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1. Which of the following should be taken into account before preparing the farm lots?

a. Soil and water supply


b. Sunlight and air circulation

c. Accessible and proximity to market


d. all of the above
2. Which of the ff. is a characteristic of good soil?
a. should be viable
b. fresh and mature
c. damage free and free from seed – borne disease
d. all of the above
3. It is the first and most important tillage operation in preparing the land for to make it more
moisture – retentive
a. Cleaning
b. Plowing
c. Harrowing
d. Pulverizing
4. Is an organic material consisting of very fine routed animal waste, plant parts and other organic
and biodegradable material.
a. Biomass
b. Compost
c. Heap
d. Fertilizer
5. This method of fish – culture is characterized by the use of ned enclosures in shallow protected
areas in inland waters.
a. Cage method
b. Fish-pen method
c. Aquarium method
d. Open – water method
6. The objective of applying fertilizers to fish ponds
a. Promote fish growth
b. Enhance production
c. Neutralize acidity
d. Enhance the color of the water
7. This type of plants contains nitrogen in its roots which is converted to nitrates b rhizobia, thus,
contributing to soil fertility
a. Vine crops
b. Root crops
c. Legumes
d. Tubers
8. Which of the ff. is NOT an aspect of fish – culture?
a. Fish cultivation
b. Fish propagation
c. Fish conservation
d. Fish marketing
9. The object is represented by the sides seen at one time.
a. perspective
b. projection
c. Orthographic
d. Isometric
10. The system of representing the true shape of any object arranged on a plane in two or more
views at tight angle to each other.
a. Perspective
b. Dimension
c. Orthographic
d. Oblique drawing
11. Isometric projection is drawn on tree axes namely the vertical and 2 _____ degree lines.
a. 90
b. 60
c. 40
d. 30
12. It is part of the electrical circuit which converts electrical energy into another form to do work.
a. Voltage
b. Load
c. Current
d. Ampere
13. The system on which the flow of electricity is always in one direction.
a. Power
b. Integrated circuit
c. Alternating current
d. Direct current
14. The amount of heat required to take 1 lb. of water to change its temperature 1 degree F.
a. British Thermal Unit (BTU)
b. Voltage
c. Watt
d. Calorie
15. Property of metal w/c can be hammered and flattened into sheets without breaking
a. Ductility
b. Brittleness
c. Elasticity
d. Malleability
16. A system of principle to conduct life
a. Beliefs
b. Values
c. Philosophy
d. Goals and Objectives
17. Process of reaching solution to a problem which is based on family goals,
a. Assessment
b. Reorganization
c. Decision – Making
d. Problem Solving
18. To achieve a satisfying family life, each member is expected to live his role with corresponding
_____.
a. loyalty
b. responsibilities
c. needs
d. care
19. Human resources which the family can use to achieve its goals
a. Energy
b. Abilities and skills
c. Knowledge
d. all of the above
20. Earnings of corporations which are distributed among stockholders.
a. Profit
b. Retained earnings
c. Stocks
d. Dividends

1. Brings about a successful entrepreneurial activity

a. careful planning

b. good luck

c. big capital

d. proper connection
Answer: a

2. As an entrepreneur, he must be aware if his business is good. He must then identify a


good business through?

a. availability of supply, interest in business, capacity and skills

b. pricing of the products and services

c. human – resources oriented

d. profit – oriented

Answer: b

3. It is the profile of an entrepreneur’s intuitions, philosophy, ideals, perception and details


of a planned project.

a. Thesis

b. Project proposal

c. Project description

d. Rationale

Answer: d

4. Provides the entrepreneur information on market, sources and consumption of products


and services
a. Consultancy assistance

b. Organizational assistance

c. Training assistance

d. Marketing assistance

Answer: d

5. There are agencies that provide counseling or consultancy serviced to entrepreneurs who
have difficulty solving their own business problems.

a. Technology and livelihood Center

b. National Manpower and Youth Council

c. UP Institute of Small Scale Industries

d. All of the above

Answer: a

6. A person who install pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to convey and supply water in
buildings and to dispose and discharge waste water.

a. Carpenter

b. Plumber
c. Mason

d. Mechanic

Answer: b

7. It is a receptacle or vault used receptacle or vault used to collect organic waster


discharged from the house sewer.

a. Septic tank

b. Manhole

c. Water tank

d. Waste tank

Answer: a

8. The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the bottom of the septic tank.

a. Scum

b. Sediment

c. Sludge

d. Silt

Answer: c
9. An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage and waste matter from a home or
town is called:

a. Drainage system

b. Fixture

c. Sewerage

d. Sewer

Answer: d

10. The pipe that conveys waste from various fixtures other than from the water closet.

a. Waster pipe

b. Soil pipe

c. Vent pipe

d. Drain pipe

Answer: a

11. It is a fitting or device that provide liquid seal to prevent the back passage of air.

a. Loop
b. Fixture

c. Sewer

d. Trap

Answer: b

12. The used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fitting like unions and other metal fittings.

a. Pipe vise

b. Pliers

c. Wrenches

d. Threader

Answer: a

13. The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and fixtures is a _____.

a. Wye fitting

b. Coupling

c. Union Fitting

d. Reducer
Answer: a

14. A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water pump to prevent backflow of water.

a. Ball valve

b. Check valve

c. Blackwater valve

d. Gate valve

Answer: a

15. It is a device installed in water lines that can be closed or opened to allow installation or
troubleshooting of fixtures.

a. Check valve

b. Gate valve

c. Ball valve

d. Float valve

Answer: a

16. A schedule 40 pipe is:

a. Thicker than schedule 20


b. Thicker than schedule 80

c. Thinner than schedule 10

d. None among the choices

Answer: c

17. What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to avoid leakage?

a. Masking tape

b. Teflon tape

c. Scotch tape

d. Adhesive gum

Answer: a

18. What must be installed to prevent siphonage or backflow of the water seal in the
drainage system?

a. Vent pipe

b. Drain pipe

c. Soil pipe
d. Cleanout

Answer: a

19. Which of the following is NOT required by the National Plumbing Code?

a. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a downward gravity flow of water.

c. No vent pipe is needed

d. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly connected.

Answer: c

20. What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste pipe as recommended by the National
Plumbing Code?

a. 2% slope

b. 3% slope

c. 4% slope

d. 0% slope or level position

Answer: b

1. For purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage of flow, what must be installed in the
pipe system?
a. Vent pipe

b. Cleanout

c. Drain

d. Tee fitting

Answer: b

2. Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture installation nowadays. which of the
following is preferred?

a. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

b. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC)

c. Cross-linked polyethylene (PEX)

d. Polyethylene

Answer: a

3. The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that there must be no more than two
closets that shall discharge into a _____ pipe diameter.

a. 3 inches or 75 mm
b. 80 mm

c. less than 75 mm

d. 70 mm

Answer: a

4. A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller pipe from a larger pip.

a. Reducer

b. Elbow

c. Union

d. Coupling

Answer: a

5. As a basic prerequisite for most plumbing project, what should be connected for each
faucet, toilet, and fixtures?

a. Fixture shutoffs

b. Main shutoffs

c. Intermediate Shutoffs

d. Valves
Answer: a

6. A plumber wants to tighten and loosen pipes. Which tools is appropriate?

a. Pipe cutter

b. Flux

c. Pipe wrench

d. Butane torch

Answer: c

7. A plumber wants to cut metal pipe. Which tool is appropriate

a. Hacksaw

b. Back saw

c. Handsaw

d. Drywall knife

Answer: a

8. Metal with semi-rigid auger whose ends is usually fitted with a hook or corkscrew is
called _____.
a. plumber’s snake

b. plunger

c. valve

d. bushing

Answer: a

9. If your toilet has trouble, you use rubber funnel-shape instrument attached to the end of
the handle for unblocking. What is this tool?

a. Plumber’s snake

b. valve

c. Plunger

d. Bushing

Answer: c

10. Which plumbing tools is used for gripping large pipes and irregular objects?

a. monkey wrench

b. chain wrench

c. yoke vise
d. pipe wrench

Answer: b

11. A plumber wants to create thread outside pipe by hand. Which tool is appropriate?

a. Pipe cutter

b. Pipe threader

c. Yoke vise

d. Pipe wrench

Answer: b

12. A plumber wants to cut pipes. Which holding tools is needed?

a. Vise grip

b. Pipe Threader

c. Yoke vise

d. Pipe wrench

Answer: c

13. A plumber wants to hold pipe by hand. What tool is needed?


a. Vise grip

b. Pipe threader

c. Yoke vise

d. Pipe wrench

Answer: a

14. The following are good plumbing practices, EXCEPT:

a. rainwater harvesting

b. water conservation

c. gray water recycling

d. excessive water consumption

Answer: d

15. Water contaminants are being forced forced back into the water piping system. Which
term is referred to?

a. Water florw

b. Back flow
c. Pressure

d. Harvesting

Answer: b

16. The following are examples of plumbing fixtures, EXCEPT:

a. water closet

b. drainage

c. shower

d. urinals

Answer: b

17. Which statement is NOT True about plumbing standards based on Republic Act 1378
which is known as “Plumbing Law”?

a. Each fixture directly connected to the drainage system shall be equipped with a water
sealed trap.

b. Plumbing shall be designed and adjusted to use the maximum quantity of water
consistent with proper performance and cleaning.

c. Water closet must be located in a room and which is properly lighted and ventilated.
d. No substance which will clog the pipes, produce explosive mixture, destroy the pipes or
their joints or interfere unduly with the sewage disposal process shall be allowed to enter
the building drainage system.

Answer: b

18. A compartment that receives solid or liquid waste, located below the normal grade of
the gravity system is called _____.

a. septic

b. sump

c. trap

d. interceptor

Answer: a

19. Which is true toxic substance?

a. Hazardous to human health

b. A fixture drain for a laboratory

c. Not hazardous to human health

d. Bedpan washer and sterilizer drain

Answer: a
20. Water is safe for drinking, cooking, and personal use is ______.

a. Portable

b. Purified

c. Clean

d. healthy

Answer: a
1. Which among the following best describes a toilet bowl?

a. A room or booth containing a toilet

b. The Box Type compartment holding water for flushing the toilet

c. An opening in the wall or ceiling near

d. The device that provides a supply of water and/ its disposal, e.g. sinks, tubs, toilet

Answer: b

2. Plumbing ventilation means to _____.

a. carry sewer gas out and reliever pressure of the drainage system

b. discourage corrosion in the drainage piping


c. maintain the trap seals

d. give pressure differentials in the public sewer

Answer: a

3. Rainwater from the roof down to the ground passes through what pipe?

a. Down spout

b. Conductor

c. Gutter

d. Vent

Answer: a

4. A pipe that conveys only liquid waste is called _____.

a. vent pipe

b. soil pipe

c. main pipe

d. waste pipe

Answer: d
5. What do you call those flexible waterproof ribbon for covering threaded pipes joints to
prevent leakage?

a. Rubber bond

b. Masking tape

c. Teflon tape

d. tape

Answer: c

6. If the end of a PVC pipe is lifted with a male adopter, what fitting will be used to stop the
flow of the water?

a. Elbow

b. Coupling

c. Cap

d. Plug

Answer: a

7. How many PVC pipes can be installed in a 7.50 meter distance?

a. 2 pcs
b. 2.5 pcs

c. 3 pcs

d. 3.5 pcs

Answer: b

8. If the end of the PVC pipe is lifted with female adopter, what fitting will be used to stop
flow of the water?

a. Elbow

b. Coupling

c. Cap

d. Plug

Answer: d

9. A plumber wants to connect two length of pipes. Which fitting is necessary?

a. Coupling

b. Elbow

c. Tee
d. Pipe wrench

Answer: a

10. If there is leaking in the water supply of lavatory, sink and water closet, which valve are
you going shut off?

a. Gate valve

b. Globe valve

c. Check valve

d. Angle valve

Answer: a

11. If you install a soil pipe, what is the standard pitch or slope?

a. 5%

b. 10%

c. 2%

d. 1%

Answer: d
12. If you put source of portable water, what is the minimum safe distance from the septic
tank?

a. 15 meters

b. 10 meters

c. 5 meters

d. 20 meters

Answer: d

13. No cesspool septic tank or drain field shall be located within how many meter radius
from the well?

a. 15 meters

b. 10 meters

c. 50 meters

d. 45 meters

Answer: c

14. If you plan to drill for a well that can supply water for public use, what is the minimum
meter radius from a well to the residences?

a. 150 meters
b. 100 meters

c. 50 meters

d. 200 meters

Answer: b

15. Every trap for bath tubs, lavatories, sink, and other similar fixture shall be ______.

a. self – regulating

b. tight

c. fix

d. self cleaning

Answer: b

16. There should be no concrete sanitary sewers existing within how many meter radius
from the well?

a. 15 meters

b. 10 meters

c. 50 meters

d. 45 meters
Answer: c

17. The standard length of a PVC pipe is ______.

a. 12 ft.

b. 2.0 m

c. 6.0 m

d. 10 ft.

Answer: b

18. If you want to estimate the number G.I. pipes needed from your house to the main
supply, what is the standard length of a G.I that you are going to use?

a. 20.0 m

b. 6 ft.

c. 3.0 m

d. 20 ft.

Answer: d

19. If you want to estimate the number of PVC pipes needed from your house to the main
supply, what is the standard length of a PVC pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m

b. 6 ft.

c. 3.0 m

d. 20 ft.

Answer: a

20. All plumbing fixtures must have P-trap, EXCEPT:

a. lavatory

b. water closet

c. sink

d. bath tub

Answer: d

1. Which us the kinetic energy of falling water?

a. thermo energy

b. hydrogen energy
c. solar energy

d. mechanical energy

Answer: b

2. Which is a solar collector that is capable of producing voltage when exposed to radiant
energy (sunlight)?

a. Photoelectric

b. Photovoltaic system

c. Photoemission system

d. Solar light

Answer: b

3. Energy derived or extracted from the internal heat of earth is called _____ energy.

a. volcanic

b. geothermal

c. thermal

d. chemical
Answer: b

4. Which refers to the extraction of electrons form a substance by sunlight in incident


electromagnetic radiation?

a. Photoelectric effect

b. Photovoltaic effect

c. Photoemission

d. Electron microscopy

Answer: a

5. Which statement is true?

a. bigger size of wire has higher resistance

b. bigger size of wire has lower resistance

c. long wire has lesser resistance

d. short wire has higher resistance

Answer: b

6. A small bulb with a resistance of 1000 ohms is connected across a 120-v line. What is the
current through the bulb?
a. 1.2 A

b. 0.012 A

c. 0.12 A

d. 12 A

Answer: c

7. A 200.v lamp ha a resistance of 400 ohms. The power rating in watts of lamp is ______.

a. 100w

b. 600w

c. 200w

d. 250w

Answer: a

8. If 18 resistance, each of a value of 36 ohms, are connected in parallel, then the total
resistance is ______.

a. 36 ohms

b. 2 ohms

c. 648 ohms
d. 54 ohms

Answer: b

9. A toaster takes 10A from a 120v line. The power used is ______.

a. 12w

b. 130w

c. 1200w

d. 120w

Answer: c

10. What is the ohms of a 100w, 110v incandescent lamp?

a. 121 ohms

b.115 ohms

c. 125 ohms

d. 12.1 ohms

Answer: a
11. How many kilowatts is the water heater if it draws a current of 10 amperes and ha
resistance of 23 ohms?

a. 12 Kw

b. 2 300 Kw

c. 230 Kw

d. 2.3 Kw

Answer: d

12. The resistance of an electrical wire is inversely proportional to its ______.

a. length

b. cross sectional area

c. temperature

d. Material

Answer: b

13. A fluorescent lamp unit collected to a 110v AC line takes 1.2A and requires 110 w
power. What is its power factor?

a. 0.9 Kw
b. 2 300 Kw

c. 230 Kw

d. 2.3 Kw

Answer: b

14. An electric heater uses 20kw-hr 8 hours. If the voltage across the heater is 240 volts.
What is the heater resistance?

a. 2.5 ohms

b. 83.3 ohms

c. 23.04 ohms

d. 2.30 ohms

Answer: c

15. The resistance of a 230v incandescent lamp is 200 ohms. What current is required to
operate the lamp?

a. 0.85 A

b. 0.77 A

c. 1.30 A
d. 7. 74 A

Answer: b

16. A group of lamps operates a current of 12A and a voltage of 120v. What is the total
power of the lamps?

a. 1.44kw

b. 1.20kw

c. 1.34kw

d. 14.4kw

Answer: a

17. What is the maximum load capacity of 15A circuit breaker protecting a branch circuit
that supplies a continuous load?

a. 15A

b. 10A

c. 12A

d. 14A

Answer: c
18. What is the horsepower rating of an electric water pump if it has a power rating of 1.75
Kw?

a. 2 hp

b. 2.3 hp

c. 2.5 hp

d. 23 hp

Answer: b

19. How many kilowatts does a certain appliance consumes for 5 hrs. of use if it has a
power rating of 1.5 hp

a. 56 Kw

b. 7.5 Kw

c. 5.6 Kw

d. 754 hp

Answer: c

20. A cell supplies a load current 0.5A for a period 20 hours until its terminal voltage can it
be expected to supply a current of 100 mA?

a. 50 hours
b. 100 hours

c. 60 hours

d. 70 hours

Answer: b

1. A battery is rated 200 Ah. If it is used to supply a constant current of 8A, how long can
the battery last until I become unusable?

a. 20 hours

b. 25 hours

c. 15 hours

d. 2.5 hours

Answer: b

2. The resistance of 500 meters of a certain wire is 125 ohms. What length of the same wire
will have a resistance of 60 ohms?

a. 24 meters

b. 255 meters
c. 240 meters

d. 235 meters

Answer: c

3. If three equal resistance are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance of the circuit
will be ______ the value one resistor.

a. three times

b. half

c. one-third

d. the same

Answer: c

4, Find the cost of using a 100w, 220v lamp for 20 hours at Php 3.00 per kW hr.

a. php 6.00

b. php 9.00

c. php 10.00

d. php 60.00

Answer: a
5. Which box with a blank cover is inserted in one more runs in one or more runs of
raceway to facilitate pulling of the conductors?

a. Blank box

b. junction box

c. terminal box

d. pull box

Answer: d

6. Which box with a blank cover for joining runs of conduits and providing space for
connection and branching of enclosed conductors?

a. Blank box

b. junction box

c. terminal box

d. pull box

Answer: b

7. The minimum sized of wire used in electrical wiring is the no. 14 AWG. Under the SI
standard, what is the diameter of this wire?

a. 1.2 mm
b. 1.6 mm

c. 1.5 mm

d. 2.0 mm

Answer: b

8. A thin walled steel raceway of circular form with a corrosion-resistant coating for
protection of wires or cables is ______.

a. rigid metal conduit

b. flexible metal pipe

c. metal moulding

d. electrical metallic tubing

Answer: d

9. Armored cable is commercially known as ______.

a. Bx cable

b. flat cable

c. metallic cable
d. duplex

Answer: a

10. Which type of cable is fabricated assembly of insulated conductors enclosed in a flexible
metal sheath?

a. Underground cable

b. Armored cable

c. Flat cable

d. Flexible cable

Answer: b

11. Flat cable assembly shall be installed for _____.

I. concealed work only

II. exposed work only

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and II

d. Cannot be determined
Answer: b

12. An assembly of two pieces of material provided with grooves for holding spacing from
the surface wired over and from each other, and with holes for fastening in position is
called _____.

a. split knob

b. cleat

c. spool insulator

d. strain insulator

Answer: b

13. Which is a wiring method that uses knobs, tubes and flexible non-metalic tubing for the
protection and support of single insulated conductors concealed in hollow spaces of walls
ceiling of buildings?

a. knob and tube wiring

b. Open wiring on insulators

c. Concealed knob and tubes

d. Open wiring with knob and tubes

Answer: c
14. The use of surface non-raceway is not permitted in all the following EXCEPT one.
Which is the exception?

a. Dry locations

b. Where subject to severe physical damage

c. Where voltage is over 300v

d. Where concealed

Answer: c

15. The use of surface non-raceway is not permitted in all the following EXCEPT one.
Which is the exception?

a. Dry locations

b. Where subject to severe physical damage

c. Where voltage is over 300v

d. Where concealed

Answer: a

16. When the entire switch or outlet body is visible and extends beyond the wall surface,
the device is said to be ______.

a. wall type
b. surface type

c. flush type

d. open type

Answer: b

17. What device automatically breaks the circuit the moment an overload or short circuit
occurs?

a. Breaker switch

b. Overload

c. Circuit breaker

d. Main switch

Answer: a

18. Which term is used when two conductors are imbedded in one solid mass of rubber
insulation?

a. Two in one

b. Duplex

c. Stranded
d. Duplex

Answer: d

19. What type of sockets is used for outdoor or wet location wiring installation?

a. Water proof socket

b. special purpose

c. weatherproof socket

d. Outdoor socket

Answer: c

20. What is the smaller size of wire permitted by the code to be used in wiring installation?

a. 2.0 mm

b. 2.5 mm

c. 2.0 mm

d. 1.25 mm

Answer: a
1. Which of the following uses is permitted by the code to be used for surface non-metallic
raceway?
a. Dry location

b. Where concealed

c. Where subject to physical damage

d. Where voltage is over 300v

Answer: a

2. Service entrance using copper conductors shall be sufficient capacity and shall not be
small than ______.

a. 5.5 mm

b. 3.5 mm

c. 14 mm

d. 8.0 mm

Answer: d

3. If two identical lamps give normal light when connected in parallel in 230v line are
reconnected in series in the same, the bulb will ______.

a. give more light


b. not light

c. give less light

d. blows out

Answer: c

4. When flexible metal conduit is installed as a fixed raceway, it shall be secured within
______ on each side of every outlet box.

a. 250mm

b. 200mm

c. 100mm

d. 150mm

Answer: b

5. A short circuit can be detected by using ______.

a. an ohmmeter

b. a meggar

c. an oscillscope

d. an ammeter
Answer: a

6. The electrical plants for residential house include the following item EXCEPT one.
Which one is this?

a. substation plan

b. location plan

c. floor plan showing for location service

d. Layout of wiring plan for general lightning and receptacles outlets

Answer: a

7. If installed in raceway conductors of size _____ and larger shall be stranded.

a. 5.5mm

b. 8.0mm

c. 14mm

d. 3.5mm

Answer: b

8. At least _____ of free conductor shall be left each outlet, junction and switch for splices
or connection of fixtures o devices.
a. 250mm

b. 175mm

c. 150mm

d. 300mm

Answer: c

9. A certain residential house has lightning load of 1,1 kVA and a appliance load of 10a at
220v single phase two wires 60hz. The branch circuit fuse protection for lightning and
appliances loads are ______ and ______ respectively.

a. 20A and 60A

b. 20 and 30

c. 15A and 30A

d. 15A and 20A

Answer: d

10. Live vegetation or trees _____ used for support of overhead conductors spans.

a. shall be

b. should be
c. shall not be

d. should not be

Answer: c

11. Light fixtures suspended from the ceiling by chains should wire so that the wires
______.

a. will be grounded

b. will not touch the chains

c. will support the fixture

d. will not support fixture

Answer: d

12. In rigid metal conduit wiring conduit of 15-20mm diameter shall be supported at least
every ______.

a. 2 500mm

b. 3 500mm

c. 1 800mm

d. 3 000mm
Answer: d

13. Why do conductors need additional wiring insulators?

a. electrical wiring needs to be protected from mechanical harm

b. wire are connected by joints therefore needs reinsulations

c. wire touches wood surface therefore need protection

d. Wire skin is weal

Answer: a

14. What is the total number of mechanical degrees that electrical pipe run maybe bent pull
points?

a. 360 degrees

b. 180 degrees

c. 120 degrees

d. 270 degrees

Answer: a

15. Rigid non-metallic conduit shall be supported within ______ of each box cabinet or
other termination.
a. 600mm

b. 800mm

c. 900mm

d. 760mm

Answer: c

16. Electrical metallic tubing smaller than ______ trade size shall NOT be used.

a. 12mm

b. 10mm

c. 15mm

d. 20mm

Answer: c

17. Type AC cable shall be secured by approved staples, straps, hanger or similar fitting at
intervals NOT exceeding ______.

a. 1 250mm

b. 1 300mm
c. 1 500mm

d. 1 000mm

Answer: b

18. In concealed knob and tube wiring the clearance to be maintained between conductors
is ______.

a. 65mm

b. 45mm

c. 76mm

d. 50mm

Answer: c

19. Three bulbs are connected in parallel and controlled by a sing switch. If one of the 3
bulbs is busted, what will happen to the remaining bulbs.

a. Will not lit

b. Its brightness is reduced

c. Its brightness increases

d. Its brightness is maintained


Answer: d

20. Which is a synchronous alternating current machine that changes mechanical power
into electrical power?

a dynamo

b. motor

c. alternator

d. lathe machine

Answer: c

1. The word electron was derived from the Greek word electron which means ______.

a. to rub

b. to rub

c. amber

d. friction

Answer: b

2. The peak to peak voltage in a 117 Vac outlet is _____.


a. 620V

b. 165.5V

c. 331V

d. 220V

Answer: d

3. Which is a type of modulation where the amplitude of the carriers is change in


accordance with demodulating signal?

a. FM

b. PDM

c. A,

d. PCM

Answer: c

4. The actual flow of current is from ______.

a. negative to positive

b. positive to negative
c. Positive to positive

d. negative to negative

Answer: a

5. The rate of doing is called _____.

a. energy

b. power

c. voltage

d. resistance

Answer: d

6. MilliHenry is equal to ______.

a. 10th Henry

b. 100th Henry

c. 1000th Henry

d. 1000000 Henry

Answer: c
7. An inductor opposes any changes in _______.

a. voltage

b. current

c. frequency

d. Modulation

Answer: b

8. A circuit having two or more current paths is ______ connection.

a. Parallel

b. series

c. series-parallel

d. cannot be determined

Answer: a

9. Which is an electrical unit of measuring a power?

a. ohms

b. non linear
c. potentiometer

d. resistance

Answer: c

10. Which is an electrical device that is used to limit or oppose the flow of current in a
circuit?

a. linear

b. non linear

c. potentimeter

d. resistance

Answer: a

11. Which is an electronic device that is used to limit or oppose the flow of current in a
circuit?

a. capacitor

b. resistor

c. diode

d. inductor
Answer: b

12. An instrument that is used to measure the amount of resistance in circuit is called
_____.

a. DC volmeter

b. ohmmeter

c. AC Volmeter

d. Ammeter

Answer: b

13. Solder is a mixture of ______.

a. tin lead

b. zinc and lead

c. zinc and tin

d. copper and lead

Answer: a

14. The commonly used soldering lead is ______.

a. 40-60
b. 60-40

c. 50-50

d. 50-40

Answer: b

15. A standard 220VAC has a frequency of ______.

a. 45Hz

b. 30Hz

c. 50Hz

d. 60Hz

Answer: d

16. A low frequency speaker is sometimes known as ______.

a. tweeter

b. squeaker

c. base collector

d. collector base emitter


Answer: c

17. The three of common transistor are a/an ______.

a. collector bias emitter

b. emitter collector bias

c. base collector

d. collector base emitter

Answer: d

18. Connecting lead from the negative to positive of a battery will produce a/an ______.

a. high resistance circuit

b. low current path

c. short circuit

d. open circuit

Answer: c

19. What is the approximate characteristics voltage that develop across a red LED?

a. 1.7 V
b. 0.6 V

c. 3.4 V

d. 4 V

Answer: c

20. If two resistors are places in series, the final resistance is ______.

a. higher

b. lower

c. the same

d. cannot be determined

Answer: a

1. Which is TRUE of a series DC motor with no load?

a. Tends stop or not start

b. Maybe damaged by excessive speed

c. Has reverse direction


d. becomes an AC generator

Answer: b

2. A fuse marked 250V, 650m can be used in circuits with an “open-fuse” supply voltage
______.

a. 125 volts

b. 500 volts

c. 5000 volts

d. 250 volts

Answer: a

3. To prevent transistor from getting hot, use ______.

a. silicon grease

b. insulator

c. heat sink

d. exhaust fan

Answer: c
4. To obtain a higher value of resistance, resistors are ______.

a. reverse

b. parallel

c. forward

d. series

Answer: d

5. Which fuse has its internal fusible wire wrapped around an insulator?

a. a slow-blow type fuse

b. An inductive fuse

c. a capacitive

d. intended for high voltage fuse

Answer: d

6. Which would be considered “basic components of a power supply?”

a. Zener, regulation, transformer

b. Regulate, diode, AC power, load


c. Transformer, bridge, capacitor, load

d. Filter, regulator, rectifier, transformer

Answer: b

7. When two capacitors the rise and fall of alternating current and voltage?

a. Graph

b. Sine wave

c. Fluctuation

d. Cycle

Answer: b

8.When two capacitors are connected in parallel the capacitance will ______.

a. increase

b. since wave

c. decrease

d. increase and decrease

Answer: a
9. Which circuit ha the most gain?

a. common emitter

b. common collector

c. common base

d. emitter follower

Answer: a

10. Which rectifier circuit uses four diodes for its rectification?

a. Half-wave rectification

b. Full-wave Center Tap

c. Full-wave Bridge rectifier

d. Split type

Answer: c

11. When a resistor is open, the resistance ______.

a. increase

b. gets zero
c. decrease

d. is infinite

Answer: d

12. A low voltage power supply converts ______.

a. AC voltage output

b. Pulsating DC voltage

c. DC output voltage

d. AC and DC voltage outputs

Answer: b

13. When checking an open resistor using an ohmmeter the resistance reads ______.

a. zero level

b. high resistance but within the tolerance

c. infinite

d. low but not zero

Answer: c
14. Moving one plate of a capacitor further away from the other will ______.

a. decrease capacitance

b. increase capacitance

c. decrease voltage rating

d. increasing mutual transactor

Answer: a

15. In checking capacitor to see if it is shorted, open or leaky, you would use the ohmmeter
range.

a. lowest

b. highest

c. middle

d. you cannot check the capacitor this way

Answer: b

16. A schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic circuit by means of ______.

a. a symbol

b. a construction
c. physical appearance

d. linear appearance

Answer: a

17. If there are only two resistors with the same values in parallel circuit, which formula,
may be used o find its total resistance?

a. Rt=R/n

b. Rt= (R1xR2) (R1+R2)

c. 1/Rt=1/R1+1/R2+….1/Rn

d. Rt=(R1+R2)(R1Xr2)

Answer: b

18. Image three resistor in parallel, with the values of 22ohms, 17 ohms and 33 ohms. If a
12 V battery is connected across this combination, what is the current drawn from the
battery?

a. 1.4A

b. 15mA

c. 150mA

d. 1.5A
Answer: a

19. Which of the following is non-polarized electronic component?

a. transistor

b. resistor

c. diode

d. electrolytic capacitor

Answer: b

20. The voltage rating found in a capacitor is called _____ voltage.

a. peak reverse

b. working

c. blow-up

d. breakdown

Answer: b

1. Which hand tools is used solely for cutting metals


a. Utility knife

b. Saw

c. Magnifying Glass

d. Paint Brush

Answer: b

2. What is the reason why threads become stripped?

a. Screws are over tightened

b. Screws are heated

c. Screws are molded

d. Screws are painted

Answer: a

3. In what instrument is the Ohm meter found?

a. Ammeter

b. Tube tester

c. capacitor tester
d. VOM

Answer: d

4. From what part of the ohmmeter do you resistance reading?

a. range multiplier

b. reading scale

c. test probes

d. pointer

Answer: b

5. Which instrument serves as 3 measuring instruments in one?

a. Audio generator

b. Oscilloscope

c. Signal generator

d. VOM

Answer: d

6. Which device produces simple waveforms?


a. audio amplifier

b. VOM

c. Signal tracer

d. Signal generator

Answer: d

7. What is another name for connection diagram?

a. Wiring diagram

b. Block diagram

c. Pictorial diagram

d. Schematic diagram

Answer: d

8. Which equipment is used to discharge electrical produced by the human body?

a. Audio generator

b. Signal generator

c. ESD
d. VOM

Answer: c

9. Which term refers to the set of rules practices to ensure no accidents prevention?

a. safety practices

b. rules and regulation

c. policy order

d. action plan

Answer: a

10. What is the best place of electronic hand tools and equipment?

a. tool box

b. tool cabinet

c. tool room

d. tool bag

Answer: c

11. What tools are not recommended to be used in electronics works?


a. brand new tools

b. branded tools

c. damaged tools

d. Locally produced tools

Answer: c

12. Which type of lines is used to show mechanical linkage between components or part
components on schematic diagram?

a. Connecting lines

b. Dashed lines

c. Medium lines

d. Thin lines

Answer: b

13. What VOM mean?

a. AC volmeter

b. Ohmmeter
c. DC milliammeter

d. Volt-Ohm-Milliammeter

Answer: d

14. Which fool is used to cut the insulation without cutting the wire?

a. Utility knife

b. Hacksaw

c. Side cutter

d. Wire stripper

Answer: d

15. Which picture or sketch shows the component of a circuit and how these components
are connected together?

a. Wiring diagram

b. Block diagram

c. Pictorial Diagram

d. Schematic diagram

Answer: d
16. Which picture or sketch shows the component of a circuit and how these components
are connected together?

a. Wiring diagram

b. Block diagram

c. Pictorial diagram

d. Schematic diagram

Answer: d

17. 3 Pcs. of resistor in which the values are 1- ohms, 2 ohm, and 50 ohms. If the 20 ohms is
open what will be the reading in the ohmmeter?

a. 60 ohms

b. 0 ohms

c. infinite

d. 80 ohms

Answer: c

18. Why does an AM receiver or pick-up sign despite the far distance from the transmitter
compared to the FM receiver?

a. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because of the transistor


b. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signal transmitted by AM
transmitted is by means of line to sight.

c. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the transmitted by AM transmitter is by


means of line to ground.

d. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals transmitted by AM


transmitter is by means of the line to sight.

Answer: d

19. Why is it needed to antenna in higher or an elevated area particular in a mountainous


place?

I. All signals transmitted by the transmitter station is by mean of line to ground; the higher
antenna the more signal can be received

II. The antenna is placed in higher or elevated area in order to capture the direction.

III. Signal transmitted by the transmitted station is by means of line to sight the higher
antenna the more signal can be received.

a. I only

b. III only

c. III only

d. I, II and III

Answer: d
20. A service electronics technician cleaned the terminal of the component using sand paper
or knife before it soldered to the PCB, What is the main purpose of that cleaning.

a. To attracted more charges

b. To remove the insulator so that soldering can be made easily

c. To attract electron, protons and neutron

d. To maximize the desired voltages.

Answer: b

1. A diode is an electronic part is expected to do one of the following functions all times.
Which one?

a. Allow current to flow in both directions

b. Multiply voltage

c. Allow current to flow in one directions only

d. DO not allow current flow

Answer: c

2. There are four types of diodes. The diode that acts as a regular us the ______ diode.
a. silicon

b. crystal

c. lightning

d. zener

Answer: d

3. You will find an electrode nearest the white band on a rectifier. What is it?

a. anode

b. cathode

c. gate

d. main terminal

Answer: b

4. When a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it means that the diode is ______.

a. shorted

b. open

c. leaky
d. good

Answer: a

5. If the transistor is an NPN type the base is _____.

a. negative and positive

b. negative

c. positive

d. common

Answer: c

6. If the arrow of the transistor is pointing inward it tells us the transistor is ______.

a. NPN

b. PNP

c. bipolar

d. injunction

Answer: b

7. In the electronic symbol if a transistor, the electrode with an arrow is the ______.
a. emitter

b. base

c. collector

d. cathode

Answer: a

8. The production of magnetic field by current in a conductor is called _____.

a. electromagnetism

b. ferromagnetic

c. magnetic

d. diamagnetic

Answer: a

9. The type of current which the amplitude drops to zero periodically and is produced in
rectifier is known as ______.

a. Pulsating direct current

b. damped alternating current


c. varying direct current

d. saw tooth wave

Answer: a

10. Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band covering ______.

a. kHz 76-90 Mhz

b. 88-108 Mhz

c. 16Hz- 20kHz

d. 535-1605 kHz

Answer: d

11. An ordinary radio can be tuned in different stations. The electronic component
responsible for this function is the ______.

a. tuning capacitor

b. oscillator

c. IF transforms

d. detector diode

Answer: a
12. The condition of a loud speaker is tested more accurately using one of the range listed
below. Which one?

a. Rx1k

b. Rx10

c. Rx1

d. Rx10K

Answer: a

13. Working efficient is a good work habit. Tinning the tip of soldering iron refers to _____.

a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper

b. making the tip pointed

c. cutting the tip

d. applying flux the tip

Answer: a

14. The common cause of erratic or distorted sound of a transistor radio is a defective
_____.

a. amplifier
b. volume control

c. antenna

d. tuner

Answer: b

15. An appliances with 110V AC supply is accidentally plugged to 220V AC outlet. What
component is usually destroyed?

a. switch

b. AC plug

c. Line fuse

d. Power transformer

Answer: c

16. Which form of electricity has current flow always in the same direction?

a. Voltage

b. Power

c. Alternating current
d. Direct current

Answer: d

17. The for of electricity has currently flow always in the same direction?

a. power

b. resistance

c. electromagnetism

d. frequency

Answer: b

18. Which part of an electrical circuit converts electrical energy into another form of
energy to do work?

a. load

b. circuit

c. source

d. control

Answer: a
19. A law that states that the current is directly proportional to voltage and inversely
proportional to resistance is known as ______.

a. PEC

b. Law of resistivity

c. Kirchoff’s law

d. Ohm’s law

Answer: d

20. Circuit breakers are used to protect household electrical circuits. What is the capacity
rating of the breaker used for convenience outlets of general purpose circuits?

a. 20 Amperes

b. 30 Amperes

c. 15 Amperes

d. 60 Amperes

Answer: a

1. Which of the following is the correct definition of a term “entrepreneur”?

A person who _______.


a. pursues opportunity without regard to resources.

b. starts a new business with the aim of making profit

c. seeks to create value for local communities, people or customers by starting a new
ventures which exploit new products, processes or markets.

d. seeks to generate value through creation or expansion of economic activity, by


identifying and exploiting new products, processes or markets.

Answer: c

2. Which of the following skills are NOT needed by an entrepreneur?

a. Technical skills

b. Personal entrepreneurial skills

c. Working skills

d. Business management skills

Answer: c

3. Which of the following is INAPPROPRIATE in starting a business?

a. study the concepts and principles of entrepreneurial skills


b. cope with failures of the business

c. undergo training on entrepreneurial skills

d. know what characteristics are needed to become an entrepreneur

Answer: b

4. Which of the following is NOT a source of fund for Ms. burgos future business?

a. seek assistance from central bank of the Philippines

b. borrow money from friends and relatives

c. avail of the government program on financing micro-macro business

d. use part of her retirement benefit

Answer: a

5. If her business idea is a boutique, what quality of a future entrepreneur is


INAPPROPRIATE?

a. relaxed

b. hard worker

c. risk-taker

d. innovative
Answer: a

6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an enterpreneur?

a. coping with failure

b. irritated

c. opportunity seeker

d. persistent

Answer: b

7. Which among these characteristics of an entrepreneur?

a. Coping with failure

b. Goal setter

c. Futuristic

d. Impassive

Answer: d

8. Which of the following is a primary cause of failure in small businesses?

a. Poor financial control


b. Poor location

c. Management mistakes

d. Improper inventory control

Answer: b

9. Which these traits gets an entrepreneur off of his/ her feet and puts him/ her into action
turning daydreams into reality?

a. Perseverance

b. Ambition

c. Creativity

d. Enthusiasm

Answer: d

10. Which entrepreneurial traits gives an entrepreneur a positive outlook in lide which
give the energy to pursue his/her endeavors?

a. Perseverance

b. Ambition

c. Creativity
d. Enthusiasm

Answer: b

11. With which trait is an entrepreneur able to withstand the troubles that come with a
starting business?

a. Perseverance

b. Ambition

c. Creativity

d. Enthusiasm

Answer: a

12. Which general function or market involves the physical meeting point for buyers and
seller at the point of production or via some other means of communication?

a. Specific functions

b. Exchange functions

c. Physical functions

d. Facilitating functions

Answer: b
13. Which types of marketing functions enables the actual flow of commodities through
space and time producers to consumer and their transformation to desirable to the
consumer?

a. Specific functions

b. Exchange functions

c. Physical functions

d. Facilitating functions

Answer: c

14. From a societal view point, which of the following statements about marketing objective
is NOT true?

a. A Assist in the efficient allocation of resources

b. create wealth and promote economic growth

c. improve income distribution among different sector of the economy

d. Maintain instability of supply and demand for marketed goods

Answer: d

15. Which is considered a vehicle for information target market about the enterprise and
the products or services?
a. Product

b. Price

c. Place

d. Promotion

Answer: c

16. At the stage of marketing effort does an entrepreneur concentrate on targeting a new
market of bayer and talking market share from competitions by price cutting or
relaunching the product?

a. introduction

b. growth

c. place

d. decline

Answer: c

17. Which of the following is NOT appropriate in running a small-scale business?

a. keeping clear records

b. verifying profit and loss


c. Managing cash flow

d. Distribution channel

Answer: c

18. When marketing channel operates with capital owned directly by the operators and
their partners. Or in some cases by shareholders?

a. Co-operatives

b. Independent, locally-based private enterprise

c. Marketing board and other state enterprises

d. Transitional companies

Answer: b

19. At which stage of product life cycle must an entrepreneur whether s/he want to try to
rejuvenate the product by inventing in development and aggressive marketing or to quietly
admin and exit the market?

a. introduction

b. growth

c. place

d. decline
Answer: d

20. A marketing mix can have both tangible and intangible aspects and is the thing you
offer to satisfy you customer wants and needs is ______.

a. product

b. packaging

c. price

d. promotion

Answer: a

1. Which term refers to mathematical business decision that makes orderly delineated
sequences of mathematical operatives that leads to a solution?

a. Conceptual model

b. Quantitative model

c. Algorithms

d. Decision

Answer: b
2. Every day we have to calculate the discounted of shopping mall, allocate how much food
and shopping and when we get a loan from the bank we calculate the interest. This simple
means we need ______.

a. money

b. calculation

c. mathematics

d. percentage

Answer: c

3. Which is also known as Quantitative Finance that is concerned with financial markets
and taking observed market prices as inputs?

a. Mathematical in marketing

b. Mathematical finance

c. Net Income Report

d. Income statement

Answer: b

4. What financial reports reflects the net income sales?

a. Statement of Cash flow


b. Balance Sheet

c. Net income report

d. Income Statement

Answer: d

5. What is the remainder after all the expenses have been deducted from revenues?

a. Repair income

b. Gross income

c. Net income

d. Service Income

Answer: c

6. On what financial statements are assets that are used in the operation of business found?

a. Income statement

b. Statement of owners capital

c. Balance sheet

d. Statement of Cash low


Answer: c

7. The sum of all the expenses from operation of the business can be found on the ______.

a. balance sheet

b. statement of cash flow

c. income statement

d. statement of owners capital

Answer: c

8. To which financial report are Liabilities and capital added?

a. Statement of cash flow

b. Statement of owners capital

c. Income statement

d. Balance sheet

Answer: d

9. What financial statement shows all the received cash from both ongoing operations and
external investments sources?

a. Statement of cash flow


b. Statement of owners capital

c. Income Statement

d. Balance Sheet

Answer: a

10. The earning power of the business firm is reported on the _____.

a. Balance sheet

b. Income Statement

c. Statement of cash flow

d. Statement of owners capital

Answer: b

11. The balance sheet provides the information about ______.

a. all the sales of the firm

b. all the expenses of the firm

c. list of cash received and payment of the firm

d. kist of all assets of the firm


Answer: d

12. Recording the increase of income of a Computer Repair Shop should be written on the
______ column.

a. Asset

b. Income

c. Credit

d. Debit

Answer: c

13. In journalizing the, owner’s withdrawal from his firm should be written on the ______.

a. capital

b. debit

c. credit

d. expenses

Answer: b

14. When a business purchased computer set worth P65,000.00; credit is ______.
a. Account payable, P65,000.00

b. Capital, P65,000.00

c. Computer set expenses P 65,000.00

d. Cash P65,000.00

Answer: a

15. Ms. Alien receives her payment from tutorial of Mrs, Yap’s son; debit cash credit,
______.

a. payment

b. cash

c. fee

d. assets

Answer: a

16. Mr. Albert Patac bought and invested coffee Vending Machine worth P35,000.00. Debit
machine; machine credit ______.

a. Cash P35,000.00

b. A Patac, capital P35,0000.00


c. Asset P35,000.00

d. Expenses, P35,000.00

Answer: b

17. Purchased office supplies and equipment on credit card are ______.

a. debit office, supplies, credit cash

b. debit office supplies, credit accounts payable

c. debit office supplies and equipment, credit cash

d. debit office supplies and equipment, credit accounts payable

Answer: d

18. To find the current liability, one must look at the _____.

a. mortgage payable

b. loan payable

c. bonds payable

d. balance sheet

Answer: d
19. The resources that firm acquires through creditors is called ______.

a. liability

b. capital

c. assets

d. income

Answer: a

20. Business owned that will be due not to exceed a year is referred to as ______.

a. current asset

b. current liability

c. fixed asset

d. fixed liability

Answer: b

TLE Part 14
1. Which is owned by the business that requires prompt payment?

a. Non-current liability
b. Non-current asset

c. fixed asset

c. fixed liability

Answer: b

2. Which refers to a business obligation that requires 15 months of payment?

a. Current liability

b. long-term liability

c. current asset

d. current liability

Answer: b

3. Which of these terms best applies o current asset?

a. Account receivable

b. Account payable

c. Notes receivable

d. Notes payable
Answer: a

4. What is an example of non-current assets?

a. Prepaid expenses

b. Cash in the bank

c. Accounts receivable

d. Properties and equipment

Answer: d

5. What are resources owned for the operation of the business?

a. assets

b. liability

c. capital

d. expenses

Answer: a

6. Some resources of the firm acquired their asset through obligation. What does this refer
to?
a. Expenses

b. Assets

c. Liability

d. Capital

Answer: c

7. After a month, Mr. Patac was able to get all coins he learned from his coffee vending
machine worth P11,755.00 and paid his water bill P750.00 and electricity P1,300.00.

a. P9,705.00

b. P10,455.00

c. P10,455.00

d. P11,005.00

Answer: c

8. How much is the net sales of Mr. Patac after a month of his business?

a. P 11,005.00

b. P 10,455.00

c. P9,705.00
d. P11,755.00

Answer: d

9. Mr. patac bought motorcycle worth P72,000.00 to monitor his expanding coffee vending
machine business. After five (5) years, the said motorcycle will become P15,000.00 value.
How much is he going to set aside per month for depreciation?

a. P57,000.00

b. P11,400.00

c. P950.00

d. P850.00

Answer: b

10. Giving 10% depreciation for the 5 additional units of coffee vending machine that is
worth P35,000.00 each. How much is the depreciation cost of each machine?

a. P17,000.00

b. P3,500.00

c. P4,250.00

d. P1,740.00

Answer: d
11. What is the term that describes the total of cash, plus purchase, plus the customer
obligation to the business?

a. Assets

b. Inventory

c. Profit

d. Liability

Answer: b

12. Which term refers to gross increase in owner’s equity arising from increase in assets
received in exchange for the delivery of goods or services to customers?

a. Assets

b. liability

c. Income

d. Expenses

Answer: c

13. Which term refers to decrease in owner’s equity that increase because goods or service
are delivered to customers?

a. Profit
b. Expenses

c. Earnings

d. Revenue

Answer: d

14. Which is considered to be the best way to assess entrepreneurial project or business
ventures?

a. environment analysis

b. SWOT analysis

c. competition analysis

d. PEST analysis

Answer: b

15. An analysis that provides the details for opportunities and threats of a business to make
batter decision regarding marketing plan is termed ______>

a. environmental analysis

b. SWOT analysis

c. competition analysis
d. PEST analysis

Answer: a

16. The acronym SWOT stands for ______.

a. Strengths-Weaknesses-Option-Threats

b. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunity-Testing

c. Strengths-Weaknesses-Operations-Tactics

d. Strengths-Weakness-Opportunities-Treats

Answer: d

17. Which question is asked at the first stage in the marketing planning process of an
enterprise?

a. Where are we now?

b. Where are we heading?

c. Are we on course?

d. Where would we like to be?

Answer: a
18. Which of these stages is the final stage in the marketing planning process flow chart?

a. Control

b. Marketing planning

c. Setting marketing objectives

d. Setting the product price

Answer: a

19. An entrepreneur might select a target market probably because the target market
______.

a. is attractive to the business and matches its supply capabilities

b. is large and well-served with existing products

c. is fully understood by the entrepreneur

d. has a proven track record for buying product

Answer: a

20. A carefully thought structured formal commercial report that is extraordinary written
to safe any wastage of further investments project is called ________.

a. portfolio
b. business plan

c. resume

d. feasibility

Answer: d

1. Fifty millimeters length of a piece of lumber is how decimeters?

a. 5

b. 0.05

c. 0.005

d. 0.5

Answer: a

2. How tall is a ten-meter building in inches?

a. 3.937

b. 39.37

c. 393.7
d. 3,937

Answer: c

3. A carpenter wants to measure long distances. Which tool is appropriate?

a. Ruler

b. level

c. Plum bob

d. pull push rule

Answer: d

4. A carpenter wants to mark very rough objects. Which tool is appropriate?

a. Chalk line

b. extension rule

c. level

d. border line

Answer: a

5. A carpenter want to obtain vertical line. Which tool is appropriate?


a. crosscut saw

b. rip cut saw

c. back saw

d. hack saw

Answer: c

6. A carpenter want to cut lumber across the grain. Which tool is appropriate?

a. crosscut saw

b. rip saw

c. back saw

d. hack saw

Answer: a

7. A carpenter wants to fasten and remove nails. Which tool is appropriate?

a. hammer

b. ball-pen hammer

c. claw hammer
d. sledge hammer

Answer: c

8. A carpenter want to smoothen wood surface. Which tool is appropriate?

a. file

b. sand paper

c. back saw

d. plane

Answer: d

9. A mason wants to create a smooth finish of concrete after floating. Which tool is
appropriate?

a. brick hammer

b. concrete trowel

c. plane

d. float

Answer: b

10. A mason wants to set or cut brick, block or stone. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Claw hammer

b. Crandall

c. Mason’s hammer

d. Star drill

Answer: c

11. A mason wants to repair mortar joints. Which tool is appropriate?

a. Pointing trowel

b. Crandall

c. Cold chisel

d. Concrete towel

Answer: a

12. A mason want to mix and move mortar in brick laying. Which tool is appropriate?

a. Pointing trowel

b. Crandall

c. Cold chisel
d. Brick towel

Answer: d

13. A mason want to mix concrete. Which tool is appropriate?

a. Shovel

b. Buttering

c. Trowel

d. Float

Answer: a

14. A mason lays bricks. Which tool holds the mortar?

a. shovel

b. hawk

c. trowel

d. float

Answer: b

15. Which is flat with handle at the back usually made of wood?
a. Shovel

b. hawk

c. trowel

d. float

Answer: d

16. Which tool is used in shaping and forming concrete edges?

a. Shovel

b. buttering

c. edger

d. float

Answer: c

17. A mason want to mix concrete for column and slab. Which mixture is appropriate?

a. 1: 2: 4

b. 1: 1 1/2: 3

c. 1: 1 1/2: 5
d. 1: 3: 6

Answer: b

18. A mason wants to mix class B mixture. Which mixture is correct?

a. 1: 2: 4

b. 1: 1 2/3: 3

c. 1: 2 1/2: 5

d. 1: 3: 6

Answer: c

19. A mason want to mix concrete for a slab in the ground. Which mixture is appropriate?

a. 1: 2: 4

b. 1: 1 1/2: 3

c. 1: 2 1/2: 5

d. 1: 3: 6

Answer: a

20. A mason want to mix concrete for hollow block filler. Which mixture is appropriate?
a. 1: 2: 4

b. 1: 1 1/2: 3

c. 1: 2 1/2: 5

d. 1: 2: 6

Answer: d

1. A plumber wants lighten and loosen pipe. Which tool is appropriate?

a. pipe cutter

b. flux

c. pipe wrench

d. butane torch

Answer: c

2. A plumber want to cut metal pipe. Which tool is appropriate?

a. hacksaw

b. back saw
c. handsaw

d. dry wall knife

Answer: d

3. Metal with semi rigid auger whose end is usually fitter with a hook or corkscrew is called
______.

a. plumber

b. plunger

c. valve

d. bushing

Answer: b

4. If your toilet has trouble you use rubber funnel-shape instrument attached to the end of
the handle for unblocking. What is this tool?

a. plumper’s snake

b. vavle

c. plunger

d. bushing
Answer: a

5. Which plumbing tool is used for gripping large pipes and irregular objects?

a. Monkey wrench

b. Chain wrench

c. Yoke vise

d. Pipe wrench

Answer: c

6. A plumber want to create thread outside pipe by hand. Which tool is appropriate?

a. pipe cutter

b. pipe threader

c. yoke vise

d. pipe wrench

Answer: b

7. A plumber wants to cut pipes. Which holding tool is needed?

a. pipe cutter
b. pipe threader

c. yoke vise

d. pipe wrench

Answer: a

8. The production of magnetic field by current in a conductor is called ______.

a. electromagnetism

b. ferromagnetic

c. magnetic

d. diamagnetic

Answer: a

9. The type of current which the amplitude drops to zero periodically and is produced in
rectifier is known as _____.

a. Pulsating direct current

b. damped alternating current

c. varying direct current

d. saw tooth wave


Answer: b

10. Printed on the dial of AM radio is an RF band covering ______.

a. kHz 76-90 Mhz

b. 88-108 Mhz

c. 16Hz-20 kHz

d. 535-1605 kHz

Answer: d

11. An ordinary radio can be tuned in different stations. The electronic component
responsible for this function is the ______.

a. tuning capacitor

b. oscillator

c. IF transforms

d. detector diode

Answer: a

12. The condition of a loud speaker is tested more accurately using one of the range listed
below. Which one?
a. Rx1k

b. Rx10

c. Rx1

d. Rx1oK

Answer: a

13. Working efficient is a good work habit. Tinning the tip of soldering iron refers to
______.

a. cleaning the tip with a sand paper

b. making the tip pointed

c. cutting the tip

d. applying flux the tip

Answer: a

14. The common cause of erratic or distorted sound of a transistor radio is a defective
______.

a. amplifier

b. volume control
c. antenna

d. tuner

Answer: b

15. An appliances with 110V AC supply is accidentally plugged to 220V AC outlet. What
component is usually destroyed?

a. switch

b. AC plug

c. Line fuse

d. Power transformer

Answer: c

16. Which form of electricity has current flow always in the same direction?

a. Voltage

b. Power

c. Alternating current

d. Direct current
Answer: d

17. The form of electricity has currently flow always in the same direction?

a. power

b. resistance

c. electromagnetism

d. frequency

Answer: b

18. Which part of electrical circuit converts electrical energy into another form of energy to
do work?

a. load

b. circuit

c. source

d. control

Answer: a

19. A law the states that the current is directly proportional to voltage and inversely
proportional to resistance is known as ______.
a. PEC

b. Law of resistivity

c. Kirchoff’s law

d. Ohm’s law

Answer: d

20. Circuit breaker are used to protect house hold electrical circuits. What is the capacity
rating of the breaker used for convenience outlets of general purpose circuits?

a. 20 Amperes

b. 30 Amperes

c. 15 Amperes

d. 60 Amperes

Answer: a

1. Which of the following is the correct definition of the term “entrepreneur”? A person
who ______.

a. pursues opportunity without regard to resources

b. start a new business with the aim of making profit


c. seeks to create values for local communities, people or customers by starting new
ventures which exploit new products, processes or markets

d. seeks to generate value through creation or expansion of economic activity, by


identifying and exploiting new products, processes or markets.

Answer: c

2. Which of the following skills are NOT needed by an entrepreneur?

a. Technical skills

b. Personal entrepreneurial skills

c. Woking skills

d. Business management skills

Answer: c

3. Which of the following statement is INAPPROPRIATE in starting a business?

a. study the concepts and principles of entrepreneurial skills

b. Cope with failures of the business

c. Undergo training on entrepreneurial skills


d. know what characteristics are need to become an entrepreneur

Answer: b

4. Which of the following is NOT a source of fund for Ms. Burgos future business?

a. seek assistance from central bank of the Philippines

b. borrow money from friends and relatives

c. Avail for the government program on financing micro-macro business

d. Use part of the retirement benefit.

Answer: a

5. If her business idea is a boutique, what quality of a future entrepreneur is


INAPPROPRIATE?

a. relaxed

b. hard worker

c. risk-taker

d. innovative

Answer: a

6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an entrepreneur?


a. coping with failure

b. irritated

c. opportunity seeker

d. persistent

Answer: b

7. Which among these characteristics of an entrepreneur?

a. Coping with failure

b. Goal setter

c. Futuristic

d. Impassive

Answer: d

8. Which of the following is a primary cause of failure in small business?

a. Poor financial control

b. Poor location

c. Management mistakes
d. Improper inventory control

Answer: b

9. Which these traits gets an entrepreneur off of his/ er feet and puts him/her into action
turning daydreams into reality?

a. Perseverance

b. Ambition

c. Creativity

d. Enthusiasm

Answer: d

10. Which entrepreneurial traits gives an entrepreneur a positive outlook in life which gives
the energy to pursue his/her endeavors?

a. Perseverance

b. Ambition

c. Creativity

d. Enthusiasm

Answer: b
11. With which trait is an entrepreneur able to withstand the troubles that come with a
starting business?

a. Perseverance

b. Ambition

c. Creativity

d. Enthusiasm

Answer: a

12. Which general function or market involves the physical meeting point for buyers and
seller at the point of production or via some other means of communication?

a. Specific functions

b. Exchange functions

c. Physical functions

d. Facilitating functions

Answer: b

13. Which types of marketing functions enables the actual flow of commodities through
space and time producers to consumer and their transformation to desirable to the
consumer?
a. Specific functions

b. Exchange functions

c. Physical functions

d. Facilitating functions

Answer: c

14. From a societal view point, which of the following statements about marketing objective
is NOT true?

a. Assist in the efficient allocation of resources

b. create wealth and promote economic growth

c. improve income distribution among different sectors

d. Maintain instability of supply and demand for marketed goods

Answer: d

15. Which is considered a vehicle for information target market about the enterprise and
the products or services?

a. Product

b. Price
c. Place

d. Promotion

Answer: c

16. At the stage of marketing effort does an entrepreneur concentrate on targeting a new
market of buyer and talking market share from competitions by price cutting or
relaunching the product?

a. introduction

b. growth

c. place

d. decline

Answer: c

17. Which of the following is NOT appropriate in running a small-scale business?

a. keeping clear records

b. verifying profit and loss

c. managing cash flow

d. distribution channel
Answer: c

18. Which marketing channel operates with capital owned directly by the operators and
their partners. Or in some cases by shareholders?

a. Co-operatives

b. Independent, locally-based private enterprise

c. Marketing board and other state enterprises

d. Transitional companies

Answer: b

19. At which stage of product life cycle must an entrepreneur decide whether s/he wants to
try to rejuvenate the product by inventing in development and aggressive marketing or to
quietly admit and exit the market?

a. introduction

b. growth

c. place

d. decline

Answer: d

20. A marketing mix that can have both tangible and intangible aspects and is the thing you
offer to satisfy your customer want and needs is _______.
a. product

b. packaging

c. price

d. promotion

Answer: a

1. Which term refers to mathematical business decision that makes orderly delineated
sequences of mathematical operatives that leads to a solution?

a. Conceptual model

b. Quantitative model

c. Algorithms

d. Decision

Answer: c

2. Every day we have to calculate the discounted of shopping mall, allocate how much food
and shopping and when we get a loan from the bank we calculate the interest. This simply
means we need ______.

a. money
b. calculations

c. mathematics

d. percentage

Answer: c

3. Which is also known as Quantitative Finance that is concerned with financial markets
and taking observed market prices as inputs?

a. Mathematical in marketing

b. Mathematical finance

c. Net Income Report

d. Income statement

Answer: b

4. What financial reports reflects the net income sales?

a. Statement of Cash flow

b. Balance Sheet

c. Net income report


d. Income Statement

Answer: d

5. What is the remainder after all the expenses have been deducted from revenues?

a. Repair income

b. Gross income

c. Net income

d. Service income

Answer: b

6. On what financial statements are assets that are used in the operation of business found?

a. Income statement

b. Statement of owners capital

c. Balance sheet

d. Statement of Cash low

Answer: c

7. The sum of all the expenses from the operation of the business can be found on the
______.
a. balance sheet

b. statement of cash flow

c. income statement

d. statement of owners capital

Answer: c

8. To which financial reports are Liabilities and capital added?

a. Statement of cash flow

b. Statement of owners of owners capital

c. income statement

d. Balance sheet

Answer: d

9. What financial statement shows all the received cash from both ongoing operations and
external investments sources?

a. Statement of cash flow

b. Statement of owners of owners capital


c. income statement

d. Balance sheet

Answer: a

10. The earning power of the business firm is reported on the ______.

a. Balance sheet

b. Income statement

c. Statement of cash flow

d. Statement of owners of owners capital

Answer: b

11. The balance sheet provides the information about ______.

a. all the sales of the firm

b. all the expenses of the firm

c. list of cash received and payments of the firm

d. list of all assets of the firm

Answer: d
12. Recording the increase of income of a Computer Repair Shop should be written on the
_______ column.

a. Asset

b. Income

c. Credit

d. Debit

Answer: c

13. In journalizing the owner’s withdrawal from his firm should be written on the ______.

a. capital

b. debit

c. credit

d. expenses

Answer: b

14. When a business purchased computer set worth P65,000.00 for the office; debit
computer set, P65,000.00; credit is ______.

a. Accounts payable, P65,000.00


b. Capital, P65,000.00

c. Computer set expenses P65,000.00

d. Cash P65,000.00

Answer: d

15. Ms. Alien receives her payment from tutorial of Mrs, Yap’s son; debit cash credit,
______.

a. payment

b. cash

c. fee

d. assets

Answer: c

16. Mr. Albert Patac bought and invested coffee Vending Machine worth P35,0000.00.
Debit machine; machine credit ______.

a. Cash P35,000.00

b. A Patac, capital P35,000.00

c. Asset P35,000.00
d. Expenses, P35,000.00

Answer: b

17. Purchased office supplies and equipment on credit card are _______.

a. debit office, supplies, credit cash

b. debit office supplies, credit account payable

c. debit office supplies and equipment, credit cash

d. debit office supplies and equipment, credit accounts payable

Answer: d

18. To find the current liability, one must look at the ______.

a. mortgage payable

b. loans payable

c. bonds payable

d. salaries

Answer: d

19. The resources that firm acquires through creditors is called ______.
a. liability

b. capital

c. assets

d. income

Answer: a

20. Business owned that will be due not to exceed a year is referred to as ______.

a. current asset

b. current liability

c. fixed asset

d. fixed liability

Answer: b

1. Which is owed by the business that requires prompt payment?

a. Non-current liability

b. Non-current asset

c. fixed asset
d. fixed liability

Answer: d

2. Which refers to a business obligation that requires 15 months of payment?

a. Current liability

b. long-term liability

c. current asset

d. current liability

Answer: b

3. Which of these terms best applies o current asset?

a. Account receivable

b. Account payable

c. Notes receivable

d. Notes payable

Answer: a
4. What is an example of non-current assets?

a. Prepaid expenses

b. Cash in the bank

c. Accounts receivable

d. Properties and equipment

Answer: d

5. What are resources owned for the operation of the business?

a. assets

b. liability

c. capital

d. expenses

Answer: a

6. Some resources of the firm acquired their asset through obligation. What does this refer
to?

a. Expenses

b. Assets
c. Liability

d. Capital

Answer: c

7. After a month, Mr. Patac was able to get all coins he earned form his coffee vending
machine worth P11,755.00 and paid his water bill P750.00 and electricity P1,300.00.

a. P9,705.00

b. P10,455.00

c. P11,755.00

d. P11,005.00

Answer: c

8. How much is the net sales of Mr, Patac after a month of his business?

a. P11,005.00

b. P10,455.00

c. P9,705.00

d. P11,755.00
Answer: c

9. Mr. Patac bought motorcycle worth P72,000.00 to monitor his expanding coffee vending
machine business. After five (5) years, the said motorcycle will become P15,000.00 value.
How much is he going to set aside per month for depreciation?

a. P57,000.00

b. P11,400.00

c. P950.00

d. P850.00

Answer: c

10. Giving 10% depreciation for the 5 additional units of coffee Vending machine that is
worth P35,000.00 each. How much is the depreciation cost of each machine?

a. P17,000.00

b. P3,500.00

c. P4,250.00

d. P1,750.00

Answer: b

11. What is the term that describes the total of cash, plus purchase the customers obligation
to the business?
a. Assets

b. Inventory

c. Profit

d. liability

Answer: a

12. Which term refers to gross increase in owner’s equity arising form increase in assets
received in exchange fro the delivery of goods or services to customers?

a. Assets

b. Liability

c. Income

d. Expenses

Answer: c

13. Which term refers to decrease in owner’s equity that increases because goods or
services are delivered to customers?

a. Profit

b. Expenses
c. Earnings

d. Revenue

Answer: b

14. Which is considered to be the best way to assess entrepreneurial project or business
ventures?

a. environmental analysis

b. SWOT analysis

c. competition analysis

d. PEST analysis

Answer: b

15. An analysis that provides the details for opportunities and threats of a business to make
batter decision regarding marketing plan is termed _______.

a. environment analysis

b. SWOT analysis

c. competition analysis

d. PEST analysis
Answer: d

16. The acronym SWOR stands for ______.

a. Strengths-Weaknesses-Option-Threats

b. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunity-Testing

c. Strengths-Weaknesses-Operations-Tactics

d. Strengths-Weakness-Opportunities-Threats

Answer: d

17. Which question is asked at the first sate in the marketing planning process of an
enterprise?

a. Where are we now?

b. Where are we heading?

c. Are we on course?

d. Where would we like to be?

Answer: a

18. Which of these stages is the final stage in the marketing planning process flow chart?
a. Control

b. Marketing planning

c. Setting marketing objectives

d. Setting the product price

Answer: a

19. An entrepreneur might select a target market probably because the target market
______.

a. is attractive to the business and matches it supply capabilities

b. is large and well-served with existing products

c. is fully understood by the entrepreneur

d. has a proven track record for buying product.

Answer: a

20. A carefully thought structured formal commercial report that is extraordinarily well
documented and clearly written to safe any wastage of further investments project is called
______.

a. portfolio

b. business plan
c. resume

d. feasibility

Answer: a

1. When a designer or an ordinary person translates his or her design idea with the use
only of paper and pencil, what is the name of the activity?

a. architectural delineation

b. freehand sketching

c. geometric construction

d. drafting

Answer: b

2. After the 2-dimensional drawings are done and all the shapes and sizes being laid-out
next step to be executed to complete the process is called ______.

a. dimensioning

b. tolerancing

c. graphics
d. shape and size description

Answer: a

3. With the help of drawing instruments such as T-square and triangles one produces quick
and accurate delineations for an intended project. The process is considered as ______.

a. drafting

b. pictorial drawing

c. graphics

d. shape and size descriptions

Answer: a

4. Technical drafting the manipulation of the elements of geometry to make accurate


description of shapes. Which term is referred to by engineers?

a. blueprint reading

b. geometric construction

c. line weights

d. measurements

Answer: b
5. Objects to be drawn are not always solid in nature and if we want to explain complex
object to the reader of our blueprints, we need an imaginary cut through a component
(part) or an assembly drawing to portray exactly what is inside. This element is called
_______.

a. sectioning

b. parallel perspective

c. etching

d. dimensioning

Answer: a

6. To make drawing look more professional, the notes, dimensions and other specification
must be professionally executed. In manual drafting this is called ______.

a. lettering by hand

b. scaling

c. drawing of views

d. legibility

Answer: a

7. In various engineering fields multiple line weights tare being used to emphasize or
deemphasize areas of a drawing, It is also standardized in order for a uniform
interpretation of drawings. The term is called ______.
a. horizontal line

b. center line

c. drawing of views

d. dimensioning

Answer: c

8. It is about placing units of measure to the height, width and length of an object to convey
accurate instructions to produce that part. In old English it is called “dimensions”. In
drafting this means ______.

a. tolerancing

b. datum

c. axis

d. dimensioning

Answer: a

9. Which is a method of representing the exact shape and size of an object drawn to scale
on “set of planes” of projection? It is also known as 3-view drawing.

a. orthographic projection

b. perspective construction
c. isometric drawing

d. fourth dimension

Answer: a

10. Which technique in pictorial drawings appear like dimensional but the lines are exactly
30 degrees from the horizontal part of the object?

a. Isometric drawing

b. Cabinet drawing

c. Oblique drawing

d. Perspective drawing

Answer: a

11. As far as the appearance of the drawing is concerned, it is the most important part for
the usefulness of the drawing it can be ruined of it is done carelessly.

Which referred to?

a. Painting

b. Lettering

c. Etching
d. Calligraphy

Answer: b

12. There are six secrets of lettering namely: form proportion, stability, density, spacing.
Identify the sixth secret by completing this adage “a good drafts man will never letter
without the use of ______.

a. line

b. guidelines

c. horizontal lines

d. borderlines

Answer: b

13. Five guidelines are accepted in the drafting fielded. Which of them are laid our to touch
the capital letter C aside from the base line?

a. base line

b. cap line

c. drop line

d. waist line

Answer: b
14. Which of these are positioned to limit letter g aside from the waist line?

a. cap line

b. drop line

c. waist line

d. base line

Answer: b

15. Of the many styles of letters, the most commonly used are script or italics, gothic, old
english and roman. Which of them is most commonly used for college diploma?

a. Roman

b. Script or Italics

c. Old English

d. Gothic

Answer: c

16. Extended letters of a given height are more legible while compressed letters are used
when ______.

a. space id limited
b. space is wide

c. space is limitless

d. space is narrow

Answer: a

17. Time is gold so a drafter must not get into a habit of making excessively time
consuming letters, single-stroke letters are advised with ______.

a. rapidly of strokes

b. sloppiness

c. laziness

d. free and natural fashion

Answer: d

18. A grade 9 student understood that the roman letters consist of thick and thin lines and
was asking to himself what were those small thin lines at the end of every letter except 0? In
the drafting field the lines are called ______.

a. serifs

b. stem

c. dash line
d. ditto

Answer: a

19. Prior to the introduction of computer-aided design and drafting there are tools in
lettering which are made of either plastic or aluminum on which the drafter just traced the
letter using a technical pen to produce each letter. The instrument is called ______.

a. lettering template

b. lettering box

c. Leroy guide

d. pressure-sensitive guide

Answer: b

20. For beginning drafters the suggested height of letters to practice first is 6mm and then
shift to a height of ______.

a. 30mm

b. 3mm

c. 1mm

d. 50mm

Answer: b
1. How is highlight produced for corrective make-up? A highlight is produced when
_______.

a. A darker foundation than the original one is applied to particular part of the dace.

b. a lighter shade than the original one is applied to a particular part of the face

c. a medium shade similar to the original one is applied to a particular part of the face

d. a shadow subdues or minimize prominent features.

Answer: b

2. What must one remember in giving facial manipulation to induce relaxation?

a. Routine

b. tempo

c. pressure

d. skin type

Answer: b

3. A client comes into the salon for a scalp treatment. She has home obvious abrasions on
her scalp. Which treatment would be accepted?
a. Apply an antiseptic scalp treatment with minimum massage

b. Apply an oil treatment with heat cap

c. Advise the client of her scalp condition and reschedule her appointment

d. Give a first aid treatment and proceed with manipulations.

Answer: c

Mikay Noticeably has gray but she is only 11 years old and she not an albino.

4. What may the cause gray hairs at this early age?

a. Lack of sleep and overexposed to computers

b. She has serious illness

c. She has defect in pigment formation occurring at birth

d. A result of the natural aging process of humans

Answer: c

5. Who is an albino? A person with _______.

a. A hypertrichosis or superfluous hair, an abnormal development of hair

b. an absence of coloring matter in the hair shaft, which is accompanied by no marked of


pigment coloring in the skin or irises of the eyes.
c. Androgenetic alopecia

d. a small involuntary muscle attached to the underside of a hair follicule

Answer: b

6. What type of hair cutting is done when one holds the shears at an angle to the hair
stranded other than 90 degrees?

a. blunt cut

b. beveled cut

c. graduated cut

d. undercutting

Answer: b

7. Which of the following safety measure in hair cutting is NOT true?

a. Always palm the shears when combining the hair

b. When cutting bangs or any area close to the skin

c. Beginners should always use a guard when razor cutting

d. Cut past the second knuckle when cutting on the inside of the hand
Answer: a

8. Which is an art of arranging the hair with attractive shapes and styles?

a. Hairstyling

b. Hair trimming

c. Curling

d. Waving

Answer: d

9. Tenny cut the hair of Miss G. Tenny just did partially wet and partially dry of Miss G’s
hair. What would be the result of Miss G’s heir?

a. Even

b. Uneven

c. Perfect

d. Curly

Answer: b

10. Following a haircut, when is texturing performed most effectively?

a. On dry hair styled the way it will typically be won.


b. At the shampoo after the conditioner is applied

c. On soaking wet hair that has been brushed

d. On moderately damp hair prior to styling

Answer: a

11. The following are some myths about hair growth EXCEOT one. Which one?

a. close clipping, shaving, trimming, cutting or singeing has an effect on the rate of hair
growth

b. The application of oils increases hair growth

c. Hair grows after death

d. Normal hair, healthy hair grows

Answer: d

12. Cutting the hair for a graduated effect is called ______.

a. tapered haircutting

b. wedge haircutting

c. sectioning
d. berbering

Answer: a

13. Which of the following is an art of creating curls is called _______.

a. Hairstyling

b. Thermal styling

c. Hair setting

d. Traditional finger waving

Answer: c

14. Which is done to increase the circulation of the blood to scalp, rest and soothe the
nerves, stimulate the muscles and the activity of the activity of the scalp glands?

a. Shampooing

b. Hair treatment

c. Scalp manipulation

d. Rebonding

Answer: c

15. Which is the correct way to remove tangles from the hair before hair stylling.
a. crown

b. forehead

c. nape of the neck

d. back of the head

Answer: c

16. Under the circumstances how many strands of hair does an average person shed per
day?

a. 20-50

b. 40-100

c. 80-120

d. 150-200

Answer: b

17. Hair is distributed all over the body EXCEPT on

a. soles of the feet

b earlobe
c. hands

d. eyes

Answer: a

18. Which one helps to moisturize the face to return lost moisture and hydrate the skin to
slow down the skin aging process?

a. Anti-aging face creams

b. Face-toners

c. face exfoliators

d. Face creams

Answer: d

19. What among the following would be the first step in giving facial?

a. apply cleansing cream

b. apply treatment mask

c. apply moisturizer

d. apply massage cream

Answer: b
20. Which of the following statement is NOT a concern in analyzing the clients skin? If the
______.

a. skin is dry normal or oily

b. shape of the face

c. line creases exist

d. skin texture is smooth or rough

Answer: b

1. If you were the pedicurist what would you do?

a. tell your customer to look for another pedicurist

b. refrain from becoming emotional and continue working without being bothered by the
complained

c. remain cool and calm pleasant and professional

d. ask for apology, maintain professionalism and ask what she wants.

Answer: d

2. Which of the following first thing the pedicurist should do to avoid such situation
a. Be courteous

b. Ask the customer what she wants for her toenails like the shape, color etc.

c. Decide your own design and styles

d. Proceed to the service right after customer A says she want pedicuring

Answer: b

3. Which is not desirable quality for effective client relation?

a. emotional control

b. positive approach

c. good manner

d. discussing personal life

Answer: d

4. Which of the following statement is NOT true?

a. cosmetologist is one of the best advertisements for a salon

b. salon owners and managers do not consider appearance, personality, and poise to be
important as technical knowledge a manual skill
c. The female cosmetologist should wear stylish shoes that fit and comfortable at the end of
a long day.

d. The female stylist should have their hair done least once a week and their hair should
reflect the best workmanship of the salon

Answer: b

5. The following are guidelines for good human relations and professional attitude
EXCEPT one. Which is the exception?

a. Always greet a client by name with a pleasant tone of voice

b. Show some interest in the client personal preferences

c. Make a good impression by wearing obstructive jewelry to look at your best

d. Be ethical in all your dealings with clients and others with whom you come in contact.

Answer: c

Lersa applied as public teacher. She doesn’t have any experience for job interview. Could
you please help her decide?

6. What type of clothing will she wear?

a. Casual dress

b. Sunday dress

c. Business attire
d. Party dress

Answer: c

7. What type of make may she put-on?

a. corrective make-up

b. light makeup

c. heavy makeup

d. photographic makeup

Answer: b

Miss T was invited as one the the principal sponsors in her best friend’s daughter’
wedding. She went salon to have hairstyle, makeup, manicure and pedicure.

8. Miss T. wants a neatly finished up style. Which of style is best suited for her?

a. French Twist Hairstyle

b. Laced-Up and elegant Hair style

c. Chignon

d. Peta and blooms hairstyle


Answer: b

9. Which of the following makeup does she need?

a. Day makeup

b. Evening makeup

c. Photographic makeup

d. Theatrical/ Fantasy makeup

Answer: c

10. Miss T. has short nail. What nails shape is best for her?

a. Round Nail

b. Oval Nail

c. Square Nail

d. Pointed Nail

Answer: c

Mrs. P just finished her discussion about the equipment, implements, cosmetic and
material in manicuring and pedicuring. She asked her student to classify the following
items;
Nail brush, cuticle nipper, assorted colored polish, chair, finger, bowl, cuticle pusher,
cotton, top coat, antiseptic solution, cuticle remover, hand towel, manicure, pillow, nail file
orange wood stick, nail polish remover base coat and nail polish remover.

11. Which of these are implements?

a. Chair, manicure pillow, and finger bowl

b. Assorted colored polish, top coat, base coat and cuticle remover

c. Finger bowl, manicure pillow and chair

d. Orange wood stick cuticle nipper, nail file and nail brush

Answer: a

12. Which of these are cosmetics?

a. cotton, hand towel. Antiseptic solution, alcohol and nail polish remover

b. top coat, base coat, assorted colored polish and cuticle remover

c. Finger bowl, manicure pillow and chair

d. Orange wood stick cuticle nipper, nail file and nail brush

Answer: b

13. Which of these is equipment?


a. Cuticle remover, base coat, top coat assorted colored polish

b. The pointed side used push back and moisten the cuticle

c. The pointed side is used to push back and remove the cuticles

d. The dull spade side is used to push back and loosen the cuticle

Answer: d

14. Which of these is the correct way to use cuticle nail file?

a. The pointed side used push back and moisten the cuticle

b. The dull spade side is used to scrape and moisten the cuticles

c. The pointed side is used to push back and remove the cuticles

d. The dull spade side is used to push back and loosen the cuticle

Answer: d

15. Which of these is the correct way to use nail brush? Insert the ring finger and pinky in
the nail brush handle and brush the nails _____.

a. with a downward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails

b. with sideward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails

c. With an upward tips to clean the nails and fingers


d. With a sawing motion from the base to the finger tips to clean the nails and fingers

Answer: a

16. Which is created by allowing the nail to grow out straight and then filing the straight
across at tight angles with the nail place?

a. Round nail

b. Square nail

c. Pointed nail

d. Oval nail

Answer: b

17. Massage is part of manicuring and pedicuring services. When is massage applied?
Before _____.

a. removing old polish

b. coloring polish

c. base coat

d. top coat

Answer: c
18. Which of the following is the last step in manicuring/ pedicuring?

a. Apply to coat

b. Clean under free edge

c. Re-examine nails and cuticles

d. Dry fingertips

Answer: c

19. Which of these is an imaginative and artistic process of caring for the nails and, toenail,
involving special care and expertise for bringing out the best effects?

a. Nail tattoo

b. Nail art

c. Nail extender

d. nail technician

Answer: b

20. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. Adult fingernails grow at an average rate of 1/8 inch a month


b. Older people nail grow slowly than younger people

c. Fingernails grow more easily than toenails

d. The rate of nail growth is greatest during winter

Answer: a

1. In the field of drafting each line has a specific meaning. This is to establish a uniform
way interpreting complex blueprints of objects and other mega projects. These lines are
called ______.

a. alphabet of lines

b. alpha numeric lines

c. language of lines

d. lines of sight

Answer: a

2. Based on a blueprint, a machinist is about to drill a form 16mm diameter holes a piece of
100mm x 120mm flat bar. Which lines in the alphabet of lines mist look first?

a. hidden line

b. phantom line
c. centerline

d. section line

Answer: c

3. When a drawing the different views in orthographic projection a drafter must


acknowledge that there are hidden edges that must be emphasize in order to produce a
complete drawing information.

Which line is he going to use?

a. hidden line

b. section line

c. center line

d. object line

Answer: a

4. A drawing teacher on a local high school was discussing a feature on which the surface
appears to have been imaginary cut along plane line. Which line is she going to apply to the
surface where the cutting plane cut through?

a. center line

b. dimension line

c. section line
d. invisible line

Answer: c

5. There are six principal views of an object; the top view, the front view, right side view,
left side view, right side view, bottom view and the rear views. Which of the following views
are accepted by the industry as standard multi-views according to the 3rd angle
projection?

a. top view, the front view, right side view, left side view

b. side view, bottom view, and rear views

c. right side view, left side view, and bottom views

d. front view, rear view, side views

Answer: c

6. A group of students is experimenting on views on orthographic projection. They extract


first the front view of a simple object using a transparent material as discussed by their
teachers. What technique are they using?

a. glass box technique

b. onion skin technique

c. Japanese paper technique

d. polycarbonate technique
Answer: a

7. Orthographic projection goes farther than right angle. A drafter can actually extract
views for more details of the object provided that the projection are parallel to each other
and normal to the plane projection. The additional plan is called ______.

a. frontal plane

b. auxiliary plane

c. profile plane

d. horizontal plane

Answer: a

8. All of the object have distinct limits which can be considered as the withs, depth and
height. So when a drafter is working on the difference in elevation between any two points,
measured as the perpendicular distance between a pair of horizon lines, he is now engaged
in the _______ of the object.

a. depth

b. height

c. width

d. bottom

Answer: b
9. When an engineer is engaged in the preparation of views prior to formal drafting
activities, he practically bases his information on actual and accurate observation. This
process is regarded as ______.

a. pencil and paper exercise

b. glass box technique

c. orthographic sketch

d. order of drawing

Answer: c

10. After all the view are given the drafter must know now work on the real form of the
objects based on actual result of the orthographic projection. This process is called
_______.

a. pictorial drawing

b. depth dimensions

c. heigh dimension

d. center dimension

Answer: c

11. In isometric drawings the angle used to aid in the construction of the object is 30
degrees and all vertical lines are equal to their actual lengths or scale but in oblique
drawing the angle used is ______.
a, 40 degrees

b. 45 degrees

c. 30 degrees

d. 60 degrees

Answer: a

12. In oblique drawing, the depth of the object is reduced to 1/2 in case of cabinet oblique,
3/4 in case of a general oblique, and true or same measurement in ______ oblique

a. with

b. cavalier

c. specific

d. object

Answer: c

13. Which technique is commonly used around the world as a graphic method of
representing a-3-dimensional object and intended to combine the illusion of depth, with the
undistorted presentation of the object principal dimensions?

a. cavalier oblique

b. Isometric drawing
c. Cabinet oblique

d. General oblique

Answer: b

14. When an observer stands in the middle of a street, the end of the street seems the
narrow as far as his eyes can see. then he tries to draw the building as its appears on his
visual observations.

The process is called _______.

a. perspective drawing

b. isometric drawing

c. diametric drawing

d. cabinet drawing

Answer: b

15. A student in drafting has done drawing the three views, his next task is to indicate the
dimensions to complete the information. What is the distance of the first dimensions from
the views?

a. 1″

b. 2″
c. 1/8″

d. 1/2″

Answer: b

16. There is a good reason why we shouldn’t place dimension directly on the drawing itself.
This is to avoid ______.

a. super dimensioning

b. overcrowding dimensions

c. inaccurate dimensions

d. aligned dimensioning

Answer: d

17. The radius of an arc should always be specified by the drafter in the form of a symbol
which denotes ______.

a. R

b. r

c. rad

d. ra
Answer: b

18. It is important for the drafting student to place the overall dimension of a part or view
to appear more pleasing to the reader. It is placed starting from the ______.

a. shortest dimension line outside the views

b. longest dimension line outside the view

c. longer dimension inside the view

d. shorter dimension inside the view

Answer: a

19. Some drafters often place dimensions on every view while this may be permitted in
some drafting classes let’s keep in mind that these are repetitions and can be avoided. This
is referred to as ______.

a. superfluous dimensioning

b. unidirectional dimensioning

c. aligned dimensioning

d. tolerance dimensioning

Answer: a

20. In the rule of section drawing. All visible edges exposed by the cutting plane line must
be emphasized and a series of lines can be drawn. This process I called ______.
a. filling-up of section lines

b. eliminating hidden lines

c. eliminating object lines

d. symmetric objects

Answer: a

1. what types of switch is used to control alternately three-phase line system using two
sources of power?

a. double pole single throw switch

b. single pole double throw switch

c. triple pole single throw switched

d. triple pole double throw switch

Answer: d

2. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?

a. copper
b. aluminum

c. silver

d. gold

Answer: c

3. What type of switch when you want to control one lamp or group of lamps in two
different locations?

a. two, 3-way switch

b. one, 4-way switch

c. two single switch

d. duplex switch

Answer: a

4. Cells are connected in parallel to increase the ______ capacity of the cells.

a. current

b. voltage

c. resistance

d. inductance
Answer: a

5. The resistors are to be connected in four possible types of circuit connections namely
series, parallel, series parallel and parallel-series. Which type of connection will give the
least amount of equivalent resistance?

a. series

b. parallel

c. series-parallel

d. parallel

Answer: b

6. Which is an exposed wiring method that uses cleats, knobs, tubes and flexible tubing for
the protection and support or on building and not concealed by the building structure?

a. Open wiring on insulators

b. Armored cable wiring

c. Concealed knob and tube wiring

d. Metal clad cable wiring

Answer: a
7. What will happen if two 100-w, 230v incandescent lamps are connected in series across a
230 v sources?

a. both lamps

b. both lamps will get burnt

c. each lamp will give lesser output lights

d. each lamp will give more output lights

Answer: c

8. What is the mean why electrical appliances are connected in parallel rather the series?

a. Parallel connection consumes lesser power

b. Parallel connection is simpler

c. each appliance consumes more power if connected in series

d. it makes the operation of each appliance independent of each other

Answer: d

9. When replacing a busted fuse which of the following is important?

a. same size and type

b. same type but different rating


c. same size but different rating

d. different size and type

Answer: a

10. Which of the following is a source of alternating current?

a. dynamo

b. battery

c. dry cell

d. alternator

Answer: d

11. When there is a break in the circuit and the current could not pass through the circuit
is _______.

a. close

b. shorted

c. grounded

d. alternator
Answer: d

12. Which term usually refers to a device that produces an electric current when light falls
upon them?

a. solar cell

b. dry cell

c. solar lamp

d. solar light

Answer: a

13. Which is a synchronous alternating current machine that changes mechanical power
into electrical power?

a. dynamo

b. motor

c. alternator

c. lathe machine

Answer: c

14. Which battery CANNOT be recharge after its chemical energy has been depleted?
a. energizer

b. eveready

c. primary battery

d. secondary battery

Answer: c

15. Which generates direct current?

a. alternator

b. dynamo

c. battery

d. adaptor

Answer: b

16. Which battery can be recharged after each chemical energy has been depleted.

a. primary battery

b. energizer

c. eveready
d. secondary battery

Answer: d

17. What is used to change mechanical energy into electrical energy?

a. battery

b. circuit

c. dry cells

d. generator

Answer: d

18. A process in splitting the atom of uranium is called ______.

a, fusion

b. fission

c. friction

d. tension

Answer: a

19. A process in joining hydrogen atoms which causes heat hotter than the sun is called
_______.
a. fusion

b. fission

c. friction

d. tension

Answer: a

20. Which transform heat energy to electric energy energy?

a. transformer

b. battery

c. generator

d. thermocouple

Answer: d

1. Which lumber has wood fiber that are packed closely together?

a. edge-grain

b. angle-grain
c. flat-grain

d. close-grain

Answer: d

2. Which lumber has wood fibers that do not run parallel to the board?

a. edge-grain

b. angle-grain

c. flat-grain

d. close-grain

Answer: b

3. A carpenter makes a picture frame. Which type of joint is appropriate?

a. dado joint

b. tennon joint

c. lap joint

d. milter joint

Answer: d
4. A carpenter fixes shelves to a bookcase. Which type of joints is appropriate?

a. dado joint

b. tennon join

c. lap joint

d. milter joint

Answer: a

5. In which joints is the end one member inserted to the other members?

a. dado joint

b. tennon joint

c. lap joint

d. milter joint

Answer: b

6. Which joint describes the technique for joining two pieces by putting one side over the
other?

a. dado joint
b. tennon joint

c. lap joint

d. milter joint

Answer: c

7. Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two pieces by putting one end over
the other?

a. dado joint

b. tennon joint

c. lap joint

d. milter joint

Answer: b

8. A carpenter wants to make a dining table. Which joint is appropriate to become rigid
and durable?

a. Milter joint

b. Mortise and tennon joint

c. Dado joint
d. Butt joint

Answer: b

9. Which is the simplest type of wood joint?

a. dado joint

b. butt joint

c. lap joint

d. milter joint

Answer: b

10. Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two pieces by cutting of 45
degrees angle?

a. Rabbet joint

b. butt joint

c. lap joint

d. milter joint

Answer: d

11. Which wood joint protects the room occupant from seeing outside?
a. Rabbet joint

b. Butt joint

c. Bridle joint

d. Milter joint

Answer: a

12. Which wood joint is used support the middle of a bench?

a. dado joint

b. butt joint

c. bridle joint

d. milter joint

Answer: c

13. Which unit is the basic linear unit of English system?

a. Foot

b. meter

c. yard
d. inc

Answer: d

14. Which unit is the basic linear unit of a metric system?

a. foot

b. meter

c. yard

d. inch

Answer: b

15. If you have two feet length of a piece of wood, how long is it in inches?

a. 25

b. 12

c. 22

d. 24

Answer: d

16. If you have two yards length of piece of wood, how ling is it in inches?
a. 82

b. 72

c. 30

d. 64

Answer: b

17. Ten yards length of wood is how many feet?

a. 36

b. 35

c. 30

d. 24

Answer: c

18. One. decameter of G.I sheets is how many centimeters?

a. 10

b. 20

c. 100
d. 1,000

Answer: d

19. A 2″x3″x”12″ lumber is how many board feet?

a. 2

b. 6

c. 8

d. 10

Answer: b

20. Five (5) pcs. of a 1″x 1’x 8 lumber is how many board feet?

a. 30 pcs

b. 35 pcs

c. 40 pcs

d. 45 pcs

Answer: c
1. When a designer or an ordinary person translates his or her design idea with the use
only of paper and pencil, what is the name of the activity?

a. Architectural declination

b. Freehand sketching

c. Geometric construction

d. Drafting

Answer: b

2. After the 2-dimensional drawings are done and all the shapes and sizes being laid-out,
the next step to be executed to complete the process is called ________.

a. Dimensioning

b. Tolerancing

c. Specifications

d. Sectional drawing

Answer: a

3. With the help of drawing instruments such as T-square and triangles one produces quick
and accurate delineations for an intended project. The process is considered as _______.
a. Drafting

b. Pictorial drawing

c. Graphics

d. Shape and size descriptions

Answer: a

4. Technical drafting involves the manipulation of the elements of geometry to make


accurate description of shapes. Which term is referred to by engineers and drafting
professionals all over the world?

a. Blueprint reading

b. Geometric construction

c. Line weights

d. Measurements

Answer: b

5. Objects to be drawn are not always solid in nature and if we want to explain complex
objects to the reader of our blueprints we need an imaginary cut through a component
(part) or an assembly drawing to portray exactly what is inside. This element is called
_______.

a. Sectioning
b. Parallel perspective

c. Etching

d. Dimensioning

Answer: a

6. To make drawings look more professional, the notes, dimensions, and other
specifications must be professionally executed. In manual drafting, this is called _______.

a. Lettering by hand

b. Scaling

c. Drawing of views

d. Legibility

Answer: a

7. In various engineering fields multiple line weighs are being used to emphasize or
deemphasize areas of a drawing. It is also standardized in order for a uniform
interpretation of drawings. The term is called ______.

a. Horizontal lines

b. Center Line

c. Alphabet of lines
d. Dimensioning

Answer: c

8. It is about placing units of measure to the height, width, and length of an object to
convey accurate instructions to produce that part. In old English it is called “dimensiouns”.
In drafting this means ______.

a. Tolerancing

b. Datum

c. Axis

d. Dimensioning

Answer: a

9. Which is a method of representing the exact shape and size of an object drawn to scale
on “set of planes” which sometimes are called planes of projection? It is also known as 3-
view drawing.

a. Orthographic projection

b. Perspective construction

c. Isometric drawing

d. Fourth dimension

Answer: a
10. Which technique in pictorial drawing appears like 3-dimensional but the lines are
exactly 30 degrees from the horizontal part of the object?

a. Isometric drawing

b. Cabinet drawing

c. Oblique drawing

d. Perspective drawing

Answer: a

11. As far as the appearance of the drawing is concerned, it is the most important part for
the usefulness of the drawing, it can be ruined if it is done carelessly. Which is referred to?

a. Painting

b. Lettering

c. Etching

d. Calligraphy

Answer: b

12. There are six secrets of lettering namely: form, proportion, stability, density spacing.
Identify the sixth by completing this adage: “a good draftsman will never letter without the
use of ______.
a. Line

b. Guidelines

c. Horizontal lines

d. Border lines

Answer: b

13. Five guidelines are accepted in the drafting field. Which of them are laid-out to touch
the capital letter C aside from the base line?

a. Base line

b. Cap line

c. Drop line

d. Waist line

Answer: b

14. Which of these are positioned to limit letter g aside from the waist line?

a. Cap line

b. Drop line

c. Waist line
d. Base line

Answer: b

15. Of the many styles of letter, the most commonly used are script or Italics, Gothic, Old
English and Roman. Which of them is most commonly used in college diploma?

a. Roman

b. Script or Italics

c. Old English

d. Gothic

Answer: c

16. Extended letters of a given height are more legible while compressed letters are used
when ____.

a. space is limited

b. space is wide

c. space is limitless

d. space is narrow

Answer: a
17. Time is gold so a drafter must not get into a habit of making excessively time
consuming letters. Single-stroke letters are advised with _____.

a. rapidity of strokes

b. sloppiness

c. laziness

d. free and natural fashion

Answer: d

18. A Grade 9 student understood that the Roman letters consist of thick and thin lines and
was asking to himself what were those small thin lines at the end of every letter except O?
In the drafting field the lines are called _____.

a. serifs

b. stem

c. dash line

d. ditto

Answer: a

19. Prior to the introduction of computer-aided design and drafting there are tools in
lettering which are made of either plastic or aluminum on which the drafter just traces the
letters using a technical pen to produce each letter. The instrument is called _____.
a. lettering template

b. lettering box

c. Leroy guide

d. pressure-sensitive guide

Answer: b

20. For beginning drafters the suggested height of letters to practice first is 6mm and then
shift to a height of ______.

a. 30mm

b. 3mm

c. 1mm

d. 50mm

Answer: b

1. In the field of drafting, each line has a specific meaning. This is to establish a uniform
way when interpreting complex blueprints of objects and other mega projects. These lines
are called _____.

a. alphabet of lines
b. alpha numeric of lines

c. language of lines

d. lines of sight

Answer: a

2. Based on a blue print, a machinist is about to drill a 16mm diameter hole on a piece of
100mm x 120mm flat bar. Which line in the alphabet of lines must he look for first?

a. Hidden line

b. Phantom line

c. Center line

d. Section line

Answer: c

3. When drawing the different views in orthographic projection a drafter must


acknowledge that there are hidden edges that must be emphasized in order to produce a
complete drawing information. Which line is he going to use?

a. Hidden line

b. Section line

c. Center line
d. Object line

Answer: a

4. A drawing teacher on a local high school was discussing a feature on which the surface
appears to have been imaginary cut along the cutting plane line. Which line is she going to
apply to the surface where the cutting plane cut through?

a. Center line

b. Dimension line

c. Section line

d. Invisible line

Answer: c

5. There are six principal views of an object; the top view, the front view, right side view,
left side view, bottom view, and the rear views. Which of the views are accepted by the
industry as standard multi-views according to the 3rd – angle projection?

a. Top view, front view, and right side views

b. Side view, bottom view, and rear views

c. Right side view, left side view, and bottom views

d. Front view, rear view, side views


Answer: c

6. A group of students is experimenting on views in orthographic projection. They extract


first the font view of a simple object using a transparent material as discussed by their
teacher. What technique are they using?

a. Glass box technique

b. Onion skin technique

c. Japanese paper technique

d. Polycarbonate technique

Answer: a

7. Orthographic projection goes father than right angle. A drafter can actually extract
views for more details of the object provided that the projectors are parallel to each other
and normal to the plane of projection. The additional plane is called ____.

a. frontal plane

b. auxiliary plane

c. profile plane

d. horizontal plane

Answer: a
8. All objects have distinct limits which can be considered as the width, depth and height.
So when a drafter is working on the difference in elevation between any two points,
measured as the perpendicular distance between a pair of horizontal lines, he is now
engaged in the _____ of the object.

a. Depth

b. Height

c. Width

d. Bottom

Answer: b

9. When an engineer is engaged in the preparation of views prior to formal drafting


activities, he practically basis his information on actual and accurate observation. The
process is regarded as ____.

a. pencil and paper exercise

b. glass box technique

c. orthographic sketch

d. order of drawing

Answer: c

10. After all the views are given the drafter must now work on the real form of the objects
based on actual result of the orthographic projection. This process is called _____.
a. pictorial drawing

b. depth dimensions

c. height dimensions

d. center dimensions

Answer: c

11. In isometric drawings the angle used to aid in the construction of the object is 30
degrees and all vertical lines are equal to their actual lengths or scale but in oblique
drawing the angle used is ___.

a. 40 degrees

b. 45 degrees

c. 30 degrees

d. 60 degrees

Answer: a

12. In oblique drawing, the depth of the depth is reduced to ½ in case of cabinet oblique, ¾
in case of a general oblique, and true or same measurement in ____ oblique.

a. width

b. cavalier
c. specific

d. object

Answer: c

13. Which technique is commonly used around the world as a graphic method of
representing a 3-dimensional object and intended to combine the illusion of depth, with the
undistorted presentation of the object’s principal dimensions?

a. Cavalier oblique

b. Isometric drawing

c. Cabinet oblique

d. General oblique

Answer: b

14. When an observer stands in the middle of a street, the end of the street seems to narrow
as far as his eyes can see. Then he tries to draw the buildings as it appears on his visual
observations. The process is called _____.

a. perspective drawing

b. isometric drawing

c. dimetric drawing

d. cabinet drawing
Answer: b

15. A student in drafting has done drawing the three views; his next task is to indicate the
dimensions to complete the information. What is the distance of the first dimensions from
the views?

a. 1”

b. 2”

c. 1/8”

d. ½”

Answer: b

16. There is a good reason why we shouldn’t place dimensions directly on the drawing
itself. This is to avoid _____.

a. super dimensioning

b. overcrowding of dimensions

c. inaccurate dimensions

d. aligned dimensioning

Answer: d
17. The radius of an arc should always be specified by the drafter in the form of a symbol
which denotes _____.

a. R

b. R

c. rad

d. ra

Answer: b

18.It is important for the drafting student to place the overall dimension of a part or view
to appear more pleasing to the reader. It is place starting from the _____.

a. shortest dimension line outside the view

b. longest dimension line outside the view

c. longer dimension inside the view

d. shorter dimension inside the view

Answer: a

19. Some drafter often place dimensions on every view while this may be permitted in some
drafting classes let’s keep in mind that these are repetitions and can be avoided. This is
referred to as _____.

a. superfluous dimensioning
b. unidirectional dimensioning

c. aligned dimensioning

d. tolerance dimensioning

Answer: a

20. In the rule of sectional drawing, all visible edges exposed by the cutting-plane line must
be emphasized and a series of lines can now be drawn. This process is called _____.

a. filling-up of section lines

b. eliminating hidden lines

c. eliminating object lines

d. symmetric objects

Answer: a

1. Which term refers to mathematical business decisions that makes orderly delineated
sequences of mathematical operatives that lead to a solution?

a. Conceptual model

b. Quantitative model
c. Algorithms

d. Decisions

Answer: c

2. Everyday we have to calculate the discount of shopping mall, allocate how much for food
and shopping, and when we get a loan from the bank we calculate the interest. This simply
means we need ______.

a. money

b. calculation

c. mathematics

d. percentage

Answer: c

3. Which is also known as Quantitative Finance that is concerned with financial markets
and taking observed market prices as inputs?

a. Mathematics in marketing

b. Mathematical finance

c. Percentage

d. Calculation
Answer: b

4. What financial reports reflect the net income sales?

a. Statement of Cash Flow

b. Balance Sheet

c. Net Income Report

d. Income Statement

Answer: d

5. What is the remainder after all the expenses have been deducted from revenues?

a. Repair income

b. Gross income

c. Net income

d. Service income

Answer: b

6. On what financial statement are assets that are used in the operation of business found?

a. Income Statement
b. Statement of Owner’s Capital

c. Balance Sheet

d. Statement of Cash Flow

Answer: c

7. The sum of all the expenses from the operation of the business can be found on the
______.

a. Balance Sheet

b. Statement of Cash Flow

c. Income Statement

d. Balance Sheet

Answer: c

8. To which financial reports are Liabilities and Capital added?

a. Statement of Cash Flow

b. Statement of Owners Capital

c. Income Statement
d. Balance Sheet

Answer: d

9. What financial statement shows all the received cash from both ongoing operations and
external investment sources?

a. Statement of Cash Flow

b. Statement of Owners Capital

c. Income Statement

d. Balance Sheet

Answer: a

10. The earning power of the business firm is reported on the ______.

a. Balance Sheet

b. Income Statement

c. Statement of Cash Flow

d. Statement Owners Capital

Answer: b

11. The Balance Sheet provides the information about ________.


a. all the sales of the firm

b. all the expenses of the firm

c. list of cash received and payments of the firm

d. list of all the assets of the firm

Answer: d

12. Recording the increases of income of a Computer Repair Shop should be written on the
______ column.

a. Asset

b. Income

c. Credit

d. Debit

Answer: c

13. In journalizing, the owner’s withdrawal from his firm should be written on the
_______.

a. Capital

b. Debit
c. Credit

d. Expenses

Answer: b

14. When a business purchases computer set worth P65,000.00 for the office; debit
computer set, P65, 000.00

a. Accounts payable, P65, 000.00

b. Capital, P65, 000.00

c. Computer set expenses, P65, 000.00

d. Cash, P 65, 0000.00

Answer: d

15. Allen receives her payment from tutorial of Mrs. Yap’s son; debit cash; credit, _______.

a. payment

b. cash

c. fee

d. asset
Answer: c

16. Albert Patac bought and invested Coffee Vending Machine worth P35, 000.00. Debit,
machine; credit, ____.

a. Cash, P35, 000.00

b. Patac, capital, P35,000.00

c. Asset, P35, 000.00

d. Expenses, P35, 000.00

Answer: b

17. Purchased office supplies and equipment on credit are _____.

a. debit office supplies, credit cash

b. debit office supplies, credit accounts payable

c. debit office supplies and equipment, credit cash

d. debit office supplies and equipment, credit accounts payable.

Answer: d

18. To find the current liability, one must look at the ______.

a. mortgage payable
b. loans payable

c. bonds payable

d. salaries payable

Answer: d

19. The resources that a firm acquires through creditors, is called _____.

a. liability

b. capital

c. assets

d. income

Answer: a

20. Business owed that will be due not to exceed a year is referred to as ______.

a. current asset

b. current liability

c. fixed asset

d. fixed liability
Answer: b

1. A plumber wants to tighten and loosen pipes. Which tool is appropriate?

a. Pipe Cutter

b. Flux

c. Pipe Wrench

d. Butane Torch

Answer: c

2. A plumber wants to cut metal pipe. Which tool is appropriate?

a. Hacksaw

b. Back saw

c. Handsaw

d. Drywall Knife

Answer: a
3. Metal with semi-rigid auger whose end is usually fitted with a hook or corkscrew is
called _____.

a. plumber’s snake

b. plunger

c. valve

d. bushing

Answer: a

4. If your toilet has trouble, you use rubber funnel-shape instrument attached to the end of
the handle for unblocking. What is this tool?

a. plumber’s snake

b. valve

c. plunger

d. bushing

Answer: c

5. Which plumbing tools is used for gripping large pipes and irregular objects?

a. Monkey wrench
b. Chain wrench

c. Yoke vise

d. Pipe wrench

Answer: b

6. A plumber wants to create thread outside pipe by hand. Which tool is appropriate?

a. Pipe cutter

b. Pipe threader

c. Yoke vise

d. Pipe wrench

Answer: b

7. A plumber wants to cut pipes. Which holding tool is needed?

a. Vise Grip

b. Pipe threader

c. Yoke vise

d. Pipe wrench
Answer: c

8. A plumber wants to hold pipe by hand. What tool is needed?

a. Vise Grip

b. Pipe threader

c. Yoke vise

d. Pipe wrench

Answer: a

9. The following are good plumbing practices EXCEPT ________.

a. rainwater harvesting

b. water conservation

c. gray water recycling

d. excessive water consumption

Answer: d

10. Water contaminants are being forced back into the water piping system. Which term is
referred to?

a. Water Flow
b. Back Flow

c. Pressure

d. Harvesting

Answer: b

11. The following are examples of plumbing fixtures EXCEPT _______.

a. Water closet

b. Drainage

c. Shower

d. Urinals

Answer: b

12. Which statement is NOT true about plumbing standards based on Republic Act 1378
which known as “Plumbing Law”?

a. Each fixture directly connected to the drainage system shall be equipped with a water-
sealed trap.

b. Plumbing shall be designed and adjusted to use the maximum quantity of water
consistent with proper performance and cleaning.

c. Water closet must be located in a room which is properly lighted and ventilated.
d. No substance which will clog the pipes, produce explosive mixtures, destroy the pipes or
their joints or interfere unduly with the sewage disposal process shall be allowed to enter
the building drainage system.

Answer: b

13. A compartment that receives solid or liquid waste, located below the normal grade of
the gravity system is called _______.

a. septic

b. sump

c. trap

d. interceptor

Answer: a

14. Which is true toxic substance?

a. Hazardous to human health

b. A fixture drain for a laboratory

c. Not hazardous to human health

d. Bedpan washer and sterilizer drain

Answer: a
15. Water that is safe for drinking, cooking, and personal use is _______.

a. potable

b. purified

c. clean

d. healthy

Answer: a

16. Which among the following best describes a toilet bowl?

a. A room or booth containing a toilet

b. The Box Type compartment holding water for flushing the toilet

c. An opening in the wall or ceiling near the fixture that allows access for servicing the
plumbing system.

d. The device that provides a supply of water and/or its disposal, e.g. sinks, tubs, toilets.

Answer: b

17. Plumbing ventilation means to ______.

a. carry sewer gas out and relieve pressure of the drainage system
b. discourage corrosion in the drainage piping

c. maintain the trap seals

d. give pressure differentials in the public sewer

Answer: a

18. Rainwater from the roof down to the ground passes through what pipe?

a. Down spout

b. Conductor

c. Gutter

d. Vent

Answer: a

19. A pipe that conveys only liquid waste is called _______.

a. vent pipe

b. soil pipe

c. main pipe

d. waste pipe
Answer: d

20. If you water supply inside the building, what is the diameter of pipes needed?

a. 4 inches

b. 1 inch

c. 75 inch

d. 5 inch

Answer: d

1. What type of switch is used to control alternatively three-phase line system using two
sources of power?

a. Double Pole Single Throw Switch

b. Single Pole Double Throw Switch

c. Triple Pole Single Throw Switch

d. Triple Pole Double Throw Switch

Answer: d

2. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?


a. Copper

b. Aluminum

c. Silver

d. Gold

Answer: c

3. What type of switch is used when you want to control one lamp or group of lamps in two
different locations?

a. Two, 3-way switch

b. One, 4-way switch

c. Two, single switch

d. Duplex switch

Answer: a

4. Cells are connected in parallel to increase the ______ capacity of the cells.

a. Current

b. Voltage
c. Resistance

d. Inductance

Answer: a

5. The resistors are to be connected in four possible types of circuit connections namely
series, parallel, series-parallel and parallel-series. Which type of connection will give the
least amount of equivalent resistance?

a. Series

b. Parallel

c. Series-parallel

d. Parallel-series

Answer: b

6. Which is an exposed wiring method that uses cleats, knobs, tubes and flexible tubing for
the protection and support of single insulated conductor run in or on building and not
concealed by the building structure?

a. Open wiring on insulators

b. Armored cable wiring

c. Concealed knob and tube wiring

d. Metal clad cable wiring


Answer: a

7. What will happen if two 100-W, 230 V incandescent lamps are connected in series across
a 230 V source?

a. Both lamps will consume more power.

b. Both lamps will get burnt.

c. Each lamp will give lesser output lights.

d. Each lamp will give more output lights.

Answer: c

8. What is the mean reason why electrical appliances are connected in parallel rather than
in series?

a. Parallel connection consumes lesser power.

b. Parallel connection is simpler than series connection.

c. Each appliance consumes more power if connected in series.

d. It makes the operation of each appliance independent of each other.

Answer: d

9. When replacing a busted fuse which of the following is important?


a. Same size and type

b. Same type but different rating

c. Same size but different rating

d. Different size and type

Answer: a

10. Which of the following is a source of alternating current?

a. Dynamo

b. Battery

c. Dry cell

d. Alternator

Answer: d

11. When there is a break in the circuit and the current could not pass through, the circuit
is _____.

a. closed

b. shorted
c. grounded

d. open

Answer: d

12. Which term usually refers to a device that produces an electric current when light falls
upon them?

a. Solar cell

b. Dry cell

c. Solar lamp

d. Solar light

Answer: a

13. Which is a synchronous alternating-current machine that changes mechanical power


into electrical power?

a. Dynamo

b. Motor

c. Alternator

d. Lathe machine
Answer: c

14. Which battery CANNOT be recharged after its chemical energy has been depleted?

a. Energizer

b. Eveready

c. Primary battery

d. Secondary battery

Answer: c

15. Which generator generates direct current?

a. Alternator

b. Dynamo

c. Battery

d. Adaptor

Answer: b

16. Which battery can be recharged after each chemical energy has been depleted

a. Primary battery
b. Energizer

c. Eveready

d. Secondary battery

Answer: d

17. Which is used to change mechanical energy into electrical energy?

a. Battery

b. Circuit

c. Dry cell

d. Generator

Answer: d

18. A process in splitting the atom of uranium is called _____.

a. fusion

b. fission

c. friction

d. tension
Answer: b

19. A process in joining hydrogen atoms which causes heat hotter than the sun is called
_____.

a. fusion

b. fission

c. friction

d. tension

Answer: a

20. Which transforms heat energy to electric energy?

a. Transformer

b. Battery

c. Generator

d. Thermocouple

Answer: d

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