Paid Ibps Set 1 Mathclub

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Q1.
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are seven family members M, O, K, L, U, Z, I who live in di erent cities. The family is of two
generation. Each Five of them M, O,K, L, Z bought one at in di erent cities. The ats are in
di erent colonies viz; pawan vihar, Green park, Ganesh puram, Mahanagar and South city but not
necessarily in the same order.Two ats are blue colour and three are of purple colour. Two ats
are on second oor and two are fourth oor and one is on third oor. Four ats are in Gurgaon
and one will be in Mumbai. The type of two ats is 2 BHK each and that of other two ats is 1 BHK
each and one ats is of 3 BHK.
One of the at which is on the fourth oor is of purple colour and has more rooms than the at
which is bought by L. Only one of the ats which are on the fourth oor is in Gurgaon city. K and I
are married to each other and are husband and wife respectively and has only one son. There are
three ats of purple colour and have di erent number of rooms. The ats which are on second
oor have the same number of rooms. Z is the child of K’s brother-in-law. The one of the at which
is on the fourth oor is of blue colour, which is in Gurgaon city, has less number of rooms than the
at which is bought by O’s daughter. L is a unmarried male and brother-in-law of U. The at which
is in Ganesh puram has the same number of rooms as one of the ats which is bought by O’s
brother. M is the only son of L’s sister. The at which is bought by M and the at which is in Pawan
vihar have the same number of rooms. The gender of I and Z is same. The Flat which is bought by
O and The at which is in Mahanagar are of same colour. The at which is in South city is in blue
colour and on the fourth oor. Z is the only daughter of L’s sister-in-law. Z, L do not buy at in
Ganesh puram. M bought the at which is in blue colour.The at which is in Mahanagar is on the
fourth oor and of purple colour.Z does not buy at in Mahanagar.The at which is in Ganesh
puram is on the third oor.
L’s brother-in-law bought at in which of the following colony and what is the type of that at? (1
marks)
A. Ganesh puram- 2 BHK
B. Mahanagar- 2 BHK
C. Green park- 3 BHK
D. Mahanagar- 3 BHK
E. Pawan vihar- 1 BHK for more join
Your Answer: Not Attempted
https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: D. Mahanagar- 3 BHK 
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Solution
i. From the given conditions, rst we draw blood relation diagram-
ii. We can elaborate the following conditions from the given conditions-
iii.The at which is in Mahanagar has more number of ats than L so It is of either 2BHK or 3BHK
so there can be two possibilities-
When The at which is in Mahanagar is of 3BHK -so L bought at which is either of 2BHK or
1BHK.The at which is in south city is of 1BHK because this at has less number of ats than Z’s
at and it is given that Z does not buy at in Mahanagar so Z’s at is of 2BHK.
The ats which are on second oor are of 2BHK.M’s at and the at which is in Pawan vihar are on
second oor and M’s at is of blue colour so Z’s at is in pawan vihar. O’s at is of purple colour so
O’s at is in ganeshpuram.K bought at in Mahanagar so the nal arrangement is-
iv. When the at which is in mahanagar is of 2BHK so L’s at is of1BHK.The ats which are on
second oor are of 1BHK so the at which is in south city is of 2BHK.It is given that the at which is
in south city has less number of rooms than Z’s at so this case will be eliminated as the at which
is on third oor is of 3BHK and it is given that Z’s at does not placed on third oor.
Q2.
each and one ats is of 3 BHK. for more join
which is bought by L. Only one of the
ats which are on the fourth oor is in Gurgaon city. K and I
What are the types of ats which are on the fourth oor? (1 marks)
A. 2 BHK and 1 BHK
B. 3 BHK and 1 BHK
C. 2 BHK and 2 BHK
D. 2 BHK and 3 BHK
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 3 BHK and 1 BHK 
Solution
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Q3.
Which of the following is true with respect to the above given information? (1 marks)
A. L and I are brothers and buy ats in Ganesh puram and Green park colony respectively.
B. K buys at in Pawan vihar which is on the fourth oor.
C. The at which is in pawan vihar is in purple colour and is of 2 BHK.
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D. O and L are brothers and buy at in Mahanagar and South city respectively.
E. The at which is in ganesh puram is in purple colour and in Mumbai city.
Correct Answer: C. The at which is in pawan vihar is in purple colour and is of 2 BHK. 
Solution
Q4.
each and one ats is of 3 BHK. for more join
which is bought by L. Only one of the
ats which are on the fourth oor is in Gurgaon city. K and I
Which of the following combination is true? (1 marks)
A. Green park- second -Purple
B. Ganesh puram- fourth- Purple
C. South city- fourth- blue
D. Mahanagar- fourth- blue
E. Pawan vihar- third- blue
Correct Answer: C. South city- fourth- blue 
Solution
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Q5.
Who among the following persons buy ats in South city and Pawan vihar respectively? (1 marks)
A. L,K
B. O,M
C. L,Z for more join
D. Z,K
E. None of these https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: C. L,Z 
Solution
Q6.
Statement-“Killing in name of cow protection is unacceptable, it’s not something Mahatma Gandhi
would approve”:- says Indian PM Modi.
Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement?
(I) India and our freedom ghters would be proud of having cows in our country.
(II) Mahatma Gandhi was a big supporter of non-violence .He always resist killing of innocents.
(III) Cow is India’s national animal so we should protect it. (1 marks)
A. Only (III)
B. Only (II) for more join
C. Only (I)
D. Both (II) and (III)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Only (II) 
Solution
For I-This cannot be assumed from the given statement as it is nowhere mentioned that India and
its freedom ghters are proud of cows.
For II-This can be inferred as it is given in the above statement that Mahatma Gandhi would not
support “Killing in the name of cow” which presumably means killing of innocent people in the
name of cow protection.
For III-This also cannot be assumed from the given statement as it is not given that cow is India’s
national animal.
Q7.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting around a circular table. Four of them are facing
inside while four of them are facing outside. Each of them likes di erent fruits or colours viz.
Mango, Banana, Apple, Kiwi, Blue, White, Pink, and Purple. The one who faces outside likes colours
while the one who faces inside likes fruits. Also each of them is of di erent age and each’s age is in
whole number. The one who likes White is third to the right of P whose age is twice of the age of
the one who likes Purple color. The one who likes Apple sits second to the right of the one who
likes White. The age of Q is the addition of the ages of the one who likes Mango and S. V sits to the
immediate left of Q and his age is twice of the age of Q. R sits to the immediate left of P and his
age is a perfect square which is greater than the age of U but less than 10.The one who likes Pink
color sits between R and Q. The one who likes Pink color sits opposite to the one who likes Purple
color. The one who likes Kiwi sits second to the right of the one who likes Purple color. The one
who likes Kiwi is not an immediate neighbour of R. S sits third to the right of Q. P does not like
Pink. W likes banana. U faces outside the center. The one who likes blue is an immediate
neighbour of the one who likes Banana. The age of U is square of two. The one who likes Purple
color is one year older than the one who likes White color. The age of the one who likes banana is
square of the age of the one who sits immediate left of him. The age of the one who likes Kiwi is
the addition of the ages of the one who likes banana and the one who likes Purple.
What is the age of V? (1 marks)
A. 8 year
B. 5 year
C. 25 year for more join
D. 28 year
E. 9 year https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: D. 28 year 
Solution
The one who likes White is third to the right of P. The one who likes Apple sits second to the right
of the one who likes White. R sits to the immediate left of P. The one who likes Pink color sits
between R and Q. The one who likes Pink color sits opposite to the one who likes Purple color. The
one who likes Kiwi sits second to the right of the one who likes Purple color. The one who likes
Kiwi is not an immediate neighbour of R. There are two cases which can be possible and each case
contain two subcase.
S sits third to the right of Q. P does not like Pink so one subcase of case-1 will be eliminated when
P sits between R and Q and the other case will continue till the end. One subcase of case-2 is
eliminated because P does not like pink and one subcase of case-2 will be eliminated because the
one who likes Kiwi is not an immediate neighbour of R when P likes kiwi.So, case-2 will be
eliminated.
Now continue with remaining subcase of case:1- W likes banana. U faces outside the center. The
one who likes blue is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Banana. V sits to the
immediate left of Q.
The age of U is square of two means 4 years. The one who likes Purple color is one year older than
the one who likes White color means the age of S is 5years. P ,whose age is twice of the age of the
one who likes Purple color so age of P is 10 years. R sits to the immediate left of P and his age is a
perfect square which is greater than the age of U but less than 10 means age of R is 9years. The
age of the one who likes banana is square of the age of the one who sits immediate left of him. So,
the age of W is 25 years. The age of the one who likes Kiwi is the addition of the ages of the one
who likes banana and the one who likes Purple. So, the age of T is 30 years. The age of Q is the
addition of the ages of the one who likes Mango and S. So, the age is 14 years. V sits to the
immediate left of Q and his age is twice of the age of Q So, the age of V is 28 years.
Q8.
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Who among the following sits third to the right of T? (1 marks)
A. R
B. W
C. Q
D. P
E. T
Correct Answer: B. W 
Solution
eliminated.
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Q9.
Who among the following likes Blue color? (1 marks)
A. R
B. W
C. Q
D. P
E. T
Your Answer: Not Attempted for more join
Correct Answer: D. P https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
eliminated.
Q10.
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age is a perfect square which is greaterhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
than the age of U but less than 10.The one who likes Pink
What is the di erence between the ages of the one who likes Kiwi and the one who likes Apple? (1
marks)
A. 15
B. 32
C. 24
D. 21
E. 16
Correct Answer: E. 16 
Solution
eliminated.
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Q11.
The one who sits opposite to U likes which of the following? (1 marks)
A. Pink
B. Apple
C. Kiwi
D. Purple
E. Mango
Correct Answer: E. Mango for more join

Solution https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
eliminated.
Q12.
Study the information carefully answers the questions given below.
@ means either hour hand or minute hand is at 5
# means either hour hand or minute hand is at 12
$ means either hour hand or minute hand is at 1
% means either hour hand or minute hand is at 7
& means either hour hand or minute hand is at 6
£ means either hour hand or minute hand is at 8
Note: if two symbols are given than by default rst symbol is consider as hour hand and second
one is consider as minute hand. All the times which are denoted by symbols are to be considered
as AM. for more join
If Monika have a booking in a restaurant at @$, but she reached there 1hour later due to tra c
jam. She stayed in the restaurant for 3hours and then she left from there to her home. At what
time did she left for her home? (2 marks)
A. $%
B. $&
C. &#
D. #@
E. None of these
Correct Answer: E. None of these 
Solution
Monika have a booking in a restaurant at @$ means 5:05 AM, but she reached there 1hour later
due to tra c jam. She stayed in the restaurant for 3hours and then she left from there to her
home. That means she left for her home at 9:05 AM.
Q13.
as AM.
If a train departed from a station at @# and it takes 2 hours 35 minutes to reach to the next
station, then at what time it will reach to the next station? (1 marks)
A. $£
B. &&
C. %%
D. $#
E. £$
Correct Answer: C. %% 
Solution for more join

If a train departed from a station at £# means 5:00AM and it takes 2 hours 35 min to reach to the
next station it means the train will reach at 7:35AM. i.e. denoted by %%.
Q14.
as AM.
If Jimmy was born 1 hour 25 minutes after Amit. Then at what time was Jimmy born if it is given
that Amit was born at &%? (1 marks)
A. £#
B. $&
C. &#
D. #@
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. £# 
Solution
It is given that Amit was born at &% i.e. 6:35 AM and Jimmy was born 1 hour 25 minutes after Amit
i.e. 8:00 AM which is denoted by £#.
Q15.
as AM. for more join
If the exam started at $& and the duration of exam is 210 minutes, then at what time will the
examination end? (1 marks) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
A. 5 PM
B. 2 PM
C. 8 PM
D. 7 PM
E. None of these
Solution
It is given that the exam started $& is 1:30 AM and the duration of exam is 210 minutes, it means
the examination ends at 5:00 AM.
Q16.
as AM.
If it is given that G left for his o ce any time between @$ and &#, then what could be the possible
time at which he left for his o ce? (2 marks)
A. %$
B. 5:00 AM
C. 6:10 AM
D. @&
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. @& 
Solution
It is given that G left for his o ce between @$ i.e. 5:05 AM and &# i.e. 6:00 AM, then @& i.e. 5:30
AM is the possible option. for more join
Q17. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Statement-Seven months after it decided not to issue fresh liquor licences to restaurants in the
capital, the Delhi government has lifted the ban and said the process to issue new licences will
begin from Friday.
Which of the following can be hypothesized from decision made by Delhi government?
(I)Some owners had put in a lot of investment into their restaurants on the assumption that they
would be able to serve liquor. When the decision was made to not issue fresh licences, they were
distraught. The decision has come as a major relief to restaurant owners, who have been
struggling hard to sustain their ventures.
(II)The decision was made as the government was convinced that barring restaurants from serving
liquor would serve no purpose, as any stoppage in Delhi will drive the customer, and more
importantly the revenue to neighboring states.
(III) AAP government of Delhi had gone overboard in granting liquor licences and promoting
alcohol, which was against AAP's commitment to ght against addiction. (2 marks)
A. Only (II)
B. Only (II) and (I)
C. Only (I)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Only (II) and (I) 
Solution
In the above question we have to nd which statement can be assumed from the given statement.
For I-This can be hypothesized from the above statement because the restaurant owners who
were struggling hard to get the liquor license and had put their money into this business will now
be able get the fresh license.
For II-This also can be hypothesized from the given statement as the decision of barring liquor
license is no more bene cial for the government because the customer started buying liquor from
other places and thus there will be a loss in terms of revenue to the state.
For III-This cannot be hypothesized from the given statement that by granting fresh liquor license
the Delhi government led by AAP is promoting liquor or any addiction because it is not given in the
statement.
Q18.
Study the information and answer the following questions:
In a certain code language
"Swachh Survekshan Gramin conducted” is coded as “23@I 21@B 18@J 15#F "
for more join
"Few villages in Rajasthan" is coded as " 5#F 9@F 14@J 1#B"
“Declared open defecation free" is codedhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
as " 18@F 5@P 16@F 5@F "
What is the code for "Sustainability"? (1 marks)
A. 21@S
B. 21@U
C. 21#U
D. 22@U
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 21@U 
Solution
These are the latest pattern of coding-decoding questions. In these questions we are applying
following concept:-
Q19.
“Declared open defecation free" is coded as " 18@F 5@P 16@F 5@F "
What is the code for "Panchayats"? (1 marks)
A. 1@U
B. 1@T
C. 1#U
D. 2@U
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 1@U 
Solution
following concept:-
Q20.
for more join
What is the code for "Swachh bharat mission"? (2 marks)
A. 23@I 8@B 9#P
B. 23@I 8#B 9#P
C. 23@I 8@B 9@P
D. 23#I 8@B 9#P
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 23@I 8@B 9#P 
Solution
following concept:-
Q21.
What is the code for "Demographic"? (1 marks)
A. 5@J
B. 6#J
C. 5#J
D. 5#K
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 5#J 
Solution
following concept:-
Q22.
for more join
What is the code for "Nirmal Bharat"? (1 marks)
A. 9@B 7@B
B. 9#B 8@B
C. 9@B 8#B
D. 9@B 8@B
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. 9@B 8@B 
Solution
following concept:-
Q23.
In the following question, three statements numbered I, II and III are given. There may be cause
and e ect relationship between the three statements. These three statements may be the e ect
of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without
having any relationship
Which of the following may be cause/e ect for the mentioned below statements?
(I)The launch of the warship marks an important step towards China's dream of having a strong
and modern naval force.
(II)China on Wednesday launched what it calls "the most advanced and largest warship in Asia.
(III)The launch of warship is a major step forward in the modernisation of China’s navy. It is the
symbol of the Navy to achieve strategic transformation development. (2 marks)
A. Statement II will be cause and Statement I and statement III will be it’s e ects.
B. Statement I will be cause and statement II and statement III will be it’s e ect.
C. Statement III is cause and Statement I is it’s e ect and Statement II is e ect of independent
cause.
D. Statement II is cause and Statement I is it’s e ect and Statement III is e ect of independent
cause.
E. Statement III is cause and Statement II is it’s e ect and Statement I is e ect of independent
cause. for more join
Correct Answer: A. Statement II will be cause and Statement I and statement III will be it’s e ects.
 
Solution
In the above question statement II will be the cause and statement I and III will be its e ects. As
China has launched most advanced and largest warship will be the cause and this launch is an
important step towards China's dream of having a strong naval force and a symbol of strategic
development will be its e ects.
Q24.
In the following question, three statements numbered I, II and III are given. There may be cause
and e ect relationship between the three statements. These three statements may be the e ect
of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without
having any relationship
Which of the following may be cause/e ect for the mentioned below statements?
(I) Yogi Adityanath’s government wanted to establish a direct contact with people and ensure
speedy redressal of their problems.
(II)A Bareilly resident recently sought help for his kidney ailment, a woman from Lucknow
requested free education and pension due to the untimely death of her husband in Uttar Pradesh
Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath’s trademark Janata Darbar (public meeting)held at Gorakhnath
Math Temple in Gorakhpur to directly listen and address grievances of people.
(III)Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath has started Janata Darbar(public meeting) to draw
people from across the State in search of succour. (2 marks)
A. Statement II will be cause and Statement I and statement III will be it’s e ects.
B. Statement I will be cause and statement II and statement III will be it’s e ect.
C. Statement III is cause and Statement I is it’s e ect and Statement II is e ect of independent
cause.
D. Statement II is cause and Statement I is it’s e ect and Statement III is e ect of independent
cause.
E. Statement III is cause and Statement II is it’s e ect and Statement I is e ect of independent
cause.
Correct Answer: B. Statement I will be cause and statement II and statement III will be it’s e ect.
 
Solution
In the above question statement I will be the cause and statement II and III will be its e ects. As
for more join
Yogi government wanted to establish a direct contact with people to solve their problem will be
the cause and Yogi government startedhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Janta Darbar where people across the state come ,a
bareily resident and a woman from lucknow come to Janta Darbar to seek help for their problem
will be its e ect.
Q25.
Seven members of the family namely L, M, N, O, P, Q and R lives on di erent oors of a building
with eight oors. One of the oors in the building is vacant. The lowermost oor of the building is
numbered one, the one above that is numbered two, and so on till the topmost oor is numbered
as eighth. Each one of them likes di erent countries, namely Canada, Italy, Iran, China,
Afghanistan, India and Brazil (but not necessarily in the same order).The one who likes
Afghanistan lives immediately below Q .P lives on an odd numbered oor above the oor
numbered four. The person who was born in Russia lives immediately above the one who was
born in Sri Lanka who lives on an odd numbered above the one who likes China. There are three
persons living between R and the vacant oor. There are only three oors between N and the one
who likes China. Only ve persons lives above the one who was born in Iraq. There are only four
oors between Q and L. The one, who likes India lives immediately above the one who likes
Canada. The number of oors above P, who was born in Jamaica is same as the number of oors
between P and N. M lives immediately above the one who likes Iran. The number of oors
between P and the one who likes Italy is only one. The one who was born in South Africa does not
live on any of the oors below the one who was born in Bangladesh. The one, who likes Italy lives
immediately below the vacant oor. The oor number of the vacant oor is even. Only two oors
are there between the one who likes India and China. M lives immediately below the vacant oor.
M neither lives on fth oor nor on second oor. The one, who likes Italy, lives on one of the oors
below fourth oor. N who was born in Japan likes Brazil.
The one who likes India lives on which of the following oors? (1 marks)
A. First
B. Eighth
C. Second
D. Fourth
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Eighth 
Solution
Step 1.
From the information given in the question,
for more join
P lives on an odd numbered oor above the oor numbered four. The number of oors above
P,who was born in Jamaica is same as the number of oors between P and N. N who was born in
Japan likes Brazil.
We get two possible cases,
But it is given that the number of oors between P and the one who likes Italy is only one. So case
1. will be eliminated.
Proceeding with Case 2, (When P lives on 5th oor)
The one, who likes Italy, lives on one of the oors below the oor number 4. So, the one who likes
Italy lives on oor number third. The one, who likes Italy lives immediately below the vacant oor.
The oor number of the vacant oor is even. M lives immediately below the vacant oor. There are
three persons living between living between R and the vacant oor. There are only three oors
between N and the one who likes China. M lives immediately above the one who likes Iran. Only
two oors are there between the one who likes India and China. The one, who likes India lives
immediately above the one who likes Canada. The one who likes Afghanistan lives immediately
below Q. There are only four oors between Q and L. It means O is the person who likes
Afghanistan as there is no other possibility left. Only ve persons live above the one who was born
in Iraq. It means the one who was born in Iraq lives on second oor. The person who was born in
Russia lives immediately above the one who was born in Sri Lanka,who lives on an odd numbered
above the one who likes China. The one who was born in South Africa does not live on any of the
oors below the one who was born in Bangladesh.
So we have our nal solution as,
Q26.
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immediately below the vacant oor. The https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
oor number of the vacant oor is even. Only two oors
Who among the following person lives on the oor which is immediately above the oor on which
the one was born in Bangladesh lives? (1 marks)
A. P
B. L
C. M
D. No one
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. No one 
Solution
Step 1.
Japan likes Brazil.
oors below the one who was born in Bangladesh. for more join
Q27.
Which of the following pair represents the persons, who live immediate below and above the
vacant oors? (1 marks)
A. P - O
B. N - M
C. Q - R
D. M - P
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. M - P 
Solution
Step 1.
for more join
Japan likes Brazil.
Q28.
for more join
The person who lives immediately below L, likes which of the following countries and lives on
which of the following oors? (1 marks)
A. India- 3rd oor
B. Afghanistan- 6th oor
C. Brazil-1st oor
D. China- 7th oor
E. Afghanistan- 7th oor
Correct Answer: C. Brazil-1st oor 
Solution
Step 1.
Japan likes Brazil.
So we have our nal solution as, for more join
Q29.
What is the di erence between the number of oors above M and the number of person living
below the one who was born in Jamaica? (1 marks)
A. Zero
B. Three
C. One
D. Two
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Two 
Solution
Step 1.
Japan likes Brazil. for more join
Q30.
Statement:- Days after news of the massive IS recruitment drive from north Kerala's villages in
mid-2016 shocked the state, Kerala police launched a silent but strategic de-radicalisation drive
named Operation Pigeon for youths, aimed at preventing a repeat of a previous year situation.
Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement?
(i) Some districts reported footprints of IS recruiters who had made more than preliminary
contacts with them.
(ii) The police organised individual and collective counselling sessions for the youth.
(iii) Kerala's youth have been vulnerable to intelligence agencies, who have been sending letters to
them through pigeons. (2 marks)
A. Only (i) and (iii)
B. All (i), (ii), (iii)
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
D. Only (i) and (ii)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Only (i) and (ii) for more join
In this question, we have to choose an option which can be inferred from the given statement.
Statement (i) can be inferred as it is given in the statement that IS recruiters have been active in
the past in that state.
Statement (ii) can also be inferred as it is given in the statement that a de-radicalization drive has
been initiated.
Statement (iii) cannot be inferred as nothing is mentioned about the medium of communication
used or any other investigating agency’s involvement. Operation Pigeon is just the name of the de-
radicalization drive.
Q31.
In the questions below are given two conclusions followed by four set of statements. You have to
choose the correct set of statements that logically satis es given conclusions. Assume the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Conclusions:
Some Purse is wallet.
Some money is not purse.
Statements: (2 marks)
A. Some ATM is wallet. No wallet is money. All money is coin. No coin is purse.
B. All ATM is wallet. Some wallet is money. No money is coin. Some coin is purse.
C. Some ATM is purse. All purse is money. No money is wallet. All wallet is coin.
D. All ATM is money. Some money is coin. No coin is purse. Some wallet is purse.
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: D. All ATM is money. Some money is coin. No coin is purse. Some wallet is purse.
 
Solution
Q32.
In the questions below are given two conclusions followed by four set of statements. You have to
choose the correct set of statements that logically satis es given conclusions. Assume the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Conclusions:
Some wall is paint.
Some fan is not paint.
for more join
Statements: (2 marks) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
A. No window is fan. All wall is fan. No oor is paint. Some paint is brush.
B. All window is fan. No window is brush. Some brush is wall. No wall is paint.
C. Some window is brush. All brush is oor. No oor is paint. All paint is fan.
D. All wall is window. Some paint is wall. No paint is brush. All fan is brush.
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: D. All wall is window. Some paint is wall. No paint is brush. All fan is brush. 
Solution
Q33.
Statement:- A police report says that Venus Williams is responsible for a car accident earlier this
month in Florida, which caused injuries to a 78-year-old man who later died. The victim, Jerome
Barson, was a passenger in a car that was driven by his wife, Linda Barson.
Which of the following does not abrogates the police report?
(i) According to the report, Linda Barson told police she was traveling west in the right lane and
approaching an intersection, slowing for a tra c light. The report states that light changed to
green, and Barson said she drove through the intersection when Williams' 2010 Toyota Sequoia
cut across in front of her car.
(ii) Jerome Barson was taken to a hospital and died two weeks later. Barson's wife was also
hospitalized but survived.
(iii) Ms. Williams entered the intersection on a green light. The police report estimates that Ms.
Williams was traveling at 5 mph when Mrs. Barson crashed into her. Moreover she had never been
ned for tra c violations. (2 marks)
A. Only (i) and (ii)
B. Only (ii)
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
D. Only (i) and (iii)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Only (i) and (ii) 
Solution
In this question, we have to choose an option which does not negates the police report which
for more join
holds Venus Williams responsible for the accident.
Statement (i) does not abrogates the statement. It supports the police report by pointing out that
it was Williams who broke the tra c rule.
Statement (ii) neither support nor negates the statement.
Statement (iii) negates the statement as it says that Mrs. Williams entered the intersection when
the light was green and she has a clean record.
Q34.
The question given below consists of six statements followed by options consisting of three
statements put together in a speci c order. Choose the options that indicates a combination
where the third statement can be logically deduced from the rst two statements and that option
will be your answer.
i. No moon is night.
ii. Some stars is moon.
iii. No moon is fog.
iv. All moon is stars.
v. Some fog is winter.
vi. No stars is night. (2 marks)
A. [ii,iii,vi]
B. [ vi,i,ii]
C. [v,iii,i ]
D. [iv,vi,i]
E. None is correct
Correct Answer: D. [iv,vi,i] 
Solution
We can conclude the third statement (i) from the rst two statements (iv,vi).
Q35.
In each question, a set of six statements is given, followed by ve answer choices. Each of the
answer choices has a combination of three statements from the given set of six statements. You
are required to identify the answer choice in which the statements are logically related.
Statements:
I. Some philippines is venezuela.
II. No philippines is india.
III. Some india is Malaysia. for more join
IV. No Malaysia is Japan.
V. All India is Singapore. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
VI. No Venezuela is India. (2 marks)
A. I,VI,IV
B. III,IV,I
C. I,VI,V
D. II,VI,IV
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: C. I,VI,V 
Solution
Q36.
In each question, a set of six statements is given, followed by ve answer choices. Each of the
answer choices has a combination of three statements from the given set of six statements. You
are required to identify the answer choice in which the statements are logically related.
Statements:
I. Some Coal is water.
II. No water is energy.
III. Some energy is wind.
IV. All wind is water.
V. No water is sun.
VI. All electricity is energy. (2 marks)
A. I,V,III
B. I,II,VI
C. III,VI,I
D. V,I,VI
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: B. I,II,VI 
Solution
Q37.
for more join
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
There are eight friends G, P, M, N, S, T, L, O who sits in a straight line facing to north direction. They
are of di erent age viz. 14, 31, 32, 60, 17, 20, 39, 47 but not necessarily in the same order. They like
di erent avours of co ee viz. Cappuccino, Latte, Espresso, Frappuccino, Americano, Cortado,
A ogato, Macchiato but all not necessarily in same order. One friend likes only one avor.
T sits third to the left of S .The person who is 20 years old sits 4th to right of the one who likes
Cappuccino and both are not at extreme ends. The age of L is half of the combined ages of O and
N .T’s age is 32 years. M is 3rd to left of G, who likes Latte. L likes Cortado. M is at extreme left end.
Only one person sits between G and the one who likes Frappuccino. The persons who like
Frappuccino and Americano are immediate neighbours.. Two persons sit between P and the one
who is 31years old . L is not an immediate neighbour of the person who likes Cappuccino. The One
who likes Espresso sits Fourth to the left to the one who is 39 years old. The one who likes
Macchiato is 2nd to the left of the one who likes Espresso. P is 3rd to left of O and 3rd to the right
of N. S does not like Espresso. The Sum of the ages of P and M is equal to the age of O. The One
who is 31 years old sits third to the right of the one who is 17 years old. The person who likes
A ogato is at extreme right end.
Who among the following person likes Americano co ee? (1 marks)
A. G
B. T
C. S
D. P
E. N
Correct Answer: D. P 
Solution
i.It is given that M is third to the left of G.M sits at extreme left end. The person who likes A ogato
sits at extreme right end.P is third to the left of O and third to the right of N so M sits immediate
left to N.It is given that S is third to the right of T. The age of T is 32 years. G likes Latte .L likes
Cortado.
Only one person sits between G and the one who likes Frappuccino so there can be two
possibilities-
ii. Case 1- When N likes Frappuccino.
It is given that the persons who like Frappuccino and Americano are immediate neighbours. Two
persons sit between P and the one who is 31 years old. The one who is 31 years old sits third to
the right of the one who is 17 years old so O is 31years old and P is 17 years old.It is given that the
sum of ages of P and M is equal to the age of O so M is 14 years old. The age of L is half of ages of
O and N so L is 39 years old and N is 47 years old.
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The one who likes Espresso sits fourth to the left of the one who is 39 years old. The one who likes
Maccchiato sits second to the left of the one who likes Espresso so M likes Macchiato, so this case
will be eliminated as there is no place for the one who likes Americano.
iii. Case 2-When S likes Frappuccino.

After using all the conditions which are used in Case-1, P likes Americano so N likes Cappuccino .It
is given that the one who is 20 years sits fourth to the right of the one who likes Cappuccino so S is
20 years old and G is 60 years old so the nal arrangement is-
Q38.
Which of the following number represents exact age of T? (1 marks)
A. 31
B. 60
C. 20
D. 47
E. 32

sits at extreme right end.P is third to the https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
left of O and third to the right of N so M sits immediate
Cortado.
possibilities-

Q39.
What is the position of S with respect to N? (1 marks) for more join
A. second to the left
B. fourth to the right https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. third to the left
D. fth to the left
E. second to the right
Correct Answer: B. fourth to the right 
Solution
Cortado.
possibilities-

Q40.
for more join
N .T’s age is 32 years. M is 3rd to left ofhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
G, who likes Latte. L likes Cortado. M is at extreme left end.
Which of the following combination is false? (1 marks)
A. M-14-Macchiato
B. S-20-Frappuccino
C. L-39-Americano
D. T-32-Espresso
E. N-47-Cappuccino
Correct Answer: C. L-39-Americano 
Solution
Cortado.
possibilities-

for more join
Q41.
Which of the following is the age of the person who likes A ogato? (1 marks)
A. 32
B. 17
C. 31
D. 47
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 31 
Solution
Cortado.
possibilities-
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Q42.
Statement:- China unveils plans for world's rst pollution-eating 'Forest City'. The 342-acre, self-
contained neighborhood will comprise more than 70 buildings -- including homes, hospitals,
hotels, schools and o ces -- all of which will be covered with 40,000 trees and almost a million
plants.
Which of the following can be deduced from the above statement?
(i) This is the rst experiment of the urban environment that's really trying to nd a balance with
nature.
(ii) This initiative of bringing forests into the city is a way to prevent climate change.
(iii) This initiative will reduce air pollution and create healthy living environment for the people
living in the cities.
(iv) Wildlife will su er as animals need to be away from human civilization. (2 marks)
A. Only (i) and (iii)
B. All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C. Only (iv) and (i)
D. Only (i), (iii) and (ii)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Only (i), (iii) and (ii) 
Solution
In this question, we have to choose an option which can be concluded from the facts provided in
the given statement.
Statement (i) can be deduced as it is given in that this will be the world’s rst Forrest City.
Statement (ii) can also be deduced as it is a well-known fact that forest is helpful in preventing
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climate change.
Statement (iii) can also be deduced as ithttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
is a well-known fact that forest is helpful in reducing
pollution.
Statement (iv) cannot be deduced as it is given that 40,000 trees will be planted in the city but
nothing has been mentioned about wild life.
Q43.
SC vacates stay on admission in IITs. In a relief to over 50,000 IIT aspirants, the Supreme Court on
Monday vacated its stay order on the admission process to the prestigious Indian Institutes of
Technology (IITs) with regard to the granting of bonus marks to all candidates who appeared in the
IIT-JEE (Advanced) 2017 examination.
Which of the following is not-in-line with the given statement? (I)The court issued a warning to the
IIT authorities that such "kinds of errors in printing and framing of questions should not happen
again". (II) The exam was conducted this year by the IIT Madras and the decision to give bonus
marks were taken by it. (III)The stay order was passed on a writ petition led by Aishwarya
Agarwal, who had taken the exam. (2 marks)
A. Only (II)
B. Only (III)
C. Only (I) and (II)
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: E. None of the above 
Solution
For I-This statement is in line with the given statement because it describes about the warning
issued to IIT authorities over the whole issue happened regarding the admission process.
For II- This statement is in line with the given statement because it provides the information
regarding exam conduction of IIT this year.
For III- This statement is also in line with the given statement because it provides the information
regarding stay order that it was passed on a writ petition led by Aishwarya
Agarwal.
Q44.
Which type of entity cannot contain primary key. (1 marks)
A. Strong Entity
B. Weak Entity
C. Both (A) and (B) for more join
D. Composite Entity
E. None of these https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: B. Weak Entity 
Solution
a weak entity is an entity that cannot be uniquely identi ed by its attributes alone. A weak entity
has no primary key; it must use a foreign key in conjunction with its attributes to create a primary
key.
Q45.
PCB in Operating System stands for_______ (1 marks)
A. Process Context Block
B. Process Control Block
C. Program Control Block
D. Progress Context Block
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Process Control Block 
Solution
Process Control Block is a data structure in the operating system kernel containing the
information needed to manage a particular process
Q46.
Raghav bought some chairs & tables from a shopkeeper. The marked price of a chair and a table
were in the ratio 5 : 7. The shopkeeper gives discounts of 20% and 25% on the chair & the table
respectively. The ratio of chairs and tables bought by Raghav is 9 : 8.
If Raghav sells each chair and table bought by him at discounts of 25% and 20% respectively after
marking up the prices of both by 50% on the price at which he bought both items and gives one 1
chair free for every 4 tables bought by a customer, then what is the net pro t /less % made by
Raghav after selling all of the items which he bought from the shopkeeper? (2 marks)
A. 7%
B. 5%
C. 8%
D. 6%
E. None of these
for more join
Your Answer: Not Attempted https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: B. 5% 
Solution
Q47.
Raghav bought some chairs & tables from a shopkeeper. The marked price of a chair and a table
were in the ratio 5 : 7. The shopkeeper gives discounts of 20% and 25% on the chair & the table
respectively. The ratio of chairs and tables bought by Raghav is 9 : 8.
If Raghav buys 170 chairs and tables in all, then what is the approximately average price at which
he must sell all of them to be in a situation of no pro t –no loss? (2 marks)
A. Rs 45.88
B. Rs 52.67
C. Rs 48
D. Rs 42.8
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Rs 45.88 
Solution
Q48.
A team of miners planned to mine 1800 tons of ore during a certain number of days. Due to
technical di culties, in one-third of the planned number of days, the team was able to achieve an
output of 20 tons of ore less per day than the planned output. To make up for this, the team
overachieved for the rest of the days by 20 tons. The end result was that the team completed the
task one day ahead of time.
How many tons of ore did the team initially plan to mine per day ? (2 marks)
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
E. 250
for more join
Correct Answer: B. 100 
Solution
Let, initially planned tons of ore to mine per day be and planned no. of days
Q49.
A team of miners planned to mine 1800 tons of ore during a certain number of days. Due to
technical di culties, in one-third of the planned number of days, the team was able to achieve an
output of 20 tons of ore less per day than the planned output. To make up for this, the team
overachieved for the rest of the days by 20 tons. The end result was that the team completed the
task one day ahead of time.
To complete the task two days before the planned date, how many more tons of ore should the
team mine per day after mining the planned tons of ores till one-third of the planned no. of days ?
(2 marks)
A. 25
B. 30
C. 20
D. 15
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 20 
Solution
Tons of ore mined till one-third of planned no. of days = 6 × 100 = 600
Two days prior to the planned date means, the task has to be completed in 16 days.
Q50.
Given below is table which shows the ratio of e ciency of both A and B on di erent days and total
time taken by A and B together to complete the work 1 if they complete whole work with respect
to e ciency of di erent days.
There is also the line graph which shows the time taken by B to complete work 2 if it complete
whole work with e ciency of di erent days.
Note- The ratio of e ciency of A to B to do work 2 on di erent days is same as data given in the
table for work 1.
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A and B both started to complete work https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
1 on Tuesday but A left after working for 2 hours. Another
person C whose e ciency is 60% of the e ciency of A (as of Tuesday) joins B. B leaves 2 hours
before the completion of work then C alone nishes the remaining work. What is the total time in
which work 1 is completed. (2 marks)
A. 105/2 hours
B. 107/13 hours
C. 108/19 hours
D. 110/19 hours
E. 110/13 hours
Correct Answer: C. 108/19 hours 
Solution
Q51.
table for work 1.
If a part of work 2 completed by 4 women in 5 hours equals to the part of work 2 done by B on
Wednesday in 7 hours and ratio of e ciency of a women and a children to complete work 2 is 5 : 3
then in what time work 2 will be completed by 3 children. (2 marks)
A. 100/9 hours
B. 200/9 hours
C. 100/11 hours
D. 200/11 hours
E. 150/11 hours
Correct Answer: B. 200/9 hours for more join

Q52.
table for work 1.
can complete a work in hours while can complete the same work in hours where m is the time
taken by A to complete work 2 on Tuesday and is time taken by A to complete work 2 on Friday.
Find the time in which together can complete the work. (2 marks)
A. 3/2 hours
B. 7/4 hours
C. 7/5 hours
D. 8/3 hours
E. 9/5 hours
Correct Answer: B. 7/4 hours 
Solution
Q53.
table for work 1.
for more join
A and B started to complete work 1, alternatively starting from A on rst hour on Monday then
time taken by A and B in completing 80% of work 1, alternatively on Monday is what percent more
or less than time taken by A and B together to complete work 2 together on Friday. (2 marks)
A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 8%
D. 15%
E. 6%
Correct Answer: B. 5% 
Solution
In 4 hours work 1 is completed working alternatively and remaining is complete by A on 5th hour
Ratio of e ciency on Friday is 5 : 4

Ratio of time taken to complete work will be 4 : 5
But B completes work 2 in 10 hours on Friday
So, A will complete work 2 in 8 hours on Friday
Q54.
table for work 1.
If B with another person C works on work 2 on Friday for 2 hours than 80% of work 2 is completed
then, time taken by C alone to nish work 2 is what percent to time taken by B to nish work 1
with e ciency of Friday — (2 marks)
A. 500/27%
B. 400/13%
C. 300/17% for more join
D. 400/21%
E. 500/21% https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: A. 500/27% 
Solution
Q55.
calculate quantity I and Quantity II on the basis of the given information then compare them and
answer the following questions-
Quantity 1: Badri when works alone, takes 7.2 hrs more than the time taken by both Badri and
Suresh to nish the work together. Suresh when works alone, takes 9.8 hrs more than the time
taken by both Badri and Suresh to nish the work together.Time taken by both of them to
complete the work working together.
Quantity 2: 8.4 hrs. (1 marks)
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Correct Answer: E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation 
Solution
Q56.
Quantity 1: Number of ways of drawing 3 balls from a box containing 5 white and 7 red balls if at
least one white ball is to be included in the draw.
Quantity 2: Number of di erent photographs. There are 5 boys and 3 girls in a family. They are
photographed in groups of 2 boys and one girl. (2 marks)
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Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II 
Solution
Q57.
Quantity 1: di erence between the largest and the smallest sum. A sum of Rs. 1440 is lent out in
three parts in such a way that the interests on rst part at 2% for 3 years, on second part at 3% for
4 years and on third part at 4% for 5 years are equal.
Quantity 2: 460 (1 marks)
Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II 
Solution
Q58.
Five years ago, Bina’s age was three times that of Arti. Ten years ago, Bina’s age was half that of
Chitra. Chitra’s present age is 36 years.
Quantity 1:Arti’s present age.
Quantity 2: Di erence between Chitra’s present age and Bina’s present age. (1 marks)
Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II 
Solution
Q59.
Ram sells onions in the streets of Varanasi. Due to recent shortfall in the supply of onions, he
doubles his selling price despite the cost price remains same for him due to a xed contract. He
realizes that his pro t has tripled. Find the original pro t percent. (2 marks)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: B. <img

src="https://d37ohbyy0w8xn8.cloudfront.net/1511268530026image10.png"> 
Solution
Q60.
In a school there are a total of 50 students in class X, who are divided into three sections A, B and
C. A and B have an equal number of students. All the students of the class wrote a test. The
average marks obtained by the students of sections A and B together is 52.5. The average marks
obtained by the students of sections A and C together is 60. The average marks obtained by the
students of seconds B and C together is 70. The average marks obtained by the students of
sections A, B and C together is 60.
How many students are there in section C? (2 marks)
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 10 for more join

Let the number of students in A, B and C be b, b and c respectively. Let the total marks obtained
by the students of class A, B and C be x, y and z respectively. Total marks obtained by the students
of class A and B, B and C and A and C = 2(Total marks obtained by the students of class A, B and C)
= 2(60(b + b + c))
= 120(b + b + c)
Q61.
In a school there are a total of 50 students in class X, who are divided into three sections A, B and
C. A and B have an equal number of students. All the students of the class wrote a test. The
average marks obtained by the students of sections A and B together is 52.5. The average marks
obtained by the students of sections A and C together is 60. The average marks obtained by the
students of seconds B and C together is 70. The average marks obtained by the students of
sections A, B and C together is 60.
How many students are there in section A? (1 marks)
A. 40
B. 30
C. 45
D. Cannot be determined
E. 20
Solution
Number of students in section A= 20
Q62.
The ratio of students in a coaching preparing for B. Tech and MBA is 4 : 5. The ratio of fees
collected from each of B. Tech and MBA student is 25 : 16. If the total amount collected from all
the students is 1.62 lakh, what is the total amount collected from only MBA aspirants? (1 marks)
A. Rs 62,000
B. Rs 72,000
C. Rs 80,000
D. Rs 50,000
E. None of these
for more join
Correct Answer: B. Rs 72,000 
Solution
Q63.
A tank is connected with 8 pipes. Some of them are inlet pipes and rest are outlet pipes. Each of
the inlet pipe can ll the tank in 8 hours, individually, while each of those that empty the tank i.e.,
outlet pipe, can empty it in 6 hours individually. If all the pipes are kept open when the tank is full,
it will take exactly 6 hours for the tank to empty. How many of these are inlet pipes? (1 marks)
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 4 
Solution
Q64.
A thief sees a police jeep at a distance of 250 m, coming towards him at 36 km/h. Thief takes 5
seconds to realize that there is nothing but the police is approaching him by the jeep and start
running away from police at 54 km/h. But police realize after 10 seconds, when the thief starts
running away, that he is actually a thief and gives chase at 72 km/h. How long after thief saw police
did police catchup with him and what is the distance police had to travel to do so? (2 marks)
A. 50 s, 1000 m
B. 65 s, 1150 m
C. 65 s, 1300 m
D. 45 s, 1050 m
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 65 s, 1150 m 

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Solution
Initial speed of Police = 10 m/sec
Increased speed of police = 20 m/sec
Speed of thief = 15 m/sec
Initial di erence between thief and police = 250 m
After 5 sec di erence between thief and police = 250 – 5 × 10 = 200 m
After 10 sec. more the di erence between thief and police = 200 + 5 × 10 = 250 m
Now time required by police to catch the thief
Distance travelled =50×20=1000 m.
Total time =50+15=65 sec.
Total distance = 1000 + (15 × 10) = 1150 m
Q65.
The percent bar chart gives the production of A, B, C and D products in a rm for 4 years. It is
given that the total production increases at the rate of 10% per annum over its value in the
previous year in the period 2000-2003. It is also known that the amount of production of C in 2003
minus the amount of production of A in 2001 is equal to 1320 metric tonnes (MT).
If the growth rate of total production would have been 25% instead of 10% as given then what
would have been the di erence in the production of C and B in 2003? (If total production in 2000 is
same as per the direction of the graph) (2 marks)
A. 19531.25 MT
B. 18253.75 MT
C. 19529.50 MT
D. 18654.25 MT
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 19531.25 MT 
Solution
Q66.
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If the value of D’s production in 2003 minus the value of A’s production in 2001 is equal to 4, 191
MT (this value is di https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
erent from the value given in direction of graph) and the growth rate of total
production would have been same as per direction given above then, what will be the di erence in
the production of C and B in 2003? (2 marks)
A. 2940.6125 MT
B. 3056.7521 MT
C. 1996.5MT
D. 3124.2596 MT
E. Can’ not be determined
Correct Answer: C. 1996.5MT 
Solution
Q67.
The price of product D is Rs. 150 per metric tons in 2002. The sales revenue contributed by D in
2002 will be : (2 marks)
A. Rs. 3630000
B. Rs. 4356000
C. Rs. 4536500
D. Rs. 2354600
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: A. Rs. 3630000 
Solution
Q68.
for more join
Which product has the largest total production in all of the given years? (2 marks)
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. A
E. Can’t be determined
Correct Answer: A. B 
Solution
We need to consider values of total production for D and B only as A and C can be eliminated by
observation
By further observation we can make out that B’s production is fairly high as compared of D
Q69.
The percentage increase in the production of C for the period 2000-2002 is: (2 marks)
A. 81.5%
B. 85.5%
C. 75%
D. 85.6%
E. 89%
Correct Answer: A. 81.5% 
Solution
Q70.
There are four boxes. Each box contains three balls:
two red and one blue. You draw one ball from each of the four boxes.
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What is the probability of drawing at least one red ball ? (2 marks)
A. 15/16 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
B. 13/16
C. 16/17
D. 12/15
E. None of these
Solution
Q71.
There are four boxes. Each box contains three balls:
two red and one blue. You draw one ball from each of the four boxes.
What is the probability of drawing at most one blue ball ? (2 marks)
A. 16/27
B. 52/81
C. 32/81
D. 35/81
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 16/27 
Solution
Probability of drawing at most one blue ball = Probability of drawing blue ball from bag 1 or bag 2
or bag 3 or bag 4 + probability of drawing no blue ball
Q72.
Each of the following questions consist of 3 statements A,B and C. You have to determine that
which of the following statement/statements are necessary to answer the questions:
The cost of three pencils, four erasers and ve paperweights is Rs 28. What is the cost of an
eraser? for more join
A. The cost of a paperweight is 25 paise less than that of the pencil and eraser together.
B. The cost of ten paperweights and 8 erasers is Rs 42.50.
C. The cost price of a pencil is 80% more than that of an eraser. (2 marks)
A. Any two of them
B. Either B alone or A and C together
C. Any of them
D. All statements are required
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Any two of them 
Solution
So using any two of the 3 statements the cost of Eraser can be determined.
Q73.
A. The sum of the sum of these two quantities and their di erence is 12 whereas the di erence of
the sum of these two quantities and their di erence is 6. (x>y)
B. y is 50% less than x.
C. √y : √x =1: √2 (1 marks)
A. Only A and B are su cient
B. Any two of A, B and C are su cient
C. Any one of A, B and C is su cient
D. Only B and C are su cient
E. All together are su cient
Correct Answer: C. Any one of A, B and C is su cient 
Solution
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Q74.
What is the cost price of the book?
A. After allowing a discount of 18% on printed price shopkeeper charges Rs 516.60 for it.
B. If he had not allowed any discount, he would have a pro t of 25%.
C. If he had allowed only 10% discount on printed price then he would have 12.5% pro t. (2 marks)
A. Any two of them
B. Either A and B or C
C. Any one of them
D. All together is required
E. A and either B or C
Correct Answer: E. A and either B or C 
Solution
Q75.
If the volumes of two right circular cones are in the ratio 4 : 1 and their diameters are in the ratio 5
: 4 then the ratio of their heights is : (1 marks)
A. 25 : 16
B. 25 : 64
C. 64 : 25
D. 16 : 25
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Correct Answer: C. 64 : 25 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
Q76.
Shweta covered a distance of 96 km two hours earlier than she planned to. This she achieved by
travelling 1 km more per hour than she intended to cover in 1 hour 15 minutes. What was the
speed at which Shweta travelled during the journey? (2 marks)
A. 16 km/h
B. 26 km/h
C. 36 km/h
D. 30 km/h
E. none of these
Correct Answer: A. 16 km/h 
Solution
Q77.
The Ist pie chart shows the percentage distribution of income of Infosys from 2010-2015, while the
IInd pie chart shows the degree distribution of the total expenditure of TCS in the same time
period. Study the charts carefully and answer the following questions :
If pro t of Infosys in 2010 is 8% while the loss of TCS in 2014is 12.5%. Then nd the ratio of income
of TCS in 2014 to expenditure of Infosys in 2010. (2 marks)
A. 91 : 80
B. 91 : 81
C. 81 : 91
D. 80 : 91
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 91 : 80
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Solution
Q78.
If the pro t of Infosys in 2015 is and the amount of pro t of Infosys in 2015 is equal to amount of
loss incurred by TCS in 2012. Then expenditure of Infosys in 2015 is what percent less than income
of TCS in 2012 ? (1 marks)
A. 66.67%
B. 66.33%
C. 66.11%
D. 66.55%
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 66.11%
Solution
Q79.
In which year the expenditure of TCS to income of Infosys ratio is 3rd highest? (2 marks)
A. 2015
B. 2013
C. 2010
D. 2012
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. 2012 for more join

Q80.
In which year the di erence between income in Infosys and expenditure of TCS is 85 crore ? (1
marks)
A. 2010
B. 2011
C. 2012
D. 2013
E. 2014
Correct Answer: C. 2012
Solution
Q81.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are
given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Fifteen years after communism was o cially pronounced dead, its spectre seems once again to be
haunting Europe. Last month, the Council of Europe's parliamentary assembly voted to condemn
the "crimes of totalitarian communist regimes", linking them with Nazism and complaining that
communist parties are still "legal and active in some countries". Now Göran Lindblad, the
conservative Swedish MP behind the resolution, wants to go further. Demands that European
ministers launch a continent-wide anti-communist campaign - including school textbook revisions,
o cial memorial days and museums - only narrowly missed the necessary two-thirds majority.
Yesterday, declaring himself delighted at the rst international condemnation of this "evil
ideology", Lindblad pledged to bring the wider plans back to the Council of Europe in the coming
months.
He has chosen a good year for his ideological o ensive: this is the 50th anniversary of
Khrushchev's denunciation of Stalin and the subsequent Hungarian uprising, which will doubtless
be the cue for further excoriation of the communist record. Paradoxically, given that there is no
for more join
communist government left in Europe outside Moldova, the attacks have if anything become more
extreme as time has gone on. A clue ashttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
to why that might be can be found in the rambling report
by Mr. Lindblad that led to the Council of Europe declaration. Blaming class struggle and public
ownership, he explained that "di erent elements of communist ideology such as equality or social
justice still seduce many" and "a sort of nostalgia for communism is still alive". Perhaps the real
problem for Mr Lindblad and his rightwing allies in eastern Europe is that communism is not dead
enough - and they will only be content when they have driven a stake through its heart.
The fashionable attempt to equate communism and Nazism is in reality a moral and historical
nonsense. Despite the cruelties of the Stalin terror, there was no Soviet Treblinka or Sobibor, no
extermination camps built to murder millions. Nor did the Soviet Union launch the most
devastating war in history at a cost of more than 50 million lives - in fact it played the decisive role
in the defeat of the German war machine. Mr. Lindblad and the Council of Europe adopt as fact
the wildest estimates of those "killed by communist regimes" (mostly in famines) from the ercely
contested Black Book of Communism, which also underplays the number of deaths attributable to
Hitler. But in any case, none of this explains why anyone might be nostalgic in former communist
states, now enjoying the delights of capitalist restoration. The dominant account gives no sense of
how communist regimes renewed themselves after 1956 or why western leaders feared they
might overtake the capitalist world well into the 1960s. For all its brutalities and failures,
communism in the Soviet Union, eastern Europe and elsewhere delivered rapid industrialisation,
mass education, job security and huge advances in social and gender equality. It encompassed
genuine idealism and commitment, captured even by critical lms and books of the post-Stalin era
such as Wajda's Man of Marble and Rybakov's Children of the Arbat. Its existence helped to drive
up welfare standards in the west, boosted the anticolonial movement and provided a powerful
counterweight to western global domination.
It would be easier to take the Council of Europe's condemnation of communist state crimes
seriously if it had also seen t to denounce the far bloodier record of European colonialism - which
only nally came to an end in the 1970s. This was a system of racist despotism, which dominated
the globe in Stalin's time. And while there is precious little connection between the ideas of
fascism and communism, there is an intimate link between colonialism and Nazism. The terms
lebensraum and konzentrationslager were both rst used by the German colonial regime in south-
west Africa (now Namibia), which committed genocide against the Herero and Nama peoples and
bequeathed its ideas and personnel directly to the Nazi party.
Around 10 million Congolese died as a result of Belgian forced labour and mass murder in the
early 20th century; tens of millions perished in avoidable or enforced famines in British-ruled
India; up to a million Algerians died in their war for independence, while controversy now rages in
France about a new law requiring teachers to put a positive spin on colonial history. Comparable
atrocities were carried out by all European colonialists, but not a word of condemnation from the
Council of Europe - nor over the impact of European intervention in the third world since
decolonisation. Presumably, European lives count for more.
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No major twentieth century political tradition is without blood on its hands, but battles over
history are more about the future than the past. Part of the current enthusiasm in o cial western
circles for dancing on the grave of communism is no doubt about relations with today's Russia and
China. But it also re ects a determination to prove there is no alternative to the new global
capitalist order - and that any attempt to nd one is bound to lead to su ering and bloodshed.
With the new imperialism now being resisted in both the Muslim world and Latin America, growing
international demands for social justice and ever greater doubts about whether the environmental
crisis can be solved within the existing economic system, the pressure for political and social
alternatives will increase.
Among all the apprehensions that Mr. Goran Lindblad expresses against communism, which one
gets admitted, although indirectly, by the author?
(1.5 marks)
A. There is nostalgia for communist ideology even if communism has been abandoned by most
European nations.
B. Notions of social justice inherent in communist ideology appeal to critics of existing systems.
C. Communist regimes were totalitarian and marked by brutalities and large scale violence.
D. Communist ideology is faulted because communist regimes resulted in economic failures.
E. The existing economic order is wrongly viewed as imperialistic by proponents of communism.
Correct Answer: C. Communist regimes were totalitarian and marked by brutalities and large scale
violence. 
Solution
Refer the last few sentences of the third paragraph “For all its brutalities and failures, communism
in the Soviet Union, eastern Europe and elsewhere delivered rapid industrialisation, mass
education, job security and huge advances in social and gender equality. It encompassed genuine
idealism and commitment, captured even by critical lms and books of the post-Stalin era such as
Wajda's Man of Marble and Rybakov's Children of the Arbat.”
Q82.
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months.
extreme as time has gone on. A clue as to why that might be can be found in the rambling report
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What, according to the author, is the real reason for a renewed attack against communism? (1.5
marks)
A. Disguising the unintended consequences of the current economic order such as social injustice
and environmental crisis.
B. Idealizing the existing ideology of global capitalism.
C. Making communism a generic representative of all historical atrocities, especially those
perpetrated by the European imperialists.
D. Communism still survives, in bits and pieces, in the minds and hearts of people.
E. Renewal of some communist regimes has led to the apprehension that communist nations
might overtake the capitalists.
Correct Answer: D. Communism still survives, in bits and pieces, in the minds and hearts of
people. 
Solution
Refer the last two sentences of the second paragraph “"di erent elements of communist ideology
such as equality or social justice still seduce many" and "a sort of nostalgia for communism is still
alive".
Q83.
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months.
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The author cites examples of atrocities perpetrated by European colonial regimes in order to (1.5
marks)
A. Compare the atrocities committed by colonial regimes with those of communist regimes.
B. Prove that the atrocities committed by colonial regimes were more than those of communist
regimes.
C. Prove that, ideologically, communism was much better than colonialism and Nazism.
D. Neutralize the arguments of Mr. Lindblad and to point out that the atrocities committed by
colonial regimes were more than those of communist regimes.
E. Neutralise the arguments of Mr. Lindblad and to argue that one needs to go beyond and look at
the motives of these regimes.
Correct Answer: D. Neutralize the arguments of Mr. Lindblad and to point out that the atrocities
committed by colonial regimes were more than those of communist regimes. 
Solution
Refer the rst sentence of fourth paragraph “It would be easier to take the Council of Europe's
condemnation of communist state crimes seriously if it had also seen t to denounce the far
for more join
bloodier record of European colonialism - which only nally came to an end in the 1970s. This was
a system of racist despotism, which dominated the globe in Stalin's time.”
Q84.
months.
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Why, according to the author, is Nazism closer to colonialism than it is to communism? (1.5 marks)
A. Both colonialism and Nazism were examples of tyranny of one race over another
B. The genocides committed by the colonial and the Nazi regimes were or similar magnitude
C. Several ideas of the Nazi regime were directly imported from colonial regimes
D. Both colonialism and Nazism are based on the principles of imperialism
E. While communism was never limited to Europe, both the Nazis and the colonialists originated in
Europe.
Correct Answer: C. Several ideas of the Nazi regime were directly imported from colonial regimes
 

Refer the last sentence of the fourth paragraph “The terms lebensraum and konzentrationslager
were both rst used by the German colonial regime in south-west Africa (now Namibia), which
committed genocide against the Herero and Nama peoples and bequeathed its ideas and
personnel directly to the Nazi party.”
Q85.
months.
for more join
Which of the following cannot be inferred as a compelling reason for the silence of the Council of
Europe on colonial atrocities? (1.5 marks)
A. The Council of Europe being dominated by erstwhile colonialists
B. Generating support for condemning communist ideology
C. Unwillingness to antagonize allies by raking up an embarrassing past
D. Portraying both communism and Nazism as ideologies to be condemned
E. Greater value seemingly placed on European lives.
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Correct Answer: C. Unwillingness to antagonize allies by raking up an embarrassing past 
Solution
“Unwillingness to antagonize allies by raking up an embarrassing past” is the motive of the council
not the cause of the silence.
Q86.
months.
for more join
Which of the following undermines the author’s thesis that the current attempts to equate Nazism
and communism are not defensible? (1.5 marks)
A. Communist equivalents of the camps of Treblinka or Sorbibor did not exist
B. Nazi Germany initiated a war which led to the loss of millions of lives
C. Extermination caps were not build in the soviet Union to eliminate large numbers
D. Casualty gures in communist regimes are exaggerated but as treated as factural
E. None of these.
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Correct Answer: D. Casualty gures in communist regimes are exaggerated but as treated as
factural 
Solution
Refer to the third paragraph of the passage.
Q87.
months.
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Choose the word/group of words which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word/group of words
printed in bold as used in passage.
Excoriation (1.5 marks)
A. multifarious
B. instigate
C. inoculate
D. plaudit
E. inexorable
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Correct Answer: D. plaudit
Solution
Excoriation means harsh criticism. Hence it has opposite meaning as plaudit.
Inexorable means impossible to stop or prevent.
Inoculate means treat with a vaccine to produce immunity against a disease, vaccinate. Instigate
means bring about or initiate (an action or event).
Multifarious means having many aspects.
Q88.
months.
for more join
contested Black Book of Communism, whichhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
also underplays the number of deaths attributable to
Choose the word/group of words which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words
Denounce (1.5 marks)
A. inane for more join
B. muni cent
C. proscribe
D. pernicious
E. impute
Correct Answer: C. proscribe
Solution
Denounce means publicly declare to be wrong or evil. Hence it has same meaning as proscribe.
Inane means devoid of intelligence.
Impute means attribute or credit to.
Pernicious means exceedingly harmful.
Muni cent means very generous.
Q89.
Deliberative democracy demands a re exive (or re ection driven) reordering of preferences in a
non-coercive manner. The authenticity of democracy requires in addition that these re ective
preferences, in uence collective outcomes and action, and so long as the state is the main (though
far from exclusive) locus of collective decisions; it requires discursive mechanisms for transmission
of public opinion to the state. A deliberative or more properly a discursive democracy, in order
that it can accommodate several competing versions of democracies such as the liberal, the
minimal, the di erence, etc., must also accommodate rhetoric, narratives, and empathy along with
reasoning. A rationality and a reasoning that does not accommodate values is meaningless.
However, it is also argued that individual rationality cannot be realised if values are embedded in
the decision procedures, in other words, realisation of values could be made possible only when
individuals behave non-rationally. Further if values having been abandoned at the individual level
are accorded a place only collectively, the same must lead to either “epistemological inconsistency
or abandonment of autonomy of individual evaluations”. A talk or a rhetoric, otherwise, is strategic
and is employed with the intention of signaling certain information. Such a talk can be therefore
deceptive and coercive. The illocutionary force and the normative trappings of a Foucauldian
discourse while allowing identi cation with a community and di erences with the others, do
simultaneously pose through coercion a threat to an utterance as such. If democracy cannot
ensure utterance as freedom and if the illocutionary forces in a discursive democracy disciplines
the thought and the talk, then how such a democracy could indeed be called authentic!
Most human actions and discourses are actuated by a deeper or primordial ante-deliberation
Desire (let us use a capital D). Speaking as such is out of such a Desire (one might use volition or
for more join
passion). Engaging in a deliberation or else in an action is possible only since there has been such
a Desire. Desire appears to both the rehttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
ection and also to an observer as a mental-state. A
discourse can be set only when such mental states are in harmony, or share a common
predisposition or attitude. In the absence of such shared mental-states, no discourse and no
deliberation can begin. A running underlying and most often unstated theme that remains at the
back of the idea of deliberative democracy is competition – a competition with the ‘other’ which
introduces strategy. The alternative to competition, a mental-state which is out of a Desire to enjoy
the ‘other’ in the light of a memory that this ‘one’ and the ‘other’ were but the same and would
again become the same, do not appear in the known Anglo-American literature. Such a mental-
state might generate and keep alive possibilities, of cooperation although is never a state of
cooperation alone as such.
Desire as ante-deliberation driving action refer to (1.5 marks)
A. Irrationality of deliberation.
B. Uselessness of deliberation.
C. Desire to act without thinking.
D. Temporal inconsistency in a position that argues for deliberative action constituting democracy.
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Temporal inconsistency in a position that argues for deliberative action
constituting democracy. 
Solution
Refer the rst few lines of second paragraph “ Most human actions and discourses are actuated by
a deeper or primordial ante-deliberation Desire (let us use a capital D). Speaking as such is out of
such a Desire (one might use volition or passion). Engaging in a deliberation or else in an action is
possible only since there has been such a Desire. “
Q90.
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a Desire. Desire appears to both the re ection and also to an observer as a mental-state. A
Which of the following is true from the passage? (1.5 marks)
A. Author argues that democracy is bound to fail.
B. Author argues that Desire is primal.
C. Author argues for an end to primal desire so that an end to competition can come through.
D. Both (A) and (B)
E. None of these
Solution
None of the given sentence is going in accordance with the passage.
Q91.
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A Foucauldian discourse as used in the passage does NOT refer to (1 marks)
A. discourse based on power.
B. community based discourse.
C. strategic discourse.
D. Both (B) and (C)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: E. None of these for more join

Solution
Refer “through coercion a threat”, “identi cation with a community”, “normative trapping”.
Q92.
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Which of the following words is closest to the word ‘ primordial’ as used in the passage above? (1
marks)
A. Elemental
B. Anarchist
C. Animalistic
D. Nihilistic
E. analystic
Correct Answer: A. Elemental 
Solution
‘Primordial’ here means basic or existing since beginning.
Anarchist - believing in total absence of law or government
Nihilistic- believing in total rejection of morality are not suitable.
Q93.
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a Desire. Desire appears to both the rehttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
ection and also to an observer as a mental-state. A
Which of the following captures the spirit of the position that the author hints at through the
phrase ‘alternative to competition’? (1 marks)
A. All the pragmatic world is a stage – a play unfolding.
B. Democracy is an unruly ght among citizens.
C. Socialist planning does away with the chaos of competition.
D. Both (A) and (B)
E. None of these
Solution
‘alternative to competition’ is what the author calls “desire to enjoy the other” or co-operation.
Q94.
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Which of the following follows from the passage above? (1 marks)
A. A rhetoric laden talk can generate authentic democratic collective choice.
B. Irrational persons alone can have values.
C. Authenticity of democracy requires a strong re ection-action interaction.
D. A paradigm of competition alone can sustain an authentic democracy.
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: C. Authenticity of democracy requires a strong re ection-action interaction. 
Solution
Refer the second sentence of the rst paragraph “The authenticity of democracy requires in
addition that these re ective preferences, in uence collective outcomes and action, and so long as
the state is the main (though far from exclusive) locus of collective decisions; it requires discursive
mechanisms for transmission of public opinion to the state.”
Q95.
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Choose the word/group of words which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words
Discursive (1 marks)
A. duress
B. extant
C. emend
D. meandering
E. didactic
Correct Answer: D. meandering
Solution
Discursive means digressing from subject to subject. Hence it has same meaning as meandering.
Didactic means instructive. Duress means compulsory force or threat.
Extant means still in existence.
Q96.
Select the phrase/connector (STARTERS) from the given three options which can be used to form a
single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in
the statement sentences.
(1)Air Chief Marshal BS Dhanoa was fully entitled to comment on the technical aspects of the
combat aircraft.
(2)Since price negotiations are not directly handled by the IAF, there was little requirement for him
to insist that it was a better price than what was secured by the previous government when
processing plans to acquire 126 jets.
(I)While Air Chief Marshal BS Dhanoa…
(II)As price negotiations are not…
(III)In terms of entitlement by the IAF… (1 marks)
A. Only (I) is correct
B. Only (III) is correct
C. Both (I) and (II) are correct
D. Both (I) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: C. Both (I) and (II) are correct 
Solution
Both the starters (I) and (II) can be used to connect the given set of two sentences to form a
meaningful statement. However, the third starter is incorrect as it would alter the meaning of the
actual sentence.
(I)While Air Chief Marshal BS Dhanoa was fully entitled to comment on the technical aspects of the
combat aircraft, since price negotiations are not directly handled by the IAF, there was little
requirement for him to insist that it was a better price than what was secured by the previous
government when processing plans to acquire 126 jets.
(II)As price negotiations are not directly handled by the IAF, there was little requirement for Air
Chief Marshal BS Dhanoa, who was fully entitled to comment on the technical aspects of the
for more join
combat aircraft, to insist that it was a better price than what was secured by the previous
government when processing plans to acquire 126 jets.
Q97.
(1)The doctors routinely emphasize to complete the full course of the drug.
(2)New research suggests that an extended treatment course is appropriate only for certain cases.
(I)Completing the full course of…
(II)Though the doctors routinely…
(III)Despite the fact that the doctors… (1 marks)
B. Only (II) is correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: E. All are correct 
Solution
All the three starters are correct enough to form three logical sentences without altering the
meaning of the actual sentence.
(I)Completing the full course of the drug is routinely emphasized by the doctors, but new research
suggests that an extended treatment course is appropriate only for certain cases.
(II)Though the doctors routinely emphasize to complete the full course of the drug, new research
suggests that an extended treatment course is appropriate only for certain cases.
(III)Despite the fact that the doctors routinely emphasize to complete the full course of the drug,
new research suggests that an extended treatment course is appropriate only for certain cases.
Q98.
(1)Boeing focused all e orts and resources on developing a new lightweight plane, with more fuel-
e cient carbon bre composites.
(2)Boeing banked on its belief that airlines wanted e cient and not giant ying machines.
(I)Banking on its belief that… for more join
(II)Despite that Boeing focuses on…
(III)For all that e cient and not giant… (1 marks)
B. Only (II) is correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: A. Only (I) is correct 
Solution
Only the rst starter can be used to frame a logical and comprehensive sentence connecting both
the sentences given as the question. The other two starters are incorrect owing to their varying
meanings.
(I)Banking on its belief that airlines wanted e cient and not giant ying machines, Boeing focused
all e orts and resources on developing a new lightweight plane, with more fuel-e cient carbon
bre composites.
Q99.
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions that follow.
If the sentence (E), “ However, modern cold storages, as being set up by Allround India, a
subsidiary of Allround Holland, and other such companies, can bring down wastage within the 10-
15 per cent range.” is the last sentence of the paragraph, then which of the following sentences
does not t into the paragraph formed after rearranging other sentences?
(A)One of the prime reasons behind high volatility in onion prices stems from a lack of storage
facilities that have not kept pace with rising production.
(B)This needs to go up manifold if we are serious about encouraging food processing and
stabilising prices even of fresh onions.
(C)No wonder, MP farmers su ered most in a bumper onion crop year.
(D)While Maharashtra used the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana and National Horticulture Mission
and created 42,282 low-cost onion storage structures with a capacity of 9.65 lakh tonnes, there is
hardly any storage facility in MP.
(E)However, modern cold storages, as being set up by Allround India, a subsidiary of Allround
Holland, and other such companies, can bring down wastage within the 10-15 per cent range.
(F)Also, the traditional storage practices incur losses as high as 40 per cent. (1 marks)
A. F
B. A
C. D for more join
D. B
E. C https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: D. B 
Solution
If the sentence (E) is the last sentence of the paragraph, the sentences in the sequence of AFDCE
form a coherent paragraph which is about the reasons behind high volatility in onion prices.
However, the sentence (B) nds no alternative to be matched with as it talks about manifold
increment in something which has no relevance from any other sentences among the given
options. Hence (d) is the correct option as the sentence (B) does not belong to the paragraph so
formed.
Q100.
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions that follow.
If the sentence (A), “ They cannot, we hope, be arbitrarily replaced by another set, in which, say,
murder is okay but marriage is not.” is the second sentence of the paragraph, then which of the
following sentences does not t into the paragraph formed after rearranging other sentences?
(A)They cannot, we hope, be arbitrarily replaced by another set, in which, say, murder is okay but
marriage is not.
(B)How we drive is how we are driven.
(C)Tra c restrictions lie on the surface of human interaction, where men and machines, and men
in and as machines, are regulated and must regulate themselves.
(D)Moral and juridical rules, however, are constitutive of the way in which we live and interact with
each other.
(E)But while morality underpins these rules, it also frames them: How we behave on the road is an
image of ourselves.
(F)This has the e ect, not legally but psychologically speaking, of legitimising jumping lights when
they do work. (1 marks)
A. D
B. C
C. F
D. E
E. B
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Correct Answer: C. F 
Solution
If the sentence (A) is the second sentence of the paragraph, the sentences in the sequence of
DACEB form a coherent paragraph which is about moral and juridical rules related to tra c
restrictions. However, the sentence (F) nds no alternative to be connected with as it talks about
the e ect of some problem which nds no relevance from any other sentences given as options.
Hence (c) is the correct choice of elimination as the sentence (F) is not the part of the paragraph so
formed.
Q101.
The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts which contain
grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence, as speci ed in bold in each part.
If there is an error in any part of the sentence, nd the correct alternatives to replace those parts
from the three options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If
the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (e), i.e., “No
correction required” as your answer.
Credit rating agency Moody’s had last week upgraded India’s sovereign rating (I)/after a gap of
over 13 years citing reform push and steps being taken (II)/by the government to solve the high
NPA problems in the banking sector. (III)
(I)having upgraded the last week
(II)had cited the push for reforms and steps to be
(III)in solving the higher NPA problems existing (1 marks)
A. Only (I)
B. Only (II)
C. Both (I) and (III)
D. All (I), (II) and (III)
E. No correction required
Correct Answer: E. No correction required 
Solution
The given sentence is grammatically correct and at the same time it is contextually meaningful. So,
none of the bold parts requires correction or replacement. Hence option (e) is the correct choice.
Q102.
The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts which contain
for more join
grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in any part of
the sentence, https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
nd the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options given
below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of
the sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose (d), i.e., None
of the (I), (II) and (III) as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not
require any correction, choose (e), i.e., No correction required as your answer.
Mediocrity in the ranks of the regime does not possess (I)/either the intellectual capability or even
a proper understanding of the system of public service delivery (II)/that is essentially at good
governance. (III)
(I)Mediocrity at the ranks of the regime may not possess
(II)the intellectual capability or even understanding of the system properly in public service
delivery
(III)that is so essential to good governance (1 marks)
A. Only (I)
B. Only (III)
C. Both (I) and (III)
D. None of the (I), (II) and (III)
E. No correction required
Correct Answer: B. Only (III) 
Solution
The rst and the second parts of the sentence are absolutely correct and any alteration or
replacement in these two would change the meaning of the sentence. However, in the third part of
the sentence, the correct expression should be “ that is so essential to good governance ” instead
of “ that is essentially at good governance. ” Hence option (b) is the correct choice to make the
sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.
Q103.
In question given below there are two statements, each statement consists of two blanks. You
have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that ts both the blanks in both
the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically
correct.
(1)The ______________ of amendments around electoral bonds makes the scheme’s intent
______________ clear.
(2) The complex, called City Modern, will incorporate four surviving Victorian mansions within a
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street-friendly ________________________ of ____________________ sized contemporary houses and
apartments. (1 marks) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
A. cluster, amply
B. array, arguably
C. network ,adequately
D. congregate , covetously
E. aggregate, aptly
Correct Answer: A. cluster, amply 
Solution
‘cluster, amply’ ts the two sentences most appropriately.
Cluster means a group of similar things or people positioned or occurring closely together.
Amply means enough or more than enough; plentifully.
Covetously means having or showing a great desire to possess something belonging to someone
else.
Congregate means gather into a crowd or mass.
Q104.
In question given below there are two statements, each statement consists of two blanks. You
have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that ts both the blanks in both
the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically
correct.
(1) To many commentators, the Klan costume is now the perfect visual _______________ with which
to decry Trump’s cack-handed false ____________________
(2)Another _____________________ of hand of the misinformation campaign is to draw a false
________________ between beef lynchings and the killing of minorities/Dalits. (1 marks)
A. ineptitude, analogy
B. adroitness, relation
C. sleight, equivalence
D. clumsiness, parelleism
E. ineptness, uniformity
Correct Answer: C. sleight, equivalence 
Solution
‘Sleight, equivalence’ is the correct choice for the given question.
Sleight means the use of dexterity or cunning, especially so as to deceive.
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Ineptitude means lack of skill or ability.
Parellelism means the state of being parallel or of corresponding in some way.
Ineptness means without skill or aptitude for a particular task or assignment; maladroit
Q105.
Read the paragraph given below carefully and then answer the question based on the passage.
The district health o cer boasts that the average ambulance turnaround time, the time from
summons to delivery of the patient, has been reduced this year for top-priority emergencies. This
is a serious misrepresentation. This ‘reduction’ was produced simply by rede ning ‘top priority.
Such emergencies used to include gunshot wounds and electrocutions, the most time-consuming
cases. Now they are limited strictly to heart attack and strokes.
Which one of the following would strengthen the author’s conclusion that it was the rede nition of
‘top priority’ that produced the reduction in turnaround time? (1 marks)
A. The number of heart attacks and strokes declined this year
B. The health o cer rede ned the district’s medical priorities this year.
C. One half of all last year’s top-priority emergencies were gunshot wounds and electrocution
cases
D. Other cities includes gunshot wound cases in their category of top-priority emergencies.
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: C. One half of all last year’s top-priority emergencies were gunshot wounds and
electrocution cases 
Solution
Option (c) is the correct choice as according to passage it is known that the district health minister
has not included gunshot wounds and electrocutions which according to option (c) accounts for
one half of all the last year’s top-priority emergencies. According to passage it is given that these
emergencies are time-consuming and therefore by rede ning ‘top-priority’ they have reduced the
average time. Thus option (c) strengthens the conclusion.
Q106.
“Cases of food poisoning have been reported from village X. After a dinner party arranged for 100
people, 68 have been admitted to the hospital, 36 cases are reported to be out of danger. The
food, which was cooked and stored in open space for almost 12 hours earlier, was served after
reheating it. Investigation is going on.” -A news report.
Which of the following can be hypothesized for the above information? (1 marks)
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A. Late night dinner parties for large number of people result into food poisoning
B. Stale food is likely to be the cause ofhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
food poisoning
C. Cases of food poisoning need to be handled carefully
D. Food poisoning is a matter of chance and no preventive measure can be suggested
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: B. Stale food is likely to be the cause of food poisoning 
Solution
Refer ‘cooked and stored in open space for 12 hours’
Q107.
Restoration of the original paint colours of heritage buildings in the colonial-era has until now
relied on the technique of scraping paint in a small area down to chronological level that
represents the paint layer of the colonial period and then matching the colour found at that level.
This colour was most often the colour of putty.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the validity of the procedure described
above? (1 marks)
A. It is possible to distinguish the paint used in stencilled border designs such as those used in the
colonial period, from the underlying paint layer.
B. Contemporary paint materials include many that did not exist in colonial time
C. In colonial period, it was customary to paint all the walls of a room the same solid colour
D. The original colours were altered over the years by reactions with air, light, and dirt to become
putty-coloured
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: D. The original colours were altered over the years by reactions with air, light, and
dirt to become putty-coloured 
Solution
If the original colours were altered, how could it be decided now.
Q108.
Questions are based on the passage in below.
Transnational cooperation among corporations is experiencing a modest renaissance among
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United States rms, even though projects undertaken by two or more corporations under a
collaborative agreement are less pro https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
table than projects undertaken by a single corporation. The
advantage of transnational cooperation is that such joint international projects may allow United
States rms to win foreign contracts that they would not otherwise be able to win.
Which of the following information is provided by the passage above? (1 marks)
A. Joint projects between United States and foreign corporations bene t only those who
commission the project
B. Joint projects between United States and foreign corporations are not pro table enough to be
worth taking
C. Transnational cooperation has in the past been both more common and less common than it is
now among United States rms
D. Transitional cooperation results in a poling of resources leading to high-quality performance
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: C. Transnational cooperation has in the past been both more common and less
common than it is now among United States rms 
Solution
The word ‘renaissance’ indicates that it was quite popular once. After that it became less common.
Now again it is becoming common.
Q109.
Questions are based on the passage in below.
Transnational cooperation among corporations is experiencing a modest renaissance among
United States rms, even though projects undertaken by two or more corporations under a
collaborative agreement are less pro table than projects undertaken by a single corporation. The
advantage of transnational cooperation is that such joint international projects may allow United
States rms to win foreign contracts that they would not otherwise be able to win.
Which of the following statements by a United States corporate o cer best ts the situation of
United states rms as described in the passage above? (1 marks)
A. “We would rather win a contract with a truly competitive bid of our own than get involved in less
pro table collaborative agreement.”
B. “We would rather have foreign corporations join us in American projects than join them in
projects in their home countries”.
C. “We would rather cooperate and build goodwill than poison the business climate by all out
competition”.
D. “We would rather make a share of a relatively modest pro t than end up making none of a
potentially much bigger pro t”. for more join
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: D. “We would rather make a share of a relatively modest pro t than end up
making none of a potentially much bigger pro t”. 
Solution
It is given in the passage that transnational cooperation may allow United States rms to win
foreign contracts that they would not otherwise be able to win.
Q110.
In an attempt to promote the widespread use of paper rather than plastic, and thus reduce non-
biodegradable waste, the municipal corporation of one of the metros plans to ban the sale of
disposable plastic goods for which substitutes made of paper exist. The corporation argues that
since most paper is entirely biodegradable, paper goods are environmentally preferable.
Which of the following, if true, indicates that the plan to ban the sale of disposable plastic goods is
ill suited to the corporation’s environmental goals? (1 marks)
A. Although biodegradable plastic goods are now available, members of the municipal corporation
believe biodegradable paper goods to be safer for the environment
B. Since city people prefer plastic goods to paper goods in many instances, they are likely to
purchase them in neighbouring places or towns where plastic goods are available for sale
C. After other places enacted similar bans on the sale of plastic goods, the environmental bene ts
were not discernable for several years
D. Products other than those derived from wood pulp are often used in the manufacture of paper
goods that are entirely biodegradable
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. After other places enacted similar bans on the sale of plastic goods, the
environmental bene ts were not discernable for several years 
Solution
Option (c) is the correct choice. Refer the word discernable which means able to be discerned;
perceptible. Therefore the environmental goals were not met even after the ban hence option (c),
if true, is ill suited to the corporation’s environmental goals.
Q111.
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In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage
missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the ve answer choices given, to make
the passage complete and coherent (coherent means logically complete and sound).
On June 27, 2017, Russian mass media headlines announced “China’s breakthrough in the Arctic.”
The reason for the positive headlines was the signing of an agreement of cooperation by
Murmansk Governor Marina Kovtun and General Director Alexey Davydov of Gazprom
Geologorazvedka, a drilling company owned by Gazprom. Notably, the signing took place on board
the Chinese deepwater semi-submersible drilling rig Nanhai-8, which entered the Kola Bay a week
earlier. ____________________________________________________________. (1 marks)
A. What were the major driving motivations and interests for Gazprom to choose the Chinese
drilling rig?
B. The C1+C2 reserves of the eld have been estimated at 1.05 trillion cubic meters of gas and 3
million metric tons of gas condensate.
C. The Nanhai-8 rig can operate at water depths up to 1,400 meters and can drill as deep as 7,600
meters.
D. The approximate cost of the leasing contract is $71,640 million.
E. In November 2016, the energy company announced a tender for a 3D seismic survey in the Kara
and Barents Seas, and early this year Gazprom already declared its plans to resume drilling in the
Kara Sea.
Correct Answer: C. The Nanhai-8 rig can operate at water depths up to 1,400 meters and can drill
as deep as 7,600 meters.
Solution
The paragraph is talking about the positive announcement made by Russian mass media
regarding China’s breakthrough in the Arctic for the purpose of signing an agreement. The
sentence before the blank tells that the signing took place on the Nanhai-8, Chinese deepwater
semi- submersible drilling rig. Hence the blank must be lled by the sentence related to the rig,
Nanhai-8. Sentence (c) is giving the description of Nanhai-8 and hence making the paragraph
complete. Hence option (c) is correct choice.
Q112.
China seeks to take full advantage of the unfolding AI revolution to enhance its national power and
competitiveness. Recognizing the strategic importance of this new technology, the Chinese
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leadership intends to leverage AI in its quest for innovation-driven development, with the
aspiration of enabling China to becomehttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
a global power in science and technology. Concurrently,
the CPC (Communist Party of China) will attempt shape the development of AI in accordance with
the objectives and interests of the party-state.
__________________________________________________________. (1 marks)
A. The appearance of the drilling rig in Murmansk was due to Gazprom decision’s to hire it for
drilling assignments in the Arctic Sea.
B. However, AI is unlikely to be a panacea for China’s economic and societal challenges, and the
future trajectory of the implementation of this new plan remains to be seen.
C. China shares an interest in diversifying its marine trading routes and energy exporters, and
currently, Chinese companies are assessing the future bene ts of investment in Arctic
development.
D. The Russian government, meanwhile, has ambitious plans to boost its socioeconomic activity in
the Arctic region and needs investment and technology for its ambitious shipping and energy
projects.
E. In 2016 Rosneft, in partnership with the Norwegian energy company Statoil, drilled exploration
wells in the Sea of Okhotsk using China Oil eld Services Limited’s semi-submersible rig Nanhai-9.
Correct Answer: B. However, AI is unlikely to be a panacea for China’s economic and societal
challenges, and the future trajectory of the implementation of this new plan remains to be seen.
Solution
The sentence revolves around the theme of seeking advantage of AI for economic and societal
development of China. The sentence before the blank is about shaping the development of AI in
accordance with the interests of political party hence the blank must be lled by the sentence
talking about AI in relation with social and economic challenges. Sentence (b) is in agreement with
the paragraph and hence is the correct choice.
Q113.
When Fiji’s Prime Minister Frank Bainimarama assumed the presidency of the 23rd meeting of the
UN’s climate change convention on November 6, he was a long way from his Paci c home. Fiji is
the rst Paci c Island country to host a UN Conference of the Parties (COP), but is doing so
remotely from Bonn, Germany. _______________________.Despite being held in a cold German city,
COP 23 will have many Fijian touches. Fiji will lead a dialogue following the Paci c principles of
“Talanoa” – sharing stories to build empathy and trust. (1 marks)
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A. The impact of climate change on these countries with little protection from vast oceans is now
well known. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
B. However Fiji’s small size means that it has also not received any of the economic bene ts
associated with hosting major international meetings.
C. Despite their small populations and economies, small island states like Fiji, have been among
some of the biggest leaders on climate change at the United Nations.
D. This year’s COP has been preceded by a year of unprecedented oods, hurricanes, and
wild res.
E. With a population of less than one million people, Fiji has taken on an outsized role at the
United Nations in recent years, becoming a much more prominent leader on climate change than
many much larger countries.
Correct Answer: E. With a population of less than one million people, Fiji has taken on an outsized
role at the United Nations in recent years, becoming a much more prominent leader on climate
change than many much larger countries. 
Solution
The paragraph revolves around the theme of Fiji, the rst Paci c island country ,hosting and
leading a UN Conference of the Parties. The sentence before the blank tells about hosting of
conference by Fiji while sentence after the blank is about the keen participation of Fiji in the
conference for building empathy and trust. Hence the blank must be lled by the sentence related
to the role of Fiji in the COP. Going through the given sentences, we nd that sentence (e) is going
appropriately with the theme of the paragraph telling about Fiji becoming a prominent leader.
Hence option (e) is the correct choice.
Q114.
Over four months into the troubled implementation of the goods and services tax, the Centre has
operationalised a provision in the GST law that has been worrying industry. The National Anti-
pro teering Authority, whose constitution was approved by the Cabinet last Thursday, is
empowered to crack down on rms that fail to pass on the ‘bene ts’ of the tax regime to
consumers. The authority can order businesses to reduce product prices or refund to consumers
‘undue bene ts’; in extreme cases it can impose a penalty on errant rms and cancel their
registration as taxpayers. ____________________________________________________________. (1 marks)
A. The government is keen on ensuring that consumers have a better perception of the GST’s
ground-level impact.
B. While wholesalers can still implement this, reaching every last retailer is a challenge.
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C. Where the consumers are di cult to trace individually, the amount construed by the authority
to be the extent of undue bene https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
t will be deposited in a consumer welfare fund.
D. Protecting consumer interest is important, but the prospect of the government monitoring
prices and asking businesses to justify pricing decisions instead of letting market forces play out is
unnerving.
E. The government must ensure that the authority’s powers are used transparently and only
where there is genuine consumer/public interest at stake. Else, it runs the risk of making pro t
itself a bad word.
Correct Answer: C. Where the consumers are di cult to trace individually, the amount construed
by the authority to be the extent of undue bene t will be deposited in a consumer welfare fund.
 
Solution
The paragraph revolves around the theme of setting up of an authority for proper implementation
of Goods and services tax. The sentences before the blank is about the function of the authority
hence the blank must be lled by the sentence related to the authority and consumers. Going
through the sentences, we nd that sentence (c) is in agreement with the paragraph.
Q115.
The water economy needs sustained policy attention and follow-through. With 17% of the world’s
population but only 4% of its fresh water resources, we in India clearly need to rationalise water
usage both in agriculture and industry, with transparent governance and attendant institutional
mechanisms. It is timely that the Central Water Commission (CWC) has put out a paper on pricing
of water for agriculture, proposing methodology and principles.
__________________________________________. (1 marks)
A. The latter surcharge would not yield signi cant amounts, the paper avers; we need to
disincentivise water usage, by researching better seed varieties, for example.
B. Unrealistic water rates prevent proper utilisation or preservation of the assets that have been
created.
C. India’s ultimate irrigation potential is estimated at 140 million hectares and today our
infrastructure from myriad major, medium and minor irrigation projects including groundwater
schemes covers well over 81% of that target.
D. A uniform formula for the whole country would have no practical value.
E. The fact is that water usage for our major crops is about 2-4 times that in other major farming
nations. for more join
Correct Answer: D. A uniform formula for the whole country would have no practical value.
Solution
The paragraph is all about the need for proper utilization of water both in agriculture and industry.
The sentence before the blank talks about the method to use the water for di erent purposes.
Hence the blank must be lled by the sentence related to this theme. Going through the
sentences, we nd that sentence (d) goes correctly with the paragraph telling that uniform policy
or formula would not be e ective for the whole country. Hence option (d) is the correct choice.
Q116.
Cheque which is truncated during the course of clearing cycle is called __________
A. Stale Cheque
B. Mutilated Cheque
C. Self Cheque
D. Truncated Cheque
E. None of the given options is true
Correct Answer: D. Truncated Cheque 
Solution
A truncated cheque means a cheque which is truncated during the course of clearing cycle either
by the clearing house or by the bank.
Q117.
Name the Indian lender that has committed Rs 156 crore to fund rst Sewage Treatment Plant
(STP) to be constructed at Varanasi under Hybrid Annuity-PPP Model.
A. Yes Bank
B. ICICI Bank
C. Dena Bank
D. HDFC Bank
E. IDBI Bank
Correct Answer: A. Yes Bank 
Solution
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Private sector Yes Bank today has committed Rs 156 crore to fund rst Sewage Treatment Plant
(STP) to be constructed at Varanasi under Hybrid Annuity-PPP Model.
Q118.
Which of the following is the country’s largest custodian and depository participant?
A. CIBIL
B. SEBI
C. NABARD
D. SHCIL
E. None of the given options is true
Correct Answer: D. SHCIL 
Solution
Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd (SHCIL) is India’s largest custodian and depository
participant.
Q119.
Name the Central Asian Country, which will change its name to Qazaqstan.
A. Uzbekistan
B. Turkmenistan
C. Kazakhstan
D. Tajikistan
E. Kyrgyzstan
Correct Answer: C. Kazakhstan 
Solution
The central Asian country of Kazakhstan is changing its name to Qazaqstan in a challenge to
Russian in uence over the country.
Q120.
According to accepting public deposits, NBFCs can be classi ed into ____ broad categories.
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. One
E. Five
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Correct Answer: A. Two 
Solution
According to accepting public deposits, NBFCs can be classi ed into two broad categories, viz.,
(i) NBFCs accepting public deposit (NBFCs-D)
(ii) NBFCs not accepting/holding public deposit (NBFCs-ND).
Q121.
The Nandankanan Zoological Park (NZP) is a 400-hectare zoo and botanical garden in
A. Odisha
B. Kerala
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Haryana
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Odisha 
Solution
Nandankanan Zoological Park is a 400-hectare (990-acre) zoo and botanical garden in
Bhubaneswar, Odisha, India. Established in 1960, it was opened to the public in 1979 and became
the rst zoo in India to join World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA) in 2009. It also
contains a botanical garden and part of it has been declared a sanctuary. Nandankanan, literally
meaning “The Garden of Heaven”.
Q122.
Private sector lender Axis Bank reduced interest rate on savings bank accounts by 50 basis points
to 3.5 percent for deposits up to-
A. Rs 1 lakh
B. Rs 80 lakh
C. Rs 20 lakh
D. Rs 50 lakh
E. Rs 10 lakh
Correct Answer: D. Rs 50 lakh 
Solution
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Private sector lender Axis Bank reduced the interest rate on savings bank accounts by 50 basis
points to 3.5 percent for deposits up tohttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Rs 50 lakh. However, the bank will continue to pay 4
percent interest on deposits of above Rs 50 lakh.
Q123.
Name the Renowned Hindi litterateur, who has been chosen for this year's Jnanpith Award, the
Jnanpith Selection Board announced.
A. Ashapoorna Devi
B. Krishna Sobti
C. Sankara Kurup
D. Shankha Ghosh
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Krishna Sobti 
Solution
Renowned Hindi littérateur Krishna Sobti has been chosen for this year’s Jnanpith Award, the
Jnanpith Selection Board announced.
Q124.
The Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) came into existence in-
A. 1999
B. 1995
C. 1991
D. 1987
E. 1982
Correct Answer: D. 1987 
Solution
The Board of experts named the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) was set
up in January 1987 and functional with e ect from 15th May 1987. The Appellate Authority for
Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (AAIRFR) was constituted in April 1987. Government
companies were brought under the purview of SICA in 1991 when extensive changes were made
in the Act including, inter-alia, changes in the criteria for determining industrial sickness.
Q125.
Name the persons, who won the 2017 Nobel Prize in the eld of Physics for their pioneering role
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in the detection of gravitational waves at Stockholm, Sweden.
A. Jacques Dubochet, Richard Henderson and Barry C. Barish
B. Rainer Weiss, Barry C. Barish and Kip S. Thorne
C. Jacques Dubochet, Joachim Frank and Richard Henderson
D. Rainer Weiss, Joachim Frank and Kip S. Thorne
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Rainer Weiss, Barry C. Barish and Kip S. Thorne 
Solution
The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences has decided to award the Nobel Prize in Physics 2017 with
one half to Rainer Weiss and the other half jointly to Barry C. Barish and Kip S. Thorne "for decisive
contributions to the LIGO detector and the observation of gravitational waves"
Q126.
Aurionpro solutions a global leader in digital innovation, enterprise security and banking solutions
,announced its Branch-in-a-Box product, the VTM a fully integrated self-service kiosk for
automating 90% of banking transactions at the branch level. VTM stands for-
A. Virtual Truncated Machine
B. Vehicle Teller Machine
C. Virtual Timer Machine
D. Virtual Teller Management
E. Virtual Teller Machine
Correct Answer: E. Virtual Teller Machine
Solution
Aurionpro solutions a global leader in digital innovation, enterprise security and banking solutions,
announced its Branch-in-a-Box product, the Virtual Teller Machine (VTM) a fully integrated self-
service kiosk for automating 90% of banking transactions at the branch level.
Q127.
Name the lender that has recently announced a new home loan scheme that o ers borrowers the
bene t of 1% cashback on every EMI, for the entire tenure of the loan.
A. State Bank of India
B. HDFC Bank
C. IndusInd Bank
D. Oriental Commerce Bank
E. ICICI Bank
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Correct Answer: E. ICICI Bank 
Solution
India’s largest private sector lender by consolidated assets, ICICI Bank announced a new home
loan scheme that o ers borrowers the bene t of 1% cashback on every EMI, for the entire tenure
of the loan. The o er will be valid for home loans with a minimum tenure of 15 years and
maximum tenure of 30 years.
Q128.
____________ is a nancial cover for a contingency linked with human life, like death, disability,
accident, retirement etc.
A. Health Insurance
B. Life Insurance
C. Motor Insurance
D. Travel Insurance
E. Group Insurance
Correct Answer: B. Life Insurance 
Solution
Life Insurance is a nancial cover for a contingency linked with human life, like death, disability,
accident, retirement etc. Human life is subject to risks of death and disability due to natural and
accidental causes. When human life is lost or a person is disabled permanently or temporarily,
there is loss of income to the household.
Q129.
Ahead of monetary policy review, the government has ____________ the interest rates on small
savings schemes like PPF, Kisan Vikas Patra and Sukanya Samriddhi for October-December
quarter.
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Unchanged
D. Doubled
E. Halved
Correct Answer: C. Unchanged 

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Solution
Ahead of monetary policy review, the government kept unchanged the interest rates on small
savings schemes like PPF, Kisan Vikas Patra and Sukanya Samriddhi for October-December
quarter.
Q130.
___________ to provide guaranteed clearing and settlement functions for transactions in Money, G-
Secs, Foreign Exchange and Derivative markets.
A. NPCI
B. SEBI
C. GOI
D. RBI
E. CCIL
Correct Answer: E. CCIL 
Solution
The Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. (CCIL) was set up in April, 2001 to provide guaranteed
clearing and settlement functions for transactions in Money, G-Secs, Foreign Exchange and
Derivative markets. The introduction of guaranteed clearing and settlement led to signi cant
improvement in the market e ciency, transparency, liquidity and risk management/measurement
practices in these market along with added bene ts like reduced settlement and operational risk,
savings on settlement costs, etc.
Q131.
Name the famous temple that has been adjudged best ‘Swachh Iconic Place’ in India, according to
the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
A. Chidambaram Temple
B. Ekambareswar Temple
C. Ayyanarappan Temples
D. Meenakshi Sundareswarar Temple
E. Nandi Temple
Correct Answer: D. Meenakshi Sundareswarar Temple 

The famed Meenakshi Sundareswarar Temple in Madurai has been adjudged the best ‘Swachh
Iconic Place’ (clean place) in India. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Q132.
If the shares or convertible debentures are not issued within __________ days from the date of
receipt of the inward remittance or date of debit to NRE/FCNR(B)/Escrow account, the amount
shall be refunded.
A. 210 days
B. 150 days
C. 180 days
D. 120 days
E. 90 days
Correct Answer: C. 180 days 
Solution
If the shares or convertible debentures are not issued within 180 days from the date of receipt of
the inward remittance or date of debit to NRE/ FCNR (B)/ Escrow account, the amount shall be
refunded. Further, Reserve Bank may on an application made to it and for su cient reasons
permit an Indian Company to refund/ allot shares for the amount of consideration received
towards issue of security if such amount is outstanding beyond the period of 180 days from the
date of receipt.
Q133.
India and which bank has signed the nance contract for lending of 300 million euros (about
Rs.2,293 crore) for Bangalore Metro Rail?
A. Asian Development Bank
B. European Investment Bank
C. National Development Bank
D. World Bank
E. Japan Finance Corporation
Correct Answer: B. European Investment Bank 
Solution
India and European Investment Bank (EIB) signed the nance contract for lending of 300 million
euros (about Rs 2,293 crore) for Bangalore Metro Rail Project phase-II. Bangalore Metro Rail
Project Phase II is to be jointly nanced by the EIB (500 million euros) and Asian Infrastructure
for more join
Investment Bank (300 million euros).
Q134.
Which of the following is governed by the provisions of Section 42 (1) of the Reserve Bank of India
Act, 1934?
A. Bank rate
B. Reverse Repo Rate
C. SLR
D. CRR
E. MSF
Correct Answer: D. CRR 
Solution
CRR is governed by the provisions of Section 42 (1) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
Q135.
What is the theme of 2017 Global Handwashing Day (GHD)?
A. Our hands, our future!
B. Make handwashing a habit!
C. Raise a hand for hygiene!
D. Raise hands for future!
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Our hands, our future! 
Solution
Global Hand Washing Day or GHD is celebrated on October 15 every year and is a global campaign
dedicated to raising awareness about washing hands with soap and its importance in disease
prevention. Global Handwashing Day 2017 is being celebrated with various initiatives and program
that help people improve their hand washing skills and is celebrated with the theme, “Out Hands
Our Future.”
Q136.
The projection of real GVA growth for 2017-18 has been revised down to _________ from the August
2017 projection of 7.3 percent by RBI in fourth Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement 2017-18.
A. 6.7 percent
B. 6.8 percent
C. 6.9 percent
for more join
D. 6.5 percent https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. 6.6 percent
Correct Answer: A. 6.7 percent 
Solution
The projection of real GVA growth for 2017-18 has been revised down to 6.7 percent from the
August 2017 projection of 7.3 per cent by RBI in fourth Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement
2017-18.
Q137.
President Ram Nath Kovind appointed governors for the 5 states. Who is newly appointed
governor of Meghalaya?
A. Jagdish Mukhi
B. Satya Pal Malik
C. Brigadier (Retd.) BD Mishra
D. Banwarilal Purohit
E. Ganga Prasad
Correct Answer: E. Ganga Prasad 
Solution
President appointed Banwarilal Purohit as the Governor of Tamil Nadu, Brig. (Dr.) B.D. Mishra
(Retd.) as the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh, Satya Pal Malik as the Governor of Bihar, Jagdish
Mukhi as the Governor of Assam and Ganga Prasad as the Governor of Meghalaya.
Q138.
The Indian government has announced an allocation of ________________ over 2 years for the
recapitalization of public sector banks.
A. Rs 30.74 lakh crore
B. Rs 2.11 lakh crore
C. Rs 17.53 lakh crore
D. Rs 12.43 lakh crore
E. Rs 9.27 lakh crore
Correct Answer: B. Rs 2.11 lakh crore 

for more join
Solution
The Indian government has announced an allocation of Rs 2.11 lakh crore over 2 years for the
recapitalization of public sector banks.
Q139.
Name the Union Minister of State (Independent Charge), who has launched MSME Delayed
Payment Portal – MSME Samadhaan (http://msefc.msme.gov.in).
A. Manoj Sinha
B. Giriraj Singh
C. Raj Kumar Singh
D. Ram Kripal Yadav
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Giriraj Singh 
Solution
Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Shri Giriraj Singh launched MSME Delayed Payment
Portal – MSME Samadhaan (http://msefc.msme.gov.in), empowering micro and small
entrepreneurs across the country to directly register their cases relating to delayed payments by
Central Ministries/Departments/CPSEs/State Governments.
Q140.
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is an independent nancial institution aimed
to aid the growth and development of micro, small and medium-scale enterprises in India. Who is
present Chairman & Managing Director (CMD) of SIDBI?
A. Pankaj Jain
B. Mohammad Mustafa
C. Dr Kshatrapati Shivaji
D. J Chandrasekaran
E. Ajay Kumar Kapur
Correct Answer: B. Mohammad Mustafa 
Solution
Mohammad Mustafa is present Chairman & Managing Director (CMD) of SIDBI.
for more join
Q141. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
The biography of Hema Malini named 'Hema Malini: Beyond the Dream Girl' was launched
recently. The biography has been penned by journalist turned writer _____________.
A. Yoshita Singh
B. Ram Kamal Mukherjee
C. Shrilal Shukla
D. Dnyaneshwar M. Mulay
E. Mohanti Lal Sarna
Correct Answer: B. Ram Kamal Mukherjee 
Solution
Actress Deepika Padukone launched Hema Malini's biography 'Hema Malini: Beyond the Dream
Girl' on the occasion of Hema's 69th birthday. The biography has been penned by journalist
turned writer Ram Kamal Mukherjee.
Q142.
The rst-ever India-US Ocean Dialogue held in
A. Goa
B. Bengaluru
C. New Delhi
D. Hyderabad
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Goa 
Solution
The rst-ever India-US Ocean Dialogue has started in Goa
Q143.
In ________ insurance, schemes are o ered by insurance companies to provide certain classes of
individuals, the bene t of insurance coverage at moderate cost.
A. group insurance
B. motor insurance
C. travel insurance
D. life insurance
E. health insurance
for more join
Correct Answer: A. group insurance 
Solution
Another kind of insurance is group insurance. In group insurance, schemes are o ered by
insurance companies to provide certain classes of individuals, the bene t of insurance coverage at
moderate cost.
Q144.
What is the Capital of Chile?
A. Buenos Aires
B. Baku
C. Jakarta
D. Santiago
E. Lima
Correct Answer: D. Santiago 
Solution
Santiago is the Capital of Chile. Michelle Bachelet is the present President of Chile.
Q145.
Lewis Hamilton, a British racing driver who races in Formula One for the Mercedes AMG Petronas
team, has won the 2017 Italian Formula One Grand Prix tournament by defeating
A. Sebastian Vettel
B. Valtteri Bottas
C. Daniel Ricciardo
D. Kimi Raikkonen
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Valtteri Bottas 
Solution
First Lewis Hamilton
Second Valtteri Bottas
Third Sebastian Vettel
Q146. for more join
The Rihand dam has been built across Rihand River a tributary of Sone river in which state?
A. Bihar
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Jharkhand
D. West Bengal
E. Odisha
Correct Answer: B. Uttar Pradesh 
Solution
The Rihand dam has been built across Rihand River a tributary of Sone river, near Pipri in the
Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh. The concrete gravity dam has its maximum height that is
91m.
Q147.
Name India's rst Olympic swimmer who passed away in Andhra Pradesh's Guntur district at the
age of 87.
A. Bijoy Barman
B. Hakimuddin Habibullah
C. Dolly Nazir
D. Shamsher Khan
E. Chand Bajaj
Correct Answer: D. Shamsher Khan 
Solution
India's rst Olympic swimmer Shamsher Khan passed away in Andhra Pradesh's Guntur.
Q148.
Name the First Bank in India to launch its own Payment Aggregators.
A. ICICI Bank
B. State Bank of India
C. Dena Bank
D. Yes Bank
E. HDFC Bank
Correct Answer: B. State Bank of India 

for more join
Solution
State Bank of India set up its payment gateway - SBI ePay — with the objective of enrolling
government entities and municipal corporations as well as small traders in the online
marketplace.
Q149.
Which organization is all set to become a Maharatna company, presently it is having Navratna
status?
A. Coal India Limited
B. Steel Authority of India Limited
C. National Thermal Power Corporation
D. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited 
Solution
State-run Bharat Petroleum Corporation (BPCL) is all set to become a Maharatna company. The oil
marketing company is at present a Navratna rm. The decision to elevate BPCL to Maharatna
status was taken by a panel headed by the Cabinet secretary and an announcement to this e ect
is likely soon, according to o cial sources. Maharatna and Navaratna state-owned units operate in
strategic elds such as coal, petroleum, steel, heavy engineering, power supply,
telecommunications and transportation services.
Q150.
Who is the Social Justice and Empowerment minister of India?
A. Smt. Maneka Sanjay Gandhi
B. Kalraj Mishra
C. Thawar Chand Gehlot
D. Smt. Smriti Zubin Irani
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Thawar Chand Gehlot 
Solution
Dr. Thawar Chand Gehlot is an Indian politician who currently serves as the Minister of Social
for more join
Justice and Empowerment in the Modi ministry. He is member of the Rajya Sabha, upper house of
Indian Parliament, representing the state of Madhya Pradesh.
Q151.
The Union Power Ministry has constituted a 4-member committee to investigate into the causes of
the recent accident that occurred at NTPC’s Unchahar Thermal Power Plant in Uttar Pradesh’s Rae
Bareli district. The committee, headed by
A. L.D. Papney
B. Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar
C. Subir Chakraborty
D. PD Siwal
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. PD Siwal 
Solution
The Union power ministry set up a high-level committee to investigate the 1 November blast at
state-run NTPC Ltd’s Unchahar power plant in Raebareli and suggest measures to prevent such
incidents. The committee, headed by P.D. Siwal, member-thermal at the Central Electricity
Authority (CEA).
Q152.
NHFDC was set up in January 1997 as a non-pro t company under Union ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment. What is the full form of NHFDC?
A. The National Handicapped Finance and Development Company
B. The National Handicapped Finance and Development Coordination
C. The National Handicapped Finance and Development Corporation
D. The National Handicapped Finance and Development Center
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. The National Handicapped Finance and Development Corporation 
Solution
The National Handicapped Finance and Development Corporation (NHFDC) has been set up by the
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Government of India on 24th January 1997.
Q153.
The Hazaribag Wildlife Sanctuary (HWS) is situated in
A. Odisha
for more join
B. West Bengal https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Jharkhand
E. Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: D. Jharkhand 

Solution
Hazaribag Wildlife Sanctuary, Hazaribag also spelled Hazaribagh, national park, north-central
Jharkhand state, northeastern India. The sanctuary is situated on a hilly plateau at an average
elevation of 2,000 feet (600 metres), about 55 miles (90 km) north of Ranchi, the state capital
Q154.
International Day for the Eradication of Poverty (IDEP) is observed globally on _______________.
A. 10 October
B. 18 October
C. 6 October
D. 3 October
E. 17 October
Correct Answer: E. 17 October 
Solution
The International Day for the Eradication of Poverty is an international observance celebrated
every year on October 17 throughout the world. The rst commemoration of the event took place
in Paris, France, in 1987
Q155.
Which among the following companies approved SoftBank Group Corp.’s o er to buy a
multibillion-dollar stake in the ride-hailing company?
A. Uber
B. Paytm
C. Flipkart
D. Snapdeal
E. Grofers
Correct Answer: A. Uber 

for more join
Solution
Uber Technologies Inc. approved SoftBank Group Corp.’s o er to buy a multibillion-dollar stake in
the ride-hailing company, setting the stage for one of the largest private start-up deals ever. The
agreement lets SoftBank and other rms invest up to $1 billion in Uber and proceed with a tender
o er in coming weeks to buy up to $9 billion in shares from existing investors. The deal also
includes Uber governance changes.
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12/30/2017 Adda247 Store | Adda247 Store

Correct Answer: B. 3 BHK and 1 BHK <br>

Correct Answer: C. South city- fourth- blue <br>

Correct Answer: C. L,Z <br>

Correct Answer: B. Only (II) <br>

Correct Answer: D. 28 year <br>

Correct Answer: B. W <br>

Correct Answer: E. 16 <br>

Correct Answer: E. Mango <br> for more join

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Solution for more join

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Correct Answer: B. I,II,VI <br>

Correct Answer: D. P <br>

iii. Case 2-When S likes Frappuccino.

Correct Answer: E. 32 <br>

Solution for more join

iii. Case 2-When S likes Frappuccino.

Your Answer: Not Attempted

iii. Case 2-When S likes Frappuccino.

Correct Answer: C. L-39-Americano <br>

iii. Case 2-When S likes Frappuccino.

Correct Answer: C. 31 <br>

Correct Answer: D. Only (i), (iii) and (ii) <br>

Correct Answer: E. None of the above <br>

Correct Answer: B. Weak Entity <br>

Correct Answer: B. Process Control Block <br>

Correct Answer: A. Rs 45.88 <br>

Correct Answer: C. 20 <br>

Correct Answer: C. 108/19 hours <br>

Correct Answer: B. 200/9 hours <br> for more join

Correct Answer: B. 7/4 hours <br>

Correct Answer: B. 5% <br>

Ratio of e ciency on Friday is 5 : 4

Correct Answer: A. 500/27% <br>

Correct Answer: E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation <br>

Correct Answer: A. Quantity I &gt; Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: B. <img

Correct Answer: A. 10 <br> for more join

Correct Answer: E. 20 <br>

Correct Answer: B. 4 <br>

Correct Answer: B. 65 s, 1150 m <br>

Correct Answer: A. 19531.25 MT <br>

for more join

Correct Answer: C. 1996.5MT <br>

Correct Answer: D. @& <br>

Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II <br>