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Revenue Cycle Testbank
Revenue Cycle Testbank
TEST BANKS
1. Revenue is realized when a product or service is exchanged for cash or a promise to pay cash
or other assets that can be converted into cash.
TRUE or FALSE
TRUE or FALSE
3. Channel stuffing is an improper practice used to boost sales by inducing distributors to buy
more inventory than they can promptly resell.
TRUE or FALSE
TRUE or FALSE
TRUE or FALSE
6. Which of the following might be detected by an auditor's review of the client's sales cut-off?
7. Which of the following forms of evidence represents the most competent evidence that a
receivable actually exists?
a. A positive confirmation.
b. A sales invoice.
c. A receiving report.
d. A bill of lading.
8. During the process of confirming receivables as of December 31, 2002, a positive confirmation
was returned indicating the "balance owed as of December 31 was paid on January 9, 2003." The
auditor would most likely
a. Determine whether there were any changes in the account between January 1 and
January 9, 2003.
b. Determine whether a customary trade discount was taken by the customer.
c. Reconfirm the zero balance as of January 10, 2003.
d. Verify that the amount was received.
9. Which of the following analytical audit findings would most likely indicate a possible problem?
10. When the objective of the auditor is to evaluate the appropriateness of adjustments to sales,
the best available evidence would normally be
12. An auditor should perform alternative procedures to substantiate the existence of accounts
receivable when
13. Two types of accounts receivable confirmation requests are used in practice-positive and
negative. Negative confirmations may be used
14. When counting cash on hand, the auditor must exercise control over all cash and other
negotiable assets to prevent
a. Theft.
b. Irregular endorsement.
c. Substitution.
d. Deposits in transit.
15. An auditor would primarily rely upon which type of evidential matter when evaluating the
collectability of accounts receivable?
a. Positive confirmation.
b. Negative confirmation.
c. Aged accounts receivable listing.
d. Management's representations.
16. As one of the year-end audit procedures, the auditor instructed the client's personnel to
prepare a standard bank confirmation request for a bank account that had been closed during the
year. After the client's treasurer had signed the request, it was mailed by the assistant treasurer.
What is the major flaw in this audit procedure?
17. A client who wishes to inflate earnings decides to hold the sales record open beyond year-end
and record Year 2 sales in Year 1. Although the invoices are dated as of year end, the shipments
were made in the following period. Moreover, the goods were included in the ending inventory of
the period under audit. Which of the following auditing procedures would not assist in detecting
this form of fraudulent financial reporting?
18. Which of the substantive field work procedures presented below provides the best evidence
about the completeness of recorded revenues?
19. Although most substantive testing is performed during the final audit, some substantive tests
may be done on the interim audit. Which of the following statements concerning the timing of
substantive tests is true?
20. Smith is engaged in the audit of a cable TV firm which services a rural community. All
receivable balances are small, customers are billed monthly, and internal control is effective. to
determine the validity of the accounts receivable balances at the balance sheet date, Smith would
most likely
21. Once a CPA has determined that accounts receivable have increased because of slow
collection in a "tight money" environment, the CPA would be likely to
22. Which of the following is not an issue related to the valuation of accounts receivable?
24. Confirmation is most likely to be a relevant form of evidence with regard to assertions about
accounts receivable when the auditor has concerns about the receivables'
a. Valuation
b. Classification
c. Existence
d. Completeness
25. In which of the following circumstances would the use of the negative form of accounts
receivable confirmation most likely be justified?
a. A substantial number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable balance
arises from sales to a few major customers
b. A substantial number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable balance
arises from sales to many customers with small balances
c. A small number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable balance arises
from sales to a few major customers
d. A small number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable balance arises
from sales to many customers with small balances
26. Which of the following is not an account affected by the sales and collection cycle?
a. Cash
b. Accounts receivable
c. Allowance for doubtful accounts
d. Sales of Accounts Receivables
27. The auditor's objectives for the sales and cash collections activities when the client is primarily
an e-commerce business as compared to a "bricks and mortar" business are:
a. unchanged.
b. expanded.
c. mitigated.
d. decreased.
28. The overall objective in the audit of the sales and collection cycle is to evaluate whether the
account balances affected by the cycle are fairly presented in accordance with Accounting
standards.
a. True
b. False
29. The sales and collection cycle applies to businesses that transfer goods to customers or
provides services to businesses.
a. True
b. False
30. Which of the following is not one of the five classes of transactions included in the sales and
collection cycle?
a. receipt of cash
b. delivery of product to a customer
c. identification of a new customer
d. customer request for goods
a. sales invoice
b. vendor invoice
c. customer order
d. sales order
33. A ________ is a document that is matched with the customer order to assure that the correct
quantity and type of goods are shipped.
a. sales order
b. customer order
c. vendor invoice
d. sales invoice
34. What critical event must take place before goods can be shipped in order to assure payment
can be reasonably expected?
35. Before goods are shipped on account, a properly authorized person must:
36. After the auditor has prepared a flowchart of internal control for sales, and cash receipts
transactions and evaluated the design of the system, the auditor would perform tests of controls
on all control procedures
37. Which of the following is not a universal rule for achieving control over cash?
39. The use of fidelity bonds protects a company from embezzlement losses and also
a. Minimizes the possibility of employing persons with dubious records in positions of trust.
b. Protects employees who make unintentional errors form possible monetary damages
resulting from such errors.
c. Allows the company to substitute the fidelity bonds for various parts of internal control.
d. Reduces the company’s need to obtain expensive business interruption insurance.
a. Only I is true
b. Only II is true
c. Both I and II are true
d. Neither I nor II is true
41. Which of the following is an effective internal control over accounts receivable?
a. Only persons who handle cash receipts should be responsible for the preparation of
documents that reduce accounts receivable balances.
b. Responsibility for approval of the write-off of uncollectible accounts receivable should be
assigned to the cashier.
c. Balances in the subsidiary accounts receivable ledger should be reconciled to the general
ledger control account once a year, preferably at year-end.
d. The billing function should be assigned to persons other than those responsible for
maintaining accounts receivable subsidiary records.
42. To achieve control when there is no billing department, the billing function should be
performed by the
a. Accounting department
b. Sales department
c. Shipping department
d. Credit and collection department
43. The person who opens the mail commonly prepares a remittance advice when a customer
fails to return one with a payment. Consequently, mail should be opened by the
a. Credit manager.
b. Receptionist.
c. Sales manager.
d. Accounts receivable clerk.
44. Which of the following would the auditor consider to be an incompatible operation if the
cashier receives remittances from the mail room?
45. Which of the following would best protect a company that wishes to prevent lapping?
47. In considering internal control within the revenue/receipt cycle, what is the purpose of a
transaction walk through?
48. To determine whether internal control operates effectively to minimize errors of failure to bill
a customer for a shipment, the auditor would select a sample of transactions from the population
represented by the
51. Which of the following control procedures could prevent or detect errors or frauds arising
from shipments made to unauthorized parties?
52. Which of the following is not a control that generally is established over cash transactions?
53. Which of the following is not a universal rule for achieving internal control over cash?
54. The auditors compare information on canceled checks with information contained in the cash
disbursement journal. The objective of this test is to determine that:
56. By preparing a four-column bank reconciliation ("proof of cash") at year-end, an auditor will
generally be able to detect:
a. An embezzlement of cash receipts not recorded in the cash receipts journal before they
had been deposited into the bank.
b. An unrecorded deposit made at the bank at the end of the month.
c. A second payment of an account payable which had already been paid in full two months
earlier.
d. A receivable collected that had previously been written off as uncollectible.
57. Tracing recorded sales transactions in the sales journal to the shipping documents (bills of
lading) provides evidence about the:
a. Presentation of payables.
b. Billing of all sales transactions.
c. Completeness of recording of sales transactions.
d. Occurrence of sales transactions.
58. Operating control of the check-signing machine normally should be the responsibility of the :
59. Internal control over cash receipts is weakened when an employee who receives customer
mail receipts also:
60. The authorization for the write-off of accounts receivable should be the responsibility of the:
a. credit manager
b. controller
c. accounts receivable clerk
d. treasurer
61. For good internal control, which of the following functions should not be the responsibility of
the treasurer's department?
a. data processing
b. handling of cash
c. custody of securities
d. establishment of credit policies
62. For effective internal accounting control, employees maintaining the accounts receivable
subsidiary ledger should not also approve:
63. A company policy should clearly indicate that defective merchandise returned by
customers is to be delivered to the:
a. sales clerk
b. receiving clerk
c. inventory control clerk
d. accounts receivable clerk
64. It would be appropriate for the payroll accounting department to be responsible for
which of the following functions?
65. Which of the following is an internal control procedure that would prevent a paid
disbursement voucher from being presented for payment a second time?
67. A company holds bearer bonds as a short-term investment. Custody of these bonds
and submission of coupons for interest payments normally is the responsibility of the
a. treasury function
b. legal counsel
c. general accounting function
d. internal audit function
66. For good internal control, the monthly bank statements should be reconciled by
someone under the direction of the
a. credit manager
b. controller
c. cashier
d. treasurer
67. For good internal control, the person who should sign checks is the
71. Which of the following internal control activities most likely would ensure that all billed
sales are correctly posted to the accounts receivable ledger?
a. Daily sales summaries are compared to daily postings to the accounts receivable
ledger
b. Each sales invoice is supported by a prenumbered shipping document
c. The accounts receivable ledger is reconciled daily to the control account in the
general ledger
d. Each shipment on credit is supported by a prenumbered sales invoice
72. Which of the following control activities may prevent the failure to bill customers for
some shipments?
73. An auditor selects a sample from the file of shipping documents to determine whether
invoices were prepared. This test is performed to assess the assertion of
74. An auditor would consider a cashier’s job description to contain compatible duties if the
cashier receives remittances from the mailroom and also
75. All of the following are important controls over credit memos except
a. Proper segregation of duties to ensure that sales discounts taken were earned
b. Credit memos should be approved by someone other than whoever initiated it
c. Credit memos should be supported by a receiving document for returned goods
d. Proper segregation of duties between access to customer records and authorizing
credit memos
76. Which is not a key segregation of duties for the revenue process? Different parties
should
78. An auditor’s purpose in reviewing credit ratings of customers with delinquent accounts
receivable most likely is to obtain evidence concerning management’s assertions about
80. The two primary classes of transactions in the sales and collection cycle are:
81. For cash receipts, the occurrence transaction-related audit objective affects which of the
following balance-related audit objective?
a. Existence
b. Completeness
c. Rights
d. Detail tie-in
82. For cash receipts, the occurrence transaction-related audit objective affects the
completeness balance-related audit objective.
a. True
b. False
83. The audit procedure of tracing sales invoices to shipping documents will provide the
auditor evidence that:
84. For most audits, a proper cash receipts cutoff is less important than the sales cutoff
because the improper cutoff of cash:
86. Tracing bills of lading to sales invoices will provide evidence that
87. Which source document should an auditor use to verify the correct sales date for an item
sold FOB shipping point?
88. Which of the following is the most effective audit procedure to ascertain the accuracy of
accounts receivable?
a. Vouching.
b. Confirmation.
c. Recalculation.
d. Aging.
89. Which of the following audit objectives is not served by confirming customers’ accounts
receivable?
90. An internal auditor is concerned that a division may be intentionally shipping unordered
merchandise to customers near the end of each quarter to meet sales goals. To determine
if this is happening, the auditor should:
91. Alpha Company uses its sales invoices for posting perpetual inventory records.
Inadequate control activities over the invoicing function allow goods to be shipped that are
not invoiced. The inadequate control activities could cause an
93. For the most effective internal control, monthly bank statements should be received
directly from the banks and reviewed by the
a. Controller
b. Cash receipts accountant
c. Cash disbursement accountant
d. Internal auditor
94. Auditors are more concerned with the occurrence assertion for revenues than the
completeness assertion because:
95. A CPA auditing an electric utility wishes to determine whether all customers are being
billed. The CPA’s best direction of test is from the
96. Which of the following procedures would ordinarily be expected to best reveal improper
cutoff of sales at the balance sheet date?
97. To achieve good internal control, which department should perform the activities of
matching shipping documents with sales orders and preparing daily sales summaries?
a. Billing
b. Shipping
c. Credit
d. Sales Order
98. An auditor most likely would limit substantive tests of sales transactions when control risk
is assessed as low for the existence or occurrence assertion concerning sales transactions
and the auditor has already gathered evidence supporting
a. Request the senders to mail the original forms to the auditor or the auditor may follow
up with a telephone call to verify the response
b. Examine subsequent cash receipts for the accounts in question
c. Consider the e-mail responses to the confirmations to be exceptions
d. Mail second requests to the e-mail respondents
100. Some firms that dispose of only a small part of their total output by consignment
shipments fail to make any distinction between consignment shipments and regular sales.
Which of the following would suggest that goods have been shipped on consignment?
Source:
AACSB
AACSB
AICPA BB
AICPA FN
Auditing and Assurance Services, 14e (Arens)
CPA Review School of the Philippines
Test Bank Messier