BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES REVIEW b.

organelle of an intestinal cell, digestive system,

THE NATURE OF SCIENCE/ ECOLOGY/ CELL & MOL BIO/ small intestine, large intestine, intestinal tissue,
GENETICS organism
c. molecule, intestinal cell organelle, intestinal cell,
intestinal tissue, digestive system, organism
Name: _________________________ Score: ______
d. molecule, small intestine, large intestine,
DIRECTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the intestinal tissue, digestive system, organism
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item 8. Which of the following statements concerning
by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is not correct?
choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO a. Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound
ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only. nucleus.
b. Prokaryotic cells differentiate its genetic material
1. The statement “The worm is 2 centimeters long” is a(n) inside a nuclear envelope.
a. observation c. theory c. Eukaryotic cells contain a membrane-bound
b. inference d. hypothesis nucleus.
2. Which of the following properties or processes do we d. DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is present in both
associate with living things? prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells.
a. abiogenesis 9. Which branch of biology is concerned with the
b. immutability evolutionary history of organisms?
c. irritability a. embryology
d. acellularity b. cladogram
3. In science, what is a theory? c. taxonomy
a. a temporary explanation to a scientific problem d. phylogeny
generated from observations 10. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes generally have which of the
b. well-tested explanation for a range of following features in common?
a. a membrane-bounded nucleus
phenomena to make accurate predictions
b. a cell wall made of cellulose
c. specific description of how aspects of the natural
c. ribosomes
world are expected to behave
d. flagella or cilia that contain microtubules
d. a logical interpretation based on what scientists
11. Species that are in the same __________ are more closely
already know
related than species that are only in the same __________.
4. What does a critical-minded person consistently do?
a. phylum; class
a. Gathers and analyses evidence
b. family; order
b. Critics the work of the group
c. class; order
c. Observant about what happens
d. family; genus
d. Intellectually honest about the result
12. In a controlled experiment, which is the condition being
5. A teacher wants to show the movement of animals in his
introduced and whose effect is being observed?
lesson. What should he use?
a. Conclusion formulated
a. Herbarium and taxidermy
b. Manipulated variable
b. Terrarium and herbarium
c. Responding variable
c. Terrarium and taxidermy
d. Controlled variable
d. Aquarium and terrarium
13. What makes a water molecule polar?
6. Which of the following statements about a fair test is
a. Water has the ability to be frozen and thawed.
true?
b. Water is most dense at four degrees Celsius.
a. All the variables must be kept in the same
c. A water molecule has slight charges on each
condition. end.
b. Only one variable is tested at a time. d. Hydrogen is more electronegative than oxygen.
c. Everything can be studied by setting up a 14. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental tenet of the
controlled experiment. cell theory?
d. Controlled experiments cannot be performed on a. Cells arise only from previously existing cells.
living things. b. Cells are the basic unit of structure for all living
7. Which of the following sequence is a correct organisms.
representation of the hierarchy of biological organization c. All living organisms have genetic material.
from least to most complex? d. All living organisms are composed of one or
a. organelle of a stomach cell, digestive system, more cells.
large intestine, small intestine, intestinal tissue, 15. Which type of cell would probably provide the best
organism opportunity to study lysosomes?
a. Mesophyll c. Erythrocytes
b. Plateles d. Leukocytes
16. What type of asexual reproduction occurs when a new
organism develops from an outgrowth as exemplified by
corals?
a. Fission c. Budding
b. Sexual reproduction d. Fertilization
17. Which refers to the ability of an organism to keep its
internal environment stable, even when external
conditions change dramatically?
a. irritability c. adaptation
b. homeostasis d. evolution
18. Which statement is true about measurements?
a. All measurements are always accurate and
precise regardless of the tools used.
b. All measurements are the same when similar
measuring tools are used.
c. All accurate measurements are also precise
measurements.
d. All precise measurements are also accurate
measurements.
19. Which of the following is not true about science and
technology?
a. Science taught man the relationship of living
things with their environment.
b. Technology can provide all the solutions to the
problems of the society.
c. Science is an organized knowledge about the
environment.
d. Technology helps improve man's life
20. Which illustrates adhesion resulting to capillary action?
a. Surface tension keeps water striders above
water.
b. A needle does not sink when carefully placed on
a glass of water.
c. Water is drawn out of the roots and up into
stems and leaves of plants.
d. Sea breeze is produced in a beach during the
day because land heats up first.
21. About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be
essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up
approximately 96% of living matter?
a. carbon, sodium, chlorine, nitrogen
b. carbon, sulfur, phosphorus, hydrogen
c. oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
d. carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
22. Each element is unique and different from other elements
because of the number of protons in the nuclei of its
atoms. Which of the following indicates the number of
protons in an atom’s nucleus?
a. atomic mass
b. atomic weight
c. atomic number
d. mass weight
23. Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass
of 40. Therefore, a calcium atom must have
a. 20 protons.
b. 20 neutrons.
c. 40 electrons.
d. A and B only
24. What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic
bonds?
a. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of protons
between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the
sharing of electrons between atoms.
b. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of neutrons
between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the
sharing of electrons between atoms.
c. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons
between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the
electrical attraction between atoms.
d. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of protons
between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the
sharing of neutrons between atoms.
25. An example of a hydrogen bond is the bond between
a. C and H in methane (CH4).
b. the H of one water molecule and the O of
another water molecule.
c. Na + and Cl - in salt.
d. the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of
hydrogen gas (H2)
26. Which of the following statements is true about buffer
solutions?
a. They maintain a constant pH when bases are
added to them but not when acids are added to
them.
b. They maintain a constant pH when acids are
added to them but not when bases are added to
them.
c. They maintain a constant pH of exactly 7 in all
living cells and biological fluids.
d. They maintain a relatively constant pH when
either acids or bases are added to them.
27. Many mammals control their body temperature by
sweating. Which property of water is most directly
responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body
temperature?
a. water’s change in density when it condenses
b. water’s ability to dissolve molecules in the air
c. the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen
bonds
d. the absorption of heat by the breaking of
hydrogen bonds
28. Which of the following is not a polymer?
a. glucose
b. starch
c. cellulose
d. chitin
29. Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose
molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose
molecule. How is lactose classified?
a. as a pentose
b. as a hexose
c. as a monosaccharide
d. as a disaccharide
30. The element nitrogen is present in all of the following
except
a. proteins.
b. nucleic acids.
c. amino acids.
 d. DNA. a. competitive exclusion.
31. An enzyme speeds up a reaction by b. invasion.
a. lowering the activation energy. c. extreme predation.
b. raising the activation energy. d. outliving.
c. releasing energy. 41. Photosynthetic algae are most likely to be found in
d. absorbing energy. a. the open-ocean benthic zone.
32. Which of the following is NOT an organic molecule found b. the aphotic zone.
in living organisms? c. the photic zone.
a. protein d. ocean trenches
b. nucleic acid 42. The water in an estuary is
c. water a. salt water only.
d. lipid b. poor in nutrients.
33. In which of the following ways do isotopes of the same c. fresh water only.
element differ? d. brackish water.
a. in number of neutrons only 43. The area inhabited by a population is known as its
b. in number of protons only a. growth rate.
c. in numbers of neutrons and protons b. geographic range.
d. in number of neutrons and in mass c. age structure.
34. Primary producers are organisms that d. population density.
a. rely on other organisms for their energy and 44. In ecology, the movement of individuals into an area is
food supply. called
b. consume plant and animal remains and other a. immigration.
b. emigration.
dead matter.
c. mass exodus.
c. use energy they take in from the environment to
d. population density.
convert inorganic molecules into complex 45. A tiger that hunted and ate deer is an example of ______
organic molecules. and ______ respectively.
d. obtain energy by eating only plants. a. carnivore; omnivore
35. Nutrients move through an ecosystem in b. commensal; herbivore
a. biogeochemical cycles. c. predator; prey
b. water cycles. d. herbivore; carnivore
c. energy pyramids. 46. One example of density-independent limiting factor is:
d. ecological pyramids. a. hurricanes c. competition
36. Which of the following is not true about matter in the b. disease d. predation
biosphere? 47. Demographic methods are now applied by ecologist in
a. Matter is recycled in the biosphere. studying a particular area. What do they analyse to
b. Biogeochemical cycles transform and reuse determine population size?
a. Life table records of birth and death
molecules.
b. Survivorship pattern in a particular environment
c. The total amount of matter decreases over time. c. Patterns of reproduction in an ecosystem
d. Water and nutrients pass between organisms d. Patterns of birth and death in a population
and the environment. 48. Permafrost characterizes the biome called:
37. Which is a source of energy for Earth’s living things? a. taiga c. deciduous forest
a. wind energy only b. chaparral d. tundra
b. sunlight only 49. Which of the following criterion is used to distinguish
c. wind energy and sunlight between two species?
d. sunlight and chemical energy a. Reproduction
38. Which of the following is considered as a primary b. Physical traits
producer? c. Time
a. phytoplankton d. Geography
b. zooplanktons 50. A mango tree is planted beside a sampaguita plant in a
c. an amoeboid garden. They demonstrate the following relationship
d. an earthworm a. Commensalism
39. The factor that generally has the greatest effect on b. Amensalism
determining a region’s climate is its c. Mutualism
a. the region’s longitude. d. Predation
b. abundant plant species. 51. Which best describes the climax stage of an ecological
c. distance from the equator. succession?
d. presence of a nearby river a. It changes rapidly form season to season
40. If a newly introduced species fills a niche that is normally b. Represents initial phases of evolution
occupied by a native species, the two species compete. c. It persists until drastic changes occurs
One of the species may die out as a result of d. It is composed mostly by tertiary consumers
52. Which pair of terms will most likely apply to the same 61. Which of the following is not a direct effect of
organism? deforestation?
a. Producer, predator a. decreased productivity of the ecosystem
b. Autotroph, parasite b. soil erosion
c. Heterotroph, autotroph c. biological magnification
d. Heterotroph, herbivore d. habitat destruction
53. What is the major role of decomposer in an ecosystem? 62. Which level of measurement has a true zero?
a. Act as pollutants a. Ratio
b. Recycle nutrients b. Interval
c. Make the soil fertile c. Nominal
d. Clean the environment d. Ordinal
54. Which is true about the phosphorus cycle? 63. The number of fishes died in a fish kill in a pond is what
a. Phosphate is released in rocks through kind of variable in biostatistics?
weathering. a. Discrete
b. Plants and animals absorb phosphate from b. Continuous
atmosphere. c. Ordinal
c. Phosphorus is abundant in the atmosphere. d. Ratio
d. Organic phosphate cannot move through food 64. Ozone depletion in the atmosphere has been caused by
webs. a. monoculture.
55. The maximum rate at which a certain species reproduces b. CFCs.
is its c. biological magnification.
a. growth rate d. soil erosion.
b. liming factors 65. The main energy foods are carbohydrates and
c. biotic potential a. Proteins
d. carrying capacity b. Fats
56. Which is false about changes caused by density- c. Vitamins
independent factors. d. Minerals
a. Most populations can adapt to a certain amount 66. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
of change. a. vitamin A
b. Periodic droughts can affect entire populations b. vitamin B12
of grasses. c. vitamin C
c. Populations never build up again after a crash in d. potassium
population size. 67. What is the substrate of salivary amylase?
d. Major upsets in an ecosystem can lead to long- a. protein
term declines in certain populations. b. starch
57. Which of the following statements best describes human c. sucrose
population growth? d. glucose
a. The growth rate has remained constant over 68. There are different amino acids. What makes one amino
time. acid different from another?
b. Growth continues to increase at the same rate. a. different carboxyl groups attached to an alpha
c. Growth has been exponential in the last few (α) carbon
hundred years. b. different amino groups attached to an alpha (α)
d. Birthrate equals death rate. carbon
58. The concept of using natural resources at a rate that does c. different side chains (R groups) attached to an
not deplete them is called alpha (α) carbon
a. conservation. d. different alpha (α) carbons
b. sustainable development. 69. The organelles that break down lipids, carbohydrates, and
c. reforestation. proteins into small molecules that can be used by the cell
d. successful use. are called
59. Nuclear wastes pose problems to the environment. Why a. vacuoles.
is it difficult to dispose high-level nuclear wastes? They b. lysosomes.
a. have short half-lives c. ribosomes.
b. have long half-lives d. microfilaments.
c. are large and bulky 70. Which of the following statements is true?
d. emit light a. Both plants and animals perform
60. The total impact a person has on the biosphere can be photosynthesis.
represented by his or her b. Only plants perform photosynthesis.
a. contribution to climate change. c. Both plants and animals perform cell respiration.
b. ecological footprint. d. Only animals perform cell respiration.
c. consumption of fossil fuel. 71. Which is the bacterial structure that acts as a selective
d. production of carbon dioxide. barrier, allowing nutrients to enter the cell and wastes to
leave the cell?
 a. plasma membrane c. pyruvic acid oxidation
b. capsule d. alcoholic fermentation
c. cell wall 80. Which of the following is true of ALL single-celled
d. pili organisms?
72. A substance that moves by passive transport tends to a. They are all prokaryotes.
move b. They are all bacteria.
a. away from the area of equilibrium. c. They all reproduce.
b. away from the area where it is less concentrated. d. They all have a nucleus.
c. away from the area where it is more 81. The net gain of energy molecules from glycolysis is
a. 4 ATP molecules.
concentrated.
b. 2 ATP molecules.
d. toward the area where it is more concentrated.
c. 8 ADP molecules.
73. The transport of sugar molecules into the cell is a form of d. 3 pyruvic acid molecules.
a. bulk transport 82. The process carried out by yeast that causes bread dough
b. osmosis to rise is
c. facilitated diffusion a. alcoholic fermentation.
d. active transport b. lactic acid fermentation.
74. When yeast cells are deprived of oxygen, the cells resort c. cellular respiration.
to what process? d. yeast mitosis.
a. Aerobic respiration 83. What raw materials are needed for cellular respiration?
b. Alcoholic fermentation a. glucose and carbon dioxide
c. Lactic acid fermentation b. glucose and oxygen
d. Krebs cycle c. carbon dioxide and oxygen
75. Which of the following statements about the cell d. oxygen and lactic acid
membrane is CORRECT? 84. Animal cells have all of the following EXCEPT
a. It prevents the exit of all materials from the cell. a. mitochondria.
b. It has a rigid structure composed of cellulose. b. chloroplasts.
c. It is a two-layered structure composed of lipids c. a nucleus.
and proteins. d. a cell membrane.
d. It is a fluid-filled organelle that surrounds the 85. What is the maximum number of ATP produced by the
nucleolus. electron transport chain of the mitochondrion?
76. How are mitochondria and chloroplasts similar to a. 36 b. 40 c. 38 d. 34
bacteria? They 86. In addition to light and chlorophyll, photosynthesis
a. lack ribosomes. requires
a. water and oxygen.
b. are larger than normal cells.
b. water and sugars.
c. are bounded by a single membrane. c. oxygen and carbon dioxide.
d. have a limited amount of genetic material. d. water and carbon dioxide.
77. Jams, jellies, preserves, honey, and other foodstuffs with 87. Which substance from the light-dependent reactions of
a high sugar content hardly ever become contaminated photosynthesis is a source of energy for the Calvin cycle?
by bacteria, even when the food containers are left open a. ADP c. H2O
at room temperature. This is because bacteria that b. NADPH d. pyruvic acid
encounter such an environment 88. ATP synthase in the chloroplast membrane makes ATP,
a. undergo death by plasmolysis. utilizing the energy of highly concentrated
b. are unable to metabolize the glucose or a. chlorophyll. c. hydrogen ions.
fructose, and thus starve to death. b. electrons. d. NADPH
89. CAM plants are specialized to survive under what
c. undergo death by lysis.
conditions that would harm most other kinds of plants?
d. are obligate anaerobes.
a. low temperatures c. hot, dry conditions
78. All of the following statements about glycolysis are true b. excess water d. long day lengths
EXCEPT: 90. The color of light that is LEAST useful to a plant during
a. Glycolysis can operate in the complete absence photosynthesis is
of O2. a. red. c. green.
b. Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of the b. blue. d. violet.
cell. 91. The first step in photosynthesis is the
c. Glycolysis produces a net gain of 2 ATP and 2 a. synthesis of water.
NADPH. b. production of oxygen.
d. One glucose molecule yields 2 pyruvate c. breakdown of carbon dioxide.
molecules. d. absorption of light energy.
79. When muscle cells are deprived of oxygen, the cells resort 92. In a typical plant, all of the following factors are necessary
to what process? for photosynthesis EXCEPT
a. lactic acid fermentation a. chlorophyll. c. light.
b. aerobic fermentation
 b. oxygen. d. water. c. Should be paired with a dominant gene for it to
93. How many oxygen (O2) molecules are required each time be expressed
a molecule of glucose is completely oxidized via aerobic d. Will prevent a dominant gene from expressing
respiration? its phenotype
a. Twelve c. Six 104. Which statement reflects the nature of eukaryotic DNA
b. Four d. Two replication?
94. The electron transport chain uses the high-energy a. DNA replication is said to be non-conservative
electrons from the Krebs cycle to b. Replication proceeds in only one direction
a. produce glucose. c. DNA is translated to give rise to proteins
b. move H + ions across the inner mitochondrial d. Each new DNA molecule contains one old and
membrane. one new strand
c. convert acetyl-CoA to citric acid. 105. Pea plants were particularly well suited for use in Mendelʹs
d. convert glucose to pyruvic acid. breeding experiments for all of the following reasons
95. The human body can use all of the following as energy except
sources EXCEPT a. peas show easily observed variations in a
a. ATP in muscles. number of characters, such as pea shape and
b. glycolysis. flower color.
c. lactic acid fermentation.
b. it is possible to control mating between different
d. alcoholic fermentation.
pea plants.
96. The rate at which materials enter and leave the cell
depends on the cell’s c. it is possible to obtain large numbers of progeny
a. volume. c. speciation. from any given cross.
b. weight. d. surface area d. peas have an unusually long generation time.
97. Sister chromatids are attached to each other at an area 106. What does Law of Segregation mean?
called the a. The pair of alleles segregates from each other
a. centriole. c. centromere. when gametes are formed.
b. spindle. d. chromosome. b. Alleles for different genes segregate
98. The timing in the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells is believed independently of each other.
to be controlled by a group of closely related proteins c. The inheritance of biological characteristics is
known as determined by genes.
a. flagellin. c. myosin. d. Some alleles may be dominant and others may
b. cyclins. d. penicillin. be recessive.
99. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of asexual 107. What is the difference between a monohybrid cross and
reproduction? a dihybrid cross?
a. simple and efficient a. A monohybrid cross involves a single parent,
b. produces large number of offspring quickly whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
c. increases genetic diversity b. A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio
d. requires one parent whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.
100. What enzyme is responsible for adding new nucleotides c. A dihybrid cross involves two genes and a
to a growing DNA chain in the lagging strand? monohybrid only one.
a. RNA polymerase d. A monohybrid cross is performed for one
b. DNA polymerase generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is
c. Helicase performed for two generations.
d. SSB proteins 108. A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and
101. How many times can an enzyme amplify a reaction? homozygous white-flowered pea plants results in
a. Hundred folds offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
b. Thousand folds a. a dihybrid cross
c. Million folds b. true-breeding.
d. Billion folds c. dominance.
102. Which of the following statements best summarizes the d. the blending model of genetics.
structural differences between DNA and RNA? 109. The F1 offspring of Mendelʹs classic pea cross always
a. RNA is a protein, whereas DNA is a nucleic acid. looked like one of the two parental varieties because
b. DNA is a protein, whereas RNA is a nucleic acid. a. one phenotype was completely dominant over
c. DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than another.
RNA nucleotides. b. each allele affected phenotypic expression.
d. RNA is a double helix, but DNA is single- c. the traits blended together during fertilization.
stranded. d. no genes interacted to produce the parental
103. Which is true about recessive genes? phenotype.
a. Will only have phenotypic expression if present 110. What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor
as a homozygous genotype Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?
b. Have more superior phenotypic traits
 a. He named the trait-producing substance in peas 123. When a bacteriophage attaches to a bacterium, what
as genes. does it do to the host bacterium?
b. Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not a. It hijacks the bacterium’s cell machinery
the results of ʺblending”. b. It injects its genetic material into the host.
c. Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 c. It kills the bacterium later in its life cycle
than do dominant ones. d. All of the choices.
d. Genes are composed of DNA. 124. All of the following conclusions about the DNA are
correct EXCEPT
111. How many unique gametes could be produced through
a. DNA is the structural component that is
independent assortment by an individual with the
responsible for heredity.
genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
b. The order of nucleotides in a DNA is fixed and
a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 3
repetitive.
112. Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1
c. The sugar in the DNA is a five-carbon sugar
ratio for a particular trait. This suggests
called deoxyribose.
a. that the parents were true-breeding for
d. Thymine and Cytosine are under pyrimidine kind
contrasting traits.
of Nitrogenous bases.
b. incomplete dominance.
125. What did Levene call the nucleic acid with a sugar that
c. that a blending of traits has occurred.
lacks one oxygen molecule?
d. that the parents were both heterozygous.
a. DNA c. RNA
113. When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive
b. Purine d. Thymine
for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance
126. What is the basic unit of a nucleic acid?
of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive
a. sugar c. deoxyribose
phenotype?
b. DNA d. nucleotide
a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75%
127. Who proved the experiment of Griffith but with the use of
114. Which proportion, more or less, follows the phenotype of
DNA and protein?
Mendel’s F2 offspring?
a. Miescher c. Levene
a. 225 Tall : 220 Short c. 100 Tall : 200 Short
b. Hershey-Chase d. Avery’s team
b. 750 Tall : 250 Short d. 500 Tall : 500 Short
128. Which of the following is/are the role of DNA in heredity?
115. Which describes the ABO blood group system?
a. store information
a. Multiple alleles c. Polygenic traits
b. copy information
b. Epistasis d. Incomplete dominance
c. transmit information
116. A woman has six sons. The chance that her next child will
d. all of the above
be a daughter is
129. What did Hershey and Chase use to mark the
a. 1. b. 0 c. 1/2 d. 1/7
bacteriophage’s DNA and protein coat?
117. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a Mendelian disorder in the human
a. powdered elements c. pathogenic strain
population that is inherited as a recessive. Two normal
b. radioactive isotopes d. all of the above
parents have two children with CF. The probability of their
next child being normal for this characteristic is which of
Use the space below for the following genetic problems.
the following?
a. zero b. 1/2 c. 1/4 d. 3/4
The ability to roll the tongue is dominant over the inability
118. Which will manifest as blood type of one of the children
to do so in humans.
of a man who is a homozygote type A and a woman with
a type O blood?
130. If two heterozygous parents have offspring, what
a. Blood type B c. Blood type AB
genotypes could their children have? (3pts)
b. Blood type A d. Choices A and B
119. Which best describes this condition: “One trait with many
factors controlling such trait”?
131. What percentage of their offspring will have the ability to
a. Multiple alleles c. Polygenic condition
roll the tongue?
b. Codominance d. Two-factor cross
120. Who was the first to describe the substance called nuclein
and its component substances?
132. A plant has a genotype BbCcDD for a particular trait.
a. Miescher c. Levene
Assume independent assortment. During meiosis, what
b. Griffith d. Avery
is the probability of producing a gamete with BcD
121. Bacteriophages are
genotype?
a. a species of bacteria. c. coils of DNA.
b. proteins. d. viruses.
122. What happened to the mouse that was injected with heat-
killed pathogenic strain of pneumonia bacteria in the
133. What is the basic unit of nucleic acids?
experiment of bacterial transformation?
a. Amino acids c. Polypeptide
a. Mouse died c. Mouse lived
b. Nucleotide d. Nitrogenous base
b. Mouse passed out d. Mouse transformed
134. Which is NOT a component of a nucleotide?
a. Polymerase c. 5-Carbon sugar
 b. Phosphate group d. Nitrogenous base d. Prokaryotic DNA strands are not assembled into
135. Which type of bond connects one nucleotide to another chromosomes.
in a strand? 144. Which is true about transcription?
a. Hydrogen bond c. Ionic bond a. Transcription happens inside the nucleus.
b. Covalent bond d. All of the above b. tRNA carries specific amino acid to the
136. RNA is a nucleic acid which does not contain ribosomes.
a. Adenine c. Uracil c. The process stops when one of the three stop
b. Thymine d. Thiamine codons is encountered.
137. Which is/are true about the Nitrogenous bases in nucleic d. All of the above.
acids? 145. If the DNA strand contains the sequence TACGGATCT,
a. These bases have a chemical structure that what is the resulting mRNA sequence after transcription?
makes them especially good at absorbing a. TACGGATCT c. ATGCCTAGA
ultraviolet light. b. AUGCCUAGA d. TUGCCTUATA
b. The complementary base pairing in the DNA 146. What is the shape of the tRNA?
follows A with C and T with G. a. single straight strand c. clover-leaf shape
c. These bases by nature are slightly acidic. b. spade-shaped d. burger-like shape
d. All of the above.
138. Which correctly describes the work of Rosalind Franklin? For items 145-149, choose what is being described from the
a. She used X-ray diffraction to get information choices below.
about the DNA structure. a. DNA c. mRNA
b. She described the structure of the DNA as b. tRNA d. rRNA
147. It transcribes the information on the DNA.
antiparallel double helix.
148. It serves as the template for transcription.
c. She cooperated with Watson and Crick to come
149. It carries the specific amino acid that corresponds to the
up with the generally accepted model of the
codon.
DNA.
150. It constitutes the ribosomal subunits.
d. She subjected the DNA specimen in UV rays and
151. It carries the codon from transcription.
presented the double-helix model of the DNA.
152. Which codon codes for methionine?
139. Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of
a. UGA b. UAG c. AUG d. AGU
DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage
153. Which codon is the start codon?
of the nucleotides in this sample will be Adenine?
a. AUA b. UUA c. AUG d. GGC
a. 38% b. 24% c. 12% d. 76%
154. Which codon terminates the process of protein synthesis?
140. What is meant by the description ”antiparallel” regarding
a. UAA b. UUA c. UGC d. UCA
the strands that make up the DNA?
155. Which complements the codon during translation by
a. The DNA is twisted in a spiral way.
base pairing?
b. The direction of one strand runs counter to the
a. anticodon c. ribosomes
other.
b. water d. proteins
c. Base pairing goes with pyrimidine and purine
156. What is a karyotype?
bases.
a. The set of unique chromosomes after the two
d. The strands never meet even if extended
meiotic divisions
throughout.
b. A display of every pair of homologous
141. The bonds that hold the two strands of DNA together
chromosomes within a cell, organized according
come from
to size and shape
a. the attraction of phosphate groups for each
c. The collection of all the chromosomes in a
other.
gamete arranged according to the mutation
b. strong bonds between nitrogenous bases and
incurred
the sugar-phosphate backbone.
d. Choices B and C
c. weak hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous
157. If a cell with 2N = 10 karyotype undergoes meiosis, how
bases.
many chromosomes would each daughter cell have after?
d. carbon-to-carbon bonds in the sugar portion of
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
the nucleotides.
158. The human X and Y chromosomes
142. The human genome consists of approximately how many
a. are both present in every somatic cell of males
DNA base pairs?
and females alike.
a. 30,000 c. 300,000,000
b. are of approximately equal size and number of
b. 3,000,000 d. 3,000,000,000
genes.
143. Which of the following is FALSE about the prokaryotic
c. are almost entirely homologous, despite their
DNA and/or its replication?
different names.
a. Bacterial DNA is circular.
d. include genes that determine an individual’s sex.
b. Prokaryotes have fewer DNA than a human
159. Which of the following is a diploid cell?
being.
a. Sperm cell c. Ovum
c. Bacterial DNA replication can proceed in two
b. Skin cell d. Pollen
directions from a single point.
160. If a haploid cell contains 16 chromosomes, how many c. 44
chromosomes would that same cell contain in its diploid d. None of the above
state? 173. In a pedigree, which represents a normal female (or a
a. 8 b. 16 c. 32 d. 48 female not affected by the trait)?
161. Which does NOT describe one of the events of meiosis? a. Shaded square
a. In the human body, the meiotic division begins b. Unshaded square
with a cell having 23 chromosomes. c. Shaded circle
b. The genetic material DNA is duplicated during d. Unshaded circle
interphase, prior to meiotic division. 174. What is dubbed as one of the greatest human feats of
c. In the human body, the meiotic process happens exploration of the chromosomes that aimed to uncover
only in the reproductive organs. the sequence and location of genes in our DNA?
d. In the second meiotic stage, the cell skips the a. The Human Genome Project
interphase replication of the DNA. b. CRISPR
162. Which is true about anaphase II? c. Polymerase Chain Reaction
a. Sister chromatids separate as they move near d. The Nature-Nurture Concept
the poles of the spindle. 175. Taking advantage of naturally occurring variations in
b. Homologous pair line up in the equatorial plane organisms to pass wanted traits on to future generations
held by microtubules. is called
c. The spindle fiber attaches to the centromere of a. Selective breeding c. Inbreeding
the chromosomes. b. Mutation d. Natural selection
d. Homologous pair separate towards opposite 176. Where does glycolysis takes place?
poles of the spindle. a. mitochondrial matrix
163. How many chromatids are in a tetrad? b. mitochondrial outer membrane
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 46 c. mitochondrial inner membrane
164. How many chromosomes are present in a human cheek d. cytoplasm
cell? 177. Which of the following characteristics is often genetically
a. 23 b. 25 c. 43 d. 46 engineered into crop plants?
165. When does synapsis happen? a. Improved flavor c. More roots
a. Prophase I c. Prophase II b. Thicker stems d. Resistance to pests
b. G1 phase d. S phase 178. Dolly The Sheep is the first known successful case of
166. Which structure produces the spindle fibers? a. evolution c. cloning
a. centrioles c. cytoplasm b. GMO d. gene splicing
b. nucleus d. centromere 179. What is meant by “GMO”?
167. Which is the site of attachment of the spindle fibers? a. Genes and Micro-engineered Organism
a. centromere c. nucleus b. Gene Molecular Orientation
b. histones d. cytoplasm c. Genetically Modified Organism
168. Meiosis is important because d. Genotypic Modification of Organs
a. It doubles the number of chromosomes 180. The donor cell, in the case of Dolly, is taken from which
between generations part of the body of the donor sheep?
b. It produces haploid gametes a. egg cell c. udder
c. It replaces dead cells in adult organisms b. stomach d. womb
d. It produces fertilized egg or zygote 181. Which refers to any alteration in the sequence of
169. Reduction of oxygen which forms water occurs during nucleotides that can be passed on to the next generation?
a. photosynthesis. a. mutation c. X-limited trait
b. respiration. b. X-linked disease d. aneuploidy
c. both photosynthesis and respiration. 182. The process by which one strain of bacterium is
d. neither photosynthesis nor respiration. apparently changed into another strain is called
170. Which type of protein binds the DNA molecule to a. transcription. c. duplication.
produce the nucleosome structure? b. transformation. d. replication.
a. Histone 183. The number of codons in the genetic code is
b. Centromere a. 3.
c. Polymerase b. 4.
d. Chromatin c. 20.
171. If you want to examine the whole set of chromosomes of d. 64.
an organism, which would be the best sample to refer to? 184. The number of essential amino acids found specified by
a. its karyotype the codon dictionary is _____.
b. its sperm cells a. 8
c. cells in Meiosis II b. 9
d. All of the above c. 10
172. How many autosomes does a normal human being have? d. 20
a. 23 185. If a DNA segment has 24 phosphodiester bonds on each
b. 46 strand, how many nucleotides are there?
 a. 48 b. 75%
b. 47 c. 50%
c. 46 d. 0%
d. 24 196. Which refers to a type of genetic drift describing the loss
186. A substance that can cause a change in the DNA code of of the allelic variation that accompanies founding of a
an organism is called a new population from a very small number of individuals?
a. toxin. a. Bottleneck effect
b. nitrogenous base. b. Founder effect
c. mutagen. c. Survival of the fittest
d. nucleotide. d. Natural selection
187. If a large population of bacteria were to be growing on a 197. Malaria is a disease caused by a
surface and then one were to clean it with an antibacterial a. gene mutation.
agent, what would likely be the effect on the gene pool? b. defect in red blood cells.
a. The surviving population would have less c. bacterium found in water.
genetic variation. d. parasite carried by mosquitoes.
b. There will be no decrease on the population of 198. Which represents Hardy-Weinberg equation?
bacteria. a. p² + 2pq + q² = 1 c. KE = (mv2) / 2
c. The bacterial population would dramatically b. A = ½(bh) d. W = mg
increase in number.
d. The new population of bacteria would diversify Genes A, B, C, and D are located on the same chromosome.
in species. After calculating recombination frequencies, a student
188. A female may have only one X chromosome instead of determines that these genes are separated by the following
two, what is this condition known as? map units: C–D, 25 map units; A–B, 12 map units; B–D, 20 map
a. Turner’s syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome units; A–C, 17 map units.
b. Patau syndrome d. Tay-Sachs disease
189. My boyfriend has a twin sister. How would I properly 199. How many map units apart are genes A and D?
describe them as twins? a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12.5
a. Monozygotic twins 200. Which gene map best reflects the student’s data?
b. Identical twins
c. Siamese twins
d. Fraternal twins
190. The advantage of light microscopy over electron
microscopy is that
a. light microscopy provides for higher
magnification than electron microscopy.
b. light microscopy provides for higher resolving
power than electron microscopy.
c. light microscopy allows one to view dynamic
processes in living cells.
d. A and B
191. What is the highest total magnification of light
microscopy?
a. 40x b. 100x c. 400x d. 1,000x
192. Which is an example of a sex-linked trait?
a. Pattern baldness
b. Color-blindness
c. Milk production
d. Polydactyly
193. Which does NOT belong to the group?
a. Sickle-cell anemia
b. Tay-Sach’s disease
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Huntington’s disease
194. If a trait is expressed only in one sex but not in the other,
such trait is said to be
a. Sex-linked
b. Sex-limited
c. Sex-influenced
d. Autosomal
195. What is the chance that a boy would have hemophilia if
his mother has the disease but his father is normal?
a. 100%