B

JPT REVIEW CENTER INC STRUCTURAL ENGR

Bottom Main bars Bottom Deformed
Bars MASANGKAY 3m
ARCHITECTURAL PREBOARD EXAMINATION

I Structural Terminologies

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1. A design in which the tension capacity of the tension steel
is greater 5m
than the combined compression capacity of
the concrete and the compression steel. This design is more
dangerous due to possibility of abrupt collapse in the
reinforced concrete structure.
a. Working stress design
b. Balanced design
c. Under reinforced
d. Over-reinforced

2. Occupancies and structures necessary for surgery and

emergency treatment areas.
a. Essential facilities
b. Hazardous facilities
c. Special occupancy
d. Standard occupancy

3. This consists of the weight of all materials and other fixed or

permanent loads including temporary and imposed loads,
movable loads and occupants.
a. Dead Load
b. Live
c. Soil Pressure
d. Gravity Load
JPT REVIEW CENTER INC STRUCTURAL ENGR
MASANGKAY
4. A wall design to resist the lateral displacement of soil or other
materials.
a. Shear wall
b. Bearing wall
c. Retaining wall
d. Exterior wall

5. It is a horizontal or nearly horizontal system acting to transmit

lateral forces to the vertical-resisting elements, including the
horizontal bracing systems.
a. Diaphragm
b. Slab
 c. Dual System
d. Scaffolding

6. It is one in which the lateral stiffness is less than 70% of the

stiffness of the story above.
a. Soft story
b. Weak story
c. Story drift
d. Story shear

7. It is one in which the story strength is less than 80% of the

story above.
a. Soft story
b. Weak story
c. Story drift
d. Story shear

8. It is the secondary effect on shears, axial forces and moments

of frame members due to the action of the vertical induced by
horizontal displacement of the structure resulting from
various loading.
a. After shock
b. Lateral deflection
c. Camber
d. P-Delta Effect

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9. It is an artificial stone derived from a mixture of properly
proportioned amount of hydraulic cement, fine aggregates,
coarse aggregates and water, with or without admixtures.
a. Reinforced concrete
b. Concrete
c. Precast concrete
d. Masonry
JPT REVIEW CENTER INC STRUCTURAL ENGR
10. A material MASANGKAY
other than aggregate, water,or hydraulic cement
used as an ingredient of concrete and added to concrete before
or during its mixing to modify its properties.
a. Inert materials
b. Accelerator
c. Waterproofing
d. Admixture

11. The art and craft of building and fabricating in stone, clay,
 brick, or concrete block. It also refers generally to
construction of poured concrete, reinforced or unreinforced.
a. Masonry
b. Concreting
c. Building construction
d. Fabrication

12. Beam supporting materials above opening of windows and

doors:
a. Girder
b. Girt
c. Tie Beam
d. Lintel Beam

13. It is the ability of a material to be stretch without failure.

a. Malleability
b. Elasticity
c. Creep
d. Ductility

14. The sharp bending or sharp buckling when a column is

loaded heavily is called:
a. Sagging
b. Strengthening
c. Crippling
d. Elongation

15. Usual failure of intermediate concrete column:

a. Rupture
b. Crushing
c. Buckling
d. Crushing and Buckling

16. In materials science, it (sometimes called cold flow) is the

tendency of a solid material to move slowly or deform
permanently under the influence of persistent mechanical
stresses. It can occur as a result of long-term exposure to high
levels of stress that are still below the yield strength of the
material. Associated with high temperature.
a. Crack
b. Rupture
c. Yield
d. Creep
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17. Reinforcing bars put in contact to act as a unit is called:
a. Temperature bars
b. Tendons
c. Bundled bars
d. Bottom bars

18. A very common and important structural element, are

constructed to provide flat, useful surfaces. It is a horizontal
structural component, with top and bottom surfaces parallel
or near so. The depth is very small compared to its span.
a. Diaphragm
b. Slab
c. Mat footing
d. Footing

19. The stirrups resist the vertical and diagonal tensions in a

beam. What is the other function of stirrups?
a. Resist flexure
b. Hold longitudinal bars in place
c. Serve as temperature bars
d. Resist shrinkage

20. Honey comb in concrete can be limited by the:

a. Use of admixture
b. Use of chemical
c. Use of concrete vibrator
d. Use of compactor

21. Effects of earthquake is severe at the location of:

a. Near bodies of water
b. Ravines
c. Fault lines
d. Seismicity

22. Ties are used for what type of structural elements?

a. Slabs
b. Beams
c. Columns
d. Footings

23. What do you call a column that is not aligned to a lower

floor column?
 a. Planted
b. Eccentric
c. Floating
d. Unaligned

24. It is a method of prestressing in which prestressing

reinforcement is tensioned before concrete is cast.
a. Pre-Tensioning
b. Post Tensioning
c. Precast Concrete
d. Prestressed Concrete

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25. It is a frame in which beams, slabs, columns, and joints resist
forces predominantly shear, and axial force; Beams or slabs
are predominantly horizontal or nearly horizontal; Columns
are predominantly vertical or nearly vertical.
a. Chevron
b. Dual System
c. Moment Frame
d. Building Frame

26. The failure of a base when heavily loaded columns strike a

hole through it is due to:
a. Flexural stress failure
b. Single shear failure
c. Punching Shear failure
d. Crippling

27. The shear stress at the surface of a reinforcing bar which

prevents relative movement between the bar and the
surrounding concrete. It is also defined as the force adhesion
per unit area of contact between two bonded surfaces is:
a. Bond stress
b. Axial stress
c. Hydrostatic Pressure
d. Adhesive stress

28. It is a reinforcement used in beams to resist shear and torsion

stresses in a structural member; typically, deformed bars,
deformed wires, or welded wire reinforcement either single
leg or bent into L, U or rectangular shapes and located
perpendicular to or at an angle to longitudinal reinforcement.
For tied columns it is called "tie”.
 a. Stirrup
b. Tie
c. Development length
d. Crosstie

29. What is the temporary force exerted by a device that

introduce tension into a pre-stressing tendons?
a. Jacking force
b. Pre-stressing force
c. Tensile force
d. Driving force

30. It is a concrete used for structural purposes, including plain

and reinforced concrete.
a. Masonry
b. Reinforced concrete
c. Concrete
d. Structural concrete

31. In geotechnical engineering, it is defined as the vertical

movement of the ground, generally caused be changes in
stresses within the earth. ... and is most likely to occur when
increased vertical stresses are applied to the ground on or
above soft or loose soil strata.
a. Settlement
b. Creep
c. Compaction
d. Densification

32. The ability of soil to allow water to flow through it.

a. Permeability
b. Seepage
c. Capillarity
d. Osmosis

33. Slump test is done in fresh concrete in order primarily to

determine:
a. Workability
b. Water content
c. Elasticity
d. Rigidity
34. This has the effect of delaying the onset of hardening and

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reducing the rate of hydration process in concrete:
a. Additives
b. Accelerator
c. Air entraining agent
d. Retarder

35. Inert materials in concrete which occupy more than 75% of

the volume of the hardened concrete:
a. Crushed Rocks
b. Sand
c. Gravel
d. Aggregates

36. The wall that supports vertical loads:

a. Load-Bearing wall
b. Shear wall
c. Retaining wall
d. CHB wall

37. It is a formed, sawed, or tooled groove in a concrete

structure to create a weakened plane and regulate the location
of cracking resulting from the dimensional change of different
parts of the structure.
a. Contraction Joint
b. Construction Joint
c. Seismic Gap
d. Cold Joint

38. It is the length of embedded reinforcement required to

develop the design strength of reinforcement at a critical
section.
a. Development length
b. Dowel
c. Hook
d. Splice

39. It is a method of pre-stressing in which tendons are

tensioned after concrete has hardened.
a. Pre-Stressed Concrete
b. Pre-Tensioning
c. Post Tensioning
d. Precast Concrete
40. It is a material encasing prestressing reinforcement to
prevent bonding of the prestressing reinforcement with the
surrounding concrete, to provide corrosion protection, and to
contain the corrosion inhibiting coating.
a. Anti-rust
b. Shear cap

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c. Sheathing
d. Cover

41. Working stress refers to the actual stress developed in a

material under a given load; while the
maximum safe stress that a material can withstand is referred
to:
a. Tensile stress
b. Total stress
c. Flexural stress
d. Allowable stress

42. It is the stress induced as a result of restrained deformations

due to change in temperature:
a. Thermal stress
b. Strain
c. Creep
d. Yield stress

43. It is a continuously wound reinforcement in the form of a

cylindrical helix.
a. Lateral ties
b. Crossties
c. Longitudinal bars
d. Spiral reinforcement

44. A point within a beam or column where no moment is

developed and a point of a curve at which a change in the
direction of curvature occurs, is called:
a. Midpoint
b. Inflection Point
c. Point of Zero Shear
d. Middle third

45. A long wall or embankment built to prevent flooding from

the bodies of water.
 a. Retaining wall
b. Dam
c. Dike
d. Gabion wall

46. It is a form of bracing where a pair of braces located either

above or below a beam terminates at a
single point within the clear beam span, is called:
a. Chevron
b. Diaphragm
c. Bracing system
d. Diagonal bracing

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47. It is an upright compression member with a ratio of
unsupported height to average least lateral
dimension not exceeding of 3:
a. Pedestal
b. Column
c. Pier
d. Pile

48. It is a separation of an existing concrete slab from a new

concrete slab or wall. A piece of expansion joint (usually ½”
wide and made of cork or recycled fiber material) is placed
against the existing concrete slab and when the new concrete
slab is poured. This joint separates the two slabs. ​
a. Isolation joint
b. Construction joint
c. Seismic gap
d. Distance

49. It is used to fasten together components of a built-up

member, such as a plate girder, and to make
connections between steel members using fusion in a
controlled atmosphere and requires more skilled
labor.
a. Bolting
b. Nailing
c. Splicing
d. Welding

50. Knot in woods or timbers are what type of defect?

 a. Natural defect
b. Processing defect
c. Handling defect
d. Over drying defect

51. The minimum bend diameter for 10-mm through 25-mm-Ø

deformed bars is:
a. 6db
​
b. 8db

c. 10d b

d. 12d b

52. The maximum spacing of spirals is:

a. 25mm
b. 40mm
c. 50mm
d. 75mm

53. The strength reduction factor, Ø for flexure is:

a. 0.7
b. 0.75
c. 0.8
d. 0.9

54. The minimum size of slab main reinforcement is:

a. 10mm
b. 12mm
c. 16mm
d. 20mm

55. For One Way Slab, the ratio of Width to Length, m, is:
a. m < 0.5
b. m = 0.5
c. m > 0.5
d. m = 1.0

56. For Two Way Slab, the Ratio of Width to Length, m, is:
a. m ≤ 0.5
 b. m = 0.5

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c. m ≥ 0.5 ​
d. m = 1.0

57. The minimum reinforcement for tied column is:

a. 2-16mm Ø
b. 3-16mm Ø
c. 4-16mm Ø ​
d. 6-16mm Ø

58. The minimum reinforcement for spiral column is:

a. 2-16mm Ø
b. 3-16mm Ø
c. 4-16mm Ø
d. 6-16mm Ø

59. ASTM steel with yield stress of 36000 psi has a symbol of:
a. A36
b. A360 ​
c. A48
d. A36000

60. The thickness of one-way slab should never be less than:

a. 50mm
b. 75mm
c. 90mm
d. 100mm

61. Slabs not exposed to weather and not in contact with the
ground must have a minimum clear cover of:
a. 50mm
b. 40mm
c. 25mm
d. 20mm

62. The Coarse Aggregates in concrete must be larger than but

not to exceed nominal size prescribed in Section 403.4.2 of
NSCP:
a. 3/16 size 1 inch
b. ¼ inch
c. 1inch
 d. 2 inches

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63. The strength of concrete at 28 day is 3000 psi. This value
th

is the same as:

a. 17.5 MPa ​
b. 21 MPa
c. 20.67 MPa
d. 25.75 MPa.

64. Grade 60 Steel-Reinforcement has a yield stress of 275.8

MPa. This stress is the same as:
a. 60 ksi
b. 20 ksi ​
c. 60 MPa
d. 60,000 MPa

65. Shear and Torsion strength reduction factor Ø, is:

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a. 0.7
b. 0.75
c. 0.85
d. 0.9

66. ASTM Type I Cement is generally for:

a. General purpose
b. low-heat
c. high-early-strength
d. low hydration process

67. No.8 deformed bar has a diameter of:

a. 10mm
b. 12mm
c. 20mm
d. 25mm

68. Concrete cast against and permanently exposed to earth

must a minimum concrete cover of:
a. 40mm
b. 50mm
c. 75mm
d. 100mm
69. Lap splices for uncoated deformed bar or wire must not be
less than the larger of 48d and___.
b

a. 100mm
b. 150mm
c. 200mm
d. 300 mm

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70. Deformed bars larger than ___ mm should not be bundled.
​a. 34
​b. 36
​c. 32
​d. 38

71. The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in a layer

shall be d but not less than ___:
b

​a. 40mm
​b. 50mm
​c. 25mm
​d. 100mm

72. The maximum number of reinforcement for bundled bars is:

a. 2 ​

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b. 3 ​
c. 4
d. 5

73. A simply supported beam, L meters long, carrying a

uniformly distributed load of w (N/m) throughout the span,
has a maximum moment of:
a. 1/8 w L ​ 2

b. ½ wL ​
c. ½ w L ​ 2

d. w L 2

74. Minimum length of Class A lap for tension Lap Splices

shall be ___, but not less than 300 mm:
​a. l
d
​ ​
​b. 1.5 l ​ d
​
​c. 2 l d
​
​d. 3 l ​
d

75. Type of welding used to fuse metal studs or similar parts to

other steel parts by the heat of an electric arc. At the end of
 the welded part the stud is equipped with a ceramic ferrule,
which contains flux which also partly shields the weld when
molten.
a. Electrogas welding
b. Stud welding
c. Electroslag welding ​
d. Submerged arc welding

76. Where can we stop pouring ready mixed concrete on beams

if pouring cannot be done in one setting?
a. At L/2
b. At L/3
c. At the shear point
d. At the zero moment

77. What do you call 2 or more materials that are combined

together?
a. Laminated
b. Reinforced
c. Composite
d. Combination

78. What forces does a Curtain Wall resist?

a. Own weight
b. Wind Load
c. Earthquake Load
d. Own weight

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79. Web reinforcements that resist vertical and diagonal
tensions in a beam and hold the main rebars in place.
a. ties
b. spirals
c. stirrups
d. temperature bars

80. Will most likely fail due to buckling

a. Short column
b. Long column
c. Composite column
d. Planted column

81. Distance measured from extreme compression fiber to

centroid of tension reinforcement, is:
 a. eminent depth

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b. effective depth
c. critical depth
d. nominal depth

82. Loop of reinforcing bars or wires enclosing longitudinal

reinforcement in tied columns.
a. stirrups
b. hoops
c. ties ​
d. spirals

83. Element, usually vertical, used to enclose or separate spaces

and also at times, serve as structural member.
a. wall
b. slab ​
c. column
d. rebar

84. The Occupancy Importance Factor, I , is 1.0 except for the

p

Hazardous Facilities and Essential Facilities, which is:

​a. 1.0
​d. 2.5

​b. 1.5
​c. 2.0

85. Inert material that is mixed with hydraulic cement and water
to produce concrete.
a. admixture
b. slag
c. aggregate
d. escombro

86. In spirally reinforced concrete column, the clear spacing

between spirals (pitch) shall not be larger than 75mm and shall
not be less than:
a. 100mm
b. 75mm
c. 50mm
d. 25mm

87. What is the method of introducing a jacking force in which

tendons are tensioned after the concrete has hardened enough to

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sustain this temporary force?
a. Prestressing
b. Pre-tensioning
c. Post tensioning
d. Precasting

88. What is the weight in kilogram of a 1-meter long No.4

deformed bar?
a. 1.584
b. 1.255
c. 1.005
d. 0.888

89. The intensity of force per unit area is called:

a. stress
b. strain

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c. impact
d. pressure

90. This refers to the length of reinforcement or mechanical

anchor or hook or combination thereof beyond point of zero
stress in reinforcement.
a. development length
b. reinforcement length
c. end anchorage
d. prestress length ​

91. It is a 3-second gust speed at 10 meters above the ground in

Exposure C and associated with an annual probability of 0.02 of
being equaled or exceeded (50 year mean recurrence interval).
a. Basic Wind Speed
b. Annual wind speed
c. normal wind speed
d. critical wind speed

92. It is defined as displacement of one level relative to the

level above or below it.
 a. deflection
b. story displacement
c. story motion
d. story drift

93. Splices of deformed bars shall be staggered at least ____

and in such a manner as to develop at every section at least
twice the calculated tensile force at that section but not less than
140 MPa for total area of reinforcement provided.
a. 500mm
b. 600mm
c. 700mm

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d. 800mm

94. It is a continuous reinforcing bar having a seismic hook at

one end and a hook of not less than 90 degrees with at least a
six-diameter extension at the other end. The hook shall engage
peripheral longitudinal bars. The 90-degree hooks of two
successive ties of this type, engaging longitudinal bars shall be
alternated end for end.
a. stirrup
b. crosstie
c. splice
d. anchorage

95. The minimum thickness required by Code for a solid

Cantilevered Slab shall be the larger of 75mm and:
a. length/10 ​

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b. length/20 ​
c. length/24 ​
d. length/ 28

96. It is a permanent roofed structure attached to and supported

by the building and projecting over public right-of-way.
a. Marquee
b. Mean roof
c. Canopy
d. Trusses

97. For non-prestressed concrete the minimum concrete cover

for beams and columns not exposed to weather and not in
contact with the earth is:
a. 20mm
 b. 25mm
c. 40mm
d. 50mm

98. The minimum tie or hoop diameter for bundled bars is:
a. 6mm
b. 10mm
c. 12mm
d. 16mm

99. For cast-in-place construction, size (diameter) of spirals

shall not be less than ___ for 16mm through 32mm longitudinal
bars.
a. 10mm
b. 12mm
c. 16mm
d. 20mm

100. For Bars 28mm, 32mm & 36mm diameter, the minimum
bend shall not be less than:
a. 6db

b. 8d b

c. 10d b
​
d. 12d b

​Figure 1

GL
 A

​
101. A in Figure 1 is called:
a. Development length
b. Column ties
c. Main rebars

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d. Lateral ties

102. B in Figure 1 is called:

a. Development length
b. Column bars
c. Main rebars
d. Lateral ties

103. Figure 1 shows that the depth of excavation is:

a. 3.0 meters
b. 3.15 meters
c. 3.5 meters
d. 4.5 meter

104. The Footing in Figure 1 is:

a. Isolated
b. Trapezoidal
c. Combined Footing
d. Strap Footing

105. The columns in Figure 1 are:

​a. Tied columns
​b. Rectangular columns
​c. Spiral columns
 ​d. Wide Flange

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Figure 2
​ ​106. How many main reinforcing bars are used in C-1
in Figure 2?
​ ​a. 4-16mmØ
​ ​b. 4-20mmØ
​ ​c. 4
d. 5

​ ​107. How many main reinforcing bars are used in C-2

in Figure 2?
​ a. 6-16mmØ
​ b. 6-20mmØ
c. 6
​ d. 7

​ ​108. How many main reinforcing bars are used in C-3

in Figure 2?
​ a. 8-16mmØ
​ b. 8-20mmØ
c. 8
​ d. 9

​109. Columns in Figure 2 are what type of columns?

​ a. Composite
b. Square
c. Spiral
d. Tied

​ ​110. The minimum bars for tied columns per NSCP

is:
​ a. 4-16mmØ
b. 4-20mmØ
​ c. 4
​ d. 5
 4m 6m

1.75m
S-1 S-4

S-2 S-5 2m

S-3 S-6 4m

Figure 3: 2 Floor Plan

nd

111. S-1 in Figure 3 is:

​a. One-Way Slab
​b. Two-Way Slab
​c. Flat Slab
​d. Ground Slab

112. S-2 in Figure 3 is:

​a. One-Way Slab
​b. Two-Way Slab
​c. Flat Slab
​d. Ground Slab
113. S-3 in Figure 3 is:

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​a. One-Way Slab
​b. Two-Way Slab
​c. Flat Slab
​d. Ground Slab

114. S-4 in Figure 3 is:

​a. One-Way Slab
​b. Two-Way Slab
​c. Flat Slab
​d. Ground Slab

115. S-5 in Figure 3 is:

​a. One-Way Slab
​b. Two-Way Slab
​c. Flat Slab
​d. Ground Slab

116. S-6 in Figure 3 is:

​a. One-Way Slab
​b. Two-Way Slab
​c. Flat Slab
​d. Ground Slab

117. The minimum thickness for S-1 shall not be less than
100mm and shall be at least___, whichever is larger:
a. L/20
b. L/24
c. L/28
d. L/10

118. The minimum thickness for S-3 shall not be less than
100mm and shall be at least:
a. L/20 ​
b. L/24 ​
c. L/28 ​
d. P/180

119. The minimum thickness for S-4 shall neither be less than
L/24 mm nor shall be less than:
a. 90mm
b. 75mm
c. 100mm
 d. 110mm

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120. The minimum concrete cover for S-1 shall be at least ____
if not exposed to weather and not in contact with the ground:
a. 50mm
b. 10mm
c. 20mm
d. 25mm

121. What do you call the top bars for S-1?

a. Temperature bars
b. Main bars
c. Tendons
d. Crossties

122. Per NSCP, the minimum diameter of reinforcements for S-

6 both top and bottom bars, is:

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a. 50mm
b. 10mm
c. 12mm
d. 25mm

123. Slabs are designed per

a. linear meter
b. square foot ​
c. cubic meter
d. cubic foot

124. Slabs with no supporting beams are called:

a. One-Way Slab
b. Two-Way Slab
c. Flat Slab
d. Ground Slab

125. Slabs are structural members subjected to

a. Torsion
b. Flexural stress
c. Tensile stress ​
d. Shearing stress
 F
Figure 4
igu
​ ​ ​
re
4
​ ​ ​126. From Figure 4, which is more dangerous
F
during an earthquake?
igu
a. Rupture
re
b. Shaking
4 c. Sublimation
d. None of the above
127. Which from Figure 4 gives the bigger
chance of survival?
a. Rupture
b. Shaking
c. Sublimation
d. None of the above
128. Which is the most probable consequence of
fault during earthquake?
a. Rupture
b. Shaking
c. Sublimation
d. None of the above
129. It is a sudden undulation of a portion of the
earth’s crust with hypocenter and epicenter whose
magnitude ranges from 1 to 12.
a. Earthquake
b. Shaking
c. Sublimation
d. tectonic
130. The risk of rupture during earthquake is
high at:
a. Volcano
b. Zone 1
c. Fault line
d. Mountain

Figure 5: Floor Framing Plan

 Y
A ​6m B ​ 8m ​ C ​ 6m D
​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ 3

​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​4m

​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ 2

​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​4m

​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ 1 ​ X

131. From Figure 5, what is the distance between 3A and 3B?

​a. 4m
​b. 6m ​
​c. 8m ​

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​d. 20m

132. From Figure 5, what is the distance between 2B and 2C?

​a. 4m
​b. 6m ​
​c. 8m ​
​d. 20m

133. From Figure 5, what is the distance between 1A and 1D?

​a. 4m ​
​b. 6m ​
​c. 8m
​d. 20m

134. From Figure 5, what is the distance between 2C and 2D?

​a. 4m ​
​b. 6m
​c. 8m
​d. 20m

135. From Figure 5, what is the distance between 2A and 3B?

​a. 7.21m
​b. 10.2m
 ​c. 8.5m
​d. 20m

If all columns in Figure 5 along X-axis is 500mm and along

Y-axis, 300mm and the distance between columns is taken
center-to-center (items 136-140):

136. What is the clear distance of beam BC?

a. 7.0m
b. 7.5m
c. 8m
d. 8.5m

137. What is the clear distance of beam CD?

a. 7.0m ​
b. 7.5m ​
c. 5.0m ​
d. 5.5m

138. What is the clear distance of beam 1A and 1B?

a. 7.0m
b. 7.5m ​
c. 5.0m ​
d. 5.5m

139. What is the clear distance of beam 1B and 1C?

a. 7.0m
b. 7.5m ​
c. 5.0m ​
d. 5.5m

140. What is the clear distance of beam 1D and 2D?

a. 3.70m
b. 4.5m ​
c. 5.0m ​
d. 5.5m
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Figure 6: Reinforced Concrete Beam

A
B
C

141. The stirrups or hoops, A in Figure 6 is also termed as:

a. Main bars
b. Tendons
c. Ties ​
d. Web reinforcement

142. What do you call the rebars, B in Figure 6?

a. Main bars
b. Tendons
c. Ties ​
d. Web reinforcement

143. The minimum concrete cover, C in Figure 6 if the beam is

not exposed to weather and not in contact with the earth shall be:
a. 25mm
b. 40mm
c. 50mm
d. 75mm

144. The minimum concrete cover, C in Figure 6 if the beam is

in contact with the earth shall be:
a. 25mm
b. 40mm
c. 50mm
d. 75mm

145. If the main reinforcement in Figure 6 is bundled bars, the

size of the stirrups/hoops shall be:
 a. 20mmØ
b. 12mmØ
c. 16mmØ ​
d. 10 mmØ

146. Rebars larger than ____, shall not be bundled:

a. 28mmØ
b. 32mmØ
c. 36mmØ
d. 34 mmØ

147. If the beam in Figure 6 is simply supported carrying a

uniformly distributed load w in N/m in a span length of L in
meters, the maximum deflection is:
a. δ = (5wL ) / (384EI)
4

b. δ = (WL ) / (48EI)
4

c. δ = (WL ) / (8EI)
3

d. δ = (WL ) / (4EI)
2

148. If the beam in Figure 6 is simply supported carrying a

uniformly distributed load w in N/m in a spam length of L in
meters, the deflection at the support is:
a. minimum
b. 10mm
c. 50mm
d. zero

149. If the beam in Figure 6 is simply supported carrying a

uniformly distributed load w in N/m in a spam length of L in
meters, the maximum deflection is at:
a. Supports
b. Midspan
c. L/3
d. L/4

150. The top bars in the beam in Figure 6 is called:

a. Development length
b. Dowels
c. Temperature bars
d. Main bars
​

Figure 7 – Combined Footing Details

151. In Figure 7, which of the following footings is

COMBINED?
​a. CF1
​b. CF2
​c. CF3 ​
​d. All the above

152. The thickness of the gravel base in the combined footings

in Figure 7 is:
​a. 4 inches
​b. 5 inches
​c. 6 inches
​d. 8 inches

153. The size of footing reinforcements is:

a. 12 mm Ø
b.16 mm Ø
c. 20 mm Ø
 d. 10 mm Ø

154. The overall depth of CF2 is:

a. 500 mm
b. 400mm
c. 220 mm
d. 120 mm

155. Given the scale in the Plan Details in Figure 7, the depth of
excavation for CF1 from FFL is:
a. 4000 mm
b.3000 mm
c. 2000 mm
d. 1000 mm

156. CF3 in Figure 7 is a:

a. Square footing
b. Rectangular footing
c. Trapezoidal
d. Round

157. The minimum concrete cover for CF1 is:

a. 150 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 25 mm
d. 75mm

158. The top bars of CF3 in Figure 7 is made of:

a. 6-12 mm Ø top bars
b. 6-16 mm Ø both ways
c. 6-16mm Ø
d. 6-10 mm Ø

159. All columns shown in Figure 7 are:

a. Square
b. Rectangular
c. Trapezoidal
d. Tied columns

160. The size of column in CF1 in Figure 7 is:

 a. 600 x 600
b.300 x 300
c. 200 x 200
d. 100 x 100

Reference Figure 8, which is an enlarged Plan & Section of

Column Footing 1 (CF1), please answer items 161-165. See
Figure 8 next page.

161. How many bottom bars are there in the CF1 in the
transverse direction?
a. 15-16 mm Ø, one way
b. 12-16 mm Ø
c. 30-16mm Ø both ways
d. 24-16 mm Ø

162. How many topmost bars are there in the CF1 in the
transverse direction?
a. 15-16 mm Ø
b. 12-16 mm Ø
c. 30-16mm Ø
d. 24-16 mm Ø

163. The distance of Lower Ground FFL from the bottom of the

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footing is:
a. 1.65 m
b. 400 mm
c. 1.50 m
d. 800 mm

164. The Lower Ground Floor Slab has a thickness of:

a. 100 mm
b. 125 mm
c. 150 mm
d. 200 mm

165. The Footing Tie Beam (FTB) should have a minimum

concrete cover of:
a. 50 mm
b. 75 mm
c. 150 mm
d. 200 mm
 Figure 8 – CF1 Plan & Section

Figure 9 – Truss (T2)

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166. The span length of the truss T2 in Figure 9 is:
a. 9.80 m
b. 7.50 m
c. 15.0 m
d. 20.0 m

167. The truss in Figure 9 is made of what structural materials?

a. plastic
b. steel
c. timber
d. concrete

168. Each panel at the left portion of the line of strut in the truss
in Figure 9 measures:
a. 4350 mm
b. 7500 mm
c. 1505.8 mm
d. 1087.5 mm

169. What is the size of the web members to the right of the
strut in Figure 9?
a. 50 x 50 mm
b. 75 x 75 mm
c. 150 x 150 mm
 d. 200 mm

170. The arrow A points to what particular part of roofing?

a. beam
b. corbel
c. gutter
d. downspout

Figure 10 shows the Section of Stair No. 2 for questions 171-

175.

171. The largest diameter of reinforcing bar used in the stair is:
a. 12mm Ø
b. 16mm Ø
c. 10mm Ø
d. 20mm Ø

172. The smallest diameter of main reinforcing bar used in the

stair is:
a. 12mm Ø
b. 16mm Ø
c. 10mm Ø
d. 20mm Ø

173. The stair shown in Figure 10 specifies that the building is a

____ -storey building:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6

174. Stairs are designed like a:

a. slab
b. beam
c. column
d. footing
A
175. Landings are designed like what type of slab?
a. overhanging slab
b. flat slab
c. simply supported slab
d. cantilevered slab
Figure 11 – Mat Footing
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176. The space between the column and the flooring that is
filled with 12-mm thick Filler is called:
​a. contraction joint
​b. construction joint
​c. void
​d. isolation gap

177. The bottom bars of the mat footing has two layers. The
lowest layer is made of what rebars?
a. 122-16 mm Ø
b. 120-16 mm Ø
c. 130-16mm Ø both ways
d. 240-12 mm Ø

Figure 10 - Stair

178. The overall depth of the mat footing in Figure 11 is:

a. 500 mm
b. 600 mm
c. 300 mm
d. 240 mm
179. In Figure 11, how many columns are there that required
mat footing?
a. 20
b. 16
c. 5
d. 6

180. The minimum bar diameter for footings is:

a. 12mm Ø
b. 16mm Ø
c. 10mm Ø
d. 20mm Ø

181. The Footing Tie Beam (FTB) in Figure 11 has an overall

depth of:
a. 650 mm
b. 550 mm
c. 600 mm
d. 450 mm

182. The space between the mat footing and the tie beam is
called expansion joint or:
a. contraction joint
b. construction joint
c. void
d. isolation gap

183. The minimum mat footing concrete cover shall be:

a.1 50 mm
b. 75 mm
c. 60 mm
d. 45 mm
 Figure 12 – Truss, T4

184. How many panels are there in the truss T4 in Figure 12 ?

a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40

185. The span length of the truss T4 in Figure 12 is:

a. 24 m
b. 25m
c. 26
d. 30

186. The strut indicated in the truss T4 are connected to

columns to minimize deflection. Strut is what type of support?
a. vertical support
b. simple support
c. reaction
d. lateral support

187. The top chord of the truss T4 is made of 2___

100x100x8mm.
a. sheet
b. angles
c. channel
d. zee

188. Which is the correct size and shape of the middle web
members in the truss T4?
a. L100x100x8.0mm
b. L50x50x6.0mm
c. L75x75x5.0mm
d. L90x90x8.0mm

189. The truss T4 is:

a. cambered
b. deflected
 c. unsymmetrical

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d. symmetrical

190. Aside from struts connected to columns, the deflection of

the truss T4 can also be minimized by providing ____ to the
truss:
a. camber
b. column at the midspan
c. beam at the midspan
d. tie rods

191. The recorded earthquake intensity depends on how far

away from its center the observer is located. Rating intensities
from I to XII, it describes and rates earthquakes in terms of
human reactions and observations.
a. Earthquake Meter
b. Accelerograph

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c. Rossi-Forrel Scale
d. Modified Mercalli Scale

192. It is a gradual change in strain under constant stress due to

high temperature and/or repeated pounding.
a. Creep
b. deformation
c. settlement
d. compression

193. This type is considered ______ if the framing assumes that

the beam-column connections have sufficient rigidity to hold
virtually the original angles and positions.
a. Semi-Rigid Frame
b. Simple Frame
c. Braced Frame
d. Rigid Frame

194. The modulus of elasticity of a structural steel is:

a. E = 200GPa
s

b. E = 250GPa
s

c. E = 100GPa
s

d. E = 200MPa
s

195. In pin connected tension members, the pin diameter shall

not be less than ____ times the eyebar width.
 a. 1.0
b. 3/4
​c. ½
​d. 7/8

196. These are used to fasten together components of built-up

members using fusion in a controlled atmosphere in a triangular
fashion.
a. Fillet welding
b. bolting
c. connections
d. combination

197. It is the average of the roof eave height and the height to
the highest point on the roof surface, except that, for roof angles
of less than or equal to 10°, the mean roof height shall be the
roof eave.
a. Total Height
b. Mean Roof Height
c. Building Height
d. Height

198. The Importance Factor for Essential Facilities is:

a. 1.25
b. 1.0
c. 1.5
d. 2.0

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199. It is a structure having all walls at least 80% open.
a. Open Building
b. Low Rise Building
c. Enclosed Building
d. Flexible Building

200. It is flat, unobstructed areas exposed to wind flowing over

open water for a distance of at least 2 kilometers. This exposure
shall apply only to those buildings and other structures exposed
to the wind coming from the water.
a. Exposure A
b. Exposure B
c. Exposure C
d. Exposure D
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