Paid Ibps Set 4 Mathclub

12/31/2017 Adda247 Store | Adda247 Store
Purchased by roshnipanwar025@gmail.com
Q1.
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Seven persons viz. O, P, Q, R, S, T, U visit di erent cities viz. Chandigarh, Dehradun, Jaipur, Meerut,
Pune, Shimla, Sikkim on di erent days starting from Monday to Sunday. And each of the cities is
famous for di erent industries viz. Coal, Cotton, Clothes, Paper, Plastic, Tourism and Steel & Iron.
Also each of them is of di erent age. Neither S nor T is youngest. The one who visit Jaipur is 6th
youngest. Only three persons visit the cities in between the one who visit the city which is famous
for Paper and the one who visit Dehradun. The one who is youngest, visit Chandigarh on Monday.
Pune is famous for Paper. O visits the city which is famous for Tourism. Only three persons are
older than U. The one who is 6th oldest visits Sikkim but not on Friday. R visit the city on Thursday
and is just older than S. The one who visit the city which is famous for Steel & Iron visit the city
after maximum number of Persons. P is older than only two people. Dehradun is not famous for
Steel & Iron and is not being visit on Tuesday. O is older than both Q and T but not the oldest. The
one who visit Shimla which is famous for tourism, visits it immediately after the one who visit
Pune. The city which is famous for Clothes is being visited immediately after the one which is being
famous for Cotton but not on Friday. The one who is youngest visit the city which is being famous
for Coal but not immediately after S. U neither visit Dehradun nor Shimla.
Which among the following city is famous for Plastic Industry? (2 Mark)
A. Pune
B. Shimla
C. Sikkim
D. Jaipur
E. Meerut
Your Answer: Not Attempted
Correct Answer: E. Meerut
Solution
The one who is youngest, visit Chandigarh on Monday. The one who visit the city, which is famous
for Steel & Iron, visit the city after maximum number of Persons. Means the one who visit the city
for more join
which is famous for Steel & Iron visit the city on Sunday. Only three persons visit the cities in
between the one who visit the city which https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
is famous for Paper and the one who visit Dehradun.
Pune is famous for Paper. Dehradun is not famous for Steel & Iron and is not being visit on
Tuesday. R visit the city on Thursday. Only three persons are older than U. P is older than only two
people.
https://store.adda247.com/#!/myTestAnalysis/printsolution/mappingId=25329/packageId=359/lang=ENGLISH 1/121
O is older than both Q and T but not the oldest. Neither S nor T is youngest. R visit the city on
Thursday and is just older than S. So it is clear that R is the oldest and S will be 2nd oldest and Q
will be the youngest. The one who visit Jaipur is 6th youngest. The one who visit Shimla which is
famous for tourism visits immediately after the one who visits Pune. The one who is 6th oldest
visits Sikkim but not on Friday.
The city which is famous for Clothes is being visited immediately after the one which is being
for Coal but not immediately after S. U neither visit Dehradun nor Shimla. O visits the city which is
famous for Tourism.
Q2.
for more join

Pune, Shimla, Sikkim on di https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
erent days starting from Monday to Sunday. And each of the cities is
Who among the following is 3rd oldest? (2 Mark)
A. Q
B. S
C. O
D. T
E. U
Correct Answer: C. O
Solution
between the one who visit the city which is famous for Paper and the one who visit Dehradun.
people.
for more join

https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
famous for Tourism.
Q3.
Pune, Shimla, Sikkim on di erent days starting from Monday to Sunday. And each of the cities is
for more join
S visit the city on which of the followinghttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
day? (2 Mark)
A. Thursday
B. Sunday
C. Tuesday
D. Friday
E. Monday
Correct Answer: D. Friday
Solution
people.
for more join

famous for Tourism.
Q4.
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. Seven persons viz. O, P,
Q, R, S, T, U visit di erent cities viz. Chandigarh, Dehradun, Jaipur, Meerut, Pune, Shimla, Sikkim on
di erent days starting from Monday to Sunday. And each of the cities is famous for di erent
industries viz. Coal, Cotton, Clothes, Paper, Plastic, Tourism and Steel & Iron. Also each of them is
of di erent age. Neither S nor T is youngest. The one who visit Jaipur is 6th youngest. Only three
persons visit the cities in between the one who visit the city which is famous for Paper and the one
who visit Dehradun. The one who is youngest, visit Chandigarh on Monday. Pune is famous for
Paper. O visits the city which is famous for Tourism. Only three persons are older than U. The one
who is 6th oldest visits Sikkim but not on Friday. R visit the city on Thursday and is just older than
S. The one who visit the city which is famous for Steel & Iron visit the city after maximum number
of Persons. P is older than only two people. Dehradun is not famous for Steel & Iron and is not
being visit on Tuesday. O is older than both Q and T but not the oldest. The one who visit Shimla
which is famous for tourism, visits it immediately after the one who visit Pune. The city which is
famous for Clothes is being visited immediately after the one which is being famous for Cotton but
not on Friday. The one who is youngest visit the city which is being famous for Coal but not
immediately after S. U neither visit Dehradun nor Shimla.
Who among the following visit Sikkim? (2 Mark)
A. Q
B. S
C. O
D. T
E. U
Correct Answer: D. T
Solution
for more join
people.
famous for Tourism.
Q5.
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. Seven persons viz. O, P,
Q, R, S, T, U visit di erent cities viz. Chandigarh, Dehradun, Jaipur, Meerut, Pune, Shimla, Sikkim on
for more join
di erent days starting from Monday to Sunday. And each of the cities is famous for di erent
industries viz. Coal, Cotton, Clothes, Paper, Plastic, Tourism and Steel & Iron. Also each of them is
of di erent age. Neither S nor T is youngest. The one who visit Jaipur is 6th youngest. Only three
persons visit the cities in between the one who visit the city which is famous for Paper and the one
who visit Dehradun. The one who is youngest, visit Chandigarh on Monday. Pune is famous for
Paper. O visits the city which is famous for Tourism. Only three persons are older than U. The one
who is 6th oldest visits Sikkim but not on Friday. R visit the city on Thursday and is just older than
S. The one who visit the city which is famous for Steel & Iron visit the city after maximum number
of Persons. P is older than only two people. Dehradun is not famous for Steel & Iron and is not
being visit on Tuesday. O is older than both Q and T but not the oldest. The one who visit Shimla
which is famous for tourism, visits it immediately after the one who visit Pune. The city which is
famous for Clothes is being visited immediately after the one which is being famous for Cotton but
not on Friday. The one who is youngest visit the city which is being famous for Coal but not
immediately after S. U neither visit Dehradun nor Shimla.
Which among the following is true regarding Q? (2 Mark)
A. Chandigarh- Coal- youngest
B. Jaipur-Cotton-2nd oldest
C. Dehradun- Clothes- 4th youngest
D. Pune-Paper-6th oldest
E. Meerut-Plastic-6th youngest
Correct Answer: A. Chandigarh- Coal- youngest
Solution
people.
for more join

famous for Tourism.
Q6.
Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
An input-output is given in di erent steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step.
No mathematical operation is repeated in next step but it can be repeated with some other
mathematical operation (as multiplication can be used with subtraction in step 1 and same can be
used with addition in step 2)
As per the rules following in the steps given above, nd out in each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the given input.
Find the addition of the two numbers obtained in step 2? (2 Mark)

A. 150
B. 87
C. 76
D. 90
for more join
E. 111
Your Answer: Not Attempted https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: D. 90 
Solution
Q7.
Find the di erence between sum of numbers which obtained in 1st step and sum of numbers
obtained in all other steps? (2 Mark)
A. 23.5
B. 150
C. 59.5
D. 83.5
E. 55.5
Correct Answer: E. 55.5 
Solution
Q8.
for more join
An input-output is given in di https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
erent steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step.
Find the multiplication of the 1st digit obtained in block-1 of step I and the 2nd digit obtained in
block-3 of step I? (2 Mark)
A. 26
B. 42
C. 18
D. 9
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 18 
Solution
Q9.
If we multiply both the digits of 2nd block of step-1 and then divide it by 1st digit of 2nd block of
step-2, then the resultant will be? (2 Mark) for more join
A. 26
B. 12 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. 10
D. 9
E. None of these

Solution
Q10.
If we divide the number obtained in 2nd block in step 2 by the number obtained in 3rd block in
step 1, then the resultant will be? (2 Mark)
A. 6
B. 7
C. 2
D. 9
E. None of these
Solution
for more join

Q11.
India and the UAE have discussed measures to deepen cooperation in a range of areas including
defence, security, terrorism and trade as the two countries held the second round of their
strategic dialogue in Abu Dhabi.
Which among the following is not-in-line with given statement?

(I)The Indian delegation at the talks held yesterday was led by Minister of State for External A airs
M J Akbar while the UAE side was headed by its Minister of State for Foreign A airs Anwar
Gargash.
(II)India ships wheat to Afghanistan via Chabahar. India on Sunday began shipment of wheat to
Afghanistan through the Iranian port of Chabahar.
(III)The UAE has raised its investment pro le in India, and cooperation has increased on security
issues, the statement said. (2 Mark)
A. Only I
B. Both II and III
C. Both I and III
D. Only II
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Only II 
Solution
For I-This is in-line with the given statement as it states about the meeting in between Indian and
UAE delegations which is also mentioned in the given statement that India and the UAE have
discussed measures to deepen cooperation in a range of areas.
For II- This is not- in-line with the given statement as it states about shipment of wheat from India
to Afghanistan through the Iranian port of Chabahar whereas the given statement states that India
and the UAE have discussed measures to deepen cooperation in a range of areas.
For III- This is in-line with the given statement as it states that UAE has raised its investment pro le
in India which is also mentioned in the given statement that India and the UAE have discussed
measures to deepen cooperation in a range of areas.
Q12.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
for more join
Nine family members A, C, D, G, I, K, L, M and W are going for a lunch. A and her husband reached
there by car. C’s sister-in-law, L’s wife and M’s father are already waiting in a restaurant. K is the
sister of M and likes Chinese. C who is the son of the husband of I ordered Indian food. The
grandson of L likes chocolate ice-cream. D who is the mother-in-law of C does not like the food of
that restaurant. K’s father L whose only son M came one hour late for the lunch. G is not the
youngest member in the family.
If M is married to V, how A is related to V? (1 Mark)

A. Cousin
B. Father-in-law
C. Sister-in-law
D. Niece
E. Can’t be determine
Correct Answer: C. Sister-in-law 
Solution
Q13.
Who among the following is the father of C? (1 Mark)

A. M
B. G
C. D
D. I
Correct Answer: B. G for more join

Solution https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Q14.
How W is related to K? (1 Mark)

A. Niece
B. Nephew
C. Sister
D. Brother
Correct Answer: B. Nephew 
Solution
Q15.
Modi government to reframe social welfare schemes for OBCs. In the run-up to the high stakes
elections in Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh, the Narendra Modi-led government has moved to
reframe social welfare schemes for other backward classes (OBCs).
Which among the following can be hypothesized from the given statement?
(I)The targeted schemes promise quality residential accommodation and scholarships to OBC
students.
(II) This reframe of social welfare schemes for OBCs by the Modi government is a political move to
target high stakes elections in Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh.
for more join
(III) The ministry has laid down guidelines for construction of hostels, which would be energy
e cient, economical yet good quality. (2 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Mark)
A. Only (I)
B. Both (III) and (I)
C. Only (II)
D. Both (II) and (III)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Only (II) 
Solution
For I- This statement can’t be hypothesized from the given statement as nothing is mentioned
about facilities given under social welfare schemes for OBCs in the given statement.
For II- This statement can be hypothesized from the given statement as it is mentioned in the
given statement that Modi-led government has moved to reframe social welfare schemes for
other backward classes (OBCs) in the run-up to the highstakes elections in Gujarat and Himachal
Pradesh.
For III- This statement can’t be hypothesized from the given statement as nothing is mentioned
about facilities given under social welfare schemes for OBCs in the given statement.
Q16.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Ten friends i.e. D, R, G, S, P, T, L, C, O and Y sit in a restaurant for dinner purpose on two parallel
rows. Each row contains six seats. At row 1, S, P, O, G and Y sit, facing towards South and one seat
is vacant. Similarly T, R, C, D and L sit at row 2, facing North and again one seat is vacant. They
have di erent branded phones i.e. Jio, Iphone, LG, MI, Lava, Lenovo, Nokia, Redmi, Karbon and
Intex, but not in same order.
The one who has Lenovo sits at 2nd position of a row from left end. There are two persons sit
between D and vacant seat, which is immediate neighbor of the one who faces the one who has
Lenovo phone. The one who has Jio phone does not sit at any extreme end. The one who faces the
vacant seat of row 2, sits 2nd left of Vacant seat of row 1. There are three seats between G and Y. Y
faces the one who sits 3rd right of R who has Karbon phone. The one who has MI phone, is
immediate neighbor of Vacant seat. The one who has Redmi phone faces the one who sits 2nd left
of the one who has Intex mobile. There is no friend sit between T and the one who has Intex
mobile. Vacant seat is not at any extreme end of the row. C sits 2nd left of L. The one who has Jio
phone faces the one who sits 3rd right of P. The one who has Nokia faces the one who has LG
phone who sits 2nd right of vacant seat. O faces the vacant seat and does not have Lava phone.
for more join
Who among the following has Intex mobile phone? (1 Mark)
A. P
B. G
C. D
D. T
E. L
Correct Answer: E. L 
Solution
It is given that the one who has Lenovo sits at 2nd position of a row from left end. There are two
persons sit between D and vacant seat, which is immediate neighbor of the one who faces the one
who has Lenovo phone.
In this condition, we can see that the one who has Lenovo phone , sits at row 1 and faces South.
But the position of Vacant seat in row 2, is not xed. So it will give two possibilities to place D and
vacant seat but in next condition, it is given that Vacant seat is not at any extreme end of the row.
So there will be only one possibility. Now, The one who faces the vacant seat of row 2, sits 2nd left
of Vacant seat of row 1. So,
Now, it is given, There are three seats between G and Y. Y faces the one who sits 3rd right of R who
has Karbon phone. The one who has Redmi phone faces the one who sits 2nd left of the one who
has Intex mobile. There is no friend sit between T and the one who has Intex mobile. Now for the
Intex mobile phone, there will be two possibilities.
But it is given that C sits 2nd left of L also C and L sit in row 2. So Case 2 will be eliminated.
Now, The one who has Jio phone faces the one who sits 3rd right of P. The one who has Jio phone
does not sit at any extreme end. For this condition, again there will be two possibilities but 2nd
possibilities again will be eliminated by 2nd condition. So,
Now, The one who has MI phone, is immediate neighbor of Vacant seat. The one who has Nokia
faces the one who has LG phone who sits 2nd right of vacant seat. O faces the vacant seat and
does not have Lava phone. Then our nal answer is
Q17.
for more join
How many friends sit between the one who has Iphone and the one who faces the one who has
LG phone? (1 Mark)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five
Correct Answer: A. One 
Solution
for more join
Q18.
Who among the following faces the one who sits immediate right of the vacant seat of row 1? (1
Mark)
A. T
B. D
C. R
D. C
E. L
for more join
Correct Answer: B. D 
Solution
Q19.
for more join
If S is related to Lava and Y is related to C, then who is related to R? (1 Mark)

A. Lava
B. L
C. Nokia
D. O
E. D
Correct Answer: D. O 
Solution
Q20. for more join
Who among the following has Iphone? (1 Mark)

A. O
B. L
C. P
D. S
E. D
Correct Answer: A. O 
Solution
for more join
Q21.
In a certain coding pattern-

“Energy and Power Sector” is coded as - “KS5, VZ5, ZE1, HS5”
“Housing with Loan Financing” is coded as – “OO1, DI9, UH1, SH7”
“Banking or Development Industry” is coded as – “YH1, WU5, LS15, RZ9”
What will be the code of “Aviation”? (1 Mark)

A. BO1
B. ZO5
C. ZO1
D. BM5
E. BM1
Correct Answer: C. ZO1 
Solution
These are the latest pattern of coding-decoding questions. In these questions we are applying
following concept:-
Q22.

for more join
“Housing with Loan Financing” is codedhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
as – “OO1, DI9, UH1, SH7”
What can be the code of “Health Sector”? (1 Mark)

A. SG1 HS5
B. SI1 HS3
C. II5 SH5
D. SG1 TI5
E. SG1 TI1
Correct Answer: B. SI1 HS3 
Solution
following concept:-
Q23.

What will be the code of “Agriculture Industry”? (1 Mark)

A. BF1 RZ5
B. ZF1 JZ1
C. BD1 JZ5
D. ZF1 RZ4
E. ZF5 RZ9
Correct Answer: D. ZF1 RZ4 
Solution
following concept:- for more join
Q24.

What can be the code of “Oil Gas”? (1 Mark)

A. PM9 HT1
B. LM1 TT5
C. PK9 TT1
D. LM9 TT1
E. LM9 HT1
Correct Answer: D. LM9 TT1 
Solution
following concept:-
Q25.

What will be the code of “Road Transportation”? (1 Mark)

A. IE1 GO1
B. EI1 UO5
C. SI1 UO5
D. EU1 GO5
E. EI5 UO5
Your Answer: Not Attempted for more join
Correct Answer: A. IE1 GO1 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
following concept:-
Q26.
A. 011001
B. 100110
C. 101010
D. 000000
E. 111111
Correct Answer: B. 100110 
Solution
represents 011001. For nding one’s complement we change each 1 to 0 and each 0 to 1. Hence
One’s complement of 011001 will be 100110.
Q27.
Rahul starts walking from point A towards east direction. After walking 10km he reached to point
B. From there he turned towards his right and walk 3km to reach point C. Then he turns to his
right and walks 5km to reach point D. Now he turns to his south and reached to point E after
walking 3km. Now he turns to east direction and walks 8km and reached to point F. Then he turns
90° in anticlockwise direction and walks 5km to reach point G. From there he turns 90° in
clockwise direction and walks 3km to reach point H. Then he turns to north direction and walks
5km and reached point I. He nally turns to his left and walk 6km to reach point J.
If Rahul turns to his left from his nal position and walks in the same direction then at which point
he will reach rst? (1 Mark)
A. C
B. G
C. I for more join
D. H
E. B https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: E. B
Solution
Q28.
Rahul starts walking from point A towards east direction. After walking 10km he reached to point
B. From there he turned towards his right and walk 3km to reach point C. Then he turns to his
right and walks 5km to reach point D. Now he turns to his south and reached to point E after
walking 3km. Now he turns to east direction and walks 8km and reached to point F. Then he turns
90° in anticlockwise direction and walks 5km to reach point G. From there he turns 90° in
clockwise direction and walks 3km to reach point H. Then he turns to north direction and walks
5km and reached point I. He nally turns to his left and walk 6km to reach point J.
In which direction is point D with respect to point I? (1 Mark)

A. South
B. North-east
C. South-west
D. North
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. South-west 
Solution
Q29.
Disaster management systems can safeguard India’s heritage from climate changes. India is a
signatory to the 2015 Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction, which recognizes that the
for more join
State has the primary role in reducing disaster risk, terrorism related issues and identi es heritage
as a priority area. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Which of the following negates the given statement?
(I)The authority’s report also has detailed guidelines for museums on the systems that need to be
put in place to tackle di erent kinds of threats.
(II)The rst-of-its-kind analysis by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) of the
threats shows that India’s museums face lists terrorism; climate-related events such as oods,
earthquakes and tsunamis; and vandalism.
(III)Climate-related issues such as oods, earthquakes are not a matter of concern for Indian
Heritage. (2 Mark)
A. Only (III)
B. Only (II)
C. Only (I)
D. Both (II) and (III)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Only (III) 
Solution
For I- This statement supports the given statement as it describes that the authority’s report also
has detailed guidelines for museums to tackle di erent kinds of threats as given in the statement
that Disaster management systems can safeguard India’s heritage.
For II- This statement supports the given statement as it describes that analysis of NDMA shows
that India’s museums face lists terrorism and climate-related events which is also mentioned in
the given statement.
For III- This statement does not support or negates the given statement as it describes that
Climate-related issues are not a matter of concern for Indian Heritage whereas the given
statement states that India’s Disaster management systems can safeguard its’ heritage from
climate changes.
Q30.
Statement-
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) data for all four months shows the average levels of PM 2.5
(tiny breathable particles) and the air quality index (AQI) values at most places in Delhi improved
over 2016.
for more join
Which of the following statements negates the above statement?
(i) This does not mean Delhi's air was `clean' but only `less dirty'.
(ii) The head of Regional Weather Forecasting Centre said “Weather played a major role in
reducing pollution during the cold months this year.”
(iii) In February 2017, the average PM2.5 concentration at Anand Vihar was found to be 322 gm3,
which is more than ve times the acceptable limit of 60 gm3 whereas the average PM2.5
concentration at Anand Vihar was found to be 260gm3. (2 Mark)
A. Only (ii)
B. Both (ii) and (iii)
C. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. Only (iii)
E. Both (i) and (iii)
Correct Answer: D. Only (iii) 
Solution
Statement (i) is suggesting that air is less dirty and therefore strengthen the given statement.
Statement (iii) shows a data that proves that air quality is ve times worse than the desired levels
and also pollution level rises from 2016. So, (iii) negates the given statement. Whereas according
to (ii) air pollution has reduced which clearly strengthen the given statement.
Q31.
Eight persons K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of
them are sitting at the corners while four are sitting at the middle side of the table. The ones
sitting at the corner are facing opposite to the center while the ones sitting at the middle are
facing towards the center of the table. Each of them is of di erent age viz. 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12, 15, 18
and also likes di erent color viz. Black, Blue, Green, Pink, Purple, Red, White, Yellow. Both who
likes Red and Purple are immediate neighbours of O. L sits third to the left of M whose age is an
even number. The one who faces L likes Green color. There is a person who is sitting at the corner
of square table whose age is twice of the person who sits to the immediate left of that cornered
sitting person. Q’s age is 5 and P’s age is a prime number. K sits opposite to N who likes Blue color.
The one who likes Black color sits second to the right of the one who likes White color. R’s age is
twice of Q’s age but both are not an immediate neighbour of each other. O does not like Green
color. The one who likes Red is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Green but he is not
for more join
M. P sits second to the left of R. N sits second to the left of the one who likes Pink color. M’s age is
addition of the ages of P and the one who https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
likes Purple color. K’s age is multiple of Q’s age. The one
whose age is equal to the sum of the ages the persons who likes Black and Yellow, sits at the
corner.
Who among the following sits at the corner? (1 Mark)
A. R
B. O
C. L
D. P
E. K
Correct Answer: E. K
Solution
The one who faces L likes Green color. L sits third to the left of M whose age is an even number. K
sits opposite to N who likes Blue color.
The one who likes Red is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Green but he is not M.
Both who likes Red and Purple are immediate neighbours of O. O does not like Green color.
As there is no place for O so case:2 will be eliminated. Now with case:1.
P sits second to the left of R. Q’s age is 5 and P’s age is a prime number. R’s age is twice of Q’s age
but both are not an immediate neighbour of each other. N sits second to the left of the one who
likes Pink color. M’s age is addition of the ages of P and the one who likes Purple color. K’s age is
multiple of Q’s age. The one whose age is twice of himself sits to the immediate left of him. The
one who likes Black color sits second to the right of the one who likes White color. N likes Blue
color. The one whose age is equal to the sum of the ages of the persons who likes Black and
Yellow color, sits at the corner.
Q32.
for more join
addition of the ages of P and the one who likes Purple color. K’s age is multiple of Q’s age. The one
corner.
Who among the following likes Pink color? (1 Mark)
A. K
B. L
C. Q
D. M
E. P
Correct Answer: D. M
Solution
Q33. for more join
corner.
What is the age of L? (1 Mark)
A. 7 year
B. 5 year
C. 15 year
D. 12 year
E. 9 year
Correct Answer: E. 9 year
Solution
for more join
Q34.
corner.
Who sits third to the right of the one who likes Green color? (1 Mark)
A. R
B. N
C. L
D. P
E. K
Correct Answer: B. N
Solution
for more join
Q35.
corner.
Which of the following combination is true? (1 Mark)
A. K- Black-7
B. L- Green-15
C. R- Yellow-10
D. M-Pink-18
E. P-Purple-12 for more join
Correct Answer: C. R- Yellow-10
Solution
Q36.
Statement-
India's space agency has successfully launched its heaviest rocket. The 640-tonne rocket blasted
o from a launching site o the Bay of Bengal in Sriharikota. Media coverage of the launch has
been euphoric, and often colourful, with news channels comparing the rocket to the weight of 200
elephants, or ve jumbo jets.
What is the motive of the TV channels in comparing the weight of the rocket with that of
elephants?
(i) Such comparisons highlight the importance of the launch for the country, which is aggressively
competing to get a bigger share of the global commercial satellite launch market.
(ii) This was done to promote tourism as India is famous for its elephants.
(iii) Comparison shows that India have a capability to send 200 elephants to the space. (2 Mark)
A. Only (i)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. Only (iii) for more join
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: A. Only (i) 
Solution
Clearly highlighting this fact will help showcase the strengths of our space agency. Elephant was
only used as an example to highlight the importance of launch. So (ii) and (iii) are not true.
Q37.
In which format records are arranged in Hierarchical Database Model? (1 Mark)
A. Array
B. List
C. Links
D. Tree
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Tree 
Solution
A hierarchical database model is a data model in which the data is organized into a tree-like
structure. The data is stored as records which are connected to one another through links. A
record is a collection of elds, with each eld containing only one value.
Q38.
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and e ect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the
e ect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes
without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your
answer as-
Statement I-Infosys, among India’s largest software services companies, said it plans to hire 10,000
American workers over the next two years.
Statement II-In lling these jobs, Infosys will hire experienced technology professionals and recent
graduates from major universities, and local and community colleges, and the talent pools will be
created in the future. (1 Mark)
A. If statements I is the cause and statement II is its e ect.
for more join
B. If statements II is the cause and statement I is its e ect.
C. If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. If both the statements I and II are e ects of independent causes.
E. If both the statements I and II are e ects of some common cause.
Correct Answer: A. If statements I is the cause and statement II is its e ect. 
Solution
It is clear from the above that statement I is the cause and II is it’s e ect as this will be the cause
that Infosys is planning to hire workers and for that it will hire graduates and will create talent
pools will be it’s e ect.
Q39.
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and e ect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the
e ect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes
without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your
answer as-
Statement I- Aadhar has become mandatory for ling income tax returns with PAN card.
Statement II-PAN has become more and more susceptible to duplicity and fraud. (1 Mark)
A. If statements I is the cause and statement II is its e ect.
B. If statements II is the cause and statement I is its e ect.
C. If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. If both the statements I and II are e ects of independent causes.
E. If both the statements I and II are e ects of some common cause.
Correct Answer: B. If statements II is the cause and statement I is its e ect. 
Solution
It is clear from the above statement that II is cause and I is it’s e ect because the PAN has become
more vulnerable that is why Aadhar has become mandatory for ling Income Tax.
Q40.
Statement-
According to the latest research-“Few people openly admit to holding racist beliefs on the basis of
for more join
color but many psychologists claim most of us are nonetheless unintentionally racist. We hold,
what are called "implicit biases". https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
One the basis of the information provided in the above statement, which of the following de nes
the term “implicit bias” most accurately?
(i) A slight automatic preference for white people over black people.
(ii) Preference for white people over black people.
(iii) Discriminating against a particular community on the basis of colour. (1 Mark)
A. Only (i)
C. Only (ii)
D. Only (iii)
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: A. Only (i) 
Solution
(i) most accurately de nes term “implicit bias” as the word automatic was used which is similar to
the term “unintentionally racist” used by researchers.
Q41.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H are sitting around a circular table in such a way that no two
successive people are sitting together in an alphabetical order (for ex- A can’t sit with B, B can’t sit
with C etc.).Each of them belongs to di erent cities viz. Chennai, Goa, Jaipur, Meerut, Mumbai,
Lucknow, Pune and Varanasi. And each of them also likes di erent natural sites viz. Beach,
Fountain, Forest, Garden, Mountain, River, Tree, Water fall.
*Note- Some of them are facing inside while some are facing outside. Not more than two people
sitting together are facing same direction.
The one who belongs to Varanasi sits second to the left of F. B likes Fountain and sits opposite to
the person who belongs to Meerut. The one who likes trees sits second to the left of H. G does not
like Trees. Only one person sits between the one who belongs to Pune and the one who likes
Water fall. Neither F nor G belongs to Pune. E belongs to Mumbai. G sits third to the right of C. The
one who likes Mountain and the one who likes River are sitting adjacent to each other and facing
for more join
opposite direction to each other. F sits to the immediate left of C and faces opposite direction of C.
H belong to Varanasi and is an immediate https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
neighbour of E. The one who sits second to the right of
F belongs to Chennai. The one who likes beach sits third to the left of A, who is facing opposite
direction F. The one who likes Forest sits to the immediate left of the one who belongs to Pune.
The one who belongs to Jaipur and the one who belongs to Goa are immediate neighbour of each
other. The one who likes river and the one who likes Garden faces same direction. Both D and B
faces same direction but opposite to the one who belongs to Meerut. The one who belongs to
Lucknow likes Trees. B does not belong to Pune. The one who likes Beach faces opposite direction
of the one who belongs to Jaipur. The one who likes Trees does not face outside of the center.
Who among the following belongs to Lucknow? (1 Mark)

A. C
B. E
C. D
D. F
E. B
Correct Answer: D. F 
Solution
G sits third to the right of C. F sits to the immediate left of C and faces opposite direction of C. The
one who belongs to Varanasi sits second to the left of F. H belong to Varanasi and is an immediate
neighbour of E. B likes Fountain and sits opposite to the person who belongs to Meerut. As A can’t
sit near to B so A sits near to F. E belongs to Mumbai. The one who likes trees sits second to the
left of H. G does not like Trees. The one who sits second to the right of F belongs to Chennai. The
one who likes beach sits third to the left of A, who is facing opposite direction F.
The one who likes Trees does not face outside of the center. So from this condition case-1 will be
eliminated. B does not belong to Pune. Only one person sits between the one who belongs to
Pune and the one who likes Water fall. Neither F nor G belongs to Pune. So A belongs to Pune. The
opposite direction to each other. The one who likes Forest sits to the immediate left of the one
who belongs to Pune. The one who belongs to Jaipur and the one who belongs to Goa are
immediate neighbour of each other. The one who likes river and the one who likes Garden faces
same direction. Both D and B faces same direction but opposite to the one who belongs to
Meerut. The one who belongs to Lucknow likes Trees. The one who likes Beach faces opposite
direction of the one who belongs to Jaipur.
for more join

Q42. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
H belong to Varanasi and is an immediate neighbour of E. The one who sits second to the right of
E likes which natural site? (1 Mark)

A. River
B. Tree
C. Beach
D. Mountain
E. Water fall
Correct Answer: D. Mountain 
Solution
for more join
Q43.
for more join
Who sits third to the right of G? (1 Mark)

A. The one who belongs to Pune
B. The one who belongs to Varanasi
C. The one who likes Garden
D. Both (a) and (c)
E. The one who likes Forest
Correct Answer: D. Both (a) and (c) 
Solution
Q44.
for more join
Who likes Forest? (1 Mark)

A. C
B. E
C. D
D. F
E. B
Correct Answer: C. D 
Solution
for more join
Q45.
Which among the following combination is true regarding A? (1 Mark)

A. River-Varanasi
B. Garden-Pune for more join
C. Beach-Chennai
D. Mountain-Jaipur https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. Water fall-Meerut
Correct Answer: B. Garden-Pune 
Solution
Q46.
Working e ciency of A is 20% more than that of B. B can complete a work ‘X’ in 36 days.
B and C together started to complete the work ‘X’ and after 10 days they both left the work and
then remaining work is done by A alone in 15 days.
A and C together started to complete another work ‘Y’ and after working for 12 days they both left
the work. Remaining work is done by B alone in 16 days. D rst completed work ‘X’ and then
completed work ‘Y’ in total 38 days.
It is given that e ciency of all, in completing work ‘X’ and work ‘Y’ is same.
A, B and C working together completed 1/3 rd of work ‘X’, and then A and C are replaced by D. Now
for more join
remaining of work ‘X’ is completed by B and D together. For how many days B worked? (2 Mark)
A. 12 days https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 4 days
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 12 days 
Solution
Q47.
Working e ciency of A is 20% more than that of B. B can complete a work ‘X’ in 36 days.
A, C and D working simultaneously completed work ‘X’ in ‘n’ days and A, B, C and D working
simultaneously
completed work ‘Y’ in ‘m’ days. Find the value of (m+n). (2 Mark)
A. 15 days
B. 10 days
C. 12 days
D. 8 days
E. None of these
Correct Answer: E. None of these 
Solution
Q48.
for more join
Working e https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
ciency of A is 20% more than that of B. B can complete a work ‘X’ in 36 days.
A person E starts the work ‘X’ and leave after 12 days, then B and C complete the remaining work
in 8 days. What is the ratio of number of days taken by A and E together to complete the work ‘X’
to the number of days taken by D, B and C together to complete the both work ‘X’ and ‘Y’ . (2 Mark)
A. 3 : 5
B. 5 : 3
C. 8 : 7
D. 1 : 2
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 3 : 5 
Solution
Q49.
Given below is the table which shows ve di erent schemes and rate of simple interest (S.I.) and
rate of compound interest (C.I.) o ered on these schemes.
Note : All the interest is calculated annually.
If a sum is invested in scheme B at C.I, then amount obtained after 2 year from this scheme is 1.44
times the sum invested. Rate of simple interest for scheme A is half of the rate of compound
interest for scheme B. Find out the interest earned when 8000 was invested for 2 years in Scheme
A at S.I and in Scheme B at C.I for 2 years. (1 Mark)
A. 5120
B. 5000 for more join
C. 4800
D. Can’t be determined https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 5120 
Solution
Q50.
A man invested 10,000 in scheme D at S.I. for 6 years, the interest he obtained is divided into equal
halves and invested in two di erent schemes i.e. scheme B and scheme C for 4 year each at S.I. If
the ratio of interest obtained in both scheme is 3 : 2, then nd out the rate of interest in C scheme.
(2 Mark)
A. 10%
B. 8%
C. 11%
D. 5%
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 8% 
Solution
Q51.
for more join
A sum is invested in scheme E at S.I. for 2 year and then whole amount obtained is invested at C.I.
in same scheme for 2 more years. If same sum would have been invested in scheme D for 4 year
with S.I. then, what would have been the ration of amount obtained from scheme E to the amount
obtained from scheme D. (2 Mark)
A. 27 : 25
B. 21 : 23
C. 40 : 49
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of these
Solution
Q52.
A man invests equal sum in two di erent schemes, D and E at S.I. for 4 year each. The total
interest he got is invested in the scheme A for 3 year at C.I. Due to some reason instead of getting
interest from scheme A , the scheme is opped and sum invested in scheme A is depreciated each
year with same rate, and he got Rs. 778688 after 3 year. Find the amount he invested in both
scheme initially. (2 Mark)
A. 30,00,000
B. 40,00,000
C. 20,00,000
D. 10,00,000 for more join
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 20,00,000 
Solution
Q53.
A sum is invested in scheme C for 5 years at S.I. and then the amount received from it is invested
in same scheme for 2 years at C.I. Total amount received after 7 years is194% more than the sum
invested initially. Find out the rate of interest in scheme C for S.I. (2 Mark)
A. 10%
B. 12.5%
C. 15%
D. 5%
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 10% 
Solution
Q54.
In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You
have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option
In a two digit number, digit at unit place exceeds, the digit in its tens place by 2 and the product of
the required number with the sum of its digit is equal to 144.
Quantity I: Value of two digit number

for more join
Quantity II: 26 (1 Mark) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II 
Solution
Q55.
Quantity I : Days after which A and B meet. A and B set out to meet each other from two places
165 km apart. A travels 15 km the rst day, 14 km second day, 13 km the third day and so on, B
travels 10 km the rst, 12 km the second day, 14 km the third day and so on.
Quantity II: Number of days required to complete the whole work if A, B and C can complete a
piece of work in 10, 12 and 15 days respectively. A left the work 5 days before the work was
completed and B left 2 days after A had left. (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II 
Solution
Q56.
for more join
Quantity I: Present age of Randy, if 10 years are subtracted from the present age of Randy, then
you would get twelve times of the present age of his grandson Sandy and Sandy is 19 years
younger to Sundar whose age is 24.
Quantity II: Average age of the remaining persons in the group if average age of group of 14
persons is 27 years and 9 months. Two persons, each 42 years old, left the group. (1 Mark)
Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II 
Solution
Q57.
Quantity I: Percentage pro t earned by the shopkeeper if at the time of selling and purchasing he
uses weights 10% less and 20% more per kilogram respectively and pro esses to all goods at 5%
pro t.
Quantity II: ‘x’ ; A book was sold for a certain sum and there was a loss of 20%. Had it been sold for
Rs 12 more, there would have been a gain of 30%. ‘x’ would be value of pro t percent if the book
were sold for Rs 4.8 more than what it was sold for. (1 Mark)
Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II 

for more join
Solution
Q58.
A group consist of 4 couples in which each of the 4 persons have one wife
Quantity I : Number of ways in which they could be arranged in a straight line such that the men
and women occupy alternate positions
Quantity II: Eight times the number of ways in which they be seated around circular table such that
men and women occupy alternate position. (2 Mark)
Correct Answer: E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation 
Solution
Q59.
Ramesh and Suresh decided to meet at a common point at the same time in the river. Ramesh
had to travel 42 km upstream in the river and Suresh had to travel less distance downstream than
that of Ramesh to meet at a common point. They both sets o in their respective boats at the
same time and speed of Ramesh’s boat is 20 km/hr more than the speed of Suresh boat. It is given
that Suresh covers 280 km upstream in 35 hours.
Find the speed of stream of river? (2 Mark)
A. 6 km/hr
B. 8 km/hr
C. 5 km/hr
D. 10 km/hr
E. 4 km/hr
Correct Answer: C. 5 km/hr https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
Q60.
Ramesh and Suresh decided to meet at a common point at the same time in the river. Ramesh
had to travel 42 km upstream in the river and Suresh had to travel less distance downstream than
that of Ramesh to meet at a common point. They both sets o in their respective boats at the
same time and speed of Ramesh’s boat is 20 km/hr more than the speed of Suresh boat. It is given
that Suresh covers 280 km upstream in 35 hours.
After meeting, if they decided to return to their original places but Ramesh travelled for 19 km and
Suresh travelled for 16 km, then what is the sum of time taken by both in covering these
distances? (1 Mark)
A. 150 min
B. 120 min
C. 180 min
D. 90 min
E. 60 min
Correct Answer: A. 150 min 
Solution
Q61.
Data show the di erent kind of solids in a toy shop. Shopkeeper or (toymaker) makes di erent
types of toys by joining these solids. Some values are missing, you have to calculate these values if
rquired to answer the question.
A toymaker makes a toy in which a cone is mounted on the base of a hemisphere. If the total
surface area of the toy is then nd the volume of the toy? (2 Mark)
A.
B. for more join
C.
D. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E.
Correct Answer: A. <img

src="https://d37ohbyy0w8xn8.cloudfront.net/1510829576497image8.png"> 
Solution
Q62.
Toymaker mounted the cube on the cylinder such that cylinder top is exactly in the middle of the
face of the cube. Find the total surface of the toy formed, if the height of formed toy is twice the
height of cylinder and curved surface area of cylinder is 66 times the height of cylinder (2 Mark)
A. 3125 cm²
B. 2794.5 cm²
C. 4112 cm²
D. 5123 cm²
E. None of these
Solution
Q63.
for more join

If given sphere is cut into two hemisphere and these hemispheres are mounted on both ends of
the cylinder, then nd out the ratio of volumes of toy formed by joining both hemispheres on
cylinder, cylinder and sphere. (2 Mark)
A. 7 : 6 : 13
B. 6 : 13 : 7
C. 13 : 6 : 7
D. 13 : 7 : 6
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 13 : 6 : 7 
Solution
Q64.
Volume of the cuboid is approximately what percent more or less than the volume of cone if slant
height of cone is 25 cm and the breadth of the cuboid is 25% of the height of cone. (2 Mark)
A. 7%
B. 11%
C. 14%
D. 17%
E. 21%
Correct Answer: D. 17% 
Solution
Q65.
for more join
A solid right circular cylinder has radiushttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
r and height 5r. A solid right circular cone is carved out
from one end of the base of cylinder. If base radius of cone is r and height is 2√2 r then, nd the
ratio between total surface area of cone to the total surface area of remaining part of cylinder. (2
Mark)
A. 3 : 5
B. 4 : 7
C. 2 : 7
D. 3 : 4
E. 1 : 3
Correct Answer: C. 2 : 7 
Solution
Q66.
In a circus there are two Jokers Sunty and Bunty who juggle the balls. Each one has di erent
number of balls of di erent color (Red, Green and White). No one have the same number of balls
of same color. Ratio of total number of balls having Sunty to that of Bunty is 2 : 3. If each Joker
choose one ball from their respective set of balls then probability of getting Green ball are same
for both Jokers. The number of white balls with Shunty is equal to the di erence between the
number of Green and Red balls with him. The number of Red and White balls with Bunty is more
than the number of green balls with him. Shunty has Red ball greater than Green ball which is
equal to the number of white ball of Bunty. Total number of Green balls is 15 and total number of
white balls is 8.
When Shunty picks 3 balls randomly, what is the probability of getting all green balls from the set?
(2 Mark)
A. 5/91
B. 13/95
C. 6/95
D. 17/91
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 5/91 

for more join
Solution
Q67.
white balls is 8.
Bunty choose 3 ball for juggling, what is the probability that all the chosen balls are of di erent
color. (2 Mark)
A. 19/38
B. 9/38
C. 5/38
D. 3/38
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 9/38 
Solution
Q68.
white balls is 8. for more join
Shunty is good juggler as compare to Bunty, and chances of performance being performed by
Shunty is 60%. What is the probability that Shunty performed with 4 balls in which in which atleast
2 balls are Red. (2 Mark)
A. 101/325
B. 309/715
C. 103/325
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 309/715 
Solution
Q69.
Some amount was lent at 6% per annum simple interest. After one year, Rs. 6800 is repaid and the
rest of the amount is repaid at 5% per annum. If the second year’s interest is 11/20 of rst year’s
interest, then nd what amount of money was lent out. (1 Mark)
A. 16,800
B. 17,000
C. 16,500
D. 18,000
E. 15,500
Correct Answer: B. 17,000 
Solution
Q70.
Anuj, Bibhuti and Chandu can lay 432 m of wires together in 8 days. In a day, Chandu can lay as
many more meters of wire than Bibhuti as Bibhuti can lay more than Anuj. Chandu’s 5 days of
work is equivalent to Anuj’s 7 days of work.How many meters of wire can Anuj alone lay in a day?
(2 Mark)
A. 9 m
B. 15 m
C. 18 m
for more join
D. 21m https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. none of these
Correct Answer: B. 15 m 
Solution
Q71.
The following questions are accompanied by three statements A, B and C. You have to determine
which statement(s) is/are necessary/su cient to answer the question.
What is the 10th term of an arithmetic progression?
A. Seventh term of the AP is 32 more than the third term of the AP.
B. The average of rst ve terms of the AP is 20.
C. The sum of third and fth terms of the AP is 56. (1 Mark)
A. Only A and B together
B. Only A and C together
C. Only B and C together
D. Any two of the three together
E. All the three together
Correct Answer: D. Any two of the three together 
Solution
Q72.
What is the ratio of speed of the boat in still water and speed of the stream?
for more join

A. The boat takes 2.5 hours in travelling 45 km upstream.
B. The ratio of downstream and upstream speeds is 5 : 3.
C. The boat goes 45 km downstream in 1.5 hours. (1 Mark)
A. All the three together are not su cient
B. Only B alone
C. All the three together
D. Only A and C together
E. Either B alone or A and C together
Correct Answer: E. Either B alone or A and C together 
Solution
Q73.
What is the rate of interest per annum?
A. Di erence between compound interest and simple interest for 2 years on the same amount at
same rate of interest is Rs.60.
B. Simple interest for ve years on the same amount at the same rate is one-fourth of the principal
amount.
C. Compound interest for three years on Rs.16000 at the same rate is Rs.2522. (2 Mark)
A. Only B alone
B. Only C alone
C. Only A alone
D. Any one of the three alone
E. Either B alone or C alone
Correct Answer: E. Either B alone or C alone 
Solution
Q74.
for more join
There are some boys and girls in a class. How many girls are there in the class?
A. Ratio of number of boys and girls in the class is 5 : 3.
B. If one student is selected at random from the class, the probability of the selected student being
a boy is 5/8.
C. Number of boys in the class is 40 more than the number of girls in the class. (1 Mark)
A. Any two of the three together
B. Only A and C together
C. Either A and C together or B and C together
D. Only A and B together
E. Only B and C together
Correct Answer: C. Either A and C together or B and C together 
Solution
Q75.
What is the pro t/loss % earned by the shopkeeper after selling an article?
A. After selling 4 articles, shopkeeper had a pro t equal to the selling price of one such article.
B. If the shopkeeper had sold one article at Rs.60 less than the original selling price, he would have
had pro t.
C. If he had sold one article at 25% less than the original selling price, he would have had no pro t
or loss. (2 Mark)
A. Either A alone or C alone
B. Only A alone
C. Only B alone
D. Only C alone
E. Any one of three alone
Correct Answer: A. Either A alone or C alone 
Solution
Q76.
Read the following and answer the questions that follow.
Two friends Shayam and Kailash own two versions of a car. Shayam owns the diesel version of the
car, while Kailash owns the petrol version. Kailash’s car gives an average that is 20% higher than
Shayam’s (in terms of litres per kilometer). It is known that petrol costs 60% of its price higher than
diesel.
The ratio of the cost per kilometer of Kailash’s car to Shayam’s car is (2 Mark)
A. 3 : 1
B. 1 : 3
C. 1.92 : 1
D. 2 : 1
E. Cannot be determined
Solution
Q77.
Read the following and answer the questions that follow.
Two friends Shayam and Kailash own two versions of a car. Shayam owns the diesel version of the
car, while Kailash owns the petrol version. Kailash’s car gives an average that is 20% higher than
Shayam’s (in terms of litres per kilometer). It is known that petrol costs 60% of its price higher than
diesel.
If Shyam’s car gives an average of 20 km per litre and diesel cost Rs. 12.5 per litre, then the
di erence in the cost of travel per kilometer between the two cars is (2 Mark)
A. Rs. 4.3 for more join
B. Rs. 3.5
C. Rs. 2.5 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. Rs. 3
E. Rs. 1.25
Correct Answer: E. Rs. 1.25 
Solution
Q78.
Study the following bar graph carefully and answer the following question
Total investment (in thousand) of Abhimanyu and Gaurav in 6 di erent schemes (A, B, C, D, E, F)
and percentage of Abhimanyu share in total investment
If Scheme A o ers simple interest of R% percent per annum and share of interest earned by
Abhimanyu in scheme A is 1100 then nd the value of R% if investment is made for 2 year. (2
Mark)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. <img

src="https://d37ohbyy0w8xn8.cloudfront.net/1510829576511image17.png"> 
Solution
Q79.
for more join
Average of investment made by Abhimanyu in scheme B and C together is what % more or less
than average of investment made by Gaurav in scheme A and F together (Approximately) (1 Mark)
A. 22%
B. 18%
C. 24%
D. 37%
E. 27%
Correct Answer: E. 27%
Solution
Q80.
If scheme B and C o ers simple interest at the rate of 10% and respectively. Then nd the total
interest obtained from scheme B and C in 3 years. Gaurav invested in scheme B for 2 years and
Abhimanyu invested in Schemes C for 2 years. (2 Mark)
A. 45275
B. 43340
C. 38270
D. 32350
E. None of these
for more join
Solution
Q81.
Each passage is followed by questions based on its content. After reading passage, choose the
best answer to each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in that passage.
Paragraph 1: Surprisingly enough, modern historians have rarely interested themselves in the
history of the American South in the period before the South began to become self-consciously
and distinctively “Southern” — the decades after 1815. Consequently, the cultural history of
Britain’s North American empire in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries has been written
almost as if the Southern colonies had never existed. The American culture that emerged during
the Colonial and Revolutionary eras has been depicted as having been simply an extension of New
England Puritan culture. However, Professor Davis has recently argued that the South stood apart
from the rest of American society during this early period, following its own unique pattern of
cultural development. The case for Southern distinctiveness rests upon two related premises: rst,
that the cultural similarities among the ve Southern colonies were far more impressive than the
di erences, and second, that what made those colonies alike also made them di erent from the
other colonies. The rst, for which Davis o ers an enormous amount of evidence, can be accepted
without major reservations; the second is far more problematic.
Paragraph 2: What makes the second premise problematic is the use of the Puritan colonies as a
basis for comparison. Quite properly, Davis decries the excessive in uence ascribed by historians
to the Puritans in the formation of American culture. Yet Davis inadvertently adds weight to such
ascriptions by using the Puritans as the standard against which to assess the achievements and
contributions of Southern colonials. Throughout, Davis focuses on the important, and undeniable,
di erences between the Southern and Northern colonies in motives for and patterns of early
settlement, in attitudes toward nature and Native Americans, and in the degree of receptivity to
metropolitan cultural in uences.
Paragraph 3: However, recent scholarship has strongly suggested that those aspects of early New
England culture that seem to have been most distinctly Puritan, such as the strong religious
orientation and the communal impulse, were not even typical of New England as a whole, but
were largely con ned to the two colonies of America. Thus, what in contrast to the Puritan
(Northern) colonies appears to Davis to be peculiarly Southern — acquisitiveness, a strong interest
in politics and the law, and a tendency to cultivate metropolitan cultural models — was not only
for more join
more typically English than the cultural patterns exhibited by Puritan Massachusetts and
Connecticut, but also almost certainly characteristic of most other early modern British colonies
from Barbados north to Rhode Island and New Hampshire. Within the larger framework of
American colonial life, then, not the Southern but the Northern colonies appear to have been
distinctive, and even they seem to have been rapidly assimilating to the dominant cultural
patterns by the last Colonial period.
The author is primarily concerned with (1.5 Mark)
A. refuting a claim about the in uence of Puritan culture on the early American South.
B. refuting a thesis about the distinctiveness of the culture of the early American South.
C. refuting the two premises that underlie Davis-discussion of the culture of the American South.
D. challenging the hypothesis that early American culture was homogeneous in nature.
E. challenging the in uence of Puritan culture that early American culture was homogeneous in
nature.
Correct Answer: B. refuting a thesis about the distinctiveness of the culture of the early American
South. 
Solution
The author is primarily concerned with refuting a thesis about the distinctiveness of the culture of
the early American South, hence option (b) is the answer. (It is mentioned in the last line of the
passage). Option (a) is incorrect as the keyword claim is not mentioned in the passage. Similarly,
options (c) and (d) are incorrect. Hence, the answer is option (b).
Q82.
for more join
The passage implies that the attitudes toward Native Americans that prevailed in the Southern
colonies (1.5 Mark)
A. were in con ict with the cosmopolitan outlook of the South.
B. derived from Southerners' strong interest in the law.
C. weremodeled after those that prevailed in the North.
D. di ered from those that prevailed in the Puritan colonies.
E. were modeled after the cosmopolitan outlook in the North.
Correct Answer: D. di ered from those that prevailed in the Puritan colonies. 
Solution
The passage implies that the attitudes Native Americans that prevailed in the Southern colonies
di ered from those that prevailed in the Puritan colonies, hence answer is option (d). It is
mentioned in the passage about the attitudes towards Native Americans that prevailed in the
for more join
Southern colonies. Other options are incorrect as per the passage given. Hence, the answer is
option (d).
Q83.
patterns by the last Colonial period. for more join
According to the author, the depiction of American culture during the Colonial and Revolutionary
ears as an extension of New England Puritan culture re ects the (1.5 Mark)
A. fact that historians have overestimated the importance of the Puritans in the development of
American culture.
B. fact that early American culture was deeply in uenced by the strong religious orientation of the
colonists.
C. extent to which Massachusetts and Connecticut served as cultural models for the other
American colonies.
D. extent to which colonial America resisted assimilating cultural patterns that were typically
English.
E. fact that early American culture fact that early American cultureagreement
Correct Answer: A. fact that historians have overestimated the importance of the Puritans in the
development of American culture. 
Solution
As it is given that – The American culture that emerged during the Colonial and Revolutionary eras
has been depicted as having been simply an extension of New England Puritan culture, therefore,
the answer is option (a), which is clearly mentioned in the passage. Option (b), is incorrect, as it is
not re ecting the culture. Similarly, options (c) and (d) are incorrect. Hence, the answer is option
(a).
Q84.
for more join
The author of the passage is in agreement with which of the following elements of Davis’ book?
I. Davis' claim that acquisitiveness was a characteristic unique to the South during the Colonial
period.
II. Davis' argument that there were signi cant di erences between Puritan and Southern culture
during the Colonial period.
III. Davis' thesis that the Southern colonies shared a common culture. (1.5 Mark)
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
E. I and II only
Correct Answer: D. II and III only 

for more join
Solution
The answer is option (d) as information II and III are mentioned in the passage, whereas
information I is not given in the passage. So, options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect. Hence, the
answer is option (d).
Q85.
for more join
The passage suggests that by the late Colonial period the tendency to cultivate metropolitan
cultural models was a cultural pattern that was (1.5 Mark)
A. dying out as Puritan in uence began to grow.
B. self-consciously and distinctively Southern.
C. spreading to Massachusetts and Connecticut.
D. more characteristic of the Southern colonies than of England.
E. in uenced by the late Colonial perioddistinctively
Correct Answer: C. spreading to Massachusetts and Connecticut. 
Solution
The answer is option (c) that is spreading to Massachusetts and Connecticut. Other options are
incorrect as per the condition given in the question above. Hence, the answer is option (c).
Q86.
for more join
ascriptions by using the Puritans as thehttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
standard against which to assess the achievements and
Which of the following statements could most logically follow the last sentence of the passage?
(1.5 Mark)
A. Thus, had more attention been paid to the evidence, Davis would not have been tempted to
argue that the culture of the South diverged greatly from Puritan culture in the seventeenth
century.
B. Thus, convergence, not divergence, seems to have characterized the cultural development of
the American colonies in the eighteenth century.
C. Thus, without the cultural diversity represented by the America South, the culture of colonial
America would certainly have been homogeneous in nature.
D. Thus, the contribution of Southern colonials to American culture was certainly overshadowed
by that of the Puritans.
E. Thus, the contribution of Southern colonials have been temptedprimarily in American South
Correct Answer: B. Thus, convergence, not divergence, seems to have characterized the cultural
development of the American colonies in the eighteenth century. 
Solution
Here option B most logically follows the last sentence of the passage and so option (b) is the
answer. It is given that – the larger framework of American colonial life, then, not the Southern but
for more join
the Northern colonies appear to have been distinctive, and even they seem to have been rapidly
assimilating to the dominant cultural patterns by the last colonial period. Options A, C and D are
incorrect, as per the passage is concerned. Hence, the answer is option B.
Q87.
for more join
Which of the following is SIMILAR in meaning of the word ‘ Consequently’ as used in the passage?
(1.5 Mark)
A. accordingly
B. alike
C. consensus
D. su cient
E. frequent
Correct Answer: A. accordingly 
Solution
Consequently means as a result hence accordingly is the word which is most similar in meaning.
Q88.
for more join
Which of the following is SIMILAR in meaning of the word ‘ Ascribed’ as used in the passage? (1.5
Mark)
A. illness
B. aspire
C. severance
D. attire
E. attribute
Correct Answer: E. attribute 
Solution
Ascribed-attribute, regard something as being due to (a cause),regard a text, quotation, or work of
art as being produced by or belonging to (a particular person or period),regard a quality as
belonging to.
Q89.
for more join
almost as if the Southern colonies had https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
never existed. The American culture that emerged during
Which of the following is OPPOSITE in meaning of the word ‘ Enormous’ as used in the passage?
(1.5 Mark)
A. facilitate
B. liable
C. miniscule
D. enlist
E. industry
for more join
Correct Answer: C. miniscule 
Solution
Enormous -very large in size, quantity, or extent.
Q90.
for more join
Which of the following is OPPOSITE in meaning of the word ‘ Peculiarly’ as used in the passage?
(1.5 Mark)
A. particular
B. demand
C. residual
D. common
E. penury
Correct Answer: D. common 
Solution
Peculiarly- more than usually; especially, in an unusual way; oddly, used to emphasize restriction
to an individual or group.
Q91.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
One likes to think that one's attitudes, beliefs, and related behaviour form a consistent pattern.
Incongruity that is detected results in a sense of imbalance or dissonance, which the person then
seeks to correct. The motivating e ects of the need to correct incongruity, imbalance, or
dissonance has been the occasion for several theories. We may select for consideration the theory
proposed by Festinger which treats cognitive dissonance and its reduction. The kind of
disagreement or disharmony with, which Festinger has been chie y concerned is that which
occurs after a decision has been made, after one is committed to a course of action; under such
circumstances, there is often some lack of harmony between what one does and what one
believes, and there is pressure to change either one's behaviour or one's beliefs. For example, if a
regular smoker reads about the relationship between smoking and lung cancer, the habitual
action and the new information are dissonant. If the decision is made to continue smoking, the
dissonance will be reduced by disbelieving the information about the relationship between
smoking and lung cancer; if the decision is made to give up smoking, the information on the
linkage between smoking and lung cancer will be accepted. The fact that this information also
a ected the decision is not important here. As Festinger and others have shown, the weighing of
alternatives is more realistic prior to the decision; after the decision, the pressure is great to bring
belief and action into balance. for more join
The theory goes on to make some non-obvious predictions; for example, in some cases, failure of
expectations instead of destroying belief may strengthen it. This was illustrated by the study of a
group of people who expected to be saved from a prophesied disastrous ood by the intervention
of a heavenly being. The theory predicted that when the long-awaited day arrived and the
prophecy failed (no ood), those who had the social support of the other believers would indeed
proselyte for their beliefs with new enthusiasm; while those who had to face the crisis alone would
have their faith weakened. These predicted results did indeed occur, the rationalization for the
group of disappointed believers who faced failure together being that God had postponed his
vengeance because of their faith.
The tendency to be consistent is but one aspect of how self-perception in uences motivation.
Earlier illustrations of human motivation might also be reinterpreted in these terms. For example,
the success motivation and the avoidance of failure are also concerned with how a person sees
himself. R.W. White, for example, reinterprets many motives concerned with curiosity, and desire
for knowledge and for achievement as though they are all concerned with one's sense of
competence as a person who is e ective in relation to the environment. In another sense, the
person likes to develop his potentials to the full, to be as complete a person as he can. For such a
pervasive type of motive, the expression self-actualization was coined, originally by Carl Jung, one
of Freud's followers who later developed a system of his own. By self-actualization, he meant the
development of full individuality, with all parts somehow in harmony. The term and closely related
ones (productive orientation, creative becoming, etc.) have been used by man psychologists who
criticize contemporary motivational theory as being too narrow concerned with short episodes of
choice and behaviour rather than with the more profound and pervasive aspects of individual
hopes and aspirations.
Which of the following situations is most likely to give rise to cognitive dissonance? (1 Mark)
A. Cricket fans watching their team lose
B. An antique collector being told by an expert that the vase he has paid Rs. 3,000 for is worth
Rs.100.
C. Student failing an exam
D. Man cutting himself shaving
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: B. An antique collector being told by an expert that the vase he has paid Rs. 3,000
for is worth Rs.100. 
Solution
All the other options are a situation which a person has witnessed and has a proof to its occurence
whereas in option (b) a person has to believe something he hasn't witnessed, hence, there is an
ample scope for ambiguity. for more join
belief and action into balance.
for more join
With which of the following statements would Jung be most likely to agree? (1 Mark)
A. Parents should not allow their children to smoke
B. Parents should force their children to learn music
C. Parents should give their children complete freedom
D. Parents should encourage their children to pursue any interests the children might have
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Parents should encourage their children to pursue any interests the children
might have 
Solution
Refer to the last paragraph-2nd last line, ‘By self-actualisation…. harmony.’ Hence, option (d) is the
correct choice.
Q93.
for more join
The passage probably comes from (1 Mark)

A. the introduction to a book
B. the rst chapter of a book
C. middle of a text book
D. an article in a news weekly
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. an article in a news weekly 
Solution
The language used by the writer is simple and lucid enough for an average reader to understand
the text, much like that of a magazine.In addition the other three options donot seem to be
relevant in the given context. Hence, option (d) is the correct choice.
for more join
Q94.
for more join
The best title for this passage would be (1 Mark)

A. Self-actualization
B. Self-reference in Human Motivation
C. The Reduction of Cognitive Dissonance
D. Cognitive Dissonance and the Self
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Cognitive Dissonance and the Self 
Solution
The main idea of the passage revolves around cognitive dissonance and the self. Hence option (d)
is the correct choice.
Q95.
for more join
Which of the following statements would the author disagree with? (1 Mark)
A. The tendency to be consistent is the only aspect of how self-perception in uences motivation
B. The motivating e ects of the need to correct incongruity have been the occasion for several
theories
C. By self-actualization, Carl Jung meant the development of full individuality, with all parts
somehow in harmony
D. Both (A) and (B)
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A. The tendency to be consistent is the only aspect of how self-perception
in uences motivation 
Solution
As per the statement "The tendency to be consistent is but one aspect of how self-perception
in uences motivation." it is clear that option (a) is correct.
for more join
Q96.
Select the phrase/connector (STARTERS) from the given three options which can be used to form a
single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in
the statement sentences.
(1)MC Mary Kom has been described as the Muhammad Ali of women’s boxing.
(2)It is a tri e unfair because she has her own claim to fame - the indefatigable MC Mary Kom, the
woman from Manipur who attained global glory.
(I)Though MC Mary Kom has been…

(II)Despite being the indefatigable…
(III)Considering it a tri e unfair… (1 Mark)
A. Only (I) is correct
B. Only (III) is correct
C. Both (I) and (II) are correct
D. Both (I) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: A. Only (I) is correct 
Solution
Only the rst starter can be used to frame a logical and comprehensive sentence connecting both
the sentences given as the question. The other two starters are incorrect owing to their varying
meanings.
(I)Though MC Mary Kom has been described as the Muhammad Ali of women’s boxing, it is a tri e
unfair because she has her own claim to fame - the indefatigable MC Mary Kom, the woman from
Manipur who attained global glory.
Q97.
(1) It would be a lengthy a air to list the successes of MC Mary Kom.

(2)What matters is how she adapted herself to varying demands, including “gaining weight”
because a few competitions did not cater to her natural weight-category.
(I)To list the successes of MC Mary Kom…

(II)While it would be a lengthy a air… for more join
(III)Adapting herself to varying demands… (1 Mark)
A. Only (I) is correct https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
B. Only (II) is correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: C. Both (I) and (II) are correct 
Solution
Both the starters (I) and (II) can be used to connect the given set of two sentences to form a
meaningful statement. However, the third starter is incorrect as it would alter the meaning of the
actual sentence.
(I)To list the successes of MC Mary Kom would be a lengthy a air, what matters is how she
adapted herself to varying demands, including “gaining weight” because a few competitions did
not cater to her natural weight-category.
(II)While it would be a lengthy a air to list the successes of MC Mary Kom, what matters is how she
adapted herself to varying demands, including “gaining weight” because a few competitions did
not cater to her natural weight-category.
Q98.
(1)The Congress was an umbrella organization with many ideologies coexisting together.
(2)However, it lacked a single focus.
(I)Being an umbrella organization…

(II)In view of the fact that the Congress…
(III)As the Congress was an umbrella… (1 Mark)
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: E. All are correct for more join

All the three starters are correct enough to form three logical sentences without altering the
meaning of the actual sentence.
(I)Being an umbrella organization with many ideologies coexisting together, the Congress lacked a
single focus.
(II)In view of the fact that the Congress was an umbrella organization with many ideologies
coexisting together, it lacked a single focus.
(III) As the Congress was an umbrella organization with many ideologies coexisting together, it
lacked a single focus.
Q99.
(1)Deen Dayal identi es honesty to be a principle.

(2)The task is to make it a policy for which the beginning has to be made by reforming an
overdeveloped state that is free of corruption, with a high level of human development indices,
and adhering to a “world minimum” that Sakharov spoke of.
(I)With the task to make a policy for…

(II)While Deen Dayal identi es honesty…
(III)Owing to the fact that reforming an… (1 Mark)
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: B. Only (II) is correct 
Solution
Only the second starter can be used to frame a logical and comprehensive sentence connecting
both the sentences given as the question. The other two starters are incorrect owing to their
varying meanings.
(II)While Deen Dayal identi es honesty to be a principle, the task is to make it a policy for which
for more join
the beginning has to be made by reforming an overdeveloped state that is free of corruption, with
a high level of human development indices, and adhering to a “world minimum” that Sakharov
spoke of.
Q100.
(1)Deen Dayal emphasised the relationship of political ideologies to the factors of time and place.
(2)He discounted the universal validity of Western ideologies.
(I)The factors of time and place…

(II)For all that emphasis on…
(III)Discounting the universal validity… (1 Mark)
B. Only (III) is correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: B. Only (III) is correct 
Solution
Only the third starter can be used to frame a logical and comprehensive sentence connecting both
the sentences given as the question. The other two starters are incorrect owing to their varying
meanings.
(III)Discounting the universal validity of Western ideologies, Deen Dayal emphasised the
relationship of political ideologies to the factors of time and place.
Q101.
Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From
the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
The Supreme Court of India is facing its worst crisis of credibility since the Emergency. With an
occasional exception, the quality of the court’s reasoning, the inconstancy of its judgment, the
abdication of its constitutional role in some cases, and its overreach in others, are already denting
its authority. _________________________________________. It will also create the conditions under which
for more join
it will be easier to legitimise diluting judicial independence. (1 Mark)
A. But Justice Chelameswar’s order setting https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
up a ve-judge bench also made the judiciary
vulnerable.
B. But consider the di erent ways in which the judiciary has now rendered itself vulnerable.
C. But the institutional crisis that the Supreme Court has now created for itself will puncture more
holes in the authority that it so valiantly tried to exert.
D. But a lot of care needs to be exercised so that the anti-corruption measures taken do not
undermine the independence of the judiciary.
E. But a clamour for reforms that undermine independence in the name of accountability will be a
natural consequence of the current chain of events.
Correct Answer: C. But the institutional crisis that the Supreme Court has now created for itself will
puncture more holes in the authority that it so valiantly tried to exert. 
Solution
Read the paragraph carefully, it is about the crisis of credibility that the Supreme Court of India is
facing since the Emergency. Among the given options, there is only sentence (c) that ts perfectly
into the blank space. The sentence adds meaning to the paragraph and at the same time it
correctly follows the rst and the second sentences of the paragraph. Other options are irrelevant
in the context of the paragraph. Hence (c) is the correct choice.
Q102.
Like all modernists, Nehru too was a child of science and its grand promise of the light of reason,
its explanatory capacity and its ability to expand the zones of certainty in an otherwise uncertain
world. With “scienti c temper” — “a process of thinking, a method of acting and associating with
our fellow men” — he sought to ght the “dead weight of past” and give India the “garb of
modernity”. In Nehru’s romance with science, I guess, there was idealism.
___________________________________________. In fact, Nehru’s ideal science person was more like the
courageous/idealist doctor Satyajit Ray projected in his lm Ganashatru (Enemy of people) — a
doctor who could dare to ght the temple authority by showing that the outbreak of jaundice in
the locality is because of the contaminated water in the temple that the devotees are taking
mindlessly. (1 Mark)
A. Even though he loved industrial development and technological miracles like big dams, his
“science” was still not like technocratic rationality, the way global capitalism has reduced it into a
principle of corporate trade and reckless domination of people and nature.
B. A “secular” Nehru, I believe, was more sensitive to the neness of spiritual wonder than what
for more join
these days the zealots and state-sponsored celebrity babas are doing.
C. His scholarship, his passion, and his https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
wonder I miss in a political culture that taps the simulation
of 24X7 television channels and networking of social media, and projects the dramaturgical
performance of narcissistic leaders without philosophic depth and real substance.
D. The “elitism” of Nehru notwithstanding, his sensitivity, I would say, opens our eyes to seeing
beyond loud modernity, loud nationalism and popular culture.
E. And despite my unease with scientism and soulless atheism, I continue to be fascinated by
secular Nehru’s openness and philosophic perplexity.
Correct Answer: A. Even though he loved industrial development and technological miracles like
big dams, his “science” was still not like technocratic rationality, the way global capitalism has
reduced it into a principle of corporate trade and reckless domination of people and nature. 
Solution
The paragraph is about Nehru’s way of seeing the world, his ideas of science and idealism
associated with it. The last sentence of the paragraph gives an apt evidence that the sentence
preceding it would be option (a). Moreover, among the given options, only statement (a) ts
perfectly into the paragraph as it continues on the same theme as the paragraph. Other options
are irrelevant in the context of the paragraph. Hence (a) is the correct choice.
Q103.
Under the second phase of Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS), which aims to provide air
connectivity to the hinterland to provide an impetus to the economic growth of regional centres,
including unconnected towns and cities, the government decided to keep the focus on ‘priority
areas’ including the North-East, Jammu & Kashmir and other hilly regions of the country. In the list
of routes awarded in the rst phase of the scheme, announced in March, only six airports in the
North-East — Shillong, Dimapur, Imphal, Silchar, Aizawl and Agartala — were connected.
_____________________________________ (1 Mark)
A. The other airports are under the aegis of either the AAI, or respective state governments.
B. The window for air operators to bid for routes under the second phase of RCS started on
August 24, four days before Indian and Chinese troops disengaged at Doklam to end a border
stando that lasted more than two months.
C. The airports and helipads in Arunachal Pradesh fall under the category of ‘unserved’ airports,
meaning they have no civilian ights landing there.
D. The Tezu airport in Arunachal Pradesh has also been upgraded by the AAI with a renovated
terminal building at a cost of Rs 96.50 crore.
for more join
E. The rst round did not involve routes to Jammu & Kashmir.
Correct Answer: E. The rst round did not involve routes to Jammu & Kashmir. 
Solution
The given paragraph is about the rst and the second phases of Regional Connectivity Scheme
(RCS), which aims to provide air connectivity to the hinterland to provide an impetus to the
economic growth of regional centres, including unconnected towns and cities. Read the last two
sentences of the paragraph carefully, it gives a direct clue that option (e) provides the most
appropriate conclusion to the paragraph as it maintains the ow of the theme. Moreover, it carries
a logical sequence to other sentences given in the paragraph. Other options are not relevant
enough to be the part of this particular paragraph. Hence (e) is the correct choice.
Q104.
The quad’s signi cance, however, lies in the future. That President Donald Trump referred to the
region as “Indo-Paci c” is a re ection of the emerging expectations from India amidst the
increasing unsustainability of the present Asian order. The rise of China, the expansion of its
military capabilities and Beijing’s assertiveness on territorial disputes has ended the prolonged
tranquility in the region. China’s pressure on its neighbours is weakening the unity of the ASEAN
and limiting the options of most countries — big and small — in the region. The US, which has long
dominated Asian order, as well as many of China’s neighbours, want Delhi to contribute a lot more
to regional peace and security. ___________________________________________________ (1 Mark)
A. India is the laggard in the negotiations on the ASEAN framework for Regional Comprehensive
Economic Partnership (RCEP).
B. On his part, the PM has signalled India’s intent to promote a rules-based architecture in Asia.
C. If Trump has shocked the region by pulling America out of the Trans-Paci c Partnership (TPP)
talks and China is claiming the leadership of Asian regionalism, Delhi is paralysed.
D. The conversation between the four capitals on reviving the quad has been taking place for
some time.
E. That the meeting took place in Manila on the margins of the annual ASEAN-led meetings was
just a matter of diplomatic convenience.
Correct Answer: B. On his part, the PM has signalled India’s intent to promote a rules-based
architecture in Asia. 
for more join
Solution
The paragraph is about the quadrilateral security dialogue between senior o cials of India, United
States, Japan and Australia. Among the given options, there is only sentence (b) which nds some
connection with the paragraph and at the same time it concludes the paragraph in the best
manner, adding meaning to it. Other options are not feasible enough to make the paragraph
complete and conclusive. Hence (b) is the correct choice.
Q105.
The report presents a two-pronged challenge for policymakers. The large-scale variation in the
disease patterns across the country means that one health policy and uniform health-related
schemes are unlikely to work in all the states. ______________________________________. One nugget of
information in the report throws light on the enormity of this problem: Kerala had the lowest
disease burden due to malnutrition in India, but even that was 2.7 times higher per person than in
China. That said, policymakers in the country should see the report as an opportunity. After all, it
addresses their longstanding grievance about the paucity of data on India’s disease burden. (1
Mark)
A. Since then, several studies have tried to understand the contours of this shift in the country’s
disease burden.
B. But worryingly, the study upturns the widespread perception that states performing well on
economic yardsticks are also doing well on health indicators.
C. Major national surveys, such as the National Family Health Survey and the Annual Health
Survey, have provided valuable data on key health indicators, and several states have generated
data on non-communicable diseases such as diabetes and heart ailments.
D. But at the same time, the persistence of communicable diseases and malnutrition means that
e orts to tackle these maladies have to be scaled up.
E. However, a comprehensive assessment of every major disease across all states of the country,
providing estimates over an extended period, has eluded policymakers.
Correct Answer: D. But at the same time, the persistence of communicable diseases and
malnutrition means that e orts to tackle these maladies have to be scaled up. 
Solution
The paragraph is all about the new report that addresses need for data on the country’s disease
burden and identi es challenges for policymakers. Among the given options, only sentence (d) ts
perfectly into the blank space as it follows the sentence prior to the space as well as the one
for more join
following it. It brings the continuity into the meaning of the paragraph. Other options are not
relevant enough to bring about a similar meaning to the paragraph. Hence (d) is the correct
choice.
Q106.
Five statements are given below, labelled a, b, c, d and e. Among these, four statements are in
logical order and form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the option that does
not t into the theme of the paragraph. (1 Mark)
A. To make matters worse, the imposition of an ill-designed Goods and Services Tax (GST), whose
impact fell disproportionately on small manufacturing units and traders, has compounded the
crisis.
B. A year later, the e ects of the monumental blunder, undertaken in the name of ghting the
“black money” menace, still linger.
C. Livelihoods in huge swathes of the economy that were uprooted in the wake of demonetisation
have still not recovered.
D. It was clear that the troika of Modi, the Finance Ministry and the RBI was responsible for the
crisis.
E. November 8, 2017, marks the rst anniversary of demonetisation, an exercise that shocked,
numbed and grievously wounded livelihoods on a scale unprecedented since Independence.
Correct Answer: D. It was clear that the troika of Modi, the Finance Ministry and the RBI was
responsible for the crisis. 
Solution
Sentences ebca form a coherent paragraph as it talks about the impact of demonetization and
then GST on the economy that created crises in livelihoods, small manufacturing units and traders
which are still to be recovered. Sentence (d) fails to connect with the other sentences as it tells
about the people who are responsible for this and mentions the word ‘clear’ as no other sentences
are pointing towards this conclusion. Hence option (d) is the correct choice.
Q107.
A. China will become a “moderately prosperous society” by 2021, the year that will mark 100 years
of the CPC’s formation.
B. From then onwards, China will be on the home stretch to become an advanced socialist
country, and the goal will be accomplished by 2050.
C. In his marathon speech that lasted over three hours, Xi said his grand mid-century vision would
for more join
be realised in three distinct phases.
D. China will become a leading developed nation, having accomplished the unprecedented goal of
becoming the world’s rst advanced socialist country, he said.
E. China’s new stage of development will be consolidated by 2035.
Correct Answer: D. China will become a leading developed nation, having accomplished the
unprecedented goal of becoming the world’s rst advanced socialist country, he said. 
Solution
Sentences caeb a coherent paragraph whereas sentence (d) is not a part of the paragraph as it is
about accomplishing the goal and making China as a leading developed nation. You will notice that
the three phases which are being talked about in the sentence (c) are following a chronological
order and are talking about di erent timelines. So while (d) can be a part of the paragraph but
when it comes to coherence ‘caeb’ is the correct order.
Q108.
A. Cuban Foreign Minister Bruno Rodriguez Parrilla sharply criticised the U.S.’ move and accused
the U.S. of not “su ciently cooperating” with the Cuban government’s e orts to investigate the
“health attacks”.
B. Previously, he had only referred to the cases as “incidents”.
C. The Obama administration had relaxed restrictions on travel to Cuba.
D. In his recent statement on the subject, Tillerson said that there was an “attack” on his country’s
diplomats based in Havana.
E. The U.S. authorities have not provided access to those a ected or to the doctors examining
them.
Correct Answer: C. The Obama administration had relaxed restrictions on travel to Cuba. 
Solution
Sentences aedb form a coherent paragraph talking about criticism made by Cuba against U.S.
move of not supporting them. Sentence (c) is about relaxing restriction during Obama’s
administration which is not making a connection with the other sentences . Hence option (c) is the
right choice.
Q109.
for more join
A. Illegal drugs—such as cocaine and heroin—continue to pose a challenge, but the real threat is
from prescription opioids such as fentanyls of one kind or another.
B. The declaration of an emergency means that state funds should go post-haste to help stem the
crisis.
C. In early November, President Donald Trump declared a national emergency against opioid
abuse.
D. It is not clear, however, if this will be enough.
E. “The opioid is a tremendous emergency,” he said in his characteristic style.
Correct Answer: A. Illegal drugs—such as cocaine and heroin—continue to pose a challenge, but
the real threat is from prescription opioids such as fentanyls of one kind or another. 
Solution
Going through the sentences we nd that sentences cebd form a coherent paragraph and are
discussing about the emergency declared by Donald Trump against opioid abuse whereas
sentence (a) is about threat from the drugs making it unrelated to the other sentences. Hence
option (a) is the correct choice.
Q110.
A. There are issues with encroachment on the western face of the ranges (in Kanyakumari district)
where there are signi cant human population pressures.
B. Coconut plantations, irrigated with borewells, are sprouting in semi-arid areas.
C. Change has been a key aspect of the observations—the forest has recovered from being a
degraded plantation to now hosting a plethora of rare and endangered Western Ghats species.
D. The challenges in Naraikadu and the wider KMTR protected area in the future will come from a
multitude of sources.
E. The eastern edges of the hills are now facing development pressures as land is bought up for
investment with little thought for the ecological impact.
Correct Answer: C. Change has been a key aspect of the observations—the forest has recovered
from being a degraded plantation to now hosting a plethora of rare and endangered Western
for more join
Ghats species. 
Solution
Sentences daeb form a coherent paragraph and discusses about the sources from which the
challenges in protected area will arise that are encroachment on western part, development
pressures on eastern edges of the hills and sprouting of coconut plantations whereas sentence (c)
talks about the recovery of forests making it unrelated to other sentences. Hence option (c) is the
correct choice.
Q111.
In each of the given questions an inference is given in bold which is then followed by three
statements. You have to nd the statement(s) from where it is inferred. Choose the option with
the best possible outcome as your choice.
Nobody gave much thought about those innocent who were at the receiving end of
demonetization at the advent.
(I) Indians are a very emotional lot and tend to quickly come to conclusions without delving deep
into issues. The public outcry against demonetization — especially by those with few solutions at
their hand to face the problem of cash crunch. The main criticism against the government is that
demonetisation has in icted more pain on the poor and innocent while opening a window for the
rich to cleanse their unaccounted income, of course, after paying a handsome share to the
exchequer.
(II) If demonetisation was a war, then those who lost their lives outside bank queues are true
martyrs. These ordinary citizens sincerely believed the government’s intentions of bringing in
transparency in the economy. Which is why they were willing to put their lives at risk to withdraw
their hard-earned money in new currency. People waiting in endless queues outside banks to
exchange old notes reportedly resulted in even deaths during the rst few weeks after
demonetisation. Honouring the sacri ce of these true martyrs would be a tting tribute on the
rst anniversary of demonetisation.
(III) A year after Prime Minister NarendraModi announced the ban on Rs 1000 and Rs 500 old
banknotes, his government described demonetisation as a historic and multi-dimensional success.
Huge advertisements could be seen where Modi lauded 125 crore Indians for ghting a decisive
battle against black money and corruption. Unfortunately despite tall claims by BJP, the debate still
rages whether the move has bene tted the nation or done more harm than good. (1 Mark)
A. Both (I) & (III)
B. Both (II) & (III)
C. Only (I)
D. Only (II)
E. All of the above for more join
Correct Answer: D. Only (II) 
Solution
The inference drawn is about the people who faced severities during the period starting with
implementation of Demonetisation till situations eased out. Statement (I) talks about the
emotional outcry of people and their criticism about government's step but nowhere presents any
fact or example of unattended people's su ering . Statement (III) talks about only the introduction
of the campaign and the related debates about its righteousness. Statement (II) presents soundly
the fact that ordinary innocent people who believed in government intentions su ered the
hardships and not much was done or thought about easing their su ering at the start of the
process.
Q112.
Extremism has spread even among Hindus, some of whom believe not in satyamevajayate but in
might is right.
(I) The Parivar proclaims an ideology of “Hindutva,” aimed at ensuring the predominance of
Hinduism in Indian society, politics, and culture, which it promotes through tactics that include
violence and terror. Its agenda includes subjugating or driving out people of other faiths, who total
some 17 percent of the population. It castigates them as foreign faiths, imposed by foreign
conquerors.
(II) All wanton violence and religious fundamentalism is wrong, be it of the right or the left, or of
any religion, and needs to be identi ed, countered and condemned. In this context, the real
question for Hindus is who, and for what reason, is today deliberately fanning this fanatical
violence among them? According to established Hindu practice, disagreements should be resolved
through debate, dialogue and discussion, yet one has only to remember that it was a fanatical
Hindu who killed one of the greatest messiahs of peace – Mahatma Gandhi.
(III)There is no denying that fringe right wing groups have created an atmosphere of intolerance to
outspoken writers and academics who question religious practices and myths, thereby putting
pressure on freedom of speech and expression. The event of killing of veteran writer
MalleshappaMadivalappaKalburgi demands the government not to go soft on Hindu
fundamentalism and to “crack down” on these fringe elements in the same way it would deal with
other “religion and ideology based extremist groups.” (1 Mark)
A. Both (I) & (II) for more join
B. Both (I) & (III)
C. Both (II) &(III) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. Only (I)
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: B. Both (I) & (III) 
Solution
The inference is drawn is that Hindu out ts can no longer deny the existence of extremism among
their ranks. Statement (II) though mentions the killing of Mahatama Gandhi by a fanatical Hindu, it
fails to state that it has been backed the community. Statement (I) & (III) support the inference
based on facts that fringe Hindus radicals have created an atmosphere of intolerance for writers,
academics speaking against them and predominance of Hinduism in Indian society, politics, and
culture, which it promotes through tactics that include violence and terror respectively.
Q113.
It is important for the courts to examine disability as a ground for the grant of bail.
(I) The deplorable conditions in Indian prisons are well known. It is settled law now that prisoners
may be deprived of personal liberty according to procedure established by law, but that does not
include a derogation of their right to dignity. How do we begin to understand the sanctity of life,
dignity and bodily integrity for a person with disabilities? If handcu ng is an extraordinary and
excessive restraint on an ordinary prisoner, what constitutes excessive restraint beyond the writ of
law for a person with disabilities? Placing him in solitary con nement with no support violates his
right to life, bodily integrity and autonomy even when conviction only imposes restraints on
personal liberty.
(II) The Indian Constitution gives pride of place to the fundamental rights of a citizen, including the
right to life and liberty. One would assume that it implies two basic legal principles: one, that the
accused is innocent until proven guilty; and two, that bail is the norm and jail the exception. The
stories of thousands of undertrials- including those with disabilities-languishing in jails across the
country, however, run against the grain of the constitutional promise that “no person shall be
deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law”
(III) The Law Commission has done well to recommend a complete overhaul in the way courts
grant bail. Bail must be the rule rather than the exception, given that every person charged with a
for more join
crime is presumed innocent until proven guilty. Reform in bail jurisprudence that includes fast
disposal of bail applications, easier surety requirements and minimising pretrial detention is
overdue. Courts must deny bail only under three conditions. One, the person charged with the
crime is likely to ee. Two, the accused is likely to tamper with evidence or in uence witnesses.
Three, the person is likely to repeat the same crime if granted bail. (1 Mark)
A. Only (III)
B. Only (I)
C. Only (II)
D. Both (I) & (II)
E. Both (II) & (III)
Correct Answer: B. Only (I) 
Solution
The inference drawn is based upon the fact that if the court nds out a circumstance where in
there is need for special physical assistance for the prisoner daily life activities i.e. with a physical
disability, he should be allowed bail on this ground. Statement (II) and (III) beat around the bush
with references to the Indian Constitution stating right to life and liberty but it doesn't speci es it
particularly for the disabled accused. Statement (I) alone provides for consideration of a person's
physical condition as a ground for bail provision.
Q114.
Police investigators should not jump to conclusions, in uenced by public outrage
(I) That the police had to extract a false confession is downright disgraceful, but it is not an isolated
case in a country known for its primitive investigative methods. In cases of demand of a result
from the masses, putting a statement which is refutable isn't justi ed. Studies on police reforms
have highlighted the need to make the investigation process more scienti c and more rooted in
forensic analysis, but custodial torture and extracted confessions continue to be reported. When
two narratives emerge from di erent police agencies for a heinous murder, a sense of disquiet
among the public is inevitable.
(II) Regimes come and regimes go, a new party and a new leadership adds its own new pages to
the annals of India’s political history. But India’s khaki tales continue with the same old narrative –
hackneyed, violent and tragic, both for the people of the country as well as for the rank and le
for more join
cops. Not trained properly for the job that requires mental strength to withstand public pressure
they are often rounded up in botched up https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
investigations. The strong arm of the state is severely
weak within and the politicians want it that way; bereft of choice, cops take solace in venting their
‘powerless power’ where they can.
(III) Police bumbling closure in Pradyuman murder case is no exception. It points to systemic
failures. It is often di cult to distinguish police investigation, especially carried out in the face of
public and political pressure, from the witch-hunt. Police with only rudimentary training in modern
investigation, using beatings and threats as their main truth-seeking tools, have a long record of
securing wrongful convictions, as well as letting the guilty walk free, sometimes wearing the halo
of martyrdom. To explain this away as the failure of individuals is inadequate. (1 Mark)
A. Both (I) & (II)
B. Both (I) & (III)
C. Both (II) & (III)
D. All of the above
E. Only (III)
Correct Answer: B. Both (I) & (III) 
Solution
The inference drawn centers around the fact that police not able to withstand public pressure
jump to conclusions that may be later refuted. Supporting this inferences are Statement (I) & (III)
which clearly mentions police investigations carried in wake of public pressure have resulted into
debatable conclusions showing inadequacy. Statement (II) makes a mention of the public pressure
but then deviates to badly carried out investigations. It doesn't show that a public statement was
issued on the basis of any conclusion.
Q115.
More and more bilateral series have taken away the excitement from the game.
(I) Players often display more cricketing brilliance on the eld as they would be watched by more
viewers than in a bilateral ODI series. The most interesting feature of these tournaments is that
they seldom get boring. On the other hand, a seven-match bilateral ODI series can become
monotonous if one team holds inordinate sway in the opening matches.
for more join
(II) With repeated bilateral clashes between the same opponents, the fans hardly get to speculate
as much as they liked to do when morehttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
number of teams brought more number of players and
hence more erce competition from the players. The near same combinations of the two teams
makes the scope of watching the game for some innovative batting or bowling battles, narrowed
down to negligible. Moreover, Due to the bilateral nature of busy cricket schedules and the
mushrooming of Twenty20 cricket leagues, the space for triangular cricket tournaments has been
squeezed.
(III) The ODI tournaments were more keenly followed than bilateral ODI face-o s in general. This is
for many reasons. In multilateral tournaments, one gets to see many teams participate and make
a bid for the same trophy. The permutations and combinations of match results creates a unique
interest, allowing fans to constantly examine ways in which a particular team can reach the knock-
out stage or clinch the title. (1 Mark)
A. Both (I) & (II)
B. Only II
C. Both (II) & (III)
D. Both (III) & (I)
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E. All of the above 
Solution
The inference drawn on the basis of increasing bilateral faceo s in ODI cricket to be making game
watching boring is supported by all the Statements (I) (II) & (III) as all statements mention the facts
: Number of bilateral series have increased with decrease in more than 2 team series tournaments
hence resulting in increase of monotonous nature in these clashes.
Q116.
The Reserve Bank of India opened a branch in which city to make transactions of the Uttarakhand
State government more convenient?
A. Mussoorie
B. Rishikesh
C. Nainital
D. Haridwar
E. Dehradun
Correct Answer: E. Dehradun 

for more join
Solution
The Reserve Bank of India opened a branch in the Dehradun city to make transactions of the
Uttarakhand State government more convenient. Uttarakhand Chief Minister Trivendra Singh
Rawat inaugurated the RBI's Branch. Earlier, the state government had to do nancial transactions
through the Kanpur branch of the RBI.
Q117.
The Centre has recently set up a high-level committee for proper management of water resources
in the North-Eastern region. The Committee will be headed by __________________.
A. NHAI Chairman Deepak Kumar
B. Chairman of National Water supply and Drainage Board K.Alahudeen Ansar
C. NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Rajiv Kumar
D. Chairman of Central Water Commission Narendra Kumar
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Rajiv Kumar 
Solution
Centre has set up a high-level committee for proper management of water resources in the North-
Eastern region. The Committee will be headed by NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Rajiv Kumar.
Q118.
Name the insurance company that was conferred with the 21st Asia Insurance Industry Awards in
the "General Insurance Company of the Year" category.
A. Bajaj Allianz General Insurance
B. Bharti AXA Life Insurance
C. IDBI Federal Health Insurance
D. Apollo Munich Health Insurance Company
E. Sriram Health Insurance
Correct Answer: D. Apollo Munich Health Insurance Company 
Solution
Apollo Munich Health Insurance Company, a joint venture between integrated healthcare
provider, Apollo Hospitals Group, and the Munich Re Group was conferred with the 21st Asia
Insurance Industry Awards in the "General Insurance Company of the Year" category.
Q119.
for more join
The minimum paid-up equity capital forhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
small nance banks shall be----------
A. Rs. 100 crore
B. Rs. 200 crore
C. Rs. 300 crore
D. Rs. 400 crore
E. Rs. 500 crore
Correct Answer: A. Rs. 100 crore 
Solution
The minimum paid-up equity capital for small nance banks shall be Rs. 100 crore.
Q120.
NSDP links are intended to provide quick access to a single comprehensive source of economic
and nancial data consistent with the data categories and components described in the
subscriber's metadata. NSDP stands for-
A. National Summary District Page
B. National Summary Development Page
C. National Summary Department Page
D. National Summary Division Page
E. National Summary Data Page
Correct Answer: E. National Summary Data Page 
Solution
The National Summary Data Page (NSDP) links are intended to provide quick access to a single
comprehensive source of economic and nancial data consistent with the data categories and
components described in the subscriber's metadata. Additionally, many of the NSDPs include
further links to additional data or information on other national Internet data sites.
Q121.
Which of the following is the parent organization of UPI?
A. RBI
B. GOI
C. NPCI
D. PMMY
E. SEBI
for more join
Correct Answer: C. NPCI 
Solution
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is the parent organisation of UPI (Uni ed Payment
Interface).
Q122.
The International Consortium of Investigative Journalists (ICIJ) leaked a massive trove of secret
nancial data named "Paradise Papers". Its headquarter is in ___________________.
A. New York
B. Singapore
C. Washington DC
D. Brussels
E. Geneva
Correct Answer: C. Washington DC 
Solution
ICIJ is a global network of more than 200 investigative journalists in 70 countries who collaborate
on in-depth investigative stories.It was founded in 1997 by an American journalist Chuck Lewis.It is
Headquartered in Washington, DC, USA.
Q123.
BCSBI was registered as a society under the _____________ in February 2006.
A. Companies Act, 1956
B. Societies Registration Act, 1860
C. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Societies Registration Act, 1860 
Solution
The Banking Codes and Standards Board of India was registered as a society under the Societies
Registration Act, 1860 in February 2006. It functions as an independent and autonomous body.
Membership of BCSBI is voluntary and open to scheduled banks.
for more join
Name the Bank, which has launched India's rst payments bank?
A. Fino Payments Bank Ltd
B. Paytm Payments Bank
C. Airtel Payments Bank Ltd
D. India Post Payments Bank
E. Reliance Industries
Correct Answer: C. Airtel Payments Bank Ltd 
Solution
Q125.
The launch of India's rst voice-based international remittance service that would enable
nonresident Indian to send money to any bank in India has been announced by
___________________.
A. Bank of Baroda
B. CITI Bank
C. HDFC
D. SBI
E. ICICI
Correct Answer: E. ICICI 
Solution
It is rst-of-its-kind cross-border remittance service by a bank in the country.With this new feature
in the ICICI Bank's Money2India app, an NRI customer can instantly initiate a remittance to his/her
existing payees in India with just a simple voice command to Apple's virtual voice assistant, Siri, on
their iPhone/iPad.
Q126.
Kundan Shah was passed away recently. He was?
A. scientist and politician
B. philosopher and geographer
C. dancer and cameraman
D. singer and producer
E. director and writer
for more join
Correct Answer: E. director and writer 
Solution
Q127.
An illustrative book containing inspiring words of Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was released online by
Indian women cricket team captain Mithali Raj. The book has been titled as ___________________.
A. Dreamnation: Uniting a Country with Handwritten Dreams
B. Kalam's Inspirational Words
C. The Magical Words of Kalam
D. The Words of APJ
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Dreamnation: Uniting a Country with Handwritten Dreams 
Solution
An illustrative book containing inspiring words of Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was released online by
Indian women cricket team captain Mithali Raj on the 86th birth anniversary of the former
President. Titled "Dreamnation: Uniting a Country with Handwritten Dreams", the book includes a
collection of 200-plus handcrafted and handwritten postcards from across India. The book is Co-
authored by Saji Mathew and Jubie John and published by Bloomsbury.
Q128.
Indian Hockey team had beaten ___________ in the nale to win the 2017 Asia Cup Hockey
tournament held in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
A. Malaysia
B. Bangladesh
C. China
D. Pakistan
E. Sri Lanka
Correct Answer: A. Malaysia 
Solution
Q129.
for more join
An Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) in India is associated with-
A. UCPDC
B. DICGC
C. NPA
D. Home Loan
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. NPA 
Solution
Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) also known as Securitization company in India helps to
unlock the value of non-performing assets (NPA) in banks through Securitization and
Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act 2002.ARC is
regulated by RBI as a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC).
Q130.
Who has won the Nobel Literature Prize 2017?
A. Rainer Weiss
B. Barry Barish
C. Richard Thaler
D. Bob Dylan
E. Kazuo Ishiguro
Correct Answer: E. Kazuo Ishiguro 
Solution
Kazuo Ishiguro wins the Nobel prize in literature 2017. The British author Kazuo Ishiguro said he
was both honoured and “taken completely by surprise” after he was named this year's winner of
the 2017 Nobel prize in literature
Q131.
India and _____________ are going to conduct the 7th edition of joint Military Training Combat
Exercise 'Sampriti-7'.
A. Sri Lanka
B. Nepal
C. Bangladesh
D. Myanmar
E. Singapore
for more join
Correct Answer: C. Bangladesh 
Solution
Army personnel of India and Bangladesh are going to take part in a 13-day joint training exercise
'Sampriti-7' at Joint Training Node at Umroi in Meghalaya and India's Jungle Warfare School at
Vairengte in Mizoram. This is the 7th edition of the joint training exercise.
The main objective of the exercise is to conduct counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism
operations in peace-keeping activities in the United Nations (UN).
Q132.
Which of the following is not available to depositors of NBFCs?
A. Deposit Insurance facility
B. Acquisition of shares
C. Loans and Advances
D. All of the Above
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Deposit Insurance facility 
Solution
Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available
to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in case of banks.
Q133.
The International Day of Non-Violence is celebrated across the world on ____________.
A. 01 October
B. 02 October
C. 03 October
D. 04 October
E. 05 October
Correct Answer: B. 02 October 
Solution
The International Day of Non-Violence is observed on October 2, the birthday of Mahatma Gandhi.
This day is referred to in India as Gandhi Jayanti.
for more join
Q134.
The Ministry of Shipping has issued a noti cation renaming Kandla Port Trust as Deendayal Port
Trust with e ect from 25th of September, 2017. Kandla Port located in-
A. Kerala
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Odisha
D. Gujarat
E. Maharashtra
Correct Answer: D. Gujarat 
Solution
The Kandla Port, one of the top 12 major ports in the country, has been rechristened as Deendayal
Port from today in the name of Hindutva icon Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay. Kandla Port Trust is a
seaport in Kutch District of Gujarat state in western India, near the city of Gandhidham. Located
on the Gulf of Kutch, it is one of major ports on west coast.
Q135.
As per the recommendations of the 7th Pay Commission, the government has raised the
maximum amount that a central government employee can borrow from the government to Rs
________________ for new construction/purchase of new house/ at.
A. 20 lakh
B. 25 lakh
C. 15 lakh
D. 30 lakh
E. 10 lakh
Correct Answer: B. 25 lakh 
Solution
The total amount of advance that a central government employee can borrow from government
has been revised upwards. The employee can borrow upto 34 months of the basic pay subject to a
maximum of Rs 25 lakh, or cost of the house/ at, or the amount according to repaying capacity,
whichever is the least for new construction/purchase of new house/ at. Earlier this limit was only
Rs 7.50 lakh.
Q136.
for more join
RIDF is maintained by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). RIDF
was set up by the Government in 1995-96 for nancing ongoing ____________ projects.
A. Road projects
B. Infrastructure projects
C. Electricity projects
D. Food projects
E. Health Projects
Correct Answer: B. Infrastructure projects 
Solution
The RIDF was set up by the Government in 1995-96 for nancing ongoing rural Infrastructure
projects. The Fund is maintained by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(NABARD).
Q137.
The International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN) is a coalition of non-government
organizations in one hundred countries advocating for a strong and e ective nuclear weapon ban
treaty. Where is the headquarter of ICAN?
A. Vienna, Austria
B. Nairobi, Kenya
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. New York, USA
E. Washington DC, USA
Correct Answer: C. Geneva, Switzerland 
Solution
Q138.
As per the amendment, the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Banking Ombudsman to pass an award
has been doubled to _____ rupees.
A. 20 lakh rupees
B. 10 lakh rupees
C. 25 lakh rupees
D. 50 lakh rupees
E. 5 lakh rupees
for more join
Correct Answer: A. 20 lakh rupees 
Solution
The central bank has extended the scope of Banking Ombudsman Scheme. As per RBI, under the
amended scheme, a customer would also be able to lodge a complaint against the bank for its
non-adherence to RBI instructions with regard to mobile banking/ electronic banking services in
India. As per the amendment, the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Banking Ombudsman to pass an
award has been doubled to 20 lakh rupees. The Reserve Bank extended the scope of Banking
Ombudsman Scheme under which banks could be penalized for mis-selling third-party products
like insurance and mutual funds via mobile or electronic banking.
Q139.
The World's highest bridge has been inaugurated by Indian Railways in Jammu & Kashmir's Reasi
district. The bridge has been constructed on which river?
A. Sutlej
B. Ravi
C. Shingo
D. Tawi
E. Chenab
Correct Answer: E. Chenab 
Solution
The Indian Railways has launched the main arch of the world's highest bridge(359 mts) on the
River Chenab in Jammu and Kashmir's Reasi district which will provide direct connectivity to the
Kashmir Valley. The iconic bridge is being constructed on River Chenab on the Katra-Banihal
section as part of the agship Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) Project.
Q140.
___________ a/an electronic trading platform, operated by the Reserve Bank of India, used to
facilitate the exchange of government securities and other money market instruments.
A. Delivery versus Payment (DvP)
B. Negotiated Dealing System (NDS)
C. Risk Mitigation
D. Competition Commission of India (CCI)
E. None of these
for more join
Correct Answer: B. Negotiated Dealing https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
System (NDS) 
Solution
Till 2002, the Government securities market was mainly a telephone market. Buyers and sellers
traded over telephone and submitted physical Subsidiary General Ledger (SGL) transfer forms for
transfer of the Government securities and cheques for settlement of the funds to the Reserve
Bank of India. These manual operations were ine cient and often resulted in delays. In order to
improve e ciency in the market, the Reserve Bank of India took steps to automate the process of
trading and settlement of Government securities transactions and the Negotiated Dealing System
(NDS) was introduced in February 2002.
Q141.
NAV is the value per share of a mutual fund or an exchange-traded fund (ETF) on a speci c date or
time. NAV stands for-
A. Net Asset Voice
B. Nominal Asset Value
C. Non Asset Value
D. Net Agency Value
E. Net Asset Value
Correct Answer: E. Net Asset Value 
Solution
Net asset value (NAV) is value per share of a mutual fund or an exchange-traded fund (ETF) on a
speci c date or time.
Q142.
Currency is also printed by Reserve Bank of India. It has two printing presses which are owned by
Bhartiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited. These printing presses located in Mysore and
another is-
A. Nasik
B. Dewas
C. Salboni
D. Noida
E. Hyderabad
Correct Answer: C. Salboni 

for more join
Q143.
The Wushu World Championship 2017 was held recently in _____________.
A. Kazan, Russia
B. New Delhi ,India
C. Seoul , China
D. Paris,France
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Kazan, Russia 
Solution
Q144.
In which state is Jog falls located.......?
A. Maharastra
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Tamil nadu
D. Kerala
E. Karnataka
Correct Answer: E. Karnataka 
Solution
Located on the border of Shimoga and Uttara Kannada districts of Karnataka, Jog waterfalls is the
highest waterfall In the state and is regularly mistaken as the highest waterfalls of India. Also
known as Gerosappa Falls or the Joga Falls, these falls are one of the most important attractions in
all of South India.
Q145.
Name the Prime Minister of Italy who is on a two day visit to India.
A. Sergio Mattarella
B. Paolo Gentiloni
C. Matteo Renzi
D. Enrico Letta
E. Silvio Berlusconi
for more join
Correct Answer: B. Paolo Gentiloni 
Solution
Prime Minister of Italy Paolo Gentiloni arrived in New Delhi on a two day visit to India. The visit is
aimed at strengthening the bilateral political and economic relations between the two countries.
The last visit of the Italian Prime Minister to India was in February 2007.
Q146.
The Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana has been launched by Minister of Communications to promote
Philately. In SPARSH, A stands for ______________
A. Academic
B. Adolescent
C. Awareness
D. Application
E. Aptitude
Correct Answer: E. Aptitude 
Solution
Under the scheme of SPARSH (Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude & Research in Stamps as a
Hobby) children with good academic record and also pursuing Philately as a hobby will be selected
through a competitive selection process in all postal circles.
Q147.
Stepping up its ght against tax evasion, the Centre has made it mandatory to quote the Aadhaar
number for opening bank accounts and for transactions exceeding-
A. Rs.10,000
B. Rs.80,000
C. Rs.50,000
D. Rs.1,00,000
E. Rs.1,50,000
Correct Answer: C. Rs.50,000 
Solution
Stepping up its ght against tax evasion, the Centre has made it mandatory to quote the Aadhaar
for more join
number for opening bank accounts and for transactions exceeding Rs.50,000. With the
amendments to the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005
noti ed earlier this month, banks will have to demand both Aadhaar and the Permanent Account
Number (PAN) for veri cation of identity.
Q148.
Sushil Kumar Solanki is famous in which of the following eld?
A. Politics
B. Art and Living
C. Film and Television
D. Author
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: E. None of the above 
Solution
Sushil Kumar Solanki is an Indian freestyle wrestler. Competing in the 66 kg weight division he won
the 2010 world title, a silver medal at the 2012 London Olympics and a bronze medal at the 2008
Beijing Olympics, which made him the only Indian to win two individual Olympic medals.
Q149.
Which of the following country will host the next United Nations (UN) global wildlife conference in
2020?
A. Malaysia
B. Indonesia
C. Russia
D. India
E. France
Correct Answer: D. India 
Solution
India will host the next United Nations (UN) global wildlife conference in 2020. It was o cially
announced at the closing CMSCOP12 plenary, in Manila, Philippines. The six-day 12th Meeting of
the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS COP12) is the only
international treaty devoted exclusively to migratory animal species. The theme of the Conference
was ‘Their Future is Our Future - Sustainable Development for Wildlife and People’.
Q150.
for more join
Orang National Park is also known as Rajiv Gandhi National park, located in-?
A. Assam
B. Tripura
C. Meghalaya
D. Arunachal Pradesh
E. Sikkim
Correct Answer: A. Assam 
Solution
The Orang National Park is a beautiful place, located in the Darrang and Sonitpur districts of the
state of Assam.
Q151.
Name the temple in Tamil Nadu that has won UNESCO Asia Paci c Award of Merit 2017 for the
cultural heritage conservation program.
A. Bhimbetka Rock Shelters
B. Airavatesvara Temple
C. Brihadeeswar Temple
D. Ramappa Temple
E. Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple
Correct Answer: E. Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple 
Solution
The Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple of Srirangam became the rst temple in Tamil Nadu to win
UNESCO Asia Paci c Award of Merit 2017 for the cultural heritage conservation program.The two
key parameters that made the temple most eligible to win the award are its traditional method of
renovating temple premises as well as re-establishment of rainwater harvesting and historic
drainage system in preventing ooding.
Q152.
Who is current Human Resource Development Minister in Narendra Modi government?
A. Dr Harsh Vardhan
B. Kalraj Mishra
C. Jual Oram
D. Prakash Javadekar
E. Thawar Chand Gehlot
for more join
Correct Answer: D. Prakash Javadekar 
Solution
Prakash Javadekar is an Indian Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) politician and is the incumbent Union
Minister of Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), Government of India. He was
elected to the Rajya Sabha as a Member of Parliament from Maharashtra in 2008 and re-elected
from Madhya Pradesh in 2014.
Q153.
Kudremukh National Park is situated in which of the following Indian state?
A. Karnataka
B. Kerala
C. West Bengal
D. Uttar Pradesh
E. Meghalaya
Correct Answer: A. Karnataka 
Solution
Kuduremukha National Park is a mountain range and name of a peak located in Chikkamagaluru
district, in Karnataka.
Q154.
Who is the governor of Sikkim?
A. Keshari Nath Tripathi
B. Acharya Dev Vrat
C. Shriniwas Dadasaheb Patil
D. V.P. Singh Badnore
E. Tathagata Roy
Correct Answer: C. Shriniwas Dadasaheb Patil 
Solution
Shriniwas Patil is the present Governor of Sikkim, India. He was a member of the 13th and 14th
Lok Sabha of India. He represented the Karad constituency of Maharashtra and is a member of
for more join
the Nationalist Congress Party (NCP). He is a former Indian Administrative Service o cer.
Q155.
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is one of three social security schemes that the
government had announced in the 2015 Budget. What is PMSBY?
A. An accident insurance scheme
B. Life insurance scheme
C. Health insurance scheme
D. Future money insurance scheme
E. Motor vehicles insurance scheme
Correct Answer: A. An accident insurance scheme 
Solution
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is one of three social security schemes that the
government had announced in the 2015 Budget. The other two being Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti
Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) and the Atal Pension Yojana (APY). An accident insurance scheme, PMSBY
o ers a one-year accidental death and disability cover, which can be renewed annually.
for more join

Paid Ibps Set 4 Mathclub

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Paid Ibps Set 4 Mathclub

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

12/31/2017 Adda247 Store | Adda247 Store

Correct Answer: E. Meerut

for more join

for more join

Correct Answer: D. Friday

for more join

Correct Answer: A. Chandigarh- Coal- youngest

for more join

Find the addition of the two numbers obtained in step 2? (2 Mark)

Correct Answer: E. 55.5 <br>

Correct Answer: C. 18 <br>

Correct Answer: C. 10 <br>

Correct Answer: C. 2 <br>

for more join

Which among the following is not-in-line with given statement?

Correct Answer: D. Only II <br>

If M is married to V, how A is related to V? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: C. Sister-in-law <br>

Who among the following is the father of C? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: B. G <br> for more join

How W is related to K? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: B. Nephew <br>

Correct Answer: C. Only (II) <br>

Correct Answer: E. L <br>

Correct Answer: A. One <br>

If S is related to Lava and Y is related to C, then who is related to R? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: D. O <br>

Who among the following has Iphone? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: A. O <br>

In a certain coding pattern-

What will be the code of “Aviation”? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: C. ZO1 <br>

In a certain coding pattern-

What can be the code of “Health Sector”? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: B. SI1 HS3 <br>

In a certain coding pattern-

What will be the code of “Agriculture Industry”? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: D. ZF1 RZ4 <br>

In a certain coding pattern-

What can be the code of “Oil Gas”? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: D. LM9 TT1 <br>

In a certain coding pattern-

What will be the code of “Road Transportation”? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: B. 100110 <br>

In which direction is point D with respect to point I? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: C. South-west <br>

Correct Answer: A. Only (III) <br>

Correct Answer: D. Only (iii) <br>

As there is no place for O so case:2 will be eliminated. Now with case:1.

As there is no place for O so case:2 will be eliminated. Now with case:1.

Correct Answer: E. 9 year

As there is no place for O so case:2 will be eliminated. Now with case:1.

As there is no place for O so case:2 will be eliminated. Now with case:1.

As there is no place for O so case:2 will be eliminated. Now with case:1.

Correct Answer: D. Tree <br>

Correct Answer: A. Only (i) <br>

Who among the following belongs to Lucknow? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: D. F <br>

for more join

E likes which natural site? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: D. Mountain <br>

Who sits third to the right of G? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: B. Both (I) & (III) <br>

Correct Answer: B. Both (I) & (III) <br>