Paid Ibps Set 7 Mathclub

12/31/2017 Adda247 Store | Adda247 Store
Purchased by roshnipanwar025@gmail.com
Q1.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W are willing to purchase di erent electronic items viz. AC, Camera,
Fridge, Juicer, LED, Laptop, Mixer, Mobile on this Diwali. They are of di erent brands Accer, Canon,
LG, Oppo, Phillips, Samsung, Sony, and Videocon. Also each of these items have di erent discount
percent viz. 10%, 20%, 30%, 40%, 50%, 60%, 70%, 80%, 90% but not necessarily in the same order.
The person, who purchased Laptop, is of Accer brand. Q gets the discount, which is 4 times of the
discount of the one who purchased LED, over its item. The one, who purchased item of Oppo gets
1/3 of the discount of the one who purchased Camera. T gets the discount of 125% of the one who
purchased item of LG brand. S did not get least discount. U did not purchase AC. The one who
purchased Juicer gets least discount. T purchased Mixer. R gets half of the discount of the one who
purchased an item of Samsung brand. W did not purchase Mobile. Phillips brand’s item did not
purchased by S and U. The one who purchased Canon brand item gets discount which is 3/2 of the
one who purchased Laptop. P purchased an item of Sony and gets discount which is twice of the
one who purchased Juicer. V purchased item of Accer brand and gets discount thrice of P. Q
purchased Fridge of Samsung brand. The person, who purchased AC is of LG brand. W purchased
item of Canon brand and S did not purchase any item of LG brand. Camera and Mobile is not
purchased of Sony brand.
Who among the following purchased LED? (1 Mark)

A. S
B. R
C. T
D. W
E. P
Your Answer: Not Attempted
Correct Answer: E. P 
Solution for more join

https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
T purchased Mixer. P purchased an item of Sony and gets discount which is twice of the one who
purchased Juicer. The one who purchased Juicer gets least discount means the one who
purchased Juicer gets 10% discount. And P gets 20% discount. V purchased item of Accer brand
and gets discount thrice of P. Laptop is purchased of Accer brand. Q purchased Fridge of Samsung
brand.
https://store.adda247.com/#!/myTestAnalysis/printsolution/mappingId=24915/packageId=359/lang=ENGLISH 1/164
S did not get least discount. U did not purchase AC. W did not purchase Mobile. Phillips brand’s
item did not purchased by S and U. W purchased item of Canon brand.
The one, who purchased AC, is of LG brand. S did not purchase any item of LG brand. So, R will
purchase AC of LG brand. The one who purchased Canon brand item gets discount which is 3/2 of
the one who purchased Laptop. So W will get 90% discount. The one who purchased Juicer gets
least discount, U will purchase juicer and get 10% discount.
Now, item of Phillips brand is purchased by T. The one, who purchased Camera and Mobile is not
of Sony brand. So, LED is being purchased by P and S will purchase Mobile and W will purchase
for more join
Camera. Q gets the discount, which is 4 times of the discount of the one who purchased LED, over
its item. So, Q will get 80% discount. R gets half of the discount of the one who purchased an item
of Samsung brand. So, R will get 40% discount.
The one who purchased item of Oppo gets 1/3 of the discount of the one who purchased Camera.
T gets the discount of 125% of the one who purchased item of LG brand.
Q2.
for more join
Who among the following gets 80% discount? (1 Mark)
A. V
B. Q
C. R
D. W
E. P
Correct Answer: B. Q 
Solution
brand.
for more join

for more join

Q3.
Which electronic item is of Phillips brand? (1 Mark)

A. Juicer
B. Mobile
C. Mixer
D. Laptop
E. Camera
Correct Answer: C. Mixer 
Solution
brand.
for more join

for more join

Q4.
Which of the following combination is true? (1 Mark) for more join

A. S-Mixer-60%
B. R-Mobile-20%
C. T-Juicer-30%
D. W-Camera-90%
E. P-Laptop-50%
Correct Answer: D. W-Camera-90% 
Solution
brand.
for more join

Q5.
for more join
Fridge is bought of which brand? (1 Mark)

A. Sony
B. Canon
C. Phillips
D. LG
E. Samsung
Correct Answer: E. Samsung 
Solution
brand.
for more join
for more join

Q6.
Statement-
India has the potential to grow at a reasonably high level in the next decade or two, owing to some
structural changes by the government and a turnaround in the global economy, Finance Minister
Arun Jaitley said today.
Which of the following negates the given statement?
(I)Today, almost everyone is connected to the banking system. Almost every adult in India has
biometric. The integrated data has helped the government to reach every citizen on digital
platform which will help in further improving the economy.
(II) We all know that there has been a decline in economic performance of India in the recent past.
This decline is registered quarterly and has been continuing for last one-and-a-half months and it
will continue to decline as there will be no turnaround in the global economy.
(III) As GST is "a more e cient system which has brought the country together, even economically,
allowed free ow of goods and services across the country.” (2 Mark)
A. Only I
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. Only II
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Only II 
Solution
In this statement we have to nd which statement does not support the given statement.
For I- This statement does not negate the given statement as it states that today India is connected
with a digital platform and banking system which will be bene cial for it to improve the economy
which is also stated by Jaitley that India has the potential to grow.
For II- This statement negates the given statement as it states that Indian economy is declining
continuously in recent past and it will still continue to decline whereas Jaitley’s statement describes
that India has the potential to grow at a reasonably high level.
For III-This statement also does not negate the given statement as it states about the positive
impact that GST brings to the Indian economy.
for more join
Q7.
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input
and rearrangement.
Input: technology 58 causing 29 problems 31 62 80 society erosion 17 relations
Step I: erosion technology 58 causing 29 problems 31 62 society 17 relations 80
Step II: erosion relations technology 58 causing 29 problems 62 society 17 80 31
Step III: erosion relations causing technology 58 29 problems society 17 80 31 62
Step IV: erosion relations causing society technology 58 problems 17 80 31 62 29
Step V: erosion relations causing society technology problems 17 80 31 62 29 58
Step VI: erosion relations causing society technology problems 80 31 62 29 58 17
As per the rules followed in the steps given above, nd out in each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the given input.
Input: fast 29 pain 19 32 strong 78 makes 64 emotion victory 23
What will be the position of ‘victory’ with respect to ‘fast’ in the step III of the input? (1 Mark)
A. Immediate left
B. Fourth to the right
C. None of these
D. Second to the right
E. Fourth to the left
Correct Answer: B. Fourth to the right 
Solution
The machine rearranges the words and numbers in such a way that the words are arranged in
descending order based on the number of vowels in the given word. If two words contain the
same number of vowels, then they are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right in each
step.
Numbers are arranged in decreasing order from left to right alternatively, even number rst,
followed by prime number alternatively.
Step I: emotion fast 29 pain 19 32 strong makes 64 victory 23 78
Step II: emotion makes fast pain 19 32 strong 64 victory 23 78 29
Step III: emotion makes pain fast 19 32 strong victory 23 78 29 64
for more join
Step IV: emotion makes pain victory fast 19 32 strong 78 29 64 23
Step V: emotion makes pain victory fast strong 19 78 29 64 23 32
Step VI: emotion makes pain victory fast strong 78 29 64 23 32 19
Q8.
and rearrangement.
What will be the position of ‘strong’ in the last but one step? (1 Mark)
A. Seventh from the left
B. Seventh from the right
C. Sixth from the left
D. Fifth from the left
E. Both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: E. Both (b) and (c) 
Solution
step.
for more join
Q9.
and rearrangement.
Which of the following will be the penultimate step? (1 Mark)

A. Step VI
B. Step V
C. Step IV
D. Step III
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Step V 
Solution
step. for more join
Q10.
and rearrangement.
After how many steps no further rearrangement of words is possible? (1 Mark)

A. Five
B. Four
C. Six
D. Seven
E. Eight
Correct Answer: A. Five 

The machine rearranges the words andhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
numbers in such a way that the words are arranged in
step.
Q11.
and rearrangement.
What will be the position of ‘fast’ in step IV? (1 Mark)

A. Sixth from right
B. Seventh from right
C. Seventh from left
D. Fifth from left
E. None of these
for more join
Correct Answer: D. Fifth from left 
Solution
step.
Q12.
Several subtypes and strains of avian in uenza viruses are now found around the world, some of
them capable of causing death among humans and others in icting serious losses on poultry
farmers. The latest bird u scare in New Delhi and elsewhere has been triggered by the death of
some free living birds in the city’s A.N. Jha Deer Park, and 15 painted storks in the Gwalior zoo.
Worrying as it is, early detection and identi cation of the virus subtypes helps in launching
containment measures. As a major agricultural nation with a large poultry industry, India has
implemented an action plan formulated by the Centre’s Department of Animal Husbandry,
Dairying and Fisheries to deal with avian in uenza. It incorporates a clear protocol for preventive
checks and testing, for reporting an outbreak, removing farmed birds from an a ected area and
compensating farmers.
Which of the following can be deduced from the above paragraph?
(I) Avian in uenza virus is menacing for birds and humans may cause threat of death.
(II) India is pro cient enough to tackle with deadly Avian in uenza virus.
(III) High fever with headache are symptoms of Avian in uenza virus which is more dangerous
than HIV and DENV virus. (2 Mark)
A. Only II and III
B. Only I and II
C. Only II for more join
D. Only I and III
E. None of these https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: B. Only I and II 
Solution
Only I and II can be deduced from above paragraph as it is mentioned in second line of paragraph
that Avian in uenza virus is capable of causing death among human and others and in last part of
paragraph it is clearly mentioned that India has implemented preventive measures to check
in uenza virus but it is nothing mentioned about symptoms and nowhere in paragraph it is
compared with HIV and DENV virus.
Q13.
Several subtypes and strains of avian in uenza viruses are now found around the world, some of
them capable of causing death among humans and others in icting serious losses on poultry
farmers. The latest bird u scare in New Delhi and elsewhere has been triggered by the death of
some free living birds in the city’s A.N. Jha Deer Park, and 15 painted storks in the Gwalior zoo.
Worrying as it is, early detection and identi cation of the virus subtypes helps in launching
containment measures. As a major agricultural nation with a large poultry industry, India has
implemented an action plan formulated by the Centre’s Department of Animal Husbandry,
Dairying and Fisheries to deal with avian in uenza. It incorporates a clear protocol for preventive
checks and testing, for reporting an outbreak, removing farmed birds from an a ected area and
compensating farmers.
Which of the following substantiates the fact of threat from bird u?

(I) Last year Delhi had su ered huge loss in the form of death of several persons and birds from
e ect of bird u.
(II) There was a huge loss to poultry farmers.
(III) Indian Govt. has implemented an action plan for preventive check. (2 Mark)
A. Only I and II
B. Only III
C. Only II and III
D. Only II
E. All I,II and III
for more join
Correct Answer: E. All I,II and III 
Solution
I and II is telling about loss which had occurred last year which was a huge loss to humans and
birds so it substantiates the fact of threat from bird u. In III statement it is mentioned that Indian
Govt. has implemented an action plan it means it is matter of threat and Indian Govt. is taking
preventive measures. So, All I, II and III substantiates the fact of threat from bird u.
Q14.
Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight members D, E, H, G, A, F, B and C of a family, in which some are related to each other in a
way, are watching three di erent movies: Golamaal3, Judwa2 and Newton. Out of these eight
members, two are female and each person likes di erent actors in a given movies. Two among
them like Ajay Devgun, two likes Salmaan khan, two likes Kareena Kapoor and one each likes
Varun Dhawan and Tapsee Pannu.
The person, who likes Salmaan Khan and the person, who likes Varun Dhawan are not watching
the same movie. G, who is watching Golmaal3, likes Salmaan khan and his wife B, who likes Ajay
Devgun, is watching Newton. C, who is son of wife of G, likes Salmaan khan. F likes same actor as
E, who likes Kareena kapoor. E is the cousin of C and is not watching Judwa2. H, who is the
Grandfather of C, likes Tapsee Pannu. The persons who like same actor, are not watching same
movie. F, who is son of G, likes Kareena Kapoor, is watching Judwa2. D, who is brother-in-law of B,
likes Ajay Devgun and is watching Golmaal3, and among all family members only two members
are there who are watching Golmaal3. Not more than three of them are watching Newton. No
female likes Varun Dhawan or Tapsee Pannu. The persons, who like Varun Dhawan and Tapsee
Pannu, are not watching Newton.
Who likes Varun Dhawan? (1 Mark)

A. H
B. A
C. C
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. A for more join

Solution https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
From the given conditions, G, who is watching Golmaal3, likes Salmaan khan and his wife B, who
likes Ajay Devgun, is watching Newton. C, who is son of wife of G, likes Salmaan khan. H, who is the
Grandfather of C, likes Tapsee Pannu. F, who is son of G, likes Kareena Kapoor, is watching
Judwa2. D, who is brother-in-law of B, likes Ajay Devgun and is watching Golmaal3, and among all
family members only two members are there who are watching Golmaal3; hence only D and G is
watching Golmaal3.
Now from the other conditions, the person, who likes Salmaan Khan and the person, who likes
Varun Dhawan are not watching the same movie. No female likes Varun Dhawan or Tapsee Pannu.
The persons, who like Varun Dhawan and Tapsee Pannu, are not watching Newton, hence the
persons, who like both actors, is watching Judwa2. Not more than three of them are watching
Newton. The persons who like same actor, are not watching same movie; hence the person, who
likes Kareena kapoor, is watching Newton. F likes same actor as E, who likes Kareena kapoor. Rest
A likes Varun Dhawan. E is the cousin of C and is not watching Judwa2. Only two are female, so E is
female. The nal arrangement are-
for more join

Q15.
Who is grandfather of F? (1 Mark)

A. G
B. D
C. C
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of These
Correct Answer: E. None of These 
Solution
for more join
watching Golmaal3.
Q16.
for more join
H likes which of the following actors? (1 Mark)

A. Kareena Kapoor
B. Ajay Devgun
C. Tapsee Pannu
D. Varun Dhawan
E. None of These
Correct Answer: C. Tapsee Pannu 
Solution
watching Golmaal3.
for more join

Q17.
for more join
How is E related to G? (1 Mark)

A. Niece
B. Cousin
C. Mother
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of These
Correct Answer: A. Niece 
Solution
watching Golmaal3.
for more join

Q18.
for more join
F likes which of the following actors? (1 Mark)

A. Tapsee Pannu
B. Varun Dhawan
C. Ajay Devgun
D. Kareena Kapoor
E. None of These
Correct Answer: D. Kareena Kapoor 
Solution
watching Golmaal3.
for more join

Q19.
for more join
A person starts his car from point A. From there his car travels 4m in north direction to reach point
B. From there his car turns 90° in clockwise direction and travels 8m to reach point C. Now, his car
turns left and moves towards point D which is 4m away from point C. After reaching point D his
car passes from the middle point of Point B and Point C by travelling from the shortest route.
From that point it travels towards south direction and travels 4m to reach point E. Now, his car
turns left and travels 8m to reach point F. From there it again turns left and moves 10m to reach
point G. Finally the car takes a left turn and reaches point H by travelling the distance of 4m.
If point K is the middle point of point B and point C, then how far is point K with respect to point D?
(1 Mark)
A. 3√2m
B. 7√5m
C. 4√3m
D. 5√3m
E. 4√2m
Correct Answer: E. 4√2m 
Solution
Q20.
A person starts his car from point A. From there his car travels 4m in north direction to reach point
B. From there his car turns 90° in clockwise direction and travels 8m to reach point C. Now, his car
turns left and moves towards point D which is 4m away from point C. After reaching point D his
car passes from the middle point of Point B and Point C by travelling from the shortest route.
From that point it travels towards south direction and travels 4m to reach point E. Now, his car
turns left and travels 8m to reach point F. From there it again turns left and moves 10m to reach
point G. Finally the car takes a left turn and reaches point H by travelling the distance of 4m.
for more join
In which direction is point B with respect to point H? (1 Mark)
A. North
B. West
C. South-West
D. North-West
E. South-East
Correct Answer: C. South-West 
Solution
Q21.
Device on one network can communicate with devices on another network via? (1 Mark)
A. File Server
B. Utility Server
C. Printer Server
D. Gateway
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Gateway 
Solution
A network gateway joins two di erent networks so the devices on one network can communicate
with the devices on another network. A gateway can be implemented completely in software,
hardware, or in a combination of both.
for more join
Q22. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
In each group of questions below are some conclusions followed by ve set of statements. You
have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satis es given conclusions. Given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Conclusion:
Some Science are not English.
Some Reasoning can be Computer.
Statements: (1 Mark)
A. All Computer are Math. No Math is reasoning. Some Reasoning are English. Some Science are
Computer.
B. Some Math are English. No English is Computer. No Computer is Reasoning. Some Reasoning is
Science.
C. No Computer is Science. Some Science are English. No English is Reasoning. Some Reasoning is
Math.
D. Some Computer are Science. All Science is Math. No Math are English. Some English are
Reasoning.
E. All English are Math. No Math is Reasoning. Some Reasoning are Computer. Some Science are
Computer.
Correct Answer: D. Some Computer are Science. All Science is Math. No Math are English. Some
English are Reasoning. 
Solution
Q23.
In each group of questions below are some conclusions followed by ve set of statements. You
have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satis es given conclusions. Given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
for more join
Conclusion: https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Some Physics can never be Geography.
Some Biology are not Geography.
Statements: (1 Mark)
A. All Biology are Geography. No Geography is History. Some History are Physics. Some Chemistry
are Biology.
B. Some Biology are Chemistry. No Geography is History. Some History are Physics. All Physics are
Biology.
C. No Biology is Chemistry. Some Chemistry are Physics. No Physics is History. Some History is
Geography.
D. Some Biology are Geography. All Geography is History. No History are Physics. Some Chemistry
are Biology.
E. Some Geography are Physics. No Physics is Biology. No Biology is History. Some History is
Chemistry.
Correct Answer: B. Some Biology are Chemistry. No Geography is History. Some History are
Physics. All Physics are Biology. 
Solution
Q24.
Seven persons works in di erent government Organisations viz. BEL, BHEL, GAIL, GIC, HCL, NTPC,
NHPC and all of them works in di erent cities viz. Bangalore, Chennai, Delhi, Gurgaon, Hyderabad,
Noida, Pune. Also each of them has a day o on di erent days of a week starting from Monday to
Sunday. And each of them got di erent amount of Salary.
The one, who got third lowest salary has o immediately before the one who works in GAIL has.
Only two persons have o in between the one who belongs to Chennai and the one who belongs
to Noida. The one whose salary is fourth highest works in GIC and has salary which is a multiple of
for more join
eleven. The one who works in Chennai has o before the one who works in Noida. S has o
immediately after the one who works inhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
HCL. Q’s salary is the di erence between the salaries of R
and T. The one who has o on Monday neither works in Chennai nor in Noida. The one who get
second highest salary works in NHPC. Only one person has less salary than K. The person whose
salary is highest has its salary ten times of the salary of the one whose salary is lowest. Only two
persons have their o before the one whose salary is third lowest. L has its salary just greater than
S but not the highest. The one who works in NTPC works in Bangalore. The one, whose salary is
just less than L works in Gurgaon. M neither works in HCL nor in BEL. No one has salary in
between S and the one who works in Chennai. M earns more than L and has his o on any day
before L, but not immediately before. Neither T nor Q works in Chennai. The one who works in
Delhi has o on Sunday. L’s salary is four thousand more than the sum of the salaries of S and K.
The one, whose o is on Wednesday works in Pune. The one whose salary is lowest has his o
immediately before the one who works in NHPC. The Salary of Q is less than T whose salary is less
than the one who works in Gurgaon. R works in GIC. The one whose salary is third lowest has
salary 25000 and Salary of the one whose salary is third highest has salary 41000. Q does not have
o on Thursday and Friday. The one whose salary is lowest does not work in Hyderabad. The one
whose salary is second lowest has his salary 4000 more than the one whose salary is just less than
him. The one whose salary is second lowest has o before the one whose salary is third highest. L
does not work in Chennai.
Who works in GAIL? (2 Mark)

A. M
B. Q
C. L
D. T
E. S
Correct Answer: E. S 
Solution
Only one person has less salary than K. The one who works in Delhi has o on Sunday. The one,
whose o is on Wednesday works in Pune. Only two persons have o in between the one who
belongs to Chennai and the one who belongs to Noida. The one who works in Chennai has o
before the one who works in Noida. The one who has o on Monday neither works in Chennai nor
in Noida. So the one who works in Chennai has o on Tuesday and the one who works in Noida
has o on Friday.
for more join

L has its salary just greater than S, but not the highest. The one, whose salary is just less than L
works in Gurgaon. No one has salary in between S and the one who works in Chennai. L does not
work in Chennai. The one whose salary is fourth highest works in GIC and has salary which is a
multiple of eleven. R works in GIC. The Salary of Q is less than T, whose salary is less than the one
who works in Gurgaon. So, the salary arrangement will be------
Now, it is clear that M will have highest salary. Only two persons have their o before the one
whose salary is third lowest means T has o on Wednesday. The one who got third lowest salary
has o immediately before the one who works in GAIL has. The one who get second highest salary
works in NHPC means L. The one whose salary is lowest has his o immediately before the one
who works in NHPC means Q has o immediately before L. Q does not have o on Thursday and
Friday. The one whose salary is lowest does not work in Hyderabad means Q will work in
Bangalore. The one who works in NTPC works in Bangalore. So, Q will have o on Saturday.
S has o immediately after the one who works in HCL. So, S will have o on Thursday. The one
whose salary is second lowest has o before the one whose salary is third highest. Means K will
have o on Monday. M neither works in HCL nor in BEL. Now, M will have o on Friday and will
work in BHEL.
for more join

Now, for amount of Salaries they receive--- The one whose salary is third lowest has salary 25000
and Salary of the one whose salary is third highest has salary 41000. Means Salary of T is 25000
and S is 41000. The one whose salary is fourth highest works in GIC and has salary which is a
multiple of eleven. So, the salary of R will be 33000. Q’s salary is the di erence between the
salaries of R and T. So, the salary of Q will be 8000. The one whose salary is second lowest has his
salary 4000 more than the one whose salary is just less than him. Salary of K will be 12000. The
person whose salary is highest has its salary ten times of the salary of the one whose salary is
lowest. So, the salary of M will be 80000. L’s salary is four thousand more than the sum of the
salaries of S and K. So, L’s salary is 57000.
The nal arrangement are-
Q25.
immediately after the one who works in HCL. Q’s salary is the di erence between the salaries of R
for more join
The one, whose o is on Wednesday works in Pune. The one whose salary is lowest has his o
What is the salary of L? (2 Mark)

A. 28000
B. 5000
C. 57000
D. 35000
E. 68000
Correct Answer: C. 57000 
Solution
has o on Friday.
for more join
work in Chennai. The one whose salaryhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
is fourth highest works in GIC and has salary which is a
work in BHEL.
for more join
Q26.
for more join
The one, whose o is on Wednesday works https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
in Pune. The one whose salary is lowest has his o
The one who earns third lowest works in which city? (2 Mark)
A. Delhi
B. Hyderabad
C. Chennai
D. Pune
E. Noida
Correct Answer: D. Pune 
Solution
has o on Friday.
for more join
work in BHEL.
for more join
Q27.
for more join
M has his o on which day? (2 Mark)

A. Monday
B. Saturday
C. Wednesday
D. Thursday
E. Friday
Correct Answer: E. Friday 
Solution
has o on Friday.
for more join
work in BHEL.
for more join
Q28.
for more join
Which combination is true regarding K? (2 Mark)

A. Monday-BEL-Hyderabad-12000
B. Saturday-NTPC-Noida-65000
C. Wednesday-HCL-Pune-87000
D. Thursday-GAIL-Gurgaon-57000
E. Sunday-NTPC-Delhi-49000
Correct Answer: A. Monday-BEL-Hyderabad-12000 
Solution
has o on Friday.
for more join
work in BHEL.
for more join
Q29.
The data breach at 19 Indian banks that has led to more than 32 lakh debit cards being blocked or
recalled is a wake-up call for the banking industry. While the actual number of complaints received
so far, 641, and the sum of money that appears to have been fraudulently withdrawn, Rs.1.3 crore,
are both small relative to the scale of the potential data theft, it is disconcerting that it has taken
almost six months for the system to o cially acknowledge the incidents and initiate steps to
address them. A private bank appears to have been a point of entry for the data criminals who,
according to reports, may have in ltrated using malware at ATMs operated by a third-party
payment services vendor. The National Payments Corporation of India has been coordinating
investigations into the incident, and a forensic audit is expected to reveal preliminary ndings
soon.
Which of the following possible reason of pilferage of money from Indian banks?
(I) Account of many Indians who are using Chinese mobile are hacked by Chinese hackers.
(II) Data regarding bank account are theft using malware at ATMs operated by third-party payment
services vendor.
(III) Information regarding bank account are leaked by o cials of Indian Banks to poacher. (1
Mark)
A. Only I and III for more join
B. Only III
C. Only II and III https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. Only II
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Only II 
Solution
We have to identify possible reason regarding context of the passage and reason which is
mentioned in (I) and (III) is nowhere discuss in above passage. So Only II will be the possible
reason of pilferage of money from Indian Banks.
Q30.
soon.
Which of the following is not in line in context of passage?
(I) NPCI is trying to nd out the reason behind leakage of information regarding bank account.
(II) Ministry of defense makes alert to all his o cials regarding chances of larceny.
(III) There is lack of e ort by o cials of investigation agency as it has taken almost six months for
the system to o cially acknowledge the incidents. (1 Mark)
A. Only II and III
B. Only I and III
C. Only II
D. Only I
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Only II for more join

As NPCI is investigating into the matter and trying to reveal preliminary ndings and it is also
mentioned that o cials takes almost six months to acknowledge the incidents but information of
Ministry of defense is nowhere mentioned in the above passage.
Q31.
soon.
Which course of action should be taken by investigating o cials?
(I) Recover money which have been fraudulently theft by poachers.

(II) Make aware to people to not use e-commerce site for online purchasing.
(III) Hang the culprit if it is Indian banking o cial who is responsible for leakage of information
regarding bank account details. (1 Mark)
A. Only I
B. Only I and III
C. Only III
D. Only II and III
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Only I 
Solution
Only I is e ective course of action and not using e-commerce site is not a solution and hanging the
culprit is a harsh course of action.
for more join
In a certain code language-

“work for earning money” is coded as “Go3 None5 Xor4 Farnin7’’
“like six years passed” is coded as “Ti3 Qasse6 Zear5 Mik4”
“hence good amount received” is coded as “Seceive8 Ienc5 Hoo4 Bmoun6”
What is the code for “last earning was money”? (1 Mark)

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: C. <img

src="https://d37ohbyy0w8xn8.cloudfront.net/1509973274833image3.png"> 
Solution
This is question of Coding-Decoding based on new pattern. In these questions following logic's are
applied to decode the code:-
None5 Mas4 Farnin7 Xa3

Q33.

for more join
“hence good amount received” is codedhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
as “Seceive8 Ienc5 Hoo4 Bmoun6”
If “money makes man perfect” is coded as “Nake5 Qerfec7 Na3 None5”, then what is the code for
“good people always perfect” ? (1 Mark)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Solution
Hoo4 Qerfec7 Blway6 Qeopl6
Q34.

“hence good amount received” is coded as “Seceive8 Ienc5 Hoo4 Bmoun6”
What is the code for “hence always wrong hance”? (1 Mark)

A.
B. for more join
C. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D.
E.
Correct Answer: E. <img

Solution
Blway6 Ienc5 Ianc5 Xron5

Q35.
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and e ect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the
e ect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes
without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your
answer as-
Statement-I: In a development that pushes Darjeeling into a fresh spell of uncertainty, a sub-
inspector was killed and four policemen were injured in a gunbattle on a riverbed close to the
West Bengal-Sikkim border during a pre-dawn operation on Friday. The raid was aimed at catching
fugitive Gorkha Janmukti Morcha leader Bimal Gurung, who gave cops the slip.
Statement-II: Two militants of a terrorist group Lashkar-e-Taiba were killed in an encounter in
Pulwama of J&K on Saturday morning. One of them was their top commander Waseem Shah. (2
Mark)
A. If statements I is the cause and statement II is its e ect.
B. If statements II is the cause and statement I is its e ect.
C. If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
for more join
D. If both the statements I and II are e ects of independent causes.
E. If both the statements I and II are e ects of some common cause.
Correct Answer: D. If both the statements I and II are e ects of independent causes. 
Solution
It is clear from the given statement that both statement I and II are the e ects of di erent causes
because both of these incidents takes place on di erent places and causes of both incidents are
also di erent as Statement I is the e ect of raid aimed at catching fugitive Gorkha Janmukti
Morcha leader in Darjeeling and Statement II is the e ect of an encounter against the terrorist
group in J&K.
Q36.
In each question are given some statements followed by some conclusions, one of which does not
logically follow from the given statements. That conclusion is your answer.
( Note: You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically does not
follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.)
Statement-
All Fire are bulb.
No Cracker is Decoration.
Some Cracker is Fire.
Some Glow are Decoration.
All Cracker are Bulb.
Conclusion: (1 Mark)
A. Some Bulb are not Decoration.
B. Some Glow are not Cracker.
C. Some Fire are Bulb.
D. Some Glow is Bulb is a possibility.
E. Some Decoration is Fire.
Correct Answer: E. Some Decoration is Fire. for more join

Solution
Q37.
Statement-
All Festival are Celebration.
Some Lights are Candles.
No Lights is Celebration.
Some Celebration are Bright.
Conclusions: (1 Mark)
A. No Festival is Lights.
B. Some Bright are Festival is a possibility.
C. Some Candles are not Celebration.
D. Some Candles are Festival.
E. Some Festival are Candles is a possibility.
Correct Answer: D. Some Candles are Festival. for more join
Solution
Q38.
Statement-
Some Sweet are Gift.
No Gift is Shopping.
Some Gift are Happy.
No Happy is Smile.
Conclusions: (1 Mark)
A. Some Sweet are not Shopping.
B. Some Sweet are Smile.
C. Some Sweet are Happy is a possibility.
D. No Shopping is Smile is a possibility.
E. Some Gift are Sweet.
Your Answer: Not Attempted for more join
Correct Answer: B. Some Sweet are Smile. 
Solution
Q39.
Statement-
The judgment delivered on October 9 by the Supreme Court banning the sale of reworks without
even showing concern over the businessman involved in such business in the Delhi NCR region till
November 1 in order to keep a check on the air pollution caused by bursting of re crackers.
Which of the following argument holds strong in context to the given statement?
(I) People involved in the cracker business have already invested huge amounts of money in
stocking up on supplies for Diwali sale. The Supreme Court sadly didn’t give a thought to their
livelihood before passing this judgment as now, they have no clue what to do with their stock.
(II) This (decision) will play a crucial role in regulating air pollution in the region and reduce the
impact on human health. The ban will ensure that the levels of air pollutant do not reach as high a
limit as they did last year around Diwali. (2 Mark)
A. Only (I)
B. Both (II) and (I)
C. Either (II) or (I)
D. Only (II)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Both (II) and (I) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
For I-This argument holds strong in context to the given statement as the decision of ban taken by
the Supreme court will have an adverse e ect on people involved in Cracker business because
they have already invested a large amount in this business and they have no other means to earn
their livelihood.
For II- This argument holds strong in context to the given statement as the decision of ban will
help in reducing air pollution which will help in maintaining the level of air pollution.
Q40.
Ten employees of a company namely M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are going for a team lunch in a
restaurant. These ten friends are sitting in two rows in such a way that ve persons in each row
and each person from one row is exactly opposite a person from the other row but not necessarily
in the same order. Also each person live on di erent oors i.e. 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th, 7th, 8th,
9th and 10th oors, but not necessarily in the same order. They all are sitting in such a way that
the person who lives in odd number oor is not opposite to another person who live on odd
number oor and no two persons who live on even number oor are adjacent to each other.
R lives on 8th oor and is not sitting in the same row in which the person, who lives on 4th and 6th
oors, is sitting. P and Q are adjacent to the person, who lives on 6th oor, but the person P is not
sitting at an end. S lives on 5th oor and is not sitting in the same row in which the person, who
lives on 3rd and 6th oors, is sitting. M is neither adjacent nor opposite to S and O. R is sitting at
the right end of the row and facing to south. The person, who lives on 6th oor, is sitting second
from the right end of the row. N lives on even number oor and sits opposite to the person, who
lives on 1st oor. U and V are sitting in the same row. The person, who lives on 6th oor, is not
sitting to the left of person who lives on 7th oor. O lives on odd number oor, but not on 1st oor
and is sitting in the same row with S. Q is sitting opposite to the person, who lives on 2nd oor and
lives neither on 3rd oor nor 1st oor.
If the person O is adjacent to the person T, then on which of the following oor does the person,
who is sitting opposite to the person who lives on 4th oor, live? (2 Mark)
A. 7th oor
B. 5th oor
C. 1st oor
D. 2nd oor for more join
E. Can’t be determined
Your Answer: Not Attempted https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: B. 5th oor 
Solution
From the given conditions, R is sitting at the right end of the row and facing to south. The person,
who lives on 6th oor, is sitting second from the right end of the row. P and Q are adjacent to the
person, who lives on 6th oor, but the person P is not sitting at an end. R lives on 8th oor and is
not sitting in the same row in which the person, who lives on 4th and 6th oors, is sitting; hence
the persons, who lives on 4th and 6th oors, is sitting on that row, which is opposite to R.
From the other conditions, S lives on 5th oor and is not sitting in the same row in which the
person, who lives on 3rd and 6th oors, is sitting; hence S sits on that row in which R sits. O lives in
odd number oor, but not on 1st oor and is sitting in the same row with S. Q is sitting opposite to
the person, who lives on 2nd oor and lives neither on 3rd oor nor 1st oor. N lives in even
number oor and sits opposite to the person, who lives on 1st oor. Hence there are three
possible case occur.
for more join

Now from the rest conditions, no two persons who live in even number oor are adjacent to each
other; hence the persons, who live in odd number oor also not adjacent to each other. Hence
Case-2 and Case-3 will be eliminated, Case-1 is continued.
M is neither adjacent nor opposite to S and O, hence M sits left end of the row and facing north. U
and V are sitting in the same row. Rest T sits extreme left end of the row and facing south.
Now from the some other rest conditions, the person, who lives on 6th oor, is not sitting to the
left of person who lives on 7th oor, Q does not live on 7th oor. Only two oors are left for Q i.e.
4th and 9th oors. The person who lives in odd number oor is not opposite to another person
who lives in odd number oor. So M lives on 3rd oor. No two persons who live in even number
oor are adjacent to each other, So Q lives on 9th oor. And O lives on 7th oor. And the person,
who lives on 4th oor, sits immediate right of M.
Q41.
for more join
lives on 3rd and 6th oors, is sitting. M https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
is neither adjacent nor opposite to S and O. R is sitting at
Which of the following combination is de nitely correct? (2 Mark)

A. M-3rd
B. Q -1st
C. N- 2nd
D. U- 4th
E. P- 7th
Correct Answer: A. M-3rd 
Solution
for more join
for more join
Q42.
Choose the correct combination of the persons, who are adjacent to the person N? (2 Mark)
for more join
A. R, O
B. O, T https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. S, T
D. S, O
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. S, O 

Solution
for more join

Q43.
for more join
Who among the following person sits second to the left of P? (2 Mark)
A. M
B. U
C. V
D. Q
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. M 
Solution
for more join
for more join
Q44.
Who among the following person lives on 10th oor? (2 Mark)

for more join
A. R
B. S https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. O
D. N
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. N 

Solution
for more join

Q45.
What is linker in an operating system? (1 Mark)
A. Is the same a loader
B. Is required to create a load module
C. User source code as input
D. Is always used before programs are executed
E. None of these
for more join
Correct Answer: B. Is required to create a load module 
Solution
Linker is a program that takes one or more objects generated by a compiler and combines them
into a single executable program.
Q46.
A is thrice as good a workman as B and therefore is able to nish a job in 80 days lesser than B. If
A and B complete 5/8 th of the job and then A is replaced by C, the remaining job is done by B and
C in 15 days. If A and B complete 5/12 th of the job and then B is replaced by D the remaining job
is done by A and D in 10 days.
How long will it take for A, B, C and D to complete the job working together? (2 Marks)
A. 12 days
B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 18 days
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 12 days 
Solution
for more join

A is thrice as good a workman as B and therefore is able to nish a job in 80 days lesser than B. If
A and B complete 5/8 th of the job and then A is replaced by C, the remaining job is done by B and
C in 15 days. If A and B complete 5/12 th of the job and then B is replaced by D the remaining job
is done by A and D in 10 days.
The job is completed in the following manner: A and B work on day 1, B and C work on day 2, C
and D work on day 3, D and A work on day 4 and so on. How long will it take for the job to be
completed in this manner? (2 Marks)
A. 30 days
B. 24 days
C. 18 days
D. 15 days
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 24 days 
Solution
Q48.
In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You
have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option.
Given below are three identical regular hexagons with side 4 cm each and ABC is a triangle. (2
Marks)
for more join

A. Quantity I > Quantity II

B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Correct Answer: E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation 
Solution
for more join

for more join

Q49.
Train A of length 400 meters is moving with a speed of 54 km/h. (2 Marks)
Quantity I: Time taken by train A to cross another train B having length half of that of train A
moving with a speed one-third of that of train A.
Quantity II: Time taken by train A to cross a platform of length 25% more than that of train A.
Correct Answer: D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
Solution
Q50.
for more join
Capacities of three vessels A, B and C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5 respectively. First, vessel A is lled
with milk and then content of vessel A is poured into vessel B. Now vessel B is lled with water
then content of vessel B is poured into vessel C. Now vessel C is lled with milk. Quantity of milk in
vessel C is 45 liters more than that water in vessel C. (2 Marks)
Quantity I: Capacity of vessel C in liters.

Quantity II: 60 liters.
Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II 
Solution
Quantity I:
Let the capacities of vessels A, B and C be 2x, 3x and 5x liters respectively.
Vessel A is lled with milk and content of vessel A is poured into vessel B
Quantity of milk in vessel B = Capacity of vessel A = 2x liters
Vessel B is lled with water
Quantity of water added in vessel B = Capacity of vessel B – Capacity of vessel A
= 3x – 2x = x liters
Content of vessel B is poured into vessel C
Quantity of milk added in vessel C = Capacity of vessel C – Capacity of vessel B
= 5x – 3x = 2x liters
Final Content of Vessels C:
Water = x liters
Milk = 2x + 2x = 4x liters
According to the question,
Quantity of milk in vessel C = 45 + Quantity of water in vessel C
⟹ 4x = 45 + x
⟹ 3x = 45
⟹ x = 15 for more join
Capacity of vessel C = 5x = 75 liters
Quantity I > Quantity II
Q51.
4 men and 6 women started a work. They completed half of the work in 25 days. Then one woman
was replaced by one man and the work got completed in next 24 days. (2 Marks)
Quantity I: Time taken by 10 men to complete the work.

Quantity II: Time taken by 12 women to complete the work.
Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II 
Solution
Let the per day e ciencies of a man and a woman be M and W units respectively
50% of the work = 25 days’ work of 4 men and 6 women = 25 × (4 × M + 6 × W) = 100M + 150W
units
⟹ Total work = 200M + 300W units ……………..(i)
One woman was replaced by one man,
50% of the work = 24 days’ work of 5 men and 5 women = 24 × (5 × M + 5 × W) = 120M + 120W
units
⟹ Total Work = 240M + 240W units ……………..(ii)
From equations (i) and (ii),
200M + 300W = 240M + 240W
for more join

Q52.
The probabilities of Virat hitting a century in a match against Australia and New Zealand are 0.25
and 0.2 respectively and that of Rohit are 0.2 and 0.15 respectively. (2 Marks)
Quantity I: Probability of either Virat or Rohit hitting century in a match against New Zealand.
Quantity II: Probability of at least one of Virat and Rohit hitting a century in a match against
Australia.
Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II 
Solution
Quantity I:
Probability of either Virat or Rohit hitting century in a match against New Zealand
= 0.2 × 0.85 + 0.8 × 0.15
= 0.17 + 0.12
= 0.29
Quantity II:
Probability of at least one of Virat and Rohit hitting a century in a match against Australia
= 0.25 × 0.8 + 0.75 × 0.2 + 0.25 × 0.2
= 0.2 + 0.15 + 0.05
= 0.4
Quantity II > Quantity I
for more join
Q53.
Cities M and N are 600 km apart. Bus Ahttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
starts from city M towards N at 9 AM and bus B starts from
city N towards M at the same time. Bus A travels the rst 1/3 rd of the distance at a speed of 40
km/h, the second 1/3 rd at 60 km/h and the last 1/3 rd at 40 km/h. Bus B travels the rst 1/3 rd of
the total distance at a speed of 50 km/h, the second 1/3 rd at 60 km/h and the last 1/3 rd at 30
km/h.
When and where will the two buses cross each other after starting from their respective stations?
(2 Marks)
A. 6 hours 10 minutes, 270 km from city N
B. 5 hours 10 minutes, 270 km from city M
C. 6 hours 10 minutes, 270 km from city M
D. 5 hours 10 minutes, 270 km from city N
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 6 hours 10 minutes, 270 km from city M 
Solution
Q54.
Cities M and N are 600 km apart. Bus A starts from city M towards N at 9 AM and bus B starts from
km/h.
At what times Bus A and Bus B reach their destinations respectively? (2 Marks)
A. 10 PM, 11:20 PM
B. 11 PM, 10:20 PM for more join
C. 11:20 PM, 10 PM
D. 10:20 PM, 11 PM
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. 10:20 PM, 11 PM 
Solution
Q55.
Cities M and N are 600 km apart. Bus A starts from city M towards N at 9 AM and bus B starts from
km/h.
If Bus A and Bus B will be completing their return journey at constant speeds of 40 km/h and 60
km/h on the next day, then how far from the previous day’s meeting point they will meet? (2
Marks)
A. 30 km
B. 90 km
C. 60 km
D. 120 km
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 90 km 
Solution
for more join

Q56.
Abhishek bought some chairs and tables from a shopkeeper. The marked price of a chair and a
table were in the ratio 5 : 8. The shopkeeper gave discounts of 20% and 25% on the chair & the
table respectively. The ratio of number of chairs and tables bought by Abhishek is 6 : 5.
If Abhishek sells each chair and table bought by him at discounts of 25% and 20% respectively
after marking up the prices of both by 50% and gives one table free for every four chairs bought
by a customer and only 2/3 rd of the total chairs are sold in bunch of four chairs, then what is the
net pro t /loss % made by Abhishek after selling all of the items which he bought from the
shopkeeper? (2 Marks)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: B. <img

Solution
Let the MP of a chair and a table be Rs.5x and Rs.8x respectively.

And, the number of chairs and tables bought be 6y and 5y respectively.
CP of a chair for Abhishek = (100 – 20)% of 5x = Rs.4x
CP of a table for Abhishek = (100 – 25)% of 8x = Rs.6x
Total CP for Abhishek = 4x × 6y + 6x × 5y = 24xy + 30xy = 54xy
SP of a chair for Abhishek = (100 – 25)% of (100 + 50)% of 4x = 4.5x
SP of a table for Abhishek = (100 – 20)% of (100 + 50)% of 6x = 7.2x
Number of chairs sold in bunch of four by Abhishek = 2/3 rd of 6y = 4y
So, number of table sold for free by Abhishek = 1/4 th of 4y = y
Total SP for Abhishek = 4.5x × 6y + 7.2x × (5y – y) = 27xy + 28.8xy = 55.8xy
Q57.
for more join
Abhishek bought some chairs and tables from a shopkeeper. The marked price of a chair and a
table were in the ratio 5 : 8. The shopkeeper gave discounts of 20% and 25% on the chair & the
table respectively. The ratio of number of chairs and tables bought by Abhishek is 6 : 5.
If the marked price of a table set by the shopkeeper was Rs.300 more than that of a chair and the
total expenditure made by Abhishek in purchasing the chairs and table from the shopkeeper was
Rs.108000, then how many chairs were purchased by Abhishek? (2 Marks)
A. 150
B. 60
C. 120
D. 90
E. None of these
Solution

MP of a table = 300 + MP of a chair
⟹ 8x = 300 + 5x
⟹ x = 100
Total CP for Abhishek = 108000
⟹ 54xy = 108000
⟹ 54 × 100 × y = 108000
⟹ y = 20
Number of chairs purchased by Abhishek = 6y = 120
Q58.
Pie-chart shown below shows percentages of markers sold by six sellers.
Table shows ratio three type of marker out of total markers sold by di erent sellers. Study the
data carefully and solve the following questions.
for more join

Seller ‘A’ xed his selling price of markers at 40% above the cost price but at the time of selling he
gave 40%, 20% and 10% discount on X, Y and Z respectively. Find the total pro t or loss percentage
if cost price of all the markers is same? (2 Marks)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: D. <img

Solution
for more join

Q59.
Seller ‘E’ and ‘F’ keep the S.P. of each X, Y and Z markers same and total S.P. of X, Y, Z sold by E is
for more join
Rs.47250. Find the total S.P. of all the markers sold by F if E kept the SP of each X, Y, Z marker in
the ratio 1 : 1.5 : 3. (2 Marks) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
A. Rs.48250
B. Rs.51250
C. Rs.54520
D. Rs.57520
E. Rs.45500
Correct Answer: B. Rs.51250 
Solution
Q60.
for more join

Seller ‘C’ sold all the markers for a certain sum and there was a loss of Had it been sold for
Rs.9000 more, there would have been a gain of If seller ‘C’ wants to earn 20% pro t then
what would be the total S.P. of Y marker if S.P. of each marker is in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 respectively. (2
Marks)
A. Rs.13680
B. Rs.12680
C. Rs.13608
D. Rs.12608
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Rs.13608 
Solution
for more join

Q61.
There are two customers, Satish and Veer. Seller ‘B’ sells 60% of X marker to Satish, and remaining
to Veer, B also sells 40% of Y marker to Satish and remaining to veer. Find the S.P. of each Y
marker if Satish and Veer pays Rs.8370 and Rs.9180 for X and Y marker respectively. (2 Marks)
A. Rs.10
B. Rs.12
C. Rs.14 for more join
D. Rs.16
E. Rs.18 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: B. Rs.12 
Solution
Q62.
for more join

Out of six sellers, which seller sells maximum number of X type of marker? (1 Mark)
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. F
E. None of these
Correct Answer: E. None of these 
Solution
for more join

Q63.
All of the students in a class study at least one of three subjects namely Physics, Chemistry and
Biology. 9x+1 students study Physics, 7x+1 study Chemistry and 6x+3 study Biology. 2x+2 students
study both Physics and Chemistry, x+4 students study both Chemistry and Biology and 2x+4
students study both Biology and Physics. x students study all the three subjects.
What is the minimum number of students who study all the three subjects? (2 Marks)
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: D. 2
Solution
Number of students who study Physics and Chemistry but not Biology = 2x + 2 – x = x + 2
Number of students who study Chemistry and Biology but not Physics = x + 4 – x = 4
Number of students who study Biology and Physics but not Chemistry = 2x + 4 – x = x + 4
Number of students who study only Physics = 9x + 1 – (x + 2 + x + x + 4) = 6x – 5
Number of students who study only Chemistry = 7x + 1 – (x + 2 + x + 4) = 5x – 5
Number of students who study only Biology = 6x + 3 – (4 + x + x + 4) = 4x – 5
Since the number of students cannot be negative,
Since the number of student is an integer, the minimum possible value of x will be 2.
Hence, minimum number of students who study all the three subjects = 2
for more join
If the number of students studying only Physics is not more than 31, then what is the maximum
number of students who study exactly two subjects? (2 Marks)
A. 26
B. 22
C. 24
D. 20
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 22
Solution
Q65.
If the total number of students in the class who study either only Physics or only Chemistry is 45,
then how many students study both Physics and Biology but not Chemistry? (2 Marks)
A. 11
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13 for more join
E. None of these
Solution

Total number of students who study either only Physics or only Chemistry = 45
⟹ 6x – 5 + 5x – 5 = 45
⟹ 11x – 10 = 45
⟹x=5
Number of students who study both Physics and Biology but not Chemistry
=x+4=5+4=9
Q66.
In the following table, the investments and pro ts of three businessmen in di erent sectors are
given. Study the table carefully and solve the following questions:
Note:
1. Apart from Telecom and Technology sector, businessmen invested the amount for same period.
2. Some values are missing, you have to calculate these values as per given data.
If the total pro t in Industrial sector is Rs.81000, then nd the ratio of investment by Aditya in
Finance to Industrial Sector. (2 Marks)
A. 3 : 7
B. 7 : 3
C. 5 : 9
D. 9 : 5 for more join
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 7 : 3 
Solution
Q67.
Note:
In telecom sector pro t earned by Aditya, Veer and Sushant is in the ratio 4 : 5 : 3. Total amount
for more join
invested by Aditya and Veer is Rs.14000 but Aditya invested for 8 month and Veer invested for 10
months. Find the period that Sushant invested his amount? (2 Marks)
A. 7 Months
B. 5 Months
C. 6 Months
D. 9 Months
Correct Answer: A. 7 Months 
Solution
Q68.
for more join

Note:
If the average of total pro t earned in Energy sector by all three businessmen is Rs.132000, then
amount invested by Aditya is what percentage of the total money invested by all three
businessmen in Energy Sector? (1 Mark)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Solution
Q69.
for more join
Note:
In technology sector, ratio of time given by Aditya, Veer and Sushant is 4 : 3 : 5 and average of total
investment is Rs.19000, then what will be the average pro t made by all three businessmen? (2
Marks)
A. Rs.148000
B. Rs.185000
C. Rs.160000
D. None of these
Correct Answer: D. None of these 
for more join

Solution
Q70.
Note:
for more join
Total investment made by Aditya in Finance is what percentage more than the investment made
by Veer in Energy sector? (1 Mark)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Solution
Q71.
In this table, number of leaps taken by the di erent animal in one minute and ratio of distance
covered by the animal in one leap to the distance covered by Lion in one leap are given.
Dog sees a stationary cat and estimates that it will catch the cat in 1 min and starts moving
for more join
towards it. At the same time cat also starts moves away from the dog. In how much time the dog
will catch the cat? (1 Mark) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: B. <img

Solution
Another method
According to dog, cat was 1 minute away from him.
Now, cat complete 5 leaps in 1 minute
Now, dog’s 7 leap = 4 leaps of lion

7 leaps of dog = 10 leaps of cat
And, dog take 1 minute to cover 4 leaps of lion but in the same time cat moves away 2 leaps of
lion. In 1 more min
Dog cover 4 leaps of lion and again cat moves away 2 leaps of lion. So nally dog will catch cat in 2
mins
for more join
Total time to catch the cat = 1 + 1 minute = 2 minute.
Q72.
Jackal sees a Rabbit and nds that it is 2 minute away from him. Jackal starts to run towards Rabbit
and at the same time rabbit also starts to run away from Jackal. In which minute Jackal will catch
the Rabbit? (1 Mark)
A. Jackal could not catch the rat
B. In 4th min
C. In 5th min.
D. In 6th min.
E. None
Correct Answer: B. In 4th min 
Solution
for more join

Q73.
What is the ratio of the speed of Dog to Cheetah if Cheetah covers 50% of more distance in one
leap than lion and sum of leaps taken by Cat and Monkey in one minute is equal to the number of
leaps taken by Cheetah in one minute? (2 Marks)
A. 2 : 5
B. 5 : 8
C. 11 : 13
D. 8 : 33
E. None
Correct Answer: D. 8 : 33
for more join

Solution
Q74.
for more join

When a Cat climb up a tree its speed is https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
reduced by 20% and when Monkey climb up a tree its
speed is increased by 20%. Cat’s speed on climbing up a tree is what percent of speed of Monkey
when it climbs the tree. (Approximately) (2 Marks)
A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 10%
E. 15%
Correct Answer: A. 30% 
Solution
Q75.
for more join

What is the sum of distance cover by all the 5 animals in 2 minutes if distance cover by Jackal in 1
minute is 10 meters? (2 Marks)
A. 80 m
B. 70.8 m
C. 68.3 m
D. 16 m
E. None
Correct Answer: B. 70.8 m 
Solution
Jackal – 1 minute distance = 10 meter

Jackal 8 leaps = 10 meter
Lions 5 leaps = 10 meter
1 leap of lion = 2 meter
Jackal 2 min distance = 10 × 2 = 20 meter
Cat’s 2 min distance = (5 × 2) = (3 × 2) of Lion’s leap
= 6 × 2 = 12 meter
Monkey 2 min distance = 6 × 2 = 12 leaps
= leaps of lion = 18 meter
Dog’s 2 min distance = 14 leaps = 8 leaps of lion = 16 meter.
Rabbit 2 min distance = 12 leaps = 2.4 leaps of lion = 4.8 meter
Sum = (20 + 12 + 18 + 16 + 4.8) m = 70.8 m
Q76.
The following questions are accompanied by three statements A, B and C. You have to determine
which statement(s) is/are necessary/su cient to answer the question.
What is the rst term of an arithmetic progression? (1 Mark)

for more join
A. Fifth term of the AP is 15 more than the second term of the AP.
B. The average of rst ve terms is 13. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. The sum of fourth and sixth terms is 46.
A. Only A and B together
B. Only A and C together
C. Only B and C together
D. Any two of the three together
E. All the three together
Correct Answer: D. Any two of the three together 
Solution
Q77.
What is the speed of the boat in still water? (1 Mark)
A. The boat takes 2 hours more in travelling 72 km upstream than in travelling the same distance
downstream.
B. Di erence in the downstream and upstream speed is 6 km/h.
C. The boat goes 60 km upstream in 5 hours.
for more join
A. Any two of the three together https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. All the three together
D. Only A and B together
E. Only B and C together
Correct Answer: A. Any two of the three together 
Solution
Q78.
What is the total surface area of the cuboid? (1 Mark)
A. The ratio of length and breadth of the cuboid is 3 : 2 and the volume is 9000
B. The ratio of length and height of the cuboid is 2 : 1.
C. The volume of a cube, having length of its edge equal to the breadth of given cuboid is 8000

C. All the three together
D. Any two of the three together
E. Either A and B together or A and C together
for more join
Correct Answer: E. Either A and B together or A and C together 
Solution
Q79.
There are some red, blue and green balls in bag. How many red balls are there in the bag? (1
Mark)
A. Ratio of number of green and blue balls in the bag is 5 : 3.

B. If one ball is selected at random from the bag, the probability of the selected ball being red is
1/5.
C. Sum of number of red and blue balls is equal to the number of green balls in the bag.
A. All the three together are not su cient
B. Either A and B together or B and C together
C. Any two of the three together
D. Only A and B together
E. All the three together
Correct Answer: A. All the three together are not su cient 
Solution
Q80.
What is the selling price of an article? (1 Mark)
A. After selling 4 articles, shopkeeper had a pro t equal to the selling price of one such article.
B. If the shopkeeper had sold one article at Rs.60 less than the original selling price, he would have
had pro t.
C. If he had sold one article at 25% less than the original selling price, he would have had no pro t
or loss.
B. All the three together
C. Either A and B together or B and C together
D. Only B and C together
E. Any two of three together
Correct Answer: C. Either A and B together or B and C together 

Q81.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
In Winters v. United States (1908), the Supreme Court held that the right to use waters owing
through or adjacent to the Fort Berthold Indian Reservation was reserved to American Indians by
the treaty establishing the reservation. Although this treaty did not mention water rights, the Court
ruled that the federal government, when it created the reservation, intended to deal fairly with
American Indians by preserving for them the waters without which their lands would have been
useless. Later decisions, citing Winters, established that courts can nd federal rights to reserve
water for particular purposes if (1) the land in question lies within an enclave under exclusive
federal jurisdiction, (2) the land has been formally withdrawn from federal public lands — i.e.,
withdrawn from the stock of federal lands available for private use under federal land use laws —
and set aside or reserved, and (3) the circumstances reveal the government intended to reserve
water as well as land when establishing the reservation.
Some American Indian tribes have also established water rights through the courts based on their
traditional diversion and use of certain waters prior to the United States’ acquisition of
sovereignty. For example, the Rio Grande pueblos already existed when the United States
acquired sovereignty over New Mexico in 1848. Although they at that time became part of the
United States, the pueblo lands never formally constituted a part of federal public lands; in any
for more join
event, no treaty, statute, or executive order has ever designated or withdrawn the pueblos from
public lands as American Indian reservations. This fact, however, has not barred application of the
Winters doctrine. What constitutes an American Indian reservation is a question of practice, not of
legal de nition, and the pueblos have always been treated as reservations by the United States.
This pragmatic approach is buttressed by Arizona v. California (1963), wherein the Supreme Court
indicated that the manner in which any type of federal reservation is created does not a ect the
application to it of the Winters doctrine. Therefore, the reserved water rights of Pueblo Indians
have priority over other citizens’ water rights as of 1848, the year in which pueblos must be
considered to have become reservations.
The author cites the fact that the Rio Grande pueblos were never formally withdrawn from public
lands primarily in order to do which of the following? (1.5 Mark)
A. Suggest why it might have been argued that the Winters doctrine ought not to apply to pueblo
lands.
B. Imply that the United States never really acquired sovereignty over pueblo lands.
C. Argue that the pueblo lands ought still to be considered part of federal public lands.
D. Support the argument that the water rights of citizens other than American Indians are limited
by the Winters doctrine.
E. Suggest that federal courts cannot claim jurisdiction over cases disputing the traditional
diversion and use of water by Pueblo Indians.
Correct Answer: A. Suggest why it might have been argued that the Winters doctrine ought not to
apply to pueblo lands. 
Solution
Refer last paragraph “This fact, however, has not barred application of the winters doctrine”.
Q82.
for more join
water as well as land when establishinghttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
the reservation.
According to the passage, which of the following was true of the treaty establishing the Fort
Berthold Indian Reservation? (1.5 Mark)
A. It was challenged in the Supreme Court a number of times.
B. It was rescinded by the federal government, an action that gave rise to the Winters case.
C. It cited American Indians’ traditional use of the land’s resources.
D. It failed to mention water rights to be enjoyed by the reservation’s inhabitants.
E. It was modi ed by the Supreme Court in Arizona v. California.
Correct Answer: D. It failed to mention water rights to be enjoyed by the reservation’s inhabitants.
 
Solution
Right over water was interpreted by the supreme court, not mentioned in the treaty.
Q83.
for more join
The primary purpose of the passage is to (1.5 Mark)

A. trace the development of laws establishing American Indian reservations
B. explain the legal basis for the water rights of American Indian tribes
C. question the legal criteria often used to determine the water rights of American Indian tribes
D. discuss evidence establishing the earliest date at which the federal government recognized the
water rights of American Indians
E. point out a legal distinction between di erent types of American Indian reservations
Correct Answer: B. explain the legal basis for the water rights of American Indian tribes 
Solution
“explain the legal basis for the water rights of American Indian tribes” is the main purpose of the
passage.
Q84.
for more join
the treaty establishing the reservation. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Although this treaty did not mention water rights, the Court
The passage suggests that, if the criteria discussed in the paragraph 2 were the only criteria for
establishing a reservation’s water rights, which of the following would be true? (1.5 Mark)
A. The water rights of the inhabitants of the Fort Belknap Indian Reservation would not take
precedence over those of other citizens.
B. Reservations established before 1848 would be judged to have no water rights.
C. There would be no legal basis for the water rights of the Rio Grande pueblos.
D. Reservations other than American Indian reservations could not be created with reserved water
rights.
E. Treaties establishing reservations would have to mention water rights explicitly in order to
reserve water for a particular purpose.
Correct Answer: C. There would be no legal basis for the water rights of the Rio Grande pueblos.
 
for more join
Solution
These rights were beyond the law of the land.
Q85.
The passage suggests that the legal rights of citizens other than American Indians to the use of
water owing into the Rio Grande pueblos are (1.5 Mark)
A. guaranteed by the precedent set in Arizona v. California
B. abolished by the Winters doctrine
C. deferred to the Pueblo Indians whenever treaties explicitly require this
D. guaranteed by federal land-use laws
E. limited by the prior claims of the Pueblo Indians
Correct Answer: E. limited by the prior claims of the Pueblo Indians 
Solution
Refer the rst few lines of second paragraph “Some American Indian tribes have also established
water rights through the courts based on their traditional diversion and use of certain waters prior
to the United States’ acquisition of sovereignty.”
Q86.
Each one has his reasons: for one art is a ight; for another, a means of conquering. But one can
ee into a hermitage, into madness, into death. One can conquer by arms. Why does it have to be
writing, why does one have to manage his escapes and conquests by writing? Because, behind the
various aims of authors, there is a deeper and more immediate choice which is common to all of
us. We shall try to elucidate this choice, and we shall see whether it is not in the name of this very
choice of writing that the engagement of writers must be required.
Each of our perceptions is accompanied by the consciousness that human reality is a 'revealer',
that is, it is through human reality that 'there is' being, or, to put it di erently, that man is the
means by which things are manifested. It is our presence in the world which multiplies relations. It
is we who set up a relationship between this tree and that bit of sky. Thanks to us, that star which
has been dead for millennia, that quarter moon, and that dark river are disclosed in the unity of a
landscape. It is the speed of our auto and our airplane which organizes the great masses of the
earth. With each of our acts, the world reveals to us a new face. But, if we know that we are
directors of being, we also know that we are not its producers. If we turn away from this
landscape, it will sink back into its dark permanence. At least, it will sink back; there is no one mad
enough to think that it is going to be annihilated. It is we who shall be annihilated, and the earth
will remain in its lethargy until another consciousness comes along to awaken it. Thus, to our inner
certainty of being 'revealers' is added that of being inessential in relation to the thing revealed.
One of the chief motives of artistic creation is certainly the need of feeling that we are essential in
relationship to the world. If I x on canvas or in writing a certain aspect of the elds or the sea or a
look on someone's face which I have disclosed, I am conscious of having produced them by
condensing relationships, by introducing order where there was none, by imposing the unity of
mind on the diversity of things. That is, I think myself essential in relation to my creation. But this
time it is the created object which escapes me; I cannot reveal and produce at the same time. The
creation becomes inessential in relation to the creative activity. First of all, even if it appears to
others as de nitive, the created object always seems to us in a state of suspension; we can always
change this line, that shade, that word. Thus, it never forces itself. A novice painter asked his
teacher, 'When should I consider my painting nished?' And the teacher answered, 'When you can
for more join
look at it in amazement and say to yourself "I'm the one who did that!...
Which amounts to saying 'never'. For it is virtually impossible considering one's work with
someone else's eyes and revealing what has been created. But it is self-evident that we are
proportionally less conscious of the thing produced and more conscious of our productive activity.
When it is a matter of poetry or carpentry, we work according to traditional nonns, with tools
whose usage is codi ed; it is Heidegger's famous 'they' who are working with our hands. In this
case, the result can seem to us su ciently strange to preserve its objectivity in our eyes. But if we
ourselves produce the rules of production, the measures, the criteria, and if our creative drive
comes from the very depths of our heart, then we never nd anything but ourselves in our work. It
is we who have invented the laws by which we judge it. It is our history, our love, our gaiety that
we recognize in it. Even if we should regard it without touching it any further, we never receive
from it that gaiety or love. We put them into it. The results which we have obtained on canvas or
paper never seem to us objective. We are too familiar with the processes of which they are the
e ects. These processes remain a subjective discovery; they are ourselves, our inspiration, our
ruse, and when we seek to perceive our work, we create it again, we repeat mentally the
operations which produced it; each of its aspects appears as a result. Thus, in the perception, the
object is given as the essential thing and the subject as the inessential.
The latter seeks essentiality in the creation and obtains it, but then it is the object which becomes
the inessential. The dialectic is nowhere more apparent than in the art of writing, for the literary
object is a peculiar top which exists only in movement. To make it come into view a concrete act
called reading is necessary, and it lasts only as long as this act can last. Beyond that, there are only
black marks on paper. Now, the writer can not read what he writes, whereas the shoemaker can
put on the shoes he has just made if they are to his size, and the architect can live in the house he
has built. In reading, one foresees; one waits. He foresees the end of the sentence, the following
sentence, the next page. He waits for them to con rm or disappoint his foresights. The reading is
composed of a host of hypotheses, followed by awakenings, of hopes and deceptions, Readers are
always ahead of the sentence they are reading in a merely probable future which partly collapses
and partly comes together in proportion as they progress, which withdraws from one page to the
next and forms the moving horizon of the literary object. Without waiting, without a future,
without ignorance, there is no objectivity.
The passage makes a distinction between perception and creation in terms of (1.5 Mark)
A. Objectivity and subjectivity.
B. Revelation and action.
C. Objective reality and perceived reality.
D. Essentiality and non-essentiality of objects and subjects.
E. None of these
for more join

Correct Answer: D. Essentiality and non-essentiality of objects and subjects. 
Solution
Perception and Creation are explained in terms of essentiality and non-essentiality in the third and
fourth paragraph of the passage.
Hence the answer is Option (d).
Q87.
for more join
It is the author's contention that: (1.5 Mark)

A. Artistic creations are results of human consciousness.
B. The very act of artistic creation leads to the escape of the created object.
C. Man can produce and reveal at the same time.
D. An act of creation forces itself on our consciousness leaving us full of amazement.
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. The very act of artistic creation leads to the escape of the created object. 
for more join
Solution
We can eliminate options C and D as they are contrary to what is stated in the passage. The
passage states that all facets of nature, and not artistic creations, are revealed by human
consciousness. The passage states that:
"The latter seeks essentiality in the creation and obtains it, but then it is the object which becomes
the inessential."
Hence, we can infer option (b).
Q88.
for more join
The author holds that: (1.5 Mark)

A. There is an objective reality and a subjective reality.
B. Nature is the sum total of disparate elements.
C. It is human action that reveals the various facets of nature.
D. Apparently disconnected elements in nature are uni ed in a fundamental sense.
E. All of these
for more join

Correct Answer: C. It is human action that reveals the various facets of nature. 
Solution
The passage states that "Each of our perceptions is accompanied by the consciousness that
human reality is a 'revealer', that is, it is through human reality that 'there is' being, or, to put it
di erently, that man is the means by which things are manifested. It is our presence in the world
which multiplies relations."
Hence, option (c) is stated in the paragraph.
Q89.
for more join
The art of writing manifests the dialectic of perception and creation because (1.5 Mark)
A. reading reveals the writing till the act of reading lasts.
B. writing to be meaningful needs the concrete act of reading.
C. this art is anticipated and progresses on a series of hypotheses.
D. this literary object has a moving horizon brought about by the very act of creation.
E. None of these
for more join

Correct Answer: A. reading reveals the writing till the act of reading lasts. 
Solution
The passage states that :
The dialectic is nowhere more apparent than in the art of writing, for the literary object is a
peculiar top which exists only in movement. To make it come into view a concrete act called
reading is necessary, and it lasts only as long as this act can last.
Hence, option (a) directly follows from the passage
Q90.
for more join
A writer, as an artist, (1.5 Mark)

A. reveals the essentiality of revelation.
B. makes us feel essential vis-a-vis nature.
C. creates reality.
D. reveals nature in its permanence.
E. None of these
for more join

Correct Answer: B. makes us feel essential vis-a-vis nature. 
Solution
The passage states that:
relationship to the world.
Hence, an artist makes us feel essential vis-a-vis nature
Q91.
In each of the following questions ve options are given, of which one word is most nearly the
same or opposite in meaning to the given word in the question. Find the correct option having
either same or opposite meaning.
REPUGNANCE (1 Mark)
A. Anomalies
B. In icted
C. A iction
D. Culmination
E. Nausea
Correct Answer: E. Nausea 
Solution
Repugnance means intense disgust while nausea means a feeling of loathing or disgust, hence
they both are similar in meaning.
Q92.
CALLOUS (1 Mark)
A. solicitous
B. Preclude
C. Remittance
D. Moribund
E. Sustained
Correct Answer: A. solicitous for more join

Callous means showing or having an insensitive and cruel disregard for others hence solicitous
which means characterized by or showing interest or concern is the word which is most opposite
in meaning.
Q93.
DENOUNCE (1 Mark)
A. Auxiliary
B. Castigate
C. Adjunct
D. Mend
E. Meticulous
Correct Answer: B. Castigate 
Solution
Denounce means publicly declare to be wrong or evil hence castigate which means reprimand
(someone) severely is the word which is most similar in meaning.
Q94.
SUBSIDIARY (1 Mark)
A. Accosted
B. Chaste
C. Portend
D. Enumerate
E. Trivial
Correct Answer: E. Trivial for more join

Subsidiary means less important than but related or supplementary to something hence trivial of
which means little value or importance is the word most opposite in meaning.
Q95.
Garrulous (1 Mark)
A. Recluse
B. Enthusiast
C. Lethargic
D. Loquacious
E. Courteous
Correct Answer: D. Loquacious 
Solution
Garrulous means excessively talkative, especially on trivial matters loquacious which means
tending to talk a great deal; talkative is the word which is most similar in meaning.
Q96.
The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts which contain
grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in any part of
the sentence, nd the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options given
below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of
the sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose (D), i.e., None
of the (I), (II) and (III) as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not
require any correction, choose (E), i.e., No correction required as your answer.
Modern India owes much to the advanced system (I)/of public sanitation of the ancient Indus cities
which laid the foundation (II)/that subsequent development in sanitary engineering. (III)
(I)Modern India has owedmuch to the advanced system

(II)of public sanitation of the ancient Indus cities laying the foundation
(III)for subsequent development in sanitary engineering (1 Mark)
A. Only (I) for more join
B. Only (III)
C. Both (I) and (III) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. None of the (I), (II) and (III)
E. No correction required
Correct Answer: B. Only (III) 
Solution
The rst part of the sentence is grammatically correct, pointing towards a true factual statement.
Thus it doesn’t require any correction. Similarly, the second part of the sentence is absolutely
correct and follows the rst part of the sentence aptly. In the third part of the sentence, the use of
the relative pronoun “that” makes no sense in the context of the sentence structure; it should be
replaced by the Preposition “for” to make the sentence grammatically correct. Thus only the third
part of the sentence requires correction. Hence (b) is the correct option.
Q97.
In each of the given questions an inference is given in bold which is then followed by three
paragraphs. You have to nd the paragraph(s) from where it is inferred. Choose the option with
the best possible outcome as your choice.
The Communist society is more or less the perquisite of Marx’s dogmas.
(1)The Communist ideology is derived, on the one hand, from the penetrating insights of Karl Marx
on the contradictions of Victorian capitalism and, on the other, from the violent determination of
Leninist regimes to impose their version of utopia on feudal societies.
(2)Marx’s vision of communist society is remarkably (and perhaps intentionally) vague. Unlike
earlier “utopian socialists,” whom Marx and Engels derided as unscienti c and impractical—
including Henri de Saint-Simon, Charles Fourier, and Robert Owen—Marx did not produce detailed
blueprints for a future society. Some features that he did describe, such as free education for all
and a graduated income tax, are now commonplace.
(3)The Russian Revolution in 1917 (exactly 100 years ago), was highly driven by the communist
ideology. This led to the formation of the USSR which was primarily an ideology-driven state, the
ideology being Marxism-Leninism. The reason why Marx and his works left such a deep impact on
the masses was because Marx scienti cally argued how a section of people were getting richer at
the expense of a much larger poor population. (1 Mark)
A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Both (1) and (3) for more join
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. Both (1) and (3) 
Solution
Read the paragraph (1) carefully, it is clearly mentioned that the Communist ideology is derived on
the backdrop of precepts from Karl Marx and Leninist regimes. Thus it agrees with the inference
so generated. In the case of paragraph (2), there is a contradicting belief stating Marx’s vision of
communist society is vague and the certain features that he described are ordinary. Thus the
given paragraph doesn’t follow the inference. In the paragraph (3), the example of the Russian
Revolution in 1917 which was highly driven by the communist ideology marks a valid contribution
from Karl Marx and his unprecedented dogmas. Thus it also agrees with the given inference.
Hence both the paragraphs (1) and (3) derive the similar inference, “ The Communist society is
more or less the perquisite of Marx’s dogmas.”
Q98.
There are sets of four statements in question given below which when connected using the correct
sentence structure forms a single complete sentence without altering the meaning of the
sentences given in the question. There are four options given below the question, choose the
sentence that forms the correct formation of a single sentence which is both grammatically correct
and contextually meaningful. If none follows, choose (E) as your answer.
The railways have built bridges across the widest rivers in the country; it is insulting to call upon
the Army; the Army is often hailed as the nation’s last resort; it is asked to construct a few foot
over-bridges. (1 Mark)
A. It is insulting to call upon the Army who is often hailed as the nation’s last resort when they are
asked to construct a few foot over-bridges after the railways have built bridges across the widest
rivers in the country.
B. Since the railways have built bridges across the widest rivers in the country, it is insulting to call
upon the Army which is often hailed as the nation’s last resort, to construct a few foot over-
bridges.
C. The Army is asked to construct a few foot over-bridges as they are hailed as the nation’s last
resort after the railways have built bridges across the widest rivers in the country.
D. Despite building bridges across the widest rivers in the country, it is insulting to call upon the
Army in place of the railways who have been often hailed as the nation’s last resort to construct a
few foot over-bridges.
E. None of the above is correct.
Correct Answer: B. Since the railways have built bridges across the widest rivers in the country, it is
insulting to call upon the Army which is often hailed as the nation’s last resort, to construct a few
foot over-bridges. 
Solution
Among the given statements, options (a), (c) and (d) are grammatically and structurally incorrect. In
the case of sentence (a), the relative pronoun “who” to represent the collective noun “army” is
incorrect; it should be replaced by “who” to make it grammatically compatible. The sentence (c) is
meaningless and incomplete. The sentence (d) changes the meaning of the actual sentence as the
use of relative pronoun “who” in this case misguides the fact given in the question. Thus options
(a), (c) and (d) can be eliminated owing to their incorrect grammar usage and inappropriate
sentence structures. However, sentence (b) is both grammatically and structurally sound to make
a meaningful sentence. Hence (b) is the correct choice.
Q99.
While Guru Nanak is widely recognized as one of the greatest spiritual leader(I)/and social
reformers of all times, there is also need for placing his life (II)/and teachings in context of present
day problems and need. (III)
(I)While Guru Nanak is widely recognized as one of the greatest spiritual leaders
(II)andthe social reformer of all times, there is also need for placing his life
(III)and teachings in the context of present day problems and needs (1 Mark)
A. Only (I)
B. Both (II) and (III)
C. Both (I) and (III)
Correct Answer: C. Both (I) and (III) 

for more join
Solution
In the rst part of the sentence, there ishttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
a minor error, the singular noun “leader” should be
replaced by the plural form it “leaders” as the noun following the phrase "one of the" is always a
plural noun. The second part of the sentence is grammatically correct and doesn’t require any
correction. However, in the third part of the sentence, there will be a use of de nite article “the”
before “context” and the conjunction “and” connecting the words “problems” and “needs” should
be in the same form. Hence (c) is the correct choice.
Q100.
China’s rise as a draconian superpower may create bipolar disorder in international relations.
(1)China’s rise with an authoritarian regime has led to the ‘war with China’ theme propelling the
American academic discourse. If only China were a democracy of some kind, the arguments of
‘democratic peace theory (that is, democracies do not ght)’would have diluted the war-mongering
theories.
(2) The consequences of an authoritarian China are already visible in its foreign policy behavior
and wider international relations. The Chinese leadership is promoting nationalism as a
diversionary tactics inducing aggressive posture in foreign policy behavior, particularly towards
Japan, and to some extent, the US.
(3)The rise of China’s economic in uence in the region, paired with diminished U.S. criticism on
human-rights issues, has helped pave the way for a hardline agenda among regional
governments, who also now stand to bene t from playing two of the world’s major superpowers
o each other. (1 Mark)
A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Both (1) and (2)
D. Both (2) and (3)
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E. All of the above 
Solution
The passage (1) depicts the similar theme that China’s rise as an authoritarian regime may create a
disorder among di erent nations. The mention of “ war-mongering theories” describes the
for more join
possibility of unstable pattern of peaceful relations. In the case of paragraph (2), China’s
aggressive foreign policy behavior towards Japan and the US indicates the possible hot and cold
relations between the two countries respectively. Thus the inference so generated makes a valid
proof to this passage. Similarly, the paragraph (3) mentions the impact of economic domination of
China that has led to some relief to regional governments. The given paragraph also indicates that
there is a presence of unstable relation of China with other countries. Hence all the three
paragraphs derive the same inference, “ China’s rise as a draconian superpower may create
bipolar disorder in international relations.”
Q101.
The soldier would be relieved; the government is close to nalizing a Rs 40,000-crore plan to
procure long overdue small-arms; it includes ri es, carbines and light machine-guns; it is for the
generally unheralded footslogger. (1 Mark)
A. The soldier must be relieved after nalizing a Rs 40,000-crore plan by government to procure
long overdue small-arms consisting of ri es, carbines and light machine-guns as it is for the
generally unheralded footslogger.
B. As the government is close to nalize a Rs 40,000-crore plan to procure long overdue small-
arms including ri es, carbines and light machine-guns, the soldier would be relieved for the
C. The soldier would be relieved that the government is close to nalizing a Rs 40,000-crore plan to
procure long overdue small-arms comprising ri es, carbines and light machine-guns for the
D. Since the government is close to nalizing a Rs 40,000-crore plan to procure long overdue
small-arms comprising of ri es, carbines and light machine-guns, the soldier should be relieved for
the generally unheralded footslogger.
Correct Answer: C. The soldier would be relieved that the government is close to nalizing a Rs
40,000-crore plan to procure long overdue small-arms comprising ri es, carbines and light
machine-guns for the generally unheralded footslogger. 
Solution
All the sentences, except (c), are insu cient in providing a correct required sentence as they lack
for more join
the corrective measures to connect these four statements. The sentence (a) is incorrect both
grammatically and structurally. The sentence (b) is meaningless as it gives a very vague meaning to
the sentence which is irrelevant. The sentence (d) brings out the incorrect grammar usage;
“comprising of” should be replaced by “comprising.” Moreover, the sentence (d) uses the incorrect
connector to derive the sentence. However, the sentence (c) gives an apt and meaningful
outcome. It is both grammatically and structurally correct. Hence (c) is the correct choice.
Q102.
It will remain a moot point for argumentative Indians (I)/if a slide on a social-scale negates positive
gains (II)/registered on an economic index.(III)
(I)It will be remaining a moot point for argumentative Indians

(II)to slide on a social-scale negating positive gains
(III)registering on an economic index (1 Mark)
A. Only (I)
B. Only (II)
C. Both (I) and (III)
Correct Answer: E. No correction required 
Solution
The given sentence is grammatically correct and hence it doesn’t require any correction.
Q103.
for more join
There was a di https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
erence between the colonial coinage of the term, criminality and the post-colonial
anthropological construct; the former based its arguments on the instinctive nature of the
community; the latter viewed criminality as a result of environmental and/or socio-economic
conditions; the conditions were encountered by the Lodhas. (1 Mark)
A. The only di erence between the colonial coinage of the term, criminality and the post-colonial
anthropological construct was that while the former based its arguments on the instinctive nature
of the community, the latter viewed criminality as a result of environmental and/or socio-
economic conditions encountered by the Lodhas.
B. The di erence between the colonial coinage of the term, criminality and the post-colonial
anthropologist construct is that the former based its arguments on the instinctive nature of the
community and the latter viewed criminality as a result of environmental and/or socio-economic
conditions which were encountered by the Lodhas.
C. Although there was a di erence between the colonial coinage of the term, criminality and the
post-colonial anthropological construct, the former based its arguments on the instinctive nature
of the community whereas the latter views criminality as a result of environmental and/or socio-
economic conditions encountered by the Lodhas.
D. While there was a di erence between the colonial coinage of the term, criminality and the post-
colonial anthropological construct, the former based its arguments on the instinctive nature of the
community as compared to the latter who viewed criminality as a result of environmental and/or
socio-economic conditions encountered by the Lodhas.
Correct Answer: A. The only di erence between the colonial coinage of the term, criminality and
the post-colonial anthropological construct was that while the former based its arguments on the
instinctive nature of the community, the latter viewed criminality as a result of environmental
and/or socio-economic conditions encountered by the Lodhas. 
Solution
All the sentences, except (a), contain grammatical errors which can be easily identi ed. In the case
of sentence (b), there is a use of incorrect form the verb; the present form of the verb “is” should
be replaced by “was” as the sentence is in the Past Tense. Similarly, in the sentence (c), the present
form of the verb “views” should be replaced by “viewed” to satisfy the subject-verb agreement.
Moreover, the use of the connector “although” is not required in the sentence. In the sentence (d),
there is an error in the use of the relative pronoun “who,” which should be replaced by “which” and
at the same time the use of the connector “while” changes the meaning of the sentence. However,
the sentence (a) is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Hence (a) is the
correct choice.
for more join
Q104.
A wealth of linguistic richness exists outside what are called the o cial languages of India.
(1)Uttarakhand is home to Hindi and many Pahari languages like Garhwali, Kumaoni and Jaunsari.
Sanskrit has been given the status of second o cial language in the state. But besides these
languages, many Tibeto-Burman languages are also spoken in this region, including Bhoti, Jad,
Rangkas, Darmiya, Byangsi, and Chaudangsi.
(2)There is proof of the intermixing of Dravidian and Indo-Aryan languages through the pockets of
Dravidian-based languages on remote areas of Pakistan, and interspersed areas of North India. In
addition, there is a whole science regarding the tonal and cultural expression within the regional
languages that are quite standard across India. Thus this process creates languages which deviate
from its original structure.
(3)Among the most persistent myths about languages in India is that Sanskrit is the ancestor of all
Indian languages. This is as stubborn a myth as the other myth about Hindi being India’s national
language. (It isn’t. The constitutional status of Hindi is that of an “o cial” language, along with
English.) (1 Mark)
A. Only (1)
B. Only (3)
C. Both (1) and (2)
D. Both (2) and (3)
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: C. Both (1) and (2) 
Solution
Examine the inference carefully, it implies that the languages, besides o cially considered ones
describe the linguistic richness of our country. Among these three passages, paragraphs (1) and (2)
describe the di erent languages being spoken in the state of Uttarakhand and North India and
their importance in creating vast linguistic diversity. Thus both the paragraphs generate the same
inference. However, in the case of the paragraph (3), there is a mention of myths related to o cial
language of the country. Thus it doesn’t agree with the given inference. Hence both the
paragraphs (1) and (2) derive the similar inference, “ A wealth of linguistic richness exists outside
what are called the o cial languages of India.”
Q105. for more join
It might be legitimate for the National Conference to put down some markers; it could be done by
resurrecting its autonomy resolution; P Chidambaram was electioneering in Gujarat; was it really
necessary for P Chidambaram to broach the thorny subject? (1 Mark)
A. While P Chidambaram was electioneering in Gujarat, it was necessary for P Chidambaram to
broach the thorny subject of putting down some markers which could be done by resurrecting its
autonomy resolution.
B. As the National Conference put down some markers considering them legitimate and
resurrecting its autonomy resolution, was it really necessary for P Chidambaram to broach the
thorny subject?
C. Electioneering in Gujarat, P Chidambaram broached the thorny subject of the National
Conference which put down some legitimate markers by resurrecting its autonomy resolution.
D. While it might have been legitimate for the National Conference to put down some markers by
resurrecting its autonomy resolution, was it really necessary for P Chidambaram to broach the
thorny subject, that too while electioneering in Gujarat?
Correct Answer: D. While it might have been legitimate for the National Conference to put down
some markers by resurrecting its autonomy resolution, was it really necessary for P Chidambaram
to broach the thorny subject, that too while electioneering in Gujarat? 
Solution
There is a clear indication in the question that the sentence is Interrogative; thus the sentences (a)
and (c) can be eliminated. In the case of sentence (b), the sentence is not clear enough to
represent a meaningful statement. Moreover, it is incomplete and structurally incorrect. However,
the sentence (d) is complete and satis es both the grammar and structure mechanisms. It gives a
de nite meaning to the sentence following all the necessary considerations given in the question.
Hence (d) is the correct choice.
Q106.
In the following question, a part of the sentence is given in bold; it is then followed by three
sentences which try to explain the meaning of the phrase given in bold. Choose the best set of
for more join
alternatives from the ve options given below each question which explains the meaning of the
phrase correctly without altering the meaning of the sentence given to the question.
The extent to which great power privilege is institutionalized in the UN Charter is exceptional in
the comity of nations and anathema to the democratic spirit.
(I)The degree to which great power privilege is established in the UN Charter is exceptional in the
association of nations and repugnance to the democratic atmosphere.
(II)The great power privilege vested in the UN charter is exceptional in challenging the committee
of di erent nations and its democratic dynamism.
(III)There is a great degree to which power privilege is institutionalized in the UN Charter which is
exceptional in driving the participating nations towards democratic zeal. (1 Mark)
A. Only (I) is correct
B. Only (III) is correct
C. Both (I) and (II) are correct
D. Both (II) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: A. Only (I) is correct 
Solution
The phrase given in bold, “ the comity of nations and anathema to the democratic spirit” implies a
direct and straight meaning to the sentence which completes the former part of the sentence in a
meaningful way. It simply means “ the association of nations and aversion to the democratic
atmosphere.” Thus among the three statements, only (I) provides the clear and straightforward
meaning of the phrase to the sentence without altering the meaning of the actual sentence. The
other two statements give a di erent and inappropriate meaning to the original sentence. Hence
only statement (I) is the correct option.
Q107.
Western observers had been viewing that China intends to (I)/replacing the US as dominant power
for more join
in Asia and reshape (II)/the international order to be more in line with its interests. (III)
(I)Western observers are of the view that China intends to
(II)replace the US as the dominant power in Asia and reshape
(III)the international order to be more in line with their interests (1 Mark)
A. Only (I)
B. Both (I) and (II)
C. All (I), (II) and (III)
Correct Answer: B. Both (I) and (II) 
Solution
In the rst part of the sentence, it is to be noted that that sentence is not talking about the past
event; it is in the Present tense. Thus the verb “had been viewing” should be replaced by “are of
the view” to follow the correct grammar structure. In the second part of the sentence, the verb
“replacing” should be replaced by its rst form “replace” as the use of the in nitive “to” in the rst
part of the sentence suggests that the verb it follows should in the rst form. Moreover, there will
be an addition of de nite article “the” before “dominant power.” The third part of the sentence is
grammatically correct and thus it doesn’t require any correction. Hence (b) is the correct choice.
Q108.
The Indian policies entail a greater e ort in ensuring smooth and rational business environment.
(1)In order to undertake e ective policies to improve the business environment in India, we must
strive to comprehend what causes it to be relatively good in some situations and poor in others.
The NITI Aayog-IDFC study throws light on some of the broad trends in the country’s business
environment but fails to provide a deeper understanding of its causes due to the lack of a
conceptual framework to analyse the data.
(2)The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) has been focused at improving
policies and guidelines for doing business in India. The emphasis has been mainly to rationalise
and simplify the existing rules, along with introducing technology for making governance more
e ective and e cient. A prominent change had been online availability of applying for Industrial
License and Industrial Entrepreneur Memorandum 24*7.
for more join
(3)The pace of development has been impressive in the last few years, Bulcke said lauding the
government for improvement in India'shttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
ranking in World Bank's report on ease of doing business.
India has jumped 30 places to rank 100th in the World Bank's 'ease of doing business' ranking,
sending the jubilant government to vow to continue reforms that will help the country break into
top 50 in coming years. (1 Mark)
A. Only (1)
B. Both (1) and (2)
C. Both (2) and (3)
D. Both (1) and (3)
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: B. Both (1) and (2) 
Solution
There are clear indications in the paragraphs (1) and (2) that India needs to work towards
improving its business environment through various extensive policies and bringing new changes
and reforms in the existing mechanisms. Thus they infer the similar meanings. But in the case of
paragraph (3), it infers a di erent meaning. It is more about the achievement in the eld of
business in the country and a need to maintain such progress in the future. Hence both the
paragraphs (1) and (2) agree with the given inference, “ The Indian policies entail a greater e ort in
ensuring smooth and rational business environment.”
Q109.
The government has declared that the poor households will be rendered eligible for government
social security programs; it will also include educational scholarship, health insurance and skill
training towards food security and self-employment; though there was the poor record of the
successive governments in Nepal in introducing such schemes in the past; there is enough room
to doubt whether the identi cation card system will actually be implemented. (1 Mark)
A. Though the government has declared that the poor households will be rendered eligible for
government social security programs that will include educational scholarship, health insurance
and skill training towards food security and self-employment, the poor record of the successive
governments in Nepal in introducing such schemes in the past have enough room to doubt
whether the identi cation card system will actually be implemented.
for more join
B. The government has declared that the poor households will be rendered eligible for
government social security programs, including educational scholarship, health insurance and skill
training towards food security and self-employment, but given the poor record of the successive
governments in Nepal in introducing such schemes in the past, there is enough room to doubt
whether the identi cation card system will actually be implemented.
C. The declaration by the government that the poor households will be rendered eligible for
government social security programs which will also include educational scholarship, health
insurance and skill training towards food security and self-employment would be put into doubt
whether the identi cation card system will actually be implemented as there could be the poor
record of the successive governments in Nepal in introducing such schemes in the past.
D. The declaration by the government to render the poor households eligible for government
social security programs like educational scholarship, health insurance and skill training towards
food security and self-employment have been in doubt whether the identi cation card system will
actually be implemented owing to the poor record of the successive governments in Nepal in
introducing such schemes in the past.
Correct Answer: B. The government has declared that the poor households will be rendered
eligible for government social security programs, including educational scholarship, health
insurance and skill training towards food security and self-employment, but given the poor record
of the successive governments in Nepal in introducing such schemes in the past, there is enough
room to doubt whether the identi cation card system will actually be implemented. 
Solution
All the sentences, except (b), possess a similar grammatical mistake. In the case of sentence (a),
there should be the use of singular verb “has” in place of “have” [in the past has enough room…] as
the subject it refers is in singular form [the poor record]. Similarly, in the sentence (d), the plural
verb “have been” should be replaced by “has been” as the subject it refers is in singular form [the
declaration by the government]. In case of the sentence (c), the phrase “there could be the poor
record” is incorrect as it is clearly mentioned in the question “there was the poor record”; thus it
alters the meaning of the original sentence. However, the sentence (b) is grammatically correct,
structurally appropriate and contextually meaningful. Hence (b) is the correct choice.
Q110.
for more join
Public health service functions mainly within the biomedical paradigm, marked by the curative
rather than the preventive aspect. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
(I)Public health service generally follows the biomedical model which focuses more on remedial
facet than the preventive aspect.
(II)The Biomedical pattern is mainly known for the therapeutic aspect rather than the inhibitory
one, de ning how public health service should function.
(III)Public health service usually works within the biomedical process, concentrating more on
restoring the health of the person rather than preventing the disease from occurring. (1 Mark)
B. Only (II) is correct
C. Both (II) and (III) are correct
D. Both (I) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: D. Both (I) and (III) are correct 
Solution
The phrase given in bold, “ marked by the curative rather than the preventive aspect” can well be
explained by the third statement given as an alternative. It de nes the meaning of the phrase in
the most simple and logical way without altering the true essence of the sentence. The rst
statement also expresses the similar meaning. However, the second statement is partly correct
but the sentence implies a di erent meaning which doesn’t agree with the meaning of the actual
sentence. Thus only the rst and the third statements explain the correct meaning of the phrase
given in bold. Hence (d) is the correct choice.
Q111.
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions that follow.
If the sentence (B), “Saubhagya provides capital support for wiring unconnected homes, a
measurable fraction if not majority of costs for serving new users.” is the rst sentence of the
paragraph, then what is the sequence of other sentences after rearrangement?
(A)Today, most tari s for wiring a new home rarely cover the upfront infrastructure costs, which
have to be socialized.
(B)Saubhagya provides capital support for wiring unconnected homes, a measurable fraction if not
for more join
majority of costs for serving new users.
(C)If one is further than an electric pole’s span, then costs approach Rs2 lakh per km.
(D)Costs will vary based on how far the user is from the grid, and, unfortunately, the last to be
connected are likely to be the farthest away and most sparsely populated.
(E)Saubhagya averages at only about Rs4,000/home, inclusive of a metre and limited in-home
wiring.
(F)In the absence of data, one can only guess that per home costs may end up far higher than
sanctioned. (1 Mark)
A. DEFAC
B. EDACF
C. CADFE
D. AFCED
E. ADCEF
Correct Answer: E. ADCEF 
Solution
If (B) is the rst sentence, the correct sequence of other sentences after rearrangement should be
ADCEF. The mentions of “capital support” and “costs for serving new users” in the rst sentence
indicate that it should be followed by the sentence (A) as it talks about the “tari s for wiring a new
home” which can well be connected with the rst sentence. The sentences (D) and (C) make a
combination as they talk about the variation in costs owing to the reach of bene ciaries. Similarly,
the sentences (E) and (F) make another combination. Thus sentences in the sequence of BADCEF
form a coherent paragraph which is about the newly launched Saubhagya Scheme. Hence (e) is
the correct option.
Q112.
Micro-insurance, by de nition, envisages the protection (I)/of low-income people against debt
traps (II)/that often imperil their livelihoods and even their lives. (III)
(I)Micro-insurance as de ned to envisage the protection

for more join
(II)of low-income people in debt traps
(III)often imperil its livelihood and evenhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
their lives (1 Mark)
A. Only (I)
B. Only (III)
C. Both (II) and (III)
Correct Answer: E. No correction required 
Solution
The given sentence is grammatically correct and hence it doesn’t require any correction.
Q113.
Arti cial Intelligence will be the growth driver of economic transformation.
(1)But what about Arti cial Intelligence? Many jobs involving routine (and thus codi able) tasks
have been eliminated: Banking transactions are digitized, cheques are processed by optical
readers, call centres use software to shorten the conversations between customer and employee,
or even replace humans with bots. This has resulted in increased e ciency.
(2)Some humans may hope to become immortal parts of these ecologies through brain scans and
"mind uploads" into virtual realities or robots, a physically plausible idea discussed in ction since
the 1960s. However, to compete in rapidly evolving AI ecologies, uploaded human minds will
eventually have to change beyond recognition, becoming something very di erent in the process.
(3)Humanity has, arguably, invested more faith – belief based on things we cannot know or do not
understand – in arti cial intelligence than any other concept in recent memory. When computers
teach themselves to create better algorithms than the humans who created them – we’re seeing
things happen that even the developers themselves can’t fully explain. (1 Mark)
A. Only (1)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Both (1) and (3)
E. All of the above
for more join
Correct Answer: A. Only (1) 
Solution
The given inference speci cally mentions the role of Arti cial Intelligence in the economic
transformation. If we study these three paragraphs carefully, we will be able to infer that only
paragraph (1) can be related to the economy as it describes the changes that we have seen in our
economic world with the evolvement of Arti cial Intelligence and its subsequent implementation
in the system. Thus the paragraph agrees with the inference so generated. However, the other two
paragraphs are out of the context. They are moving more towards the ifs and buts of Arti cial
Intelligence. There is a clear absence of discussion related to the economic transformation in the
two paragraphs. Thus neither of them follows the given inference. Hence, only paragraph (1)
expresses the correct inference, “ Arti cial Intelligence will be the growth driver of economic
transformation.”
Q114.
Health planning in India has hived o the technological from the socio-economic strategy of
disease control because the former seems to be cheaper.
(I)Health planning in India has integrated the technological plan and the socio-economic approach
of disease control as the former seems to be cheaper.
(II)Health planning in India has consolidated the technology along with the socio-economic
strategy of disease control because the former seems to be a cheaper choice.
(III)Health planning in India has segregated the technological procedure from the socio-economic
strategy of disease control since the former seems to be economical. (1 Mark)
B. Only (II) is correct
C. Only (III) is correct
D. Both (I) and (II) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: C. Only (III) is correct 

for more join
Solution
The phrase, “ hive o https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
” means “ break away from or as if from a group; become separate.” Thus the
phrase given in bold “ hived o the technological from the socio-economic strategy of disease
control” implies “separation of the technological aspect from the socio-economic strategy of
disease control.” Thus among the given three statements, only (III) follows the correct meaning of
the phrase without altering the meaning of the actual sentence. The other two statements give a
completely opposite meaning to the phrase and thus they are incorrect in the context of their
meanings. Hence (c) is the correct choice.
Q115.
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions that follow.
If the sentence (C), “The government must empower the entrepreneur over the bureaucrat; it is
the rules framework that needs to change for India to have more entrepreneurs.” is the last
sentence of the paragraph, then which of the following sentences does not t into the paragraph
formed after rearranging other sentences?
(A)At the same time, joining the Indian bureaucracy has been one of the most sought after career
choices.
(B)The tide has been changing in the previous decade with increasing entrepreneurial activity; the
number of new tech start-ups increased from 480 in 2010 to 800 in 2015.
(C)The government must empower the entrepreneur over the bureaucrat; it is the rules
framework that needs to change for India to have more entrepreneurs.
(D)Some economists argue that the di erential allocation of talent is one of the reasons why
England had the Industrial Revolution in the 18th century but France did not.
(E)Historically in India, government service and the attendant “power” was the main aspiration for
a majority of the people.
(F)If entrepreneurship has to be encouraged holistically, the solution lies in changing the pay-o s
for productive work relative to unproductive activities. (1 Mark)
A. A
B. E
C. D
D. B
E. F
Correct Answer: A. A 

If the sentence (C) is the last sentence of the paragraph, the sentences in the sequence of DEBFC
form a coherent paragraph which is about https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
the need of encouraging the entrepreneurship over
bureaucracy in the country to bring about a change in the system. However, the sentence (A) nds
no alternative to be matched with as it talks about joining bureaucracy as a career option which
has no relevance from any other sentences among the given options. Hence (a) is the correct
option as the sentence (A) does not belong to the paragraph so formed.
Q116.
Banks importing gold and precious metals will have to pay ______ per cent tax under the GST which
can be claimed as input tax credit.
A. 1 per cent
B. 7 per cent
C. 3 per cent
D. 5 per cent
E. 9 per cent
Correct Answer: C. 3 per cent 
Solution
Banks importing gold and precious metals will have to pay 3 per cent tax under the GST which can
be claimed as input tax credit. Under GST 3% Integrated-GST is payable on all imports of precious
metals in addition to the basic customs duty. IGST paid can be taken as input tax credit by the
banks.
Q117.
According to the Finance Minister Arun Jaitley, taxes worth Rs 92,283 crore were collected in July,
2017 from just 64.42 per cent of the total taxpayer base after GST has launched on 01st July 2017.
Which country was the rst to introduce GST?
A. Germany
B. USA
C. Japan
D. Canada
E. France
Correct Answer: E. France 
Solution
The goods and services tax, GST, launched on 01st July 2017, has got o to a good start, with
for more join
collections exceeding the revenue target for the rst month. According to the Finance Minister
Arun Jaitley, taxes worth Rs 92,283 crore were collected in July from just 64.42 per cent of the total
taxpayer base. France was the rst to introduce GST.
Q118.
Which lender has waived charges for fund transfer of up to Rs 1,000 through its IMPS (Immediate
Payment Service) to promote small transactions?
A. SBI
B. Bank of India
C. YES Bank
D. Kotak Mahindra Bank
E. Bank of Baroda
Correct Answer: A. SBI 
Solution
The country’s largest bank SBI has waived charges for fund transfer of up to Rs. 1,000 through its
IMPS (Immediate Payment Service) to promote small transactions.
State Bank of India had been charging Rs. 5 along with the applicable service tax for IMPS fund
transfer of up to Rs. 1,000.
IMPS is an instant interbank electronic fund transfer service through mobile phones as well as
Internet banking.
Q119.
In which of the following country, the world's longest pedestrian suspension bridge has been
opened recently?
A. China
B. Romania
C. Finland
D. Albania
E. Switzerland
Correct Answer: E. Switzerland 
Solution
-Spanning an awesome 1621 feet and rising as high as 279 feet, the newly opened Charles Kuonen
Suspension Bridge in Switzerland has broken the record for the world's longest pedestrian
suspension bridge for more join
Canara HSBC Oriental Bank of Commerce Life Insurance Company Limited was launched in-?
A. February 2004
B. June 2008
C. September 2006
D. May 2012
E. November 2000
Correct Answer: B. June 2008 
Solution
Canara HSBC Oriental Bank of Commerce Life Insurance Company Limited was launched in June
2008.
Q121.
Name the person, who has taken charge as Managing Director and Chief Executive O cer of
Vijaya Bank?
A. R A Sankara Narayanan
B. Puneet Chhatwal
C. Mr Rajiv Gauba
D. RK Raghavan
E. Ashish Chauhan
Correct Answer: A. R A Sankara Narayanan 
Solution
R A Sankara Narayanan has taken charge as Managing Director and Chief Executive O cer of
Vijaya Bank. He has taken over the resigns of the bank from Kishore Sansi, who reached
superannuation on August 31st 2017.
Q122.
Ustad Hussain Sayeeduddin Dagar, a classical vocalist passed away recently. He belonged to which
tradition?
A. Dhrupad Tradition
B. Lavani Tradition
C. Ganasangeet Tradition
D. Sruti Tradition
E. RabindraSangeet
for more join
Correct Answer: A. Dhrupad Tradition 
Solution
-Ustad Hussain Sayeeduddin Dagar, a classical vocalist and one of the leading exponents of
Dhrupad tradition, passed away following a brief illness in Pune. He was 78
Q123.
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has appointed an expert panel
committee that would study various issues relating to data protection in the country. The
committee is headed by ____________.
A. M. PatanjaliSastri
B. B N Srikrishna
C. SudhiRanjan Das
D. RanganathMisra
E. Kamal Narain Singh
Correct Answer: B. B N Srikrishna 
Solution
-The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has appointed an expert panel
committee that would study various issues relating to data protection in the country and will
suggest a draft data protection Bill. It is a 10 member panel and it is headed by former Supreme
court Judge Justice B N Srikrishna.
Q124.
The Hemis National Park is located in which state?
A. Uttarakhand
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. New Delhi
D. Haryana
E. Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: B. Jammu and Kashmir 
Solution
for more join
The Hemis National Park is established in 1981 and is also known as Snow Leopard Capital of
India. It is mostly barren habitat and is https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
home to around 11 species of fauna, which include some of
the most endangered and rare species, and around 30 species of avifauna.
Q125.
Which of the following scheme IRCTC has launched for Tatkal tickets?
A. Book Now Tatkal
B. Tatkal on Demand
C. Payment on Demand
D. Book Now, Pay Later
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Book Now, Pay Later 
Solution
-Customers can book their Tatkal railway ticket and choose to pay later under the new scheme
announced by the Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corp (IRCTC). The scheme is named as
Book Now, Pay Later.
Q126.
Section 80E of the Income Tax Act provides for deduction of interest paid on Education or study
loan taken for higher education. Deduction under section 80E is available for _____
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 8 years
D. 10 years
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 8 years 
Solution
-The deduction for the interest on loan starts from the year in which you start repaying the loan. It
is available only for 8 years starting from the year in which you start repaying the loan or until the
interest is fully repaid whichever is earlier. It means if entire payments are done in 5 years only,
then tax deduction will be allowed for 5 years and not 8 years.
Q127.
Reliance General Insurance has received in-principle approval from the Insurance Regulatory and
for more join
Development Authority of India (IRDAI) for its IPO. IPO stands for-
A. Initial Product O ering https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
B. Initial Public O ering
C. International Public O ering
D. Initial Partnership O ering
E. Indian Public O ering
Correct Answer: B. Initial Public O ering 
Solution
Reliance General Insurance has received in-principle approval from the Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority of India (IRDAI) for its Initial Public O ering (IPO).
Q128.
Fiscal policy is concerned with which of the following?
A. Public Revenue and Expenditure
B. Issue of Currency
C. Export Import
D. Population Control
E. Education for all
Correct Answer: A. Public Revenue and Expenditure 
Solution
Fiscal policy is the policy relating to government revenues from taxes and expenditure on various
projects. Monetary Policy, on the other hand, is mainly concerned with the ow of money in the
economy.
Q129.
If the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is lowered by the RBI, its impact on credit creation will be-
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. No impact
D. All of the above
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Increases 

for more join
The Cash Reserve means, RBI informs the banks to maintain particular cash as the reserve. So if
the reserve ratio is lower than the bank can utilize those cash for credit purpose.
Q130.
Facebook has acquired an arti cial intelligence (AI) startup that specializes in understanding text-
based conversations. What is the name of that startup company?
A. Kambala
B. Faizlo
C. Keasr
D. Ozlo
E. Nomuro
Correct Answer: D. Ozlo 
Solution
-To build out a more elaborate personal assistant for the Messenger users, Facebook has acquired
an arti cial intelligence (AI) startup Ozlo that specialises in understanding text-based
conversations.
Q131.
'Dhopkhel' is a famous traditional game of which Indian state?
A. Odisha
B. Rajasthan
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Maharashtra
E. Assam
Correct Answer: E. Assam 
Solution
-Dhopkhel, also transliterated dhopkhel and dhoopkhel is a traditional ball game played in the
Indian state of Assam.
Q132.
The Indian Army has developed a mobile application named ____________ through which serving
soldiers can track details like postings and promotions.
A. Humraaz
for more join
B. Humsafar https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. Sambandh
D. Sabal
E. Samarth
Correct Answer: A. Humraaz 

Solution
-The Indian Army has developed a mobile application named 'Humraaz' through which serving
soldiers can track details like postings and promotions. Through the app, soldiers can also view
their monthly salary slips and the Form 16 and also download them.
Q133.
__________ is a payment system launched by National Payments Corporation of India and regulated
by the Reserve Bank of India which facilitates the instant fund transfer between two bank accounts
on the mobile platform.
A. NACH
B. BHIM
C. UPI
D. CPI
E. BBPS
Correct Answer: C. UPI 
Solution
Uni ed Payments Interface (UPI) is a payment system launched by National Payments Corporation
of India and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India which facilitates the instant fund transfer
between two bank accounts on the mobile platform.
Q134.
The Union Cabinet has approved the scrapping of the no-detention policy in schools till Class 8th.
Who is the Present HRD Minister?
A. Smriti Irani
B. Jagat Prakash Nadda
C. Prakash Javadekar
D. Chaudhary Birender Singh
E. Narendra Singh Tomar
for more join
Correct Answer: C. Prakash Javadekar 
Solution
-The Union Cabinet approved the scrapping of the no-detention policy in schools till Class 8th. It
also gave its nod to the Human Resource Development Ministry's plan of creating 20 world-class
institutions in the country. PrakashJavadekar is the Present HRD Minister.
Q135.
If the shares or convertible debentures are not issued within __________ days from the date of
receipt of the inward remittance or date of debit to NRE/FCNR(B)/Escrow account, the amount
shall be refunded.
A. 210 days
B. 150 days
C. 180 days
D. 120 days
E. 90 days
Correct Answer: C. 180 days 
Solution
If the shares or convertible debentures are not issued within 180 days from the date of receipt of
the inward remittance or date of debit to NRE/ FCNR (B)/ Escrow account, the amount shall be
refunded. Further, Reserve Bank may on an application made to it and for su cient reasons
permit an Indian Company to refund/ allot shares for the amount of consideration received
towards issue of security if such amount is outstanding beyond the period of 180 days from the
date of receipt.
Q136.
With which of the following country, India has signed a bilateral agreement for the transfer of
sentenced persons?
A. Ethiopia
B. Kenya
C. Iran
D. Djibouti
E. Somalia
Correct Answer: E. Somalia 

for more join
Solution
-India and Somalia signed a bilateral agreement for the transfer of sentenced persons. The move
steps forward in deepening humanitarian cooperation between the two nations. The agreement
was signed between External A airs Minister Sushma Swaraj and Foreign Minister of the Federal
Republic of Somalia Yusuf Garaad Omar.
Q137.
Name the rst vice-chairman of NITI Aayog, who has announced his resignation.
A. Bibek Debroy
B. Arvind Panagariya
C. V. K. Saraswat
D. Ramesh Chand
E. Arjun Kumar
Correct Answer: B. Arvind Panagariya 
Solution
-Arvind Panagariya, the rst vice-chairman of NitiAayog announced his resignation. The 62-year-
old Panagariya is an Indian-American economist and Professor of Economics at Columbia
University.
Q138.
For the rst time in the country, a team of Indian scientists has claimed to have discovered an
"extremely large supercluster of galaxies". It has been named as
A. Ganga
B. Yamuna
C. Saraswati
D. Prakash
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Saraswati 
Solution
For the rst time in the country, a team of Indian scientists has claimed to have discovered an
"extremely large supercluster of galaxies", Saraswati, in the univers
Q139.
for more join
With the merger in April 2017, State Bank of India has entered the league of 'Top 50 Global Banks'
with a balance sheet size of-
A. Rs. 54 trillion
B. Rs. 32 trillion
C. Rs. 41 trillion
D. Rs. 67 trillion
E. Rs. 52 trillion
Correct Answer: C. Rs. 41 trillion 
Solution
With the merger, State Bank of India has entered the league of 'Top 50 Global Banks' with a
balance sheet size of Rs. 41 trillion. SBI was earlier placed at 54th rank globally but after the
merging, it moved to the 44th position making it in the top 50 leading banks globally.
Q140.
FAO celebrates World Food Day each year on _____________ to commemorate the founding of the
Organization in 1945.
A. 13th October
B. 14th October
C. 15th October
D. 16th October
E. 17th October
Correct Answer: D. 16th October 
Solution
FAO celebrates World Food Day each year on 16 October to commemorate the founding of the
Organization in 1945. The Theme for World Food Day 2017 is "Change the future of migration.
Invest in food security and rural development".
Q141.
Union Bank of India has launched an Android app that is a part of its drive to digitise customer-
facing banking services. What is the name of this app?
A. Union Prayas
B. Union Safal
C. Union Canvid
D. Union Sahyog
for more join
E. Union Madad https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: D. Union Sahyog 
Solution
Union Bank of India has launched an Android app, Union Sahyog, as part of its drive to digitise
customer-facing banking services. The Union Sahyog app is bilingual — o ering both English and
Hindi language — and packs in all mobile-based banking applications, missed call/SMS-based
services, Internet banking login and self-user creation, deposit and loan product information,
online account opening, online loan application, online complaints and even RTI.
Q142.
The Rajiv Gandhi International Airport has received the carbon neutrality status by Airports
Council International. The Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is situated in
A. Hyderabad
B. Bengaluru
C. New Delhi
D. Mumbai
E. Lucknow
Correct Answer: A. Hyderabad 
Solution
The Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA), Hyderabad has achieved carbon neutral status. It is
the rst in the Asia-Paci c region in the 5-15 million passengers per annum category to attain this
status.
Q143.
Which among the following bank has partnered with mobile payments switch TerraPay to enable
real-time money transfer to bank accounts in India?
A. Kotak Mahindra Bank
B. Axis Bank
C. Yes Bank
D. ICICI Bank
E. HDFC Bank
for more join
Correct Answer: C. Yes Bank 
Solution
Private Sector Lender Yes Bank has partnered with mobile payments switch TerraPay to enable
real-time money transfer to bank accounts in India. Powered by TerraPay’s global clearing and
settlement service, the partnership will make it faster and convenient for consumers to send
money to any bank account.
Q144.
Sipat Super Thermal Power Plant located at Sipat in which state?
A. Uttarakhand
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Arunachal Pradesh
E. Assam
Correct Answer: B. Chhattisgarh 
Solution
The 2980MW Sipat Super Thermal Power Plant located at Sipat in the Bilaspur district of
Chhattisgarh, ranks as the fth largest thermal power station in India. It is a coal-based power
plant owned and operated by NTPC
Q145.
Which Bank has the partner with Abu Dhabi Global Markets for Collaboration to further foster
cross-border exchange between the ntech ecosystems of the United Arab Emirates and India?
A. Axis Bank
B. State Bank of India
C. HDFC Bank
D. ICICI Bank
E. Yes Bank
Correct Answer: E. Yes Bank 
Solution
for more join
Abu Dhabi Global Market (ADGM), the International Financial Centre in Abu Dhabi, and Yes Bank
have signed a memorandum of understanding to further foster cross-border exchange between
the ntech ecosystems of the United Arab Emirates and India.
Q146.
How much cash can payment be made to the bene ciary in India under MTSS?
A. Rs 2,00,000
B. Rs 50,000
C. Rs 1,00,000
D. Rs 10,000
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Rs 50,000 
Solution
Amounts up to INR 50,000/- may be paid in cash to a bene ciary in India. These can also be loaded
on to a pre-paid card issued by banks. Any amount exceeding this limit shall be paid by means of
account payee cheque/ demand draft/ payment order, etc., or credited directly to the bene ciary's
bank account. However, in exceptional circumstances, where the bene ciary is a foreign tourist,
higher amounts may be disbursed in cash.
Q147.
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has recently changed the Policy Repo Rate under the
liquidity adjustment facility (LAF). What is the new Repo rate set by the RBI?
A. 6.25%
B. 6.50%
C. 6.75%
D. 6.00%
E. 5.75%
Correct Answer: D. 6.00% 
Solution
-the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), headed by Urijit Patel, decided to reduce the Policy Repo
Rate under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) by 25 basis points from 6.25 per cent to 6.0 per
cent with immediate e ect.
Q148.
for more join
Where is the Secretariat o ce of Financial Stability Board (FSB)?
A. Paris, France https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
B. New York, USA
C. Basel, Switzerland
D. Nairobi, Kenya
E. London, UK
Correct Answer: C. Basel, Switzerland 
Solution
Financial Stability Board (FSB) Secretariat o ce is in Basel, Switzerland.
Q149.
What is the tagline of Central Bank of India?
A. Central To you since 1911
B. BadhtiKanaamZindagi
C. The world’s local bank
D. The name you can bank upon
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Central To you since 1911 
Solution
Chairman & Managing Director: Shri. Rajeev Rishi
Headquarters: Mumbai
Q150.
Name the Ferrari driver, who has won the Hungarian Grand Prix 2017.
A. Lewis Hamilton
B. KimiRaikkonen
C. NicoRosberg
D. Sebastian Vettel
E. ValtteriBottas
Correct Answer: D. Sebastian Vettel 
Solution
for more join
-Sebastian Vettel of Ferrari won at the Hungarian Grand Prix 2017 to claim his fourth victory of the
season. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Q151.
MobiKwik has announced the appointment of _________ as the Business Head of 'MobiKwik
Payment Gateway' to drive the growth of the entity.
A. Umang Bedi
B. Nisha Desai Biswal
C. V M Kwatra
D. Bipin Preet Singh
E. Rukaiya Rangwala
Correct Answer: E. Rukaiya Rangwala 
Solution
MobiKwik, mobile wallet major, and a payment gateway provider announced the appointment of
Rukaiya Rangwala as the Business Head of 'MobiKwik Payment Gateway' to drive the growth of the
entity. The company had recently relaunched its Payment Gateway and aims to have over $5
billion worth of transactions processed on the platform by the end of 2017-18.
Q152.
The government has lowered interest rate on small saving schemes by 0.1 percent for the July-
September quarter. SukanyaSamriddhi Account Scheme will o er ________ percent annually.
A. 8.4 percent
B. 8.5 percent
C. 8.6 percent
D. 8.3 percent
E. 8.7 percent
Correct Answer: D. 8.3 percent 
Solution
-The government has lowered interest rate on small saving schemes by 0.1 per cent for the July-
September quarter. The move will prompt banks to lower deposit rates. The rates of small saving
schemes like PPF, KisanVikas Patra and Sukanya Samriddhi have been lowered across the board
compared to the April-June quarter. The one for girl child savings, Sukanya Samriddhi Account
Scheme, will o er 8.3 percent annually, from 8.4 per cent at present.
Q153.
for more join
Who is the minister of Personnel, Publichttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Grievances and Pensions, Department of Atomic Energy,
Department of Space and All important policy issues and All other portfolios not allocated to any
Minister?
A. ArunJaitley
B. NarendraModi
C. Raj Nath Singh
D. Smt. SushmaSwaraj
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. NarendraModi 
Solution
NarendraDamodardasModiis an Indian politician who is the 14th and current Prime Minister of
India, in o ce since May 2014 and is the Member of Parliament for Varanasi and a member of the
BharatiyaJanata Party (BJP).
Q154.
The Direct Tax Collections in the rst half (April-September) of the current scal (2017-18) shows
growth of-
A. 17.6 percent
B. 21.5 percent
C. 26.7 percent
D. 15.8 percent
E. 18.3 percent
Correct Answer: D. 15.8 percent 
Solution
The Direct Tax Collections in the rst half (April-September) of the current scal (2017-18) shows
growth of 15.8 percent. According to the Finance Ministry, the provisional gures of Direct Tax
collections up to September 2017 show that net collections are at 3.86 lakh crore rupees which is
higher than the corresponding period of last year. Net Direct Tax collections represent 39.4
percent of the total budget estimates of Direct Taxes for the nancial year 2017-18.
Q155.
Who is the author of the book ‘Punjab:Building the land of ve rivers’?
A. Mulk Raj Anand
B. Tara Shankar Bandopadhyaya
for more join
C. Amrita Pritam https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. ArjunGaind
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. ArjunGaind 

Solution
Author Arjun Gaind launched his latest book, Punjab: Building the Land Of Five Rivers, in Mumbai
for more join

Paid Ibps Set 7 Mathclub

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Paid Ibps Set 7 Mathclub

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

12/31/2017 Adda247 Store | Adda247 Store

Who among the following purchased LED? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: E. P <br>

Solution for more join

Correct Answer: B. Q <br>

for more join

for more join

Which electronic item is of Phillips brand? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: C. Mixer <br>

for more join

for more join

Which of the following combination is true? (1 Mark) for more join

for more join

Fridge is bought of which brand? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: E. Samsung <br>

for more join

Which of the following negates the given statement?

Correct Answer: D. Only II <br>

Correct Answer: B. Fourth to the right <br>

Correct Answer: E. Both (b) and (c) <br>

Which of the following will be the penultimate step? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: B. Step V <br>

After how many steps no further rearrangement of words is possible? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: A. Five <br>

Solution for more join

What will be the position of ‘fast’ in step IV? (1 Mark)

Which of the following can be deduced from the above paragraph?

Correct Answer: B. Only I and II <br>

Which of the following substantiates the fact of threat from bird u?

Who likes Varun Dhawan? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: B. A <br> for more join

for more join

Who is grandfather of F? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: E. None of These <br>

H likes which of the following actors? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: C. Tapsee Pannu <br>

for more join

How is E related to G? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: A. Niece <br>

for more join

F likes which of the following actors? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: D. Kareena Kapoor <br>

for more join

Correct Answer: E. 4√2m <br>

Correct Answer: C. South-West <br>

Correct Answer: D. Gateway <br>

Your Answer: Not Attempted

Who works in GAIL? (2 Mark)

Correct Answer: E. S <br>

for more join

for more join

What is the salary of L? (2 Mark)

Correct Answer: C. 57000 <br>

Correct Answer: D. Pune <br>

M has his o on which day? (2 Mark)

Correct Answer: E. Friday <br>

Which combination is true regarding K? (2 Mark)

Correct Answer: A. Monday-BEL-Hyderabad-12000 <br>

Correct Answer: D. Only II <br>

Which of the following is not in line in context of passage?

Correct Answer: C. Only II <br> for more join

Which course of action should be taken by investigating o cials?

Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II <br>