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Qre 1 Diams Test For Mci Screening
Qre 1 Diams Test For Mci Screening
3. A patient with stab wound in the 7th intercostals space mid axillary line can die due
to all except
a. Tension Pneumothorax
b. hemo -thorax
c. Hemo- peritoneum
d. Acute cor pulmonale
4. Culex transmits all except:
a. bancroftian filarial
b. Japanese encephalitis
c. West nile fever
d. Brugyain filarial
Biochemistry
1. Which of the following does not cross cell membrane easily?
a. Glucose
b. Nitric oxide
c. Glucose – 6 PO4
d. Carbon dioxide
Answer: C
2. In fatty acid synthesis, the reducing agent is
a. NADH
b. FADH
c. NADPH
d. ATP
Answer: C
3. D and L enatiomers occur in which of the following drugs?
a. Digoxin
b. Verapamil
c. Diphenyl hydantoin
d. Octreotide
Answer: B
4. Starvation after 72 hours has changes which include which of the following
combinations
a. Increased glycogenolysis to prevent hypoglycemia
b. Increased protein catabolism and increased gluconeogenesis
c. Hypercholesterolemia due to increased FFA
d. Ketoacidosis because of increased lipolysis
Answer: B
5. What is the possible cause for gout in a patient who has glucose – 6-
phosphatase deficiency?
a. Decreased a vailability of glucose to tissues
b. Increased accumulation of sorbitol
c. Increased synthesis of glycerol
d. Decreased function of krebs cycle
Answer: A
6. Amber codon refers to
a. Initiating codon
b. Mutant codon
c. Stop codon
d. Codon coding fro multiple amino acids
Answer: C
7. At physiological pH, the most stable amino acid is
a. Histidine
b. Lysine
c. Arginine
d. Leucine
8. Answer: A In cystinuria, amino acids excreted are all the following except
a. Ornithine
b. Arginine
c. Lysine
d. Histidine
Answer: D
9. Dietary triglycerides are transported by
a. Chylomicrons
b. LDL
c. VLDL
d. HDL
Answer: A
10. A child presents with metabolic lactic acidosis along with hyperammonemia
and convulsion is due to detect in
a. Urea cycle defect
b. Rey’s syndrome
c. Mitochondrial enzyme disorder (MELAS)
d. Phenyl ketonuria
Answer: C
11. At pH-7.0. which moety of Hb binds to 2,3 DPG
a. Alcoholic termina
b. Carboxylic terminal
c. Amino terminal
d. Sulphydryl terminal
Answer: C
12. Tertiary structure of protein is detected by
a. X-ray diffraction
b. Crystallography
c. Spectrophotometry
d. Chromatography
Answer: A
13. Gene for major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is located on
a. Short arm of chromosome 6
b. Long arm of chromosome 6
c. Short arm of chromosome 4
d. Long arm of chromosome 8
Answer: A
14. All the following enzymes are rate limiting EXCEPT
a. Acetyl Co A carboxylase
b. Malonate dehydrogenase
c. HMG Co A reductase
d. Phosphofructokinase
Answer: B
15. Energy mediated/Receptor mediated endocytosis is
a. Porine
b. Clathrine
c. Vimentin
d. Cytocin
Answer: B
16. Random arrangement of molecule results in
a. Crystallization
b. Precipitation
c. Denaturation
d. High solubility
Answer: C
17. Molecular size is assessed by
a. Sedimentation
b. Absorption mass spectroscopy
c. Liophilization
d. Salting out
Answer: A
18. Iso electric pH is
a. Point at which all amino acids are in zwitter ion form
b. Point at which positive and negative charges are equal
c. Point at which pH of ions are same
d. Point at which pH of ion does not alter
Answer: B
19. Which enzyme is absent in skeletal muscles
a. Glucose -6-PO4
b. Creatinine phosphokinase
c. Hexokinase
d. Phosphofructokinase
Answer: A
20. DNA supercoling is done by
a. DNA gyrase
b. DNA topoisomerase
c. DNA polymerase
d. RNA polymerase II
Answer: A
21. All are pyridoxine dependent, EXCEPT
a. Oxaluria
b. Homocystinuria
c. Xanthinuria
d. Maple syrup urine disease
Answer: D
22. What is deficient in familial hypercholesterolemia
a. Apo enzyme A
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Apo protein A
d. LDL receptor
Answer: D
23. Enzyme used in polymerase chain reaction is
a. Enzyme stabilizer
b. Thermostable enzymes
c. Inorganic ion
d. Inorganic metal
Answer: B
24. Two helix of DNA are separated by
a. Thin layer chromatography
b. Paper chromatography
c. High speed centrifugation
d. Gel centrifugation
Answer: D
Opthamology
1. Magil Attachment is a:
a. Mapleson A system
b. Mapleson B system.
c. Mapleson D system
d. Mapleson E system.
Ans. (B)
5. Armoured endotracheal tubes, whose walls are reinforced with a nylon spiral, are good for:
a. Paediatric aneasthesia.
b. Cardiovascular surgery aneasthesia.
c. Neurosurgical aneasthesia.
d. Obstetric aneasthesia.
Ans. (C)
6. Entonox is:
a. 50%-2 & 50%- N20
b. 75%-2
c. Mixture ofhalothane & 02 & 02
d. Cyeopropane.
Ans. (A)
Orthopedics
a. hypermobility
b. movements are painful
c. osteophyte formation
d. copious effusion
a. Ulnar
b. Median
c. Radial
d. Musculo – cutneous
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Still’s disease
c. Psoriatic arthropathy
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
1. Histology of Ewing’s sarcoma shows small round cells. These cells are filled with:
a. Glycogen
b. Mucin
c. Fat
d. Iron
Dermatology
1. Herald patch is seen in:
A. Pityriasis rosea
A. Tinea vesicolor
B. Scarlet fever
C. Psoriasis
2. Intraepithelial bullae are a feature of:
B. Pemphigus
A. Pemphigoid
B. Dermatitis herpetiformis
C. Polymorphous light eruption
3. Koebner’s phenomenon is seen in:
A. Lupus erythematosus
B. Syphilis
C. Lupus vulgaris
C. Psoriasis
4. Chloroquine is indicated in the treatment of:
A. Pemphigoid
B. Psoriasis
C. Lichen planus
D. Discoid lupus erythematosus
Pathology
1. Gastrio intestinal Stromal tumor of stomach is derived from
a. Epithelial cell
b. Endothelial cell
c. Smooth muscle cell
d. Autonomic nervous system
ANSWER: C
2. Distant metastatsis of cancer cells is through
a. Type 4 collagen
b. Integrins
c. Laminin
d. Cadherin protein
ANSWER: D
3. All of the following are antigen presenting cells except
a. Astrocytes
b. Langerhans cells
c. Endothelial cells
d. Dendritic cells
ANSWER: C
4. Papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except
a. SLE
b. Vascular thrombosis
c. Diabetes
d. NSAIDs induced nephrotoxicity
ANSWER: A
5. Where do call exner bodies occur?
a. Granulosa cell tumor
b. Theca cell tumor
c. Dysgerminoma
d. Brenners tumor
Answer: A
6. Which condition does NOT feature granulomas?
a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Mycobacterium leprae
d. Yersinia enterocolitica/Pneumocystis camii
Answer: A
7. From where do dividing cancer cells derive enrgy?
a. Glycolysis
b. Mitochondria
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Anerobic metabolism
Answer: A
8. What does diapedesis refer to?
a. Attachment of neutrophilis to blood vessel
b. Escape of neutrophils from capillaries from capillary endothelium
c. Stimulation of cytokine secretion by inflammatory cells
d. Response of mediator cells to cytokine secretion
Answer: B
9. A patient dies of myocardial infarction. The autopsy finding after 12 hours
is
a. Coagulative necrosis
b. Caseous necrosis
c. Liquificative necrosis
d. Fat necrosis
Answer: A
10. The cell necrosis is due to
a. Enzymatic digestion
b. Water imbibatian in cells
c. Fat deposition in cells
d. Ca++ efflux in cell
Answer: A
11. Wallerion degeneration is seen in
a. Part of nerve attached to cell body in nerve that is cut peripherally
b. Part of nerve not attached to cell body
c. Cell body that is attached to nerve that is cut.
d. Cell body that is not attached to the nerve that is out.
Answer: B
12. Reversible injury of cell are all of the following except
a. Vacuole
b. Karyorrhexis
c. Cell wall swelling
d. Fat accumulation
Answer: B
13. Firm, warty vegetation along the line of closure of heart valve is seen in
a. Rheumatic heart disease
b. NBTE
c. Libman sach’s endocarditis
d. Bacterial endocariditis
Answer: A
14. True regarding oncogenes are all, except
a. Derived from proto oncogenes
b. Oncogenes code for specific protein
c. Causes invitro cell variation in animals
d. Multiple growth factors governing the gene
Answer: D
15. Clara cells are seen in
a. Alveoli
b. Bronchos
c. Trachea
d. Bronchiole
Answer: D
16. In Rye’s syndrome, liver is stained with
a. PAS
b. Oil red O
c. Mucicarmine
d. Reticulin stain
Answer: B
17. FNAC is least diagnostic in which thyroid carcinoma
a. Anaplastic
b. Papillary
c. Follicular
d. Thyroiditis
Answer: C
18. Macrophages are seen in
a. Early phase of inflammation
b. Late phase of inflammation
c. Phase of repair
d. Phase of scar formation
Answer: B
19. Granulation tissue is formed due to
a. Budding new capillaries
b. Infiltration of cells
c. Thrombosed vessels
d. Mucosal proliferation
Answer: A
20. All are the regarding cytokines, except
a. Mediators of inflammation
b. Are soluble proteins
c. Does not mediate specific reactions
d. Produced by macrophages
Answer: C
21. Most common tumor caused by virus is
a. Warts
b. Carcinoma cervix
c. Nasoopharyngeal carcinoma
d. Lymphoma
Answer: A
Forensic medicine
1. Catamite refers to
a. Active agent in sodomy
b. Any passive agent in sodomy
c. Small child acting as passive agent in sodomy
d. A female acting as passive agent in sodomy
2. In which of the following legal action against the offender can be directly taken
by police
a. Incest
b. Fetichism
c. Exhibitionism
d. Sadism
1. Time limit for exhumation in India is
a. 10 yrs
b. 20 yrs
c. 30 yrs
d. no time limit
2. Suspended animation may be found in following conditions except
a. Drowning
b. Electricution
c. Throttling
d. Hypothermia
3. Intraocular tension is nil after death in about
a. 1 hr
b. 2 hrs
c. 3 hrs
d. 4 hrs
4. Individual telling a lie under oath is
a. Hostile witness
b. Professional liar
c. Charged with perjury
d. Professional Misconduct
Psychiatry
39. A 3-year-old child developmental milestones normal with delayed speech, and Difficulty
in Communication, concentration, not making friends
A. Autism
B. ADHD
C. Specific learning disability
D. Mental retardation
Microbiology
44. Which of the following bacterial act by increasing c-AMP,
A. Vibrio cholera
B. Staphyloccus aereus
C. E.coli, heat stable toxin
D. Salmonella
45. A patient in ICU is on central venous line for the past one week. He is on caftazidime
and maikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture
is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this
vancomycin was started, but the culture remained positive, for the same organism even
after 10 days of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is.
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Viridans streptococci
C. Enterococcus fecalis
D. Coagulase negative staphylococcus
46. A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed
gram-positive cocci in chains, which were hemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests
will best indentify the organism.
A. Bile solubility
B. Optochin sensitivity
C. Bacitracin sensitivity
D. Catalase positive
47. A young male patient presented with UTI, on urine examination pus cells were found but
no organisms. Which method would be best used for culture?
A. MC Coy cell line
B. Thayer Martin medium
C. L.J. Medium
D. Levinthal Medium
51. A elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough, sputum cultured
on charcoal yeast medium, the organism is.
A. H. Influenza
B. Moraxella cartarrhails
C. Legionella
D. Burkholderia capacia
52. A person working in an abattoir presented with pustule on hand, which turned into ulcer,
which will best help in diagnosis.
A. Trichrome Methylene Blue
B. Carbol Fuschin
C. Acid Fast Stain
D. Calcoflour White
Miscellaneous topics
1. Incorrect about Refsum disease is all except:
a. icthyosis Vulgaris
b. Retintis Pigmentosa
c. Corneal Opacities
d. Anosmia
2. HHV 8 can cause all except:
a. kaposi Sarcoma
b. Primary effusion Lyphoma
c. Multicentric Castleman disease
d. B cell Lympho-proliferative disorder
3. Incorrect about the blood supply of conducting system of the heart:
a. SAN- sinus node artery derived from Right coronary artery
b. AV node from Posterior descending coronary artery
c. Bundle of his from AV nodal Artery and Asnterior descending coronary
artery
d. Purkinje fibres from left circumflex coronary artery.
4. All are causes of Erythromelagia except:
a. Polycyathemia Vera
b. Essential thrombocytosis
c. Bromocriptine
d. Thromboangitis –obliterans
5. Pseudochylous ascites is seen with:
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Silicosis
c. Lymphoma
d. Tuberculosis
6. All are contraindications to cardiac catheterization and angiography except:
a. End stage renal disease
b. Hypokalemia
c. Anti-coagulated state with PT >18sec
d. Pulmonary artery hypertension
7. Incorrect about Optic nerve Drusen is:
a. Increased blind spot on perimetry
b. Arcuate scotomas
c. Papilledema
d. CT scan is the diagnostic investigation of choice revealing calcification.
8. Dangerous area of the eye is:
a. Ciliary body
b. Iris
c. Lens
d. Choroid
SPM
Q1. ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) is a part of which program
1 ICDS 1975
2 National health policy 2002
3 National Vector Borne Disease Control Program 2001-02
4 National Rural Health Mission 2005-12
Q4. Torniquet test is positive in Dengue if no. of petechial spots per square inch (in
cubital fossa) is
1 >5
2 >10
3 >15
4 >20
Q7. Which of the following contraceptives in not available free of cost through RCH
programme
1 Vasectomy
2 CuT 380 A
3 Mala – D
4 Nirodh
Q8. A 29 yr old male has Single Skin Lesion (SSL) of Leprosy. Treatment is
1 ROM therapy – single dose
2 ROM therapy – one month
3 Rifampicin + Dapsone for 6 months
4 Rifampicin + Dapsone + Clofazimine for 6 months
Q9. Which of the follwonig is incorrect abour treatment of malaria:
1 DOC in severe and complicated malaria: Quinine i/v
2 Primaquine is contraindicated in infancy, pregnancy and G6PD deficiency
3 DOC in Malaria in pregnancy: Chloroquine
4 Pryimathamine is contraindicated in Malaria in pregnancy
Q10. Measures involved in sentinel surveillance includes all the following except :
1 Identifying missing cases in notification of diseases
2 Identifying new cases of infection
3 Identifying old & new cases
4 Identifying cases free of disability
Of these,
1 I alone is correct
2 I, III and IV are correct
3 I, II and III are correct
4 II, III and IV are correct.
Q12.In a prospective study comprising 10000 subjects, 6000 subjects were put on beta
carotene and 4000 were not. 3 out of the first 6000 developed lung cancer and 2 out of
the second 4000 developed lung cancer. What is the interpretation of the above?
1 Beta carotene is protective in lung cancer
2 Beta carotene is not protective in lung cancer
3 The study design is not sufficient to draw any meaningful conclusions
4 Beta carotene is carcinogenic
Q13. In a controlled trial to compare two treatments, the main purpose of randomization
is to ensure that:
1 The two groupswill be similar in prognostic factors.
2 The clinican does not know which treatment the subjects will recerive.
3 The sample may be refrred to a known population.
4 The clinican can predict in advance which treatment the subjects will receive.
Q14. Residence of three village with three different types of water supply were asked to
participate in a study to identify cholera carries. Because several cholera deaths had
occurred in the recent past, virtually everyone present at the time submitted to
examination. The proportion of residents in each village who were carries was computed
and compared. This study is a :
1 Cross- sectional study.
2 Case-control study.
3 Concurrent cohort study.
4 Non-concurrent.
Q21. In "Iceberg Phenomenon " the tip represents what the physician sees in clinical
practice & submerged portion of the iceberg represents sub clinical cases,
carriers, undiagnosed cases. Essential purpose of screening test for a chronic disease is to
identify
1 Tip of the iceberg
2 Hidden portion of the iceberg
3 Both 1 + 2
4 Waterline demarcation
Q22. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an adult is a single dose of:
1 Tetracycline.
2 Co-trimoxazole.
3 Doxycycline.
4 Furazolidone.
Q23. A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever
for 4 days with inability to eat/drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was
having weight of 5 kg and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be
classified as suffering from:
1 Very severe disease.
2 Severe Pneumonia.
3 Pneumonia.
4 No Pneumonia.
Q24. The following statements about meningococcal meningitis are true, except
1. The source of infection is mainly clinical cases.
2. The disease is more common in dry and cold months of the year.
3. Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is recommended.
4. The vaccine is not effective in children below 2 years of age.
Q25. Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the prevalence of leprosy is more
than:
1. 1 per 10,000
2. 2 per 10,000
3. 5 per 10,000
4. 10 per 10,000
Q26. All of the following statements about rheumatic fever/heart disease epidemiology in
India are true except:
1. Its prevalence varies between 2 to 11 per 1000 children aged 5-16 years.
2. Mitral regurgiration is the commonest cardiac lesion seen.
3. It occurs equally in females and males.
4. Rheumatic fever occurs in about 2% of streptococcal sore throats.
Q27. WHO vaccination strategy of catch-up, keep-up & follow-up has been designed for
1 Measles
2 Chicken pox
3 Polio
4 Diphtheria
Q28. A synthetic “cocktail” vaccine SPf66 has shown potential for the protection against
1 Dengue/ DHF
2 Japanese encephalitis
3 Falciparum Malaria
4 Lymphatic filariasis
Q31. A male 42 years old has Weight 100 kg and height 160 cms. He has
1 Normal BMI
2 Obesity Grade I
3 Obesity Grade II
4 Obesity Grade III
1. Carotid sinus massage acts via controlling the heart rate by:
a. Decreasing AV blockage
b. Decreasing SA node discharge
c. Increasing AV blockade
d. Increasing Absolute refractory period of purkinje fibres
12. Recurrent episodes of Blood stained sputum can be the presenting symptom of?
a. Bronchial adenoma
b. Cavity
c. Bronchiectasis
d. Tuberculosis
16. Closed Pneumothorax, the best position of the CXR shall be?
a. Expiration in erect position
b. Lateral decubitus position
c. Inspiration in erect position
d. Inspiration in lateral decubitus position.
17. Wide fixed split S2 is seen in:
a. ASD
b. VSD
c. PDA
d. TOF
18. Thrombocytopenia is diagnosed by
a. Bleeding time
b. Clotting time
c. Prothrombin time
d. Activated partial thromboplastin time
25. CSF glucose levels are reduced in all of the following except:
a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Viral meningitis
c. Tubercular meningitis
d. Subdural Empyema
26. Diagnostic procedure for kala azar can be which of the following?
a. Indirect fluoroscent antibody test
b. L.D. bodies in splenic aspirate
c. Aldehyde test
d. ELISA
28. Young female with complaints of dysnea on exertion and related symptoms of heart
etiology. Best modality for investigation shall be:
a. CXR
b. ECG
c. Echocardiography
d. Angiography
48. Physiological jaundice is not seen in which of the following on the first day of life of a
baby?
a. Low birth weight baby
b. G 6PD deficiency
c. Term small for date baby
d. Term large for date baby
55. Dose of folic acid required per day to prevent neural tube defects would be ?
a. 400mcg
b. 400mg
c. 4mg
d. 40mg
1. In an emphysematous patient with bulla lesion which is the best investigation to measure
lung volumes?
A. Body plethysmography
b. Helium dilution
c. Trans diaphragmatic pressure
d. DLCO
2. A 9 yr old girl has difficulty in combing hairs and climbing upstairs since 6 months. She
has Gowers sign positive and maculopapular rash over metacarpo phalangeal joints. What
should be the next appropriate investigation to be done?
A. ESR
b. RA factor
c. Creatine kinase
d. Electromyography
3. A girl on exposure to cold has pallor of extremities followed by pain and cyanosis. In
later ages of life she is prone to develop?
A. SLE
b. Scleroderma
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. systemic sclerosis
4. Which radiological feature would help differentiate rheumatoid arthritis with SLE?
A. Erosion
b. Juxta articular osteoporosis
c. Subluxation of MCP joint
d. Swelling of pip joint
11. True about fluorescent antibody detection test in diagnosis of plasmodium falcifarum are a/e?
A. It’s an immunochromatic test
b. Detection of histidine rich protein 1
c. Detection of lactate dehydrogenase antigen
d. Detection of aldolase antigen
13. Which of these is not a marker of active replicative phase of chronic hepatitis B?
A. Anti-HBs Ag
b. Hbv DNA polymerase
c. Anti HBc
d. AST and ALT
16.a 29 yr old unmarried female presents with dyspnea, her chest x ray is normal, fvc-92%
fevi/fvc-89% dlco-59%. On exercise her oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 86%. What is the
diagnosis?
A. Alveolar hypoventilation
b. Primary pulmonary hypertension
c. Interstitial lung disease
d. Anxiety
17. A man on 10 days course of cephalosporins on 8th day of treatment develops high-grade fever
and rashes all over the body. What is the diagnosis?
A. Partially treated meningitis
b. Type iii hypersensitivity reaction
c. Kawasaki’s ds
d. weil’s disease
20.which of the following features of uremia will not improve with hemodialysis?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
b. Pericarditis
c. Seizures
d. Metabolic acidosis
21.not a major Framingham criteria for diagnosis of congestive Heart failure?
A. Hepatomegaly
b. Cardiomegaly
c. S3 gallop
d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
22.a 54 yr old smoker man comes with fever hemoptysis weight loss and oligo-arthritis. Serial
skiagram shows fleeting opacities. What is the diagnosis?
A. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
b. Ca lung
c. Tuberculosis
d. Wegeners granulomatosis
173.ALL OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE DONE TO PREVENT THE TRANSMISSION OF HIV FROM
MOTHER TO BABY EXCEPT?
A. VIT A SUPPLEMENTATION TO MOTHER
B. NO BREAST FEEDING
C. VAGINAL DELIVERY
D. ZIDOVUDINE TO MOTHER
D. Surgery
1. Incompletely descended testis is most common on:
a. Right side
b. Both sides
c. Right sided only
d. Left side
2. Undescended testis is characterized by all except:
a. 50% occur in premature babies
b. Generally descend during 1st year of life
c. To be operated at puberty
d. May be bilateral
Indications of surgery in bening prostatic hypertrophy are all except:
(a) Prostatism
(b) Chronic retention
(c) Haemorrhage
(d) Enlarged prostate
Grade I benign prostate with outflow obstruction is best treated with:
(a) Retropubic prostatectomy
(b) Transurethral rescetion
(c) Transversical prostatectomy
(d) Androgen therapy
A grid- iron incision becomes a Rutherford-Morrison incision when the incision is extended by:
(a) Splitting the muscles laterally
(b) Cutting the muscles laterally
(c) Cutting the muscles medially into the rectus sheath
(d) Incising vertically along the rectus muscle
Pharmacology
Q65. The drug preferred for chloroquine resistant malaria in pregnancy is:
1 mefloquine
2 primaquine
3 cloxacilin
4 quinine
Q66. The commonest morbidity in schools is:
1 dental ailments
2 worm infestations
3 malnutrition
4 skin diseases
Q70. Following occupational diseases are notifianble under the Indian Factory Act, 1976, except:
1 silicosis
2 asbestosis
3 byssinosis
4 bagassosis
Q73. Vaccination is
1 Primary level of prevention
2 Secondary level of prevention
3 Tertiary level of prevention
4 Primordial level of prevention
Q76. Under the national population policy 2000, it is aimed to reduce the maternal mortality ratio to
below:
1 50 per 100,000 live births
2 100 per 100,000 live births
3 150 per 100,000 live births
4 200 per 100,000 live births
Q77. Which is the right number of doses of ATT for a category II patient under DOTS
1 IP – 24, CP - 54
2 IP – 36 CP - 66
3 IP – 24 CP - 48
4 IP – 36 CP – 54
Q79. A measure of location which divides the distribution in the ratio of 3:1 is:
1 Median
2 First quartile
3 Third quartile
4 Mode