Test Date: 11/01/2022 Phase-I

C
CODE

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs FINAL TEST SERIES (ONLINE) MM : 300

for JEE (Main) - 2022

Test – 3
Topics Covered :
Physics : Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of Fluids,
Oscillation, Waves, Kinetic Theory of Gases, Thermodynamics, Thermal properties of
Matter, Modes of Heat Transfer
Chemistry : Organic Chemistry (Some Basic Principles and Techniques), Hydrocarbons, The
s-Block Elements, p-Block Elements (XI Syllabus), Equilibrium, Environmental
Chemistry
Mathematics : Straight Lines (Including Pair of Straight Lines**), Limits, Statistics, Conic Section-I
(Circle), Conic Section- II (Parabola, Ellipse and Hyperbola), Derivatives, Probability
(class XI), Mathematical Reasoning

General Instructions:

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-II : This section contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five questions out of
10. There will be no negative marking for Section II. The answer to each of the questions is a
numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative
marking for wrong answer.

PART – A : PHYSICS
SECTION - I U
A B
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct. D C
V
1. 2 moles of an ideal gas is taken through a V0 2V0
process for which the variation of internal (1) 1100 J
energy (U) is shown in the figure. (2) 3700 J
Temperature at points A and C are 500 K and
300 K respectively. Work done by the gas in (3) 2300 J
complete process is nearly (ln 2 = 0.7) (4) 2800 J

[1]
Test-3_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I

2. Two large glass plates are dipped vertically in 8. Two particles A and B of masses m and 2m
water of density  at small separation d. If
respectively are released from rest from
surface tension of water is T, then rise of
water between the plates is (angle of contact separation 2r. They move under mutual
= 0°) gravitational attraction. The speed of particle
2T T A when their separation decreases to r, is
(1) (2)
gd gd Gm 4Gm
(1) (2)
4T T r 3r
(3) (4)
gd 2gd
2Gm 2Gm
3. A point mass m1 is placed inside a spherical (3) (4)
r 3r
shell of mass M and radius R as shown.
Another point mass m2 is placed outside the 9. If R is the radius of earth, then the height
shell as shown. The gravitational force
above the earth surface at which acceleration
experienced by mass m1 is
due to gravity is 20% less than that on the
surface, is
R
m1  5 
m2 (1)  − 1 R
R R 
 2 
2
(2) (5 2 +1 R )
4Gm1m2 Gm1m2
(1) 2
(2)  5 
9R R2 (3)  + 1 R

4Gm1m2  2 
(3) (4) Zero

4.
R2
The distance covered by a particle executing
(4) ( )
5 −1 R

SHM with time period 2 and amplitude A in

10. A satellite revolves around earth in circular

the time starting from rest, is orbit above equator. It is seen after every 6
6
hours. If revolves opposite to the earth’s
A A 3
(1) (2) rotation then angular velocity of satellite is
2 2

A(2 − 3) (1) rad / hr
(3) (4) A 3 2
2

5. A spherical black body of radius of 12 cm (2) rad / hr
4
radiates at the rate 450 W at 500 K. If the
radius is halved and the temperature is 
doubled, the power radiated in watts would be (3) rad / hr
6
(1) 225 (2) 450

(3) 900 (4) 1800 (4) rad / hr
8
6. Two sound waves having wavelength 1.00 m
and 1.01 m in air produce 5 beats per 11. A cylindrical vessel of radius R and length  is
second. The velocity of sound waves in air is
filled with liquid of density . The vessel is
(1) 303 m/s (2) 330 m/s
(3) 505 m/s (4) 335 m/s kept with its axis horizontal. The force exerted
7. A container containing water slides down a by liquid on left half curved surface of the
smooth inclined plane as shown. The angle vessel is [assume that the pressure in the
made by free surface of water with the incline liquid at the topmost point is zero]
is given by

 (1) gR2 (2) 2gR2

(1) tan–1 (sin) (2) tan–1 (cos)
gR 2
(3) tan–1 (tan) (4) Zero (3) gR2 (4)
3
[2]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I Test-3_ (Code-C)
12. A uniform circular hoop of radius R hangs on 16. n moles of a monoatomic gas is taken
a nail and swings back and forth in the plane through a cyclic process ABCDA as shown in
of hoop, with a point mass attached to its
lowest position of mass equal to the mass of figure. The temperature at A is T0. The
hoop. Then the time period (T) for small efficiency for the cycle is nearly
oscillation, is P
B
2P0 C

P0 D
A
V
V0 2V0
(1) 35%
2R 5R
(1) 2 (2) 2 (2) 15%
g 2g
(3) 20%
2R 3R
(3) 2 (4) 2
3g 2g (4) 25%

13. Two spheres A and B of densities A and B 17. Two particles are executing SHM with same
but of equal volume are connected with a frequency and amplitudes 3A and A
string and immersed in a liquid of density 0. respectively along a same straight line with
If the two spheres are at equilibrium with the
same mean position. They cross each other
string taut, then
A
moving in opposite direction at distance
3
from the mean position. The phase difference
A
between the two vibrational motion is

(1)
3
B

(2)
(1) A = 0 (2) B = 0 6
(3) A > 0 (4) B > 0 1 1
(3) sin−1 + sin−1
14. Three moles of an ideal gas undergo a cyclic 9 3
process shown in figure. The work done by 1 1
the gas during the process is (4)  − sin−1 − sin−1
9 3
P
2P0 A 18. Two identical wires fixed at both ends vibrate
with fundamental frequency of 200 Hz. If the
P0 B tension in one of the wire is changed by 2%,
C
then the beat frequency (per second) will be
O T
T0 2T0 (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 2.36 RT0 (2) 0.58 RT0
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 1.16 RT0 (4) –0.58 RT0
15. The length of a metal wire is l1 when tension 19. A closed organ pipe resonates in its
in it is T1 and l2 when tension in it is T2. The fundamental mode at a frequency of 300 Hz
natural length of the wire is with He gas filled in the pipe. If another
lT +l T identical closed pipe is filled with Ar gas and
(1) 1 1 2 2
T1 + T2
is made to vibrate, then its fundamental
(2) l1l2 frequency will be

l1T2 − T1l 2 (1) 200 Hz

(3)
T2 − T1 (2) 95 Hz

l1 + l2 (3) 150 Hz
(4)
2 (4) 176 Hz
[3]
Test-3_ (Code-C)
20. A particle of mass m placed on smooth plane
is attached to a wire which is under tension
equal to n times the weight of the particle.
Length of wire is l. If the particle is displaced
along line perpendicular to PQ by a small
distance and then released, then the angular
frequency of oscillations is (Assume that
tension in wire does not change)
P
l
2 R
m 2
l
2 25. Six identical bars are joined to form a regular
Q maintained at constant temperature 100ºC
4gn 2gn
(1) (2)
l l
gn gn
(3) (4)
2l 4l
SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. The answer to each
question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in
decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the
second decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33,
−00.30, 30.27, −27.30) using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place
designated to enter the answer.
21. A wire of length 4 m and cross-sectional area
2 × 10–6 m2 is stretched by 2 mm. If Young’s
modulus of material is 2 × 1011 N/m2, then
elastic energy stored per unit volume (in J/m3)
of wire is
22. A square plate of dimension 2 m × 2 m is
placed vertical and upper edge is hinged
about which plate can rotate freely as shown
in figure. Left part is filled with water of
density . A force F applied towards left at
midpoint of the plate to keep the plate at
equilibrium. The value of F is Ng. Find N.
F 25 m
23. An object is projected from earth’s surface
with escape velocity at 30° with horizontal.
What is the angle (in degree) made by
velocity with horizontal when object reaches
to a height 2R from earth’s surface? R is the
radius of earth. Horizontal can be considered
as line parallel to tangent at earth’s surface
just below the object.
[4]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I
R
24. A liquid is filled upto height h = in a
2
cylindrical container of radius R as shown in
figure. If surface of liquid at the edges are
horizontal, then the angle of contact (in
degree) for liquid-container pair is
h=
tetrahedron as shown in figure. Point D is
and point C at 0ºC. Temperature (in ºC) of
junction A is
26. The molar heat capacity of a diatomic ideal
gas undergoing the process PV1/4 = constant
is NR. Find N
27. In an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas
is found to be proportional to the cube of its
Cp
temperature. The ratio of for the gas is
Cv
_______.
28. The minimum energy required to launch a
satellite of mass m from the surface of a
planet of mass M and radius R in a circular
N.GMm
orbit at a height R is , find N.
R
29. In a hall a detector (D) receives sound waves,
one directly from the source (S) and the other
from the reflection from the 25 m high ceiling.
The maximum wavelength (in meter) for
which there is minima at position of detector,
is
(S) (D)
120 m
30. Two waves of sound having intensities I0 and
4I0 interfere to produce interference pattern.
The phase difference between the waves is

at point A and  at point B. If the ratio of
2
the resultant intensities at A and B is N, then
find the value of N.
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I Test-3_ (Code-C)

PART – B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I 35. The equilibrium CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) is
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains established in a closed rigid container. The mass
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 of CaCO3 and CaO is very less at equilibrium
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE condition. In such condition the total volume of
is correct.
CO2 gas is 10 lit. Assume that a very-very large
piece of CaCO3(s) is added in container at
31. AlCl3 forms a dimer as
constant temperature. Choose the correct option.
(1) Equilibrium state remains unchanged
x, y and z are bond lengths, the correct relation (2) Reaction proceed in forward direction
is (3) Reaction proceed in backward direction
(1) x > y > z (2) y > z > x
(4) Equilibrium constant will have a new value
(3) z = y > x (4) z = y = x
36. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
32. Consider the equilibrium
(1) BeF2 readily co-ordinates with two
AgCl(s)  Ag+(aq) + Cl–(aq); Ksp = 10–10
additional F– ions forming [BeF4]2– complex
If NH3 is added, then solubility of AgCl
(2) One mole of borax reacts with four moles of
increases, because
HCl in aqueous solutions
(1) Ksp of AgCl increase due to formation of Ag
on addition of NH3. (3) HCOOH liberates carbon monoxide upon
heating with concentrated sulphuric acid
(2) Ksp of AgCl increase due to formation of
AgNH2 and HCl (4) CO, NO and N2O are neutral gases
(3) Ag+ react with NH3 and form [Ag(NH3)2]+ 37. The correct order regarding the ionization
therefore equilibrium shifts in forward energy of group-14 elements?
direction (1) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb
(4) Cl– react with NH3 and form NH4Cl so
(2) C > Si > Ge > Pb > Sn
equilibrium shift in backward direction
33. Consider the following reaction (3) Sn > Pb > Ge > Si > C

SiCl4 + 3CH3MgCl → P (Compound with silicon) (4) C > Ge > Si > Sn > Pb
P + H2O → Q + HCl 38. The following reactions list their respective
–H2O
2Q ⎯⎯⎯→ S product formation. Which of the following is
incorrect?
Select the correct statement about compound S.
(1) 2C + O2 + 4N2 ⎯⎯⎯→ 1273K
2CO2 + 4N2 –
(1) S can show further removal of water
water gas formation
(2) S has one Si – O – Si linkage
(2) Na2B4O7  10H2O → Na2B4O7 → 2NaBO2 +
(3) S is a long chain polymer B2O3 – Borax bead formation
(4) S is planar
(3) B2H6 + 6NH3 → 2B3N3H6 + 12H2 – Borazine
34. Which of the following is incorrect statement formation
about lithium?
(4) 4BF3 + LiAlH4 → 2B2H6 + LiF + 3AlF3 –
(1) Melting and boiling point of lithium is higher
Diborane formation
than other alkali metals
39. Which among the following chemicals
(2) LiCl is deliquescent and crystallises as a
introduced as pesticides after the ban on DDT.
hydrate LiCl.2H2O
(3) Lithium hydrogen carbonate is thermally (1) Acrolein
most stable among alkali metal hydrogen (2) Dieldrin
carbonate
(3) Chlorofluorocarbons
(4) Lithium nitrate on heating produces Li2O,
(4) Tetrachloroethene
NO2 and O2
[5]
Test-3_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I

40. Which among the following safety limits is 45. Arrange the following alkenes in order of heat
incorrect for drinking water? of hydrogenation.
–
(1) Fe, 0.2 ppm (2) F , 1 ppm
−
(3) NO 3 , 100 ppm (d) Pb, 50 ppb

41. An organic compound (A) C8H6 on treatment

with dil. H2SO4 containing Hg++ gives a
compound (B) which can also obtained from the
reaction of benzene with acetyl chloride in
presence of anhydrous AlCl3. The compound
(A) is
(1) Ph – C  CH (1) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
(2) (I) > (II) > (IV) > (III)
(3) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
(2)
(4) (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I)
46. Correct order for basic strength is

(3)

(4)

(1) B > A > C (2) A > B > C

42. Propene on hydroboration-oxidation produces
(3) C > B > A (4) B > C > A

(1) (2)
47.

(3) (4) The reagent X in sequence is

(1) Cl2/FeCl3 dark, HNO3/H2SO4

43. Select the correct order of enolisation (2) HNO3/H2SO4, Cl2/FeCl3 dark
(3) HNO3/H2SO4, Cl2/h
(1) CH3COCH2COOC2H5 < CH3COCH2COCH3
(4) Cl2/h, HNO3/H2SO4
< CH3COCH2CHO
48. Which among the following molecule is most
(2) CH3COCH2CHO < CH3COCH2COOC2H5 < reactive towards electrophilic substitution
CH3COCH2COCH3 reaction?
(3) CH3COCH2COOC2H5 < CH3COCH2CHO <
CH3COCH2COCH3 (1) (2)
(4) CH3COCH2COCH3 < CH3COCH2COOC2H5
< CH3COCH2CHO
44. The correct structure of compound 'A' is (3) (4)
(i) O
A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 3
(ii) Zn/H O
→ 49. Boat and chair conformer of cyclohexane are
(1mol) 2
free from angle strain but boat is still unstable
than the chair form due to the
(1) (2) (1) Non-eclipsing interaction
(2) Staggered conformer of boat form
(3) Flag-pole repulsion
(3) (4)
(4) Abnormal bond length
[6]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I Test-3_ (Code-C)

50. Which among the following trends is correct for x

the stability of superoxide of alkali metals.
(1) LiO2 > NaO2 > KO2 > RbO2 > CsO2
(2) CsO2 > RbO2 > KO2 > NaO2 > LiO2
(3) KO2 > NaO2 > LiO2 > RbO2 > CsO2
(4) NaO2 > LiO2 > CsO2 > RbO2 > KO2
SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. The answer to each question
is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question,
enter the correct numerical value (in decimal
notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30,
30.27, −27.30) using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to
enter the answer.
51. A 100 mL solution of 0.1 M CH3COOH is
titrated with 0.1 M NaOH. Then calculate the
pH at 66.66% completion of the titration.
(Given: pKa = 4.70; log2 = 0.30)
52. At 25°C, the Ka of HX and HY are 2 × 10–11 and
10–5 respectively. Find pH of a mixture containing
0.1 M HX and 0.1 M HY acid solution. [log 2 = 0.3,
log 3 = 0.47]
53. Equilibrium constants for ionization of T2O and
H2O are different at 298 K. Pure T2O has pT
(like pH) equal to 7.62, then pT of solution
prepared by adding 10 ml of 0.2 M TCl to 15 ml
of 0.25 M NaOT is [Given: log7 = 0.76]
54. x moles of A are mixed with x moles of B, and
at equilibrium for the reaction A + B
( aq) ( aq)
C + D , moles of C are formed. The
( aq) ( aq)2
equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction will be
55. An equilibrium PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) is
maintained at a given temperature in a
cylindrical system with movable piston. The
concentrations of PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2 are found
to be 0.01, 0.4 and 0.4 mol/L respectively. In
this system 4 moles of Cl2, 8 moles of PCl5 are
added and 0.2 moles of PCl3 removed which
changes the volume by x times. What will be
the value of equilibrium constant (KC) at new
condition?
56. Elements of group-13 react with excess of
halogens and form trihalides. How many
different trihalides of type EX3 having central
atom in +3 are possible? (Atomic number of
element must be less than 54)
57. How many structural isomers are obtained by
reaction of 2-pentene with NBS?
58. How many monochlorinated products are
obtained in the below reaction (only structural
isomer)?
59. 0.56 g of an organic substance when treated
with caustic soda evolved ammonia which
N
required 20 cc of sulphuric acid for
2
neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen is
60. The number of structural isomers having
molecular formula C6H14 is

PART – C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I 63. Two tangents are drawn from a point on the
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains circle x2 + y2 = 4a2 to the circle x2 + y2 = a2. The
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 angle between the tangents is
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE  
(1) (2)
6 4
is correct.
 
(3) (4)
61. If the coefficient of variation of some 3 2
observations is 60 and their standard deviation 64. In given hyperbola the latus rectum subtends
is 20, then their mean is right angle at the other focus of the hyperbola,
(1) 35 (2) 34 then its eccentricity is
(3) 30.33 (4) 33.33 (1) 2 +1 (2) 2 + 2
62. Consider a rectangle ABCD, with vertex
(3) 2 (4) 2 + 3
A(5, –2). The equation of the diagonal BD is
x + 3y = 7, and the equation of the line joining 65. The right hand derivative of f(x) = [x] tan(x) at
midpoints of BC and AD is y = x – 3. The vertex x = n, where n is an integer and [x] is the
C is greatest integer function, is
(1) (4, 3) (2) (3, 4) (1) n (2) (n – 1)
(3) (5, 2) (4) (5, 3) (3) (n + 2) (4) (n + 3)

[7]
Test-3_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I

66. The radius of largest circle inscribed in the 72. Let d1 and d2 be the lengths of the
parabola, y2 = 4x which passes through its perpendiculars drawn from foci S and S of the
focus and is contained in it, is x2 y2
ellipse + = 1 to the tangent at any point
(1) 2 (2) 4 a2 b2
P on the ellipse then, SP : SP
(3) 6 (4) 8
67. The variance of 3,6,9, …., 30 is (1) d1 : d2 (2) d2 : d1
(1) 72.45 (2) 54.36
d1
(3) 48.37 (4) 74.25 (3) d12 : d22 (4)
d2
68. If the equation of the family of the ellipse is
x2 y2   73. A natural number P is chosen at random from the
+ = 1  0     , then the locus of
cos  sin 
2 2
 4
first 1000 natural numbers. If [ ] denotes the
the extremities of the latus rectum is
greatest integer function, then the probability that
(1) 2y (1 – x2) = 1 + x2
 x   x   x  31P
(2) 2y2 (1 + x2) = (1 – x2)2  2  +  3  +  5  = 30 (for some x  R) is
     
(3) y2 = (1 – x2)2
31 33
(4) y2 = (1 + x2)2 (1) (2)
1000 999
69. If standard deviation of xi, i = 1, 2, ....., n is x,
33 67
axi + b (3) (4)
then the standard deviation of  a, b, p 1000 1000
p
74. A triangle ABC is formed by the lines 2x – 3y –
 R, i = 1, 2, 3, ....., n, is
6 = 0; 3x – y + 3 = 0 and 3x + 4y – 12 = 0. If the
a p
(1) x (2) x points P(, 0) and Q(0, ) always lie on or
p a
p p inside the ABC, then
(3) x (4) x
a 2a (1)   [1, 2] and   [2, 3]
70. The mean of n items is x . If each item is (2)   [1, 3] and   [2, 4]
successively increased by 5, 52, 53, ......... , 5n, (3)   [2, 4] and   [3, 4]
then new mean equals to (4)   [1, 3] and   [2, 3]
5 n +1 75. Through the vertex O of the parabola, y2 = 4ax
(1) x +
n two chords OP and OQ are drawn and the
(5 − 1)
n circles on OP and OQ as diameters intersect in
(2) x + 5
2n R. If 1, 2 and  are the angles made with
(5 − 1)
n
(3) x + positive x-axis by the tangents at P and Q on
8n
the parabola and by OR, then the value of cot1
5 (5n − 1)
(4) x + + cot2 is
4n
71. If AB is a double ordinate of the hyperbola (1) –2 tan (2) –2 tan( – )
x2 y 2 (3) 2 cot( – ) (4) 2 cot
− = 1 such that OAB(O is the origin) is
a2 b2
76. Consider a family of circles which are passing
an equilateral triangle, then the eccentricity ‘e’ of
through M(1, 1) and are tangent to x-axis. If (h, k)
the hyperbola satisfies is the centre of circle, then
3 2 1 1 1
(1) 1 e  (2) e (1) k  (2) − k
8 3 2 2 2
3 2 1 1
(3) e (4) e (3) k  (4) 0k 
8 3 2 2
[8]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I Test-3_ (Code-C)

77. PQ is a chord of parabola x2 = 4y which 83. Let P be a variable point on the ellipse
subtends right angle at vertex. Then locus of
3x2 + 4y2 = 12 whose foci are F1 and F2. The
centroid of triangle PSQ, where S is the focus
of given parabola, is incentre of the triangle PF1F2 always lies on a
4 conic whose eccentricity is e. Then 81e2 is
(1) x2 = 4(y + 3) (2) x 2 = ( y − 3)
3 equal to
−4 4
(3) x 2 = ( y + 3) (4) x 2 = ( y + 3) 84. In the figure, if radius of the circle is equal to 1
3 3 and perimeter of OPR is 8, then length PL is
78. Let g(x) = |x – 2| and h(x) = g(g(x)), then
k. The value of 3k is
h(–1) + h(1) + h(3) + h(5) is equal to
(where  denotes first order derivative) P
Q
(1) 1 (2) –1
L
(3) 2 (4) Zero
79. The statement ( p → q ) ⎯→ ( q→ p ) is O R

equivalent to 85. A pair of dice in thrown until either a 4 or 6

(1) Fallacy (2) p →q appears, then the probability that a 6 occurs
(3) p →~ q (4) Tautology m
first is , where m, n are relatively prime then
80. The negation of the statement n
"If it rains then the game is cancelled" m × n is equal to
(1) It rains and the game is not cancelled 86. Number of common tangent with finite slope to
(2) It does not rain and the game is cancelled the curves xy = c2 and y2 = 4ax is
(3) If it rains then the game is not cancelled
87. A circle has the same centre as an ellipse and
(4) If the game is not cancelled then it does not
rain passes through the foci F1 and F2 of the ellipse,
SECTION - II such that the two curves intersect in 4 points.
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section Let ‘P’ be any one of their point of intersection.
contains 10 questions. The answer to each question If the major axis of the ellipse is 17 and the area
is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, of the triangle PF1F2 is 30, then the distance
enter the correct numerical value (in decimal
between the foci is
notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 88. Let A and B are two points on the line 3x + 4y +
30.27, −27.30) using the mouse and the on-screen 15 = 0 such that OA = OB = 9 units, where O is
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to
the origin, then the area of triangle OAB is k
enter the answer.
k
x2 y 2 square units, then value of is
81. The area of ellipse + = 1 inscribed in a 2
16 b2
89. The length of the shortest path that begins at
square of side length 5 2 units is A square
the point (–1, 1) touches the x-axis and then
A
units then is equal to ends at a point on the parabola (x – y)2 =

82. If a tangent of slope 2 of the ellipse 2(x + y – 4), a b units, where a and b are in
x2 y 2 lowest form then a + b is
+ = 1 is normal to the circle x2 + y2 + 4x
a2 b2 90. If f(0) = 4, and f (0) = 0, then the value of
+ 1 = 0, then the maximum integral value of ab 2f ( x ) − 3f ( 2 x ) + f ( 4 x )
is lim is
x →0 x2

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