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CASE STUDY QUESTION 01

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)

All living cells require energy for various activities. This energy is available by the
breakdown of simple carbohydrates either using oxygen or without using oxygen.

(i) Energy in the case of higher plants and animals is obtained by


(a) Breathing
(b) Tissue respiration
(c) Organ respiration
(d) Digestion of food

Tissue respiration is the process by which living cells absorb oxygen and
release carbon dioxide. It is Internal respiration occurs in animals with a
circulation system.
(ii) The graph below represents the blood lactic acid concentration of an athlete
during a race of 400 m and shows a peak at point D.

Lactic acid production has occurred in the athlete while running in the 400 m race.
Which of the following processes explains this event?
(a) Aerobic respiration (b) Anaerobic respiration
(c) Fermentation (d) Breathing
Which of the following processes explains this event?
(a) Aerobic respiration (b) Anaerobic respiration
(c) Fermentation (d) Breathing

Anaerobic means “without air”. Therefore, this type of cellular respiration


does not use oxygen to produce energy.
During heavy or intensive exercise such as running, sprinting, cycling or
weight lifting, our body demands high energy. As the supply of oxygen is
limited, the muscle cells inside our body resort to anaerobic respiration to
fulfil the energy demand.
(iii) Study the graph below that represents the amount of energy supplied with respect to
the time while an athlete is running at full speed.
Choose the correct combination of plots and justification provided in the following table.
(iv) The characteristic processes observed in anaerobic respiration are
i) presence of oxygen
ii) release of carbon dioxide
iii) release of energy
iv) release of lactic acid

(a) i) ,ii) only


(b) i), ii), iii) only
(c) ii), iii), iv) only
(d) iv) only

Ans. (c) ii), iii), iv) only


(v) Study the table below and select the row that has the incorrect information.

Aerobic Respiration can be found in the cytoplasm and the mitochondria.


Anaerobic Respiration can be found only in the cytoplasm.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 02
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)

Metallic Character
The ability of an atom to donate electrons and form positive ion (cation) is known as
electropositivity or metallic character. Down the group, metallic character increases
due to increase in atomic size and across the period, from left to right electropositivity
decreases due to decrease in atomic size.

Non-Metallic Character
The ability of an atom to accept electrons to form a negative ion (anion) is called non-
metallic character or electronegativity. The elements having high electro-negativity
have a higher tendency to gain electrons and form anion. Down the group,
electronegativity decreases due to increase in atomic size and across the period, from
left to right electronegativity increases due to decrease in atomic size.
(i) Which of the following correctly represents
the decreasing order of metallic character of
Alkali metals plotted in the graph?
(a) Cs > Rb > Li > Na > K
(b) K > Rb > Li > Na > Cs
(c) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li
(d) Cs > K > Rb > Na > Li

As we move down the group atomic


radius increases so the metallic character
also increases.
Hence the order is Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs.
(ii) Hydrogen is placed along with Alkali metals in the modern periodic table though it
shows non-metallic character
(a) as Hydrogen has one electron & readily loses electron to form negative ion
(b) as Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to form positive ion
(c) as Hydrogen can gain one electron easily like Halogens to form negative ion
(d) as Hydrogen shows the properties of non-metals

(b) as Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to form positive ion
(iii) Which of the following has highest electronegativity?
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
Electronegativity decreases down the group due to increase in atomic radius/
tendency to gain electron decreases
(iv) Identify the reason for the gradual change in electronegativity in halogens down the
group.
(a) Electronegativity increases down the group due to decrease in atomic size
(b) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to decrease in tendency to lose
electrons
(c) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to increase in atomic radius/ tendency
to gain electron decreases
(d) Electronegativity increases down the group due to increase in forces of attractions
between nucleus & valence electrons
(v) Which of the following reason correctly justifies that “Fluorine (72pm) has smaller
atomic radius than Lithium (152pm)”?
(a) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size increases down the group
(b) F and Li are in the same period. Atomic size increases across the period due to increase
in number of shells
(c) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size decreases down the group
(d) F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic size/radius decreases from
left to right.

(d) F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic size/radius decreases
from left to right.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 03
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Sumati wanted to see the stars of the night sky. She knows that she needs a telescope to
see those distant stars. She finds out that the telescopes, which are made of lenses, are
called refracting telescopes and the ones which are made of mirrors are called
reflecting telescopes.
So she decided to make a refracting telescope. She bought two lenses, L1 and L2, out of
which L1 was bigger and L2 was smaller. The larger lens gathers and bends the light,
while the smaller lens magnifies the image. Big, thick lenses are more powerful. So to
see far away, she needed a big powerful lens. Unfortunately, she realized that a big lens
is very heavy. Heavy lenses are hard to make and difficult to hold in the right place.
Also since the light is passing through the lens, the surface of the lens has to be
extremely smooth. Any flaws in the lens will change the image. It would be like
looking through a dirty window.
(i) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lenses would Sumati need to make the
telescope?
(a) Concave lenses (b) Convex lenses (c) Bifocal lenses (d) Flat lenses

Ans: (b) Convex lenses


(ii) If the powers of the lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of 4:1, what would be the ratio
of the focal length of L1 and L2?
(a) 4:1 (b) 1:4 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:1
(iii) What is the formula for magnification obtained with a lens?
(a) Ratio of height of image to height of object
(b) Double the focal length.
(c) Inverse of the radius of curvature.
(d) Inverse of the object distance.

(a) Ratio of height of image to height of object


(iv) Sumati did some preliminary experiment with the lenses and found out that the
magnification of the eyepiece (L2) is 3. If in her experiment with L2 she found an
image at 24 cm from the lens, at what distance did she put the object?
(a) 72 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 6 cm


(v) Sumati bought not-so-thick lenses for the telescope and polished them. What
advantages, if any, would she have with her choice of lenses?
(a) She will not have any advantage as even thicker lenses would give clearer images.
(b) Thicker lenses would have made the telescope easier to handle.
(c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and also allow
considerable amount of light to pass.
(d) Not-so-thick lenses will give her more magnification.

(c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and also allow
considerable amount of light to pass.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 04
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
A solenoid is a long helical coil of wire through which a current is run in order to create
a magnetic field. The magnetic field of the solenoid is the superposition of the fields
due to the current through each coil. It is nearly uniform inside the solenoid and close
to zero outside and is similar to the field of a bar magnet having a north pole at one end
and a south pole at the other depending upon the direction of current flow. The
magnetic field produced in the solenoid is dependent on a few factors such as, the
current in the coil, number of turns per unit length etc.
The following graph is obtained by a researcher while doing an experiment to see the
variation of the magnetic field with respect to the current in the solenoid. The unit of
magnetic field as given in the graph attached is in milli-Tesla (mT) and the current is
given in Ampere.
(i) What type of energy conversion is observed in a linear solenoid?
(a) Mechanical to Magnetic
(b) Electrical to Magnetic
(c) Electrical to Mechanical
(d) Magnetic to Mechanical

A “Linear Solenoid” is an electromagnetic


device that converts electrical energy into
a mechanical pushing or pulling force or
motion.

Ans: (c) Electrical to Mechanical


(ii) What will happen if a soft iron bar is placed inside the solenoid?
(a) The bar will be electrocuted resulting in short-circuit.
(b) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.
(c) The bar will be magnetised permanently.
(d) The bar will not be affected by any means.
The magnetic field around a current carrying solenoid is similar to the magnetic
field produced by a bar magnet.
When a soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid, the magnetic
field inside the solenoid will increase.
Ans: (b) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.

(iii) The magnetic field lines produced inside the solenoid are similar to that of …
(a) a bar magnet (b) a straight current carrying conductor
(c) a circular current carrying loop (d) electromagnet of any shape
Ans: (a) a bar magnet
(iv) After analysing the graph a student writes the
following statements.
I. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is
inversely proportional to the current.
II. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is
directly proportional to the current.
III. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is
directly proportional to square of the current.
IV. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is
independent of the current.

Choose from the following which of the following would


be the correct statement(s).
(a) Only IV (b) I and III and IV
(c) I and II (d) Only II

Ans: (d) Only II


(v) From the graph deduce which of the following
statements is correct.
(a) For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 13
mT
(b) For larger currents, the magnetic field increases
non-linearly.
(c) For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 1.3
mT
(d) There is not enough information to find the
magnetic field corresponding to 0.8A current.

(a) For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 13 mT


CASE STUDY QUESTION 05
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Shyam made one circuit for his Physics. He used five resistances: two 3Ω, one 1Ω, one
6Ω, one 3.6 Ω and a battery of 4.5 V. The circuit diagram is given below:
(i) Total resistance of parallel combination is :
(a) 2.4 Ω (b) 3 Ω (c) 6 Ω (d) 2 Ω

1 Ω and 3 Ω are in series.

(ii) Equivalent resistance of total circuit is :


(a) 5 Ω (b) 9 Ω (c) 11 Ω (d) 13 Ω
(iii) Total current in the circuit is :
(a) 2 A (b) 4.5 A (c) 0.5 A (d) 10 A

(iv) Current in 6 ohm resistance is


(a) 0.3 A (b) 0.2 A (c) 4 A (d) 6 A
(v) Potential across 3.6 ohm resistance will be :
(a) 1.8 V (b) 2.6 V (c) 9 V (d) 4.5V
CASE STUDY QUESTION 06
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Rear view mirror is a device that allows the driver to see rear ward. It usually finds its
place at the top of windscreen in side the cabin. This device is one of the most basic
but essential safety devices in the vehicle. It provides assistance to the driver during
overtaking, parking in reverse gear etc. Generally, vehicles also have a pair of mirrors
attached to the body from outside. They are popular as 'side mirrors' or Outer Rear
View Mirrors (ORVM) which serve the same purpose. Almost all modern cars mount
their side mirrors on the doors-normally at A-pillar rather than the wings (the portion
of the body above the wheel well).
(i) A real image of an object is to be obtained. The mirror required for this purpose is :
(a) convex mirror (b) concave mirror
(c) plane mirror (d) either convex or concave mirror
Ans: (b) Concave mirror
(ii) A boy is standing in front of and close to a special mirror. He finds the image of his
head bigger than normal, the middle part of his body of the same size, and his legs
smaller than normal. The special mirror is made up of three types of mirrors in the
following order from top downwards:
(a) Convex, Plane, Concave (b) Plane, Convex, Concave
(c) Concave, Plane, Convex (d) Convex, Concave, Plane
A plane mirror will produce an image of the same size.
A concave mirror will produce a magnified image.
A convex mirror will produce a diminished image.

Ans: (c) Concave, Plane, Convex


(iii) A convex mirror is used:
(a) by a dentist
(b) for shaving
(c) as a rear view mirror in vehicles
(d) as a light reflector for obtaining a parallel beam of light

Ans: (c) as a rear view mirror in vehicles


(iv) Linear magnification (m) produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles :
(a) is equal to one
(b) is less than one
(c) is more than one
(d) can be more or less than one depending on the position of object
Ans: (b) is less than one
(v) A concave mirror cannot be used as :
(a) a magnifying mirror
(b) a torch reflector
(c) a dentist’s mirror
(d) a rear view mirror
We cannot use a concave mirror as a rearview mirror in motor vehicles.
This is because a concave mirror produces inverted images (upside down images)
of distant objects.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 07
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
The activities of man had adverse effects on all forms of living organisms in the
biosphere. Unlimited exploitation of nature by man disturbed the delicate ecological
balance between the living and non-living components of the biosphere. The
unfavorable conditions created by man himself threatened the survival not only of him
but also of the entire living organisms on the mother earth. One of your classmates is
an active member of 'Eco club' of your school which is creating environmental
awareness amongst the school students, spreading the same in the society and also
working hard for preventing environmental degradation of the surroundings.
(a) It is necessary to conserve our environment. Which of these is the reason to
conserve our environment?
(i) To save water, air and soil from pollution.
(ii) To maintain ecological balance.
(iii) To save ozone layer
(iv) All of these

Ans: (iv) All of these

(b) The green and blue dustbin signifies for:


(i) Biodegradable waste and non-biodegradable waste respectively.
(ii) Non-biodegradable waste and biodegradable waste respectively.
(iii) Eco-friendly waste
(iv) Domestic waste only
Ans: (i) Biodegradable waste and non-biodegradable waste respectively.
Green dustbins is for Biodegradable waste and blue dustbins is for non-
biodegradable waste.
(c) Which of these non-biodegradable wastes generated daily in kitchen can be
recycled?
(i) Polythene bags (ii) Plastic containers
(iii) Vegetable waste (iv) Both (i) and (ii)

Ans: (iv) Both (i) and (ii)

(d) Why are plastics difficult to recycle?


(i) Because it is a very hard material
(ii) Because of the different sizes of plastic
(iii) Because it is very adhesive in its nature
(iv) Because of different types of polymer resins
Ans: (iv) Because of different types of polymer resins
(e) In the following groups of materials, which group(s) contains only non-
biodegradable items?
(I) Wood, paper, leather
(II) Polythene, detergent, PVC
(III) Plastic, detergent, grass
(IV) Plastic, bakelite, DDT
(i) (III) (ii) (IV) (iii) (I) and (III) (iv) (II) and (IV)

Substances which are not broken down by the bacteria or saprophytes are called
non-biodegradable substances. Under certain conditions, the non-biodegradable
substances can persist for longer time and can also harm the various components of
our ecosystem.

Ans: (iv) (II) and (IV)


CASE STUDY QUESTION 08
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
The force exerted by the blood against the wall of a vessel is called blood pressure.
This pressure is much greater in arteries than in veins. The pressure of blood inside
the artery during ventricular systole (contraction) is called systolic pressure and
pressure in the artery during ventricular diastole (relaxation) is called diastolic
pressure.
(i) Study the table given below and select the row that has incorrect information.
(ii) Choose the correct combination to depict the given figure:

(a) x. Systolic pressure, y. Systolic pressure


(b) x. Systolic pressure, y. Diastolic pressure
(c) x. Diastolic pressure, y. Systolic pressure
(d) x. Diastolic pressure, y. Diastolic pressure

Ans: (b) x. Systolic pressure, y. Diastolic pressure


(iii) The characteristics observed in hypertension are:
1. Constriction of arterioles
2. Results in rupture of an artery
3. Causes internal bleeding
4. Increased blood flow
Choose the correct option based on the statements.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d) 2, 3 and 4

(iv) A person travelling through a public transport suddenly fainted. Upon check-up
by a health care provider, it was found that his blood pressure was 152-95. Name the
medical condition that the person is going through.
(a) Low blood pressure (b) High blood pressure
(c) Low sugar level (d) High sugar level

Ans: (b) High blood pressure


(v) In the above case, the health care provider used an instrument to check the
blood pressure of the patient. Name the instrument used by the health care provider.

(a) Stethoscope
(b) Pulse oximetry
(c) Sphygmomanometer
(d) Otoscope

Ans: (c) Sphygmomanometer


CASE STUDY QUESTION 09
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
A girl met with an accident and his leg fractured. She
went to orthopedics doctor for treatment. On
examination, the doctor mixed the white power in
water and applied to her leg along with the cotton and
gauze. After a while, it turned into white, solid, hard
mass. He said that it would support her fractured bone
in the right position.
(i) After treatment, the doctor repacked the white powder back into moisture proof,
airtight container. Why?
(a) The fungus growth will occur in open
(b) The powder would react to moisture and turn into solid mass
(c) The powder with react to sunlight and turn into solid mass
(d) To prevent the stealing of the powder as it is very expensive

Ans: (b) The powder would react to moisture and turn into solid mass

(ii) What is 'white, solid hard mass' called as?


(a) Talcum powder
(b) Paris of Plaster
(c) Plaster of Paris
(d) Copper sulphate

Ans: (c) Plaster of Paris


(iii) The graph shows the porosity and expansion of plaster with respect to water content.

At what temperature, the reaction would occur?


(a) 373K (b) 673K (c) 273K (d) 573K

Ans: (a) 373K


(iv) The reaction involved in the formation of white mass is:
(a) Combustion (b) Oxidation (c) Mineralisation (d) Crystallisation
Ans: (d) Crystallisation
Crystallization is defined as a process by which a chemical is converted from a
liquid solution into a solid crystalline state.

(v) Study the following reaction and choose the correct option:

(a) Reactant is calcium hemihydrate, product is Gypsum


(b) Reactant is Gypsum, product is calcium hemihydrate
(c) Reactant is Gypsum, product is calcium sulphate hemihydrate
(d) Reactant is calcium sulphate hemihydrate, product is Gypsum

Ans: (d) Reactant is calcium sulphate hemihydrate, product is Gypsum


CASE STUDY QUESTION 09
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)

Ajay wanted his house to be white washed. He bought 10 kg of quicklime from the
market. Before mixing all 10 kg, he took one beaker and took small quantity of
quicklime in a beaker then he added some water, he observed that the water started
boiling even when it was not being heated and he touch the beaker carefully. The
beaker feels to be quite hot.
(a)What is formed when water is added to quicklime.
(i) CaCO3 (ii) CaO (iii) Ca(OH)2 (iv) NaOH

Ans: (iii) Calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2

(b) The nature of the product formed is:


(i) Acidic (ii) Basic (iii) Neutral (iv) Both (i) and (ii)

Ans: (ii) Calcium hydroxide is basic in nature.


(c) The chemical reaction between quicklime and water is characterised by :
(i) evolution of hydrogen gas
(ii) formation of slaked lime precipitate
(iii) change in temperature of mixture
(iv) change in colour of the product
The chemical reaction between quicklime (CaO) and water is characterized by
change in temperature of mixture. The reaction is exothermic (heat is liberated)
and a hissing sound is heard. The product is slaked lime (calcium hydroxide).

Ans: (iii) change in temperature of mixture


(d) Which of the following statements is correct about the above reaction based on
your observations?
I. It is an endothermic reaction.
II. It is an exothermic reaction
III. The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven.
IV. The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven.

(i) I and II (ii) II and III (iii) I and IV (iv) III and IV

It is an exothermic reaction because heat is given out. The resulting compound is


Ca(OH)2 which is basic in nature. So the pH of the resulting solution will be more
than seven.

Ans: (ii) II and III


(e) Which of the following is not an endothermic reaction ?
(a) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(b) 2H2O → 2H2 + O2
(c) 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6 H12O6 + 6O2
(d) C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
During respiration, glucose combines with oxygen in the cells of our body to form
carbon dioxide and water alongwith the production of energy.

Respiration is an exothermic process because energy is produced during this process

Ans: (d) C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O


CASE STUDY QUESTION 11
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Whenever a solution has a pH of less than 7, it will be
an acidic solution. For example, a solution having a pH
of 4 will be acidic in nature (or it will be an acid).
Please note that more acidic a solution is, the lower
will be its pH. For example, a solution of pH 1 is much
more acidic than another solution of pH 4. In other
words, a solution of pH 1 will be a much more stronger
acid than another acid having pH 4 (see the figure). The
solutions having pH of 0, 1, 2 and 3 are usually
considered to be strong acids. And the solutions having
pH of 4, 5 and 6 are considered to be weak acid
solutions. It is clear that the acidity of a substance is
related to its pH. Strongly acidic substances have a very
low pH. In fact, lower the pH, the stronger the acid.
(i) A solution turns red litmus blue. Its pH is likely to be :
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10
Ans: (d) 10

(ii) The pH values of six solutions A to F are given below :


A = 0, B = 11, C = 6, D = 3, E = 13, F = 8
Which of the above solutions are acids
(a) A, C, D (b) A, B, C (c) A, C, D, F (d) A, C, D, E

Ans: (a) A, C, D
(iii) Fresh milk has a pH of 6. When milk changes into curd, the pH value will :
(a) become 7 (b) become less than 6
(c) become more than 7 (d) remain unchanged

Ans: (b) become less than 6

(iv) The pH values of three acids A, B and C having equal molar concentrations
are 5.0, 2.8 and 3.5 respectively.
Arrange these acids in order of the increasing acid strengths.
(a) A, C, B (b) B, C, A (c) A, B, C (d) C, B, A
"Lesser the pH, stronger the acid.“
Considering the above statement, the order of increasing acidic strength is
A<C<B
Ans: (a) A, C, B
(v)A beaker of concentrated hydrochloric acid has a pH of 1. What colour will full
range universal indicator turn if it is added to this beaker ?
(a) red (b) blue (c) pink (d) no change in colour

pH = 1 will turn the scale red. It is a strong acid.


Ans: (a) red
CASE STUDY QUESTION 12
Read the following and answer any four questions from 20(i) to 20(v).

Reproduction is a process by which living


organisms are able to produce young ones of their
new kind. Living organisms reproduce by two
ways - asexual reproduction and sexual
reproduction. Asexual reproduction involves the
production of an offspring from a single parent
without the fusion of gametes. This mostly occurs
in unicellular organisms, some plants and certain
multicellular organisms. There are various types of
asexual reproduction.
(i) The type of reproduction shown in the figure is
(a) budding (b) fragmentation (c) regeneration (d) fission.
Ans: (c) regeneration
Regeneration is the process by which small cut parts of body organism grow
to form whole new organisms.

(ii) Which of the following is correct example of the process shown in the given figure?
(a) Hydra (b) Planaria (c) Amoeba (d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: (d) Both (a) and (b)
Simple animals like Hydra and Planaria can be cut into any number of pieces and
each piece grows into a complete organism by regeneration.
(iii) A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, yeast and bacteria is that
(a) they are all unicellular (b) they are all multicellular
(c) they reproduce only sexually (d) they reproduce asexually.
Ans: (d) they reproduce asexually.

(iv) Asexual reproduction is


(a) a fusion of specialised cells
(b) a method by which all types of organism reproduce
(c) a method producing genetically identical offspring
(d) a method in which more than one parent are involved.

Ans: (c) a method producing genetically identical offspring


In asexual reproduction, the young one receives all its genes from one
parent, so offspring produced are genetically identical to the parents.
(v) From the given list of organisms, those which reproduce by the asexual method are:

(i) Aspergillus (ii) Dog (iii) Papaya (iv) Paramecium

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)


(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Ans: (c) (i) and (iv)

Aspergillus and Paramecium reproduce by spore formation and fission


respectively. All these are methods of asexual reproduction. Dog and papaya
reproduces through sexual methods.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 13
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)

A group of students measured the pH of some substances they found in their homes.
Their results are given in the following table :

Substance pH Substance pH
Apples 3.0 Vinegar 3.0
Salt 7.0 Lemon juice 2.5
Baking soda 8.5 Washing soda 11.5
Sugar 7.0 Milk 6.5
Black coffee 5.0 Household ammonia 12.0
Toothpaste 9.0
(a) Which solution is the most acidic?
(i) Apples (ii) Vinegar
(iii) Lemon Juice (iv) Black Coffee

Ans: (iii) Lemon juice

(b) Which solution is the most alkaline ?


(i) Household ammonia
(ii) Washing soda
(iii) Baking soda
(iv) Toothpaste
Ans: (i) Household ammonia
(c) Which solutions are neutral ?
(i) Salt
(ii) Sugar
(iii) Milk
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)

Ans: (iv) Both (i) and (ii)

(iv) What will be the litmus test if the solution is basic?


(a) Red litmus will turn to blue
(b) Blue litmus will turn to red
(c) No change in colour
(d) It will change into orange pink.

Ans: (a) Red litmus will turn to blue


(v) Arrange the following in order of the increasing basic strengths.
Baking soda, Toothpaste, Household ammonia, Washing soda
(a) Baking soda, Toothpaste, Household ammonia, Washing soda
(b) Baking soda, Toothpaste, Washing soda, Household ammonia
(c) Washing soda, Baking soda, Toothpaste, Household ammonia
(d) Baking soda, Household ammonia, Toothpaste, Washing soda

Higher the pH, the stronger the base


Ans: (b) Baking soda, Toothpaste, Washing soda, Household ammonia
CASE STUDY QUESTION 14
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
In household electric circuits, the mains supply is delivered to our homes using three
core cable as shown here. The cable consists of three wires, live wire, neutral wire and
earth wire. The live wire is at potential difference of 220 V for the domestic supply
and the potential difference between live and neutral wire is 220 volts. The live wire is
connected to electric meter through a fuse or a circuit breaker of higher rating. The
neutral wire is connected directly to the electric meter.
(i) Potential difference between live and neutral wire is
(a) 1000 V (b) 100 V (c) 500 V (d) 220 V
Ans: (d) 220 V

The potential different between live and neutral wire is 220 Volts.

(ii) Switches are connected in household circuit with which wire?


(a) Earth wire (b) Neutral wire (c) Live wire (d) None of these

Ans: (c) Live wire

Switches are connected in the live wire because when the switch is in the off
position, no point of the connected electrical appliance will be at higher
potential (220 V).
(iii) What is usual current rating of the fuse wire in the line if electric iron, geysers,
room heater etc. are in use?
(a) 15 A (b) 5 A (c) 10 A (d) 25 A
Ans: (a) 15 A
A fuse of rating 15 A is usually used for appliance electric iron, geysers and room
heater etc.
(iv) For all electrical appliances which property of circuit is recommended?
(a) Earthing (b) Neutralising
(c) Connecting with fuse (d) None of these
Ans: (a) Earthing
The earthing of any electrical appliance is done to protect the user from any
accidental electrical shock due to leakage of current.
(v) Home circuit is connected in parallel because
(a) in parallel circuit resistance is maximum
(b) in parallel circuit if one device is damaged, then it does not affect other devices
(c) both of these
(d) none of these.
Ans: (b) in parallel circuit if one device is damaged, then it does not affect
other devices
CASE STUDY QUESTION 15
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Light is a form of energy that produces
in us the sensation of sight. Reflection
of light is the phenomenon of bouncing
back of light in the same medium on
striking the surface of any object. The
two laws of reflection are the incident
ray, the reflected ray and the normal (at
the point of incidence), all lie in the
same plane and the angle of reflection
(r) is always equal to the angle of
incidence (i). Refraction of light is the
phenomenon of change in the path of
light in going from one medium to
another.
A ray of light passes from a medium of water to that of air. Light ray will be refracted
at the junction separating the two media. Since it passes from a medium of a higher
refractive index to that having a lower refractive index, the refracted light ray bends
away from the normal.
At a specific angle of incidence, the incident ray of light is refracted in such a way that
it passes along the surface of the water. This particular angle of incidence is called the
critical angle. Here the angle of refraction is 90 degrees.
When the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, the incident ray is
reflected back to the medium. We call this phenomenon total internal reflection.
Mirage is an optical illusion which is responsible for the appearance of the
water layer at short distances in a desert or on the road. Mirage is an
example of total internal reflection which occurs due to atmospheric
refraction.
(i) Mirage is caused due to
(a) total Internal Reflection of light by the various layers of air
(b) illusion of the presence of water
(c) result of refraction of light from a non-uniform medium
(d) during sunny days when driving on a roadway

Ans: (a) total Internal Reflection of light by the various layers of air

(ii) What is mirage?


(a) Depends on the position of object
(b) Mirror is concave and the lens is convex
(c) Goes straight into the second medium
(d) Optical illusion caused due to total Internal Reflection
Ans: (d) Optical illusion caused due to total Internal Reflection
(iii) What is the condition for total internal reflection?
(a) Angle of incidence is less than to critical angle
(b) Angle of incidence is equal to critical angle
(c) Angle of incidence is greater than to critical angle
(d) None of these

Ans: (c) Angle of incidence is greater than to critical angle

(iv) Mirage is observed mainly during ______ days.


(a) Sunny (b) Winter (c) Spring (d) Hot

Ans: (a) Sunny


(v) How a mirage is formed?
(a) Between focus and centre of curvature
(b) Is formed away from the normal
(c) Illusion of the presence of water and is a result of refraction of light from a non-
uniform medium
(d) Is reflected along the same path

(c) Illusion of the presence of water and is a result of refraction of light from a
non-uniform medium
CASE STUDY QUESTION 16
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Ram is doing one experiment on Electromagnetic induction. He has a fixed coil of
wire AB and he connected the two ends of the coil galvanometer. Now, he observe
that when a bar magnet is held standstill inside the hollow coil of wire, then there is
no deflection in the galvanometer pointer showing that no electric current is
produced in the coil of wire when the magnet is held stationary in it. After that he
moved bar magnet quickly into a fixed coil of wire AB. He observes that When a
bar magnet is moved quickly into a fixed coil of wire AB, then a current is
produced in the coil. This current causes a deflection in the galvanometer pointer
[see Figure (a)]. Similarly, he observes that when the magnet is moved out quickly
from inside the coil, even then a current is produced in the coil [see Figure (b)].
This current also causes a deflection in the galvanometer pointer but in the opposite
direction (showing that when the direction of movement of magnet changes, then
the direction of current produced in the coil also changes). So, he confirms that the
current produced in this case is also alternating current or a.c.
(i) The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is :
(a) the process of charging a body.
(b) the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil.
(c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the
coil.
(d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
Ans: (c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a
magnet and the coil.

(ii) A soft iron bar is inserted inside a current-carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside
the solenoid :
(a) will decrease (b) will increase
(c) will become zero (d) will remain the same
Ans: (b) will increase
(iii) The magnetic effect of current was discovered by :
(a) Maxwell (b) Fleming (c) Oersted (d) Faraday
Ans: (c) Oersted

(iv) The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current :
(a) is zero
(b) decreases as we move towards its end.
(c) increases as we move towards its end.
(d) is the same at all points.

Ans: (d) is the same at all points.


(v) If the direction of electric current in a solenoid when viewed from a particular end is
anticlockwise, then this
end of solenoid will be :
(a) west pole (b) south pole (c) north pole (d) east pole
Ans: (c) north pole
CASE STUDY QUESTION 17
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles. The image formed in a
convex mirror is diminished (ray diagram is shown here) due to which it gives a
wide field of view of the traffic behind the vehicle. Consider a convex mirror used
on a moving automobile with radius of curvature 2 m and a truck is coming from
behind it by maintaining a constant distance of 3.5 m.
(i) The distance behind the mirror where the image is formed is
(a) 0.28 m (b) 1.5 m (c) 0.78 m (d) 7.8 m

(ii) The nature of the image formed is


(a) virtual and erect (b) real and inverted
(c) real, erect and enlarged (d) none of these

Ans: (a) virtual and erect


(iii) The size of the image relative to the size of the truck is
(a) 0.30 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.78 (d) 0.22

(iv) The focal length of the mirror is


(a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 2 m
(v) If instead of 3.5 m, truck maintains a distance of 2 m, the image formed will be
(a) real, erect and diminished
(b) virtual, inverted and diminished
(c) real, erect and enlarged
(d) virtual, erect and diminished
A convex mirror always produces a virtual, erect and diminished image.
Ans: (d) virtual, erect and diminished
CASE STUDY QUESTION 18
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
A hydrocarbon is an organic chemical compound composed exclusively of
hydrogen and carbon atoms. Hydrocarbons are naturally-occurring compounds and
form the basis of crude oil, natural gas, coal, and other important energy sources.
Hydrocarbons are highly combustible and produce carbon dioxide, water, and heat
when they are burned. Therefore, hydrocarbons are highly effective as a source of
fuel.
Study the table related to three hydrocarbons P, Q, R and answer the questions that
follow.
Organic Compound Molecular formula
P C3H8
Q C5H10
R C4H6
(i) P, Q and R are classified as hydrocarbons because
(a) they contain carbon
(b) they contain hydrogen
(c) they contain both carbon and hydrogen
(d) none of these.
P, Q and R are classified as hydrocarbons because these compounds are
made up of carbon and hydrogen only.
Ans: (c) they contain both carbon and hydrogen
(ii) Which of these organic compounds is an alkyne?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) Both P and Q
Ans: (c) R is an alkyne

(iii) C3H8 belongs to


(a) CnH2n+2 series (b) CnH2n series (c) CnH2n–2 series (d) none of these.
Ans: (a) CnH2n+2 series
(iv) Identify the incorrect statement about these three hydrocarbons.
(a) All have different general formula.
(b) P, Q both differ by –CH2 unit.
(c) P is an alkane.
(d) Q is an alkene.

Ans: (b) P, Q both differ by –CH2 unit.

(v) General formula for alkyne is


(a) CnH2n (b) CnH2n+2 (c) CnH2n–2 (d) CnHn

Ans: (c) CnH2n–2


CASE STUDY QUESTION 19
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Five cells each of emf 5 V are connected in series. The combination in series is
joined to an ammeter of negligible resistance, a 1.6 W resistor, a 0.8 W resistor and
an unknown resistor R1 as shown in figure. The current in the circuit is 10 A.
Assume the voltmeter to be ideal.
(i) Find the value of R1.
(a) 2 Ω (b) 0.1 Ω (c) 0.5 Ω (d) 5 Ω

(ii) The value of current across resistor R1 is


(a) 3 A (b) 0.5 A (c) 10 A (d) 2.5 A

As current flowing in the circuit is 10 A, so current through R1 will also be


10 A.
(iii) Total resistance of the circuit is
(a) 4 Ω (b) 2 Ω (c) 0.5 Ω (d) 2.5 Ω

Total resistance of the circuit, R = 2.4 + 0.1


= 2.5 Ω
(iv) Find the value of potential difference across R1.
(a) 1 V (b) 2 V (c) 3 V (d) 4 V
Potential difference across R1, V = I R
= 10 × 0.1
=1V
(v) If the voltmeter is not ideal, then current in the circuit will
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain same (d) can't say.
If voltmeter is not ideal, then total resistance in the circuit decreases.
Hence, current through the circuit increases.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 20
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Chemical reaction, a process in which one or more substances, the reactants, are
converted to one or more different substances, the products. Substances are either
chemical elements or compounds. A chemical reaction rearranges the constituent atoms
of the reactants to create different substances as products. Study this table related to the
different types of reactions / processes and answer the questions that follow.
(i) The reaction in which two or more substances combine to form a single substance
under suitable conditions is
(a) combination reaction (b) combustion
(c) decomposition reaction (d) photosynthesis.

Ans: (a) combination reaction

(ii) Which of the following is essential for photosynthesis?


(a) Sunlight (b) Chlorophyll (c) Glucose (d) Both 'a' and 'b’
Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants and some other organisms
use sunlight to synthesis nutrients from carbon dioxide and water.
Ans: (d) Both 'a' and 'b’
(iii) When a chemical compound decomposes on absorbing light and energy, then the
reaction which takes place is known as
(a) photosynthesis (b) photodecomposition
(c) combination (d) thermal decomposition.
A photodecomposition is a chemical reaction in which an inorganic chemical (or
an organic chemical) is broken down by photons and is the interaction of one or
more photons with one target molecule.
Ans: (b) photodecomposition
(iv) Which of the following reactions is an example of combustion reaction ?

Ans:
A combustion reaction is a reaction in which a substance reacts with oxygen
gas, releasing energy in the form of light and heat.
(v) Which of the following is an example of combination reaction?

A combination reaction (also known as a synthesis reaction) is a reaction


where two or more elements or compounds (reactants) combine to form a
single compound (product).

Ans:
CASE STUDY QUESTION 21
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Dispersion is the splitting up of white light into seven colors on passing through a
transparent medium like a glass prism. When a white light beam is passed through a
prism, a band of seven colors are formed is known as spectrum of white light as
shown in below figure.
When white light consisting of seven colors falls on a transparent medium (glass
prism) , each color in it is refracted ( or deviated ) by a different angle , with the result
that seven colors are spread out to form a spectrum
(i) A beam of white light falls on a glass prism. The colour of light which undergoes the
least bending on passing through the glass prism is :
(a) violet (b) red (c) green (d) blue

Ans: (b) red

(ii)The colour of white light which suffers the maximum bending (or maximum
refraction) on passing through a glass prism is :
(a) yellow (b) orange (c) red (d) violet

Ans: (d) violet

(iii) Which of the following colour of white light is least deviated by the prism ?
(a) green (b) violet (c) indigo (d) yellow

Ans: (d) yellow


(iv) The colour of white light which is deviated the maximum on passing
through the glass prism is :
(a) blue (b) indigo (c) red (d) orange
Ans: (b) indigo

(v) The splitting up of white light into seven colours on passing through a glass
prism is called :
(a) refraction (b) deflection (c) dispersion (d) scattering

Ans: (c) dispersion


CASE STUDY QUESTION 22
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
During inhalation, the diaphragm is contracted which increases the volume of the lung
cavity. During exhalation, the diaphragm is relaxed which decreases the volume of the
lung cavity. The given graph is related to the changes in the volume of lungs of a
person at a rest over a period of 20 seconds.
(i) How many breaths per minute is the person taking when at rest?
(a) 15 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 20
It is clear from the given graph that the person is taking 5 breaths per 20 sec,
so in 1 minute (60 sec) he will take 15 breaths (5/20 x 60)
(ii) Which two points in the graph (C, D, E or F), shows inspiration and
expiration?
(a) D, E (b) D, F (c) C, D (d) E, F
Point 'D' shows increase in the volume of
lungs, thus at this point, inspiration is
taking place while point 'F' shows
decrease in the volume of lungs, thus at
this point, expiration is taking place.
(iii) Which of the following muscles help during inhalation?
(a) External intercostal muscles (b) Internal intercostal muscles
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

External and internal intercostals muscles are specialised set of muscles that help
during inhalation.
Ans: (c) Both (a) and (b)

(iv) During vigorous exercise, the rate of breathing of normal man is


(a) 20 to 25 times per minute (b) 50 to 90 times per minute
(c) 100 to 150 times per minute (d) 40 to 70 times per minute.
Ans: (a) 20 to 25 times per minute
The rate of breathing increases during vigorous exercise. This is because
the body needs more energy which can be released only if greater amounts
of oxygen reach the cells. For this purpose, the rate of breathing increases.
( This will increase the supply of oxygen to the cells).
(v) Which is the correct sequence of air passage during inhalation?
(a) Nostrils → larynx → pharynx → trachea → lungs
(b) Nasal passage → trachea → pharynx → larynx → alveoli
(c) Larynx → nostrils → pharynx → lungs
(d) Nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea → alveoli

Ans: (d) Nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea → alveoli


CASE STUDY QUESTION 23
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
The food which is prepared by the process of
photosynthesis in the leaves of a plant has to be
transported to other parts like stem, roots, branches etc.
Therefore this food is transported to other parts of the
plant through a kind of tubes called phloem. The
transport of food from leaves to other parts of a plant is
called translocation. The food made by the leaves is in
the form of simple sugar. Phloem is present in all the
parts of a plant. Phloem is a long tube made of many
living cells joined end to end. The living cells of
phloem are called sieve tubes.
(i) Identify the correct pair of labelled parts with the help
of this figure.
(a) W – Sieve plate, Y – Companion cell
(b) X – Sieve plate, Z – Companion cell
(c) Y – Sieve tubes, Z – Sieve plate
(d) X – Companion cell, Y – Phloem parenchyma
The given figure is Lateral Section of phloem in which
W represents sieve plate,
X represents sieve tubes,
Y represents companion cell and
Z represents phloem parenchyma.

Ans: (a) W – Sieve plate, Y – Companion cell


(ii) Name the labelled part which contains cytoplasm but no nucleus.
(a) Sieve tube (b) Companion cell
(c) Phloem parenchyma (d) Sieve plate
Ans: (a) Sieve tube
Sieve tubes (X) are living cells which contain cytoplasm but no nucleus.

(iii) In which direction phloem translocates the food?


(a) Upward (b) Downward
(c) Backward (d) Either (a) or (b)
Ans: (d) Either (a) or (b)
The movement of food in phloem can be upward or downward depending
on the needs of the plant.
(iv) The phloem tissue in plants is responsible for the transport of
(a) amino acids (b) hormones (c) sugar (d) all of these.
Ans: (d) all of these.
The phloem translocates the food (sugar) made in the leaves. Besides food
molecules, phloem also transports amino acids, hormones synthesised in shoot tips
and root tips and other metabolites.

(v) Which of the following is not a part of phloem?


(a) Companion cells (b) Tracheids (c) Sieve plate (d) Sieve tube
Ans: (b) Tracheids
Components of phloem are sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem
parenchyma and sieve plates. Tracheids are constituent of xylem tissue.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 24
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
The electron configuration of an element describes how electrons are distributed in
its atomic orbitals. Electron configurations of atoms follow a standard notation in
which all electron-containing atomic subshells (with the number of electrons they
hold written in superscript) are placed in a sequence. The diagram below shows the
electron arrangement of three atoms of elements X, Y and Z.
(i) Which of the following is the electronic configuration of X?
(a) 2, 8, 8, 2 (b) 2, 2, 8, 8 (c) 2, 8, 5 (d) 2, 8
X : 2, 8, 8, 2;
Y : 2, 8, 5; Ans: (a) 2, 8, 8, 2
Z : 2, 8

(ii) Number of valence electrons in Y is


(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 15
Ans: (c) 5
(iii) Which of the following has the most metallic character?
(a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) None of these

X is a Group II element and hence it is a metallic element.

Ans: (a) X

(iv) Element Y achieve the electron structure of a noble gas by gaining


(a) 1 electron (b) 2 electrons (c) 3 electrons (d) 4 electrons

Y gains 3 electrons to achieve noble gas configuration.

Ans: (c) 3 electrons


(v) Which of the following statement is incorrect for 2?
(a) Electronic configuration of Z is 2, 8.
(b) It is a noble gas.
(c) It can gain electrons.
(d) It can neither low nor gain electrons.
Atom Z will neither lose nor gain electrons. It has two completely filled
outermost electron shells.
Ans: (c) It can gain electrons.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 25
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower is called
pollination. It takes place by wind, water or insects. If the pollen grains are
transferred from the anther to the stigma of the same flower it is known as self-
pollination and if it is transferred from the anther of one flower to the stigma of
another flower it is called cross-pollination.
(i) Pollen grains are produced by :
(a) ovary (b) ovule (c) anther (d) corolla

Ans: (c) anther

(ii) Pollination is the process by which the pollen grains are transferred from
the to the
(a) anther, ovary (b) stigma, ovary
(c) anther, stigma (d) stigma, filament

Ans: (c) anther, stigma

(iii) An insect pollinated flower is :


(a) Hibiscus (b) mustard (c) maize (d) orchids
Ans: (d) orchids
(iv) Stigma of wind pollinated flower is :
(a) sticky (b) feathery (c) plain (d) dry

Ans: (b) feathery


Stigma is feathery or sticky and found hanging out of petals.

(v) Pollen grains of wind pollinated flowers are :


(a) sticky and light weight (b) light weight and in a huge quantity
(c) light weight and little quantity (d) sticky and huge quantity
Ans: (b) light weight and in a huge quantity
Pollen grains of wind-pollinated flowers are produced in large quantities to
make sure that at least some pollen grains reach the stigmas of other flowers
and successful pollination takes place as many pollen grains are wasted.
These pollen grains are light and hence are easily transferred to other flowers.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 26
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight. The starlight on
entering the earth's atmosphere, undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches
the earth. The atmospheric refraction occurs in a medium of gradually changing
refractive index. Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the
apparent position of the star is slightly different from its actual position. The star
appears slightly higher than its actual position when viewed near the horizon.
Further this apparent position of the star is not stationary, but keeps on changing
slightly, since the physical conditions of the earth's atmosphere are not stationary.
Since the stars are very distant they are approximate point-sized source of light. As
the path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent
position of the star fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering the eye flickers
the stars sometimes appear brighter and at some other time, fainter, which is the
twinkling effect.
(i) The stars seem higher than they actually are due to :
(a) Reflection of light (b) Refraction of light (c) Scattering of light (d) Inference of light

Ans: (b) Refraction of light


(ii) Stars appear to twinkle because of :
(a) Atmospheric refraction (b) Movement of air (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

Ans: (c) Both (a) and (b)

(iii) At noon the Sun appears white as :


(a) Light is least scattered
(b) All the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) Blue colour is scattered the most
(d) Red colour is scattered the most

Ans: (a) Light is least scattered


(iv) Which of the following phenomena of light is involved in the formation of rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
Ans: (c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection

(v) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of
different colours of white light in air?
(a) Red light moves with the fastest speed
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light
(c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed.
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet light
Ans: (c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 27
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
In human being, the holozoic nutrition takes place
in five steps:
1. Ingestion - The process of taking food inside
the body is called ingestion.
2. Digestion - In digestion the ingested food is
converted into simple form with the help of
digestive enzymes.
3. Absorption - In this stage the food digested in
second step is absorbed into the cells of body.
4. Assimilation - Assimilation is the process of
utilizing the food absorbed in third step by
various cells of the body.
5. Egestion - Egestion is the final step of
holozoic nutrition in which the undigested food is
removed from the body.
(i) Which is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal?
(a) Mouth → Stomach → Small intestine → Oesophagus → Large intestine
(b) Mouth → Oesophagus → Stomach → Large intestine → Small intestine
(c) Mouth → Stomach → Oesophagus → Small intestine → Large intestine
(d) Mouth → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine
Ans: (d) Mouth → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine

(ii) If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events
in the mouth cavity will be affected?
(a) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars
(c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
(d) Absorption of vitamins

Ans: (b) Starch breaking down into sugars


(iii) The inner lining of stomach is protected by one of the following from
hydrochloric acid, choose the correct one.
(a) Pepsin (b) Mucus (c) Salivary amylase (d) Bile

Ans: (b) Mucus

(iv) Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?
(a) Stomach (b) Small intestine (c) Large intestine (d) Oesophagus

Ans: (b) Small intestine


(v) Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the following.
(a) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
(b) Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
(c) Trypsin and lipase digest fats
(d) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase digests emulsified fats droplets.

Ans: (d) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase digests emulsified fats droplets.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 28
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
In the below experiment, when an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, a
brown coating of copper is formed in the surface of iron and the colour of copper
sulphate solution changes from blue to pale green. The reaction shows that iron is more
reactive than copper because it displaces copper from the copper sulphate solution.
(i) The equation Cu + xHNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O.
The values of x and y are
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 8 and 6 (c) 4 and 2 (d) 7 and 1

Ans: (c) 4 and 2

(ii) What happens when copper rod is dipped in iron sulphate solution :
(a) Copper displaces iron
(b) Blue colour of copper sulphate solution is obtained
(c) No reaction takes place
(d) Reaction is exothermic

Ans: (c) No reaction takes place


(iii) A substance which oxidised itself and reduces other is known as :
(a) Oxidising agent (b) Reducing agent (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

Ans: (b) Reducing agent

Reducing agents reduce the other substance and in turn get oxidized.

(iv) Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe


The above reaction is an example of a :
(a) Combination reaction (b) Double displacement reaction
(c) Decomposition reaction (d) Displacement reaction

Ans: (d) Displacement reaction


(v) Name the products formed when iron filings are heated with dilute hydrochloric
acid.
(a) Fe (III) chloride and water
(b) Fe (II) chloride and water
(c) Fe (II) chloride and hydrogen gas
(d) Fe (III) chloride and hydrogen gas

Ans: (c) Fe (II) chloride and hydrogen gas

When dilute Hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings, iron chloride &
hydrogen gas is produced.
Fe + 2HCl ⟶ FeCl2 + H2
The iron displaces hydrogen from hydrochloric acid to form iron (II) chloride &
hydrogen gas. This is a single displacement reaction.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 29
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
The magnetic field pattern around a bar magnet
is shown in adjoining Figure. This has been
traced by using a plotting compass. The
magnetic field lines leave the north pole of a
magnet and enter its south pole. In other words,
each magnetic field line is directed from the
north pole of a magnet to its south pole. Each
field line indicates, at every point on it, the
direction of magnetic force that would act on a
north pole if it were placed at that point. The
strength of magnetic field is indicated by the
degree of closeness of the field lines. Where
the field lines are closest together, the
magnetic field is the strongest.
(i) The magnetic field lines produced by a bar magnet :
(a) originate from the south pole and end at its north pole
(b) originate from the north pole and end at its east pole
(c) originate from the north pole and end at its south pole
(d) originate from the south pole and end at its west pole
Ans: (c) originate from the north pole and end at its south pole

(ii) The magnetic field lines :


(a) intersect at right angles to one another
(b) intersect at an angle of 45° to each other
(c) do not cross one another
(d) cross at an angle of 60° to one another

Ans: (c) do not cross one another


(iii) The north pole of earth’s magnet is in the :
(a) geographical south (b) geographical east
(c) geographical west (d) geographical north

Ans: (a) geographical south

(iv) A plotting compass is placed near the south pole of a bar magnet. The
pointer of plotting compass will :
(a) point away from the south pole (b) point parallel to the south pole
(c) point towards the south pole (d) point at right angles to the south pole

Ans: (c) point towards the south pole


(v) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding magnetic field lines ?
(a) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which
the north pole of a magnetic compass needle points.
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves
(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field
strength
(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the
field lines

Ans: (c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent
zero field strength
CASE STUDY QUESTION 30
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Every electrical appliance like an electric bulb, radio or fan has a label or engraved
plate on it which tells us the voltage (to be applied) and the electrical power consumed
by it. The power rating of an electrical appliance tells us the rate at which electrical
energy is consumed by the appliance. For example, a power rating of 100 watts on the
bulb means that it will consume electrical energy at the rate of 100 joules per second. If
we know the power P and voltage V of an electrical appliance, then we can very easily
find out the current I drawn by it. This can be done by using the formula: P = V × I.
(i) Which of the following does not represent electrical power in a circuit ?
(a) I²R (b) IR² (c) VI (d)V²/R
Ans: (b) IR²

(ii) An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. What is the resistance of the bulb?
(a) 448 Ω (b) 488 Ω (c) 484 Ω (d) 482 Ω

Ans: (c) 484 Ω


(iii) When the bulb in (ii) is operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be :
(a) 100 W (b) 75 W (c) 50 W (d) 25 W

Ans: (d) 25 W

(iv) The commercial unit of energy is :


(a) watt (b) watt-hour (c) kilowatt-hour (d) kilo-joule

Ans: (c) kilowatt-hour


(v) What will be the current drawn by an electric bulb of 40 W when it is connected
to a source of 220 V ?
(a) 0.15 A (b) 0.18 A (c) 0.20 A (d) 0.24 A
CASE STUDY QUESTION 31
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
A student is making his Physics project. He purchased four cells, an ammeter and
three resistors for his project. In his project, Four cells each of emf 2 V are
connected in series. The combination in series is joined to an ammeter of negligible
resistance, a 1.6 Ω resistor, a 0.4 Ω resistor and unknown resistor R1 as shown in
figure. The current in the circuit is 2 A.
(i) What is the value of R1?
(a) 1 Ω (b) 2 Ω (c) 4 Ω (d) 6 Ω

(ii) Find the value of potential difference across R1.


(a) 4 V (b) 2 V (c) 8 V (d) 12 V
(iii) Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.
(a) 3.75 Ω (b) 3.125 Ω (c) 3.5 Ω (d) 4 Ω

(iv) Find the value of current across resistor R1.


(a) 1.33 A (b) 0.25 A (c) 2 A (d) 3 A

(v) If one of the cell is removed, the current through 1.6 Ω will be
(a) 2 A (b) 1.5 A (c) 6 A (d) 025 A
CASE STUDY QUESTION 32
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
In his periodic table, Mendeleev arranged all the then
known 63 elements in the order of increasing atomic
masses in horizontal rows but in such a way that
elements having similar properties came directly
under one another in the same vertical column. In the
classification of the then known elements, Mendeleev
was guided mainly by two factors. In order to make
sure that the elements having similar properties fell in
the same vertical column, Mendeleev left some gaps
in his periodic table. Though the leaving of gaps in the
periodic table was considered to be a big drawback of
his classification of elements at that time but
Mendeleev stuck to his decision.
(i) What are the horizontal rows of Mendeleev’s
periodic table known as ?
(a) periods (b) groups
(c) metals (d) non-metals
Ans: (a) periods

(ii) How many horizontal rows of elements were there in Mendeleev’s original periodic
table ?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
Ans: (b) 7

(iii) How many vertical rows were there in Mendeleev’s original periodic table ?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
Ans: (c) 8
(iv) The three elements having chemical symbols of Si, B and Ge are :
(a) all metals (b) all non-metals
(c) all metalloids (d) Si is metalloid, B is metal and Ge is non-metal
Ans: (c) all metalloids

(v) According to Mendeleev’s periodic law, the elements were arranged in the periodic
table in the order of :
(a) decreasing atomic numbers (b) increasing atomic numbers
(c) decreasing atomic masses (d) increasing atomic masses

Ans: (d) increasing atomic masses


CASE STUDY QUESTION 33
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Each capillary cluster in the kidney is associated with the cup-
shaped end of a tube that collects the filtered urine (see
adjoining figure). Each kidney has large numbers of these
filtration units called nephrons packed close together. Some
substances in the initial filtrate, such as glucose, amino acids,
salts and a major amount of water, are selectively re-absorbed
as the urine flows along the tube. The amount of water
reabsorbed depends on how much excess water there is in the
body, and on how much of dissolved waste there is to be
excreted. The urine forming in each kidney eventually enters a
long tube, the ureter, which connects the kidneys with the
urinary bladder. Urine is stored in the urinary bladder until the
pressure of the expanded bladder leads to the urge to pass it out
through the urethra. The bladder is muscular, so it is under
nervous control, as we have discussed elsewhere. As a result,
we can usually control the urge to urinate.
(i) Which of the following is the correct path taken by urine in our body ?
(a) kidney → ureter → urethra → bladder
(b) kidney → bladder → urethra → ureter
(c) kidney → ureter → bladder → urethra
(d) bladder → kidney → ureter → urethra
Ans: (c) kidney → ureter → bladder → urethra

(ii) The excretory unit in the human excretory system is called :


(a) nephron (b) neuron (c) nephridia (d) kidneyon
Ans: (a) nephron

(iii) The substance which is not reabsorbed into the blood capillaries surrounding the
tubule of a nephron is mainly :
(a) glucose (b) amino acid (c) urea (d) water

Ans: (c) urea


(iv) The procedure of cleaning the blood of a person by using a kidney machine is known
as :
(a) ketolysis (b) hydrolysis (c) dialysis (d) photolysis

Ans: (c) dialysis

(v) The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for
(a) nutrition. (b) respiration.(c) excretion. (d) transportation.
Ans: (c) excretion.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 34
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
The tubes – blood vessels - Arteries are the vessels
which carry blood away from the heart to various organs
of the body. Since the blood emerges from the heart
under high pressure, the arteries have thick, elastic
walls. Veins collect the blood from different organs and
bring it back to the heart. They do not need thick walls
because the blood is no longer under pressure, instead
they have valves that ensure that the blood flows only in
one direction. On reaching an organ or tissue, the artery
divides into smaller and smaller vessels to bring the
blood in contact with all the individual cells. The smallest
vessels have walls which are one-cell thick and are called
capillaries. Exchange of material between the blood and
surrounding cells takes place across this thin wall. The
capillaries then join together to form veins that convey
the blood away from the organ or tissue.
(i) A blood vessel which carries blood back to the heart is :
(a) artery
(b) vein
(c) capillary
(d) platelet
Ans: (b) vein

(ii) The blood vessel which carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the
heart is :
(a) main artery
(b) pulmonary artery
(c) main vein
(d) pulmonary vein
Ans: (d) pulmonary vein
(iii) The smaller vessels in which arteries are divided after entering the body
organs are called
(a) cytokinesis
(b) granum
(c) centrioles
(d) arterioles
Ans: (d) arterioles

(iv) After entering into the tissues, the arteries are divided into
(a) aorta
(b) atrium
(c) capillaries
(d) veins
Ans: (c) capillaries
(v) The blood vessels in which there are no valves includes
(a) veins and capillaries
(b) capillaries and arteries
(c) arteries and nerves
(d) veins and arteries
Ans: (b) capillaries and arteries
CASE STUDY QUESTION 35
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
An electric lamp is a device that produces visible light from electric current. It is the
most common form of artificial lighting and is essential to modern society. An
electric lamp of resistance 20 Ω and a conductor of resistance 4 Ω are connected to a
6 V battery as shown in the circuit.
(i) Find the total resistance of the circuit.
(a) 20 Ω (b) 4 Ω (c) 24 Ω (d) 12 Ω

(ii) Find the current through the circuit, is


(a) 0.25 A (b) 0.50 A (c) 1 A (d) 4 A
(iii) Find the potential difference across the electric lamp.
(a) 5 V (b) 10 V (c) 15 V (d) 20 V

(iv) Find the potential difference across conductor.


(a) 0 V (b) 0.25 V (c) 0.5 V (d) 1 V
(v) Calculate power of the lamp.
(a) 2.0 W (b) 1.25 W (c) 0.25 W (d) 6.25 W
CASE STUDY QUESTION 36
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Aditya decided to complete his Physics Project. He purchased three
resistors 5 Ω, 10 Ω and 30 Ω from the shop. Later he purchased a 6 V
battery, switch (which works as key) and an ammeter to complete his
circuit as shown below:
(i) Find the current through 5 Ω.
(a) 1.2 A (b) 1.5 A (c) 1 A (d) 2 A

(ii) Find the current through 10 Ω.


(a) 0.6 A (b) 0.2 A (c) 1 A (d) 0.5 A
(iii) Find the current through 30 Ω.
(a) 0.6 A (b) 0.2 A (c) 1 A (d) 0.5 A

(iv) Find the total current in the circuit.


(a) 1.2 A (b) 1.5 A (c) 1 A (d) 2 A
(v) Find the total resistance of the circuit.
(a) 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω (c) 3 Ω (d) 5 Ω
CASE STUDY QUESTION 37
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Aditya decided to complete his Physics Project. He purchased three resistors 4 Ω,
8 Ω and 8 Ω from the shop. Later he purchased a 8 V battery, switch (which
works as key) and two ammeters to complete his circuit as shown below:
(i) Find the effective resistance of two 8 resistors in
the combination
(a) 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω (c) 3 Ω (d) 5 Ω

(ii) Find the current flowing through the circuit.


(a) 1.2 A (b) 1.5 A (c) 1 A (d) 2 A

(iii) Find the potential difference across 4 Ω resistance.


(a) 2 V (b) 3 V (c) 4 V (d) 5 V
(iv) Find the power dissipated in 4 Ω resistor
(a) 2 W (b) 3 W (c) 4 W (d) 5 W

(v) Find the difference in ammeter readings.


(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) No difference
CASE STUDY QUESTION 38
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
For the male gamete to be able to combine with the female gamete, it is necessary
that first the pollen grains from the anther of stamen should be carried to the stigma
of carpel. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a stamen to the stigma of
a carpel is called pollination. Thus, pollination is said to take place when pollen
grains are carried from the anther to the stigma of the flower. The internal parts for
pollination of a flower is shown below with labelled P, Q, R and S.
(i) The correct labeling of the internal part 'P' for pollination of
a flower is
(a) Stigma (b)Filament (c) Sepal (d) Ovary
Ans: (a) Stigma
(ii) The correct labeling of the internal part 'Q' for pollination of
a flower is
(a) Stigma (b)Filament (c) Sepal (d) Ovary

Ans: (b)Filament

(iii) The correct labeling of the internal part 'R' for pollination of a flower is
(a) Stigma (b)Filament (c) Sepal (d) Ovary
Ans: (c) Sepal
(iv) Which is the male reproductive organ of the plant?
(a) Stigma (b)Stamen (c) Carpel (d) Ovary
Ans: (b)Stamen

(v) Which is the female reproductive organ of the plant?


(a) Stigma (b)Stamen (c) Carpel (d) Ovary

Ans: (c) Carpel


CASE STUDY QUESTION 39
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
The human heart is a muscular organ made up of cardiac muscles. It is a four-
chambered organ to prevent intermixing of oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood. A
thick wall muscle called septum that separates the two sides left and right of the
heart. Look at the picture.
(i) The upper two chambers and lower two chambers are called :
(a) Ventricles and auricles respectively (b) Auricles and ventricles respectively
(c) Ventricles and valves respectively (d) Arteries and veins respectively

Ans: (b) Auricles and ventricles respectively

(ii) The artery which carries de-oxygenated blood from the heart into lungs is called :
(a) Pulmonary artery (b) Hepatic artery (c) Renal artery (d) All arteries

Ans: (a) Pulmonary artery


(iii) Pulmonary vein brings :
(a) oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart
(b) de-oxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs
(c) oxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs
(d) de-oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart

Ans: (a) oxygenated blood from the lungs to the


heart
(iv) Tricuspid valve is found between :
(a) right auricle and right ventricle (b) left auricle and left ventricle
(c) right auricle and left ventricle (d) left auricle and right ventricle

Ans: (a) right auricle and right


ventricle
(v) The de-oxygenated blood from the body organs first enters :
(a) into right atrium of the heart through vena cava.
(b) into left atrium of the heart through vena cava.
(c) into right ventricle of the heart through vena cava.
(d) into right atrium of the heart through aorta.

Ans: (a) into right atrium of the heart through vena cava.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 40
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)

An overhead projector (OHP), like a film or


slide projector; uses light to project an enlarged
image on a screen. In the OHP, the source of the
image is a page-sized sheet of transparent
plastic film (also known as foils) with the image
to be projected either printed or hand-
written/drawn. These are placed on the glass
surface of the projector, which has a light
source below it and a projecting mirror and lens
assembly above it as shown in the figure.
(i) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lens is used to make the overhead projector?
(a) concave lenses (b) convex lenses (c) bifocal lenses (d) flat lenses
Ans: (b) convex lenses

(ii) The image obtained will be erect and real. How?


(a) The image when passed through the lens was erect and was directly obtained
on the screen.
(b) The image when passed through the lens was inverted and then it gets reflected
on the mirror to be obtained on the screen.
(c) The screen used automatically makes the image erect and real.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans: (b) The image when passed through the lens was inverted and then it gets
reflected on the mirror to be obtained on the screen.
(iii) Why is concave mirror used and not convex mirror?
(a) because concave mirror can give real image.
(b) because convex mirror can give real image.
(c) because concave mirror cannot give real image.
(d) because convex mirror cannot give virtual image.

Ans: (a) because concave mirror can give real image.

(iv) If the radius of curvature of concave mirror is 12 cm. Then, the focal length will be :
(a) 12 cm (b) 6 cm (c) -24 cm (d) -6 cm

We know that f = R/2 = 12/2 = 6 cm


But the sign of focal length of concave mirror is negative.
Therefore f = -6 cm
(v) The power of a convex lens is __________ and that of a concave lens is __________
(a) positive, negative (b) positive, positive
(c) negative, positive (d) negative, negative

Ans: (a) positive, negative


CASE STUDY QUESTION 41
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
A mirror is a surface that reflects a clear image. Images can be of two types: Real
image and virtual image. An image that can be formed on the screen is known as a
real image and the one which cannot be formed on the screen is known as a virtual
image. These images are formed when light falls on a mirror from the object and is
reflected back by the mirror on the screen.
One useful tool that is frequently used to depict this idea is known as a ray
diagram. A ray diagram is a diagram that traces the path that light takes in order
for a person to view a point on the image of an object. On the diagram, rays (lines
with arrows) are drawn for the incident ray and the reflected ray.
A ray diagram used arrow type lines to represent the incident ray and the reflected
ray. It also helps to trace the direction in which light travels.
(i) Convex mirror always forms, an image :
(a) Virtual, erect and enlarged (b) Virtual, inverted and enlarged
(c) Virtual, erect and diminished (d) Real, erect and diminished

Ans: (c) Virtual, erect and diminished

(ii) A convex lens forms the image of sun at :


(a) C (b) focus (c) pole (d) between focus and pole
When an object is at infinity from a convex lens, then the image formed is :
(i) at the focus,
(ii) real and inverted, and
(iii) much smaller than the object (or highly diminished).

Ans: (b) focus


(iii) A concave lens can form a real and inverted image, when :
(a) Object is placed at 2f (b) Object is placed beyond 2f
(c) Object is placed between f and 2f (d) It can never form a real and inverted image.

Ans: (d) It can never form a real and inverted image.

(iv) An object is placed beyond 2F, in front of a convex lens, image will be formed :
(a) between F and 2F (b) at focus
(c) at the centre of curvature (d) between focus and Optical centre

Ans: (a) between F and 2F


(v) An object is placed at focus of a concave mirror, image will be formed at :
(a) focus (b) between F and C (c) beyond C (d) at infinity

Ans: (d) at infinity


CASE STUDY QUESTION 42
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Rahul is a skilled painter. He mixed a white coloured powder, compound X with
water. The compound X reacted vigorously with water to produce a compound Y
and a large amount of heat. Then, Rahul used the compound Y for white washing
the walls. Customer was not satisfied with the work of Rahul as walls were not
shining. But Rahul guaranteed him that the walls would shine after 2-3 days. And
after 3 days of whitewash, the walls became shiny.
(i) Name the compound X, that Ramesh mixed with water.
(a) Calcium (b) Calcium oxide (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Calcium hydroxide

Ans: (b) Calcium oxide

(ii) Name the compound Y that Ramesh got after mixing X with water.
(a) Calcium (b) Calcium oxide (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Calcium hydroxide
Ans: (d) Calcium hydroxide

(iii) What type of reaction is occurred here?


(a) Decomposition reaction (b) Displacement reaction
(c) Double displacement reaction (d) Combination reaction

Ans: (d) Combination reaction


(iv) Which of the following reactions is responsible for shiny finish of the walls?
(a) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 (b) Ca + CO2 → CaCO3
(c) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O (d) CaCO3 + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + CO2

Ans: (c) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O

(v) Which of the following reactions is responsible for shiny finish of the walls?
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaO (c) Ca(OH)2 (d) Ca

Ans: (a) CaCO3


CASE STUDY QUESTION 43
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
When a current is passed through the circular loop of wire, a magnetic field lines near
the coil are nearly circular and concentric. At the centre of the circular loop, the
magnetic field lines are straight. The strength of the magnetic field produced by a
current-carrying circular coil (or circular wire) depends on (i) current flowing through
the coil. (ii) radius of the circular coil. (iii) number of turns of wire in the circular coil.
The direction of the field lines can be found by applying right-hand thumb rule.
(i) A long horizontal power line is carrying a current of 100 A in the east-west direction.
What is the direction of magnetic field at a point 1.0 m below it?
(a) North-South (b) East-West (c) South-East (d) North-West
The current flows in the east-west direction. From right hand thumb rule, we get the
direction of magnetic field as from north to south. The direction of magnetic field will
be same at every point below the power line.
Ans: (a) North-South

(ii) State the pattern of magnetic field lines for current carrying circular conductor.
(a) Magnetic field lines will be concentric circles to any point of the circular loop
(b) At centre, the field lines appear straight
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) Both of these
(iii) If a current carrying straight conductor is placed in east-west direction, then find the
direction of the force experienced by the conductor due to earth's magnetic field.
(a) Upward (b) Downward (c) Can't determined (d) Same as of current

Ans: (a) Upward

The direction of the Earth's magnetic field is from


geographic south to north. Let the direction of
current in the conductor be from west to east.
Applying Fleming's left-hand rule, we find, that the
direction of the force acting on the conductor will
be vertically upwards,
(iv) According to right-hand thumb rule direction of the curl of fingers of the right hand
gives the
(a) electric field lines (b) magnetic field lines
(c) direction of magnetic field (d) direction of current
The direction of curl of fingers of the right hand gives the direction of magnetic field
lines.
Ans: (b) magnetic field lines
(v) In case of circular loop carrying current, the strength of magnetic field is
(a) constant everywhere
(b) stronger inside the loop than outside the loop
(c) weaker inside the loop than outside the loop
(d) none of these
Magnetic field is strongest near the centre of the loop.
Ans: (b) stronger inside the loop than outside the loop
CASE STUDY QUESTION 44
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Study the following table in which positions of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F are
shown as they are in the Modern Periodic Table :
On the basis of the table, answer the following questions :
(i) The element which forms only covalent
compounds is
(a) A (b) D (c) E (d) B
Element E will form only covalent compounds
because it has 4 electrons in the outermost shell
so, it can neither loose nor gain 4 electrons,
hence E forms compounds by sharing of
electrons.

(ii) Which of the following elements is a metal with valency three?


(a) C (b) F (c) A (b) D

Element D is a metal having valency 3 as it belongs to group 13.


(iii) Which of the following elements is a non-
metal with valency three?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

B is a non-metal with valency (8 - 5 = 3) .

(iv) Which of the following elements has largest atomic size?


(a) C (d) D (c) E (d) F

Ans: (d) F
(v) C and F belongs to
(a) alkali metals (b) alkaline earth metals (c) noble gases (d) transition elements.
C and F belong to group 18 and are called noble gases.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 45
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Mirror formula is a relation between
object distance (u), image distance (v) and
focal length (f) of a spherical mirror.
It can be written as 1/u + 1/v = 1/f = 2/R
where R is the radius of curvature of the
mirror.
This formula is valid in all situations for
all spherical mirrors for all positions of the
object. Consider the case, in which a
mirror forms a real image of height 4 cm
of an object of height 1 cm placed 20 cm
away from the mirror.
Consider the case, in which a mirror
(i) The distance from the object to its image is forms a real image of height 4 cm of
(a) 20 cm (b) 80 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 70 cm an object of height 1 cm placed 20
cm away from the mirror.

(ii) The focal length of mirror is


(a) -16 cm (b) 12 cm (c) -15 cm (d) 10 cm
Consider the case, in which a mirror
forms a real image of height 4 cm of
(iii) The radius of curvature of the mirror is an object of height 1 cm placed 20
(a) -16 cm (b) -14 cm (c) -30 cm (d) -32 cm cm away from the mirror.

(iv) The magnification of the image is


(a) 3 (b) -6 (c) -4 (d) 8
(v) At what distance must an object be placed from mirror in order that a real image
double its size may be obtained?
(a) -24 cm (b) 32 cm (c) -40 cm (d) 45 cm
CASE STUDY QUESTION 46
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Aditya and his friend Manoj placed a candle flame in front of a convex lens at
various distances from it and obtained the image of the candle flame on a white
screen.
He noted down the position of the candle, screen and the lens as under
Position of candle = 20 cm
Position of convex lens = 50 cm
Position of the screen = 80 cm
(i) What is the position of the image formed from the convex lens?
(a) 80 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 60 cm

(ii) What is the focal length of the convex lens?


(a) 30 cm (b) 15 cm (e) -16 cm (d) 16 cm
(iii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a
position of 35 cm?
(a) At focus (b) Between focus and pole (c) At infinity (d) Between f2 and f1
(iv) Which of the following statement describes the best about the nature of
the image formed if Aditya shifts the candle towards the lens to 36 cm?
(a) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, inverted and magnified.
(b) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, erect and magnified.
(c) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, erect and diminished.
(d) The nature of the image formed will be real, inverted and diminished.
(v) Manoj noted following observations at different positions of candle from the lens.
According to Aditya one set of observations is incorrect. Find out if Aditya is right or not.
(a) Distance of the flame from the lens = 60 cm;
Distance of the screen from the lens = 20 cm
(b) Distance of the flame from the lens = 45 cm;
Distance of the screen from the lens = 22.5 cm
(c) Distance of the flame from the lens = 30 cm;
Distance of the screen from the lens = 30 cm
(d) Distance of the flame from the lens = 10 cm;
Distance of the screen from the lens = 15 cm

The observation (d) is incorrect. For this observation v = 15, i.e., the image is at
the focus and the object must be formed at infinity and not 10 cm.
CASE STUDY QUESTION 47
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
On the basis of reactivity of different metals with
oxygen, water and acids as well as displacement
reactions, the metals have been arranged in the
decreasing order of their reactivities. This arrangement
is known as activity series or reactivity series of
metals.
The basis of reactivity is the tendency of metals to lose
electrons. If a metal can lose electrons easily to form
positive ions, it will react readily with other substances.
Therefore, it will be a reactive metal. On the other
hand, if a meal loses electrons less rapidly to form a
positive ion, it will react slowly with other substances.
Therefore, such a metal will be less reactive.
(i) Which of the following metals is less reactive than hydrogen?
(a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) Magnesium (d) Lead

Copper is placed below hydrogen in activity series


therefore, it is less reactive than hydrogen.
Ans: (a) Copper

(ii) Which of the following metals is more reactive than hydrogen?


(a) Mercury (b) Platinum (c) Iron (d) Gold

Iron is placed above hydrogen in activity series, therefore it is


more reactive than hydrogen.
Ans: (c) Iron
(iii) Which of the following metals reacts vigorously with oxygen?
(a) Zinc (b) Magnesium (c) Sodium (d) Copper
Sodium metal react vigorously with oxygen (O2) and water (H2O). A
lot of heat generates during the reaction therefore sodium always
stored in kerosene.
Ans: (c) Sodium

(iv) Which of the following represents the correct order of reactivity for
the given metals?
(a) Na > Mg > Al > Cu (b) Mg > Na > Al > Cu
(c) Na > Mg > Cu > Al (d) Mg > Al > Na > Cu

Ans: (a) Na > Mg > Al > Cu


(v) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid. It is because
HNO3 is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises the H2 produced to water and itself
gets reduced to any of the nitrogen oxides (N2O, NO, NO2). But ____________
and ____________ react with very dilute HNO3 to evolve H2 gas.

(a) Pb, Cu (b) Na, K (c) Mg, Mn (d) Al, Zn

Ans: (c) Mg, Mn


CASE STUDY QUESTION 48
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Bleaching powder is also known as chloride of
lime. It is a solid and yellowish white in colour.
Bleaching powder can be easily identified by the
strong smell of chlorine. When calcium hydroxide
(slaked lime) reacts with chlorine, it gives calcium
oxychloride (bleaching powder) and water is
formed. Aqueous solution of bleaching powder is
basic in nature. The material to be bleached is first
passed through solution of NaOH to remove greasy
matter. Then it is passed through aqueous solution
of bleaching powder and very dil. HCl solution.
HCl reacts with bleaching powder to liberate
nascent oxygen which bleaches material.
(i) Bleaching powder is used as
(a) bleaching agent in textile, paper and jute industry
(b) disinfectant for water to make water free of germs
(c) oxidising agent in many industries
(d) all of these.

Ans: (d) all of these.

(ii) Bleaching powder is also known as


(a) calcium oxychloride (b) calcium hypochlorite
(c) chloride of lime (d) all of these.

Ans: (d) all of these.


(iii) Bleaching powder gives smell of chlorine because it
(a) is unstable (b) gives chlorine on exposure to atmosphere
(c) is a mixture of chlorine and slaked lime (d) contains excess of chlorine.
Bleaching powder gives chlorine on exposure to air by reacting with CO2.
CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2
Ans: (b) gives chlorine on exposure to atmosphere
(iv) Select the correct statement(s) regarding bleaching powder.
(a) It is pale yellow powder having smell of chlorine.
(b) It is sparingly soluble in water and gives milky suspension when dissolved in
water.
(c) As bleaching powder gives nascent oxygen, it shows bleaching property.
(d) All of these.
Ans: (d) all of these.
(v) Identify the product ‘X’ in the given reaction.
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → X + H2O
(a) CaOCl2 (b) CaCl2 (c) Ca(ClO3)2 (d) CaCO3

Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O


calcium oxychloride
(bleaching powder)
Ans: (a) CaOCl2
CASE STUDY QUESTION 49
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Oxidation has damaging effect on metals as well as
on food. The damaging effect of oxidation on metal
is studied as corrosion and that on food is studied
as rancidity. The phenomenon due to which metals
are slowly eaten away by the reaction of air, water
and chemicals present in atmosphere, is called
corrosion. For example, iron articles are shiny
when new, but get coated with a reddish brown
powder when left for sometime. This process is
known as rusting of iron. Rancidity is the process of
slow oxidation of oil and fat (which are volatile in
nature) present in the food materials resulting in the
change of smell and taste in them.
(i) Rancidity can be prevented by
(a) adding antioxidants (b) packaging oily food in nitrogen gas
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these.

Antioxidants and nitrogen gas prevent oxidation of food.


Ans: (c) both (a) and (b)

(ii) Combination of phosphorus and oxygen is an example of


(a) oxidation (b) reduction (c) rancidity (d) none of these.

4P + 3O2 → 2P2O3,
4P + 5O2 → 2P2O5

Ans: (a) oxidation


(iii) A science teacher wrote the following statements about rancidity:
(I) When fats and oils are reduced, they become rancid.
(II) In chips packet, rancidity is prevented by oxygen.
(III)Rancidity is prevented by adding antioxidants.
Select the correct option.
(a) (I) only (b) (II) and (III) only
(c) (III) only (d) (I), (II) and (III)

The oils and fats are slowly oxidised to certain bad smelling compounds,
which release foul smell. This is known as rancidity. Rancidity is prevented
by filling nitrogen gas in chips packets.

Ans: (c) (III) only


(iv) Two statements are given below regarding rusting of iron.
(I) The rusting of iron is a redox reaction and reaction occurs as,
(II) 4Fe + 3O2 → 4Fe3+ + 6O2–
(II) The metallic iron is oxidised to Fe2+ and O2 is reduced to O2–.
Select the correct statement(s).
(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) None of these
Ans: (a) I only
(v) Which of the following measures can be adopted to prevent or slow down
rancidity?
(I) Food materials should be packed in air tight container.
(II) Food should be refrigerated.
(III)Food materials and cooked food should be kept away from direct sunlight.
(a) Only II and III (b) Only I and III (c) Only II and III (d) I, II and III

Ans; (d) I, II and III


CASE STUDY QUESTION 50
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Auto means self and trophos means nourishment.
Plants are called autotrophs because they make their
food themselves. The making of food for themselves
is called the Autotrophic nutrition.
Green plants prepare their own food. They make food
in the presence of sunlight.
The process by which green plants prepare food is
called photosynthesis. During this process; the solar
energy is converted into chemical energy and
carbohydrates are formed. Green leaves are the main
sites of photosynthesis. The green portion of the plant
contains a pigment chloroplast; which contains
chlorophyll.
The process of photosynthesis is represented in the
adjoining figure:
(i) In the process of photosynthesis,
(a) the light energy is converted to chemical energy.
(b) the light and heat energy are converted to mechanical energy.
(c) the heat energy is converted to mechanical energy.
(d) the heat and light energy are converted to chemical energy.
Ans: (d) the heat and light energy are converted to chemical energy.
(ii) Which of the following can be concluded from the image above?
(a) Carbon dioxide is obtained from air and water is absorbed from the soil as the raw
materials to make glucose.
(b) Both carbon dioxide and water are obtained from the soil as raw materials to form
glucose.
(c) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide are obtained from air to form starch which is further
converted into glucose.
(d) Water and oxygen are the raw materials to form glucose.
Ans: (a) Carbon dioxide is obtained from air and water is absorbed
from the soil as the raw materials to make glucose.
(iii) Glucose is end product of the photosynthesis. It has :
(a) 6 carbon atoms (b) 5 carbon atoms
(c) 3 carbon atoms (d) 7 carbon atoms

Ans: (a) 6 carbon atoms

(iv) The first event during this process is :


(a) splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen
(b) absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(c) reduction of carbon dioxide
(d) releasing of oxvgen

Ans: (b) absorption of light energy by chlorophyll


(v) Stomata have a great role in photosynthesis as :
(a) the entry of carbon dioxide occurs through them.
(b) both gaseous exchange and transpiration are done through them.
(c) glucose and oxygen are released through them.
(d) the excess water is lost through them.
Ans: (b) both gaseous exchange and transpiration are done through them.
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