2020 October Cambridge Primary End of Series Report October 2020 - tcm142-605882

Cambridge Primary Checkpoint
Cambridge Primary Checkpoint End of Series Report
October 2020
Contents
1 Introduction page 3
2 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – English as a Second Language 0837

2.1 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 01 page 4
2.4 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English as a Second Language 0837 page 19
3 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – Global Perspectives 0838

3.1 Comments on specific questions – Global Perspectives component 01 page 41
4 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – English 0844

4.1 Comments on specific questions – English component 01 page 46
4.2 Comments on specific questions – English component 02 page 50
4.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English 0844 page 58
5 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – Mathematics 0845

5.1 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 01 page 72
5.2 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 02 page 86
5.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – Mathematics 0845 page 101
6 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – Science 0846

6.1 Comments on specific questions – Science component 01 page 119
6.2 Comments on specific questions – Science component 02 page 126
6.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – Science 0846 page 133
Cambridge Primary Checkpoint End of Series Report October 2020 2

1 Introduction
This document reports on candidate performance for this exam series. Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries
for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.
Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this
syllabus in this series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.
For each syllabus the following information is provided:
• examiner comments on specific questions within each component of the test

• Tables and charts of sub-group performances for the overall assessment and at strand level.

2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837
2.1 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 01
General comments
The overall level of difficulty and learner performance appeared similar to equivalent papers, with Part 4 (multiple matching) and to some extent Part 5
(reading comprehension) presenting the most difficulty for learners.
Comments on specific questions
Part 1
Questions 1–5
A 5-gap, multiple-choice sentence completion test, required learners to select an appropriate item to fill 5 gaps and to circle the word of their choice; correct
usage of lexical and function words was tested. The majority of learners scored well on this part. The most incorrect answers were for Question 1.
Part 2
Questions 6–15
For Questions 6–15, learners were required to put one word only into the gaps to complete a single email message to a friend. The words needed to fit
grammatically and to carry the intended meaning to complete the text.
As in previous sessions, a lot of the incorrect answers seemed to be produced because the words chosen often fitted the words either side of the blank in
terms of grammar or meaning but learners did not take into account the wider context of sentence/discourse level. Possibly more focus is needed on this
aspect when teaching reading skills to learners. This appears to be an important area for improvement as it is also noted in reports at secondary level.

Spelling needed to be accurate and the mark scheme allowed for alternative answers to Questions 10 and 13. The answers to Questions 13 and 14 were
shown on the mark scheme with an initial capital letter but, with the agreement of the Product Manager and in accordance with practice in previous
sessions, examiners were directed to accept correct answers with an initial lower-case letter. This part proved to be a good discriminator, with higher ability
learners occasionally scoring full marks. The majority of learners answered fairly well; answers were mostly correct, though Questions 8 and 10 were often
answered incorrectly. Question 11 was the most successfully answered.
Part 3
Questions 16–20
In this part, learners were required to complete a short conversation by selecting appropriate responses from those given. Most learners scored well on this
task, with Question 16 being the most successfully answered and Question 18 the least. Errors are often made when learners find an item to match the
sentence before or after but not both. Overall, this part seemed slightly easier than in previous sessions.
In this part and in Part 2 a lot of learners changed their minds several times and, rather than crossing out their original mark, wrote over their first answer or
erased it unclearly. This sometimes resulted in an illegible response. It would be preferable for learners to completely cross out the rejected response and
write the preferred one next to it. There were also a few ambiguously formed letters and it was sometimes difficult to see if E or F was the intended final
answer in cases where there was overwriting and/or incomplete erasure.
Part 4
Questions 21–25
In this section, learners were required to select the correct meaning of the message shown in an image. Learners needed to circle one of the three choices
given. This part seemed slightly more difficult than in previous sessions. The task required careful reading and accurate matching of information to
determine the correct response. Learners needed to be good at making inferences and identifying different ways to convey a message. Question 21 was
the most successfully answered and Question 22 the least.

Part 5
Questions 26–30
This task comprised multiple-choice questions on a longer text with the title ‘A night at the Science Museum’.
The need for learners to use a wide range of reading skills, including inference and deduction, makes this a fairly challenging part of the test. On the whole
learners answered well and this part seemed slightly easier than in some previous sessions. Questions 29 and 30 were the most successfully answered
and Questions 27 and 28 the least.
Part 1
Question 1
A lot of incorrect answers (correct ‘book’); very common incorrect response was ‘pay’. A good discriminator of more able learners.
Question 2
A high proportion of correct answer, ‘miss’; most common incorrect responses was ‘lose’.
Question 3
Mostly correct, ‘available’; most common incorrect response was B (‘invites’); incorrect answers were divided between ‘convenient’ and ‘acceptable’.
Question 4
Mostly correct, ‘looking’; most common incorrect response was ‘watching’.
Question 5
Mostly correct, ‘full’; most common incorrect response was C ‘crowded’.

Part 2
Question 6
Mostly correct, ‘to’; common incorrect answers were ‘I’ and ‘when’.
Question 7
A very high proportion of correct answer ‘with’; there were common incorrect answer but an assortment of responses (for example, ‘whith’, ‘and’ and ‘of’).
Question 8
A lot of incorrect responses (correct: ‘about’); common incorrect answers were ‘called’ (as some learners probably though that ‘the adventures of a boy called
Joe’ was a film title), ‘amazing’, ‘good’ and ‘nice’.
Question 9
A very high proportion of correct answer ‘old’; there were no common incorrect answers.
Question 10
Mostly correct, ‘got/had/received/have/opened’; the most common incorrect answers were misspellings of ‘received’ (for example, ‘recieved’, ‘recived’ and
‘resived’), ‘like’, ‘want’ and ‘saw’.
Question 11
Almost all had the correct answer, ‘me’; there were no common incorrect answers.
Question 12
A high proportion of correct answer, ‘at’; most common incorrect response was ‘to’ and ‘but’ and ‘because’ also appeared sometimes.

Question 13
Mostly correct, ‘Can/Do’; the most common incorrect answer was ‘Did’.
Question 14
Mostly correct, ‘Are’; most common incorrect responses were ‘Have’ and ‘Did’; ‘Do’ and ‘Are’ sometimes appeared.
Question 15
Mostly correct, ‘next/this’; there was no common incorrect answer, but ‘in’, ‘one’ and ‘after’ sometimes appeared.
Part 3
Question 16
A high proportion of correct answer ‘C’; most common incorrect responses were ‘F’, ‘A’ or ‘B’.
Question 17
Mostly correct, ‘E’; most common incorrect responses were ‘G’ and ‘B’.
Question 18
Mostly correct, ‘A’; by far the most common incorrect response was ‘D’. A good example of a candidate apparently linking the answer to the previous
utterance while overlooking the following one.
Question 19
Mostly correct, ‘F’; most common incorrect responses were ‘E’, ‘A’ and ‘B’.

Question 20
Mostly correct, ‘B’; most common incorrect responses were ‘E’ and ‘F’.
Part 4
Question 21
Mostly correct, ‘A’; incorrect answers divided between ‘B’ and ‘C’.
Question 22
Mostly incorrect, (correct: ‘B’); by far the most common incorrect response was ‘C’. A very difficult question and seemingly the least successfully answered on
the whole Question Paper.
Question 23
Mostly correct, ‘A’; incorrect answers divided between ‘B’ and ‘C’.
Question 24
Very many incorrect answers (correct: ‘C’); by far the most common incorrect response was ‘B’.
Question 25
Mostly correct ‘B’; most common incorrect was ‘C’ (probably due to the appearance of ‘tennis camp’ in the text and in Option C).
Part 5
Question 26
Mostly correct, ‘C’; incorrect answers divided between ‘A’ and ‘B’

Question 27
Mostly correct, ‘B’; by far the most common incorrect response was ‘A’.
Question 28
Mostly correct ‘A’; by far the most common incorrect response was ‘C’.
Question 29
A high proportion of correct answer ‘B’; incorrect answers divided between ‘A’ and ‘C’.
Question 30
A high proportion of correct answer ‘C’; incorrect answers divided between ‘A’ and ‘B’.

General comments
The paper seemed to work well, although there were some comments from examiners about the lack of relevance of some of the responses from learners to
the story task in Part 3. The discrete items in Part 1 were surprisingly difficult for some learners, and although the vocabulary tested should have been
familiar, there were quite a few gaps where no attempt had been made to supply a word. The Part 2 short response task worked very well and learners did
not seem to have any problems either with the content or the format.
Examiners also made some comments about handwriting as this was often difficult to read. However, on the whole, the learners seemed to cope well with the
tasks and the majority produced English of an appropriate standard.
Overall, this was a good paper and it seemed to discriminate well between candidates of higher and lower ability.
Question 1
Most learners answered this correctly and there were very few alternative responses supplied. Most managed to spell ‘HOSPITAL’ correctly as well.
Question 2
In most cases the learners knew what the word should be and the majority got it right. However, there were a few variations in the spelling of ‘CASTLE’,
mainly ‘CASTEL’. There were a few wrong answers here, ‘CLOSET’ and ‘CHURCH’ being the most popular.

Question 3
Most learners knew that the answer was ‘CINEMA’, but they had problems with spelling, transposing the vowels and the ‘N’ and ‘M’, leading to incorrect
answers, ‘CIMENA’, ‘CENIMA’, ‘CEMINA’, ‘CINEEM’, ‘CINIME’, ‘CINIMA’.
Question 4
Many learners found this very difficult and if they did get the word right, many had problems spelling it. There were a number of spelling variations,
including ‘BRIGDE’, ‘BRIGGE’. There were also lots of responses which used the word ‘BOAT’ somewhere in the answer, such as ‘BOATEN’, or ‘BOATS’.
This was possibly due to misreading the definition and supplying a means of river transport rather than a means of travelling over water.
Question 5
This item, ‘STADIUM’, caused the most problems with many learners either not knowing the word or not being able to spell it correctly. There was sometimes
some difficulty in identifying the letters as some learners formed a ‘V’ instead of a ‘U’ and many learners guessed and wrote ‘SPORTS’, ‘SCHOOLS’,
‘SPORTSE’, but often this was left blank.
Question 6
This question worked well and the vast majority of learners were able to gain high marks with examiners frequently awarding top marks (five) for content
and four out of five marks for communicative achievement. The topic was suitable for the learners to write about and they generally covered the three
points successfully. There were a few who misunderstood the task and wrote as if they were accepting the invitation to the picnic, rather than inviting Kate
to the picnic, but they still managed to write largely relevant responses, just from the wrong perspective.
The first point, ‘invite Kate to a picnic’, was handled very well in the majority of cases and there was a variety of ways in which this was done. Some lifted
the language from the input material, but others used their own language and said things like, ‘I want you to come’, which was fine.
The second point was easily covered as well and most learners did specify a place outside: the park, a garden, near a lake, which all picked up on the fact
that a picnic is normally outside. However, there were a few responses which described indoor places, ‘my bedroom’ for example, and these tended to be a
little more off topic as the third bullet point contained suggestions for bringing things for a sleepover, ‘a sleeping bag and a tent’, rather than things
connected with a picnic. However, in the main, the three bullets were appropriately covered and suitable suggestions were made as to what Kate could
bring: ‘sandwiches, drinks, cake, sun cream, a hat’.

Question 7
The story prompt provided good support for learners to write an inventive story, although some went a little off topic, or described something that we
would not typically call ‘treasure’. Many learners were able to use good vocabulary such as ‘search’, ‘pirates’, ‘cave’, ‘chest’, which really linked back to
the prompt sentence. Some examiners commented that some learners ignored the ‘walking’ element of the story and described their characters as sailing
in a boat looking for treasure. These were on topic in general, but not as closely linked to the prompt as other responses that were seen. More confident
learners were able to plan their narratives effectively and they showed good organisational skills by using a range of tenses and linking the events in the
story well by including a beginning, middle and an end and also some danger or suspense when finally finding the treasure. Less confident learners
described a sequence of events, but the linking was less effective or non-existent. A few learners struggled with the task and took the opportunity to write
a response which gave personal details about themselves, but no link to the prompt sentence at all.
These stories appeared to be shorter than in recent years, but there were still instances where learners had crossed out text which was relevant to the
story, but which took them over the word count. There is no necessity for candidates to do this and sometimes the stronger learners actually reduced their
score by doing so as what they had removed made what was left less cohesive and coherent. If learners write more than required, it will be taken into
account either positively or negatively, but crossing text out just to reduce the word count is likely to have a negative impact on the remaining text.

General comments
The great majority of learners attempted all the questions. It was noticeable that the number of incorrect answers increased later on in the test, especially in
Parts 3 and 4.
The comments below regarding problems in deciphering some learners’ intended answers also apply to Paper 1 Reading and Usage. Learners should
remember that each multiple-choice question must have only one answer indicated; in a few cases two answers were circled, so the item was marked as
incorrect. If learners wish to change an answer they should very clearly put lines through the letter or words to cross these out.
A fairly frequent problem was that some learners were using erasers to try to change answers and they did not always appear to be entirely effective in
erasing answers written in pen; unless the correction was very boldly written, the resulting lack of clarity sometimes made it difficult to decide what the
intended answer was. The best practice seen was when learners either put a clear tick next to their preferred response or wrote clearly ‘Yes’ or ‘No’. The
rubric on the Question Paper does not disallow the use of erasers but centres should be aware of their limitations.
A similar problem found in a number of responses in Part 4 was that learners wrote over an answer to correct it but in a few cases the resulting answer
was not clear enough for it to be marked as correct.
Part 1
Questions 1–5
Learners identify one of three pictures from short discrete dialogues. Most learners did well here, especially on Questions 4 and 5. Answers to Question 3
were the least successful.

Part 2
Questions 6–10
This involved multiple choice-questions based on a longer dialogue which was a boy called Sam telling his friend Lucy about a cooking competition.
Question 10 was answered most successfully and Question 8 least successfully.
Part 3
Questions 11–15
This task comprised five questions based on an interview with a young photographer. There were many incorrect responses due to the increased complexity
of language and greater skills demanded. The most successfully answered questions were Questions 11 and 12, the least was Question 15. Question 13
also had a lot of incorrect answers. This part was possibly slightly more difficult than in previous sessions.
Part 4
Questions 16–20
This task comprised five questions based on a teacher telling her class about a visit to a recycling centre. There were a number of incorrect responses due
to the increased complexity of language and greater skills demanded; incorrect answers tended to be other words in the recording or mishearings of the
correct answer. Minor misspellings were accepted as long as they did not form a different word. The answers, with the exception of a surname in Question
20, were common words, though ‘bowl’ in Question 19 seemed to be recognized by only a minority of learners. The most successfully answered question
was Question 20, the least were Questions 18 and 19.
Part 1
Question 1
A high proportion of correct answer, ‘B’; incorrect responses were divided between ‘A’ and ‘C’.

Question 2
Mostly correct, ‘C’; the most common incorrect response was ‘B’.
Question 3
Mostly correct, ‘C’; by far the most common incorrect response was ‘A’.
Question 4
A very high proportion of correct answer, ‘C’; incorrect responses were divided between ‘A’ and ‘B’.
Question 5
A very high proportion of correct answer ‘B’; most common incorrect response was ‘A’.
Part 2
Question 6
Mostly correct, ‘A’; most common incorrect response was ‘B’.
Question 7
Mostly correct, ‘B’; most common incorrect response was ‘C’.
Question 8
Mostly correct, ‘A’; incorrect responses were divided between ‘B’ and ‘C’.

Question 9
Mostly correct, ‘C’; by far the most common incorrect response was ‘B’.
Question 10
A high proportion of correct answer, ‘B’; by far most common incorrect response was ‘C’.
Part 3
Question 11
Mostly correct, ‘B’ (though with many incorrect); by far the most common incorrect response was ‘C’; incorrect responses were divided between ‘A’ and ‘C’.
Question 12
Mostly correct, ‘C’ (though with many incorrect); most common incorrect response was ‘A’.
Question 13
A lot of incorrect answers (correct: ‘A’); most common incorrect response was ‘C’.
Question 14
A lot of incorrect answers (correct: ‘B’); most common incorrect response was ‘A’.
Question 15
Mostly incorrect (correct: ‘C’); most common incorrect response was by far ‘B’ (seemingly more common than the correct answer).

Part 4
Question 16
Mostly correct, ‘(hard) (builders’) hat/helmet’; common incorrect answers were ‘rain coat’ and ‘shoes’.
Question 17
Many incorrect answers (correct: ‘glass’); common incorrect responses were ‘rubbish’ and ‘glasses’ (probably as a result of hearing ‘how glass is turned
into…’ in the recording.
Question 18
Many incorrect answers (correct: ‘apples’ – occasionally misspelt as ‘aples’, which was accepted); common incorrect answers were ‘apple’ (not accepted as it
did not fit the gap grammatically) and ‘vegetable(s)’.
Question 19
Mostly incorrect (correct: ‘bowl’); many common incorrect responses were probably attempts to write ‘bowl’, but with misspelling that resulted in a different
word (for example, ‘ball’ – especially common, ‘bow’ and ‘boat’; ‘bottle’ was also a fairly common incorrect answer). This seemed to be the most difficult
question on the Paper.
Question 20
A high proportion of correct answer, ‘GRAYLES’ – learners seemed to answer the spelling question more successfully than in some past sessions; incorrect
answers included ‘Gurayles’, ‘Grales’, ‘Grewles’ and ‘Jrayles’ (though very few learners heard ‘J’ for ‘G’).

2 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837
2.4 Tables and charts of sub-group performances – English as a Second Language 0837






















3 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Global Perspectives 0838
3.1 Comments on specific questions – Global Perspectives 0838 component 01
Key messages
It is of paramount importance that teams are given the opportunity to carry out the course of action they have planned as part of their Team Project in
order to try and achieve the goal they have set. Where such action has not been carried out by the candidates, their ability to address many aspects of
the Checkpoint successfully will be severely limited.
Candidates need to be carefully guided by their teachers to ensure that content is included in the appropriate place in the Checkpoint; for example,
where material appropriate for the Team Report has been included in the Personal Reflection, or vice versa, it cannot be credited.
Comments on specific skills
AO1 Research, Analysis and Evaluation
Achievement against this Assessment Objective is evidenced in the Team Report and the Evidence of Action. Both of these are team submissions.
Team Report
Specifically, the Team Report is assessed against the following criteria:
‘justify the issue chosen, goal set and local action taken, making reference to different local perspectives on the issue’
Many teams were able to provide a thoughtful justification for the issue they chose to focus their Team Project on, pointing out its relevance to their local
situation, and often referring to local information. However, far fewer teams referred to ‘different local perspectives’, which is necessary for placing the
justification in the top band. Teachers can encourage candidates to think of different ‘stakeholders’ in connection with their chosen issue, and to report their
perspectives on it.

It is also of great importance that teams are encouraged to state clearly in their Team Report the goal that they have set themselves for their project (see
Evidence of Action, below).
‘outline research findings on the issue’
Research findings, whether from primary or secondary research undertaken by the team, were more often ‘appropriate’ than they were ‘detailed’. Teachers
can encourage candidates to identify a number of key facts or statistics that are of relevance to their chosen issue, and that they have obtained through their
research. Detail can be added by crediting their sources. However, sources do not need to be formally referenced at this level.
‘summarise the course of action taken by the team’
It is of crucial importance to the overall success of a Team Project that teams are given the opportunity to put their planned course of action into practice. The
summary can then present a record of actions taken, rather than just a plan describing hypothetical actions. ‘Effective’ summaries may include a clear
chronological sequence of such actions. Teachers can encourage candidates to show how each action contributed towards the achievement of the goal they
set for their project.
‘discuss the strengths and limitations of the action taken’
This is often the least successfully addressed of the requirements for the Team Report. Teams will struggle to present any discussion of ‘strengths and
limitations’ where in fact no action has taken place, again underlining the importance of giving teams the opportunity to put their planned course of action into
practice. Most success is achieved where teams discuss the strengths and limitations that relate directly to the action as they planned it (for example, whether
or not a project with the goal of raising awareness about an issue reached a sufficiently wide audience, and why) rather than focusing on factors beyond their
control, such as the amount of lesson time dedicated to carrying out the Team Project. Teams can be encouraged to present a balance of strengths and
limitations in their reports.
Marking of the Team Report should take into account the fact that different aspects of the task may have been more or less successfully addressed by the
team, For example, where a team has achieved a mark in the top band for their justification and for outlining their research findings, but have been less
successful in summarising the action taken and discussing strengths and limitations (perhaps only achieving a mark in Band 3 for these aspects) then the
principle of ‘best fit’ needs to be applied when deciding on an overall mark for the report.

Evidence of Action
The Evidence of Action part of the assessment is intended to give teams the opportunity to communicate clearly the course of action that they have
undertaken, how well it has been executed, and the extent to which the action has enabled them to achieve their goal. It is a collaborative team submission.
Where teams are unclear in stating the goal they have set for their project, it is often difficult for them to achieve higher marks against AO1 for Evidence of
Action, since it will be harder to determine whether the course of action is ‘appropriate’ to that goal, and likely to meet it. Teachers can encourage candidates
to state their team goal clearly in the Team Report – it does not necessarily have to be re-stated in the Evidence of Action when that is the case.
Where teams submit Evidence of Action in the form of photos (possibly embedded in a PowerPoint presentation, or submitted as separate images) it is
important that captions are provided explaining what aspect of the course of action each image shows.
For further comments relevant to the assessment of the Evidence of Action, see the section on AO3 below.
AO2 Reflection
Achievement against this Assessment Objective is evidenced in the Personal Reflection, a piece of writing that is produced by each individual learner.
Specifically, the Personal Reflection is assessed against the following two criteria:
Reflection on thoughts and behaviour:
‘how thoughts on the issue have developed as a result of the research conducted and/or action taken’
‘how personal behaviour or the behaviour of others has changed as a result of the research conducted and/or action taken and/or working together as a team’
‘Reflection on thoughts and behaviour’ is the more challenging of the two criteria for the Personal Reflection for most candidates. Where ‘thoughts’ are
concerned, candidates can be encouraged to describe a change in their way of thinking about their issue and how or why this happened, rather than just
stating facts that they have learned (for example, ‘When I researched about plastic waste, I realised that we must take action now, because it is polluting
every part of our planet’ rather than ‘I learned that every year 8 million tonnes of plastic enters the oceans’). With regard to ‘behaviour’, an explanation of how
personal behaviour or that of others has actually changed as a result of the action taken is likely to carry more weight than a description of how it might
hypothetically change in future. Again, this highlights the importance of giving candidates the opportunity to put their planned course of action into practice.

Candidates can be encouraged to present a balanced explanation of changes to thoughts and behaviour in order to attain higher marks for this criterion. In
order to capture the ‘before and after’ aspect of changes to thoughts and behaviour, teachers can encourage learners to record (for example, in a learning
journal) their thinking and behaviour around their chosen issue at the beginning of their project, so that these can then be compared to how they think and
behave by the end of it.
Reflection on the process of collaboration:
‘strengths and limitations of their contribution to the team’
‘benefits and challenges of working together as a team’
Many candidates find more scope for reflection when it comes to their personal contributions to the team, and what they have learned about working together
as a team. However, they can be encouraged to present a balanced discussion of each aspect of their experience during the project, by including both the
strengths and the limitations of their personal contribution, and both the benefits and the challenges of working as a team. In both cases, the ability to draw
general conclusions from specific personal experiences is likely to be more successful than just listing those experiences.
Some candidates include content in their Personal Reflection which should have been included in the Team Report, and vice versa. Teachers can avert this
by providing candidates with full guidance on what they should include in each part of the Team Project. It would be appropriate to provide candidates with
checklists for this purpose. Some centres also use templates with sub-headings for the Team Report and the Personal Reflection, to ensure that all the
relevant content is covered.
AO3 Communication and Collaboration
Achievement against this Assessment Objective is evidenced in the Evidence of Action (and additionally in the Team Observation and Individual
Observation). This is a team submission.
Evidence of Action
Here, the Evidence of Action needs to communicate an important message or action taken by the team, while also offering relevant research findings in
support of the message or action.

In order to achieve higher marks, teams can be encouraged to refer to their research findings in their Evidence of Action, where possible using their findings
to support the message they wish to communicate. Often this takes the form of including research findings on a poster or in a presentation. Care needs to be
taken that when presented in the Evidence of Action, such findings are clearly visible and legible.
In some cases, where candidates have carried out primary research in a language other than English (for instance, when conducting interviews or surveys) or
have created a presentation for a non-English speaking audience (for example, as part of an awareness-raising campaign), it is appropriate to present the
material in the Evidence of Action in the original language, but where possible this should be accompanied by an English translation.

4 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0844
4.1 Comments on specific questions – English 0844 component 01
General comments
Overall, questions which required straightforward information retrieval (mainly from text A) were accessible to many candidates. Responses to more
challenging questions required candidates to use evidence from the text to deduce correct answers or to show an understanding of the writer’s intended
effect. Multiple-choice questions were generally well answered, with only a small minority ticking more than the required number of boxes, or not making it
clear where they had changed their minds.
In Section B, candidates who used the planning box to organise their ideas were more successful than those who did not. Technical aspects of written work
were generally very good. Stronger candidates took advantage of the very specific title and wrote pieces that were on task and on subject. Marks were lost in
less-strong responses because, although the subject of art and music was addressed, the purpose – writing a balanced argument – was not apparent.
Question 1
Candidates typically were very successful in identifying where the answer was in the second paragraph, but a minority lost the mark by omitting the word
‘daily’ where they chose to mention timetable.
Question 2
The correct word was identified by stronger candidates, and where it was given in a longer answer was clear. Weaker answers offered phrases such as ‘in
fact’.
Question 3
Most candidates homed in on the correct idea of adjusting bedtime to accommodate homework demands. Weaker responses over quoted, which at times led
to the answer not being distilled clearly.

Question 4
The correct options were to be found in three separate sentences in the third paragraph. Candidates generally did well in offering correct phrases without
resorting to long quotes. Being able to isolate salient phrases and answer succinctly marks out stronger candidates.
Question 5
This question was generally well-answered. Very few candidates over-quoted here.
Question 6
The fact that most candidates selected, by far, was ‘children under 10 need … sleep’. Marks were lost by some who omitted key words like ‘younger’ and
‘sleep’. It is important that candidates, while being careful not to overquote, bear in mind the need to quote accurately.
Question 7
This question was generally well answered. Although the question clearly asked for one problem to be identified, many listed all three possible answers,
which was acceptable.
Question 8
Very few candidates identified the correct answer of ‘if’. Many preferred the word ‘independent’ instead. It was pleasing that candidates tended to write down
just one word as instructed.
Question 9
Mid- to high-range candidates scored one of the two marks available here. Less-strong candidates tended to describe the contents of text A’s paragraphs, for
instance ‘meet in the middle’ was offered instead of words like ‘recommendation’ or ‘compromise’.

Question 10
Candidates at the higher end of the mark range were able to identify a present tense verb and a discussion connective, but very few of these scored for the
third limb of the question, identifying the impersonal voice/formal tone of the passage. Among the lower- and mid-achieving candidates there were those who
did write a longer answer that contained a present tense verb but did not indicate it, and those who offered a verb, but not of the correct tense.
Question 11
As with Question 10, the testing focus here was candidates’ appreciation of a writer’s purpose, and as with Question 10 only stronger candidates gained a
mark.
Question 12
Most candidates failed to offer the correct word, ‘survival’. Many incorrect options were offered, but they tended to be a single word rather than a phrase or
list.
Question 13
In line with recent years, candidates rarely ticked more than two boxes, and where they changed their minds, they made their choices clear. Although there
were two marks available, quite a lot of candidates ticked only one box despite the question asking for two. Candidates at all levels typically managed to
score at least one mark.
Question 14
Very few candidates achieved the mark for this question, in many cases the mark being lost because of a failure to identify the key phrase when it was
embedded within a longer answer.
Question 15
Most candidates confidently identified a sub-heading to gain the first mark, showing increasing confidence with this structural feature, but this was the only
limb where lower and mid-achieving candidates scored. Identifying technical language was a skill demonstrated only by some stronger candidates, although
there were those who wrote a lengthy answer that contained words like ‘brain’, ‘chemicals’ and ‘hallucinate’ but did not identify which word was being offered

as technical. Candidates need to be clear in longer responses as to what their response is. Higher achieving candidates correctly cited factual language for
the third limb.
Question 16
As with sub-headings, candidates were confident and successful in showing an understanding of bullet points as a structural feature, with most correct
responses opting for the idea of listing as a way of organising information.
Question 17
Only less-strong candidates failed to identify and tick the correct box here. As with the other box-ticking questions, only a small number of marks were lost
through ticking more than one box or making alterations unclear.
Question 18
Candidates generally were clear on how dashes were used in these texts, with only a small number stating that their job was to divide or pause the
sentences.
Question 19
As always, candidates who made use of the planning box produced better organised and detailed pieces of writing. Even a small amount of planning seems
to help. There was no ambiguity in the task’s title: the subject was art and music’s right to be on the curriculum and a balanced argument about it was
required. Consequently, the number of candidates wrote about other topics was very small. A similarly very small number wrote a narrative or information
piece. Text A provided a model of the desired structure and tone.
Candidates at the lower mark range sometimes argued for only one side of the argument, perhaps picking up the tone of the title. Marks were also lost here
when candidates saw the argument being about the relative values of art versus music. Stronger responses developed simple arguments on both sides and,
using text A as a model, used paragraphs to structure their writing, either by making points for and against within a paragraph or using paragraphs to develop
particular points. Such responses were often marked by the inclusion of an introduction and an attempt at a conclusion.
Spelling and punctuation continue to improve, and there were few instances of wrong capitalisation. Stronger candidates successfully used more complex
structures and a range of connectives to develop their arguments. They also gained credit for a consistently appropriate style and viewpoint, whereas less-
strong candidates’ responses often had an informal approach, incorporating first person pronouns.

4.2 Comments on specific questions – English 0844 component 02
General comments
In the reading section, responses requiring information to be taken directly from the text were well answered, with candidates using the signposts within the
questions to locate the information required. The paragraph and line indicators are there to help candidates to do this. The challenge of more demanding
questions presented some difficulty especially where candidates needed to deduce the answer and express it in their own words. Candidates who were able
to use their reading skills to recognise the difference between explicit and implicit questions scored well. Less strong candidates often struggled to identify the
evidence required to answer these more challenging questions.
A general point that will be referred to in the ‘question by question’ commentary below is that candidates need to read questions with care so that they
understand what is required. Some important issues were identified in which many candidates lost marks by seeming to misread the instruction in a question.
Important examples of the language used in questions include ‘identify a/the phrase’, ‘give one word’ and ‘tick one box/two boxes’.
In questions where one word or a short phrase is the required answer, extra words are not allowed as the correct answer is then unclear. However, there are
examples where the correct answer can be clearly shown: for example, Question 2: The word that means cannot be avoided is ‘inevitable’ or: The word that
means cannot be avoided is inevitable. In both of these, the correct answer is shown by using inverted commas or by underlining. This is acceptable provided
the ‘extra words’ relate to the wording of the question. A number of candidates have been taught how to do this.
Also, when the word ‘explain’ is used in a question, candidates should recognise that the answer must go beyond a quotation from the text and use their own
words to express their ideas and add the necessary detail to answer the question.
On occasions correct answers are negated when given alongside incorrect information. Marks are lost as it can be a problem to identify the candidate’s
intention. Candidates need to take care to copy words accurately where an answer needs to be taken directly from the text. Marks can be lost where errors
make it difficult to decipher the candidate’s response.

In Section B, the writing task, the stimulus was well understood and gave most candidates the opportunity to use their ideas to try to create an interesting
narrative. There were many imaginative and entertaining pieces. Although the extract was written in the first person, the stimulus was given in the third
person. Narratives in either first or third person were accepted. Some of the stories were excellent with ideas that were developed carefully and logically,
involving an engaging plot and well-described characters. Other narratives were more straightforward but managed to give a clear picture of events, showing
how candidates of all levels of attainment were able to complete the task. Many candidates showed evidence of good planning using a range of techniques,
ranging from lists of paragraphs to more detailed mapping of events.
Section A
Question 1
About half of candidates answered this correctly. Many incorrect responses suggested that Charlie did not want to give Bertha back to the Colonel.
Question 2
This was answered well although there were many copying errors, often muddling the vowels so the meaning was clearly evident, however. There were a few
candidates who gave more than one word.
Question 3
A few candidates understood that ‘the inevitable storm’ was figurative language that was referring to the angry Colonel. However, simply naming the Colonel
did not develop the answer enough for credit to be awarded. Most answers described the weather, suggesting there was going to be a fierce storm or rain.
Question 4
This was generally well done.
Question 5
This was well answered by the majority. ‘Suspicious’ was the most common incorrect answer. One word was asked for and marks were lost where more than
one word was given.

Question 6
This was generally answered well, with most candidates selecting the appropriate piece of text to give their answer. ‘Early’ was not enough and required ‘too
early’ as a comparison. ‘It was loud’ also required detail such as ‘didn’t knock like that’ with the addition of the comparative phrase.
Question 7
Many candidates attempted to answer this question, with ‘short sentences’ the most successful answer. Candidates often find having to explain the effect of
language used in a story challenging. Many correctly identified phrases but did not extend the detail in their answers. As in Question 3, exploring the
meaning and effect of different kinds of figurative language across a range of texts could benefit students in being able to approach this kind of question with
more confidence.
Question 8
The use of the word ‘whimper’ presented some challenging vocabulary but the meaning was well worked out, with most candidates showing their
understanding of Big Joe’s behaviour. His fear was well described by most candidates. Responses ranged from those who described this fear to descriptions
of the Colonel shouting as the reason that Big Joe started to whimper.
Question 9
Incorrect responses included ‘he stole all the salmon’: this information is not given. Also, there were some errors in reading the question as some incorrect
responses described stealing both the salmon and ‘the foxhound’. ‘Before’ was a key word for understanding the question.
Question 10
Most candidates located the ‘rude’ language. Many correctly identified the two phrases. Others quoted too much or just gave one word as the response. The
opening section of this report indicates the need for candidates to understand what is asked for in questions, i.e. short phrase.
Question 11
This question was well answered by most candidates including those who added some detail about why Mother smoothed Big Joe’s hair – this was all
relevant and allowed. Some candidates thought that Mother was cross with Big Joe, which shows some difficulty in understanding the character and her
actions.

Question 12
A significant number of candidates ticked only one box although two were required. Careful reading of the question is essential. Another problem could be
that detecting the implicit meaning within the text to determine the reason for the Colonel’s behaviour in repeating the question was a challenge for many
candidates.
Question 13
(a) This was well answered by most candidates although many gave more than one acceptable answer. This did not negate and was given credit. Incorrect
responses referred to the Colonel’s actions rather than his appearance.
(b) Responses to this question were varied. ‘Roared’ was identified as a verb by most candidates. ‘Ranted’ was less common. Perhaps it is not as familiar
as roared. ‘Shouting’ was given by a significant number of candidates. ‘Shouting’ was given in the question and repetition of the word is not creditworthy.
Marks were also lost where extra words were given which obscured the candidates’ intention.
Question 14
Most responses to this question were correct. Some responses that did not score a mark were too vague, such as ‘stealing’. ‘The dog’ was a requirement
here. Others suggested that ‘he had no choice’.
Question 15
(a) Most responses were correct.
(b) This is another example of a question needing a response that explains something in the text. In this question, the idea of how well Mother knows Charlie
was the subject. There were some correct responses, but most responses did not explain and often gave a short quote, for example, ‘Mother said ‘I don’t
think so’.
Question 16
Many candidates gave a word which had a similar meaning to ‘full’ but did not fit in the context of the text.

Question 17
Many candidates had read this question carefully and gave a five-word quote from the text. Often the correct phrase was not located, and so some
candidates wrote five words that did not score marks.
Question 18
Many candidates scored at least one mark here as there were plenty of ideas that could gain a mark. Perhaps the most common response was where an
image of ‘calmness’ was described. Many responses also recognised that Mother did not like conflict or did not get angry easily. Responses that just referred
to her name (‘she is Mrs Peaceful’) did not score marks. Other incorrect responses included many that described the qualities of mothers in general without
referring to Mrs Peaceful and her name.
Section B
Question 19 – Writing Task
Overall, a number of excellent stories were seen, characterised by well-described settings with a lively plot often with some suspense built in and plenty of
action. In these examples, the narrative flowed well with good detail. Often, these candidates handled content and audience well, using structure and dialogue
to develop character and mood. Grammatically sound, these stories were generally well-structured and well-punctuated whilst using a good range of
expressive and appropriately ambitious vocabulary. Some candidates were able to move the narrative forward using quite complex sentence structures to
express ideas and add descriptive detail.
Although most candidates were able to write a story based upon the stimulus, there were some issues that arose for many. The main concern was that these
stories were not ‘grammatically correct’. There were a number of problems here including punctuation, verb forms and agreement between subject and verb.
Where attempts were made to produce a plan, there was evidence that candidates were able to use this to set out their ideas in an organised way. If planning
was done well and used, writing showed a good balance with logical links between paragraphs that developed the plot. Sometimes, especially where planning
was not evident, stories often lacked logic and ideas did not flow well throughout the narrative. It is possible that there might have been a difficulty with time
management as some of these stories appeared to be rushed and, occasionally, unfinished.

Wa – Content, purpose and audience (including vocabulary)
Overall, candidates responded well to the stimulus and wrote stories with a relevant plot, characters and outcomes. Most picked up on the viewpoint in the
extract and wrote in the first person. Third person accounts were also seen where the narrator in the extract was included as a third brother. The inclusion of
Charlie, Big Joe and Bertha as the main characters matched the outline of the task in the stimulus. The children were engaged in an activity with Bertha when
a problem arose. This was the ‘dangerous situation’ from which they needed to be rescued. This varied from falling into a hole, struggling to swim and being
attacked. Wild animals, robbers and, often, an angry Colonel were involved as the ‘danger’. The rescues were entertaining with Bertha able to use her biting
skills to injure people or use a rope or stick to haul the boys out of danger. Occasionally, the narrative lapsed in its logic, with Bertha being able to speak –
acceptable if a fantasy genre was evident but not logical in ‘ordinary, day-to-day life’. The build up to the rescue constituted most of the story in many pieces
and Bertha’s actions were often described at the last minute.
The best narratives were those in which candidates used good description and added detail. Successful candidates were able to use the idea in the stimulus
to create mystery and dilemma and were able to engage the audience. Those candidates who added descriptive details, for example describing the
characters’ reactions to different events as they unfolded during the telling of the story, produced an engaged response from the reader. It was pleasing to
see how some candidates challenged themselves by using a precise vocabulary where the choice of a particular word, or words, contributed significantly to
the creation of image and mood. The best examples of writing managed to create atmosphere and describe feelings and included the effective use of
adverbs. These candidates showed that they knew how to improve their writing by choosing and experimenting with ambitious words.
Controlling content so that the reader is fully engaged is difficult to achieve and some responses managed to demonstrate awareness of the audience. In
these, the writing included a sense of character, with engaging action, appropriate linguistic skills and perceptive choices of vocabulary. However, where plot
development was restricted, engagement of the reader was limited. Furthermore, events were not always well controlled. Surprisingly, the use of devices to
create precise images was not as common as in previous sessions. Many candidates were able to build a solid connection between the characters and
events, although ‘action’ was often confined to the response in the dialogue – stronger writers handled this well. The narrative viewpoint in most stories
remained consistent, although there was some switching from first to third person and vice versa.
Less strong candidates found it challenging to create mood or feeling. They did, however, show a sound grasp of the relationships described in the text and,
together with their understanding of the stimulus, this helped these candidates to make attempts to achieve a sense of mood. The bold actions of Charlie and
the ‘wimpish’ behaviour of Big Joe, were usually consistent with the text and many candidates of all levels of attainment used this to try to develop their
writing. Word choices are important to achieve success as they help to develop and maintain a relationship with the reader.

Developing a story line can be a challenge for some candidates. These candidates would benefit from exploring ways of developing plot within a story. The
key to this lies mainly in the use of more description and the inclusion of detail. Developing the narrative is an area that could be addressed in class so that
candidates are able to sustain their efforts and create stories with well-described characters, action and detail. Where candidates can construct a profile of
their stories – an introduction (characters/setting), a build-up (a sequence of events), a climax leading to a resolution and an ending – they meet with success.
Wt – Text Structure and Organisation
Higher scoring candidates were able to develop the structure of their narratives by using paragraphs to organise and shape their stories in a way that helped
the narrative to flow logically. Learning about the purpose of paragraphs helps towards improving the structure of a piece of writing. Stronger candidates were
able to score higher marks where they showed a good understanding of paragraphs by linking them together effectively, for example, through contrasts in
mood, shifts in time or changes in location. Speech layout was a challenge for some, but examiners were encouraged by the way many more candidates
made good attempts to show this accurately compared to previous sessions.
Most candidates attempted to sequence their stories, which could be effective when paragraph breaks were evident. Less strong candidates understood the
importance of splitting their stories into sections, although sometimes with limited success. Although content was generally clear in most stories, the
coherence of many was not always strong, with jumps of logic or assumptions that the reader would understand what was happening without clear
explanations.
Identifying how paragraphs are used in a range of given texts will help candidates to appreciate how they can be used to signal a change of character, time or
event, for example. In many higher scoring narratives, a lack of cohesive devices was evident especially where the use of connectives was limited. Stronger
candidates could examine a range of different texts to determine how authors manage to use paragraphs that show complex links between sections and well-
organised content within paragraphs.
Wp – Sentence structure and punctuation
Most candidates used simple sentence structures confidently and were able to demarcate them with full stops. The control of verb forms was generally good
in these basic structures. Simple connectives such as ‘and’, ‘but’ or ‘then’, were evident and the use of adjectives added detail.

Some candidates were adventurous in their attempts to expand their writing with complex and detailed sentences using grammatically correct clauses. These
candidates were able to demonstrate the use of a range of phrases and clauses to develop ideas. A few of these showed the careful use of expanded
phrases, particularly adjectival, adverbial and verb phrases, to develop ideas with a wide variety of connectives to keep the story pace flowing and to develop
ideas.
Stronger candidates constructed some quite ambitious sentences which were enhanced by carefully chosen adjectives and adverbs and the positioning of
clauses for effect. Sometimes candidates showed how the use of short simple sentences, especially in one-sentence paragraphs, can build suspense. Stories
that demonstrated this were usually well punctuated too. The use of the comma to mark out clauses or separate phrases within long sentences is showing a
marked improvement in the work of stronger candidates. Speech marks were often placed accurately around spoken words and many candidates were able
to make good attempts to place other speech punctuation correctly.
Amongst less-strong candidates there was a lot of confusion about verb forms or agreement of verbs, which limited marks. Also, some candidates showed
confusion between pronouns, including switching between third and first person. These candidates also struggle to employ a range of connectives to join
sentences. Punctuation is also a challenge for these candidates and the use of the comma splice was widespread.
Ws – Spelling
This continues to be a strength in candidates’ work. Correctly spelled, high frequency words are a feature in nearly all candidates’ writing. There is evidence
of good teaching across all levels of ability, meaning that candidates are able to use their blends, patterns and knowledge of polysyllabic words to good effect.
Phonetic attempts at spelling words, especially polysyllabic words, were generally good. However, whilst higher attaining candidates showed ambition in their
word choices and demonstrated the accurate spelling of words with complex regular patterns, there were many examples of narratives where the story did not
include polysyllabic words.

4.3 Tables and charts of sub-group performances – English 0844














5 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845
5.1 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics 0845 component 01
Topics that were well covered: • doubling a two-digit number (Question 3(a))
• finding the difference between near multiples of 100 (Question 4)
• telling and comparing time on analogue and digital clocks (Question 9)
• using a fraction to describe a simple proportion (Question 15)
• multiplying and dividing whole numbers by 1000 (Question 17)
• dividing a two-digit number by a one-digit number with a remainder (Question 18)
• solving a simple number puzzle involving the recall of addition and subtraction facts to 20 (Question 19)
• recognising and using the equivalence between decimal and fraction forms. (Question 21)
Topics that proved to be more difficult: • solving a word problem involving the subtraction of one two-digit number from another (Question 3(b))
• comparing readings on scales with different intervals (Question 10)
• giving instructions to carry out a given translation (Question 14)
• identifying and naming a parallelogram (Question 23(b))
• using place value and multiplication facts to multiply and divide units by a one-place decimal (Question 25)
• interpreting data in a graph that shows the hourly temperatures in a greenhouse (Question 27)
• finding the median of a set of data (Question 28(a))
• finding the mean of a set of data. (Question 28(b))
Some general issues noted when marking Paper 1:
Overall, the papers displayed a good coverage of the Cambridge Primary Mathematics Framework.
The formation of numerals continued to show improvement this session. However, it was still an issue on some papers. Numerals need to be unambiguous.
In some cases, it was impossible to distinguish which numbers were intended. Marks may have been lost because of this.
Learners should be shown and encouraged to use mathematical notation correctly. See for example Question 9 below.

Learners should be encouraged to take careful note of the context in which a question is set. As an example, in Question 27, a lot of the incorrect answers
seen did not acknowledge that temperatures were only taken every hour. These explanations did not appreciate the absence of data between 10 am and
11 am.
In two-mark questions, working out should be shown. Marks were available for correct working even where the final answer was incorrect. A number of
learners did not show any working and may have lost marks because of this, i.e. Questions 1 and 16
Learners should be familiar with different forms of presentation and able to adapt their mathematical knowledge to cope with these. For example:
Question 2 using their knowledge of the structure of Venn diagrams to classify common multiples
Question 12(b) adapting their ability to calculate the product of two numbers in order to calculate a quotient given the dividend and divisor.
Mathematically specific vocabulary such as: multiples, product, equivalent, capacity, mass, acute angle, obtuse angle, translation, median, mean, likely, even
chance, certain and impossible all need to be used in context and understood.
Question 1
Objective: To solve a worded problem involving the multiplication of a two-digit number by a single-digit number.
Common Errors: A variety of errors were made. Amongst the most common were:
21 calculating 3 × 7 (eggs laid by one chicken in seven weeks)
36 calculating 3 × 12 (eggs laid by the twelve chickens in one week)
This was a two mark question. One mark was available for sight of a correct method: 12 × 3 × 7 even if the final answer contained arithmetic errors. A number
of learners showed no working so may have lost a mark because of this.

Question 2
Objective: To recognise multiples of 5 and 10 and classify in a Venn diagram.
Common Errors: Most errors appeared to be related to a misunderstanding of the Venn diagram rather than the multiples.
The most commonly seen errors were:
Placing 30 and 40 on the and Repeating 30 and 40 in both

intersection of multiples of the section for multiples of 10
10 and 5 rather than inside and the section for multiples of
the section for multiples of 10 5 which are not multiples of 10
Most learners placed 35 and 55 correctly.
The above errors suggest that learners were unaware that the Venn diagram showed that all multiples of 10 were multiples of 5
Another commonly seen error was to miss out 37 completely or to place it outside the universal set.
Question 3(a)
Objective: To double a two-digit number.
Common Errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

One error seen several times was 81 (pages): the total number of pages read on day one and day two (27 + 27+ 27)

Question 3(b)
Objective: To solve a worded problem that involves subtracting a two-digit number from a two-digit number.
Common Errors: 40 calculating 94 – 54 (not accounting for the pages read on day 1)
Question 4
Objective: To find the difference between near multiples of 100.
Common Errors: Some learners ticked more than one calculation. This could be a confusion between ‘closest’ and ‘close to’.
496 – 204 was the most common incorrect calculation selected.
Question 5
Objective: To devise directions to follow a given path.
Common Errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were given including
All answers correct except All compass points correct

for the last instruction being but the distance travelled on
given as 4 West not 5 West each leg miscalculated

Question 6
Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the identification of a pair of fractions that total one.
3
Common Errors: A number of learners gave an incorrect decimal: e.g. 0.57, 0.75, 0.4 (Note: a decimal equivalent of correct to 2 d.p. or better was
7
allowed.)
3 3 4
A number of learners gave an incorrect fraction, e.g. − , ,
7 6 7
Question 7
Objective: To choose metric units suitable for measuring everyday objects.
Common Errors: Matching the capacity of a teaspoon to grams.

Matching the height of a tree to kilometres.
Question 8
Objective: To classify angles as acute or obtuse.
Common Errors: A number of learners gave one specific acute angle rather than define the range of angles covered by this definition.
One incorrect definition of acute seen several times was: ‘More than 10, less than 890 ‘
Misspellings of ‘obtuse’ were allowed if the intention was clear.

A number of possible misspelling made the answer ambiguous so were not allowed, including words in English with other meanings,
e.g. obscure, obtain.

Question 9
Objective: To tell and compare the time on analogue and digital clocks.
Common Errors: Either selecting 03:20 or selecting both 03:20 and 15:20 so confusing 12 hour and 24 hour notation.
Question 10
Objective: To compare readings on scales with different intervals.
Common Errors: Selecting the far right scale as the heaviest reading. This was sometimes
due to a misreading of this scale as 440 g or 450 g compared to the
middle scale which read 400 g.
Some learners may have taken account of the rotation of the arrows on
the scales. This being greatest in the far right reading.

Question 11
1
Objective: To find of a given shape.
3
1
Common Errors: Several learners made an attempt at splitting the shape into thirds as shown; incorrectly shading 6 ‘tiles’.
2
Also seen a number of times were:
and
Some learners shaded just one of the ‘tiles’

Question 12(a)
Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving multiplication facts.
Common Errors: Some errors were due to learners misunderstanding the patterns and adding cells, e.g.
Some errors were due to an error in one or more of the multiplication facts, e.g.
Question 12(b)
Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving multiplication facts.
Common Errors: As in part (a), some errors were made due to adding cells and others because of errors in multiplication facts.
Question 13
Objective: To convert larger to smaller decimal units.
Common Errors: Most errors were seen in converting metres to centimetres, e.g. or
Question 14
Objective: To give instructions to carry out a given translation.
Common Errors: Giving the instructions for the translation from A to B rather than from B to A.
 −2 
Plotting the co-ordinates of points on the two triangles (Note: although outside the Primary Framework a correct vector   was
 −3 
allowed.)
Using points of the compass. There was no reference to points of the compass on the drawing so the orientation was not known.

Question 15
Objective: To use a fraction to describe a simple proportion.
Common Errors: 16 the number of blue tiles rather than the fraction
8
the fraction of red tiles
24
Question 16
Objective: To solve a worded problem involving the addition and subtraction of money.
Common Errors: $7.14 the amount paid rather than the change Oliver received
A few learners were distracted by the redundant information and calculated $10 – ($3.25 + $3.89 + $1.75) to give $1.11
This was a two-mark question. One mark was available for sight of a correct method: $10 – ($3.25 + $3.89) or equivalent, even if the final answer contained
arithmetic errors. A number of learners showed no working so may have lost a mark because of this.
Question 17
Objective: To multiply and divide whole numbers by 1000
Common Errors: This first part of the question, matching: was generally well answered.
The most common error in the second part was matching:
Question 18
Objective: To divide a 2-digit number by a 1-digit number leaving a remainder.
Common Errors: A number of learners selected more than one number, usually including the correct answer of 47.

Question 19
Objective: To solve a simple number puzzle involving the recall of addition and subtraction facts to 20.
Common Errors: Most learners were able to answer this question successfully.
There was a wide variety of answers in the errors made, suggesting that the structure of the puzzle was not understood.
A few learners were successful in getting three lines to add to 15 but not the fourth, e.g.
Question 20
Objective: To know and apply tests of divisibility for 2 and 25.
Common Errors: Giving numbers that did not contain four digits: e.g. 25 and 75
Giving numbers that ended in 0 e.g. 2100 and 2150 (ignoring the condition: not divisible by 2)
Question 21
Objective: To recognise and use the equivalence between decimal and fraction forms.
137
Common Errors: Equating to 0.137
100

Question 22
Objective: To use the language associated with probability to describe the likelihood of different events occurring.
Common Errors: and
Another error seen was to assess the likelihood of spinning an odd number correctly as an even chance but to assess the likelihood
of spinning a number greater than two as impossible.
i.e. and
The answer on the left suggests an understanding of probability.

The error on the right could be misinterpreting ‘a number greater than two’ to mean ‘a number containing more than two digits’
(impossible).
Question 23(a)
Objective: To identify a quadrilateral given a list of its properties.
Common Errors: Most learners chose the trapezium (shape C) correctly.

The most common incorrect answers were the parallelogram (shape D) followed by the isosceles trapezium (shape A).
Question 23(b)
Objective: To identify and name a parallelogram.
Common Errors: The most common incorrect answer was rhombus followed by trapezium.

Question 24
Objective: To use two and three placed decimals in the context of length.
Common Errors: A number of learners selected one of the correct numbers but missed the other one.
The most common incorrect number to be selected was 6.095.
Question 25
Objective: To use place-value and multiplication facts to multiply and divide units by a number containing one decimal place.
Common Errors: The most commonly seen incorrect answers were: and both making an error
with place value.
A number of answers were seen suggesting that the structure of the table was not fully understood: e.g.

Question 26
Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the recognition of even numbers and multiples of 5.
Common Errors: Giving five numbers that satisfied two of the criteria but not the third.
e.g. does not have three multiples of 5
Not using five different cards.
e.g. satisfies all three criteria but 10 has been used twice.
Question 27
Objective: To interpret data in a graph showing the hourly temperatures in a greenhouse.
Common Errors: A number of learners said that Lily was correct, reasoning that the two temperatures at 10 am and 11 am were the same.
They did not consider that the temperature might have changed in between these two readings.
A number of learners gave answers that suggested the temperature might have changed a small amount which did not show on the
graph.
This did not appreciate that there were no readings in between 10 am and 11 am so there would be no data to support this.
A few learners cited outside weather conditions as the reason why Lily’s statement was wrong, e.g. ‘The Sun would be hotter at
11 am.’
These answers suggest that the graph had not been studied carefully enough or set it in the given context before the explanation was
offered.

Question 28(a)
Objective: To find the median of set of data.
Common Errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were given; most frequently seen being 5 (hours), possibly because this was in the middle of the
times printed in the question, before they were ordered.
Question 28(b)
Objective: To find the mean of a set of data.
Common Errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were given including:

38 (hours) finding the sum of all the times without carrying out the required division.
3 r 8 (hours) finding the sum of all the times and dividing by 10 but not interpreting the result to fit the context.
4 (hours) possibly confusing with median.
4 (hours) with evidence of correctly calculating 3.8 (hours) but then inappropriately rounding to the nearest whole number.

5.2 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics 0845 component 02
Topics that were well covered: • knowing what each digit represents in a four-digit number (Question 1(a) and 1(b))
1
• recognising fractions that are equivalent to (Question 2)
2
• solving a simple number puzzle involving the multiplication of a two-digit number by another. (Question 6)
• solving a simple number puzzle involving the recognition of common multiples of 4 and 6 (Question 16)
• reading co-ordinates in all four quadrants (Question 22(a))
• identifying pairs of one-place decimals that total 10 (Question 26)
• extracting data from a line graph. (Question 27(a))
Topics that proved to be more difficult: • Identifying and naming a hexagon (irregular, concave). (Question 3(a))
• using a calendar. (Question 4)
• counting back in thousands, hundreds and units to subtract. (Question 8)
• finding a simple percentage of an amount of money (Question 13)
• using known number facts to generate a new multiplication fact. (Question 20)
• knowing what each digit represents in a number with two decimal places. (Question 21)
• solving a spacial problem that involves reading co-ordinates in all four quadrants. (Question 22(b))
• using a given approximation to convert a number of kilometres to miles. (Question 25)
• changing an improper fraction to a mixed number and positioning on a number line (Question 28)
• calculating the area of a simple shape that can be split into rectangles. (Question 29)
Some general issues noted when marking Paper 2:
Overall the papers displayed a good coverage of the Cambridge Primary Mathematics Framework.
Learners should have access to a calculator to complete this paper. They should be familiar with its functions and able to use it appropriately. There was
evidence that this was not always the case, resulting in avoidable arithmetic errors and a possible loss of time.

All comments from paper 1 regarding presentation and working out apply to paper 2.
Learners should be shown and encouraged to use mathematical notation correctly. See, for example, Question 14 below.
Where a question required a drawing, it was important that this was accurate enough to convey the learner’s intent.
For example, in Question 3(b) a number of drawings were seen which were loosely drawn over the grid without clear reference to the dots.
Learners should be familiar with different forms of presentation and able to adapt their mathematical knowledge to cope with these. For example:
Question 20 adapting their ability to multiply a two-digit number by a one-digit number in order to calculate further multiplication facts.
Question 22(b) adapting their ability to plot coordinates in all four quadrants to solve a spacial problem involving line symmetry.
Question 28 adapting their knowledge of improper fractions and mixed numbers to enable them to position the latter on a number line.
Question 29 adapting their ability to calculate the area of a rectangle in order to calculate the area of a shape that can be split into more than one
rectangle.
Mathematically specific vocabulary such as: digit, number-line, smallest, largest, total, fraction, improper fractions, multiple, factor, greater than, less than,
approximately, rounding, nearest (e.g. tenth), parallelogram, hexagon, area, co-ordinates, x-axis, y-axis, grid (e.g. dotted, centimetre square), reflected, bar
chart, pictogram and likelihood all need to be used in context and understood.
Question 1(a)
Objective: To understand what each digit represents in a four-digit number.
Common Errors: Generally, well answered.

A few learners gave a number that had 3 in the hundreds position but was not on one of the given number cards: e.g. 300, 9345
Question 1(b)
Objective: To understand what each digit represents in a four-digit number.

A few learners realised that the largest digit in the tens position was 5 but gave the answer 50 rather than the number card with 5 in
the tens position.

Question 2
1
Objective: To recognise fractions equivalent to
2

4
A few learners used a number that was not supplied on the cards to form an equivalent fraction: e.g.
8
Question 3(a)
Objective: To identify and name a hexagon.
Common Errors: A variety of incorrect answers were seen including:

3
parallelogram, octagon, pentagon, irregular shape, arrow, square with a rectangle and of a square.
4
Question 3b
Objective: To draw a parallelogram on a square spotty grid.
Common Errors: Some learners drew the irregular hexagon given in part (a); often in a different orientation:
e.g. a few learners drew a trapezium: e.g. a few learners drew a triangle e.g.

Question 4
Objective: To use a calendar
Common Errors: 21st August counting forwards two weeks, to give the birthday of somebody two weeks younger than Jamila.
A number of learners miscounted the two weeks on the calendar giving answers such as 23rd July and 25th July
A number of learners gave incomplete answers giving 24 but not the month or the month without 24
Question 5
Objective: To find the area of a rectilinear shape drawn on a square grid, by counting squares.
Common Errors: A number of learners appeared to be adding sides to calculate the perimeter with a few giving the answer 22 (the perimeter in
centimetres).
A number of learners multiplied the dimensions of the sides of the shape to give 432
A significant number of responses showed evidence of attempting to calculate the area of smaller shapes and adding these to find the
total area, rather than count the squares.
Question 6
Objective: To solve a simple number puzzle involving the multiplication of a two-digit number by a two-digit number.
Common Errors: Generally well answered.

There was evidence that a number of learners did the calculations by hand rather than make efficient use of a calculator.

Question 7
Objective: To draw and compare data in a bar chart and a pictogram.
Common Errors: A number of learners attempted to complete only one of the charts.
On the bar chart, some learners drew the bar representing the number of bananas to 65; possibly confused by the half symbol in the
pictogram.
Question 8
Objective: To subtract by counting back in thousands, hundreds and units.
Common Errors: Repeatedly subtracting thousands
i.e.
Calculating 5226 – 3925 = 1301
e.g.

Question 9(a)
Objective: To count on in constant steps, including beyond zero.
Common Errors: adding 5 to 1 rather than -1
taking 5 from 1 rather than adding.
Question 9(b)
Objective: To identify the rule generating a sequence with steps of constant size including steps beyond zero.
Common Errors: take 5
Question 10
Objective: To interpret a reading which lies between two unnumbered marks on a scale.
Common Errors: Marking the water level at 1.5 litres (by taking each division on the scale as 100 ml)
Question 11
Objective: To decide whether to round up or down after division, depending on the context.
Common Errors: 62.5 (chairs) not considering the context when interpreting the answer to the division.
63 (chairs) not considering the context and rounding up the answer to the division.
1000 (chairs) calculating 250 × 4 rather than 250 ÷ 4

Question 12
Objective: To order numbers containing one or two decimal places.
Common Errors: possibly focusing on 56 and 65 without considering the place values.
confusion over the relative place values of 0.5 and 0.05
Question 13
Objective: To find a simple percentage of an amount of money.
Common Errors: ($) 80.025

place value errors.
($) 8025
($) 20.063 calculating ($) 401.25 ÷ 20 and rounding.
Question 14
Objective: To calculate a time interval in hours and minutes.
Common Errors: 2:25 using inappropriate notation; offering no units.
2.25 hours using inappropriate notation.
2 hours 65 minutes
calculating 12.15 – 9.50 = 2.65 and interpreting this as 2 hours and 65 minutes or 3 hours 15 minutes
3 hours 15 minutes

Question 15
Objective: To apply the associative rule to multiplication (informally, without naming the rule).
Common Errors: calculating 5 × 12 to get 60 and 60 × 5 to get 300
Question 16
Objective: To solve a simple number puzzle involving the recognition of multiples of 4 and 6.
Some learners gave answers that did not satisfy all four conditions.
e.g. 16 not a multiple of 6

possibly errors in multiplication facts or not considering all four conditions.
26 not a multiple of 4 or 6
48 units digit not 6
Question 17
Objective: To round a number with two decimal-places to the nearest tenth.
Common Errors: Missing out one or more of the correct answers, most commonly: 213.44
Selecting a number that did not round to 213.4, most commonly: 213.45

Question 18
Objective: To find factors of a two-digit number.
Common Errors: 86 not taking account of the condition requiring a number less than 86
Some errors were seen which were due to errors in multiplication facts, e.g. 42 and 46
Question 19
Objective: To use the language associated with probability to assess the likelihood of an event occurring.
Common Errors: C giving the bag where the likelihood of selecting a white ball was the greatest.
Even chance giving the likelihood of selecting a black or white ball from bag B rather than identifying the bag.
Question 20
Objective: To use number facts to generate a new multiplication fact.
Common Errors: Giving the answer 1014 without showing any working to link it with the given facts.
Calculating (78 x 10) + (78 x 3) usually set out as 78 without showing the connection between 78 × 10 and 78 × 5
× 13
780
234
1014

Question 21
Objective: To know what each digit represents in a two-place decimal number.
Common Errors: Hundredths

the correct columns were identified but the value of the 4 was not given.
Tenths
Question 22(a)
Objective: To read coordinates in all four quadrants.

A few learners did give answers with the x and y coordinates reversed: ( 3, –2 )
Question 22(b)
Objective: To solve a spacial problem that involves the plotting of coordinates in all four quadrants.
Common Errors: A variety of incorrect answers were given, including:
(–3, 0) the coordinates of point D
(0, 3) a reversal of the correct answer: (3, 0)

Question 23
Objective: To identify the position of a negative number on a number line.
Common Errors: Most learners realised the number was negative but then assigned an incorrect value to each interval, leading to answers such as:
–15 taking each interval to represent 5
A few learners gave a decimal number e.g. 0.3

Question 24
Objective: To order numbers containing one or two decimal places.
Common Errors: A number of learners started by placing the 2 in the first position (possibly because it was the smallest). This led to incorrect
statements such as:
repeating the 3 to make all elements correct
using the four available numbers but not appreciating that 5.34 was larger than 5.3
A number of learners confused the signs < and >, e.g.
A few answers used numbers other than those given on the cards, e.g.

Question 25
Objective: To use a given approximation to convert a number of kilometres to miles.
Common Errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were seen including:
160 (miles) calculating 100 × 8 ÷ 5
12.5 (miles) calculating 100 ÷ 8
20 (miles) calculating 100 ÷ 5
Question 26
Objective: To identify pairs of one-place decimals that total 10
A few learners correctly selected four of the cards but missed the fifth one. The card missed varied.
A few learners selected the five correct cards but added an additional one, most commonly
Question 27(a)
Objective: To extract data from a line graph.
15 (litres) possibly taking the reading at 10 p.m.

Question 27(b)
Objective: To interpret data presented in a line graph.
Common Errors: Stating ‘it goes up’ without reference to the water.
Giving an explanation relating to the temperature of the water.
Question 28
Objective: To change an improper fraction to a mixed number and position on a number line.
7 1 3
Common Errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were seen. The incorrect lines seen most frequently from were to 2 and 2
2 2 4
35 1 1 3
The incorrect lines seen most frequently from were to 4 , 4 and 4
8 4 2 4
11 1 3 1
The incorrect lines seen most frequently from were to 3 , 4 and 4
4 2 4 4
A few learners wrote the correct mixed number next to each improper fraction but joined these to incorrect positions on the number
line.

Question 29
Objective: To calculate the area of a simple shape that can be split into rectangles.
Common Errors: A number of learners made an attempt at dividing the shape into rectangles but did not cover the whole area:
e.g. (5 × 3) + (8 × 5) = 55 (cm2)
A number of learners calculated the areas of the two 8 × 5 rectangles but did not allow for the overlap: i.e. (8 × 5) + (8 × 5) = 80 (cm2)
Some learners attempted to add the outside dimensions confusing area with perimeter, e.g. 26 (8 + 5 + 8 + 5),
42 (8 + 5 + 5 + 3 + 8 + 5 + 5 + 3)
Some learners multiplied the printed dimensions to give the answer 15 (5 × 3)
Some learners multiplied a variety of the outside dimensions, e.g. 1600 (8 × 5 × 8 × 5)
This was a two-mark question. Answers that displayed a correct method were awarded 1 mark even if the final answer was incorrect
due to arithmetic errors. Many of the papers seen showed no working so may have lost a mark because of this.

5.3 Tables and charts of sub-group performances – Mathematics 0845


















6 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846
6.1 Comments on specific questions – Science 0846 component 01
Questions requiring simple recall were generally answered well as were many of the questions that required analysis and interpretation. In some cases,
answers to questions requiring explanations and interpretations of facts required more detail, with many giving one-word answers that needed to be
expanded.
Questions on scientific enquiry were answered well by many learners who appeared to be familiar with practical investigations and showed that first-hand
experience is invaluable. The idea of fair testing, reliability and accuracy continues to be an area where there could be more focus coupled with the
identification of the pieces of scientific equipment.
Learners demonstrated good knowledge of the following areas of the framework: reversible and irreversible changes and the process of evaporation. Areas
where there could be greater focus are the differences between pitch and loudness and ways to change pitch and loudness and the functioning of electrical
circuits.
General comments
The learners performed well on the answers requiring recall of their knowledge. They found the application and enquiry style questions to be more
challenging.
Question 1
Many of the learners demonstrated a good understanding of the terms associated with food chains and could place the words in the correct spaces to
complete the sentences. The most common incorrect answers were mixing up the terms ‘predator and prey’.
Question 2
Some of the learners correctly interpreted the diagram and labelled the boxes correctly. Some of the learners described the Earth as turning or spinning on its
orbit which was incorrect, or they labelled the axis as the orbit.

Question 3
Many of the learners correctly matched the description of the roles of the organs to the pictures of the organs. The most common incorrect answer was for
stating that the organ labelled as ‘A’, the eye, was the organ responsible for filtering the blood. This suggests that the learners were less familiar with the
diagram of the kidney.
Question 4
(a) Many of the learners were able to select the correct two properties that copper has so it can be used to make a cooking pot.
(b) Some of the learners correctly identified the two properties that copper has so it can be used to make electrical wires. Some of the learners thought
that the copper would need to be insoluble or brittle.
Question 5
Most of the learners answered this question correctly. The most common incorrect answer was microscope.
Question 6
Overall, this question was answered very well by many of the learners, and many of the learners achieved 2 or 3 marks. The most common incorrect answer
was that many of the learners thought that aluminium was not a metal. Maybe this is because that they saw in the table that aluminium is not attracted to a
magnet. Many learners think that all metals are attracted to magnets, so by it not being attracted to a magnet this led them to think that it could not be a metal.

Question 7
Overall, the learners showed a good knowledge and understanding of this topic and the associated terminology.
(a) Many of the learners labelled the position of the shadow in the correct place. However, there were a significant number of learners that did not
attempt this question. This is probably as they missed it and move straight to the dotted response lines of Question 7(b). Learners should be
encouraged to read through the question from the beginning so that they do not miss ‘hidden’ questions like these that do not have dotted response
lines. It would be better if learners went from marking point to marking point to help them not to miss questions like these.
(b) Learners are familiar with the terminology associated with this topic and provided good explanations why the shadow was formed. Answers that
were insufficient for the mark just inferred that the object or the light source made the shadow but did not explain how.
(c) Many of the learners provided detailed explanations of how to make the shadow bigger. They clearly identified whether they were moving the object
closer to the light source or referred to moving the screen further away from the object and their answers were comparative. Some learners were not
specific and discussed moving ‘it’ where it was unclear whether they were moving the object, light source or screen; or they discussed Oliver moving
but did not mention the object or the screen.
Question 8
The unfamiliar context of the ordering of the stages of the plant life cycle in the incorrect sequence did prove problematic for some of the learners.
(a) There were a variety of responses to this question. Some of the learners identified that the insect would pollinate the flower once it had collected the
pollen from another flower. Some of the learners selected stage ‘B’ to follow stage ‘C’ jumping straight from the insect carrying the pollen to the plant
making seeds.
(b) There were a variety of responses to this question. Some of the learners identified that a new plant would grow once the seeds have been
dispersed by the animal. Some of the learners selected stage ‘D’ to follow stage ‘F’ so the flowers would grow before the new plant had grown.

Question 9
Learners provided a variety of responses to this question. The most common incorrect answers were: selecting true for evaporation being able to separate a
mixture of sand and sugar; selecting true for a magnet being able to separate a mixture of gold and silver and for selecting false for dissolving a solid in water
being reversible.
Question 10
The context of this question proved to be challenging for some of the learners and there was some confusion about the time being taken for the ball to roll
down a ramp and there being either more or less friction.
(a) For the first part of this question some of the learners appreciated and described the use of the boards to create a slope for the ball to roll down.
Some of the learners simply stated that the cards would be higher and did not describe the idea of there being a slope or a ramp. Other learners
repeated sentences from the stem of the question, that were not credited. For the second part of the question many of the learners provided
answers either about fair testing directly or that they needed to use the same number of boards so that the ramps were always the same height or to
allow the results to be compared.
(b) There were a variety of responses to this question with many of the learners selecting the materials that would provide the least friction rather than
the most friction, such as paper or aluminium foil. Some of the learners who correctly selected the bumpy plastic thought that this was because it
would have the least amount of friction. Some learners appeared to be confused between the relationship of how long it would take the ball to reach
the end of the slope and the amount of friction. Many indicated that they thought if there was less friction then it would take the ball longer to roll
down the ramp. There were some learners that chose not to use words from the list of words that they were asked to use.
(c) Good answers to this question identified the need to repeat their investigation to make it more reliable. Some of the learners provided ways to
ensure that the investigation was a fair test or ways to make improvements to their investigation, such as using more boards to investigate different
slope heights.

Question 11
This is an area of the framework where there could be more focus, with an emphasis on sunlight not being needed for germination to occur.
(a) Many of the learners stated that the name of the part of the life cycle was germination. Some of the learners only referred to the stage as growth or
reproduction. These answers were insufficient as we were expecting the learners to recognise the specific part of the life cycle of the plant being
shown in the diagram.
(b) Some of the learners correctly stated that either water or warmth were needed for germination. Oxygen was also accepted. The most common
incorrect answer was sunlight. Many learners think that light is needed for germination and they were not awarded the mark if they listed light with
the correct answer.
Question 12
Learners who have hands on experience of using equipment and carrying out investigations were at an advantage with this question.
(a) Some of the learners correctly selected using a measuring cylinder to accurately measure the liquid. There were a variety of other answers, such as
beakers and measuring jugs. Learners are expected to be familiar with the equipment on the list of equipment provided with the framework and
what they are used for.
(b) Many of the learners accurately measured the boiling point of the liquid using the diagram of the thermometer in the question.
Question 13
The knowledge of the different units stated in the framework is an area that could be focused on more. How to change the pitch of a musical instrument is
also an area where there could be more focus.
(a) A few of the learners knew the correct units for the volume of sound.
(b) Many of the learners achieved one mark on this question, with only a few answering it in full. Many of the learners selected one of the ways to
change the volume of the sound as one of their answers.

Question 14
Learners were familiar with the common electrical symbols of an electrical circuit and were able to interpret the electrical circuits to answer part (b). They
were less familiar with the electrical symbol for a motor.
(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.
(b) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.
(c) A few of the learners correctly identified the electrical symbol as being a motor.
Question 15
(a) Most of the learners provided good suggestions as to why the polar bear has a thick fur to make it suited to its environment.
(b) Some of the learners provided good answers as to why the polar bear requires large paws to spread out its body weight so it does not sink into the
snow. Many of the learners referred to sharp claws or padded paws that are to help the polar bear grip the snow, so it does not fall over rather than
preventing it sink into the snow.
Question 16
Constructing their own results table or filling in raw data into a results table is an area of the framework where there could be more focus.
(a) Many of the learners included the units for height and temperature within the body of the results table. The units should only appear in the column
heading of the table. Some learners made careless mistakes when transferring the data from Pierre’s results into the table and some learners did
not correctly match the data even though they were matched in his notebook in the question. Some of the learners did not transfer Pierre’s data into
the results table but instead carried on the trend from 2500 m and predicted what the temperature would be for the heights 3000 m to 5000 m.
(b) Many of the learners provided good answers where they had recognised that his conclusion was incorrect by interpreting Pierre’s results and then
they supported their answer with evidence from his results by quoting supporting data.

Question 17
Many of the learners showed that they had good knowledge of this area of the framework.
(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly. The most common incorrect answer was when learners selected the female organs rather
than the male organs.
(b) Many of the learners answered this question correctly. The most common incorrect answer was when learners selected the male organs rather than
the female organs.
Question 18
Many of the learners showed good knowledge of this area of the framework. The most common incorrect answers were either causing a loss of species or
increasing energy use.
Question 19
Many of the learners showed that they had good knowledge of this area of the framework.
(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly. The most common incorrect answers were reproduction and nutrition.
(b) Many of the learners answered this question correctly. The most common incorrect answer was organs.

6.2 Comments on specific questions – Science 0846 component 02
General comments
Questions requiring simple recall were generally answered well, as were many of the questions that required analysis and interpretation. In some instances,
answers to questions requiring explanations and interpretations of facts required more detail, with many giving one-word answers that needed to be
expanded or did not provide the correct scientific word.
Questions on scientific enquiry were answered well by many learners who appeared to be familiar with practical investigations and showed that first-hand
experience is invaluable. The idea of fair testing, reliability and accuracy continues to be an area where there could be more focus coupled with the
identification of the pieces of scientific equipment.
Learners demonstrated good knowledge of the following areas of the framework: the parts of a plant, food chains and the measuring of force. Areas where
there could be greater focus are ways to change pitch and loudness of musical instruments.
Question 1
Overall learners demonstrated a good knowledge of this area of the framework.
(a) Many of the learners correctly labelled the different parts of the plant. The most common incorrect answer was for the stem.
(b) Some of the learners showed knowledge of the roles of the different parts of the plant and correctly filled in the gaps.

Question 2
Some of the learners showed that they could interpret the information provided in the table to formulate their answers and apply their knowledge.
(a) Many of the learners appreciated that the salt and the sugar were not magnetic and could not be attracted to the magnet so the magnet could not be
used to separate a mixture of salt and sugar. The most common incorrect answer for this question was when learners stated that they could not be
separated as they were not metals. Many of the learners showed evidence of thinking that all metals are magnetic.
(b) Many of the learners realised that both the salt and sugar were soluble so they would dissolve into the water and pass through the filter paper with
the water. Some learners described the salt and sugar as being small enough to pass through the filter paper but did not reference to them having
been able to dissolve in the water.
(c) Many of the learners did not realise that the question was asking them about the remaining mixture of salt and sugar that had not been added to the
water. However, they were not penalised for this and answers where they evaporated the water were ignored and learners could still be awarded
the marks if they continued to describe the correct procedures. Some of the learners thought that they could just filter the mixture to separate the
salt and sugar, this would not work as they both would not pass through the filter funnel. Good answers to this question utilised the information in
the table and used the ethanol to dissolve the sugar and then filtered the mixture to separate the insoluble salt from the solution of ethanol and
sugar. The filtering mark was only awarded if they had dissolved the mixture in the ethanol first to show that they had understood that this needed to
occur for filtering to be successful as a separating technique.
Question 3
Some of the learners showed good knowledge of how to measure force.
(a) Many of the learners selected the correct piece of equipment to measure force.
(b) Some of the learners correctly stated the units used to measure force. Some of the learners thought that the unit of force was ‘n’, this answer was
not accepted.
Question 4
This is an area of the framework where the learners showed evidence of having good knowledge and many are familiar with the associated terminology,
which they provided in their answers when completing the sentences.

Question 5
Experimental skills are an area where there can be more focus for some learners.
(a) Good answers to this question provided sensible suggestions of things that had been kept the same during the experiment. Some learners just
stated as ‘everything had been kept the same’, which was incorrect as the place where the pots had been left had been changed. There were some
good answers showing a clear understanding of the fair testing where learners stated that the only variable to be changed was the temperature.
Some learners simply stated the materials were the same. To be awarded the mark their answer needed to be more specific and identify a particular
variable that had been controlled, for example, the type or size of the seed or the amount of soil used.
Some of the learners successfully drew a line graph and labelled the y-axis with the dependent variable. Some of the learners struggled to plot the
result of zero number of seedlings for day 1 and plotted this at the coordinates of (0,0). Some of the learners drew a bar chart rather than a line
graph. They were still awarded some of the marks if they had plotted it correctly. Some of the learners showed that they did not know how to label
the y-axis and labelled it ‘y-axis ‘rather than with the number of seedlings.
(b) Many of the learners made accurate predictions for the number of seedlings in the warm classroom and the fridge. Some of the learners followed
the pattern of the results for the warm classroom by it doubling each day and therefore they predicted 8 seedlings for the warm classroom.
Unfortunately, they had forgotten that there were only 6 seeds planted in the beginning of the investigation.
(c) Good answers to this question discussed the results in terms of germination and related the results to what Chen and Aiko were investigating. Many
of the learners described the trend of the results rather than using the results to make a scientific conclusion; or they discussed the results in terms
of growth, whereas, the investigation was looking at the conditions required for seeds to germinate.

Question 6
Many of the learners were able to interpret the information provided within the table to provide good answers to the following questions.
(a) Most of the learners answered this question correctly.
(b) Some of the learners used the information in the table and identified that both of the materials had the same value for strength so you could not tell
which one was strongest. Some of the learners misinterpreted the question and thought they needed to select which material was the strongest.
They stated that ‘D’ was the strongest material as either it had a higher rating for hardness, or it had a higher rating for all the properties.
(c) Some of the learners correctly stated that hardness had been used to sort the materials in to the two groups. Some of the learners thought that
strength had been used or more than one property had been used, such as hardness and melting point.
Question 7
There were a variety of responses to both questions.
(a) Some of the learners selected ‘D’ or ‘E’ as being the arrows showing the direction of the force of gravity.
(b) Some of the learners selected ‘B’ as being the arrow for air resistance.
Question 8
The learners were particularly good at interpreting the information provided within the table, showing good analysis and interpretation skills.
(a) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.
(b) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.
(c) Many of the learners answered this question correctly.

Question 9
Many of the learners correctly identified steel and iron as being magnetic. However, there were many learners who also thought that copper or aluminium are
magnetic.
Question 10
Some of the learners correctly stated how many of each of the different organs are found in the human body.
Question 11
Many of the learners achieved at least one mark on this question. The most common incorrect answers were that weight and friction are not a force.
Question 12
This is an area of the framework where there could be more focus.
(a) Some of the learners used the correct terminology to describe why the rubber balloon makes a sound.
(b) Some of the learners correctly described methods they could use to increase the volume of the sound of the musical instrument.
(c) Learners found it harder to provide methods to increase the pitch of the musical instrument. Many of the learners provided answers that would
increase the volume of the musical instrument rather than the pitch.

Question 13
Learner showed a good knowledge and understanding of this area of the framework.
(a) Many of the learners accurately named the diagram as a food chain. Some of the learners described the diagram as being a life cycle.
(b) The learners answered this question well using the appropriate terminology.
(c) Some learners were familiar with the term producer and provided good explanations. Some of the learners inferred it was a producer as it was food
for the mouse rather than explaining that a producer is able to make its own food or that it is found at the beginning of a food chain.
(d) Some of the learners provided good answers stating a feature specifically to the owl that makes it a good predator. General features of birds were
insufficient for the mark.
Question 14
Many of the learners answered this question correctly. There were some learners that thought that the lamps would get brighter, as there were more lamps
rather than the lamps getting dimmer as there would be more lamps sharing the same amount of electricity. Some of the learners thought that the circuit
would not work and needed to be more specific by stating that the lamps would not work.
Question 15
Learners showed a good understanding of the boiling point of water, but many were unable to describe what the term boiling point means.
(a) A few of the learners could accurately describe the meaning of the term boiling point. Some of the learners realised it occurred at specific
temperature or that it is when a liquid changes to a gas. There were some answers that were insufficient to be awarded the mark, such as ‘it is the
point when a substance changes into a gas’.
(b) Many of the learners selected substance ‘C’ and provided an answer that justified their choice. A few of the learners selected ‘D’ and discussed the
melting point of water rather than the boiling point of water.

Question 16
This is an area of the framework were the learners demonstrated good knowledge.
(a) Most of the learners answered this correctly. Those that did not put the Earth and the Sun the other way around.
(b) Some of the learners provided detailed answers with ball B being rotated around ball C whilst ball C stayed still. Some of the learners discussed the
movement of ball A which the question did not ask for. Some of the answers were insufficient as they simply stated to move the balls but did not
infer the movement of ball B around ball C or that ball B would be spinning on its own axis.
Question 17
Some of the learners showed good understanding of this area of the framework.
(a) Some of the learners answered this question correctly.
(b) Many of the learners used the correct scientific word to complete the first gap. For the second gap, many of the learners repeated the information
they had provided for the first gap.

6.3 Tables and charts of sub-group performances – Science 0846






















2020 October Cambridge Primary End of Series Report October 2020 - tcm142-605882

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Cambridge Primary Checkpoint

Cambridge Primary Checkpoint End of Series Report

2 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – English as a Second Language 0837

3 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – Global Perspectives 0838

4 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – English 0844

5 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – Mathematics 0845

6 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – Science 0846

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For each syllabus the following information is provided:

• examiner comments on specific questions within each component of the test

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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.1 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 01

Comments on specific questions

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Mostly correct, ‘looking’; most common incorrect response was ‘watching’.

Mostly correct, ‘full’; most common incorrect response was C ‘crowded’.

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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.2 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 02

Comments on specific questions

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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.3 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 03

Comments on specific questions

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Mostly correct, ‘A’; most common incorrect response was ‘B’.

Mostly correct, ‘B’; most common incorrect response was ‘C’.

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3 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Global Perspectives 0838