communication security
d. Industrial security

1330. The type of fence that is primarily designed to allow

complete visual access between two areas is:
a. Solid fence
b. Semi-solid fence
c. Full-view fence
d. Masonry Fence

1331.The minimum age requirement for Security Manager

or Operator of a security agency is:
a. 40 yrs. Old
b. 25 yrs. Old
c. 30 yrs. Old
d. 35 yrs. Old

1332.The following are the categories of automatic alarm

system, except:
a. Photoelectric
b. Electric Eye Device 1339. The thickness of paper is expressed in thousands of
c. Audio detection inch.
d. Bill Traps A. Measurement
1333. Which of the following is not a false key? B. Caliper
a. A picklock or similar tool . C. Buffer
b. A duplicate key of the owner.
D. Calibre
c. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
d.Any key other than those intended by the owner. 1340. Chemical used to whiten paper pulp.
1334. The Normal weight of a safe is at least: A. Bleach
a. 500 lbs. B. Alum
b. 750 lbs. C. Sufite
c. 1000 lbs. D. Pulp
d. 600 lbs. 1341. A form of printing to produce a raised impression or
pattern on the surface of a sheet of paper.
1335. The minimum number of guards required for a
company security force is: A. Lithograph printing
a. 1000 B. Embossing
b. 30 C. Edge chains

Page 68 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 D. Reprographing A. Ratio
1342. The original inventor of Fourdrinier paper machine. B. Proportion
A. Fourdrinier Brothers C. Line quality
B. Bryan Donkin D. All
C. Nicholas-Louis Robert 1353. In questioned document examination, it is referred to
D. Milton Reynolds as the flourishing succession of motion which are
1343. Quality of a paper related to the amount of light that recorded in a written record.
can be transmitted through its surface. A. Line quality
A. Thickness B. Rhythm
B. Opacity C. Speed in writing
C. Translucent D. Movement
D. Texture 1354. Slant is the angle or inclination of the axis of the letters
1344. Fundamentally, the grand mission and objective of relative to the
document examiner is to determine and conclude with A. Baseline
scientific basis and technique who is the B. Slope
A. Beneficiaries C. Alignment
B. Writer or signatory D. Staff
C. Master mind 1355. Uncommon and well fixed characteristic that serve as a
D. Conspirator fundamental point of identification.
1345. In questioned document, it is where all characteristics A. Slant
are grouped. B. Habit
A. Class characteristics C. Movement
B. Individual characteristics D. All
C. Both A and B 1356. Baseline is the ruled or imaginary line upon which the
D. Neither writing ______
1346. Writing was written by one person when there is a A. Holds
sufficient number of identical writing habits and the B. Rests
absence of divergent characteristics. This is in C. Stays
consonance with; D. Slants
A. Identification 1357. Among the following, which is a common defect of
B. Non-identification forgery?
C. Either
D. Niether A. Patching
1347. Embellishment is an example of B. Retracing
A. Individual Characteristics C. A and B
B. Class Characteristics D. None
C. Both 1358. Letters that extend a distance vertically above the linear
D. Neither letters.
1348. Hiatus is a gap between strokes due to A. Infra-linear
A. Speed in writing B. Supra-linear
B. Defective writing instrument C. Linear
C. Unevenness of writing materials D. None
D. All of the choices 1359. The only question to tackle in this kind of signature
1349. Among the following, which is not an element of forgery is the determination of the probable writer of
movement? the forgery.
A. Line Quality A. Simple forgery
B. Rhythm B. Simulated forgery
C. Speed Freedom C. Traced forgery
D. emphasis D. A and B
1350. Writing, done rapidly, will exhibit no pen lift, except 1360. A kind of signature forgery where the resemblance of
those at the the questioned signature and genuine is apparent.
A. Middle of the words/strokes A. Fraudulent
B. End of the stroke B. Simulated
C. Beginning of strokes C. Simple
D. B and C D. Traced
1361. To identify whether simple forgery was committed,
1351. The orientation of the writing instrument is referred to which of the following should be retrieved?
as A. Standard signature from the forger
A. Pen position B. Standard of the genuine signature
B. Pen hold C. Standard of the person who made the forgery
C. Pen emphasis D. Identity of the forger
D. Pen orientation 1362. One of the following statements best describe what a
1352. The relation between the tall and short letters is collected standard is.
referred to as A. It has the advantage of easily finding it.

Page 69 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 B. Attempt to disguise is removed. D. Hearing
C. The accused is aware that the specimen will be 43. The Bible (Genesis 1:3-5) God created the earth and there
used against him. should be light and darkness which is daylight and night. Among
D. None these, what is the basic component of photography?
1363. Authenticity of private documents is not necessary A. All of these
when B. Film
A. It is 30 years old C. Camera
B. More than 30 years old D. Light
C. Less than 30 years old 1374. Positive result of photography is called –
D. More or less 30 years old A. Picture
1364. During paper manufacture, the following are included B. Photograph
except C. Positive
A. Security fiber D. Negative
B. Watermarks 1375. Other term for lie detector is –
C. Iridescent band A. GSR
D. Serial number B. Pneumograph
1365. Which of the following is not a crime called forgery? C. Cardiograph
A. Forging the seal of the government D. Polygraph
B. Counterfeiting of coins 1376. In key classification, is it placed on the leftmost corner
C. Mutilation of coins on the numerator?
D. Using forged signature or counterfeit seal or A. Yes
stamp B. Maybe
1366. The imitation of a legal or genuine coin. C. No
A. Counterfeit D. Sometimes
B. Mutilation 1377. Flash bulb and electronic flash are two examples of light
C. Utter of short duration. Which among of these is popular
D. Import today?
1367. When a spurious coin is made, there is A. Flash bulb
A. Counterfeiting B. Electronic bulb
B. Uttering C. Lamp
C. Mutilation D. Flash light
D. Importing 1378. Can a strong acid destroy the fingerprint permanently?
1368. Mutilation of coins without the intent to defraud is A. Yes
A. Not punishable under the revised penal code B. No
B. Not punishable by any law C. Maybe
C. Punishable under the revised penal code D. This time
D. Punishable under Art. 164 of the RPC. 1379. In forensic ballistic, the firearm examiner examines the
1369. To make false instrument intended to be passed for the firearm usually involved in a crime or the case_____?
genuine one is a form of A. In court
A. Falsification B. In progress
B. Forgery C. Controversy
C. Tracing D. Handled
D. Fraud 1380. In polygraph, it is the process of detecting false
1370. Which of the following method should be used in order statement or signs of -
for the naked eye to see a charred document? A. Detection
A. X-ray B. Deception
B. Spectrograph C. Lie
C. Ultra violet D. Untrue statement
D. Infra red 1381. In typewriting examination which of the following first
1371. Which of the following security features of a paper bill to be conducted?
does not react to ultra-violet light? A. Examination of the questioned specimen
A. Serial Number B. Collecting of typewriting standards
B. Watermark C. Locate the type writer used
C. Fluorescent printing D. Examination of the exemplar
D. Invisible security fibers 1382. Aside from fingerprint, what is the other identification
1372. Paper is for china while papyrus is for in securing NBI clearance?
A. Sumer A. Thumb mark
B. Turkey B. Pending case
C. Sumeria C. Picture
D. Egypt D. Signature
1373. What is gustatory sensation? 1383. Which of the following is a must to be considered in a
A. Smell sketch?
B. Taste A. Compass direction
C. Skin B. Name of placed

Page 70 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 C. Time A. 1909
D. Location B. 1859
1384. In addition to medicine, as prober, how can you C. 1890
preserve perishable evidence like injuries, contusions, D. 1903
hematoma and the like? 1395. What is the official purpose of conducting post mortem
A. Recording examination?
B. Sketching A. To determine the duration of death
C. Photography B. To determine the manner of death
D. Note taking C. To determine the deadly weapon
1385. In questioned document examination, it refers to a D. To determine the cause of death.
stroke which goes back to writing stroke. 1396. What part of the polygraph machine is responsible in
A. Patching detecting pulse rate and heart beat?
B. Retouching A. Kymograph
C. Retracing B. Pneumograph
D. Restroking C. Polygraph
1386. In photography probe, when murder occurred showing D. Cardiograph
disarray of cabinets, photography is essential to show 1397. In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with polydactyl, he
defense of the - or she has -
A. Suspect A. Extra fingerprint
B. Witness B. Extra hand
C. Victim C. Extra finger
D. Kibitzers D. Added finger
1387. In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the 1398. What year did the colored photography was accepted in
energy coming from the muzzle point is called - US court?
A. Armor-piercing A. 1956
B. Velocity B. 1978
C. Lead bullet C. 1946
D. Muzzle energy D. 1960
1388. What are the two types of firearms according to the 1399. Blood stays liquid for how many hours?
construction of the interior of the barrel? A. 6-8 hours
A. Short and long barreled firearms B. 9-10 hours
B. Small arms and artilleries C. 8-12 hours
C. Lands and grooves D. 3-6 hours
D. Smoothbore and rifled bore 1400. The one who creates his own systolic in polygraph
1389. What is the symbol of tented arch? examination?
A. Dash A. James MacKenzie
B. T B. Angelo Mosso
C. Te C. William Marston
D. A and/or B D. John Larson
1390. It is the centermost part of the fingerprint pattern. 1401. What is the color of blood in post mortem lividity?
A. Inner terminus
B. Delta
C. Inner shoulder A. Blue
D. Core B. Violet
1391. Fingerprint patterns like loop and whorl are found in C. Pink
the - D. Bright red
A. Pattern area 1402. In crime laboratory concerning the study of types,
B. Delta model of firearm and its bullets is done by -
C. Core A. Ballistician
D. Type lines B. Ballistic engineer
1392. What is the test in examination of blood if belong to C. Forensic engineer
human or animal? D. Firearm prober
A. Takayama 1403. What is the type of document which is notarized by a
B. Benzidine RTC judge?
C. Kestle Meyer A. Public
D. Precipitin B. Official
1393. How many standards in questioned documents is C. Private
needed to prove? D. None of these
A. 5 standards 1404. Going back to a defective portion of a writing stroke is
B. 10 signatures called -
C. Sufficient amount A. Slicing
D. 5 pages B. Embracing
1394. In USA, what year photography was used for court C. Retouching
presentation? D. Patching

Page 71 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1405. What is the part of firearm that extract cartridge from C. Takayama
the chamber? D. Teichman
A. Breech 1416. Is taking a tranquilizer and medicine for colds affects
B. Firing pin the result of polygraph examination?
C. Extractor A. Yes
D. Ejector B. No
1406. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm is measured by - C. Depends
A. Gauge D. Maybe
B. Caliber 1417. It is where handwriting rest?
C. Caliper A. Feet
D. Hundredth of an inch B. Vase line
1407. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is C. Baseline
involved in a crime the examiner should report it to the D. Alignment
- 1418. Medically speaking, it is the sudden stoppage of the
A. Victim heart that results to death.
B. Investigator A. Instantaneous rigor
C. Object relative B. Heart attack
D. Prosecutor C. Myocardial infarction
1408. In fingerprint, which of the following is the pattern D. Death
which refers to the rolled fingers onto the rolling 1419. In polygraph test, it indicates air in system, and is
impression columns? measured in millimeter by the -
A. Rolled impression A. Kymograph
B. Indexing impression B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Palm impression C. Pneumograph
D. Little finger impression D. Galvanograph
1409. A complete rotation of a fired bullet in the rifling of a 1420. In Dactyloscopy, the primary purpose and importance
gun is also termed as – of fingerprint is for -
A. Twist of rifling A. Indemnification
B. Gyroscopic action B. Comparison
C. Rotating motion C. Identification
D. Pitch of rifling D. Collection
1410. In photography, it is an exhibit shown in court for 1421. Photography at the crime scene taken at the crime
scrutiny by litigants and others. scene which will be used for court presentation is called
A. Police photography -
B. Photograph A. Crime scene photography
C. Forensic photography B. Forensic photography
D. Crime scene photography C. Crime photography
1411. In what way to determine the date of a paper was D. Police photography
made? 1422. The study of projectiles the moment the bullet leaves
A. Wiremark the muzzle of the gun is a kind of –
B. Trademark A. Interior ballistics
C. Copyright B. Terminal ballistics
D. Watermark C. Forensic ballistics
1412. Tripod has how many feet? D. Exterior ballistics
A. It depends 1423. A magistrate and law professor in Austria who is known
B. Two for introducing the word “Criminalistics.”
C. Three A. Hans Gross
D. Four B. Alphonse Bertillon
1413. In robbery case involving force upon things, which C. Prof. R.A. Riess
should be closely photographed? D. Edmond Locard
A. Weapons used 1424. In dactyloscopy, is plain whorl always with two deltas?
B. Victims wounds a. No
C. Entrance and exit b. Never
D. Things stolen c. Yes
1414. What is the advantage of other agencies with other d. Maybe
agencies when it comes to authenticity? 1425. A light proof box with a means of forming an image,
A. Signature and photograph with a means of holding sensitized material and with a
B. Thumb mark and photograph means of regulating the amount of light that enters the
C. Thumb mark and signature camera at a given time. a. camera
D. Signature only b. light
1415. What is the best test in determining the presence of c. film
blood? d. lens
A. Benzedine 1426. The location of the blood pressure in the chart paper
B. Marquis a. Side

Page 72 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 b. Middle C. Truth
c. Lower D. Response
d. Upper 1438. In pubic hair, what is the best examination to be
1427. What is the most common death caused by asphyxia? conducted in the crime laboratory?
a. strangulation A. DNA
b. drowning B. Microscope examination
c. throttling C. Chemical examination
d. Hanging D. Serology examination
1428. What is being affected in intracranial hemorrhage? 1439. If you didn’t clean the fingerprint slab, what will be the
a. brain effect to the fingerprint?
b. stomach A. Blurred
c. lung B. Sticky
1429. A firearm which has a size of less than 1 inch C. Classified
a. small firearm D. Clear
b. handgun 1440. What is found on the left white portion of the portrait?
c. revolver A. Vignette
d. shotgun B. Watermark
1430. What is the measure of the rubber tube in the C. Security fiber
pneumograph? D. Fiber
a. 20 inches 1441. In Henry System how many clasifications of fingerprints
b. 10 inches are there?
c. 7 inches A. 2
d. 8 inches B. 3
1431. An industrial complex must establish its first line of C. 8
physical defense. It must have: D. 7
a. the building itself 1442. Indication of tremor due to old age, illiteracy and
b. communication barrier sickness is what kind of signature?
c. perimeter barrier A. Genuine
d. window barrier B. Spurious
102. If the dead person is laying, where will the blood go C. Forged
during livor mortis? D. Simulated
A. Back 1443. If in the CS, you found semen and blood, can you
B. Neck consider it as rape on minor?
C. Head A. Yes
D. Legs B. No
1432. If there are 6 grooves, is it also the same in lands? C. Partly Yes
A. Yes D. Partly No
B. No 1444. In polarization film, how long is the developing?
C. Partly Yes A. 5 minutes
D. Partly No B. 7 min
1433. What is the other term for dot? C. 3 min
A. Islet D. 8 minutes
B. Core 1445. What do you call the outer cover of the bullet?
C. Delta A. Jacketed
D. Bifurcation B. Metallic
1434. In writing, what is being used? C. Silver
A. Finger D. Ogive
B. Forearm 1446. In snake, the two snake venum is neorotoxic and _____.
C. Hands A. Hemotoxic
D. All of the choices B. Viral
1435. There are three types of fingerprint pattern; arch, whorl C. Surgical
and _____. D. B or C
A. Ulnar loop
B. Radial loop
C. Loop 1447. Why is polygraphy in the Philippines not admissible?
D. Arch A. Under experimental stage
1436. Is your name Eric? What kind of question is this? B. Under analysis
A. Irrelevant C. Based on opinion
B. Relevant D. Unskill
C. Control
D. Evidence 1448. Phos means light, graphia means _____.
1437. In polygraph examination, what is being detected? A. Write
A. Lying B. Study
B. Dying C. Technology

Page 73 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 D. Record a. Range
1449. In major classification, the right thumb is the numerator b. Gauge
while the left is the denominator? c. Rifling
d. Center-fire
A. Yes
1460. Most commonly these marks are found on bullets fired
B. No
from a Revolver due to a poor alignment of the cylinder
C. It depends
with the bore:
1450. If you are a patrol officer, what type of CS will you
a. Shaving marks
photograph even though there is no SOCO b. Skid marks
photographer? c. Pivot marks
A. Vehicular accident scene d. landmarks
B. Infanticide scene 1461. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to:
C. Homicide scene a. James Forsythe
D. Parricide scene b. Philip O. Gravelle
1451. What is the most common symptom of coma? c. Van Amberg
d. Berthold Scwartz
A. Unconsciousness
1461. That science dealing with the motion of projectile from
B. Blackening of lips
the time the firer squeezes the trigger up to the time it
C. Dilated eyes
reaches the muzzle of the barrel is called:
D. consciousness
1452. The dead person is dehydrated. What is lacking? a. Posterior ballistics
A. H2O b. Interior ballistics
B. Blood c. Exterior ballistics
C. Air d. Terminal ballistics
D. Anesthesia 1462. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different
1453. In police laboratory, the one examined by biologist is from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most
not limited to ____. useful in directly identifying the:
A. Semen
a. Person who fired the particular gun
B. Blood
b. Direction form which a shot was fired
C. Riverstone c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
D. None of these d.Bullet which caused a fatal wound
1454. These bullets when fired emit bright red flame from
their base, thereby showing the gunner the path as well 1463. A patrolman should fire his pistol:
as the striking point of the bullet.
a. Jacketed bullet a. At no time
b. Armor-piercing b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
c. Semi-wed cutter bullet c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
d. Tracer bullet d. Only as a last resort
1455. The caliber of the firearms can be determined by the 1464. . Which of the following, the best method to use in firing
bore diameter measured from: a revolver is to keep:

a. Land to firearm a. Both eyes closed

b. Land to land b. Both eyes open
c. Land to groves c. Only the right eye is open
d. Groves to land d. Only the left eye is open
1456. The breech end of the chamber of the firearm is sealed 1465. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on the
by a solid flat block of metal against which the barrel differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling
comes into position when the weapon is closed for firing, which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the
which is termed as: following statement the one which can most accurately
a. Extractor be inferred is that:
b. Breechface
c. Head space a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves
d. Breechblock b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and right
1457. The firearms that propelled projectiles more than one c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either left or
inch in diameter is called. right
a. Machine gun d. All of the above
b. Musket 1466. The secret of good shooting form is:
c. Artillery
d. Single-shot firearm a. Proper sighting of the target
1458. A Smith & Wesson type of firearm has a class b. Firing slowly and carefully
characteristics of: c. A relaxed and natural position
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
a. Four lands, four grooves right twist
b. Six lands, six grooves left twist
1467. The term muzzle velocity refers most
c. Seven lands, seven grooves right twist
d. Five lands, five grooves right twist accurately to the:

a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight

1459. To impact a motion of rotation to a bullet during its b. Average speed of the bullet in flight
passage inside the barrel to insure gyroscopic stability in c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
its flight is called:

Page 74 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1468. Discharged bullet are initiated at: which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the
following statement the one which can most accurately
a. On base or nose be inferred is that:
b. Left side
c. Right side a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves
d. The end of the bullet b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and
1469. Discharged shell are initiated at: right
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be
a. Inside or outside of a case near open end either left or right
b. Where firing pin strikes d. All of the above
c. On any part of the shell 1478. The secret of good shooting form is:
d. None of the above
1470. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to: a. Proper sighting of the target
b. Firing slowly and carefully
a. Increase the speed of the bullet c. A relaxed and natural position
b. Decrease the amount of recoil d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification 1479. The term muzzle velocity refers most
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in the air accurately to the:

a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight

1471. The caliber of the gun is:
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
a. Its barrel length d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
b. The circumference of its barrel 1480. Discharged bullet are initiated at:
c. The size of the ammunition used
d. Diameter of the bore
a. On base or nose
1472. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of the
b. Left side
exploded shell have been recovered by the investigator c. Right side
of the crime. In order to identify the shell with the gun d. The end of the bullet
that fired, the laboratory should be given:
1481. Discharged shell are initiated at:
a. The cap, the weds and the pellets
b. The cap and the wads a. Inside or outside of a case near open end
c. The cap and the pellets b. Where firing pin strikes
d. The shot shell only c. On any part of the shell
1473. Which of the following, the most accurate statement d. None of the above
concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by 1482. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to:
means of the ballistics is that:
a. Increase the speed of the bullet
a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least eight lands b. Decrease the amount of recoil
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be determined by the c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification
angle of lead d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in
c. Pistols with the same number of land can be differentiated the air
by the direction of the lead 1483. The caliber of the gun is:
d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from the width of
the groove a. Its barrel length
b. The circumference of its barrel
1474. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different c. The size of the ammunition used
from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most d. Diameter of the bore
1484. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of the
useful in directly identifying the:
exploded shell have been recovered by the investigator
a. Person who fired the particular gun of the crime. In order to identify the shell with the gun
b. Direction form which a shot was fired that fired, the laboratory should be given:
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
d. Bullet which caused a fatal wound a. The cap, the weds and the pellets
1475. A patrolman should fire his pistol: b. The cap and the wads
c. The cap and the pellets
a. At no time d. The shot shell only
b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
d. Only as a last resort 1485. Which of the following, the most accurate statement
concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by
means of the ballistics is that:
1476. Which of the following, the best method to use in firing
a revolver is to keep: a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least
eight lands
a. Both eyes closed b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be
b. Both eyes open determined by the angle of lead
c. Only the right eye is open c. Pistols with the same number of land can be
d. Only the left eye is open differentiated by the direction of the lead
1477. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on the d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from
differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling the width of the groove

Page 75 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1486. Paraffin test is used to: a. 6 to 10 inches
b. 6 to 10 feet
a. Detect whether a witness is telling the truth c. 6 to 10 yards
b. Discover whether the deceased person was d. 6 to 10 meters
poisoned 1495. When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a
c. Estimate the approximate time of death of the criminal:
deceased
d. Determine whether a suspect has fired a gun a. The empty shell remain within the chamber
recently b. The empty in most cases will be found at the scene of firing
c. The shell is rarely found at the crime scene
1487. The term double action with reference to revolver d. The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator
means most nearly that: 1496. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the
index finger should:
a. The revolver has both safely and automatic firing action
b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released the a. Grasp the stock
hammer b. Be straight along the barrel
c. The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell c. Touch the outside of the trigger guard
ejection d. Be inside of the trigger guard
d. The shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge is 1497. A member of the police force may properly used his
pushed from the magazine at the same time pistol:
1488. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a Pistol or Rifle
barrels is called: a. To disperse a disorder group of people
b. To subdue a maniac
a. Land c. To prevent the escape of a pelon
b. Groove d. To stop a man suspected of having committed a crime
c. Lead 1498. A policeman arriving at the scene of a crime found a
d. One complete revolution inside the bore revolver, in reference to this he should be most careful:
1489. Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a
shell by the: a. To see that it is not loaded
b. To put on the safety lock
a. Firing c. Not to handle it unnecessarily
b. Ejector d. To mark it readily on the barrel
c. Extractor
d. Hammer 1499. The term “MAGNUM” originated in:
1490. It is the part of the mechanism in a firearm that
withdrawn the shell or cartridge from the chamber is a. United States
called the: b. France
c. England
a. Ejector d. Italy
b. Primer 1500. The chemical eating away of the bore of an arm due to
c. Striker rusting or the action of salts deposited from the cap or
d. extractor gunpowder is:

a. Pressure
b. Extractor
c. Corrosion
d. Priming Composition
1491. A revolver to be tested and used in evidence should be 1501. The mechanical wear and fear of the bore of an arm due
picked up by: to sliding friction when the bullet passes through is:

a. Inserting a pencil or ballpen in the barrel a. Ejector

b. Placing a piece of wire or string through the trigger guard b. Single action
c. Grasping the handle with the handkerchief c. Erosion
d. Grasping the barrel with clean cloth d. Potassium nitrate
1492. The part of a .45 caliber semi-automatic pistol found at 1502. When the mechanism is so arranged that it will fire
the scene of the crime is normally not individual marked continuously while the trigger is depressed is called:
for identification in the:
a. Double action
a. Trigger b. Caliber
b. Ejector c. Automatic
c. Slide d. Trigger
d. barrel 1503. The distance that the rifling advances to make one
1493. The type of bore found on sewed-off shotgun is usually complete turn inside the gun barrel is called:
a:
a. Gauge
a. Rifled bore b. Breech End
b. Choke bore c. Pitch of rifling
c. Full choke bore d. Velocity
d. Smooth bore 1504. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger releases the
1494. The maximum distance form the muzzle at which a hammer that must be manually cocked is called:
firearm discharge will usually produce detectable
powder pattern on a target is about: a. Automatic

Page 76 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 b. Repeating arms 1513. This process of combustion results in the solid powder
c. Single action being converted into gases rapidly, and at a high
d. Ejector temperature, and it is the expansion of these gases
1505. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both cocks
which causes the explosive force which propels the
and releases the hammer:
bullet or shot charge along the barrel. This force is known
as:
a. Single action
b. Trigger
c. Hammer a. Energy
d. Double action b. Pressure
1506. When a barrel of a game guns are almost invariability c. Velocity
d. High Intensity
bored with a slightly constriction near the muzzle end is
1514. A type of firearm having six lands, six grooves with the
known as:
right hand twist is:
a. Shotgun
a. Smith & Wesson
b. Choke
b. Browning type
c. Gauge
c. Colt type
d. Chamber
d. Webley type
1507. The only sure method of determining the velocity is by
1515. An instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by
the use of:
the expansive force of gases coming from burning
powder a:
a. Micrometer
b. Taper Gauge
c. Caliber a. Helixometer
d. Chronograph b. Firearm
1508. One of the most important single case in Firearms c. Stereoscopic
d. Comparison microscope
Identification History was that involving two men who
1516. A knurled ring or serrated groove around the body of the
were supposed to have their employer and his
bullet which contains lubricant in order to minimize
housekeeper in upper New York State:
friction during the passage of the bullet inside the bore
is:
a. Castelo Case
b. Timbol Case
c. The Stielow Case a. Jacketed bullet
d. Castaneda case b. Wad cutter bullet
c. Cannelure
1509. During the seven years of radical agitation that followed d. Plated bullet
1517. The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its
the arrest of these men , It was apparently forgotten that
original trajectory is:
they had been seized on specific charge of murdering
one Parameter, a paymaster and his guard Berrdelli. a. Range
Forensic Ballistics sprange into national prominence b. Fouling
during this last phrase of: c. Key hole shot
d. ricochet
a. Brownell Case 1518. Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or there
b. Sacco-Vanzetti Case is a delayed in explosion due to faulty functioning of the
c. Mitchell Case primer or faulty ignition of the propellant is:
d. Weber Case
1510. He is doctor of medicine in Medical corps in the First a. Misfire
World War who had transferred to the ordinance corps b. Recoil
and considered the Father of modern Ballistics: c. Hang-fire
d. velocity
a. Lieutenant Van Amberg 1519. type of bullet that contains a mixture, such as
b. Maj. Calvin Goddard phosphorus or other material, that can set fire upon
c. Capt. Edward C. Crossman impact is called:
d. Philip O. Gravelle
1511. The most important single process in barrel a. Boat tail bullet
manufacture from the standpoint of the identification b. Tracer bullet
expert is: c. Incendiary bullet
d. Ball type
a. Reaming operation 1520. A short barrel rifle, with its barrel not longer than 22”.
b. Rifling operation
c. Boring operation a. Gatling guns
d. Grinding or machining b. Pistolized shotgun
c. Carbine
1512. That part of the mechanism in a firearm which causes d. muskets
empty shells or cartridge cases to be thrown from the 1521. A type of weapon designed to propel projectile by
gun is called: means of compressed air is:

a. Extractor a. Springfield armory

b. Ejector b. Marlin rifle
c. Hammer c. Carbine
d. trigger d. Air rifle

Page 77 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1522. The class characteristics of a 9 mm Browning Pistol is: 1531. The class characteristics of a Smith & Wesson, revolver
caliber .38 is:
a. 5 lands, 5 grooves, right hand twist
b. 4 lands, 4 grooves, right hand twist a. Six lands, six grooves, right hand twist
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves, right hand twist b. Five lands, five grooves, right hand twist
d. 7 lands, 7 grooves, right hand twist c. Six lands, six grooves, left hand twist
1523. A caliber 6.35mm is equivalent to: d. Four lands, four grooves, right hand twist
1532. Velocity of the bullet is being measure in:
a. Caliber .32
b. Caliber .25 a. Foot pound
c. Caliber .45 b. Lbs./sq. inch
d. Caliber .22 c. Feet per second
1524. How many lead pellets dies a 12 gauge 00 bunch shot d. millimeter
shotgun cartridges contains: 1533. How many types of problem are there in Forensic
Ballistics?
a. 12 gauge
b. 24 pellets a. 8
c. 6 pellets b. 7
d. 9 pellets c. 6
1525. Here is a case, when two specimens are examined under d. 5
the comparison microscopic and was erroneously drawn 1534. What is that part in a cartridge cases where in the flame
a conclusion and actually no identity exist, this matching coming from the priming composition passes?
is called:
a. Shell head
a. Photomicrograph b. Vent
b. Pseudomatch c. Primer pocket
c. Microphotograph d. anvil
d. striagraph 1535. What is the most powerful handgun in the world?
1526. When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a stationary
position and is forced abruptly into the rifling, its natural a. Magnum .357
tendency is to go straight forward before encountering b. Magnum .44
c. Magnum .50
the regular rifling twist is called:
d. Magnum .41
1536. What is the equivalent of a caliber .25 in millimeter?
a. Shaving marks
b. Skidmarks
a. 7.65mm
c. Individual characteristics
b. 6.35 mm
d. Slippage marks
c. 9 mm
1527. Those characteristics which are determinable only after
d. 7.63 mm
the manufacture of the firearm. They are characteristics 1537. When a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed in
whose existence is beyond the control of men and which explosion;
have random distribution. Their existence in a firearm is
brought about through the failure of the tool in its a. Misfired cartridge
normal operation through wear and tear, abuse, b. Hang-fire
mutilation, corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous c. Tapered cartridge
causes: d. Rebated cartridge
1538. What is the equipment in measuring the velocity of the
a. Forensic ballistics bullet?
b. Class characteristics a. Omoscope
c. Riflings b. Helixometer
d. Individual characteristics c. Chronograph
1528. The steel block which closes the rear of the bore against d. micrometer
the force of the charge is: 1539. Riflings located inside the barrel of a gun is a
combination of:
a. Breechface a. Pitch grifling
b. Breechblock b. Twist
c. Chamber c. Lands & grooves
d. bore d. cannelures
1529. Firearms which propel projectile of less than one inch in
diameter are generally classified as: 1540. The sound created at the muzzle of the firearm after
explosion is called:
a. Artillery a. Suppressor
b. Small arms b. Muzzle blast
c. Cannons c. Compensation
d. Recoilless rifle d. choke
1530. It is the study of firearms Identification by means of the 1541. What are muzzle loading firearms?
ammunition fired through them: a. Muskets
b. Shotgun
a. Ballistics c. Single sot firearms
b. Forensic Ballistics d. Rifled arms
c. Terminal ballistics 1542. In a caliber 7.62 mm x 51 cartridge. What do you mean
d. Interior ballistics by 51?

Page 78 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 a. The diameter of the cartridge case b. Trigger guard
b. The shoulder of the cartridge case c. Trailing edge
c. The diameter of the cartridge d. Thumb rest
d. The length of the cartridge case 1554. Pressure developed after explosion is measured in:
1543. A caliber 7.62 mm x 51 is equivalent a. feet/second
a. Caliber .32 b. Lbs./sq. inch
b. Caliber .30 c. Foot pound
c. Caliber .308 d. Millimetre
d. Caliber 30.06
1544. How many pellets are there in a 00 buckshot shotgun 1555. Used in cases such as for sending signals and enabling to
cartridge 12 gauge? see enemies in the dark.
a. 12 pellets
b. 9 pellets a. Harpoon guns
c. 10 pellets b. Gas guns
d. 16 pellets c. Flare guns
1545. . A firearm which features a movable firearm which is d. Care guns
manually actuated in motion parallel to the barrel by the 1556. In a caliber .30-30. What do you mean by the second 30?
shooter;
a. Refers to the caliber
a. Slide action type
b. Refers to the weight of gunpowder
b. Lower action type
c. Refers to the weight of the cartridge case
c. Bolt action type
d. Refers to the weight of the bullet
d. Single shot firearm
1557. In a caliber .250-3000.The 3000 refers to the.
1546. A device primarily designed for another purposes that
have a gun mechanism in corporated in them.
a. Muzzle energy
a. Gas gun b. Diameter of the cartridge
b. Liberator c. Muzzle velocity of the bullet
c. Freakish device d. Pressure developed
d. Flare guns 1558. In a caliber .45 pistol. What is defective when more than
1547. The numerals, letters and symbols stamped into the
one bullets will come out of the barrel in one press of the
head of the cartridge case to shotshell to identify the
trigger?
manufacturer, caliber or gauge.
a. Headspace a. Slide
b. Headstamp b. Main spring
c. Proof mark c. Disconnector
d. ratchet d. Magazine catch
1548. The distance from the face of the closed breech of a 1559. The amount of force which must be applied to the
firearm to the surface in the chamber on which the trigger of a firearm to cause sear to be released.
cartridge seats.
a. Keyhole a. Velocity
b. Headspace b. Muzzle energy
c. Gas operator c. Trigger pull
d. Silencer d. Shocking power
1549. The most important single process in barrel 1560. Characteristic of photographic paper usually utilized in
manufacture from the standpoint of the identification police photography?
expert. a. Single, glossy, white
b. Single, matte, cream
a. Reaming operation
c. Double, glossy, white
b. Rifling operation
d. Double matte, cream
c. Boring operation
1561. When a photograph was developed, the objects in open
d. Grinding operation
space casts a deep and uniform shadow, what was the
1550. The tumbling of the bullet in flight and hitting the target
lighting condition when the shot was taken?
sideways; a. Bright
a. Ricochet b. Dull
b. Hang-fire c. Hazy
c. Key hole shot d. Cloudy
d. misfired
1551. An obsolete barrel designed in which the major length
of the barrel in smooth and the few inches are rifled. 1562. Refers to the response of film to different wavelength of
a. Gas operated light source.
b. Damascus barrel a. Spectral sensitivity
c. Paradox gun b. Color sensitivity
d. Cape gun c. Light sensitivity
1552. A notched wheel on the rear of a revolver cylinder to d. Film sensitivity
rotate when force is applied by a level called a hand. 1563. A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color only.
a. Headspace a. Blue sensitive
b. Ratchet b. Orthochromatic
c. Trigger pull c. Panchromatic
d. Cylinder stop d. Infra red
1553. A rigid loop which partially surrounds the trigger to 1564. Lighting condition when objects in open space casts no
shadow.
prevent accident discharge or damage to it.
a. Bright
a. Trigger pull b. Dull

Page 79 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. Hazy b. Bromide paper
d. Cloudy c. Contact paper
d. Chloro-bromide paper
1565. Lens corrected for astigmatism. 1578. This refers to the absence of all colors.
a. Aprochomat lens a. White
b. Anastigmat lens b. Red
c. Achromatic lens c. Blue
d. Rapid rectilinear lens d. Black
1566. A camera used for surveillance must have a lens with 1579. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space casts
focal length that is: a transparent shadow.
a. Wide angle lens a. Hazy
b. Normal lens b. Cloudy Dull
c. Telephoto lens c. Cloudy bright
d. Narrow angle lens d. Bright
1567. When a material does not allow light to pass its medium 1580. To view watermarks in disputed documents, what
it is said to be: particular method of photography is utilized?
a. Transparent a. Bounce light
b. Translucent b. Side light
c. Opaque c. Transmitted light
d. All of the above d. Reflected light
1568. To separate colors, this homogenous medium absorbs 1581. Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of
and transmits light rays passing through it. two chemical solution in chemical processing in
a. Filter photography.
b. Stop bath a. Development
c. Developer b. Stop-bath
d. Fixer c. Fixation
1569. In crime scene photography what is the sufficient lens d. Bleaching
type for interior photograph? 1582. Which among the following comprises the essential
a. Wide angle lens parts of a camera?
b. Normal lens a. Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized
c. Telephoto lens material, View finder
d. Narrow angle lens b. Light tight box, Shutter, holder of sensitized
1570. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a material, View finder
predetermined time interval. c. Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of sensitized
a. View finder material, Shutter
b. Shutter d. Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens,
c. Light tight box holder of sensitized material
d. Holder of sensitized material 1583. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its
1571. Its primary use in photography is focus the light to the negative material.
subject. a. Wide angle lens
a. Light tight box b. Normal lens
b. Shutter c. Long lens
c. Lens d. Telephoto lens
d. View finder 1584. Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of
1572. It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is focused convergence of light coming from a subject as seen from
with a given particular diaphragm opening. two apertures.
a. Depth of field a. Focusing scale
b. Hyper-focal distance b. Scale bed
c. Focal distance c. View finder
d. Scale bed d. Range finder
1573. It is the distance measured from the nearest to the
farthest object.
a. Depth field
b. Hyper-focal distance 1585. It is a magnified picture of a small object produced by
c. Scale bed connecting the lens of a camera with the ocular of a
d. Focal distance compound microscope.
1574. Which among the following is not a primary color? a. Microphotograph
a. Red b. Photomicrograph
b. Blue c. Photomacrograph
c. Yellow d. Macrophotograph
d. Green 1586. Attributed as the person who first discovered first true
1575. It is a microscopically small photograph. photography.
a. Microphotograph a. William Henry Fox Talbot
b. Photomicrograph b. Thomas Wedgewood
c. Photomacrograph c. Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre
d. Macrophotograph d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
1576. The normal developing time of a paper or film. 1587. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at bright
a. 1 to 1 ½ minutes sunlight with normal subject.
b. 5 to 10 minutes a. 1/30 f-8
c. 20 to 30 minutes b. 1/125 f-11
d. 30 to 60 minutes c. 1/60 f-4
1577. In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal paper d. 1/250 f 2-8
for printing? 1588. In police photography, to obtain a general view of the
a. Chloride paper scene we use a camera at what particular level?

Page 80 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 a. Elevated c. Sodium carbonate
b. Eye level d. Potassium bromide
c. Bird’s eye view 1601. Refers to the product of illumination and time.
d. Worm’s eye view a. Exposure
1589. The wavelength of electromagnetic energy in reference b. Development
to visible light is: c. Sensitized material
a. 001 to 100 d. Photograph
b. 300 to 400 1602. Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging.
c. 400 to 700 a. Potassium Bromide
d. 700 to 1000 b. Sodium Sulfite
1590. Photography is defined as drawing with what particular c. Sodium Carbonate
element? d. Boric Acid
a. Light 1603. A homogenous mixture which absorbs and transmits
b. Camera differentially light rays passing through it.
c. Film a. Stop bath
d. Developer b. Fixer
1591. It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the thicker c. Filter
center and thinner sides. d. Dektol
a. Positive lens 1604. Papillary or friction ridges may be located at:
b. Negative lens a. Fingers
c. Concave lens b. Palms
d. Convex lens c. Soles of the feet
1592. It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to the d. All of the choices
various energies of the electromagnetic spectrum. 1605. The fingerprint classification which is used in the US and
a. Infra-red other English speaking country.
b. X-ray a. Henry System
c. Orthochromatic b. Batley System
d. Panchromatic c. Bertillion System
1593. The first use of photography in police work is in what d. Galton System
particular field? 1606. Which among the following is considered as a basic type
a. Crime prevention of ridge characteristics?
b. Identification files a. Ridge endings
c. Surveillance work b. Bifurcation
d. Crime scene investigation c. Dots
1594. The chemical processing step wherein the latent image d. All of the choices
recorded on the paper or film becomes visible. 1607. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of
a. Fixer papillary ridges as means of identification.
b. Bleacher a. Edgeoscopy
c. Stop bath b. Poroscopy
d. Developer c. Podoscopy
d. Chiroscopy
1608. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the
1595. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of subject’s hand is:
microscope. a. Necessary
a. Microphotography b. Unnecessary
b. Photomicrography c. Optional
c. Macrophotography d. Excessive
d. Photomacrography 1609. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is:
1596. The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of image a. Temporary
refers to: b. Permanent
a. Hyper-focal distance c. Lasting
b. Focal distance d. Stable
c. Focusing 1610. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller.
d. Focal length a. Porelon
1597. Infrared radiation is also referred to as: b. Special pad
a. Laser light c. Inkless pad
b. Coherent light d. None of the foregoing
c. Black light 1611. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the
d. Heat rays impression are arbitrarily classified as.
1598. The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in a. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
logarithmic values refers to: b. Loops with ridge count
a. ISO rating c. Arches
b. ASA rating d. Dependent on ridge tracings
c. DIN rating 1612. Referred to as outer terminus:
d. BSI rating a. Delta
1599. Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing b. Dots
solution. c. Bifurcation
a. Hypo or silver halide d. None of the foregoing
b. Potassium Alum 1613. Failure to clean the slab after using it produces:
c. Sodium Sulfate a. Impression of false markings
d. Acetic Acid b. Accentuation of patterns
1600. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution. c. Pattern reversals
a. Hydroquinone d. Difficulty in photographing
b. Sodium sulfite

Page 81 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1614. In taking fingerprints ______ are rolled away from the d. Resembling a loop
body of the subject.
a. All fingers
b. All fingers except the thumbs 1626. Which part of the human body has no papillary ridges.
c. Both thumbs a. Soles of the foot
d. Both little fingers b. Palm
1615. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the c. Finger
fingerprint card are referred to as: d. Elbow
a. Rolled impressions 1627. Points often missed in rolling impression.
b. Plain impressions a. Bifurcation
c. Fragmentary impressions b. Core
d. Visible impressions c. Delta
1616. Known for his rule which states that “No two individuals d. Ridge
in the world are exactly the same size and that human 1628. Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an
skeleton does not change after 20 years. impression or imprint.
a. Darwin a. Latent print
b. Mendel b. Pattern
c. Galton c. Loop
d. Bertillon d. Arch
1617. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint, is to 1629. Which among the following is not considered as a basic
view the area: fingerprint pattern?
a. Obliquely a. Loop
b. About half an inch distance b. Arch
c. Directly c. Whorl
d. About one inch distance d. Accidental
1618. Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of 1630. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence
pattern are represented: of spirals around core axes.
a. Accidental Whorl a. Whorl
b. Central pocket loop b. Central pocket loop
c. Double loop c. Double loop
d. Whorl d. Accidental
1619. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops, 1631. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on
with its respective shoulder and deltas. papillary ridges as a means of identification.
a. Double loop a. Poroscopy
b. Accidental loop b. Edgeoscopy
c. Central pocket loop c. Podoscopy
d. Whorl d. Dactyloscopy
1620. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but it has two 1632. A ridge which forks out into two ridges.
deltas. a. Delta
a. Accidental loop b. Bifurcation
b. Double loop c. Core
c. Whorl d. Pores
d. Central pocket loop 1633. Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or
1621. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the ridges from the little finger toward the thumb.
thumb toward the little finger? a. Ulnar loop
a. Tented Arch b. Radial loop
b. Radial loop c. Arch
c. Ulnar loop d. Whorl
d. Loop 1634. Basis of fingerprint identification.
1622. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on a. Pores
either side of the impression by a recurve, and terminate b. Ridges
on the same side where the ridge has entered. c. Friction ridges
a. Tented arch d. Latent print
b. Radial loop 1635. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable method
c. Ulnar loop of identification due to following reason; except:
d. Loop a. Fingerprints are not changeable
1623. It is a triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation of b. There are no two identical fingerprints
a ridge at the outer portion of the pattern. c. Wounded or burned out patterns will re-appear
a. Latent prints d. It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy
b. Ridge
c. Core 1636. Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are
d. Delta formed and developed?
a. 3rd month of fetus life
1624. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are: b. 6th month of infancy
a. Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts c. At birth
b. Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges and spurs d. 3 months after birth
c. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations 1637. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a
d. Type lines, converging ridges and recurving loop, spiral or rod.
ridges a. Delta
1625. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a b. Core
single ridge is called: c. Ridge
a. Enclosure ridge d. Whorl
b. Dot ridges 1638. Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify the
c. Short ridges identity between two points.

Page 82 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 a. Nine b. 7 quarts
b. Twelve c. 8 quarts
c. Fifteen d. 9 quarts
d. Eighteen 1650. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about
1639. Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical and 65% of the blood.
chemical properties, physiological action, treatment and a. Platelets
method of detection. b. Fibrin
a. Forensic Chemistry c. Leucocytes
b. Toxicology d. Plasma
c. Posology 1651. It is the oxygen carrier of the blood.
d. Forensic Medicine a. Plasma
1640. A substance which when introduced into the body is b. Hemoglobin
absorbed in the blood stream and acting chemically is c. Erythrocytes
capable of producing noxious effect. d. Fibrin
a. Drugs 1652. Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is
b. Dangerous drugs decomposed and stained with contamination.
c. Poison a. Benzidine test
d. Antidotes b. Van Deen’s Test
1641. Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of the c. Phenolphthalein test
mucus membrane and characterized by vomiting, pain in d. Precipitin test
the abdomen and purging. 1653. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof
a. Corrosives that subject is definitely blood.
b. Irritants a. Preliminary test
c. Narcotics b. Confirmatory test
d. Tetanics c. Precipitin test
1642. When a substance acts directly upon the spinal cord d. Blood typing and grouping
producing immobility or stiffness to the parts to which 1654. Test to determine whether blood is of human origin or
they are attached, it is classified as: not.
a. Corrosives a. Preliminary test
b. Irritants b. Confirmatory test
c. Narcotics c. Precipitin test
d. Tetanics d. Blood typing and grouping
1643. In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an important
application in: 1655. Positive result in the preliminary examination for semen
a. Counterfeit coins in Barberio’s test.
b. Theft and Robbery a. Picric acid
c. Bombs and Explosives b. Spermine picrate
d. Restoration of tampered serial numbers c. Napthol diazonium
1644. Agents which depress or retard the physiological action d. Anthraquinous chloride
of an organ. 1656. Animal fiber may be best described by:
a. Corrosives a. It is composed of protein
b. Sedatives b. Gives yellow fluorescence under ultra violet light
c. Tetanics c. It burns fast
d. Narcotics d. It has acid like odor when burned
1657. When gunpowder explodes, this would determine the
1645. According to the methods of isolation, what poison is approximate time of firing the gun?
isolated by means of distillation. a. Soot
a. Volatile poisons b. Nitrates and nitrites
b. Non volatile poisons c. Gases
c. Metallic poisons d. Metallic fragments
d. Tetanic poisons 1658. In determining whether the hair is of human or animal
1646. When the effect of a poison is marked by disturbance of origin what should the chemist examine under the
function or death within a short time, the poisoning is microscope?
classified as: a. Parts of the shaft
a. Acute poisoning b. Parts of the tip
b. Sub-acute poisoning c. Parts of the hair
c. Chronic poisoning d. Parts of the root
d. Suicidal poisoning 1659. A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns blue
1647. When the action of the poison is marked by disturbance litmus to red, it is:
produced in distant part from the site of application, it is a. Cotton
classified as: b. Silk
a. Local c. Fiber glass
b. Remote d. Steel wool
c. Combined 1660. It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a race
d. Acute determinant?
a. Cortex
1648. Referred to as the circulating tissue of the body. b. Cuticle
a. Semen c. Medulla
b. Blood d. Shaft
c. Cells 1661. A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of
d. Muscles human or animal origin
1649. A man of average built would normally have how many a. Ignition test or burning
quarts of blood? b. Fluorescence analysis
a. 6 quarts c. Chemical analysis

Page 83 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. Microscopic analysis c. Opacity examination
1662. Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches is d. Microscopic examination
ineffective. 1675. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying
a. Carbon body.
b. Logwood a. Chloride
c. Nigrosine b. Ammonia
d. Gallotanic c. Carbon dioxide
1663. Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its d. Hydrogen sulfide
effects. 1676. The application of chemical principles in the examination
a. Emetics of evidence.
b. Antidotes a. Forensics
c. Alkaloids b. Criminalistics
d. Tetanics c. Instrumentation
1664. Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence d. Forensic Chemistry
when exposed to u.v. light? 1677. To positively determine the presence of blood in stained
a. Blood material, what test is used?
b. Semen a. Takayama Test
c. Saliva b. Phenolphtalien test
d. Urine c. Baberio’s test
1665. Oldest known explosive. d. Florence test
a. Black powder 1678. According to the method of isolation, volatile poisons
b. Smoke powder may be isolated by means of what process?
c. Dynalite a. Extraction
d. TNT b. Dilution
1666. Deals with the study and identification by means of body c. Distillation
fluids. d. Dialysis
a. Immunology 1679. Which of the following is not an accurate test for the
b. Serology presence of alcohol in the human body?
c. Posology a. Saliva test
d. Pharmacology b. Harger breath test
1667. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster c. Fecal test
moulds. d. Drug test
a. Casting 1680. A disturbance produced by poison on that part with
b. Cementing which the poison came into contact.
c. Moulage a. Acute
d. Pickling b. Local
1668. Major component of a glass. c. Remote
a. Lime d. Combined
b. Silica 1681. A material which is used to which is used to improve the
c. Soda quality of the paper.
d. Lime a. Sizing material
1669. Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of b. Rosin
tissues and causes nausea. c. Gelatin
a. Corrosives d. Starch
b. Irritants 1682. By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color would be formed
c. Tetanics if it is pesent.
d. Asthenics a. Rosin
b. Starch
1670. A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity and c. Casein
rigidity. d. Gelatin
a. Lime 1683. Oldest ink material known to man.
b. Soda a. Logwood
c. Glass b. Nigrosine
d. Gel c. Carbon
1671. An organic bacterial poison. d. Gallotanic
a. Strychnine 1684. Only type of ink wherein age may be determined.
b. Ptomaine a. Logwood
c. Brucine b. Nigrosine
d. Chloroform c. Carbon
1672. This test is used to detect the presence of semen d. Gallotanic
particularly in stained clothing. 1685. It refers to the obscuring of writing by superimposing ink,
a. Microscopic test pencil or other marking material.
b. Barberio’s test a. Erasure
c. Florence test b. Obliterated writing
d. Ultraviolet test c. Indented writing
1673. The best method in comparative soil analysis. d. Contact writing
a. Chemical examination 1686. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with male
b. Density gradient test pelvis.
c. Ultra-violet light examination a. Greater
d. Microscopic test b. Equal
1674. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is c. Lesser
utilized? d. Less significant
a. Accelerated aging test
b. Bursting strength test

Page 84 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. Uremia
1698. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how
1687. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation in many hours when the blood has already clotted or
respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient to diffused to different parts of the body wherein the
declare a person clinically dead? discoloration is permanent and darker in color?
a. 10-15 minutes a. 12 hours
b. 15-30 minutes b. 24 hours
c. 30-45 minutes c. 36 hours
d. 45-60 minutes d. 48 hours
1699. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination with
1688. A simple test used to determine cessation of respiration either group A or B what would be the particular blood
by placing water or mercury in a container on top of the group of the sample.
chest of a person and no visible movement is noticed. a. Group A
a. Winslov test b. Group B
b. Florence test c. Group AB
c. Barberio test d. Group O
d. Castle Meyer test 1700. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit
1689. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the changes.
muscles and in which it no longer responds to a. 10 years
mechanical or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution b. 20 years
of proteins. c. 30 years
a. Stage of primary flaccidity d. 40 years
b. Stage of secondary flaccidity 1701. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white
c. Rigor mortis greasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.
d. Livor mortis a. Saponification
1690. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a b. Rigor mortis
dead body in how many days? c. Mummification
a. 7 d. Maceration
b. 14 1702. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood
c. 21 tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent
d. 28 portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after
1691. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm death and is completed by 12 hours.
countries within how many days from death? a. Rigor mortis
a. 1 b. Primary flaccidity
b. 2 c. Maceration
c. 3 d. Livor mortis
d. 4 1703. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after
1692. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone, meals.
loss of alignment of the affected bones and separation a. 2 to 3 hours
of fragment bones. b. 3 to 4 hours
a. Simple fracture c. 4 to 5 hours
b. Compound fracture d. 5 to 6 hours
c. Comminuted fracture 1704. Rate of growth of human hair.
d. None of the foregoing a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day
1693. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body. b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day
a. Internal hemorrhage c. 0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day
b. Hematoma d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day
c. Contusion 1705. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body
d. Internal wound temperature is about:
1694. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object. a. 10 to 15 deg. F
a. Imprint abrasion b. 15 to 20 deg. F
b. Pressure abrasion c. 20 to 25 deg. F
c. Friction abrasion d. 25 to 30 deg. F
d. Graze 1706. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
1695. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and with a. Wound
accompanying movement over the skin. b. Trauma
a. Pressure abrasion c. Bruise
b. Imprint abrasion d. Scratch
c. Impact abrasion 1707. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious
d. Graze that it will endanger one’s life.
1696. A nervous disease marked by seizures with convulsion a. Non-mortal wound
and loss of consciousness. b. Mortal wound
a. Epilepsy c. Trauma
b. Apoplexy d. Coup injury
c. Catalepsy 1708. A collection of blood underneath the skin.
d. Uremia a. Contusion
1697. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily b. Bruise
eliminated in the urine; specifically a toxic condition seen c. Petechiae
in urinary suppression, marked by nausea, vertigo, d. Hematoma
vomiting, coma and convulsion. 1709. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles
causing skin discoloration and extreme pain.
a. Epilepsy a. Sprain
b. Apoplexy b. Contusion
c. Catalepsy c. Fracture

Page 85 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. Dislocation c. 30 years
1710. It is fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is d. 40 years
evident. 1722. A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of
a. Simple respiration, circulation and almost all brain function of
b. Compound an organism.
c. Comminuted a. Somatic death
d. Dislocation b. Cellular death
1711. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone c. Molecular death
without external wounds. d. Apparent death
a. Sprain 1723. Manner of walking of a person which may be natural
b. Fracture a. Mannerism
c. Hematoma b. Tic
d. Dislocation c. Gait
1712. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of d. Body language
tissue and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained 1724. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to 30
that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of minutes and is characterized by the relaxation of the
the body to the gun is approximately. muscles and loss of their natural tone.
a. 6 inches a. Stage of primary flaccidity
b. 12 inches b. Post mortem rigidity
c. 18 inches c. Cadaveric spasm
d. 24 inches d. Secondary flaccidity
1713. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the
opposite site of the application of force.
a. Extensive injury 1725. Approximate time for the completion of one case for
b. Coup injury DNA testing.
c. Contre coup injury a. Minimum of 2 weeks
d. Coup and contre coup injury b. Minimum of 4 weeks
1714. A physical injury found at the site of the application of c. Minimum of six weeks
force. d. Minimum of eight weeks
a. Extensive injury
b. Coup injury 1726. Period of time wherein there body would be
c. Contre coup injury skeletonized, under normal conditions in tropical
d. Coup and contre coup injury countries.
a. 1 month
1715. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log and b. 3 months
stone. c. 6 months
a. Punctured wound d. 12 months
b. Hack wound 1727. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable
c. Lacerated wound muscular change.
d. Incised wound a. Cold stiffening
b. Heat stiffening
1716. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what c. Instantaneous rigor
wound would be exhibited? d. Putrefaction
a. Punctured wound 1728. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood
b. Hack wound vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body.
c. Lacerated wound a. Diffusion lividity
d. Incised wound b. Clotting of the blood
1717. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife. c. Rigor mortis
a. Punctured wound d. Hypostatic lividity
b. Hack wound 1729. Approximate average amount of semen per ejaculation
c. Lacerated wound under normal conditions.
d. Incised wound a. 2 to 2.5 cc
1718. The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows ACGT, A b. 2.5 to 5 cc
stands for what? c. 5 to 10 cc
a. Adenine d. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
b. Adenide 1730. DNA is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is regarded
c. Adenum as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands for?
d. Adenoid a. Deonatural acid
1719. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what b. Dynamic natural anti-body
sample should be obtained for DNA testing? c. Deoxyribonucleic acid
a. Fingerprints d. Deoxyribunucliec acid
b. Hair 1731. A powerful tool in identification which points to the
c. Skeleton source of biological evidence by matching it with
d. Teeth samples from the victims, suspects and their relatives.
1720. It is inherited from the mother found in the mitochondria a. DNA profiling
which is in the cell body b. Serology
a. Nuclear DNA c. Instrumentation
b. Helix d. Forensics
c. Mitochondrial DNA 1732. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good
d. DNA nucleus sources of cells.
1721. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit a. Saliva and tears
changes. b. Semen and saliva
a. 10 years c. Urine and semen
b. 20 years d. Semen and blood

Page 86 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1733. Human being’s tissue attached to the body which may c. Sternum
undergo DNA testing. d. Tibia
a. Hair 1746. A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and bones,
b. Bone considered as the most severe burn causing death due
c. Skin to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and massive
d. Fingernails infection.
1734. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive action a. Sunburn
of its bacteria and enzyme. b. 1st degree burn
a. Primary flaccidity c. 2nd degree burn
b. Post mortem rigidity d. 3rd degree burn
c. Cadaveric spasm 1747. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5
d. Putrefaction minutes would die, the case of death would be?
1735. Conclusive evidence that subject person is a female. a. Stupor
a. Possession of vagina b. Stroke
b. Possession of ovaries c. Asphyxia
c. Possession of estrogen d. Exhaustion
d. Possession of progesterone 1748. Most effective method in determining sex of an
individual.
1736. A person with big face and prominent cheek bones. a. Gonodal test
a. Hippocratic facie b. Social test
b. Mongolian facie c. Genital test
c. Myxedema facie d. Chromosomal test
d. Facies lionine 1749. Its medical-legal importance is to approximate the time
1737. Conclusive evidence that a person is a male. of death.
a. Presence of testis a. Cadaveric spasm
b. Presence of androsterone b. Putrefaction
c. Possession of penis c. Mascular contraction
d. Possession of testosterone d. Rigor mortis
1738. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to mucous 1750. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:
secretion of the respiratory track after death. a. Masturbation
a. “Cutis anserina” b. Fingering
b. Washerwoman c. Sodomy
c. “Champignon d’ ocume” d. Sexual intercourse
d. Cadaveric spasm 1751. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell
1739. It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body. occurs in:
a. Natural death a. 20 to 30 minutes
b. Molecular death b. 3 to 6 hours
c. Somatic death c. 12 to 24 hours
d. Apparent death d. 24 to 36 hours
1740. A type of burn produced as a result of the body coming 1752. Most noticeable sign of death.
into contact with a moving object. a. Cessation of respiration
a. Thermal burn b. Progressive fall of body temperature
b. Friction burn c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to move
c. Radiation burn d. Cessation of heart action and circulation
d. Electrical burn 1753. Most common and scientific method of detecting
1741. A condition of a woman who have had one or more deception.
sexual experience but not had conceived a child. a. Polygraphy
a. Moral virginity b. Polygraph
b. Demi-virginity c. Truth serum
c. Physical virginity d. Interrogation
d. Virgo intact 1754. Devised an instrument capable of continuously
1742. Refers to the action of a bacteria to a dead body. recording pulse rate, respiration and blood pressure.
a. Flaccidity a. William Marston
b. Rigidity b. Angelo Mosso
c. Lividity c. John Larson
d. Putrefaction d. Sticker
1743. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain
parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption
of cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and 1755. Psychological response to any demand.
diminished body temperature. a. Reaction
a. Gangrene b. Stress
b. Frostbite c. Pressure
c. Trench foot d. All of the above
d. Immersion foot 1756. For male subjects, what is the amount of air pressure is
1744. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the to be utilized in the system of cardio or vent.
breakdown of sweating mechanism. a. 30 mm
a. Heat cramp b. 60 mm
b. Heat exhaustion c. 90 mm
c. Heat stroke d. 120 mm
d. Burning 1757. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep
1745. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, which considered fit for polygraph examination.
part is not used? a. 5
a. Skull b. 6
b. Pelvis c. 7

Page 87 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. 8 1770. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions were
answered.
1758. Type of question related to the facts of the case and is a. Reaction
answerable by NO. b. Normal response
a. Relevant question c. Specific response
b. Irrelevant question d. Positive response
c. General question 1771. Normal time interval for pre-test interview.
d. Immaterial question a. 20 to 30 minutes
1759. Question known to the subject and is answerable by YES. b. 30 to 60 minutes
a. Relevant question c. 60 to 90 minutes
b. Irrelevant question d. 90 to 120 minutes
c. General question 1772. The primary objective of post test interview.
d. Immaterial question a. To thank the subject
1760. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that something b. To obtain confession
is hidden or obscure. c. To make the subject calm
a. Fear d. To explain polygraph test procedures
b. Deception
c. Detection 1773. The purpose of pretest interview.
d. Reaction a. To prepare subject for polygraph test
1761. An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector organ b. To obtain confession
or organism as a result of stimulation. c. To make the subject calm
a. Response d. To explain polygraph test procedures
b. Deception 1774. Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal
c. Detection pattern of response.
d. Reaction a. Relevant questions
1762. Refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, b. Irrelevant questions
which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power. c. Supplementary questions
a. Response d. Control questions
b. Reaction 1775. The number of basic tracings in the modern polygraph.
c. Stimuli a. 3
d. Fear b. 4
1763. This component drives the chart paper under the c. 5
recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 d. 6
inches per minute. 1776. Developed the systolic blood pressure method for
a. Cardiosphygmograph detecting deception.
b. Kymograph a. William Marston
c. Galvanograph b. Harold Burtt
d. Pneumograph c. John Larson
1764. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of d. Leonarde Keeler
the subject.
a. Finger electrode plate 1777. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure
b. Diacritic notch changes were signs of deception.
c. Rubber convoluted tube a. William Marston
d. Kymograph b. Harold Burtt
1765. This component record changes of the subject blood c. Leonard Keeler
pressure and pulse rate. d. John Larson
a. Cardiosphygmograph 1778. Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph
b. Sphygmomanometer procedure for accused persons.
c. Galvanograph a. Angelo Mosso
d. Pneumograph b. Veraguth
1766. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small amount c. Lombroso
of electricity. d. Vittorio Benussi
a. Cardisphygmograph 1779. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin reflex.
b. Sphygmomanometer a. Angelo Mosso
c. Galvanograph b. Veraguth
d. Pneumograph c. Lombroso
1767. This component records the changes in the breathing of d. Vittorio Benussi
the subject. 1780. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with
a. Cardisphygmograph measurement, respiration component and blood
b. Sphygmomanometer pressure.
c. Galvanograph a. Harold Burtt
d. Pneumograph b. Hans Gross
1768. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to c. Leonarde Keeler
deceive others. d. John Larson
a. Black lie 1781. Refers to any specimen or writing executed normally
b. White lie without any attempt to change or control its identifying
c. Red lie habits and its usual quality of execution.
d. Yellow lie a. Natural writing
1769. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the b. Disguised writing
relevant question. c. Cursive writing
a. Reaction d. System of writing
b. Normal response 1782. Jose Pidal in trying to fake his own signature to hide his
c. Specific response identity is using:
d. Positive response a. Natural writing

Page 88 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 b. Disguised writing 1795. A signature written by the forger in his own style of
c. Cursive writing handwriting without attempting to copy to form of the
d. System of writing genuine signature.
1783. Writing in which are for most part joined together. a. Traced forgery
a. Natural writing b. Disguised forgery
b. Disguised writing c. Simulated forgery
c. Cursive writing d. Simple forgery
d. System of writing 1796. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful
1784. Usual deviations found between repeated specimen of type of forgery.
any individual handwriting or in the product of any a. Traced forgery
typewriter. b. Disguised forgery
a. Normal variation c. Simulated forgery
b. Natural variation d. Simple forgery
c. Tremor
d. Wrong hand writing 1797. Which among the following is an indication of
genuineness of handwriting?
1785. A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied a. Continuity
and assisted produces a: b. Smoothness
a. Guided signature c. Skillful writing
b. Normal signature d. Tremor
c. Scribble
d. Handwriting signature 1798. Document which is completely written and signed by
1786. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital the testator.
letters. a. Genuine document
a. Embellishment b. Disputed document
b. Beard c. Holographic document
c. Buckle knot d. Authentic document
d. Diacritic 1799. A document which contains some changes either as an
1787. A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal addition or deletion.
strokes. a. Altered documents
a. Hook b. Disputed document
b. Spur c. Obliterated document
c. Loop d. Inserted document
d. Staff 1800. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the
1788. An oblong curve found in small letters f,g,h and l. original undecipherable.
a. Hook a. Decipherment
b. Spur b. Restoration
c. Loop c. Obliteration
d. Staff d. Interlineation
1789. The introductory backward stroke added to the staff of 1801. A class of signature for routine document or day to day
many capital letters and which can also be seen correspondence.
occasionally in introductory strokes of small letters. a. Formal
a. Embellishment b. Complete
b. Beard c. Cursory
c. Buckle knot d. Careless scribble
d. Hitch 1802. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important
1790. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter. documents.
a. Embellishment a. Complete
b. Beard b. Cursory
c. Buckle knot c. Informal
d. Diacritic d. Careless scribble
1791. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes. 1803. A process by which a canal like outline is produced on a
a. Embellishment fraudulent document underneath the genuine and
b. Hump tracing it with the use of pointed instrument.
c. Diacritic a. Carbon process
d. Knot b. Indention process
1792. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious c. Projection process
recurrence of stress of impulse. d. Transmitted light process
a. Line quality 1804. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier
b. Rhythm than the rest of its outline.
c. Baseline a. Off its feet
d. Writing pressure b. Twisted letter
1793. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or c. Clogged type face
intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surface d. Rebound
with increase pressure.
a. Writing pressure
b. Shading 1805. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is
c. Pen emphasis almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular habits
d. Natural variation reacting from fixed mental impressions.
1794. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests. a. Handwriting
a. Line quality b. Writing
b. Baseline c. Typewriting
c. Foot d. Writing movement
d. Hitch

Page 89 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1806. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation a. Lee and Abbey
and pen-lifts difficult. b. Rolando Wilson
a. Ball point pen c. Levine
b. Fountain pen d. Landsteiner
c. Iron nutgall ink 1819. A kind of document executed by a person in authority
d. Markers and by private parties but notarized by competent
1807. Disconnection between letters or letter combination officials.
due to lack of movement control. a. Official document
a. Pen lift b. Public document
b. Retouching c. Commercial document
c. Patching d. Private document
d. Retracing 1820. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine coin.
1808. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on a. False coin
the paper during manufacture. b. Counterfeit coin
a. Water marks c. Priceless coin
b. Fiber marks d. Mutilation of coin
c. Paper design 1821. It refers to the printing surface of a type block.
d. Wire marks a. Character
1809. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what b. Design
particular condition is manifested? c. Pitch
a. Grainy image d. Type face
b. Two image 1822. Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon which the
c. Overlapping image writing rests.
d. Three dimensional image a. Base
1810. An element which is added to complete another letter. b. Baseline
a. Spur c. Foot
b. Slant d. Staff
c. Diacritics 1823. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what
d. Arc has been effaced.
1811. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place, a. Decipherment
purpose and normal writing conditions. b. Collation
a. Complete signature c. Obliteration
b. Standard signature d. Comparison
c. Evidential signature 1824. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their
d. Model signature identifying characteristics.
1812. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening a. Comparison
of the ink stroke. b. Collation
a. Shading c. Conclusion
b. Pen emphasis d. Examination
c. Pen lift
d. Pen pressure
1813. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of 1825. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with
paper money. the source of illumination behind it and the light
a. Quality of the engraving passing through the paper.
b. Color of the seal a. Transmitted light examination
c. Wet strength of the paper b. Oblique photography examination
d. Watermarks c. Infrared examination
1814. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made d. Ultraviolet examination
inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine 1826. The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a
coin. person from his handwriting.
a. Priceless coin a. Questioned Document Examination
b. Mutilated coin b. Polygraphy
c. False coin c. Graphology
d. All of the choices d. Psychology
1815. It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal 1827. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet.
strokes made by the momentum of the hand. a. Projectile
a. Tremor b. Ball
b. Tremors of fraud c. Shell
c. Genuine tremor d. Missile
d. Deterioration 1828. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at
1816. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters. the same time it leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the
a. Staff time it hits the target.
b. Slant a. Interior ballistics
c. Diacritics b. Exterior ballistics
d. Humps c. Terminal ballistics
d. Posterior ballistics
1817. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the 1829. The science which deals with the effect of the impact of
horizontal inch. the projectile on the target.
a. Pica a. Interior ballistics
b. Elite b. Exterior ballistics
c. Proportional spacing machine c. Terminal ballistics
d. Adding machine d. Posterior ballistics
1818. Developed the system of handwriting classification 1830. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.
utilized by most police departments. a. Trigger

Page 90 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 b. Hammer 1843. Invented the gunpowder.
c. Sear a. Chinese
d. Main spring b. James Forsythe
c. Van Amberg
1831. Applied to a shotgun which indicates bore diameter is d. Berthold Schwartz
equal to the diameter of the lead ball whose weight in 1844. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition placed
pound equal to reciprocal gauge index. into gun chamber.
a. Caliber a. Cartridge
b. Gauge b. Primer
c. Shot c. Bullet
d. Charge d. Shell
1832. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a 1845. The measurement of the bore diameter from land to
single round lead ball. land.
a. Shotgun a. Gauge
b. Rifle b. Mean diameter
c. Musket c. Caliber
d. Pistol d. Riflings
1833. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of 1846. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the
lead pellets in one charge. firing of the cartridge.
a. Shotgun a. Hammer
b. Rile b. Ejector
c. Musket c. Trigger
d. Pistol d. Firing pin
1834. Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore 1847. Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet.
against the force of the charge. a. Breech
a. Breechblock b. Ogive
b. Breechface c. Rim
c. Ejector d. Pitch
d. Extractor 1848. A smooth bore military firearm which has no riflings.
1835. Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be a. Shotgun
withdrawn from the chamber. b. Rifle
a. Breechblock c. Pistol
b. Breechface d. Revolver
c. Ejector 1849. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to
d. Extractor prevent leading.
1836. Channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel. a. Jacketed bullet
a. Rifling b. Metal cased bullet
b. Land c. Metal point bullet
c. Groove d. Plated bullet
d. Cannelure 1850. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting the
1837. Rearward movement of a firearm from firing. target sideways.
a. Recoil a. Key hole shot
b. Force b. Ricochet
c. Backfire c. Hang fire
d. Shot force d. Misfire
1838. Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due to 1851. A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification.
sliding friction when the bullet passes through it. a. Interior
a. Erosion b. Exterior
b. Rusting c. Terminal
c. Corrosion d. Forensic
d. Decomposition 1852. Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in
1839. Distance that the rifling advances to make one compete forensic ballistics.
turn. a. 3 test bullets/shell
a. Pitch of rifling b. 4 test bullets
b. Choke c. 5 test bullets/shell
c. Trajectory d. 6 test bullets/shell
d. Recoil 1853. It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen
1840. Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a complete in side by side position.
unfired unit a. Drag marks
a. Bullet b. Positively matched
b. Primer c. Juxtaposition
c. Gunpowder d. Pseudomatch
d. All of the choices 1854. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
1841. Most common individual characteristic that are visible a. Range
on the base portion of then fired cartridge. b. Trajectory
a. Firing pin impression c. Velocity
b. Ejector marks d. Yaw
c. Extractor marks 1855. Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set on fire
d. Chamber marks when it is projected.
1842. Failure of cartridge to discharge. a. Incendiary bullet
a. Misfire b. Ball bullet
b. Hang fire c. Tracer bullet
c. Ricochet d. Explosive bullet
d. Key hole shot

Page 91 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1856. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from c. Rifling marks
what particular part? d. Shearing marks
a. From land to land 1869. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of
b. From land to groove projectiles.
c. From groove to groove a. Caliper
d. From groove to land b. Chronograph
c. Test bullet
d. Bullet recovery box
1857. Revolver is distinguished from pistol by: 1870. Refers to the means of recognizing the characteristics of
a. Frame persons so as to differentiate him from others
b. Barrel a. Dactyloscopy
c. Slide assembly c. Identification
d. Rotating cylinder b. Personal
1858. The term double action in a firearm means. d. Comparison
a. Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously 1871. Considered to be first scientific method of Identification
b. Manually cocks the hammer in person done by measuring various bony structure of
c. Autoloads before firing the human body.
d. Double pressing of trigger
a. Portrait-Parle
1859. Regarded as the father of ballistics,
a. Albert Osborne b. Photography
b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard c. Antropometry
c. Hans Gross d. Anthropometry
d. Charles Waite 547. The following are principles in personal
1860. Raised portion between the groove found inside the Identification, except.
barrel.
a. Land a. Law of individuality
b. Caliber
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence
c. Gauge
b. Law of infallibility
d. Rifling
1861. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet. d. Law of constancy
a. Yaw 1872. Which of the following personal Identification is not
b. Trajectory easy to change?
c. Velocity a. Hair
d. Gyroscopic action b. Speech
1862. A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular
c. Dress
firearm?
a. Rifle d. personal pharapernalia
b. Revolver 1873. Considered to be one of the most infallible means of
c. Pistol Identification.
d. Sub-machine gun a. DNA fingerprinting
1863. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface b. Dactyloscopy
of the bore. c. Fingerprint Identification
a. Rifling
d. Photography
b. Breaching
c. Ogive 1874. Identification of person can be done either by
d. Swaging Comparison or by____?
1864. A primer with two vents or flash holes. a. Exclusion
a. Bordan primer b. Examination
b. Berdan primer c. Experimentation
c. Boxer primer d. Inclusion
d. Battery primer
1875. The person credited for the discovery of the two main
1865. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are
usually classified as: layers of the friction skin.
a. Flare guns a. Alphonse Bertillion
b. Zip guns b. Marcelo Malpighe
c. Matchlock c. Herman Welcker
d. Freakish device d. J.C.A. Mayer
1866. The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when
1876. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved from
fired cartridges are concerned.
a. Extractor marks white jade containing the name and the thumb print of
b. Ejector marks the owner.
c. Chamber marks a. Tien Chi
d. Breech face marks b. Tein Chi
1867. It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s c. Tein Shi
failure to explode on time. d. Tien Shi
a. Misfire
1877. He is known to be the father of personal Identification
b. Hang fire
c. Ricochet having devised the first scientific method of personal
d. Key hole shot Identification.
1868. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily a. John Dellinger
barrel or its lands have been worn down would produce b. Cesare Lombroso
what kind of markings? c. John F. W. Herschel
a. Slippage marks
d. Alphonse Bertillion
b. Skid marks

Page 92 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 1878. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of 1887. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is
forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change, possibility for two prints to be the same it is
except for some scratches due to old age. 1:63,000,000,000.
a. Herman Welcker a. Francis Bacon
b. Marcelo Malpighi b. Francis Galton
c. J.C.A. Mayer c. J.C.A. Mayer
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji d. Herman Welker
1879. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for 1888. The person who used the system of identification which
signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native. was accepted by Spanish countries.
a. William Herschel a. Juan Vucetich
b. Dr. Henry Faulds b. Henry Faulds
c. Dr. Francis Galton c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
d. Sir Edward Henry d. William Herschel
1880. Is person considered to be the father of modern 1889. Is the law which states that the greater the number of
fingerprint. His system of classification was accepted in the similarity or differences the more probability for the
almost all English speaking country. conclusion to be correct.
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry
b. Juan Vucetich a. Law of Infallability
c. Alphonse Bertillion b. Law of Multiplicity of evidence
d. Dr. Hans Gross c. Law of Permenancy
1881. Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges d. Law of Barcelinity
and pores of the hand and feet which was read before 1890. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word?
the Royal Society of London. a. Greek word
a. Nehemiah Grew b. French word
b. G. Bidloo c. Latin word
c. Hintze d. English word
d. Albinus 1891. If screw driver is for mechanic. What is used by a
1882. A system of Identification best used in case of burned photographer?
body. A. Filter
a. Fingerprint B. Camera
b. Skeletal Identification C. Firearm
c. Odontology D. Handcuff
d. Photography 1892. Can exptert in Ballistics testify witout photograph or
demonstration?.
a. Yes
1883. The following are characteristics of man which can b. Partly Yes
easily be changed EXCEPT? c. No
d. Partly No
a. Hair Growth 1893. Burned document or charred document is best
b. Body Ornamentation examined by.
c. Speech a. Infrared Photography
d. Clothing b. Ultraviolet Photography
1884. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives c. Macro Photography
recognition to the science of fingerprint? d. Micro Photography
a. People vs. Medina 1894. The average age of menopausal period of women to
b. US vs. Jennings take place.
c. Miranda vs. Arizona a. 50 yrs old
d. West Case b. 45 yrs old
1885. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first c. 35 yrs old
individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using d. 42 yrs old
his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent 1895. Mustache and beard begin to appear in male at the age
tampering with the pay order he issued. of.
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier a. 14-16
b. Gilbert Thompson b. 13-15
c. Capt James Parke c. 16 to 18
d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores d. 12-14
1886. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive 1896. Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New a. 14
York Police Dept. and FBI. b. 13
a. Generoso Reyes c. 16
b. Isabela Bernales d. 12
c. Patricio Agustin 1897. In a robbery case, close up photographs must be taken
d. Marcelo Bonifacio to show:
a. Entrance
b. Entrance and Exit

Page 93 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. Exit b. Marcelo Malpighe
d. Either a or b c. Herman Welcker
1898. The development of breast in female commences at d. J.C.A. Mayer
the age of.
a. 13 to 14 1908. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved from
b. 12 to 13 white jade containing the name and the thumb print of
c. 10-11 the owner.
d. 11 to 12 a. Tien Chi
b. Tein Chi
1899. In photography, when we say tripod, how many stands c. Tein Shi
are there? d. Tien Shi
a. 2 1909. He is known to be the father of personal Identification
b. 3.5 having devised the first scientific method of personal
c. 4 Identification.
d. 5 a. John Dellinger
b. Cesare Lombroso
1900. The first police surgeon or forensic pathologist who c. John F. W. Herschel
performed the autopsy of Julius Cesar. d. Alphonse Bertillion
a. Landsteinir 1910. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of
b. Zacchias forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change,
c. Antistus except for some scratches due to old age.
d. Hippocrates a. Herman Welcker
1901. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to a b. Marcelo Malpighi
normal light. c. J.C.A. Mayer
a. Ultra Violet Photography d. Johnnes E. Purkenji
b. Infra red photograhpy 1911. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for
c. Macro Photography signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native.
d. Micro photography a. William Herschel
1902. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the b. Dr. Henry Faulds
amount of light reaching the film by varying the length c. Dr. Francis Galton
of time, and it is considered as the door of the camera. d. Sir Edward Henry
a. Shutter 1912. He is considered to be the father of modern fingerprint.
b. lens His system of classification was accepted in almost all
c. obscura English speaking country.
d. view finder a. Sir Edward Richard Henry
1903. It covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg-like b. Juan Vucetich
formation. c. Alphonse Bertillion
d. Dr. Hans Gross
a. dermis 1913. Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges
b. Dermal papillae and pores of the hand and feet which was read before
c. papillae the Royal Society of London.
d. dermal a. Nehemiah Grew
1904. The morphological constituents of human hair are b. G. Bidloo
cuticle, cortex and medulla, is the statement correct? c. Hintze
a. Partly Yes d. Albinus
b. Partly No 1914. A system of Identification best used in case of burned
c. Yes body.
d. No a. Fingerprint
1905. It is the sensitized material that has the primary b. Skeletal Identification
function of recording the image that is focused upon it c. Odontology
by the lens of the camera. d. Photography
E. Filter 1915. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual
F. Film use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using his own
G. Firearm thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering with
H. Handcuff the pay order he issued.
1906. Considered to be first scientific method of Identification a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
in person done by measuring various bony structure of b. Gilbert Thompson
the human body. c. Capt James Parke
a. Portrait-Parle d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores
b. Photography 1916. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive
c. Antropometry examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New
d. Anthropometry York Police Dept. and FBI.
1907. The person credited for the discovery of the two main a. Generoso Reyes
layers of the friction skin. b. Isabela Bernales
a. Alphonse Bertillion

Page 94 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. Patricio Agustin c. more than 1cm
d. Marcelo Bonifacio d. more than 1mm
1917. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is 1927. Considered to be one of the most notorious criminal in
possibility for two prints to be the same it is U.S who attempt to destroy his friction skin with the
1:63,000,000,000. use of corrosive acid.
a. Francis Bacon a. John Derenger
b. Francis Galton b. John Dillenger
c. J.C.A. Mayer c. Robert James Pitts
d. Herman Welker d. Robert Joworski
1918. The person who used the system of identification which 1928. Are the strips of skin without coloring pigment and
was accepted by Spanish countries. without hair found on the palm of the hand and soles of
a. Juan Vucetich the feet?
b. Henry Faulds a. Epidermal skin
c. Sir Edward Richard Henry b. Papillary skin
d. William Herschel c. Friction
1919. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word? d. All of the choices
a. Greek word 1929. Is the outer layer of the Epidermis layer which covers
b. French word the skin?
c. Latin word a. Epidermis
d. English word b. Stratum corneum
1920. Is the science of fingerprint study, which deals with the c. Stratum Sangum
interpretation of one’s personality? d. Stratum musocum
a. Dactyloscopy 1930. Is the scientific study of the prints of the palm of the
b. Dactylomancy hands?
c. Dactylography a. Podoscopy
d. Dactylo-analysis b. Chiroscopy
1921. Is an impression designed by the ridges on the inside of c. Poroscopy
the last joint of the fingers and thumb on some smooth d. Chairoscopy
surface with the aid of sweet or ink? 1931. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called
a. Dactyloscopy pores) in an inked finger impression?
b. Dactyloanalysis a. sweat pores
c. Latent Print b. furrows
d. Fingerprint c. ridges
1922. Which of the following serves the importance of d. sweat duct
Poroscopy? 1932. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of
a. For determination of whether the prints belong the friction skin (found between ridges).
to a young or adult person. a. Pores
b. For Identification of person b. indentions
c. For determination of whether the prints was c. furrows
taken during the lifetime or after death of a d. duct
person 1933. What is the tiny openings on the skin from where sweat
d. B and C only is excreted?
1923. Is that parts of the friction skin which if damage will a. duct
constitute a permanent scar. b. furrows
a. Epidermis c. pores
b. Stratum corneum d. sweat glands
c. Dermis 1934. That part of the friction skin between the epidermis and
d. Stratum mucosum dermis layer which responsible for the ridge formation
1924. He is considered as the Father of Poroscopy. a. Generating layer
a. Francis Galton b. Dermal papillae
b. Marcelo Malpighe c. Sweat glands
c. John Herschel d. Dermis Papillary
d. Edmond Locard 1935. Is the principle in the study of fingerprint which states
that fingerprint is a reliable and positive means of
1925. Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across the Identification?
ridges. a. Principle of Individuality
a. Podoscopy b. Principle of Infallibility
b. Poroscopy c. Principle of Constancy
c. Chiroscopy d. Principle of Permanency
d. Edgeoscopy 1936. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side
1926. Up to what deep a cut or injury will constitute a of the pattern and flow to the other side with a rise or
permanent scar in a normal friction skin? wave in the center?
a. less than 1cm a. Loop
b. less than 1 mm b. tented arch

Page 95 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. plain arch c. divergence
d. exceptional arch d. enclosure
1937. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should 1947. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a
have _______ridge count. period?
a. 1 a. Lake
b. 2 b. ending ridge
c. at least 1 c. island ridge
d. 3 d. incipient ridge
1938. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, 1948. What ridge divides itself into or more branches that
or two of the three basic characteristics of the loop? meets to form the original figure?
a. Plain arch a. bifurcation
b. central pocket loop b. island ridge
c. tented arch c. lake ridge
d. accidental whorl d. convergence
1939. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or 1949. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the
slanting ridges flows towards the little finger? direction from which it started?
a. loop a. diverging ridge
b. radial loop b. recurving ridge
c. ulnar loop c. converging ridge
d. tented arc d. bifurcation
1950. Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge
1940. A type of a pattern consisting of a core, delta, recurving curves inward?
ridge and a ridge count of at least one. a. sufficient recurve
a. radial loop b. appendage
b. ulnar loop c. obstruction ridge
c. loop d. shoulder of loop
d. tented arch 1951. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving ridge
1941. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more which has spoiled the inner line of flow from the inner
deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete circuitry delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found in
and when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to the second type of central pocket loop.
right delta it touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s a. bar
considered as the most common type of whorl. b. appendage
a. plain whorl c. uptrust
b. central pocket loop whorl d. obstruction
c. double loop whorl 1952. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the
d. accidental whorl line flow above the right delta and there are three
1942. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is intervening ridges.
excluded in the combination? a. meeting whorl
a. ulnar loop b. outer whorl
b. plain whorl c. inner whorl
c. tented arch d. central pocket loop whorl
d. plain arch 1953. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular
1943. The core and delta are also termed as _____? ridge which is not included as a ridge count even if it
a. inner terminus has been cross by the imaginary line.
b. outer terminus a. ending ridge
c. focal point b. incipient ridge
d. pattern area c. intervening ridge
1944. A point on a ridge formation, in front or near the center d. enclosure
of the diverging typelines. 1954. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and
a. Core which resembles a fork structure
b. island ridge a. divergence
c. delta b. convergence
d. convergence c. bifurcation
1945. What is the rule where there are two or more possible d. enclosure
bifurcation deltas which conform to the definition of 1955. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its
delta? infants stage which usually starts:
a. the one nearest the core should be chosen a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
b. the one away from the core should be counted b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
c. the one which does not open towards the core c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
is counted
d. 5th to 6th months before birth
d. the one towards the core should be counted
1946. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously 1956. Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch.
running side by side? a. T
a. Bifurcation b. A
b. convergence c. P

Page 96 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. W c. Contaminated with colored substance
d. Molded Prints

1957. It is the process of counting the ridges which intervene 1967. In taking prints of the subject the technician always
between the delta and core of a loop? instruct the subject to:
a. ridge tracing a. Stand straight
b. ridge counting b. Cooperate
c. ridge tracking c. Relax
d. ridge summing d. Help the technician rolling
1958. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the 1968. One of the cardinal rule in taking of fingerprints of the
fingerprint ink to the slab? subject is that fingers must be:
a. Fingerprint brush a. Healthy
b. Fingerprint lifting tapes b. Dry
c. Fingerprint roller c. Moisten
d. fingerprint card d. Oily
1959. The fingerprint card used in recording the subject print 1969. In taking prints of the subject what fingers are rolled
has a size of: away from the body of the subjects
a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½” a. Both thumbs
b. 8” x 8” b. All eight fingers
c. 9” x 9” c. All fingers including thumbs
d. 8” x 10” d. All fingers except the thumbs
1960. The fingerprint card used in court exhibit the card has a 1970. An instrument used to hold or secure fingerprint cards
size of: in taking fingerprint of a dead person
a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½” a. Card holder
b. 8” x 8” b. Spatula
c. 9” x 9” c. Strip holder
d. 8” x 10” d. Forceps
1961. Is a piece of plane glass or metal where the fingerprint 1971. When taking fingers for the purpose of taking rolled
ink is distributed for fingerprinting? impression the fingers must be inked from______ to
a. Card Holder base of the first joint.
b. Fingerprint roller a. a. Base
c. Fingerprint transfer card b. Tip
d. ink slab c. second joint
1962. A chemical compound used in conventional developing d. third joint
of latent prints being one of the best methods that can 1972. Occupational problems such as acid works, plasters,
be utilized by a fingerprint technician. cement mixer usually causes weak friction skin and such
a. Fingerprint powder is known as:
b. Fingerprint Brush a. Permanent Disabilities
c. Fingerprint Fuming Device b. Temporary Deformities
d. Inkless Inking Device c. Permanent Destructions
1963. Is an instrument used for clipping the fingerprint card to d. Deformities
avoid movement of the card during printing? 1973. Is the term applied to a person whose fingers are more
a. Card Holder than the usual number in both hands?
b. Forceps a. Polyfinger
c. Carrying Case b. Deformities
d. Fingerprint card clip c. Polydactyl
1964. Is a card used in recording and preserving developed d. Bidactyl
latent print? 1974. Is the process of placing under each pattern the letter
a. Fingerprint lifting tapes symbols as a result of the interpretation?
b. Fingerprint transfer card a. Checking
c. Evidence Identification tags b. Identification
d. Post-mortem fingerprint Equipment c. Classification
1965. Is the type of an impression made or printed on the d. Blocking
card by individually rolling the ten fingers of the 1975. Three blocks after finger number 4 is what finger.
subject. a. left thumb
a. Latent Prints b. index finger
b. Rolled Impression c. left index
c. Plain Impression d. left middle
d. Molded Impression 1976. It is the division in the fingerprint classification which is
1966. Is the type of impression taken simultaneously and always represented by a numerical value depending
serves as a guide in checking the proper rolling of the upon a whorl pattern appearing on each finger.
finger in the card? a. key division
a. Rolled Impression b. major division
b. Plain Impression c. primary division

Page 97 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 d. final division d. Exceptional
1977. In getting the Secondary Division of a given fingerprint 1987. What do you call a loop in the left thumb having a ridge
from what finger does the Capital letter is derived. count of 17 or more.
a. thumb a. Small
b. index b. Medium
c. little finger c. Large
d. middle finger d. Exceptional
1978. The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum of the numerator 1988. What division in the fingerprint classification is derived
and the denominator in the primary division is ____. by ridge counting a loop and tracing a whorl on the
a. so that there will be an equal value thumb.
b. to complete the primary div. a. Key Division
c. to have a complete 32 numerical value b. Final Division
d. for formality c. Major Division
1979. What patterns are included in the small letter d. Secondary Division
classification under the secondary division. 1989. What division in the classification is place at extreme
a. Radial loop, plain arch and Tented arch right of the fingerprint card represented by a numerical
b. Rdial loop, Unar loop and Arch value.
c. Radial loop, Plain Arch and Ulnar loop a. key
d. Radial Loop, Arch, and Tented Arch b. final
c. Major
1980. In ridge counting a loop on the middle finger what is the d. Primary
classification of 14 ridge count. 1990. Final Division is derived by getting the ridge count of a
a. Inner Loop loop or a whorl appearing on the;
b. Outer Loop a. Little Finger
c. Medium b. Thumb Finger
d. Small c. Index Finger
1981. What patterns are almost always represented by a dash d. Middle Finger
in the classification formula except in the secondary 1991. The key Division is derived by getting the ridge count of
division. the
a. Ulnar loop and Plain Arch a. ulnar Loop
b. Whorl and Arch b. Radial Loop
c. Plain and Tented Arch c. First Loop
d. Ulnar and Whorl d. First Radial Loop
1982. It is a type of a whorl pattern in which when the tracing 1992. What Fingers are not included in looking for a loop in
ridge flows below the right delta and there are five the key division?
intervening ridges. a. Both Index
a. Outer Whorl b. Both little
b. Meeting Whorl c. Both thumb
c. Inner Whorl d. Both middle
d. Accidental Whorl 1993. In the case of a missing one digit in the fingerprint card
1983. In the course of tracing a whorl pattern, once the of a subject, said missing finger will be interpreted as.
tracing splits into two branches the tracing will proceed a. Amputated finger
on the: b. Same as the corresponding digit of the other
a. next ridge counting below the bifurcation ridge hand
b. upper line of the bifurcation c. Meeting whorl
c. Lower limb d. Outer loop
d. next ridge just below 1994. If in case that there were no loop on all fingers, how will
1984. It refers to the number of ridges that appears between the key be obtained.
the tracing ridge and the right delta of a whorl pattern. a. Ridge count of the first plain whorl
a. Ridge Count b. Ridge count of the first whorl
b. Intervening Ridge c. No key division to derived
c. Incipient ridge d. Just indicate Dash
d. Ridge tracing 1995. In the event that same fingers of both hand is missing
1985. A Loop with ridge count of 16 in the right is interpreted what will be the pattern interpretation of the two
as ____, if the left thumb has 17 ridge count. missing fingers.
a. Small a. Plain Whorl
b. Medium b. Plain Whorl With Meeting Tracing
c. Large c. Dash
d. Exceptional d. Same as the pattern of the next fingers
1986. A ridge count of 17 in the left thumb is interpreted as
____ when the right thumb reaches 17.
a. Small 1996. It is the term applied to cases of missing or cut finger?
b. Large a. Mutilated finger
c. Medium b. Amputated finger

Page 98 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 c. Fragmentary finger 2007. What color will produced if r RED and BLUE colors are
d. Deformities combined each other?
1997. What will be the primary Division if all fingers are a. magenta
amputated. c. yellow
a. 1/1 b. cyan
b. 31/31 d. Green
c. 32/32
d. 16/16 2008. Which of the following are NOT considered as the
1998. What division will be left blank in the classification primary colors, EXCEPT.
formula if all fingers are missing? a. yellow
a. Major and Final Division b. Blue
b. Key and Major Division c. Green
c. Major and sub-secondary d. Red
d. key and final Division 2009. The act of attempting to interpret the character or
1999. Menstruation usually commences at the age of? personality of an individual from his handwriting.
a. 14 a. paleography
b. 13 b. collation
c. 16 c. graphology
d. 12 d. cacography
2000. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, 2010. In Q.D it is the term used by some document examiners
or two of the three basic characteristics of the loop? and attorneys to characterize known material.
a. Plain arch a. exemplar
b. tented arch b. evidence
c. central pocket loop c. questioned
d. accidental whorl d. disputed
2001. Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene 2011. In Q.D it is the term used when a person having the
between the delta and core of a loop? ability to write with both left and right.
a. ridge tracing a. cacography
b. ridge counting b. calligraphy
c. ridge tracking c. calcography
d. ridge summing d. ambidextrous
2002. In assigning the numerical value of whorl pattern, what 2012. Which of the following are NOT considered as the
finger should be given a value of 4 when a whorl secondary colors, EXCEPT.
pattern appears therein: a. yellow
a. left little finger and right thumb b. Blue
b. right thumb and left little finger c. Green
c. right little finger and left thumb d. Red
d. left thumb and right 2013. An interruption in a stroke caused by removing the
2003. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all the writing instrument from the paper is called..
fingers of the left hand are loops, what will be the a. pen emphasis
primary division? b. pen pressure
a. 25/29 c. pen jump
c. 24/28 d. pen lift
b. 29/25 2014. The term document came from latin word
d. 28/24 “documentum”, which means.
2004. What would be the secondary division if all the fingers a. write
at right hand are plain arches while all the left hand b. to teach
fingers are tented arches? c. lesson
d. paper
a. aA3a/tT3T
c. A2a/tT2t 2015. It is the extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal
b. aT3a/aA3t stroke due to the slow withdrawal of the pen from the
d. tT3t/aA3a paper ( usually applicable to the fountain pen). a.
2005. What division in the formula classification is left blank if whirl
all fingers are amputated? b. knob
a. Major and key c. sour
b. key and final d. loop
c. Key and primary
d. final and major 2016. The portrait printed in the 20 peso-bill is
2006. The word Photography was coined by _____? a. Manuel Quezon
a. John F. W. Herschel b. Emilio Aguinaldo
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre c. Segio Osmena
c. Henry Fox Talbot d. Apolinario Mabini
d. Leonardo Da Venci

Page 99 of 197
G.S.T. 2019
 2017. The only security features that the BSP was portrait in a. Skid marks
the new 500 and 1,000 peso bill is. b. Slippage marks
a. optically variable ink c. Rifling marks
d. Shearing marks
b. optical device
2227. When two specimens are compared under the comparison
c. optical ink
microscope at the same direction, the same level, the same
d. optically variable device
magnification and the same image, they are called:
a. Positively match
2018. It is Embossed “1000” denominated value at the lower b. Pseudo match
right corner of the face of the note changes color from c. Juxtaposition
green to blue when viewed at different angles d. Drag marks
a. optically variable ink 2228. In the United States, crimes are committed by juveniles using
b. optical device home-made weapons generally referred to as:
c. optical ink a. Freakish device
d. optically variable device b. Zip guns
2019. What changes of color of the parrot in 500 peso bill and c. Matchlock
d. Flare guns
the clam in 1000 peso when the note is rotated at 90
2229. A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from:
degrees?
a. Revolver
a. blue to green b. Pistol
b. green to blue c. Rifle
c. red to green d. Pistol & Revolver
d. green to red 2230. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
2020. The new banknote of the BSP is made of what kind of a. 730”
paper. b. 728”
a. abaca-cotton c. 729”
d. 724”
b. plastic-polymer
2231. A complete unfired unit ammunition is inserted into the
c. abaca
chamber of firearm for firing is referred to as:
d. cotton
a. Bullet
2021. The portrait printed in the 200 peso-bill is b. Shell
a. Diosdado P Macapagal c. Primer
b. Emilio Aguinaldo d. Cartridge
c. Segio Osmena 2232. Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a combination of:
d. Apolinario Mabini a. Pitch
2022. How many security features are there in the new 500 b. Twist
c. Lands & grooves
peso bill?
d. Cannelures
a. 8 2233 Class characteristics are determinable even:
b. 9 a. During
c. 7 b. After
d. 6 c. Before
2023. How many security features are there in the new 1000 d. Never the manufactures of the firearm
peso bill? 2234. The caliber is determined with the aid of:
a. Combined microscope
a. 8
b. Micrometer
b. 9 c. Macrometer
c. 7 d. Manufacturer of the firearm
d. 6 2235. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from the crime
2024. The equipment is Forensic Ballistics that measures the scene will request the ballistician to determine:
pitch of rifling is: a. Owner of the firearm
a. Chronograph b. Model of the firearm
b. Helixometer c. Caliber and types of the firearm
c. Micrometer d. Manufacture
d. Taper gauge 2236. That science which deals with the motion of the projectiles at
1463. A magnified photograph of a small object produced the time it leaves the muzzle of the gun to the time it hits the target
by connecting a camera with the ocular of a compound is known as:
microscope is: a. Terminal ballistics
b. Interior ballistics
a. Photomacrograph
c. Exterior ballistics
b. Microphotograph
d. Forensic ballistics
c. Photomicrograph
2237. That science dealing with the effect of the impact of the
d. Photography
2225. A center-fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is smaller than projectile on target is called:
the diameter of the body of the case:
a. Exterior ballistics
a. Rimmed cartridge b. Interior ballistics
b. Rebated cartridge c. Anterior ballistics
c. Tapered cartridge d. Terminal ballistics
d. Rimless cartridge
2226. If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the lands have
been worn down or through a bore is slightly oversize or oily, the
marks are called:

Page 100 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 2248. Compilation of known criminals available from police files
and records.
a. Rouge gallery
b. General photograph
c. Police blotter
2238. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal drugs? d. Modus operandi files
a. Lot Lizards 2249. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is necessary.
b. Hookers a. Loose tail
c. Skeezers b. Rough shadowing
d. Hustler c. Close tail
2239. It is the occasional or selective type of prostitute. She is d. None of the foregoing
usually a newcomer in the business? 2250. The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence is:
a. Door knocker a. Place it in a pill box and label it
b. Street walker b. Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining
c. Call girl c. Place it in a plastic bag and label it
d. skeezers d. Tag it with a label
2240. are the real professional type of prostitutes. She works in 2251. To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an interrogation
regular houses of prostitution or brothels? room must be:
a. Door knocker a. With no windows or views
b. Street walker b. There should only be one door
c. Call Girl c. It must be sound proof
d. Factory Girl d. All of the choices
2241. These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their own 2252. In this type of interrogation the investigator must have great
legitimate work or profession but works as a prostitutes to knowledge of the case and is preferable when the subject is
supplement their income? not the talkative type.
a. Door knocker a. Narrative type
b. Street walker b. Question and answer type
c. Call Girl c. Stern type
d. Factory Girl d. Simple interrogation
2242. The following countries which comprises the Golden 2253. What should the investigator do to protect while in
Triangle, EXCEPT. transport those collected evidence from the crime scene?
a. Seal it
a. Vietnam b. Mark it
b. Thailand c. Pack it properly
c. Myanmar d. Label it
d. Laos 2254. Shadowing has the following purposes, except:
2243. Is a serial cheater who betrays his spouse or long term a. To detect evidences of criminal activities
partner repeatedly? b. To establish association of a suspect
c. To locate wanted persons
a. philander d. None of the foregoing
b. prostitution 2255. “A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his gun to the
c. philandering latter, as “A” pressed the trigger, the gun jammed and “B”
d. prostitute managed to escape. This is an example of:
2244. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to female a. Attempted felony
customers? b. Frustrated felony
c. Consummated felony
d. Consummated felony
a. gigolo
2256. Kind of recognition whereby the description and
b. pimps
characteristics maybe vague that identification is difficult.
c. callboy
a. Known fugitives
d. Johns
b. Professional criminals
2245. A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag factor of
c. Ordinary criminals
0.70 leaves a skid marks of 20.6 meters, what is the
d. Unknown fugitives
approximate speed of the said vehicle when involved in
accident. .
2257. The methods of determining and finding the best
a. 64 kms./hour
way to remedy the specific cause or causes of the
b. 54 kms./hour
complaint or grievance refers to:
c. 46 km.s/hour
a. Cross examination
d. 45 kms./hour
b. Grievance procedures
2246. This method of identification depends on the ability of the
c. Investigative procedure
witness to describe the person seen committing the crime.
d. Criminal procedures
a. Verbal description
2258. A type of informant reveals information usually of no
b. Photographic files
consequence of stuff produced from thin air.
c. Police line up
a. False informant
d. General photograph
b. Double-crosser informant
c. Mercenary informant
d. Frightened informant
2259. Clandestine operation in police parlance.
2247. Criminals whose identity may be established background
a. Covert intelligence
identification.
b. Secret activity
a. Known criminals
c. Over intelligence
b. Unknown criminals
d. Surveillance
c. Convicted criminals
d. Unidentified criminals

Page 101 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 2260. It is an art which deals with the identity and location a. Zone method
of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt b. Strip method
through criminal proceeding. c. Spiral method
a. Information d. Wheel method
b. Interrogation 2272. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into
c. Instrumentation quadrant and each searcher is assigned in each quadrant.
d. Investigation a. Zone method
2261. Special crime investigation is more concerned on: b. Strip method
a. Physical evidence c. Spiral method
b. Tracing evidence d. Wheel method
c. Testimonial evidence 2273. The surroundings of the crime scene must be photograph to
d. Associative evidence show the relative location and distances.
2262. Is a person who provides an investigator with a. Environmental photograph
confidential information concerning a past or b. Physical reconstruction
projected crime and does not wish to be known as a c. Overview
source of information. d. Over-all photograph
a. Informants 2274. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No scale,
b. Witness proportion ignored and everything is approximate.
c. Informers a. Sketch
d. Confidential informants b. Draft
2263. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge c. Rough sketch
information. d. Finished sketch
a. Interview 2275. Most common reason in discharging informants
b. Interrogation a. Burn out
c. Investigation b. Too expensive to maintain
d. All of the foregoing c. Lack of loyalty
2264. A compilation of photographs of known criminals, utilized in d. Reprehensible behavior
investigation for identifying suspects in a crime. 2276. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.
a. Photographic file a. Stylus
b. 201 file b. Pen
c. Rogue gallery c. Ink
d. Cartographic sketch d. Chalk
2265. This is an element of crime commission wherein one is 2277. A form of investigation in which an investigator assumes a
induced to commit the crime. different and unofficial identity.
a. Motive a. Tailing
b. Intent b. Shadowing
c. Opportunity c. Surveillance
d. Deceit d. Roping
2266. In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate the 2278. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk.
power of suggestion as a factor in identification as a a. Narrative type
procedure how many persons is needed in such a line-up? b. Interrogation type
a. 3 to 5 c. Question and answer type
b. 5 to 7 d. Stern type
c. 7 to 10 2279. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty of a
d. 10 to 15 person taken into custody.
2267. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have a. Protective custody
committed the crime. b. Detaining for questioning
a. Motive c. Police restraint
b. Intent d. All of the choices
c. Opportunity 2280. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime scene as
d. Deceit well as the objects, what naturally occurred and what were
2268. Motive in giving information wherein the informant the circumstances of the crime.
delights in giving information to gain favorable a. Crime scene
attention from the police. b. Physical reconstruction
a. Competition c. Mental reconstruction
b. Repentance d. Reconstruction of the crime
c. Vanity
d. Jealousy 2281. Paid informants
2269. Employed where a general impression of the subject’s habits a. Anonymous informants
and associate are required. b. Rival elimination informants
a. Surveillance c. False informants
b. Loose tail shadowing d. Mercenary informants
c. Rough shadowing 2282. Most common type of shadowing.
d. Close tail shadowing a. One man shadow
2270. More advantageous because it permits immediate changes of b. Two man shadow
men and less likely to be recognized. c. Three man shadow
a. One man shadow d. Rough shadow
b. Two man shadow 2283. Articles and materials which are found in connection with the
c. Three man shadow investigation and which aid in establishing the identity of the
d. ABC method perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
2271. In this method of search, the searchers proceed slowly at the committed or which, in general assist in the prosecution of the
same pace along the path parallel to one side of the rectangle. criminal.
At the end of the rectangle, the searcher turns and proceeds a. Tracing evidence
back along new lanes but parallel to the first movement. b. Corpus delicti

Page 102 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 c. Associative evidence a. Finished sketch
d. Physical or material evidence b. Sketch of details
2284. Instrumental detection of deception c. Sketch of locality
a. Ballistic test d. Sketch of grounds
b. Fingerprint test 2296. The explanation of any symbols used to identify objects in a
c. Questioned document test sketch.
d. Polygraph testing a. Compass direction
2285. When the subject is in prone position what type of search b. Title
should be implemented. c. Legend
a. Kneeling search d. Scale
b. Standing search 2297. Such articles and evidences which assists the investigator in
c. Floor search locating the suspect.
d. Wall search a. Physical evidence
2286. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the arrest. To b. Material evidence
discover weapons or evidences and determine the identity of c. Associative evidence
the suspects. d. Tracing evidence
a. Preliminary search of a person 2298. Objects or substances which are essential part of the body of
b. Wall search the crime.
c. Standing search a. Corpus delicti
d. Floor search b. Physical evidences
2287. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an c. Material evidences
automobile, which has been stolen and abandoned. d. Associative evidences
a. Dashboard 2299. The primary consideration in transporting evidences.
b. Door handles a. Markings should be placed
c. Steering wheel b. Proper turnover must be observed
d. Rear view mirror c. Avoid altering contents
2288. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the law d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while in
enforcers in order to get more information from them than he transit
gives. 2300. General rule in handling pieces of evidence
a. Double-crosser informants a. MAC rule
b. Mercenary informants b. Right of way rule
c. False informants c. Last clear chance rule
d. Self-aggrandizing informants d. None of the choices
2289. That profession and scientific discipline directed to the 2301. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas are
recognition, identification, individualization and evaluation of usually encircled. What is the primary objective?
physical science by application of natural sciences in matters of a. To show points of interest
law and science. b. To have proper marking
a. Chemist c. To avoid contamination
b. Scientist d. To prevent alterations
c. Criminalistics 2302. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve the
d. Toxicologist specimen?
2290. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are a. Formaldehyde
committed in one place. b. Saline solution
a. Local crimes c. Alcohol
b. Local action d. Distilled water
c. Transitory crimes 2303. It is the surprise invasion of building or an area.
d. Transitory action a. Assault
2291. The number of persons who handle the pieces of evidence from b. Attack
the scene of the crime and between the times of the commission c. Raid
up to final disposition of cases. d. Surveillance
2304. Primary requisite for conducting raids.
a. Time custody a. Search warrant
b. Time disposition b. Raiding team
c. Time disposal c. Firearms
d. Chain of custody d. Back-up personnel
2305. A public officer when not being authorized by judicial
2292. A declaration made under the consciousness of an impending order, shall enter a dwelling against the will of the
death. owner thereof is committing:
a. Part of res gestate a. Legal entry
b. Dying Declaration b. Violation of domicile
c. Confession c. Trespassing
d. admission d. Illegal entry
2293. Principles of science applied to law enforcement. 2306. A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his
a. Instrumentation constitutional rights namely:
b. Forensic a. The right to oppose whatever accusation on him.
c. Legal medicines b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty
d. Criminology c. The right to remain silent, to counsel and the right to
2294. Evidence which offers least resistance to decomposition be informed of such rights.
a. Blood d. The right to face his accuser in public trial
b. Semen
c. Saliva 2307. A type of informant reveals information usually of no
d. Hair consequences of stuff concocted of thin air.
2295. The sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest physical a. False informant
surroundings. b. Mercenary informant

Page 103 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 c. Double crosser informant c. Fire point
d. Self-aggrandizing informant d. Flash point
2308. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are committed 2319. Minimum temperature in which the substance in
in many places. the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause a
a. Local crime self-contained combustion without the addition of
b. Local action heat from outside sources.
c. Transitory crime a. Boiling point
d. Transitory action b. Ignition temperature
c. Fire point
2309. The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a d. Flash point
crime has been committed, in order to determine such, he 2320. An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible
must have knowledge of the so-called cardinal questions of material react with an oxidizing agent.
investigation. How many cardinal questions are there? a. Thermal balance
a. Three b. Thermal imbalance
b. Four c. Combustion
c. Five d. Oxidation
d. Six 2321. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
2310. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of transportation by a. Pyrolysis
stealing the vehicle and providing plate on it. b. Combustion
a. Drivers c. Detonation
b. Ripper d. All of the foregoing
c. Wheelman 2322. A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of
d. Rover heat.
2311. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to a. Pyrolysis
facilitate proper sketch orientation. b. Combustion
a. Proper north c. Detonation
b. True north d. Oxidation
c. Legend 2323. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the
d. Compass direction material with unit temperature gradient.
2312. A search method in which the searchers follow each other in the a. Conduction
path of the coiled beginning from the outside proceeding b. Thermal conductivity
toward the center. c. Radiation
a. Zone method d. Fission
b. Wheel method 2324. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through space
c. Spiral method or materials as waves.
d. Strip method a. Conduction
2313. Taking into custody property described in the search warrant b. Convection
as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence in a case. c. Radiation
a. Seizure d. Fission
b. Detention 2325. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a
c. Safekeeping motive.
d. Confiscation a. Providential fire
2314. A method of criminal identification whereby the b. Accidental fire
perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals are c. Intentional fire
identified by depiction. d. None of the foregoing
a. Verbal description 2326. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the
b. General photographs case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788.
c. Police line up a. Arson
d. Rouge gallery b. Providential fire
2315. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants. c. Accidental fire
a. Sprinkler d. None of the foregoing
b. Fire pump 2327. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless
c. Fire hose and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
d. Hydrant key a. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
2316. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of d. Neon
its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid drop in 2328. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a
temperature of the immediate surroundings. fire.
a. Dust a. Fuel
b. Oxidizing material b. Oxygen
c. Pyrolysis c. Heat
d. Cryogenic d. None of the choices
2317. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which 2329. Refers to gases liberated by heat.
vapors are evolved fast enough to support continuous a. Free radicals
combustion. b. Flash point
a. Ignition temperature c. Thermal balance
b. Kindling temperature d. Thermal imbalance
c. Fire point 2330. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and
d. Flash point fire gases within a building or structure under natural
2318. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a vapor-air conditions.
mixture that ignites. a. Free radicals
a. Ignition temperature b. Pyrolysis
b. Kindling temperature c. Thermal balance

Page 104 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 d. Thermal imbalance b. Flame
2331. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its c. Heat
destructive capabilities is developed. d. Smoke
a. Initial phase 2344. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.
b. Incipient phase a. Fire
c. Free burning phase b. Flame
d. Smoldering phase c. Heat
2332. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates. d. Smoke
a. The fire triangle 2345. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been
b. The fingerprint of the fire contained.
c. Flashover a. Backdraft
d. Incipient phase of the fire b. Flashover
2333. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is d. Falling debris
characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and 2346. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates
flames. the burning of what material?
a. Flashover a. Rubber
b. Backdraft b. Nitrogen products
c. Thermal balance c. Asphalt singles
d. Thermal imbalance d. Chlorine
2334. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a 2347. Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant
result of a sudden introduction of oxygen. materials?
a. Flashover a. Asbestos
b. Backdraft b. Diamond
c. Thermal balance c. Asphalt
d. Thermal imbalance d. Cotton
2335. Which among the following is the primary objective in 2348. A form of static electricity of great magnitude producing
investigating fires? tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most common
a. To determine its cause cause of providential fires.
b. To prevent recurrence a. Rays of the sun
c. To determine liable persons b. Spontaneous heating
d. All of the foregoing c. Arcing
2336. Reason why fire investigation is unique. d. Lighting
a. It does not conform with regular investigative 2349. Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
procedure a. Smoking
b. Unavailability of witnesses b. Arcing
c. Fire destroys evidence c. Sparkling
d. All of the foregoing d. Overloading
2337. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God. 2350. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room
a. Providential or throughout the structure.
b. Accidental a. Accelerant
c. Intentional b. Plants
d. Incendiarism c. Trailer
2338. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and d. Wick
oxygen. 2351. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a
a. Fire contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
b. Origin of fire a. Accelerant
c. Fire triangle b. Plants
d. All of the foregoing c. Trailer
2339. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns. d. Wick
a. Fuel 2352. Most common reason of arson cases.
b. Heat a. Revenge
c. Oxygen b. Profit
d. Gas c. Competition
2340. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating d. All of the foregoing
medium either gas or a liquid. 2353. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
a. Conduction a. Spontaneous heating
b. Convection b. Combustible gases
c. Radiation c. Combustible dust
d. Fission d. None of the choices
2341. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid. 2354. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to start
a. Specific heat a fire.
b. Latent heat a. Plants
c. Heat of Combustion b. Trailers
d. Heat of fusion c. Accelerants
2342. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or natural d. Wick
cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air. 2355. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
a. Carbon black a. Abatement
b. Lamp black b. Combustion
c. Soot c. Allotment
d. Black bone d. Distillation
2343. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor 2356. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials
as a result of combustion. with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly known as:
a. Fire a. Black bone

Page 105 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 b. Used petroleum c. Thermal heat
c. Soot d. Specific heat
d. Black iron 2369. Refers to gases that remain when the products of combustion
2357. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume are cooled to normal temperature.
electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing a. Fire gases
electrical system. b. Combustion gases
a. Overloading c. Oxidation gases
b. Jumper d. Flame
c. Wire tapping 2370. Fires caused by human error and negligence.
d. Arcing a. Providential fires
2358. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of the b. Intentional fires
assessed value of the building: c. Accidental fires
a. Schools d. Incendiarism
b. Department stores 2371. Primary component of wood
c. Hospitals a. Fiber
d. Single family dwellings b. Cellulose
2359. Enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to floor, as c. Carbon
well as from the base to top of the building. d. Pulp
a. Standpipe system 2372. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern or
b. Sprinkler system fingerprint of fire is developed.
c. Vertical shaft a. Incipient phase
d. Flash point b. Initial phase
2360. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance c. Free burning phase
rating of not less than four hours with structural stability to d. Smoldering phase
remain standing even if the adjacent construction collapses 2373. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the flame and
under fire conditions: carbon monoxide builds up in volume.
a. Post wall a. Incipient
b. Fire trap b. Initial phase
c. Fire wall c. Free burning phase
d. Firewood d. Smoldering phase
2361. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local government 2374. Most effective way of regulating vices.
for any particular establishment. a. Continued police action by relentless drives in vice
a. Fire service control
b. Fire safety inspection b. Sincere and honest law enforcement
c. Fire drill c. Both a and b
d. Fire protection assembly d. None of the choices
2362. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another. 2375. Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive intake
a. Radiation of alcoholic beverages develops physical and psychological
b. Convection changes and dependence to alcohol.
c. Conduction a. Alcoholics
d. Fission b. Liquor addicts
2363. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and c. Drunkard
light of combustion. d. Chronic alcoholics
a. Oxidation 2376. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which contains
b. Flash point alcohol.
c. Smoldering a. Liquor
d. Fire b. Wine
2364. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes c. Booze
place. d. Vodka
a. Endothermic reactions 2377. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of ill-refute
b. Exothermic reactions whereby the business of prostitution is conducted.
c. Oxidation a. Operator
d. Combustion b. Banker
2365. Product of an incomplete combustion. c. Mama
a. Soot d. Pimp
b. Charring 2378. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse with
c. Ashes another for hire.
d. All of foregoing a. Prostitute
2366. Color of a luminous flame. b. Whores
a. Orange-blue c. Knockers
b. Blue d. All of the foregoing
c. Yellow 2379. The procurement and transportation of women from far flung
d. Red places for immoral purposes.
2367. Refers to the amount of heat released during complete a. White slavery
oxidation whereby the organic fuel is converted to water and b. Prostitution
carbon dioxide. c. Organized crimes
a. Heat of combustion d. All of the foregoing
b. Calorific value 2380. This place usually lodges several number of factory girls or
c. Fuel value professional prostitutes under the control of an organized crime
d. All of the foregoing ring.
2368. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it a. Disorderly houses
changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas. b. Furnished room houses
a. Calorie c. Call houses
b. Latent heat d. Massage clinics

Page 106 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 2381. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the means with d. Heroin
which to carry on the gambling game. 2395. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in Bolivia
a. Maintainer and first used by the Incas of Peru.
b. Conductor a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
c. Banker b. Papaver somniferum
d. Operator c. Amphetamine
2382. Anti gambling law d. Erythroxylon coca
a. PD 1869 2396. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical name is
b. PD 1612 “Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine”.
c. PD 1602 a. Chomper
d. PD 1866 b. Ecstacy
2383. Social causes of prostitution are the following, except c. Shabu
a. Broken families d. Heroin
b. Poverty 2397. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to circumvent
c. Anonymity of city life legal restrictions.
d. All of the choices a. Designer drugs
2384. Refers to a person having no apparent means of subsistence. b. Hallucinogens
a. Gambler c. Amphetamines
b. Prostitute d. Methamphetamines
c. Vagrants 2398. A law which prohibits government officials to enter and
d. None of the foregoing gamble in Philippine casinos.
2385. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white slave trade. a. PD 1602
a. Prision correctional b. PD 1869
b. Prison mayor c. PD 510
c. Reclusion temporal d. PD 483
d. Reclusion perpetua 2399. Office that controls and regulates gambling.
2386. A person who manages or carries a gambling game. a. PAGCOR
a. Maintainer b. PCGG
b. Conductor c. PACC
c. Banker d. PNP
d. Operator 2400. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among persons
2387. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to maintain the who have paid or agreed to pay a valuable consideration for
same effect. the chance to obtain a prize.
a. Tolerance a. Gambling
b. Physical dependence b. Sport
c. Poly drug abuse c. Lottery
d. Drug experimenter d. All of the choices
2388. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent 2401. A bet or consideration placed on gambling games.
Cannabis Sativa. a. Wage
a. Marijuana b. Wager
b. Hashish c. Prize
c. Opium d. Banker
d. Morphine 2402. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much as 25%
2389. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning sleep, of the substance:
what is the other term given to narcotics? a. Hashish
a. Opium b. Codeine
b. Opiates c. Morphine
c. Morphine d. Heroin
d. Heroin 2403. Amphetamine is a representative of good class of stimulants
2390. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana. known as:
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol a. Crank
b. Cannabis sativa b. Pep pills
c. Papaver somniferum c. Knock-out drops
d. Methamphetamine d. Stick
2391. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily used as: 2404. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on
a. Pain killer prohibited and regulated drugs.
b. Cough reliever a. DDB
c. Stimulant b. NBI
d. Depressant c. PACC
2392. Who among the following acts as the chairman of the DDB? d. PNP
a. Secretary of Justice 2405. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or
b. Secretary of National Defense dullness of the mind with delusions.
c. Secretary of Education a. Narcotics
d. Secretary of Health b. Stimulants
2393. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking drug, it was c. Depressants
brought to the Philippines by a Japanese tourist. d. Hallucinogens
a. Marijuana 2406. Chemical substance which effects a person in such a way as
b. Cocaine to bring out physiological, behavioral or emotional change.
c. Shabu a. Alcohol
d. Opium b. Coca leaf
2394. The most potent derivative from opium. c. Drug
a. Codeine d. Marijuana
b. Cocaine 2407. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotions,
c. Morphine thought disruption and ego distortion.

Page 107 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. Depressants c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external fear of losing
b. Tranquilizers control
c. Hallucinogens d. Altered sense of time/disorientation
d. Stimulants 2419. A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South American
2408. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads shrub. It is a central nervous system stimulant.
to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and a. Marijuana
body. b. Shabu
a. Abuse c. Cocaine
b. Vice d. Opiates
c. Addiction 2420. A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly upon
d. Gambling chance or hazard.
2409. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock owners and a. Gambling
other bettors. b. Sports
a. Promoter c. Tupada
b. “Cristo” d. All of the above
c. Banker 2421. Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is difficult to
d. Gambler control is that:
2410. Most common problem encountered by the police in vice a. The big demand
control measures: b. The plant can be easily cultivated
a. Unwillingness of government officials to work against c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country
vices d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices 2442. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is reluctant
c. Public apathy to divulge information?
d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts A. interview
2411. The process of undergoing or producing gradual chemical C. interrogation
change which later becomes sour or alcoholic. B. information
a. Distillation D. instrumentation
b. Fermentation 2443. It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be shown in
c. Ionization order to obtain conviction?
d. Purification A. intent
2412. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes B.desire
argumentative and over confident. C. motive
a. Slight inebration D. opportunity
b. Moderate inebration 2444. Information gathered upon initiative of the
c. Drunk investigator from informants, vendors, taxicab driver,
d. Coma GRO, and others.
2413. This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on conversion A. Grapevine Sources
and fellowship. B. Cultivated Sources
a. Aversion treatment C.Regular Sources
b. Psychotherapy method D.Cognitive interview
c. Withdrawal method 2445. What interrogation techniques when the investigator
d. Program of alcoholic anonymous indicates he does not consider his subject’s
2414. Oldest profession known to man which involves habitual indiscretion a grave offense.
indulgement in sexual intercourse for money or profit. A. Sympathetic Appeal
a. Gambling B. Mutt and Jeff
b. Prostitution C Extenuation
c. Addiction D. Emotional Appeal
d. All of the foregoing 2446. It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject
2415. Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution to falling short of an acknowledgment of guilt.
supplement their income.
a. Call girls a. Confession
b. Factory girls b. Extra-Judicial Confession
c. Hustler c. Admission
d. Door knocker d. Judicial Confession

2416. Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent legitimate 2447. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known
roomers to maintain an appearance of responsibility. criminals, their Modus Operandi, hiding places and
a. Disorderly houses names of associate criminals.
b. Furnished room houses a. Physical Line-up
c. Call houses b. Physical Show-up
d. Massage clinics c. Geographic Sketch
2417. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world d. Rogues Gallery
originated is located specifically in: 2448. It is the general questioning of all persons at the crime
a. Thailand-Burma-China border scene/ traffic accident, no need to recite the Miranda
b. Laos-Thailand-China border doctrine
c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border A. Custodial Investigation
d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border B. Interview
2418. Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made from C. Field Inquiry
Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains meal altering D. Interrogation
ingredient. Which among the following is not an 2449. It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is committed and
immediate effect of weed? is established by a series of crimes under one
a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate classification.
b. Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration A. Modus Operandi
B. Modes of Operation

Page 108 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 C. Methods of Operation D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the nearest
D. Pattern of Operation hospital.
2450. It refers to a person who gives information relevant to 2460. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____
a criminal case about the activities of the criminals a. the property taken
voluntarily to the investigator and who may even be b. the fact that the crime was committed
willing to be a witness. c. anything of value
A. Informant d. Intent of the suspect
B. Informer 2461. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical
C. Mercenary representation must indicate the ____ direction for
D. Women proper orientation of the scene.
2451. Methods of Search whereby the searchers will A. North
proceed at the same place along the path parallel to B. West
one side of the rectangle. C. East
A. Wheel search method D. South
B.Quadrant Search 2462. The following are the rules to be observed when
C. Spiral search method intervening a witness, EXCEPT:
D. Strip Search a. allow implied answer
2452. Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence b. saving faces
in court; it should be taken from ____. c. one question at a time
A. General View d. avoid leading questions
C. Close-up view 2463. In case there is no other available means of
B. Mid-range establishing the age of the offender, what should be
D. General to Specific done if he claims that he is still a minor?
2453. It is the simplest and most effective way of showing a. Do not listen to his claim because probably he
actual measurements and of identifying significant is already of majority age.
items of evidence in their location at the scene. b. Wait for the court to determine the age of the
A. Sketch offender
B. Rough Sketch c. Resolve the issued in favor of the declarant
C. Final Sketch d. Ask the social worker to determine the age of
D. Finish Sketch the offender
2454. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the 2464. 24. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime incident
crime and its environs, including neighboring shall have the following duties, EXCEPT:
buildings, roads, etc.? a. Record the date and time the report was
a. Sketch of Locality made
b. Sketch of Environs b. Immediately respond to the crime scene
c. Sketch of the Ground c. Made a synopsis of the incident
d. Sketch in Details d. Inform his superior officer or duty officer
2455. Elements of the Sketch: regarding the report
a. Measurement and compass direction 2465. What is the area located adjacent to the crime scene
b. Essential items and scale of proportion where the briefing is to be conducted and also the
c. Legend and title place where the evidence custodian receives the
d. All of the choices evidence collected during crime scene investigation?
2456. During a custodial investigation, Jayson was subjected A. crime scene
to physical harm by continuously kicking and punching C. fixed post
him in the stomach so that the same may confess. B. command post
A. Coercion D. reception area
B. Physical torture 2466. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the team
C. Duress leader performs the following duties, EXCEPT:
D. Verbal threats a. Takes down note to document important
2457. A person who killed his spouse but was entitled to the factors
benefits of Article 247 of the Revised Penal Code shall b. Makes a general assessment of the crime
suffer the penalty of: scene
A. Reclusion perpetua c. Photograph the crime scene before walking
B. Death through the crime scene
C. Reclusion temporal d. Defines the extent of search area
D. Destierro 2467. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the
2458. The Unit now charged with conducting field operation crime scene?
and technical investigation at the crime scene is: a. To determine whether or not the processing
a. PNP Crime Laboratory has been completed.
b. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group b. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police.
c. Scene of the Crime Operation c. To check all evidence gathered from the crime
d. Crime Scene Investigation scene.
d. To determine whether there is a need to
2459. Police Officer Athan is the first officer to arrive at the request for additional personnel
scene of a shooting incident. he saw the victim lying 2468. After the conduct of final survey by the team leader
on the pavement sustaining multiple gun shot to whom will the crime scene be turned over?
wounds, but still moving. What is the proper course A. Chief of Police
of action he should take? B. PCP Commander
a. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO team C. Investigator-on-case
to arrive D. owner of the place
b. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the 2469. Are all physical evidence found and collected at the
crime scene and assist him with the situation. crime scene to be transported to the Crime
C. Call the investigator and inquire Laboratory?
about his decision concerning the victim.

Page 109 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. Yes, because they were collected for A. Inhumation
examination B. Exhumation
b. Yes, because the Investigator is not allowed to C. Autopsy
take custody of evidence D. Interment
c. No, because the SOCO Team has no authority 2481. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of
to bring the evidence to the Crime Laboratory the following
if the investigator did not request a. The actual cause of death of the victim
d. No, only those which require further b. The actual killer of the victim
laboratory examination will be transported. c. The modus operandi involved
2470. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly d. The motive behind killing
documented and locations of evidence was noted, the 2482. 41. The method used to support a likely sequence of
collection process begins and will usually start with – events by the observation and evaluation of physical
A. point of exit evidence, as well as statement made by those
B. fragile evidence involved with the incident:
C. large objects
D. removal of cadaver a. Crime Scene Reconstruction
2471. Who conducts the final survey of the crime scene? b. Physical reconstruction
A. Chief Investigator c. Mental reconstruction
B. Team Leader d. Any of the above
C. Chief of Police 2483. The purposes of a crime scene search are the
D. Investigator-on-case following, EXCEPT:
2472. This is produced by forcible contact on the body by a. To identify the method of operation
sharp edged instrument like bolos, knives, and broken b. To analyze physical evidence
glasses: c. To reduce the number of suspects
A. Incised wound d. To obtain physical evidence
B. Punctured wound 2484. In the course of investigating the house where a
C. Stab wound stabbing took place, police find what to be bloodstains
D. Lacerated wound on the front door, since the unknown perpetrator and
2473. What is the means of identifying physical evidence in the victim who may die were both cut their identities
which the investigator inscribe initial date and time need to be established through the bloodstains. How
directly? will the police collect the stains?
A. marking a. moisten a piece a clean cotton with a saline
B. labeling solution and rub gently.
C. tagging b. remove the door and submit it to the crime
D. none of these lab
2474. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as a c. scrap the stain into white paper using a clean
evidence should be marked where ____. razor blade
A. At the tip of the blade d. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in
B. At the frame alcohol
C. At the base 2485. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a
D. At the handle rough sketch is for
2475. What may be added to blood to preserve for a week? A. scale and proportion
A. Sodium Chloride B. future use
B. Sodium Fluoride C. accuracy and clarity
C. Sodium Dioxide D.courtroom presentation
D. NONE 2486. What is the court process requiring a person to bring
2476. What is the most important part of the hair? documents in his possession to the courts?
A. Follicle a. summon
B. Medulla b. subpoena ducestecum
C. Root C.subpoena testificandum
D. All of these D. bill of particulars
2477. What is the minimum number of hair strands is 2487. What is the best method of collection evidence like
needed? footprints and tire prints?
A. 10 strands A. Casting
B. 30 to 60 strands B. Dental Stone
C. 120 strands C. Plaster of Paris
D. unlimited D. Photograph
2478. Mummification is a condition of arrested 2488. Investigation has 3 I’s, to be precise these are the
decomposition due to the absence of moisture. It is information, interview/interrogation and
common in hot dry conditions, usually takes ___ to instrumentation. Among of them information is
form. deemed to be the most important because
A. 3 months a. Information involves the elements of the
B. 1 month crime
C. 6 months b. Information identifies the perpetrator of the
D. 1 year crime
2479. A dead body was found and there is already presence c. Information identifies witnesses that will lead
of maggots, it indicates that the dead body was at to the suspect
least ___. d. None of these
A. 2 days 2489. Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of a hit-
B. 5 days and-run may be particularly useful in the investigation
C. 3 days process because the year and make of the car involved
D. 1 week may be determinable. The paint chips evidence
2480. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave collected should be ideally placed on?
for the conduct of medical examination: a. Clear plastic envelope

Page 110 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 b. Clear plastic container 2500. In police photography, when one say tripod, the stand
c. Small plastic bag has how many legs or vertical support?
d. Cotton A. two
2490. Which of the following is the primary source of B. four
evidence? C. one
A. victim D. three
B. crime scene 2501. Pointed metal instrument is used to mark bullet and
C. suspect empty shell for
D. all of these A. proper and lasting mark
2491. Which among the following is an essential element of B. preservation
parricide? C. marking it
a. by means of treachery D. labeling
b. relationship of the offender with the victim 2502. Which of the following is not the function of criminal
c. relationship of the offender with the witness investigation?
d. age of the victim a. Identify, locate and arrest the person who
2492. In crime scene investigation, who determines its commits crime
entry/exit? b. Prosecute and convict the criminal
A. the prober c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence
B. SOCO d. Bring the offender to justice
C. COP 2503. Below are serious crimes which leave physical
D. First responded evidence, EXCEPT:
2493. After developing the latent print found at the crime a. Homicide
scene, it is best to lift it first then take photographs as b. Carnapping and arson
a back record, is it a correct practice and do you agree c. Sexual assault and robbery
with the prober? d. Libel
A. yes 2504. There are two robbers who broke into a house and
B. no carried away some valuables. After they left such
C. maybe house these two robbers decided to cut or divide the
D. It depends loot already so that they can go of them . So while
2494. What would be the best camera position in taking they are dividing the loot the other robber noticed
photographs showing a view of what a witness might that the one doing the division is trying to cheat him
have seen? and so he immediately boxed him. Now this robber
a. at 6 foot distance from the camera man who was boxed then pulled out his gun and fired at
b. parallel to the subject witness the other one killing the latter. What crime is
c. overhead committed?
d. at the eye level a. Robbery and Murde
2495. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch or b. Murder
engraved the initial on a collected hard object is c. Robbery w/ Homicide
called? d. Homicide
A. Collection
C. Scratcher
B. Luminous 2505. If a person had an enemy and killed him and after
D. Stylus killing him, saw that he had a beautiful ring and took
2496. As regards to the suspect, what will be the purpose of this, the crime would be?
interrogation? a. Robbery and Murder
a. To extract illegally the confession of a suspect b. Robbery and Theft
b. To extract the information he possesses c. Robbery w/ Homicide
c. To extract a confession of admission d. Murder
d. All of the above 2506. A committed robbery but during the robbery he saw B
2497. Before going to court, be sure to review the ___? a beautiful woman which he raped it. But B. pardoned
a. Names of the suspect A, and they get married. What crime is committed?
b. Names of the witness A. Robbery
c. Number of the cases B. Robbery w/ Rape
d. Facts of the cases C. Robbery and Rape
D. NONE
2507. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The
wall collapsed. There was a small opening there. At
2498. In collecting bloodstains at the crime scene, prober night, a man entered through that opening without
must keep in mind that before placing the specimen in breaking the same and gets items there. What crime
a paper packet it must be allowed first to ____? is committed?
A. Refrigerate A. Robbery
B. Air dried B. Theft
C. Moist C. Robbery w/ force upon things
D. Freeze D. None
2499. Why is it important for a perishable material to be 2508. The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998:
preserved by the way or the methods of preservation? A. RA 8484
a. So that the evidence will not be destroyed B. RA 7877
b. In order that this evidence will reach the court C. RA 7080
in the same physical condition as when they D. RA 8353
were collected 2509. If stolen goods such as laptops and cell phones are
c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the found in your house by the police, then it is ____.
acquittal of the accused a. Prima facie evidence of Fencing
d. All of the above b. Prima facie evidence of theft
c. Conclusive Evidence of Theft

Page 111 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 d. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing 2521. During an interview, planning is important and must
2510. The following are the grounds to execute a Lawful follow the order of time and bring out facts orderly as
warrantless arrest EXCEPT: they happened, this technique is called –
A. Seized in “Plain view” a. chronological questioning
B. Customs search b. psychological questioning
C. Search of a moving vehicle c. physical questioning
D. None of the choices d. None of these
2511. After serving the search warrant, deliver immediately 2522. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign
the things or property seized to the ____ together territory” such as the investigator room at the police
with an inventory duly verified under oath. station because the place –
a. Judge who issued the warrant a. Is comfortable to the suspect
b. Prosecution Counsel b. Is familiar to the suspect
c. Requesting Party c. Provides food and cigarette to the
d. Any of these investigator
2512. The validity period of Search Warrant is ____. d. Intimidates the suspect
A. 10 days 2523. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene,
B. No time Limit he should first of all –
C. 15 days a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care
D. NONE not to jar
2513. The taking of a person into custody in the manner b. wait until the crime scene has been sketched,
authorized by law for the purpose of presenting that photographed and measurements taken
person before the court to answer for the commission before he collects the evidence
of a crime. c. immediately collects it and always sends it to
the Crime Laboratory for specific examination
d. Compare the following edge of the took with
A. Search impression to determine if this was the tool
B. Arrest used in crime
C. Initial Contact 2524. All of the following are generally accepted rules of
D. Warrant of Arrest behavior that should be followed by police officer first
2514. Who shall issue a Search Warrant? arriving at the crime scene of a murder committed
A. Judge indoors, EXCEPT –
B. Executive Branch a. Try to keep witnesses separated
C. Investigator on Case b. Record the time of discovery of the crime
D. Prober c. Discus the crime with persons who witness
2515. All but one are the instances you can execute a lawful the incident
warrantless arrest. d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as
A. Flagrante Delicto possible but do not leave the scene
B. Escaped prisoner unguarded while doing so
C. Hot pursuit Principle 2525. The primary reason for conducting a search in the
D. None of these crime scene is to –
2516. Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
because- b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
a. it speaks for itself c. Undercover hidden evidence
b. it cannot lie d. Determine the criminals method of operation
c. not affected by emotion 2526. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be
d. all of the choices made on the item itself upon collection, in a place
2517. Physical or personal appearance is important when least likely to affect the appearance of its -
testifying in court because – A. Physical Integrity
a. it will determine the quality of your testimony B. Evidentiary
b. it will determine the quantity of your C. Legal Integrity
testimony D. Integrity and Identity
c. it will affect the weight given to your 2527. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the
testimony by the court pursuit is not possible, what should you not do?
d. it will reduce the chances of the defense a. Better use your time and efforts to alert
2518. What does DNA stand for? another unit
a. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid b. Forego the pursuit and keep on what you are
b. Deoxyribunucleic Acid formerly doing
c. Deoxyribonucleic Acid c. Inform the dispatched of the unit
d. Deoxyribunucliec Acid d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in
2519. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was coordination with other police units
pioneered by Allan Pinkerton 2528. This situation takes place when a police officer
a. Every contact leaves a Mark induced a person to commit a crime and arrest him
b. modus operandi after the commission of the crime.
c. shadowing A. Instigation
d. casing B. Search
2520. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the C. Recidivism
scene of the crime will most likely mean that – D. Entrapment
a. the victim cleaned up before the police 2529. The investigator who collects physical evidence should
arrived take it to the laboratory by himself whenever this is
b. the suspect was professional possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from
c. the suspect was juvenile each person to whom he gives or receives evidence.
d. the police probably did not conduct a This statement is applicable to –
complete search for evidence. a. Chain of custody of evidence
b. Cardinal rules in investigation

Page 112 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 c. Three tools in investigation
d. To establish the guilt of the accused
2530. It is the duty of the officer who first arrives at the
crime scene.
a. Locate and apprehend the accused
b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt
2531. These are some of the investigative activities in a
homicide case, EXCEPT:
a. record the crime scene through notes,
photographs, and sketches
b. recognizes, collect, and preserves all physical
evidences and clue materials
c. establish the cause and the manner of death
of the victim
d. alleged suspicion as they initially appear to
the investigators
2532. Another set of the investigative activities in a homicide
case, are the following, EXCEPT:
a. determine the categories and modes of death
b. seek additional information by interviewing
witness
c. ascertaining the motive of the suspect
d. questioning the suspect after explaining his
rights
2533. White-collar crimes are generally very difficult to
prevent and when detected or reported, they pose
many ____.
a. investigative difficulties
b. investigative tasks
c. investigative problems
d. investigative burden
2534. To secure conviction of white-collar criminals, the
investigator must develop ___, eh must also
remember that the victim may suddenly lose interest
in aiding prosecution.
a. every phase of the case
b. contingency of case
c. friendly atmosphere
d. rapport with victim
2535. The following are characteristics of organized crime,
EXCEPT:
a. close-knit nature of its membership
b. their elaborate planning and lack of
impulsiveness
c. violence and intimidation are common tools
d. basically a street gang with criminal skills
2536. The following statements, answers the questions
“when” and “how” rape can be committed, EXCEPT:
a. sexual assault by inserting penis into another
person’s mouth
b. inserting any instrument or object into the
genital or anal orifice or another person
c. committed under all the elements
enumerated by Art. 324 of the Revised Penal
Code
d. rape case is a crime against chastity
2537. Rape is committed under any of the following
circumstance, EXCEPT:
a. through the use of force, threat or
intimidation
b. when the offended party is deprived of
reasons or otherwise unconscious
c. by means of fraudulent machinations or grave
abuse of authority
d. it is an exclusive offense committed by man to
a woman
2538. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is
divided into two different classifications, one is
robbery by the use of force upon things, and the other
is:
G.S.T. 2019
a. robbery with violence, or intimidation of
person
b. taking of personal property belonging to
another
c. with intent, to gain and to possess the
property
d. pre-conceived plans and unexpected
opportunity
2539. The following are the elements of the crime robbery,
EXCEPT:
a. personal property belonging to another
b. the taking must be with intent to gain
c. there is violence or intimidation of any person
d. it engender fear and quality of life
2540. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the
thief in an automobile which has been stolen and
abandoned is on
A. Door handles
C. Steering wheel
B. Rear view mirror
D. Dashboard
2541. If criminal investigation is a process, after identifying
then collecting information and evidences, the next
logical step to do is
a. presents them in court
b. preserves their legal integrity
c. evaluate their strength in establishing proof
d. recognize their importance in the case
2542. During a quarrel on a crowded street of Avenida, one
man, stabs another and flees. PO1 Lim policeman
arriving at the scene a short time later finds the victim
unconscious, calls for an ambulance and orders the
crowd to leave. His action was
a. bad; there may have been witnesses to the
assault among the crowd
b. good; it is proper first aid procedure to give an
injured person room and air
c. bad; the assailant is probably among the
crowd
d. good; a crowd may destroy needed evidence
e. bad; it is poor public relations for the police to
order people about needlessly.
2543. The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:
a. sketch, search, photograph
b. search, sketch, photograph
c. photograph, search, sketch
d. photograph, sketch, search
2544. It is often important to know the time of death. The
reasons offered to this are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. to question individual who last talk with the
victim
b. to look for flaws on a witness’s account of
incident
c. protect the innocent from malicious
allegations
d. to know what was occur and how did it occur
2545. 1st Driver’s License is a matter of right not only a
privilege, 2nd Driver’s License is issued to a person,
who has all the qualification as provided by law, 3 rd
Driver’s License is a public document
a. The 1st and 2nd statements are incorrect
b. The 1st and 3rd statements are correct
c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
d. All statements are correct
2546. Which of the following is not a function of warning
symbol?
a. To call the decrease of speed
b. To seek carefulness on the part of motorist of
the approaching danger
c. To direct motorist along the establish
direction
Page 113 of 197
 d. To notify traffic units an approaching
hazardous circumstance either on or adjacent
to road
2547. 106. These are the functions of guide signs, EXCEPT:
a. To guide motorist along established routes
b. To inform proper routes
c. To help him along his way to the most simple
and direct method
d. To call the diminution of speed
2548. 107. A number of traffic regulations revolve around
questions of right of way, for practically purposes, one
of the following is the best definition of “Right of
Way”.
a. The personal right to move from one place to
another
b. The privilege of immediate use of particular
section of highway
c. The way or place open to the motorist and
pedestrian
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which
at the time is occupied by another vehicle
2549. It is intended to inform road user of special obligation,
instruction nor prohibitions which they must comply.
A. Traffic Signs
B. Informative Signs
C. Regulatory Signs
D. Danger/warning signs
2550. A kind of road according to political subdivision within
town proper Right of Way not less than 10 meters.
A. National Road
B. Municipal Road
C. Barangay Road
D. City Road
2551. It refers to a vehicles covered by certificate of public
convenience or special permit issued by LTFRB
A. Private
B. For Hire
C. Government
D. Diplomatic
2552. Professional and non-professional driver’s license is
valid for ___ from the date of issuance and renewable
every birth month.
A. 18 Months
B.36 Months
C. 24 Months
D.12 Months
2553. It is any accident occurring on a public traffic way
involving persons using vehicle or transportation, but
not involving a motor vehicle in motion:
a. Vehicle Traffic Accident
b. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident
c. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
d. Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic Accident
2554. Which of the following law created the Metropolitan
Manila Development Authority (MMDA)?
A. RA 8750
B .RA 7924
C. RA 8749
D. PD 96
2555. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program
is best measured by which of the following:
a. A cutback of traffic accidents and interruption
b. A amplify in traffic enforcement actions
c. A dwindle in the ratio of convictions to
enforcement manner
d. None of these
2556. 115. In an intersection not controlled by lights or
peace officers, pedestrian have the right of way the
moment he starts to cross.
A. Absolutely true
B. Partly true
C. Absolutely false
D. Partly false
2557. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway above
street level for free-flow traffic.
A. Expressway
B. Subway
C. Skyway
D. Tunnel road
2558. City roads inter-link between municipalities and
within the city with a right of way of 15 meters; what
is the minimum width of sidewalk?
A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters
B. 1.5 to 1.8 meters
C. 1.2 to 1.5 meters
D. 2.0 meters
2559. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of
taking a person into custody for the purpose of
holding or detaining him to answer a charge of law
violation before a court.
A. Arrest
B. Traffic Arrest
C. Traffic Citation
D. Traffic Warning
2560. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of not
less than ___ can apply for non-professional driver’s
license
A. 150 Days
B. 180 Days
C. 60 Days
D. 30 Days
2561. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury other
than serious to one or more persons:
A. Property damage
B. Less Serious Injury
C.Fatal Accident
D. Non-fatal Accident
2562. When two vehicles approach an intersection at
approximately the same time, which shall give the
right of way:
a. The vehicle coming from the right
b. Vehicle from the center
c. The vehicle coming from the left
d. The vehicle that arrives first
2563. Which of the following consideration does not act as
a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
A. Fear of fine and punishment
B.Loss of driving privileged
C.Possibility involve in an accident
D.Increase of insurance premium
2564. Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is
best characterized by, EXCEPT:
A.Poor legislation activities
B.Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
C.Effective and efficient traffic officers
D.Slow drivers or bad driving habit
2565 The following are NOT functions of Land
Transportation Office, EXCEPT:
A.Reparation of vehicles
B.Registration and licensing
C.Rental and license
D.Licensing operating
2566. One of the following statements that best indicates
the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is:
A.reduce traffic by punishing B.violators of traffic
rules
C.keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid
bottlenecks
control the speed limited in densely populated
areas
D.prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of
traffic
2567. Most common defect attributed to the human
element in cases of traffic vehicular accidents:
A. Intellectual
B. Perceptual
C. Decision

Page 114 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 D. Attitudinal B. Revolutionary
2568. Statistically it is considered as the most common C. Separalist
reason for public utility vehicular accidents. D. Political
A.Not observing the proper distance and 2578. ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 stands for?
following too close A.InformationConnection Technology
B.Unnecessary B.InformationCommunication
C.Recklessness Technology
D.Discussion regarding fare C.InternetCommunication
2569. What is the general rule for the movement of Technology
vehicular traffic in the Philippines? D.Internet Connection Technology
A. “keep to the left” 2579. Economic crime is known as:
B. Safety First A.Blue Collar Crime
C. “keep to the right” B.Wildlife Smuggling
D. “watch out” C.White Collar Crime
2570. What would drivers do when an emergency vehicle D.Wildlife trafficking
approaches displaying legally authorized red light and 2580. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten:
sounding a siren? A. Terrorisme
A.pull aside and stop the car abruptly B.Terrere
B.continue driving slowly without regard of the C. Rapere
emerging D. Vestigarre
C.yield at the right of way and wait for the 2581. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code of
passage of the vehicle silence that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their
D.disregard the red light and siren comrades to the authorities:
2571. As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, you A. Capo
approach an intersection with the traffic light with a B. Omerta
“green color” on but a traffic policeman is standing C. Jihad
at the center of intersection conducting the flow D. Ideology
normally. As a driver you will ignore the traffic man 2582. It was an event said to be the origin of conflict in
and follow the automatic traffic light- Mindanao and for the establishment of Moro
A. True National Liberation Front (MNLF):
B. False A.Rizal Day Bombing
C. Sometimes B.Ninoy assassination
D. It depends C.Black September
2572. Term used for an operator or a vehicle which strikes D.Jabbidah Massacre
another vehicle, object or person and left the scene 2583. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted
without stopping to identify himself or render aid terrorist in the world who issued a “fatwa” that calls
A. hit and run all Muslims around the world to slay Americans and
B. third party liability their allies.
C. reckless driving A. Abu-Abbas
D. side sweeper B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef
2573. A systematic examination of all the facts relating to C. Ahmed Yassin
conditions, actions and physical features associated D. Osama bin-Laden
with motor collision or accident – 2584. This refers to an attribute of organized crime that
A.traffic engineering their memberships have limitations based on
B.traffic accident investigation kinship, criminal record, or similar considerations:
C.reckless driving A.No Political Goals
D.hit and run B.Hierarchical
2574. A public officials, law enforcement officers or C.Constitutes a Unique Subculture
anybody who are not a member of the organization D.Limited or Exclusive Membership
who can helps the organization 2585. Organized crime differs from terrorism in terms of
A. Enforcer their:
B. Capo A. membership
C. Corrupter B. motivation
D. Corruptee C. leadership
2575. What type of OCG which is manned by semi- D. networking
organized individual with the end view of attaining 2586. This theory refers to those processes by which the
psychological gratification such as adolescent gangs. community influences its members towards
A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime conformity with established norms and behavior.
B.Political Graft A. differential association
C.Predatory Organized Crime B. social control
D.Syndicated Organized Crime C. anomie
2576. A continuing illegal activity of group of person which D. strain
is primarily concerned with the generation of profits, 2587. It is a form of modern day slavery.
irrespective of national boundaries as a result of A. Human Trafficking
globalization. B. Prostitution
A.Transnational Organized Crime C. Drug Trafficking
B.Transnational Crime D. Sex tourism
C.Organized Criminal Group 2588. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified
D.NONE when:
2577. What category of terrorist group which is What A.the person trafficked is an elderly
category of terrorist group which is dedicated to B.the person trafficked is a special child
overthrow an established order and replacing it with C.the person trafficked is a woman
a new political or social structure? D.the person trafficked is a child
A. Ethnocentric

Page 115 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 2589. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 A. 20 years
provides that an organized criminal group must have B. 12 years
a membership of at least ___: C. 6 years
A. 3 or More D. 3 years
B. 2 or More 2601. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful
C. 4 or More activity are transacted or attempted to be
D. 5 or More transacted, to make them appear to have originated
2590. In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is formerly from legitimate sources:
included. A. Estafa
A. Al Qaeda B.Money Laundering
B. MILF C. Anti-Money Laundering
C. MNLF D. Swindling
D. JI 2602. This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic
2591. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means: and/or sound in electronic form, representing the
A.Swords bearer identity of a person and attached to or logically
B.Islamic Congregation associated with the electronic data message:
C.Father of the Swordsman A. electronic key
D.The Base B. originator
2592. These are the most frequent terrorist acts, C. electronic signature
accounting for as much as 80% of terrorist-related D. electronic date message
violence: 2603. Only a computer forensic expert should search for
A. Bombings any evidence contained in a computer hardware.
B. Assassinations A.The statement is absolutely correct
C. Kidnapping B.The statement is absolutely wrong
D. Prostitution C.The statement is partially correct
2593. This is also known as the Human Security Act of 2007: D.The statement is partially wrong
A. RA 9372 2604. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of 1998:
B. RA 9160 A. RA 8551
C. RA 9165 B. RA 8484
D. RA 8294 C. RA 9160
2594. This is the country which believed to be the origin of D. RA 9165
Mafia and Cosa Nostra: 2605. What is the name of the operation launched by US
A. United States of America Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden?
B. Italy A.Operation Geronimo
C. Japan B.Operation Jabbidah
D. China C.Operation Neptune Spear
2595. An Asian organized crime that represents mystical D.Operation Merdeka
symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle 2606. These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT?
representing the heaven, earth and man: A. The Neopolitan Camera
A. Yakuza B. Sinilian Mafia
B. Triad C. Cali Cartel
C. Tongs D. Sacra Corona Unita
D. Born to Kill of Vietnam 2607. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to
2596. Chain of custody should be observed by the establish a shared database among concerned
investigating team of cybercrimes: agencies for information on criminals,
A.The Statement is wrong methodologies, arrests and conviction on
B.The statement is true transnational crime.
C.None of these A.Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes
D.All of these (PCTC)
2597. Internet pornography is punishable under E- B.National Commission on Anti Hijacking
Commerce Act of 2000: (NACAH)
A.The Statement is correct C.International Criminal Police Organization
B.Statement is wrong (ICPO)
C.either of the above D.Philippine National Police (PNP)
D.neither of the above
2598. Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet cafes and
cyber cafes, where majority of cybercrimes are 2608. It is known as IP address that changes every time the
perpetuated, are legally required to have permanent internet accesses his ISP:
logs and records of their clients: A. ISP
A.The statement is true B. Dynamic IP address
B.The statement is false C. Static IP Address
C.Neither of the above D. IP Address
D.Either of the above 2609. It refers to an act sending fraudulent mails or website
2599. The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides that pop-ups, to get victims to divulge sensitive financial
telecommunication companies are legally bound to information such as credit card numbers or social
cooperate with the law enforcement agencies in the security numbers.
course of their investigation: A. Phising
A.The statement is absolutely correct B. Hacking
B.The statement is absolutely wrong C. Cracking
C.The statement is partially correct D. Identity Theft
D.The statement is partially wrong 2610. It refers to a computer program that can copy itself
and infect a computer without permission or
2600. It is the maximum imprisonment for violation of E- knowledge of the user
Commerce Act of 2000. A. Virus

Page 116 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 B. Trojan Horse B. burning nipa hut
C. Logic Bomb C. exploding gas depot
D. Worm D. forest fire
2611. What kind of hacker who breaks into computer 2622. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
systems with malicious intent, usually for some A.simultaneous fire
criminal purpose. B.thick reddish smoke
A. Black Hat Hackers C.faulty electric wiring
B. Gray Hat Hacker D.unexplained explosion
C. White Hat Hackers 2623. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires?
D. Any color A.water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
2612. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is known B.there is the danger of electrocution
as “Back to Islam”. C.burning metals are too hot
A. Abu Sayyaf D.explosion may occur
B. MILF 2624. Mechanical device strategically located in an
C. Je naah Islamiya installation or street where fire hose is connected so
D. Rajah Solaiman Movement that water with pressure will be available to
extinguish fire.
2613. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with A. fire hose box
the capacity to indiscriminately kill large numbers of B. fire truck
people. C. hose reel
A.Nuclear D. fire hydrant
B.Weapon of mass destruction 2625. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction
C.Anthrax is known as ___.
D.Chemical weapons A. reducing agent
2614. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest criminal B. oxidizing agent
organization in the world. C. cooling agent
A. Al Qaeda D. chemical agent
B. Jihad 2626. 236. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in a
C. Chinese Mafia building:
D. Nuestra Costra A.It only moves horizontally
B.It has a circular movement
2615. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor C.It moves sideways while moving vertically
pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric D.It has a circular movement while moving
pressure? horizontally
A. vapor density 2627. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space
B. fire point containing an oxygen-starved superheated product
B. boiling point of incomplete combustion or oxygen-deficient free
D. vapor pressure radicals, may result to an explosion, which is called:
A. Spontaneous ignition
2616. It is a combustion product and a manifestation of fire B. flashover
when it is in its gas-phased combustion. C. Backdraft
A. Flames D. Flash fire
B. Exothermic reaction
C. Endothermic reaction 2628. It refers to the increase or rising of amperage while
D. NONE electric current is flowing in a transmission line
2617. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at the resulting to the damage or destruction of insulating
bottom or a vessel being heated due to incomplete materials, maybe gradual or rapid, internal or
combustion and has a low temperature. external.
A. Luminous A. Arcing
B. Non-luminous B. Induced Current
C. Laminar C. Over Heating
D. Turbulent D. sparkling
2618. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ____. 2629. The most common motive for arson is
A. Infection A. jealousy
C. shock B. profit
B. burns C. spite
D. asphyxiation D. revenge
2619. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state 2630. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of
under pressure and at normal atmospheric arson?
temperature inside its container? A.inflammable substance found in the premises
A. cryogenic gas B.simultaneous fire in more than one part of the
B. liquefied gas building
C. compressed gas C.building insurance
D. nuclear gas D.any of the choices
2631. What is the process of raising the temperature to
2620. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the separate the on-volatile from the less volatile parts
method is called ____. and then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor
A. radiation so as to produce a nearly purified substance?
B. oxidation A. combustion
C. convection B. evaporation
D. conduction C. distillation
2621. Which of the following does NOT fall under class A D. condensation
fires?
A. none of the choices

Page 117 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 2632. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire 2643. All except one are aggravating circumstances in
hydrant? Arson.
A. hydrant key A.If committed with intent to gain:
B. key board B.If committed with the benefit of another:
C. fire hose C.If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred
D. jumper towards the owner or occupant of the property
2633. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam burned:
where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam D.If committed by a syndicate
forming ascent or descent? E.None of the Above
A. rope 2644. What color of smoke is present when the materials
B. hydrant burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay?
C. ladder A. Black
D. nozzle B. White
2634. What are the cross members between the beam and C. Yellow
used in climbing the ladder called? D. Blue
A. hangar 2645. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been
B. beams declared, what is the first thing that a fire prober
C. rungs must determine?
D. braces A.look for survivors
2635. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson B.search for debris
cases in our midst, which of the following facilities C.locate the point of origin
should you check? D.established corpus delicti
A.Gift-wrapped packages 2646. Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C (1000F)
B.Electric switch system is a:
C.Telephones A. Combustible liquid
D.All of these B. Corrosive liquid
2636. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the C. Flammable liquid
highest point of the roof is referred to as: D. Volatile liquid
A. vertical ventilation 2647. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy;
B. cross ventilation however examination of lungs and blood showed no
C. forced ventilation abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide,
D. horizontal ventilation what will be your interpretation under such
2637. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, circumstance?
the most probable extinguishing method is: A.The person died because of asphyxia
A. smothering B.The person died because of the burning
B. fuel removal C.The person was killed before it was burned
C. cooling D.The person died not of fire but because of
D. dilution suffocation
2638. The most important element of Fire? 2648. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting
A.Fuel operation involving high-rise building?
B.Chemical chain reaction A. attic
C.Heat B. extension
D.Oxygen C. aerial
2639. A complete and detailed checked of the structures D. hook
and material involved in the fire to make sure that 2649. 257.What type of ground ladder which contains only
every spark and ember has been extinguished and to one section, it ranges between 12 to 16 feet.
have assurance against A. Straight ladder
A. Overhaul B. Attic ladder
B. Rescue C. Extension ladder
C. Salvage D. Wall ladder
D. None 2650. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to
2640. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose facilitate flame propagation.
they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the A. Plant
most likely reason for taking this position? B. Trailer
A.The stream is projected farther C. Accelerant
B.The surrounding air is cool making the firemen D. Gasoline
comfortable 2651. Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober.
C.A backward force is developed which must be A. Witness
counter acted B. Society
D.The firemen can see better when the stream C. First responder
strikes D. Owner
2641. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the 2652. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines.
crime that you have to file is: A. RA 9514
A. murder with arson B. PD 1185
B. arson with murder C. RA 8294
C. murder D. RA 8484
D. arson 2653. All BUT one are the basis of criminal liability in Arson.
2642. This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical A.Kind and character of the building burned
powder intended to fight all classes of fires. B.Location of the building
A. H20 C.Extent or value of the damage
B. Liquefied D.Whether inhabited or not
C. Dry Chemical E.None of the choices
D. Soda Acid 2654. The amount of drug that produces untoward effect
of symptoms of poisoning.

Page 118 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 A. Minimal Dose A. Assistant Secretary
B. Abusive Dose B. Secretary
C. Toxic Dose C. Chairman
D. Maximal Dose D. Undersecretary
2666. What is the minimum age required to be able to
2655. A kind of Drug users, whose activities revolve almost become a PDEA agent?
entirely around the drug experience and securing A. 16
supplies. B. 18
A. Situational C. 21
B. Hard-core D. s25
C. Hippies 2667. The Academy shall be headed by a ____, with the
D. Spree rank of Director. He/She shall be appointed by the
2656. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are quickly ___.
absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is probably A. Chairman/President
the second most commonly used route of drug B. Secretary/PDEA DG
administration, C. CSUPT/President
A. Snorting D. SUPT/PDEA DG
B. inhalation 2668. The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in
C. oral ingestion the planning and formulation of policies and
D. Injection programs on drug prevention and control
2657. Among the countries involved in the first important A. PDES
drug traffic route, which is responsible for B. DDB
preparation for distribution? C. PNP Narcotics
A. Middle East D. NBI Narcotics
B. USA 2669. They serve as permanent consultant of the
C. Turkey Dangerous Drug Board:
D. Europe A.NBI Director and PNP Director General
B.PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
C.PNP Director and PDEA Director
D.Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice
2670. If the clandestine laboratory is established in the
2658. Which among the following responsible for following circumstances such will serve as
producing almost 60% of Opium in the world. Aggravating Circumstances:
A. Golden triangle A.Conducted in the presence or with the help of
B. Golden Crescent minor/s
C. Silver Triangle B.Established within one hundred (100) meters
D. White Christmas of a residential, business, church or school
2659. What countries constitute the Golden Crescent? premises.
A.Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India C.Secured or protected with booby traps
B.Peru, Columbia, Bolivia D.Concealed with legitimate business operations
C.Burma, Laos, Thailand E.Employment of a practitioner, chemical
D.Myanmar, Laos, Thailand engineer, public official or foreigner
2660. It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in F.all of the choices
Europe”. 2671. The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed of how
A. Philippines many Ex-officio Members?
B. Mexico A. 2
C. Spain C. 2
D. Lebanon B. 12
2661. It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve pain and often D. 17
induce sleep. 2672. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
A. Sedatives A.Its branches which occur at opposite points on
B. Stimulants the stalk
C. Hallucinogen B.Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
D. Narcotics. C.Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose
2662. It is the most important alkaloids and constitutes edges are serrated in shape.
about 10% of the use raw opium. D.Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
A. Morphine
B. Heroin 2673. What agency of the government supervises drug
C. Codeine rehabilitation centers and drug testing networks and
D. Opium laboratories?
2663. The drug taken from the cola bust plant Ertyroxylon A.Department of Interior and Local Government
coca. B.Department of Health
A. Cocaine C.Department of Justice
B. Marijuana D.Department of Social Welfare and Development
C. Papayer Somniferum 2674. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous
D. claviceps purpurea Drug Board:
2664. Opium subjected to Marquis Test will run into ___ A. 2 years
specs. B. 6 years
A. Blue C. 4 years
B. Orange D. co-terminus
C. Violet 2675. The penalty imposed for possession of Dangerous
D. Red Drug Paraphernalia shall be:
2665. PDEA is headed by Director General with the rank of
___

Page 119 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 B.Not more than three (3) tablets for capsules or
A.6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of 50 to tables
200 thousand pesos. C.Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid solution
B.6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine of 10 D.Not more than ten (10 grams) for dried leaves
to 50 thousand pesos. and not more than 2 plants.
C.4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to 40 E.All of the choices
thousand pesos. 2683. The following shall not be subject to Mandatory Drug
D.6 months rehabilitation Testing EXCEPT:
2676. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into A.Students of Secondary and Tertiary Schools
the body of any person with or without his/her B.Persons apprehended or arrested for violation
knowledge either by injection inhalation, ingestion of the Provision of Comprehensive Dangerous
or other means. Drug Act.
A. Administer C.Officers and Employee of public and private
B. Use offices
C. Dispense D.A and C only
D. Deliver 2684. Preliminary Investigation of cases involving
dangerous drugs shall be terminated within a period
2677. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made of:
secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. A. 180 days
Various techniques were made by its operator in B. 45 days
concealing their activities. B. 30 days
A. Hide-out operation D. 60 days
B. Safe house 2685. An analytical test using some tools or device design
C. Clandestine Operation to validate or affirm the result of a preliminary or
D. Drug Syndicate screening test.
2678. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect on: A. Screening test
A. June 7, 2002 B. Confirmatory rest
B. July 4, 2002 C. Physical test
C. July 30, 2002 D. Chemical Test
D. June 18, 2003 2686. The ____ shall designate special courts from among
2679. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing the existing RTC in each judicial region to exclusively
according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT try and hear cases involving violation of RA 9165.
A.Officers and Employee of public and private A. DOJ
offices. B. Supreme Court
B.Applicant for firearms license and for permit to C. DDB
carry firearms outside residence D. Sandiganbayan
C.Officers and Members of the Military, police
and other law enforcement agencies
D.All candidates for public office whether
appointed or elected both in national or local
government units. 2687. The law that penalized the use and possession or the
E.All persons charged before the prosecutor’s unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile substances is:
office with a criminal offense having an A. P.D. 1519
imposable penalty of not less than six (6) years B. P.D. 1916
and one (1) day. C. P.D. 1619
2680. Apprehending team having initial custody and D. P.D. 580
control of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, 2688. A laboratory examination is only required to
or plant sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory apprehend offender within 24 hours if the person
equipment shall immediately after seizure, physical arrested has:
inventory and photograph the same in the presence A.Physical sign of drug abuse
of the following, EXCEPT. B.Symptoms of Drug abuse
A.To person from whom such items were C.Visible manifestation that suspect was under
confiscated or his representative or counsel. the influence of drugs
B.A representative from the media. D.All of the choices
C.A representative from the DOJ. 2689. Within how many minutes after intake of alcoholic
D.Any elected public official. beverage is the absorption is faster?
E.None of the choices A. 20 to 30 minutes
2681. Apprehending team having initial B. 30 to 60 minutes
custody and control of dangerous drugs or controlled C. 10 to 20 minutes
of chemical, or plant sources of dangerous drugs or D. 50 to 60 minutes
laboratory equipment shall immediately after 2690. It is the percentage of alcohol blood which indicates
seizure, physical inventory and photograph the same that the person is under the influence of the
in the presence of the following, EXCEPT. liquor (alcohol)?
A.To person from whom such items were A. 0.05
confiscated or his representative or counsel B. 1.5
B.A representative from the media C. 0.15
C.A representative from the DOJ D. 0.50
D.Any elected public official 2691. The person who manages houses of ill-refute where
E.None of the choices the business of prostitution is conducted.
A. Pimp
2682. In what quantity of specimen should be taken by B. prostitute
forensic examiner of drugs for scientific analysis: C. Knocker
A.Not more than five (5) grams per package/bag D. Maintainer

Page 120 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 2692. The person is argumentative and overconfident. 2703. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and
There is slight impairment of mental difficulties. subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct of
A. Slight inebriation investigation involving the violations of RA 9165.
B. Moderate inebriation A. True
C. Drunk B. Partially True
D. Very drunk C. False
D. Partially False
2693. Persons who were found guilty under the Section 70
of RA 9165 is ____:
A.Qualified to apply for probation
B.Disqualified to apply for probation 2704. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use
C.Allowed to apply for probation as a veterinary anesthetic.
D.Not allowed to apply if the sentence is more A. Ketamine
than 6 years and 1 day B. Codeine
2694. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”. C. Anesthesia
A. Marijuana D. Sleeping pills
B. Ecstacy 2705. What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its 2 nd
C. Shabu violation.
D. None of these A.6 Months Rehabilitation
2695. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more as a B.12 Months Rehabilitation
cough reliever? C.6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years
A. morphine D.12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years
B. cocaine 2706. It refers to the willful act of any person of maliciously
C. opium and secretly inserting, placing, attaching, or adding
D. codeine directly or indirectly, through any overt or cover acts:
2696. When drunken person does not know the A. Entrapment
intoxicating strength of the beverage he has taken. B. Planting of Evidence
A. involuntary C. Instigation
B. Intentional D. Black mailing
C. Habitual 2707. It is the Agency of the government that will take
D. Coma charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs
2697. Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of which leads confiscated:
to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind A. Maritime Police
and body. B. Dangerous Drug Board
A. Morality C. PDEA
B. Vices D. NBI
C. Prostitutions E. PNP
D. Gambling 2708. “A” was arrested for possessing seven (7) grams of
2698. After filling of the criminal cases, the court shall Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, 2012. Up to what
conduct ocular inspection of the confiscated, seized time and date the arresting officers have to subject
and/or surrendered dangerous drugs, and controlled “A” to a drug test as required by the law?
precursors within: A.7:00 P.M., October 25
A. 24 hours B.7:00 P.M., October 24
B. 30 days C.8:00 A.M., October 26
C. 72 hours D.8:00 A.M., October 25
D. 48 hours 2709. Which among the following data concerning
2699. That part of the body most affected to by heavy photographs as evidence is LEAST essential?
drinking are: A.date and hour which each photograph was
A.digestive system and nervous system taken
B.brain and veins of the body B.identification of the police photographer
C.the lungs and heart C.proof of ownership of the camera
D.None of the above D.focal length of the lens
2700. Can a high school student be compelled to undergo 2710. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a
drug test? rough sketch is for _____.
A. yes A.scale and proportion
B. maybe B.future use
C. upon circumstances C.accuracy and clarity
D. No D.courtroom presentation
2701. SPO4 Mabagal intentionally failed to appear as a 2711. All except are object evidence that should be taken
prosecution witness during trial of the case against photograph individually, EXCEPT?
the alleged drug dealer caught in buy-bust operation. A. Knife
What will be his penalty? B. Semen
A.20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment C. stone
B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years D. Gun
C. Life imprisonment 2712. All are considered as emergency vehicle, EXCEPT?
D. Death penalty A. Police car on call
B. Ambulance on call
2702. PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their C. Fire Truck on call
suspect and PO2 Tayson planted 1 gram of shabu. Is D. Physician’s car
their penalty the same? 2713. Children who are prohibited to be seated in the front
A. No seat of any running motor vehicle:
B. False A.Seven years old
C. Yes B.six years and old and under
D. True C.under six years old

Page 121 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 D.seven years old and under B. Drug dependence
2714. Marijuana is also known as? C. Drug Addiction
D. Physical dependence
A. Coke 2727. What classification would solvents, paints and gasoline which
B. Poppers are examples of substances that are sniffed to obtain intoxication
C. Cannabis fall?
D. Morphine A. Depressants
2715. Who will be punished of life imprisonment in illegal B. energizers
drug cases? C. inhalants
A. User D. tranquilizers
B. Pusher
C. Possessor 2728. What is the act of injecting or that means of introducing the
D. Coddler dangerous drug into the physiological system of the body?
2716. Most abuse drugs in the Philippines? A. Consumption
A. Marijuana B. Use
B. Shabu C. Administration
C. Cocaine D. Abuse
D. Morphine 2729. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in obtaining
2717. Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal behavior? the drug, thinking and discussing about it and using it to meet his
A. Yes problems and to escape from reality, he is –
B. No A. Socially dependent on drugs
C. Sometimes B. Mentally dependent on drugs
D. It depends C. Psychologically dependent on drugs
D. Physically dependent on drugs
2718. It is very important to rehabilitate every drug addict to? 2730. A derivative of opium 5 times more powerful than morphine.
A. Reintegrate him to society A. amphetamines
B. Punish him B. cocaine
C. Give him a lesson C. heroin
D. Incapacitate him D. iodine

2719. In investigation, “corpus delicti” means body of the crime 2731. The most important constituent of opium is the drug:
scene. Legally, it means A. cocaine
A. proof in the commission of crime B. codeine
B. body of the victim C. heroin
C. wrongful act D. morphine
D. none of these 2732. The number of persons who handle the evidence from the
2720. Deals with the study of major crimes based on the application scene of the crime and between the times of the commission of the
of special investigative technique. crime up to the final disposition of the case.
A. background investigation A. chain of custody
B. criminal investigation B. time of custody
C. preliminary investigation C. time of disposal
D. special investigation D. time of disposition
2721. What is the other name for marijuana? 2733. The substance known as the “miracle drug” refers to:
A. rope A. morphine
B. grassland B. cocaine
C. weed C. heroin
D. leaf D. codeine
2722. Purpose of coordination prior to buy-bust operation regarding 2734. The word hashish is derived from the name of
drug operation. Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashish refers to:
A. information A. female marijuana plant
B. abuses B. male marijuana plant
C. integrity C. marijuana leaves
D. reliability D. the marijuana resin
2723. The Miranda Law in the Philippine setting is: 2735. What drug is the hydrochloride of an alkaloid obtainable by
A. RA 7438 the action of acetic anhydride or morphine in which the alkaloid
B. RA 8353 base may be made by treating morphine with acetyl chloride,
C. RA 9160 washing the product with a dilute alkaline solution and crystallizing
D. RA 9165 from alcoholic solution?
A. cocaine
2724. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source of a B. codeine
prohibited drug? C. heroin
A. Marijuana D. paregoric
B. Opium 2736. Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as
C. Coca bush A. cocaine
D. Peyote B. marijuana
2725. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self- C. opium
awareness and emotion? D. shabu
A. Narcotics 2737. Is any agent which neutralizes, opposes or counteracts poison
B. Stimulants or its effect
C. Depressants A. alkaloid
D. Hallucinogens B. antidote
2726. What is that state arising from repeated administration of a C. emetic
drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis? D. titanic
A. Habituation

Page 122 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
2738. “Shabu” is chemically known as: A. reduce the need for the drug
A. methamphetamine B. satisfy more than one motive or need
B. methamphetamine HCL C. increase the satisfaction of use
C. methyl amphetamine D. give sense of well being
D. methyleneamine
2750. Which of the following drugs produces the effect of mood
2739. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent elevation, heightened alertness, and increase energy?
Cannabis Sativa. A. Solvents
A. hashish B. LSD
B. marijuana C. Shabu
C. morphine D. Narcotics
D. opium
2751. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs are
2740. Scientific name for cocaine. known as “downers”?
A. cannabis sativa A. Hallucinogens
B. erythroxylon coca B. Barbiturates
C. methamphetamine hydrochloride C. solvents
D. methyl benzoyl ecgonine D. cocaine

2741. Analgesic or pain-killing substance that depresses vital body

functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and breathing rate. The 2752. Who has committed an act which is punishable under RA
regular administration of narcotics will produce physical 6425, as amended, with a penalty range of reclusion perpetua to
dependence. death and a fine of P500,000 to P10,000,000.00?
A. depressants A. Pedro who is caught cultivating marijuana plants
B. hallucinogens in a plantation in the Cordillera.
C. narcotic B. Julio who was caught for illegal possession of
D. stimulants opium pipes and other paraphernalia.
2742. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the deeper C. Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful medical
layer of the skin by means of special electric current? prescription
A. Topical method D. Pablo who maintains a den for the illegal use of
B. Injection method volatile substances.
C. Iontophoresis 2753. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous
D. Oral method system and are commonly referred to as “uppers”?
A. Amphetamines
B. Naptha
C. Barbiturates
2743. What part of the globe is the principal source of all forms of D. Diazepam
cocaine? 2754. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?
A. South East Asia A. opiates
B. South America B. Track
C. Middle East C. Shabu
D. South West Asia D. coke
2744. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in 2755. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-
A. Columbia awareness and emotion?
B. India A. Narcotics B.
C. Mexico Stimulants
D. France C. Depressants
2745. What is the group of drugs that are considered to be mind D. Hallucinogens
altering and gives the general effect of mood distortion? 2756. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs
A. Sedatives Act of 2002, Providing Funds Therefore and for Other Purposes.
B. Hallucinogens
C. Hypnotic A. RA 9165
D. Tranquillizers B. RA 1956
2746. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”? C. RA 9156
A. Heroin D. RA 1965
B. Marijuana 2757. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug incidents?
C. Cocaine A. Reclusion Perpetua
D. Shabu B. Life Imprisonment
C. Death
2747. Which of the following refers to acute cases of withdrawal of D. Fine
drugs that causes serious physical illness? 2758. Who is the primary author of RA 9165?
A. Psychological dependence A. Sen. Ramon Revilla
B. Physical dependence B. Sen. Miriam Defensor Santiago
C. Addiction C. Sen. Joker Arroyo
D. Withdrawal syndrome D. Sen. Tito Sotto
2748. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from injection of
hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to 2759. These are the requirements during the conduct of actual buy-
A. liquid amphetamine bust operations.
B. Shabu A. poseur buyer
C. Heroin B. marked money
D. freebase cocaine C. all of the choices
D. none of these
2749. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and functions of 2760. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or
drug use, the more a drug is used the more it tends to underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by RA 9165.

Page 123 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 A. employee 2774. In interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident
B. caretaker what is the primary consideration to be taken by the police
C. financier D. investigator.
lookout A.Conduct each interview separately
B.Listen only to witnesses because they are not
2761. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to biased
female customers? C.Listen to both sides
a. Johns D.Conduct the interview jointly
b. Gigolo 2775. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection
c. Pimps at the same time who shall yield the right of way as a
d. Rentboys general rule
2762. What is the theory of organized crime wherein the A. The driver on the left
penalty of crimes must be severe in order to deter the B.The faster vehicle
commission of crimes? C.The driver on the right
a. Anomie D. The slower vehicle
b. Deterrence theory 2776. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow
c. Rational choice theory moving vehicles should use the:
d. None of the above A.lanes 2 and 3
2763. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal drugs? B.outer lanes
A. Lot lizards C.inner lanes
C. Hookers D.either the inner or outer lanes
B. Skeezers 2778. As a general rule, you should overtake on the left side,
D. Punters except when-
2764. Globalization refers to the rapid growth and A.the oncoming traffic is free from an obstruction
development of what culture? B.the opposite traffic is free from oncoming
a. Northern motor vehicles
b. Eastern C.traversing on a two-way two-lane highway
c. Western D.cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic way
d. Southern 2779. The double solid white line:
A.doesn’t allow lane changing
2765. Crimes consummated by the use of computers and other B.allows overtaking
highly modern devices. C.allows lane changing
a. Transnational crimes D.allows parking
b. white collar crimes 2780. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking
c. modern crimes for defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian,
d. cyber crimes vehicles and roadway condition.
2768. The following are transnational crimes, except A. Apprehension
a. drug trafficking B. Adjudication
b. gun smuggling C. Defection
c. money laundering D. Prosecution
d. illegal recruitment 2781. Traffic arrest can be made when the following are
2769. The following countries comprises the Golden Triangle, present, EXCEPT:
except A to avoid continues violation
a. Thailand B. offense committed is serious
b. Laos C. the violator will not attend in court
c. Myanmar D. involved in vehicular accident
d. Vietnam 2782. The following are the good ways of searching the
2770. A term used to describe a place where trafficked person scene of hit-and-run accident, EXCEPT:
are brought and forced to become prostitutes. A.look over the grounds at what seems to be the
a. sweat shops point of collision
b. hotels B.follow the path that the vehicle took in leaving
c. brothels the scene
d. motels C.study the objects the vehicle has struck
2771. Founder of the Abu-Sayyaf Group? D.established the identity of the vehicles
a. Khaddafy Janjalani 2783. These are the basic steps in traffic accident-
b. Hashim Salamay investigation, EXCEPT
c. Abdurajack Janjalani A.goes to scene as quickly as possible
d. Nur Misuari B.Gassesses the situation and call for assistance
C.care to the injured and protect their property
2772. It is correct to say that the world’s first traffic light 2462
came into being before the automobile was in use? 2784. A general principle of traffic accident, investigation is
A. No to:
B. It depends A.Look for the key event that causes the accident
C. Sometimes B.Regard any unfavorable factor, existing
D. Yes immediately prior to the accident, as a cause
2773. In planning for a traffic control program, which of the C.Consider violations as primary causes and any
following is NOT a factor to consider factors as secondary causes
A.model of cars and vehicles D.Consider road conditions as limiting conditions
B.existing road /highway system rather as causes
C.incidence of traffic accidents 2785. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01%
D.traffic congestion hazards of the assessed value of a building.
A. single family dwellings
B. department store
C. hospitals

Page 124 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 D. schools b. it one culture of the Japanese to put tattoos on
2786. This marking on the roadway indicates that the lane their bodies.
is for right turn only: c. they delight in showing theother members their
A.Two headed arrow tattoos.
B.Arrow pointing to left d. anybody without tattoos are expelled from the
C.Straight arrow on the pavement group.
D.The arrow is pointing to the right 2798. The initiation of the Chinese Triad
2787. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the consists of
flow of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by a. placing a drop of blood of the recruit on a
keeping in full view of traffic: photograph of a saint and then let it burn on his
A. Stationary palm while reciting his oath to the organization.
B. Visible b. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed
C.Conspicuous animal mixed with his blood and pass beneath
D. Inconspicuous an arch of swords while reciting his oath to the
2788. Licensed person allowing limited number of organization.
passengers, freight or cargo in public utility truck or buses c. the recruit will put body tattoos and lift three
A. Operator fingers while reciting his oath.
B. Driver d. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed
C.Conductor animal mixed with his blood and a picture of a
D. Pedestrian saint will be burned on his palm while reciting
2789. It is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an his oath.
object with which it has collided; the force between the 2799. What do the Yakuza do with their
object ceases at this time. tattoos?
A. Stopping a. Cover them as they are sacred.
B. Disengagement b. They undress to show everybody their tattoos.
C. Maximum Engagement c. They undress only inside their house.
D. Initial Contact d. They only undress during oicho kabu.
2790. A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire that is
sliding without rotation. Sliding of wheels may be due to 2800. What OPLAN was created by the PNP
braking to collision damage, or rarely, to other as their campaign against most wanted persons
circumstances. and other fugitives?
A. Skid Mark a. Oplan Cleansweep
B.Scuff Marks b. Oplan Criminal
C.Skip skid c. Oplan Pagtugis
D. Gas Skid d. Oplan Batas
2791. The place and time after or beyond which accident 2801. 31. It is a type of anomie wherein a
cannot be prevented by a particular traffic unit. person who accepts the cultural goals to become
A.point of no escape rich but failed to accept the institutional means of
B.point of Possible Perception achieving it.
C.Perception Delay a. Rebellion
D.Any of the above b. Retreatism
2792. Main cause of human trafficking. c. Conformity
a. lack of employment opportunities d. Innovation
b. poverty 2802. It is a type of anomie wherein an
c. corruption in government individual does not accept the cultural goal but
d. organized crimes accepted the institutional means of achieving it?
2793. Meaning of the phase Abu Sayyaf a. Innovation
a. Holder of the sword b. Retreatism
b. Founder of the sword c. Rebellion
c. Bearer of the sword d. Ritualism
d. Keeper of the sword 2803. It is referred to as oldest and biggest
2794. The other name given to the UN criminal organization in the world.
Convention Against Transnational Crimes a. Mafia
a. Palerna Convention b. Yakuza
b. Paterno Convention c. Chinese Triad
c. Palermo Convention d. Cali Cartel
d. Paderno Convention 2804. The name given to a person afflicted
2795. A prostitute who solicits customers in with a mental illness wherein he is sexually
public places is called aroused by young children.
a. street walker a. Pedophile
b. Johns. b. pervert
c. call boy. c. Maniac
d. whore. d. Pedophilia
2796. Placement is also called as
a. heavy soaping 2805. The former and original name of the
b. banking Mafia
c. immersion a. Sicilian Clan
d. spin dry. b. Code of Omerta
2797. The Yakuza has the ritual of putting c. Mafiosi
tattoos in almost all parts of their bodies. The d. La Cosa Nostra
reason is 2806. Moslem who participated in the
a. their white bodies are very good materials to Afghan war are referred to as
make drawings. a. Jihadis
b. Fundamentalists

Page 125 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 c. Mujaheddins 2818. Terrorist group responsible for the
d. Holy warriors bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in Yemen
2807. Founder of the New People’s Army of a. Hezbollah
NPA b. Hamas
a. Jose Mari Chan c. Al Qaeda
b. Jose Maria Sison d. Fatah
c. Jose Marie Gonzales
d. Jose Maria Sioson
2808. A member of the Bar refers to this 2819. One of the most important
profession components of terrorist-related investigations is
a. judges the collection and preservation of what?
b. investigators a. physical evidence
c. lawyers b. witnesses
d. prosecutors c. information
d. all of these
2820. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-
2809. The year the UN Convention Against Wire Tapping Law.”
Transnational Crimes was held. a. RA 4200
a. 2000 b. RA 4002
b. 2002 C. RA 2004
c. 2001 D. RA 4020
d. 2003 2821. Meaning of the term “Jihad”.
2810. The founder of the Moro Islamic a. Holy War
Liberation Front b. Holy Mass
a. Nur Misuari c. Holy Cow
b. Khadaffy Janjalani d. Holy Ghost
c. Hashim Salamat 2822. Founder of the terrorist group Al
d. Abdurajack Janjalani Qaeda
a. Yasser Arafart
2811. The founder of the Moro National b. Osama Bin Laden
Liberation Front c. Abdurajack Janjalani
a. Nur Misuari d. Abu Nidal
b. Khadaffy Janjalani 2823. Standard rifle of socialist and
c. Hashim Salamat communist countries
d. Abdurajack Janjaalani a. M16
2812. In the strategy of terrorist, what is b. AK47
used for the people, government and the world c. M14
to know their aims? d. Galil
a. Television 2824. Terrorist group that operates within a
b. Newspaper single state or country.
c. Radio a. Transnational
d. All of the choices b. national
2813. Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers c. international
of God”. d. none of them
a. Abu Sayaff 2825. The most wanted terrorist in the
b. Hezbollah world.
c. Fatah a. Yasser Arafat
d. Hamas b. Abu Nidal
2814. The most notorious and sought after c. Osama Bin Laden
terrorist group responsible for the 9/11 bombing d. Mohammad Alzawari
in the USA. 2826. It is entitled as, ”An Act to Secure the
a. Hezbollah State and Protect the People from Terrorism,”
b. Al Qaeda a. RA 9372
c. Fatah b. RA 9732
d. Hamas c. RA 9273
2815. South America country principal d. RA 9237
source of cocaine. 2827. It can be defined as the use of force of
a. Brazil the fear of force to achieve a political end.
b. Spain a. terrorism
c. Columbia b. violence
d. Chile c. felony
2816. Country which is 2/3 controlled by d. criminal act
Hezbollah 2828. Who formally organized the Kuratong
a. Israel Baleleng?
b. Gaza Strip a. Francisco Manuel
c. Lebanon b. Franco Calanog
d. West bank c. Fidel Ramos
2817. The smallest terrorist group in its d. Fajardo Sebastian
hierarchy.
a. organization
b. faction 2829. An organized crime in the Philippines
c. cell which is made up of former MNLF and MILF
d. station rebels.
a. A.Lexus Group

Page 126 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 b. B.Pentagon Group d. polar coordinate
c. C.Abu Sayyaf 2841. It is existing between the investigator
d. D.Ilonggo KFR Group and the subject, and it is usually determines the
2830. The largest and most powerful triad. success of the investigation.
a. A.Su Yee On a. rapport
b. B.14K b. personality
c. C.Wo Shing Wo c. breadth of interest
d. Sham Shui Po d. the approach
2831. What numeric code refer to the 2842. Usually, the conduct of investigation
Dragon head of the chinese triads? must start with this, purposely to develop rapport
a. A.438 with the subject, either the victim or suspect.
b. B.49 a. opening statement
c. C.489 b. inquiry of subject
d. D.426 c. narration
2832. What do you call the act of lending d. sympathetic approach
money in exchange of exorbitant interest?
a. Tax evasion 2843. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to
b. Revolutionary tax increase mental and physical function
c. Sokaiya a. stimulants
d. Loansharking b. Depressants
2833. What kind of vices are Lotto and c. Hallucinogens
casino? d. Narcotics/ Opiates
a. common 2844. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and
b. prohibited medically potent pain killers/ cough suppressants
c. regulated
d. unusual a. stimulants
2834. What is the penalty of a person using a b. Depressants
diplomatic passport in importing prohibited drugs c. Hallucinogens
inside the country? d. Narcotics/ Opiates
a. A.8-12 years 2845. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs
b. B.life imprisonment to death reducing functional nervous activity.
c. C.40 years to life imprisonment a. stimulants
d. all of the above b. Depressants
2835. What are the two divisions of c. Hallucinogens
Criminalistics? d. Narcotics/ Opiates
a. Physiacl and metallurgical
b. Scientific and technological
c. Biological and physiological
d. Biblical and Astrological 2846. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs
2836. What is secreted by the endocrine that causes hallucinations and changes our
glands which trigger and control many kinds of perception, thought, emotion and consciousness
bodily activities and behavior? and physical function
a. A.Tears a. stimulants
b. B.Hormone b. Depressants
c. C.Blood c. Hallucinogens
d. Sweat d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2837. Who among the following has the 2847. The following countries which
authority to conduct examination of a deceased considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also
person? considered as world’s top supplier for opium.
a. A.Medico Legal prober Which of the choices does not belong.
b. B.Medical Justice a. Vietnam
c. C.Medico Legal Officer b. Iran
d. Medical Scientist c. Afghanistan
d. Pakistan
2848. According to PDEA goal that
2838. These are the three fold aims of the Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country in
criminal investigator, EXCEPT: year___?
a. to identify the guilty party a. 2035
b. to provide evidence of his guilt b. 2025
c. to locate the guilty party c. 2030
d. to file charges at the proper court d. 2020
2839. It is a type of search wherein one 2849. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit
searcher is assigned to each subdivision of a drugs with the participation of the community.
quadrant. Tax evasion a. Oplan lambat sibat
a. zone method b. operation private eye
b. spiral method c. operation public eye
c. wheel method d. oplan galugad
d. strip method 2850. In the PNP what campaign was created
2840. It is the simplest way to locate points to fight against drug trafficking.
on sketch to give the distances from two mutually a. Oplan lambat sibat
perpendicular lines. common b. operation private eye
a. surveying methods c. operation public eye
b. cross projection d. oplan cleansweep
c. rectangular coordinates

Page 127 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 2851. A fire just started only a very small or
insignificant portion of house was being
damaged. 2861. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to
a. Consummated arson corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and
b. Attempted arson communication system
c. Frustrated arson a. hacking
d. No crime b. Trojan
2852. When a person sets fire to his own c. virus
property under what circumstances which expose d. intellectual property
to danger of life or property of another.
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
property 2862. The vehicles should not parked at
b. Arson these area.
c. malicious mischief a. Private driveway
d. no crime b. intersection
2853. Burning of house was due to lightning c. pedestrian lane
as a result of his prayer. d. fire hydrant
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of e. all the choices
property
b. Arson 2863. What is the penalty when a police
c. malicious mischief officer failed to appear in court to testify in a drug
d. no crime case without justifiable reason?
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
2854. It can effectively assist law b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment
enforcement agencies in combating organized c. Life imprisonment
crime and terrorism. d. Death
a. family 2864. Most important equipment in traffic
b. school accident investigation?
c. NGO a. cellphone
d. Community b. camera
c. Manila
2855. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, d. All of the choices
China wherein the pro-democracy protesters was 2865. What is the penalty when less than 5
killed grams shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
a. Tiananmen square massacre a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
b. Beijing square massacre b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
c. Tienanmen massacre c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
d. Tienanmen square massacre d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to
2856. A case of reckless imprudence 400k
occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a resident 2866. Refers to the standard arrow
from Manila while the victim from Quezon City. designating the north to facilitate proper sketch
Where the case should be filed? orientation.
a. Quezon City a. Proper north
b. Pasig City b. True north
c. Manila c. Legend
d. either of the above choices d. Compass direction
2857. It is a willfully and maliciously placing 2867. A search method in which the searchers
any dangerous drugs to implicate person to drug follow each other in the path of the coiled beginning
related crime. from the outside proceeding toward the center.
a. Buy bust operation a. Zone method
b. Instigation b. Wheel method
c. entrapment c. Spiral method
d. planting evidence d. Strip method
2858. September 11, 2001 tragedies is 2868. Taking into custody property described
known as Intelligence_______. in the search warrant as a result of a search, to be
a. Invalidate utilized as evidence in a case.
b. unsolved a. Seizure
c. success b. Detention
d. failure c. Safekeeping
d. Confiscation
2859. In investigation wherein a Death 2869. A method of criminal
appearing to be suicidal or accidental it should be identification whereby the perceptions of
treated as? witnesses are key and criminals are
a. Homicide case identified by depiction.
b. Suicide case a. Verbal description
c. Murder case b. General photographs
d. Any of the choices c. Police line up
2860. What is the penalty when a person d. Rouge gallery
bringing into country of illegal drugs using 2870. Instrument used to open / close fire
diplomatic channel or passport. hydrants.
a. Life imprisonment a. Sprinkler
b. Life imprisonment-death b. Fire pump
c. death c. Fire hose
d. no penalty because of immunity d. Hydrant key

Page 128 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 2871. Descriptive of any material when by its d. None of the foregoing
nature or as a result of its reaction with other 2882. First element known to man by experience,
elements promotes a rapid drop in temperature of a colorless, tasteless and odorless gas which supports
the immediate surroundings. life and fire.
a. Dust a. Nitrogen
b. Oxidizing material b. Hydrogen
c. Pyrolysis c. Oxygen
d. Cryogenic d. Neon
2872. Lowest temperature of a liquid in 2883. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any
open container at which vapors are evolved fast contrivance to start a fire.
enough to support continuous combustion. a. Fuel
a. Ignition temperature b. Oxygen
b. Kindling temperature c. Heat
c. Fire point d. None of the choices
d. Flash point 2884. Refers to gases liberated by heat.
2873. The temperature at which flammable a. Free radicals
liquid form a vapor-air mixture that ignites. b. Flash point
a. Ignition temperature c. Thermal balance
b. Kindling temperature d. Thermal imbalance
c. Fire point 2885. Refers to the normal pattern or
d. Flash point movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a
2874. Minimum temperature in building or structure under natural conditions.
which the substance in the air must be a. Free radicals
heated in order to initiate or cause a self- b. Pyrolysis
contained combustion without the c. Thermal balance
addition of heat from outside sources. d. Thermal imbalance
a. Boiling point 2886. In this phase of the fire the maximum
b. Ignition temperature heat and its destructive capabilities is developed.
c. Fire point a. Initial phase
d. Flash point b. Incipient phase
2875. An exothermic chemical change in c. Free burning phase
which a combustible material react with an d. Smoldering phase
oxidizing agent. 2887. A burnt pattern of inverted cone
a. Thermal balance indicates.
b. Thermal imbalance a. The fire triangle
c. Combustion b. The fingerprint of the fire
d. Oxidation c. Flashover
2876. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat d. Incipient phase of the fire
and light.
a. Pyrolysis
b. Combustion
c. Detonation 2888. An occurrence when the heat has
d. All of the foregoing brought the combus-tible portion of the ceiling to
2877. A chemical decomposition of matter their ignition temperature, it is characterized by a
through the action of heat. sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.
a. Pyrolysis a. Flashover
b. Combustion b. Backdraft
c. Detonation c. Thermal balance
d. Oxidation d. Thermal imbalance
2878. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, 2889. An explosive condition in the
through unit area of the material with unit smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden
temperature gradient. introduction of oxygen.
a. Conduction a. Flashover
b. Thermal conductivity b. Backdraft
c. Radiation c. Thermal balance
d. Fission d. Thermal imbalance
2879. A means of heat transfer when energy 2890. Which among the following is the
travels through space or materials as waves. primary objective in investigating fires?
a. Conduction a. To determine its cause
b. Convection b. To prevent recurrence
c. Radiation c. To determine liable persons
d. Fission d. All of the foregoing
2880. It is legally classified as arson and set 2891. Reason why fire investigation is
on purpose with a motive. unique.
a. Providential fire a. It does not conform with regular investigative
b. Accidental fire procedure
c. Intentional fire b. Unavailability of witnesses
d. None of the foregoing c. Fire destroys evidence
2881. Malicious and willful burning of a d. All of the foregoing
building, defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 2892. They are fires caused by unforeseen
788. acts of God.
a. Arson a. Providential
b. Providential fire b. Accidental
c. Accidental fire c. Intentional

Page 129 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 d. Incendiarism b. Arcing
2893. A combination of three elements c. Sparkling
namely: fuel, heat and oxygen. d. Overloading
a. Fire 2905. A device used by arsonists to spread the
b. Origin of fire fire within the room or throughout the structure.
c. Fire triangle a. Accelerant
d. All of the foregoing b. Plants
2894. Most important part of fire triangle for it is c. Trailer
what burns. d. Wick
a. Fuel 2906. Usually comes in form of combustible
b. Heat liquid which is a contrivance to hasten the start of
c. Oxygen fire.
d. Gas a. Accelerant
2895. A means by which heat is transformed b. Plants
by a circulating medium either gas or a liquid. c. Trailer
a. Conduction d. Wick
b. Convection
c. Radiation 2907. Most common reason of arson cases.
d. Fission a. Revenge
2896. The amount of heat necessary to convert b. Profit
solid to liquid. c. Competition
a. Specific heat d. All of the foregoing
b. Latent heat 2908. Result of slow oxidation of a
c. Heat of Combustion combustible material.
d. Heat of fusion a. Spontaneous heating
2897. Formed by the incomplete combustion b. Combustible gases
of acetylene or natural cracking of hydrogen in the c. Combustible dust
absence of air. d. None of the choices
a. Carbon black 2909. Refers to the preparation and gathering
b. Lamp black of materials to start a fire.
c. Soot a. Plants
d. Black bone b. Trailers
2898. Matter made up of very fine particles c. Accelerants
and condensed vapor as a result of combustion. d. Wick
a. Fire 2910. Act that would remove or neutralize a
b. Flame fire hazard.
c. Heat a. Abatement
d. Smoke b. Combustion
2899. Incandescent gases accompanied by c. Allotment
oxidation. d. Distillation
a. Fire
b. Flame 2911. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to
c. Heat increase mental and physical function
d. Smoke a. stimulants
2900. The threat to arson investigators after b. Depressants
fire has been contained. c. Hallucinogens
a. Backdraft d. Narcotics/ Opiates
b. Flashover 2912. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning medically potent pain killers/ cough suppressants
d. Falling debris
a. stimulants
2901. Color smoke produced accompanied by b. Depressants
red flames indicates the burning of what material? c. Hallucinogens
a. Rubber d. Narcotics/ Opiates
b. Nitrogen products 2913. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs
c. Asphalt singles reducing functional nervous activity.
d. Chlorine a. stimulants
2902. Which among the following is b. Depressants
commonly used in fire resistant materials? c. Hallucinogens
a. Asbestos d. Narcotics/ Opiates
b. Diamond
c. Asphalt 2914. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs
d. Cotton that causes hallucinations and changes our
2903. A form of static electricity of great perception, thought, emotion and consciousness
magnitude producing tremendous amperage and and physical function
voltage, it is the most common cause of a. stimulants
providential fires. b. Depressants
a. Rays of the sun c. Hallucinogens
b. Spontaneous heating d. Narcotics/ Opiates
c. Arcing 2915. The following countries which
d. Lighting considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also
2904. Most common source of accidental fire considered as world’s top supplier for opium.
is related to: Which of the choices does not belong.
a. Smoking a. Vietnam

Page 130 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 b. Iran 2925. It is a willfully and maliciously placing
c. Afghanistan any dangerous drugs to implicate person to drug
d. Pakistan related crime.
2916. According to PDEA goal that a. Buy bust operation
Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country in b. Instigation
year___? c. entrapment
a. 2035 d. planting evidence
b. 2025
c. 2030 2926. September 11, 2001 tragedies is
d. 2020 known as Intelligence_______.
2917. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit a. Invalidate
drugs with the participation of the community. b. unsolved
a. Oplan lambat sibat c. success
b. operation private eye d. failure
c. operation public eye
d. oplan galugad 2927. In investigation wherein a Death
2918. In the PNP what campaign was created appearing to be suicidal or accidental it should be
to fight against drug trafficking. treated as?
a. Oplan lambat sibat a. Homicide case
b. operation private eye b. Suicide case
c. operation public eye c. Murder case
d. oplan cleansweep d. Any of the choices
2928. What is the penalty when a person
2919. A fire just started only a very small or bringing into country of illegal drugs using
insignificant portion of house was being diplomatic channel or passport.
damaged. a. Life imprisonment
a. Consummated arson b. Life imprisonment-death
b. Attempted arson c. death
c. Frustrated arson d. no penalty because of immunity
d. No crime 2929. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to
corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and
2920. When a person sets fire to his own communication system
property under what circumstances which expose a. hacking
to danger of life or property of another. b. Trojan
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of c. virus
property d. intellectual property
b. Arson 2930. The vehicles should not parked at
c. malicious mischief these area.
d. no crime a. Private driveway
2921. Burning of house was due to lightning b. intersection
as a result of his prayer. c. pedestrian lane
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of d. fire hydrant
property e. all the choices
b. Arson
c. malicious mischief 2931. What is the penalty when a police
d. no crime officer failed to appear in court to testify in a drug
2922. It can effectively assist law case without justifiable reason?
enforcement agencies in combating organized a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
crime and terrorism. b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment
a. family c. Life imprisonment
b. school d. Death
c. NGO 2932. Most important equipment in traffic
d. Community accident investigation?
a. cellphone
2923. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, b. camera
China wherein the pro-democracy protesters was c. Manila
killed d. All of the choices
a. Tiananmen square massacre 2933. What is the penalty when less than 5
b. Beijing square massacre grams of shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
c. Tienanmen massacre a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
d. Tienanmen square massacre b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to
400k
e.
2934. Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers
2924. A case of reckless imprudence of God”.
occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a resident a. Abu Sayaff
from Manila while the victim from Quezon City. b. Hezbollah
Where the case should be filed? c. Fatah
a. Quezon City d. Hamas
b. Pasig City 2935. The most notorious and sought after
c. Manila terrorist group responsible for the 9/11 bombing
d. either of the above choices in the USA.

Page 131 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. Hezbollah 2947. The largest and most powerful triad.
b. Al Qaeda a. Su Yee On
c. Fatah b. 14K
d. Hamas c. Wo Shing Wo
2936. South America country principal d. Sham Shui Po
source of cocaine.
a. Brazil
b. Spain
c. Columbia
d. Chile
2937. Country which is 2/3 controlled by
Hezbollah
a. Israel
b. Gaza Strip
c. Lebanon
d. West bank
2938. The smallest terrorist group in its
hierarchy.
a. organization
b. faction
c. cell
d. station
2939. Terrorist group responsible for the
bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in Yemen
a. Hezbollah
b. Hamas
c. Al Qaeda
d. Fatah
2940. One of the most important
components of terrorist-related investigations is
the collection and preservation of what?
a. physical evidence
b. witnesses 2948. The apprehension or taking into
c. information custody of a child in conflict with the law by law
d. all of these enforcement officers or private citizens is termed
as:

A.Arrest
2941. Meaning of the term “Jihad”. B.Initialcontact
a. Holy War C.Childcustody
b. Holy Mass D. All of the above
c. Holy Cow
d. Holy Ghost
2949. It is the study of human society, its
2942. Founder of the terrorist group Al
Qaeda origin structure, functions and direction.
a. Yasser Arafart a. criminology
b. Osama Bin Laden b. sociology
c. Abdurajack Janjalani c. psychology
d. Abu Nidal d. anthropology
2943. Standard rifle of socialist and
2950. The science of classifying the physical
communist countries
characteristics.
a. M16
b. AK47 a. free will
c. M14 b. positivism
d. Galil c. atavism
2944. Terrorist group that operates within a d. somatology
single state or country. 2951. The approach that is using the
a. Transnational
perspective of heredity in explaining the cause of
b. national
c. international crime.
d. none of them a. geographical approach
2945. The most wanted terrorist in the b. biological approach
world. c. psychiatric application
a. Yasser Arafat d. psychological application
b. Abu Nidal 2952. The purpose of penalty in the positivism
c. Osama Bin Laden
school of criminology.
d. Mohammad Alzawari
2946. It can be defined as the use of force of a. retribution
the fear of force to achieve a political end. b. rejection
a. terrorism c. reformation
b. violence d. restoration
c. felony 2953. It is the study of formation of the skull
d. criminal act in relation to the behavior of the criminal.

Page 132 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. entomology B.absurdity
b. penology C. ephitomy
c. phrenology D. nocturnity
d. criminology 2964. These are the rights of an accused that
2954. Children shall be given priority are derived from special laws enacted by Congress.
during_____ as result of armed conflict.? A. Constitutional rights
a. war B. Civil rights
b. treatment C.Statutoryrights
c. evacuation D. Natural rights
d. education 2965. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the
2955. Science concerned with improving the national total crime volume of 84, 875, How many
quality of offspring. crimes were reported to the police?
a. criminology a. 22, 868
b. eugenics
b. 22, 068
c. genetics
d. heredity c. 20, 250
d. 32, 644
2966. What is the antonyms of the word
arrest?
2956. Commonly known as victimless crime: A. Apprehend
A.occassional crime B. Search
B.political crime C. Set free
C.public order crime D. Renounce
D. conventional crime 2967. How many members composed the
2957. A child whose basic needs have been “Pangkat?”
deliberately unattended. A. 1 member C. 2
a. abandoned child members
b. dependent child B. 3 members
c. abusive child D. 4 members
d. neglected child 2968. Murder cases numbered 180 in 2010
2958. The principle that events including and 220 in 2011. What was the percent increase?
criminal behavior that has sufficient causes.. a. + 22.2%
a. atavism b. + 20.2%
b. narassism c. + 22.0%
c. determinism d. + 20.1%
d. positivism 2969. If the population in municipality A is
2959. An established and generally accepted 195, 000 and the crime volume is 2, 540, what is
moral values refer to. the crime rate?
a. integrity a. 1230.6
b. morality b. 1465.2
c. ethical standard c. 1302.6
d. authority d. 1203.5
2960. This refers to a significant loss of 2970. In 2011 there were 90,345 crimes
contact with reality. reported to the police. If the 2011 population was
a. split mind 63 million what was the crime rate?
b. psychosis a. 147.5 b. 145.7
c. neurosis c. 143.4
d. schizoprenia d. 154.7
2971. In 2000 the police recorded a total of
2961. What is a person who kills 3 or more in 84,875 crimes committed. If the population was 62
a separate events? million what was the crime rate?
A.mass murder a. 139.6 b. 193.6
B. serial killer c. 136.9
C.homicidal d. 163.9
D. spree killer 2972. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the
2962. A bank robber who kills some individual national total crime volume of 84, 875, how many
in the bank, flees with hostages, and kills a number crimes were reported to the police?
of people while in flight diving a chase would be an a. 20, 250
example of: b. 32, 644
c. 22, 068
A. Serial Murder d. 22, 858
B. Spree Murder 2973. If the 128 murder cases in City B
C. Mass Murder represent 40% of the total murder cases in the
D. Multiple Murder province, what is the total value for murder cases
2963. What is the legal term for nighttime? province wide?
A. sanctuary

Page 133 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. 120 A. Class Theory
b. 420 B. Differential Opportunity
c. 430 C. Conflict Theory
D. Consensus Theory
d. 340
2984. A problem that occurs when offenders
2974. This theory views crime and who have been released from the system are
delinquency as a result of the frustration and anger placed in a program simply because the program
people experience over their inability to achieve exist.
legitimate social and financial success. A. Diversion Movement
a. strain theory B. Intervention
b. psychological theories C. Net widening
c. differential association theory D. Primary Deviance
d. labeling theory 2985. The term criminology was originally
derived from Italian word:
2975. This theory suggest that stability and a. crimen b.
changes in criminal and deviant behavior through criminologo
time and different stages in life. c. criminologia
A. Self Derogation Theory d. criminologie
B. Anomie Theory 2986. It is the scientific study of crime and the
C. Life Course Theory effort of the society to prevent and repressed
D. Routine Activities Theory them?
2976. This theory suggest that females and a. Crime
males are becoming equal in society in terms of b. Criminology
family, politics, and education c. Victimology
A. Feminist Theory d. Criminal justice
B. Paternalism 2987. The study of Criminology involves the
C. Liberation Theory use of knowledge and concept of other sciences
D. Life Course Theory and field of study which makes the study of
2977. In the power control theory by Hagan, criminology:
which father and mother share similar roles in the a. Dynamic
workplace and power in the family b. Nationalistic
A. Feminist theory c. Social science
B. Egalitarian family d. An applied science
C. Patriarchal family 2988. Criminal ________ refers to the study
D. Matriarchal family of the relationship between criminality and the
2978. These views suggest that males such as inhabitants of a certain locality:
judges, police officers, and prosecutors tend to a.Ecology
have traditional views on women thus, they are b) Demography
more lenient to them as compared to their male c) Epidiomology
counterparts. d) Physical anthropology
A. Paternalism 2989. It is the study of human society, Its
B. Chivalry Hypothesis origin, structure, functions and direction.
C. Masculinity a. Sociology
D. Power Control Theory b. Criminology
2979. This new branch in criminology opposes c. Psychology
the theoretical perspective and proposes the d. Anthropology
involvement of all stakeholders in the use of non 2990. It deals primarily with the study of
violent solutions crime causation.
A. Peacemaking Criminology a. Criminology
B. Sociology of Law b. Criminal Etiology
C. Restorative Justice c. Victimology
D. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis d. Criminal Sociology
2980. This crimes are those that the lower 2991. An act or omission in violation of the
class commit against the upper class of society in a public law commanding or forbidding it.
capitalist system a. Crime
A. Crimes of Passion b. Felony
B. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance c. Offense
C. Crimes of domination and Repression d. Infraction of law
D. Crimes of Lower class group 2992. Crimes are committed either by dolo or
2981. The ruling class in a capitalist system is deceit or by _____________.
the a. Culpa
A. Proletariat b. intent
B. Bourgeois c. Fault
C. Capitalist d. both a and c
D. Ruling class 2993. The following are the elements of Dolo
2982. Who proposed the theory of capitalism or deceit, EXCEPT:
and invoked communism as a remedy? a. Intelligence
A. George Vold c. Freedom
B. Karl Marx b. Intent
C. Emile Durkheim d. Negligence
D. Max Weber 2994. Perla, a victim of rape, was able to
2983. This theory believes that society is identify her assailant, a neighbor, before he dies
divided into two groups with competing values the on her way to the hospital where she was declared
upper class and lower class. dead on arrival, This crime is called,

Page 134 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. complex crime c. Blue-collar crimes
b. simple crime d. White collar crimes
c) instant crime 3004. It is that element of intentional felony
d) situational crime which means that the person who committed the
2995. Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled woman in felony has the capacity to distinguish between
making deception through verbal communication. what is right and wrong and fully understands the
She had committed estafa to several persons consequences of his actions:
through illegal recruitment. What crime according a. intelligence
to result did she committed? b. imprudence
a. acquisitive crime c. intent
b. extinctive crime d. freedom
c) instant crime 3005. A psychological disorder in which a
d) situational crime child shows developmentally inappropriate
2996. It refers to the study of the role of the impulsivity, hyperactivity and lack of attention.
victim in the commission of a crime. a. psychotism
a. criminal victim b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
b. criminal psychiatry c. neuroticism
c. victimless crime d. KSP disorder
d. victimology 3006. The commission of criminal acts using
2997. It is the scientific study of human the instruments of modern technology such as
behavior or man’s external manifestation in computers or the internet.
relation to criminality. a. cyber sex
a) Epidiomology b. cyber crime
b) Criminal Psychiatry c. computer crimes
c) Criminal psychology d. computer hacking
d) Physical anthropology 3007. An act in violation of the criminal law
2998. A crime can be classified according to its that is designed to bring financial gain to the
stages of commission. What crime is committed offender.
when the offender merely commences the a. organized crime b.
execution of an offense by overt act but which economic crime
nevertheless did not perform all acts of execution c. cyber crime
which would produce the felony by reason of some d. profit crime
cause other than his own spontaneous desistance? 3008. This term literally means “little war”.
a. Attempted crime Today, the term is used interchangeably with the
b. Consummated crime term “terrorism”.
c. Frustrated crime a. violence
d. Complex crime b. revolution
2999. It is the process by which individual c. guerilla
reduce the frequency of their offending behavior d. rebel
as the age increases. 3009. The killing of a large number of people
a. doing gender over time by an offender who seeks to escape
b. aging out detection.
c. criminal reduction a. road rage
d. active precipitation b. hate crime
3000. Crimes are classified under the Revised c. mass murder
Penal Code according to their gravity. What crime d. serial murder
to which the law attaches the capital punishment 3010. Known as the “Mother of Criminals”.
or afflictive penalties. a. Margaret Juke b. Ada
a. grave felonies Kallikak
b. less grave felonies c. Ada Juke
c. light felonies d. Ada Edwards
d. complex felonies 3011. It refers to an study showing the
3001. What crimes according to the time or relationship between the physical built of a person
period of the commission are those which are to his personality structure and the type of offense
committed only when the circumstances or he is most prone to commit
situation is conducive to its commission like for a. physiognomy b)
instance, committing theft in a crowded place. somatotype
a. seasonal crimes c. phrenology
b. instant crimes d) psychology
c. situational crimes 3012. It is a proposal of a double male or
d. continuing crimes super male syndrome. This theory held that the
3002. There are crimes that are committed possession of an extra Y-chromosome causes
within a certain length of time. What crime is males to be violent and aggressive.
committed by a series of acts in a lengthy space of a. XYY syndrome b XXY
time? syndrome
a. static crime c. YYX syndrome d. YXX
b. instant crime syndrome
c. situational crime 3013. A phenomenon that refers to the
d. episoidal crime handling down of delinquent behaviors as socially
3003. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and learned and transferred from one generation to
others which are committed to maintain one’s the next taking place mostly among disorganized
livelihood or as a means for living are what crimes? urban areas.
a. Rational crimes b. a. Cultural Transmission b) Social
Irrational crimes Phenomenon

Page 135 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 c. Crime d) a. elements
Delinquent behavior b. penalty
3014. In this theory of crime causation, c. degree of evidence
mankind is viewed as manifestations of basically d. motive
evil human nature reflecting either with the prince
of darkness or an expression of divine wrath. 3024. The concept that conduct norms are
a. Classical theory passed down from one generation to the next so
b. positivist theory that they become stable within the boundaries of
c. Demonological theory a culture.
d. neo-classical theory a. heredity
3015. An attempt to determine intelligence b. inheritance
and personality on the basis of the size and shape c. cultural transmission
of the skull. d. DNA
a. Physiognomy 3025. Group of urban sociologists who studies
b. palmistry the relationship between environmental
c. Craniology conditions and crime.
d. Somatotype a. classical school
3016. It involves the measurement of facial b. chicago school
and other body characteristics as indicative of c. neo-classical school
human personality. d. positive school
a. Physiology 3026. He is recognized as the first codifier of
b. somatotype laws:
c. Physiognomy a. Drakon
d. Palmistry b. the Hittites
3017. According to Sheldon, the three c. Solon
“somatotypes” or body built which have d. Hammurabi
relationships to personality characteristics are the 3027. He said that individuals are like human
following, EXCEPT: calculators. Before a person commits a crime, he
a. Ectomorph first analyzes whether the satisfaction he would
b. extomorph gain is greater than the possible negative effect he
c. Endomorph would have to suffer if the gets caught doing the
d. Mesomorph crime:
3018. A type of violent offender who uses a. Cesare Beccaria
violence as a means of perpetrating the criminal b. Cesare Lombroso
act: c. Edwin Sutherland
a. Culturally violent offender d. Jeremy Bentham
b. pathologically violent offender 3028. Who stated that crime is normal in a
c. Criminally violent offender society?
d. d. situationally violent offender a. Cesare Beccaria
3019. One way of classifying criminals is on b. Cesare Lombroso
the basis of etiology. What kind of criminal is that c. Emile Durkheim
whose action arises from the intra-psychic conflict d. Enrico Ferri
between the social and anti-social components of
his personality? 3029. This theory contested the findings of
a. Acute Beccaria’s Free Will Study, stating that its absence
c. Chronic among mentally retardate persons or those with
b. neurotic some psychological imbalances and personality
d. normal disorders or physical disabilities, could likewise
3020. Criminals can also be classified lead to violation of laws thereby citing said theory
according to this behavioral system. What are as one of crime causation.
those criminals who have high degree of a. Classical Criminology
organization that enables them to commit crime b. Positivist Criminology
without being detected and usually operates in a c. Neoclassical Criminology
large scale? d. Social Structure Theory
a. ordinary criminals 3030. This refers to the act of killing a large
b. professional criminals number of people in a single violent outburst.
c. situational criminals a. Road rage
d. organized criminals b. serial killing
3021. A forcible sex in which the offender and c. Mass murder
the victim are acquainted with each other. d. mass destruction
a. statutory rape 3031. A type of sexual deviancy where the
b. date rape person achieves sexual gratification by cruelty,
c. marital rape psychotic desire to often torment torture or
d. acquaintance rape otherwise abuse his victim.
3022. According to Lombroso, these are a. Masochism
physical characteristics that distinguish born b. bestiality
criminals from the general population and are c. Sadism
throwbacks to animals or primitive people. d. Incest
a. physical deviations 3032. A sexual relationship between persons
b. distinguishable traits closely related by blood.
c. atavistic stigmata a. Incest
d. ape-like appearance b. sadism
3023. It is the most essential part of the c. Masochism
definition of the criminal law: d. rape

Page 136 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3033. These are violent acts directed toward 3043. This theory reflects the way people
a particular person or members of group merely react to a given situation based on the social
because the targets share discernible racial, influences they acquired from other people that
ethnic, religious or gender characteristics. practically determine their behaviors. This theory
a. Violent crimes likewise serves as the learning process of
b. hate crimes delinquent behaviors and considered as one of the
c. Copy-cat crimes most important theory in crime causation.
d. victimless crimes a) Social Disorganization theory
3034. A term to denote a premeditated, b) Culture Conflict theory
politically motivated violence perpetrated against c) Differential Association Theory
non-combatant targets by subnational groups or d) Social Reaction Theory
clandestine agents, usually intended to influence 3044. It is the breakdown of social order as a
an audience. result of the loss of order in a society.
a. Rebellion a. synomie
b. piracy b) anarchy
c. Terrorism c) anomie
d. little war d) chaos
3035. It conceded that certain factors such as
insanity might inhibit the exercise of free will.
a. Classical theory
b. neo-classical 3045. He introduced the “theory of imitation”
c. Sociological which states that individuals copy behavior
d. positivist patterns of other individuals, and that those with
3036. These are crimes committed by a weaker personalities tend to get influenced easier
person of respectability and high social status in by those with stronger personalities:
the course of occupation. a. Emile Durkheim b)
a. Blue collar crimes Adolphe Quetelet
b. crime of the upper world c) Gabriel Tarde
c. White collar crimes d) Enrico Ferri
d. crime of the underworld 3046. A term that used to describe motorists
3037. Public order crime is otherwise known who assault each other.
as: a. road rage
a. Violent crimes b. predation
b. economic crimes c. hate crime
c. Organized crimes d. serial murder
d. victimless crimes 3047. This theory argues that intelligence is
3038. The law that provides Board largely determined genetically; that ancestry
Examination for Criminologists in the Philippines. determines IQ; and, that low intelligence as
a. R.A. 6975 demonstrated by low IQ is linked to behavior
b. R.A. 8551 including criminal behavior:
c. R.A. 6506 a. Nature Theory
d. R.A. 8353 b) Psychological theory
3039. Criminals who have a high degree of c) Strain Theory
organization to enable them to commit crimes d) Labeling theory
without being detected.
a. Professional criminals 3048. The theory which states that
b. ordinary criminals attachment, connection and link to society will
c. Organized criminals determine whether a person shall commit a crime
d. expert criminals or not:
a. social control
3040. Who among the following are the “Holy b) social disorganization
Three in Criminology”? c) social bond
a. Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria d) social learning
b. Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri 3049. The philosophy of justice that asserts
c. Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri that those who violate the rights of others deserve
d. Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso to be punished. The severity of the punishment
3041. Culture Conflict Theory was thorough should be commensurate with the seriousness of
studied by ____ wherein he concluded that the the crime.
main difference between a criminal and a non- a. restorative justice
criminal is that each is responding to different sets b. jus desert
of conduct norms. c. utilitarianism d.
a) Emile Durkheim equality of punishment
b) Andre Michael Guerry 3050. A condition in which the glucose in the
c) Thorsten Sellin blood falls below levels necessary for normal and
d) Abraham Maslow efficient brain functioning.
a. hyperglycemia
3042. This school of thought in criminology b. hyperglycomia
states that although individuals have self-rule, c. hypoglycemia
there are other factors that affect the exercise of d. hypoglycomia
their autonomy, which cause them commit crimes: 3051. This school on crime causation
a) neo-classical emphasized economic determinism and
b) utilitarianism concentrated on the need for the quality among all
c) classical citizens. They provided statistical data which
d) positivist

Page 137 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 claimed to show that variations in crime rates are poverty. He was the first person to use the term
associated with variations in economic conditions. “moron”.
a. Cartographic School a. Robert Dugdale
b. Socialist School b. Henry Goddard
c. Psychiatric School c. Eaenest Hooton
d. Chicago School d. Charles Goring
3052. “Manie sans delire” (madness without 3061. This theory focuses on the
confusion) This was the term used by Philippe development of high crime areas associated with
Pinel describing the personality that is the disintegration of conventional values caused
characterized by an inability to learn from by rapid industrialization, increased migration and
experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt urbanization.
better known as: a. Cultural Deviance Theory
a. psychotic personality b. Differential Association Theory
b. psychopathic personality c. Social Disorganization Theory
c. neurotic behavior d. Strain Theory
d. dementia praecox
3062. A societal stage marked by
normlessness in which disintegration and chaos
3053. A police officer’s frustration in the have replaced social cohesion.
realization of his ambition and goals in life both as a. Social disorganization
an officer of the law, and as a private citizen, b. Anomie
can push him to a life of crime, as pointed out in c. Strain
this particular theory. d. Synomie
3063. It is otherwise known as the decline in
a. Disorganization Theory criminal activities together with the time.
b. Culture Conflict Theory a. Birth cohort
C.Differential Association Theory b. aging out phenomenon
d. Strain Theory c. Criminal aging
d. crime rate
3054. Crimes which occur per 100,000 3064. He invoked that only justified rationale
population per month. It is the theoretical basis for laws and punishment is the principle of the
which determines the peace and order situation. greatest happiness shared by the greatest number
a. index crimes of people.
b. crime rate a. Utilitatrianism
c. non-index crimes d. crime b. Jeremy Bentham
statistics c. Felicific Calculus
3055. The Idea that low female crime and d. Cesare Beccaria
delinquency rates are a reflection of the leniency
which the police treat female offenders. 3065. The beginning to have sexual feelings
a. Doing gender for the mother, which occurs during the third year
b. masculinity hypothesis from birth is known as:
c. Chivalry hypothesis a. Oedipus Complex
d. pre-menstrual syndrome b. Inferiority Complex
3056. A stage of development when girls c. Electra Complex
begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers. d. Incest
a. Oedipus complex 3066. Serious illegal detention is a crime
b. doing gender committed through series of acts or episodes and
c. Electra complex d. in much longer time. This crime is classified as:
chivalry hypothsis a. Instant crime
3057. The legal principle by which the b. episoidal crime
decision or holding in an earlier case becomes the c. Situational crime
standard by which subsequent similar cases are d. seasonal crime
judged. It literally means “to stand by decided 3067. The following are the characteristics of
cases”. the Classical School of Criminology:
a. jus desert I. The basis of criminal liability is human free will
b. stare decisis and the purpose of penalty is retribution
c. story decisis II. Man is essentially a moral creature with an
d. just stare absolute free will to choose between right and
3058. This is a theory by Robert Merton which wrong.
assumes that people are law abiding but under III. Criminals are distinguishable from non-criminals
great pressure, they will resort to crime. because of their physical deviations.
a. strain theory IV. That every man is therefore responsible for his
b. social learning act.
c. cultural deviance
d. anomie a. I, II, III are correct.
3059. The first IQ test was developed by a b. I, III, IV are correct.
French psychologist named: c. II, III, IV are correct.
a. Rafael Garofalo d. I, II, IV are correct.
b. Albert Bandura 3068. It conceded factors such as insanity
c. Walter Reckless might inhibit the exercise of free will.
d. Alfred Binet a. Classical theory
3060. His study focused on the Kallikak family b. positivist theory
tree and he concluded that feeblemindedness is c. Neo-classical theory
inherited and related to deviant behavior and d. radical theory

Page 138 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3069. His great contributions to criminology the purpose of Classical Theory in giving
were the principle of utilitarianism and the felicific punishment is________________.
calculus. a) Restoration
a. Cesare Beccaria b) Treatment
b. Jeremy Bentham c) Retribution
c. Cesare Lombroso d) Deterrence
d. Emile Durkheim
3070. He propounded the theory of evolution
that inspired the now known “Father of Modern 3079. Refers to the circumstances which
Criminology” to develop the theory of atavism. attendant in the commission of a crime serve to
a. Cesare Lombroso increase the penalty, without however exceeding
b. Charles Goring the maximum of the penalty provided by law for
c. Cesare Beccaria the offense.
d. Charles Darwin a. Justifying
3071. According to him, people with criminal b. Exempting
behavior, should be prohibited from having c. Mitigating
children. d. Aggravating
a. Robert Dugdale 3080. Those wherein the acts of the person
b. Henry Goddard are in accordance with the law, hence he incurs no
c. Charles Goring criminal liability.
d. George Wilker a. Exempting
3072. It states that individuals are deviant b. aggravating
mainly because they have been labeled as deviant c. Justifying
by social agencies and others. The notion of d. Mitigating
deviance is not inherent in the act itself, but rather 3081. Mr. A committed loitering within the
in the reaction and stigma attached to the actor. vicinity of Manila City Hall on January 14, 2011.
a. Containment Theory June 14, 2011, a city ordinance was passed
b. Theory of Imitation punishing loitering within the vicinity of Isetan
c. Social Process Theory Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of loitering?
d. Social Reaction theory a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
3073. Cesare Lombroso classified this type of b. Yes under the principle of retroactive effect
criminal with five (5) or more atavistic stigmata. of criminal law
a. Born-criminal type c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity
b. insane of the law.
c. Criminaloid d. No, for A did not loiter again.
d. pseudo-criminal 3082. His theory was that God did not make
3074. These are crimes which are wrong from all the various species of animals in two days, as
their very nature. Examples of these are murder, what the bible says but rather that the species had
robbery, and other violations of the Revised Penal evolved through a process of adoptive mutation
Code. and natural selection which led to his conclusion
a. Heinous crimes that man was traced to have originated from the
b. mala in se apes.
c. Serious crimes a. Jeremy Bentham
d. mala prohibita b. Charles Darwin
3075. These are crimes which are wrong only c. Prince Charles
because there are laws that prohibit them in order d)Charles de Gaulle
to regulate an orderly society. Examples of these 3083. Having spent half of his life in the study
are the violations of special laws like the violation of the causes of crime and true to his dedication to
of “Anti-Smoking Law”. his lifetime works, upon his death he willed his
a. Mala prohibita brain and body to the Institute of Anatomy at the
b. less grave felonies University of Turin in Italy to be further studied. To
c. Mala in se this, he was named the “Father of Modern and
d. light felonies Empirical Criminology”.
3076. The principle of criminal law which is a) Cesare Beccaria
“nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege” means: b) Edwin Sutherland
a. An act done by me against my will is not my c) Cesare Lombroso
act d) Jeremy Bentham
b. There is no crime where no law punishing it. 3084. Having spent half of his life in the study
c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one. of the causes of crime and true to his dedication to
d. Mistake of fact is an excuse. his lifetime works, upon his death he willed his
3077. He was the one who introduced the brain and body to the Institute of Anatomy at the
following definition of criminology: “It is the entire University of Turin in Italy to be further studied. To
body of knowledge regarding crime as a social this, he was named the “Father of Modern and
phenomenon. It includes within its scope the Empirical Criminology”.
process of making laws, of breaking laws and of a) Cesare Beccaria
reacting towards the breaking of the laws”: b) Edwin Sutherland
a) Raffaelle Garofalo c) Cesare Lombroso
b) Edwin Sutherland d) Jeremy Bentham
c) Cesare Beccaria 3085. Which of the following is NOT included
d) Paul Topinard in the components of criminal justice system of the
3078. Classical Theory states that individuals United States?
have freewill. It is focused on an individual's choice a. Law enforcement
as to whether or not he will commit a crime and b. Corrections
c. Prosecution

Page 139 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 d. Courts c. a bond
3086. The power of the state to give any form d. street corner gang
of charity of public nature. It is the philosophy
behind the view that youthful offender/child in 3095. The court can suspend parental
conflict with the law is the victim of improper care authority if it finds that the parent:
and that the state is duty bound to provide I. Treats the child with excessive harshness of
protection. cruelty.
a. positivism II. Gives the child corrupting order, counsel or
b. loco parentis example
c. patria potestas d. parens III. Compel the child to beg
patriae IV. Imposed to child disciplinary actions.
3087. Under the law, they are the one a. I and II only
responsible for preventing the child from c. I and III only
becoming addicted to intoxicating drinks, narcotic b. I, II, III and IV
drugs, smoking, gambling or any harmful practices. d. I, II and III only
a. DSWD b. 3096. Who among the following is considered
Parents as “Child in Conflict with the Law”?
c. state a. Bryan who is 15 years old.
d. police b. Yang who is 10 years old.
3088. The civil personality of the child is c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old
deemed to have been commenced upon: d. anyone of them
a. birth of the child 3097. Refers to the totality of the
b. when the child celebrates his first birthday circumstances which are most beneficial for the
c. from the time of his conception child.
d. upon reaching the age of majority a. child as zone of peace b. nation
3089. Refers to a person appointed by the building
court to act as the legal guardian of the child even c. best interest of the child
though the parents of the child are still alive when d. presumption of minority
the best interest of the said child so require. 3098. Is the mass obligation which the
a. adopter parents have in relation to the persons and
b. loco parentis property of their an unemancipated child.
c. guardian ad litem a. Paretal authority
d. temporary guardian b. Patria Potestas
3090. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 c. Parens’ Patriae
under 18 is exempt from criminal liability unless: d. Parental Responsibility
a. he is committed a henious crime 3099. A person of such age is automatically
b. he is the principal accused exempted from criminal liability but should be
c. he acted without discernment taken to the custody and care of his parents,
d. he acted with discernment DSWD representative or any institution engage in
3091. The Child in Conflict with the law child caring.
cannot be prosecuted for the commission of the a. 15 years and below
following, EXCEPT: b. under 18 years of age
a. mendicancy c. under 15 years of age
b. sniffing of rugby d. under 21 years of age
c. prostitution 3100. Refers to a child raise to the status of
d. theft legitimate child by subsequent marriage of his/her
3092. A child left by himself without parents.
provisions for his needs/or without proper a. illegitimate
supervision falls under what special category of a b. legitimated
child? c. legitimate
a. abandoned child d. adopted
b. abused child 3101. In case of separation between parents
c. neglected child of the child, a child of such age is given by the court
d. dependent child the preference to choose between either parents.
3093. In the absence of death of both parents a. under 9 years of age
of the child who shall continue to exercise b. 7 years of age
authority over the child? c. 10 years of age
I. Surviving grand parents d. 5 years of age
II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of age 3102. Refers to aggregate of persons working
III. Surviving parents of child in commercial, industrial and agricultural
IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21 years of establishments or enterprises whether belonging
age. to the labor or management whose primary duty
a. I, II and IV only is to care for the welfare of the working children.
b. I and II only a. civic association of adult
c. I, II, III only b. community
d. all of the above c. Samahan
3094. Is a self-association of peers, bound d. youth association
together by mental interest, who acted in concert 3103. Parental authority is deemed
in order to achieve a specific purpose which terminated upon:
includes the conduct of illegal activities and a. death of the parents
control over a particular territory, facility or type b. emancipation of the child
of enterprises. c. death of the child
a. Juvenile gang d. All of the choices
b. Organized criminal

Page 140 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3104. Which of the following is the best way 3112. Once the court, after trial finds that a
for the police to win youth’s trust and confidence? child in conflict with the law is guilty of the crime
a. be friendly charged, the court shall:
b. be firm and show them that you are strong A. Pronounce its judgment;
c. show to them that your bearing is good and B. Wait for the application for suspension of
stand with pride sentence of the child and order his turn over to DSWD.
d. let them know that you are an agent of a C. Automatically place the child in conflict with
person in authority law under suspension of sentence.
3105. A child born inside a marriage where D. Determine the civil liability and order the final
either party is suffering from an impediments. discharge of the child in conflict with the law.
a. illegitimate child
b. legitimated child 3113. Once the child in conflict with the law
c. legitimate child reached the age of 18 while under suspended
d. adopted child sentence the court may:
3106. This refers to the apprehension or A. Order the execution of sentence;
taking into custody of a child who committed an B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with the
offense by the law enforcement officer: law;
a. initial contact with the child C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain period or
b. preliminary investigation to its maximum age of 21.
c. initial investigation D. Any of the above choices
d. inquest proceedings 3114. All records and proceedings involving
3107. This common procedure applied when children in conflict with the law from initial contact
arresting an offender shall NOT be employed when until final disposition of the case shall be:
the person who is the subject of apprehension is a a. placed in the dockets of court forms part of the
child. public record;
a. informing the suspect is a child b. open to the public;
b. stating the reason for the arrest c. considered restricted;
c. employing reasonable force d. considered privileged and confidential
d. use of handcuffs 3115. Mona was charged with vandalism on
3108. It refers to the totality of the her 18th birthday when she painted her neighbor’s
circumstances and conditions which are most walls with greeting to herself. How will you classify
congenial to the survival, protection and feelings Mona as an offender?
of security of the child and most encouraging to a. juvenile offender
the child's physical, psychological and emotional b. habitual offender
development. It also means the least detrimental c. adult offender
available alternative for safeguarding the growth d. none
and development of the child. 3116. All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are
a. Child at risk correct:
b. Best Interest of the Child a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile delinquency
c. Full development. when parents find it hard to balance their jobs with their
d. Child welfare program parental responsibilities
3109. In case of a child in conflict with the law b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency
his age shall be determine in the absence of proof c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency
what principle shall be observed? d. it is only within the family that a child must learn his
a. He is presumed to be minor life values
b. He should prove his age 3117. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero,
c. The Birth certificate should be produced roams the street 24 hours a day with no place to
pending such issuance he should be hold. go, surviving on foods given by kind-hearted
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to people with no one to supervise him at his young
prove his age. age of six (6). How do you categorize Pedro as a
3110. It is the psychological, emotional and child?
behavioral reactions and deficits of women victims a. neglected child b.
and their inability to respond to repeated physical independent child
and psychological violence? c. Abandoned child
A. Battered Woman Syndrome d. dependent child
B. Battered Wife 3118. Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old mongoloid, was
C. Abused Woman raped by her addict neighbor, Mr. Go. How do you
D. Rape trauma syndrome classify her as a victim?
3111. Child in conflict with the law may a. an adult
undergo diversion program without necessity of b. an insane
court intervention on the following: c. a child d. an
a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime adolescent
committee is not more than six (6) years
imprisonment;
b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime 3119. It is the act of buying and selling
committed exceeds six (6) years imprisonment; children:
c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime a. exploitation
committed exceeds six (6) years but not more b. prostitution
than 12 years imprisonment; c. abuse
d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime d. trafficking
committed does not exceeds 12 years 3120. This refers to the maltreatment of
imprisonment. children, whether habitual or not:
a. exploitation
b. abuse

Page 141 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 c. prostitution 3131. The following person are liable for child
d. trafficking prostitution, EXCEPT:
3121. Children are declared as ____________ a. those who act as procurer of child
in situations of armed conflict: prostitute
a. priorities for evacuation b. children recruited as prostitutes
b. exemptions c. managers or owners of the establishment
c. zones of peace d. shields where the prostitution takes place
3122. This refers to pledging by the debtor of d. clients of child prostitute
his or her personal services or those of a person 3132. This refers to the use, hiring,
under his or her control as security or payment for employment and coercing of children as actors or
a debt, when the length and nature of services are models in printed pornographic materials:
not clearly defined: a. indecent shows
a. debt bondage b. child prostitution
b. involuntary servitude c. obscene publication
c. abuse d. child exploitation
d. slavery 3133. The legislative act that penalizes the
3123. A working child below fifteen years old acts, means and purposes of human trafficking:
may be allowed to work for only _______ hours a. R.A. 9344
per day: b. R.A. 7610
a. eight c. R.A. 9208
b. four d. R.A. 8043
c. five
d. six 3134. 1st. The crime of trafficking in person is
3124. Publication of photographs of persons qualified when the trafficked person is a child.
or children in various obscene or indecent poses 2nd. As a general rule, children below 15 years of
meant to cause sexual excitement to those who age shall not be employed.
will see them is a form of:
a. adult entertainment a. Both statements are correct.
b. illegal publication b. The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is
c. obscene material incorrect.
d. pornography c. The 1st statement is incorrect, the 2nd is
3125. Employers shall provide an opportunity correct.
for education to all working children up to this d. Both statements are incorrect.
level: 3135. The “Anti-Violence Against Women and
a. elementary their Children Act of 2004”:
b. college a. R.A. 9262
c.secondary b. R.A. 7610
d. vocational c. R.A. 9208
3126. In employing children, the employment d. R.A. 9344
contract must be signed: 3136. It refers to an act of inflicting physical
a) by the Department of Labor and Employment harm upon the woman or her child resulting to the
b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer physical and psychological or emotional distress.
c) by the child’s parent or guardian a. stalking
d) and notarized by a Notary Public b. economic abuse
3127. In cases of working children, this has c. battery d. sexual
the duty of securing the permit from the violence
Department of Labor and Employment: 3137. This includes the employment, use,
a. parents inducement or coercion of a child to engage in
b. working child sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct; the
c. manager molestation, prostitution and or incest with
d. employer children.
3128. This form of violence includes acts a. sexual abuse
causing or likely to cause mental or emotional b. physical abuse
suffering of the victim such as but not limited to b. psychological abuse
intimidation, harassment, stalking and repeated d. cruelty
verbal abuse:
a. battery 3138. Refers to a program organized by travel
b. psychological establishments and individuals which consist of
c. sexual d. packages or activities, utilizing and offering escort
physical and sexual services as enticement for tourists.
3129. The crime of human trafficking shall be a. prostitution
qualified when: b. exploitation
a) the person trafficked is an elderly c. sex tourism
b) the person trafficked is a woman d. pornography
c) the person trafficked is a special child 3139. Refers to an intentional act committed
d) the person trafficked is a child by a person who knowingly and without lawful
3130. This refers to any word or deed which justification follows the woman or her child or
debases, degrades or demeans the intrinsic worth places the woman or her child under surveillance
and dignity of the child as human being. directly or indirectly.
a. eglect a. stalking
b. psychological abuse b. economic abuse
c. sexual abuse c. battery
d. cruelty d. sexual violence

Page 142 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3140. A working child over fifteen but under d) patria adorada
eighteen may work but his work hours must not 3150. Before any petition for adoption may
exceed ____ hours: be approved, the adopter and the adoptee must
a) eight first undergo a supervised trial custody for a period
b) seven of:
c) ten a) at least six months
d) six b) not more than six months
3141. A working child who is below eighteen c) at least one year
but over fifteen years old may be allowed to work d) not less than one year
between the hours of: 3151. This refers to the document issued by
a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven the court signifying the approval of the application
to eight o’clock p for adoption:
c) six to ten o’clock pm a) decree of adoption
d) seven to ten o’clock pm b) petition for adoption
3142. It means failure to provide, for reasons c) annulment
other than poverty, the basic needs of the child, d) rescission
such as food, clothing, medical care, shelter and 3152. This is the legal age in the Philippines:
basic education a) twenty-one
a. sexual abuse b) seventeen
b. physical abuse c) eighteen
c. psychological abuse d) twelve
d. neglect 3153. A child who has been voluntarily or
3143. Refers to acts that make or attempt to involuntarily committed to the DSWD or to a duly
make a woman financially dependent. licensed child placement agency and is free from
a. stalking parental authority:
b. economic abuse a) child legally available for adoption
c. battery b) legally-free child
d. sexual violence c) emancipated child
d) abandoned child
3144. No child shall be employed as a model 3154. This form of violence includes acts
in any advertisement directly or indirectly causing or likely to cause mental or emotional
promoting the following: suffering of the victim such as but not limited to
I. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating drinks intimidation, harassment, stalking and repeated
II. pornographic materials verbal abuse:
III. medicines for use of adults a) battery
IV. cigarettes and any form of gambling b) psychological
a. I, II, III are correct c) sexual
b. II, III, IV are correct d) physical
c. I, II, IV are correct 3155. A working child who is below eighteen
d. I, III, IV are correct but over fifteen years old may be allowed to work
3145. The law that provides special between the hours of:
protection of children against child abuse, a) six to eight o’clock pm
exploitation and discrimination. b) seven to eight o’clock p
a. R.A. 7610 c) six to ten o’clock pm
b. R.A. 9208 d) seven to ten o’clock pm
c. R.A. 9231 3156. Emancipation takes place when:
d. P.D. 603 a) the parents decide to emancipate him or her
3146. The law prohibiting the worst forms of b) the child becomes 18 years old
child labor. c) the child is already married
a. R.A. 9262 d) the child applies for it
b. R.A. 7610 d) games and gadgets
c. R.A. 9231 3157. The CICL shall be entitled to the
d. R.A. 9344 automatic suspension of sentence until the
3147. This form of child abuse includes maximum age of __:
lacerations, fractured bones, burns, internal a) twenty-three
injuries and serious bodily harm suffered by a b) eighteen
child: c) twenty-one
a. psychological d) twenty
b. emotional 3158. In case the child has been found guilty
c. physical by the court, he shall be ordered to be transferred
d. cruelty to _______:
a) a youth rehabilitation center
3148. This refers to offenses where there is no b) a youth detention home
private offended party: c) a city or municipal jail
a. Victimology d) an agricultural camp
b. public order crime 3159. Preliminary investigation shall only be
c. Victimless crime conducted when the:
d. d. both a and c a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen
b) CICL is disqualified for diversion
3149. This is the Latin term for parental c) CICL acted with discernment
authority: d) victim filed the complaint
a) loco parentis 3160. The law enforcement officer must
b) patria potestas ensure that all statements signed by the child
c) parens patriae

Page 143 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 during investigation are witnessed and signed by a. Less than 18 but more than 70 years old
the following: b. More than 18 but less than 70 years old
a) his parents, lawyer and social worker c. Over 15 but under 18 years old
b) his parents or guardian d. Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years old
c) legal counsel 3171. It pertains to the document that must
d) social worker be signed by the parents of the child in conflict
3161. The body search of the child in conflict with the law as part of the conditions of diversion:
with the law must be done only by a law a) contract of diversion proceedings
enforcement officer: b) certification of conciliation
a) who has initial contact c) memorandum of agreement
b) assigned to the case d) contract of diversion
c) of the opposite sex 3172. A child in conflict with the law who is
d) of the same gender under fifteen years of age shall be turned over to
3162. The first important thing that a law the ________________ by the police for the
enforcer must do upon initial contact is to ____: determination of appropriate program:
a) know the age of the child a) nearest police station
b) notify the local DSWD b) family
c) call the parents c) local DSWSD
d) make a report d) court

3163. It is the best evidence to prove the age 3173. The diversion proceedings must be
of the child in conflict with the law: completed within ____ days:
a) testimony of the parents of the child a) thirty
b) testimony of the child b) forty-five
c) certificate of birth c) sixty
d) school records d) twenty
3164. It is the holding in abeyance of the 3174. If the court finds that the child in
service of the sentence imposed by the court upon conflict with the law is guilty of the crime he is
a finding of guilt of the child in conflict with the accused of doing, the ____________ of the
law, whereby the child undergoes rehabilitation sentence shall automatically be suspended:
within a fixed period under such terms and a) imposition
conditions as may be ordered by the court: b) determination
a) probation c) execution
b) suspension of sentence d) discharge
c) parole 3175. The ________________ has the right to
d) pardon refuse the diversion program designed for the
3165. It is a disposition under which a child:
defendant, after conviction and sentence, is a) offended party
released subject to conditions imposed by the b) parents of the child
court and to the supervision of a probation officer: c) victim
a) suspension of sentence d) social worker
b) parole 3176. When the court decides to execute the
c) probation suspended sentence, the child must be transferred
d) pardon to a:
3166. A child in conflict with the law is a) youth rehabilitation center
exempted from _____: b) youth detention home
a) both criminal and civil liability c) agricultural farm
b) neither criminal nor civil liability d) prison
c) criminal liability only 3177. It shall be the duty of the
d) civil liability only ______________________ to make proper
3167. If the penalty for the crime committed recommendation to the court regarding the
by the CICL is imprisonment of more than six years, disposition of the child who is undergoing
diversion will be within the jurisdiction of the rehabilitation while under suspension of sentence:
____________: a) prosecutor
a) barangay b) social worker
b) DSWD c) lawyer
c) police d) judge
d) court 3178. All records pertaining to the case of the
3168. Discernment is the determining factor if child in conflict with the law shall remain _______
the CICL is over fifteen years old. The decision as and ______:
to whether the child acted with or without a) privileged and confidential
discernment is made initially by the _______: b) classified and confidential
a) social worker c) privileged and restricted
c) law enforcer d) secret and confidential
b) CICL
d) judge 3179. The age of full criminal irresponsibility
3169. The duty of determining the age of the is:
child in conflict with the law lies with the _______: a. Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted with
a) social worker discernment
b) law enforcer b. 18 to 70 years old
c) CICL c. 15 years old and below
d) judge d. Below 18 even if the act is committed with
discernment
3170. The age of full criminal responsibility is:

Page 144 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3180. It refers to the sum total of man's a. avoidance-avoidance
reaction to his environment or the way human c. approach-approach
beings act. c. approach-avoidance
a. Human Beings d. multiple
b. Learning 3191. This is the process of excluding from the
c. Human Behavior consciousness a thought or feeling that causes
d. Stimulus pain, shame or guilt.
a. identification
3181. Refers to any behavioral reactions or b. regression
reflexes exhibited by people because of their c. repression
inherited capabilities or the process of natural d. fixation
selection. 3192. This is an attempt to disguise or cover-
a. Inherited Behavior up felt deficiencies or undesirable traits by
b. Inborn Behavior emphasizing a desirable type of behavior.
c. Learned Behavior a. rationalization
d. both a and c b. sublimation
3182. It is a behavior pattern where an c. compensation
individual return to a state of form adjustment and d. projection
attempt to experience them again in memory. 3193. Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology student,
a. phobia after tasting an unripe mango grimaced. This
b. anger sensation is said to be:
b. frustration a. olfactory
d. regression b. Auditory
3183. Defense mechanisms are used to shield c. cutaneous
one’s self from _____. d. gustatory
a. anger 3194. This is a serious mental and emotional
b. fear disorder that is a manifestation of withdrawal
c. pleasure from reality.
d. pain a. Neurosis
3184. Human behavior is man’s response to b. Depression
the interpretation of the ______ from within the c. Psychosis
person or from his environment. d. Anxiety
a. stimulus 3195. This occurs when goal achievement is
b. action blocked.
c. perception (respose to sensation) d. a. frustration
inclination b. conflict
3185. This personality system controls the c. anxiety
gateway to action. d. Depression
a. alter ego
b. Id 3196. The aggregate observable responses of
c. ego an organism to internal and external stimuli.
d. Superego a. human behavior
3186. What is the process of interpreting our b. behavior
behavior in ways to make it more acceptable to the c. personality
self usually with the use of good reasons and alibi d. attribute
to substitute for real cause? 3197. The process by which behavior changes
a. projection as a result of experience or practice.
b. sublimation a. actualization
c. rationalization b. learning
d. Compensation c. thinking
d. feeling
3187. Conflicts and their behavioral outcomes 3198. This type of conflict occurs when there
are classified as follows, EXCEPT: are two desirable but mutually exclusive goals.
a. avoidance-approach a. avoidance-avoidance
b. avoidance-avoidance b. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance c. approach-avoidance
d. approach-approach d. multiple
3188. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a 3199. This type of conflict when there are two
nearby tree manifests what particular defense courses of action, each of which has both pleasant
mechanism? and unpleasant consequences.
a. repression a. avoidance-avoidance
b. sublimation b. approach-approach
c. displacement c. approach-avoidance
d. projection d. multiple
3189. An uncontrollable, morbid propensity 3200. This is an excessive, irrational and
to steal or pathological stealing. uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural situation
a. kleptomania or object.
b. pyromania a. melancholia
c. phobia b. phobia
d. Dipsomania c. exaltation
3190. This type of conflict occurs when there d. Mania
is an attraction to an object or state of affairs at
the same time repulsion towards something 3201. It is characterized by anxiety,
associated with it. depression and phobia.

Page 145 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. psychoses d. Cesare Lombroso
b. neuroses 3212. Coping mechanism is the way people
c. abnormality react to __________.
d. Psychopathy a. Fear
b. anxiety
3202. Hydrophobia is fear of ________. c. Frustration
a. Water d. Anger
b. darkness
c. Snakes 3213. It can be seen among people who
d. deep water handle their problems in a very objective way.
3203. A distortion in reality such as delusion, a. Coping Mechanism
hallucination and regression. b. Direct Approach
a. psychosis c. Detour
b. neurosis d. Withdrawal
c. abnormality 3214. The most tolerated way of handling
d. psychopathy frustration.
3204. A transmission of physical a. Defense Mechanism
characteristics, mental traits, tendency to disease, b. Direct Approach
etc. from parents to offspring. c. Detour
a. heredity d. Withdrawal
b. environment 3215. A type of defense mechanism whereby
c. inheritance a person concentrates in area where he can excel.
d. Introvert a. Displacement
3205. Drug addicts and alcoholics may deny b. compensation
that they have problems. This is a manifestation of c. Rationalization
what type of defense mechanism? d. fantasy
a. Fantasy 3216. What type of defense mechanism is
b. sublimation manifested by Pining Garcia when he joined the
c. Denial fraternity, Alpha Phi Chupapi, because of low self-
d. displacement esteem?
3206. Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology a. Identification
student in the evening session, blames his poor b. projection
performance in the preliminary examination to his c. Fantasy
professor rather than his lack of preparation. This d. regression
is an example of what type of defense mechanism? 3217. This refers to an action-producing
a. Reaction formation agent:
b. displacement a. Motives
c. Sublimation b. Drives
d. rationalization c. Stimulus
3207. Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on her d. sensation
boyfriend when she saw the latter kissing another 3218. Human actions in relation to events
girl, cries. This is an example of what defense taking place inside the body such as the brain and
mechanism? the nervous system is known as:
a. Regression a. Neurological
b. suppression b. psychological
c. Repression c. Cognitive
d. displacement d. Humanistic
3208. Texting while driving is an example of
what classification of human behavior? 3219. A child who is always brushing his teeth
a. Habitual after eating manifests what particular
b. symbolic classification of human behavior?
c. Instinctive a. Habitual
d. complex b. complex
c. Instinctive
3209. It d. symbolic
refers to the person’s knowledge of a given 3220. Displaying the diplomas and graduation
stimulus which largely helps to determine the awards signify one’s academic achievement. This
actual behavioral response in a given situation. classification of human behavior is known as:
a. Perception a. Habitual
b. awareness b. complex
c. Sensation c. Instinctive
d. Learning d. symbolic
3221. Mathematical ability and English
3210. A person who is a balanced introvert communication skills are examples of what type of
and extrovert is said to be: human behavior?
a. Psychotic a. Learned
b. ambivert b. inborn
c. Neurotic c. Operant
d. angry bird d. both a and c
3211. He is known as the “Father of 3222. Eating when you are hungry is an
Psychoanalysis”. example of _______ behavior.
a. Tom Cruise a. Habitual
b. Gina Ferrero-Lombroso b. complex
c. Sigmund Freud c. Instinctive

Page 146 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 d. Symbolic 3233. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage
3223. It is the ability to withstand frustration taking situation is,
without developing inadequate modes of a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators
response such as being emotionally depressed or should not command
irritated, becoming neurotic, or becoming b. open the communication at once
aggressive. c. negotiate
a. Frustration Tolerance d. ask for demands
b. Frustration Shield 3234. When both hostage and hostage taker
c. Frustration Flexibility develop a mutual feeling of sympathy,
d. all of the above understanding, and other shared stand on issues,
3224. Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP leading them to become enemies of the State, this
applicant, turned up applying into the Armed turn referred to as,
Forces of the Philippines when he failed in the a. Stockholm Syndrome
initial height and weight measurement stage b. Confrontation
because he was under height. This is an example c. Negotiation
of: d. familiarization
a. Sublimation 3235. Motivation is classified under 28 needs.
b. repression The need to assault or injure is:
c. Substitution a. need deference
d. withdrawal b. need aggression
3225. Which of the following items does not c. need recognition d. need
belong to the group? order
a. prostitution 3236. The need to influence or control others
b. assassination is:
c. sabotage a. need order
d. bombing b. need dominance
3226. It is characterized by infantile level of c. need achievement
response, lack of conscience, deficient feeling of d. need exhibition
affection to others and aggression to environment 3237. A person has _____ when he/she has
and other people. painful memories associated with some shocking
a. schizophrenic personality experience which are repressed and cannot be
b. psychopathic personality recalled.
c. compulsive neurosis a. anxiety
d. neurotic personality b. delusions
3227. Which of the following is not a common c. amnesia
tactic in terrorism? d. phobia
a. robbery 3238. The first step in hostage taking crisis is:
c. bombing a. crowd control
b. hijacking c. negotiation
d. kidnapping b. assault
3228. This is an abnormal mental condition d. traffic control
whereby a person performs an act while sleeping. 3239. Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant
a. somnambulism takes place pleasure in imagining having sexual
b. mesmerism relations with newly dead young female bodies
c. somnolencia who were victims of suicides or vehicular
d. delirium accidents. What sexual deviant act did Antonio
3229. Animals are used for the achievement commit?
of sexual excitation and gratification. a. necrophilia
a. voyeurism b. rape
b. fetishism c. incest
c. pedophilia d. none
d. bestiality 3240. The most important person in a hostage
3230. A person suffers from _____ when he situation:
developed a maladaptive behavior in his childhood a. negotiator
as a result of an external influence that later on b. hostage taker
becomes a part of his lifestyle and which he uses c. commander
to relate to the world around him. d. hostage
a. personality disorder 3241. A group of bank robbers barricaded
b. abnormal behavior themselves inside the bank together with their
c. personality behavior hostages; their demand is geared towards:
d. abnormal personality a. revenge
3231. These are priorities in a hostage taking b. economic gain
situation EXCEPT, c. escape
a. Preservation of life d. vindication
b. Arrest of hostage taker 3242. In hostage situation, non-verbal
c. recover and protect property communication which indicates openness and
d. involve the media willingness to listen can be shown by:
3232. Containment in a hostage taking a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
situation refers to: b. calmly repeating words of comfort and assurance
a. police handling of the situation c. by not attempting to trick or lie
b. negotiation d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that
c. contact you are willing to negotiate
d. control of area and people 3243. It is referred to as sexual gratification by
watching nude woman or man.

Page 147 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. exhibitionism B. Schizoid Personality
b. voyeurism C. Dependent Personality D.
c. transvestitism Borderline Personality
d. fetishism
3254. A personality disorder characterized by
3244. It is characterized by infantile level of instability, reflected in dramatic mood shifts and
response, lack of conscience deficient feeling of behavior problems. Such individuals are frequently
affection to others and aggression. described as impulsive and unpredictable.
a. schizophrenic personality A. Borderline Personality B.
b. psychopathic personality Compulsive Personality
c. compulsive neurosis C. Passive-aggressive Personality D. Anti-
d. neurotic personality social Personality
3245. This is a mentally disturbed person who
is opposed to the principles upon which society is 3255. When the disorder is characterized by
based. chronic mental and physical fatigue and by various
a. Anti-social aches and pains, it is considered as:
b. Psychopath A. Anxiety Disorder
b. Schizophrenic B. Somatoform Disorder
d. Sociopath C. Dissociative Disorder
3246. A morbid insanity characterized by a D. Amnesia
deep and morbid sense of religious feeling. 3256. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage
a. mania taking situation is,
b. mania fanatica a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators
b. delusion should not command
d. legal insanity b. open the communication at once
c. negotiate
3247. This is impairment in desire for sexual d. ask for demands
gratification in the male or an inability to achieve 3257. In general, hostage takers are
it. emotionally tense, when trapped expand a great
a. masturbation deal of emotional physical and psychic energy,
b. prostitution hence:
c. exhibitionism a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the
d. frigidity authorities
3248. This is any pattern of behavior including b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
a habitual, preferred, and compelling need for c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
sexual gratification by any technique, other than d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender.
willing coitus between man and woman and 3258. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage
involving actions that are directly results in genital situation.
excite. a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
a. crime against chastity b. acts of b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
lasciviousness c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
c. sexual deviation d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
d. sexual offenses
3249. The best approach in negotiating with a 3259. They serve as stimuli-producing action
Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker is: that satisfies a need:
a. to accept their beliefs as being true a. interest
b. to try to convince them that their beliefs are wrong b. perception
c. to show them that they are just crazy c. motives
d. to try to bluff or trick them d. drives
3250. The following are reasons, why 3260. It is an effective planning, formulation
common criminals are easy to negotiate, except: of an effective plan, policies, procedures and
a. fears of police assault and punishment techniques in dealing with sudden violent act of
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers terrorist.
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics a. Crisis management
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender b. stress mgt.
3251. In the field of terrorism, the most c. hostage negotiation
common tactic used is_____? d. political analysis
A. Kidnapping 3261. Last option in hostage crisis:
C. Bombing a. crowd control b.
B. Assassination negotiation
D. Extortion c. traffic control d. assault
3252. A personality disorder characterized by 3262. It is any incident in which people are
suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, envy, excessive being held by another person or persons against
self important, and argumentativeness, plus a their will, usually by force or coercion, and
tendency to blame others for one’s own mistakes demands are being made by the perpetrator.
and failure and to ascribe evil motives to others. a. kidnapping
A. Paranoid Personality b. crisis management
B. Dependent Personality c. hostage incident
C. Schizoid Personality d. abduction
D. Borderline Personality 3263. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage
3253. A personality disorder characterized by takers who take hostages:
an inability to form social relationships and can be a. by reason of mental illness
classified as “loners”. b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and
A. Paranoid Personality problems

Page 148 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 c. for personal reason a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed,
d. because of political and ideological belief and set free.
3264. In psychoanalytic theory, the b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to
unconscious wish for death is called; the demands of the hostage takers.
A. eros c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
B. animus d. hostage takers come to the fold of the law by
C. thanatos surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
D. lupus 3274. Which of the following is considered
3265. In a crisis management, there is no least among terroristic tactic?
other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS” , which means: a.noise barrage
a. the truth will prevail b.assassination
b. kill the hostage-taker c.bombing
c. to save lives d.kidnapping
d. save the host 3275. In dealing with the hostage taker, the
3266. When a highly trained and motivated negotiator should not:
group of hostage takers asked non-negotiable a.give his name
demands, they were left with three options: (1) b. give his rank and designation
choose martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit c.give in to all demands
suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more realistic d.look friendly or accommodating
proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose 3276. The highest ranking field commander
martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is: should not also be the chief negotiator because:
a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist a. hostage takers will be afraid
c. give all their demands b. he is not authorized to grant concessions
d. let the hostages killed c. of conflict of interest as mediator and decision
3267. In hostage negotiation, if the hostage maker
taker demands an airplane/helicopter, what will d. hostage takers will not trust him
you do? 3277. What is known to be the oldest but
a. go to your ground commander commonly used terrorist tactic where target are
b. give it with consent often police, military officials or political figures?
c. talk to him and delay the moment a.Hijacking
d. assault and kill him immediately b. Ambush
c.Assassination
3268. Considered to be the oldest tactic in d. Kidnap for Ransom
terrorism: 3278. The stage of advance planning,
a. Prostitution organization and coordination and control in
b. Bombing response to an anticipated future crisis occurrence
c. Assassination is called
d. Kidnapping a. Proactive Crisis Management
3269. These are important in a hostage b. Reactive Crisis Management
taking situation, EXCEPT: c. Performance Stage
a. Presence of linguist negotiator d. Reaction Phase
b. Considerable screening of all members
c. Dry run or constant practice 3279. A comprehensive plan which delineates
d. Inclusion of the media people in the negotiation responsibilities and specific action to be taken
3270. It is the position from which a unit when a bomb incident or bomb threat occurs is
commander and his staff exercise command over called
the hostage incident. a. Floor plan
a. command post b. Bomb threat plan
b. outer perimeter c. Drill
c. inner perimeter d. Contingency plan
d. command headquarters
3271. It is an assault team responsible in 3280. the crime charged against a child in
carrying out assault operation whenever conflict with the law is more than 12 years of
negotiation fails. imprisonment, which will determine whether
a. Negotiation Team diversion is necessary?
b. Medical Team A. The Police
c. Tactical Team B. The Prosecutor
d. Response Team C. The Court
3272. Pursuant to the PNP Police Operational D. The Barangay Chairman
Procedures Manual of 2010, this group should 3281. From the moment a child is taken into
immediately be activated in case of hostage custody, the law enforcement officer shall
situation: immediately but not later than hours
a. Hostage Negotiation Team after apprehension, turnover custody of the child
b. Civil Disturbance Management Team to the Social Welfare and Development Office.
c. Crisis Management Task Group A. Nine
d. PNP Command Post B. Eight
3273. P/SSupt. Pablo Job is the highest C. Seven
ranking PNP officer who first arrives in a hostage D. Six
taking incident. As a rule he serves now as a
ground commander on the said crisis. Having 3282. An Act Strengthening the Juvenile
decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, the Justice System in the Philippines.
objectives are as follows, except one: A. RA 9344
B. RA 10630

Page 149 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 C. RA 10627 A. Culture conflict
D. RA 8960 B. Persistence
3283. It is one of the most important assets of the nation. Thus, C. Containment theory
every effort should be exerted to promote his welfare and D. Reflective role taking
enhance his opportunities for a useful and happy life. 3294. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18 years
A. Teenager of age at the time of the commission of the crime, he is often
B. Kid referred to as?
C. Child A. Socialized delinquent
D. Youth B. Truant
3284. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is under what C. Criminal
agency of the government? D. Youth offender
A. Department of Justice 3295. What is an institution that receives and rehabilitates
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development youthful offenders or other disturbed children who have
C. Department of Tourism behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the
D. Department of Interior and Local Government appropriate care for them or recommending their permanent
3285. It refers to any form of detention or imprisonment, or to the treatment or rehabilitation in other child welfare agencies?
placement of a child in conflict with the law in a public or private A. Rehabilitation Center
custodial setting, from which the child in conflict with the law is B. Reintegration Center
not permitted to leave at will by order of any judicial or C. Reformation Center
administrative authority. D. Restoration Center
A. Apprehension 3296. Which among the following is not part of the rights of a child
B. Confinement in conflict with the law?
C. Deprivation of Liberty A. The right to be imposed a sentence of capital punishment
D. Incarceration or life imprisonment, without the possibility of release
B. The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel,
3286. It refers to any organization whose members are 21 years inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment
or older which is directly or indirectly involved in carrying out C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily, of
child welfare activities and programs. his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment being a
A. NGO disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the shortest
B. Youth association appropriate period of time
C. Youth organization D. The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate cases
D. Civic organization 3297. It refers to inherited propensities which cannot be
considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that a
3287. The taking of the statement of the child in conflict with the crime will be committed.
law shall be conducted in the presence of the following, EXCEPT. A. Precipitating factor
A. Child’s counsel of choice B. Environmental factor
B. Local Social Welfare and Development Officer C. Biologic factor
C. Child’s relative D. Predisposing factor
D. Child’s parents 3298. A person who learns the facts or circumstances that give
rise to the belief that a child has suffered abuse may report the
3288. It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the Protection same to what agency?
of Children in the formulation and implementation of juvenile A. School
intervention and diversion programs in the If community. B. Neighborhood Association
A. Women and Children Protection Desk C. Barangay Council
B. Local Government Unit D. Church
C. Sangguniang Kabataan 3299. Who are those with any behavioral disorder, whether
D. Local Social Welfare and Development functional or organic, which of such a degree of severity as to
3289. It attributes variations in delinquency to influence social require professional help or hospitalization?
structures. A. Mentally Ill Children
A. Biogenic approach B. Physically Handicapped Children
B. Sociogenic approach C. Emotional Disturbed Children
C. Psychogenic approach D. Retarded at Maturity
D. All of these 3300. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and
3290. It refers to a person whose behavior results with repeated becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a:
conflict with the law. A. Social delinquent
A. Delinquent B. Accidental delinquent
B. Habitual delinquent C. Asocial delinquent
C. Juvenile D. Neurotic delinquent
D. Recidivist 3301. It exists when the children are maltreated, raped or
3291. Failure to provide for the child’s support for this period shall seduced; when children are exploited, over worried or made to
be a presumptive evidence of the intent to abandon. beg in the streets or public places, or when children are in moral
A. 3 Months danger, or exposed to gambling, prostitution, or other vices.
B. 5 Months A. Physically Neglected Child
C. 4 Months B. Emotionally Neglected Child
D. 6 Months C. Psychologically Neglected Child
3292. These are undesirable conditions in the community which D. Sexually Neglected Child
are harmful to the youth, EXCEPT. 3302. The implementation of the comprehensive juvenile
A. Gambling Houses intervention program shall be reviewed and assessed annually
B. Recreational Facilities by Local Government Unit and its result shall be submitted by
C. Vice Dens the provincial and city governments to the Juvenile Justice and
D. Attractive Nuisances Welfare Council not later than of what date of every year?
3293. This view asserts that children who started delinquent A. February 28
careers early and committed violent acts throughout their B. April 30
adolescence would likely to continue as adults. C. March 30

Page 150 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 D. May 30 3313. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in an
3303. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with I.Q.s activity.
from about 75 to about 89. The members of this classification A. Coercion
are only slightly retarded and they can usually get by in regular B. Cruelty
classes if they receive some extra help, guidance and C. Molestation
consideration. D. Abuse
A. Trainable group 3314. It is otherwise known as Special Protection of Children
B. Custodial group Against Child Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act of 1992.
C. Educable group A. RA 6809
D. Borderline or low normal group B. RA 9344
3304. It refers to any club, organization or association of C. RA 9262
individuals below twenty-one years of age which is directly or D. RA 7610
indirectly involved in carrying out child or youth welfare 3315. It asserts that lower class youths with limited legitimate
programs and activities. opportunity, join gangs and pursue a criminal career to achieve
A. Samahan alternate means universal success goals.
B. Student organization A. Culture conflict
C. Sanguniang Kabataan B. Social development model
D. Youth association C. Containment theory
3305. A theory that point criminal behavioral patterns to D. Differential opportunity
childhood socialization and pro or anti social attachments over 3316. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, which
the life course. among the following refers to a child who is alleged as, accused
A. Culture conflict of, or adjudged as, having committed an offense under
B. Social development model Philippine laws?
C. Differential opportunity A. Juvenile Delinquent
D. Containment theory B. Child in Conflict with the Law
3306. This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75, and the C. Minor Offender
intellectual development is approximately ½ to ¾ of that
D. Youth Criminal
expected of a normal child of the same chronological age.
A. Trainable group 3317. It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on
B. Borderline or low normal group delinquency through undertaking preventive programs, policies
C. Educable group and activities.
D. Custodial group A. Philippine National Police
3307. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a result of B. Department of National Defense
factors such as personal problems, ignorance and curiosity. C. Local Government
A. Predisposing factor D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B. Environmental factor 3318. An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children Below 15
C. Biologic factor Years of Age in Public and Private Undertakings.
D. Precipitating factor A. RA 7610
3308. This is where the molding of the character of the child starts B. RA 9262
and every member of the family should strive to make it a C. RA 7658
wholesome and a harmonious place. D. RA 9231
A. Family 3319. A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs and
B. Home illicit experiences is stressed.
C. Church A. Conflict sub-culture
D. School B. Criminal sub-culture
3309. The youth misdeed may be attributed to their learning C. Retreatist sub-culture
process cultured in on youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts with D. All of these
governmental and social control agencies and other similar 3320. It refers to one with no proper parental care or
variables. guardianship, whose abandonment is for a period of at least six
A. Biogenic approach months.
B. Socio-genic approach A. Neglected Child
C. Psychogenic approach B. Deserted Child
D. None of the above C. Unattended Child
3310. What program is required for the child in conflict with the D. Abandoned Child
law to undergo after he/she is found responsible for an offense 3321. It refers to the programs provided in a community setting
without resorting to formal court proceedings? developed for purposes of intervention and diversion, as well as
A. Diversion rehabilitation of the child in conflict with the law, for
B. Community Service reintegration into his/her family and/or community.
C. Parole A. Community Juvenile Programs
D. Probation B. Community Rehabilitation Programs
3311. It is the application of the criminal justice to minors and C. Community Outreach Programs
youthful offender through the cooperation of the criminal justice D. Community - Based Programs
system. 3322. Who shall coordinate with the Local Councils for the
A. Child Justice System Protection of Children (LCPC) in the formulation and
B. Youth Justice System implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion programs
C. Minor Justice System in the community?
D. Juvenile Justice System A. Sangguniang Kabataan
3312. A category of delinquency which may be credited to peer B. Kabataan Partylist
pressure or pure curiosity on the part of the young person. C. Commission on Human Right
A. Social D. National Youth Commission
B. Accidental 3323. Their degree of success or accomplishment depends upon
C. Neurotic the quality and type of education they receive as well as on the
D. Asocial treatment at home and in the community, their I.Q range from
about 50 to 75.

Page 151 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 A. Educable B. Friendly Interview
B. Custodial C. Due Process
C. Borderline D. Preliminary Investigation
D. Trainable 3334. Family home type which provide temporary shelter from 10
3324. It refers to anti-social act which deviates from normal to 20 days for children under observation by the DSWD.
pattern of rules and regulations. A. Receiving homes
A. Recidivism B. Maternity homes
B. Juvenile delinquency C. Nursery
C. Quasi recidivism D. Shelter care institution
D. Delinquency 3335. His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality for
3325. It refers to persons and individuals who are effective which the youth feels no remorse.
deterrents to crime and delinquency such as police or watchful A. Asocial
and concerned neighbors. B. Neurotic
A. Clever guardians C. Accidental
B. Proficient guardians D. Social
C. Capable guardians 3336. It is known as spontaneous remission, it is the manner by
D. Qualified guardians which an individual reduce the rate of their aberrant behavior as
they age.
A. Aging-out
B. Decadence
3326. It exists when the child is malnourished, ill clad and without C. Desistance
proper shelter. A child is unattended when left by himself D. Reduction
without provision for his needs and/or without proper 3337. Who among the following shall primarily ensure that the
supervision. What classification of neglected child is this? status, rights and interests of children are upheld in accordance
A. Physically Neglected Child with the Constitution and international instruments on human
B. Psychologically Neglected Child rights?
C. Emotionally Neglected Child A. National Youth Commission
D. Sexually Neglected Child B. Kabataan Partylist
3327. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and C. Commission on Human Rights
children in conflict with the law, which provides child- D. Sangguniang Kabataan
appropriate proceedings, including programs and services for 3338. Sellin’s study which asserts that it is a condition which
prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and results from rules and norms of an individual’s sub-cultural
aftercare to ensure their normal growth and development. affiliation disagreement with the role of demands of conformist
A. Child Justice and Welfare society.
B. Youth Justice and Welfare A. Differential opportunity
C. Minor Justice and Welfare B. Culture conflict
D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare C. Containment theory
3328. A phenomenon that occurs when youth who regard D. Social development model
themselves as delinquents are giving an inner voice to their 3339. Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some hereditary
perception or view of how significant others feel about them. defect.
A. Reflective role taking A. Psychogenic approach
B. Culture conflict B. Biologic approach
C. Persistence C. Sociogenic approach
D. Containment theory D. Biogenic approach
3329. A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the 3340. It is characterized by disrespect or disobedience for
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any duly authority.
licensed child placement agency or individual. A. Emotional Disorder
A. Placement B. Vagrancy
B. Commitment C. Truancy
C. Consignment D. Anti Social Behavior
D. Entrustment 3341. These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind, or otherwise
3330. Failure to provide the basic needs of a child. defective which restricts their means of action on
A. Abuse communication with others.
B. Cruelty A. Physically Handicapped Children
C. Exploitation B. Mentally Subnormal
D. Neglect C. Essentially Incurable
3331. High moral principles should be instilled in the child by the D. Retarded at Maturity
following, EXCEPT. 3342. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon any
A. Government knowledge of a child who have been treated or suffered from
B. School abuse.
C. Home A. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery of
D. Church abuse
3332. A child left by himself without provisions for his needs and B. Report the incident to the family
/ or without proper supervision. C. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
A. Unattended Child D. File a case in court in behalf of the child
B. Neglected Child 3343. Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against any
C. Dependent Child violation of R.A. 7610?
D. Abandoned Child A. Parents or guardians
3333. It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process of B. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3 rd degree of
determining the responsibility and treatment of a child in conflict consanguinity
with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural, economic, C. Barangay Chairman Officer or DSWD or at least any three
psychological or educational background without resorting to responsible citizen
formal court proceedings. D. All of the choices
A. Diversion

Page 152 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
3344. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result of A. Diversion
internal conflict and pre-occupation with his own emotion and B. Rehabilitation
mood. C. Probation
A. Neurotic D. Intervention
B. Social 3355. If children, whether male or female, who for money, profit
C. Accidental or any other consideration or due to the coercion or influence of
D. Asocial any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in sexual intercourse
3345. Forcing an activity on the child without consent. or lascivious conduct it is known as…
A. Coercion A. Child Abuse
B. Abuse B. Child Trafficking
C. Cruelty C. Child Prostitution
D. Molestation D. Child Exploitation
3346. View that youth can move in and out of delinquency and 3356. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring
that their lifestyle can adjust and embrace both deviant and A. Control
conventional values. B. Recession
A. Swift C. Repression
B. Drift D. Prevention
C. Coast 3357. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, it
D. Waft refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as defined in
3347. A term coined by Wolfgang to denote a delinquent offender Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including a barangay
who is arrested more than four times before the age of majority tanod.
and stands a good chance of becoming an adult criminal. A. Police Officer
A. Acute offender B. Probation Officer
B. Severe offender C. Law Enforcement Officer
C. Chronic offender D. Public Officer
D. Desperate offender 3358. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately
3348. A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do so with unattended or inadequately attended.
a permit or clearance issued by: A. Abandoned Child
A. The parents B. Abused Child
B. The guardians C. Neglected Child
C. Department of Social Welfare and Development D. Dependent Child
D. Any of the choices 3359. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years old.
3349. This refers to children who are unable to cope with their A. Adolescence
family life and chooses to leave the family home. This is a direct B. Early adolescence
result of feeble-mindedness, disagreeable home conditions, C. Juvenile
broken homes and misdirected fancy for adventures. D. None of the above
A. Vagrancy 3360. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which deviates
B. Cheating from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, custom and
C. Lying culture which society does not accept and which therefore,
D. Stealing justifies some kind of corrective measures in the public interest
3350. What is a child caring institution that provides care for six and it is being committed by minors?
or more children below six years of age twenty-four hours a day, A. Juvenile Delinquency
except those duly licensed to offer primarily medical and B. Minor Delinquency
educational services? C. Child Delinquency
A. Nursery D. Youth Delinquency
B. Detention Home 3361. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in
C. Day Care conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is mandated
D. Maternity to turn over said child to the custody of the Department of Social
3351. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions, Welfare and Development or any accredited Non-Government
which are most congenial to the survival, protection and feelings Organization immediately but not later than hours
of security of the child and most encouraging to the child's after apprehension.
physical, psychological and emotional development. A. 8
A. Anti Youth Exploitation Measure B. 24
B. Special Protection of Minor C. 12
C. Restorative Juvenile Justice D. 36
D. Best Interest of the Child 3362. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by
3352. A place of residence whose primary function is to give aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any person
shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants. who tries to control his behavior.
A. Maternity home A. Neurotic
B. Hospital B. Accidental
C. Rehabilitation center C. Asocial
D. Foster homes D. Social
3353. This may be demonstrated by any of the following: severe 3363. If the parents, guardians or nearest relatives of the CICL
anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal behavior. refused to take custody, the child may be release to any of the
A. Psychological injury following, EXCEPT.
B. Mental injury A. Duly registered nongovernmental or religious organization
C. Physical injury B. A barangay official or a member of the Barangay Council for
D. Emotional injury the Protection of Children
3354. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to C. A local social welfare and development officer
address issues that caused the child to commit an offense. It may D. Duly authorized Women and Children Protection Desk
take the form of an individualized treatment program, which Officer
may include counseling, skills training, education, and other 3364. It accounts for individual offender by reference to learning
activities that will enhance his/her psychological, emotional and process, which goes on in youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts
psychosocial well-being. with social control agencies and other variables of that time.

Page 153 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 A. Biogenic 3375. The chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council under
B. Psychogenic the law is:
C. Phatogenic A. The undersecretary of the DOJ
D. Sociogenic B. The undersecretary of DepEd
3365. It plays an active role in the promotion of child rights, and C. The undersecretary of the DILG
delinquency prevention by relaying consistent messages D. The undersecretary of the DSWD
through a balanced approach. 3376. It refers to a principle, which requires a process of resolving
A. The mass media conflicts with the maximum involvement of the victim, the
B. The family offender and the community. It seeks to obtain reparation for
C. The community the victim; reconciliation of the offender, the offended and the
D. The educational system community; and reassurance to the offender that he/she can be
3366. What approach towards delinquency views the lawbreaker reintegrated into society. It also enhances public safety by
as a person whose misconduct is the result of faulty biology? activating the offender, the victim and the community in
A. Phatogenic prevention strategies.
B. Biogenic A. Restorative Justice
C. Psychogenic B. Rehabilitative Justice
D. Sociogenic C. Reformative Justice
3367. In determining whether diversion is appropriate and D. Reintegrative Justice
desirable, the following factors shall be taken into consideration, 3377. It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed by
EXCEPT. the Department of Social Welfare and Development (DSWD),
LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGOs monitored by the DSWD,
A. The safety of the child which provides care, treatment and rehabilitation services for
B. The nature and circumstances of the offense charged children in conflict with the law. Rehabilitation services are
provided under the guidance of a trained staff where residents
C. The circumstances of the child are cared for under a structured therapeutic environment with
D. The best interest of the child the end view of reintegrating them into their families and
3368. It refers to offenses, which discriminate only against a child, communities as socially functioning individuals. Physical mobility
while an adult does not suffer any penalty for committing similar of residents of said centers may be restricted pending court
acts. These shall include curfew violations; truancy, parental disposition of the charges against them.
disobedience and the like. A. Youth Reformation Center
A. Delinquency B. Youth Reintegration Center
B. Exclusive C. Youth Rehabilitation Center
C. Status D. Youth Restoration Center
D. Grave 3378. The child who is under 18-years of age at the time of the
3369. Children detained pending trial may be released on bail or commission of the offense is found guilty of the offense charged,
as provided for under Sections 34 and 35 of RA 9344. shall place the child under .
A. Probation A. Recognizance
B. Recognizance B. Diversion
C. Parole C. Bail
D. Bond D. Suspended Sentence
3370. Which of the following refers to the maltreatment of a
minor, whether habitual or not? 3379. Who is the chairman of the Lupon Tagapamayapa in the
A. Caress Barangay Level where there is a diversion program?
B. Abuse A. Punong Barangay
C. Discrimination B. BCPC Chairman
D. Exploitation C. LSWDO
3371. He is one who is without a parent or guardian, or whose D. PNP member
parents, guardian or other custodian for good cause desire to be
relieved of his care and custody; and is dependent upon the 3380. This criminal justice model is based on
public of support. the idea that the most important function of the
A. Abandoned Child CJS is the protection of the public and the
B. Neglected Child repression of criminal conduct.
C. Abused Child a. Crime prevention
D. Dependent Child b. Crime control
3372. It refers to aggregate of persons or those responsible c. Law and order
persons from various sector of the community. d. Due process
A. Organization 3381. According to this criminal justice model,
B. Association the rights of an individual must be co-equal with
C. Club the concern for public safety.
D. Samahan a. Crime prevention
3373. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short term b. crime control
resident care for youthful offenders. c. Law and order
A. Bahay Pag-asa d. due process
B. Nursery 3382. This concerns to the obligations of the
C. Child caring institution community to individuals, and requires fair
D. Foster home disbursement of common advantages and sharing
of common burden.
3374. The parents of guardian of a working child is obligated by a. Prosecution
law to set up a trust fund for the child which shall constitute at b. justice
least percent of the earning of the child. c. equality
A. 20 d. trial
B. 40 3383. This function of the law enforcement is
C. 30 being done through elimination of factors
D. 50 influencing the occurrence of crimes, good

Page 154 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 community relations, educating the citizens about of the society and maintenance of peace and
their role, introduction of delinquency prevention order.
programs, good parenting and others. a. Criminology
a. Maintenance of law and order b. Criminal Justice
b. Reduction of crime c. Victimlogy
c. crime prevention d. Sociology
d. crime control 3394. Refers to the person who is being
3384. This principal character of the criminal implicated to the commission of a crime and
justice process links all components of the CJS. subject of an investigation.
a. Offender a. Convict
b. Victim b. respondent
c. witness c. Accused
d. Crime d. suspect
3385. The frontline defender of democracy in 3395. Is the machinery of the state which
the CJS. enforces the rules of conduct necessary to protect
a. Prosecution life and property and to maintain peace and order?
b. Correction a. Criminal Justice System
c. Police b. Criminology
d. Court c. Criminal law
3386. He is responsible in evaluating the d. Criminal jurisprudence
evidence the police have gathered and deciding 3396. It is that degree of proof requires in
whether it is sufficient to warrant the filing of criminal case which would convince a reasonable
charge(s) against the alleged violator. mind based on moral certainty but which
a. Investigator nevertheless does not preclude the possibility of
b. judge error.
c. prosecutor a. Preponderance of evidence
d. solicitor genera b. Clear and convincing evidence
3387. He is an arbiter in court who ensues c. substantive evidence
that the defense and the prosecution adhere to d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
the legal requirements of introducing evidences.
a. Clerk of court 3397. A negotiation between the defense
b. judge counsel and the prosecutor, aimed at reaching an
c. sheriff agreement whereby the prosecutor uses
d. jury discretion to obtain from the judge a lighter
3388. The pillar of the CJS which is not under sentence in exchange for the defendant’s entering
the executive branch of the government. a guilty plea.
a. law enforcement (Excutive) a. arraignment
b. court b. preliminary investigation
c. prosecution (Executive) c. pre-trial
d. correction (judiciary) d. plea bargaining
3389. This is a governmental body that is
charged with the responsibility of administering 3398. The PNP is the law enforcement agency
justice. of the country which is under the ________?
a. Law enforcement a. DOJ
b. correction b. DILG
c. Prosecution c. NAPOLCOM
d. court d. DSWD
3390. Any person directly vested with 3399. A person who is under custodial
jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a investigation is basically protected by a number of
member of some court, Government Corporation, rights mandated under the constitution and this
board or commission. was even expounded in the legislative act known
a. Agent of person in authority as _______?
b. Government employee a. Miranda Doctrine
c. Government officer b. R.A. 7438
d. person in authority c. Bill of Rights
3391. A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique d. R.A. 6975
position in the Philippine Criminal Justice System 3400. A body officially assembled under
serving as the lawyer of the State or government authority of law in which judicial power is vested
in criminal cases. or the administration of justice is delegated.
a. law enforcement a. court
b. court b. corrections
c. prosecution c. prosecution
d. correction d. law enforcement
3392. This document is required by the 3401. A body of civil authority tasked to
Prosecutor’s Office before it can entertain a maintain peace and order, enforce the law, protect
complaint on a case covered by the Barangay life, liberty and property and ensure public safety.
Court. a. police
a. Certificate of Non-Settlement b. prosecution
b. Certificate of Non-arbitration c. court
c. Certificate to file action d. corrections
d. complaint affidavit 3402. System of taking care of the custody,
3393. It refers to the study of the various rehabilitation and treatment of persons convicted
agency of our government in charged of of committing crime.
processing law violators to ensure the protection

Page 155 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. police c. Crime control
b. prosecution d. Intelligence work
c. court 3412. An attached agency of the Office of the
d. corrections President tasked to implement and undertake
3403. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices drug law enforcement.
Act”. a. Narcotics Command
a. R.A. 8294 b. AID-SOTF
b. R.A. 7080 c. PDEA
c. R.A. 1379 d. NBI
d. R.A. 3019 3413. Sworn statement, subscribed by
Offended party, any peace officer of public officer
in charged of enforcement of the law violated filed
3404. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all either to the court or to the office of the
offenses punishable with imprisonment not prosecutor.
exceeding six years. a. Complaint
a. Supreme Court b. Information
c. RTC c. Pleadings
b. Court of Appeals d. Affidavit
d. MTC
3405. It is otherwise known as the 3414. Is an inquiry or proceeding to
Department of the Interior and Local Government determine whether there is sufficient ground to
Act of 1990, enacted on December 13, 1990. engender a well-founded belief that a crime has
Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and the PPSC. been committed and the respondent is probably
a. R.A. 6975 guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
b. P.D. 1184 a. preliminary investigation b.
c. R.A. 8551 Prejudicial question
d. R.A. 6040 c. inquest proceeding
d. custodial investigation
3406. Refers to that sector of society
composed of NGO’s, cause oriented groups and 3415. Preliminary investigation is conducted
advocacy groups that promote the welfare of the on cases punishable by:
people against all forms of abuse and exploitation. a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day.
a. crime control b. more than four years, two months and one day
b. political parties c. less than four years, two months and one day
c. civil society d. six years, one day and above
d. volunteer 3416. It is the actual restraint of a person into
3407. It is the process of reducing if not custody of the law in order for him to answer for
eliminate the existence of a cause from initially the commission of an offense.
occurring, thus, lessen the police work as a. Arrest
suppressing the spread of criminality. b. investigation
a. Crime Prevention c. invitation
b. Crime control d. seizure
c. Criminal apprehension d. law 3417. It refers to the ways and means of
enforcement trapping and capturing the law breakers in the
3408. Directly under the supervision of the execution of their criminal plan.
Department of Justice, its most important function a. Instigation
in the Criminal Justice System is to maintain and b. Entrapment
recognize the rule of law through the speedy c. Investigation
d2elivery of services particularly in the prosecution d. Raid
and investigation of all crimes. 3418. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or
a. National Prosecution Service interdependent from any branch of government.
b. PNP a. prosecution
c. Ombudsman b. correction
d. Solicitor General c. court
3409. What do you call a court covering two d. community
(2) or more municipalities? 3419. During trial of a criminal case, it is the
a. MTC prosecutor who directs the prosecution of the
b. MeTC offense and he/she did it on the behalf of the state.
c. MCTC Once a case is elevated to the higher court such as
d. MTC’s Court of Appeals, who represents the State in the
3410. What is that term which refers to the prosecution of the offense?
wise use of one’s own judgment in a given a. Chief State Prosecutor
situation without referring to your superior due to b. Solicitor General
the eminence of the situation? c. National or provincial prosecutor
a. Police resourcefulness b. Police d. Judge
discretion 3420. It refers to the questioning initiated by
c. Police integrity d. police law enforcement officer after a person has been
prudence taken into custody.
3411. It refers to the art or science of a. custodial investigation
identifying law violators, locating and tracing them b. interview
in order to affect their arrest and gather evidence c. inquest
to prove their guilt in court. d. interrogation
a. Crime prevention 3421. In cases committed by Public officer
b. criminal investigation with salary grade 27 and above in violation of Act

Page 156 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art. 210 to 212 of the Revised with him any books or documents under his
Penal Code a complaint should first be filed to the control at the trial of an action.
office of _______ for the conduct of the required a. subpoena
preliminary investigation. b. subpoena ad testificandum
a. Ombudsman c. subpoena duces tecum
b. Solicitor General d. warrant of arrest
c. Judge of MTC
d. the President 3432. The “anti-Plunder Act”.
3422. In flagrante delicto means ______? a. R.A. 7080
a. caught in the act c. R.A. 3019
b. caught after commission b. R.A. 1379
c. instigation d. R.A. 6713
d. entrapment 3433. This attached agency of the DOJ is
3423. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with tasked to provide free legal assistance to poor
the power or try cases submitted to for members of society:
adjudication. What term is use in referring to the a. National Bureau of Investigation
authority or power to hear and decided cases. b. National Prosecution Service
a. Jurisdiction c. Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Venue d. Public Attorney’s Office
c. Jurisprudence 3434. This is the power to apply the law to
d. Territory contests or disputes concerning legally recognized
3424. It is the authority of the court to rights or duties between the state and private
try/hear cases for the first time to the exclusion of persons, or between individual litigants in cases
other courts. properly brought before the judicial tribunal.
a. original jurisdiction a. Judicial Power
b. exclusive jurisdiction b. Judicial Review
c. appellate jurisdiction c. Court
d. concurrent jurisdiction d. Court of Justice
3425. It is the formal reading of the charges 3435. This is the process or method whereby
against a person accused of a crime and latter accusations are brought before the court of justice
asking him whether he pleads guilty or not to the to determine the innocence or guilt of the accused.
crime charged. a. Prosecutor
a. arraignment b. Prosecution
b. preliminary investigation c. Trial
c. plea d. Preliminary Investigation
d. promulgation of judgment 3436. The settlement of a dispute by a
3426. It is a body of men created to settle person/s chosen to hear both sides and to come to
disputes within Barangay level. a decision.
a. barangay tanod a. Mediation
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo b. Settlement
c. barangay council c. Arbitration
d. lupon tagapamayapa d. Agreement
3427. It is the most common way by which the 3437. One who prosecutes another for a
police discovers or it informed that a crime has crime in the name of the government?
been committed: a. Public Prosecutor
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the b. Private Prosecutor
crime. c. Prosecution
b. When the police discovers the crime d. Ombudsman
c. When the victim reports the crime 3438. It refers to the “court of last resort”.
d. When the suspect surrenders a. RTC
3428. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be b. Sandiganbayan
composed of the Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of c. Supreme Court
the Lupon and the Brgy. Secretary as the Secretary d. MTC
of the Lupon and other members who shall be: 3439. This court was created under RA 1125,
a. more than 10 but less than 20 as amended, which has exclusive appellate
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20 jurisdiction to review on appeal decisions of the
c. more than 10 Commissioner of the Internal Revenue involving
d. less than 10 internal revenue taxes and decisions of the
3429. When arrest may be made? Commissioner of Customs involving customs
a. At any time of the day and night duties.
b. At day time a. Court of Justice
c. At night time b. Court of Appeals
d. from sun dust till dawn c. Sandiganbayan
3430. Under what circumstances arrest can d. Court of Tax Appeals
be made even without a warrant?
a. All of the choices
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of the
arresting officer.
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and there is
personal knowledge based on probable cause that the
person to be arrest has committed it. 3440. This court has jurisdiction over crimes
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee committed by high-ranking public officials (with
3431. It is a process directed to a person salary grade of 27 above), which can only be
requiring him to attend and to testify or to bring committed because of their position.

Page 157 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan 3442. Is that branch of the criminal justice
d. Court of Tax Appeals system charged with the custody, supervision and
3441. It a writ order of the court bearing its rehabilitation of a convicted offender.
seal and the signature of the judge directing the jail a. Penology
or prison authorities to receive the convicted b. Probation
offender for service of sentence. c. Correction
a. Commitment Order d. Criminology
b. Mittimus 3443. Executive clemencies are acts of grace
c. warrant of arrest exercise by the president. Which of the following
d. habeas corpus is not one of them?
a. Pardon
b. Amnesty
c. Commutation of Sentence
d. Parole
3444. Prison is a place for confinement of
convicted prisoners. What classification of
prisoners is sentenced to serve a prison term of
one day to three (3) years or whose fine is less than
6,000 but more than 200 or both?
a. National prisoner
b. City prisoner
c. provincial prisoner
d. municipal prisoner

3445. Prisons are institution for confinement

of convicted offenders sentenced to more than
three (3) years of imprisonment. It is derived from
the Greco-Roman word _____?
a. Presinto
b. Precindio
c. presidio
d. precinto
3446. There are how many members the
composed the Lupon?
a. 3 members
b. 5 to 10 members
c. 10 to 20 members
d. 5 members
3447. It is granted to convicted offenders who
have served a portion of their service granted by
the Board of Pardons and Parole.
a. Pardon
b. Probation
c. Amnesty
d. Parole
3448. It is a security facility, usually operated
by the police stations, for the temporary detention
of persons held for investigation or awaiting
preliminary investigation before the prosecutor.
a. Lock-up jail
b. Ordinary jail
c. workhouses
d. prison
3449. It is a form of motivation granted by the
Director of Prisons whereby a number of days are
deducted from the length of years that a prisoner
have been sentenced to serve for his good
conduct.
a. Commutation of sentence
b. Parole
c. GCTA
d. reprieve
3450. Correctional institutions in the country
is divided into National and Local institution. What
Department of the Executive Branch is the one in
charge of the National Penitentiary?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and
Penology
b. Department of Justice
c.Department of Interior and Local
Government
d. Bureau of Correction

Page 158 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
3451. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the assurance
state for the transgression of the law. c. by not attempting to trick or lie
a. penalty d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are willing
b. self-defense to negotiate
c. exemplarity 3460. These are priorities in a hostage taking
d. punishment situation EXCEPT,
a. Preservation of life
3452. City and Municipal is the division of our b. Arrest of hostage taker
correctional institution which primarily in charge c. recover and protect property
of those detention prisoner, awaiting for final d. involve the media
judgment of their trial and serving short sentences 3461. A hostage taker is characteristically all
and under the Bureau of Jail Management and of these, EXCEPT
Penology. While it is true that even the Provincials a. mental derange
Jails like the City and Municipal Jails are under the b. suffers severe depression and mental aberration
DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of c. sociopath personality
the __________? d. mental balance
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology b.
Department of Justice 3462. These are not negotiable in a hostage
c. Bureau of Correction taking situation:
d. Provincial government a. guns and ammunition
3453. This is the process wherein the inmate, b. drinks
after serving his sentence, is released to be able to c. foods
mingle with the community. d. all of the choices
a. Reintegration
b. reincarnation 3463. One of the following is not a terrorist
c. Realization tactics:
d. Rehabilitation a. bombing
3454. It refers to the examination of an b. assassination
individual’s person, house, papers or effects, or c. hostage-taking
other buildings and premises to discover d. media exposure
contraband or some evidence of guilt to be used in 3464. In general, hostage takers are
the prosecution of a criminal action: emotionally tense when trapped expand a great
a. Search b. seizure deal of emotional physical and psychic energy,
c. Raid hence:
d. entrapment a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the
authorities
3455. This court was established by virtue of b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
PD1083, otherwise known as “Code of Muslim c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
Personal Laws of the Philippines”. d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender
a. Court of Tax Appeals 3465. When a highly trained and motivated
b. Shari’a Court group of hostage takers asked non-negotiable
c. Sandiganbayan demands , they were left with three options: (1)
d. Family Court choose martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit
3456. Refers to any person below 18 years of suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more realistic
age or those over but unable to fully take care of proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose
themselves from neglect, abuse, cruelty, martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
exploitation or discrimination due to some a. attack them swiftly with precision
physical defect or mental disability or condition. b. withhold the media from the terrorist
a. child c. give all their demands
b. wards d. let the hostages killed
c. physically disabled 3466. The best approach in negotiating with a
d. youth Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
3457. Act or omission which may not be a. to accept their beliefs as being true
punishable if committed by an adult, but becomes b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are wrong
unlawful when they are committed by a child or a c. to show them that they are just crazy
person of tender year or one who is in need of d. to try to bluff or trick them
supervision or assistance. 3467. The following are reasons, why
a. crime common criminals are easy to negotiate, except:
b. status offense a. fears of police assault and punishment
c. delinquency b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
d. felonies c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics
3458. It is the scientific study of crime and the d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
effort of the society to prevent and repressed
them? 3468. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage
a. Penology situation.
b. Victimology a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
c. Criminology b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
d. Sociology of law c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
3459. In hostage situation, non-verbal
communication which indicates openness and 3469. P/SSupt. is the highest ranking PNP
willingness to listen can be shown by: officer who first arrives in a hostage taking
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position incident. As a rule he serves now as a ground

Page 159 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 commander on the said crisis. Having decided to enforcement officers or private citizens is termed
conduct hostage rescue operations, the objectives as:
are as follows, except one:
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed and set
A.Arrest
free.
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to the B.Initialcontact
demands of the hostage takers. C.Childcustody
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats. D. All of the above
d. Hostage takers come to the fold of the law by 3480. It is the study of human society, its
surrendering or be incapable of causing harm origin structure, functions and direction.
3470. In a hostage negotiation and crisis a. criminology
management practice, it is a “cardinal rule”:
b. sociology
a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-taker face
to face c. psychology
b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated agreement d. anthropology
c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker 3481. The science of classifying the physical
d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage taker characteristics.
3471. In a crisis management, there is no a. free will
other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS”, which means: b. positivism
a. the truth will prevail
c. atavism
b. kill the hostage-taker
c. to save lives d. somatology
d. save the hostages 3482. The approach that is using the
perspective of heredity in explaining the cause of
3472. Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a crime.
hostage negotiation. a. geographical approach
a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker
b. biological approach
b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker c. psychiatric application
d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage-taker d. psychological application
3483. The purpose of penalty in the positivism
3473. Last option in hostage crisis: school of criminology.
a. crowd control a. retribution
b. negotiation b. rejection
c. traffic control
c. reformation
d. assault
d. restoration
3474. It is any incident in which people are 3484. It is the study of formation of the skull
being held by another person or persons against in relation to the behavior of the criminal.
their will, usually by force or coercion, and a. entomology
demands are being made by the perpetrator. b. penology
a. kidnapping c. phrenology
b. crisis management
d. criminology
c. hostage incident
d. abduction 3485. Children shall be given priority
during_____ as result of armed conflict.?
3475. The following are the priorities in a. war
hostage taking situation, except: b. treatment
a. preservation of life c. evacuation
b. arrest of the hostage-taker
d. education
c. inclusion of the media
d. successfully negotiate 3486. Science concerned with improving the
3476. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage quality of offspring.
takers who take hostages: a. criminology
a. by reason of mental illness b. eugenics
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and c. genetics
problems d. heredity
c. for personal reason 3487. Commonly known as victimless crime:
d. because of political and ideological belief A.occassional crime
3477. This is an assault team responsible in B.political crime
carrying out assault operation whenever C.public order crime
negotiation fails. D. conventional crime
a. medical team
b. tactical team
3488. A child whose basic needs have been
c. negotiation team d. snipers
3478. This asserts that strong self-image deliberately unattended.
protects the youth from the influence and a. abandoned child
pressure of criminogenic pulls in his environment. b. dependent child
A. Rational theory c. abusive child
B. Conflict theory d. neglected child
C. Label theory 3489. The principle that events including
D. Containment theory
criminal behavior that has sufficient causes..
3479. The apprehension or taking into
a. atavism
custody of a child in conflict with the law by law

Page 160 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 b. narassism adopt a rational scientific understanding of the
c. determinism world. Comte called this the positive stage and
d. positivism those who followed his writings were called,
a. August Comte
3490. An established and generally accepted
b. Positivists
moral values refer to. c. Positivism
a. integrity d. Sociologists
b. morality 3500. Refers to the counsel provided by the
c. ethical standard government to assist destitute litigant?
d. authority a. Counsel de officio
3491. This refers to a significant loss of b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
contact with reality.
d. volunteer counsel
a. split mind 3501. He represent the government’s
b. psychosis position in a criminal case during court
c. neurosis proceedings from the time of the suspect’s arrest
d. schizoprenia until the adjudication of his case.
a. Counsel de officio
3492. What is a person who kills 3 or more in b. counsel de parte
a separate events? c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. prosecutor
A.mass murder 3502. What is the highest rank in the national
B. serial killer prosecution service SERVICE?
a. Prosecutor V
C.homicidal
b. Prosecutor IV
D. spree killer c. Prosecutor VI
3493. A bank robber who kills some individual d. Chief Prosecutor
in the bank, flees with hostages, and kills a number
of people while in flight diving a chase would be an 3503. The Office of the
example of: ____________represents the Government of the
Philippines, its agencies and instrumentalities and
its officials and agents in any litigation, proceeding,
A. Serial Murder investigation or matter requiring the services of
B. Spree Murder lawyers
C. Mass Murder a. Solicitor General
D. Multiple Murder b. Public Attorney’s Office
3494. What is the legal term for nighttime? c. Counsel de officio
A. sanctuary b. counsel de parte
3504. An office which Investigate and
B.absurdity
prosecute on its own or on complaint by any
C. ephitomy person, any act or omission of any public officer or
D. nocturnity employee, office or agency, when such act or
3495. These are the rights of an accused that omission appears to be illegal, unjust, improper or
are derived from special laws enacted by Congress. inefficient
A. Constitutional rights
B. Civil rights a. Solicitor General Office
b. Public Attorney’s Office
C.Statutoryrights
c. Ombudsman
D. Natural rights b. Sandiganbayan
3496. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the 3505. An office which shall independently
national total crime volume of 84, 875, How many discharge its mandate to render, free of charge,
crimes were reported to the police? legal representation, assistance, and counselling
a. 22, 868 to indigent persons in criminal, civil, labor,
b. 22, 068 administrative and other quasi-judicial cases
c. 20, 250 a. Solicitor General Office
d. 32, 644 b. Public Attorney’s Office
3497. What is the antonyms of the word c. Ombudsman
arrest? b. Sandiganbayan
3506. Is an inquiry or proceeding to
A. Apprehend
determine whether there is sufficient ground to
B. Search engender a well-founded belief that a crime has
C. Set free been committed and the respondent is probably
D. Renounce guilty thereof and should be held for trial
3498. How many members composed the a. custodial investigation
“Pangkat?” b. inquest proceeding
A. 1 member c. preliminary investigation
C. 2 members b. arraignment
B. 3 members 3507. Is an inquiry made by the duty
D. 5 members prosecutor to determine the legality of the arrest
3499. He founded Sociology and applied made especially those arrests made without a
scientific methods in the study of society, which to warrant
him passes through stages divided on the basis of a. custodial investigation
how people try to understand it, leading them to b. inquest proceeding

Page 161 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 c. preliminary investigation b. Egalitarian family
b. arraignment c. Patriarchal family
3508. It is the power to apply the laws to d. Matriarchal family
contests or disputes concerning legally recognized 3517. These views suggest that males such as
rights or duties of and between the state and the judges, police officers, and prosecutors tend to
private persons or between individual litigants in have traditional views on women thus, they are
cases properly brought before the judicial more lenient to them as compared to their male
tribunals. counterparts.
a. Paternalism
a. court power b. Chivalry Hypothesis
b. legal power c. Masculinity
c. judicial power d. Power Control Theory
b. right power 3518. This new branch in criminology opposes
3509. It has original exclusive jurisdiction over the theoretical perspective and proposes the
public officers accused of committing crimes in involvement of all stakeholders in the use of non
relation to their official functions and whose salary violent solutions
grade is 27 and above. a. Peacemaking Criminology
b. Sociology of Law
a. Solicitor General Office c. Restorative Justice
b. Public Attorney’s Office d. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
c. Ombudsman 3519. This crimes are those that the lower
b. Sandiganbayan class commit against the upper class of society in a
capitalist system
3510. It is said that the home is the cradle of a. Crimes of Passion
human personality, for it where the child b. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
develops his fundamental attitudes and habits c. Crimes of domination and. Repression
d. Crimes of Lower class group
that last throughout his life
3520. The ruling class in a capitalist system is
a. school the
b. community a. Proletariat
c. barangay b. Bourgeois
b. family c. Capitalist
3511. It is a body of men created to settle d. Ruling class
disputes within Barangay level. 3521. Who proposed the theory of capitalism
a. barangay tanod and invoked communism as a remedy?
b. barangay council a. George Vold
c. pangkat tagpagkasundo b. Karl Marx
b. lupon tagapamayapa c. Emile Durkheim
d. Max Weber
3512. It refers the process whereby 3522. This theory believes that society is
disputants are persuaded by the Punong Barangay divided into two groups with competing values the
or Pangkat to amicably settle their disputes upper class and lower class.
a. agreement a. Class Theory
b. conciliation b. Differential Opportunity
c. conference c. Conflict Theory
b. mediation d. Consensus Theory
3513. This theory views crime and 3523. A problem that occurs when offenders
delinquency as a result of the frustration and anger who have been released from the system are
people experience over their inability to achieve placed in a program simply because the program
legitimate social and financial success. exist.
a. strain theory a. Diversion Movement
b. psychological theories b. Intervention
c. differential association theory c. Net widening
d. labeling theory d. Primary Deviance
3524. It conceded factors such as insanity
3514. This theory suggest that stability and might inhibit the exercise of free will.
changes in criminal and deviant behavior through a. Classical theory
time and different stages in life. b. positivist theory
a. Self Derogation Theory c. Neo-classical theory
b. Anomie Theory d. radical theory
c. Life Course Theory
d. Routine Activities Theory 3525. His great contributions to criminology
were the principle of utilitarianism and the felicific
3515. This theory suggest that females and calculus.
males are becoming equal in society in terms of a. Cesare Beccaria
family, politics, and education b. Jeremy Bentham
A.Feminist Theory c. Cesare Lombroso
B. Paternalism d. Emile Durkheim
C.Liberation Theory 3526. He propounded the theory of evolution
D. Life Course Theory that inspired the now known “Father of Modern
3516. In the power control theory by Hagan, Criminology” to develop the theory of atavism.
which father and mother share similar roles in the a. Cesare Lombroso
workplace and power in the family b. Charles Goring
a. Feminist theory c. Cesare Beccaria

Page 162 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 d. Charles Darwin c. Mitigating
3527. According to him, people with criminal d. Aggravating
behavior, should be prohibited from having 3536. Those wherein the acts of the person
children. are in accordance with the law, hence he incurs no
a. Robert Dugdale criminal liability.
b. Henry Goddard a. Exempting
c. Charles Goring b. aggravating
d. George Wilker c. Justifying
d. Mitigating
3528. It states that individuals are deviant
mainly because they have been labeled as deviant 3537. A place of residence whose primary function is to give
by social agencies and others. The notion of shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
deviance is not inherent in the act itself, but rather a. Maternity home
in the reaction and stigma attached to the actor. b. Hospital
a. Containment Theory c. Rehabilitation center
b. Theory of Imitation d. Foster homes
c. Social Process Theory 3538. This may be demonstrated by any of the following: severe
d. Social Reaction theory anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal behavior.
3529. Cesare Lombroso classified this type of a. Psychological injury
criminal with five (5) or more atavistic stigmata. b. Mental injury
a. Born-criminal type c. Physical injury
b. insane d. Emotional injury
c. Criminaloid 3539. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to
d. pseudo-criminal address issues that caused the child to commit an offense. It may
3530. These are crimes which are wrong from take the form of an individualized treatment program, which
their very nature. Examples of these are murder, may include counseling, skills training, education, and other
robbery, and other violations of the Revised Penal activities that will enhance his/her psychological, emotional and
Code. psychosocial well-being.
a. Heinous crimes a. Diversion
b. mala in se b. Rehabilitation
c. Serious crimes c. Probation
d. mala prohibita d. Intervention
3531. These are crimes which are wrong only 3540. If children, whether male or female, who for money, profit
because there are laws that prohibit them in order or any other consideration or due to the coercion or influence of
to regulate an orderly society. Examples of these any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in sexual intercourse
are the violations of special laws like the violation or lascivious conduct it is known as…
of “Anti-Smoking Law”. a. Child Abuse
a. Mala prohibita b. Child Trafficking
b. less grave felonies c. Child Prostitution
c. Mala in se d. Child Exploitation
d. light felonies
3532. The principle of criminal law which is
“nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege” means: 3541. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring
a. An act done by me against my will is not my act a. Control
b. There is no crime where no law punishing it. b. Recession
c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one. c. Repression
d. Mistake of fact is an excuse. d. Prevention
3533. He was the one who introduced the 3542. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, it
following definition of criminology: “It is the entire refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as defined in
body of knowledge regarding crime as a social Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including a barangay
phenomenon. It includes within its scope the tanod.
process of making laws, of breaking laws and of a. Police Officer
reacting towards the breaking of the laws”: b. Probation Officer
a) Raffaelle Garofalo c. Law Enforcement Officer
b) Edwin Sutherland d. Public Officer
c) Cesare Beccaria 3543. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately
d) Paul Topinard unattended or inadequately attended.
3534. Classical Theory states that individuals a. Abandoned Child
have freewill. It is focused on an individual's choice b. Abused Child
as to whether or not he will commit a crime and c. Neglected Child
the purpose of Classical Theory in giving d. Dependent Child
punishment is________________. 3544. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years old.
a) Restoration a. Adolescence
b) Treatment b. Early adolescence
c) Retribution c. Juvenile
d) Deterrence d. None of the above
3545. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which deviates
3535. Refers to the circumstances which from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, custom and
attendant in the commission of a crime serve to culture which society does not accept and which therefore,
increase the penalty, without however exceeding justifies some kind of corrective measures in the public interest
the maximum of the penalty provided by law for and it is being committed by minors?
the offense. a. Juvenile Delinquency
a. Justifying b. Minor Delinquency
b. Exempting c. Child Delinquency

Page 163 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 d. Youth Delinquency c. 1 and 2
3546. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in d. 3 and 4
conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is mandated 3554. What does classical theory provides?
to turn over said child to the custody of the Department of Social
a. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could be
Welfare and Development or any accredited Non-Government
Organization immediately but not later than hours controlled by regulating the reproduction of families
after apprehension. b. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other
a. 8 persons in the process of communication
b. 24 c. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and
c. 12 penalty disorders
d. 36 d. The basis for criminal liability is human free will and the
3547. This concerns to the obligations of the
purpose of penalty is retribution
community to individuals, and requires fair
disbursement of common advantages and sharing 3555. The theory in criminal causation
of common burden. focuses on the criminal disorders, chromosomes
a. Prosecution irregularity, and abnormal brain activity?
b. justice a. Biological
c. equality b. Psychological
d. trial c. Sociological
3548. A probationer is allowed to do the
d. Geological
following except?
3556. Where Rene Boy shall be confined if
a. Stay away from bad associates
his sentence is 6 months or less?
b. Work regularly to support his family
a. National prison
c. Make periodic office report
b. Municipal jail
d. Go and play in a gambling den
c. City jail
3549. Which of the following are the major
d. Provincial jail
goals of correction?
3557. Crimes with no private offended party?
a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
a. Complex crime
b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
b. Status offense
c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
c. Simple crime
d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
d. Victimless crime
3550. A judicial action for legal disposition
3558. A married prisoner is visited by his wife
that allows the offender to remain in the
and they were granted the time for their marital
community subject to conditions imposed by the
sexual obligation. What do you call this affair?
court?
a. Sexual relation
a. Reprieve
b. Conjugal partnership
b. Probation
c. Conjugal privilege
c. Commutation
d. Conjugal visit
d. Parole
3559. What institution conducts the training
3551. Which of the following is an open
program for uniformed personnel of the BJMP?
correctional institution known to be the best and
a. Fire Training Center
prison without walls?
b. Philippine National Jail Academy
a. Davao penal farm
c. PNP Training Center
b. Sablayan penal colony
d. Jail Management Training Institute
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
3560. Robin Padilla was convicted and ready
d. Iwahig penal colony
to serve his sentence inside the prison. Why was
3552. Which is called the finest penal farm in
he photographed at the Reception and Diagnostic
the world?
Center?
a. Davao penal farm
a. He is a actor and photogenic
b. Sablayan penal colony
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
d. Iwahig penal colony
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the reception
3553. . Under the UN Standard Minimum
procedure
Rules for treatment of Prisoners, which of the
3561. A penalty having its minimum and
following are the two basic principles under rules
maximum duration is referred to as
of general application to prisoners?
a. Determinate sentence
1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of race,
b. Capital punishment
color, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or
c. Corporal punishment
social origin, birth or other status
d. Indeterminate sentence
2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief and moral
3562. Which of the following executive
rule of the group to which the prisoner belong
clemency needs the concurrence of the congress?
3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not their
a. Pardon
exclusion from the community, but their continuing part in it
b. Amnesty
4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be innocent and
c. Probation
shall be treated as such.
d. Parole
a. 2 and 3
b. 4 and 1

Page 164 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3563. It is an executive clemency whereby a. Recreational program
the convicted person should serve part of his b. Religious program
sentence? c. Educational program
a. Pardon d. Employment of prisoners
b. Parole 3573. Person who are deemed instrumental
c. Probation on the reformation of prisoners due to their daily
d. Amnesty contact with inmates?
3564. What should the court do where the a. Chaplain
accused violated the terms and conditions of his b. Warden
probation? c. Psychologist
a. Court releases the probationer to the community d. Prison guards
b. Revoked and let the probationer served his sentence 3574. Person who are deemed instrumental
c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole on the reformation of prisoners due to their daily
d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his contact with inmates?
probation a. Chaplain
3565. Which of the following is a minor b. Warden
offense in jail? c. Psychologist
a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate d. Prison guards
b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place 3575. It is given to prisoners who have
c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in the jail returned to their places of confinement within 48
where it is off- limits to inmates hours after a calamity.
d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official a. Good conduct time allowance
communication, transaction or investigation b. Special time allowance
3566. Failure to assist in putting out fires c. Visitation privileges
inside the jail is a type of offense? d. Good treatment allowance
a. Grave offense 3576. Juan Manalo was convicted by final
b. Less grave offense judgment to serve the term of imprisonment for
c. Not so grave offense 20 years. While serving his sixth year of
d. Minor offense imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the prison
and several inmates escaped. Roberto returned
3567. How many hours should the jail the following day, how many years would be
disciplinary board hear and decide the case deducted from his sentence?
brought before it? a. 4 years
a. 24 hours b. 8 years
b. 12 hours c. 9 years
c. 48 hours d. 11 years
d. 72 hours 3577. A person convicted to serve 6 years
3568. Minimum number of time in counting imprisonment would be classified as what kind of
the inmates on daily basis? prisoner?
a. Three times a. Municipal prisoner
b. Two times b. Insular prisoner
c. Four times c. Provincial prisoner
d. Five times d. Detention prisoner
3569. What is the duration should the 3578. It is one of the forerunners of modern
probation officer submit his post sentence correctional system wherein they confine the
investigation to the court? prisoners in single cell at night but allow them to
a. 60 days work during the day.
b. 30 days a. Auburn system
c. within 60 days b. Pennsylvania system
d. 15 days c. Elmira reformatory
3570. A shoemaker and became the father of d. None of the above
probation in the U.S 3579. It is an institution intended to detain or
a. Mathew Davenport Hill house political offenders.
b. Edward Savage a. Iwahig Penal farm
c. John Augustus b. Davao Penal Farm
d. Teodolo Natividad c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm
3571. When does probation started? d. Sablayan Prison Farm
a. 1938 3580. This forerunner whereby he
b. 1841 introduced the theory of atavism?
c. 1896 a. Lombroso
d. 1932 b. Becarria
3572. It is regarded as the most important c. Ferri
program that aids in the rehabilitation or d. Garofalo
prisoners

Page 165 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3581. It is the temporary suspension in the 3591. Who shall have the control over the
execution of sentence? probationer once the latter is permitted to reside
a. Pardon under the jurisdiction of another court?
b. Appeal a. Regional Director
c. Commutation b. Executive judge of the municipal court
d. Reprieve c. Executive Judge of the first instance
3582. It is the deduction of the term of d. Appellate court
imprisonment due to the convict’s good behavior 3592. Pedro Juana was sentenced to serve an
while serving his sentence? imprisonment of six months, how many years
a. Special time allowance would be the duration of his probation?
b. Parole a. One year
c. Good conduct time allowance b. Two years
d. Probation c. Shall not exceed two years
3583. A writ ordering the confinement of a d. Shall not be more than six years
person in penal institution. 3593. In the hearing for the violation
a. Detention order committed by the probationer, the latter shall
b. Commitment order have the right to be informed of the violation
c. Warrant of arrest charged and to adduce evidence in his favor. This
d. None of the above right is in pursuant to his right to ___?
3584. Who grants probation? a. Equal protection
a. Probation officer b. Presumption of innocence
b. Solicitor general c. Miranda rights
c. Court d. Due process of law
d. All of the above 3594. What is the effect of the termination
3585. Where the application for probation of probation?
should be filed? a. Erase criminal records
a. Board of Pardons and Parole b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended as a
b. Office of the Solicitor General result of conviction
c. Trial court c. Both A and B
d. Appellate court d. None of the above
3586. The court shall resolve the application 3595. Probation aids shall have the term in
for probation for _. office for ___?
a. Not later than 60 days a. 3 years
b. Within 10 days b. 1 year
c. Within 5 days c. 2 years
d. Within 15 days d. 4 years
3587. Pending the submission of the 3596. Ideal number of days for proper
investigation report, the defendant may be classification of newly convicted offenders at the
allowed on temporary liberty through_. RDC?
a. Release on recognizance a. 45 days
b. Bail b. 30 days
c. Manifestation c. 60 days
d. Cash bond d. 15 days
3588. Probation shall be denied if the court 3597. An inherent responsibility of a warden
finds that_. in seeing to it that he continually motivates his
a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense staff and personnel to perform at their best.
committed. a. Decision making
b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment b. Control of prison operation and activities
c. There is undue risk that during the period of probation c. Personnel program
the offender will commit another crime d. Executive leadership
d. All of the choices 3598. Place wherein a newly convicted
3589. The probationer and his probation prisoner is housed for at least a minimum period
program shall be under the control and of 5 days to ten days for the conduct of medical
supervision of ___? examination, vaccination, x-rays to prevent
a. Probation officer physical contamination
b. Board of pardons and parole a. Reception diagnostic center
c. Court b. Medical center
d. All of the above c. Quarantine unit
3590. Is the denial of probation appealable? d. None of the above
a. It depends on the violation 3599. A writ issued by the court to a
b. Yes correctional facility indicating the basis of
c. No confinement of a prisoner
d. Partially No a. Mittimus
b. Detention order

Page 166 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 c. Warrant of arrest d. Post Sentence Investigation
d. Writ of Hebeas Corpus 3610. After receiving the PSIR, within how
3600. A code which provides “an eye for an many days must a judge decide whether to grant
eye, a tooth for a tooth.” or deny the application for probation.
a. Code of Babylon a. 5 days
b. Code of Kalantiaw b. 15 days
c. Hammurabi code c. 30 days
d. Bible d. 60 days
3601. A French word meaning “word of 3611. Under the Indeterminate Sentence
honor” Law, who acts as the chairman of the Board of
a. Pardon Pardons and Parole?
b. Probation a. PNP Chief
c. Parole b. DILG Secretary
d. Amnesty c. DOJ Secretary
3602. Refers to those who are confined in d. Chief Executive
correctional facilities awaiting verdict in their 3612. Operation conducted by the BJMP
cases where a prisoner maybe checked at anytime.
a. Prisoner a. Search and seizure
b. Detainees b. Confiscation
c. Probationer c. Inspection
d. Offender d. Operation greyhound
3603. It is said to be the alternative for jail 3613. These are long, narrow, single decked
confinement in modern penology. ships propelled by sails, usually rowed by
a. Amnesty criminals.
b. Parole a. Hulks
c. Probation b. Ships of criminals
d. Pardon c. Galleys
3604. He advocated the Irish system which is d. none of the above
considered by many as one of the most famous 3614. What is the standard ratio in escorting
contributor to the reformatory movement. a non- bailable inmate?
a. Z.R. Brockway a. One is to one security officer
b. Alexander Macanochie b. One is to three security officers
c. Ceasar Lombroso c. One is to two plus one security officers
d. Walter Crofton d. One is to one plus one security officer
3605. He is the father of probation in the 3615. Offenders who are committed to the
Philippines jail or prison in order to serve their sentence after
a. Ferdinand Marcos final conviction of a competent court is known as
b. Manuel Roxas a. Detention prisoner
c. Teodulo Natividad b. Sentenced prisoner
d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr. c. Provincial prisoner
3606. A Boston shoemaker who advocated in d. National prisoner
behalf of alcoholic and youthful offenders and 3616. Penology came from the latin word
known as the father of probation. “poena” which means
a. Mathew Davenport Hill a. Conviction
b. Edward Savage b. Pain and suffering
c. John Augustus c. Punishment
d. Alexander Rice d. Deterrence
3607. He is the first appointed probation 3617. It is the suffering inflicted by the state
officer in the world. against an offending member of the society for
a. Hans Gross the transgression of the law
b. Edward Savage a. Penalty
c. John Augustus b. Punishment
d. Benjamin Franklin c. Suffering
3608. This case paved the way for the d. Any of the above
abolition of the first probation law? 3618. When different crimes should be
a. People v. De Vera, 376 O.G. 164 punished with different penalties, punishment
b. People v. Vera, 376 O.G. 164 should therefore be
c. Vera v. People, 376 O.G. 164 a. Correctional
d. People v. De Vera, 376 O,G. 164 b. Legal
3609. It serves as the basis in granting c. Productive of suffering
probation to qualified applicants. d. Commensurate with the offense
a. Post Investigation Report 3619. An institution for the imprisonment of
b. Pre Sentence Investigation report persons convicted of major offenses refers to
c. Admission report a. Jail

Page 167 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 b. Prison 3629. What was the most popular
c. Penitentiary workhouse in London which was built for the
d. All of the above employment of English prisoners?
3620. Imprisonment for a term of 6 years 1 a. Borstal prison
day to 12 years b. Panoptican prison
a. Prision correccional c. Elmira reformatory
b. Reclusion temporal d. None of the choices
c. Arresto mayor 3630. Which branch takes charge of the
d. Prision mayor preparation of the daily menu, prepares and
3621. A criminal can seek refuge in a church cooks food and serve to inmates?
in order to avoid punishment in a period of ninety a. General Service Branch
days. This refers to b. Mess Service Branch
a. Refuge c. Budget and Finance Brach
b. Securing sanctuary d. Property and Supply Branch
c. Hidden church 3631. The unit where the prisoner is given
d. Claiming penitentiary thorough physical examination including blood
3622. This were the former warships used to test, x-rays, vaccinations and immunity for the
house prisoners in the 18th century and 19th purpose of insuring that the prisoner is not
century as means of relieving congestion of suffering from contagious disease?
prisones refers to a. Rehabilitation Unit
a. Galleys b. Quarantine Cell
b. Hulks c. Medical and Health Center
c. Gaols d. RDC
d. Warships 3632. Who provides the security system of
3623. In the ancient times, who were sound custody, security and control of inamtes
commonly subjected to harsh punishments? and their movements and also responsible to
a. Middle class enforce jail or prison discipline
b. Black people a. Administrative Group
c. Slaves b. Security Group
d. Any of the above. c. Rehabilitation Group
3624. Offenders who were convicted should d. Medical Group
be kept away from the society for its protection.
This is frequently called as
a. Incapacitation 3633. What law was passed during the
b. Deterrence Aquino administration that renamed the Bureau
c. Penalization of Prisons to Bureau of Corrections?
d. Rehabilitation a. E.O. 292
3625. What code specified punishment b. E.O. 229
according to the social class of the offenders? c. A.O 262
a. Greek Code of Draco d. E.O. 292
b. Justinian Code 3634. Who appoints the Director of Prisons
c. Burgundian Code who shall be the Head of the Bureau?
d. Akadian Code a. Chief BJMP
3626. The establishment of the usefulness b. Sec. of DILG
and responsibility of the offender as a productive c. Chief Executive
individual is a punishment justified by d. Sec. of DOJ
a. Expiation 3635. What agency has supervision and
b. Rehabilitation control over all the national prisons or
c. Atonement penitentiaries?
d. Retribution a. Bureau of Prisons
3627. The penalty of banishing a person from b. Bureau of Correction
the place where he committed a crime refers to c. Bureau of Jail
what contemporary forms of punishment d. None of the above
a. Atonement 3636. Which of the following statements is
b. Destierro not true?
c. Exile a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the
d. Incapacitation jurisdiction of the DOJ
3628. The early Roman place of confinement b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the
which was built under the main sewer of Rome in provincial government
64 BC refers to c. The jail bureau controls the administration and
a. Town Gates supervision of all jails nationwide
b. Wulnut Street Jail d. The BJMP is under the DILG
c. Bridewell Workhouse 3637. Who appoints jail Sr. Superintend?
d. Mamertime Prison a. Chief Executive

Page 168 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 b. DILG Sec D. 21st century
c. Chief BJMP 3646. It refers to a Prison System whereby
d. Chief of BUCOR prisoners are confined in their own cells during the
3638. Who appoints the Chief Inspector as night and congregate work in shops during the day
warden? also known as “Congregate System”.
a. DILG sec A. Auburn Prison System
b. Chief Executive B. Custody Oriented Prison
c. Chief BJMP C. Pennsylvania Prison System
d. Chief of BuCor D. Treatment Oriented Prison
3639. Early forms of Prison Discipline by 3647. The first juvenile reformatory which
means of uttering insulting words or languages on was opened in January 1825 and located in New
the part of prison staff to the prisoners to degrade York City.
or break the confidence of prisoners. A. Borstal Institution
A. Degradation B. Elmira Reformatory
B. Corporal Punishment C. New York House of Refuge
C. Monotony D. Panoptican Prison
D. Mass Movement 3648. One of the juridical conditions of
3640. The public will be protected if the Penalty, The consequence must be in accordance
offender has being held in conditions where he with the law it is a result of a judgment rendered
cannot harm others especially the public. by a court of justice.
Punishment is effected by placing offenders in A. Equal
prison so that society will be ensured from further B. Legal
criminal depredations of criminals. C. Commensurate w/ the offense
A. Deterrence D. Personal
B. Incapacitation & Protection 3649. X was sentenced to serve with a penalty
C. Retribution of Reclusion Temporal who has the jurisdiction to
D. Atonement detain him?
3641. H
e is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as A. BuCor
correctional treatment for major offenders also C. BJMP
responsible for the abolition of death penalty and B. PNP
torture as a form of punishment. D. AFP
A. John Howard 3650. Baby Ama was sentenced to serve
B.Charles Montesquieu Prison Correctional. What is the duration of his
C. William Penn penalty?
D. Jeremy Bentham A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y
3642. Director of the Prisons of Valencia, C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y
Spain who divided prisoners into companies and B. 6M1D to 6 Y
appointed prisoners as petty officer in charge. D. 1M&1D – 6 M
A. Domets of France 3651. It is then known as Carcel y Presidio.
C. Manuel Montesimos A. Old Bilibid Prison
B. Zebulon Brockway B. Manila City Jail
D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise C. NBP
3643. What governing law of Aklan and Panay D. May Halique Estate
based on the beliefs, customs and practices, it is 3652. Formerly known as the Luhit Penal
also reflects the level of uprightness and morality Settlement.
of the people? A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203 B. San Ramon Prison
B. Law of the Talion C. Sablayan Prison
C. Kalantiaw Code D. New Bilibid Prison
D. Penitentiary Act of 1779 3653. When an inmate is given a
3644. It refers to prison which is used to “shakedown” before admission it meant
confine slaves where they were attached to A. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and
workbenches and forced to do hard labor in the Photograph
period of their imprisonment. B. Examination for Contraband
A. Underground Cistern C. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record Clerk
B. Ergastalum D. All of These
C. Sing-Sing Prison 3654. ____ is the Chairman of the
D. Alcatraz Prison Classification Board in BJMP.
3645. It is known as the “Age of Reason of Age A. Assistant Warden
of Enlightment” B. Medical Officer
A. 1870 – 1880 C. Chief, Security Officer
B. 18th century D. Jail Chaplain
C. 19th century

Page 169 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3655. A general agreed principle that women Bureau under the Department of Interior and Local
prisoners should be placed in a special building on Government .
the same site with the men prison.
A. Diversification by Sex A. Section 13, RA 6975 NAPOLCOM
B. Segregation B. Section 53, RA 6975
C. Diversification by Age C. Section 23 of RA 6975
D. Diversification by Degree of Custody D. Section 60 of RA 6975
3656. What satellite of NBP does RDC is 3664. X was sentenced to serve with a penalty
situated? of Reclusion Temporal who has the jurisdiction to
A. Camp Bukang Liwayway detain him?
B. Camp Sampaguita A. BuCor
C. Main building C. BJMP
D. Chapel B. PNP
3657. What is the prescribed color of uniform D. AFP
for Minimum Security Prisoners? 3665. All except one is included in the
A. Blue command group of BJMP
B. Brown A. Chief of Staff
C. Tangerine B. Deputy C/BJMP
D.Gray C. Chief of BJMP
3658. It is located in Sto. Tomas, Davao Del D. Chief of Directorial staff
Norte, General Paulino Santos led the first 3666. One of the Administrative groups in
contingent which opened the colony. BJMP responsible for preparation of the daily
A. Davao Penal Colony menu, prepare and cook the food and serve it to
B. Tagum inmates.
C. Panabo A. Mess Service Branch
D. Kapalong B. General Service Branch (maintenance)
E. Tanglaw C. Budget and Finance Branch (financial)
3659. Gov. White E. Dwigth made the D. Property and Supply Branch (logistics)
suggestion of the construction of this penal 3667. When the offender is in transit, the
institution and it was established on 1904 through ratio of __ for every offender shall be observed.
the orders of Gov. Forbes. It is considered a one of A. 1:1+1
the most open penal institutions in the world. B. 1:2
A. Iwahig C. 1:7
B. Tagumpay D. 1:500
C. Sta. Lucia 3668. When the offender is in transit, in case
D. Inagawan of ___ that demands extra precaution additional
3660. The following are the sub colonies of guards shall be employed
Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm. A. High Profile offender
I. Central III. Pusog B. Female Offender
II. Pasugui IV. Yapang C. High-risk offender
V. Panabo VI. Kapalong D. Either of these
VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan 3669. If the inmate agrees to abide by the
IX. Montible X. Central same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted
A. I, II, III, IV prisoners, he shall be asked to, manifest his ___ in
B. V and VI writing.
C. VII, VIII, IX & X A. Certification
D. Either of these C. Agreement
3661. Convicts committed to BUCOR are B. Manifestation
brought to RDC for a total period of ____ for D. Affidavit
classification and determination of appropriate 3670. John was sentenced to serve Arresto
program. Mayor, what classification of sentenced prisoner is
A. 60 days John classified?
B. 55 days A. Municipal Prisoner
C. 5 days C. City Prisoner
D. NONE B. Provincial Prisoner
D. Insular Prisoner
3662. One of the components of RDC which is 3671. Ser Chief is a newly arrived inmate
responsible in the examination of the prisoner’s committed for the first time. He classified as a
mental and emotional make-up. ____ among the classification of inmates
A. Medical Center according to privileges.
B. Sociologist A. 1st class inmate
C. Psychologist B. 3rd class inmate
D.Psychiatrist C. 2nd class inmate
3663. The Bureau of Jail Management and D. Colonist
Penology was created thru ____ as one of the Tri

Page 170 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3672. What classification of Prisoners A. 20 Years
according to Degree of Security if the prisoner B. 25 Years
cannot be trusted in open conditions and pose C. 30 Years
lesser danger than maximum-security prisoners in D. 35 Years
case they escape. 3681. Duration of viewing of privilege of a
A. Minimum Security Prisoners deceased relative is limited to ___ hours.
B. Medium Security Prisoners A. 3
C. Maximum Security Prisoners B. 9
D. Any of the Above C. 6
3673. What is the lowest authorized D. 12
disciplinary punishment imposable to inmates? 3682. Who among the following inmates may
A. Close Confinement not be allowed to see the remains of a dead
B. Extra-Fatigue Duty immediate family member?
C. Reprimand A. Minimum Security
D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges B.Maximum Security
3674. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP C. Medium Security
shall be between ___ in any calendar month D. None of these
provided that this punishment shall be imposed 3683. Telephone calls are permitted for
only in the case of an incorrigible prisoner when inmates for a period not exceeding 5 minutes
other disciplinary measured had been proven every ___ days.
ineffective. A. 30
A. 30-60 days B. 90
C. 1-7 Days C. 60
B. 1 day D. 120
D. NONE 3684. If escorting an inmate a guard shall
3675. All except one are instruments of keep distance of not less than ____ paces from his
restraints. charge.
A. Handcuffs A. 10
B. Whipping Rod B. 30
C. Leg iron C. 15
D. Strait Jackets D. 45
3676. Inmates ____ may be excused from 3685. In mess hall and dining area for
mandatory prison labor. purposes of precaution, the prescribe utensil for
A. 60 years old inmates shall be made of:
B. 56 years old A. Wood
C. 50 years old B. Paper
D. 21 years old C. Plastic
3677. The _____ may grant GCTA to an D. Carton
inmate for good behavior with no record of 3686. It is a continuing state of good order.
disciplinary infraction or violation of prison rules A. Discipline
and regulation. B. Communication
A. Director of BJMP C. Morale
B. Warden D. Loyalty
C. President 3687. Unload as method in searching the
D. Director of Corrections prisoner for possession of contraband’s inside the
3678. Inmates earnings that may be used to prison cell and compound.
buy his needs. A. Frisking
A. ½ of his earnings B. Shakedown
B. ¼ if his earnings C. Operation Greyhound
C. ¾ of his earnings D. Body Frisking
D. Discretion of Warden 3688. It is considered as the highest income
earner among the Philippine Correctional
3679. GCTA is a kind of ___ that can only be Institution.
denied if the prisoner breaks the rules and only A. Iwahig Penal Colony
after due process is observed. B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
A. right C. Davao Penal Colony
B. Privileges D. Sablayan Prison and Farm
C. Discretion 3689. The most common problem for national
D. liberty penitentiaries.
3680. A colonist when classified by the A. Excessive number of inmates
director of the Bureau of Corrections who is B. Lack of funds
punished with reclusion perpetua will have benefit C. Sex problems
from an automatic reduction from maximum term D. Discipline
of forty years to ___.

Page 171 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3690. Which of these authorizes the release C. Masturbation
of a detainee who has undergone preventive D. Conjugal Visit
imprisonment equivalent to the maximum 3699. An offender who surrenders from
imposable sentence for the offense he is charged escaping because of calamity immediately 48
with? hours after the pronouncement of the passing
A. B.P 85 away of calamity shall be granted
B. RA 4200 A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
C. B.P. 22 B. 1/2 reduction of sentence
D. PD 968 C. 1/3 reduction of sentence
3691. The act of prisoner trying to convert or D. 4/5 reduction of sentence
induce another to change his religious beliefs sect
or the like to another while under confinement is 3700. Which of these is known as the Release
referred to as on Recognizance Law providers for the release of
A. Proselytizing offender charged with an offense whose penalty is
B. Initiation not more than six (6) months and /or a fine of
C. Fraternization P2,000.00 or both, to the custody of a responsible
D. Inducement person in the community, instead of a bail bond-
3692. Who composed of guards trained on A. RA 6036
proper handling and use of firearms who shall be B. PD 603
ready to fire when the lives of the guards are in C. Act 2489
danger on orders of the Officer in Command. D. RA 9262
A. 1st group Anti-Riot 3701. If the Warden is taken as the hostage,
B. 4th Group Anti-Riot for all intents and purposes, he ceases to exercise
C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot authority and the next in command or the ___
D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot officer present shall assume the command.
A. Veteran
3693. Within the radius by road from the B. most senior
confinement facility and the actual stay of the C. assistant
inmates to view the remains. D. custodian
A. 20 kilometer 3702. In case of mass jailbreak, all member of
B. 40 Kilometer the custodial force shall be immediately issued
C. 30 Kilometer firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
D. 50 Kilometer A. plug off the escape routes
3694. Under RA 9344, what happens to the B. protect the other inmates
sentence of a Child in Conflict with the law after C. to shoot the escape
conviction of a trial Court? D. give warning shots
A. His sentence serve 3703. When a jailbreak, escape or riot in
B. His sentence is suspended progress or has just been perpetrated in the jail,
C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his family the officer at the control centers shall
D. His sentence is NOT suspended immediately:
3695. One-fifth of the sentence for Loyalty A. sound the alarm
equivalent shall be deducted from the inmates B. notify the nearest police precinct
sentence if, after the inmate abandoned prison C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
due to disorder arising D. call the warden or the director
A. STA 3704. The following are the duties of the
B. GCTA custodial force in prison, except:
C. Commutation A. Censor offender’s inmate
D.Visitation Privilege B. Escort inmates
3696. It is a kind of court to settle tribunal and C. Inspect security devices
even individuals people conflicts: D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
A. Bodong 3705. It served as the cornerstone or
C. Capic rehabilitation
B. Korte Supremo A. Religion
D. Hito B. Education
3697. The following are the aims of C. Discipline
diversification in prison or jail, except: D. Recreational
A. more effective execution of treatment programs 3706. Maiming; Physical Torture;
B. to prevent physical contamination of one group or another Electrocution; ____
C. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk A. Social degradation
D. none of the above B. Exile
3698. It provides some opportunities for C. Physical torture
inmates of a normal sex life. D. Death Penalty
A. Maternal Visit 3707. It refers to those items, though
B. Sodomy authorized, is already in excessive quantities to

Page 172 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 become a fire hazard, a threat to security or has 3716. All persons in custody shall before final
become causative in making the place unsanitary. conviction, be entitled to bail as a matter of ____
A. Contraband A. Right
B. Paraphernalia B. preference
C. Prohibited items C. Privilege
D.Nuisance Contraband D. Discretion
3708. It refers to the entrusting for 3717. The visiting room officer shall be
confinement of an inmate to a jail by competent responsible for compiling the regular visiting list
court or authority for investigation, trial and/or for each inmate.
service of sentence A. Special Visitor
A. Commitment B. Strange Visitor
B. Safekeeping C. Regular Visitor
C. Entrustment D. Unusual visitor
D. Imprisonment 3718. ____responsible for handling the keys
3709. This was the right in ecclesiastical court in Women’s quarter and the keys shall be available
during the middle ages particularly in England. all the time.
A. Inquisition A. Key Matron
B. Incapacitation B. .Resident Matron
C. Benefit of Clergy C. Matron
D. Retribution D. Any of these
3710. The inmates may request a review of 3719. Ms. Malou Wang has duration of
the findings of the Disciplinary Board and the penalty of 6 years and one day to 12 years. What
propriety and the penalty to the ____. correctional facility he should be incarcerated?
A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board A. Bureau of Correction
B. BJMP B. Prision Correctional
C. Central office/BJMP C. Prision Mayor
D. Warden D. BJMP
3711. If the inmate fails to claim his letter 3720. Mr. Abdul Salsalani was convicted of
within ____ after it has been posted, the mail the crime murder. After 12 days from the
should be delivered to him. promulgation of the sentence he escaped from his
place of confinement. Abdul Salsalani is:
A. 48 hours A. liable of evasion of service of sentence
B. 24 hours B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
C. 30 days C. considered as an escaped prisoner
D. 60 days D. Either of C
3712. All letters passed by censors should 3721. It should be executed by the
bear the censor’s stamp at the ____ of each page interviewer, which will exempt prison authorities
and on the envelope. The letter should be placed from any liability arising from death or injury
back in the same envelope and resealed. sustained while in prison:
A. Back A. Waiver of Liability
B. Conspicuous Area B. Waiver of Responsibility
C. Side C. Waiver of Acceptance
D. Top D. Waiver of Agreement
3713. In case if jailbreaks, who will 3722. Before the actual date of interview the
immediately sound the alarm? media shall file request within ____
A. Desk Officer A. 1 day
B. Armorer B. 3 days
C. Control Center C. 2 days
D. Officer-in-Charge D. 8 days
3714. It is designed to improve their 3723. Who should make an immediate
communication and computation skills, such as preparation for the issuance of the necessary anti-
the ability to read and write in order to enhance riot equipment and firearms?
their individual educational level. A. the Warden
A. Skills Training C. Director for operation
B. Adult Education B. Director
C. Secondary Education D. Desk Officer
D. Non-Formal Education for Adults 3724. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a
3715. Detention Prisoners are allowed to chief with a rank of Director, and assisted by
smoke cigars and cigarettes, except in prohibited Deputy Chief with the rank of Senior
cases. The statement is – Superintendent. This sentence is
A. Partially true A. partially true
B. Partially false C. true
C. Absolute False B. partially false
D. Absolutely True D. false

Page 173 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3725. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for Benny told her that she can go. Ms. Malou Wang
the treatment of offenders prescribes that penal got out of jail and went home. Was there any crime
facilities should not exceed _____ inmates. committed?
A. 1000 A. Evasion of Service
B. 1500 B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
C. 1200 C. Evasion through Negligence
D. 2000 D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
3726. Who among the following inmates may 3734. As far as Benny B. Rotcha, the jail guard
not be allowed to see the remains of a dead who allowed Ms. Malou Wang to go, is concerned,
immediate family members? the crime committed is:
A. Minimum security A. Evasion of Service
B. Maximum security B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
C. Medium security C. Evasion through Negligence
D. None of these D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
3727. Minimum number of times in counting 3735. This refers to the one-in-charge of a
the inmates on a daily basis. Prison.
A. Two A. Director
B. Four C. Warden
C. Three B. Superintendent
D. Five D. Wardress
3728. Ideal number of days for an inmate to 3736. What correctional institution houses
be placed in the quarantine unit at the Reception accused persons awaiting investigation?
and Diagnostic Center . A. BUCOR
A. 55 days B. Jail
B. 5 days C. Penitentiary
C. 60 days D. Prison
D. 15 days 3737. Who supervised and control the
3729. In the 13th century, a criminal could Provincial Jail.
avoid punishment by claiming refugee in a church A. DILG
for a period of ___ at the end of which time he has B. Governor
compelled to leave the realm by a road or path C. DOJ
assigned to him. D. LGU

A. 30 days 3738. It is one of the earliest devices for

B. 50 days softening brutal severity of punishment through a
C. 40 days compromise with the church.
D. 60 days A. Benefit of Clergy
3730. In Operation Greyhound, all orders B. None
concerning troop movements will emanate from C. Rehabilitation
him. D. Retribution
A. Assistant team leader 3739. Richard Alden was convicted to serve a
B. Team Leader penalty of 6 years imprisonment for usurpation of
C. Ground Commander a person in authority due to his frequent
D. Security Teams introduction of himself as NBI agent, what would
3731. Who among the following shall be be his classification under PD 29?
responsible in the custody of all the properties A. Detention prisoner
seized from the detainee prior to his detention? B. Municipal prisoner
A. Custodial Officer C.Provincial prisoner
B. Chief of Detention Center D. Insular prisoner
C. Evidence Custodian Officer 3740. Theory which states that criminal
D. Court behavior is learned in interaction with other
3732. Female detainees shall not be persons in the process of communication.
transported in handcuffs but only with necessary A. Differential Association Theory
restraint and proper escort preferably aided by a B. Social Disorganization Theory
police woman. The statement is C. Classical Theory
A. Yes D. Strain Theory
B. Wholly True 3741. Having a pornographic materials inside
C. Partially False jail is a?
D. Wholly False A. Minor offense
3733. Ms. Malou Wang, a prisoner, learns B. Moral Turpitude
that she is already overstaying in jail because her C. Grave Offense
jail guard, Benny B. Rotcha, who happens to be a D. Less grave offense
law student advised her that there is no more legal
ground for his continued imprisonment, and

Page 174 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3742. A chemical that is injected to a Death D. 24 hours
Convict that puts him into deep sleep in lethal 3752. How long does an inmate mother who
injection. gave birth inside the jail is allowed to be with his
A. Potassium Chloride (stops heart beat) B. child?
Hydrogen Peroxide (Paralyzes the muscles) C. Sodium A. 6 months
Thiopenthotal B. 1 year
D. Sodium chloride (salt) C. 2 years
3743. If a regular convicted prisoner has 3 D. 7 years
shifting guards, X which is a Death Convict should 3753. A colonist when classified by the
have___. director of the Bureau of Corrections who is
A. 2 Shifting Guards punished with reclusion perpetua will have benefit
B. 3 Shifting Guards from an automatic reduction from a maximum
C. 4 Shifting Guards term of forty years to ____.
D. 5. Shifting Guards A. 20 years
3744. How do inmates know that they have B. 25 years
letters? C. 30 years
A. A list of mails for inmates is posted D. 35 years
B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally
C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the addressee 3754. Close confinement in Prison shall not
D. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’ Office exceed –
3745. What is referred to as “hustling” inside A. 45 days
the prison? B. 30 to 60 days
A. Reporting illegal activities C. 7 days
B. Doing prison assignment D. 15 days
C. Using prohibited drugs 3755. Abdul Jackonini was sentenced to
D. Selling illegal commodities imprisonment on March 21, 2013. On March 25,
3746. ____ program employs prisoner in 2013 the judge who promulgated the decision
various product or good-producing tasks. died. What is the effect of the judge’s death to the
A. Agricultural service of Abdul’s sentence?
B. Industrial A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
C. Operational B. He will have to serve his sentence
D. Administrative C. His sentence will be suspended
3747. The 2nd group shall not use riot control D. His sentence will be reduced
gases, except on orders of the –

A. Desk Officer
B. Armorer 3756. It is the national record of a prisoner at
C. Control Center New Bilibid Prison.
D. Officer-in-Charge A. Mittimus
3748. Detention Prisoners are NOT allowed to B. Carpeta
have a Conjugal Visit. The statement is – C. Commitment Order
A. True D. Prison Record
B. Maybe True 3757. How many days before election does
C. Maybe False inmate are prohibited from going out?
D. False A. 30 days
3749. If Jail Officer I Masunurin was B. 90 Days
appointed in 2013 at a monthly salary of 19,000, C. 60 Days
how much is longevity pay in 2018? D. 120 Days
A. 9000 pesos 3758. Maya is in prison for the past 48 months
B. 1900 pesos and has never been involved in any trouble, no
C. 9500 pesos matter how minor. If you were the prison director,
D. NONE how many days for each month would you
3750. An inmate shall be transferred to a approve as Maya’s good conduct time allowance?
separation center for adjustment process from life A. 5 days
in prison to life is free community within – B. 8 days
A. 60 days prior to release C. 10 days
B. 30 days prior to release D. 12 days
C. 90 days before release 3759. A powerful earthquake destroyed a
D. 15 days prior to release prison where W,X,Y & Z are inmates. All, except Z,
3751. How many days are given to the escaped. W surrendered after 24 hours, X b.
disciplinary board of BJMP to resolve issue? surrendered after 24 hours, X surrendered after 2
A. 5 working days days and Y surrendered after 3 days. Who among
B. 2 days them are not entitled to Special Time Allowance
C. 30 working days for Loyalty under Art. 98.

Page 175 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 A. X 3768. What is the population of a type A Jail?
C. W A. More than 100
B. Y B. 20 or less
D. Z C. 21 to 99
3760. Which of the following organizations D. 101 to 150
donated the Half-way House inside the compound 3769. This theory assumes that people are
of the Bureau of Corrections? law abiding but under great pressure they will
A. Office of the President resort to crime and that disparity between goals
B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office and means provides that pressure.
C. United Nations Security Council A. Differential Association Theory
D. Asia Crime Foundation B. Psychoanalytic Theory
D. Strain Theory
3761. Mail letters of a Death Convict should 3770. This is also known as “Youth Camps”
be documented within ____ before the execution. and is being maintained by Bucor where youth
A. 24 hours offenders may serve their sentence in lieu of
B. 72 hours confinement in a prison.
C. 48 hours A. AFP Stockade
D. NONE B. Agricultural and Forestry Camps
3762. Involves the formulation of a tentative C. Social Camps
treatment program best suited to the needs of the D. A or C
individual prisoner, based on the findings. 3771. It was established in 1910 under the
A. treatment planning American Regime.
C. reclassification A. Philippine Prison System
B. Execution of treatment Plan B. Provincial Jail System
D. Diagnosis C. Probation
3763. An authorization that permits inmate to D. Parole
leave place of confinement for emergency 3772. The following are the requisite of a valid
reasons. Commitment Order EXCEPT:
A. Furlough A. Signature of the Judge
B. Prisonization B. Seal of the Court
C. Diversification C. Valid Identification of Prisoner
D. Counseling D. Signature of the Clerk
3773. A prisoner having the natural
inclination or tendency to evade custody against
3764. A warden who limits his role to consider the will of the custodian or from the place where
policy matters and major problems, his he is held in lawful custody or confinement.
responsibility is centered on: A. Escape Prone Prisoner
A. Decision Making B. Mental Deranged Prisoner
B. Personnel Program C. Sex Deviate Prisoner
C. Public Relations D. Alien Prisoner
D. Executive Leadership 3774. Where a person commits FELONY
3765. For minimum security institution, the before beginning to serve or while serving his
purpose of fencing the surrounding is: sentence on a previous conviction
A. To keep away the civilian population from entering the A. Quasi-recidivism
institution. B. Reiteration
B. It is designed to prevent escapes. C. Habitual Delinquency
C. It is designed for agricultural purposes D. Recidivism
D. It is designed to facilitate open view of the surrounding.
3766. It is the primary objective of custodial 3775. If a prisoner who is serving sentence is
and security division? found in possession of dangerous drugs can be
A. To prevent riots considered a quasi-recidivist?
B. To implement discipline A. Yes, because he committed another crime while serving his
C. To prevent escapes sentence
D. To help in the reformation of prisoners B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities in prison
3767. 230. When the death penalty was still C. No. because what he violated is not a Felony
enforced by means of lethal injection, four guards D. A and B
keep a death watch, the convict is confined in an
individual cell ___ hours prior to the scheduled 3776. What is the legal process that results in
time of execution which is usually 3:00 in the the removal of conviction from the official
afternoon. records?
A. 6 A. Mitigation
B. 24 B. Expungement
C. 12 C. Exoneration
D. 36 D. Restriction

Page 176 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3777. Who advocated the principle that the B. C/Superintendent
basis of all social actions must be the utilitarian C. Senior Superintendent
conception of the greatest happiness for the D. Director
greatest number? 3786. It is a means correcting an offender by
A. John Howard placing him to an institution where he can be
B. Jeremy Bentham treated well until he becomes fully recovered and
C. Cesare Becaria accepted by the community.
D. George Void A. Institutional Corrections
3778. Prison work assignments are usually B. Non Institutional Correction
given to prisoners. C. BJMP
A. After recreational activities D. Parole
B. At early morning hours 3787. This is the basic needs of a convicted
C. Before sleeping hours person under custody.
D. During middle hours of the day a. Shelter b. Food e. cigarettes
3779. Forced is used only by correctional to, b. gadgets d. Slippers f. Drinks
A. Exact respect A. a,b,c,d
B. Enforce discipline B. a,c,d,e
C. Show physical strength and power C. c,d,e,f
D. Perform assignments D. a,b,d,f
3780. One of the effects of social stigma 3788. It is a conditional release after the
maintained by an unforgiving society against prisoner’s conviction is final and executory and has
criminals is ____. already served the minimum period of the
A. Worked out good relationship with the community sentence imposed to him.
B. Respond to a rehabilitation program A. Parole
C. Difficulties in securing employment B. Word of Hohor
D. Fostered friendship with co-prisoner B. Parole d’ Honeur
3781. With respect to the UN Standard D.Probare
Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners, 3789. He is the Governor/Superintendent in
which of the following should NOT be done to the Norfolk Island, a penal colony in the East of
prisoners? Australia and initiated the famous “Mark System”.
A. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from convicted A. Alexander Macanochie
prisoners. B. Edward Savage
B. Young offenders shall be kept separated from adult C. Walter Crofton
prisoners. D. Edward Savage
C. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept away from 3790. Ex-officio Chairperson of board of
male prisoners. Pardons and Parole.
D. Female prisoner shall be allowed to have her children stay A. Administrator
with her. B. Sec. of DOJ
3782. Which of the following unusual C. Sociologist
offender should be under the close supervision of D. Clergyman
the jail physician? 3791. It is known as the Indeterminate
1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick Sentence Law that creates the board of
2. Sex deviates 4. Escape-prone prisoners Indeterminate Sentence which took effect on
A. 1 and 2 December 5, 1933.
B. 3 and 4 A. EO 83 S. 1937
C. 1 and 3 B. EO 94
D. 2 and 3 C. Act 4103
3783. Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in command D. EO 292
in BJMP? 3792. All except one are the requisites to be
A. Deputy for Administration eligible for review of a Parole cases.
B. Chief, Directorial Staff (4th in command) A. Final conviction
C. Deputy for Operation (3rd in command) B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one yr
D. Any of these C. served the minimum period of said sentence
3784. All original appointments of officers in D. None of the above
the jail bureau shall commence with the rank of 3793. All except one are objectives of the
___ Parole System.
A. JO1 A. It standardize the penalty
B. Jail Inspector B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of liberty
C. JO11 C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and economic
D. Jail Senior Inspector usefulness
3785. What is the minimum tank required to D. Individualize the administration of criminal law, without
be appointed as Chief Bureau of Jail Management prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining and protecting
and Penology? social order
A. Superintendent

Page 177 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3794. Director of Prisons has the B. 15 days
responsibility to forward the document to the C. 20 days
board, ____ before the expiration of prisoner’s D. 10 days
minimum sentence. 3803. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30
A. 15 days days shall be approved by the ____.
B. 45 days A. Regional Director
C. 30 days B. Probation & Parole Officer
D. 60 days C. BOARD
3795. The board shall assess and determine D. Administration
whether the petitioner is qualified for Parole, the 3804. A parolee may work or travel abroad if
decision or action must be suspended by ____ of he has NO pending criminal case in any court.
the members of the board. Application for travel and work abroad shall be
A. 4 votes approved by the Administration and confirmed by
B. Majority the ____.
C. 5 members of the Board A. Regional Director
D. at least four (4) votes C. BOARD
3796. If petition for Parole was granted, B. Probation and Parole Officer
BOARD will issue a ____ or specifically known as D. Administration
discharge on parole. 3805. Parole is not claimed as a right but the
A. Release Document Board of Parole grants it as a privilege to a qualified
B. Final Release & Discharge prisoner. This is statement is:
C. Discharge on Parole A. Partially true
D. Summary Report C. True
3797. One of the mandatory conditions B. Partially false
attached to the parolee is to report at least once a D. False
month for those residing outside Metro Manila/to 3806. The following are disqualifications for
report at least twice a month for those who are Parole to be granted.
residing in Metro Manila. a. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence;
A. True b. those who have pending criminal case;
B. Partially True c. habitual delinquencies;
C. False d. suffering from any mental disorder; and
D. Partially False e. conviction is on appeal
3798. The Probation and Parole Officer A. a,b,c, and e
submits ___ if parolee commits any violation of the B. a,b,c, and d
terms and conditions stated in the release C. b,c,d, and e
document. D. a,b,c,d, and e
A. Violation Report 3807. It is exercise exclusively within the
B. Progress Report sound discretion of the President for the objective
C. Infraction Report of preventing miscarriage of Justice or correcting
D. Summary Report manifests injustice.
3799. Upon receipt of the Report the BOARD A. Parole
may issue an ____ against the parolee. B. Pardon
A. Warrant of Arrest C. Executive
B. Search Warrant D. Reprieve
C. Order of Arrest 3808. Who has the authority to assist the
D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR) Chief Executive in his exercise of the power to
3800. What is the effect of the recommitment grant executive clemency?
of a Parolee? A. DOJ
A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence B. BOARD
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence C. Administration
C. Minimum sentence impose D. Administrator
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full 3809. Kind of Executive Clemency which
3801. As a general rule, a Parolee may not exempts an individual within certain limits or
transfer residence stated in the release document conditions from the punishment that the law
except if the petition for transfer of residence is inflicts for the offense he has committed resulting
approved by ____. from the partial extinction of his criminal liability.
A. Regional Director A. Absolute Pardon
B. Probation & Parole Officer B. Reprieve
C. BOARD C. Commutation of Sentence
D. Administration D. Conditional Pardon
3802. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer 3810. Pardon by the President shall be
may authorize outside travel his area of extended ____.
jurisdiction for a period of NOT more than ___. A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action
A. 30 days B. After Conviction of Final Judgment

Page 178 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 C. After Filling of Complaint/Information C. England
D. Upon the discretion of the President D. Philippines
3811. A pardon violator upon conviction will 3820. Federal Probation act signed by
be liable for imprisonment of “prision President Calvin Coolidge became a Law on _____.
correctional”. A. April 26, 1878
A. Article 95 of RPC B. 1899
B. Article 59 of RPC C. 1887
C. Article 159 of RPC D. March 4, 1925
D. A and C 3821. Probation in Philippines was first
3812. On Executive Clemency petition filed by introduced by virtue of ___ also known as
prisoner should be addressed to ____. Philippine Probation Act of 1935
A. Board A. HB 393
B. Administrator B. PD 968
C. Chairman of BPP C. Act 4221
D. President D. RA 4221
3813. Who shall endorse to the Board the 3822. Celebrated case which paved the way
petition for absolute or conditional pardon if the for declaring unconstitutional of the first
crime committed is against the national security? probation law of November 16, 1937
A. DFA Secretary A. People vs. Vera
B. COMELEC B. People vs. De Vera
C. DOJ Secretary C. People vs. De Vega
D. DND Secretary D. People vs. Vega
3814. Any wilful or malicious concealing 3823. How long is the period of probation of a
material information made by the client either or defendant sentenced to a term of imprisonment of
after the grant of Conditional Pardon or Parole is a not more than one (1) year?
ground for the BOARD to – A. Not to exceed 6 years
A. Extend the period of Supervision B. Not to exceed 8 years
B. Modify the conditions appeared on released document C. Not to exceed 10 years
C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of Conditional D. Not to exceed 2 years
Pardon 3824. The power of the Chief Executive to
D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good behavior grant pardon is limited to the following, EXCEPT:
has shown by the client A. Pardon is administered by the court
3815. All except one are the instances B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of impeachment.
wherein supervision of parole and conditional C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation
pardon case deemed to archive/close. of any election law may granted without favourable
A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the Board recommendation of the Commission of Elections.
against the client D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
B. Certificate of transfer of resident 3825. What court will you apply for
C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and discharge of Probation?
the client A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above
D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the deceased B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below
client C. Same court, where you had been convicted
3816. The power of the Chief Executive to D. Any of these
grant pardon is limited to the following, EXCEPT: 3826. Waiting for the decision of the court on
A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment the application for probation, the offender
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation applying for probation –
of any election law may be granted without favourable A. Must stay in prison as a detainee
recommendation of the Commission of Elections B. Maybe set free without bail
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance
D. Pardon is administered by the Court D. all of these
3817. Pardon can be extended to any of the 3827. When will the court deny application
cases, EXCEPT: for probation of a petitioner?
A. Carnapping A. Petitioner is a foreigner
B. Impeachment B. Petitioner is a drug dependent
B. Estafa C. Petitioner violates the condition
D. Parricide D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution
3818. Father of Philippine Probation. 3828. Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to serve
A. John Augustus a penalty of Prision Correctional. Is he qualified to
B. Edward Savage apply for probation?
C. Matthew Davenport Hill A. Yes
D. Teodulo Natividad B. True
3819. First juvenile court established in 1899 C. No
A. Chicago D. False
B. Massachusetts

Page 179 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3829. Violations of the following Special Laws 3838. Probationer and his Probation Officer
shall disqualify an offender to avail of the benefits will prepare a _____.
of PD 968. A. Associate Plan
A. Omnibus Election Code B. Supervision & Treatment Plan
B. Robbery C. Treatment Program
C. Wage Rationalization Act D. Orientation Plan
D. Videogram Law 3839. One of the mandatory conditions to a
probationer is to present himself to the probation
3830. As a general rule Violation of officer designated to undertake his supervision
Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 is within ___ from receipt of said order.
disqualify to apply for Probation, EXCEPT: A. 24 hours
A. Section 12 B. 72 hours
B. Section 14 C. 48 hours
C. Section 13 D. 150 hours
D. Section 17 3840. When shall probation order take
E. Section 70 effect?
3831. This decree mandated the A. Three days after issuance
disqualification of the petitioner’s application for B. Upon its issuance
probation if an appeal is perfected. C. Three Days Prior to Issuance
A. PD 1357 D. Upon Reporting to the Probation Officer
B. BP 76 3841. Modifications of conditions for
C. PD 968 probation is allowed ___.
D.PD 1257 A. 15 days after granting it
3832. He is a convicted defendant whose B. At any time during supervision
application for probation has been given due C. Upon the application of the community
course by the court but fails to report to the D. Any of these
probation officer or cannot be located within a
reasonable period of time.
A. Absconding Petitioner
B. Absconding Probationer
C. Disobedient Petitioner
D. Uncooperative Petitioner 3842. If the Probationer did not comply with
3833. Probation is a privilege granted to the conditions, if the reasons for non-compliance
deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it is not meritorious the court will issue a ____.
become a matter of right? A. termination order
A. After the submission of the PSIR B. Warrant of Arrest
B. When the convict files a petition for probation C. OAR
C. When the appeal was undertaken D. Revocation Order
D. When his probation is approved 3843. What is the effect of the recommitment
3834. When shall probation order take of a Probationer?
effect? A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence
A. Three days after issuance B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
B. Three days prior to issuance C. Minimum sentence impose
C. Upon its issuance D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full
D. Upon reporting to the probation officer 3844. Under rules and methods employed by
3835. Which of the following cases is probation, what is the maximum number of minor
disqualified to apply for probation? violations that would result in the revocation of
A. Infanticide the probation order?
C. Simple Theft A. 5 Violations
B. Malicious Mischief B. 3 Violations
D.Unjust Vexation C. 4 Violations
3836. Who appoints Probation Administrator, D. 2 Violations
Regional Probation Officers and Assistant 3845. Maximum number of probationers
Probation Officers? under supervision of a probation aide
A. DILG Secretary A. 3
B. President B. 7
C. DOJ Secretary C. 5
D. Administrator D. 9
3837. How many days are given to the court 3846. Probation is a privilege granted to
to act on application for probation? deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it
A. 15 days become a matter of right?
B. 60 days A. After submission of the PSIR
C. 10 days B. When the convict files a petition for probation
D. 5 days C. When the appeal was undertaken

Page 180 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 D. When the probation is approved It is also collection of legal principles engraved on
3847. Who is the ultimate beneficiary of metal tablets and set up on .
Probation Law? A. Twelve Tablets
A. Criminal B. Burgundian Code
B. Society C. Hammurabic Code
C. Family D. Greek code of Draco
D. Governor
3848. It refers to those that handle the 3857. The most popular workhouse in
investigation of petitioners for probation, and the London which was built for the employment and
supervision of probationers, parolees and housing of English prisoners.
conditional pardonees. A. Bridewell
A. Parole and Probation Administration B. Hospicio de San Michelle
B. Board of Pardons and Parole C. Saint Bridget” Well
C. Secretary of Justice D. Walnut Street Jail
D. Department of Justice
3849. Post Sentence Investigation report 3858. Who appoints Probation Administrator,
must be submitted by the probation officer to the Regional Probation Officers and Assistant
court within Probation Officers?
A. 20 days A. DILG Secretary
B. 60 days C. President
C. 30 days B. DOJ Secretary
D. 90 days D. Administrator
3850. Those that have been once on
probation under the Probation Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. may be granted for another probation 3859. It is the branch of criminology which
D. should be confined in prison deals with the management and administration of
3851. Maximum term of office for those inmates:
a. Criminal justice
appointed as members of the Board of Pardon and
b. Penology
Parole. c. Victimology
A. 3 years d. d. Jail Management
B. 5 years
C. 4 years 3860. Any article, thing, or item prohibited by
D. 6 years law/ or forbidden by jail rules is called:
3852. When will you close a probation case? a. Instrument of restraint
b. contraband
A. When the probationer absconds the place
c. Handcuff
B. When he incurred violations d. leg iron
C. When there is recommendation for revocation 3861. It shall exercise supervision and control over all district, city
D. When the termination order is approved and municipal jails to ensure “a secured, clean and sanitary and
3853. Volunteer Probation Aides may be adequately equipped jail for the custody and safekeeping of city,
appointed from among the citizen’s of ____ municipal prisoners, any fugitive from justice or persons detained
A. Good religious background awaiting for investigation or trial and/or transfer to the National
Penitentiary:
B. High Educational Level
a. Bureau of Corrections
C. Good Repute and Probity b. Dep’t of Social Welfare and Development
D. High Social Standing b. Jail Bureau
3854. It refers to the manner or practice of c. Department of Justice
managing or controlling places of confinement as 3862. Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times a day or as
in jails or prisons. often as necessary to ensure that all inmates are duly accounted for:
a. Two
A. Penology
b. Four
B. Penal Management c. Three
C. Correctional Administration d. d. Five
D. Correction 3863. The head of prison may establish _______ whenever the
3855. It refers to a long, low narrow, single frequency of requests for interviews reach a volume that warrants
decked ships propelled by sails, usually rowed by limitations:
criminals. A. type of ship used for transportation a. Media group
b. news team
of criminals in the 16th century.
c.Press pool
A. Gaols d. public affairs
B. Galleys 3864. An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in CIW
C. Hulks may be allowed to stay with the mother for a period not exceeding:
D. D. Mamertine Prison a. 1 month
b. 1 year
3856. Represented the earliest codification of c. 6 months
d. 6 years
Roman Law incorporated into the Justinian Code.

Page 181 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
3865. BUCOR has two (2) Assistant Directors, one for Administration 3875. The B.J.M.P. is under
and Rehabilitation and one for: the administration of the:
a. Health and Care services a. DILG c. BUCor
b. Prisons and Security
b. PNP
c. Correction and Rehabilitation d. Custody and Security
d. DOJ
3876. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence
3866. A representative of the news media may file a written request to a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.
with the head of prison for a personal interview of an inmate that a. Amnesty
he/she shall file a written request at least: c. Reprieve
a. One day b. Commutation
b. two days
d. none of the foregoing
c. Three days
d. four days 3877. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear
3867. This is the process wherein prison officials try to convert of punishment.
inmates and be affiliated into their religion: a. Retribution
a. Conversions b. Punishment
b. agitation c. Deterrence
c. Proselytizing d. Rehabilitation
d. Captivation
3878. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called
3868. Prisoner who violated prison rules may be punished by a
confinement in a disciplinary cell from _ to _ months depending upon a. Reprieve
the gravity of the offense committed: c. Amnesty
a. One to two b. Pardon
b. one to three d. Communication
c. One to four
d. one to five
3869. During the 11th and successive years of following years of
prisoners imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction of __ days
for each month of good behaviour:
a. Five 3879. Defined by the BJMP refers to a person who is accused
b. eight before a court or competent authority and is temporarily confined in
c. Ten jail while undergoing or awaiting investigation, trial or final
d. fifteen judgment.
3870. During the following years until the 10 th year, inclusive, of
a. Prisoner
inmate’s imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction of:
a. Five b. Bail
b. eight c. Detainee
c. Ten d. Arrest
d. fifteen 3880. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted
3871. During the first two years of inmates imprisonment, he shall except upon a complaint filed by whom?
be allowed a deduction of: a. Parents
a. Five days
b. Offended Spouse
b. ten days
c. Seven days c. Guardians
d. twelve days d. Godfather
3872. GCTA means: 3881. He is considered as the American Pioneer of Probation
a. Good conduct turning allowance a. Matthew Davenport Hill
b. . good conduct time allowance b. John Augustus
c. Good conduct training allotment
c. Father Cook
d. d. none of the foregoing
d. d. Edward Savage
3873. It is a form of bails that the court may release a person in 3882. Which of the following is an executive clemency that
custody of a responsible person. requires the concurrence of congress?
a. Property bond a. probation
b. Recognizance b. Amnesty
c. Corporate surety c. pardon
d. Cash deposit d. Parole
3874. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the 3883. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by
Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the: the probation officer to the court within
a. Department of Justice a. 20 days
b. Chief Executive c. 60 days
c. Judiciary b. 30 days
d. Legislative d. none of the above
338. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend 3884. Parole is a matter of ___.
the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and extinguish a. privilege
criminal liability. b. right
a. Parole c. grace
c. Pardon d. requirement
b. Executive clemency 3885. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.
d. none of the above a. punishment

Page 182 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 b. treatment 3896. Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of what
c. enjoyment government agency
d. incarceration a. Parole and Probation Administration
3886. PPA is headed by: b. Board of Pardons and Parole
a. Director c. Probation and Parole Administration
b. Administrator d. Board of Parole and Pardons
c. Secretary 3897. It is known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006.
d. Superior a. R.A. 7610
3887. Is a pecuniary punishment imposed by the law tribunal upon b. P.D. 603
a person convicted of crime or misdemeanor. c. R.A. 9262
a. Remission d. R.A. 9344
b. Forfeiture 3898. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the:
c. Fine a. Director
d. All of the above b. Secretary of the dnd
3888. Who may grant GCTA to an inmate who displays good c. Chief of executive
behavior and no record of violation of prisons rules and regulations d. Prison inspector
a. President 3899. A term means a friend of a court
b. Director of Prisons a. Amicos curae
c. Warden b. Amigos curae
d. None of the above c. Amicus curiae
3889. A person who is placed under probation. d. None of the above
a. Petitioner 3900. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she
b. Probationer may not commit another crime in the future.
c. Probationee a. Retribution
d. None of the above b. Deterrence
c. Incapacitation
d. Rehabilitation
3890. It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability of the
individual to whom it is granted without any condition.
a. Special pardon 3901. He is considered as the father of Probation in England.
b. Absolute pardon a. Matthew Davenport Hill
c. Conditional pardon b. Father Cook
d. General pardon c. John Augustus
3891. Which is not a form of bail? d. Edward Savage
a. Cash deposit 3902. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which
b. Corporate surety provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who
c. Recognizance are likely to respond to individualized community based treatment
d. Title bond programs.
3892. An offender who surrenders from escaping because of a. BJMP
calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of the b. Bureau of Corrections
passing away of calamity shall be granted c. Provincial Government
a. 1/5 reduction of sentence d. Parole and Probation Administration
b. 1/2 reduction of sentence 3903. Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual for an
c. 2/5 reduction of sentence ordinary crime.
d. 2/6 reduction of sentence a. General pardon
3893. He is considered as the father of probation in the Philippines. b. Absolute pardon
a. Ferdinand Marcos c. Conditional pardon
b. Teodulo Natividad d. Special pardon
c. Fidel Ramos 3904. Refers to incurring of a liability to pay a definite sum of
d. Antonio Torres money as the consequence of violating the provisions of some statute
3894. The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT or refusal to comply with some requirement of law.
a. Commutation a. Remission
b. Reform model b. Forfeiture
c. Amnesty c. Fine
d. Pardon d. All of the above
3895. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged 3905. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to
with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, that is, those the following, except:
sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three (3) a. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment.
years b. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
a. BJMP violation of any election law may be granted without favorable
b. Bureau of Corrections recommendation of the Commission of Elections.
c. Provincial Government c. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
d. Parole and Probation Administration d. Pardon is administered by the court

Page 183 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
3906. It refers to commission of another crime during service of d. arrest report
sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense. 3916. The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT one:
a. Recidivism a. those who escape from confinement or evaded sentence
b. Delinquency b. those convicted of offense punished by death penalty,
c. Quasi-recidivism reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment
d. City prisoner c. those who are habitual delinquents
3907. It refers to leniency or mercy. d. none of the above
a. Power 3917. During the 11th and successive years of imprisonment of an
b. Clemency inmate, he shall allowed a deduction of how many days for each
c. Grace month for displaying good behavior?
d. Damages a. 10 days
3908. A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on a b. 15 days
certain category. c. 8 days
a. Special pardon d. 5 days
b. Absolute pardon 3918. It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of punishment for
c. Conditional pardon a time after conviction and sentence.
d. General pardon a. Reprieve
3909. During the 3rd to 5th year inclusive of imprisonment of an b. Amnesty
inmate, He shall allow a deduction of how many days for each month c. Probation
for displaying good behavior? d. Commutation
a. 10 days 3919. Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction.
b. 15 days a. Administrator
c. 8 days b. Warden
d. 5 days c. Director
3910. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the d. Commander
state which exempts an individual from the punishment which 3920. Among the following, which has the authority to grant
the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the parole?
President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and a. President
Pardon is called: b. Board of Pardons and Parole
a. Amnesty c. Director of Prison
b. Parole d. Court
c. Probation
d. Pardon
3911. It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty.
a. Reprieve 3921. The Bureau of Corrections is under the:
b. Amnesty a. Department of Social Welfare and Development
c. Probation b. Department of Justice
c. Department of the Interior and Local Government
d. Commutation
d. Department of Health
3912. Refers to the conditional release of an offender from a 3922. is the redress that the state takes against an offending
correctional institution after he has served the minimum of his prison member of society that usually involves pain and suffering:
sentences. a. incarceration
a. Parole b. floggings
b. Pardon c. ordeal
c. Probation d. punishment
d. None of the above
3923. This code introduced the concept of restitution. But
3913. The who investigates for the court a referral for probation punishments were meted according to the social class of the
or supervises a probationer or both offender:
a. police officer a. Justinian code
b. probationer officer b. The Greeks
c. intelligence officer c. Burgundian code
d. Code of Hammurabi
d. law enforcer
3924. According to this ancient law that was
practice in the areas of Babylon, The killer is
3914. When does probation revocable before the final discharge answerable not to the family but to the king:
of the probationer by the court for the violation of any of the a. Code of Hammurabi
conditions of probation. b. Roman twelve tables
a. any time during probation c. Pharaoh’s law
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer d. Burgundian code
3925. This Roman Catholic tribunal was responsible for the detection
c. after 1 year under probation
and punishment of unbelievers and heresy:
d. none of the above a. Inquisition
3915. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has been b. Lateran council
subsequently convicted of another crime; c. Ecclesiastical court
a. progress report d. Tortio millenio adviniente
b. violation report 3926. borne out of the need to maintain the health of prisoners so
c. infraction report that their profitability can be maximized not out of humanitarian

Page 184 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
reasons as the government and the merchants want to make it society in handling individuals who have been convicted of an
appear: offense:
a. UN convention for profitability of prisoners a. Penology
b. US convention for rehabilitation of prisoners b. Corrections
c. UN convention for treatment of prisoners c. Criminal justice
d. US convention for treatment of prisoners d. All of the above
3927. In an attempt to further limit the blood feuds, the feudal lords 3938. The principle of tit for tat appears throughout this code:
instituted official methods by which God could indicate who was a. Code of drakon
innocent and who was guilty. One such method was called: b. Code of Hammurabi
a. Trial by fighting c. Justinian code
b. Trial by ordeal d. Burgundian code
c. Trial by combat 3939. existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years before
d. Dei indicum Christ was born, the king ruled the City of Ur in ancient Sumeria:
3928. Exist as the more common forms of punishment. this was tied a. king Ur Nammu
to the crime committed:
b. king Herodes
a. Banishment
b. Death c. Emperor Justin
c. Torture d. None of the above
d. Mutilation 3940. Death Penalty awaits slaves who commit murder, assaults on
3929. Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the public noble or middle class women, sexual relations with noble or middle
and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to class women and giving aid or comfort to escape offender:
undergo institutional treatment program: a. Burgundian code
a. Solitary confinement
b. Drakonian code
b. Punishment
c. Floggings c. Law of Talion
d. Imprisonment d. The Greeks
3930. It is conditional release after the prisoner has served part of 3941. This people love to philosophize that their brand of justice was
his sentenced on prison for the purpose of gradually re-introducing not vengeful and retributive. They maintain that justice should reform
them to free life: the offender but must also serve as deterrence to others from
a. Probation committing offense:
b. Parole
a. The Romans
c. Pardon
d. Executive clemency b. The Greeks
3931. This school argues that since children and lunatic cannot c. The Jews
calculate pleasure and pain they should not be prepared as criminals d. The Americans
and as such that they should not be punished: 3942. Today, the stand of the Church has become a complete reversal
a. Classical school of the past. it was the late Pro-Life Pope John Paul II who reversed this
b. Neo classical school
so called:
c. Positivist school
d. Hedonism a. Eclessiastical court
3932. This approached of penology assessed at the time of French b. Inquisition
Revolution: c. Ordeal
a. Classical school d. Culture of death
b. Neo classical school 3943. punishment inflicted by Greek Justice which is also practice of
c. Positivist school the Israelites in Jesus time:
d. Hedonism
a. stoning to death
3933. According to this theory “a criminal is like a sick man who
needs not to be punished but treated in a hospital so that his illness b. breaking on a wheel
which has something to do with the commission of crime may be c. burning alive
cured”: d. trial by ordeal
a. Corrections 3944. the offended party is fastened by metal bands to a board made
b. Penology of wood and then had their bones systematically broken:
c. Classical a. stoning to death
d. Positivist
b. breaking on a wheel
3934. This school views as crime as social phenomenon:
a. Classical school c. burning alive
b. Neo classical school d. trial by ordeal
c. Positivist school 3945. like breaking on a wheel, burning alive was once practiced by
d. Sociology Romans. The Roman Catholic Church has also been known to resort
3935. It is the study and practice of a systematic management in jails to this form of punishment during the time of inquisition for non
or prisons and other institutions concerned with the custody,
believers, witches and heretics:
treatment and rehabilitation of criminal offenders:
a. Penology a. stoning to death
b. Corrections b. breaking on a wheel
c. Correctional administration c. burning alive
d. Penal management d. trial by ordeal
3936. a Latin word which means pain or suffering: 3946. The systematic transfer of offenders to colonized land started
a. Penology to intensify in 17th Century.
b. Poena a. Absolutely true
c. Peona b. Probably true
d. All of the abovementioned
c. Absolutely false
3937. It is the field of criminal justice administration which utilizes
the body of knowledge and practices of the government and the d. Probably false

Page 185 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3957. The confinement of an inmate may be transferred to an AFP
stockade provided the inmate is certified as minimum security risk
3947. Is the procedure by which prisoner are selected for release on and is __ years of old who can no longer perform manual work:
the basis of individual response and progress within the correctional a. More than 60
institution and a service by which they are provided with necessary b. more than 50
control of guidance as they served the remainder of their sentence c. More than 70
with in the free community: d. more than 80
a. Probation 3958. As a general rule, viewing the remains of the deceased relative
b. Parole of an inmate may be enjoyed only if the deceased relative is in a place
c. Imprisonment within a radius of ___ kilometres by road from prison:
d. Reprieve a. 10
3948. The indeterminate sentence law was approved on: b. 30
a. December 5, 1933 c. 20
b. December 25, 1933 d. d. 40
c. December 5, 1955 3959. An inmate over _ years of age may be excused from
d. December 25, 1955 mandatory labor:
3949. The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT: a. 50
a. Granted by the court b. 60
b. He was once on Probation c. 55
c. Must not have committed any crime against national security d. 65
d. Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment 3960. The color of maximum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
3950. The following are the unanticipated consequence of a. Tangerine
punishment; EXCEPT: b. Blue
a. It develops a caution in the parts of criminal committing crime c. Brown
during night time d. Yellow
b. Generally stops constructive effort (lack of respect to the law) 3961. The color of medium security risk prisoner’s uniform:
c. Punishment elevates the criminal a. Tangerine
d. Develops public attitude of idolizing criminals b. Blue
3951. It assumes that every individual has free will and knows the c. Brown
penal laws: d. Yellow
a. Classical school 3962. The color of minimum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
b. Neo classical a. Tangerine
c. Positivist b. Blue
3952. This school focuses on crimes and on the corresponding c. Brown
punishment attached to it: d. Yellow

a. Classical school
b. Neo classical
3963. The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement or custody
c. Positivist
by an inmate:
3953. This school maintains that criminals must be rehabilitated to
a. Detention
institutions provided by the government and should not be punished
b. emancipation
contrary to other schools ideology:
c. Release of prisoner
a. Classical school d. escape
b. Neo classical 3964. The following are considered instruments of restraint;
c. Positivist EXCEPT:
3954. BJMP stands for: a. Leg irons
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology b. whipping rod
b. The government c. Straight jacket
c. The jail bureau d. handcuffs
d. None of the abovementioned 3965. Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders:
3955. STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are administered and a. 100 or more
controlled by the Provincial Government (Governor). b. 21- 99
STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the supervision of c. 150 or more
the Department of the Interior and Local Government. d. 20 or less
a. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false 3966. Type B jail has a population of ___ offenders:
b. Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true a. 21 – 99
c. Both statement is true b. 120
d. Both statement is false c. 20 or less
3956. The following institutions are controlled and supervised by our d. 150
government EXCEPT: 3967. Type C jail has a population of ___ offenders:
a. New Bilibid Prisons a. 21 – 99
b. Manila City Jail b. 120
c. Iwahig Penal Colony c. 20 or less
d. Elmira Reformatory d. 150

Page 186 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
3968. This correctional facility introduced individuals housing in
cellblocks, with congregate work in shops during the day:
a. Elmira reformatory
3978. The new prison had the traditional lay out of large rooms
b. Borstal institution
for the inmates:
c. Auburn prison system
a. Auburn Prison
d. Pennsylvania prison system
b. Pennsylvania
3969. His progressive move was noted when the convicts after
good behavior were given marks and after accumulating the required c. Walnut Street
number, a ticket to leave was issued to deserving convicts: d. Irish Prisons
a. Sir Walter Crofton 3979. On the year ___, the Elmira Reformatory is founded:
a. 1875
b. Alexander Macanochie
b. 1876
c. Zebulon Brockway c. 1877
d. Manuel Montesinos d. 1888
3970. opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to remodel 3980. He was the Director of Prison in Valencia, Spain which
its philosophy away from punitive and retributive practices and organized prisoners into companies and appointed petty officer in
veered towards reformation and treatment educational and charge:
vocational are imparted to the prisoner as a way to treat his lack of a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
life skills to survive according to the rules of the outside society: b. Manuel Montesinos
a. Elmira reformatory c. Alexander Maconochie
d. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Sing-sing prisons
3981. This state prison contained cells in the pits similar to the
c. Alcatraz underground cistern of long ago rome:
d. Walnut street jail a. St Michael System
3971. This is considered as the “institution of silent system” due b. Sing-Sing prisons
to the imposition of strict code of silence: c. Maine State prisons
a. Auburn d. Wal nut street
b. Pennsylvania 3982. An agricultural colony for male juveniles was established
c. Walnut street by Domer of France. The boys were confined in cottages with an
d. Irish prisons appointed ___ to supervise them:
3972. He established an agricultural colony for male youth: a. Penal guards
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise b. Immediate supervisors
c. House fathers
b. Sir Walter Crofton d. Big brothers
c. Manuel Montesinos 3983. Under the Irish system, a prison who wanted to lessen
d. Domer of france their period of imprisonment should be confined in a singular cell
3973. assigned as superintendent of the English Penal Colony (Solitary confinement) for a period of ___ months with a reduce diet:
located at Norfolk Island in Australia: a. 6 months
a. Alexander Macanochie b. 7 months
c. 8 months
b. Domer of France d. 9 months
c. 8Sir Walter Crofton 3984. This system created by Sir Walter Crofton is an equivalent
d. Zebulon Brockway to a modern day parole:
3974. He introduced the progressive stage system. It was also a. Progressive stage system
referred to as the Irish System: b. Spanish system
a. Evelyn Ruggles Brise c. Criminal justice system
b. Manuel Montesinos d. None of the foregoing
c. Sir Walter Crofton 3985. It features consisted solitary confinement of prisoners in
d. Alexander Macanochie their own cell day and night:
3975. He was the superintendent of the Elmira Reformatory in a. Auburn system
New York. He introduced a system of grades for prisoners: b. Pennsylvania system
a. Zebulon Brockway c. St Michael System
b. Alexander Macanochie d. Irish system
c. Manuel Montesinos 3986. He was a penologist and is sometimes regarded as the
d. Domer of France father of prison reform in the United States of America:
3976. The progressive development of the prison system came a. Alexander Maconochie
to the middle of the __ century: b. Zebulon Reed Brockway
c. Sir Walter Crofton
a. 18th
d. Domer of France
b. 19th 3987. It is considered the best reform institution for young
c. 20th offenders:
d. 21st a. Borstal Institution
3977. This law brought about extensive reforms in the prison b. St. Michael Institution
and authorized o penitentiary house with 16 cells to be built in the c. Auburn System
yard of the jail to carry out solitary confinement with labor for d. Pennsylvania
``hardened atrocious offenders’’: 3988. This is the discipline being implemented in Louisiana
state penitentiary. Under this discipline, every inmate is responsible
a. ACT of 1890
for the actuations of all the others:
b. ACT of 1790 a. Rough Rider Industries
c. ACT of 1690 b. I am my Brother’s keeper
d. ACT of 1590 c. Conditional setting
d. collective responsibility

Page 187 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 3989. Sweden, a convict may undergo 3997. It is an executive clemency whereby
probation with community service and the convicted person should serve part of
render service to the community for ___ to his sentence?
____ hours depending on the seriousness of
a.Pardon
the crime committed:
a. 50 – 250 b.Parole
b. 40- 280 c.Probation
c. 40 – 240 d.Amnesty
d. 50 – 260 3998. How many days before election does
3403. what type of questions are allowed to be asked to a inmate are prohibited from going out?
witness who is unwilling to testify? A. 30 days
A. Intelligent B. 90 Days
B. Misleading C. 60 Days
C. Unresponsive D. 120 Days
D. Leading 3999. Maya is in prison for the past 48 months
3990. Which theory of criminal punishment and has never been involved in any trouble,
holds that punishment is imposed on the no matter how minor. If you were the prison
offender to allow society to vent its anger director, how many days for each month
toward and exact vengeance upon the would you approve as Maya’s good conduct
criminal? time allowance?
A. Retribution A. 5 days
B. Restoration B. 8 days
C. The Executive C. 10 days
D. The Quasi-Judiciary D. 12 days
3991. The post-sentence investigation report 4000. The post-sentence investigation report
is submitted to court within___________? is submitted to court within___________?
A. 10-days period A. 10-days period
B. 30-days period B. 30-days period
C. 15-days period C. 15-days period
D. 60-days period D. 60-days period
3992. To what agency is an alien parolee 4001. Ideal number of days for an inmate to
turned over for disposition,documentation be placed in the quarantine unit at the
and appropriate order? Reception and Diagnostic Center .
A. Bureau of Corrections A. 55 days
B. Bureau of Immigration and B. 5 days
Deportation C. 60 days
C. Board of Pardons and Parole D. 15 days
D. National Bureau of Investigation
3993. A complaint may be filed by any of the
following, EXCEPT: 4002. In the 13th century, a criminal could
A. The offended party avoid punishment by claiming refugee in a
B. other public officers church for a period of ___ at the end of
C. any peace officer which time he has compelled to leave the
D. Offender realm by a road or path assigned to him.
3994. The President grants
absolute/conditional pardon based on the A. 30 days
recommendation of B. 50 days
A. Bureau of Corrections C. 40 days
B. Office of the Executive Secretary D. 60 days
C. Board of Pardon and Parole 4003. Who among the following may be
D. Parole and Probation Administration granted conditional pardon?
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government
3995. A penalty having its minimum and physician
maximum duration is referred to as b. A prisoner who served as “bastonero”
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
a. Determinate sentence
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke
b. Capital punishment his probation conditions
c. Corporal punishment 4004. The following are considered minor
d. Indeterminate sentence offenses of an inmate, EXCEPT:
3996. Which of the following executive a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
clemency needs the concurrence of the b. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect
when confronted by or reporting to any officer
congress?
or member of the custodial force
a.Pardon c. Willful waste of food
a. Amnesty d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and
b. Probation orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings
c. Parole 4005. What documents are attached to the
Release Document of the parolee?

Page 188 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 1. Prison record a. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer b. Bureau of Corrections
3. Location of the Prison or Confinement c. Board of Pardons and Parole
4. Order of Court d. National Bureau of Investigation
a. 4 and 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4 4013. The Post-Sentence Investigation
d. 2 and 3 Report is submitted to court within
4006. An advantageous result in the _____________.
integration of correctional agencies is: a. 10-day period
a. More physical facilities to maintain b. 30-day period
b. More prisoners to supervise c. 15-day period
c. Divided resources such as manpower and d. 60-day period
finances
d. Better coordination of services and increased
cost-efficiency 4014. The President grants
absolute/conditional pardon based on the
recommendation of:
a. Board of Pardon and Parole
4007. A petition for the grant of absolute or b. Bureau of Corrections
conditional pardon shall be favorably c. Parole and Probation Administration
endorsed to the Board by the _______ if d. Office of the Executive Secretary
the crime committed by the petitioner is 4015. Which of the following are classified as
against national security. detainees?
a. Secretary of Foreign Affairs 1. Accused person who is confined in jail while undergoing
b. Secretary of Justice investigation
c. Secretary of National Defense 2. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting of
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government undergoing trial
4008. Under which condition can a prisoner 3. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting final
be immediately released provided he is not judgment
a recidivist or he had not been previously 4. Accused person who is confined in jail and already
convicted 3 or more times of any crime? convicted to serve a prison term
a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the a. 3, 4 and 1
maximum penalty for the offense he may be b. 2, 3 and 4
found guilty of is destierro c. 4, 1 and 2
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the d. 1, 2 and 3
maximum penalty of the offense he may be
found guilty of is prision correccional 4016. Why is probation service analogous to
c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the parole service?
maximum penalty of the offense he may be a. Both have similar investigation and supervision
found guilty of is reclusion perpetua functions.
d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or b. Both services are performed by the prosecutors.
more than the possible maximum term of c. Both services are performed by alcoholics.
punishment of the offense he may be found d. Both services are under the courts.
guilty of
4009. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term
of prision correccional. Will he qualify for 4017. The Probation Officer and Volunteer
probation? Probation Aides undertake supervision and
a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day visitation of the probationer. However,
b. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years and control over the probationer and probation
one (1) day program is exercised by:
c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years and a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she
one (1) day resides
d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
day c. The Secretary of Justice
4010. There are four (4) acknowledged goals d. The Court who placed him on probation
of _____________ as follows: retribution,
deterrence, incapacitation and
rehabilitation. 4018. Which authorizes the release of a
a. Criminal intent detainee who has undergone preventive
b. Criminal mind imprisonment equivalent to the maximum
c. Criminal sanction imposable sentence for the offense he is
d. Criminal action charged with?
4011. The system of key control in a jail a. Batas Pambansa 95
includes: b. Batas Pambansa 85
a. An updated system of monitoring and control of c. Batas Pambansa 105
keys d. Batas Pambansa 965
b. A documented inventory of security personnel 4019. What is the primary purpose of the
c. A collection of all padlocks and keys presentence investigation?
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate
them sentence of the offender
4012. To what agency is an alien parolee b. To exonerate the offender
turned over for disposition, documentation c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend
and appropriate order? himself

Page 189 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the
heated discussion
c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
4020. According to the control theory, crime d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the culprit
and delinquency result when an individual’s
bond to ________________ is weak and
broken. 4029. Pedro Ayog is a probationer who is
a. Behavior ordered by the Court to pay certain
b. Police amounts to the victim as part of his civil
c. Law liability. To whom shall he pay the amount
d. Society for remittance of the victim?
a. Municipal treasurer
b. Cashier of the trial court
4021. A drug user who is placed under c. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
probation may be made to serve his d. Cashier of the Probation Office
sentence by the court if he
a. Becomes unruly and undisciplined
b. Commits another offense
c. He is 21 years old 4030. The ______________ model of
d. Violates any of the conditions of his probation correctional institution focuses in security,
4022. JOI Jean Sibuto confiscated white discipline and order:
crystalline substance rolled in a transparent a. Rehabilitative
sachet and she suspected it to be “shabu”. b. Reintegration
What should he do first? c. Medical
a. Record the incident in the logbook d. Custodial
b. Bring the substance to NBI 4031. Studies are conducted to determine
c. Properly identify the substance the experiences of residents with crimes
d. Properly preserve the evidence which are not usually reported to the
4023. All data gathered about the probation police. What are these studies called?
applicant shall be treated a. Population surveys
_________________. b. Police surveys
a. Comprehensively c. Victimization surveys
b. Appropriately d. Information surveys
c. Confidentially 4032. Inmates with heart diseases need to be
d. Judiciously treated with a little more care than other
inmates. Which of the following should
NOT be done by a jail officer?
4024. Is the court order revoking the grant of a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff
probation appealable? regularly
a. Definitely yes, it is appealable b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his
b. Definitely no, it is not appealable prescribed diet
c. It depends on the outcome of the investigation c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate
d. It depends on the violations committed d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient
4025. Which theory of criminal punishment inmate
holds that punishment is imposed on the
offender to allow society to vent its anger
toward and exact vengeance upon the 4033. What is the classification of the
criminal? prisoner’s offense of possession of lewd or
a. Retribution pornographic literature and/or
b. Restoration photographs?
c. Rehabilitation a. Minor offense
d. Deterrence b. Less grave offense
4026. What is referred to as the reduction of c. Victimless offense
the duration of a prison sentence? d. Grave offense
a. Commutation of sentence 4034. Juveniles are not capable of
b. Parole committing deviant acts, and what are
c. Absolute pardon considered deviant acts are deviant only by
d. Conditional pardon mainstream standards, not by the
4027. There are various types of prison offender’s standards. This assumption is
programs. For what purpose is a advanced by the ________________
rehabilitative program? theory.
a. It secures prisoners from escape or violence a. Social
b. It employs prisoners in various products or good- b. Juvenile
producing tasks c. Cultural deviance
c. It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job skills or d. Choice
educational achievement 4035. If people fear being apprehended and
d. It assigns prisoners to daily routine work like punished, they will not risk breaking the
laundry and janitorial law. This view is being held by the
4028. There are two (2) inmates arguing over __________ theory.
loss of some items in their cell. You are the a. Displacement
guard on duty. What will you do? b. General deterrence
a. Invite both of them to the office and investigate c. Discouragement
the matter d. Incapacitation

Page 190 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 4036. One of the following is NOT a gauge in b. The medium through which prisoners change
determining the age of the child and that is: their behavior and attitudes
a. Baptismal certificate c. The consolidation of interactions between
b. Birth certificate correctional officers and the prisoners
c. Looks d. A total institution in which the basic
d. Warts physiological needs of prisoners were to be met
4037. What do you call the monitoring and away from the outside world
support of juveniles who have been
released from custody or supervision by the 4045. What is the function responsibility of
juvenile court. prison guards?
a. After care a. Inmates’ health
b. Welfare b. Prison security
c. Duty c. Prisoner’s interpersonal relations
d. Concern d. Prison industry
4046. Level of security facility which is
usually enclosed by a thick wall about 18-25
4038. The scientific approach to the study of feet high, on top are catwalks in every
criminal behavior is corner, a tower post is manned by heavily
____________________. armed guards:
a. Research a. Maximum security facility
b. Survey b. Medium security facility
c. Criminology c. Super maximum security facility
d. Study d. Minimum security facility
4039. To be eligible for the grant of 4047. Which of the following procedures
conditional pardon, what portion of the should be observed in handling drug addicts
sentence must have been served by a who are incarcerated?
petitioner-prisoner? 1. They should be segregated especially during the
a. At least one half of the minimum of his withdrawal period
indeterminate sentence 2. They should be closely supervised to prevent attempts to
b. At least one half of the maximum of his commit suicide or self-mutilation
indeterminate sentence 3. They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants
c. At least one fourth of the maximum of his unless prescribed by a physician
indeterminate sentence 4. They should be transferred to mental institution of proper
d. At least one third of the minimum of his psychiatric treatment
indeterminate sentence a. 2, 3 and 4
4040. Who among the following can apply b. 3, 4 and 1
for release under the Law on Release on c. 4, 1 and 2
Recognizance? d. 1, 2 and 3
a. One who is charged with an offense whose
penalty is three (3) years and above
b. One who is charged with an offense whose 4048. A prisoner who is aggressive, violent,
penalty is twelve (12) months and above quarrelsome and does not cooperate with
c. One who is charged with an offense whose other inmates is referred to as
penalty is not more than six (6) months a. Squealer
d. One who is charged with an offense whose b. Sucker
penalty is six (6) months and above c. Hustler
4041. Which of the following is NOT an d. Tough
objective in the conduct of interview of 4049. When does an applicant who was
probation applicant? granted probation report to the assigned
a. To diagnose the applicant’s problems Probation Officer for Interview?
b. To determine how the person shall respond to a. Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt of
supervision probation order
c. To gather information about the person b. Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of
d. To determine his paying capacity probation order
c. Within seventy-two (72) hours from his receipt
4042. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was of the probation order
the founder of probation in the United d. Within twenty-four (24) hours from receipt of
States? probation order
a. Sir Walter Crofton 4050. What agency issues the Certificate of
b. Alexander Maconochie Final Release and Discharge of a Parolee?
c. John Murray Spear a. Bureau of Corrections
d. John Augustus b. Board of Pardons and Parole
4043. What is meant by the concept of c. Parole and Probation Administration
probation which is from the Latin word d. Department of Justice
“probatio” and had historical roots in the 4051. Pedro was arrested by the police for
practice of judicial reprieve? theft in the amount of P5,000.00. He was
a. Live with integrity brought to the police station and an
b. Testing period administrative record of the arrest was
c. Walk with faith prepared. He was fingerprinted,
d. Out of the institution interrogated and placed in a line-up for
4044. Sociologists look at corrections as: identification by witnesses. What process
a. The intervention which documents the did he undergo?
attitudinal response of offenders and staff to a. Preliminary hearing
processes of punishment b. Booking

Page 191 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 c. Trial a. Industrial
d. Indictment b. Operational
c. Agricultural
d. Administrative
4052. The “Discharge on Parole” issued by 4060. In case of mass jailbreak, all members
the Board to the parolee, and also issued by of the custodial force shall proceed to their
the President of the Philippines to a assigned critical posts armed with their
pardonee upon the Board’s issued firearms to:
recommendation. a. Shoot at the escapees
a. Release document b. Protect the other inmates
b. Release folders c. Plug off the escape routes
c. Release signatures d. Give warning shots
d. Release notes 4061. When shall the prison record and
carpeta of a petitioner for executive
clemency be forwarded to the Board of
4053. What is called the body of unwritten Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
guidelines which expresses the values, a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the
attitudes and types of behavior that older BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP for
inmates demand of younger ones? prison record and carpeta
a. Code of jail conduct b. At least one (1) month before the expiration of
b. Rehabilitation guidelines the minimum of the prisoner’s indeterminate
c. Code of silence sentence
d. Inmate social code c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the
4054. Which of the following guidelines shall BUCOR Director of the BPP request for prison
be followed when the parolee commits an record and carpeta
infraction of the terms and conditions d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the BUCOR
appearing in his Release Documents? Director of the request made by the BPP for the
1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and submits an prison record and carpeta
Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon and Parole
2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders the
arrest of the parolee 4062. Which of the following contributes to
3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board finds prison violence?
that the continuation of his parole is incompatible with a. Prison industry
public welfare b. Inhuman prison conditions, including
4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction overcrowding and threats of homosexual rapes
a. 2, 3 and 4 c. Conjugal visits
b. 4, 1 and 2 d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out and
c. 1, 2 and 3 work
d. 3, 4 and 1 4063. Which of the following factors makes it
4055. You are a jail personnel assigned to difficult for a released prisoner to lead a
censor inmates’ mails. In one mail, you straight life?
found unusual names and sentences. What a. Scientific advances have made modern living
shall you do? more pleasant
a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden b. Police conduct close supervision on released
b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and give prisoners
it to the inmate c. Lasting reformation must come from within and
c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the cannot be imposed
contents to determine the real meaning of the d. Many of his contacts and friends are underworld
names and sentences characters
d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the addressee 4064. Under the plan for riots and violent
4056. The classical theory of criminology disturbances, what shall be done at the
provides that the basis for criminal liability sound of the first pre-arranged alarm?
is ______________________ a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters
a. Individual’s thinking b. Saturate the area with riot gas
b. Individual’s mental state c. All inmates must be locked up inside their
c. Human free will respective cell
d. Human facilities d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders
4057. He said the “crime must be considered 4065. Which agency exercises supervision
an injury to society, and the only rational over parolees?
measure of crime is the extent of injury.” a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole
a. Jeremy Bentham b. Probation and Parole Administration
b. Cesare Beccaria c. Bureau of Corrections
c. James Wilson d. Department of Justice
d. John Howard 4066. The judge approves or denies the grant
4058. What is the effect of the grant of of probation based on the report of the
probation? a. Social worker
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house b. Probation officer
b. The execution of sentence is suspended c. Prosecutor
c. The probationer is sent to prison d. Police office
d. The prison term is doubled
4067. What law grants probation to first time
4059. To what programs shall prisoners be offenders who are sent to prison terms of
assigned so that they can engage in not more than six (6) years?
producing goods? a. Presidential Decree No. 448

Page 192 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 b. Presidential Decree No. 968 the approval or denial of application of
c. Presidential Decree No. 603 probation.
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184 a. Probation Report
4068. An offender can apply for Release on b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
Recognizance is he is convicted with an c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
offense whose penalty is: d. Pre-Trial Report
a. Three (3) years and above 4078. By what term is selling of illegal
b. Not more than six (6) months commodities inside prison or jail known?
c. Twelve (12) months and above a. Gleaning
d. Six (6) months and above b. Hustling
4069. Which of the following is the prison c. Benting
administrator’s tool for controlling and d. Vending
stabilizing prison operation?
a. Leadership
b. Supervision 4079. There are various types of prison
c. Activity programs. What type of program that
d. Recreation secures prisoner from escape or violence?
4070. Mario is soon to be released from a. Maintenance
camp Bukang Liwayway. He is sent to a pre- b. Rehabilitative
release facility called _______________ for c. Industrial
counseling and therapy. d. Security
a. Recreation Center 4080. The National Record of the prisoner at
b. Congregate Group the New Bilibid Prison is called
c. Half-way House a. Carpeta
d. Diagnostic Center b. Released Document
4071. What is referred to as the concept of c. Commitment Order
the “greatest happiness of the greater d. Mittimus
number” espoused by Jeremy Bentham? 4081. The founder of the Classical School of
a. Utilitarianism Criminological Theory.
b. Rehabilitation a. John Howard
c. Reformation b. Jeremy Bentham
d. Conformance c. Cesare Lombroso
4072. Juanito was convicted and sentenced d. Cesare Beccaria
for the crime of serious physical injuries to 4082. If probation is granted by a court
a prison term of prision correccional. Based judge, who grants pardon?
on his penalty, is he qualified for a. Secretary of Justice
probation? b. President of the Philippines
a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 day d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole
c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day 4083. What guarantees the appearance in
4073. The approval of the application of court of a defendant granted release on
probation is done by the Judge thru the recognizance?
issuance of a. His/her promise to live a new life
a. Probation Citation Ticket b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison
b. Probation Order c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment,
c. Probation Certificate etc.
d. Probation Clearance d. His/her capacity to raise bail

4074. According to this theory, social actions 4084. Prisoners are awarded ________ off
are repeated (or not repeated) as a from their minimum or maximum term for
consequence of their association in the maintaining good behavior or participating
actors mind with punishing or rewarding in various types of vocational, educational
experiences. and treatment programs.
a. Containment a. Good time
b. Differential Association b. Credits
c. Operant Conditioning c. Days off
d. Differential Identification d. Vacation
4075. This theory assumes that people are 4085. Which of the following requirements
law-abiding but under great pressure they shall qualify a prisoner for parole?
will resort to crime. . . 1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate
a. Strain theory sentence
b. Differential association theory 2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a final
c. Social learning theory judgment of conviction
d. Psychoanalytic theory 3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the
4076. What is referred to as the reduction of good conduct time allowance earned
the duration of a prison sentence? 4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence
a. Parole a. 4, 1 and 2
b. Commutation of sentence b. 2, 3 and 4
c. Absolute pardon c. 3, 4 and 1
d. Conditional pardon d. 1, 2 and 3
4077. It is a report on the background of the 4086. When an accused is released from
convict, prepared for the judge to decide on imprisonment on his or her promise to

Page 193 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 return to court as required, or upon the 2. Issuance of order of the court
undertaking of a suitable person that he 3. Grant of parole
will guarantee the accused’ appearance in 4. Grant of pardon
court, there is what is called: 5. Grant of amnesty
a. Promise 6. Any lawful order of competent authority
b. Acknowledgment a. 1,3,4,5 and 6
c. Surety b. 1,2,3,4 and 5
d. Recognizance c. All of those listed above
4087. According to the routine activities d. 2,3,4,5, and 6
theory, the volume and distribution of 4096. The institution during the Golden Age
predatory crimes are affected by the of Penology in 1870 to 1880 that used
following, EXCEPT: parole extensively.
a. Presence of motivated offenders a. Irish Prison System
b. Absence of capable guardians b. Elmira Reformatory
c. Availability of suitable targets c. Federal Bureau of Prisons
d. Absence of motivated offenders d. Irish Parole Organization
4088. A group that has a short history, 4097. Strip search should be conducted:
limited size, and little define territory is a a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are
type of gang known as: witnesses
a. Status b. At the warden’s office
b. Sporadic c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail
c. Criminal personnel
d. Collective d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the others
4089. The correctional program which to avoid further embarrassment
enables an individual to enhance his 4098. Idea of probation first existed early in
employability, develop his intellectual the 19th century in
faculties, and graduate to a free existence a. Japan
in community living all at the same time is b. U.S.A.
referred to as _______________ c. England
a. Livelihood program d. Ireland
b. Guidance counseling
c. Education program
d. Religious program 4099. You are a jail personnel assigned to
4090. What rehabilitation program that censor inmates’ mails. In one mail, you
provides a presocial environment within found unusual names and sentences. What
the prison to help the inmates develop shall you do?
noncriminal ways to coping outside? a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
a. Psychotherapy b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and give
b. Behavior therapy it to the inmate
c. Occupational therapy c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the
d. Milieu therapy contents to determine the real meaning of the
4091. Prisoners should not be given corporal names and sentences
punishment nor confined in dark cells or d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the addressee
sweat boxes as these are: 4100. The classical theory of criminology
a. Somewhat prohibited provides that the basis for criminal liability
b. Relatively prohibited is ______________________
c. Absolutely prohibited a. Individual’s thinking
d. Fairly prohibited b. Individual’s mental state
4092. Which does not form part of the basic c. Human free will
principles for riot control? d. Human facilities
a. Preparation of a specific plan of action 4101. He said the “crime must be considered
b. Dissemination of plan to everyone an injury to society, and the only rational
c. Rapid execution of plan measure of crime is the extent of injury.”
d. Firmness in executing the plan a. Jeremy Bentham
4093. Prison time is considered a dead time b. Cesare Beccaria
when minutes seem to crawl and the soul c. James Wilson
grows bitter. Which of the following d. John Howard
mitigate the oppressiveness of time? 4102. What is the effect of the grant of
a. Administrative program probation?
b. Security programs a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
c. Rehabilitation programs b. The execution of sentence is suspended
d. Custodial program c. The probationer is sent to prison
4094. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a d. The prison term is doubled
prison term of three (3) years and one (1) 4103. To what programs shall prisoners be
day to death, is known as: assigned so that they can engage in
a. Provincial Prisoner producing goods?
b. Insular Prisoner a. Industrial
c. City Prisoner b. Operational
d. Municipal Prisoner c. Agricultural
d. Administrative
4104. In case of mass jailbreak, all members
4095. How is an offender released from of the custodial force shall proceed to their
prison or jail? assigned critical posts armed with their
1. After service of sentence issued firearms to:

Page 194 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. Shoot at the escapees c. Twelve (12) months and above
b. Protect the other inmates d. Six (6) months and above
c. Plug off the escape routes 4113. Which of the following is the prison
d. Give warning shots administrator’s tool for controlling and
4105. When shall the prison record and stabilizing prison operation?
carpeta of a petitioner for executive a. Leadership
clemency be forwarded to the Board of b. Supervision
Pardon and Parole (BPP)? c. Activity
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the d. Recreation
BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP for 4114. Mario is soon to be released from
prison record and carpeta camp Bukang Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration of release facility called _______________ for
the minimum of the prisoner’s indeterminate counseling and therapy.
sentence a. Recreation Center
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the b. Congregate Group
BUCOR Director of the BPP request for prison c. Half-way House
record and carpeta d. Diagnostic Center
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the BUCOR 4115. What is referred to as the concept of
Director of the request made by the BPP for the the “greatest happiness of the greater
prison record and carpeta number” espoused by Jeremy Bentham?
a. Utilitarianism
b. Rehabilitation
4106. Which of the following contributes to c. Reformation
prison violence? d. Conformance
a. Prison industry 4116. Juanito was convicted and sentenced
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including for the crime of serious physical injuries to
overcrowding and threats of homosexual rapes a prison term of prision correccional. Based
c. Conjugal visits on his penalty, is he qualified for
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out and probation?
work a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day
4107. Which of the following factors makes it b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 day
difficult for a released prisoner to lead a c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
straight life? d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
a. Scientific advances have made modern living 4117. The approval of the application of
more pleasant probation is done by the Judge thru the
b. Police conduct close supervision on released issuance of
prisoners a. Probation Citation Ticket
c. Lasting reformation must come from within and b. Probation Order
cannot be imposed c. Probation Certificate
d. Many of his contacts and friends are underworld d. Probation Clearance
characters
4108. Under the plan for riots and violent
disturbances, what shall be done at the 4118. According to this theory, social actions
sound of the first pre-arranged alarm? are repeated (or not repeated) as a
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters consequence of their association in the
b. Saturate the area with riot gas actors mind with punishing or rewarding
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their experiences.
respective cell a. Containment
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders b. Differential Association
4109. Which agency exercises supervision c. Operant Conditioning
over parolees? d. Differential Identification
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole 4119. This theory assumes that people are
b. Probation and Parole Administration law-abiding but under great pressure they
c. Bureau of Corrections will resort to crime. . .
d. Department of Justice a. Strain theory
4110. The judge approves or denies the grant b. Differential association theory
of probation based on the report of the c. Social learning theory
a. Social worker d. Psychoanalytic theory
b. Probation officer 4120. What is referred to as the reduction of
c. Prosecutor the duration of a prison sentence?
d. Police office a. Parole
b. Commutation of sentence
4111. What law grants probation to first time c. Absolute pardon
offenders who are sent to prison terms of d. Conditional pardon
not more than six (6) years? 4121. It is a report on the background of the
a. Presidential Decree No. 448 convict, prepared for the judge to decide on
b. Presidential Decree No. 968 the approval or denial of application of
c. Presidential Decree No. 603 probation.
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184 a. Probation Report
4112. An offender can apply for Release on b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
Recognizance is he is convicted with an c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
offense whose penalty is: d. Pre-Trial Report
a. Three (3) years and above 4122. By what term is selling of illegal
b. Not more than six (6) months commodities inside prison or jail known?

Page 195 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 a. Gleaning b. Acknowledgment
b. Hustling c. Surety
c. Benting d. Recognizance
d. Vending 4131. According to the routine activities
theory, the volume and distribution of
predatory crimes are affected by the
4123. There are various types of prison following, EXCEPT:
programs. What type of program that a. Presence of motivated offenders
secures prisoner from escape or violence? b. Absence of capable guardians
a. Maintenance c. Availability of suitable targets
b. Rehabilitative d. Absence of motivated offenders
c. Industrial
d. Security 4132. A group that has a short history,
4124. The National Record of the prisoner at limited size, and little define territory is a
the New Bilibid Prison is called type of gang known as:
a. Carpeta a. Status
b. Released Document b. Sporadic
c. Commitment Order c. Criminal
d. Mittimus d. Collective
4125. The founder of the Classical School of 4133. The correctional program which
Criminological Theory. enables an individual to enhance his
a. John Howard employability, develop his intellectual
b. Jeremy Bentham faculties, and graduate to a free existence
c. Cesare Lombroso in community living all at the same time is
d. Cesare Beccaria referred to as _______________
a. Livelihood program
4126. If probation is granted by a court b. Guidance counseling
judge, who grants pardon? c. Education program
a. Secretary of Justice d. Religious program
b. President of the Philippines 4134. What rehabilitation program that
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court provides a presocial environment within
d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole the prison to help the inmates develop
noncriminal ways to coping outside?
a. Psychotherapy
4127. What guarantees the appearance in b. Behavior therapy
court of a defendant granted release on c. Occupational therapy
recognizance? d. Milieu therapy
a. His/her promise to live a new life 4135. Pardon cannot be extended to one of
b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison the following instances:
c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment, a. Rape
etc. b. Murder
d. His/her capacity to raise bail c. Impeachment
d. Brigandage
4136. It was held as the 1st probation officer
4128. Prisoners are awarded ________ off employed by the government:
from their minimum or maximum term for a. John Augustus
maintaining good behavior or participating b. Teodolo C Natividad
in various types of vocational, educational c. Edward N Savage
and treatment programs. d. Mattew Davenport
a. Good time
b. Credits 4137. Which of the following is a prerogative
c. Days off of the chief executive with concurrence of
d. Vacation congress:
4129. Which of the following requirements a. probation
shall qualify a prisoner for parole? b. amnesty
1. Confinement in jail or c. pardon
prison to serve an d. parole
indeterminate sentence 4138. What crimes apparently have no
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a complaining victims such as gambling,
final judgment of conviction prostitution and drunkenness?
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the a. Compound crime
good conduct time allowance earned b. Complex crime
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence c. Blue collar crime
a. 4, 1 and 2 d. Victimless crime
b. 2, 3 and 4 4139. An open institution usually a penal
c. 3, 4 and 1 form or camp.
d. 1, 2 and 3 a. Maximum security institution
4130. When an accused is released from b. Minimum security institution
imprisonment on his or her promise to c. Medium security institution
return to court as required, or upon the d. None of these
undertaking of a suitable person that he 4140. They assist probation and parole office
will guarantee the accused’ appearance in in the supervision of the probationers.
court, there is what is called: a. Volunteer workers
a. Promise b. Volunteer probation officers

Page 196 of 197

G.S.T. 2019
 c. Volunteer community workers
d. Volunteer probation aides

4141. It ensures a more careful selection of

the institution in which the prisoner is to be
confined.
a. Quarantine unit
b. Courts
c. RDC
d. Correction
4142. The continuing relationship between
probation officer and probationer is known
as?
a. Pre-Sentence Investigation
b. None of these
c. supervision
d. affiliation guidance
4143. The ideal ratio or escort is____ prison
guard for every____number of inmates.
a. 1:2
b. 1:4
c. 1:12
d. 1:7

4144. He was the first Superintendent of

Elmira sentence reformatory.
a. John Augustus
b. John Howard
c. Zebulon Brockway
d. Teodulo Natividad

4145. Reducing the degree of Death penalty

inflected upon the council.
a. amnesty
b. commutation
c. pardon
d. commutation of sentence

Page 197 of 197

G.S.T. 2019