CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

1. Based on the PNP Criminal Investigation Manual, it is initial phase or “Golden Hour” of a murder or kidnapping/ abduction
investigation (crimes of violence investigation) is crucial.
A. 12 hours B. 18 hours C. 36 hours D. 72 hours
2. Majority of mistakes committed relative to evidence take place:
1. During periods of transportation
2. In the collection of samples
3. A contaminated sampling
4. The wrong type material
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 4 C. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 3
3. In order to introduce physical evidence in trial, three important factors may be considered. These are:
1. The article must be properly identified
2. Continuity or chain of custody
3. Legality of the procurement
4. Competency must be proved, that the evidence is material and relevant
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
4. Criminal Investigation includes ___
1. Photographing, measuring, sketching and searching crime scene
2. Identification, Collection and examination of evidence
3. Questioning victims, if alive, witnesses and suspects and recording statements
A. 1 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 &3 D. 1, 2 & 3
5. Before the dead body is removed from the crime scene, the investigator must be sure that the following had already been performed.
1. Crime scene search, sketch and photograph taken.
2. Possible witnesses are identified, leads taken into considerations and relative position of the body was determined.
3. Notes are properly taken cared, evidence are identified, collected and preserved.
4. Close coordination between the medico-legal officer, the prosecutor and the homicide investigator was established.
A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. In what circumstances change murder to homicide?
A. Treachery C. Lack of intent
B. Absence of Qualifying Circumstances D. Taking advantage of superior strength
7. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of
the criminal act itself.
A. Admission B. Confession C. Deposition D. Accusation
8. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a party who does or says nothing, when the act
or declaration naturally calls for action if comment is not true.
A. Admission by Silence B. Res inter alios acta C. Admission D. Negative pregnant
9. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the crime scene. What are the components of the crime scene situation which
you would analyzed?
A. Suspect arrival at the scene and place of entry
B. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his contact with the victim
C. Place of exit
D. All of the above
10. He was America’s most famous private investigator and founder of the first private criminal investigation in the United States. He
established the practice of handwriting examination in American courts and promoted a plan to centralize criminal identification
records. Who was he?
A. Laurence Lawton B. Allan Pinkerton C. Charles Dickens D. Thomas Byrnes
11. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the following must be demonstrated except:
A. The evidence must be free from alteration, contamination and switching
B. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
C. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
D. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained
12. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at
A. day time  C. any day and at any time of the day or night
B. night time D. weekdays
13. Upon arrival of the first responder in a crime scene, the victim was already dead and he was able to recover the firearm and shells
and the suspect is running. What would be the immediate action to be done by the First Responder?
A. Isolate the relatives C. Apprehend immediately the suspect
B. Analyze the evidence D. Cordon the crime scene
14. There was a reported trespassing incident. The police responded to the incident and upon searching the vicinity, they found Juan
hiding on the bush. The latter was searched by the police and found in his possession the cellphone of the house owner. In this
case, the cellphone would be what kind of physical evidence?
A. Tracing evidence B. Associative Evidence C. Object Evidence D. Evidence
15. In a case of dead body, when autopsy should be performed?
A. Death has been caused by violence
B. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect the probability of homicide.
C. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
D. In all cases involving death
16. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as evidence should be marked where?
A. At the tip of the blade B. At the base C. At the frame D. At the handle
17. You are a police officer responding to a crime which there is a dying person. You will obtain dying declaration from him. Which of the following is
not one of your duties in regard to dying declaration?
 A. Observe the victim as to whether he is manifesting a feeling of his impending death
B. Observe carefully the mental condition of the victim and jot down immediately his statements
C. Attempt to save the life of the victim
D. Avoid leading questions and produce the statement.
18. This is the first that an investigator must do upon his arrival at the scene of the crime:
A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of witness
B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency
19. Mere invitation of a suspect is already considered pursuant to RA No. 7438.
A. Beginning of arrest C. Beginning of detention
B. Beginning of custody D. Beginning of informing his right
20. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification of criminals, which can be done in any or a combination of the
following, except:
A. By confession or admission by the criminal C. By circumstantial evidence
B. By corpus delicti D. By eyewitness
21. What specific offence has been committed? Who committed it? When it was committed? Where it was committed? Why it was
committed? And how it was committed? This are called_______________________ of criminal investigation.
A. Cardinal points B. Three I’s C. Golden rule D. Bridges burn
22. It is one of the oldest methods of suspect identification.
A. Cartographic Sketch B. Rogue’s Gallery C. Police Line-up D. Compost
23. The methodology involving the systematic searching, handling, distribution and accountability of all evidence found at the crime
scene, including the documentation of every article of evidence from the point of initial discovery at the scene, to its collection and
transport to the point of examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is referred to us.
A. Corpus delicti B. Necropsy report C. Blotter D. Chain of custody
24. An area which, is ideally located adjacent to the Crime Scene where the CSI Evidence Custodian stays and receives the pieces of
evidence turned over to him for safekeeping by the other evidence collectors.
A. Command Post B. Command Area C. Command Station D. Command Place
25. As a future SOCO team member, if dispatched or alarm sounds, the good first move after arrival at the crime scene
A. Confer with the officer who first arrived at the scene C. Get the name of the witnesses
B. Check the security aspects of the scene D. Locate the media
26. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of collusion?
A. Decision B. Continuation C. Connivance D. Insinuation
27. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and that the person named in his report
committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti B. sufficiency of evidence C. stare decisis  D. parens patriae
28. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is for _____.
A. scale and proportion B. accuracy and clarity C. future use D. court room presentation
29. An electronic reporting system that facilitates crime documentation, modernizes data storage and provides quick and reliable
transmission of crime information from lower units and NOSUs of the PNP to the National Headquarters at Camp Crame, Quezon
City
A. Electronic Blotter C. Electronic Signature
B. Crime Incident Reporting System D. Electronic Data Message
30. In this process, written confession of the accused is used as a script in describing events of the crime. This strengthens the
prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge that the accused was not maltreated nor affected by sinister psychological
influence.
A. Mental reconstruction C. Reconstruction
B. Crime reenactment D. Physical reconstruction
31. The victim, the scene of the crime and the suspect was regarded as the triangle of evidence. Which among the following is the
primary source of evidence?
A. Victim B. Suspect C. Crime scene D. Neither of these
32. A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation, preservation, and
presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes.
A. police patrol B. police intelligence C. Criminal procedure D. Criminal investigation
33. When the questioning of the prober gives emphasis on the guilt of the suspect who is under custody, he is conducting…
A. Custodial investigation B. Tactical interrogation C. Custodial interrogation D. Field inquiry
34. PMSGT Juan Dela Cruz is examining a crime scene, which a dead victim sustained a gunshot wound in the head with a handgun
near his hand. He was informed that the victim had a painful terminal illness. PMSGT Juan Dela Cruz concluded that the wound is
self-inflicted. This is an example which the investigator used what kind of reasoning?
A. Deductive B. Logical C. Reasonable D. Rational
35. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the…
A. National Bureau of Investigation C. Supreme Court
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government D. Department of Justice
36. A person who killed his spouse but was entitled to the benefits of Article 247 of the Revised Penal Code shall suffer the penalty of:
A. reclusion perpetua B. death C. reclusion temporal D. destierro
37. Physical evidence is any article found at the crime scene, small or large which, in one way or another connected with the crime investigated. Its uses
are, except one.
A. Determine the cause of crime C. Identify the participants
B. Reconstruct the crime D. Confirm or discredit an alibi
38. All of the following are generally accepted rules of behavior that should be followed by police officer first arriving at the crime
scene of a murder committed indoors, EXCEPT –
A. Try to keep the witnesses separated
B. Record the time of discovery of the crime
C. Discuss the crime with persons who witness the incident
D. Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible but do not leave the scene unguarded while doing so
39. Which method of search is a modification of strip search method where the rectangle is traverse to the base and then parallel to a
side?
A. Double-strip method B. spiral method C. zone method D. grid method
40. Which phase of criminal investigation that the investigator apprised the person of his right under RA No. 7438?
A. During the identification of criminal offender
B. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of the offender
C. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of criminal offender
D. During police line-up
41. Police lineup involves the process of mixing the suspected person to group of innocent persons and letting the witness to identify
the perpetrator. The purpose of this method is to?
A. Minimize the identification of an innocent person C. Eliminate the power of suggestion
B. Maximize the element of surprise D. Adding confusion to the victim
42. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation B. Inducement C. Buy bust operation D. Entrapment
43. As a rule it would not be sufficient for police officers just to recite Section 12, Article 03 of the constitution, he is also be duty
bound to _____.
A Communicate what the person under interrogation may or may not do.
B. Tell the person of the rights to which he is detained
C. Explain the effect of some rights in practical terms.
D. None of them.
44. What interrogation techniques is when the investigator indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a grave offense?
A. Sympathetic Appeal B. Extenuation C. Mutt and Jeff D. Emotional Appeal
45. It is the painless death of a person suffering from incurable disease to cut-short his suffering.
A. Asphyxia B. Exhumation C. Euthanasia D. strangulation
46. After identifying, collecting and preserving information gathered about the crime, the investigator shall _______________ such
information to determine whether it can stand prosecution and trial.
A. Recognize B. Preserve C. Collect D. Evaluate
47. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit found in the body of the victim is _____, the presumption is that no bullet is
lodged in the body
A. even B. odd C. odd or even D. none of these
48. Which of the following must be done to maintain the legal integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be photographed and packaged C. Maintain its chain of custody
B. Evidence must be properly documented D. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
49. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be made on the item itself upon collection, in a place least likely to affect the
appearance of its –
A. Monetary value C. Integrity and identity
B. Monetary and evidentiary D. Evidentiary value
50. In all crime probes, after completing the investigation, what is the next move of the prober?
A. Wait for the next order of the chief C. File the case if the evidence warrants
B. Effect the arrest of the suspects D. Recommend the closure of the case.
51. When the subject is in prone position what type of search should be implemented.
A. Kneeling search B. Standing search C. Floor search D. Wall search
52. An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation. 
A. initial investigation  B. custodial investigation C. secondary investigation D. follow-up investigation
53. In picking up a strand of hair, the most proper tool is?
A. Gloves B. Papers C. Plastic D. Forceps
54. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations of evidence was noted, the collection process begins and will
usually starts with________________________.
A. point of exit B. large objects C. fragile evidence D. removal of cadaver
55. What legal doctrine was established in the case Mapp vs. Ohio?
A. Free Zone Doctrine C. Miranda Doctrine
B. Fruit of the Poisonous Tree D. Terry Doctrine
56. As established by our Supreme Court through the case People vs. Galit, the first step in arresting an offender is
A. Show the warrant of arrest C. Identify yourself as a law enforcer
B. Inform the nature and cause of accusation D. Give the Miranda warning
57. Considered as the “Father of Criminal Investigation”.
A. Eugene Francois Vidocq B. B. Allan Pinkerton C. Cesare Beccaria D. Hans Gross
58. Assume that a dead body has been discovered on the street and being the only police officer around, you have been called upon by
a passer-by to proceed to the scene upon arriving at the scene, several onlookers are gathered. As a rule, it essential that a police
office should refrain from expressing his opinion as to the probable cause of death because…
A. His opinion may influence the investigator assigned to the case
B. No useful purpose will be served
C. The killer may overheard your conclusion
D. He do not know the cause of death
59. You are an investigator, investigating a suspected rape-slaying case which was allegedly witnessed by a certain person who
volunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator. What are the factors that you should not consider to determine the
accuracy of his identification of the suspect?
A. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance of the suspect
B. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when the crime was committed
C. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the crime
D. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when identification was made
60. A case wherein the violation of law or ordinances has just been unearthed or discovered and the suspect and witness are still
emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.
 A. Hot case B. In flagrate delicto case C. Cold case D. Hot pursuit case
61. Which of the following must be done to maintain the legal integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be properly documented C. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
B. Maintain its chain of custody D. Photographed and packaged the evidence
62. Which of the following is not included?
A. Evident premeditation B. Treachery C. Ignominy D. Abuse of superior strength
63. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime incident shall have the following duties, except
A. Inform his superior officer or duty officer regarding the report
B. Record the date and time the report was made
C. Immediately respond to the crime scene
D. Made a synopsis of the incident
64. What is the type of reasoning whereby the collected information is analyzed carefully to develop a theory of the crime?
A. Inductive B. Deductive C. Systematic D. Logical
65. Rape by sexual assault, except
A. Inserting penis into another person’s mouth
B. Inserting penis into another person’s anal orifice
C. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping
D. Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital or anal orifice of another person.
66. Animo Furandi means? Animo Locrandi means?
A. Intent to steal, intent to gain C. Intent to gain, intent to kill
B. Intent to gain, intent to steal D. Intent to steal, intent to kill
67. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry B. Interview C. Polygraph examination D. Interrogation
68. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in
it.
A. Interrogation B. rumor mongering C. interview D. inquiry
69. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things may be used to detect crimes, identify the criminals, facilitate, and assist
the investigator in its task in achieving the objectives of criminal investigation.
A. Information B. Instrumentation C. Criminalistics D. Interview/Interrogation
70. Fingerprints systems, modus operandi file, the lie detector, communication systems, surveillance equipment, searching apparatus
and investigative tools are contained within the scope of the term?
A. Criminalistics B. Eaves dropping C. Instrumentations D. Interrogation
71. It is the Latin word which means “to trace” from which the word investigation was derived from.
A. vestigial B. verbecherpech C. investigare D. locus crimini
72. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for:
A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, Continuity
B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
73. After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438, Juan Dela Cruz, who was invited and interrogated for the crime of
murder executed an extra-judicial confession acknowledging his guilt to the crime charged. What is the effect of such confession
to his case?
A. It can be used as evidence against him C. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
B. He will be convicted for the crime of murder D. His case will prosper
74. A pharmacist from Georgia, who took to the market trail and came out with a Coca-Cola product with cocaine formula.
A. John Pemberton B. Julius White C. Victoria Charles D. William James
75. The essence of this crime is the taking and transporting of a person against his will from one place to another.
A. Kidnapping B. Illegal Detention C. Transporting D. Coercion
76. You are an investigator who investigates an alleged robbery with homicide case perpetrated by an unknown suspects. Since there
are no witnesses to the crime the following may give you a hint to identify the suspect, except one.
A. Motive and opportunity
B. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation for a commission of crime and possession of fruits of a crime of the
perpetrator
C. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal potentiality
D. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily be adopted to criminal use by the suspect
77. These elements of sketch that explains any symbol that used to identify objects?
A. Legend B. Scale C. Title D. Proportion
78. The American case from which we derived our kidnapping law.
A. Lindbergh Case B. Mapp vs. Ohio C. Terry vs. Ohio D. West Case
79. One in which all the ingredients of the offense are committed in one place.
A. Local action B. Local crimes C. None of these D. Transitory action
80. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be photographed and packaged C. Maintain its chain of custody
B. Evidence must be properly documented D. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
81. What is the means of identifying physical evidence in which the investigator inscribes initial, date and time directly?
A. Marking B. Tagging C. Labeling D. Sealing
82. How can a plaster cast and photograph be marked for identification?
A. Affixing a seal on the front C. No mark at all
B. Marking at the back D. Tagging
83. The method of operation which will enable investigators to a pattern of criminal behavior.
A. Mental Reconstruction of the crime scene C. Instrumentation
 B. Physical Reconstruction of the crime scene D. Modus Operandi
84. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the crime; hence, it could be used to identify him at once. It
could be presumed from the following:
A. Motive B. Intent C. Opportunity D. Capability
85. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical representation must indicate the ___ direction for proper orientation of the
scene.
A. North B. East C. West D. South
86. The issues of confidentiality of police reports hinge on the reason that?
A. On-going investigation may be compromised if the police report is open to the public
B. The victim might be put to bad light and may drop the case
C. Investigator might free superior over his associates
D. The suspect may be identified and assisted by friends
87. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial B. order maintenance C. criminal investigation D. police intelligence
88. Criminal investigative activities virtually deals with:
A. Recognition and collection of facts which may be sensory, documentary and physical forms
B. Preservation and evaluation of information gathered from the regular, cultivated and grapevine sources
C. Persons and things
D. A and B only
89. The following crime of robbery is committed, EXCEPT?
A. The door is open or closed but not locked, and once inside breaks open lock receptacles where personal properties are taken.
B. Through an opening which might not be locked but which is not intended or designed for entry.
C. If the door is open and used as entry and while inside, the person brings out receptacle and while outside, open the same where
personal propertie are taken.
D. Person enters a closed but unlocked door, once inside, took and brings out personal properties.
90. The most recent, fastest, practical in preserving evidence in crime scene
A. DNA B. Sketching C. Note Taking D. Photographing
91. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which help in establishing the identity of
the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
A. physical evidence B. documentary evidence C. tracing evidence D. testimonial evidence
92. Physical evidence must be protected from accidental, intentional and even from natural alterations to?
A. Maintain its legal integrity
B. Maintain its physical integrity
C. Present it in court in the same substantial condition as it is at the time the offense was committed
D. Avoid casting doubts as to its authenticity.
93. When a police officer arrives in a crime scene, what is his fundamental duty?
A. Preserve human life C. Summon emergency personnel
B. Cordon the area D. Apprehend the criminal
94. The fundamentals responsibility of the officer in charge of protecting the crime scene is 
A. Interrogating the witnesses
B. Engaging in the search for traces left by the search for traces left by the criminal
C. Removal of evidence which may prone important to the case
D. Preserving the site of the crime in the same physical condition as it was left by the perpetrator
95. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been committed
and that the object sought in connection with the offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence B. probable cause C. prejudicial question D. res ipsa loquitur
96. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide investigation is:
A. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death C. Process of determining how the victim was killed
B. Process of determining who is responsible for the death D. Process of determining when the victim was killed
97. In questioning a witness, an ideal type of written statement is:
A. Narrative type because it is easier and will be short C. Combination of the two
B. Question and answer because it provides details of acts D. Your convenient type
98. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation?
A. Preliminary Survey B. Final Survey C. Documentation D. Release the crime scene
99. In case there is no other available means of establishing the age of the offender, what should be done if he claims that he is still a
minor?
A. Do not listen to his claim because probably he is already of majority age.
B. Wait for the court to determine the age of the offender
C. Resolve the issue in favor of the declarant
D. None of these
100. It refers to the ability of the witness to positively identify and remember how the criminal looks like. Its distinct physical
features particularly his face and body built are very significant.
A. Retention B. Intellectual Quotient C. Photographic Memory D. Cerebral Capacity
101. Criminal investigation as an art is governed by three (3) things, except?
A. Intuition B. Chance or luck C. Rigid rules D. Felicity or inspiration
102. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known criminals and their modus operandi, hiding places and names of associate
criminals.
A. Verbal Description B. Cartographic Sketch C. General Photograph D. Rogues Gallery
103. Which among the five human senses is considered the most objective?
A. Hearing B. Smelling C. Tasting D. Seeing
104. Alibi is considered the weakest defense in criminal prosecution, which means that the accused claims was?
 A. Somewhere else when the incident took place C. Not the perpetrator
B. Near the place of incident D. Innocent
105. Also known as bluff method. It is undertaken when there are two or more culprits and stating to the subject that the others
have already confessed and directly linked him/her with the commission of a crime.
A. Pleading to a lesser offense C. Split pair method
B. Line-up method D. Reversed line-up method
106. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method B. wheel method C. spiral method D. zone method
107. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.
A. Pen B. Stylus C. Ink D. Chalk
108. The following are evidence showing intent except one.
A. Absence of effort to extinguish fire C. Presence of Incendiary Materials
B. Substitution of inferior article with superior one D. Unfriendly relation
109. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and that the person named in his report
committed the crime.
A. Corpus delicti B. Sufficiency of evidence C. Stare decisis D. Parens Patriae
110. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an unknown suspect. A person named
Juan Dela Cruz, a teacher, saw the crime and he is willing to identify the suspect. Which of the following methods will you not
utilize to establish the identity of the suspect?
A. Verbal Description and Rogues Gallery
B. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch
C. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals
D. Police Line-up
111. In a police line-up in which the purpose is to eliminate the power of suggestion as a factor in identification as a procedure
how many persons is needed in such a line-up?
A. 3 to 5 B.. 5 to 7 C. 7 to 10 D. 10 to 15
112. The ability to go down to the level of the lower strata, minor, squatters or even the level of the elite, noble or professional.
A. Acting Ability B. Tactfulness C. Bravery and Gallantry D. Alertness and Enthusiasm
113. Who conducts the final survey of the crime scene?
A. Chief Investigator B. Chief of Police C. Team Leader D. I-O-C
114. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the following must be demonstrated except:
A. The evidence must be free from alteration, contamination and switching
B. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
C. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
D. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained
115. As a rule, do not touch, alter or remove anything at the crime scene until the evidence has been processed through notes,
sketches and photographs, with proper measurements. This refers to
A. the golden rule in investigation C. the number one SOP in investigation
B. the act of note taking D. the act of crime scene preservation
116. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned Officer who leads the execution of a valid search warrant. Who must be present
when a valid search warrant is conducted on a domicile?
A. The house owner
B. Any member of the house owner’s family
C. Two witnesses residing in the same community
D. All of the above
117. In assessing the probative value of DNA evidence, caution has to be made on…
A. The police prober who collected and handled the samples
B. All of these
C. The possibility of contamination
D. Procedure followed in analyzing the samples
118. Only a computer expert should search for any evidence contained in the computer hardware:
A. The statement is absolutely correct C. The statement is partially correct
B. The statement is absolutely wrong D. The statement is partially wrong
119. When responding to cyber related crime, it is okay for a responding officer to turn off the computer if it is on.
A. The statement is definitely wrong C. The statement is partially wrong
B. The statement is definitely correct D. The statement is partially correct
120. Mr. “A” is mad at Mr. “B”. One day, Mr. “A” went to the nipa house of Mr. “B” and destroyed the sidings of the house.
When Mr. “A” is about to leave, he noticed that he may use a portion of the nipa to his house. What crime was committed by Mr.
“A”?
A. Theft B. Malicious mischief C. Robbery D. Destruction of property
121. PSSGT Juan Dela Cruz prepared a rough sketch of a homicide scene and is now at his district. At this point it is most
important that _______.
A. the proper scale be used C. a high grade of paper and ink are used
B. no changes be made on the sketch D. this sketch be refined and improved
122. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the crime scene?
A. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police.
B. To check all evidence gathered from the crime scene.
C. To determine whether or not the processing has been completed.
D. To determine whether there is a need to request for additional personnel.
123. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence needs to be photographed after its removal from the crime scene?
A. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the body with the surrounding
B. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of the wounds
C. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage
 D. All of the above
124. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas are usually encircled. What is the primary objective?
A. To show points of interests C. To avoid contamination
B. To have proper markings D. To prevent alterations
125. Application of all procedures for the search of missing persons.
A. Rogues gallery B. Tracing C. Manhunt D. Associative
126. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood
etc.
A. physical evidence B. associative evidence  C. tracing evidence D. factual evidence
127. A sketching method that involves measuring the distance of an object from two fixed lines at right angles to each other?
A. Rectangular coordinates method C. Cross projection method
B. Triangulation method D. Baseline method
128. A part of the body of the victim which the suspect intentionally took as a memento, such as pubic hairs of the rape victims.
A. trophy B. trace evidence C. souvenir D. Class characteristics
129. Is a form of investigation in which the investigator assumes a different and unofficial identity in order to obtain information?
A. Undercover B. Fixed Surveillance C. Loose Shadowing D. Stakeout Surveillance
130. Sometimes called “roping”. An investigation technique whereby the operative conceals his true identity and adopts an
assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific mission.
A. Undercover assignment C. Work assignment and social assignment
B. Dwelling assignment D. Personal contact assignment
131. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing B. Casing C. Espionage D. Undercover work
132. In portrait parle method the witness provides a vivid physical appearance of the offender. Portrait parle means…
A. Oral discussion B. Verbal description C. Photographic files D. Facial appearance
133. A Criminal’s bad luck is prober’s good luck is the translation of the maxim:
A. vestigial B. verbecherpech C. investigare D. locus crimini
134. Which of the following is the primary role of the investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
A. Verification of death
B. Identification of the person who is responsible for the death
C. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
D. All of the above
135. A public officer when not being authorized by judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against the will of the owner thereof is
committing…
A. Illegal entry B. Violation of Domicile C. Trespassing D. Unlawful entry
136. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene, he should first of all –
A. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care not to jar
B. Wait until the crime scene has been sketched or photographed and measurements taken before he collects the evidence
C. Immediately collect it and always send it to the Crime Laboratory for specific examination
D. Compare the following edge of the tool with impression to determine if this was the tool used in crime.
137. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of transporation by stealing the vehicle and providing plate on it.
A. Drivers B. Ripper C. Wheelman D. Rover
138. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and
proceed outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method B. wheel method C. spiral method D. zone method
139. Principles in Homicide Investigation that should be borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide investigator cannot be
corrected and the homicide investigator should not cross the three bridges which he burns behind him. Which of the following is
not one of this so called “burned bridge”?
A. When the corpse has been moved
B. When the corpse has been embalmed
C. When the corpse has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly accounted.
D. When the corpse is burned or cremated
140. Types of informant that is considered as the most dangerous type.
A. Woman Informant B. Frightened Informants C. False Informants D. Informants
141. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a
counsel of his own choice and must be in…
A. The presence of a fiscal C. Writing
B. The presence of a police investigator D. Front of a judge
142. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method B. wheel method C. spiral method D. zone method
143. The required saliva for DNA Examination
A. 1 bowl B. 1 gm C. 1 mm D. 1 tablespoon
144. As investigator assigned to handle case, upon arrival at the crime scene, one of his fundamental duties is to collect pieces of
physical evidence. How much amount of blood would suffice to be collected?
A. 1cm B. 3gm C. 1ml D. 3kg
145. In forensic entomology, the means to establish the time of death by locating the largest (oldest maggot) inhabiting the body
then measuring it in millimeters and add the number ________ to get the estimated number of days since death.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
146. Food eaten in the last ___ hours remain in the stomach of a dead body.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
147. The average time required for death drowning is?
A. 1-3 minutes B. 2-5 minutes C. 5-10 minutes D. 3-6 minutes
148. Male pubic hair usually grows at the age of?
A. 9 years old B. 14 years old C. 13 years old D. 12 years old
149. Bite mark evidence is also essential is also essential in the investigation. Human dentitions are unique. The average adult has
how many teeth?
A. 200 B. 32 C. 270-350 D. 206
150. What are the Golden Rules in homicide investigation?
A. Never touch, alter and change the position of anything until identified, measured and photographed
B. If article has been move it can never be restored again to its original position
C. A and B are true
D. All of the above
151. Evidence of violence characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin brought about by the friction
against a hard rough surface.
A. Contusion B. Abrasions C. Patterned wound D. Hematoma
152. Latent prints found in the crime scene play a vital role in helping crime solution as it disapproves what?
A. Alibi B. Accusations C. Evidence D. Allegations
153. Legally, when does death considered to have occurred?
A. Respiratory system is no longer performing within the body
B. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the body
C. Central nervous system activity is no longer performing within the body
D. All of the above
154. How can an identification be made on a decomposed cadaver?
A. Study his bones B. Study his skull C. Study his dentures D. All of these
155. What is the origin of the hair if the medullary index is greater than 0.5?
A. Bird B. Animal C. Cow D. Human
156. Any immune serum that contains antibodies active chiefly in destroying a specific infecting virus or bacterium.
A. Anti-Histamine B. Anti-Serum C. Antibiotics D. Any of them
157. The state of collapse due to deficiency of oxygen or no supply in the tissues and particularly the brain.
A. Strangulation B. Asphyxia C. Choking D. Drowning
158. A form of violent death brought by the suspension of the body by a ligature which encircles the neck and the constricting
force is the weight of the body?
A. asphyxia by suffocation C. manual strangulation
B. asphyxia by hanging D. none of these
159. In a crime scene when there is a suspected fresh blood, it is best to collect it…
A. By scooping it C. By using a medicine dropper
B. By swapping it with cotton buds D. By air drying before collection
160. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body, which is always to occur in case of death. What is that condition characterized by
spontaneous stiffening of certain group of muscles.
A. Heat stiffening B. Cold stiffening C. Livor mortis (hypostasis) D. Cadaveric spasm
161. What is the best method of collection of evidence like foot prints and tire prints?
A. Casting B. Plaster of Paris C. Dental Stone D. Photograph
162. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate time of death, cadaveric spasm will suggest:
A. duration of death B. age of the victim C. Cause of death D. None of the above
163. Which of the following body system coincide the stopping of a mental organ function of a person to medically dead?
A. Cardiac B. Respiratory C. Central nervous D. Digestive
164. In crime against property as a prober, your primary duty in the crime scene is to look for physical evidence that would link
the suspect to the crime that includes bringing to the police station the recovered possible traces of evidence like?
A. Cigarette butt B. Condom C. Wine D. Food
165. Instead of the term “dead body”, the prober may use the word?
A. You B. Carcass C. Corpse D. Dead
166. ___________ is evident especially at dependent portions of the body (fingers, lips, and if still hanging, the hands and feet.
A. cyanosis B. livor mortis C. discoloration D. color of death
167. A wound resulting from instinctive reaction of self-protection is what special type of wound?
A. Defense B. Offensive C. Self-inflicted wound D. Patterned
168. It is a genetic building block for all living organisms, including some viruses.
A. Deoxyribonucleic Acid/ DNA B. RNA C. Chromosomes D. Heredity
169. In dental examination conducted to burned body, location of teeth, position and ______ are the main consideration.
A. Site B. Spot C. Direction D. Place
170. Hair evidence can be used to identify possible suspect using what modern technology?
A. MRI B. X-RAY C. ECG D. DNA
171. Forensic science derives from usage as to convict or acquit the innocent because physical evidence?
A. Is scarce unlike witnesses C. Easy to remember and keep
B. Many times adulterated D. Does not lie
172. Bringing our from the grave the remains of a dead person for purposes of medico-legal re-examination.
A. Exhumation B. Re-evaluation C. Re-autopsy D. Re-determination
173. Identification of a dead body through examination of the teeth:
A. Forensic pathology C. Forensic odontology
B. Forensic chemistry D. Forensic medicine
174. It is produced by heavy instruments with a cutting edge, e.g., axes, machetes, and meat cleavers:
A. incised wound B. hack wound C. stab wound D. laceration
175. Defined as the extravasation or effusion of blood in a newly formed cavity.
A. abrasion B. contusion C. hematoma D. laceration
176. What injury would a person sustain if hit in the head with a hard object?
A. lacerated wound B. hematoma C. incised wound D. abrasions
177. This are less severe self-inflicted wounds in case of suicidal attempts.
A. Hesitation WoundsB. Defense Wounds C. Offense Wounds D. Scratch Wounds
178. It is the official inquiry made by the police on the facts and circumstances surrounding the death of a person which is
expected to be unlawful?
A. Death Investigation B. Homicide Investigation C. Murder Investigation D. All of these
179. What is the other term for Post Mortem Lividity?
A. hypostasis B. Osmosis C. halithosis D. luminosis
180. It is produced by forcible contact on the body by sharp edged instrument like broken glasses, scalpel and knives.
A. Incised wound B. Punctured wound C. Lacerated wound D. Stab wound
181. What part of the body will the Rigor Mortis start?
A. upper body B. jaw C. lower body D. Arms
182. What injury would a person sustain if hit in the head with a blunt object?
A. Lacerated wound B. Incised wound C. Hematoma D. Abrasions
183. Post mortem change that is characterized by the discoloration of the body after death.
A. Livor Mortis B. Rigor Mortis C. Algor mortis D. Instantaneous Rigor
184. It is a change of the color of the body after death when blood accumulates in the dependent portion of the body.
A. Rigor mortis B. Livor mortis C. Algor mortis D. none of the above
185. But if the number of gunshot wounds entrance and exit is _____, the presumption is that one or more bullets might have been
lodged in the body.
A. even B. odd C. odd or even D. none of these
186. Why smoking, drinking, or eating at the crime scene is strictly prohibited, it is for the?
A. Insurance of safety at the crime scene C. Securing good results
B. Avoidance of infection with diseases D. Prevention of possible contamination
187. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what wound would be exhibited?
A. Punctured Wound B. Hack Wound C. Lacerated Wound D. Incised Wound
188. The cracks produced in glass originate on the opposite surface of the glass and subjected to stretching are known as?
A. Concentric B. Radial C. A and B D. Neither of the above
189. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took place, police find what to be bloodstains on the front door.
Since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who may die were both cut their identities need to be established through the
bloodstains. How will the police collect the stains?
A. Moisten a piece of clean cloth with a saline solution and rub gently
B. Remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
C. Scrape the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
D. Blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol
190. Generally if the gunshot wound is only one and in contact or near contact as shown by tattooing and smudging, it indicates?
A. Grazing Injuries B. Self-inflicted Injuries C. Accidental wounds D. Open Wounds
191. Rape by fraudulent machinations under RA 8353 can be committed either among the choices except one.
A. Promise to marry
B. Prostitute who has not been paid as agreed
C. Person in authority who arrest another and having sex with the latter with the promise of release from custody
D. Sexual intercourse while the victim is unconscious or otherwise deprive of reason
192. What is the scientific tool that is indispensable in toxicology and in the determination of cosmetic grease, lubricants, petrol,
gums like lipstick mark of a rape victim?
A. DPA Test C. Spectrophotometric Analysis
B. Chromatographic Analysis D. Spectrographic Analysis
193. ________ is produced by compression of the neck by means of ligature which is tightened by a force other than the weight of
the body.
A. Strangulation by Ligature B. Gagging C. Manual Strangulation D. Drowning
194. The most feared complication of punctured wound is _____ and massive bleeding inside the body if bloody organ or tissues
will be injured.
A. Tetanus B. Infection C. Hemorrhage D. Punctured wound
195. These are information coming from the underworld characters such as prisoners and ex-convicts.
A. Cultivated sources B. Regular sources C. Grapevine sources D. Mining sources
196. What techniques is used by the investigator to analyze the subject’s personality and decide what motivation would prompt
him to tell the truth, and then provide those motives through appropriate emotional appeals?
A. Sympathetic appeal B. Kindness C. Shifting of the blame D. Emotional appeal
197. The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence collected during the investigation and present it to the
prosecutor.
A. Case preparation B. Order maintenance C. Follow-up investigation D. Thorough investigation
198. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who knows about the crime or individuals
involved in it.
A. Interrogation B. Inquiry C. Interview D. Questioning
199. Who inform the superior officer or the duty officer regarding the crime incident report?
A. Investigator B. Desk officer C. Intel officer D. First responder
200. Stains upon clothing and other articles which cannot be seen in ordinary light maybe rendered clearly visible is what kind of?
A. Ultra Violet Light B. X-ray C. Gamma Rays D. Infra-red
III. ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION
201. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the global drug market.
I. Heroin and Cocaine III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine
II. Shabu and Ecstacy IV. Narcotics, Hallucinogens, Stimulants and Depressants
A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. IV
202. The Japanese Yakuza’s name was derived from a game losing combination_______ pronounce as Ya-Ku-Za
A. 8-7-3 B. 8-9-3 C. 8-9-7 D. 8-9-2
203. Mr. Ma is a former member of what Chinese Triad?
A. 14K B. Bamboo Union C. Wo Hop To D. Sun Yee on
204. The AMLC may issue a freeze order, which shall be effective immediately for the period of how many days?
A. 20 B. 15 C. 22 D. 10
205. When does the government lost its power to prosecute persons engaged in syndicated or large scale human trafficking?
A. 10 years B. 15 years C. 20 years D. 40 years
206. The United Nations Convention on Transnational Organized Crime (UNCTOC)was signed in what year?
A. 2001 B. 2003 C. 2010 D. 2011
207. The Mafioso connotes:
A. Pride, self confidence, and vainglorious behavior
B. Brave and self reliant, a man of action, and one not to be taken lightly
C. Man of honor or man of respect
D. A and B
208. INTERPOL'S rules in fighting Terrorism.
A. Prevent acts of international terrorism
B. If terrorist acts are carried out, ensure that the perpetrators are brought to justice which could be achieved by exchanging
information with its member countries through its source messaging system and by arranging meetings of expert to address the
subject.
C. Arrest the terrorist
D. A and B
209. This group is responsible for the bombing of Superferry 14 in 2004 which killed 116 people. It is also responsible in the
different bombings, kidnappings, assassinations, and extortion in what they describe as their fight for an independent Islamic
province in the Philippines.
A. Moro National Liberation Front C. Moro Islamic Liberation Front
B. Abu Sayyaf Group D. Pentagon Group
210. This terrorist organization is responsible for the bombing of the World Trade Center:
A. Abu Sayyaf B. Hamas C. Al Qaeda D. Taliban
211. The lowest members of the family are the soldiers. Soldiers also are known as:
A. Wise Guys B. Made Guys C. button men D. All of the above
212. Which of the following are the commonly identified forms of human trafficking?
 A. Sexual exploitation and organ removal
B. Exploitation of children in begging, sex trade and warfare
C. Forced labor, Domestic servitude and forced marriage
D. All of the above
213. Republic Act No. 9160 as amended by RA 9194 , RA10167 and RA10365 defines money laundering as a crime whereby
the proceeds of an unlawful activity (predicate crime) are transacted, thereby making them appear to have originated from
legitimate sources. It is committed by any person who:
A. transacts or attempts to transact with any monetary instrument knowing that it involves or relates to the proceed of an
unlawful activity.
B. facilitates the commission of money-laundering as defined in no.1 by knowingly performing or failing to perform an act.
C. fails to disclose and file a report with AMLC of any instrument or property as required under the law
D. All of the above
214. He was a gangster in Chicago who amassed a fortune by selling alcohol and women.  He also controlled every possible
aspect of crime and was sent to Alcatraz in 1931, not for various killings and breaking the 18th amendment, but for income tax
evasion.
A. Charlie “Lucky” Luciano C. John “The Teflon Don” Gotti
B. Carlo Gambino D. Alphonso “The Scarface” Capone
215. RA 9208 is otherwise known as the:
A. Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2003 C. Human Trafficking of 2003
B. Anti Trafficking in Persons of 2004 D. Human Trafficking of 2003
216. The United Nations defines terrorism as:
A. The use or threatened use of force designed to bring about a political change
B. An illegitimate use of force to achieve a political objective by targeting innocent people
C. Socially and politically unacceptable violence aimed at an innocent target to achieve psychological effect .
D. Any act intended to cause death or serious bodily harm to civilians or non-combatants with the purpose of intimidating a
population of serious bodily harm and compelling a government or an international organization to do or abstain doing any
act
217. Three Core Services of the INTERPOL, except:
A. Unique global police communication system
B. Range of criminal data bases and analytical services
C. Proactive support for police operations throughout the world.
D. Arrest of international terrorist
218. Provide necessary assistance to other respected or befriended Mafia faction. What principle of Mafia best exemplifies the
above mentioned statement?
A. Avoid contact with authorities C. Vengeance
B. Obedience to Boss D. Assistance
219. The Yakuza have entered alliances with Taiwanese Triad notably________?
A. 14k B. Bamboo Union C. Wo Hop to D. Sun Yee on
220. Terrorist Act is an any act that is unlawful, involves the use or threatened use of violence or force against individuals or
property which designed to coerce a government or society and supports any of the following, except:
A. political objectives B. barbaric objectives C. ideological objectives D. religious objectives
221. The Uninitiated member of the Hung Secret Society is called__________________.
A. Dragon Head B. Red Pole C. Mountain Lord D. Blue Lanterns
222. Japanese Yakuza is also known as?
A. Boryukudon B. Kabuki Mono C. Yamaguchi Gumi D. Samurai
223. The model consist of a supreme leader known as______, who oversees all organizational endeavors and has the final word on
decisions involving virtually all aspects of family business.
A. Under Boss B. Boss C. Caporegime D. Consigliere
224. The following are the moniker of Russian Mafia?
A. ROC B. REDFELLAS C. ODESSA D. Both a and b
225. Ndrangheta was based in what place in ITALY.
A. Puglia, Italy B. Calabria, Italy C. Tampa, Italy D. Naples, Italy
226. This Cartel is less violent than the others and more inclined towards bribery than violence.
A. Sinaloa B. Cali C. Medellin D. Columbian
227. Together with his new allies, Luciano and Costello, _______set up Genovese in a narcotics scheme that landed him in prison,
sentenced to fifteen years.
A. Charlie “Lucky” Luciano C. John “The Teflon Don” Gotti
B. Carlo Gambino D. Alphonso “The Scarface” Capone
228. Sonora cartel is also known as?
A. Caro-Quintero Organization C. Carillo Fuentes Organization
B. Arellano Felix Organization D. Orojuela Organization
229. Unlike Capone, who only associated with Italians and Sicilians, he was ethnically liberal and began to recruit Jews in his
organization.
A. Charlie “Lucky” Luciano C. John “The Teflon Don” Gotti
B. Carlo Gambino D. Alphonso “The Scarface” Capone
230. Never to "rat out" any mafia member.  Never to divulge any mafia secrets.  Even if they were threatened by torture or death.
What principle of Mafia best exemplifies the above mentioned statement?
A. Code of Silence B. Obedience to Boss C. Assistance D. Vengeance
231. Amezqua Organization operating in what place in Mexico?
A. Tijuana B. Guadalajara C. Colina D. amezqua
232. A close associate of the boss is___________or the counselor who enjoys a considerable amount of influence over the family.
This person often a lawyer, serves the boss as a trusted adviser?
A. Under Boss B. Boss C. Caporegime D. Consigliere
233. This attribute means that organized crime has set of rules and regulations that members are expected to follow:
A. constitute a unique subculture C. Monopolistic
B. governed by rules and regulations D. None of them
234. These are the conditions exist which lend cohesiveness to modern-day drug trafficking organizations, except:
A. Vertical integration and alternative sources of supply
B. Exploiting social and political conditions
C. Insulation of leaders
D. Corrupt government official and society indifference
235. It refers to unauthorized access into or interference in a computer system/server or information and communication system.
A. Cracking B. Hacking C. IP Proofing D. Virus
236. It refers to all activities done with criminal intent in cyberspace:
A. Hacking B. Cracking C. Cyber Crime D. Website defacement
237. It is a Russian Mafia illegal activity relative to Gasoline Fraud?
A. Daily Chain Smoker B. Petroleum Smuggling C. Daisy Chain Scheme D. Shell Caltex Fraud
238. What is English translation of Italian phrase Morte Alla Francia Italia Anela?
A. Death to France is Italy’s Battle Cry C. Death to France is the Italians’ Battle Cry
B. Death to French is Italy’s Battle Cry D. Death to France is the Sicillians Cry
239. Placement in money laundering process means:
A. Merging of money into legitimate economic and financial systems
B. Separating illicit proceeds from their source by creating complex layers of financial transactions designed to disguise the
source of money, subvert the audit trail and provide anonymity
C. Disposal of cash proceeds derived from the unlawful activity
D. Investing dirty money to legitimate business
240. The leader of the typical Chinese Mafia Group?
A. Dragon Head B. Incense Master C. Dai Lo D. Deputy Mountain Master
241. Who was responsible in sending Al Capone to prison for income tax evasion?
A. Eliot Nes B. Eliot Ness C. Elliot Ness D. Idiot Ness
242. Member of the organized criminal group difficult assignments involving the use of violence in a rational manner.
A. Money mover B. Enforcer C. Fixer D. Intelligence analyst
243. Donald Cressey’s Cosa Nostra model or organized crime group is characterized by, except one.
A. Italian-dominated crime families who control crime in distinct geographic areas
B. Extremely violent, dangerous and highly disciplined
C. Its primary unit is the family which embodies male members of Italian ancestry.
D. The family is protected by a code of conduct for members which prohibits them from revealing organizational secrets.
244. It was formed on 1987 by G-7 in Paris; it is an inter-governmental body whose primary purpose is to develop and promote
anti-money laundering policies.
A. FATF B. FATKA C. FATC D. FATP
245. It is the English meaning of Abu Sayyaf:
A. Back to Islam B. Islamic congregation C. Father of the swordsman D. The base
246. Terrorist is focus in spreading what?
A. Goosebumps B. Demands C. Fear D. Extortion
247. Covered Transaction is the total amount in excess of?
A. Four Million B. Five Hundred Thousand C. Five Million D. 1 million
248. Founders of organized crime in the US like Alphonse Capone, Charles “Lucky” Luciano, Meyer Lansky and Benjamin
“Bugsy” Siegel, are notably, members of a small street gang in New York called:
A. Five Points Gang B. Outlaws C. Tongs D. Hells Angels
249. Meritocracy in Mafia means?
A. Getting the desired position by means of Relationship C. Promotion by Connection
B. Promotion by Ethnicity D. Getting the position by skills and knowledge
250. This term means “Little War”?
A. Tyrannicide B. Mafia C. Guerilla D. Terrorism
251. Considered as the most violent of the Juarez Cartel.
A. Amado Carrilo Fuentes C. Hector Palma
B. Jose Esparragoza D. Juan Garcia Abrego
252. It literally means "Party of God“, It is a Shi'a Muslim militant group and political party based in Lebanon.
A. Yakuza B. Hezbollah C. 14K D. ISIS
253. Mujahedeen is also known as:
A. Freedom fighter B. Jihad C. Holy warriors D. Terrorist
254. It is the 3rd most prevalent Transnational Crime?
A. Drug Trafficking B. Human Trafficking C. Arms Smuggling D. Money Laundering
255. This is the famous case involving the virus created by a Filipino, a dropout from a popular computer educational institution in
the Philippines, that prompted the passage of E-commerce Act 0f 2000:
A. I love You Virus B. Love Bug C. A and B D. None of them
256. What is the meaning of Bootlegging?
A. Illegal Gambling C. Illegal drug trade
B. Illegal selling of alcohol D. Illegal smuggling
257. In investigating Cyber Crime cases it is one of the important determination for the purpose of issuing a search warrant.
A. IP Address B. Billing Address C. Installation Address D. Mailing Address
258. This country supported and financed the activities of Palestinian Islamic Jihad, Hezbollah and Hamas?
A. North Korea B. Israel C. USA D. Iran
259. Terrorist group lead by Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi, whose aim is to establish an Islamic state in the world.
A. Al Qaeda B. Islamic State C. Abu Sayyaf D. Jemaah Islamiyah
260. A massacre transpired in Corregidor which involved soldiers trained to invade Sabah and believed to be the catalyst for the
foundation of Moro National Liberation Front. What was the name of the operation of the massacred soldiers to invade Sabah?
A. Jabbidah B. Merdeka C. Neptune Spear D. Geronimo
261. Who assassinated Paul Castilleno and became the Boss of Gambino Crime Family?
A. Charlie “Lucky” Luciano C. John “The Teflon Don” Gotti
B. Carlo Gambino D. Alphonso “The Scarface” Capone
262. Gulf cartel was headed by __________ until his arrest on January 14, 1996 as one of the FBI’s 10 most wanted fugitives.
A. Amado Carrillo Fuentes C. Juan Garcia Abrego
B. Hector Palma D. Alejandro Ventura Cohen
263. Considered as the most powerful of the four major drug trafficking organization in Mexico?
A. Juarez Cartel B. Tijuana Cartel C. Gulf Cartel D. Sonora Cartel
264. On March 16, 1998, Colombian authorities arrested____ the fourt highest ranking of Cartel De la costa and his lieutenant
William Moises?
A. Pacho Herrera Buitrago C. Julio Cesar Antichario
B. Jose Rodriguez Londono D. Julio Pablo Urdinola
265. The man who brought Yakuza to its present prominence in Japan’s legal and illegal economies was ________?
A. Kasuo taoka B. Kazuo Taoka C. Kaizuo Taoka D. Kaizuo Toika
266. The American Branch of Mafia is called, what?
A. La Cosa Nosra (This things of ours) C. La Kosa Nostra (This things of our)
B. La Cosa Nostra (This Things of ours) D. La Cosa Nostra (This things of our)
267. Membership in organized crime group requires:
A Loyalty B. Lifetime commitment C. Obedience to the boss D. Specialized criminal skills
268. This refers to an attribute of organized crime that their memberships have limitations based on kinship, criminal record, or
similar considerations:
A. No political goals C. Constitues a unique subculture
B. Hierarchical D. Limited or exclusive membership
269. The most powerful hallucinogen.
A. Mescaline B. Marijuana C. LSD 25 D. Ketamine
270. The word Mafia means________ in Sicily?
A. Manly B. Manhood C. Omerta D. Silence
271. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active components known as Tethrahydro-
cannabinol is_________________.
A. Mescaline B. Marijuana C. LSD D. Ecstacy
272. The Golden Triangle is controlled by the Triad; the Colombian and Peruvian drug trafficking was controlled by:
A. The Mafia B. Medellin Cartel C. La Cosa Nostra D. Chinese Mafia
273. He is considered to be the one who first to master money laundering.
A. Al Capone In Chicago B. Meyer Lansky C. Salvatore “Lucky” Luciano D. Bugsy Seigel
274. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades to the authorities:
A. Ideal of manliness B. Omerta C. Vendetta D. Capo
275. What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden?
A. Operation Geronimo B. Operation Neptune Spear C. Operation Jabbidah D. Operation Merdeka
276. An operation launch by the Philippine National Police- Special Action Force Commandos that led to the killing of the
international terrorist Zulkifli bin Hir at the Mamasapano, Maguindanao.
A. Oplan Wolverine B. Oplan Neptune Spear C. Oplan Terminator D. Oplan Exodus
277. The Yakuza is organized into families which adopts a relationship known as:
A. Oyabun-Kobun B. Kabuki-mono C. Yubitsume D. Bakuto
278. ______________ was the leading drug figure of the Medellin Cartel until his death during the rooftop shootout with
Columbian National Police?
A. Pablo Escobar Gaviria C. Juan Davide Ochoa Vasquez
B. Jorge Luis Ochoa D. Jose Gonzalo Rodriguez Gacha
279. At this stage, criminal groups are also legal/juridical persons. The degree of criminalization is high and might include potent
criminal enterprises that are camouflaged by legal businesses.
A. Predatory stage B. Symbiotic stage C. Parasitical stage D. Predicate stage
280. The Ndrangheta member used_______ as a front for heroin trafficking.
A. Beauty Parlor B. Barber Shop C. Restaurant D. Pizza Shop
281. Stage of Money Laundering wherein the funds (dirty money) are transferred through various accounts to disguise its origin?
A. Placement B. Integration C. Layering D. Integrated
282. If a person promised you that your money or investment will be doubled in one (1) week, this illegal scheme is similar to?
A. Boiler Rooms B. Account Take over C. Bankruptcy Fraud D. Ponzi Scheme
283. Known as “Big Six” transnational organized crime group.
A. Sicilian and American Mafia Families; Russian Mafia; Yakuza; Triads; Colombian Cartels; and Mexican Federation.
B. Nigeria; Panama; Jamaica; Puerto Rico, Dominican Republic, Colombia
C. Red Army; Shining Path; Revolutionary Armed Forces of Colombia; People’s Irish Republican Army; Al Qaeda; and ISIS
D. Gambino, Colombo, Profaci, Lucchese, Bonnano, Genovese Crime Families
284. According to this model, organized crime is nothing more than an extension of normal business operations into the illegal
market?
A. Patron/Client Model C. Smith’s Enterprise Model
B. Bureaucratic/Corporate Model D. Lanni’s Kinship Model
285. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten:
A. Terrorisme B. Terrere C. Hashashin D. Terrorism
286. He is a sort of midlevel manager who serves as a buffer between the lowest-level members and the upper-level members of
the crime family.
A. The Consigliere B. The Underboss C. The Capos D. Soldiers
287. The leader of Al Qaeda is called:
A. The Base B. Jihad C. The Emir D. Bearer of the Sword
288. The Mafia is believed to be originated from:
A. Morte Alla Francia, Italia Anela
B. the practice of the criminals to seal a black handprint at the scene of the crime
C. Italian’s beauty, perfection, grace, and excellence
D. the Sicilian struggle in the 13th Century against French Rule
289. Considered as the most violent of the Mexican cartels?
A. Tijuana Cartel B. Gulf Cartel C. Sonora Cartel D. Juarez Cartel
290. Money laundering’s main objective is:
A. to conceal the beneficial ownership or audit trail of illegally obtained money or valuable so that it appears to have originated
from a legitimate source.
B. to keep the money hidden from the authorities
C. to gain interest from the money
D. to buy expensive jewelry
291. This is a form of bribery, which is done by citizens performing illegal activities and operations.
A. Lagay B. Tong C. Kikil D. Suhol
292. Triads are also known in North America as_________?
A. Tongs B. Dai Lo C. Triangle D. red poles
293. A crime committed in one State but a substantial part of its preparation, planning, direction or control takes place in another
State.
A. Organized Crime C. Transnational Crime
B. Organized Crime Group D. Transnational Organized Crime
294. An Asian organized crime that represents mystical symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle representing the heaven,
earth and man:
A. Yakuza B. Triad C. Tongs D. Mafia
295. Any attacks on family members must be avenged. "An attack on one is an attack on all." What principle of Mafia best
exemplifies the above mentioned statement?
A. Avoid contact with authorities C. Vengeance
B. Obedience to Boss D. Assistance
296. In the investigation of cybercrime, “VES” approach is used. VES literally means, except one.
A. Victim B. Violation C. Evidence D. Suspect
297. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with the capacity to indiscriminately kill large numbers of people.
A. Nuclear B. Weapon of mass destruction C. Anthrax D. Chemical weapons
298. It is the unauthorized modification of a website
A. Hacking B. Phishing C. Website Defacement D. Any of them
299. The giving of alms for the poor and needy as prescribed by the Quran which is the primary means within the Muslim world
for terror organizations to “legitimately” receive money.
A. Zakat B. Islamic Banking C. Hawala D. Money Laundering

IV. TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION

300. The minimum age for professional driver’s license applicant is______________.
A. 21 B. 18 C. 17 D. 16
301. The international traffic and road signs and signals were approved during the United Nations Convention on Road Signs and
Signals on what year?
A. 1968 B. 1950 C. 1979 D. 1981
302. Traffic management is sole responsibility of police. The statement is….
A. absolutely true C. absolutely false
B. true in highly urbanized places like cities D. partly true
303. The occurrence in a sequence of events which usually produces unintended injury, property damage or even death is called
A. accident B. Damage C. key event D. fatal
304. It is the detailed traffic accident data collection and organization for study and interpretation.
A. sketching B. technical preparation report C. photography D. accident investigation report
305. Which of the following evidence is important to gather from fatal motor crash?
A. Spare tire C. Footwear of driver and skid mark of vehicle
B. Unusual odor D. All of these
306. Within the human element which is at fault in a large majority of the vehicular accidents, the most important defect is
attributed to what?
A. Attitudinal B. Perceptual C. Intellectual D. Decision
307. How should a driver approach an intersection?
A. Be at the right of way B. Be at the full stop C. Give a signal D. Overtake other vehicles
308. It is the theory that man exhibit constant variation of energy and mood state.
A. mode B. biorhythm C. behavior D. conduct
309. The narrow portion of the roadway due to traffic congestions or where “build up” usually occurs is called:
A. Gridlock B. Traffic jam C. Congestion D. Bottleneck
310. The study of biorhythm is an important aspect of traffic safety because a person can avoid accident:
A. By hinting on how he will tend to feel in a certain day
B. By knowing his intellectual capacity on certain day
C. By knowing his physical capacity on certain day
D. By ascertaining his physical, emotional and intellectual condition in a certain day
311. It is the first law of motion as espoused by an undisputed man of science.
A. kinetic energy B. inertia C. centrifugal force D. gravity
312. In hit and run accident investigation, what should be the initial step or phase in the investigative process?
 A. gather the evidences C. establish the identity of the persons involved
B. cordon the area D. check the victims for the injuries
313. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal B. Chronic C. Non fatal D. Injurious
314. Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of a hit-and-run may be particularly useful in the investigative process because
the year and make of the car involved may be determinable. The paint chips evidence collected should be ideally placed on?
A. Clear Plastic Envelope B. Small Plastic Bag C. Clear Plastic Container D. Brown Bag
315. When the vehicles in the collision are damaged, the photograph should emphasize the
A. the direction of the motor vehicles C. the general view of the road or intersection
B. close-up view of the damage D. none of the above
316. Person who is responsible for the holding of number of passenger, freights or cargo inside his public utility motor vehicle:
A. Driver B. Operator C. Dispatcher D. Conductor
317. It is a traffic observations or stationary observation in which the observer observer tries to attract attention by keeping in full
view of traffic.
A. conspicuous B. visible C. concealed D. stationary
318. Painted on the pavement and placed at intersections and other places to provide pedestrians with safety zone when crossing:
A. Center B. Lane C. Cross walk D. Stop lines
319. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic accidents than any other does in the area. The police unit assigned
the area should…
A. park near the intersection, in plain view and wait for violators
B. cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention the intersection
C. park near the intersection, more or less, hidden from view
D. par your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution to motorists
320. It refers to the separation of traffic units in a vehicular accident.
A. final position B. hazards C. disengagement D. stopping
321. You are a police officer who wants to determine whether a driver is authorized to drive. What is the evidence that you will ask
him to show to prove that he is allowed by the Land Transportation Office (LTO) to operate a vehicle on public highways?
A. Driver’s ID B. Driver’s license C. Franchise D. Operator’s license
322. The Land Transportation Office (LTO) is under the___________, and part of traffic_____________:
A. DILG-engineering B. DOTr-enforcement C. DPWH-engineering D. DEPED-traffic education
323. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and Operation except one:
A. Engineering B. Education C. Enforcement D. Evaluation
324. What method is used to determine whether a driver is under the influence of alcoholic beverages or not?
A. field sobriety test B. balance C. counting D. walking thru straight line
325. As far as registration of motor vehicle is concerned, vehicles are classified into, EXCEPT:
A. private B. government C. for hire D. public
326. In identification of person through foot or hand impressions, the impressions can be preserved by making a cast of it with the
use of what material?
A. Cement B. Sands C. Plaster of Paris D. Moulage
327. Professional drivers are those who operates cars:
A. With excellent maneuvering and controlling skills
B. With professional driver’s license
C. With excellent maneuvering and controlling skills whether his/her license is non-professional or professional
D. For purposes of earning a living
328. A marking on a roadway left by a rotating tire and wheel of a speeding vehicle on a curve when the speed of the vehicle is
above the critical speed of the curve and the centrifugal force entirely or partially overcomes the friction between the mass of the
vehicle and its tires and the surface of the roadway.
A. Skid Mark C. Centrifugal Scuff Mark
B. Gap Skid D. Impending Skid Mark
329. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
A. Inertia B. Friction C. Energy D. Gravity
330. Danger warning signs has?
A. Rectangular shape white-colored on blue background
B. Have an equilateral triangular shape with one side horizontal and having red borders.
C. Usually round in shape with the exception of “Stop Signs” and “Yield Signs”.
D. Round black with yellow border
331. A driver who was in traffic accident is justified to leave from the accident area, if any of the circumstances below are
present, except:
A. He is in imminent danger of being harmed by other persons by reason of an accident
B. He surrenders to proper authority
C. He summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to aid the victim
D. He hides from the police for justifiable cause
332. Frontal collision of the vehicles.
A. Full impact collisionB. Head on collision C. Frontal collision D. Collision
333. In a traffic accident probe, your primary concern is to terminate it as soon as possible in order not to create?
A. Another prober B. Heavy traffic C. Another accident D. Anger from the public
334. It is an accident, which is always accompanied by an unidentified road user who usually flees immediately after the said
collision.
A. Hit and Run cases C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident D. non motor vehicle none traffic accident
335. The following are justified instances where a driver shall leave the scene of accident without aiding the victim, EXCEPT:
A. if he is in imminent danger B. if he reports the accident
C. if he summons a physician D. if he wants to escape from his liability
336. While approaching an intersection , the green traffic light is on, however, a police officer suddenly proceed to the center and
signals a motorist to stop. What should the motorist do?
A. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution
B. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop
C. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light and cross the intersection
D. Ignore the police officer and stop only when second signal is made
337. The first accident touching between traffic units involving in the collision.
A. start of evasive action B. perception of hazards C. initial contact D. injury
338. What is that point or place where two or more, either single or double or multi-lanes certainly meets at a point?
A. parallel B. corner C. intersection D. crossfire
339. Safety campaign is an important aspect of traffic safety education because:
A. It is designed to make road users behave more safely C. It focuses on the strict compliance to traffic signs
B. It informs the public of any updates in traffic D. It can prevent accident
340. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left” B. “keep to the right” C. none of these D. “watch out”
341. International Driver’s License is issued by:
A. Land Transportations Office C. Philippines Motors Association
B. Armed Forces of the Philippines D. LTFRB
342. In 3 and 4 lane expressways, what lane is for the fast travelling vehicles?
A. Center B. left C. right D. shoulder
343. Traffic safety education for children needs to be systematic to:
A. Instill safety consciousness among the children
B. Cope up with the demands of time
C. Lessen the fatalities among children while they are young
D. Learn easier than adults
344. Refers to any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way involving a motor vehicle in motion that results in death,
injury or property damage.
A. Motor Vehicle Accident C. Motor vehicle Non-Traffic Accident
B. Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident D. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
345. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident D. motor vehicle traffic accident
346. A main road as conduit system with a right of way of 20 meters to 120 meters:
A. National road B. city road C. Provincial road D. municipal road
347. The actual legal owner of a motor vehicle, in whose name such vehicle is duly registered with the Land Transportation Office
is known as?
A. Operator B. Operator-owner C. Proprieter D. Owner
348. These are the lines usually white and yellow or a combination of yellow and white officially set on the roadway as separation
for motor vehicles travelling in the opposite direction or the same direction in case of two-lane one-way street, two-lane two-way
street or four-lane two-way street.
A. Pavement Marking C. Object Marking
B. Curb Markings for Restrictions D. Reflectorized Markings
349. It is the place and time at which the normal person could perceive the unusual of condition or movement.
A. point of no escape C. perception of hazards
B. point of possible perception D. all of the forgoing
350. Not one considered as emergency vehicle:
A. Police car on call B. ambulance on call C. Fire truck on call D. Physician’s car
351. Human errors as one of the cause of traffic congestion is best characterized by, except:
A. Poor legislative activities C. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
B. Slow drivers or bad driving habit D. Presence of traffic officers
352. A traffic control signal by which traffic is alternately commanded to stop and permitted to proceed in accordance with
predetermined time schedule.
A. The Fixed-time System C. Computerized Control of Signal Networks
B. Progressive System D. Traffic Light
353. Shall mean every and any driver hired or paid for driving or operating a motor vehicle whether for private use or for hire to
the public.
A. rig driver B. owner C. operator D. professional driver
354. A motor vehicular accident resulting to the death of a puppy.
A. Fatal accident B. Non-fatal accident C. Property damage D. Vehicular accident
355. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”
A. RA 7160 B. RA 8551 C. RA 6425 D. RA 4136
356. It is the Anti-Hijacking Law:
A. RA 6955 B. RA 6235 C. RA 8294 D. RA 4200
357. Law concerning authority of the MMDA to manage traffic in metropolitan Manila area:
A. RA 4136 B. RA 7924 C. RA 6539 D. RA 8551
358. Also known as “Clean Air Act”.
A. RA 7924 B. RA 8750 C. RA 8749 D. RA 9165
359. Driving without due regard for the consequences likely to occur, ignoring the rights and safety of others.
A. Reckless driving B. Hit and run C. Over speeding D. Side sweeping
360. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?
A. road condition B. whether condition C. pedestrian D. reckless driving
361. It is means, failure to take proper care.
A. errors of commission B. negligence C. errors of omission D. reckless imprudence
362. The chronological arrangement of the color of the traffic lights from the top.
A. Yellow, red, green B. Green, red, yellow C. Red, yellow, green D. Green, yellow, red
363. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement is best measured by:
A. reduction of traffic accidents and delays C. decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement action
B. increase in traffic law enforcement actions D. smooth flow of traffic
364. What are to be used when directing traffic at night?
A. flash lights C. reflectorized gloves only
B. reflectorized gloves and vest D. reflectorized vest and flashlight
365. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in preference to another vehicle or pedestrian.
A. Immunity B. Right of way C. Leniency D. Giving way
366. In determining criminal and civil liability in an alleged traffic accident, the investigator will observed…
A. The road condition C. The extent of the damage
B. The condition of the driver D. Skid/scuff marks
367. Key to determining which traffic unit first tried to prevent the motor vehicle accident, this marking is made while the wheel is
still turning.
A. pavement markings B. skid marks C. scuff marks D. all of the above
368. RA 8750 is otherwise known as.
A. clean air act B. seatbelt law C. LTO code D. anti carnapping act
369. The portion on the traffic way which is either of the edges of the road or highway is called?
A. Shoulder B. Sidewalk C. Curbstone D. None of these
370. When approaching in an intersection where the flashing yellow is on, the motorist should:
A. Stop and proceed with caution
B. Slow down and proceed with caution
C. Reduce speed
D. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite direction
371. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return B. point of no escape C. start of evasive action D. final position
372. The major elements in traffic enforcement are, EXCEPT.
A. the enforcement system B. the road user system C. the traffic system D. the unit system
373. What is the real objective of traffic enforcement?
A. To apprehend traffic law violators
B. To change the wrong driving habits and attitude of violators
C. To improve safety traffic conditions
D. To prevent traffic accidents
374. Foam is one of the ingredients in extinguishing fire, which has a composition of?
A. 96% water and 4% foam C. 60% water and 40% foam
B. 96% foam and 4% water D. 50% water and 50% foam
375. What is the primary aim of driver instruction programs?
A. To teach the rudiments of driving
B. To instill awareness of one’s legal and moral responsibilities in traffic
C. To teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for a driving license
D. To help the learners know the basic of traffic rules and regulations
376. What is that movement of persons, goods, and vehicles either powered by animal or is an animal-drawn vehicles on by
combustion system from one place to another?
A. Engineering B. Traffic C. Traffic management D .Construction
377. In what crime would the matter of preserving the crime scene least dealt with?
A. Robbery B. Arson C. Traffic Accident D. Homicide
378. Systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and physical features associated with motor collision.
A. traffic accident investigation C. traffic engineering
B. hit and run investigation D. traffic collision
379. Is an enforcement action, which consists of taking a person into custody for the purpose of holding or detaining him to
answer a charge of law violation before court?
A. traffic arrest B. traffic refrain C. traffic abstain D. traffic taking
380. It is an enforcement action, wherein the violator is commanded to appear in court but without detaining him.
A. traffic arrest B. traffic citation C. traffic warning D. dogwatch
381. It is the pillar of traffic management that pertains to the study of how people choose to use scarce or limited productive
resources to produce commodities and distribute them for their consumption:
A. Traffic engineering B. traffic economics C. Traffic education D. traffic environment
382. It is the science of measuring traffic and travel; the study of the basic laws relative to the traffic law and generation; the
application of this knowledge to the professional practice of planning, deciding, and operating traffic system to achieve safe and
efficient transportation of persons and goods.
A. Traffic Education B. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Ecology D. Traffic Economy
383. Where do we report collision between train and bus?
A. General investigation B. Traffic investigation C. Homicide division D. MMDA
384. A power operated traffic control/device by which traffic is warned or directed to take some specific action is called ______:
A. object markings B. reflectorized markings C. club markings D. traffic light signal
385. When a driver unloads passengers on the middle of the road, he committed:
A. Illegal unloading B. Traffic obstruction C. Illegal loading D. illegal stopping
386. What are the devices mounted on a portable support where a message to the road users is conveyed by means of words or
symbols
A. traffic light B. traffic signs C. traffic island D. pavement marking
387. The entire width between boundary lines of every way or place of which any part is open to the use of the public for
purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of right or custom.
 A. Traffic way B. Traffic units C. Road way D. Subway
388. When there are two motor vehicles approaching the intersection almost at the same time, one is travelling along the national
road and the other is in the secondary road. Who has the right of way?
A. Vehicle on the right C. Vehicle on the left
B. vehicle on the national road D. vehicle on the secondary road
389. This traffic warning is usually used when you have observed a minor violation but are more importantly occupied at a
moment.
A. visual warning B. verbal warning C. written warning D. oral warning
390. It warn road users of the danger that lies ahead of the road and its nature.
A. informative signs B. regulatory signs C. warning signs D. all of these
391. Foremost among the preliminary action when the police officer receives a call regarding the occurrence of an accident.
A. numbered of injured C. name of the victim
B. seriousness of the injury D. when and where the accident occurred
392. Motorcycle Crime Prevention Act was passed on?
A. March 8, 2019 B. July 17, 2016 C. March 23, 2010 D. July 21, 2016
393. When there is a collision between a train and a bus, which unit of the police takes charge?
A. Homicide Division C. General Investigation Unit
B. Traffic Investigation Unit D. Highway Patrol Group
394. As a traffic investigator, what is the immediate action to be undertaken at the scene?
A. All of these B. Check for casualties C. Interview witness D. Check for hazards
395. When the vehicles in the collision are damaged, the photograph should emphasize the?
A. the direction of the motor vehicles C. The general view of the road or intersection
B. Close-up view of the damage D. None of the above
396. When sketching traffic accident, point of reference on the road should be anything which are fixed or permanent in nature,
while for the motor vehicles involved, the point of reference should be?
A. Corner of the edges of the vehicle C. Corner of the rear and front bump
B. Edge of the tire D. Center axle
397. The marks left on the road surface left by metal parts of the vehicle and may serve as a clue in investigation are referred to
as?
A. Scuff marks B. Skid marks C. Scratches and gouges D. Flat tire skid marks
398. The measurement of the maximum frictional resistance of pavements is referred to as?
A. Drag factor B. Frictional measurement C. Coefficient of friction D. A and/or C
399. The distance traveled before applying the brakes is known as?
A. Braking distance B. Reaction time C. Reaction distance D. Breaking reaction
400. When you combine verbal warning and citations in the traffic enforcement you are performing or issuing:
A. Traffic rules implementation C. Citation warnings
B. Traffic consultation D. Written warnings

V. FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

401. In order for arson to be deemed committed by a syndicate, how many person must be involved?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
402. How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?
A. 20 B. 10 C. 30 D. 15
403. To establish the prima facie evidence of arson, the total insurance carried on the building and/or goals is more than ________
of the value of such building and/or goods at the time of the fire.
A. 60% B. 80% C. 50% D. 90%
404. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most likely reason for
taking this position?
A. The stream is projected farther
B. The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable
C. A backward force is developed which must be counter acted
D. The firemen can see better where the stream strikes
405. An act of removing fire hazards from the building.
A. Lien B. Inspection C. Abatement D. Renovation
406. It is a term used as anything used to enhance the quality of fire.
A. Accelerants B. Arson C. Trailers D. Plants
407. Blue flames usually indicates the presence of in a fire.
A. Gasoline B. Kerosene C. Alcohol D. Petroleum
408. In a fire, the presence of reddish brown smoke indicates 
 A. Nitrocellulose B. Sulfuric acid C. Nitric acid D. All of these                
409. This shows rapid spread of fire and presence of incendiary materials, characterized by scaling hence the burning is crime of
arson.
A. Alligatoring B. Charring C. Crazing D. V Pattern
410. The burnt pattern in woods indicating the spontaneous and intensive burning has occurred.
A. Alligatoring B. Collapse C. Discoloration D. Charring
411. Extinguishment by fuel removal involves the following, except -
A. Stopping the flow of liquid fuel
B. Preventing the production of flammable gas
C. Removing the solid fuel at the fire path
D. Allowing the fire to burn until the oxygen is consumed
412. It is generally used by the arsonist to keep firemen out of a building, or in an attempt to “conceal “the odor of the gasoline.
A. Ammonia B. Butanol C. Gasoline D. Vinegar
413. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation involving high-rise building?
 A. attic B. extension C. aerial D. hook
414. Who was the French Chemist who proved in 1777 that burning is the result of rapid combination of oxygen with other
substances?
A. Antoine Lavoisier B. John Walker C. Thomas Alva Edison D. Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit
415. Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant materials?
A. Asphalt B. Cotton C. Diamond D. Asbestos
416. Which is not true about the presence of Oxygen?
A. At 12% and above, it is insufficient to produce fire C. At 16-21%, it can support fire point
B. At 14-15%, it can support flash point D. Oxygen is normal at 21%
417. An integrated system of underground or overhead piping or both connected to a source of extinguishing agent or medium and
designed in accordance with fire protection engineering standards which, when actuated by its automatic detecting device,
suppresses fires within the area protected.
A. Automatic Fire Suppression System C. Automatic Fire Prevention System
B. Sprinkler System D. Automatic Fire Detection System
418. What is the lowest temperature at which flammable substance will burn once ignited?
A. Auto Ignition Point B. Flash Point C. Fire Point D. Smoldering Phase
419. These are attached and distributed in the ceiling of rooms, activated by the increase of temperature and water is delivered
right where it is needed.
A. Fire pump B. Fire hydrant C. Automatic sprinklers D. Fire extinguisher
420. It is an explosive event at a fire resulting from rapid reintroduction of oxygen to combustion in an oxygen-starved
environment, for example, the breaking of a window or opening of a door to an enclosed space.
A. Flash over B. Backdraft C. Sudden Explosion D. Explosion
421. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:
A. heel B. butt C. bed ladder D. fly ladder
422. It indicates the presence of petroleum based product.
A. Black Smoke B. White Smoke C. Yellow SmokeD. Grayish Smoke
423. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent B. blasting cap C. gun powder D. explosive primer
424. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.
A. Burning Point B. Melting Point C. Freezing Point D. Boiling Point
425. Destructive Arson includes the following except?
A. Museum B. Hospital C. Train D. Bus
426. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A.    Carbon oxide B.    Carbon monoxide C.    Carbon paper D.    Carbon dioxide 
427. In case of feathers, hairs or some kind of woods are burned it discharges what kind of odor?
A. Ammonium B. Celluloid C. Sulfurous D. Aromatic
428. It is a series of events that occur in sequence with the results of each individual reaction being added to the rest.
A. Oxidation B. Combustion C. Chemical Reaction D. Chain Reaction
429. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring B. Alligatoring C. V pattern D. Pour pattern
430. For a fire to start a source of ignition initially acts with a fuel in the form of heat energy derived from other forms of energy
the most common of which is?
A. Chemical Energy B. Mechanical Energy C. Electrical Energy D. Either of the above
431. Most arson cases are proved by__________________ evidence rather than that direct evidence.
A. Circumstantial B. Testimonial C. Documentary D. Physical
432. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of
this fire is by quenching and cooling. 
A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class D
433. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D
434. If a burning transformer is electrically de-energized the fire may either be?
A. Class A or B fire B. Class B or C fire C. Class C or A fire D. Class D or C fire
435. Commonly referred to as an electrical fire.
A. Class A Fire B. Class B Fire C. Class C Fire D. Class D Fire
436. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc…
A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class D
437. To cut a hole in the concrete floor for a cellar type the cutting operation should start ___?
A. In the center of the concrete flooring between the floor beams C. Close to the floor beams
B. At the thickest point of the concrete flooring D. None of these
438. Which one of the following items enumerated below is a good indicator of the intensity of the fire and an important factor in
determining incendiarism?
A. Size of Fire B. Direction of Travel C. Smoke Marks D. Color of Flame
439. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid B. flammable liquid C. inflammable liquid D. corrosive liquid
440. Also known as loose waste material, are those generated by an establishment or process and, being salvageable, are retained
for scrap or reprocessing on the premises where generated.
A. Flammable Scrap B. Combustible Material C. Combustible Waste D. Flammable Material
441. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature inside its container?
A. Cryogenic Gas B. Compressed Gas C. Liquefied Gas D. Gas
442. This is used when there is a belief that evidence which had been centrally located has been moved or hidden some distance
from the scene of the fire.
A. Concentric Circle Search C. Point-to-Point Search
B. Grid Search D. Sector Search
443. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
A. Ignition B. Convection C. Radiation D. Conduction
444. The purpose of closing the doors and windows during fire is to __.
A.  Stop the fire B.  Confine the fire C.  Slow the spread of fire D.  Spread the accelerants
445. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible B. Corrosive C. Flammable D. Inflammable
446. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A.    Crazing B.    Spalling C.    Light bulbs D.    Charring 
447. A vertical panel of non-combustible or fire resistive materials attached to and extending below the bottom chord of the roof
trusses, to divide the underside of the roof into separate compartments so that heat and smoke will be directed upwards to a roof
vent.
A. Vertical Shaft B. Damper C. Curtain Board D. Ventilation
448. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system which automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke
or fire?
A. Fire Exit B. Damper C. Fire Alarm D. Standpipe
449. When fire occurs in a confined area the oxygen content of air in that area is said to be?
A. Remain Constant B. Increases C. Decreases D. Multiplies
450. The lowest point of burning should be given first consideration when locating the point of origin of the fire. What it will
indicate?
A. Point of Origin B. Deeper Char C. Burning D. Charring Pattern
451. This helps the fire prober in estimating the duration of fire from the time the actual burning took place and until the fire out.
A. Depth of Char B. Areas of Demarcation C. Inverted Cone Pattern D. Spalling
452. If combustion waves propagate at supersonic speed, a shock front develops ahead of it to produce:
A. Explosion B. Conflagration C. Detonation D. Big fire
453. In dental examination conducted to burned body, location of teeth, position and ______ are the main consideration.
A. Site B. Spot C. Direction D. Place
D.  The fire started in more than one part of the building or establishment.
454. A continuous passageway for the transmission of air.
A. Ventilation B. Cooling System C. Damper D. Duct System
455. Any finely divided solid, four millimeters (4 mm) or less in diameter which, if mixed with air in the proper proportion,
becomes explosive and may be ignited by a flame or spark or other source of ignition. 
A. Blasting Agent B. Corrosive C. Dust D. Match
456. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. Electric Arc B. Damper C. Duct System D. Ember
457. A hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially burned, and is still oxidizing without the manifestation of
flames.
A. Ember B. Electric Arc C. Forging D. Soot
458. Are those that releases or give off energy (heat) thus, they produce substances with less energy than the reactants.
A. Exothermic Reaction B. Chemical Reaction C. Endothermic Reaction D. Energy Reaction
459. Fire which there are human casualties.
A. Deadly fire B. Spot fire C. Fatal fire D. Arson
460. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light of combustion.
A. Smoldering B. Fire C. Oxidation D. Temperature
461. The means employed to keep the fire to a minimum or manageable level.
A. Fire control B. Fire suppression C. Fire prevention D. Fire inspection
462. In relation to Fire Safety inside a theatre, there are only two (02) important marking or signage, the Fire Extinguisher and?
A. No Smoking B. Cellphone’s off C. Fire Exit D. Keep Quiet
463. A practice drill for the orderly and safe evacuation of occupants in the buildings.
A. Fire Safety Drills C. Fire Evacuation Drills
B. Fire Orderly Drills D. Fire Exit Drills
464. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is connected so that water with pressure
will be available to extinguish fire.
A. Fire Hose Box B. Fire Hose C. Hose Reel D. Fire Hydrant
465. It is a product of combustion that remain when other products and combustion cool to normal temperature.
A. Poisonous Gases B. Fire Gases C. Flame D. Heat
466. It is performed to assess the safety of an installation from destructive fires.
A. Fire control B. Fire prevention C. Fire safety D. Fire inspection
467. The portion of a roadway or public way that should be kept open and unobstructed at all times for the expedient conduct of
fire fighting operations.
A. Road Lane B. Fire Lane C. Free Way D. Public Way
468. The “eyes and ears” of the investigators in fire investigation are the….
A. Bystanders B. Arsonists C. Victims D. Firemen
469. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict how
long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A.    Fire resistance B.    Fire duration C.    Fire proof D.    Fire strength   
470. Refers to the design and installation of walls, barriers, doors, windows, vents, means of egress and other elements integral to
and incorporated into a building or structure in order to minimize danger to life from fire, smoke, fumes or panic before the
building is evacuated.
A. Fire Safety Construction C. Fire Safety Measures
B. Fire Hazard Evaluation D. Fire Structures Evaluation
471. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance of not less than four hours with sufficient structural
stability to remain standing even if construction on either side collapses under fire condition.
A. Firewood B. Fire Wall C. Post Wall D. Fire Trap
472. Heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the splitting of atoms is known as?
A. Fusion B. Fission C. Radiation D. Ignition
473. Any liquid fuel with flash point below 37.8 C (100F) is a?
A. Combustible Liquid B. Flammable Liquid C. Volatile Liquid D. Cryogenic
474. This is defined as a transition which occurs in the development of fire when, for example, most of all the combustible
surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Ignition B. Starter C. Flash-over D. Intensity
475. Fire stage that has the highest rate of intensity.
A. Incipient B. Smoldering C. Free burning D. Initial
476. The following are fireproof materials, EXCEPT?
A. Gold B. Diamond C. Asbestos D. Mothballs
477. Identification of potential hazards which includes risk evaluation that takes into account the likelihood of the hazard resulting
in a fire or explosion.
A. Hazard evaluation B. Risk assessment C. Fire Evaluation D. Fire Test
478. It is the minimum temperature that the substance must be heated in order to sustain combustion without the addition of heat
from outside sources.
A. Kindling temperature C. Boiling Temperature
B. Melting temperature D. Minimum Temperature
479. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam forming ascent or
descent?
A. Rope B. Ladder C. Aerial Ladder D. Attic Ladder
480. The burning of low-grade heavy oils or resinous or tarry materials with sufficient air forms as a soot.
A. Carbon Black B. Soot C. Lampblack D. Tarry Black
481. It refers to the size of fire which is determined by the size of flame and the area of fuel that is burning.
A. Temperature B. Intensity C. Heat D. Magnitude
482. Refers to seeing, feeling or hearing and understanding an unusual or unexpected condition indicative of a sign the accident
might takes place.
A. perception of hazards B. starts of evasive action C. initial contact D. maximum engagement
483. A continuous and unobstructed route of exit from one point in a building, structure or facility to a public way.
A. Exit Way B. Fire Exit C. Passage Exit D. Means of Egress
484. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.
A. burning point B. melting point C. freezing point D. boiling point
485. Using electrical appliances, which draws electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the electrical circuit, is known as
__.
A. Overusing B. Overloading C. Over Plugging D. Over Capacity
486. In Arson Investigation, what is the focal point of the Fire prober upon entering the Fire Scene?
A. Save lives and Properties C. Observe color of Smoke and Flame
B. Interview Witnesses D. Point of origin
487. The purpose of opening the doors and windows of adjacent rooms in a burning building is to __.
A. extinguish the fire C. supply the oxygen in the area
B. prevent back draft D. serve as entrance of firemen
488. It refers to the chemical process whereby fire consumes the most solid part of the fuel. It is the thermal decomposition of a
solid fuel through the action of heat.
A. Pyrolysis B. Burning C. Chemical Reaction D. Vaporization
489. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is called?
A. Conduction B. Radiation C. Combustion D. Convection
490. A method of safe breaking by battering of the top, bottom or sides of a safe with a chisel or other metal cutter.
A. Burning B. Bursting C. Ripping D. Carrying away
491. It is the visible product of incomplete combustion, usually a mixture of oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide,
finely divided particles of soot and carbon and miscellaneous assortment of product released from the burning material.
A. Vapor B. Steam C. Smoke D. Gas
492. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method is?
A. Smothering B. Cooling C. Removal D. Inhibiting Chemical Reaction
493. System of interconnected pipe that supplies water for fire suppression system in a particular installation.
A. Wet pipe B. Stand pipe C. Dry pipe D. Sprinkler
494. It means all corrective measures undertaken to abate hazards which shall include, but not limited to, remodeling, repairing,
strengthening, reconstructing, removal and demolition, either partial or total, of the building or structure.
A. Summary Proceeding C. Summary Extinguishment
B. Summary Dismissal D. Summary Abatement
495. The measure of thermal degree of the agitation of molecules of a given substance; the measure of the molecular activity
within a substance.
A. Temperature B. Vapor Density C. Vapor Pressure D. Boiling Point
496. If the investigator did not found any trace of incendiarism, which of the following will be the assumption?
A. The fire was intentional C. The fire was providential
B. The fire was accidental D. The fire was not accidental
497. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy, however examination of lungs and blood showed no abnormal quantity of
carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your interpretation under such circumstances?
A. The person died because of the burnings C. The person was killed before it was burned
B. The person died of Asphyxia D. The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
498. It is a path or flammable liquids or other substances leading from the source of ignition to one or more rooms or areas.
A. Parallel B. Track C. Series D. Trailer
499. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the base to the top of the building?
A. vertical shaft B. sprinkler system C. standpipe D. flash point
500. _______ Smoke indicates that humid materials are burning, such as hay, vegetable fibers, etc..
A. Biting smoke B. White smoke C. Black smoke D. Yellow Smoke
501. The majority of all persons (80-90%) including habitual drinkers will be intoxicated to the extent of staggering when the
blood alcohol level is approximately?
A. 0.2% B. 0.15% C. 0.10% D. 0.05%
502. Par. 2, Section 52, R.A. 180 of the Revised Election Code as amended, provides that “it is unlawful to sell, furnished, offer or
take intoxicating liquors on any registration days and on how many days immediately prior to the day of the voting and during the
voting and canvass?”
A. 4 days B. 3 days C. 2 days D. 1 day
503. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A. 5 years B. 6 years C. 4 years D. co-terminus
504. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of what period shall
have to undergo a mandatory drug test?
A. 6 months and 1 day B. 6 years and 1 day C. 12 years and 1 day D. 20 years and 1 day
505. Drug test certificates issued by accredited drug testing centers shall be valid for how many months from the date of issue
which may be used for other purposes?
A. 3 Months B. 6 Months C. 9 Months D. 12 Months
506. Samples of the seized dangerous drugs shall be destroyed_________ after the promulgation of judgment.
A. 2 days B. 1 day C. 24 hours D. 48 hours
507. Subject to Section 15, of RA No. 9165, any person apprehended or arrested for violating the provisions of this Act shall be
subjected to screening laboratory examination or test within how many hours, if the apprehending or arresting officer has
reasonable ground to believe that the person apprehended or arrested, on account on physical signs or symptoms or other visible or
outward manifestation, is under the influence of dangerous drugs?
A. 3 hours B. 6 Hours C. 12 hours D. 24 hours

508. Maximum period of alcohol absorption after ingestion?

A. 20-40 Minutes B. 30-60 Minutes C. 10-30 Minutes D. 20-30 Minutes
509. How many grams of shabu does a person possess to render him ineligible to post bail?
A. 100 grams B. less than 50 gram C. Half of a kilogram D. 50 grams or more
510. The Golden Triangle produces how many percent of opium in the world?
A. 60% B. 70% C. 80% D. 90%
511. Upon the filing of the case concerning Violation of Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act, the court shall proceed with the
ocular inspection of the confiscated drugs within how many hours?
A. 24 hours B. 72 hours C. 36 hours D. 48 hours
512. A designer drug can be best defined as:
A. A modified version of a group of drugs, which are not technically illlegal
B. High quality drugs which are sold exclusively through an elite network
C. A blend of illegal substances to create the ultimate drug
D. Drugs which are pure and not mixed with other substances
513. Cardo is a drug addict at their community . Realizing that drug use will bring him elsewhere when he ceased from using it.
Diego’s act is called:
A. Abstinence B. Self medication C. Rehabilitation D. Dependence
514. The amount needed to produce the side effects & action desired by an individual who improperly uses it.
A. Toxic dose B. maximal dose C. Abusive dose D. lethal dose
515. The following are symptoms of alcoholism immediately after ingestion, EXCEPT?
A. Speech becomes slurry and thick
B. Person becomes careless and develops increase of confidence to him
C. Actions and emotions are more restrained
D. Person passes to the state of coma or vomiting due to gastro-intestinal irritation
516. A form of physical dependence characterized by severe craving for the drug even to the point of interfering with the person’s
ability to function normally.
A. Addiction B. Habituation C. Physical dependence D. Tolerance
517. The Golden Crescent is located in the South West Asia composed of which Countries?
A. Iran, Persia, India and Pakistan C. Pakistan, Afghanistan, Persia and Iraq
B. Afghanistan, Iran, India and Pakistan D. Iraq, Iran, Lebanon and Turkey
518. Use of ethyl alcohol or liquor in a quantity and with a frequency that causes the individual significant physiological,
psychological, or sociological distress or impairment.
A. Drug Abuse B. Psychological Dependence C. Alcohol AbuseD. Substance Abuse
519. A person who drinks a lot can become a dependent on alcohol. This means he cannot live without it. If he tries to stop drinking,
he will have the shivers and shakes and feels very bad. He may also experience acute anxiety or fear, delirium and hallucinations
A. Alcoholic B. Alcohol dependence C. Alcohol Abuse D. Alcohol
520. Any a beverage or compound, whether distilled, fermented or otherwise which will produce intoxication or which contains in
excess of one per centum of alcohol and is used as beverages.
A. Beer B. Wine C. Alcoholic Liquor D. Soda
521. The state or condition of a person produced by drinking intoxicating liquors excessively and with habitual frequency.
A. Alcoholic beverages B. Drunkard C. Alcoholism D. Chronic Alcoholic
522. Some drugs cause the release of histamine giving rise to allergic symptoms such as dermatitis, swelling, fall in blood pressure,
suffocation and death.
A. Overdose B. Allergy C. Idiosyncrasy D. Side effects
523. This drug is representative of a broad class of stimulants known as “pep pills”. It is usually prescribed to reduce appetite and
to relieve minor cases of mental depression.
A. Amphethamine B. Methamphetamine C. Ecstasy D. Shabu
524. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina and/or energy.
 A. Ecstasy B. Shabu C. MDMA D. Anabolic Steroid
525. Refers to any substance whose chemical structure is substantially similar to any dangerous drug whose psychoactive effects
are simulated by the substance.
A. Analogue B. Precursors C. Psychedelic D. Designer
526. The most common example of a class of drugs known as sedative hypnotics. These drugs acts as central nervous system
depressants.
A. Methaqualone B. Barbiturates C. Morphine D. Heroin
527. The product of alcoholic fermentation of a mash in potable water of malted barley, hop and/or hop preparation with or
without the addition of starchy and saccharine material and shall contain not less than 2% and not more than 10% by volume of
alcohol.
A. Ale B. Stout C. Beer D. Porter
528. These drugs generally produced marked distortion of the senses and alter the way time is perceived by the user.
A. Hallucinogenic B. Psychedelics C. Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD) D. Both A & B
529. The word “Assassin” came from what?
A. Hashashin B. Creed C. Hashis Eater D. Both A and C
530. When urine is submitted for alcohol analysis, the sample taken is ideally placed on?
A. Test Tube B. Syringe C. Paper packet D. Bottle/Container
531. Also called bordellos, cathouses, sporting houses, and houses of ill repute, brothels flourished in the nineteenth centuries.
They were large establishments, usually run by madams that housed several prostitutes.
A. Brothel Prostitutes B. Skeezers C. Call Girls D. Circuit Travelers
532. Ecstasy is essence; LSD is wedding bells; mescaline is:
A. Buttons B. Brain eaters C. Dope D. Herbals
533. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is considered as the world’s oldest cultivated
plant which is the source of dangerous drug.
A. Papaver Somniferum B. Coca Plant C. Cannabis Sativa D. Ephedrine
534. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or procured controlled
precursors and essential chemicals, by the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is called:
A. Drug trafficking B. Chemical diversion C. Sale D. Chemical smuggling
535. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu originated from:
A. Japan B. China C. Mexico D. India
536. A very pure heroin that can be snorted or smoke?
A. China White B. Methamphetamine C. Cocaine D. Golden Triangle
537. A barbiturate derivative of short duration of action; used as either a sedative or hypnotic.
A. Secobarbital B. Strychnine C. Stimulants D. Propoxyphen
538. The rate of absorption of alcohol in the stomach and intestine depends upon the following factors, EXCEPT…
A. Concentration of total quantity of alcohol taken
B. Nature of food present in the stomach and intestine
C. Chronic drinkers absorb alcohol lower than non-habitual drinkers
D. Permeability of the stomach and intestinal embrace to alcohol
539. The gradual decrease in degree of effect produced at the same blood concentration in the course of repeated exposure to that
drug
A. Chronic tolerance B. Addiction C. Sensation D. All of them
540. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various techniques were made
by its operator in concealing their activities.
A. Hide out operation B. Disguised operation C. Clandestine Operation D. Confidential operation
541. Produced by grinding coca leaves along with water that has been acidulated with sulfuric acid or an aromatic-based solvent
such as benzene.
A. Codeine B. Cocaine Sulfate C. Crack Cocaine D. Free Base Cocaine
542. Any person who knowingly and willfully consents to the unlawful act involved in the illegal trafficking of dangerous drugs
and uses his/her influence, power or position in shielding. Harboring, or screening or facilitating the escape of any person he/she
knows.
A. Pusher B. Financier C. Coddler D. Importer
543. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine B. Heroin C. Morphine D. Caffeine
544. What is the most powerful natural stimulant?
A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol C. Cocaine hydrochloride
B. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride D. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
545. The title of the existing law on dangerous drug.
A. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 C. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2003
B. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2001 D. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2004
546. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger than the commercial trade marijuana, it is:
A. Concentrated resin extracted from marijuana C. Fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa
B. Dried flower of marijuana D. Finest and high grade leaves of marijuana plant
547. Drugs that prevent the meeting of the egg cell and sperm cell or prevent the ovary from releasing egg cell.
A. Analgesics B. Antibiotics C. Contraceptive D. Antihistamines
548. Herion is Blanco; Codeine is School Boy; Psilocybin is Magic Mushroom; Cocaine is:
A. Hearts B. Uppers C. Crack D. Speed
549. Kabuki mono literraly means?
A. Street Peddlers B. Hoodlums C. Gamblers D. Crazy ones
550. A drug dependent under the voluntary submission program, who is finally discharged from confinement, shall be exempt
from under Section 15, RA No. 9165.
A. Criminal Liability B. Community Programs C. Civil Liability D. Community Service
551. It is the removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing drugs:
 A. Cleansing process B. Abstinence C. Aversion treatment D. Detoxification
552. This kind of prostitution house is usually under the control of an organized crime syndicate.
A. Disorderly Houses B. Furnished Room Houses C. Call Houses D. Massage Clinics
553. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the non-volatile from the less volatile parts and then cooling and
condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly purified substance?
A. Combustion B. Distillation C. Evaporation D. Condensation
554. It is the illegal, wrongful or improper use of any drug.
A. Drug addiction B. Drug dependence C. Drug abuse D. heroin abuse
555. Cluster of physiological, behavioral and cognitive phenomena in which use of a drug resulting a strong desire and difficulties
of controlling it.
A. Drug Dependency B. Drug Addiction C. Drug Abuse D. Drug Rehabilitation
556. Those caused by homicidal, accidental and suicidal violence stemming directly or indirectly from activities related to the
obtaining and use of illicit drugs.
A. Primary Drug Fatalities C. Drug Inflicted Fatalities
B. Secondary Drug Fatalities D. Drug Associated Fatalities
557. Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation B. drug net consciousness C. drug pushing D. drug dependence
558. It is an umbrella term for the processes of medical and/or psychotherapeutic treatment for dependency on psychoactive
substances such as alcohols, prescription of drugs, and so-called street drugs.
A. Drug Rehabilitation B. Drug Prevention C. Drug Dependency D. Drug Abuse
559. It is undoubtedly one of the greatest money makers for organized crime, and its gross profits have estimated to exceed those of
its legal counterparts.
A. Gambling B. Prostitution C. Labor Racketeering D. Drug Trafficking
560. Intoxication which the mind is confused, behavior is irregular and the movement is uncontrolled. The speech is thick and
uncoordinated. The behavior in uncontrollable.
A. Slight Inebriation B. Coma C. Very Drunk D. Drunk
561. A person who habitually takes or use any intoxicating alcohol liquor and while under the influence of such, or in consequence
of the effect thereof, is either dangerous to himself or to others.
A. alcoholic liquor B. drunkard C. alcohol abuse D. alcoholic dependence
562. Most popular plants as a source of dangerous drugs, except:
A. Indian hemp B. Opium poppy C. Coca bush D. Ephedra
563. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?
A. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
B. False perceptions of objects and experiences D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
564. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the major cause of initial drug abuse?
A. poor environment B. experimental thrill C. domestic violence D. peer pressure
565. It is used in alcoholic drinks which are made by breweries.
A. Heroin B. Ethyl C. Methyl D. alcohol
566. It shall be primarily responsible for the education and awareness of its members on the ill effects of dangerous drugs and
close monitoring of its members who may be susceptible to drug abuse.
A. Church B. School C. Family D. Government
567. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are menace to the community because they:
A. Are violently insane C. Flagrantly immoral
B. Ruin their life/health D. Feel no restraint in committing crimes.
568. In japan, Bakuto means what?
A. Street Peddlers B. Hoodlums C. Gamblers D. Crazy ones
569. The distilled product obtained from the original distillation of mash or by redistillation of distilled spirits with or over juniper
berries and may contain other aromatic botanical substances or sugar.
A. Rum B. Alcoholic Liquor C. Gin D. Whiskey
570. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white heroin is from;
A. The Golden Crescent B. Golden Triangle C. Hongkong D. Silver Triangle
571. Mind altering drugs that gives the general effect of mood distortion.
A. Hallucinogens B. Hypnotic C. Sedatives D. Narcotics
572. Those, whose activities revolve almost entirely around the drug experience and securing supplies. They show strong
psychological dependence on the drug.
A. Hardcore addicts B. Hippies C. Situational D. Spree users
573. It is the most commonly abused narcotic in the world.
A. Morphine B. heroin C. Shabu D. codeine
574. Slang for injection of drugs.
A. Hit B. Fix C. Drop D. Take
575. The world’s transshipment point of all forms of heroin
A. Malaysia B. Thailand C. Hongkong D. China
576. It consists of substances that improve or impair one performance; most notably anabolic, steroids and alcohol.
A. Steroids C. Human Performance Drugs
B. Psychoactive Substance D. Predator Drugs
577. It refers to a behavioral attribute that is distinctive and peculiar to an individual.
A. Idiosyncracy B. Dependence C. Habit D. Abuse
578. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
A. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
B. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
C. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
D. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in shape.
579. “Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002” was signed on?
 A. June 7, 2002 B. July 7, 2002 C. August 7, 2002 D. September 7, 2002
580. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active components known as Tethrahydro-
cannabinol?
A. Mescaline C. LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamine)
B. Marijuana D. Ecstacy (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
581. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer" drugs closely related in chemical form to the amphetamine family of
illicit drugs. Its scientific name is________________________.
A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride C. Papaver somniferum
B. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine D. Cannabis sativa
582. Derived from Opium which uses to cure addicted to heroin and codeine. A strong analgesic drug which is the principal agent
in opium and it acts directly with the central nervous system.
A. Codeine B. Heroin C. Morphine D. Cocaine
583. A type of drugs according to pharmacological classification which often relieves pain and induces sleepiness is known
as_______________.
A. Hallucinogens B. Sedatives/Depressant C. Stimulants D. Narcotics
584. They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice C. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
B. NBI Director and PNP Director General D. PNP Director and PDEA Director
585. In drug jargons “JUNI” means?
A. opiate addict B. shabu addict C. Heroin addict D. cocaine addict
586. Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds.
A. opium poppy B. marijuana C. caffeine components D. codeine
587. A civic program initiated by NGO’s and local government offices to help eradicate drug syndicates involving street children
as drug conduit
A. Oplan Banat B. Oplan Cyclops C. Oplan Athena D. Oplan Sagip-Yagit
588. Illegal cockfighting is prohibited under what law?
A. Presidential Decree No. 1306 C. Presidential Decree No. 449
B. Presidential Decree No. 483 (Game Fixing) D. Presidential Decree No. 510
589. Which of the following does not carry a capital punishment?
A. Possession of 20 grams morphine C. Possession of 100 grams of marijuana
B. Possession of 15 grams of MDMA D. Possession of 60 grams of shabu
590. Also known as date-rape drugs and Drug-Facilitated Sexual Assault (DFSA) agents, this substance used to incapacitate
woman for sexual purposes.
A. Predator Drugs B. Club Drugs C. Street Drugs D. Human Performance Drugs
591. A suggested method of control and prevention of the existence of prostitution which was originated in France.
A. School of Total Repression C. School of Regulatory Control
B. School of Total Prevention D. School of Suppression
592. The most common and widely available uppers/stimulant.
A. Heroin B. Codeine C. Morphine D. Shabu
593. Inhalation through the nose of drugs not in gaseous form. It is done by inhaling a powder of a liquid drug into the nasal coats
of the mucous membrane.
A. Iontophoresis B. Buccal C. Snorting D. Suppositories
594. Principal source of all forms of cocaine
A. South East Asia B. South America C. Middle East D. South West Asia
595. Major transshipment point for international drug traffickers in Europe – known as “the paradise of drug users in Europe”.
A. Spain B. Argentina C. France D. Russia
596. National campaign strategy against illegal drugs, focus of which is through law enforcement, prosecution and judicial
actions.
A. Demand reduction B. Inter-agency coordination C. Supply reduction D. International cooperation
597. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden Triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of
the world originate. This lies on the borders of?
A. Thailand –Laos –Indonesia C. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan
B. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar D. Peru- Columbia- Bolivia
598. A residential facility designed to erase the ex-addicts transition into community life.
A. Bahay Pag-asa C. Youth Rehabilitation Center
B. The Day Top Lodge D. Tagumpay Settlement
599. The Dangerous Drug Board shall be composed of how many members?
A. twelve B. ten C. seventeen D. four
600. The head of the PDEA has a cabinet rank of.
A. Director General B. Chairman C. Secretary D. Undersecretary

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