Paid Ibps Set 6 Mathclub

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Q1.
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people viz. K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R are made to sit in a row. Some of them are facing north while
some of them are facing south. No two successive people sit with each other except L and M
according to alphabetical order (such as K does not with L so on).They all handle di erent
department viz. Development, Marketing, IT, HR, Management, Uploading, Transmission and BPO,
but not necessarily in the same order.
Q sits third to the right of O. The one who handles Transmission department sits second to the left
of K. The one who handles Management department sits at an extreme end. Both R and N are
immediate neighbors. The one who handles Development department sits fth to the right of the
one who handles Management department. Q sits second to the right of R, who handles
Management department. Only one person sits between the persons, who handles BPO and
Transmission department. Q does not handle BPO department. The one who handles Uploading
sits third to the right of L. N handles IT department. The one who handles HR sits second to the
left of N. Both K and Q are facing same direction. The one who handles HR department sits forth
to the right of the one who handles Uploading department. M and the one, who handles BPO
department is facing south direction.
Q handles which of the following department? (1 Marks)

A. IT
B. HR
C. Uploading
D. Marketing
E. None of these
Your Answer: Not Attempted
Correct Answer: D. Marketing 
Solution
Q sits third to the right of O. Q sits second to the right of R, who handles Management
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department. The one who works in Management department sits at an extreme end. Both R and N
are immediate neighbors. N handles IThttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
department. The one who handles HR sits second to the
left of N. The one who handles Development department sits fth to the right of the one who
handles Management department.
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The one, who handles HR department, sits forth to the right of the one who handles Uploading
department. The one who handles Uploading sits third to the right of L. No two successive people
sit with each other except L and M according to alphabetical order. So, the arrangement will be---
Now, only one person sits between the persons, who handle BPO and Transmission department.
Q does not handle BPO department. M and the one who handles BPO department, is facing south
direction. Both K and Q are facing same direction. The one who handles Transmission department
sits second to the left of K. So, case-1 will be eliminated. So, the nal arrangement will be---
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Q2.
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Who sits second to the right of O? (1 Marks)

A. P
B. R
C. L
D. M
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. M 
Solution
are immediate neighbors. N handles IT department. The one who handles HR sits second to the
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Q3.
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P handles which of the following department? (1 Marks)

A. IT
B. HR
C. Uploading
D. Marketing
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Uploading 
Solution
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Q4.
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Who among the following are the immediate neighbours of N? (1 Marks)

A. P, O
B. R, Q
C. L, M
D. M, K
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. R, Q 
Solution
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Q5.
In the given options four of the following are related to each other in a certain way so form a
group, nd which of the following does not belong to that group? (1 Marks)
A. P
B. R
C. L for more join
D. M
E. K
Correct Answer: A. P 
Solution
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Q6.
Study the following diagram and convert it into other diagrams by implementing the instructions
which is given in each step to get next step.
For Step-1:
(i) In the arrangement, opposite numbers are interchanged if opposite numbers are in odd-even
combination.
(ii) In the arrangement, alphabets are interchanged if opposite numbers are in odd-odd or even-
even combination.
For Step-2:
(i) If the alphabets contain at least one vowel and one consonant or two vowels -
If the number with them is a whole square (except 1), then replace consonant with the previous
letter in alphabetical series and replace vowel with the next letter in alphabetical series
If the number with them is not a whole square, then subtract 2 from the given number.
And if number with them is less than 2, than it’s same as it is in previous step.
(ii) If the alphabets are two consonant –
If the number with them is a whole square, then replace consonant with the next letter in
alphabetical series.
If the number with them is not a whole square, then add 2 in the given number.
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For Step-3: step 3 is coded in some special pattern.
As per the rules followed in the above step, nd out the appropriate steps for the given input.
And answer the following questions.
Which of the following element is placed immediate next to the element of ‘LG22’ in step 3 in
clock-wise direction? (2 Marks)
A. OT22
B. HW14
C. PO10
D. VF13
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. VF13 
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Solution
The alphabets are arranged according to the directions are given for step 1.
For Step-3:
If the numbers with the alphabets are greater than or equal to 10, the letters are replaced with the
opposite letter in alphabetical series.
If the numbers with the alphabets are less than 10, the letters are replaced with just previous
letter in the alphabetical series.
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Q7.
For Step-1:
combination.
even combination.
For Step-2:
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Which of the following element is placed just opposite to ‘EI4’ in step 2? (2 Marks)
A. VS4
B. KL10
C. DH4
D. BN19
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. KL10 
Solution
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For Step-3:
Q8.
which is given in each step to get next step. for more join
For Step-1:
combination.
even combination.
For Step-2:

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Which of the following element in step 3 will be at place of ‘OT’ which is in step-2, after the applied
operation? (2 Marks)
A. KL
B. LG
C. VF
D. GL
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. LG 
Solution
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For Step-3:
Q9.
For Step-1: for more join

combination.
even combination.
For Step-2:
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Which of the following number is placed with the alphabets which is immediate element in anti-
clockwise direction, which replaces ‘VS4’ from step 2 to step 3? (2 Marks)
A. 4
B. 19
C. 9
D. 10
E. None of these
Correct Answer: E. None of these 
Solution
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For Step-3:
Q10.
For Step-1: for more join

combination.
even combination.
For Step-2:
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Which of the following replaces ‘KL6’ from input to step-1? (2 Marks)

A. EI6
B. BN17
C. OT8
D. EI8
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. EI6 
Solution
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For Step-3:
Q11.
Rohingya crisis: India must take more initiatives.
Which of the following substantiate the given statement?
(I)The latest Rohingya refugee crisis sparked by violence in Myanmar’s Rakhine state is a major
security concern and India should take more initiatives to nd a solution to this, Bangladesh High
Commissioner to India Syed Muazzem Ali said on Monday.
(II)It is a re in India’s neighbourhood and before it engulfs all of the people, India must put it out.
(III)India has borders with both Myanmar and Bangladesh and it should take more initiative so that
these people are returned to their homes where they could live in safety and dignity. (2 Marks)
A. Only I
B. Both II and III
C. Both I and III
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D. Only II https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. None of these
Correct Answer: E. None of these 
Solution
For I- This statement supports the given statement as it states that the Rohingya crisis is matter of
serious concern and India should take more steps to nd its solution.
For II-This statement also supports the given statement because it describes that being a neighbor
country India is required to take more initiative as this crisis will a ect all the people.
For III-This statement also supports the given statement because it states that has borders with
both Myanmar and Bangladesh so it is required to take steps for the peaceful return of the people
of Rohingya.
Q12.
Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Vivek started walking from point P towards south direction after walking of 11 meter reached
point Q. From there take a right turn and walked 6 meter to reached point R. From there he
turnaround and walked 11 meter to reached point J. From there take a right turn and after walking
of 1 meter again take a right turn and walk 10 meter to reach point M.
What is the distance between point M to Point P? (1 Marks)
A. 12 meter
B. 13 meter
C. 14 meter
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 13 meter 
Solution
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Q13.
Vivek started walking from point P towards south direction after walking of 11 meter reached
point Q. From there take a right turn and walked 6 meter to reached point R. From there he
turnaround and walked 11 meter to reached point J. From there take a right turn and after walking
of 1 meter again take a right turn and walk 10 meter to reach point M.
How far and in which direction is point R with respect to point M? (1 Marks)
A. √2 meter, north-west
B. 2 meter, south-east
C. 1.5 meter, north-east
D. 1 meter, south-west
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. √2 meter, north-west 
Solution
Q14.
Twelve members of a family A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are sitting around a two circular table.
One small table inside of a big table in which only 4 persons can sit in small table whereas
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remaining persons sit on bigger table. Persons sit on smaller table faces outside the center while
the persons sit on bigger table faces inside the table. All the person sits on equidistance with each
other. But not necessary in the same order. There are four generation and only three married
couple. F sits inner side of the table. D sits third to the right of the person who faces F who is
father of E and D. There are two persons sits between D and K who faces Father in law of A who
faces her spouse. K is son of A who is sister in law of D. L face the one who is wife of K. There are
two persons sits between father and aunt of G. I is brother of G who is son of J. B who is mother of
D and sits second to the right of I who is not an immediate neighbor of grandfather of K. Neither J
nor L is an immediate neighbor of I. L is brother of F. H and G are siblings. In smaller table ratio of
male and female is 1:1. Neither B nor I is an immediate neighbor of D. F has only two sons and no
daughter. C is sister in law of J. Neither E nor A is an immediate neighbor of I. E has two grandsons
and one granddaughter. E is second to the left of G.
What is the position of G? (1 Marks)

A. Second to the left of F
B. Opposite to I’s sister
C. Immediate right of his aunt
D. Both (A) and (B)
E. Both (B) and (C)
Correct Answer: E. Both (B) and (C) 
Solution
Step-1:- F sits inner side of the table. D sits third to the right of the person who faces F who is
father of E and D. B who is mother of D. B who is mother of D and sits second to the right of I who
is not an immediate neighbor of grandfather of K. F has only two sons and no daughter. There are
two persons sits between D and K who faces Father in law of A who faces her spouse. K is son of A
who is sister in law of D. so K faces F.
Step-2:- Neither B nor I is an immediate neighbor of D. L face the one who is wife of K. C is sister in
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law of J. L is brother of F. H and G are siblings. I is brother of G who is son of J.
Step-3:- There are two persons sit between father and aunt of G. As K is grandfather of G and C is
the aunt of K so C will sit third to the left of K. From this it is clear that I will sit to immediate left of
K and B sit to the immediate right of K. Neither J nor L is an immediate neighbor of I. Neither E nor
A is an immediate neighbor of I. E has two grandsons and one granddaughter. E is second to the
left of G. A who faces her spouse. In smaller table ratio of male and female is 1:1. So, it is clear that
the number of males and females who sits on the smaller table is equal. Now from the given
conditions the nal arrangement will be----
Q15.
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What is the relation of L with respect to D? (1 Marks)

A. Father
B. Mother
C. Uncle
D. Aunt
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Uncle 
Solution
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Q16.
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How is C related to wife of K? (1 Marks)

A. Brother
B. Sister
C. Brother in law
D. Sister in law
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: D. Sister in law 
Solution
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Q17.
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What is the position of A with respect to husband of B? (1 Marks)

A. Second to the left
B. Second to the right
C. Immediate left
D. Both (A) and (B)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Both (A) and (B) 
Solution
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Q18.
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Which of the following is sits opposite to son of J? (1 Marks)

A. Daughter of K
B. Husband of G
C. Son of A
D. Father of G
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: A. Daughter of K 
Solution
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Q19.
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After running through a variety of non-military responses to the terrorist strike at an Army camp in
Uri, the Centre on Thursday announcedhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
that Indian forces had carried out “surgical strikes” across
the Line of Control.
The operation, that began and concluded in the early hours of Thursday, was claimed to be a
military success, with no injuries to the Indian Para-commandos who went across the LOC into
Pakistan-occupied Kashmir to attack several locations. The decision to strike in this manner was
evidently taken after speci c intelligence that terrorist groups were planning attacks in India. The
terms “surgical strike” and “pre-emptive strike” used by the Centre were intended to convey that
this was not an attack on Pakistan’s defence forces, but a targeted action against terrorists poised
to wreak damage in India.
Which of the following can be postulated from the given statements.
(I) There may be pressure of opposition on ruling government after Uri attack.
(II) Govt. of Pakistan was expecting action like surgical attack from India after Uri attack.
(III) Indian Para commandos are special forces made for mainly special operations. (2 Marks)
A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Only I and II
D. Only I and III
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Only I and III 
Solution
There may be pressure of opposition on ruling govt. as Uri attack was a major attack and it is
mentioned in rst line that after “non-military response”……it means that there may be word-war
between opposition and govt. before surgical strike. And as Indian Para commandos are used in
an important operation “surgical strike”. So they must be special task force.
Q20.
Uri, the Centre on Thursday announced that Indian forces had carried out “surgical strikes” across
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terms “surgical strike” and “pre-emptivehttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
strike” used by the Centre were intended to convey that
to wreak damage in India.
Which of the following can be courses of action after surgical strike on POK.
(I) Indian Govt. should evacuate villages which are closer to LOC.
(II) Army should be more attentive and should increase security across border.
(III) Indian Govt. should give reward to all those Para commandos who made surgical strike
successful. (2 Marks)
A. Only III
B. Only I and III
C. All follows
D. Only II and III
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. All follows 
Solution
All courses of action follows as after surgical strike there may be chance that terrorist will attack in
reverse or Pakistan Army may conduct some intentional strike across border of India. So, for
safety of people, villages should be evacuated and Indian Army should increase security across
border. And Indian Govt. should give reward as it was one of the most important operations and
Para Commandos made this successful. And reward is nothing but a token of appreciation and
encouragement.
Q21.
Uri, the Centre on Thursday announced that Indian forces had carried out “surgical strikes” across
terms “surgical strike” and “pre-emptive strike” used by the Centre were intended to convey that
to wreak damage in India. for more join
On the basis of given statements belowhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
you have to decide relation of cause and e ect between it.
(I) Indian forces carried out surgical strike on Thursday across POK with no injuries caused to
Indian Para commandos who went for strike..
(II) Indian Govt. named this strike as “Surgical strike” and “pre-emptive strike” as GOI wanted to
convey message that this was not an attack on Pakistan’s defence forces, but a targeted action
against terrorists poised to wreak damage in India. (1 Marks)
A. if statement I is the cause and II is its e ect.
B. if statement II is the cause and I is its e ect.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are e ect of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are e ects of some common causes.
Correct Answer: D. if both the statements I and II are e ect of independent causes. 
Solution
Both the statements are e ects of independent cause. As the I statement discusses about that no
injuries to the Indian soldiers whereas II statement states that surgical strike was just a response
of URI attack by terrorist. Indian Govt. named this strike as “surgical strike” and want to convey
message that this action is against terrorist because Indian Govt. does not want give chance
Pakistan to blame India for breaking law of cross border ring as Pakistan had blamed many times
in past.
Q22.
Black Box testing sometimes called? (1 Marks)
A. Data ow testing
B. Loop testing
C. Behavioral testing
D. Graph based testing
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Behavioral testing 
Solution
Black Box Testing, also known as Behavioral Testing, is a software testing method in which the
internal structure/ design/ implementation of the item being tested is not known to the tester.
These tests can be functional or non-functional, though usually functional.
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Q23. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are su cient to answer
the question. Read both the statements and given answer.
Amongst U, V and W, who scored the highest number of runs in the series XYZ?
I. Strike rate of U was less than V but higher than W in the series.
II. Number of total centuries and fties made by V were higher than U and W both, in the series. (1
Marks)
A. If the data in statement I alone are su cient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not su cient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone are su cient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not su cient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are su cient to answer the
question.
D. If the data in both statements I and II together are not su cient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Correct Answer: D. If the data in both statements I and II together are not su cient to answer the
question. 
Solution
We are not getting proper information from both the statements.
Q24.
Amongst A, E, I, O and U, which book is the costliest?
I. Price of the book E is more than those of A and U only.

II. Number of pages in the books A, E, I, O and U are 800, 700, 600, 500 and 400 respectively. (1
Marks)
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question.
Correct Answer: D. If the data in both statements I and II together are not su cient to answer the
question. 
Solution
We cannot determine which book is costliest from both the statements.
Q25.
A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle, facing towards the centre of the circle. Who is sitting on the
immediate right of B?
I. A is facing D. only C is between A and B. F is between E and A.

II. F is on the immediate left of E. only D is between B and E. C is not adjacent to F. (1 Marks)
question.
Correct Answer: B. If the data in statement II alone are su cient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not su cient to answer the question. 
Solution
From II statement we can nd that C is on the immediate right of B.
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Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Ten Professors P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y teach in the same college. They give lectures in ve
months (February, April, August, October and December). They give lectures in each month on
15th and 26st date. Only two lectures held in a month. The lectures are attended by di erent
number of students. The total strength of students is 150 in each class and 50% attendance is
compulsory for each class. The number of students will be even in the month of 30 days or less
than 30 days and odd in the month of 31 days. Di erent number of students attends class on
di erent days. Only one professor give lecture on each date. But not necessary in the same order.
Q takes lecture on even date before the month of August. Only 5 professors takes lecture before S
and 97 students attend the lecture of S. total number of students lectures attend on 26th April and
26th October is 225. There are two lectures in between Q and X who’s lecture attend by 127
students. R does not give the lecture in the month in which S and Q gives lecture. No one takes
lecture after T’s lecture. And the sum of student attend lecture of T and S is 184. V takes lecture on
one of the month which has 30 days. And there are 4 lectures between V and the number of
student attend class 149. W’s lecture attend by 113 students who’s lecture is scheduled on 15th.
Di erence between the numbers of students attend class on 15th February and 26th October is
11. R takes lecture just before Y’s lecture and both of them takes lecture on the month which has
31 days and they do not takes lectures on the same month. V’s lecture attend by 92 students and
di erence between V’s students and Y’s students is 41. P does not takes lecture on the month
which has less than 30 days. Total number of student attend lecture in February is 264. And
Di erence between the number of students who attends Q’s lecture and S’s lecture is 29.
Who among the following lecturer gives lecture on 26st April? (2 Marks)
A. T
B. P
C. Y
D. V
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. P 
Solution
Step-1:- Q take lecture on even day before the month of August so there will be two possibility Q
takes lecture on Feb 26th or April 26th. Only 5 professors takes lecture before S and 97 students
attend the lecture of S. so S takes lecture on 26th august only. There are two lectures in between
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Q and X whose lecture attend by 127 students. R does not give the lecture in the month in which S
and Q gives lecture. So, there will be two possible cases-
Step-2: No one takes lecture after T’s lecture. And the sum of student attend lecture of T and S is
184. V takes lecture on one of the month which has 30 days. And there are 4 lectures between V
and the number of student attend class 149.
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Step-3:- W’s lecture attends by 113 students whose lecture is scheduled on 15th. Di erence
between the numbers of students attends class on 15th February and 26th October is 11. R takes
lecture just before Y’s lecture and both of them takes lecture on the month which has 31 days and
they does not takes lectures on the same month. Total number of students lectures attend on
26th April and 26th October is 225. So number of students who attend lecture on 26th April is 225-
149=76. V’s lecture attend by 92 students and di erence between V’s students and Y’s students is
41. So, number of students who attend lecture on 26th October is 149 . And lecture on 26th April is
attended by 76 students.
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Step-4: P does not take lecture on the month which has less than 30 days. So that case-2 has been
eliminated here. Total number of student attend lecture in February is 264. Di erence between
the number of students who attends Q’s lecture and S’s lecture is 29. So 264-97=126 students
attend Q’s lecture. And 264-126=138 students attend U’s lectures.
Q27.
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number of students. The total strengthhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
of students is 150 in each class and 50% attendance is
Which among the following is the number of students who attend class on 15th December? (2
Marks)
A. 113
B. 149
C. 133
D. 77
E. 87
Correct Answer: C. 133 
Solution
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Q28.
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How many lecturers give lectures between P and U? (2 Marks)

A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
E. None
Correct Answer: B. Two 
Solution
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attended by 76 students. for more join
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Q29.
Who among the following gives lecture which is attended by 126 students? (2 Marks)
A. S
B. T
C. R
D. U
E. None of these
Correct Answer: E. None of these for more join

Solution
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Q30.
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number of students. The total strengthhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
of students is 150 in each class and 50% attendance is
Four of the following ve are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to that group? (2 Marks)
A. R
B. 126
C. S
D. T
E. 138
Correct Answer: E. 138 
Solution
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Q31.
The government is working towards setting up an Ayurveda hospital in each district of the country,
Prime Minister Narendra Modi said today and asserted that time had come for a "health
revolution" under the aegis of the traditional medicine system.
Which of the following can be hypothesized from the given statement?
(I)Addressing a gathering after dedicating the country's rst All India Institute of Ayurveda to the
nation here, the prime minister pitched for a ordable and accessible healthcare for the poor on
'Ayurveda Day' today.
(II)"It is very necessary for the expansion of Ayurveda that there is a good hospital with all
facilities... in every district of the country.
(III)Noting that people across the world were getting attracted towards good health as well as
wellness, the prime minister suggested that time was ripe for an "atmosphere of Ayurveda". He
also batted for better and modern packaging of ayurvedic medicines. (2 Marks)
A. Only (I)
B. Both (II) and (I)
C. All (III), (I) and (II)
D. Both (II) and (III) for more join
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Both (II) and (III) 
Solution
For I- This statement can’t be hypothesized from the given statement as it just provide some
additional information of the given statement.
For II-- This statement can be hypothesized from the given statement as it states that the
expansion of Ayurveda is necessary for a good hospital with all facilities... in every district of the
country which is also mentioned in the given statement time had come for a "health revolution"
under the aegis of the traditional medicine system.
For III- This statement can be hypothesized from the given statement as it states that people
across the world are getting attracted towards Ayurveda which is also mentioned in the given
statement time had come for a "health revolution" under the aegis of the traditional medicine
system.
Q32.
In every question two rows are given and to nd out the resultant of a particular row you need to
follow the following steps: -
Note: (All the resultant value consider as a positive integer)

Step 1: If an odd number is followed by another odd number then the resultant will be the
subtraction of both the numbers.
Step 2: If an even number is followed by a perfect cube then the resultant will be the sum of the
numbers.
Step 3: If an even number is followed by an odd (prime) number then the resultant will be the
subtraction of both the number.
Step 4: If an odd number is followed by an even number then the resultant will be the subtraction
of both the numbers.
Step 5: If above four conditions are not applied than simply add both the number.
Find the resultant of second row if K is the resultant of rst row.
(1 Marks)
A. 5
B. 6 for more join
C. 9
D. 7
E. 3
Correct Answer: B. 6 
Solution
Row-I: odd number is followed by another odd number= 9-7=2
2 2 above four conditions are not applied=2+2=4
Row-II: odd number is followed by another even number=13-4(K)=9
9 3 odd number is followed by another odd number=9-3=6
Q33.

numbers.
Find the multiplication of the resultant value of rst and second row.
(1 Marks)
A. 400
B. 156
C. 625
D. 280
E. 441
Correct Answer: D. 280 for more join

Solution https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Row-I: even number is followed by a perfect cube 4+8=12
12 8 even number is followed by a perfect cube 12+8=20
Row-II: odd number is followed by an even number 27-6=21
21 7 odd number is followed by another odd number=21-7=14
Multiplication= 20*14=280
Q34.

numbers.
Find the resultant sum of two rows?
(1 Marks)
A. 18
B. 25
C. 35
D. 38
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D. 38 
Solution
Row-I: Even number is followed by a perfect cube= 8+27=35
Now 35 2 odd number is followed by an even number=35-2=33
Row-II: Odd number is followed by another odd=15-7=8
8 3 even number is followed by an odd (prime) number=8-3=5 for more join
Sum of both the row= 33+5=38
Q35.

numbers.
If the resultant of the sum of both the rows is 46, then nd the value of Y?
(1 Marks)
A. 2
B. 6
C. 5
D. 9
Correct Answer: A. 2 
Solution
Row-I: even number is followed by an perfect cube=24+27=51
51 12 odd number is followed by an even number= 51-12=39
So, the resultant of second row will be 46-39=7.
Row-II: even number is followed by an odd (prime) number=12-3=9
9 Y=7 So, only step-4 is applicable as an odd number is followed by an even number=9-2=7
Q36.
for more join
numbers.
If Z is the resultant of second row, then nd the sum of the resultant of two rows.
(1 Marks)
A. 633
B. 518
C. 618
D. 597
E. 1215
Solution
Row-II: even number is followed by a perfect cube= 512+6=518
518 100 above four conditions are not applied=518+100=618
Row-I: Z=618
Above four conditions are not applied=618+15=633
Odd number is followed by an even number=633-36=597
Resultant of two row= 618+597=1215
Q37.
Radio stations with radio data system (RDS) technology broadcast special program that only radios
with an RDS feature can receive. Between 1994 and 1996, the number of RDS radio stations in
Verdland increased from 250 to 600. However, since the number of RDS equipped radios in
Verdland was about the same in 1996 as in 1994, the number of Verlanders receiving the special
program information probably did not increase signi cantly.
Which of the following assumption can be drawn from the above passage?
for more join
I. If any of the RDS radio stations that began broadcasting in Verdland between 1994 & 1996
broadcast to people with RDS-equipped radios living in areas not previously reached by RDS
stations.
II. In 1996 most Verdlanders who lived within the listening area of an RDS station already had a
radio equipped to receive RDS.
III. Equipping a radio station with RDS technology does not decrease the station's listening area.
IV. In 1996 Verlanders who did not own radios equipped to receive RDS could not receive any
programming from the RDS radio stations that began broadcasting in Verdland after 1994.
V. The RDS radio stations in Verdland in 1996 did not all o er the same type of programming. (2
Marks)
A. Only II & III follow
B. All follow except III
C. None follows except I
D. Only V & II follow
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. None follows except I 
Solution
Statement I is the valid assumption because the number of RDS radio increased from 1994 to
1996 so the people with RDS-equipped radios could use RDS technology. Statement II is not valid
as it says that Most Verdlanders had a radio equipped to receive RDS and nothing is said about
this in the passage. Statement III&V are not valid because nothing is said about station’s listening
area and type of programming. Statement IV can be the conclusion of the passage but not a valid
assumption.
Q38.
Tax trauma is arising on GST Network. Glitches in the GST regime are increasing the anxiety
among Indian businesses.
Which of the following could be the possible fallout of the given statement?
(I)For a reform that was cracked up to be India’s biggest tax overhaul since Independence, the roll-
out of the goods and services tax will o to a less-than-desirable start.
(II)It is clear that the GST network had not been fully tested for chinks before July.
(III)Exporters, for instance, have already alerted the Centre that the delayed timelines for ling GST
returns will mean that no refunds can be expected before mid-November on input taxes paid in
advance and the integrated GST levied on goods they imported. (1 Marks)
for more join
A. Only (II)
B. Both (II) and (I) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. Both (III) and (I)
D. Only (I)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Both (III) and (I) 

Solution
For I- This could be the fallout of a given statement as it states that the roll-out of the goods and
services tax will o to a less-than-desirable start which shows negative impact of GST.
For II- This could not be the fallout of a given statement as it is a reason of fallout of the given
statement.
For III- This could be the fallout of a given statement as it states that no refunds can be expected
before mid-November from the exporters which also shows an adverse consequence of GST.
Q39.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight chairs are arranged in a linear row in such a way that each of them are of di erent color viz.
Black, Blue, Green, Orange, Pink, Purple, Red, White. Seven persons viz. R, S, T, U, V, W, X are sitting
on seven chairs in such a way that no two successive people are sitting together in an alphabetical
order (for ex- A can’t sit with B, B can’t sit with C etc.) while one of the chair is vacant. Each of them
has di erent salaries in between the range of 11K-19K (excluding both the limits), where K is a
constant.
Two persons sit between R and the one who sits on Purple chair. The one who sits on Red chair
has salary 3/2 of the salary of the one who sits on Blue chair. X sits to the immediate left of the
one whose salary is a prime number which is less than the salary of the one who sits on the
Orange chair. W sits to the left of S and T is to the right of S. V sits third to the left of the one who
sits on the Orange chair. Only one person sits between both the persons whose salaries are prime
number. Pink chair is at extreme right end. Both persons who sits on Green and Blue chair are
immediate neighbour of each other. The one who sits on Green chair is not an immediate
neighbour of the one who sits on Red chair. The one who sits on Black chair has salary multiple of
seven whereas the one who sits on the Orange chair has salary multiple of ve. Purple chair is
second to the right of Orange chair. U sits on the Red chair and sits fourth to the left of the one
who sits on the Black chair.
Who among the following sits on Black Chair? (1 Marks)

A. W for more join
B. V
C. X https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. T
E. S
Correct Answer: C. X 
Solution
V sits third to the left of the one who sits on the Orange chair. Pink chair is at extreme right end.
Purple chair is second to the right of Orange chair. So, there are two possible cases. Two persons
sit between R and the one who sits on Purple chair. As there is a vacant chair exist or not so, there
can be two possible positions of R.
U sits on the Red chair and sits fourth to the left of the one who sits on the Black chair. So, from
this case-2 will be eliminated. Now with case-1:
Both persons who sits on Green and Blue chair are immediate neighbour of each other and the
one who sits on Green chair is not an immediate neighbour of the one who sits on Red chair.
The one who sits on Black chair has salary multiple of seven whereas the one who sits on the
Orange chair has salary multiple of ve. So, the one who sits on Black chair has salary 14K and the
one who sits on Orange chair has salary 15K. The one who sits on Red chair has salary 3/2 of the
salary of the one who sits on Blue chair. So, there is only possible salaries of the who sits on Red
and Blue chair will be 18K and 12K respectively. As per the given information it is clear that Only
either Pink or White chair can be vacant. But it is given that only one person sits between both the
for more join
persons whose salaries are prime number. So, it can be-------
Now, it is clear that Only White chair is vacant. X sits to the immediate left of the one whose salary
is a prime number which is less than the salary of the one who sits on the Orange chair. W sits to
the left of S and T is to the right of S. So, the nal diagram is-
Q40.
constant.
Vacant chair is of which color? (1 Marks)

A. Red
B. Pink for more join
C. Blue
D. Green https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. White
Correct Answer: E. White 
Solution
for more join
Q41.
constant.
Who among the following sits fourth to the right of W? (1 Marks)

A. R
B. V for more join
C. U
D. T https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. S
Correct Answer: D. T 
Solution
for more join
Q42.
constant.
What is the salary of S? (1 Marks)

A. 11K
B. 15K for more join
C. 13K
D. 17K https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. 18K
Correct Answer: D. 17K 
Solution
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Q43.
constant.
Which among the following combination is true regarding R? (1 Marks)

A. Red-18K
B. Pink-13K for more join
C. Blue-12K
D. Green-16K https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. Orange-15K
Correct Answer: C. Blue-12K 
Solution
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Q44.
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and e ect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the
e ect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes
without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your
answer as-
Statement
(I): The faltering economy from — A set of weak economic numbers has left the Central
government scrambling to do something to set things in order.
Statement
(II): The Centre will capitalize on stable macros to push through tough structural reforms which are
an appropriate action to revive the economy. (1 Marks)
A. If statements I is the cause and statement II is its e ect.
B. If statements II is the cause and statement I is its e ect.
C. If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. If both the statements I and II are e ects of independent causes.
E. If both the statements I and II are e ects of some common cause.
Correct Answer: A. If statements I is the cause and statement II is its e ect. 
Solution
It is clear from the given statement that statement I is the cause and II is its e ect as the economy
for more join
is declining the center is expected to take some steps is the cause and the Centre will capitalize on
stable macros to push through tough structural reforms is its e ect.
Q45.
An input device that reads printed text employing optical character pattern matching, is known as?
(1 Marks)
A. Scanner
B. Magnetic disk
C. Mouse
D. Magnetic tape
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Scanner 
Solution
A scanner is a device that captures images from photographic prints, posters, magazine pages,
and similar sources for computer editing and display.
Q46.
There are three sections A, B and C in a class. Every section has some boy and some girl students
in it. Probability of a girl being selected when one student is selected randomly from section A is
2/5, that from section B is 4/9 and that from section C is 5/9.
If the ratio of total number of students in sections A, B and C is 10 : 12 : 9, then what is the
probability of a girl being selected when one student is selected randomly from the students from
all the three sections together? (2 Marks)
A. 14/31
B. 11/23
C. 13/31
D. 43/93
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: D. 43/93
Solution
Probability of a girl being selected from a section

for more join
Let the number of girls, number of boys and total number of students respectively:
For section A: 2x, 3x and 5x. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
For section B: 4y, 5y and 9y.
For section C: 5z, 4z and 9z.
According to the question,
Ratio of total number of students in the three sections:
⟹ 5x : 9y : 9z = 10 : 12 : 9
⟹x:y:z=6:4:3
Let the values of x, y and z be 6k, 4k and 3k respectively.
Total number of girls in all the three sections = 2x + 4y + 5z = 12k + 16k + 15k = 43k
Total number of students in all the three sections = 5x + 9y + 9z = 30k + 36k + 27k = 93k
Probability of a girl being selected from the students from all the three sections together
Q47.
in it. Probability of a girl being selected when one student is selected randomly from section A is
If the number of girls in sections A is same as the number of boys in section C, then what is the
ratio of number of boys in section A to the number of boys in section C? (2 Marks)
A. 2 : 3
B. 3 : 4
C. 3 : 2
D. 4 : 3
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 3 : 2 
Solution

Number of girls in sections A = Number of boys in section C
⟹ 2x = 4z
⟹ x = 2z
Number of boys in section A : Number of boys in section C = 3x : 4z = 6z : 4z = 3 : 2
Q48.
for more join
in it. Probability of a girl being selected https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
when one student is selected randomly from section A is
If 20 girls leaves section B, then the probability of a boy being selected when one student is
selected randomly from this section will be 5/8. What is the number of boys in section B? (2 Marks)
A. 120
B. 100
C. 75
D. 60
Correct Answer: B. 100
Solution
Probability of a boy being selected from this section B after 20 girls left the section = 5/8
Q49.
In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You
have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option.
Measures of some angles are given in the gure. BD is a straight line and AC = CD.
Quantity I: Measure of ∠ACB in degrees.

Quantity II: 70°. (1 Marks)
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
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B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II 
Solution
Q50.
A person started his journey from city P to Q. He travelled the distance partially by bus at a speed
of 60km/h, by car at 80 km/h and by train at 100 km/h. The time taken in travelling by car is half an
hour more than that by train and one hour less than that by bus. The distance between city P and
Q is 490 km.
Quantity I: The distance travelled by car.
Quantity II: The distance travelled by bus. (2 Marks) for more join
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II 
Solution
Let the time taken in travelling by car be x hours.

Then, time taken in travelling by train = x-1/2 hours
And, time taken in travelling by bus = x + 1 hours
Distance travelled by bus + Distance travelled by car + Distance travelled by train = Total Distance
between city P and Q
Q51.
Vessel A is completely lled with honey and milk in ratio 5 : 7 while vessel B is completely lled
with water and honey in ratio 2 : 1. Contents of both the vessels are poured into a larger vessel C.
The total quantity of water and honey in vessel C is twice the quantity of milk in vessel C. Final
quantity of mixture in vessel C is 210 liters.
Quantity I: Capacity of vessel B in liters.
Quantity II: 90 liters. (2 Marks)
A. Quantity I > Quantity II for more join
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation 
Solution
Quantity I:
Let the quantities of honey and milk in vessels A be 5x and 7x liters respectively.
And, the quantities of water and honey in vessels B be 2y and y liters respectively.
∴ Total capacities of vessel A and B will be 12x and 3y liters.
Contents of Vessels C:
Water = 2y
Honey = 5x + y
Milk = 7x
Total quantity of water and honey in vessel C = 2 × Quantity of milk in vessel C
⟹ 2y + 5x + y = 2 × 7x
⟹ 5x + 3y = 14x
⟹ 3y = 9x
⟹ y = 3x
And,
Final quantity of mixture in vessel C = 210 liters
⟹ 12x + 3y = 210
⟹ 12x + 9x = 210 (∵ y = 3x)
⟹ 21x = 210
⟹ x = 10
Capacity of vessel B = 3y = 9x = 90 liters
Quantity I = Quantity II
Q52.
Three pipes A, B and C can separately ll a tank in 8, 12 and 24 hours respectively.

Quantity I: Time taken by any two pipes opened together to ll the tank completely.
Quantity II: Time taken to ll the tank completely such that only pipe A is opened for rst hour and
for more join
then only pipes B and C are opened together for second hour and so on. (1 Marks)
A. Quantity I > Quantity II https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
Solution
Quantity I:
Time taken by any two pipes to ll the tank = Time taken by Pipes A and B or B and C or A and C
Q53.
Probability of Abhishek hitting a target in a shooting competition is 0.2 while that of Shailesh is
0.25. Each of them will get three chances to shoot at the target. The person hitting the target more
number of times than the other in the competition will win the competition and if both of them hit
same number of targets, the competition will end in a draw.
Quantity I: Probability of Abhishek winning the competition after hitting the target exactly once.
Quantity II: Probability of Shailesh winning the competition after hitting the target exactly twice. (2
Marks)
for more join
Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II 
Solution
Probabilities of Abhishek and Shailesh not hitting the target are 0.8 and 0.75 respectively.
Quantity I:
Probability of Abhishek winning the competition after hitting the target exactly once
= Probability of Abhishek hitting the target exactly once and Probability of Shailesh not hitting the
target at all
Quantity II:
Probability of Shailesh winning the competition after hitting the target exactly twice
= Probability of Shailesh hitting the target exactly twice and Probability of Abhishek hitting the
target exactly once or not hitting the target at all
Q54.
Given below is the line graph which shows the time taken by ve pipes M, N, O, P and Q to ll a
tank individually in minutes. Table shows the pipes which remain open to ll the same tank on
di erent days of week
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If on Monday pipe M works with a e ciency of 120 % and both pipe M and P on Monday remained
open for 7 minutes but alternatively on each minute starting with M. Remaining part of the tank is
lled on next day. What is the total time for which pipe P remained open on both days if next day
all pipes lled the tank together? (1 Marks)
A. 12 min 15 sec
B. 16 min 18 sec
C. 18 min 15 sec
D. 17 min 12 sec
E. 20 min 10 sec
Correct Answer: B. 16 min 18 sec 
Solution
for more join

Q55.
On Wednesday tank is lled by both pipes working simultaneously but on Thrusday all pipes work
alternatively on each minute starting from pipe N then O and then P. Find the di erence in time
taken to ll the tank on Wednesday and the time taken be ll tank on Thursday. (1 Marks)
A. 5 min
B. 18 min
C. 15 min
D. 20 min
E. 25 min
Correct Answer: E. 25 min 
for more join

Solution
Q56.
for more join

If on Friday 36 litre of water per minute is lled by both the pipes then, amount of water lled by
pipe P on Monday is what percent of amount of water lled by pipe Q on Friday. (2 Marks)
A. 80%
B. 95%
C. 90%
D. 70%
E. 75%
Correct Answer: C. 90% 
Solution
Q57.
for more join
On Friday M worked with 120% of its e ciency and Q with 75% of its e ciency and they together
can ll 162 litre of water in 12 min. On Monday if both the pipes (M and P) are working with a
di erent e ciency then both pipes working together can ll 7/30 part of the tank in 8 min and if M
is opened for 8 min and P is opened for 15 min then they can ll 157.5 litre of water. Find the ratio
of time taken by M alone and time taken by P alone to ll tank according to new e ciency on
Monday. (2 Marks)
A. 2 : 3
B. 4 : 3
C. 3 : 4
D. 5 : 3
E. 3 : 5
Correct Answer: B. 4 : 3 for more join

Solution
Time taken to ll the tank by M alone with increased e ciency = 50 min.

Time taken to ll the tank by Q alone with decreased e ciency = 100 min.
Now,Together they can ll the tank in
Let M and P can ll tank alone with di erent e ciency in x min and y min respectively
Q58.
for more join

If rate of ow of pipe N is 18 litre/min, and cost incurred in lling 1 litre of water in the tank by pipe
N, O and P is 12 Rs./L, 15 Rs./L and 10 Rs./L respectively, then nd the total cost incurred in lling
the tank on Tuesday if all the pipes lled the tank simultaneously. (2 Marks)
A. 10,665 Rs.
B. 11,552 Rs.
C. 12,666 Rs.
D. 9,848 Rs.
E. 8,440 Rs.
Correct Answer: A. 10,665 Rs. 
for more join

Solution
Q59.
There are 12 male and 8 female employees in a team. Some sub-teams need to be formed from
these employees. Every sub-team should have at least 20% of its total employees as male and also
least 20% of its total employees as females. As a part of these sub-teams, a male employee will
receive Rs.4000 per month as incentives while a female employee will receive Rs.3000 per month.
If two particular women do not want to be part of sub-team, then in how many ways a sub-team of
6 employees can be chosen? (2 Marks)
A. 8415
B. 11825
C. 5390
D. 12815
E. None of these
for more join
Correct Answer: D. 12815 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
Sub-team will have at least 20% of its total employees as male and 20% as females; therefore
number of men or women in the sub-team of 6 employees will be 2 or greater.
Two particular women do not want to be part of sub-team. So the sub-team will be chosen from
12 male and 6 female employees.
Number of ways of choosing the sub-team
Q60.
If the total budget for incentives of a sub-team cannot be greater than Rs.25000, then in how
many ways the sub-team of 7 employees can be chosen? (2 Marks)
A. 65296
B. 31416
C. 46816
D. 43120
Solution
Total incentives for the sub-team of 7 employees cannot be greater than Rs.25000. So, the
maximum number of male employees in the team is 4. Minimum number of male or female
employees is 2.
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Q61.
If the number of women needs to be included in a sub-team of 5 employees is more than the
number of men, then in how many ways the sub-team can be chosen? (2 Marks)
A. 10696
B. 4536
C. 10120
D. 4592
Solution
Sub-team of 5 employees with number of women more than that of men can have:
(1 male, 4 females) or (2 males, 3 females)
Q62.
In an examination, there were three sections namely Reasoning, Quant and English. 600 students
passed in Reasoning, 500 passed in Quant and 450 passed in English. 300 students passed in both
Reasoning and Quant, 300 students passed in both Quant and English and 250 students passed in
both English and Reasoning.
What could be the maximum possible number of students who passed in all the three sections? (2
Marks)
A. 100 for more join
B. 300
C. 200
D. 250
Correct Answer: D. 250
Solution
Let the number of students who passed in all the three sections be x.
Number of students who passed in Reasoning and Quant but not in English = 300 – x
Number of students who passed in Quant and English but not in Reasoning = 300 – x
Number of students who passed in English and Reasoning but not in Quant = 250 – x
Number of students who passed only in Reasoning = 600 – (300 – x + x + 250 – x) = x + 50
Number of students who passed only in Quant = 500 – (300 – x + x + 300 – x) = x – 100
Number of students who passed only in English = 450 – (300 – x + x + 250 – x) = x – 100
Since the number of students cannot be negative, maximum possible value of x can be 250.
Maximum number of students who passed in all the three sections = 250
Q63.
What could be the minimum possible number of students who passed only in Reasoning? (2
Marks) for more join
A. 50
B. 150 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. 250
D. 300

Solution
Number of students who passed only in Reasoning = x + 50

Since the number of students cannot be negative, minimum possible value of x can be 100.
Minimum number of students who passed only in Reasoning = x + 50 = 100 + 50 = 150
Q64.
What could be the maximum possible number of students who appeared in the examination? (2
Marks)
A. 1050
B. 950
C. 1100
D. 850
Correct Answer: A. 1050
Solution
Number of students who appeared in the examination

= (x + 50) + (300 – x) + (x – 100) + (300 – x) + (x – 100) + (250 – x) + x + 100
= x + 800
Maximum possible value of x = 250
Maximum number of students who appeared in the examination = x + 800 = 250 + 800 = 1050
Q65.
for more join
If the number of students who passed either only in Reasoning or only in Quant is 250, then how
many students passed in both Reasoning and English but not in Quant? (2 Marks)
A. 150
B. 250
C. 100
D. 200
E. None of these
Solution
Number of students who passed either only in Reasoning or only in Quant = 250
⟹ x + 50 + x – 100 = 250
⟹ 2x – 50 = 250
⟹ x = 150
Number of students who passed in both Reasoning and English but not in Quant = 250 – x
= 250 – 150 = 100
Q66.
The pie charts shown below shows the distance covered by a boat moving upstream and
downstream in di erent days of a week. And the table shows the speed of stream in km/hr. in
di erent days of a week.
Note-Speed of stream is same for both upstream and downstream distance on respective days
and speed of boat in still water is di erent on di erent days. Some values are missing in the table,
you have to calculate these values if required to answer the questions.
for more join

Time taken to cover the upstream distance on Friday is same as time taken to cover the
downstream distance on Thursday. If sum of speed of boat in still water on Thursday and Friday is
10 km/hr then, nd the ratio of speed of boat in still water on Thursday to Friday. (2 Marks)
A. 6 : 13
B. 4 : 11
C. 7 : 13
D. 4 : 15
E. 7 : 12
Correct Answer: C. 7 : 13
Solution
for more join
Distances upstream:
Monday = 18/100 * 150 = 27 km, Tuesday = 12/100 * 150 = 18 km. Wednesday = 39 km, Thursday =
45 km, Friday = 21 km
Similarly Distances downstream:
Monday = 27 km, Tuesday = 45 km. Wednesday = 18 km, Thursday = 36 km, Friday = 54 km
Let speed of boat in still water on Friday in upstream = (x-3) km/h, then on Thursday speed of boat
in downstream will be = (10-x+12.5)km/h
Now
21/(x-3) = 36/[(10-x)+2.5)]
Solve, x = 6.5
So required ratio is 3.5 : 6.5 = 7 : 13
Q67.
for more join

On Monday, the boat takes a total of 4 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
hrs 30 minutes to cover both upstream and downstream
distance. Ratio of speed of boat in still water in going upstream to downstream is 4 : 5. Find the
speed of boat in still water while going downstream. (2 Marks)
A. 13 km/hr
B. 15 km/hr
C. 9 km/hr
D. 10 km/hr
E. 12 km/hr
Correct Answer: B. 15 km/hr 
Solution
Let speeds – 4x and 5x

So on Monday
27/(4x-3) + 27/(5x+3) = 9/2
Solve, x = 3
So downstream speed = 5x = 15 km/hr
Q68.
for more join

On Tuesday, Ratio of speed of boat in still water in going upstream to downstream is 3 : 8. Also
di erence in speed of boat in still water in going upstream and downstream is 5 km/hr. If the total
time taken by boat to cover upstream and downstream distance is 14 hours on Tuesday, nd the
speed of stream on Tuesday. (2 Marks)
A. 2 km/hr
B. 1 km/hr
C. 3 km/hr
D. 2.5 km/hr
E. 1.5 km/hr
Correct Answer: B. 1 km/hr 
Solution
8x and 3x, Also 8x – 3x = 5

So x = 1, speeds are 8 and 3 km/hr
So for Tuesday
18/(3-b) + 45/(8+b) = 14
Solve, b = 1 km/hr
Q69.
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On Wednesday, Ratio of speed of boat in still water in going upstream to downstream is 4 : 5. The
di erence between time to cover upstream distance and downstream distance is 5 hours, nd the
total time taken to cover upstream distance and downstream distance on Wednesday. (2 Marks)
A. 5 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 8 hours
E. 6 hours
Correct Answer: D. 8 hours 
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Solution
On Wednesday
39/(4x-2) – 18/(5x+2) = 5
Solving, x = 2 km/hr
So required time:
39/(8-2) + 18/(10+2) = 8 hours
Q70.
Time taken to cover the upstream distance on Thursday is 12 hours more than time taken to cover
the downstream distance on Friday. If sum of speed of boat in still water on Thursday and Friday is
11 km/hr then, nd the ratio of speed of boat in still water on Thursday toFriday. (2 Marks)
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A. 6 : 7
B. 4 : 5 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. 7 : 9
D. 5 : 6
E. 7 : 8
Correct Answer: D. 5 : 6 

Solution
Let speed of boat in still water in upstream on Thursday = xkm/h, then speed of boat in still water
in downstream on Friday = (11-x)km/h
Now
45/(x-2.5) – 54/[(11-x)+3)] = 12
15/(x-2.5) – 18/(14-x) = 4
on solving
x = 5km/h
So required ratio is 5 : 6
Q71.
The following questions are accompanied by three statements A, B and C. You have to determine
which statement(s) is/are necessary/su cient to answer the question.
A, B and C entered into a partnership. The pro t earned by them in the business is proportional to
the investment and the period of investment. If all of them invested the amount for one year and
pro t of B is Rs.45000 then what is the total pro t?
A. B invested 30% of the total amount invested by all three of them.

B. C invested 1.5 times more than that of A. A invested two-third the amount invested by B.
C. B invested 50% more than that of A and 40% less than that of C. (1 Marks)
A. Only A alone
B. Only B alone
C. Only C alone
D. Any one of the three alone
E. Either only A alone or only C alone
Correct Answer: D. Any one of the three alone 

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Solution
Ratio of B’s investment to the total investment can be obtained from any one of the three
statements alone.
Hence, the question can be answered by using any one of the three statements alone.
Q72.
What is the ratio of downstream and upstream speeds?
A. The boat goes 60 km and comes back in 5 hours.

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B. Speed of boat in still water is ve times the speed of stream.
C. The boat goes 75 km and comes back in 6 hours 15 minutes. (1 Marks)
A. All the three together
B. Only A and C together
C. Either B alone or A and C together
D. Only B alone
E. All the three together are not su cient
Correct Answer: C. Either B alone or A and C together 
Solution
Let the downstream and upstream speeds be d and u respectively.
B → Let the speed of boat in still water and the speed of stream be 5x and x respectively.
The value of d and u and hence the ratio can be calculated by using statements A and C together
as well.
Hence, the question can be answered by using either statement B alone or statements A and C
together.
Q73.
25 men can complete a work in 15 days. In how many days 10 women can complete the same
work?
A. The ratio of e ciencies of a man and a women is 6 : 5.

B. 15 women can complete 60% of the same work in 18 days.
C. Joined by 15 women, 25 men can complete the same work 5 days earlier. (1 Marks)
A. Only A alone
B. Only B alone
C. Only C alone
D. Either only A alone or only B alone
E. Any one of the three alone
Your Answer: Not Attempted for more join
Correct Answer: E. Any one of the three alone 
Solution
Let, per day e ciencies of a man and a women be M and W respectively.
Total work = 15 days’ work of 25 men = 15 × 25 × M = 375M
Hence, the question can be answered by using any one of the three statements alone.
Q74.
There are some male and female employees in an o ce. How many female employees are there
in the o ce?
A. Ratio of number of male and female employees in the o ce is 8 : 7.

B. If one employee is selected at random from all the employees, the probability of the selected
employee being male is 8/15.
C. Number of female employees in the o ce 12.5% is less than that of male employees in the
o ce. (1 Marks)
A. All the three together are not su cient
B. Either A and B together or B and C together for more join
C. Any two of the three together https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. Only A and B together
E. All the three together
Correct Answer: A. All the three together are not su cient 
Solution
A → Let the number of male and female employees in the o ce be 8x and 7x respectively.
Q75.
What is the pro t/loss % made by the shopkeeper after selling an article?
A. After selling 9 articles, shopkeeper had a pro t equal to the cost price of 2 such articles.
B. If the shopkeeper had sold one article at Rs.80 more than the original selling price, he would
have had pro t.
C. If he had sold one article at 25% less than the original selling price, he would have had loss of
Rs.60. (1 Marks)
A. Only C alone
B. Only B alone
C. Only A alone
D. Any one of the three alone for more join
E. Only B and C together
Correct Answer: C. Only A alone 
Solution
Q76.
Given below is the table showing the investment of ve persons in a business, time for which
investment made, share of pro t and percentage of pro t. Some values are missing in the table,
you have to calculate these value if necessary to answer the questions.
NOTE:- Pro t percent is calculated on total pro t made by all.
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What is the sum of pro t of A and C together if investment of A and C together is 215% of
investment of B and investment of A is 28% less than investment of C. A invested for same time as
C invested. (2 Marks)
A. 17200
B. 18900
C. 19400
D. 14200
E. None of these
Solution
Q77.
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What is the total pro t of all 5 person if pro t percentage of E is 50% more than pro t % of D. (2
Marks)
A. 40500
B. 43500
C. 42200
D. 53200
E. 38500
Solution
Q78.
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What is the total investment of C and E if E invested for one month more than C and ratio between
the time taken by both i.e. C and E is 8 : 9 (2 Marks)
A. 48000
B. 47000
C. 46000
D. 49000
E. 50000
Correct Answer: D. 49000 
Solution
Q79.
Pro t of A is what % of pro t of C if pro t of C is 350/9% of more than pro t of A. (1 Marks)

A. 72% for more join
B. 75%
C. 60%
D. 48%
E. 55%
Correct Answer: A. 72% 
Solution
Q80.
What is the di erence between the time for which investment is made by D and E if pro t of D is
28% less than pro t of C and investment of D is 50% of investment of E. (2 Marks)
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7 for more join
Your Answer: Not Attempted https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
Q81.
Read the following passage divided into number of paragraphs carefully and answer the questions
that follow it.
Paragraph 1: United States President Donald Trump nally made his move against the Iran nuclear
deal in the second week of October. In a rambling speech on October 13, he virtually repudiated
the nuclear deal the Barack Obama administration had painstakingly negotiated with Iran along
with ve other governments. Trump announced that he would not certify that Iran was complying
with the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA), as the nuclear deal is called formally.
Paragraph 2: The deadline for presidential certi cation was October 15. Trump said he was
directing his administration “to work closely with the U.S. Congress and our allies to address the
deal’s many serious aws so that the Iranian regime can never threaten the world with nuclear
weapons”. His action does not mean that the U.S. has formally withdrawn from the nuclear deal,
but it is a signi cant step forward in his professed goal of dismantling it and reintroducing
sanctions against Iran.
Paragraph 3: In his speech, Trump used the kind of jargon he used on the campaign trail to
describe the U.S.-Iran nuclear deal, calling it “one of the worst and most one-sided transactions the
United States has ever entered into”. The Iranian side had made a lot of concessions to make the
deal a reality, including the right for intrusive inspection of its nuclear facilities. When the deal was
signed in 2015, it was greeted with enthusiasm by the international community barring Israel and
the U.S.’ new-found allies in the Arab world such as Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates.
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Paragraph 4: The U.S. Congress, dominated by the Republican Party, was overwhelmingly against
the signing of the nuclear deal but could do little to stymie it. Trump has now given it another
opportunity to do so. Many Republicans are in cahoots with the rich and in uential pro-Israeli
lobby in the country. Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu had been trying his best to
scupper the deal. He met Trump before the recent developments took place. Trump chose Israel
and Saudi Arabia as his rst port of call after taking over as President in January 2017.
Paragraph 5: Trump, in his speech, demanded that the nuclear deal be renegotiated in such a way
that Iran was permanently barred from testing its missiles and conducting meaningful nuclear
research in the future. His speech against Iran, the most belligerent by any U.S. President so far,
contained a litany of lies and was littered with calumny against the Iranian people and their
leadership. Trump claimed with a straight face that the deal gave Iran “over $100 billion its
government could use to fund terrorism”. The money, rightfully belonging to Iran, was frozen in
Western banks as the draconian international and unilateral U.S. sanctions came into play. The
funds were used by the Iranian government to prop up the faltering economy. Trump claimed that
the Obama administration signed the nuclear deal with Iran when the Iranian government was on
the verge of collapsing as a result of international sanctions. Iran has never instigated war against
any nation. On the other hand, it has been targeted continuously since the Islamic Revolution of
1979. More than a million Iranians perished in the eight-year-long Iraq-Iran war of the 1980s that
was instigated by the U.S. and Saudi Arabia.
What is the reason behind Trump rejecting the nuclear deal against Iran in accordance with
paragraph 1? (1.5 Mark)
A. Trump has other plans and hence he is not giving importance to re sanctioning the deal with
Iran.
B. He does not want to engage with Iran that may involve threatening the world with recertifying
the nuclear deal.
C. As according to him, Iran is not acting in accordance with the deal sanctioned earlier during
Barack Obama’s presidency.
D. Both (b) and (c)
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: C. As according to him, Iran is not acting in accordance with the deal sanctioned
earlier during Barack Obama’s presidency. 
Solution
We can determine the answer from the following sentence of paragraph 1, “Trump announced
that he would not certify that Iran was complying with the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action
(JCPOA), as the nuclear deal is called formally.” Hence option (c) is the correct choice.
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Q82.
Read the following passage divided intohttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
number of paragraphs carefully and answer the questions
that follow it.
was instigated by the U.S. and Saudi Arabia. for more join
Trump has certain goals behind rejecting the deal with Iran. Justify.
(I) Apart from rejecting the deal, he is working towards making the deal more e cient by involving
other Arab countries with them.
(II) He is engaging his army towards alleviating the aws in this deal.
(III) He has made plans to safeguard the world from getting threatened by Iran’s nuclear attack.
(1.5 Mark)
A. Only (I)
B. Only (III)
C. Both (I) and (III)
D. Both (II) and (III)
E. All are correct
Solution
We can infer from following lines of paragraph 2 that sentence (II) and (III) are correct “to work
closely with the U.S. Congress and our allies to address the deal’s many serious aws so that the
Iranian regime can never threaten the world with nuclear weapons”. Sentence (I) is not the correct
explanation.
Q83.
that follow it.
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Paragraph 3: In his speech, Trump usedhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
the kind of jargon he used on the campaign trail to
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the paragraph 3? (1.5 Mark)
A. Trump has made necessary steps to dismantle the deal.
B. Trump wants Iran to stop testing its missiles and conducting meaningful nuclear research in the
future.
C. Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu made his best attempts to destroy the deal.
D. Iran had made a lot of negotiations to enter into the deal but failed to entertain the United Arab
Emirates and Saudi Arabia.
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: D. Iran had made a lot of negotiations to enter into the deal but failed to entertain
the United Arab Emirates and Saudi Arabia. 
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Solution
All the other sentences are not true as they are not mentioned in paragraph 3. Hence sentence (d)
is the correct choice.
Q84.
that follow it.
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Which of the following statements can follow paragraph 3 to form a connection with paragraph 4?
(1.5 Mark)
A. According to Trump, The nuclear deal was signed with Iran by Obama when Iranian government
was on the verge of collapse.
B. The Iraq- Iran war was instigated by U.S and Saudi Arabia perished millions of Iranians.
C. Trump, in his still speech strongly condemned the deal and called it as worst and one-sided
transaction.
D. Iran, among the Arab countries has never provoked any war.
E. Many republicans entities like Israel were against the nuclear deal of U.S with Iran.
Correct Answer: E. Many republicans entities like Israel were against the nuclear deal of U.S with
Iran.
Solution
Read both the paragraphs 3 and 4, they state that republicans like Israel tried their best to scupper
the deal, hence sentence (e) is making a connection with paragraph 5 if it follows paragraph 4.
Q85.
that follow it.
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United States has ever entered into”. Thehttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Iranian side had made a lot of concessions to make the
How is it correct to say, “According to Trump, Nuclear deal with Iran is precarious to others”?
(I) Trump claimed that the nuclear deal with Iran was the factor that faltered the economy.
(II) According to him, Iran could be made responsible for Iraq- Iran war that led to loss of many
lives.
(III) Trump claimed that the fund received by Iran through deal were used to fund and support
terrorism. (1.5 Mark)
A. Only (I)
B. Only (III)
C. Both (I) and (II)
D. Both (I) and (III)
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: B. Only (III) 

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Solution
Referring to the fth paragraph, we can easily conclude that only sentence (III) is true in the
context of the passage. Refer this statement from the paragraph 5, “Trump claimed with a straight
face that the deal gave Iran over $100 billion its government could use to fund terrorism.” Hence
option (b) is the correct choice.
Q86.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have
been printed in bold to help you locate them, while answering some of the questions.
AmartyaSen wrote about the Indian tradition of skepticism and heterodoxy of opinion that led to
high levels of intellectual argument. The power sector in India is a victim of this tradition at its
worst. Instead of forcefully communicating, supporting and honestly and rmly implementing
policies, people just debate them. It is argued that central undertakings produce power at lower
tari s and must therefore build most of the required extra capacities. This is a delusion. They no
longer have access to low-cost government funds.
Uncertainty about payment remains a reason for the hesitation of private investment. They had to
sell only to SEBs (state Electricity Boards), SEB balance sheets are cleaner after the “securitisation”
of the Rs. 40,000 crore or so owed by SEBs to central government undertakings, now shown as
debt instruments. But state governments have not implemented agreed plans to ensure
repayment when due. The current annual losses of around Rs. 28,000 crore make repayment
highly uncertain. The central undertakings that are their main suppliers have payment security
because the government will come to their help. Private enterprises do not have such assurance
and are concerned about payment security that must be resolved.
By the late 1990s, improving the SEB nances was recognized as fundamental to power reform.
Unbundling SEBs, working under corporate discipline and even privatization and not vertically
integrated state enterprises, is necessary for e cient and nancially viable electricity enterprises.
Since government will not distance itself from managing them, privatizing is an option. The Delhi
model has worked. But it receives no public support.
The Electricity Act 2003, the APRDP (Accelerated Power Reform and Development Programme)
with its incentives and penalties, and the creation of creation of independent regulatory
commissions, were the means to bring about reforms to improve nancial viability of power
sector. Implementation has been halfhearted and results disappointing. The concurrent nature of
electricity in the Constitution impedes power sector improvement. States are more responsive to
populist pressures than the central government, and less inclined to take drastic action against
electricity thieves.
Captive power would add signi cantly to capacity. However, captive generation, three years after
the Act enabled it, has added little to capacity because rules for open access were delayed.
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Rede ned captive generation avoids state vetoes on purchase or sale of electricity except to state
electricity enterprises. Mandating open access on state-owned wires to power regardless of
ownership and customer would encourage electricity trading. The Act recognized electricity
trading as a separate activity. A surcharge on transmission charges will pay for cross-subsidies.
These were to be eliminated in time. Rules for open access and quantum of surcharge by each
state commission (under broad principles de ned by the central commission) have yet to be
announced by some. The few who have announced by some, the few who have announced the
surcharge have kept it so high that no trading can take place.
The author thinks it appropriate to____ (1.5 Mark)

A. discuss any policy in details and make it fool proof instead of implementing it hastily.
B. follow Indian tradition meticulously as skepticism is essential for major decisions.
C. divert our energies from fruitlessly contracting policies to supporting its implementation whole
heartedly.
D. intellectual arguments and conceptualization of every policy is de nitely better than its
enforcement.
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. divert our energies from fruitlessly contracting policies to supporting its
implementation whole heartedly. 
Solution
Refer the third sentence of the rst paragraph.
Q87.
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Why are the Central undertakings not capable of generating power at low cost? (1.5 Mark)
A. Due to paucity of low-cost funds
B. Due to their access to Government funds
C. Due to their delusion about government funds
D. Because of their extra capacities
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Due to paucity of low-cost funds 
Solution
Refer the last sentence of the rst paragraph.
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Q88.
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Which of the following is the reason for apathy of private investors in power sector?
(1.5 Mark)
A. Their hesitation
B. Uncertainty of their survival
C. Cut-throat competition
D. Lack of guarantee of timely returns
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Lack of guarantee of timely returns 
Solution
Refer the rst sentence of the second paragraph.
Q89.
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commissions, were the means to bring https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
about reforms to improve nancial viability of power
What was the serious omission on the part of the State Government? (1.5 Mark)
A. Agreement for late recovery of dues
B. Reluctance to repay to private investors as per agreed plan
C. Non-implementation of recovery due to unplanned and haphazard policies
D. Lack of assurance from private enterprises
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Reluctance to repay to private investors as per agreed plan 
Solution
Refer the fourth sentence of the second paragraph.
Q90.
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Which of the following is/are considered necessary for improving performance of electricity
enterprises?
(A) Corporate work culture

(B) Privatisation
(C) Properly integrated State enterprises
(1.5 Mark)
A. All the three
B. (A) and (B) only for more join
C. (A) and (C) only
D. (B) and (C) only
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. All the three 
Solution
Refer the second sentence of the third paragraph.
Q91.
In each of the following questions ve options are given, of which one word is most nearly the
same or opposite in meaning to the given word in the question. Find the correct option having
either same or opposite meaning.
CHASTE (1 Mark)
A. Whimsical
B. Inane
C. Abstaining
D. Rendezvous
E. Frivolous
Correct Answer: C. Abstaining 
Solution
Chaste and abstaining are similar in meaning.
Abstain means to restrain oneself from doing or enjoying something.
Rendezvous means a meeting at an agreed time and place.
Frivolous means not having any serious purpose or value.
Whimsical means playfully quaint or fanciful, especially in an appealing and amusing way.
Inane means lacking sense or meaning; silly.
Q92.
PORTEND (1 Mark)
A. Persecute
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B. Castigate https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. Maraud
D. Forebode
E. Ameliorate
Correct Answer: D. Forebode 

Solution
Portend (be a sign or warning that (something, especially something momentous or calamitous) is
likely to happen) and forebode ( (of a situation or occurrence) which means act as an advance
warning of (something bad)) are similar in meaning.
Persecute -- subject (someone) to hostility and ill-treatment, especially because of their race or
political or religious beliefs.
Maraud— go about in search of things to steal or people to attack.
Ameliorate--- the act of making something better; improvement.
Castigate ---- reprimand (someone) severely.
Q93.
CENSURE (1 Mark)
A. Commendation
B. Assiduous
C. Inveigle
D. Entice
E. Leisurely
Correct Answer: A. Commendation 
Solution
Censure means to express severe disapproval of (someone or something), especially in a formal
statement hence Commendation which means to formally or o cially praise is the word which is
most opposite in meaning.
Assiduous means showing great care and perseverance.
Entice means to attract or tempt by o ering pleasure or advantage.
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Inveigle means to persuade (someone) to do something by means of deception or attery.
Q94.
CALAMITY (1 Mark)
A. Stringent
B. A iction
C. Advent
D. Aberrant
E. In exible
Correct Answer: B. A iction 
Solution
Calamity means an event causing great and often sudden damage or distress; a disaster hence
a iction which means a cause of pain or harm is the word which is most similar in meaning.
Advent -- the arrival of a notable person or thing.
Aberrant -----departing from an accepted standard.
Q95.
Vested (1 Mark)
A. Bestowed
B. Chide
C. Proscribe
D. Garble
E. Acquiesce
Correct Answer: A. Bestowed 

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Solution
Vested means to confer or bestow (power, authority, property, etc.) on someone hence bestowed
is the word which is most similar in meaning.
Proscribe means to denounce or condemn.
Acquiesce means to accept something reluctantly but without protest.
Garble means to reproduce in a confused and distorted way.
Q96.
Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From
the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Since 2011, the author estimates that close to Rs4 trillion of shareholder value was eroded when
the stock price of non-performing assets (NPA) and stressed companies fell by 95% to 99% from
their pre-default days. _______________________________. Speci cally, it refers to the failure of the
defaulted company’s management and board to promptly disclose the company’s default to the
exchange. To the extent that a debt-servicing default can potentially erode equity value, in terms
of shareholder impact it ranks in the same category as mergers/acquisitions. The absence of
prompt disclosure is a disservice to investors. (1 Mark)
A. This massive erosion of shareholder value is a direct outcome of a system-wide corporate
governance failure.
B. It appears that incompetent boards thrive under ignorant, apathetic investors.
C. The board of directors and senior management shall conduct themselves so as to meet the
expectations of operational transparency to stakeholders.
D. Of course one may argue that a BoD may not have access to information on whether the
company was defaulting on any nancial obligation.
E. In the same quarter last year, the bank recorded a net pro t of Rs405.14 crore.
Correct Answer: A. This massive erosion of shareholder value is a direct outcome of a system-wide
corporate governance failure. 
Solution
The given paragraph is about the erosion of shareholder value due to Non-Performing Assets
(NPA) and the failure of the defaulted company’s management and board to promptly disclose the
company’s default to the exchange. Among the given options, there is only sentence (a) ts
perfectly into the blank space. The sentence adds meaning to the paragraph and at the same time
it correctly follows the rst sentence of the paragraph. Other options are irrelevant in the context
of the paragraph. Hence (a) is the correct choice.
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Q97.
The parameter of data protection already serves as a great challenge with respect to online
services. The future of data aggregation, globalized sensor proliferation, and personalization
would require the augmented services to adopt common legal frameworks to ensure security and
privacy. __________________________________________. Cyber criminals might have found a new
resource in the form of Aadhaar, which is linked to vital information sources such as bank
accounts and mobile numbers of every Indian. It is important for authorities to be on their toes in
safeguarding the same from future unknown hacking techniques. (1 Mark)
A. Instead of physically hijacking a plane, cyber criminals can hack into the management systems
of aircrafts and hijack or crash a plane.
B. Misuse of augmented and virtual reality can be exploited for frauds and social engineering
attacks.
C. Countries might exercise sovereignty rights for setting their speci c rules with respect to when
data should be stored and processed by di erent authorities for reliable and legitimate purposes.
D. With advancements in digitization, organizations, individual as well as defence establishments
would be potential targets of cyber criminal activities.
E. The rise of cybercrime in the current years serves as a great signal for the incrementing societal
engagement in issues of data protection and internet governance.
Correct Answer: C. Countries might exercise sovereignty rights for setting their speci c rules with
respect to when data should be stored and processed by di erent authorities for reliable and
legitimate purposes. 
Solution
The given paragraph is about the rise of cyber crime and the need to maintain data protection and
privacy. Read the sentence following the blank space, it can be inferred from the sentence that
only sentence (c) ts into the sentence perfectly. Other sentences are though common to the topic
but they can be eliminated owing to their reference in the paragraph. Thus they are irrelevant to
this particular paragraph. Hence (c) is the correct choice.
Q98.
It may be said that some of Stalin’s actions were no di erent from those of the European regimes
in their colonies. While this is indeed correct, the colonial powers had not come into being
for more join
promising emancipation of the oppressed. Churchill may have sucked grain out of Bengal thus
tipping it into famine, but then he was unabashedly racist. On the other hand, the communist
movement that eventually gave birth to the Russian Revolution was premised on the promise of
power to the people. _______________________________________________. (1 Mark)
A. For the next three decades, his role was not unlike that of the Tsar who had been deposed.
B. Instead, under Stalin, it gave rise to a bureaucracy, the rationale of which was to maintain the
regime perpetrated by the communist party.
C. Underlying this is the brilliant Marxian construction that all value is created by labour, entitling
them to a larger share of the surplus than the bare necessities for their reproduction.
D. This mattered for the economy, for otherwise hard currency would have had to be earned on
the international market before these goods could be had.
E. While they may have been right when they wrote this, it was a while before the vision could
have an e ect.
Correct Answer: B. Instead, under Stalin, it gave rise to a bureaucracy, the rationale of which was
to maintain the regime perpetrated by the communist party. 
Solution
Read the paragraph carefully, it is about the communist movement which ultimately led to the
Russian Revolution. The sentence prior to the blank space indicates that the following sentence
should either be comparative or contrasting. Moreover, the names of some of the greatest
communists suggest that the sentence (b) would t into the space perfectly. It also concludes the
paragraph in the most logical and contextual manner and thus maintaining the theme of the
paragraph throughout. Other options fail to connect with the ow of the paragraph. Hence (b) is
the correct choice.
Q99.
One of the cardinal reasons why bitcoins, or for that matter any other crypto currencies, are not
trusted enough for actual transactions is their lack of legal tender and the absence of regulations.
But this may change soon. _____________________________________. Kenneth Rogo , professor of
economics and public policy at Harvard University, views regulatory pressure from governments
as a major reason for the prices of bitcoins to collapse in the long run. Monetary authorities do not
tend to view competing currencies on favourable terms. Anonymous transactions in bitcoins not
only encourage tax evasion and capital ight but also aid criminal activities because both the
source and end usage are unknown. (1 Mark) for more join
A. Devoid of that trust, however, bitcoin will continue to be a speculative bet driven by market
momentum until its prices eventually collapse under its own weight.
B. As bitcoin does not generate cash ows, it is not possible to value it as an asset.
C. But do cryptocurrencies merit a position as an asset class in an investor’s portfolio?
D. In contrast, pricing requires us to make a judgement about the future market price of an asset,
mainly based on the market mood and momentum.
E. The Securities and Exchange Board of India, for instance, is working on a framework to regulate
bitcoins.
Correct Answer: E. The Securities and Exchange Board of India, for instance, is working on a
framework to regulate bitcoins. 
Solution
The paragraph is all about the legality of crypto currencies, especially bitcoins. It states the reason
why bitcoins are not trusted for actual transactions and the problems it may raise in the long run.
There is a very clear clue given in the paragraph, “ But this may change soon,” which indicates that
the sentence following it will be related to the same. Among the given options, only the sentence
(e) gives the most logical attachment to its prior sentence. Other options are irrelevant in the
context of the paragraph. Hence (e) is the correct choice.
Q100.
Should India spend over Rs. 1 lakh crore for a 508-km HSR used by well-heeled passengers when
over 90% of rail passengers in India travel by sleeper class or lower class for thousands of
kilometres? Project supporters argue that one should not view these as either-or propositions.
Unfortunately, one is only seeing expensive projects for the upper classes so far, such as the
misleadingly named ‘smart cities’.
______________________________________. (1 Mark)
A. The bullet train is a wasteful project which only serves to deliver an illusory feel-good perception
among the wealthy.
B. Subsidies for agriculture, education and healthcare are taboo, but subsidies for the rich seem
unproblematic.
C. It realised only 50% of the projected ridership and required government bailout.
D. When will the Railways see investment for new tracks and upgrading services for 90% of the
travelling public?
E. The present system of running trains on a congested network at the cost of maintenance and
safety has to give way to safety consciousness in operations.
for more join
Correct Answer: D. When will the Railways see investment for new tracks and upgrading services
for 90% of the travelling public? 
Solution
The paragraph gives a clear view that it is giving out an argumentative approach on the project of
bullet train in India. The paragraph begins with an interrogation, questioning the challenges that
seem to be factually true. Thus it would be more appropriate if the conclusion also follows the
same suit. Among the given options, the sentence (e) makes a valid conclusion adding more
strength to the viewpoint of the author. Other options, though similar to the topic, are not relevant
enough to be the part of the paragraph. Hence (e) is the correct choice.
Q101.
Five statements are given below, labelled a, b, c, d and e. Among these, four statements are in
logical order and form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the option that does
not t into the theme of the paragraph. (1 Mark)
A. As these problems recede, coal might start looking attractive once again, at least from a
commercial point of view.
B. It is worth noting that coal-based thermal power plants in India have declined in importance
over the past few years partly because of commercial considerations.
C. And given that coal remains the cheapest source of power, it will continue to be a tempting
option for an emerging economy with a large power de cit.
D. The pile of bad debt and overcapacity in the sector has made investments in new thermal
power plants relatively unattractive.
E. It remains to be seen whether India signals that shift at Bonn, or chooses to stay the course for
now.
Correct Answer: E. It remains to be seen whether India signals that shift at Bonn, or chooses to
stay the course for now. 
Solution
The paragraph talks about the coal-based thermal power plants in India that have declined in
importance over the past few years due to excess of bad debt and overcapacity in the power
sector. It can be viewed in the sequence of “ bdac” which forms the coherent paragraph. Option (e)
doesn’t t in this sequence as it refers to some shift which has no connection with any other
sentences. Hence option (e) is the correct choice of elimination.
Q102.
for more join
A. Both dimensions are necessary and we should take a cue from China which has developed a
network of 22,000 km of HSR over the past 15 years.
B. But, as they say, the devil always lies in the details.
C. These investments are not comparable as these are not alternative choices at all.
D. Comparing the investment in the bullet train project with investment in renovation and
upgradation of conventional railways is odious.
E. It plans to expand it to 30,000 km by 2020.
Correct Answer: B. But, as they say, the devil always lies in the details. 
Solution
The sentences in the sequence of “ dcae ” form a coherent paragraph which throws light on the
statistical gures of the bullet train project. Among the given options, only option (b) nds no
connection with any of the other sentences of the paragraph as it is referring to some details
having no relevance in any other sentences. Hence (b) is the correct choice of elimination.
Q103.
A. A rider is an add-on cover to the base policy that provides additional bene ts.
B. You can do that by buying a term life rider.
C. Life insurance companies o er a range of optional riders that you can buy at an additional
premium to suit your needs.
D. The bene ts of this get passed on to you and you may end up buying a rider a tad cheaper than
a standalone policy.
E. How do you increase the life insurance element in a bundled plan?
Correct Answer: D. The bene ts of this get passed on to you and you may end up buying a rider a
tad cheaper than a standalone policy. 
Solution
The sentences in the sequence of “ ebac ” form a coherent paragraph which talks about the life
insurance element “ life rider.” Read the sentence given as option (d) which indicates about the
for more join
bene ts of something which nds no relevance from any other sentences. Thus it doesn’t belong
to the paragraph so formed. Hence option (d) is the correct choice of elimination.
Q104.
A. The money received from winning lotteries, games shows, crossword puzzles, races—including
horse races—are considered as ‘income from other sources’.
B. The rate of tax can vary because while cess of 3% of the tax is charged for all income groups,
the surcharge 10% and 15% of the amount of tax is applicable if the net taxable income of an
assessee exceeds Rs50 lakh and Rs1 crore respectively.
C. Although she won Rs1 crore, a substantial amount from it will go towards the income tax.
D. However, as per section 115BB of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the entire income from above
sources will attract tax at the rate of 30%, along with applicable cess and surcharge.
E. This means, the total tax on these winnings can be as high as 35.53%, depending on your
income-tax slab.
Correct Answer: C. Although she won Rs1 crore, a substantial amount from it will go towards the
income tax. 
Solution
The sentences in the sequence of “ adeb ” form a coherent paragraph which is all about the
taxable incomes from winning lotteries, games shows, crossword puzzles, races—including horse
races that come under the Income-tax Act, 1961. Among the given options, the sentence (c) nds
no relevant match with any other sentences as the mention of “she” in the sentence (c) nds no
connectivity. Thus it doesn’t belong to the paragraph so formed. Hence (c) is the correct choice of
elimination.
Q105.
A. It is set up in a ‘free market’ economic paradigm where rational economic agents maximize
utility by analysing all available information to participate in market equilibrium.
B. Thaler’s Nobel Prize win is a huge push back to this bull-headed sticking of market
fundamentalists to a perfect vision that only they can see, of the world that ies in the face of the
real world. for more join
C. The rst thing to change will be disclosures that rms make on nancial products.
D. Disclosures will move to being machine readable and the manner of disclosure will take on a
much bigger importance.
E. If behavioural economics begins to in uence policy and regulation in retail nance, I anticipate
changes in the way the game is set up.
Correct Answer: A. It is set up in a ‘free market’ economic paradigm where rational economic
agents maximize utility by analysing all available information to participate in market equilibrium.
 
Solution
The sentences in the sequence of “ becd ” form a coherent paragraph which is about the
behavioral economics and its mechanisms. The paragraph brings the special mention of Thaler’s
Nobel Prize win. Among the given options, except the sentence (a), all other sentences are
interconnected following a logical a string to form a coherent paragraph. The sentence (a) fails to
be the part of the paragraph so formed. Hence option (a) is the correct choice of elimination.
Q106.
In questions given below there are two statements, each statement consists of two blanks. You
have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that ts both the blanks in both
the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically
correct.
(1)Inequities cannot be _____________ without absolute will, and the _____________ of company
leadership.
(2)There was the dreary monotone of _____________ hope in Porter's voice as he spoke about the
lost ______________. (1 Mark)
A. humbled, obligation
B. ruined, stipulation
C. subjugated, concordat
D. crushed, commitment
E. separated, diligence
Correct Answer: D. crushed, commitment 
Solution for more join

“crushed, commitment” is the correct set of words that t perfectly into both the sentences adding
appropriate meanings to both the sentences. It is to be noted that the word “ crushed” in the rst
case will be used as a verb which means “ deform, pulverize, or force inwards by compressing
forcefully; compressed.” In the second sentence, the word “ crushed” will be used as an adjective
which means “ exhibiting mental discomfort, ill at ease.” The other word “ commitment” means “
the state or quality of being dedicated to a cause, activity, etc.” Hence (d) is the correct choice.
Stipulation means a condition or requirement that is speci ed or demanded as part of an
agreement.
Concordat means an agreement or treaty, especially one between the Vatican and a secular
government relating to matters of mutual interest.
Subjugated means bring under domination or control, especially by conquest.
Diligence means careful and persistent work or e ort.
Q107.
correct.
(1)Diversity must be everyone’s _____________, and that can be fostered by creating ______________
structures.
(2)These were arranged in accordance with their claim to _____________, especially considering their
______________ e orts. (1 Mark)
A. priority, collaborative
B. underlining, planned
C. prerogative, acquiescent
D. perquisite, favorable
E. liberty, corresponding
Correct Answer: A. priority, collaborative 
Solution
“priority, collaborative” is the correct set of words that t perfectly into both the sentences adding
appropriate meanings to both the sentences. The word “ priority” means “ the fact or condition of
being regarded or treated as more important than others.” The other word “ collaborative” means
“ produced by or involving two or more parties working together.” Hence (a) is the correct option.
Prerogative means a right or privilege exclusive to a particular individual or class.
Acquiescent means ready to accept something without protest, or to do what someone else
wants. for more join
Perquisite means a bene t which one enjoys or is entitled to on account of one's job or position.
Q108.
correct.
(1)The language of the veda is a rhythm, a ___________ word that vibrated out of the ____________ to
the inner self of man.
(2)There is an entrance to the ___________ mind through bearing the cross which enlightens the
____________ world of oblivion. (1 Mark)
A. luscious, eeting
B. divine, in nite
C. glorious, intermittent
D. fancy, illimitable
E. tantalizing, pervading
Correct Answer: B. divine, in nite 
Solution
“divine, in nite” is the correct set of words that t perfectly into both the sentences. The word “
divine” means “ devoted to God; sacred.” The other word “ in nite” means “ limitless or endless in
space, extent, or size; impossible to measure or calculate.” Hence (b) is the correct choice.
Luscious means appealing strongly to the senses; pleasingly rich.
Fleeting means lasting for a very short time.
Intermittent means occurring at irregular intervals; not continuous or steady.
Illimitable means without limits or an end.
Tantalizing means tormenting or teasing (someone) with the sight or promise of something that is
unobtainable.
Pervading means being present and apparent throughout.
Q109.
correct.
(1) Bookshops are also a _____________ that the manner in which books are made available to us
for more join
changes with our sense of distance, time, ____________ and leisure.
(2)A rental charge of 25 cents-per day serves as a ______________ to most customers that
____________ is not always an easy option. (1 Mark)
A. key, kinetics
B. scepter, passage
C. reminder, mobility
D. symbol, resilience
E. wink, regression
Correct Answer: C. reminder, mobility 
Solution
“reminder, mobility” is the correct set of words that t perfectly into both the sentences. The word
“ reminder” means “ a thing that causes someone to remember something.” The other word “
mobility” means “ the ability to move or be moved freely and easily.” Hence (c) is the correct
choice.
Kinetics means the rates of chemical or biochemical reaction.
Scepter means an ornamented sta carried by rulers on ceremonial occasions as a symbol of
sovereignty.
Resilience means the capacity to recover quickly from di culties; toughness.
Regression means a return to a former or less developed state.
Q110.
correct.
(1) The harsh reality consists of the conditions of _____________ in which the iron law of the market
economy as an invisible factor of power or force is self-serving and thereby intensi es inequality
and _______________.
(2)The _______________ was as great as that between certainty and uncertainty, adequacy and
________________. (1 Mark)
A. peculiarity, straits
B. gap, weakness
C. oppression, disaster
D. imparity, pauperism
E. inequality, impoverishment
Your Answer: Not Attempted for more join
Correct Answer: E. inequality, impoverishment 
Solution
“inequality, impoverishment” is the correct set of words that t into both the sentences perfectly.
The word “ inequality” means “ di erence in size, degree, circumstances, etc.; lack of equality.” The
other word “ impoverishment” means “ the process of becoming poor; loss of wealth.” Hence (e) is
the correct choice.
Straits means used in reference to a situation characterized by a speci ed degree of trouble or
di culty.
Oppression means prolonged cruel or unjust treatment or exercise of authority.
Imparity means di erence.
Pauperism means inability to pay debts.
Q111.
There are four sentences given in each question. Find the sentence(s) which is/are grammatically
correct and mark your answer choosing the best possible alternative among the ve options given
below each question. If all sentences are correct, choose (E) as your answer.
(I)Social skills refer to the communication skills that allow people to interact e ectively and
appropriately with others.
(II)Saat Hindustani, also known for introducing Amitabh Bachchan, won the best lm on national
integration award for its portrayal of involvement of persons from di erent parts of India in the
freedom struggle of Goa.
(III)Chitrasutra of Vishnudharmottara Porana, which was composed out of earlier oral traditions in
the fth century AD, is perhaps the oldest treatise on art in the world.
(IV)It is no wonder that USA ranks 25th in math competency among 34 developed nations
according to one survey and behind countries like China, Singapore, South Korea and Finland. (1
Mark)
A. Only (I) is correct
B. Only (IV) is correct
C. Both (I) and (II) are correct
D. Only (I), (II) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: E. All are correct 
Solution
All the four given sentences are grammatically correct. Hence (e) is the correct choice.
for more join
The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts which contain
grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence, as speci ed in bold in each part.
If there is an error in any part of the sentence, nd the correct alternatives to replace those parts
from the three options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If
the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (E), i.e., “No
correction required” as your answer.
For today politics has become a very pro table occupation, a no holds barred contest (I)/to amass
unearned fortunes, and there is a little or no investigation into politicians (II)/with assets more
than its legal source of income. (III)
(I)has been a very pro ting

(II)there is little
(III)their legal sources of income (1 Mark)
A. Only (I)
B. Only (II)
C. Both (I) and (III)
D. Both (II) and (III)
E. No correction required
Solution
The rst part of the sentence is grammatically correct and thus it doesn’t require any correction. In
the second part of the sentence, the phrase “ there is a little” should be replaced by “ there is little”
as the quanti er ‘ a little’ means something that is not much in quantity, while ‘ little’ means
something that is almost nil. In this case, there is almost no knowledge of a certain fact which can
be veri ed by the phrase following the bold part, “ or no investigation.” In the third part of the
sentence, the phrase “ its legal source of income” should be replaced by “ their legal sources of
income” as the relative pronoun should be in plural form as the noun it refers, “ politicians ” is in
plural. Thus both the second and the third part require the correction in their bold parts to make
the sentence grammatically correct. Hence (d) is the correct choice.
Q113.
In the questions given below, there are four sentences given in each question. Choose the
sentence which is grammatically incorrect as your answer. If all the given sentences are
grammatically correct and do not require any correction, choose (E) i.e. “All are correct” as your
for more join
answer . (1 Mark)
A. It is advisable that while we live, we create a larger ‘circle of goodness and goodwill’ by touching
as many life as possible by the dint of our altruistic or sel ess Karmic actions.
B. The various religions are nothing but spatio-temporal expressions of humans trying to come to
terms with their initial realities when they were in the Hobbesian ‘State of Nature’.
C. Shinzo Abe has won a robust mandate to buttress his hardline stance against North Korea,
which had only very recently red a missile that splashed into the Sea of Japan, not to forget Kim
Jong-Un’s threat to “sink Japan”.
D. In the past, societies tended to reinforce values that emphasise collectivism, co-operation, social
obligations and self-restraint and discouraged those that promote self-indulgence and narrow
individualism.
E. All are correct.
Correct Answer: A. It is advisable that while we live, we create a larger ‘circle of goodness and
goodwill’ by touching as many life as possible by the dint of our altruistic or sel ess Karmic actions.
 
Solution
There is a grammatical error in only the rst sentence, the phrase “ by touching as many life as
possible” should be replaced by “ by touching as many lives as possible” as the phrase “ as many
as ” used in the sentence indicates that the noun it refers should be in plural. The phrase “ as
many as ” means a number equal to a particular number of people, things etc. Thus the word
“lives” should be used in place of “life” to make the sentence grammatically correct. Hence (a) is
the correct choice.
Q114.
There are three sentences given in each question. Find the sentence(s) which is/are grammatically
correct and mark your answer choosing the best possible alternative among the ve options given
below each question. If all the sentences are correct, choose (E) as your answer.
(I)Many cities in developed countries are now trying to recover from a car-dominated development
era by halting addition of more infrastructure for private vehicles and re-allocating road space for
public transport and non-motorized transport.
(II)The dollar, the most important currency since 1944 in the world, became in the mid-1970s the
most important reserve currency since oil, most important and most traded commodity in the
world, has been mandatorily traded in dollars only.
(III) After completing 35 days of his Bharat Yatra which was aimed at creating awareness for child
rights and protection from sexual abuse and tra cking, Satyarthi in an interview spoke at length
about his desire to end child abuse in the country. (1 Mark)for more join
A. Only (I) is correct
B. Only (III) is correct https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. Both (II) and (III) are correct
D. Both (I) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: B. Only (III) is correct 

Solution
In the rst sentence, there is a minor error, the phrase “more infrastructure” should be replaced
by “more infrastructures” as the use of the adjective “ more ” clearly indicates that the noun it
signi es should in plural form. In the second sentence, the phrase used for “ oil,” “most important
and most traded commodity” should be replaced by “ the most important and most traded
commodity ” as there will be a use of the direct article “ the ” before “ most important ” to make the
sentence grammatically correct. The third sentence is grammatically correct and thus it doesn’t
require any correction. Hence (b) is the correct choice.
Q115.
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions that follow.
If the sentence (D), “It is often assumed that resources can be raised by rationalizing subsidies and
capturing a part of the revenue forgone on account of various tax exemptions, including in the
personal income tax.” is the rst sentence of the paragraph, then what is the sequence of other
sentences after rearrangement?
(A)These may not happen.

(B)In any case, a part of it is now out of the system with the implementation of the goods and
services tax.
(C)The revenue forgone in most cases is optical and the result of poor design.
(D)It is often assumed that resources can be raised by rationalizing subsidies and capturing a part
of the revenue forgone on account of various tax exemptions, including in the personal income
tax.
(E)It is always advisable for the government to work on reducing non-merit subsidies, but the gains
should be used to increase capital spending, which will help boost growth in the medium-to-long
term.
(F)Further, politically, it will be extremely di cult to roll back subsidies in order to create scal
space for Universal Basic Income. (1 Mark)
A. BEFAC for more join
B. EBACF
C. CABFE https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. ACBFE
E. ABCEF
Correct Answer: D. ACBFE 
Solution
If (D) is the rst sentence, the correct sequence of other sentences after rearrangement should be
ACBFE. The inclusion of the term “assumed” in the sentence (D) indicates the presence of
uncertainty; thus the sentence that would come next will be (A). Moreover, sentences (D), (A) and
(C) make common link that form a logical string. The sentence (E) forms the concluding sentence
of the paragraph so formed. Thus sentences in the sequence of DACBFE form a coherent
paragraph which is about Universal Basic Income. Hence (d) is the correct choice.
Q116.
Securities Appellate Tribunal is a/an __________ established under the provisions of Section 15K of
the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
A. Constitutional body
B. Advisory body
C. Non-statutory body
D. Statutory body
E. None of the given options is true
Correct Answer: D. Statutory body 
Solution
Securities Appellate Tribunal is a statutory body established under the provisions of Section 15K of
the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 to hear and dispose of appeals against
orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India or by an adjudicating o cer under
the Act and to exercise jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on the Tribunal by or under
this Act or any other law for the time being in force.
Q117.
Name the state Government that has announced the Garments and Apparel Policy-2017, with the
aim of creating more opportunities in the garment sector of the state.
A. Kerala
B. Rajasthan
C. Madhya Pradesh
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D. Maharashtra https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. Gujarat
Correct Answer: E. Gujarat 
Solution
Gujarat Government has announced the Garments and Apparel Policy-2017, with the aim of
creating more opportunities in the garment sector of Gujarat and to create huge employment
opportunities for women through the apparel industry.
Q118.
Which of the following is a function of SEBI?
A. to approve by-laws of stock exchanges.
B. inspect the books of accounts of nancial intermediaries.
C. to require the stock exchange to amend their by-laws.
D. compel certain companies to list their shares in one or more stock exchanges.
E. All of the Above
Correct Answer: E. All of the Above 
Solution
Function of SEBI:
1. To approve by-laws of stock exchanges.
2. Inspect the books of accounts of nancial intermediaries.
3. To require the stock exchange to amend their by-laws.
4. Compel certain companies to list their shares in one or more stock exchanges.
Q119.
The State Bank of India (SBI) has launched a new initiative, called ____________ to provide a short-
term working capital demand loan to its MSME clients.
A. MSME Support
B. MSME Assist
C. SME Support
D. SME Assist
E. MSME Complaint
for more join
Correct Answer: D. SME Assist https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
The State Bank of India has launched a new product to provide a short-term working capital
demand loan to its MSME clients. The new initiative, called SME Assist, would o er loans to MSME
customers on the basis of their input credit claims under Goods and Services Tax (GST).
Q120.
Credit rating is _______
A. is used to rate the borrowers while giving advances
B. is used to work out performance of the employees
C. is used to calculate the number of excellent audit rated branches
D. is not used in any bank
E. is necessary before giving promotion to employees
Correct Answer: A. is used to rate the borrowers while giving advances 
Solution
Credit rating is an analysis of the credit risks associated with a nancial instrument or a nancial
entity.An assessment of the creditworthiness of a borrower with respect to a particular debt or
nancial obligation.
Q121.
To become BBPOUs, Banks and non-bank entities are mandatorily required to apply for
approval/authorization to Reserve Bank of India under ________
A. Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act 2007
B. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
C. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D. SARFAESI Act, 2002
E. None of the given options is true
Correct Answer: A. Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act 2007 
Solution
To become BBPOUs, Banks and non-bank entities are mandatorily required to apply for approval /
authorization to Reserve Bank of India under Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act 2007.
Bharat Bill Payment Operating Units (BBPOUs) will be the authorised operational units.
for more join
Forbes has released a list of the top 100 most powerful Arab business women for 2017. Which of
the following country represents the highest number of women in that list?
A. USA
B. Egypt
C. UAE
D. Sweden
E. Denmark
Correct Answer: C. UAE 
Solution
Forbes has released a list of the top 100 most powerful Arab business women for 2017, and the
UAE represents the highest number of women, with 18, followed by Egypt, with 16.
Q123.
__________ are certi cates issued by banks that have overreached their priority sector lending
targets.
A. Commercial Papers
B. Certi cate of Deposits
C. Treasury Bills
D. Priority Sector Lending Certi cates
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Priority Sector Lending Certi cates 
Solution
Domestic banks, as well as foreign banks, have to lend of their total loans to priority sectors which
consist of agriculture, micro credits, education, social infrastructure and housing so that these
unprivileged sections can get credit. To encourage lending to the priority sector, the central bank
has introduced the concept of Priority Sector Lending Certi cates (PSLC).
Q124.
How many languages are available on BHIM to improve user experience?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10
for more join
E. 12 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
BHIM app currently supports 12 languages (including English), though there are totally 22 of the
o cial languages of India (excluding English) under 8th Schedule of Constitution of India, In near
future BHIM app is expected to support all 22 o cial languages of India along with other regional
languages which were spoken widely next to the scheduled languages.
Q125.
Which among the following public sector Banks and state-run rm BSNL teamed up to roll out
open mobile wallet Speedpay across 10 states in the country.
A. State Bank of India
B. Punjab National Bank
C. Indian Overseas Bank
D. Bank of Baroda
E. Central Bank of India
Correct Answer: B. Punjab National Bank 
Solution
Punjab National Bank and state-run rm BSNL teamed up to roll out open mobile wallet Speedpay
across 10 states in the country. PNB Speedway wallet will operate like any other mobile wallet for
paying bills, recharging phone besides its users will be able to deposit and withdraw money from
authorized retail outlets.
Q126.
___________ refer to both scheduled and non-scheduled commercial banks which are regulated
under Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
A. State Bank of India and its Associates
B. Foreign Banks
C. Regional Rural Banks
D. Nationalised Banks
E. Commercial Banks
for more join
Correct Answer: E. Commercial Banks 
Solution
Commercial Banks refer to both scheduled and non-scheduled commercial banks which are
regulated under Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Q127.
HDFC Bank surpassed Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) to become the country’s second most
valued rm in terms of market valuation on the BSE. Which company is the country’s most valued
rm with a market cap of Rs. 5,33,818.72 crore on the BSE?
A. Infosys Limited
B. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited
C. Wipro Limited
D. Tata Power
E. Reliance Industries Limited
Correct Answer: E. Reliance Industries Limited 
Solution
Sol. HDFC Bank surpassed Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) to become the country’s second most
valued rm in terms of market valuation. Shares of HDFC Bank gained 0.93 per cent to Rs. 1,840
(its 52-week high) on the BSE. Reliance Industries Ltd is the country’s most valued rm with a
market cap of Rs. 5,33,818.72 crore followed by HDFC Bank and TCS in top three list.
Q128.
Which of the following was implemented by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) for
Banks, Financial Institutions, corporate etc.?
A. National Automated Clearing House (NACH)
B. National Automatic Clearing House (NACH)
C. National Automated Cleared House (NACH)
D. National Automatic Cleared House (NACH)
E. Nominal Automatic Cleared House (NACH)
Correct Answer: A. National Automated Clearing House (NACH) 
Solution for more join

A web based solution to facilitate interbank, high volume, electronic transactions which are
repetitive and periodic in nature. National Automated Clearing House (NACH) System can be used
for making bulk transactions towards the distribution of subsidies, dividends, interest, salary,
pension etc. and also for bulk transactions towards the collection of payments pertaining to
telephone, electricity, water, loans, investments in mutual funds, insurance, premium etc.
Q129.
The theme for International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer 2017 is ______________.
A. Protection under the Sun
B. All under one roof
C. Protecting life Under the Sun
D. Caring for all life under the sun
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Caring for all life under the sun 
Solution
The International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer is observed globally on 16
September every year. The theme for 2017 is 'Caring for all life under the sun'.
Q130.
Sunil Mittal-driven Airtel Payments Bank integrated the UPI on its digital platform, allowing
customer choice and convenience to facilitate secure digital payments. What is the meaning of "I"
in UPI?
A. International
B. Industrial
C. Indian
D. Initial
E. Interface
Correct Answer: E. Interface 
Solution
Sunil Mittal-driven Airtel Payments Bank integrated the Uni ed Payments Interface (UPI) on its
digital platform, allowing customer choice and convenience to facilitate secure digital payments.
Airtel Payments Bank has become the rst payments bank in India to integrate the UPI on its
digital platform. In January 2017, BhartiAirtel launched Payments Bank in India to enable
transactions on digital platforms. The initiative will allow bank customers to link their bank
for more join
accounts to Bhim app and make UPI payments.
Q131.
_______ is an integrated bill payment system which will o er inter operable bill payment service to
customers online as well as through a network of agents on the ground.
A. BBPS
B. IMPS
C. AEPS
D. APBS
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. BBPS 
Solution
The Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) is a RBI mandated system which will o er integrated and
interoperable bill payment services to customers across geographies with certainty, reliability and
safety of transactions
Q132.
Indian Cricketer ___________ was recently announced as the Laureus' rst Brand Ambassador.
A. Virat Kohli
B. Rohit Sharma
C. Gautam Gambhir
D. Yuvraj Singh
E. Robin Uthappa
Correct Answer: D. Yuvraj Singh 
Solution
Indian Cricketer Yuvraj Singh was announced as the Laureus' rst Brand Ambassador.
Q133.
A type of economy that still uses various means of social support, is called-
A. Capitalist Economy
B. Mixed Economy
C. Socialist Economy
D. Traditional Economy
E. None of these
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Correct Answer: D. Traditional Economy 
Solution
Traditional economy is an original economic system in which traditions, customs, and beliefs help
shape the goods and the services the economy produces, as well as the rules and manner of their
distribution. Countries that use this type of economic system are often rural and farm-based.
Q134.
Name the Google app that has become the latest UPI-based payments app in the country thatcan
be used to pay for movie tickets, utility bills, and make other transactions online.
A. Google Salahkar
B. Google Tez
C. Google Saral
D. Google Pay
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Google Tez 
Solution
Google Tez has become the latest UPI-based payments app in the country. The new Google Tez
app can be used to pay for movie tickets, utility bills, and make other transactions online.
Q135.
Which among the following banks has launched a Multi-currency Forex Card for overseas
travellers?
A. South Indian Bank
B. ICICI Bank
C. Kotak Mahindra Bank
D. Standard Chartered Bank
E. Yes Bank
Correct Answer: D. Standard Chartered Bank 
Solution
Standard Chartered Bank has launched a Multi-currency Forex Card for overseas travelers. The
card will allow customers the convenience of loading up to 20 widely used currencies on one card
with an online reload facility during overseas travel.
for more join
Q136.
PV Sindhu has become the rst Indian to win the Korea Open Superseries 2017 held in Seoul. She
has defeated _______________.
A. Corolina Marin
B. RatchanokIntanon
C. Tai Tzu-ying
D. Nozomi Okuhara
E. Wang Shixian
Correct Answer: D. Nozomi Okuhara 
Solution
PV Sindhu becomes the rst Indian to win the Korea Open Superseries with an outstanding win
over Nozomi Okuhara in the much-talked-about women's singles nal in Seoul.
Q137.
The famous Khajuraho Dance Festival was held in which state?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Odisha
C. Kerala
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Gujarat
Correct Answer: D. Madhya Pradesh 
Solution
Khajuraho dance festival, organized by the Madhya Pradesh Kala Parishad, is a one-week-long
festival of classical dances held annually against the spectacular backdrop of the magni cently lit
Khajuraho temples in Chhatarpur district of Madhya Pradesh state in central India.
Q138.
Who has won the 2017 Men’s singles US Open Tennis tournament?
A. Novak Djokovic
B. Rafael Nadal
C. Stan Wawrinka
D. Andy Murray
E. None of these
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Your Answer: Not Attempted https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: B. Rafael Nadal 
Solution
Rafael Nadal, a Spanish professional tennis player, has won the 2017 men’s singles US Open tennis
tournament after defeating rst time Grand Slam nalist Kevin Anderson by 6–3, 6–3, 6–4 at Arthur
Ashe Stadium in New York, United States. It is Nadal’s 16th Grand Slam title and 3rd US Open title
of the career.
Q139.
The Reserve Bank of India has allowed systematically important non-banking nance companies
(NBFCs) to sell and market the NPS. NPS stands for-
A. New Product Scheme
B. Nominal Pension Scheme
C. New Pension Service
D. New Pension Scheme
E. National Pension Scheme
Correct Answer: D. New Pension Scheme 
Solution
The Reserve Bank of India has allowed systematically important non-banking nance companies
to sell and market the new pension scheme (NPS).
Q140.
Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA) is being to set up to prevent leakages and development
of the-
A. Treasury Market
B. Bond Market
C. Money Market
D. Capital Market
E. Call Money Market
Correct Answer: B. Bond Market 
Solution
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The Finance Ministry has set up a Public Debt Management Cell (PDMC) with a view to streamline
government borrowings and better cash management with the overall objective of deepening
bond markets.
Q141.
Name the Indian pacer who has recently con rmed his retirement from International Cricket.
A. Zaheer Khan
B. S. Shreesanth
C. Ashish Nehra
D. Mohammad Shami
E. Vinay Kumar
Correct Answer: C. Ashish Nehra 
Solution
Indian pacer Ashish Nehra has con rmed his retirement from International Cricket. He will play his
last match against New Zealand on November 1, 2017. The 38-year-old has represented India for
18 years. He has played 17 Tests, 120 ODIs and 26 T20Is for India, taking 235 international wickets.
Q142.
Which country’s team has won the 2017 U-16 South Asian Basketball (SABA) Championship?
A. Nepal
B. India
C. Bhutan
D. Bangladesh
E. Sri Lanka
Correct Answer: B. India 
Solution
India clinched the 2nd South Asian Basketball, SABA, Under - 16 Championship title after
registering a commanding win over Bhutan.
Q143.
Special Drawing Rights (SDR) is supplementary foreign exchange reserve assets de ned and
maintained by-
A. Asian Development Bank (ADB)
B. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
C. World Bank (WB)
for more join
D. International Monetary Fund (IMF) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
Correct Answer: D. International Monetary Fund (IMF) 
Solution
The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969 to
supplement the existing o cial reserves of member countries.
Q144.
Sugam scheme was launched for-
A. Big Corporate Houses
B. Small Tax Payers
C. Pensioners getting old age pension
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B. Small Tax Payers 
Solution
Sugam scheme was launched for Small Tax Payers
Q145.
Where is the headquarter of Deutsche Bank?
A. Singapore
B. Russia
C. France
D. Germany
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Germany 
Solution
headquarter of Deutsche Bank- Frankfurt Germany
Q146. for more join
In which country, China has formally opened its rst overseas military base?
A. Eritrea
B. Zambia
C. Malawi
D. Djibouti
E. Medagaskar
Correct Answer: D. Djibouti 
Solution
China has formally opened its rst overseas military base in Djibouti with a ag raising ceremony
and military parade. The event was timed to coincide with the celebration of the 90th anniversary
of the establishment of China's military, the People's Liberation Army, on August 1.
Q147.
President Ram Nath Kovind recently gave away the National award for senior citizens to Gurbax
Singh Sandhu. Mr Sandhu is __________________.
A. Indian Hockey coach
B. Indian Boxing coach
C. Indian Wrestling coach
D. Indian Tennis coach
E. Indian Kabaddi coach
Correct Answer: B. Indian Boxing coach 
Solution
President Ram Nath Kovind gave away the National award for senior citizens to Indian boxing
coach Gurbax Singh Sandhu and Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for Excellence in Public
Administration, Academics and Management for 2017 to Dr. Bindeshwar Pathak.
Q148.
Which city will be host the 2028 Summer Olympics?
A. London
B. Paris
C. Tokyo
D. Los Angeles
E. None of these
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Correct Answer: D. Los Angeles 
Solution
Thomas Bach, the President of International Olympic Committee (IOC), has o cially announced
that Paris will host 2024 and Los Angeles will host 2028 Summer Olympics.
Q149.
Which cricket team has won the 2017 Vijay Hazare Trophy?
A. Karnataka
B. Gujarat
C. Delhi
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Mumbai
Correct Answer: D. Tamil Nadu 
Solution
2016–17 Vijay Hazare Trophy was the 15th season of the Vijay Hazare Trophy, a List A cricket
tournament in India. It was contested by the 28 domestic cricket teams of India. Tamil Nadu won
the tournament, beating Bengal by 37 runs in the nal.
Q150.
Which among the following international organisation has cleared a USD 250-million loan for
making Indian youth more employable through reskilling, in a move that is seen to aid the Skill
India Mission?
A. Asian Development Bank (ADB)
B. World Trade Organization (WTO)
C. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
D. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
E. World Bank (WB)
Correct Answer: E. World Bank (WB) 
Solution
The World Bank has cleared a USD 250-million loan for making Indian youth more employable
through reskilling, in a move that is seen to aid the Skill India Mission. The multi-lateral lender is
for more join
keen to support the Indian government in its e orts to better equip the young workforce with
employable skills. Under the program, adults in 15-59 years of age, underemployed or
unemployed, will get the skill training.
Q151.
The Phrumsengla National Park (PNP) is located in which country?
A. Bhutan
B. Nepal
C. Myanmar
D. Sri lanka
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Bhutan 
Solution
The Phrumsengla National Park (PNP) is located in Bumthang, Lhuntse, Mongar and Zhemgang
districts of Bhutan and covers an area of 905.05 square kilometers.
Q152.
Nicosia is the capital of _________?
A. Croatia
B. Cyprus
C. Mali
D. Uganda
E. Peru
Correct Answer: B. Cyprus 
Solution
Capital and largest city: Nicosia
Currency: Euro
President: Nicos Anastasiades
Q153.
Which Bank and Bajaj Allianz General Insurance have signed an agreement for the distribution of
insurance products through the branches?
A. Axis Bank
B. Punjab National Bank
C. Indian Bank
for more join
D. Bank of Baroda https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. ICICI Bank
Correct Answer: B. Punjab National Bank 
Solution
State-owned Punjab National Bank (PNB) and Bajaj Allianz General Insurance have signed an
agreement for the distribution of insurance products through the branches.Under this agreement,
Bajaj Allianz General Insurance will o er personal lines of insurance products such as health,
personal accident, home, motor and travel along with commercial line of insurance products such
as property, marine and engineering insurance, etc to the bank's customers
Q154.
Gir National Park is situated in which of the following Indian state?
A. Assam
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. West Bengal
D. Gujarat
E. Rajasthan
Correct Answer: D. Gujarat 
Solution
The Gir Forest National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is a forest and wildlife sanctuary near Talala
Gir in Gujarat, India.
Q155.
The World Teachers’ Day is celebrated across the world on __________.
A. 8 October
B. 7 October
C. 15 October
D. 5 October
E. 6 October
Correct Answer: D. 5 October 

for more join
Solution

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Q handles which of the following department? (1 Marks)

Correct Answer: D. Marketing <br>

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Who sits second to the right of O? (1 Marks)

Correct Answer: D. M <br>

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P handles which of the following department? (1 Marks)

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Who among the following are the immediate neighbours of N? (1 Marks)

Correct Answer: B. R, Q <br>

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Correct Answer: A. P <br>

Correct Answer: D. VF13 <br>

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Correct Answer: B. KL10 <br>

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For Step-3: step 3 is coded in some special pattern.

Correct Answer: B. LG <br>

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For Step-1: for more join

For Step-3: step 3 is coded in some special pattern.

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Correct Answer: E. None of these <br>

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For Step-1: for more join

For Step-3: step 3 is coded in some special pattern.

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Which of the following replaces ‘KL6’ from input to step-1? (2 Marks)

Correct Answer: A. EI6 <br>

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Correct Answer: E. None of these <br>

Correct Answer: B. 13 meter <br>

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Correct Answer: A. √2 meter, north-west <br>

What is the position of G? (1 Marks)

Correct Answer: E. Both (B) and (C) <br>

What is the relation of L with respect to D? (1 Marks)

Correct Answer: C. Uncle <br>

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How is C related to wife of K? (1 Marks)

Correct Answer: D. Sister in law <br>

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What is the position of A with respect to husband of B? (1 Marks)

Correct Answer: D. Both (A) and (B) <br>

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Which of the following is sits opposite to son of J? (1 Marks)

Correct Answer: A. Daughter of K <br>

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Which of the following can be postulated from the given statements.

Correct Answer: D. Only I and III <br>

Correct Answer: C. All follows <br>

Correct Answer: C. Behavioral testing <br>

Amongst A, E, I, O and U, which book is the costliest?

I. Price of the book E is more than those of A and U only.

I. A is facing D. only C is between A and B. F is between E and A.

Correct Answer: B. P <br>

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Correct Answer: C. 133 <br>

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Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II <br>