Cambridge Primary Checkpoint End of Series Report

May 2019
Contents

1 Introduction page 2

2 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – English as a Second Language 0837

2.1 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 01 page 3
2.2 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 02 page 9
2.3 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 03 page 12
2.4 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English as a Second Language 0837 page 17

3 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – Global Perspectives 0838

3.1 Comments on specific questions – Global Perspectives component 01 page 39

4 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – English 0844

4.1 Comments on specific questions – English component 01 page 43
4.2 Comments on specific questions – English component 02 page 48
4.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English 0844 page 57

5 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845

5.1 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 01 page 71
5.2 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 02 page 84
5.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – Mathematics 0845 page 97

6 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846

6.1 Comments on specific questions – Science component 01 page 115
6.2 Comments on specific questions – Science component 02 page 121
6.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – Science 0846 page 127

1
1 Introduction

This document reports on candidate performance for the May 2019 exam series. Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the
entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this
syllabus in this series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

For each syllabus the following information is provided:

• Examiner comments on specific questions within each component of the test

• Tables and charts of sub-group performances for the overall assessment and at strand level.

2
2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.1 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 01

General comments

The overall level of difficulty and learner performance appeared similar to previous papers, with Part 3 (multiple matching) and Part 4 (comprehension)
presenting the most difficulty for learners.

Part 1

(Questions 1–5)

A 5-gap, multiple-choice sentence completion test, required learners to select an appropriate item to fill five gaps and to circle the word of their choice;
correct usage of lexical and function words was tested. The majority of learners scored very well on this part. The most incorrect answers were for

Question 4

Part 2

(Questions 6–15)

For Questions 6–15, learners were required to put one word only into the gaps to complete a single email message to a friend. The words needed to fit
grammatically and to carry the intended meaning to complete the text.

A lot of the incorrect answers seemed to be produced because the words chosen often fitted the words either side of the blank in terms of grammar or
meaning but some learners did not take into account the wider context of sentence/discourse level. Possibly more focus is needed on this aspect when
teaching reading skills to learners. This appears to be an important area for improvement as it is also noted in reports at secondary level.

Spelling needed to be accurate. The mark scheme did not allow for alternative answers, apart from Questions 7 and 8, where two alternative words
were accepted. This part proved to be a good discriminator, with learners of higher ability occasionally scoring full marks. The majority of learners
answered fairly well; answers were mostly correct, though responses to Questions 8 and 11 were often incorrect. Some learners (usually of lower
ability) wrote more than one word in some gaps.

3
Part 3

(Questions 16–20)

In this part, learners were required to complete a short conversation by selecting appropriate responses from those given. Many learners scored well on
this task, but some found this to be a difficult task. Errors are often made when learners find an item to match the sentence before or after but not both.

In this part and Part 2 a lot of learners changed their minds several times and, rather than crossing out their original mark, wrote over their first answer
or erased it unclearly. This sometimes resulted in an illegible response. It would be preferable for learners to completely cross out the rejected response
and write the preferred one next to it. As in previous sessions, there were also a few ambiguously formed letters (especially A and H – sloping sides and
a gap at top could often be either letter; it was sometimes difficult to see if E or F was the intended final answer in cases where there was overwriting
and/or incomplete erasure).

Part 4

(Questions 21–25)

In this section, learners were required to select the correct meaning of the message shown in a picture. Learners needed to circle one of the three
choices given. This task was generally well done. The task required careful reading and accurate matching of information to determine the correct
response. Learners needed to be good at making inferences and identifying different ways to convey a message. Many learners scored well, though
there were a lot of incorrect answers for Questions 23, 24 and 25.

Part 5

(Questions 26–30)

This task comprised multiple choice questions on a longer text with the title ‘Rosie’s dinosaur tooth’’, which was about a girl who found a dinosaur tooth
on a beach.

The need for learners to use a wide range of reading skills, including inference and deduction, makes this a fairly challenging part of the test. On the
whole learners answered well. Question 26 was the most successfully answered and Questions 29 and 30 the least.

4
Question 1

A very high proportion of correct answer ‘bought’; there was no most common incorrect response.

Question 2

A high proportion of correct answer ‘hard’; incorrect responses were divided between ‘heavy’ and ‘strong’.

Question 3

A high proportion of correct answer ‘took’; most common incorrect response was ‘kept.

Question 4

A high proportion of correct answer ‘kinds’; most common incorrect response was ‘parts’.

Question 5

A high proportion of correct answer ‘made’; incorrect responses were divided between ‘done’ and ‘given’.

Question 6

Mostly correct, ‘to’; common incorrect responses included ‘because’, ‘this’, ‘email to’, ‘that’, ‘a’ and ‘letter’.

Question 7

Mostly correct, ‘can’; most common incorrect response was ‘will’, followed by ‘could'.

Question 8

A lot of incorrect answers (correct ‘There’); by far most common incorrect response was ‘it’, followed by ‘this’ and ‘that’.

5
Question 9

A high proportion of correct answer ‘the’; there was no one most common incorrect answer but rather an assortment of responses, including ‘a’, ‘my
home’, ‘town’ and ‘place’.

Question 10

Mostly correct, ‘with’; by far the most common incorrect response was ‘to’; other incorrect answers included ‘whit’, for’, and ‘and’.

Question 11

Mostly incorrect and the least successfully-answered question on the Paper (correct response was ‘much’) by far the most common incorrect response was
‘long’. This probably happened because learners are familiar with the common phrases ‘long time’ but did not notice the absence of a preceding ‘a’ in the
preceding line of the sentence; an example of the need for learners to be encouraged to consider wider context.

Question 12

A high proportion of correct answer ‘old’; there was no one most common incorrect answer but rather an assortment of responses, including ‘and’, and
right’.

Question 13

Mostly correct, ‘as’; the most common incorrect response was ‘like’, followed by ‘with’.

Question 14

Mostly correct, ‘Why’; there was no one most common incorrect answer but rather an assortment of responses, including ‘I’, ‘will’, ‘please’, would’, ‘you’,
‘should’ and ‘if’.

Question 15

A lot of incorrect answers (correct ‘by’); by far the most common incorrect response was ‘with’; there also often appeared ‘in’, ‘the’, ‘ride’ and ‘take’.

6
Question 16

A lot of incorrect answers (correct was H); the most common incorrect responses were F and A.

Question 17

Mostly correct, B; there was no most common incorrect response.

Question 18

A lot of incorrect answers (correct was G); by far the most common incorrect response was D.

Question 19

Mostly incorrect (correct was D); the most common incorrect responses were G and H.

Question 20

A lot of incorrect answers (correct was F); most common incorrect responses were D and E.

Question 21

Mostly correct, C; incorrect responses divided between A and B.

Question 22

Mostly correct, C; by far the most common incorrect response was A.

Question 23

A lot of incorrect answers (correct was C); incorrect responses divided between A and B.

7
Question 24

Mostly incorrect (correct was B); the most common incorrect response was A.

Question 25

Mostly incorrect (correct was A); by far the most common incorrect response was C. This was an especially difficult question for the level, a good test of
higher-ability learners.

Question 26

A high proportion of correct answer, C; incorrect responses divided between A and B.

Question 27

Mostly correct, B; the most common incorrect response was A.

Question 28

Mostly correct, A; the most common incorrect response was C.

Question 29

Mostly correct, C; by far the most common incorrect response was B.

Question 30

A lot of incorrect answers (correct answer was A); by far the most common incorrect responses was C.

8
2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.2 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 02

General comments

The paper seemed to work well although there were comments from examiners about the lack of punctuation and poor spelling in Question 6 and Question
7. Examiners felt that Questions 1–5 worked well and that the candidates were tested on vocabulary which was at the correct level. Question 6 was found to
be a little problematic for candidates and careful reading of the question would ensure that no misinterpretations occur. Question 7 elicited a range of
responses, often very imaginative, but it also allowed candidates to describe polluted rivers, and in these cases there was the opportunity to use a range of
vocabulary related to the environment. The lack of punctuation and simple linking words often affected the candidates’ marks on Question 7 as it was very
difficult to follow the story if no linking words or punctuation was used.

However, on the whole, the candidates seemed to cope well with the tasks and the majority produced English of the standard required. Overall, this was a
good paper and it seemed to discriminate well between weak and strong candidates

Question 1

Most learners answered this correctly and knew what the answer should be, even if they couldn’t spell it correctly. Even the wrong answers were a variation
of the correct answer. Common errors were ‘golves’, ‘galves’, ‘gulavs’, ‘gantes’, ‘groves’, ‘globes’, ‘gaunts’, ‘glaves’. However, the vowel ‘o’ wasn’t always
clear and sometimes looked like an ‘a’ instead. Care is needed to form the correct letter shapes in these questions.

Question 2

This question was spelled correctly most often. The only common wrong answer was ‘sumer’, but this does not fit in the gap and it is not related to a type of
weather.

Question 3

Most learners answered this correctly, and the spelling was mostly accurate, although there were a few who wrote ‘kate’, ‘kyte’, or ‘kind’.

9
Question 4

This task discriminated between strong and weak learners quite well. The majority of candidates knew what the word should be and many get the spelling
correct. However, this question elicted the greatest number of alternative, incorrect spellings. For example, ‘umberela’, ‘umbrilla’, ‘unbrella’, ‘umberala’,
‘unbrelea’, ‘umbrilla’, ‘umbreala’, ‘umbellas’, ‘umbrelah’, ‘umbrrela’, ‘umberlla’, ‘unberlla’, ‘umprella’, ‘umbrelae’, ‘unsualin’, ‘umpralas’, ‘umbralas’, ‘umbralae’,
‘embralla’, ‘umreller’.

Question 5

This question generated the most incorrect responses with candidates supplying answers such as ‘skis’, ‘sand’, ‘surf’, ‘shoe’, ‘skat’, ‘skie’, ‘swim’, ‘suny’.

Question 6

This question worked quite well and many candidates scored well if they limited their responses to addressing the bullet points in the task. The topic was
suitable for the candidates to write about and they generally covered the three points successfully and scored 4 or 5 for Content. Most candidates understood
the premise and wrote appropriate emails giving details about a film they would like to see, and why, and they covered the last point by suggesting a time to
meet. However, some candidates didn’t respond to the task appropriately and either repeated the bullet points or asked questions regarding what the friend
they were writing to would like to do, rather than state what they would like to do themselves.

The first bullet point worked well and most candidates could come up with the name of a film, or a film genre which they were interested in seeing. The
second bullet point was addressed in two ways. Some candidates gave lots of details about the specific film, and others just described the film with an
adjective, ‘because it’s funny’. There were a few candidates who said that they had chosen this film because they knew their friend would like it. This bullet
point was quite good for candidates as there were various ways that it could be addressed. The final bullet point caused a few problems as it required careful
reading. It asked candidates to suggest a time to meet, and many just stated what time the film started, or how long the film lasted, with no reference to
meeting. If a time is asked for, it is always a good idea to be specific rather than just saying ‘Saturday’ to make sure that the point is fully covered.
Regarding layout, some candidates followed the layout of the bullet points in the task and this affected their ability to show a range of language and their
ability to link their ideas through the text as they often produced very simple sentences addressing each point in isolation.

10
Question 7

The majority of stories related to the prompt sentence, but there were quite a few which examiners found difficult to link to the prompt sentence. As the
prompt involved some movement, Harry coming out of the trees and seeing a river, it is very natural for the main character to continue travelling to
somewhere else. However, it is a good idea for candidates to use the elements in the prompt, ‘Harry’, ‘trees’, or ‘river’, to make sure their story is clearly
connected to the prompt sentence.

Those candidates who focused on the river as the main idea in their story wrote some very inventive tales of treasure chests, mermaids, monsters, boats and
adventure, waterfalls, magical beings and bridges to get to the other side. This allowed them to take the story forward and they introduced extra characters to
develop the story. Many candidates decided to write about the pollution in the river and how Harry could clean it up. These tended to be more factual and
descriptive rather than imaginative, but both treatments of the prompt sentence worked well.

The weaker candidates tended to write about Harry getting to the river, crossing it, and then going somewhere else, either home or school and making no
further reference to the trees or the river. These interpretations often had very little connection to the prompt sentence and although Harry was involved, it
was difficult to see how the story related to the prompt. These candidates tended to score less well on Content as they hadn’t used the ideas in the prompt to
develop their stories. Weaker candidates also changed the perspective in the story from Harry to the first person, which affected the overall coherence of the
text and resulted in lower marks for Communicative Achievement and Organisation.

The main difficulty the weaker candidates had was punctuation and a lack of awareness of how punctuation helps the reader follow the narrative. There were
occasions where the stories were written over two pages and no commas or full stops had been used at all. There were some simple linking words but the
stories tended to be written in one long paragraph with no clear sentences and therefore it was difficult to follow the narrative. Candidates generally scored
fewer marks on Organisation than the other subscales.

11
2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.3 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 03

General comments

The great majority of learners attempted all the questions. It was noticeable that the number of incorrect answers increased later on in the test, especially in
Parts 3 and 4.

The comments below regarding problems in deciphering some learners' intended answers also apply to Paper 1 Reading and Usage. Learners should
remember that each multiple-choice question must have only one answer indicated; in a few cases two answers were circled, so the item was marked as
incorrect. If learners wish to change an answer, they should very clearly put lines through the letter or words to cross out. A lot of learners tried to delete by
writing a wavy line (resembling crocodile teeth) around a circle but it was sometimes unclear what the intended answer was and the item was sometimes
marked as incorrect.

A fairly frequent problem was that a lot of learners were using erasers to try to change answers and they did not always appear to be entirely effective in
erasing answers written in pen; unless the correction was very boldly written, the resulting lack of clarity sometimes made it difficult to decide what the
intended answer was. The best practice seen was when learners either put a clear tick next to their preferred response, or wrote clearly ‘Yes’ or ‘No’. The
rubric on the Question Paper does not disallow the use of erasers but centres should be aware of their limitations.
A similar problem found in a number of responses was that in Part 4 learners wrote over an answer to correct it but in a few cases the resulting answer was
not clear enough for it to be marked as correct.

In Part 4 there were no acceptable misspellings. With the exception of Question 16, the answers were all very common words.

Part 1

(Questions 1–5)

Learners identify one of three pictures from short discrete dialogues. Most learners did well here, especially on Questions 3 and 4, though answers to
Question 2 were often incorrect.

12
Part 2

(Questions 6–10)

This involved multiple choice questions based on a longer dialogue which consisted of a boy called Marc and his friend Cristina talking about a basketball
game they are going to watch. Questions 7, 8 and 9 were answered most successfully and Question 6 least successfully.

Part 3

(Questions 11–15)

This task comprised five questions based on an interview with a university student called Daisy Clarke about her first novel. There were a number of incorrect
responses due to the increased complexity of language and greater skills demanded, though overall most learners were quite successful. The most
successfully-answered question was Question 11, the least was Question 15.

Part 4

(Questions 16–20)

This task comprised five questions based on a teacher telling his class about a trip to a farm. There were a number of incorrect responses due to the
increased complexity of language and greater skills demanded, though incorrect spelling was also a significant contributor. The most successfully-answered
questions were Questions 16 and 18, the least was Question 20.

Question 1

A high proportion of correct response, B; incorrect responses were divided between A and C.

Question 2

A lot of incorrect responses (correct was C); incorrect responses were divided between A and B.

13
Question 3

A high proportion of correct response, A; the most common incorrect response was C.

Question 4

A very high proportion of correct answers, B; the most common incorrect response was C.

Question 5

A lot of incorrect responses (correct was C); by far the most common incorrect response was B.

Question 6

Mostly correct, A; by far the most common incorrect response was C.

Question 7

A high proportion of correct response, B; incorrect responses were divided between A and C.

Question 8

A high proportion of correct response, C; the most common incorrect response was A.

Question 9

A high proportion of correct response, A; incorrect responses were divided between B and C.

Question 10

Mostly correct, C; the most common incorrect response was B.

14
Question 11

Mostly correct, C; the most common incorrect response was B.

Question 12

A lot of incorrect responses (correct was B); by far the most common incorrect response was A.

Question 13

Mostly correct, C; by far the most common incorrect response was A.

Question 14

A lot of incorrect responses (correct was A); by far the most common incorrect response was B.

Question 15

A lot of incorrect responses (correct was C); incorrect responses were divided between A and B.

Question 16

A high proportion of correct answers, ‘LOAKES’ (or ‘LOAKE’S’); there was no common incorrect response to this spelling question. Misspellings included
‘Loaces’, ‘Loakus’, ‘Loakis’ and ‘Louikes’.

Question 17

Mostly correct, ‘8.15/eight fifteen/(a) quarter past eight/8’; most correct responses were ‘8.15’ (some candidates added ‘am’ and, though not on the mark
scheme, this was tolerated as context made it clear that the trip began in the morning). Probably the most common incorrect response was ‘coach’ (it was in
the recording and some learners may have thought that ‘by’ printed before the gap suggested a form of transport); other times mentioned in the recording
also appeared: ‘8.00, 8.30’ and a probable mishearing ‘8.50’.

15
Question 18

A high proportion of the correct response, ‘(a) notebook (‘note book’ was also accepted); the most common incorrect responses were misspellings, for
example, ‘nootbook’,
‘noutbook’, nootebook, notbook’ and ‘notebooke’; the plural ‘nootebooks’ also appeared, but did not fit due to ‘a’ before the gap; ‘pencil’ (in the recording) also
appeared.

Question 19

A lot of incorrect responses (correct was ‘(some) onions’); some incorrect responses were misspellings, for example ‘oniones’, oniens’, ‘unions’, ‘anions’ or
anuons’ and sometimes ‘onion’ appeared but the singular form did not fit the gap; ‘carrots’ and ‘fruit’ (both in the recoding) also appearted.

Question 20

Mostly incorrect and the least successfully-answered question on the Paper (correct was ‘sheep’); many incorrect responses were phrases or single words
from the recording which were related to the task of finding out about sheep, for example: ‘website’ ‘facts about farm animals’ and ‘library book’; other
common incorrect responses included ‘sheeps’ and ‘ship’.

16
2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.3 Tables and charts of sub-group performances – English as a Second Language

Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this
syllabus in this series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Global Perspectives 0838

2.3 Comments on specific questions – Global Perspectives component 01

Key messages

• A key factor in achieving higher marks is the ability of teams and individual candidates to include all of the required content in each part of the
Checkpoint; candidates who omit required content, or who include content where it is inappropriate to do so, are only likely to achieve lower marks;

• This highlights the key role of teachers in familiarising teams and individual candidates thoroughly with the required content for each part of the
Checkpoint, but most especially with what needs to be included in the Team Report and the Personal Reflection;

• There has been a marked improvement in the quality of submissions for the Evidence of Action part of the Checkpoint, suggesting that teachers and
learners are gaining a better understanding of the scope it provides for presenting a comprehensive picture of how teams have engaged in the Team
Project.

General comments

On the evidence of the work received from candidates in this series, it is apparent that there is considerable enthusiasm for developing the skills that are
focused on in the Primary Global Perspectives curriculum. The dedication shown by teachers and learners alike in rising to the challenges of the Checkpoint
Team Project is to be commended, and shows their commitment to developing a collaborative approach to problem-solving at the local level.

39
Comments on specific questions

Assessment Objective 1 Research, analysis and evaluation

Achievement against this Assessment Objective is evidenced in the Team Report and the Evidence of Action. Both of these are team submissions.

(a) Team Report

Specifically, the Team Report is assessed against the following criteria:

‘justify the issue chosen, goal set and local action taken, making reference to different local perspectives on the issue’

The more clearly the team is able to define the issue they have chosen and the goal they have set, the more likely it is that they will be successful in
choosing an appropriate course of action which can be effectively documented in their Evidence of Action. Where the issue and/or goal are less clearly
defined, teams often struggle to come up with a practical or feasible course of action, which also affects their ability to achieve higher marks in the
Evidence of Action. It is appropriate for teachers to offer teams support in choosing an issue of local relevance, but the final choice must be the team’s
alone.

‘outline research findings on the issue’

It is appropriate for teams to conduct their own research into a local issue, for example by carrying out a survey using questionnaires, and to present
their findings in the Team Report. This has the additional benefit of giving the candidates access to specifically local information that supports their
choice of issue, while at the same time it can be regarded as part of the action they have taken. Where secondary sources are used (for instance, online
resources) it is important to show that they have relevance to the local situation.

‘summarise the course of action taken by the team’

The more effective summaries of action were those in which the team was able to show clearly the links between each of the actions they took and the
goal they were attempting to achieve.

‘discuss the strengths and limitations of the action taken’

40
 It is important here that candidates are able to distinguish between a discussion of the strengths and limitations of the team’s action (which is what the
Team Report requires), and a discussion of the benefits and challenges of working together as a team (which is required for the Personal Reflection
paper, but not for the Team Report). It is also important that teams focus in their writing on factors relating to the design of their project (for example,
whether the goal they set would have been more achievable had they chosen a different course of action), rather than on external factors over which
they have no control (for example, the time available during school hours to carry out their project). Higher marks can be achieved by including a
balanced discussion of both strengths and limitations.

(b) Evidence of Action

The Evidence of Action part of the assessment is intended to give teams the opportunity to communicate clearly the course of action that they have
undertaken, how well it has been executed, and the extent to which the action has enabled them to achieve their goal.

This series, there were encouraging signs that teams are putting much more thought into how they can present their Evidence of Action to convey a
more comprehensive picture of the action they have taken.

Whereas in the past, teams might have limited themselves to submitting a Powerpoint presentation they had created in order to raise awareness of their
issue, now they are also electing to submit video or photographic evidence of how the presentation was delivered to a target audience. This is an
effective way of highlighting the appropriateness of their action, how well it has been executed, and how it is related to the achievement of their goal.

For further comments relevant to the assessment of the Evidence of Action, see the section on AO3 below.

Assessment Objective 2 Reflection

Achievement against this Assessment Objective is evidenced in the Personal Reflection, a piece of writing that is produced by each individual learner.

Specifically, the Personal Reflection is assessed against the following criteria:

Reflection on thoughts and behaviour:

‘how thoughts on the issue have developed as a result of the research conducted and/or action taken’
‘how personal behaviour or the behaviour of others has changed as a result of the research conducted and/or action taken and/or working together as a team’

Changes or developments in both thoughts and behaviour need to be included in the Reflective Paper. It is important that ‘thoughts’ is understood to mean
more than the simple learning of facts, but refers to a way of thinking about an issue which may have been affected by the candidate’s participation in the

41
Team Project. ‘Behaviour’ in this context can also be taken to include changes in how a candidate does certain things as a result of the experience of working
as part of a team. Candidates who might struggle to reflect on changes in either thoughts or behaviour can be encouraged to record how they think or act in
relation to their team’s chosen issue at an early stage of the project, for example by using a mind-map or other form of graphic organiser which they can then
refer to and up-date at later stages of the project as their thoughts and behaviour evolve.

Reflection on the process of collaboration:

‘strengths and limitations of their contribution to the team’
‘benefits and challenges of working together as a team’

Candidates can be encouraged to present more than a simple narrative account of what they personally contributed to the team. Candidates who achieve a
balanced discussion of both the strengths and limitations of their contribution are likely to access higher marks, even more so where they are able to show a
connection between what they contributed and the overall achievement of the team’s goal.

When it comes to discussing the benefits and challenges of working together as a team, credit will again be given to a balanced explanation of both aspects
of teamwork. Candidates should aim to draw general conclusions which are based on specific examples of what they experienced during the team project.

As with the Team Report, there is a strict word limit to the Personal Reflection, which candidates should be reminded of so that they can include all the
necessary content within the limit and receive credit for it.

Assessment Objective 3 Communication and collaboration

Achievement against this Assessment Objective is evidenced in the Evidence of Action (and additionally in the Team Observation and Individual
Observation). This is a team submission.

Evidence of Action

Here, the Evidence of Action needs to communicate an important message or action taken by the team, while also offering relevant research findings in
support of the message or action.

For this purpose, the Evidence of Action can take the form of items such as posters, leaflets, Powerpoint presentations and so on which have been created by
the team as part of the course of action they have undertaken in order to achieve their goal. It could also take the form of a record of the action they have
undertaken, presented through photographs or video. The inclusion of relevant research findings in such items is essential in order to achieve higher marks
for this assessment objective.

42
4. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0844

4.3 Comments on specific questions – English component 01

General comments

Both texts focused on polar exploration. In Section A answers to questions which required retrieval of information were well answered. Often, just a word,
short phrase or quotation was needed. Learners need to read the question requirements clearly to avoid writing a long answer when a single word will do, as
extra words can lead to spoiled answers. If a single word is required, the addition of extra words can negate a correct response unless the correct word is
underlined or otherwise highlighted. Questions which tested a learner’s ability to use evidence in the text to make inferences, or to show an appreciation of
the writer’s intended effect, often seemed challenging. In Section B learners generally embraced the chance to write a recount, and there were fewer
tangential responses than in previous sessions’ however, misreading the instructions relating to purpose, audience and format led to some learners not being
able to achieve the highest marks.

Question 1

Learners at all levels of ability were able to identify Lewis Clarke’s achievement. Most of those who missed the mark failed to mention that he was the
youngest to do what he did, or focused on the conditions he battled through to do it.

Question 2

Learners were required to identify a word and a phrase, each for a mark. The vast majority succeeded in correctly identifying the word ‘finished’; however,
even those who selected the correct four-word phrase from the passage that meant ‘completed’ either omitted part of it or included it in a longer answer
without highlighting the key words in some way. They knew what a phrase was, in most cases, but were not precise enough.

Question 3

This was an ‘own words’ question. Although learners were given some leeway in interpreting ‘experienced polar guide’ and ‘expedition companion’, most lost
marks because of simply repeating the stem of the question. Learners should read questions carefully to identify exactly what is needed.

43
Question 4

Most learners identified ‘coughing’ as the answer, but many went on to lose the mark because they did not pay enough attention to the question’s focus on
‘high ground’ and included issues like blisters, which were not related to being at altitude. Typically, successful learners simply wrote down the single word
‘coughing’. Generally, this was a well- answered question, but marks were lost by learners hedging their bets and including a wrong second attempt.

Question 5

Some learners did not understand the word ‘fazed’. Although many knew what it meant, they were not precise in their interpretation. Successful learners
understood the difference between ‘didn’t make him give up’ and didn’t make him want to give up.’

Question 6

This was a well-answered question by almost all. Learners should remember to quote correctly when asked to provide a quotation, as an omission might be
of a salient word, in this case, one that encapsulates the element of surprise. Very few lost the mark through adding words. Where marks were lost it was
mainly down to careless reading of the question, which focussed on Lewis’ surprise at the amount of effort the expedition took, not the fact that he was doing
it.

Question 7

This question’s focus was on language and structure of a text and was well answered by a large majority of learners. Most understood and could express that
the dashes emphasised or added information, without referring to the content. Learners should be discouraged from offering alternative answers as incorrect
attempts alongside correct attempts negate the mark.

Question 8

This seemed to be an accessible question for all. There were several ways to answer and very few ways to trip up. Where learners wrote a short phrase (‘to
help young people’) or a word (‘charity’), they were successful. Using an unnecessarily long quote at times led to the mark being lost because wrong
information became attached to a good answer.

Question 9

Only the strongest learners ticked the correct box here.

44
Question 10

(a) Approximately half of the responses correctly identified alliteration as the answer, with wrong answers being evenly divided between the other
choices.

(b) This was a question where careful reading was required. Unfortunately, learners often failed to gain the mark because of an insufficient or vague
response, such as ‘to make the reader want to read it’, where ‘it’ is not specified, or ‘to grab attention’, without explaining the purpose of grabbing a
reader’s attention.

Question 11

Very few learners seemed to know what reported speech is, and this was true across the ability range. The other part of the question needed learners to give
an example of the use of third person from the text. Usually the mark was lost because the response relied on writing down a pronoun or noun detached from
its context.

Question 12

Most learners latched onto the word ‘role’ and secured the mark. Marks were lost where learners confused the role of leader with the rank of captain.

Question 13

The most common error was to write down the first ‘first’ Amundsen achieved.

Question 14

Learners at the higher end of the mark range read the question carefully enough to see that the focus was on the voyage, not Amundsen, and gained the
mark by writing that it was a difficult or dangerous one. Some learners provided synonyms for ‘survive’ and generally focussed on the idea that he could have
died, without saying why.

45
Question 15

As with Question 7, this question sought to test understanding of language and structure of a text. Whereas learners achieved considerable success with
Question 7 by not referring to content, very few managed to resist the temptation here. The mark was gained only by the few who not only understood the
relationship between what came before and after the colon but were able to express it without reference to the content of the sentence. Learners perhaps
need to be reminded that they must answer this type of question in the abstract.

Question 16

Those achieving marks at the higher end of the range were able to infer that the delay in base camp was caused by unexpected difficulties; however, many
learners missed the mark by suggesting that it took ten months to reach the pole in total, an inaccuracy caused by a careless reading of the passage.

Question 17

Most learners were able to identify the passive verb form and tick at least one box correctly, with about a third of all learners ticking two correct boxes.

Question 18

(a) This was a generally well-answered question, with most learners understanding the two important elements of the answer: life and story. Very few
confused biography with autobiography.

(b) Most learners were able to identify at least one feature of a biography but only learners in the mid- and higher-range of marks identified two. Less-
strong responses took a chance on things like sub-headings, which were not applicable here, or referred to the content of the Amundsen piece, thus
failing to gain the marks.

Question 19

Generally, learners responded well to the task stimulus and in the majority of cases produced a report about a trip made either with school or with friends.
Learners who read the instructions thoroughly bore in mind that the report would appear in a school newsletter and had a clear idea of their audience.
Another important word in the instructions was ‘recently’, which more successful learners read as ‘actual journey’. Very few learners were completely off-task.
Similarly, few failed to recount their experiences of a journey.

46
Content, Purpose and Audience

The more successful responses by far were those which recounted actual journeys. These built on basic information and aspects of recounts, either personal
or impersonal, to produce writing that sustained the reader’s interest. The best work was characterised by well-chosen vocabulary and a consistent viewpoint.
As always, a feature of these was good use of the planning box. Learners who simply wrote about a group of children who took themselves off on an
adventure that involved being chased by wild animals or scaling mount Everest in an afternoon were unlikely to have done much planning, and struggled to
achieve high marks as general aspects of the text type were not evident.

Text Structure and Organisation

The above comment about use of the planning box also applies here. Those learners who used a real, recent experience of a journey were able to recall the
sequence of events and use it to structure their recount. Most learners paragraphed their work, but those whose recount seemed invented simply broke up
the narrative with paragraphs with no obvious purpose than punctuation. Stronger learners’ paragraphs began with an introductory sentence followed by
related detail. The paragraphs were often linked, lending the whole piece a sense of structure.

Sentence Structure and Punctuation

There were many impressive attempts by learners at all levels of ability to use ambitious structures; however, only the strongest learners were consistently
able to use expanded phrases to develop ideas. The best responses employed a range of connectives and were controlled by precise punctuation; those at
the lower end, despite attempting a variety of structures, often lost marks through a lack of basic punctuation and sentence demarcation.

Spelling

A sound knowledge of the spelling of words in common everyday use was shown by most learners. Strategies to spell compound words and tackle more
complex structures are clearly working as many learners achieved full marks.

47
4. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0844

4.3 Comments on specific questions – English component 02

General comments

Text: ‘The Eagle in the Snow’ by Michael Morpurgo

The text was an extract from ‘The Eagle in the Snow’ which appeared to be unfamiliar to most of the candidates. It was suitable for the age group and
accessible to most candidates. Candidates were engaged by the content, particularly by the mysterious element concerning one of the main characters. This
was evident in the content of many stories where the stimulus provided candidates with the opportunity to explore this aspect further.

In Section A, there was a variety of questions that enabled candidates to demonstrate their comprehension skills. Responses where information could be
extracted directly from the text, were good with answers being relatively easy to locate using the signposts within the question – these paragraph and line
references would seem to be useful to candidates. The challenge of more demanding questions presented some difficulty especially where they required
candidates to use the evidence in the text to deduce the correct answer, Candidates who were able to use their higher order reading skills to differentiate
between these implicit and explicit questions, scored well showing well developed inferential skills. Less able candidates often struggled to identify the
evidence required for these more challenging questions.

It is advised that candidates need to cross out any errors clearly so that their intended answer can be marked.
The following advice about how common errors could be avoided, should be helpful:
- careful reading of each question is essential so that the basic meaning is understood; for example, in multiple choice questions, candidates need to take
care about the number of ticks to give.
- consideration of the wording of a question is important; for example, phrases such as what is ‘the purpose’, ‘the effect of’ and ‘the impact of’. All of these
require a response that describes literary intention rather than detail of the content.
- an awareness that, a single word means just that and a phrase is just a few words – not a lengthy quote or sentence.
- where a longer quote is required, marks may be lost when too many words are given thus ‘hiding’ the words of the actual quote that is needed.

48
In Section B, the mysterious element offered by the identity of the man who joined Barney and his mother in the train carriage, was taken up by almost all
candidates. However, how this was developed by candidates showed a great variation in narrative content ranging from straightforward storytelling where
only the journey was described with a simple conclusion, to more detailed pieces that included a good description of action, reaction and dialogue. There
were very few completely irrelevant stories this session. Also, there was little evidence of rushed or unfinished narratives suggesting that candidates are
becoming more aware of the time constraints presented by this paper. Work on time management is, no doubt, one of the many ways in which schools are
preparing candidates for the examination.

Section A
Question 1

This explicit question was a good question to get candidates started with nearly everyone giving a correct response, with most candidates gaining the mark.

Question 2

Many candidates gave a correct response here. However, marks were lots where the quote was not given accurately, sometimes being too long or too short.
Candidates need to take care to copy the chosen quote accurately. A missed word can often change the meaning of the answer and not score. An answer
that is too long makes it difficult to isolate the required words so does not gain the mark.

Question 3

Candidates found this question challenging. Most gained one mark for saying Ma was good at knitting. Difficulties arose when candidates gave definitions of
the words ‘effortlessly’ and ‘automatically’ without reference to Ma’s knitting. Others gave these words as part of their answer: ‘Ma knitted effortlessly’. It is
important that candidates are aware that using the words given in the question does not create an answer.

Question 4

Generally, this question was well answered. Incorrect quotes omitted to give ‘this time’. The question asks how we know that Ma knits regularly and not just
what she is knitting. This was a good example where candidates need to give the quote and not just a reworded summary.

49
Question 5

Multiple-choice questions usually appeal to all candidates. However, this one presented a challenge to many candidates. The phrase, ‘under the
circumstances’, perhaps caused some confusion. Incorrect answers given included the annoying aspect or the fact that the train was late – no doubt using
information gained from earlier questions.

Question 6

This question was not answered well. Most candidates who lost marks did so because they gave a very long quote from the given words without identifying
the correct words, or omitted the preposition ‘on’ which was essential to gain the mark.

Question 7

‘All we got in the world’ was well understood here. Most candidates identified the family as being ‘poor’ or ‘not rich’. For some, ‘the luggage rack’ was
confusing.

Question 8

This question was generally answered well. Candidates who gave the incorrect answer typically chose ‘squeezing’ which demonstrated that they understood
the meaning of the word but not the context in the text.

Question 9

This is a good example of a question where the requirement of one word needs to be clear. Generally speaking, it was well answered. Common errors were a
change in the word, ‘slammed’, or a longer quote which was not asked for.

Question 10

This was well answered. However, some referred to him removing his hat and placing it in the luggage rack most likely because they hadn’t read the words
‘after he sat down’. The looking at the watch and opening the paper were seen as one action and gained the mark.

50
Question 11

This question was answered well by most candidates. Some gave more than one acceptable example which did not negate as they were all correct.

Question 12

(a) This was well answered with most candidates giving the required answer. A common incorrect answer was ‘scarecrow’ or an explanation of the
word ‘untidy’.

(b) As with 12(a), this was answered well by most candidates. Again, an explanation of the meaning of dirty was a common incorrect answer.

Question 13

This was a tough question for most candidates. Only a few stronger candidates gave the correct answer showing an understanding that the phrase ‘what
there was of it’ referred to Grandpa’s head/hair. A description of Grandpa as ‘dirty’ or ‘untidy’ were common answers given by the majority.

Question 14

The majority of candidates answered this quest well. There was almost an equal number of candidates who made reference to ‘he caught me staring at him’
as to ‘hope I pass inspection, son’. Practice with identifying a ‘phrase’ is important for those candidates who copied out a large piece of text. Some incorrect
answers focused on the man looking at Barney by giving the short answer ‘eyeing me meaningfully’.

Question 15

Generally, this question was answered accurately by including the key phrase, ‘How many times…’ before describing Barney’s behaviour (‘staring at people’).
Sometimes the correct quotation was given but with extra words added. ‘Ma’s nudge’, ‘he apology’ and demand for ‘say sorry’ also featured in answers.

Question 16

It was easier to gain marks here by identifying that the text was written in the first person, showing his feelings and opinions. There are ‘first person pronouns’
was insufficient as any of the characters will be ‘I’ when they are speaking. Also, answers describing Barney as the ‘main character’ or saying ‘it is all about
him’ were incorrect.

Understanding of the term ‘point of view’ is essential to achieve success with a question like this.

51
Question 17

There was a pleasing number of candidates who gained full marks here. The vast majority identified ‘metaphor’ and ‘simile’. Many candidates selected the
right information for the first and the fourth parts but lost marks where they included additional words or omitted vital words. For the fourth part, it was
important to identify what was being personified and what it was doing.

Question 18

Most candidates identified at least one of the features used in the text. It was a pity that a number of candidates did not tick two responses, only giving one.

Question 19

Many candidates were successful in gaining the mark here.

Section B

Question 20 – the Writing Task

General comments

Marking focused upon the four strands that mirror the strands contained within the report to schools.

Nearly all candidates identified with the stimulus. The narratives showed little evidence that candidates had read ‘The Eagle in the Snow’. Indeed, quite a few
candidates tried to include an eagle in their story but this was often as an afterthought as the story concluded. It was rarely instrumental in contributing to the
narrative.

There were a few (very few) excellent stories characterised by well-described settings, linked to a lively plot with well-built suspense and action.
As before, these candidates handled the content and audience well. They used structure and dialogue to create an interesting narrative and to develop
character and mood.

52
Grammatically sound, these were generally well-structured and well-punctuated whilst exhibiting a good range of expressive and appropriate vocabulary.
They showed that they were able to move the narrative forward using more complex sentence structures to express ideas and add descriptive detail. It was
pleasing to see well organised text and time references with good descriptive vocabulary and strong verbs to add impact.

Whilst most candidates were able to write a story based upon the stimulus, there were some issues that arose for many. The required setting was the train, at
least at the outset. Frequently, the characters exited the train with most of the action taking place after completion of the journey. This was obviously
acceptable but, often, the action was limited with the characters simply going home (not picking up that all Barney and his Ma had everything they owned in
the suitcase). Another ending was that the stranger turned out to be Grandpa in disguise or another long-lost relative. Reunions were often very brief with little
further explanation and plot development. Other common storylines described the man as a thief with his attempt to steal the suitcase. Subsequent action
was often confined to the train with a chase sequence. Spies, the FBI and other agencies also appeared. Sadly, some violence was described along with the
man achieving superhero status. There were many stories with lots of dialogue – this can move the narrative forward but it can also limit plot development.

Some stories were not ‘grammatically correct’. The most common problem involved poor punctuation – unusually as, historically, this has been a strength.
There were also incorrect tenses in verbs, lack of agreement between the subject and the verb and muddling of genders in pronouns. A small minority of
stories demonstrated an overly narrow range of vocabulary which limited the candidates’ ability to produce confident writing and gain successful outcomes.

Where attempts were made to produce a plan, there was evidence that candidates were able to use a range of strategies to organise and set out their ideas.
Where planning was done well and used, candidates wrote a series of well-organised paragraphs with a good balance between action, description and
speech. This balance is an important consideration and it helps to keep candidates ‘on track’ as they write.

For a few papers, the handwriting of candidates was very difficult to accurately determine capitalisation and, on occasion, spelling, as well as follow the
narrative as the reading was difficult.

Wa – Content, purpose and audience (including vocabulary)

As suggested above, the best narratives were those in which candidates used good description and added detail. The stimulus allowed for mystery, dilemma
and engagement of the audience, which successful candidates attempted to employ well. Those candidates who added descriptive details, for example,
describing the characters’ reactions to different events as they unfolded during the telling of the story, produced a response from the reader. A few successful
candidates developed their use of vocabulary by using a precise vocabulary where the choice of a particular word, or words, contributed significantly to the
creation of image and mood. The best examples of writing managed to create atmosphere and describe feelings and included the effective use of adverbs to
modify verbs. These candidates also showed that they know how to improve their writing by choosing and experimenting with ambitious words.

53
These candidates often managed to control the content so that the reader is fully engaged, showing an awareness of the audience. When the writing included
such a sense of character with engaging action and demonstrating appropriate linguistic skills, with perceptive choices of vocabulary, examiners were
pleased to be able to award high marks.

However, where plot development was restricted, engagement of the reader was limited. Furthermore, events were not always well controlled. Surprisingly,
the use of devices to create precise images was not as common as in previous sessions. Many candidates were able to build a solid connection between the
characters and events although ‘action’ was often confined to the response to the dialogue – stronger writers handled this well. The narrative viewpoint in the
majority of stories remained consistent.

Weaker candidates found it challenging to create any kind of ‘mood’ or ‘feeling’ which is difficult to do where the content is weak. They did, however, show a
sound grasp of the situation described in the text and this helped these candidates to make some pleasing attempts to achieve some sense of mood. Word
choices are important to achieve success here and help to develop and maintain a relationship with the reader.

Those candidates who found developing a story-line to be a real challenge would benefit from exploring ways of developing plot within a story. The key to this
lies mainly in the use of more description and the inclusion of detail. Developing the narrative is an area that could be addressed in class so that candidates
are able to sustain their efforts and create stories with well described characters, action and detail. Where candidates are able to construct a profile of their
stories – an introduction (characters/setting), a build-up (sequence of events), a climax leading to a resolution and an ending, they meet with success.

Wt – Text Structure and organisation

Good, well-structured stories were usually written by candidates who understood that a story needs a beginning, middle and an end. There were some higher
scoring stories that also showed a more developed structure usually comprising: opening, problem, development, climax, resolution and ending.

It was encouraging to see how many candidates used paragraphs to organise and structure their writing. Using paragraphs and learning about their purpose,
all works towards improving the structure of a piece of writing. Successful candidates were able to score higher marks where they showed a good
understanding of paragraphs by linking them together effectively, for example, through contrasts in mood, shifts in time and changes in location. Speech
layout was a challenge for some but examiners were encouraged by the way some candidates made good attempts to show this accurately.

Most candidates attempted to sequence their stories – which was very effective when paragraph breaks were evident. Weaker candidates understand the
importance of splitting their stories into sections but with limited success. Identifying how paragraphs are used in a range of given texts will help these
candidates to appreciate how they can be used to signal a change – character, time or event, for example, in many narratives, a lack of cohesive devices was
evident especially where the use of connectives was limited.

54
Although the content was generally clear in the majority of stories, the coherence of many was disappointing with jumps of logic or assumptions that the
reader would understand what was happening without clear explanations.

Examiners noted that lower scoring stories often lacked paragraphs and structure. It was felt these narratives frequently appeared to be rushed with the result
that paragraphing was forgotten possibly because these candidates attempted to finish within the time deadline.

Wp – Sentence structure and punctuation

Simple sentence structures were used by the majority of candidates to express their ideas. The control of tenses was generally good in these sentence
structures so that consistency was achieved. Many candidates were able to link simple sentences using ‘and’, ‘but’ or ‘then’. They were also able to add
simple details using adjectives.

Some candidates were adventurous in their attempts to expand their writing with more complex and detailed sentences with grammatically correct clauses.
These candidates were able to demonstrate the use of a range of phrases and clauses to develop ideas. A few of these showed the careful use of expanded
phrases, particularly adjectival, adverbial and verb phrases, to develop ideas with a wider variety of connectives to keep the story pace flowing and to develop
ideas.

Furthermore, higher attaining candidates constructed some quite ambitious sentences which were enhanced by carefully chosen adjectives and adverbs and
the positioning of clauses for effect. This expansion of meaning and development of control by a few successful candidates is to be commended. Sometimes
these candidates showed how the use of short simple sentences, especially in short one-sentence paragraphs, can help to build suspense. These stories
were usually well-punctuated, too. The use of the comma to mark out clauses or separate phrases within long sentences, is showing a marked improvement
in the work of stronger candidates. Speech marks were often placed accurately around spoken words and many were able to make good attempts to place
other speech punctuation correctly.

Amongst weaker candidates there was a lot of confusion about tenses or agreement of verbs which limited the marks. Also, weaker candidates often showed
confusion between pronouns including switching between third and first person. These candidates also struggle to employ a range of connectives to join
sentences.

There were a number of stories where the use of capital letters and full stops was lacking. There was much evidence of the use of a comma to join two
independent sentences showing a candidate’s awareness that a pause or break was needed.

55
Ws- Spelling

This continues to be a strong aspect of candidates’ work with many examples of sound spelling. There is evidence of good teaching across all levels of ability
so that they are able to use their blends, patterns and polysyllabic high-frequency words.

However, whilst higher attaining candidates showed ambition in their word choices demonstrating the accurate spelling of words with complex regular
patterns, there were many examples of narratives where the story didn’t include interesting polysyllabic words that would qualify for the higher mark.

56
4. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0844

4.3 Tables and charts of sub-group performances – English 0844

Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this syllabus in this
series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
5. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845

5.1 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 01

General comments

Topics that were well covered:

• Interpreting data in a pictogram (each symbol representing 4 people). (Question 1(a))
• Presenting data in a pictogram (each symbol representing 4 people). (Question 1(b)
• Deriving a pair of 2-digit numbers with a total of 100 (Question 2)
• Multiplying a 3-digit number by 10; dividing a 5-digit number by 100 (Question 3)
• Adding a multiple of 100 to a 4-digit number. (Question 4)
• Visualising 3D shapes from their 2D nets. (Question 5)
• Plotting a point in the first quadrant. (Question 13(a))
• Subtracting pairs of 3-digit multiples of 10 and adding and subtracting pairs of decimals. (Question 15)
• Calculating the third angle in a triangle, given the other two. (Question 20)
• Solving a number puzzle: deriving pairs of 1-place decimals that total ten. (Question 21)

Topics that proved to be more difficult:

• Solving a number puzzle: recognising multiples of 5 and 10 (Question 8)

• Plotting and reading a point in the first quadrant to complete a given shape. (Question 13(b))
• Calculating the time interval between two times given in digital format. (Question 16)
• Estimating the area of an irregular 2D shape by counting squares. (Question 23)
• Reflecting a polygon in an oblique mirror-line. (Question 26)
• Solving a problem involving simple proportions. (Question 27)
• Using a given conversion factor to change a distance in miles to kilometres. (Question 28)
• Estimating the value of a large number by extrapolating given information. (Question 29)

71
Some general issues noted when marking Paper 1:

Overall the papers displayed a good coverage of the Cambridge Primary Mathematics Framework.

The formation of numerals should be unambiguous. Where ever possible the benefit of doubt was afforded to learners’ responses but occasionally it was
impossible to distinguish what was intended. Possible marks may have been lost in some cases.

The consistent use of a comma in place of a decimal point is accepted. However: on this paper a number of learners
used a full stop as both a decimal point and a separator between thousands and hundreds. The
1
latter usage was not accepted as it is ambiguous. If a learner recorded 3 as 3.5 then 200.010 was taken to be
2
1
200
100

Where a question required a drawing, it was important that this was accurate enough to convey the learner’s intent.

For example, in Question 26: the vertices of the learner’s image had to be close enough to the correct positions for the
answer to be accepted.

Some answers appeared to have the general idea but were too inaccurate for the mark to be awarded. An example of this is shown on the right.

A number of learners did not use a ruler, leading to inaccurate drawings.

Where changes are made, they should be affected by crossing out and rewriting separately. No numerals should be overwritten. Some marks may have been
lost where a learner’s intentions were not clear.

In two-mark questions working out should be shown. Marks were available for correct working even where the final answer was incorrect. A number of
learners did not show any working and may have lost marks because of this. Some learners showed their working out but then crossed it out. This was still
considered but sometimes the crossing out rendered the working illegible. Marks may have been lost because of this.

72
Learners should be familiar with different forms of presentation and able to adapt their mathematical knowledge to cope with these. For example:
Question 6 Completing the missing numbers by adapting their knowledge of adding and subtracting three-digit numbers.
Question 9 Adapting their knowledge of how to extend a number sequence to being able to step backwards beyond 0
Question 13 Combining their knowledge of co-ordinates and 2D shapes to complete the required trapezium.
Question 26 Using their knowledge of symmetry to complete the reflection in an oblique mirror-line.

Mathematically specific vocabulary such as: multiples, square numbers, vertex, quadrilateral, trapezium, line of symmetry, nets, cube, triangular prism,
pictogram and Carroll diagram all need to be used in context and understood.

Question 1

(a) Objective: To answer a question by interpreting data in a pictogram where each symbol represents 4 people.

Common Errors: Generally, well answered. A few learners took each symbol to represent 1 person and gave the answer 2

(b) Objective: To present data in a pictogram where each symbol represents 4 people.

Common Errors: Generally, well answered. A few learners took each symbol to represent 1 person and drew 10 symbols (faces).

Question 2

Objective: To derive a pair of two-digit numbers with a total of 100

Common Errors: Generally, well answered. The most common incorrect answer was 76

Question 3

Objective: To multiply a three-digit number by 10 and divide a five-digit number by 100

Common Errors: Generally, well answered. Most errors were made in calculating 64 000 ÷ 100, e.g.
6400 (64 000 ÷ 10)
64 (64 000 ÷ 1000)

73
Question 4

Objective: To add a multiple of 100 to a four-digit number.

Common Errors: Generally, well answered. A few learners misunderstood what was required and gave answers such as:
7809 (6000 more than 1809)
10 854 (6 times 1809)

Question 5

Objective: To visualise 3D shapes from their 2D nets.

Common Errors: Generally, well answered. The most common error was to correctly select but miss

Question 6

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the subtraction of a three-digit number from a three-digit number.

Common Errors:

Several learners appeared to rely on a vertical algorithm to solve the puzzle as a subtraction. Only a few used the inverse operation
to work out that 327 + 586 = 913

Question 7

Objective: To know that one whole turn is four right angles.

Common Errors: A number of learners misunderstood what was required and gave answers such as:
90° (the degrees in a right angle)
360° (the degrees in a whole turn)

74
Question 8

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the recognition of multiples of 5 and 10

Common Errors: A number of learners did not understand that their answers had to adhere to the four requirements:
three-digits, sum of the digits equals 8, a multiple of 5, not a multiple of 10. This resulted in answers such as:

(two-digit numbers)

(multiples of 10)

(two-digit numbers, not multiples of 5)

(Sum of the digits not 8)

A number of answers contained one or more of these errors. The difficulty was giving two numbers that adhered to all four
requirements.

Question 9

Objective: To complete a number sequence by counting on and back in steps of a constant size, including beyond 0

Common Errors: Most learners correctly added 17 to get the 32 and 49. The most common errors in the first position were:
2 (17 – 15)

No response (not knowing how to respond beyond zero)

75
Question 10

Objective: To solve a worded problem involving the calculation of the difference between a pair of three-digit numbers containing one decimal
place.

Common Errors: 74 (km) (28.6 + 45.4)

Several answers were seen where learners had attempted to calculate 45.4 – 28.6 but made arithmetic errors.

Question 11

Objective: To calculate a temperature beyond zero given the starting temperature and a given fall.

Common Errors: 3(°C) (8 – 5)

13(°C) (8 + 5)

Question 12

Objective: To complete a Carroll diagram involving the recognition of multiples of 5 and square numbers.

Common Errors: Sorting the numbers into multiples of 5 and not multiples of 5 was generally well done.
More difficulty was encountered in classifying the numbers as square or not square.
20 and 30 were often classified as square numbers.
36 was often classified as not being a square number.

Question 13

(a) Objective: To plot a point, given its co-ordinates, in the first quadrant.

Common Errors: Generally, well answered. A few points were plotted at (5,4)

(b) Objective: To plot and read the co-ordinates of a point in the first quadrant to complete a given shape.

Common Errors: This proved to be more difficult than part (a). Many learners were unable to complete a trapezium with one line of symmetry.
The most common error was to give the point (8,1) to form a parallelogram.

76
Question 14

Objective: To solve a worded problem involving the multiplication of a pair of multiples of 10

Common Errors: 180 (pens) (a place value error)

2 (pens) (60 ÷ 30)

Question 15

Objective: To use place value and number facts to subtract pairs of three-digit multiples of ten and to add and subtract pairs of decimal
numbers.

Common Errors: Generally, well answered.

A lot of working was seen, suggesting that learners calculated each answer separately rather than use the given number fact.
Some learners were confused by the missing number being part of the calculation rather than the answer.

Question 16

Objective: To calculate the time interval between two times given in digital format.

Common Errors: Two common errors were caused by confusing the times of day with decimal numbers:
14 (hours) 92 (minutes) (calculating 21.16 – 6.24 = 14.92 and incorrectly interpreting this as hours and minutes)
15 (hours) 32 (minutes) (calculating 21.16 – 6.24 = 14.92 and interpreting 92 as 92 minutes, converting this to 1 hour 32
minutes)
Another common error was to confuse the 24-hour and 12-hour clock formats:
2 (hours) 52 (minutes) (taking 21:32 to be 9:31 am and working out the interval from 06:24 to 09:16)

77
Question 17

(a) Objective: To solve a worded problem involving knowledge of the value of each digit in a six-digit whole number.

Common Errors: A number of learners gave their answers in words rather than in figures as required.
A lot of incorrect answers were due to place value errors, e.g. 20 010 and 2000 010
A few learners placed (.) between thousands and hundreds having previously used it as a decimal point (see general comment on
page 4)

(b) Objective: To solve a worded problem involving knowledge of the value of each digit in a six-digit whole number.

Common Errors: A number of learners gave their answers in words rather than in figures as required.
A lot of incorrect answers were due to place value errors, e.g. 999 990 and 99 900
A few learners placed (.) between thousands and hundreds having previously used it as a decimal point (see general comment on
page 4)

Question 18

(a) Objective: To apply the associative rule as it applies to multiplication. (Knowledge of the term associative not necessary).

Common Errors: A number of answers did not attempt to balance both sides of the calculation but used part of the calculation to fill in the missing
number, e.g.:

(15 × 12)

(3 × 15)

Several learners put a calculation in the box rather than a one number.

(b) Objective: To apply the associative and commutative rules as they apply to multiplication. (Knowledge of the actual terms not necessary).

78
 Common Errors: A number of answers did not attempt to balance both sides of the calculation but used part of the calculation to fill in the missing
number, e.g.:

Several learners put a calculation in the box rather than a single number.

Question 19

Objective: To order mixed numbers and place them between whole numbers on a number line.

1
Common Errors: 4 was generally well answered.
2
1 3
3 was often joined to 3 on the number line
4 4
7 3
1 was often drawn to 1 on the number line
8 4
Several learners drew lines where it was difficult to discern where they were intended to touch the number line.

Question 20

Objective: To calculate the third angle in a triangle, given the other two.

Common Errors: 127° (90° + 30°)

40° (measuring, not calculating, the missing angle Note: the given triangle was labelled correctly but not drawn to scale))

79
Question 21

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the calculation of pairs of one-place decimals totaling ten.

Common Errors: Generally, well answered. Most learners answered the top and bottom lines correctly.
The most common error in the middle row was:

Question 22

(a) Objective: To answer a question by interpreting data in both an average temperature graph and an average rainfall graph.

Common Errors: Some learners selected ‘J,J,A’ correctly from the graph but misinterpreted ‘A’ and wrote: June, July, April.
A number of learners only selected one month, more commonly June or May.

(b) Objective: To answer a question by interpreting data in both an average temperature graph and an average rainfall graph.

Common Errors: Some learners might have misinterpreted ‘A’ selected from the graph and wrote August.
A number of learners gave the answer ‘A’ without making it clear whether they intended April or August.

Question 23

Objective: To estimate the area of an irregular 2D shape by counting squares.

Common Errors: Only a few learners adopted an estimating strategy. Most appeared to measure and attempt to calculate the area.
A wide range of incorrect answers were seen including: 23 (squares), 29 (squares) and 30 (squares)

80
Question 24

Objective: To divide a two-digit number by 5 and give the answer as a decimal.

Common Errors: (calculating 32 ÷ 5 = 6 remainder 2 and incorrectly recording this as 6.2)

Question 25

Objective: To visualise a 3D shape from its 2D net

Common Errors: A number of learners selected two or more nets. The most common incorrect answers were:

and

81
Question 26

Objective: To predict where a polygon will be after its reflection in an oblique mirror line.

Common Errors: A wide range of incorrect answers were seen. The most common error was to reflect the polygon in an imagined ‘vertical’ mirror-
line. e.g.

A few translations and non-congruent shapes were seen

Question 27

Objective: To solve a problem involving simple proportions.

Common Errors: 72 (cherries) (calculating 18 × 4)

1
4.5 (cherries) (calculating 18  ×  )
4
1
4 (cherries) (calculating 18 ×  and truncating the answer to a whole number)
4

82
Question 28

Objective: To use a given conversion factor to change a distance expressed in miles to kilometres.

Common Errors: 37 (km) (calculating 185 ÷ 5)

1480 (km) (calculating 185 × 8)
A number of learners were awarded 1 mark for showing the correct working: 185 × 8 ÷ 5 but making one or more arithmetic errors.

Question 29

Objective: To estimate the value of a large number by extrapolating given information.

Common Errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were seen.

The most common error was to miss that there were 10 coins in the line and calculate 100 000 ÷ 23.25
The resulting answer led to the approximation: 4000
A number of answers showed no calculations or approximation strategy

83
3. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845

5.2 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 02

General comments

Topics that were well covered:

• Positioning a 3-digit whole number on a number line marked off in hundreds. (Question 1)
• Recognising odd and even numbers. (Question 2)
• Solving a number puzzle: recognising multiples of 5 and 6 (Question 3)
• Sketching the lines of symmetry in 2D shapes (Question 4)
• Solving a number puzzle: recognising the equivalence between simple fractions (Question 10)
• Understanding where a 2D shape will be after a given translation. (Question 11)
• Ordering numbers with two decimal places. (Question 17)
• Converting from one unit of time to another. (Question 18)

Topics that proved to be more difficult:

• Solving a worded problem: dividing a three-digit number by a single -digit number. (Question 16)
• Multiplying by a near multiple of 10 by multiplying by the multiple of ten and adjusting. (Question 24)
• Solving a worded problem: finding percentages of given amounts. (Question 25)
• Solving a worded problem: multiplying a 2-digit number by a 2-digit number multiplying a 3-digit number by a 2-digit number. (Question 26)
• Solving a number puzzle: dividing a 2-digit number by a 1-digit number (with a remainder). (Question 27)
• Solving a number puzzle: recognising prime numbers. (Question 28)
• Solving a spacial problem: recognition of kites, trapeziums and parallelograms. (Question 29)
• Solving a spacial problem: simple division and addition. (Question 30)

84
Some general issues noted when marking Paper 2:

Overall the papers displayed a good coverage of the Cambridge Primary Mathematics Framework.

Learners should have access to a calculator to complete this paper. They should be familiar with its functions and able to use it appropriately. There was
evidence that this was not always the case, resulting in avoidable arithmetic errors and a possible loss of time.

All comments from paper 1 regarding presentation working out and the consistent use of decimals and commas apply to paper 2.

Where a question required a drawing, it was important that this was accurate enough to convey the learner’s intent.

For example, in Question 4: The line drawn had to pass close enough to the relevant vertex, and
bisect the relevant side for the mark to be awarded.

Some learners drew a line that was too inaccurate to be credited: an example is shown on the right.

A number of learners did not use a ruler, leading to inaccurate drawings.

Learners should be aware that where a question asks them to explain an answer, they need to
qualify what they say. In Question 8 it was not sufficient to state that 6 × 5 × 8 × 2 and 48 × 10 gave the same
answer. It was necessary to explain why 6 × 5 × 8 × 2 and 48 × 10 gave the same answer.

Mathematically specific vocabulary such as: odd number, even number, square number, prime number, simplest form, factor, multiple, longer than, trapezium,
kite, parallelogram, perimeter, area, translate, mean, median, even chance and other words associated with probability all need to be used in context and
understood .

85
Question 1

Objective: To position accurately, a three-digit whole number, on a number line marked off in hundreds (100 to 500)

Common Errors: Generally, well answered. A few learners drew a line in the correct position but included an arrow head which made the position
ambiguous.

e.g.

Question 2

Objective: To recognise odd and even numbers.

Common Errors: Generally, well answered, not many errors were made.

Question 3

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the recognition of multiples of 5 and 6

Common Errors: Generally, well answered. Some learners calculated: = 5 and = 6 correctly but added 5 + 6 + 6
incorrectly.

A few learners did not realise that each symbol only represented a single number.

86
Question 4

Objective: To sketch the lines of symmetry in 2D shapes.

Common Errors: Generally, well answered. The drawing on the right shows the most common incorrect line.
Some learners drew freehand lines or ruled lines that were not positioned
accurately enough for the mark to be awarded.

Question 5

Objective: To divide a two-digit number by a single digit number.

Common Errors: A number of answers made the same mistake of trying to give the number of pens each friend got rather how many were left: e.g.
16.67 (pens) (calculating 50 ÷ 3 and truncating the answer)
17 (pens) (as above and rounding up)
16 (pens) (calculating 50 ÷ 3 = 6 remainder 2 but not giving the remainder as the answer)

Question 6

Objective: To solve a worded problem involving the use of tenths and hundredths in the context of money.

Common Errors: 1.27 (coins) (calculating 6.35 ÷ 5 = 1.27 and not considering the context of the question to interpret this answer)
31.75 (coins) (calculating 6.35 × 5)
32 (coins) (as above but rounding the answer up)

87
Question 7

(a) Objective: To interpret divisions on a ruler.

Common Errors 17 (cm) (not allowing for the measurement starting from 5 cm on the ruler)
13 (cm) (miscalculating the distance from 5 cm to 17 cm)
There was evidence that a few learners used their own ruler rather than refer to the one on the screen.

(b) Objective: To interpret divisions on a ruler.

Common Errors: 19 (cm) (giving the length of the pencil case rather than how much longer it was than the calculator).
There was evidence that a few learners used their own ruler rather than refer to the one on the screen.

Question 8

Objective: To simplify a multiplication by applying the laws of arithmetic (knowledge of the terms associative and commutative not yet required)

Common Errors: Several learners calculated 6 × 5 × 8 × 2 and 48 × 10 and stated that they were the same. This reiterated the given statement without
explaining why the two calculations were the same.

88
Question 9

Objective: To draw a rectangle of a given perimeter, on a centimetre squared grid.

Common Errors: Some learners gave the dimensions of a rectangle with the correct perimeter, but counted dots rather than centimetres and drew an
incorrect shape.

e.g.

Some learners drew a rectangle with an area of 18 cm2

Question 10

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the recognition of the equivalence between halves and quarters
also thirds and sixths.

Common Errors: Generally, well done

Some learners used a number (card) that was not in the list: e.g.

A few learners gave incorrect answers using one number card more than once.

89
Question 11

Objective: To understand where a 2D shape will be after a given translation.

Common Errors: D (translating 2 right and 3 up rather than 2 left and 3 up)
B (translating 2 left and 3 down rather than 2 left and 3 up)
A few candidates gave the co-ordinates of one of the points on the translated shape.

Question 12

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the multiplication of a two-digit number by a two-digit number.

Common Errors: A variety of incorrect answers were seen including: and

Question 13

(a) Objective: To organise and record data in a table.

Common Errors: A number of learners completed the table by adding the number of wins, draws and losses to give:

A wide variety of other incorrect answers were given.

90
(b) Objective: To answer a relevant question by interrogating data in a table.

Common Errors: Londis (possibly because they were the team that lost the most games).
A wide variety of other incorrect answers were seen.

Question 14

Objective: To use the equivalence between fraction, decimal and percentage forms to order fractions given in a mixture of formats.

Common Errors: Several learners ordered 0.04 larger than 5 per cent
3
Several learners ordered 20 per cent larger than
10

Question 15

Objective: To solve a spacial problem involving the calculation of the area of rectangles in cm2

Common Errors: 54 (cm2) (calculating the area of the larger rectangle: 9 × 6)
30 (cm2) (this could be by calculating the perimeter of the 9 × 6 rectangle and discounting the units on the answer line.)
A variety of other incorrect answers were given.

Question 16

Objective: To solve a worded problem involving the division of a three-digit number by a single -digit number.

124.60 − 16.60
Common Errors: 13 (days) (taking the additional days fee to be $9 a day and calculating + 1)
9
1
7 (days) (calculating 124.60 ÷ 16.60 = 7.506 and truncating the answer)
2
8 (days) (calculating 124.60 ÷ 16.60 = 7.506 and rounding the answer to the nearest dollar).

91
 124.60 − 16.60
6 (days) (not accounting for the first day and calculating )
9×2
A wide variety of other incorrect answers were seen

Question 17

Objective: To order numbers with two decimal places.

Common Errors: t This places 5.06 m greater than 5.3 m.

This could be due to insecure knowledge of place value or learners may have copied the order of names from the original table.
Question 18

Objective: To be able to convert from one unit of time to another.

Common Errors: The most common error was to say that the statement; ‘There are 744 hours in May’ was false.

Question 19

Objective: To use the language associated with probability to describe the outcomes of a simple event.

Common Errors: The two most common errors were;

to join (not appreciating that 1 and 4 are square numbers)

and: (possibly not realizing that this referred to even numbers)

92
Question 20

(a) Objective: To find common multiples of 4 and 5

Common Errors A number of learners gave answers that did not meet all the criteria, e.g.
20 (not the largest multiple of both 4 and 5 that is less than 50)
48, 45 (not appreciating that one number was required that was a multiple of both 4 and 5)

(b) Objective: To find common multiples of 3 and 4

Common Errors: As in part (a) but for the smallest multiple of both 3 and 4 greater than 50, e.g.
12 (a multiple of both 3 and 4 but smaller than 50)
120 (not the smallest multiple of both 3 and 4 that is greater than 50)
51, 52 (not appreciating that one number was required that was a multiple of both 3 and 4)
A variety of other incorrect answers were given.

Question 21

Objective: To reduce a fraction to its simplest form.

8
Common Errors: A number of learners calculated that Ahmed slept for of a day but either did not simplify this at all or only partially simplified it,
24
4 2
i.e. or
12 6
1 2
A few learners made errors in the simplification process giving non-equivalent answers, e.g. ,
4 3

93
Question 22

(a) Objective: To find the median of a set of data.

Common Errors A number of learners appreciated that median was the middle value but answered; ‘spelling’ (the middle entry in the table without
ordering).

(b) Objective: To find the mean of a set of data.

Common Errors: A number of learners selected one of the subjects and gave this as the mean value without showing any calculations.
Several learners thought that mean was the numerically middle value and gave the answer 63
Several learners gave the answer 340 by adding all the results but did not divide by the number of subjects to get the mean.

Question 23

Objective: To find a number of tenths of a quantity.

Common Errors: 30 (oranges) (calculating 3 × 10)

17 (oranges) (calculating 50 ÷ 3 and rounding to the nearest whole number)

Question 24

Objective: To multiply by a near multiple of 10 by multiplying by the multiple of ten and adjusting.

Common Errors: 37 × 10 (giving an answer of 370 and not 370 + 37 as required).
Some learners did not use whole numbers as required and gave answers involving fractional numbers, e.g. 2 × 203.5

94
Question 25

Objective: To solve a worded problem that involves finding percentages of given amounts.

Common Errors: 16 500 (children) (this is 55 per cent of 30 000 giving the number of adults that visited the museum).
Several learners confused the number of people and the per cent of people. This led to answers such as 55 (children) and 45
(children).
These values, respectively, gave the percentage of adults and children visiting the museum.
A number of learners gave the wrong final answer but were awarded a method mark for showing working that attempted to calculate
the correct percentages and take these from 30 000

Question 26

Objective: To solve a worded problem that involves multiplying a two-digit number by a two-digit number and three-digit number by a two- digit
number.

Common Errors: 237.60 (calculating 24 × 18 × 0.55 but not putting dollars ($) on the answer line).
23 760 (calculating 24 × 18 × 55 but not putting cents on the answer line).
A number of learners carried out the correct calculation using dollars (24 × 18 × 0.55) or cents (24 × 18 × 55) but did not interpret their
answer correctly as either a number of dollars or cents. This led to answers such as $23.76

Question 27

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the division of a two-digit number by a single-digit number where there is a remainder.

Common Errors: Several learners found it difficult to give a number that fitted all the requirements, e.g.
40 (a two-digit number that is a multiple of 8)
45 (a two-digit number that does have a remainder of 5 when divided by 8 but is not the largest example).
85 (as above).
A variety of other incorrect answers were given.

95
Question 28

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the recognition of a prime number.

Common Errors: Again, finding a number that fitted all the criteria proved to be difficult, in particular identifying a number that was prime, e.g.
39 (selecting a number between 31 and 70 that is one less than a multiple of 10 but not prime).
49, (as above)
69, (as above)
Question 29

Objective: To solve a spacial problem involving the recognition of kites, trapeziums and parallelograms.

Common Errors: A number of learners did not understand that the rule: repeated and drew a path through only one of
each shape.

A number of learners drew a path that went diagonally across the network.
A number of learners drew a path that went through shapes other than the three in the rule.

Question 30

Objective: To solve a spacial problem involving simple division and addition.

Common Errors: 4 (metres) (calculating 3 ÷ 3 to get the distance between each post as 1 metre and using this to get the distance between 4 posts).

96
5. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845

5.3 Tables and charts of sub-group performances – Mathematics 0845

Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this syllabus in this
series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
6. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846

6.1 Comments on specific questions – Science component 01

General comments

Learners showed a good ability to answer questions which required recall of knowledge from the different areas of the framework. They were particularly
good at answering matching questions and questions where they were asked to select the correct answer. Some longer response questions required more
detail for learners to achieve full credit. Questions on scientific enquiry were answered well by many learners who appeared to be familiar with practical
investigations, showing that first-hand experience is invaluable. The idea of fair testing, reliability and accuracy continues to be an area where there could be
more focus, as well as the identification of scientific equipment. Learners demonstrated good knowledge of the following areas of the framework: the
processes of evaporation, condensation and dissolving along with electrical circuits and electrical conductors. Areas where there could be greater focus are
the melting and boiling points of water and germination.

Question 1

Overall this question was answered well by many of the learners. The most common wrong answer used ‘mouth’ rather than ‘tongue’ or ‘taste buds’ for what
we taste with.

Question 2

(a) Many learners clearly explained that the melting of ice was a reversible process because ice could melt and be frozen again. Generalised answers
which just mentioned what reversible reactions are, such as ‘a physical change,’ ‘the change could be reversed’ or ‘no new substances had been
made’ were not given credit. Responses had to be specific to the stem of the question.

(b) Some learners knew the correct melting and boiling points of water. This is an area where there could be more focus.

Question 3

Many learners identified at least one, and sometimes two different ways that the skaters reduced air resistance. Some learners provided ‘smooth helmets’ as
a method. As this was already given in the stem of the question it was not an accepted answer. Learners were asked to write down two other ways.

115
Question 4

(a) This was answered correctly by most learners. The most common incorrect answer was the ‘liver.’

(b) This was answered correctly by most learners. The most common incorrect answer was ‘lungs.’

(c) This was answered well by most learners, the most common incorrect answer was ‘C.’

Question 5

Good answers to this question stated that the tuning fork was vibrating and that this made the water vibrate. Some learners only provided answers which
referred to what was happening to either the tuning fork or the water, so were only credited one mark. In longer response questions learners should focus on
developing their ideas so that they can achieve full credit.

Question 6

Learners that provided good answers to this question stated why the elephant does not have bones in its trunk and related the importance of this to the
elephant. For example ‘it needs to be able to move its trunk easily so that it can pick up its food.’ This was another question where some learners needed to
extend their answers to get full credit.

Question 7

(a) Most learners showed good graph reading skills.

(b) Many learners correctly calculated the amount of material recycled by school D and accurately plotted its bar on the bar chart.

(c) Good answers to this question provided suggestions as to why this school recycled the most material, such as ‘having more awareness of recycling’
or ‘more recycling litter bins.’ Some learners just stated ‘they had recycled the most’ rather than suggesting reasons why.

116
Question 8

(a) Learners that provided good answers to this question stated that the melting point was the temperature at which a change of state occurred, and the
correct change in state at this temperature.

(b) Many learners answered this question correctly.

Question 9

(a) Many learners correctly identified dishes A and B to be the dishes with germinated seeds. The most common incorrect answer was A and C. This
highlights that some learners have the misconception that light is needed for germination.

(b) Some learners correctly identified other conditions which seeds require to germinate, such as oxygen and the correct temperature. Some learners
thought that sunlight was needed for seeds to germinate.

Question 10

(a) Many learners answered this question correctly, demonstrating good knowledge of this area of the framework.

(b) Many learners answered this correctly, although there were some learners who thought that the shadow would become smaller.

Question 11

(a) Many learners answered this question correctly, showing they could use their knowledge to interpret the chart in the question.

(b) This was also answered well by many learners.

(c) Many learners demonstrated that they knew that the salt had dissolved so it could not be separated by filtering. Some learners provided sensible
answers about the water still containing bacteria, which was given credit.

117
Question 12

(a) Many learners correctly circled the impala to show it was in the incorrect position in the food chain.

(b) Some learners provided good answers to this question demonstrating their knowledge of producers being organisms which use the energy from
sunlight to produce their own food. Many learners stated that ‘grass was a producer because it was at the start of the food chain,’ or ‘all food chains
start with producers.’ These answers were not given credit because it did not explain why grass is a producer.

(c) Many learners provided answers which described why the baboon was a consumer rather than why the baboon was a predator. Good answers to
this question stated that the baboon was a predator because it hunts or kills its food, the scorpion, rather than just stating ‘because it eats the
scorpion.’

Question 13

(a) Learners that provided good answers to this question used the information that they were provided in their answers. For example, many learners
stated the Sun rises in the East and sets in the West due to the Earth spinning on its axis. More simplified answers which just reiterated what the
diagram was showing were not given credit.

(b) Many learners demonstrated that they knew that the position of the Sun appears to move due to the Earth spinning on its axis. The most common
misconception involved learners stating that they thought it was because the Earth was orbiting the Sun.

Question 14

(a) This was answered correctly by many learners. Some learners identified it as being the white space at the top of the jar rather than using the labels
on the diagram to identify it as carbon dioxide.

(b) Many learners stated two properties of aluminium which are necessary for it to be used to make fizzy drinks containers. The properties stated
needed to relate to the function of the aluminium provided in the question as opposed to more general properties, or the property provided in the
stem of the question.

118
Question 15

(a) Some learners correctly stated that the incorrect investigation was investigation number 4. Some learners also provided good explanations why they
had stated this as being the investigation that was incorrect, such as ‘the number of books that broke the egg shells was too low.’ Some learners
showed evidence that they did not appreciate that each investigation was separate and they were looking for a trend in the results.

(b) Good answers to this question stated that the books were not the same weight or size, or that different egg shells which may have had different
strengths were used in each investigation. The most common incorrect answer stated that the number of books used in each investigation was
different. This was the variable that was being changed to test the strength of the egg shells. It was not a control variable.

Question 16

(a) This was answered correctly by many learners.

(b) Many learners demonstrated good knowledge of this area of the framework.

(c) Many learners answered this correctly.

Question 17

(a) Some learners calculated the volume of water evaporated at each temperature by subtracting the volume of water left in the beaker from the volume
of water in the beaker at the start of the experiment. Learners should not include the units in the body of the table. As this question was only one
mark they were not penalised for doing this but it should be emphasised that this is not good practice and the units should only appear in the column
heading of a results table.

(b) Good answers to this question used data from the table to support the prediction as being correct. Answers which only stated the trend were not
given credit as they were repeating the prediction provided within the stem of the question.

119
Question 18

(a) Learners that provided good answers to this question were comparative, identifying differences between plant A and plant B, such as ‘plant A is taller’
or ‘plant A has flowers.’ Some learners repeated the stem of the question explaining that plant B did not have leaves so it could not make its own
food.

(b) Many learners showed good knowledge of this area of the framework and answered this question correctly.

Question 19

(a) Good answers to this question related knowledge to the specific example being given rather than more generalised answers.

(b) Many learners answered this question correctly. A common misconception was to state that all metals, or metals such as copper and aluminium, are
magnetic.

(c) Good answers to this question related their knowledge to the specific example being given rather than more generalised answers.

Question 20

(a) Some learners used the information provided in the table to identify that both chalk and gasoline are insoluble in water.

(b) Learners that answered this question correctly used the information provided in the table and understood that as gasoline is insoluble in water it would
not mix with the water and they would see two separate layers.

120
6. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846

6.2 Comments on specific questions – Science component 02

General comments

Learners showed a good ability to answer questions which required recall of their knowledge from the different areas of the framework. They were particularly
good at answering matching questions and questions where they were asked to select the correct answer by circling. Longer response answers required
more detail for learners to achieve full credit. Questions on scientific enquiry were answered well by many learners who appeared to be familiar with practical
investigations, showing that first-hand experience is invaluable. The idea of fair testing, reliability and accuracy continues to be an area where there could be
more focus, as well as the identification of scientific equipment. Learners demonstrated good knowledge of the following areas of the framework: reflection,
the human body in relation to the heart, ribs and lungs, electrical circuits and the key words for dissolving. More focus could be given to understanding the
different command words, such as describe and explain, and when their answers need to be comparative.

Question 1

(a) Most learners correctly sorted the organisms into the correct groups.

(b) Many learners correctly stated that the feature used to group the organisms was either the presence of wings or the ability to fly. Some learners
contradicted their answers by stating that some had wings and some had legs. This was incorrect as organisms with wings also have legs.

Question 2

Most learners answered this question correctly, showing good knowledge of this area of the framework.

Question 3

Most learners answered this question correctly.

121
Question 4

(a) Some learners correctly identified this piece of apparatus as being filter paper. It is important that learners know the correct names for scientific
equipment. They are more likely to know this if they have used the equipment in an investigation. Some learners referred to it as ‘paper’ which was
not enough for credit.

(b) Only a few of the learners correctly identified the evaporating basin. It is expected that learners would use when investigating evaporation.

(c) Learners that provided good answers to this question stated the different separation processes required and explained how they would work to
separate the mixture. Some learners just described the processes they would use but did not say how they would separate each of the sand, salt or
water from the mixture.

Question 5

(a) There were a variety of answers to this question and only some learners used their knowledge of the Earth spinning once in one day to determine
that it would therefore spin 24 times in 24 days.

(b) Some learners described that the arrows indicated the direction the Earth was spinning on its axis. Some learners just stated that the Earth spins on
its axis but did not refer to the role of the arrows.

Question 6

Many learners described two properties which the foam plastic would need to have to make it useful as a cup for hot drinks. Some learners used the example
given in the stem of the question so were not given credit. The properties stated needed to relate to the function of the foam plastic as a cup for hot drinks
rather than general properties.

122
Question 7

(a) Some learners answered this correctly. The most common incorrect answer was in the stomach.

(b) Answers to this question needed to be comparative rather than just stating ‘because the intestines were small.’ The idea of them being the shortest
or smaller for animal C was required. Some learners did not use the information provided in the table and thought of their own animals and
discussed why their intestines would be smaller.

(c) Many learners answered this correctly.

Question 8

(a) Many learners answered this correctly.

(b) Good answers to this question identified that the liquids were flammable so they might catch fire, which is why Blessy needed to be careful. Some
learners stated that the liquids were flammable, which was provided in the question but then did not go further to explain why Blessy needed to be
careful.

(c) Many learners answered this question correctly. Some learners discussed the formation of steam or water vapour, which was not given credit as
these are not formed when all liquids boil.

(d) Many learners identified that C was pure water as it boils at 100°C, however some discussed this as being the melting point of pure water rather
than the boiling point.

(e) This was answered correctly by many of the learners.

123
Question 9

(a) Many learners recognised that the form of seed dispersal being investigated was wind dispersal. A response of ‘air dispersal’ was not enough to be
awarded the mark.

(b) Many learners provided two good variables which needed to be controlled to make the investigation a fair test. Only a few learners thought they
needed to use the same seeds, but this was the variable being changed.

Question 10

(a) Some learners were able to correctly match all of the measurements to the correct units. Some learners matched mass to newton and weight to
kilogram.

(b) Many learners answered this correctly.

(c) Some learners correctly identified the force as being friction or air resistance. Answers such as ‘pulling force’ were too vague.

Question 11

Some learners correctly matched the label on the diagram to the correct description of the stage of the plant life cycle.

Question 12

(a) Many learners circled the correct answer. The most common incorrect answer was ‘a force of attraction between.’

(b) Many learners showed good knowledge of this area of the framework and provided answers which would work to move the car in the opposite
direction. Some learners discussed the positive and negative terminal of the magnet rather than the north and south pole.

Question 13

Some learners recognised that this was a key but there were a variety of answers chosen.

124
Question 14

(a) Many learners answered this correctly.

(b) Some learners correctly identified that material A was air. The most common incorrect answer selected was C which was the material in which
sound travelled the quickest. Learners are not expected to know how sound travels in different materials. The information given in the question
could be interpreted to determine which material air was.

(c) Some learners provided good answers describing the air particles vibrating as sound travels through the air.

Question 15

(a) Many learners demonstrated good knowledge of this area of the framework.

(b) This was answered correctly by many of the learners.

(c) This was answered correctly by many of the learners.

Question 16

Most learners answered this question correctly, showing good knowledge of this area of the framework.

Question 17

(a) Most learners were able to provide words to describe the trend in the graph. A few learners thought that the trend was ‘as the temperature increased
the solubility of the salt decreased.’

(b) Most learners were able to provide words to describe the trend in the graph. A few of the learners thought that the trend was ‘as the temperature
increased the solubility of the salt also increased.’

125
Question 18

(a) This was answered correctly by many learners.

(b) Some learners correctly stated that results are repeated ‘to check the reliability of the results already collected.’ Some learners stated that it is
needed to ‘make the investigation a fair test’ or ‘to make their result more accurate.’ Identifying and controlling the control variables makes an
investigation a fair test and results can be made more accurate by improving the precision of the measurement.

Question 19

(a) Many learners selected the correct answer with the correct units for the mass of the ball. The most common incorrect answer was ‘the mass is
4.5N.’

(b) Many learners selected the correct answer with the correct units for the weight of the ball. The most common incorrect answer was ‘the weight is
4.5N.’ This highlights the confusion between the units for weight and mass.

Question 20

Many of the learners displayed good knowledge of these words and their meanings, showing a good awareness of this area of the framework.

126
6. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846

6.3 Tables and charts of sub-group performances – Science 0846

Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this syllabus in this
series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

127
128
129
130
131
132
133
134
135
136
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
148