Baghdad Tower Aerodrome Control Question Bank

Baghdad Tower

Question Bank -‐ Written or Oral Questions

Aerodrome Control (ADC)

Knowledge and Skills

1. Define the following term. ”Control Zone"
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified
upper limit.

2. Define the following term. " Transition level"
________________________________________________________
The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.

3. Define the following -‐ “Air-‐Taxing”
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
Movement of a helicopter above the surface of an aerodrome, normally in ground effect at a
ground speed normally less than 20 kt.

4. Define runway threshold.
___________________________________________________
The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing.

5. Where is the primary parking area for aircraft carrying hazardous cargo?
_______________________________________________________
Intersection of Taxiway "Whiskey" and "Papa"…nose to the east.

6. Instrument approach runways fall into two classifications. Name them:
________________________________________________
Non Precision approach runway (VOR/NDB/GPS/SRA)
________________________________________________
Precision approach runway (ILS/CATI/II/III)

7. What are the dimensions for the Baghdad Control Zone? (CTR)

_____________ Circle of 5 NM radius centered on the Airfield Reference Point (ARP)
_____________ SFC to 3000 Ft AMSL.

8. What helicopters are permitted to land at the CSH Pad?
__________________________ Medivac (Hospital/Ambulance flight)

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9. Name the four helicopter reporting points around ORBI.
______________ Dakota
______________ Tusk
______________ Warthog
______________ Austen

10. With reference to the illustration below, insert the VFR Helicopter reporting positions as per
the ORBI CTR?
DAKOTA

TUSK
15

33

WARTHOG
AUSTEN

11. What is the FAF for the ILS runway 33R?
________ GEBSE

12. What is the IAF for the ILS runway 33R?
________ SEBIE

13. What is the FAF for the ILS runway 15L?
________ PAPKE

14. What is the IAF for the ILS runway 15L?
________ RECOY

15. What are the published missed approach instructions for ILS RWY 33R?
_____________________ On the missed approach climb to 600 Ft;
_____________________ Then left climbing turn to 5300 Ft;
_____________________ Proceed via BGD VOR/DME R-‐225;
_____________________ to JILTU /BGD 22 DME and Hold.

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16. What are the published missed approach instructions for ILS RWY 15L?
_____________________ On the missed approach climb to 620 Ft;
_____________________ Then right climbing turn to 5300 Ft;

17. What is the standard missed approach instruction for ILS RWY 33R/15L as per LOA?
_____________________ RWY heading climb 3000 Ft
_____________________ RWY heading climb 3000 Ft

18. What are the published missed approach instructions for VOR RWY 33R?
_____________________ On the missed approach climbing left turn to 5300 Ft;

19. What are the published missed approach instructions for VOR RWY 15L?
_____________________ On the missed approach climbing right turn to 5300 Ft;

20. What type of aircraft is a BE30? Circle one i.e.
___________ Prop, Turbo-‐prop, jet?

21. Describe the airport maneuvering areas and exclusions…
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
Runways, Taxiways, other areas used for taxi, takeoff and landings excluding aprons, loading
ramps and parking areas.

22. What is the ORBI VOR designator?
_______ BGD

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23. State the following frequencies:

a. GND _____ 121.4MHZ
b. GND Stand-‐by _____ 121.7
c. TWR _____ 118.9
d. TWR Stand-‐by _____ 118.7
e. APP _____ 122.4
f. APP Stand-‐by _____ 128.2
g. ATIS 122.9 _____ 122.9
h. OREZ _____ 125.1

24. What position approves opposite direction arrivals and departures?
________________________ Aerodrome

25. Give the following Runway lenghts and width:

RWY 33R/15L – Length ___________ Width __________
4000m 60m

RWY 33L/15R – Length ___________ Width __________
3301m 45m

26. Which controller is allowed to approve intersection departures?
__________________________________ The Aerodrome Controller

27. Except for aircraft, Tower (ADC) shall place the “RUNWAY OCCUPIED” strip in the runway bay
whenever:

a. _______________________________ Vehicle/Pedestrian cleared to cross the runway
b. _______________________________ Vehicle/Equipment cleared onto the runway
c. _______________________________ Runway closed or released to another controller.

28. State the emergency frequencies.
_____________ VHF -‐ 121.5 MHZ
_____________ UHF -‐ 243 KHZ

29. What do the following transponder squawk codes indicate?
a. 7500 _________________ Hijack (Unlawful Interference)
b. 7600 _________________ Lost Communication (Radio failure)
c. 7700 _________________ Emergency

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30. Aerodrome control towers are responsible for alerting the rescue and fire fighting services
when?

a. _________________________________________________________________________
An aircraft accident has occurred on or in the vicinity of the aerodrome; or
b. _________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
Information is received that the safety of an aircraft which is or will come under the
jurisdiction of the aerodrome control tower may have or has been impaired; or
c. _________________________________________________________________________
Requested by the flight crew; or
d. _________________________________________________________________________
When otherwise deemed necessary or desirable.

31. Who is responsible to make all notifications required to civil and military emergency crash
responders when needed?

_______________ The Supervisor
32. What does the following light signal mean? Complete the following table:
FROM AERODROME CONTROL TO:

LIGHT SIGNAL
AIRCRAFT IN FLIGHT AIRCRAFT ON THE GROUND
STEADY GREEN Cleared to land Cleared for take-off
Give way to other aircraft &

STEADY RED Stop
continue circling
SERIES OF GREEN
Return for landing Cleared to taxi
FLASHES
SERIES OF RED
Aerodrome unsafe, do not land Taxi clear of landing area in use
FLASHES
SERIES OF WHITE Return to starting point on the

Land & proceed to the apron
FLASHES aerodrome

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33. Baghdad Tower is responsible for ensuring that any departures are authorized prior to
contacting BaghdadApproach for a departure release.

_________ True or False?

34. Baghdad ADC shall issue Departure Instructions to all IFR departing aircraft as specified by
Baghdad Sector prior to departure.


35. Two-‐minute separation is required if aircraft are to fly on tracks diverging by at least 45
degrees immediately after take-‐off.


36. Departing aircraft may be expedited by suggesting a take-‐off direction which is not into the
wind. It is the responsibility of the pilot-‐in-‐command of an aircraft to decide between
making such a take-‐off or waiting for take-‐off in a preferred direction.


37. When the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 m, special VFR flights may be authorized to:
enter a control zone for the purpose of landing, take off and depart from a control zone,
cross a control zone or operate locally within a control zone.


38. Light aircraft departing behind a Heavy aircraft from an intersection requires (two) 2
minutes wake turbulence separation?


39. The aerodrome elevation is 116 Ft AMSL?


40. Aircraft can be cleared for takeoff after an aircraft has already been cleared to land on the
same runway?


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41. As an Aerodrome controller in Baghdad you are allowed to use the Radar display (SDD) for
situational awareness?


42. As an Aerodrome controller in Baghdad you are allowed and authorised to use the Radar
display (SDD) for the control of aircraft and separation purposes?


43. In the interest of expediting traffic, a clearance for immediate take-‐off may be issued to an
aircraft before it enters the runway. On acceptance of such a clearance the aircraft shall taxi
out to the runway and take off in one continuous movement.


44. Take-‐off and initial climb phase:
That part of the flight from the start of take-‐off to 300 m (1 000 ft) above the elevation of the
FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or to the end of the climb in the other
cases.(FATO = Final approach and take-‐off area)


45. The letter of Agreement (LOA) outlines the air traffic control responsibilities, airspace and
coordination procedures, to be utilized by Baghdad Tower and Baghdad Sector.


46. Telephone identification will be “Baghdad Aerodrome“ and “Baghdad Approach“

_________ True or False? (“Baghdad Tower“)

47. VFR releases are not required.


48. IFR Arrivals -‐ Spacing from Baghdad Approach Sector between arrivals at touchdown shall
not be less than 8nm in trail unless otherwise coordinated.

_________ True or False? (7nm)

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49. Transfer of communications from Approach shall be prior to the arriving aircraft entering the
Baghdad Control Zone. Aircraft shall not be transferred prior to a 15nm final approach.


50. Aerodrome Control LATSI should be read in conjunction with the following documents:
ICAO Documents and Annexes, LOA, UTP, TOIs, POIs, AIP etc.


51. Transfer of control from Approach shall take place when the aircraft enters the Baghdad
Control Zone.


52. Military aircraft, State aircraft and UN flights are expected to complete a visual approach to
RWY33L/15R. Any deviation from this procedure requires verbal coordination or input in
line 4 of the datablock prior to 15nm from touchdown. Verbal coordination is required if
military aircraft, State aircraft or UN flights change the type of approach within 15nm from
touchdown.


53. If practicable, Baghdad Tower should instruct an IFR arrival executing a missed approach to
fly runway heading, climbing to 5300 feet. Reference the current LOA.

_________ True or False? (3000 Ft)

54. The pilot may elect to fly the published MAP. Baghdad Sector shall be responsible for
separating IFR arrivals from the published MAP.


55. Baghdad Tower shall be responsible for separating IFR departures from arriving aircraft
which are on final approach, or which have carried out a missed approach.


56. Baghdad Tower is responsible for separation between successive departures.

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57. Baghdad Tower shall obtain a departure release from Baghdad Sector for all IFR aircraft.


58. IFR Deparures: When more than one aircraft is released, the 5 minute release window
begins when the succeeding aircraft crosses the departure end of the runway.

_________ True or False? (Preceding aircraft)

59. IFR Departures: Transfer of communications and control shall occur simultaneously and will
be initiated by Baghdad ADC once the departing aircraft is separated from other aerodrome
traffic.


60. SVFR -‐ Baghdad Tower may authorise special VFR flights to operate within the control zone
when the visibility is less than 5km but greater than 1500m and ceiling is not less than 1500
feet.

61. Baghdad Approach is the approving authority for SVFR operating within the Baghdad
Control Zone.


62. SVFR releases are not required. Information on departing SVFR fixed wing aircraft shall be
verbally forwarded to Baghdad Sector.


63. Departures: When landlines are unserviceable and all alternate means of communications
have failed, Baghdad Tower shall not depart any IFR aircraft.

64. Baghdad Tower is not required to notify Baghdad Sector when emergency aircraft have
landed and the emergency has been terminated.


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65. What are the objectives of Air Traffic Control?

a. ________________________________________________________________________
Prevent collisions between aircraft,
b. ________________________________________________________________________
Prevent collisions between aircraft and vehicles and;
c. ________________________________________________________________________
Prevent collisions between aircraft and obstructions on the manoevering area.

66. The approach sequence shall be established in a manner which will facilitate arrival of the
maximum number of aircraft with the least average delay. Priority shall be given to which
aircraft?

a. _________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
An aircraft which anticipates being compelled to land because of factors affecting the
safe operation of the aircraft (engine failure, shortage of fuel, etc.);
b. _________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
Hospital aircraft or aircraft carrying any sick or seriously injured person requiring urgent
medical attention;
c. ________________________________________________________________________
Aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations; and
d. ________________________________________________________________________
Other aircraft as may be determined by the appropriate authority.

67. Reduction in separation minima in the vicinity of aerodromes may be applied by the
Aerodrome Controller when what conditions exist?

a. _________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
Adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is
continuously visible to this controller; or
b. _________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
Each aircraft is continuously visible to flight crews of the other aircraft concerned and the
pilots thereof report that they can maintain their own separation; or
c. _________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
In the case of one aircraft following another, the flight crew of the succeeding aircraft
reports that the other aircraft is in sight and separation can be maintained.

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68. IFR Traffic executing a Visual Approach; is such traffic still IFR or VFR?

__________________ Still an IFR Flight

69. Departing aircraft: A minimum separation of how many minutes shall be applied between a
LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft or a LIGHT aircraft taking off
behind a MEDIUM aircraft.

a. Using the same runway?
___________ Two minutes

b. An intermediate part of the same runway?
___________Three minutes

c. Crossing runways if the projected flight path of the second aircraft will cross the
projected flight path of the first aircraft at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)
below.
___________ Two minutes

70. If an arriving aircraft is making a complete instrument approach, a departing aircraft may
take off when?

a. In any direction until an arriving aircraft has started its procedure turn or base turn
leading to final approach;

b. In a direction which is different by at least 45 degrees from the reciprocal of the direction
of approach after the arriving aircraft has started procedure turn or base turn leading to
final approach,

i. Provided that the takeoff will be made at least 3 minutes before the arriving aircraft
is estimated to be over the beginning of the instrument runway.

71. If an arriving aircraft is making a straight-‐in approach, a departing aircraft may take off
when?

a. In any direction until 5 minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the
instrument runway;
b. In a direction which is different by at least 45 degrees from the reciprocal of the direction
of approach of the arriving aircraft:

i. Until 3 minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the beginning of
the instrument runway.
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72. An A321 departs runway 33R Heading 270 degrees.
A B738 is number two behind the A321.
The B738 is direct Tagru.
When can the B738 be cleared for take-‐off?

________________ 1 minute and 45 degrees (Time and degrees)

73. How many minutes must an IFR departure on runway 33R begin take-‐off roll before an IFR
straight in arrival for runway 33R lands?

________________ 5 minutes

74. Essential traffic information shall be given to controlled flights concerned whenever they
constitute essential traffic to each other. (When a collision hazard excist)
Essential traffic information shall include what?:

a. ________________________________________________________________________
Direction of flight of aircraft concerned;
b. _________________________________________________________________________
Type and wake turbulence category (if relevant) of aircraft concerned;
c. _________________________________
Cruising level of aircraft concerned; and

i. ____________________________________________________________________
Estimated time over the reporting point nearest to where the level will be crossed;
ii. _____________________________________________________________________
Relative bearing of the aircraft concerned in terms of the 12-‐hour clock as well as
distance from the conflicting traffic; or
iii. _____________________________________________________________________
Actual or estimated position of the aircraft concerned.

75. Can two (2) aircraft be cleared to land at the same time and if so what are the restrictions?

______ Yes
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
The preceding aircraft must have crossed the runway threshold and reasonabble assurance
must exist that the preceeding aircraft has vacated the runway by the time the succeeding
aircraft crosses the runway threshold.

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76. Can an aircraft be cleared to land at the same time that an aircraft is cleared for take-‐off and
if so, what are the restrictions?

______ Yes
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
There must be reasonable assurance that the landing aircraft will not be permitted to cross
the runway threshold on its final approach until the preceding departing aircraft has crossed
the end of the runway in use, or has started a turn after being airborne.

77. Explain the "two minute" IFR Departure behind an IFR Departure separation rule.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
Two minutes are required between take-‐offs when the preceding aircraft is 74 km/h (40kt)
or more faster than the following aircraft and both aircraft will follow the same track.

78. Explain the "five minute" IFR departure behind an IFR departure separation rule.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
Five-‐minute separation is required while vertical separation does not exist if a departing
aircraft will be flown through the level of a preceding departing aircraft and both aircraft
propose to follow the same track. Action must be taken to ensure that the five-‐minute
separation will be maintained or increased while vertical separation does not exist.

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79. State the following wake turbulence departure separation rules:

Heavy behind Heavy departure
_________________ No wake turbulance separation required

Medium behind a Heavy
_________________ Two (2) minutes

Small behind a Heavy
_________________ Two (2) minutes

Small behind a Medium
_________________ Two (2) minutes

Small intersection departure behind a Medium or Heavy departed from the end of Runway.
_________________ Three (3) minutes

80. BIAP Control Zone is considered IMC when:

a. ________________________________ Ground Visibility is less than 5000 meters and/ or
b. ________________________________ Ceiling is less than 1500 Ft (A015)

81. The minimum ceiling and visibility required for landing or take-‐off of IFR aircraft at
BIAP shall be:

a. ________________________________ Ceiling 200 Ft (A002) or
b. ________________________________ Ground visibility 800 meters

82. Calm wind runway at BIAP is RWY ____ and may be used regardless of wind direction
33
provided velocity is ____ knots or less.
4

83. SVFR flights (fixed wing) shall not be operated in BIAP Control Zone when the ground
visibility is below ______ meters and/or ceiling below ____________________
1500 m 1500 feet (A015)

84. Who is responsible to make all notifications required to civil and military emergency crash
responders when needed?

___________________The Supervisor

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85. What does RAVC stand for?

_________________________________ Reduced Aerodrome Visibility Conditions

86. What condition is RAVC?

___________________________________________________________________________
Meteorological conditions such that all or part of the maneuvering area cannot be visually
monitored from the control tower.

87. What does RAVP stand for?

_________________________________ Reduced Aerodrome Visibility Procedures

88. Explain RAVP.

____________________________________________________________________________
Specific procedures applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe operations
during RAVC.

89. What does LVP stand for?

_________________________________ Low Visibility Procedures

90. Why do we require LVP at international Aerodromes? (Not yet at ORBI)

a. _______________________________________________________________________
To ensure safe operations during lower than CAT 1 ILS approaches in RVR conditions less
than 550m
b. _______________________________________________________________________
To ensure safe Departure operations during RVR conditions less than 550m

91. What does AOM stand for?

__________________ Aerodrome Operating Minima

92. Aerodrome operating minima (AOM) are criteria used by pilots to determine whether they
may land or take off from any runway. AOM consist of two parts:

a. ________________________ Relating to the cloud base or decision height/altitude
b. ________________________ Relating to the visibility and/or Runway Visual Range(RVR).

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93. Operations at Baghdad shall be suspended when:
a. ____________________________________ Directed by the ICAA

b. ____________________________________ Emergency cases which require such action
c. ________________________________________________________________________
Visibility goes below 800m, or if RVR readings are available, below 550m.

94. What does TCAS stand for?

_________________________________ Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System

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Demonstrate the following: (UTP ADC Objectives Level 1-‐3)
(This to be done and completed during the daily training phases prior to COC check)
Level 1 = 0-‐20 Hrs(20), Level 2 = 20-‐50 Hrs(30), Level 3 = 50-‐90 Hrs(40)

A. Objectives Level 1 -‐ Aerodrome Control (ADC)

1. Equipment:
a. TED
b. Back-‐up Comms Panel
c. AWOS
d. Radar/SDD (Air Traffic Monitor -‐ ATM)

B. Objectives Level 2 -‐ Aerodrome Control (ADC)

1. Procedures and documents:
a. Communication
b. Data Management
c. Aerodrome Layout
d. Tower Airspace
e. FIS
f. Hand-‐over / Take-‐over procedures

C. Objectives Level 3 -‐ Aerodrome Control (ADC)

1. Separation and Traffic Management:
a. Separation
b. Co-‐ordination
c. Sequencing
d. Emergencies
e. Equipment Test

Baghdad Tower Aerodrome Control Question Bank

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23. State the following frequencies:

FROM AERODROME CONTROL TO:

STEADY GREEN Cleared to land Cleared for take-off

Give way to other aircraft &

SERIES OF WHITE Return to starting point on the

93. Operations at Baghdad shall be suspended when:

a. ____________________________________ Directed by the ICAA

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