Question Report 68322084 457

PAPER CODE 2 0 2 1 C J A 1 0 0 1 2 20 1 1
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2022-2023)
TIME : 3 HOURS Maximum Marks : 180
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
A. General : INSTRUCTIONS
1. The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do so by
the invigilator.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the bottom page corner of this sheet.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE

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gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
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7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 21 pages and all the 18 questions in each subject
and corresponding answer choices are legible. Read carefully the instructions printed at the beginning of each
section.
B . Filling the ORS :
9. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help
of Black ball point pen as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
C. Question Paper Formate :
The question paper consists of 3 parts (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry).
10. SECTION – I
(i) Contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
or More than one are correct.
(ii) Contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
11. Section-II Contains 8 questions. The answer to which is a Numerical Value. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value to answer two decimal place, If the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Please read the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
HSR/2021CJA100122011
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17,
Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58,
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,
 Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

1
 Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×109
4 0
 Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2
 Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
 Stefan–Boltzmann constant  = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2–K–4
 Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
 Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4 × 10–7 NA–2
1
 Permittivity of vacuum 0 =
0 c2
 Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
HSR/2021CJA100122011
HAVE CONTROL  HAVE PATIENCE  HAVE CONFIDENCE  100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
 For each question in Section-I (ii), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus two (–2)
mark will be awarded.
 Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option , Provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
 For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will
result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will
result in –2 mark, as a wrong option is also darkened
1. If three normals can be drawn from the point (h, 0) to the parabola y2 = –4x , then h can be
(A) any real number in the interval (–,-3) (B) any real number in the interval (-4,-3)
(C) any real number in the interval (–, -4) (D) any real number
2. A circle of radius 1 touches x-axis at A and y-axis at B in first quadrant. A variable line of slope ‘m’
through origin meets the circle at D and E
8m
(A) length of chord DE  if m > 0
1  m2
4 1  1 
(B) If the length of chord is the inclination can be tan  
5 2
(C) If the chord is a diameter then its slope is 1
8m
(D) length of chord DE  if m > 0
2  m2
Space for Rough Work
 
3. A circle with centre at C 1   1 , 1  & radius 12 intersects a circle C2 with radius 13 such that a chord
 2 2
of maximum length is created. If the slope of this chord is 1, then the centre of circle C2 can be
(A) (2 2 , 3 2 ) (B) (2 2 , 3 2 ) (C) (2 2 ,  3 2 ) (D) (3 2 ,  2 2 )

4. Let ax2 + bx + a = 0 be the quadratic equation (where a,b  R) has real roots , .Consider the family
of lines (b2 – 2a2 + c2 ) x + 8a2 = 2{b2 – c2} y, (where c is a real number). If |–| = 2 then
 4 2 
(A) the given family of lines always passes through a fixed point  , 
 7 7
(B) the given family of lines always passes through a fixed point (2 , – 4)
(C) Number of lines belongs to the given family which makes a triangle with coordinate axes of area 16
are only 4
(D) Number of lines belongs to the given family which makes a triangle with coordinate axes
of area 2 are only 2
5. Let AB be a focal chord (not the latus rectum) of the parabola y2 = 4px where p is a prime
number (p > 0), such that the lengths SA and SB are integers (S being focus of the parabola).
If the tangents to the parabola at A and B meet at point P, then
PA  PB | PA  PB | PA  PB | PA  PB |
(A)   p  1 p  1 (B)   p  1  p  1 p
2 2
(C) SP   p  1 p (D) AB   p  1
2
6. If 5a + 4b + 20c = t, then the value/s of t for which the line ax + by + c - 1 =0 always passes
through a fixed point is/are :-
(A) 0 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) None of these
SECTION–I(ii) : (Maximum Marks : 12)
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
 For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
7. Consider the following : -
Incident ray L1 reflects and bounce off 2 mirrors of equal length BC and AB as shown. If
ABC = 3º and = 30º then determine the number of times light leam will bounce off the 2
line segments including the first reflection point C.
A
L1
or
P1
i rr
M
Reflected
ray Incident
ray

B Mirror C
(A) 71 (B) 41 (C) 43 (D) None of these
8. The line x + y = p meets the axis of x and y at A and B respectively. A triangle APQ is inscribed
in the triangle OAB, O being the origin, with right angle at Q, P and Q lie respectively on OB and
th AQ
AB. If the area of the triangle APQ is 3/8 of the area of the triangle OAB, then BQ is equal to
(A) 2 (B) 2/3 (C) 1/4 (D) 3

9. Let P is a point inside the triangle ABC such that PA meets BC, at D, PB meets CA at e and PC meets
AB at F respectively. If PD = PE = PF = 3 and PA + PB + PC = 43 then (PA) (PB) (PC) =
(A) 441 (B) 343 (C) 591 (D) 763
10. If tangents are drawn to the parabola y = x2 + bx + c where b and c are fixed real numbers, at the points
(i, yi) for i = 1, 2......, 10. Let I1, I2, I3.....I9 be the point of intersection of tangents at (i, yi) and
(i + 1, yi + 1) then the least polynomial satisfying whose graph passes through all nine points
1
(A) y = x2 + bx + c (B) y = x2 + bx + c –
2
1 1
(C) y = x2 + bx + c – (D) y = x2 + bx + c –
4 8
SECTION – II : (Maximum Marks : 24)
 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more
than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two decimal places.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
11. A circle of radius 4 units is inscribed in an equilateral triangle ABC, then an equilateral triangle is
inscribed in the circle, a circle again is inscribed in the later triangle and so on. In this way the
process continues infinitely. If r, x1, x2, ... xn... be the radii of these circles respectively. Then the
sum of radii of all these circles is
PA
12. If P is a variable point satisfying the equation  3 and area of PAB  3 . (where A and B are
PB
(–2, 0) and (2, 0) respectively), then maximum number of possible positions of point P are
13. Consider a circle S: (x  11) 2  (y  17)2  1 and a fixed point P(5, 6). Two variable point Q and R lie

on circle and line y = x respectively, then minimum value of PR + QR, is  then the value of is
10
 
14. If the area of a trapezium whose vertices lie on 25  x  2   y 2   3x  4y  2  and both diagonals
2 2
A
pass through (2,0) such that length of each diagonal is 5 units, is A then is
2
15. Common tangents are drawn to two circles x2 + y2 = 1 & (x–4)2 + (y–4)2 = 4. If the intersection points
of the transverse common tangents with the direct common tangents are A,B,C,D & the equation of
the circumcircle of ABC is x2 + y2 – x  my  n  0, then   m  n is equal to
16. If the equation of a circle which touches the line x + y = 5 at the point (-2,7) and cuts the circle
x2 + y2 + 4x - 6y + 9 = 0 orthogonally is x2 + y2 + ax + by + c = 0 then find a+b+c.
17. If (,  +1) is an interior point of ABC where A = (0, 3), B = (–2, 0) and C = (6, 1), then
the number of integral values of  is/are
18. A straight line L with negative slope passes through the point (8, 2) and cuts the positive co-
ordinate axes at point P and Q. As L varies, the absolute minimum value of OP+ OQ is (O is
origin)
PART-II : PHYSICS
1. A particle performing SHM is found at its equilibrium position at t = 1 sec and it's velocity (in positive
direction) is 0.25 m/s at t = 2 sec. If the time period of oscillation is 6 sec. Then
3  
(A) Amplitude of oscillation is m (B) Initial phase is   
2  3
(C) Velocity of particle at 6 sec is 0.25 m/s (D) Acceleration of particle at 6 sec is zero.
2. In Yuri Gagarin's first manned space flight in 1961, orbit was a closed orbit around Earth. The perigee
and apogee were 181 km and 327 km above the Earth. Radius of Earth is 6400km and g = 10 ms–2
at earth surface. Choose the CORRECT statement(s).
(A) Time period of orbit was around 5326 seconds
(B) Time period of orbit was around 3400 seconds
8km
(C) Maximum speed in orbit was around
sec
(D) Semi-major axis of orbit was 6654 km
3. A thin cylindrical tube of length L and cross-sectional area A, filled with water (w) and closed at both
ends uniformly rotates in a horizontal plane about axis OO’. The pressure at distance r1 and r2 from
the rotational axis is p1 and p2. Then choose the correct statement. (Neglect atmospheric pressure)
 w 2 r12
(A) P1 
2
2 P  P 
(B)    r 2  r 2
2 1
w  2 1 
  w 2 L2 
(C) Pressure force of water on other and Q of the tube is  A
 2 
  w 2 L2 
(D) Horizontal force requires to hold the tube on end P is  A
 2 
4. The solid spheres A and B of equals volume but of different densities dA and dB are connected
by a string. They are fully immersed in a fluid of density dF. They get arranged into an
equilibrium state as shown in the figure with a tension in the string. The arrangement is possible
only if
(A) dA < dF (B) dB > dF (C) dA > dF (D) dA + dB= 2dF

5. A solid sphere of uniform density and radius 4 units is located with its center at the origin O of
co-ordinates. Two spheres of equal radii 1 units, with their centres at A(-2,0,0) and B (2, 0 ,0)
respectively, are taken out of the solid leaving behind spherical cavities as shown in figure. Then
y
m x
A B
O
z
(A) the gravitational field due to this object at the origin is zero.
(B) the gravitational field at the point B(2, 0, 0)is zero
(C) the gravitational potential is same at all points on the circle y2 + z2 = 36
(D) the gravitational potential is same at all points on the circle y2 + z2 = 4
6. A solid cube of edge length a, made of a material of density  floats in a liquid of density  and
surface tension S. If acceleration due to gravity be g and angle of contact be zero, and if distance
between lower face of cube and surface of liquid is h. Then find incorrect options.
 a 4S  a 4S  a 2S  a 2S
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
  ag   ag   ag   ag
7. A spring of mass M and force constant K in form of a circular loop performing oscillations moving radially
in and out in free space keeping its center at rest. Time period of oscillation is given by (Assume cross
sectional radius of spring is very small than radius of spring loop)
M M M 2M
(A) (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
K K 3K K
8. A uniform solid cylinder of radius R = 20 cm and length  = 40 cm is placed coaxially inside a
stationary cylindrical cavity. The gap between the cylinder and the cavity is filled with the viscous
liquid ( = 0.07poise)as shown in figure. The cylinder is rotated with a constant angular velocity
 = 25 rad/ sec about its vertical axis. The net torque of viscous force acting on the cylinder is :
(d = 0.5 mm)
(A) 70.4 N-m (B) 2.5 N–m (C) 20.5 N-m (D) 7.04 N-m
9. If there is no friction between wedge and ground, for small displacement of wedge on the ground,
time period of its oscillation is :
m m 2m 4m
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
2k 4k k 5k
10. A tube of length  and radius R carries a steady flow of a fluid whose density is  and viscosity
cofficient . The velocity v of flow is given by v = v0 [1–(r2/R2)], where r is the distance of
flowing fluid layer from the axis. Then the kinetic energy of the fluid within the volume of the
tube is
1 1 1 1
(A) R 2v 02 (B) R 2v 02 (C) R 2v 02 (D) R 2v 02
6 8 4 3
VALUE.
1. In a damped oscillator, the mass of the oscillator is m = 200g, force constant is K = 90N/m and the
1
damping constant b is 40g/s. Find the time taken for its mechanical energy to drop to of it’s initial
e
value (in seconds).
 
2. A planet is revolving around the sun in an elliptical orbit having eccentricity e    . If the time
 4
period of revolution is 16 months then find the time taken by the planet in going from A to B in
months.
3. The position of a particle of mass 1 kg with respect to origin varies according to relation
x = 3sin(100t) + 8cos2 50t, where x is in meter and t in sec. Find out total energy of particle in (kJ)
{Assume PE at mean position is zero}
4. A uniform inextensible rope of length 20m and a light inextensible thread are connected at their ends
A and B to move a loop. The thread passes over a fixed ideal pulley and the rope passes under another
fixed ideal pulley. The junction B is pulled slightly downwards and then released. Find period of
2
oscillations (in sec). (Use g= 10 m/s and  = 3.14)
5. In a test experiment on a model aeroplane in a wind tunnel the flow speeds on the lower and upper
surfaces of the wing are v and 2v respectively. If the density of air is  and the surface area of
the wing is A, the dynamic lift on the wings is given by Kv2A. Find K.
6. The extra energy given to a body of mass m orbiting at a height equal to radius R of earth for escape
mgR
is (g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth) is 2n . Find n
4
7. Velocity of a point on the equator of a rotating spherical planet is V. The angular velocity of the
planet is such that, the value of 'g' (acceleration due to gravity) at equator is half of 'g' at the pole,
then the escape velocity for a polar particle on the planet is KV, where K =
8. In a vessel there is a liquid, density of which increases with depth y from its surface according to
the law  = 0 + ky, where  = 1.0 gm/cm3 and k = 0.01 g/cm4. Two balls connected with an inextensible
thread of length 15 cm are dropped in the liquid. Volume of each ball is 1.0 cm3 and their masses
are 1.2 g and 1.4 g. At what depth (in cm) from the surface, heavier mass will settle in equilibrium
?
PART-III : CHEMISTRY
1. 138 gm of N2O4(g) is placed in 8.2 L container at 300 K. The equilibrium vapour density of
mixture was found to be 30.67. Then (R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K-1)
(A) The degree of dissociation of N2O4 is equal to 0.25
 2NO2(g)
(B) Kp will be 9 atm for N2O4 
(C) Total pressure at equilibrium = 6.75 atm
(D) The density of equilibrium mixture will be 16.83 gm/ml.
2. Sufficient amount of a solid X is taken in a rigid vessel at T°C where it attained the equilibrium according
to given equation,
X(s)  Y(g) + 2Z(g) ..............(i)
Total pressure was measured. Now the vessel is evacuated and filled with sufficient amount of
another solid V under same conditions where it attained the equilibrium according to given
equation,
V(s)  W (g) + 2Z(g) .............(ii)
Total pressure measured now is found to be double that of previous value.
Now, if both X & V solids are allowed to attain their respective equilibrium together in the same
vessel at same temperature, select the correct statement(s):
(A) Kp for decompostion reaction of V (s) = 8  Kp for decomposition reaction of X (s).
(B) In the 3rd case (when both solids are simultaneously estabilishing their equilibrium),
1
PY  PW .
8
1
(C) PY in 3rd case, =  PY in 1st case.
3 3
rd
(D) In the 3 case, PW : P z = 4 : 9
3. One liter solution of 1 M acetic acid is diluted such that the pH of the resulting solution will be twice
the original value. (Given: Ka = 2  10–5 at 25ºC, log 2 = 0.30, log 3 = 0.48)
Which of the following information/s is/are correct for above solution
(A) pH of original solution is 2.20
(B) The concentration of diluted acetic acid solution is 4  10–5 M
(C) The volume of water added to original solution is 2.4  104 L
(D) The degree of dissociation of diluted acetic acid is 40%.
4. Which of the following information/s is/are correct about for 0.1M H2S aq. solution.
( K a1 = 1  10–7, K a 2 = 1  10–14 at 25ºC)
(A) The concentration of  HS  is 0.001 M. (approx)
(B) The concentration of S2   is 1  10–14 M. (approx)
(C) The concentration of  H 2S is 0.1 M. (approx)
(D) The concentration of  H   is 0.0001 M. (approx)

5. 20 mL of 0.2 M sodium hydroxide is added to 50 mL of 0.2 M acetic acid to give 70 mL of the solution.
The ionisation constant of acetic acid is 2  10–5 at 25ºC.
(Given : log 2 = 0.30, log 3 = 0.48)
(A) The pH of solution is 4.52.
(B) The additional volume of 0.2 M NaOH required to make the pH of the solution 5.0 is
13.33 ml (approx).
(C) The additional volume of 0.2 M NaOH required to make the pH of the solution 5.0 is
3.33 ml (approx)
(D) The buffer capacity of original solution is maximum.
6. Which of the following options is/are correct (Given : log 2 = 0.30, log 3 = 0.48, log 5 = 0.70)
(A) V1 ml of 0.02 M HCl and V2 ml of 0.04 M weak monoacidic base to be mixed to make a
100 ml of a buffer solution of pH 6 if V2 : V1 = 3 : 5 (approx).
(Given : Kb of weak base 5.0  10–6 at 25ºC)
(B) 10 ml of 0.1 M HCl solution is added in 90 ml of a buffer solution having 0.1 M
10
NH4OH and 0.1 M NH4Cl. The percentage decrease in pH of solution is %.
9.3
(Given : Ka of NH4+ = 5  10–10 at 25ºC)
(C) An aqueous solution contains 0.1 M H2S ( K a1  107 , K a 2  1014 at 25ºC) & 0.1 M HCl.
The concentration of S2   is nearly 1  10–20 M.
(D) Value of Keq at 25°C for reaction : NH3 + H3O+  NH4+ + H2O is 2  109 at 25ºC.
The value of Kb of NH4OH is 510-5
7. At a certain temperature the following equilibrium is established,
CO(g) + NO2(g)  CO2(g) + NO(g).
One mole of each of the four gas is mixed in one litre container and the reaction is allowed
to reach equilibrium state. When excess of baryta water (Ba(OH)2) is added to the equilibrium
mixture, the weight of white ppt (BaCO3) obtained is 236.4 gm. The equilibrium constant Kc of the
above reaction is (Ba = 137)
(A) 1.2 (B) 2.25 (C) 1.5 (D) 3.6
8. Ankit prepared three different solutions of HCl, NaOH and brine (NaCl) but forgot to label them. In
order to identify he kept them on table and named them as solution I, solution II and solution III.
When he added a sample from solution II or solution III to a sample from solution I, the pH of the
solution I increased. However, when a sample from solution III was added to a sample from solution
II, the pH of the solution II decreased.
Identify the correct option :
(A) Solution I, II and III contain NaOH, HCl and NaCl respectively.
(B) Solution I and solution III can be mixed to get the pH of solution II.
(C) pHI < pHII < pHIII
(D) Solution I, II and III contain HCl, NaOH and NaCl respectively.
9. A mixture contains 10-4 M HCl and 10-2 M CH3 COOH (Ka = 2  10-5 at 25ºC), Then which of the
following options is correct?
(A) pH of mixture is 4
(B)  CH 3COO   = 2 10-4 M
(C) %  H   from  CH3COOH  = 80%
(D) %  H   from  H 2O = 10%

10. A 4.0 g sample containing Fe3O4, Fe2O3 and an inert impure substance is treated with excess of KI
solution in the presence of dilute H2SO4. The entire iron is converted to Fe2+ along with the liberation
of iodine. The resulting solution is diluted to 100 ml. A 20 ml of dilute solution requires 11.2 ml of
0.5 M Na2S2O3 solution to reduce the iodine present. A 50 ml of the diluted solution after complete
extraction of iodine, requires 12.80 ml of 0.25 M KMnO4 solution in dilute H2SO4 medium for the
oxidation of Fe2+. The percentage gf Fe2O3 in the original sample is :-
(A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60%
VALUE.
1. The value of Kp for the given reaction at 27°C is 1 atm.
Br2    + Cl2(g) 
 2 BrCl(g)
At equilibrium, in a closed container partial pressure of BrCl gas is 0.1 atm and at this
temperature the vapour pressure of Br2    is also 0.1 atm. Then what will be the minimum moles
of Br2    to be added to 1 mole of Cl2, initially, to get above equilibrium situation:

2. At 800°C, the following equilibrium is established as
 2F(g)
F2(g) 
The composition of equilibrium may be determined by measuring the rate of effusion of the
mixture through a pin hole. It is found that at 800°C and 1 atm mixture effuses 1.6 times as
fast as SO2 effuses under the similar conditions. What is the value of Kp (in atm)?
(At. wt. of F = 19)
3. For the given equilibrium at 39.5°C.
LiCl.3NH3(s)  LiCl.NH3(s) + 2NH3(g) [Kp = 9 atm2]
A 5 litre vessel contains 0.1 mole of LiCl.NH3(s). How many mole of NH3 should be added to the
flask at this temperature to derive the backward reaction for completion? (R = 0.08 L atm mol–1 K–1)
4. Following two equilibria are established on mixing two gases A2 and C.
 A6 (g) ;
(i) 3A2 (g)  K P1 = 1.6 atm2
 A2C (g) ; K P2  ?
(ii) A2(g) + C(g) 
If A2 and C are mixed in 2:1 molar ratio, calculate the equilibrium constant K P2 (atm-1)
(Given that the total pressure to be 1.4 atm and partial pressure of A6 to be 0.2 atm at equilibrium).
5.  5 9 13

H3A is a weak triprotic acid Ka1 10 ,Ka2 10 ,Ka3 10 at 25ºC . What is the value of pX of 0.1 M
 A3 
H3A (aq) solution ? Where pX = – log X and X = 
 HA 
2
6. In a laboratory, standard solution of 1 M KMnO4 is used for determination of quantity of

compound.
Experiment-I: Unknown quantity of HIO3 reacts with 24.97 L of SO2(g) at S.T.P and produce H2SO4
and I2. I2 produced in this reaction required 2 L of 0.1 M of Na2S2O3 and remaining SO2 required
x mL of standard KMnO4 in acidic medium. (Molar volume of gas at STP = 22.7 L)
Experiment-II : Y g of NH2OH react with excess of Fe3+ ion to form N2O and Fe2+. This Fe2+ ion
required x mL of standard KMnO4 in acidic medium.
Some reactions are given that occur in experiments
HIO3 + SO2 + H2O  H2SO4 + I2
Fe3+ + NH2OH  N2O + H2O + Fe2+ + 4H+
On the basis of above information find the value of Y.

7. For the reaction  Ag  CN 2  (aq)  Ag  (aq)  2CN  (aq), the equilibrium constant at
25º C is 4 1019. If concentration of Ag+ is x  10y at equilibrium in a solution which was originally
0.1 molar in KCN and 0.03 molar in AgNO3, Calculate ' y '
8. The percentage of copper in a copper(II) salt can be determined by using a thiosulphate titration.
If 0.305 gm of a copper(II) salt was dissolved in water and added to, an excess of potassium iodide
solution liberating iodine according to the following equation
2Cu2+ (aq) + 4I– (aq)  2CuI(s) + I2(aq)
The iodine liberated requires 24.5cm3 of a 0.100 mole dm–3 solution of sodium thiosulphate
2S2O32– (aq) + I2(aq)  2I– (aq) + S4O62– (aq)
Calculate percentage of copper (by mass) in the copper (II) salt is.
[Atomic mass of copper = 63.5]
HSR/2021CJA100122011
D. Marking scheme :
12. For each question in Section-I (i), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, Provided NO incorrect option
is darkened.
 For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result in
+4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in –2 marks,
as a wrong option is also darkened.
13. For each question in Section-I (ii), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
14. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding to only
the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. minus one (–1) mark will be awarded for incorrect
answers in this section.
Appropriate way of darkening the bubble for your answer to be evaluated
a The one and the only acceptable
a Part darkening
a a Darkening the rim

Answer will not be evaluated -
a Cancelling after darkening no marks, no negative marks
a Erasing after darkening
Figure-1 : Correct way of bubbling for valid answer and a few examplex of invalid answers
Any other form of partial marking such as ticking or crossing the bubble will be invalid
1 4 2 0 0 0 2 2
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Figure-2 : Correct Way of Bubbling your Form Number on the ORS. (Example Form Numebr : 14200022)
Name of the Candidate Form Number
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate.
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
Corporate Office :  CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-
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PAPER CODE 2 0 2 1 C J A 1 0 0 1 2 20 1 1

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

TIME : 3 HOURS Maximum Marks : 180

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

B . Filling the ORS :

C. Question Paper Formate :

The question paper consists of 3 parts (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry).

 Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

(A) (2 2 , 3 2 ) (B) (2 2 , 3 2 ) (C) (2 2 ,  3 2 ) (D) (3 2 ,  2 2 )

(A) 2 (B) 2/3 (C) 1/4 (D) 3

(A) dA < dF (B) dB > dF (C) dA > dF (D) dA + dB= 2dF

(A) The concentration of  HS  is 0.001 M. (approx)

(B) The concentration of S2   is 1  10–14 M. (approx)

(C) The concentration of  H 2S is 0.1 M. (approx)

(D) The concentration of  H   is 0.0001 M. (approx)

(C) %  H   from  CH3COOH  = 80%

(D) %  H   from  H 2O = 10%

of Br2    to be added to 1 mole of Cl2, initially, to get above equilibrium situation:

6. In a laboratory, standard solution of 1 M KMnO4 is used for determination of quantity of

Appropriate way of darkening the bubble for your answer to be evaluated

a The one and the only acceptable

a a Darkening the rim

a Erasing after darkening

Name of the Candidate Form Number

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

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