RENR REVIEW RAS PRACTICE TEST 30

SCENARIO:
A 70-year-old man is admitted to the surgical ward with a diagnosis of cancer of the
prostate gland. He is scheduled for radical prostatectomy on the following day. He
expresses concerns to the nurse manager about making adjustments to his life after
surgery.
1. The incidence of prostate cancer is highest in men
i. With low fertility
ii. Who had an early puberty
iii. With a history of multiple sex partners
iv. Who have high frequency of sexual experience
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iv
c) Ii, and iii
d) Iii, and iv

2. Which of the following statements best describes Prostatic Specific Antigen (PSA)?
a) It indicates malignancy
b) Is proportional to total prostatic mass
c) Indicates that the tumour is decreasing
d) Can be used as a chemotactic agent to treat cancer

3. Which of the following pathophysiologic factors about prostatic cancer is true?

a) Prostatic lesions typically grow slowly
b) The prostatic lesion grows outside the capsule
c) Metastasis typically occurs by the time a diagnosis is made
d) The tumour grows rapidly facilitating quick diagnosis and treatment

SCENARIO:
Mrs. Weekes age 40 years, mother of a sixteen-year-old son, was admitted on the
gynaecological unit with a diagnosis of ovarian cancer. She is scheduled for a total
hysterectomy which will be followed by radiotherapy three weeks later.
4. Cancer of the ovaries is a complex disease because
a) The symptoms are easily observed
b) It may be virulent or slow growing
c) Signs and symptoms although present are easily missed
d) The symptoms may not indicate the extent of the disease

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5. Which of the following is usually associated with a poor prognosis of ovarian
cancer?
a) The presence of ascites
b) The menopausal bleeding
c) Postmenopausal bleeding
d) The need for radiotherapy

6. Mrs. Weekes asked about preventative measures against cancer. The nurse
explains that all of the following are preventative measures except
a) Encouraging people to stop smoking
b) Encouraging regular physical examination
c) Teaching people to reduce dietary intake of fibre
d) Teaching people to adhere to safety practices in the work environment

7. Which of the following is the key objective to motivating the patient to cope with
her illness?
a) Helping the patient find reasons for living
b) Encouraging her to continually look for a cure at all cost
c) Helping her to accept her disease condition and prepare for any eventuality
d) Encouraging the family member to rally around the patient and assist her

8. In obtaining the consent for surgery, the nurse should initially

a) Witness the signature
b) Explain the risk involved in the surgery
c) Evaluate if her knowledge level is sufficient to give consent
d) Explain that obtaining the signature is routine for any surgery

9. Following blood transfusion Mrs. Weekes is to receive total parenteral nutrition

(TPN) infusion. Which of the following should the nurse monitor during TPN
infusion?
i. Cardiac function
ii. Blood glucose
iii. Fluid intake and output
iv. Serum proteins
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iii
c) Ii, and iii
d) Iii, and iv

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10. Mrs. Weekes asks the nurse why is she feeling so depressed at this stage. In
responding, the nurse realizes that depression is common because
a) Of the hormonal changes
b) Of inadequate preparation
c) Physical restrictions are limited
d) There is loss of sexual sensation

11. Before discharge the nurse should be certain that Mrs. Weekes knows that changes
will occur in her body. All of the following are expected changes except
a) Hot flashes
b) Complete loss of sensation
c) Cessation of menstruation
d) Temporary loss of vaginal sensation

12. Mrs. Weekes inquires as to how soon she should resume sexual intercourse. The
best response is
a) 2 to 3 weeks
b) 3 to 4 weeks
c) 4 to 5 weeks
d) 4 to 6 weeks

13. Mrs. Weekes had several concerns about her sexuality. The most appropriate
nursing diagnosis is
a) Knowledge deficit regarding self-care following hysterectomy
b) Altered health maintenance related to lack of knowledge regarding resumption of
sexual activity
c) Body image disturbance related to perceived loss of femininity and future ability to
conceive
d) Altered sexuality patterns related to perceived lack of desirability and fatigue
secondary to surgery

14. Discharge instructions for Mrs. Weekes should include which of the following?
a) Do not wear a girdle
b) Resume normal activities gradually
c) Take frequent brisk walks at least twice a week
d) Avoid sexual activity until the wound is healed

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SCENARIO:
Fifty-year-old Patty, is Managing Director of a clothing company. Her job demands long
hours of work and meeting deadlines. She suffers from migraine headaches. Her
husband was hospitalized with chest pains and diagnosed as having Myocardial
Infarction. She presents at the Health Centre with an attack of migraine.
15. Which of the following factors can lead to an attack of migraine in patients?
i. Onions
ii. Alcohol
iii. Hunger
iv. Exercise
a) I, and ii
b) Ii, and iv
c) I, ii, and iii
d) Ii, iii, and iv

16. Migraine headache is an outcome of which of the following mechanisms?

a) Dilation of cerebral blood vessels
b) Constriction of cerebral blood vessels
c) Release of aldosterone from the Adrenal cortex
d) Effect of sympathetic activity on blood vessels

17. The nurse should expect Ms. Patty would present with which of the following
clinical manifestations?
i. Syncope
ii. Diaphoresis
iii. Irritability
iv. Chilliness
a) I, and ii
b) Ii, and iii
c) I, ii and iv
d) Ii, iii, and iv

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18. Which of the following is the best definition of a Public Health Survey?
a) An expanded immunization program geared to the prevention of a specific disease
in a particular locality
b) The ongoing systematic collection, analysis and interpretation of outcome specific
data used for implementation of public health practice
c) Specific data collection and evaluation of public health practice geared towards the
reduction and elimination of diseases in a community or country
d) The implementation of specific public health programs geared towards the health
promotion of a community or country

19. Which of the following is not a major feature of surveillance?

a) The systematic collection of periodic data
b) The orderly consolidation and evaluation of data
c) The prompt dissemination of results to major stakeholders
d) The urgent distribution of health resources to communities most in need

20. Which of the following indicates uses of surveillance?

i. Detection of epidemics
ii. Evaluation of control and prevention measures
iii. Quantitative estimates of the magnitude of a health problem
iv. Documentation of the distribution and spread of a health event
a) I, ii, iii
b) I, ii, iv
c) Ii, iii, iv
d) I, ii, iii, iv

21. Surveillance programs may assist in which of the following?

i. Monitoring of isolation activities
ii. Detection of changes in health practice
iii. Monitoring of changes in infectious agents
iv. Mandating governments to facilitate laboratory research
a) I, and ii
b) I, ii, and iii
c) Ii, iii, and iv
d) I, ii, iii, iv

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22. Which of the following reflects the best order to be followed when planning a
surveillance system?
a) Establish objectives, develop case definitions, determine data sources and data
collecting mechanisms and develop data collecting instruments
b) Develop case definitions, establish objectives, field test methods of data collection,
and determine data sources
c) Determine data sources, set objectives, establish health status of the community,
and develop data collection instruments
d) Establish objectives, establish the health status of the community, determine data
sources, determine data collection instruments and select data collection methods

23. Which of the following may be used as criteria for determining health events for
surveillance?
i. Frequency
ii. Security
iii. Cost
iv. Communicability
a) I, ii, iii
b) I, ii, iv
c) I, iii, iv
d) I, ii, iii, iv

24. Which of the following was the first indicator of what the pattern of health
problems in a district or community is likely to be?
a) The age structure
b) The number of deaths
c) The number of accidents
d) The number of persons with disabilities

25. Which of the following techniques for rapid epidemiological assessment fall within
the established groups for epidemiological assessment?
i. Methods of surveillance and monitoring
ii. Prevalent rates of disability and case control methods
iii. Prevalent rates of maternal and childhood mortality and sampling methods
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iii
c) Ii, and iii
d) I, ii, and iii

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26. Which of the following best describes a maternal death?
a) Death of a foetus in utero or within twelve hours after birth
b) Death of a woman while pregnant or within six weeks of term.
c) Death of a woman and her foetus within twelve hours of delivery
d) Death of a foetus due to causes such as attempted abortion

27. Which of the following are key responsibilities of CARPHA?

i. Provide funding for Caribbean countries to prevent epidemics
ii. Assist member countries to undertake analysis of current health situations
iii. Facilitate the implementation of the WHO guidelines for the prevention and
control of dengue fever in the region
iv. Facilitate the development of a laboratory testing quality assurance
program for member countries
a) I, ii, iii
b) I, iii, iv
c) Ii, iii, iv
d) I, ii, iii, iv

Items 28 to 31 refer to the following terms

a) Gonorrhoea
b) Chlamydia
c) Genital herpes
d) Trichomonas vaginitis
e) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
In answering these items, match each item below with one of the options above. You
may use one option once, more than once or not at all.
28. Possible yellowish vaginal discharge with strong smell, pelvic pain, painful
intercourse
29. Greenish-yellow frothy vaginal discharge, fishy smell, patchy rash in vagina
30. Possible green or yellow vaginal discharge, no symptoms in women, painful
urination
31. Burning at site of infection, small red bumps, itching, and malaise

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SCENARIO:
Nurse Shepherd told her colleagues that she was unable to report for duty because her
mother was ill and she was busy with her, and could not get a message to the hospital.
32. Nurse Shepherd’s explanation is
i. Not a reasonable excuse
ii. An example of unprofessional behaviour
iii. Sufficient; and does not require further action
iv. An indication that nurse Shepherd needs counselling
a) I, and ii
b) Ii, and iii
c) I, and iii
d) Ii, and iv

33. Nurse Shepherd’s action is one of not relaying a message that she could not get out
to work. This action will have adverse effects mainly on
a) Clients
b) Co-workers
c) Nursing supervisor
d) Nursing administrator

SCENARIO:
Mr. Gint is a 35-year-old Bank clerk admitted to the medical ward complaining of a
cough and cold for four weeks, low grade fever, anorexia, and weight loss.
He is a suspected case of Tuberculosis.
34. The organism which is responsible for causing Tuberculosis is
a) Gram-positive bacilli
b) Gram-negative rod
c) Gram-positive rod
d) Gram-negative bacilli

35. A positive tuberculin test in Mr. Gint means that he has/was

a) Been exposed to the TB bacilli
b) Active tuberculosis
c) Exposed and developed antibodies
d) Never been exposed to the bacilli

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36. The diagnostic tests that would be done to confirm a diagnosis of tuberculosis are
i. Sputum smear
ii. Tuberculin test
iii. Chest x-ray
iv. White cell count
a) I, ii, iii
b) I, ii, iv
c) I, iii, iv
d) I, ii, iii, iv

37. Purified Protein Derivative (PPD) is used for tuberculin test given in a dose of
tuberculin units (TU)
a) 5 TU in 0.1 ml vol.
b) 5 TU in 0.5 ml vol.
c) 0.1 mg in 0.1 ml vol.
d) 0.1 mg in 0.5 ml vol.

38. Which of the following components are related to the control of tuberculosis?
i. Curative
ii. Case finding and treatment
iii. Preventive measures
iv. Rehabilitative
a) I, ii, iii
b) I, ii, iv
c) I, iii, iv
d) Ii, iii, iv

39. DOTs is used in the control of tuberculosis by producing a cure rate up to

a) 85%
b) 90%
c) 95%
d) 100%

40. The tuberculosis incubation period in an individual is as long as

a) 6 months
b) 9 months
c) 12 weeks
d) 15 weeks

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41. A person who is tuberculin positive was exposed to the bacilli for at least
a) 7 days
b) 14 days
c) 3 weeks
d) 8 weeks

42. The bacilli of tuberculosis infect the lungs forming a lesion which may
i. Heal leaving a scar
ii. Continue as a granuloma
iii. Proceed to necrosis
iv. Proceed to neoplasm
a) I, ii, iii
b) I, ii, iv
c) I, iii, iv
d) Ii, iii, iv

SCENARIO:
Mr. Tim 30 years, walked into a store one day and began accusing the sales clerk of
stealing his wallet. He then proceeded to pick up items from the shelves, examined
them closely and threw them one by one across the store, shouting that he will get
even with those who are spying on him and keeping him down. The police were called
and he was arrested. While being apprehended, he stated that voices told him not to
trust anyone. He was later admitted to the psychiatric hospital and diagnosed with
Paranoid Schizophrenia.
43. Which of the following statements is not characteristic of the condition
schizophrenia? It
a) Tends to be chronic
b) Generally, leads to severe disability
c) Does not impair one’s communication ability
d) Leads to deterioration in self-care

44. The essential difference between the clinical types of schizophrenia, is based on
which of the following factors?
a) The aetiology
b) The degree of psychosis manifested
c) The age group of the client
d) Degree of acuteness or chronicity

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45. Mr. Tim was said to have the paranoid type of schizophrenia. The nurse caring for
him is therefore likely to see in him which of the following behaviours?
a) Abnormal posturing of his body
b) Regression to an earlier developmental level
c) Suspiciousness
d) Silly emotional outburst

46. Tim’s action of tossing items across the store is based on the fact that the paranoid
schizophrenic patient will always attempt to
a) Protect himself
b) Act out aggression
c) Prove his dominance
d) Manipulate his environment

47. Which of the following behaviours by Tim in the store, is common in most of the
other types of schizophrenia?
a) His close examination of all the items he picked up
b) Throwing the items across the store
c) Stating that voices told him not to trust anyone
d) Shouting that people are out to get him

In planning Tim’s care, the nurse encourages his participation in goal setting.
However, Tim thinks that it is not him but the people around him who need to set
goals, as they are the ones who are responsible for all his problems.

48. The nurse correctly identifies this behaviour as a defense mechanism known as
a) Denial
b) Projection
c) Substitution
d) Sublimation

49. The nurse also found out that Tim strongly believes that people are talking about
him and that they do not like him. This type of psychotic behaviour is known as
a) Ideas of reference
b) Flight of ideas
c) Feelings of estrangement
d) Dissociation

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50. Which of the following statements is not true about all clinical types of
schizophrenia?
a) The earlier in life the psychotic symptoms develop, the more favourable the
prognosis
b) The more acute or sudden the onset of schizophrenia, the more favourable the
prognosis
c) Many theories have been put forward about the aetiology of schizophrenia, but
the exact cause remains unknown
d) Schizophrenia affects both men and women equally

51. Based on Tim’s belief that people are out to get him, the nurse would be sure to
include which of the following nursing diagnoses in his care plan?
a) Social isolation
b) Sensory-perceptual alterations
c) Ineffective individual cooping
d) Alteration in thought process

SCENARIO:
Ms. Peters age 28 years, is admitted to the gynaecological ward with a diagnosis of
suspected ectopic pregnancy.
52. One of the best methods of diagnosing an ectopic pregnancy is to perform
a) Culdocentesis and biopsy
b) Sonogram and hysterogram
c) Culdocentesis and sonogram
d) Hysterogram and hysterorrhaphy

53. The nurse had a chance to read Ms. Peters past obstetrical history. The condition
that most likely predisposed to her having an ectopic pregnancy, is the history of
having had
a) An infection of the urinary bladder
b) Pelvic inflammatory disease
c) Shirodkar cerclage inserted with her last pregnancy
d) Mastectomy for breast cancer

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54. In assessing Ms. Peters for symptoms of ectopic pregnancy, the nurse must note
especially
a) Haemorrhage and abdominal bloating
b) Localized pain on one side, and pain of shoulder tip
c) Localized pain on one side, and vaginal spotting
d) Generalized abdominal pain and haemorrhage

55. While awaiting surgery, it is important for the nurse to carefully and regularly
monitor the client’s blood pressure and
a) Pulse rate
b) Uterine pain
c) Vaginal bleeding
d) Pupillary reflexes

56. The symptom that one would most likely see when a tubal pregnancy ruptures is
a) Pyrexia
b) Vaginal discharge
c) Marked abdominal distension
d) Stabbing, generalized abdominal pain

57. Which of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of ectopic pregnancy
that is diagnosed early before the tube ruptures?
a) Leucovorin and methotrexate
b) Leucovorin and Actinomycin
c) Methotrexate and Actinomycin
d) Methotrexate and vincristine

58. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis that the nurse can formulate after the
client’s admission to hospital is
a) Ineffective family coping related to hospitalization
b) Fear related to the outcome of the surgery
c) High risk for infection related to urinary stasis
d) Anticipatory grieving related to loss of the pregnancy

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59. To evaluate Ms. Peters understanding of the discharge teaching about adverse
manifestations, the nurse would likely expect her to report which of the following?
a) Fever
b) Bleeding
c) Abdominal pain
d) Abdominal swelling

SCENARIO:
Tony Hunt is a nineteen-year-old college student who fell down a ditch while on a
hiking expedition with friends. He sustained a head injury and was rushed to the
hospital some two miles away. Upon arrival at the emergency department, he was
unaware of his surroundings and unable to respond appropriately to questions. His
colleagues reported that after the fall he was conscious and complained of headache.
60. Which of the following is the primary reason for conducting an initial assessment
of Mr. Hunt?
a) To determine the client’s level of consciousness
b) To influence the course of action to be taken
c) To convey a verbal report on his condition
d) Providing up-to-date information to his family and friends

61. As part of his initial assessment, the nurse records baseline observation of his
condition. Which of the following is the most important reason for this exercise?
a) To establish a standard for documenting the client’s condition
b) To provide evidence of continuity of care for legal purposes
c) To provide for comparison of the client’s condition and facilitate observation of
changes
d) Justify the utilization of the nursing process as the established instrument for
caring

62. Which of the following observations must be made regarding respiratory care
priorities of a client with increased intracranial pressure?
i. The rate, depth and pattern of respirations
ii. The colour of the skin and mucous membranes
iii. Monitoring of the arterial blood gases
iv. Amount of secretions suctioned hourly
a) I, ii, iii
b) I, ii, iv
c) I, iii, iv
d) I, ii, iii, iv

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63. Which of the following statements best defines intracranial pressure?
a) Pressure in the cerebro-spinal fluid
b) Severe persistent headaches with vomiting
c) Pressure exerted within the cerebral ventricular system
d) Severe headaches accompanied by an elevated blood pressure

64. Which of the following results should be reported by the nurse in a patient
suspected of having increased intracranial pressure?
i. Systolic BP less than 90 mmHg or more than 170 mmHg
ii. Diastolic BP less than 50 mmHg or more than 100 mmHg
iii. Pulse rate less than 50 bpm and bounding
iv. Pulse rate less than 50 bpm and weak
a) I, ii, iii
b) I, ii, iv
c) I, iii, iv
d) Ii, iii, iv

65. Owing to Mr. Hunt’s increased intracranial pressure, the nurse should nurse him in
which of the following positions?
i. Supine with the head in neutral midline position
ii. With the neck fully extended
iii. Head of bed elevated to 30 degrees
iv. On his left or right side with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iii
c) Ii, and iii
d) Ii, and iv

66. Which of the following drugs would the nurse expect to be prescribed for Mr.
Hunt’s complaint of headaches?
a) Valium
b) Baralgin
c) Ibuprofen
d) Dexamethasone

67. Which of the following is considered the most severe complication of head injury?
a) Foramenal coning
b) Severe hypertension
c) Depression in respiration
d) Changes in pupillary reaction

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68. Which of the following information should be included in a discharge teaching plan
for Mr. Hunt?
i. Encourage adequate rest and cessation from normal activity
ii. Encourage client to have complete bed rest for 24 hours
iii. Inform client to seek medical attention for nausea and increasing
headaches
iv. Tell client to resume normal activity as soon as he feels fit to do so
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iii
c) Ii, and iii
d) Iii, and iv

Items 69-72 are related to the following terms

a) Confabulation
b) Depersonalization
c) Abreaction
d) Nihilism
e) Milieu
In answering these items, match each item below with one of the options above. You
may use each option once, more than once or not at all.
69. Feelings of unreality or strangeness concerning either the environment or the self
or both
70. The delusion of non-existence of the self or part of the self
71. The filling of memory gaps with false and imaginary experiences, that are
recounted in a detailed way as though they were factual
72. The physical, emotional, and social aspects within the environment in which an
individual interacts

Items 73-75 are related to the following terms

a) Rational Empirical
b) Normative Re-educative
c) Authoritative Normative
d) Power Coercive
In answering these items, match each item below with one of the options above. You
may use each option once, more than once or not at all.
73. Using group norms to influence individuals so that change will occur
74. Applying legitimate authority to bring about change
75. Giving factual information that documents the need for change.

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SCENARIO:
Dengue fever is considered endemic in most Caribbean countries.
76. Which of the following statements are true of Dengue fever?
i. The incubation period for dengue ranges from 3-5 days
ii. Recovery from dengue provides lifelong immunity
iii. Once infected the host remains infected for life
iv. The vector becomes infective 8-12 days after a viremic blood meal
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iv
c) Ii, and iv
d) I, iii, and iv

77. Which of the following tests confirms a diagnosis of Dengue?

a) Serology
b) Urine analysis
c) Parasitology
d) Throat swab

78. Dengue is transmitted through the bite of which of the following vectors?
i. Aedes rusticus
ii. Aedes aegypti
iii. Aedes albopictus
iv. Aedes cinereus
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iii
c) Ii, and iii
d) Ii, and iv

79. Which of the following conditions present with similar clinical manifestations as
dengue fever?
i. Rubella
ii. Malaria
iii. Measles
iv. Chicken pox
a) I, ii, and iii
b) I, ii, and iv
c) I, iii, and iv
d) Ii, iii, and iv

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80. All of the following changes may be manifested by a person recovering from
dengue fever except
a) Leukopenia
b) Hepatomegaly
c) Prolonged fatigue
d) Lymphadenopathy

SCENARIO:
Mrs. Small are 34 years is admitted to the female surgical ward for
Haemorrhoidectomy. She has been experiencing haemorrhoidal problems for over six
months. Her doctor believes that her haemorrhoids are becoming thrombotic. She also
complains of passing a small amount of blood in her stool with every bowel movement
along with inability to pass urine.
81. The most likely predisposing factors of haemorrhoids are
i. Pregnancy
ii. Prolonged sitting and standing
iii. Diarrhoea with increased abdominal pressure
iv. Constipation with increased abdominal pressure
a) I, ii, iii
b) I, ii, iv
c) Ii, iii, iv
d) I, ii, iii, iv

82. Which of the following types of haemorrhoids is Mrs. Small likely to have?
a) External
b) Internal
c) Ruptured
d) Prolapsed

83. The nurse should explain to Mrs. Small, that the inability to void is directly related
to
a) Side effects of anaesthesia
b) Fear of pain during voiding
c) Swelling of the perineal area
d) Reflex spasm of bladder outlet

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84. Which of the following would be treatment options for Mrs. Small besides
haemorrhoidectomy?
i. Cryosurgery
ii. Incision and drainage
iii. Low residue diet therapy
iv. Injection of sclerosing substance
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iv
c) Ii, and iii
d) Iii, and iv

85. The priority goal of care for Mrs. Small should be to

a) Control pain
b) Prevent infection
c) Prevent haemorrhage
d) Prevent clot formation

86. Which of the following diets is Mrs. Small expected to receive before her surgery?
a) Soft, high protein
b) Bland, low protein
c) High fibre, low roughage
d) High fibre, high roughage

87. The best position for Mrs. Small to be nursed in following surgery is
a) Sims
b) Prone
c) Left lateral
d) Semi Fowlers

88. When the nurse teaches Mrs. Small the procedure for taking a sitz bath, it is
important that she be told that the bath must be taken
a) Just before bedtime
b) At 6 am and 6 pm daily
c) As needed for her comfort
d) After every bowel movement

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SCENARIO:
Staff nurse Joy is assigned to work as part of the health team in a primary care Health
Centre. The Health Centre serves people living in the community and neighbouring
communities. In order to effectively meet the health needs of the population, the
health team needs to carry out an assessment of the communities served by the
Health Centre.
89. Which of the following are population data necessary for community assessment?
i. Crude birth rate
ii. Total population
iii. Number of persons with illnesses
iv. Average number of deaths annually
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iii
c) Ii, and iv
d) Iii, and iv

90. Which of the following is a specific mortality rate?

a) Morbidity rates
b) Crude death rate
c) Infant mortality rate
d) Prevalence rate of diseases

91. Members of the health team at the health centre would also be interested in
which of the following population indices in order to plan care?
i. Literacy rates
ii. Eating habits
iii. Number of houses
iv. Number of nutritionists
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iv
c) Ii, and iii
d) Ii, and iv

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92. During the first month of assignment Nurse Joy observed that several clients
attended the clinic seeking care for Diabetes. In planning care for these diabetics, it
is necessary to utilize the following data
i. Total number of diabetics in the community
ii. Total number of diabetics non-compliant with treatment
iii. Common complications of diabetics in the community
iv. Total number of persons with leg ulcers
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iii
c) I, ii, and iii
d) Ii, iii, and iv

93. For evaluation of effectiveness of care which of the following methods can be used
to collect data?
i. Community survey
ii. Interview doctors
iii. Review records
iv. Patient interview
a) I, and ii
b) I, and iii
c) Ii, and iii
d) Iii, and iv

94. At the end of the second quarter, which of the following methods would be most
appropriate for Nurse Joy to use for presenting summary statistics?
a) Narrative reports
b) Simple bar charts
c) Population pyramid
d) Multiple regression charts

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95. In order to assist diabetics to achieve a high level of wellness, Nurse Joy will utilize
the following teaching-learning methods as most appropriate
i. Video films
ii. Demonstrations
iii. Counselling sessions
iv. Reading assignments
a) I, ii, iii
b) I, ii, iv
c) Ii, iii, iv
d) I, ii, iii, iv

96. A nurse who uses critical thinking in the decision-making process to provide
effective quality care to individuals is known as
a) An advanced care nurse
b) A clinical decision-maker
c) An evidence-based practitioner
d) A multidisciplinary practitioner

97. Which of the following statements about prescriptive theories is accurate?

a) They describe phenomena
b) They have the ability to explain nursing phenomena
c) They reflect practice and address specific phenomena
d) They provide a structural framework for broad abstract ideas

98. A theory is a set of concepts, definitions, relationships and assumptions that

a) Formulates legislation
b) Explains a phenomenon
c) Measures nursing functions
d) Reflects the domains of nursing practice

99. Theories that are broad and complex are

a) Grand theories
b) Descriptive theories
c) Middle-range theories
d) Prescriptive theories

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100. According to Neuman System Model, the increase in energy that occurs in
relation to the degree of reaction to the stressor is termed as
a) Reconstitution
b) Lines of resistance
c) Primary prevention
d) Secondary prevention

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