Cambridge Primary Checkpoint End of Series Report

May 2018
Contents

1 Introduction page 3

2. Cambridge Secondary 1 Checkpoint – English as a Second Language 1110

2.1 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 01 page 4
2.2 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 02 page 11
2.3 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 03 page14
2.4 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English as a Second Language 1110 page 20

3 Cambridge Secondary 1 Checkpoint – English 1111

3.1 Comments on specific questions – English component 01 page 42
3.2 Comments on specific questions – English component 02 page 48
3.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English 1111 page 56

4 Cambridge Secondary 1 Checkpoint Mathematics 1112

4.1 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 01 page 70
4.2 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 02 page 83
4.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – Mathematics 1112 page 97

5 Cambridge Secondary 1 Checkpoint Science 1113

5.1 Comments on specific questions – Science component 01 page 115
5.2 Comments on specific questions – Science component 02 page 123
5.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – Science 1113 page 131

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1 Introduction

This document reports on learner performance for this exam series. Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the
entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group
performances for this syllabus in this series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

For each syllabus the following information is provided:

• examiner comments on specific questions within each component of the test

• tables and charts of sub-group performances for the overall assessment and at strand level.

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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.1 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 01

General comments

The overall level of difficulty and learner performance appeared similar to equivalent papers, with all parts (with the exception of Part 1)
having areas of difficulty for learners.

Part 1

(Questions 1–5)

A five gap, multiple-choice sentence completion test, required learners to select an appropriate item to fill five gaps and to circle the word of
their choice; correct usage of lexical and function words was tested. The majority of learners scored well on this part. The most incorrect
answers were for Question 2.

Part 2

(Questions 6–15)

For Questions 6–15, learners were required to put one word only into the gaps to complete a single email message to a friend. The words
needed to fit grammatically and to carry the intended meaning to complete the text.

A lot of the incorrect answers seemed to be produced because the words chosen often fitted the words either side of the blank in terms of
grammar or meaning but learners did not take into account the wider context of sentence/discourse level. Possibly more focus is needed on
this aspect when teaching reading skills to learners. This appears to be an important area for improvement as it is also noted in reports at
secondary level as well as in previous reports for this paper.

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Spelling needed to be accurate but the mark scheme did not allow for alternative answers, apart from Questions 8, 10, 12 and 14, where
alternatives were accepted. This part proved to be a good discriminator, with higher ability learners occasionally scoring full marks. The
majority of learners answered fairly well; answers were mostly correct, though lower ability learners answered Questions 8, 10, 13 and 15
incorrectly. A few learners attempted the task by inserting more than one word into some of the gaps.

Although the answers to Questions 8 and 14 started sentences, responses were marked correct even if they began with a lower case letter
because learners at still at primary stage.

Part 3

(Questions 16–20)

In this part, learners were required to complete a short conversation by selecting appropriate responses from those given. Most learners
scored well on this task, but lower ability learners found this to be possibly the most difficult task, with Question 15 being the most incorrectly
answered. Errors are often made when learners find an item to match the sentence before or after but not both.

In this part and Part 2 some learners changed their minds several times and, rather than crossing out their original mark, wrote over their first
answer or erased unclearly. This sometimes resulted in an illegible response. It would be preferable for learners to completely cross out the
rejected response and write the preferred one next to it. There were also a few ambiguously formed letters (especially A and H – sloping sides
and a gap at top could often be either letter; it was sometimes difficult to see if E or F was the intended final answer in cases where there was
overwriting and/or incomplete erasure). Centres should bear in mind that the answer papers are scanned and sent to examiners. When an ink
eraser is used, the scan may pick up traces of the original answer, therefore, it can be difficult to tell which writing is the final answer. It is
better to tell learners to clearly cross out an answer and to write the new answer above or below the previous answer.

Part 4

(Questions 21–25)

In this section, learners were required to select the correct meaning of the message shown in a picture. Learners needed to circle one of the
three choices given. This task was generally well done. The task required careful reading and accurate matching of information to determine
the correct response. Learners needed to be good at making inferences (more practice in this appears to be needed for many learners) and
identifying different ways to convey a message. Most learners scored adequately to well, though there were a lot of incorrect answers for

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Questions 18 and 21 (probably the most difficult questions on the paper).

Part 5

(Questions 26–30)

This task comprised multiple-choice questions on a longer text with the title ‘One boat, one dream’, which was about young sailor’s experience
of sailing.

The need for learners to use a wide range of reading skills, including inference and deduction, makes this a fairly challenging part of the test.
On the whole candidates answered well; though Question 27 was the most successfully answered and Question 26 the least.

Question 1

A high proportion of correct A, (‘near’); common incorrect response was C (‘next’ – no ‘to’ in sentence).

Question 2

Mostly correct answers B (‘wore’); most common incorrect response was A (‘dressed’).

Question 3

A high proportion of correct C (‘food’); most common incorrect response was B (‘meal’).

Question 4

A high proportion of correct C (‘listened’); most common incorrect response was B (‘played’).

Question 5

A high proportion of correct answers B (‘had’); most common incorrect response was A (‘enjoyed’).

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Question 6

Mostly correct, ‘to’; common incorrect responses included ‘that’, ‘email’, ‘I’ and ‘for’.

Question 7

Mostly correct, ‘are/’re’ (though very few used the contracted form); there was no one most common incorrect answer but an assortment of verb
forms, especially ‘have’, ‘can’, ‘will’, ‘was’ and ‘were’.

Question 8

Very often incorrect (correct ‘If’/’When’/’Whenever’); common incorrect responses were ‘But’, ‘And’, ‘Hope’, ‘For’ and ‘Maybe’. The correct
responses were marked correct even if they began with a lower case letter.

Question 9

Mostly correct, ‘me’/’us’; there was a very wide range of incorrect responses, including ‘email’, ‘message’, ‘them’, ‘your’, ‘to me’ and ‘Peter’ (the
recipient).

Question 10

Mostly correct but a lot incorrect (correct ‘because’/’as’/’since’), with the great majority of correct responses being ‘because’ and very
occasionally ‘as’; common incorrect responses were ‘that’, ‘for’, ‘becouse’ (sic), and ‘when’.

Question 11

Mostly correct, ‘we’; most common incorrect responses were ‘you’ and ‘they’.

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Question 12

A high proportion of correct, ‘with’/’against’ (‘against’ was rarely written by learners); there was no one most common incorrect answer and
wrong responses included ‘but’, ‘what’, ‘then’, ‘also’ and ‘games’.

Question 13

Mostly correct (‘than’) but a lot incorrect; common incorrect responses were ‘then’ (probably a misspelling) and ‘with’.

Question 14

A high proportion correct, ‘What/How’; there was no one most common incorrect answer and wrong responses included ‘Peter’, ‘And what’ and
‘All’. The correct responses were marked correct even if they began with a lower case letter.

Question 15

Very often incorrect (correct ‘Do’); most common incorrect response was ‘Are’ and ‘Can’ and ‘Why’ also occurred a lot.

Question 16

Mostly correct, G; most common incorrect responses were A (which related to previous utterance but not the following one) or C.

Question 17

Mostly correct but a lot incorrect (correct C); most common incorrect responses were D (relating to following utterance) or E (relating to
previous utterance).

Question 18

Very often incorrect (correct, H); most common incorrect responses were D, E or G.

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Question 19

Often incorrect (correct, E); most common incorrect response was H.

Question 20

A high proportion of correct, F; most common incorrect responses were G or H. Sometimes this was the only correct Part 3 response.

Question 21

Mostly incorrect and had the most incorrect responses on the paper (correct A); by far the most common incorrect response was B.

This was a very difficult question as a little thought was needed to distinguish the two classes in the text and multiple-choice options. Many
learners doubtless noticed in the text that there was a change of teacher for Mr White’s class but failed to notice that the multiple-choice options
related to Mrs Spencer’s class.

Question 22

Mostly correct, B; most common incorrect response was C, a strong distractor as text says ‘put it in my backpack’ but context is ‘I meant to
but I forgot’. Often learners seem to fix on what seems to be a key phrase without noticing the wider context and this is a skill that needs to be
practised.

Question 23

Mostly correct (but quite often wrong); correct B. Incorrect responses shared between A and C.

Question 24

Mostly correct, C; most common incorrect response was B, for which some very basic arithmetic was needed.

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Question 25

Mostly correct, A; incorrect responses shared between B and C.

Question 26

Very often incorrect (correct, C); by far most common incorrect response was B. Here learners needed to follow the logic of the whole first
paragraph and see that ‘the Netherlands’ was the same as ‘my dad’s home country’.

Question 27

A high proportion of correct, B; incorrect responses shared between A and C.

Question 28

Mostly correct (but a lot incorrect); correct was A (learners had to deduce that ‘a book’ equated to ‘a present’ and incorrect responses shared
between B and C.

Question 29

Mostly correct, A; the most common incorrect response was C, probably chosen as the phrase ‘the youngest person to do this’ was shared by
the text and the multiple-choice option.

Question 30

Mostly correct, B; incorrect responses shared between A and C, which shared some wording with the text, whereas B did not.

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2.2 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language 0837 component 02

2.2 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 02

General comments

The paper seemed to work well although there were comments from examiners about the handwriting in some of the responses. Often the
learners didn’t leave spaces between words, which made it difficult for examiners to read the text and identify individual words. Also,
punctuation was often lacking in both strong and lower ability learners’ writing. Just the use of a full stop would increase the effectiveness of
their written work. Some learners wrote too much in Question 6 and Question 7 which generated more language to assess, but also more
errors. However, the majority of learners wrote responses of an appropriate length, which therefore reduced the opportunity to make more
errors. In Checkpoint examiners have a positive marking policy, i.e. marks are never deducted for errors, and instead marks are credited
wherever possible. In the case of Question 6 and Question 7, when learners wrote much longer responses, their texts became less clear and,
therefore, they achieved lower marks in areas such as communicative achievement.

However, on the whole, the learners seemed to cope well with the tasks and the majority produced English of the standard required. Examiners
noted that the majority of the learners appeared to be performing at the expected level, but the tasks did discriminate between lower and higher
ability learners.

Question 1

Most learners knew what the word should be but some had problems with spelling. Commonly the wrong vowel was used, ‘thursty’ or ‘thersty’,
or the letters were supplied in the wrong order, ‘thristy’.

Question 2

In most cases the learners knew what the word should be, and the majority got it right. However, there were lots of variations in the spelling of
‘cheese’ including, ‘chesse’, ‘chease’, ‘cheeze’, ‘chezee’, ‘cheaze’, ‘chesee’.

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Question 3

Many learners found this difficult and if they did get the word right, many had problems spelling it. We had variations including, ‘frigge’, frigde’,
but the most common wrong answer was ‘freezer’, spelt in a variety of ways. This seemed to be the question the learners got wrong most often.

Question 4

In most cases the learners knew what the word should be, and the majority got it right. However, there were lots of variations in the spelling of
‘breakfast’, including ‘brakfeast’, ‘brakefast’, ‘beafsteak’, ‘brecfeast’, ‘breckfast’, ‘brakfaste’ and ‘breakfirst’, none of which the examiners could
accept.

Question 5

This was quite easy for most of the learners and didn’t cause too many problems. Common errors included, ‘joose’, ‘juicy’, ‘juise’. Of all the
questions, this was most well answered

Question 6

This question worked well and the vast majority of learners were able to gain high marks with examiners frequently awarding top marks (five)
for content and almost top marks (four out of five) for communicative achievement. The topic was suitable for the learners to write about and
they generally covered the three points successfully. Some learners inverted the task and asked Robbie to describe his new house, or just re-
stated the input text without addressing the points. The functional aspect of the task was appropriate for the learners and most of them wrote at
some length about their bedroom and what it looked like. The personal aspect seemed to generate a wider range of language and there was
some engagement with the task due to the personal element.

Most learners addressed all three points well, but there was sometimes a lack of detail about where the new house was or the invitation to
Robbie was not clearly made. It was possible for the learners to address the first point in multiple ways, either by giving an address or saying
which city their new home was in. Others described what was near their new home, a park, a school or a specific area in a town. All of these
interpretations were acceptable so the learners had a little more flexibility in how they chose to address this point. The second point was often
expanded quite significantly, but it could also be addressed quite simply by just using an appropriate adjective. This allowed both lower and

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stronger ability learners to fully address content in different ways and gain marks. The third point caused a few more problems as there was a
variety of ways in which Robbie could be invited, but sometimes, it was implied, ‘I wish you could come to my house’. Examiners awarded
marks if the invitation was implicit or explicit.

Learners who didn’t use punctuation lost marks here as it was difficult to recognise sentence boundaries and this affected how well the
message communicated overall. There were a few tense errors, some learners used a future tense to describe a future move rather than one
which had already taken place, but this didn’t impact on the marks too much as long as the other points were addressed. The lower ability
learners tended to lift some of the language from the input material, but often managed to add something original so that they could be awarded
some marks.

Question 7

This was a good topic for a story and most learners wrote about a bright light in the sky. A popular theme was the sun or other astral objects,
such as stars, the moon or comets, which involved the characters in the story going to find out more about the object either from a teacher or
another adult. There seemed to be an idea that they had to discover what the light was, which involved some element of discovery, and the
better learners did this well. The stronger learners also introduced other characters and events and had a clear narrative sequence, introducing
main ideas, details of some event happening and then a clear resolution at the end. The lower ability learners tended to lack the ability to
develop a narrative and the stories became repetitive and tended to go over the same ideas again and again.

There was a range of vocabulary which was appropriate for the task, UFOs appeared as well as comets and shooting stars, so the task
seemed to engage the learners and they could invent a variety of scenarios which fitted in the prompt sentence.

The lower ability learners had difficulties making their story fit the prompt sentence and sometimes wrote irrelevant responses. It seemed
sometimes as if they had learnt a response which they tried to adapt, or not, to fit the scenario on this paper. The very low ability learners
struggled with this task and were often unable to produce anything of any meaning. They struggled with producing a coherent narrative and
issues with punctuation, spelling and grammatical control were exposed.

The learners who had some range of vocabulary managed to produce coherent stories which were relevant to the prompt and were able to
construct their texts using simple narrative tenses and a few cohesive devices appropriate within stories. All in all, this was a good task which
was appropriate for the age and level of the learners.

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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.3 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 03

General comments

The great majority of learners attempted all the questions. It was noticeable that the number of incorrect answers increased later on in the test
in Part 3, and especially in Part 4. The comments below regarding problems in deciphering some learners’ intended answers also apply to
Paper 1 Reading and Usage. Learners should remember that each multiple-choice question must have only one answer indicated; in a few
cases two answers were circled, so the item was marked as incorrect. If learners wish to change an answer they should very clearly put lines
through the letter or words to cross out. A lot of learners tried to delete by writing a wavy line (resembling crocodile teeth) around a circle but it
was sometimes unclear what the intended answer was and the item was sometimes marked as incorrect.

A fairly frequent problem was that a lot of learners were using erasers to try to change answers and they did not always appear to be
entirely effective in erasing answers written in pen; unless the correction was very boldly written, the resulting lack of clarity sometimes
made it difficult to decide what the intended answer was. The best practice seen was when learners either put a clear tick next to their
preferred response, or wrote clearly ‘Yes’ or ‘No’. The rubric on the Question Paper does not disallow the use of erasers but centres should
be aware of their limitations.

A similar problem found in a number of responses was that in Part 4 learners wrote over an answer to correct it but in a few cases the
resulting answer was not clear enough for it to be marked as correct.

In Part 4 there were no acceptable alternative spellings and with the exception of Question 16, the answers were all common words.

Learners appear to have most difficulty in identifying the correct response either when a distractor is at the end of the recording or at the
end of the relevant section of it; or when the correct option contains rewording of language in the recording.

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Part 1

(Questions 1–5)

Learners identify one of three pictures from short discrete dialogues. Most learners did well here, especially on Questions 3 and 4, though
answers to Question 5 were often incorrect.

Part 2

(Questions 6–10)

This involved multiple-choice questions based on a longer dialogue which was about a girl called Tina talking to her friend Ben about piano
lessons. This seemed to be the best-answered part of the test overall and slightly easier than in October 2017, with Questions 6 and 9 the
most successfully answered and Question 10 the least.

Part 3

(Questions 11–15)

This task comprised five questions based on an interview with a BMX bike rider. There were a number of incorrect responses due to the
increased complexity of language and greater skills demanded, though overall most learners were quite successful. The most successfully-
answered questions were 13 and 14 and the least was Question 15, but Question 11 also had a high proportion of incorrect answers.

Part 4

(Questions 16–20)

This task comprised five questions based on a boy called Harry talking to his class about a wildlife trip to Africa. There were a number of
incorrect responses due to the increased complexity of language and greater skills demanded, though incorrect spelling was sometimes
contributor. The most successfully-answered question was Question 20 and the least was Question 18; but Questions 17 and 19 also had a
large number of incorrect answers. Overall this part seemed slightly more difficult than in October 2017.

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Question 1

Mostly correct, A; most common incorrect response was B (possibly because the distractor TV was last word on recording).

Question 2

Mostly correct, A; most common incorrect response was C (again, the distractor ‘park’ was the last word on recording).

Question 3

A high proportion of correct answers, B; incorrect responses shared between A and C.

Question 4

A very high proportion of correct answers, C; by far the most common incorrect was A (the correct ‘lemonade’ and distractor ‘cake’ were near
the end of recording).

Question 5

Very often incorrect (correct, A); the most common incorrect response was B (the distractor ‘surfing’ was the last multiple-choice option
mentioned).

Question 6

A very high proportion of correct answers, C (correct ‘Friday’ is given after the other two on recording); incorrect responses shared between A
and B.

Question 7

Mostly correct, A; (followed the other two options) most common incorrect response was B.

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Question 8

Mostly correct, B; incorrect responses shared between A and C.

Question 9

A very high proportion of correct answers, A (followed the other two multiple-choice options); incorrect responses shared between B and C.

Question 10

Mostly correct (but also a lot wrong); correct was C and incorrect responses shared between A and B. Distractors A and B contained words on
recording but to obtain the correct answer learners had to relate ‘borrow’ (on recording) with ‘lending’ on the multiple-choice option.

Question 11

Often incorrect (correct, C); incorrect responses shared between A and B. The distractors shared words ‘heavy’ and ‘do tricks’ with multiple-
choice options but to obtain the correct answer learners needed to understand that ‘isn’t as big as most bikes, which was a surprise’
corresponded to ‘smaller than she expected’ in multiple-choice option.

Question 12

Mostly correct, B; most common incorrect response was A (which followed the other two options).

Question 13

Mostly correct, A; most common incorrect response was C (‘competitions’ in this distractor followed the other two options and was at the end of
the relevant section of the recording).

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Question 14

Mostly correct, B; by far the most common incorrect response was C.

Question 15

Mostly incorrect (correct was C); by far the most common incorrect response was B (this distractor followed reference to the other two options
on recording).

Question 16

Mostly correct (but also a lot wrong); correct was ‘Etosha’ (spelt on recording). Incorrect responses included misspellings of the answer (e.g.
‘Itosha’, ‘Etosya’, ‘Etorsha’), ‘a’ and ‘Kruger’ (distractor) and ‘animal’. And quite a number of learners gave no response at all.

Question 17

Mostly incorrect (correct was ‘truck(s)); errors included ‘car(s)’ (distractor and probably the most common incorrect), ‘track(s), truk(s), plane,
plain, tram, 14 hours (i.e. flight time), ‘Etosha’. And quite a number of learners gave no response at all.

Question 18

Only a small minority of learners had this correct; seemingly the least successfully answered question on the paper (correct was ‘birds’ – plural
needed). Incorrect responses included ‘animals’ (by far the most common), ‘brids’, ‘bird’, ‘elephants’, ‘buffalos’ and ‘zebras/zibras’. And quite a
number of learners gave no response at all. The problem may have been that the gap on the text was preceded by ‘many different’ and the
recording had ‘so many wild animals’ (followed by ‘zebras’ and ‘buffalos’) and so many learners made an incorrect correlation.

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Question 19

Mostly incorrect (correct was ‘lions’ – plural needed); incorrect responses included ‘a (small) group of lions’, (on the recording but not given on
mark scheme and did not fit in the gap preceded by ‘some’), ‘elephant(s)’, ‘lion’ and ‘giraffes’ (with various misspellings). And quite a number of
learners gave no response at all.

Question 20

Mostly correct, ‘map(s)’ and sometimes the only correct response in this part of the test; most common incorrect responses were distractors
‘photo(s)’ (with some misspellings), ‘diary’, and ‘all my things’.

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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.4 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English as a second Language 0837

Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this
syllabus in this series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

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3. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0844

3.1 Comments on specific questions – English 0844 component 01

General comments

‘Penguins’, an information text, had a clear structure with subheadings to help learners’ general understanding. The Antarctica text was a piece
of persuasive writing that included three paragraphs of information after two paragraphs of ‘selling’. There were examples of imperatives,
hyperbole and alliteration as devices to persuade.

Overall, responses to questions which required straightforward information retrieval (mainly on the Penguin text) were good. Often just a word
or short phrase was needed to gain a mark. Less successful learners lost marks through not reading questions carefully enough and infringing
the requirements of the rubric. Responses to more challenging questions, mainly on the Antarctica text, were perhaps less strong because they
need learners to use evidence in the text to deduce the correct answer, or to show an appreciation of the writer’s intended effect. With multiple
choice questions, learners rarely ticked more than the required amount of boxes, and where they changed their minds they erased a wrong tick
clearly.

In Section B, the technical aspects of written work, such as spelling and punctuation, continue to be good generally; however, learners found
other aspects of writing, such as purpose and audience, to be more challenging. More successful learners made use of the planning box to
organise their ideas and note who they were writing for and why.

Question 1

Most learners ticked the correct box, having linked the fact that Antarctica is cold and icy with Emperor penguins preferring a cold climate.

Question 2

Most learners identified waddling and sliding as the two methods penguins use to get around on land. Most learners followed the instruction to
give only two words from the paragraph. Less successful responses offered several words or a phrase, making it unclear which word had been
identified as the answer. Others missed the part of the question which asked how penguins got about ‘on land’.

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Question 3

Most learners identified the two features. A common error, but neutral, was writing as an answer ‘a layer of fat together’ on one line, suggesting
that the learner could retrieve information but not necessarily understand it.

Question 4

Another strong response from most learners, with few infringing the instruction to find one word. Less strong learners offered descriptions of the
camouflage ‘black and white’ rather than the word.

Question 5

Stronger learners focused on the purpose of including the information in brackets and offered ‘because it is extra information’ or ‘it is
unnecessary for the sentence’. A minority focused on ‘translating’ the content of the brackets. This question was looking for something more
than simply information retrieval.

Question 6

Although this was a question that most learners were able to answer correctly, very few gave the simple ‘in its mouth’ answer, preferring
instead to quote the full ‘the parent will get food, and stores it in its mouth (to feed the chick)’. Some learners lost a mark by quoting more than
this, thereby supplying information that could be read as an alternative answer.

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Question 7

(a) Stronger learners had noted the instruction to look at the other sub-headings, and provided a two word sub-heading which accurately
reflected the content of the paragraph. Learners who found this question challenging either focused on the wrong paragraph, or lost a
mark by writing four or more word answers. The majority of learners were successful here.

(b) A significant number of learners are clearly aware of the navigational aspects involved in assisting the reader in locating information.
The majority expressed this understanding, but some confused paragraph and text, and so lost a mark. This type of question is an
effective way of assessing whether learners understand how texts are put together.

Question 8

Most learners gained one mark, and many gained both marks. Both answers were from the same paragraph so learners did not have to look
far.

Question 9

The vast majority of learners scored the first mark, offering connectives/conjunctions/linking words as answers, but very few gained a mark for
the passive verb form.

Question 10

This was a challenging question, and a minority of learners achieved a mark here. Most provided imprecise answers, or answers that repeated
the imperative in the quote: the writer wants us to imagine what it’s like. Other unsuccessful approaches included ‘trying to persuade’ or ‘wants
us to keep reading’. Stronger learners realised that the desired effect was ‘to feel as if they were there’.

Question 11

Most marks here were achieved for ‘exclamation mark’. Only stronger learners managed to gain the second mark, usually for mentioning a
device such as rhyme or metaphor in relation to ‘ice/paradise’.

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Question 12

Nearly all learners understood and could identify an example of alliteration, with few misunderstanding the instruction and providing an example
from their experience rather than from the text. Stronger learners understood and identified personification.

Question 13

Most learners gained both marks here. Learners needed to understand that the word ‘provided’ in the text is synonymous with the word
‘supplied’ in the question. Careless reading by weaker learners led to answers such as ‘snow boots’, ‘hiking boots’ ‘back packs’: things from the
final paragraph.
Question 14

This was a challenging question. It tested understanding of implicit meanings, so it was important that learners considered that ‘conditions can
change quickly’ and that extra supplies and clothing might be needed to cope with possible delays in these circumstances. It is cold in
Antarctica, so it was not enough to say that more clothes might be needed in case hikers got cold; the question was looking for a change from
the norm. Linking these two ideas was essential. Some learners studied the different areas of the text carefully and made the connection to
gain the marks; others relied on repeating the stem of the question and adding the idea of clothing or delays without including the idea of the
unexpected.

Question 15

(a) Responses to this question were split between those learners who had noted the word ‘purpose’ in the question and simply answered
‘information’, and those who listed the contents of the three paragraphs, or said ‘persuasion’.

(b) As with part (a), there was an even split between those learners who rehashed their answer to 7(b), about the purpose of subheadings
generally, and those who achieved a mark by considering the writer’s specific purpose in posing questions as subtitles. The best
responses pointed out the dialogue that such a device establishes between the reader and the writer, and the sub-titles’ highlighting of
the frequently asked questions.

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Question 16

Most learners made a good attempt to respond to aspects of the task stimulus; however, while many learners used an appropriate style for
some of their pieces, others allowed their focus on some aspects of the task to drift. The required text was an article to appear in a school
magazine, and therefore ideally written to appeal to an audience of peers. Its purpose was to persuade peers to join in a leisure time activity the
writer was enthusiastic about. Less strong learners used not only the format of the Antarctica piece, but felt they should be writing about an
activity based in Antarctica, whether basketball or dancing, or swimming with penguins. Where learners made good use of the planning box, it
was evident that they were able to shape their writing with care and to work out how to meet the different requirements of the task.

Stronger learners sustained their attempts to persuade, and used appropriate devices such as imperatives and dramatic adjectives throughout.
Where they incorporated information they used it as a further persuasive device. Less strong learners wrote reports or instructional pieces
about their favoured leisure time activity.
Content, Purpose and Audience

Most learners managed to start their writing with persuasion in mind, often using the opening of the Antarctica piece as a model. Stronger
learners remembered that the leisure time activity was being recommended to their peers, and used appropriate language choices consistently.
They developed their points by including information about benefits of participating in their chosen activity. Those who found the writing task
more challenging tended to write an advertisement for, say, a favourite computer game. While this approach was persuasive, it lost sight of
audience, format, and platform (a school magazine article).

Text Structure and Organisation

Very few learners wrote without paragraphing. Most learners used sub-headings. Stronger learners’ paragraphs began with an introductory
sentence followed by related detail. Such responses tended to have links between paragraphs, which lent the whole piece a sense of structure.

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Sentence Structure and Punctuation

Despite there being few models of complex sentences in text B, several learners made attempts to use complex structures to develop their
ideas. Less successful learners made attempts at more ambitious structures, which lost grammatical sense, either through the mismatching of
tenses or a loss of agreement between nouns and verbs. Simple structures were generally securely punctuated. Stronger learners linked ideas
within sentences by using a range of connectives, and were able to punctuate using commas to introduce clauses and to separate items in a
list. They also attempted to use colons and semi-colons.

Spelling

A sound knowledge of the spelling of words in common everyday use was demonstrated in most responses. Strategies to spell compound
words and tackle more complex structures are clearly working, as many learners achieved the full three marks here.

47
3. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0844

3.2 Comments on specific questions – English 0844 component 02

General comments

Learners were engaged by the content of the text, ‘The Worst Witch’ by Jill Murphy. Many showed some good understanding of characters and
events. Learners who were able to differentiate between implicit and explicit questions scored well. Less confident learners sometimes
struggled to identify the evidence required for more challenging questions.

In multiple choice questions, learners need to take care about the number of ticks to give. Occasionally, an incorrect number of ticks was given.
Also, careful reading of each question is essential so that the basic meaning is understood; for example, where a single word or phrase is
needed as opposed to a lengthy quote. Furthermore, where a longer quote was required, marks were sometimes lost in responses where too
many words were given, thus ‘hiding’ the actual quote that was needed.

In Section B, it was apparent that most learners did respond well to the stimulus. Stories usually featured Mildred, and there were very few that
did not pick up the idea of her being in trouble about the broken broomstick. The most successful stories invariably focused on the problem and
the characters’ reaction to it. These learners managed to create a degree of suspense and used ambitious vocabulary choices and sentence
structures to create an interesting and engaging narrative.

Section A

Question 1

This was a multiple choice question testing explicit meaning. Most learners were able to gain at least one mark here. Careful reading was
needed to get the two correct answers. Overall, most gained one mark here. A small number of learners only ticked one box.

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Question 2

(a) Most learners were awarded a mark here.

(b) Although the simile was identified correctly, most learners found it challenging to engage with its meaning. Most linked ‘flitting’ with
‘flying’, but did not mention ‘how’ in terms of speed.

Question 3

There was often some misunderstanding of the word ‘atmosphere’ here. A significant number of learners took the meaning as related to the
weather. The question asked ‘What atmosphere does the writer create ’ The writer does not ‘create’ the weather and those that answered
correctly understood the success of the writer in establishing the impression of, for example, a ‘spooky’ or ‘mysterious’ mood or feeling.

Question 4

This question was handled very well by the majority of learners. Learners were generally accurate with extracting the ‘main colours’ from the
text. A few gave too much information, thereby negating the correct answer with detail.

Question 5

Generally, this question was very well answered, with many gaining two marks.

Question 6

Successful learners recognised that Mildred ‘broke the rules’ and made the teachers angry. The additional comment about ‘annoying the
teachers’ was insufficient on its own. A few learners repeated the stem of the question, that the teachers ‘got angry with her’, with no further
information, and consequently lost the mark. Specific answers, such as ‘she broke her broom’, did not recognise the general wording of the
question.

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Question 7

This question proved to be a challenge for many learners, but allowed higher attaining learners to score a mark. This implicit question was
understood by the learners who used their inferential skills to respond correctly about her not intending to cause trouble.

Question 8

Many learners described how Mildred’s friends knew that she could cause an accident or expose them to danger by her actions. The reference
to the context (line 20) helped learners to describe how Mildred was accident prone or could cause damage; however, the idea that Mildred’s
friends did not want to get into trouble was also popular. Responses needed to pick up the idea given in the question that reference had to refer
to possible events in the potions laboratory. General answers that mentioned her general conduct around the school did not focus upon the
wording of the question.

Question 9

This question raised some issues with understanding the meaning of ‘scary’. Many answers were quite ‘random’, with answers ranging from
other adjectives, such as ‘tubby’ to examples from different word classes, such as ‘yelling’.

Question 10

Most learners gained a mark here. The concept of loyalty was well understood.

Question 11

Many learners identified correctly that the gift of the kitten was part of the tradition of the school. Learners needed to examine information that
included two sentences to find the right answer.

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Question 12

This multiple choice question required careful reading to judge the context, and therefore the meaning, of the phrase. Almost all learners
correctly ticked one box correctly.

Question 13

Many learners were successful in gaining a mark here by naming two items. There was some confusion where some named the ‘book of spells’
and a ‘three inch thick volume’ as two items. Both referred to one item – the spell book. Interestingly, a number of learners named a ‘cat’ – this
was given in the question: ‘Apart from a black kitten ’.

Question 14

The majority of learners were able to identify the correct sentence in the text, but errors in quoting affected whether or not the mark was
awarded. Successful learners identified the sentence directly linked with graduation: ‘ ever get that far’.

Question 15

(a) Responses to this question were mixed. Some learners knew that ‘cackle’ referred to laughter associated with wicked delight in the
suffering of others; others appeared to be guessing. Learners who did not score often focused on general attributes given in the text
rather than the name itself.

(b) It was important here to read the question carefully. One word was asked for. Where a whole sentence was given, too much
information does not illustrate that a learner understands the relevant vocabulary.

Question 16

This question was generally answered very well, with many learners gaining two marks. Most gave the ‘first person’ response and a number of
learners mentioned that Mildred’s ‘thoughts and feelings’ would be expressed in the account.

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Question 17

(a) Many learners found this question challenging. Some, however, had clearly been taught about these devices, and remembered the
point about ‘extra information’.

(b) Some learners gave a precise answer here, suggesting that there has been some good teaching about dashes emphasising
information within a sentence.

Question 18

This question required learners to demonstrate their knowledge of different fiction genres. With witches as the main topic, both ‘horror’ and
‘traditional tale’ were tempting options and plausible answers; however, the text clearly had no other feature of either of these genres and many
features of ‘fantasy’.

Section B

Question 19

Most learners managed to write a story involving Mildred as the main protagonist, often with Maud and Miss Cackle featuring in some way.
Characters were usually described in a way that was consistent with the given text, showing Maud to be the loyal friend and Miss Cackle as a
strict, rather unpleasant person.

There were some excellent stories, characterised by well-described settings and linked to a lively plot with well-built suspense and action.
These learners handled the content and audience well. They used structure and dialogue to create an interesting narrative and to develop
character and mood. Grammatically sound, these were generally well structured and well punctuated, whilst exhibiting a good range of
expressive and appropriate vocabulary. They showed that they were able to move the narrative forward using some complex sentence
structures to express ideas and add descriptive detail.

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The most common problem involved poor punctuation. This was unusual as, historically, this has been a strength. Where attempts were made
to produce a plan, there was evidence that learners could use a range of strategies to organise and set out their ideas. Where planning was
done well, learners wrote a series of well-organised paragraphs with a good balance between action, description and speech. This balance is
an important consideration and it helps to keep learners ‘on track’ as they write.

For a few papers, the handwriting of learners was very difficult to accurately determine capitalisation and, on occasion, spelling, as well as
follow the narrative as the reading was difficult. There was less retelling or ‘copying’ from TV, movies and video games than in previous
sessions – although these elements were still present in some stories. There were, however, a number of stories based on the ‘Harry Potter’
series of stories.

Content, purpose and audience

The best narratives were those in which learners used good description and added detail. Problems, such as those encountered when mending
the broken broomstick and their resolution moved the narrative forward. Successful learners ensured that their narratives progressively
revealed something of their characters’ actions and reactions to events as the plot developed. Where the use of devices to create precise
images was seen, these strong stories used a solid connection between the characters and events. There was evidence of ambitious structures
and vocabulary, and some degree of control in achieving a balance between action, dialogue and description. There were some interesting
developments in terms of new characters and settings. The narrative viewpoint in the majority of stories remained consistent.

The stimulus allowed for excitement, dilemma and engagement of the audience, which successful learners attempted to employ well. Those
learners who added descriptive details, for example, describing the characters’ reactions to different events as they unfolded during the telling
of the story, produced a response from the reader. These successful learners developed their use of vocabulary by using precise words where
the choice of a particular word, or words, contributed significantly to the creation of image and mood. The best examples of writing managed to
create atmosphere and describe feelings, and included the effective use of adverbs to modify verbs. These learners also demonstrated
knowledge of how to improve writing by choosing and experimenting with ambitious words. Learners who produced writing like this also
showed the ability to deploy metaphors or similes to good effect. These learners often managed to control the content so that the reader is fully
engaged, and showed an awareness of the audience.

53
The stimulus required stories to continue the narrative based upon the text. Some learners struggled with the use of the problem, using simple
vocabulary. Clearly, these learners found it challenging to create a mood or feeling. Word choices are important to achieve success here and
help to develop and maintain a relationship with the reader. A number of stories finished abruptly, thus limiting the marks awarded.

Those learners who found developing a story-line to be challenging would benefit from exploring ways of developing plot within a story. The key
to this lies mainly in the use of more description and the inclusion of detail. Developing the narrative is an area that could be addressed in class
so that learners are able to sustain their efforts and create stories with well-described characters, action and detail. Where learners are able to
construct a profile of their stories – an introduction (characters/setting), a build-up (a sequence of events), a climax leading to a resolution and
an ending – they are generally successfully.

Text Structure and organisation

Good, well-structured stories were usually written by learners who understood that a story needs a beginning, middle and an end. Higher
scoring stories also showed a developed structure usually comprising an opening, a problem, development, a climax, resolution and an ending.
Many learners used paragraphs to organise and structure writing. Using paragraphs and learning about their purpose works towards improving
the structure of a piece of writing. Successful learners gained marks where they showed a good understanding of paragraphs by linking them
together effectively, for example through contrasts in mood, shifts in time and changes in location.

Most learners attempted to sequence their stories, which was effective when paragraph breaks were evident. In many narratives, a lack of
cohesive devices was evident, especially where the use of connectives was limited. Although content was generally clear in most stories, the
coherence of many was less strong, sometimes with jumps of logic or assumptions that the reader would understand what was happening
without clear explanations.

54
Sentence structure and punctuation

Simple sentence structures were used by most learners to express their ideas. The control of verb forms was generally good in these sentence
structures so that consistency was achieved. Many learners were able to link simple sentences using ‘and’, ‘but’ or ‘then’. They were also able
to add simple details using adjectives. Some learners were adventurous in their attempts to expand their writing with complex and detailed
sentences using grammatically correct clauses. These learners were able to demonstrate the use of a range of phrases and clauses to develop
ideas. A few of these showed the careful use of expanded phrases, particularly adjectival, adverbial and verb phrases, to develop ideas with a
wide variety of connectives to keep the story pace flowing and to develop ideas. Stronger learners constructed some quite ambitious
sentences, which were enhanced by carefully chosen adjectives and adverbs and the positioning of clauses for effect. Sometimes these
learners showed how the use of short simple sentences, especially in short one-sentence paragraphs, can help to build suspense. These
stories were usually well punctuated too. The use of the comma to mark out clauses or separate phrases within long sentences has shown an
improvement in the work of stronger learners. Speech marks were often placed accurately around spoken words, and many were able to make
good attempts to place other speech punctuation correctly.

Spelling

This continues to be a strong aspect of learners’ work. There is evidence of good teaching across all levels of ability; learners are able to use
blends, patterns and polysyllabic high-frequency words. Stronger learners showed ambition in their word choices, demonstrating the accurate
spelling of words with complex regular patterns.

55
3. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0844

3.4 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English 0844

Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this
syllabus in this series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

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4. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845

4.1 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics 0845 component 01

General comments

Topics that were well covered:

• Finding a pair of two-digit numbers with a total of 100 (Question 1)

• Finding the area of a rectangle by counting squares. (Question 2)
• Recalling multiples of 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 9 (Question 3)
• Finding one eighth of a shape. (Question 4)
• Finding pairs of decimal numbers with a total of 1 (Question 12)
• Recognising and using the structure of a historical number system. (Question 15(a) and 15(b))
• Know the value of each digit in a five-digit number. (Question 16)
• Ordering numbers with one and two decimal places. (Question 18)

Topics that proved to be more difficult:

• Using equivalence to order fractions with different denominators. (Question 7)

• Solving a number puzzle involving counting back in steps of 200 (Question 8)
• Dividing a two-digit by a one-digit number: giving the answer as a mixed number. (Question 13)
• Solving a spacial problem involving the visualisation of a 3D object from a 2D drawing. (Question 14(a) and 14(b))
• Dividing a three digit by a one-digit number: giving the answer as a decimal. (Question 24(a))
• Solving a spacial problem involving the plotting of co-ordinate points in all four quadrants. (Question 25(b))
• Solving a number puzzle involving the rounding of a 4-digit number to the nearest thousand. (Question 26)
• Using a given conversion factor to express a number of kilometres in miles. (Question 27)
• Solving a number puzzle involving the calculation of the range of a set of data. (Question 28(b))

70
Some of the general issues that effected marking:

Numerals should be clear and unambiguous. Any changes to answers should be unambiguous. Where changes are made these should be
affected by crossing out and rewriting separately. No numerals should be overwritten. Some marks may have been lost where a candidate’s
intentions were not clear.

In two-mark questions working out should be shown. Candidates could be awarded one mark for showing a correct method even if the final
answer was incorrect. Marks may have been lost where no working was shown.

Mathematically specific vocabulary such as: clockwise, mixed number, difference, divisible, area, perimeter, reflection, 24-hour clock, and
range need to be used in context and understood.

The conventions demonstrated by the Cambridge Primary Mathematics framework for recording number, measurements and money, should be
known and adhered to.

Question 1

Objective: To find a pair of two-digit numbers with a total of 100

Common Errors: 133 (calculating 100 + 33)

77 (incorrect calculation of 100 – 33)

Question 2

Objective: To find the area of a rectangle by counting squares.

Common Errors: Some candidates ignored the square grid and measured the sides of the rectangle in centimetres.
A few then correctly used these dimensions to calculate the area of the rectangle in cm2
Whilst not penalized in the marking it did potentially penalize with the time taken.

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Question 3

Objective: To know multiples of 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 9

Common Errors: Most candidates answered this correctly. The most common error was giving an incorrect answer to 9 × 6

Question 4

Objective: To identify an eighth of a shape.

Common Errors: Most candidates answered this correctly. The most common incorrect answers were: 4 triangles shaded and 1 triangle
shaded.

Question 5

Objective: To sort data in a Venn diagram using two criteria.

Common Errors: Placing 20 more than once: e.g.

72
 Another common error was to place 20, 22 and 25 correctly but omit 23 rather than placing it outside the two criteria but
within the universal set.

Question 6

Objective: To know that the angle in a complete turn is 3600 and one right angle is 900

Common Errors: 90° (turning anti-clockwise).

‘Cotton’ or one of the other labels from the control (a misunderstanding of what was required from the question).

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Question 7

Objective: To use equivalence to help order fractions with different denominators.

7 3
Common Errors: Stating that is larger than without offering any mathematical justification.
10 5
Saying that Angelique was correct because 7 × 10 > 3 × 5. This is possibly a confused attempt at carrying out ‘cross
multiplication’.
Regarding cross multiplication: this is not included in the primary framework. Its explanation and proof are beyond this
level.
7 3
A few candidates offered 7 × 5 = 35 and 10 × 3 = 30 as proof that is larger than but did not provide any mathematical
10 5
justification. This was not sufficient for the mark to be awarded.
7 3
Stating that is larger/smaller than because tenths are larger/smaller than fifths.
10 5
A few candidates used pictorial representations to show the two fractions. Where they failed to make the two shapes
congruent no valid comparison could be made.

Question 8

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving counting back in steps of 200 .

Common Errors: 3521 (counting back four steps of 200: 4321 – 800)

Question 9

Objective: To demonstrate an understanding of the effect of multiplying a number by 100

Common Errors: A variety of incorrect answers were given the most common being D (6590)

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Question 10

Objective: To express halves, tenths and hundredths as a percentage.

4 3
Common Errors: The most common errors were: write as 4 per cent and write as 3 per cent.
10 10

Question 11

(a) Objective: To write a time written in 12 hour format as a time written in 24 hour format.

Common Errors: The most common errors related to using an incorrect format, e.g. 22.30 10:30 10:30 pm ‘Half past ten’

(b) Objective: To write a time given in worded format as a time written in 24 hour format.

Common Errors: The most common errors related to using an incorrect format, e.g. 8.45 08:45 pm
More candidates gave the wrong time in part (b), e.g. 09:40 09:45

Question 12

Objective: To find pairs of decimal numbers with a total of 1

Common Errors: Missing one or more of the required pairs, in particular (7.5 + 2.5)
Selecting an incorrect pair. These were often where the units added to 10 and the tenths added to 1,
e.g. (7.5 + 3.5)(1.6 + 9.4)

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Question 13

Objective: To divide a two-digit number by a one-digit number and give the answer as a mixed number.

Common Errors: 4.8 (a correct calculation but the answer recorded as a decimal)
4 remainder 4 (a correct calculation but the answer recorded as a quotient with remainder)

Question 14
(a) Objective: To solve a spacial problem involving the visualising of a 3D object from a 2D drawing.

Common Errors: 27 blocks (possibly because this is the number of block faces visible in the drawing)

(b) Objective: To solve a spacial problem involving the visualising of a 3D object from a 2D drawing.

Common Errors: 9 blocks (possibly because this is the number of blocks visible in one face of the cube)

Question 15

(a) Objective: To recognise and use the structure of a historical number system.

Common Errors: Most candidates answered this correctly.

(b) Objective: To recognise and use the structure of a historical number system.

Common Errors: Most candidates answered this correctly.

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Question 16

Objective: To know the value of each digit in a five-digit number.

Common Errors: Most candidates answered this correctly.

Question 17

Objective: To draw the reflective image of a polygon where the sides are not parallel or perpendicular to the mirror line.

Common Errors: Most errors were caused by not realizing that the mirror line was asymmetrically positioned on the array of dots.
This led to two types of error:
Translating the image one space to the right Distorting the image: e.g.

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Question 18

Objective: To order numbers with one and two decimal places.

Common Errors: Whilst most candidates answered correctly, a significant number were confused by place value after the decimal point,
leading to:

Question 19

Objective: To recognise and use the equivalence between decimal and fraction forms.

Common Errors: 4.5 (4 + 0.5)

40.5 (4 × 10) + 0.5
4.5  4 + 0.5 
10  10 

Question 20

Objective: To use place value and multiplication facts to multiply and divide decimal numbers.

Common Errors: Not seeing the connection between the given number sentence and the required calculations and calculating from first
principals.
Where candidates did demonstrate an understanding of the connections there were still a number of errors with place
value.

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Question 21

Objective: To know and apply tests of divisibility by 4 and 5

Common Errors: Listing the multiples of 4 between 70 and 130 and the multiples of 5 between 70 and 130 without identifying numbers
common to both lists.
Correctly identifying one or two of the common multiples but not identifying the third.

Question 22

Objective: To know that the angles in a triangle add up to 1800 and use this fact to calculate an unknown angle.

Common Errors: 90° Possibly identifying the wrong angle to calculate.

130° Calculating 180° – 30°
65° Possibly an attempt to measure the angle.

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Question 23

Objective: To find the difference between a positive and a negative integer in the context of thermometer readings.

Common Errors: 12°C and –5°C Giving both readings without calculating the difference.
7°C Calculating 12°C – 5°C
–17°C Calculating –5°C – 12°C rather than 12°C – –5°C
A number of candidates carried out the calculation correctly but misread one or both of the readings.

Question 24

(a) Objective: To divide an amount of money by a single-digit number where the answer is not a whole number.

Common Errors: $31.20 Making an error when dividing past the decimal point.
$31 Truncating the answer inappropriately.

(b) Objective: To multiply an amount of money by a single-digit number where the answer is not a whole number.

Common Errors: $258.60 Truncating the answer inappropriately.

A variety of answers were given which were the result of computational errors.

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Question 25

(a) Objective: To plot a co-ordinate point using all four quadrants.

Common Errors: Shading the point (–1, 1)

Not shading any point.

(b) Objective: To solve a spacial problem that involves reading co-ordinate points in all four quadrants.

Common Errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were given, the most common being due to:
Giving three points that were not collinear.
Giving three points that include some that were already shaded.
Giving two correct points but repeating the point given in part (a) as the third point.

Question 26

Objective: To solve a number puzzle that involves rounding of a 4-digit number to the nearest thousand.

Common Errors: A variety of incorrect answers were given including:

3000 3501 3900 4001

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Question 27

Objective: To use a given conversion factor to express a number of kilometres in miles.

Common Errors: 140 miles (28 × 5)

 8
44.8 miles  28 × 5 
 
 28 
15 miles  8 = 3 and then 3 × 5 = 15 
 
Question 28

(a) Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the calculation of the mode of a set of data.

Common Errors: Listing three numbers with a sum of 6, e.g. (1, 2, 3)

Listing three multiples of 6, e.g. (6, 12, 18)

(b) Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the calculation of the range of a set of data.

Common Errors: Listing two numbers with a difference of 7 and a third outside this range, e.g. (1, 9, 8)
Listing three multiples of 7, e.g. (7, 14, 21)

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4. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845

4.2 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics 0845 component 02

General comments

Topics that were well covered:

• Writing a four-digit number in figures. (Question 1)

• Reading and interpreting divisions on a partially numbered scale. (Question 2)
• Solving a number puzzle involving the addition of three two-digit numbers. (Question 3)
• Making general statements about the sums and differences of odd and even numbers. (Question 4)
• Recognising the equivalence between the decimal and vulgar fraction forms of halves/quarters. (Question 5)
• Reading and interpreting data in a pictogram. (Question 6(a))
• Constructing a simple line graph to show changes in temperature over time. (Question 9)
1 1 1 1
• Expressing s, s, s, and as percentages. (Question 17)
2 4 10 100

Topics that proved to be more difficult:

• Solving a worded number puzzle involving the doubling of a multiple of 10 (Question 14)
• Describing the occurrence of a simple event using the language associated with probability. (Question 16(a))
• Describing a possible event on a given spinner that has an even chance of occurring. (Question 16(b))
3
• Solving a worded problem that involves finding of a quantity. (Question 24)
10
• Solving a number puzzle involving the comparison of decimal and vulgar fractions using < and >. (Question 25)
• Solving a number puzzle involving the identification of prime numbers less than 20 (Question 26)
• Solving a number puzzle involving the use of brackets and an understanding of the laws of arithmetic. (Question 27)
• Converting from one unit of time to another. (Question 28)

83
Some of the general issues that effected marking:

Candidates should have access to a calculator to complete this paper. They should be familiar with its functions and able to use it
appropriately. There was some evidence that this was not always the case resulting in avoidable arithmetic errors and a possible loss of time.

Numerals should be clear and unambiguous. Any changes to answers should be unambiguous. Where changes are made these should be
affected by crossing out and rewriting separately. No numerals should be overwritten. Some marks may have been lost where a candidate’s
intentions were not clear.

In two-mark questions working out should be shown. Candidates could be awarded one mark for showing a correct method even if the final
answer was incorrect. Marks may have been lost where no working was shown.

Mathematically specific vocabulary such as: odd, even, prime numbers, equivalent, ‘nearest whole number’, factors, multiple, ‘even chance’
(and other terms associated with probability), rectangle, perimeter, area, and polygon, need to be used in context and understood.

Question 1

Objective: To write a four-digit number in figures.

Common Errors: Although most candidates answered this correctly the following errors were seen a number of times:
Misunderstanding of place value, e.g. 4000.76 and 40 0076
Misplacing digits, e.g. 4067
Misunderstanding ‘figures’, e.g. Drawing a diagram.

Question 2

Objective: To read and interpreting divisions on a partially numbered scale.

Common Errors: Most candidates answered this correctly. Some candidates did misread the scale leading to the following types of error:
Taking each division past 100 g as 1 g leading to: 103 g
Taking each division past 100 g as 20 g leading to 160 g
Taking each division before 150 g as 5 g leading to 140 g

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Question 3

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the addition of three, two-digit numbers.

Common Errors: Using some of the given cards more than once, e.g.

Getting only two lines to add to 120, e.g.

A number of candidates wrote a number in the middle square.

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Question 4

Objective: To make general statements about the sums and differences of odd and even numbers.

Common Errors: The two most common errors were to think that odd + even is even and odd – odd is odd.

Question 5

Objective: To recognise the equivalence between the decimal and vulgar fraction forms of halves/quarters.

2
Common Errors:
5

3
5

Question 6

(a) Objective: To read and interpret data in a pictogram.

Common Errors: 4.5 Taking each symbol to be one student.

(b) Objective: To compare data in two pictograms where the symbols have different values.

Common Errors: Restating the value of each symbol in both pictograms but not evaluating how many students cycled each week
Stating that Rajiv was correct because three people cycled in week 1 and two in week 2 (taking each symbol to
represent one person in both pictograms)

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Question 7

Objective: To solve a number puzzle that involves adding pairs of three-digit numbers.

Most candidates got this answer correct

More errors were made with this answer where
where candidates did not apply the inverse
function correctly.

This then made the answer in the final square incorrect.

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Question 8

Objective: To devise the directions required to follow a given path.

Common Errors:

The last instruction does not get into the park as required.

Question 9

Objective: To construct a simple line graph to show changes in temperature over time.

Common Errors: The most common error was to plot, e.g. the temperature at 14:00 incorrectly

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Question 10

Objective: To identify square numbers (up to 100)

Common Errors: Only selecting two of the three square numbers, e.g.

Selecting a non-square number, often 8, 20 or 54, e.g.

Question 11

Objective: To round numbers with one or two decimal places to the nearest whole number.

Common Errors: A number of errors were made in the original calculations prior to rounding, suggesting a calculator was not always used
appropriately.
Several candidates included a decimal in their rounded answers suggesting they were not clear what was meant by ‘whole
number’.
A wide variety of incorrect roundings were employed.
Often each line was rounded to a different tolerance, e.g.

(rounding to the nearest 10 or 100)

(rounding to the nearest 10)

(rounding to the nearest 1, 10 or 100)

(rounding to the nearest 1000)

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Question 12

Objective: To use ratio to solve a problem.

Common Errors: 10 fish (possibly by calculating 20 ÷ 2 or 5 × 2)

Question 13

Objective: To use the context of a question to decide whether to round up or down after carrying out a division.

Common Errors: 8 (not taking account of the context and truncating the actual answer: )
8.222 or 8 rem.2 (not taking account of the context and giving an answer that was not a whole number.)

Question 14

Objective: To solve a worded problem that involves doubling a multiple of 10

Common Errors: 1500 (1650 – 150 )

 1650 
675  − 150 
 2 

Question 15

(a) Objective: To convert a number of metres to centimetres.

Common Errors: 0.334 cm (33.4 ÷ 100)

(b) Objective: To convert a number of centimetres to metres.

Common Errors: 3340 m (33.4 × 100)

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Question 16

(a) Objective: To describe the occurrence of a simple event using the language associated with probability.

Common Errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were given.

(b) Objective: To describe a possible event on a given spinner that has an even chance of occurring.

Common Errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were given.

Some candidates described events unrelated to this question, e.g. ‘it will snow tomorrow’

Question 17

1 1 1 1
Objective: To express s, s, s, and as percentages.
2 4 10 100

Common Errors: Most candidates answered this correctly. The two errors most commonly seen were:

3 2
25% and 25%
4 10

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Question 18

Objective: To find the factors of a two-digit number.

Common Errors: Missing out 1 × 42 = 42

Using non-integers, e.g. 4 × 10.5 = 42

Question 19

Objective: To multiple a pair of multiples of 10 and to multiple a multiple of 10 by a multiple of 100

Common Errors: For the common errors were 2 and 2000 (40 × 50)

For the most common error was 18 000 (300 × 60)

Question 20

(a) Objective: To draw a rectangle with a given perimeter.

Common Errors: Drawing a rectangle with an area of 12 cm2

Drawing a triangle.
Drawing a rectangle labelled with the correct dimensions but where the actual shape drawn was incorrect.

(b) Objective: To draw a rectangle with a given area.

Common Errors: Drawing a rectangle with a perimeter of 12 cm

Drawing a triangle.
Drawing a rectangle labelled with the correct dimensions but where the actual shape drawn was incorrect.

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Question 21

Objective: To classify 2D shapes according to whether they are polygons or not and according to whether they contain a right angle
or not.

Common Errors: Classifying as ‘not a polygon’

Classifying as ‘has right angles’

A number of candidates placed letters in more than one position on the Carroll diagram.

Question 22

Objective: To solve a worded problem involving the subtraction of one amount of money from another.

Common Errors: $31.25 Calculating the cost of 25 single tickets (25 × $1.25)

Question 23

Objective: To use direct proportion to adapt a recipe for four people so that it is suitable for six people,

Common Errors: Most candidates appeared to get the quantities for the first two ingredients correct with most errors being made with the
last two, e.g. 1700 ml stock (850 × 2)
5 teaspoons flour (possibly calculating 3 × 1.5 but inappropriately rounding up)

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Question 24
ଷ
Objective: To solve a worded problem that involves finding of a quantity.
ଵ଴

3
Common Errors: $4.50 incorrectly calculating of $1.50 to be $0.30 and then using this to calculate 5 × $0.30 + 2 × $1.50
10
3
$5.50 incorrectly calculating of $1.50 be $0.50 and then using this to calculate 5 × $0.50 + 2 × $1.50
10

Question 25

Objective: To solve a number puzzle that involves the comparison of decimal and vulgar fractions using < and >.

Common Errors: In both parts the most common error was to equate each side of the statement using =.
Some candidates reversed the signs: < and >. This could be due to a misunderstanding of their meanings.

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Question 26

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the identification of prime numbers less than 20

Common Errors: Using a diagonal path, e.g.

Including 1, e.g.

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Question 27

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the use of brackets and an understanding of the laws of arithmetic.

Common Errors: (6 × 1.5) + (4.9 × 4) = 55.6

Some candidates rewrote the expression implying they believed the calculation to be wrong.

Question 28

Objective: To convert from one unit of time to another.

Common Errors: 3 minutes 56 seconds Correctly adding the times in the table but incorrectly converting 356 seconds into minutes and
seconds.
356 seconds Correctly adding the times in the table but not attempting to convert 356 seconds into minutes
and seconds.

A wide variety of other incorrect answers were given.

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4. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845

4.1 Table and charts of sub-group performances – Mathematics 0845

Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this
syllabus in this series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

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5. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846

5.1 Comments on specific questions – Science 0846 component 01

General comments

Questions based on recall of knowledge were answered well overall. Questions requiring analysis of data and interpretation of that data were
also generally answered well. Some of the open ended questions required more detail and the answers needed to be comparative rather than
stated facts.

Questions relating to practical skills and experiments were answered well by many of the learners showing that hands on experience is
invaluable.

Candidates demonstrated good knowledge of the following areas of the framework: the position of the organs in the body, dissolving, changes
of state and food chains. Areas where there could be greater focus are ways to change pitch in a variety of musical instruments and how we
see objects.

Question 1

Overall learners answered this question well and demonstrated a good understanding of this area of the framework.

Question 2

This is an area of the framework where there could be more focus. Many of the learners thought that weight is measured in kilograms. Some of
the learners thought that mass is measured in metres.

Question 3

Many of the learners answered this question correctly. This is another area of the framework which has been covered well and learners
demonstrated a good understanding of the terminology associated with food chains.

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Question 4

Learners displayed a better understanding of how to make the drum sound louder as opposed to increasing the pitch of the drum. Ways to
change the pitch of different musical instruments is an area of the framework where there could be more focus. Learners need to make sure
that they make answers comparative when they are asked to make something higher or louder.

(a) Good answers to this question were comparative and stated that the skin would be tightened or tighter. Some learners mixed up how
to produce a higher pitch with how to increase the loudness of the drum. Some of the other learners put answers which would increase
the loudness of the drum and produce a higher the pitch. It was unclear if they knew which of the ways they had mentioned would
increase the pitch.

(b) Good answers to this question were comparative and stated that the drum would need to be hit harder or with a greater force. Some
learners mixed up how to increase the loudness of the drum with how to produce a higher pitch sound. Some learners put answers
which would increase the loudness of the drum and produce a higher the pitch. It was unclear if they knew which of the ways they had
mentioned would increase the loudness of the drum.

Question 5

Many of the learners displayed good knowledge of the different separation techniques and when to use them.

(a) Many of the learners utilised the information provided in the table and realised that they needed to use magnetic attraction to separate
a mixture of A and B.

(b) The most common incorrect answer to this question was filtration. The table provided the information that substance D is soluble,
therefore filtration would not work to separate D from water.

(c) The most common incorrect answer to this question was evaporation. The table provided the information that substance C was
insoluble. Therefore they would need to use filtration to separate a mixture of substance C and water.

(d) Some of the learners only ticked one process rather than two as required by the question.

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Question 6

Learners demonstrated that they have a good understanding of this area of the framework.

(a) Learners were very good at interpreting the diagram of the organs of a cat. They also demonstrated good knowledge of the functions
of the organs. Many of the learners correctly identified the position of the lungs.

(b) Many of the learners correctly identified the position of the heart in the body of the cat.

(c) Many of the learners were able to locate an organ which is involved in digesting food in the cat’s organs.

Question 7

Learners should be encouraged to read the instructions of the question carefully and use the word lists provided rather than selecting their own
words.

(a) Most of the learners were able to select the correct materials from the list provided. Some of the learners did not use the list of
materials they were provided with in the question and provided their own suggestions. These answers were accepted if they performed
the required function.

(b) Learners that provided good answers to this question identified that the cable cover was a good insulator of electricity. Some of the
learners discussed that it would stop them from getting an electric shock but did not say why.

Question 8

Some of the learners were able to correctly select all three properties which would be required by the plastic to make it a good food container.
The most common incorrect answer was that it would conduct heat which was often selected rather than that it would need to have a melting
point over 100°C.

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Question 9

Learners demonstrated a good understanding of the topic of forces.

(a) Many of the learners correctly interpreted the actions occurring and were able to select the correct type of force being used.

(b) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.

Question 10

Learners displayed good skills when reading the temperature of the thermometer. Learners also had a good understanding of the processes
causing the changes of state of the water and the candle.

(a) Most of the learners correctly read the scale on the thermometer.

(b) Many of the learners were able to calculate the temperature increase. If their answer to part (a) was incorrect but they then correctly
calculated the temperature rise using their value for part (a), this was accepted for the mark.

(c) Learners showed good knowledge and understanding of this part of the framework and provided good answers about the water
evaporating or boiling.

(d) Learners showed good knowledge and understanding of this part of the framework and provided good answers about the solid candle
wax melting.

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Question 11

Learners were able to use keys and complete a key for identification purposes.

(a) Some of the learners were able to utilise the key and correctly put the organism’s letters in the correct position at the bottom of the
key. Some of the learners wrote the names of the organisms rather than putting the letters, which was fine.

(b) Many of the learners were able to construct a key using the number of legs to identify the spider and the insect.

Question 12

Most of the learners correctly identified the different parts of the plant.

Question 13

This question was answered well by many of the learners. Learners showed a good understanding of this area of the framework.

Question 14

The learners were very good at matching some of the materials to their correct description. The most common incorrect materials were
gasoline and mercury.

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Question 15

Learners showed good knowledge of what a transparent material is. More focus could be placed on the area of the framework where we see
objects because light is reflected from those objects into our eyes.

(a) Learners demonstrated a good understanding of the property of a transparent material and provided good answers including the light
inside the box being able to travel through the material so the light would be clearly seen.

(b) The most common wrong answer for this question included learners stating that we can see the light because it is reflected by our
eyes.

Question 16

Some of the learners displayed a good understanding of this part of the plant life cycle.

(a) Many of the learners correctly identified the particles that were stuck to the bee as pollen. The most common incorrect answers were
seeds and nectar.

(b) Some of the learners provided answers about the process being reproduction which was insufficient for the mark. Learners needed to
be more specific about the process and identify it as pollination. Some of the learners who thought that the particles in part (a) were
seeds thought that the process was seed dispersal showing some confusion between the two processes of pollination and seed
dispersal.

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Question 17

Many learners answered that sunlight is needed for seeds to germinate. Learners were very good at thinking of alternative ways to display the
results and they displayed good skills when analysing the data to compare the growth of the root and the stem on days 4 and 5.

(a) Some of the learners provided good answers about the seeds needing warmth or oxygen to germinate. Many of the learners thought
that sunlight is needed for germination.

(b) Good answers to this question were that the results could be demonstrated in a line graph, a bar chart, or through diagrams and
videos.

(c) Many of the learners were very good at interpreting the results provided to identify similarities and differences between the root and
the stem on days 4 and 5.

Question 18

Leaners showed good knowledge about the poles of the magnets. More emphasis could be placed on which materials are magnetic and that
not all metals are magnetic.

(a) Learners that answered this question well used the key scientific terminology. Correct descriptions of what the magnets would do were
also accepted.

(b) This was answered correctly by some of the learners, demonstrating a good understanding of the magnetic poles.

(c) Many of the learners circled more of the materials as being magnetic. The most common incorrect answers for magnetic materials
were copper and aluminium.

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Question 19

Learners that answered this question well showed that the light would be reflected in a straight line from the mirror. They drew a straight line
from the point which the light ray hit the mirror. They did not need to draw arrows to show the direction of the rays. However, if arrows were
drawn, it was expected that they would show the correct direction.

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5. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846

5.2 Comments on specific questions – Science 0846 component 02

General comments

Questions based on recall of knowledge were answered well overall. Questions requiring analysis of data and interpretation of that data were
also generally answered well. Some of the open ended questions required more detail and further explanation.

Questions relating to practical skills and experiments were answered well by many of the learners showing that hands on experience is
invaluable. The difference between making an investigation a fair test and a reliable test is an area where there could be more focus.

Candidates demonstrated good knowledge of the following areas of the framework: changes of state, adaptation, food chains and reversible
changes. Areas where there could be greater focus are the stages of the plant life cycle and how to change the pitch of a musical instrument.

Question 1

Learners showed a good knowledge of what the bones are needed for. Learners could focus more on the keywords for what a muscle does
when it moves and why this is important.

(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.

(b) Good answers to this question identified that when we run the muscles in our body move as they contract to pull on the bones to make
us move.

Question 2

Only some of the learners demonstrated a good understanding of this area of the framework and were able to put the processes in the correct
order for the plant life cycle. This is an area of the framework where there could be more focus.

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Question 3

Most of the learners answered this question correctly.

Question 4

The learners showed a good understanding of the different ways that animals are adapted to their habitat.

(a) Most of the learners answered this question correctly.

(b) Some of the learners thought that the elephant’s ears are grey to help them keep cool rather than flapping their ears to keep cool.

Question 5

This is an area of the framework where the learners demonstrated very good knowledge. They were also able to interpret the information
provided.

(a) Many of the learners demonstrated a good understanding of this area of the framework and correctly interpreted the information
provided to name the correct process of melting. A few of the learners only stated heating which was insufficient for the answer.

(b) Many of the learners demonstrated a good understanding of this area of the framework and correctly interpreted the information
provided to name the correct process.

(c) Many of the learners demonstrated a good understanding of this area of the framework and correctly interpreted the information
provided to name the correct process. A few of the learners only stated cooling which was insufficient for the answer.

(d) Many of the learners demonstrated a good understanding of this area of the framework and correctly interpreted the information
provided to name the correct process. Some of the learners thought that the process being shown was precipitation.

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Question 6

Most of the learners knew that a pull is type of force. More detail was required about what happened to the string when Mia put her hands
closer together. Some of the learners repeated the information given to them in the stem of the question.

(a) Most of the learners answered this question correctly.

(b) The best answers to this question discussed the string becoming less tight as there was less pulling force.

Question 7

Learners who have experience of doing practical investigations were more familiar with the associated terminology. They showed that they
knew how to make a fair investigation.

(a) Some of the learners correctly identified that a prediction was being made. Some of the learners thought that the statement was data
or evidence.

(b) Some of the learners correctly selected a ruler to measure the length of the shadow and a stop clock to measure the change in time as
the shadow changed its length.

(c) Some of the learners demonstrated a good understanding of a fair test and correctly ticked that they would need to measure from the
same point to the end of the shadow each time. Some of the learners thought that they needed to use a different stick in the ground
each time.

Question 8

Some of the learners correctly answered that the heart does not breathe out carbon dioxide. This is the function of the lungs rather than the
heart. Some of the learners circled that the heart does not move oxygen to the brain.

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Question 9

Learners were very good at reading and using the information provided in the table.

(a) Most of the learners correctly interpreted the information provided in the table to select the correct answer.

(b) This question was answered correctly by many of the learners.

Question 10

Most of the learners were able to accurately collate the data in the results table and draw a bar chart of this data.

(a) Many of the learners demonstrated that they were able to collect results and put them into a table. A few of the learners put the answer
for light and dry in the light and moist row and vice versa.

(b) The learners displayed excellent bar chart drawing skills.

Question 11

Many of the learners selected the correct scientific words to complete the sentences. A few of the learners selected ‘takes in’ rather than
‘reflects’ for the book reflecting the rays of light.

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Question 12

Learners were familiar with the process of seed dispersal and some of the learners had a very good understanding of why this process is an
important part of the plant life cycle.

(a) Many of the learners correctly identified that the process shown as seed dispersal.

(b) Many of the learners discussed why producing seeds is important to the plant rather than why the process of dispersing seeds is
important. Learners that provided good answers to this question discussed the reason as being to reduce competition and to prevent
overcrowding.

Question 13

Some of the learners were able to identify the organs and correctly state their functions.

(a) Some of the learners correctly identified the organs as the kidneys and the bladder.

(b) Some of the learners correctly stated the function of the kidneys and good answers discussed their role in filtering waste or urea from
the blood. Some of the learners were able to correctly state the function of the bladder. Good answers discussed the function of the
bladder as storing urine.

Question 14

Some of the learners were able to describe the actions needed by Priya to get the medicine to her lungs. Some of the learners showed that
they knew that they take painkillers to treat a headache.

(a) Good answers to this question discussed how Priya needs to breathe in or inhale to get the medicine inside her body to her lungs.

(b) Many of the learners thought that vitamins need to be taken for a headache rather than a painkiller.

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Question 15

Many of the learners displayed good understanding of fair testing in this question. More focus could be placed on the difference between what
a fair test is and how to make an investigation more reliable. Many learners thought that they needed to repeat the experiment to make it a fair
test or to make it accurate.

(a) Many of the learners showed a good understanding of fair testing and correctly stated the volume of the water needed to be the same
as in the previous experiment, or they correctly stated the correct volume from the previous experiment. Some of the learners need to
take care when writing units.

(b) Many of the learners showed a good understanding of fair testing and correctly stated the temperature of the water needed to be the
same as in the previous experiment, or they correctly stated the correct temperature from the previous experiment. Some of the
learners need to take care when writing units.

(c) Good answers to this question stated that it is a good idea to repeat experiments to increase the reliability of the results. When
learners discuss the need to check they must make sure they emphasise it is the results that they are checking. Repeating the
experiment does not make the experiment more accurate.

(d) Learners that provided good answers to this question discussed how the solubility would change as the temperature changed. Their
prediction did not need to be correct, but they did have to show an understanding of the investigation and how to formulate a
prediction. Good answers discussed that as the temperature became higher the solubility of the substance would increase, or a
greater mass would dissolve. Some of the learners discussed the speed of dissolving rather than how much of the substance would
dissolve which is a different investigation to the one described in the question.

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Question 16

Learners showed a good understanding of how sound is formed by vibrations and some showed an understanding of how to change the pitch
of a recorder.

(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.

(b) Some of the learners discussed different ways they could correctly change the pitch of the recorder. Some of the learners provided
answers which would change the volume of the recorder rather than the pitch.

Question 17

Learners demonstrated a very good understanding of this area of the framework.

Question 18

Many of the learners were good at utilising the information provided in the table. They showed that they are very good at sorting materials
based on a particular property.

(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly. The most common incorrect answers were magnesium sulphate and gold.

(b) Most of the learners sorted the materials correctly.

(c) Some of the learners only listed one property that the materials had been sorted by. Learners need to be specific when stating the
property as some said they had been sorted into solid and liquids when they had actually been sorted into solids in one group and
liquids and gases in the other group.

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Question 19

Learners were able to identify the trend in the results provided and utilise the data provided to make a correct prediction.

(a) Many of the learners correctly stated the trend. Only a few of the learners thought that the lamp became brighter as the distance
increases.

(b) Most of the learners answered this correctly.

(c) Most of the learners correctly stated that graphite is a good electrical conductor.

Question 20

This is an area of the framework where the learners displayed a very good understanding.

(a) Most of the learners answered this correctly.

(b) Most of the learners answered this correctly.

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5. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846

5.2 Table and charts sub-group performances – Science component 0846

Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this syllabus in this
series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

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