MODULE 5 - PREBOARD

I Structural Terminologies

1. Shear wall resist lateral force parallel to the face of the wall. What is best location of Shear Wall
inside a high-rise building?

a. Surrounds the building

b. Both ends of the building
c. Surrounds elevator shafts
d. Anywhere

2. A design in which the tension capacity of the tension steel is greater than the combined compression
capacity of the concrete and the compression steel. This design is more dangerous due to possibility
of abrupt collapse in the reinforced concrete structure.

a. Working stress design

b. Balanced design
c. Under reinforced
d. Over-reinforced

3. Occupancies and structures necessary for surgery and emergency treatment areas.
a. Essential facilities
b. Hazardous facilities
c. Special occupancy
d. Standard occupancy

4. This consists of the weight of all materials and other fixed or permanent loads including temporary
and imposed loads, movable loads and occupants.
a. Dead Load
b. Live
c. Soil Pressure
d. Gravity Load

5. A wall design to resist the lateral displacement of soil or other materials.

a. Shear wall
b. Bearing wall
c. Retaining wall
d. Exterior wall

6. It is a horizontal or nearly horizontal system acting to transmit lateral forces to the vertical-resisting
elements, including the horizontal bracing systems.
a. Diaphragm
b. Slab
c. Dual System
d. Scaffolding

7. It is one in which the lateral stiffness is less than 70% of the stiffness of the story above.
a. Soft story
b. Weak story
c. Story drift
 d. Story shear

8. It is one in which the story strength is less than 80% of the story above.
a. Soft story
b. Weak story
c. Story drift
d. Story shear

9. It is the secondary effect on shears, axial forces and moments of frame members due to the action of
the vertical induced by horizontal displacement of the structure resulting from various loading.
a. After shock
b. Lateral deflection
c. Camber
d. P-Delta Effect

10. It is an artificial stone derived from a mixture of properly proportioned amount of hydraulic cement,
fine aggregates, coarse aggregates and water, with or without admixtures.
a. Reinforced concrete
b. Concrete
c. Precast concrete
d. Masonry

11. A material other than aggregate, water, or hydraulic cement used as an ingredient of concrete and
added to concrete before or during its mixing to modify its properties.
a. Inert materials
b. Accelerator
c. Waterproofing
d. Admixture

12. The art and craft of building and fabricating in stone, clay, brick, or concrete block. It also refers
generally to construction of poured concrete, reinforced or unreinforced.
a. Masonry
b. Concreting
c. Building construction
d. Fabrication

13. Beam supporting materials above opening of windows and doors:

a. Girder
b. Girt
c. Tie Beam
d. Lintel Beam

14. It is the ability of a material to be stretch without failure.

a. Malleability
b. Elasticity
c. Creep
d. Ductility

15. The sharp bending or sharp buckling when a column is loaded heavily is called:
a. Sagging
b. Strengthening
 c. Crippling
d. Elongation

16. Usual failure of intermediate concrete column:

a. Rupture
b. Crushing
c. Buckling
d. Crushing and Buckling

17. In materials science, it (sometimes called cold flow) is the tendency of a solid material to move
slowly or deform permanently under the influence of persistent mechanical stresses. It can occur as a
result of long-term exposure to high levels of stress that are still below the yield strength of the
material. Associated with high temperature.
a. Crack
b. Rupture
c. Yield
d. Creep

18. Reinforcing bars put in contact to act as a unit is called:

a. Temperature bars
b. Tendons
c. Bundled bars
d. Bottom bars

19. A very common and important structural element, are constructed to provide flat, useful surfaces. It
is a horizontal structural component, with top and bottom surfaces parallel or near so. The depth is
very small compared to its span.
a. Diaphragm
b. Slab
c. Mat footing
d. Footing

20. The stirrups resist the vertical and diagonal tensions in a beam. What is the other function of
stirrups?
a. Resist flexure
b. Hold longitudinal bars in place
c. Serve as temperature bars
d. Resist shrinkage

21. Honey comb in concrete can be limited by the:

a. Use of admixture
b. Use of chemical
c. Use of concrete vibrator
d. Use of compactor

22. Effects of earthquake is severe at the location of:

a. Near bodies of water
b. Ravines
c. Fault lines
d. Seismicity
23. Ties are used for what type of structural elements?
a. Slabs
b. Beams
c. Columns
d. Footings

24. What do you call a column that is not aligned to a lower floor column?
a. Planted
b. Eccentric
c. Floating
d. Unaligned

25. It is a method of prestressing in which prestressing reinforcement is tensioned before concrete is cast.
a. Pre-Tensioning
b. Post Tensioning
c. Precast Concrete
d. Prestressed Concrete

26. It is a frame in which beams, slabs, columns, and joints resist forces predominantly shear, and axial
force; Beams or slabs are predominantly horizontal or nearly horizontal; Columns are predominantly
vertical or nearly vertical.
a. Chevron
b. Dual System
c. Moment Frame
d. Building Frame
27. The failure of a base when heavily loaded columns strike a hole through it is due to:
a. Flexural stress failure
b. Single shear failure
c. Punching Shear failure
d. Crippling
28. The shear stress at the surface of a reinforcing bar which prevents relative movement between the bar
and the surrounding concrete. It is also defined as the force adhesion per unit area of contact between
two bonded surfaces is:
a. Bond stress
b. Axial stress
c. Hydrostatic Pressure
d. Adhesive stress
29. It is a reinforcement used in beams to resist shear and torsion stresses in a structural member;
typically, deformed bars, deformed wires, or welded wire reinforcement either single leg or bent into
L, U or rectangular shapes and located perpendicular to or at an angle to longitudinal reinforcement.
For tied columns it is called "tie”.

a. Stirrup
b. Tie
c. Development length
d. Crosstie
30. What is the temporary force exerted by a device that introduce tension into a pre-stressing tendons?
a. Jacking force
b. Pre-stressing force
c. Tensile force
d. Driving force

31. It is a concrete used for structural purposes, including plain and reinforced concrete.
a. Masonry
b. Reinforced concrete
c. Concrete
d. Structural concrete

32. In geotechnical engineering, it is defined as the vertical movement of the ground, generally caused be
changes in stresses within the earth. ... and is most likely to occur when increased vertical stresses are
applied to the ground on or above soft or loose soil strata.
a. Settlement
b. Creep
c. Compaction
d. Densification

33. The ability of soil to allow water to flow through it.

a. Permeability
b. Seepage
c. Capillarity
d. Osmosis

34. Slump test is done in fresh concrete in order primarily to determine:

a. Workability
b. Water content
c. Elasticity
d. Rigidity

35. This has the effect of delaying the onset of hardening and reducing the rate of hydration process in
concrete:
a. Additives
b. Accelerator
c. Air entraining agent
d. Retarder

36. Inert materials in concrete which occupy more than 75% of the volume of the hardened concrete:
a. Crushed Rocks
b. Sand
c. Gravel
d. Aggregates

37. The wall that supports vertical loads:

a. Load-Bearing wall
b. Shear wall
c. Retaining wall
 d. CHB wall

38. It is a formed, sawed, or tooled groove in a concrete structure to create a weakened plane and regulate
the location of cracking resulting from the dimensional change of different parts of the structure.
a. Contraction Joint
b. Construction Joint
c. Seismic Gap
d. Cold Joint

39. It is the length of embedded reinforcement required to develop the design strength of reinforcement at
a critical section.
a. Development length
b. Dowel
c. Hook
d. Splice

40. It is a method of pre-stressing in which tendons are tensioned after concrete has hardened.
a. Pre-Stressed Concrete
b. Pre-Tensioning
c. Post Tensioning
d. Precast Concrete

41. It is a material encasing prestressing reinforcement to prevent bonding of the prestressing

reinforcement with the surrounding concrete, to provide corrosion protection, and to contain the
corrosion inhibiting coating.
a. Anti-rust
b. Shear cap
c. Sheathing
d. Cover

42. Working stress refers to the actual stress developed in a material under a given load; while the
maximum safe stress that a material can withstand is referred to:
a. Tensile stress
b. Total stress
c. Flexural stress
d. Allowable stress

43. It is the stress induced as a result of restrained deformations due to change in temperature:
a. Thermal stress
b. Strain
c. Creep
d. Yield stress

44. It is a continuously wound reinforcement in the form of a cylindrical helix.

a. Lateral ties
b. Crossties
c. Longitudinal bars
d. Spiral reinforcement

45. A point within a beam or column where no moment is developed and a point of a curve at which a
change in the direction of curvature occurs, is called:
 a. Midpoint
b. Inflection Point
c. Point of Zero Shear
d. Middle third

46. A long wall or embankment built to prevent flooding from the bodies of water.
a. Retaining wall
b. Dam
c. Dike
d. Gabion wall

47. It is a form of bracing where a pair of braces located either above or below a beam terminates at a
single point within the clear beam span, is called:
a. Chevron
b. Diaphragm
c. Bracing system
d. Diagonal bracing

48. It is an upright compression member with a ratio of unsupported height to average least lateral
dimension not exceeding of 3:
a. Pedestal
b. Column
c. Pier
d. Pile

49. It is a separation of an existing concrete slab from a new concrete slab or wall. A piece of
expansion joint (usually ½” wide and made of cork or recycled fiber material) is placed against the
existing concrete slab and when the new concrete slab is poured. This joint separates the two slabs.

a. Isolation joint
b. Construction joint
c. Seismic gap
d. Distance

50. It is used to fasten together components of a built-up member, such as a plate girder, and to make
connections between steel members using fusion in a controlled atmosphere and requires more
skilled
labor.
a. Bolting
b. Nailing
c. Splicing
d. Welding

51. Knot in woods or timbers are what type of defect?

a. Natural defect
b. Processing defect
c. Handling defect
d. Over drying defect

52. The minimum bend diameter for 10-mm through 25-mm-Ø deformed bars is:
a. 6db
 b. 8db
c. 10db
d. 12db

53. The maximum spacing of spirals is:

a. 25mm
b. 40mm
c. 50mm
d. 75mm

54. The strength reduction factor, Ø for flexure is:

a. 0.7
b. 0.75
c. 0.8
d. 0.9

55. The minimum size of slab main reinforcement is:

a. 10mm
b. 12mm
c. 16mm
d. 20mm

56. For One Way Slab, the ratio of Width to Length, m, is:
a. m < 0.5
b. m = 0.5
c. m > 0.5
d. m = 1.0

57. For Two Way Slab, the Ratio of Width to Length, m, is:
a. m ≤ 0.5
b. m = 0.5
c. m ≥ 0.5
d. m = 1.0

58. The minimum reinforcement for tied column is:

a. 2-16mm Ø
b. 3-16mm Ø
c. 4-16mm Ø
d. 6-16mm Ø

59. The minimum reinforcement for spiral column is:

a. 2-16mm Ø
b. 3-16mm Ø
c. 4-16mm Ø
d. 6-16mm Ø

60. ASTM steel with yield stress of 36000 psi has a symbol of:
a. A36
b. A360
c. A48
d. A36000
61. The thickness of one-way slab should never be less than:
a. 50mm
b. 75mm
c. 90mm
d. 100mm

62. Slabs not exposed to weather and not in contact with the ground must have a minimum clear cover of:
a. 50mm
b. 40mm
c. 25mm
d. 20mm

63. The Coarse Aggregates in concrete must be larger than but not to exceed nominal size prescribed in
Section 403.4.2 of NSCP:
a. 3/16≤ size ≤ 1 inch
b. ¼ inch
c. 1inch
d. 2 inches

64. The strength of concrete at 28th day is 3000 psi. This value is the same as:
a. 17.5 MPa
b. 21 MPa
c. 20.67 MPa
d. 25.75 MPa.

65. Grade 60 Steel-Reinforcement has a yield stress of 275.8 MPa. This stress is the same as:
a. 60 ksi
b. 20 ksi
c. 60 MPa
d. 60,000 MPa

66. Shear and Torsion strength reduction factor Ø, is:

a. 0.7
b. 0.75
c. 0.85
d. 0.9

67. ASTM Type I Cement is generally for:

a. General purpose
b. low-heat
c. high-early-strength
d. low hydration process

68. No.8 deformed bar has a diameter of:

a. 10mm
b. 12mm
c. 20mm
d. 25mm
69. Concrete cast against and permanently exposed to earth must a minimum concrete cover of:
a. 40mm
b. 50mm
c. 75mm
d. 100mm

70. Lap splices for uncoated deformed bar or wire must not be less than the larger of 48d b and___.
a. 100mm
b. 150mm
c. 200mm
d. 300 mm

71. Deformed bars larger than ___ mm should not be bundled.

a. 34
b. 36
c. 32
d. 38

72. The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in a layer shall be d b but not less than ___:
a. 40mm
b. 50mm
c. 25mm
d. 100mm

73. The maximum number of reinforcements for bundled bars is:

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

74. A simply supported beam, L meters long, carrying a uniformly distributed load of w (N/m)
throughout the span, has a maximum moment of:
a. 1/8 w L2
b. ½ wL
c. ½ w L2
d. w L2

75. Minimum length of Class A lap for tension Lap Splices shall be ___, but not less than 300 mm:
a. ld
b. 1.5 ld
c. 2 ld
d. 3 ld

76. Type of welding used to fuse metal studs or similar parts to other steel parts by the heat of an electric
arc. At the end of the welded part the stud is equipped with a ceramic ferrule, which contains flux
which also partly shields the weld when molten.
a. Electrogas welding
b. Stud welding
 c. Electroslag welding
d. Submerged arc welding

77. Where can we stop pouring ready mixed concrete on beams if pouring cannot be done in one setting?
a. At L/2
b. At L/3
c. At the shear point
d. At the zero moment

78. What do you call 2 or more materials that are combined together?
a. Laminated
b. Reinforced
c. Composite
d. Combination

79. What forces does a Curtain Wall resist?

a. Own weight
b. Wind Load
c. Earthquake Load
d. Own weight

80. Web reinforcements that resist vertical and diagonal tensions in a beam and hold the main rebars in
place.
a. ties
b. spirals
c. stirrups
d. temperature bars

81. Will most likely fail due to buckling

a. Short column
b. Long column
c. Composite column
d. Planted column

82. Distance measured from extreme compression fiber to centroid of tension reinforcement, is:
a. eminent depth
b. effective depth
c. critical depth
d. nominal depth

83. Loop of reinforcing bars or wires enclosing longitudinal reinforcement in tied columns.
a. stirrups
b. hoops
c. ties
d. spirals

84. Element, usually vertical, used to enclose or separate spaces and also at times, serve as structural
member.
a. wall
b. slab
c. column
 d. rebar

85. The Occupancy Importance Factor, Ip, is 1.0 except for the Hazardous Facilities and Essential
Facilities, which is:
a. 1.0
b. 1.5
c. 2.0
d. 2.5

86. Inert material that is mixed with hydraulic cement and water to produce concrete.
a. admixture
b. slag
c. aggregate
d. escombro

87. In spirally reinforced concrete column, the clear spacing between spirals (pitch) shall not be larger
than 75mm and shall not be less than:
a. 100mm
b. 75mm
c. 50mm
d. 25mm

88. What is the method of introducing a jacking force in which tendons are tensioned after the concrete
has hardened enough to sustain this temporary force?
a. Prestressing
b. Pre-tensioning
c. Post tensioning
d. Precasting

89. What is the weight in kilogram of a 1-meter long No.4 deformed bar?
a. 1.584
b. 1.255
c. 1.005
d. 0.888

90. The intensity of force per unit area is called:

a. stress
b. strain
c. impact
d. pressure

91. This refers to the length of reinforcement or mechanical anchor or hook or combination thereof
beyond point of zero stress in reinforcement.
a. development length
b. reinforcement length
c. end anchorage
d. prestress length

92. It is a 3-second gust speed at 10 meters above the ground in Exposure C and associated with an
annual probability of 0.02 of being equaled or exceeded (50 year mean recurrence interval).
a. Basic Wind Speed
 b. Annual wind speed
c. normal wind speed
d. critical wind speed

93. It is defined as displacement of one level relative to the level above or below it.
a. deflection
b. story displacement
c. story motion
d. story drift

94. Splices of deformed bars shall be staggered at least ____ and in such a manner as to develop at every
section at least twice the calculated tensile force at that section but not less than 140 MPa for total
area of reinforcement provided.
a. 500mm
b. 600mm
c. 700mm
d. 800mm

95. It is a continuous reinforcing bar having a seismic hook at one end and a hook of not less than 90
degrees with at least a six-diameter extension at the other end. The hook shall engage peripheral
longitudinal bars. The 90-degree hooks of two successive ties of this type, engaging longitudinal bars
shall be alternated end for end.
a. stirrup
b. crosstie
c. splice
d. anchorage

96. The minimum thickness required by Code for a solid Cantilevered Slab shall be the larger of 75mm
and:
a. length/10
b. length/20
c. length/24
d. length/ 28

97. It is a permanent roofed structure attached to and supported by the building and projecting over public
right-of-way.
a. Marquee
b. Mean roof
c. Canopy
d. Trusses

98. For non-prestressed concrete the minimum concrete cover for beams and columns not exposed to
weather and not in contact with the earth is:
a. 20mm
b. 25mm
c. 40mm
d. 50mm

99. The minimum tie or hoop diameter for bundled bars is:
a. 6mm
 b. 10mm
c. 12mm
d. 16mm

100. For cast-in-place construction, size (diameter) of spirals shall not be less than ___ for 16mm
through 32mm longitudinal bars.
a. 10mm
b. 12mm
c. 16mm
d. 20mm

101. For Bars 28mm, 32mm & 36mm diameter, the minimum bend shall not be less than:
a. 6db
b. 8db
c. 10db
d. 12db

Figure 1

GL
B
A

Bottom Main Bottom

bars Deformed 3m
Bars

5m

102. A in Figure 1 is called:

a. Development length
b. Column ties
c. Main rebars
d. Lateral ties

103. B in Figure 1 is called:

a. Development length
 b. Column bars
c. Main rebars
d. Lateral ties

104. Figure 1 shows that the depth of excavation is:

a. 3.0 meters
b. 3.15 meters
c. 3.5 meters
d. 4.5 meter

105. The Footing in Figure 1 is:

a. Isolated
b. Trapezoidal
c. Combined Footing
d. Strap Footing

106. The columns in Figure 1 are:

a. Tied columns
b. Rectangular columns
c. Spiral columns
d. Wide Flange

Figure 2
107. How many main reinforcing bars are used in C-1 in Figure 2?
a. 4-16mmØ
b. 4-20mmØ
c. 4
d. 5

108. How many main reinforcing bars are used in C-2 in Figure 2?
a. 6-16mmØ
b. 6-20mmØ
c. 6
d. 7

109. How many main reinforcing bars are used in C-3 in Figure 2?
a. 8-16mmØ
b. 8-20mmØ
c. 8
d. 9

110. Columns in Figure 2 are what type of columns?

a. Composite
b. Square
c. Spiral
d. Tied

111. The minimum bars for tied columns per NSCP is:
a. 4-16mmØ
b. 4-20mmØ
 c. 4
d. 5
4m 6m

S-1 S-4 1.75m

S-2 S-5 2m

S-3 S-6
4m

Figure 3: 2nd Floor Plan

112. S-1 in Figure 3 is:

a. One-Way Slab
b. Two-Way Slab
c. Flat Slab
d. Ground Slab

113. S-2 in Figure 3 is:

a. One-Way Slab
b. Two-Way Slab
c. Flat Slab
d. Ground Slab

114. S-3 in Figure 3 is:

a. One-Way Slab
b. Two-Way Slab
c. Flat Slab
d. Ground Slab

115. S-4 in Figure 3 is:

a. One-Way Slab
b. Two-Way Slab
c. Flat Slab
d. Ground Slab

116. S-5 in Figure 3 is:

 a. One-Way Slab
b. Two-Way Slab
c. Flat Slab
d. Ground Slab

117. S-6 in Figure 3 is:

a. One-Way Slab
b. Two-Way Slab
c. Flat Slab
d. Ground Slab

118. The minimum thickness for S-1 shall not be less than 100mm and shall be at least___, whichever is
larger:
a. L/20
b. L/24
c. L/28
d. L/10

119. The minimum thickness for S-3 shall not be less than 100mm and shall be at least:
a. L/20
b. L/24
c. L/28
d. P/180

120. The minimum thickness for S-4 shall neither be less than L/24 mm nor shall be less than:
a. 90mm
b. 75mm
c. 100mm
d. 110mm

121. The minimum concrete cover for S-1 shall be at least ____ if not exposed to weather and not in
contact with the ground:
a. 50mm
b. 10mm
c. 20mm
d. 25mm

122. What do you call the top bars for S-1?

a. Temperature bars
b. Main bars
c. Tendons
d. Crossties

123. Per NSCP, the minimum diameter of reinforcements for S-6 both top and bottom bars, is:
a. 50mm
b. 10mm
c. 12mm
d. 25mm

124. Slabs are designed per

a. linear meter
 b. square foot
c. cubic meter
d. cubic foot

125. Slabs with no supporting beams are called:

a. One-Way Slab
b. Two-Way Slab
c. Flat Slab
d. Ground Slab

126. Slabs are structural members subjected to

a. Torsion
b. Flexural stress
c. Tensile stress
d. Shearing stress

F Figure 4

127. From Figure 4, which is more dangerous during an earthquake?

a. Rupture
b. Shaking
c. Sublimation
d. None of the above
128. Which from Figure 4 gives the bigger chance of survival?
a. Rupture
b. Shaking
c. Sublimation
d. None of the above
129. Which is the most probable consequence of fault during earthquake?
a. Rupture
b. Shaking
c. Sublimation
d. None of the above
130. It is a sudden undulation of a portion of the earth’s crust with hypocenter and epicenter whose
magnitude ranges from 1 to 12.
a. Earthquake
b. Shaking
c. Sublimation
d. tectonic

131. The risk of rupture during earthquake is high at:

a. Volcano
b. Zone 1
c. Fault line
d. Mountain
 Figure 5: Floor Framing Plan

Y
A 6m B 8m C 6m D
3

4m

4m

1 X

132. From Figure 5, what is the distance between 3A and 3B?

a. 4m
b. 6m
c. 8m
d. 20m

133. From Figure 5, what is the distance between 2B and 2C?

a. 4m
b. 6m
c. 8m
d. 20m

134. From Figure 5, what is the distance between 1A and 1D?

a. 4m
b. 6m
c. 8m
d. 20m

135. From Figure 5, what is the distance between 2C and 2D?

a. 4m
b. 6m
c. 8m
d. 20m

136. From Figure 5, what is the distance between 2A and 3B?

a. 7.21m
b. 10.2m
c. 8.5m
d. 20m
If all columns in Figure 5 along X-axis is 500mm and along Y-axis, 300mm and the distance
between columns is taken center-to-center (items 136-140):

137. What is the clear distance of beam BC?

a. 7.0m
b. 7.5m
c. 8m
d. 8.5m

138. What is the clear distance of beam CD?

a. 7.0m
b. 7.5m
c. 5.0m
d. 5.5m

139. What is the clear distance of beam 1A and 1B?

a. 7.0m
b. 7.5m
c. 5.0m
d. 5.5m

140. What is the clear distance of beam 1B and 1C?

a. 7.0m
b. 7.5m
c. 5.0m
d. 5.5m

141. What is the clear distance of beam 1D and 2D?

a. 3.70m
b. 4.5m
c. 5.0m
d. 5.5m

Figure 6: Reinforced Concrete Beam

A
B
C

142. The stirrups or hoops, A in Figure 6 is also termed as:

a. Main bars
b. Tendons
 c. Ties
d. Web reinforcement

143. What do you call the rebars, B in Figure 6?

a. Main bars
b. Tendons
c. Ties
d. Web reinforcement

144. The minimum concrete cover, C in Figure 6 if the beam is not exposed to weather and not in
contact with the earth shall be:
a. 25mm
b. 40mm
c. 50mm
d. 75mm

145. The minimum concrete cover, C in Figure 6 if the beam is in contact with the earth shall be:
a. 25mm
b. 40mm
c. 50mm
d. 75mm

146. If the main reinforcement in Figure 6 is bundled bars, the size of the stirrups/hoops shall be:
a. 20mmØ
b. 12mmØ
c. 16mmØ
d. 10 mmØ

147. Rebars larger than ____, shall not be bundled:

a. 28mmØ
b. 32mmØ
c. 36mmØ
d. 34 mmØ

148. If the beam in Figure 6 is simply supported carrying a uniformly distributed load w in N/m in a
span length of L in meters, the maximum deflection is:
a. δ = (5wL4) / (384EI)
b. δ = (WL4) / (48EI)
c. δ = (WL3) / (8EI)
d. δ = (WL2) / (4EI)

149. If the beam in Figure 6 is simply supported carrying a uniformly distributed load w in N/m in a
spam length of L in meters, the deflection at the support is:
a. minimum
b. 10mm
c. 50mm
d. zero

150. If the beam in Figure 6 is simply supported carrying a uniformly distributed load w in N/m in a
spam length of L in meters, the maximum deflection is at:
a. Supports
 b. Midspan
c. L/3
d. L/4

151. The top bars in the beam in Figure 6 is called:

a. Development length
b. Dowels
c. Temperature bars
d. Main bars
Figure 7 – Combined Footing Details
152. In Figure 7, which of the following footings is COMBINED?
a. CF1
b. CF2
c. CF3
d. All the above

153. The thickness of the gravel base in the combined footings in Figure 7 is:
a. 4 inches
b. 5 inches
c. 6 inches
d. 8 inches

154. The size of footing reinforcements is:

a. 12 mm Ø
b.16 mm Ø
c. 20 mm Ø
d. 10 mm Ø

155. The overall depth of CF2 is:

a. 500 mm
b. 400mm
c. 220 mm
d. 120 mm

156. Given the scale in the Plan Details in Figure 7, the depth of excavation for CF1 from FFL is:
a. 4000 mm
b.3000 mm
c. 2000 mm
d. 1000 mm

157. CF3 in Figure 7 is a:

a. Square footing
b. Rectangular footing
c. Trapezoidal
d. Round

158. The minimum concrete cover for CF1 is:

a. 150 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 25 mm
d. 75mm

159. The top bars of CF3 in Figure 7 is made of:

a. 6-12 mm Ø top bars
b. 6-16 mm Ø both ways
c. 6-16mm Ø
d. 6-10 mm Ø
160. All columns shown in Figure 7 are:
a. Square
b. Rectangular
c. Trapezoidal
d. Tied columns

161. The size of column in CF1 in Figure 7 is:

a. 600 x 600
b.300 x 300
c. 200 x 200
d. 100 x 100

Reference Figure 8, which is an enlarged Plan & Section of Column Footing 1 (CF1), please answer
items 162-166. See Figure 8 next page.

162. How many bottom bars are there in the CF1 in the transverse direction?
a. 15-16 mm Ø, one way
b. 12-16 mm Ø
c. 30-16mm Ø both ways
d. 24-16 mm Ø

163. How many topmost bars are there in the CF1 in the transverse direction?
a. 15-16 mm Ø
b. 12-16 mm Ø
c. 30-16mm Ø
d. 24-16 mm Ø

164. The distance of Lower Ground FFL from the bottom of the footing is:
a. 1.65 m
b. 400 mm
c. 1.50 m
d. 800 mm

165. The Lower Ground Floor Slab has a thickness of:

a. 100 mm
b. 125 mm
c. 150 mm
d. 200 mm

166. The Footing Tie Beam (FTB) should have a minimum concrete cover of:
a. 50 mm
b. 75 mm
c. 150 mm
d. 200 mm
Figure 8 – CF1 Plan & Section
Figure 9 – Truss (T2)

167. The span length of the truss T2 in Figure 9 is:

a. 9.80 m
b. 7.50 m
c. 15.0 m
d. 20.0 m

168. The truss in Figure 9 is made of what structural materials?

a. plastic
b. steel
c. timber
d. concrete

169. Each panel at the left portion of the line of strut in the truss in Figure 9 measures:
a. 4350 mm
b. 7500 mm
c. 1505.8 mm
d. 1087.5 mm
170. What is the size of the web members to the right of the strut in Figure 9?
a. 50 x 50 mm
b. 75 x 75 mm
c. 150 x 150 mm
d. 200 mm

171. The arrow A points to what particular part of roofing?

a. beam
b. corbel
c. gutter
d. downspout

Figure 10 shows the Section of Stair No. 2 for questions 171-175.

172. The largest diameter of reinforcing bar used in the stair is:
a. 12mm Ø
b. 16mm Ø
c. 10mm Ø
d. 20mm Ø

173. The smallest diameter of main reinforcing bar used in the stair is:
a. 12mm Ø
b. 16mm Ø
c. 10mm Ø
d. 20mm Ø

174. The stair shown in Figure 10 specifies that the building is a ____ -storey building:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6

175. Stairs are designed like a:

a. slab
b. beam
c. column
d. footing

176. Landings are designed like what type of slab?

a. overhanging slab
b. flat slab
c. simply supported slab
d. cantilevered slab
Figure 10 - Stair
Figure 11 – Mat Footing

177. The space between the column and the flooring that is filled with 12-mm thick Filler is called:
a. contraction joint
b. construction joint
c. void
d. isolation gap

178. The bottom bars of the mat footing has two layers. The lowest layer is made of what rebars?
a. 122-16 mm Ø
b. 120-16 mm Ø
c. 130-16mm Ø both ways
d. 240-12 mm Ø
179. The overall depth of the mat footing in Figure 11 is:
a. 500 mm
b. 600 mm
c. 300 mm
d. 240 mm

180. In Figure 11, how many columns are there that required mat footing?
a. 20
b. 16
c. 5
d. 6

181. The minimum bar diameter for footings is:

a. 12mm Ø
b. 16mm Ø
c. 10mm Ø
d. 20mm Ø

182. The Footing Tie Beam (FTB) in Figure 11 has an overall depth of:
a. 500 mm
b. 550 mm
c. 600 mm
d. 450 mm

183. The space between the mat footing and the tie beam is called expansion joint or:
a. contraction joint
b. construction joint
c. void
d. isolation gap

184. The minimum mat footing concrete cover shall be:

a.1 50 mm
b. 75 mm
c. 60 mm
d. 45 mm
 Figure 12 – Truss, T4

185. How many panels are there in the truss T4 in Figure 12 ?

a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40

186. The span length of the truss T4 in Figure 12 is:

a. 24 m
b. 25m
c. 26
d. 30

187. The strut indicated in the truss T4 are connected to columns to minimize deflection. Strut is what
type of support?
a. vertical support
b. simple support
c. reaction
d. lateral support

188. The top chord of the truss T4 is made of 2___ 100x100x8mm.

a. sheet
b. angles
c. channel
d. zee

189. Which is the correct size and shape of the middle web members in the truss T4?
a. L100x100x8.0mm
b. L50x50x6.0mm
c. L75x75x5.0mm
 d. L90x90x8.0mm

190. The truss T4 is:

a. cambered
b. deflected
c. unsymmetrical
d. symmetrical

191. Aside from struts connected to columns, the deflection of the truss T4 can also be minimized by
providing ____ to the truss:
a. camber
b. column at the midspan
c. beam at the midspan
d. tie rods

192. The recorded earthquake intensity depends on how far away from its center the observer is located.
Rating intensities from I to XII, it describes and rates earthquakes in terms of human reactions and
observations.
a. Earthquake Meter
b. Accelerograph
c. Rossi-Forrel Scale
d. Modified Mercalli Scale

193. It is a gradual change in strain under constant stress due to high temperature and/or repeated
pounding.
a. Creep
b. deformation
c. settlement
d. compression

194. This type is considered ______ if the framing assumes that the beam-column connections have
sufficient rigidity to hold virtually the original angles and positions.
a. Semi-Rigid Frame
b. Simple Frame
c. Braced Frame
d. Rigid Frame

195. The modulus of elasticity of a structural steel is:

a. Es = 200GPa
b. Es = 250GPa
c. Es = 100GPa
d. Es = 200MPa

196. In pin connected tension members, the pin diameter shall not be less than ____ times the eyebar
width.
a. 1.0
b. 3/4
c. ½
d. 7/8
197. These are used to fasten together components of built-up members using fusion in a controlled
atmosphere in a triangular fashion.
a. Fillet welding
b. bolting
c. connections
d. combination

198. It is the average of the roof eave height and the height to the highest point on the roof surface,
except that, for roof angles of less than or equal to 10°, the mean roof height shall be the roof eave.
a. Total Height
b. Mean Roof Height
c. Building Height
d. Height

199. The Importance Factor for Essential Facilities is:

a. 1.25
b. 1.0
c. 1.5
d. 2.0

200. It is a structure having all walls at least 80% open.

a. Open Building
b. Low Rise Building
c. Enclosed Building
d. Flexible Building

201. It is flat, unobstructed areas exposed to wind flowing over open water for a distance of at least 2
kilometers. This exposure shall apply only to those buildings and other structures exposed to the
wind coming from the water.
a. Exposure A
b. Exposure B
c. Exposure C
d. Exposure D